05/08/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

MM : 720 Test - 24 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Topics covered : Complete Syllabus of Class XI and XII

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. The dimensional formula of electrical conductivity 3. The position of a particle along a straight line is
is denoted by the equation x  6  12t  t 3 . (Here x
(1) [MLT–3A–1] (2) [M–1L–3T3A2] is in metre and t is in second). The magnitude of
acceleration of the particle when it is at rest is
(3) [ML3T–3A–2] (4) [M–1L–3T4A2]
(1) 6 m/s2 (2) 12 m/s2
2. The speed-time (v-t) graph for a particle in
(3) 18 m/s2 (4) 24 m/s2
straight line motion is as shown. Average speed
from time t = 0 to t = 4 s 4. An object of mass 3 kg is at rest. If a force

F  3t 2iˆ  9 ˆj (N) acts on the object then velocity
of the object at t = 2 second (in m/s) is
8ˆ
(1) 72iˆ  12 jˆ (2) 6iˆ  j
3
8ˆ
(3) 32iˆ  6 jˆ (4) i  6 jˆ
3
5. A bullet of mass 5 gram leaves a rifle of mass
20 kg with a speed of 1000 m/s and strikes a wall
at same level with a speed of 500 m/s at a
(1) 5 m/s distance of 50 m from rifle. The work done by
(2) 12.5 m/s bullet in overcoming the air resistance is
(3) 15 m/s (1) 1875 J (2) 5000 J
(4) 20 m/s (3) 1250 J (4) 3750 J

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Test-24 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

6. On the surface of a planet of mass M and radius 9. A thin rod of mass M and length L is bent at its
R, the acceleration due to gravity is g. If we go on mid point at 110°. Moment of inertia of this bent
another planet of same density but half the radius rod about an axis perpendicular to the plane and
then on the new planet, the acceleration due to passing through mid-point as shown is
gravity
(1) Increases by 2g (2) Increases by g
(3) Decreases by 3g/4 (4) Decreases by g/2
7. Masses are kept at the corners of a regular
pentagon as shown. Distance between centroid
and any vertex of the pentagon is R. If another
point mass m0 is kept at the centroid of the ML2 ML2
(1) (2)
pentagon then force acting on m0 due to masses 3 12
is
ML2 ML2
(3) (4)
4 6
10. A solid cubical block of length 10 cm is put in
liquid A of density 1.2 g/cm3 floating over another
liquid B of density 7.2 g/cm3. If the density of
cubical block is 3.6 g/cm3 then the ratio of length
of block immersed in liquid A to liquid B is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
GMm0 (3) 3 : 2 (4) 1 : 4
(1) 2
R 11. Two isochoric lines for volume V1 and V2 are
shown on pressure-temperature (P-T) diagram
4GMm0
(2) below. It can be concluded that
R
4GMm0
(3)
R2
GMm0
(4)
2R 2
8. From a uniform circular disc of mass M and
R
radius R a small circular disc of radius has (1) V1 < V2 (2) V1 = V2
3
been cutout as shown. The centre of mass of the (3) V1 > V2 (4) Can’t be predicted
original disc shifts by a distance 12. An ideal monatomic gas at 27°C is compressed
8
suddenly to of its original volume
27
adiabatically. The rise in temperature of the gas
is
(1) 150 K (2) 375 K
(3) 435 K (4) 265 K
13. If the length of simple pendulum is increased by
1.44% then its time period will
R R (1) Decrease by 2.88%
(1) (2)
6 10 (2) Increase by 2.88%
R R (3) Decrease by 0.72%
(3) (4)
20 12 (4) Increase by 0.72%

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-24 (Code-A)

14. A standing wave having 3 nodes and 2 antinodes 20. In the circuit shown the reading of ammeter long
is formed in a string of length one metre. The time after the key is closed is
wavelength of standing wave is
(1) 0.25 m (2) 0.5 m
(3) 1 m (4) 2 m
15. The equation of a plane progressive wave is
  t x  
given by y  5 sin 2      , where x
  10 18  4 
and y are in cm and t is in second. Now which of
2
the following is true? (1) 2 A (2) A
3
(1) Wave velocity is 1.8 cm/s
(3) 1 A (4) Zero
(2) Natural frequency is 0.1 cps
21. The truth table given below belongs to
(3) Wavelength is 0.18 m
(4) All of these X Y Z
16. Two concentric conducting spheres of radii R and 0 0 0
r (R < r) have similar charges with equal surface
charge density . The electric potential at their 0 1 1
common centre is
1 0 1
(1)

 R2  r 2  (2)
 R  r 
0 0 1 1 0

  (1) NAND gate (2) NOR gate

(3) (4)
0  R  r  
0 R 2  r 2  (3) AND gate (4) XOR gate
22. The typical I-V characteristic graph for photo-
17. Four equal resistors R each are connected to
form a square ABCD, one in each side. If an diode is
electric potential V is applied between points
A and B then current flowing out of B is
3V 4V
(1) (2) (1) (2)
4R 3R
V V
(3) (4)
4R R
18. The ratio of the radii of the nuclei of
27
13Al and 52Te125 is
(3) (4)
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 3 : 5
(3) 9 : 25 (4) 27 : 125
19. In the circuit shown if the power consumed in 6  23. For an equilateral prism of material refractive
resistor is 24 W then the power consumed in
index   2 , the angle of minimum deviation is
4 resistor is
(1) 15° (2) 30°
(3) 45° (4) 60°
24. A rocket is fired vertically up with net acceleration
of 5 m/s2. After 10 second the fuel got exhausted.
Maximum height from the ground upto which the
rocket goes is (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 8 W (2) 16 W (1) 200 m (2) 325 m
(3) 32 W (4) 64 W (3) 375 m (4) 425 m

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Test-24 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

25. A projectile is thrown up with initial speed u 31. A hollow sphere of mass m and radius R is kept
making angle  with the horizontal. It reaches the on a rough horizontal surface. It is hit hard so that
maximum height H. If maximum height is to be it starts sliding with initial speed v. Its velocity of
doubled then initial speed of throw for same centre of mass when it starts pure rolling is
angle  is
2v 3v
(1) u (2) 2u (1) (2)
5 5
(3) 4u (4) 2u
5 3
26. In the arrangement shown, the coefficient of (3) v (4) v
7 5
friction between the block B (mass = 10 kg) and
the horizontal floor is  = 0.4. If the mass of the 32. An ideal gas undergoes a thermodynamic
hanging block A is 10 kg then the acceleration of process a b as shown on pressure-volume
the blocks is (pulley and string are ideal and (P – V) diagram. The work done by the gas
g = 10 m/s2) during this process.

(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2

(3) 3 m/s2 (4) 4 m/s2
(1) First decreases then increases
27. A block of mass m1 moving with speed u
undergoes head-on elastic collision with another (2) First increases then decreases
mass m2 at rest. The fraction of energy
(3) Continuously increases
transferred by m1 to m2 is
(4) Continuously decreases
 m1  m2   m1  m2 
2 2

(1) (2) 33. The capacitance of each capacitor C in the

 m1  m2   m1  m2 
2 2

network shown is 60 F. The equivalent

2m1m2 4m1m2 capacitance between points a and b is
(3) (4)
 m1  m2   m1  m2 
2 2

28. A block of mass m falls vertically on a horizontal

floor of coefficient of restitution e = 0.8. The
fraction of energy lost during collision is
(1) 0.64 (2) 0.80
(3) 0.20 (4) 0.36
29. A boy of mass 40 kg is standing at one end of a
floating boat of mass 200 kg. The boat is 6 m
long. If the boy moves to the other end of the
boat then the distance moved by the boat with
respect to the fixed ground is (1) 45 F (2) 80 F
(1) 6 m (2) 5 m (3) 60 F (4) 240 F
(3) 2 m (4) 1 m 34. A cylindrical metal rod of length L and cross-
30. A uniform wooden plank of mass 30 kg is kept on sectional area S is joined to an EMF source. The
two supports X and Y as shown. The length of drift speed of electrons in the rod is v. If this rod is
the plank is L. Reaction force applied by Y as
replaced by another rod of length 2L and cross-
shown is (g = 10 m/s2)
sectional area 2S then drift speed of electrons in
the new rod will be
v
(1) (2) v
2
(1) 100 N (2) 150 N
(3) 200 N (4) 250 N (3) 2v (4) 4v

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-24 (Code-A)

35. If e, m and h represent electronic charge, mass of 41. In a photoelectric experiment the stopping
electron and Planck’s constant respectively then potential V is plotted against applied frequency f
Bohr’s magneton is represented as for three different materials A, B and C as shown.
eh eh Which of the following materials has largest
(1) (2) threshold wavelength?
m 2m
eh 4eh
(3) (4)
4m m
36. Magnetic susceptibility is small and negative for
(1) Diamagnetic substances
(2) Paramagnetic substances
(3) Ferromagnetic substances
(4) All of these
37. Two induction coils of self induction 3 mH and (1) A (2) B
6 mH are connected in series. Their mutual
(3) C (4) All have same
induction is absent. The equivalent inductance is
(1) 2 mH (2) 9 mH 42. If potential energy of first excited state of
hydrogen atom is taken zero then kinetic energy
(3) 4 mH (4) 18 mH
of ground state electron in the hydrogen atom is
38. In the circuit shown, resistance/reactance of R, L
(1) 13.6 eV
and C are 40 , 80  and 50  respectively. The
supply emf is 250 V, 50 Hz AC. The RMS current (2) 20.4 eV
flowing in the circuit is (3) 3.4 eV
(4) 6.8 eV
43. A radioactive nuclei of mass M emits gamma ray
of wavelength . The recoil energy of the nuclei is
(symbols have usual meanings)
hc h
(1) (2)
 2M 
(1) 5 2 A (2) 5 A h2
(3) (4) Mc
5 2M  2
(3) A (4) 10 A
2 44. Two radioactive substances X and Y have decay
39. An astronomical telescope has an objective of constants 3 and  respectively. Initially they
focal length 100 cm and eye piece of focal length have same number of nuclei. The ratio of number
3
5 cm. Maximum magnification of this telescope is  1
of nuclei of X to those of Y will be   after a
(1) 20 (2) 21 e
(3) 22 (4) 24 time interval
40. In a Young’s double slit experiment in front of one 3 1
(1) (2)
of the slits a thin transparent sheet of thickness t 2 3
and refractive index  is inserted. The entire
2 1
fringe pattern will be shifted by a distance (3) (4)
(d – separation between slits; D – distance of 3 
screen from the slits and  – wavelength of light 45. The input resistance of a CE amplifier is 5 k and
used) the load resistance is 20 k. If the current gain is

(1)
   1 tD (2)
   1 D 100 then mutual conductance of the transistor
 d used is
(1) 10–3 –1 (2) 2 × 10–3 –1
(3)
   1 tD (4)
   1 td
d D (3) 20 × 10–3 –1 (4) 50 –1

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Test-24 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

CHEMISTRY
46. The correct order of first ionization enthalpy is 54. The metal which is purified by zone refining is
(1) B > Be (2) Si > Al (1) Zr (2) Ti
(3) N < P (4) Na > Mg (3) Ni (4) Ge
47. In which of the following processes, the bond 55. The pH of the resulting solution formed by mixing
order is decreased? 10 mL, 0.2 M Ca(OH)2 and 20 mL, 0.1 M HCl is

(1) CO  CO (2) O2  O2 (1) 11.7 (2) 12.8
(3) 13.2 (4) 10.4
(3) N2  N2 (4) O22   O 2
56. The metal which does not form ammonium nitrate
48. The ratio of coordination number of cation to by reaction with very dilute nitric acid is
anion in ZnS (sphalerite) structure is
(1) Zn (2) Fe
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 1
(3) Sn (4) Mg
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 2 : 3
57. Unit of cell constant is
49. In the following gaseous phase first order
reaction (1) cm–2 (2) cm2

A(g)  2B(g)  C(g) (3) cm (4) cm–1

58. A gas has vapour density equal to 11.2. The
Initial pressure was observed to be 200 mmHg
and after 20 minutes, it changed to 400 mmHg. volume occupied by 1 g of the gas at STP will be
The rate constant for the reaction is (1) 11.2 L (2) 22.4 L
–1 –1
(1) 0.035 min (2) 0.055 min (3) 1 L (4) 10 L
–1 –1
(3) 0.693 min (4) 0.115 min 59. The elevation in boiling point of solution of 10 g of
50. Reaction of diborane with excess ammonia at a binary electrolyte (molar mass 100) in
very low temperature produces 100 g of water is Tb. The value of Kb for water is
(1) B2H6·2NH3 (2) (BN)x Tb
(1) (2) Tb
(3) B3N3H6 (4) BH3 NH3 2
51. Identify the disproportionation reaction among the Tb
following (3) 10Tb (4)
10
(1) I2  H2S  2HI  S 60. Reagent which does not give acid chloride on
treating with a carboxylic acid is
(2) P4  3OH  3H2O  PH 3  3H2PO 2
(1) PCl5 (2) Cl2
(3) BrO3  F2  2OH  BrO 4  2F   H2O (3) SOCl2 (4) PCl3
(4) Fe2O3  2Al  Al2O3  2Fe 61. Bredig’s arc method cannot be used to prepare
colloidal solution of
52. The magnetic moment (in B.M.) of complex
[Co(H2O)6]3+ is (1) Pt (2) Hg
(1) 4.89 (2) 3.87 (3) Ag (4) Au
(3) Zero (4) 2.82 62. Equivalent mass of Na2CO3 when titrated with
53. The sugar moiety present in DNA and RNA HCl using phenolphthalein indicator will be
molecules respectively is (1) 106 (2) 53
(1) -D-2-deoxyribose, -D-ribose (3) 5.3 (4) 10.6
(2) -D-2-deoxyribose, -D-2-deoxyribose 63. Molecule which has highest boiling point is
(3) -D-ribose, -D-2-deoxyribose (1) NH3 (2) PH3
(4) -D-ribose, -D-ribose (3) SbH3 (4) BiH3
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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-24 (Code-A)

71. Number of moles of carbon atoms present in

compound, A is
64.

The above reaction is known as

(1) Etard reaction
(1) 2 (2) 1
(2) Gattermann Koch reaction (3) 4 (4) 3.5
(3) Stephen’s reduction 72. 280 ml of sulphur vapours at NTP weigh 3.2 g.
(4) Rosenmund reduction The molecular formula of the sulphur vapour is
65. Monomer of orlon is (1) S (2) S2

(1) Vinyl cyanide (2) Acrolein (3) S4 (4) S8

73. Which shell would be the first to have
(3) Glycol (4) Isoprene
g-subshell?
66. The product A is
(1) 4th (2) 5th
(3) 6th (4) 7th
74. Consider the following statements/formula for the
electron in H-atom
2.18  1018
a. En  J atom1
(1) (2) n2
1
b. E total   PE
2

(3) (4) c. Number of revolutions per second in an orbit

1
 3
n
67. Barbituric acid is used as a/an
Correct statement/formula is/are
(1) Antipyretic (2) Antiseptic
(1) a and b only (2) b and c only
(3) Antibiotic (4) Tranquilizer
(3) a and c only (4) a, b and c
68. The reaction
75. Which of the following has negative value?
(1) Eo (2) Eo
Cr /Cr 2 Mn/Mn2

has maximum rate when x is (3) Eo (4) Eo

Cu/Cu2 Ni/Ni2
(1) Cl (2) NH2
76. Which one of the following electrolytes is least
(3) OC2H5 (4) OCOR effective for coagulation of the sol formed by
69. Which of the following is mixed anhydride? adding FeCl3 to excess of hot water?

(1) N2O5 (2) N2O3 (1) K3[Fe(CN)6] (2) K2CrO4

(3) KBr (4) K2SO4
(3) NO (4) N2O4
70. IUPAC name of the given compound will be 

77. In the reaction A  B 
 C  D , if initially the
concentration of both A and B are equal but at
equilibrium, concentration of D is twice that of A,
then equilibrium constant of the reaction will be
(1) Propane-1,2,3-tricarbonitrile
4 9
(2) Propane-1,2,3-tricyanide (1) (2)
9 4
(3) 3-cyanopentane-1, 5-dinitrile 1
(3) (4) 4
(4) 1, 5-dicyanopropane-2-nitrile 4

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Test-24 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

78. During the electrolysis of aqueous solution of 85. Identify ‘A’ in the given reaction
CuSO4, the products obtained at cathode and
anode are respectively
(1) H2, O2 (2) Cu, H2
(3) O2, Cu (4) Cu, O2
79. Which of the following is not correct for K2Cr2O7? (1) Zn-Hg/HCl

(1) 6(Cr – O) bonds are equivalent (2) H2N – NH2/OH(–), (CH2OH)2

(2) Equivalent mass is M/6 in acidic medium (3) H2/Ni

(3) Cr – O – Cr bond angle is more than 100° (4) NaBH4
(4) Its colour is yellow 86. Reaction of R – CONH2 with Br2/KOH gives
80. Percentage strength of H2O2 sample having R – NH2 as the main product. The intermediate
volume strength 10 vol. will be approx. involved in this reaction is
(1) 3% (2) 6% (1) R – N = C = O
(3) 10% (4) 90% (2)
81. In Kjeldahl’s method, the nitrogen is estimated by
knowing the equivalents of
(3) R – NH – Br
(1) N2 formed
(2) NH3 formed
(4)
(3) NO2 formed
(4) N2O3 formed
87. Which of the following cannot reduce Fehling’s
82. Benzyl alcohol can be obtained from solution?
benzaldehyde by
(1) HCOOH (2) CH3 – COOH
(1) Fittig’s reaction
(3) HCHO (4) CH3 – CHO
(2) Cannizzaro’s reaction
88. Maximum oxidising power will be of
(3) Kolbe’s reaction
(4) Wurtz’s reaction (1) HClO (2) HClO2

83. In glycerine (3) HClO3 (4) HClO4

(1) One primary –OH group is present 89. The product(s) formed when Mg reacts with SO2
(2) One tertiary –OH group is present is/are

(3) Two secondary –OH groups are present (1) MgO only
(4) One secondary –OH group is present (2) MgSO4 only
(3) Sulphur only

84. In the reaction, (4) Both (1) and (3)

90. Which of the following compounds is most
The major product A is reactive towards electrophilic substitution
reaction?

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-24 (Code-A)

BOTANY
91. Identify the wrong statement w.r.t. 99. Chemical composition of chromosome is/are
megasporogenesis. a. DNA b. RNA
(1) MMC is a large cell containing dense c. Acidic proteins d. Histone proteins
cytoplasm and a prominent nucleus
e. Lipid
(2) Usually micropylar megaspore remains
functional (1) a and c only (2) b and d only
(3) MMC generally forms at micropylar region (3) d, c and e only (4) All a, b, c, d and e
(4) Oenothera has monosporic embryo sac 100. Biomagnification of DDT
92. Pyramid of biomass in terrestrial ecosystem is (1) Disturbs calcium metabolism in birds
usually (2) Causes thickening of egg shell in birds
(1) Inverted (2) Spindle shaped (3) Is decreased at each higher successive
(3) Upright (4) Both (1) and (2) trophic levels
93. For a turgid cell (4) Causes eutrophication in lakes
(1) DPD = OP (2) DPD = 0 101. Organisms having cellular body organisation and
with ability to oxidise various inorganic
(3) OP  TP (4) DPD = TP
substances and use the released energy for their
94. Mark the odd one w.r.t. the tissues of bark. ATP production; are
(1) Pith + primary xylem A. Nitrifying bacteria of Kingdom Monera in
(2) Secondary phloem + periderm Linnaeus’s system.
(3) Secondary phloem + cork cambium B. Sulphur bacteria belonging to Kingdom
(4) Phellem + phelloderm Protista in Haeckel’s system.
95. Choose the odd one w.r.t critical elements. C. Holophytic protistans.
(1) N (2) P D. Non-pigmented iron bacteria of Kingdom
Monera in Whittaker’s system.
(3) Fe (4) K
(1) A, B and D are correct
96. Read the following statements and select the
correct ones w.r.t. DNA structure. (2) A and B are correct
A. Two nucleotides are linked through 3-5 (3) C and D are correct
phosphodiester linkage. (4) B and D are correct
B. Pyrimidine nucleosides have 1-1 linkage. 102. Find the correct match w.r.t. PGRs.
C. Base pairing confers stability of DNA helix. a. Promotes the (i) ABA
D. Purines are heterocyclic, 6 membered single abscission of
ring structures. older, mature
(1) C and D (2) Only B leaves and fruits
(3) All except D (4) Only C b. Increases the (ii) Cytokinin
97. Which of the following have ds DNA? length of grape
stalk
(1) Bacteriophage
(2) Eukaryotes c. Adventitious shoot (iii) Gibberellin
(3) Tobacco Mosaic virus (TMV) formation

(4) Both (1) and (2) d. Increases the (iv) Auxins

98. During complete oxidation of one molecule of tolerance of plants
3-phosphoglyceraldehyde, how many reduced to various kinds of
coenzymes are formed? stresses
(1) 7 (2) 6 (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(3) 12 (4) 5 (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)

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Test-24 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

103. A – Cell division is itself a mode of reproduction

in protists and monerans.
B – Neelakuranji is annual with distinct vegetative,
reproductive and senescent phase.
C – In majority of organisms, male gamete is
motile and the female gamete is stationary.
(1) All A, B and C are correct (1) PKU
(2) Both A and B are correct (2) Sickle cell anemia
(3) Only B is incorrect (3) Myotonic dystrophy
(4) Only A is incorrect (4) Cystic fibrosis
104. Porphyra differs from Fucus in 109. The adapter molecules for tryptophan and
methionine during polypeptide synthesis are
(1) Absence of sexual reproduction
(2) Absence of cellulose in cell wall
(3) Photosynthetic pigment of reaction centre in (1)
photosystem
(4) Nature of male gametes and spores
105. A lateral branch with short internodes and each
node bearing a rosette of leaves and a tuft of (2)
roots is modified sub-aerial stem for
(1) Vegetative propagation in terrestrial plant
(2) Perennation in terrestrial plant
(3)
(3) Vegetative propagation in aquatic plants
(4) Assimilatory function in Asparagus
106. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Apospory - Diploid egg
(4)
(2) Apomictic embryo - Nucellar embryo
(3) False fruits - Unfertilized ovary
(4) Perispermic seed - Blackpepper 110. Tissue culture technique applied for the recovery
107. What is incorrect for Morgan’s dihybrid cross of healthy plants from diseased plants is
considering body colour and eye colour in fruit (1) Somatic hybridisation
fly? (2) Embryo culture
(1) Parental line had yellow body and white eyed (3) Androgenic culture
female (4) Meristem culture
(2) All F1 male progeny were wild type 111. A bioactive molecule used as an
(3) Parental type F2 progeny were 98.7% immunosuppressive agent in organ transplant
patients is _______ obtained from _______.
(4) Male progeny with recombinant traits were
(1) Clot buster, Streptococcus
0.65% in F2 generation
(2) TPA, Streptobacillus
108. The given pedigree chart represents the
(3) Cyclosporin A, Trichoderma polysporum
inheritance of all of the given genetic disorders,
except (4) Statins, Monascus purpureus

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-24 (Code-A)

112. Which of the given part of chromosome seal the 121. Which of the given plastids store fats and oils?
ends of chromosome and prevent their (1) Elaioplast (2) Amyloplast
shortening or, chromosome loss?
(3) Aleuroplast (4) Chromoplast
(1) Centromere
122. The best stage to study shapes of chromosome
(2) Primary constriction is
(3) Telomere (1) Prophase (2) Telophase
(4) Kinetochore (3) Metaphase (4) Anaphase
113. Most effective device to remove particulate 123. Duplication of semi-autonomous cell organelles
matter present in the exhaust released from a occur in which of the given phases of cell cycle
thermal power plant is events?
(1) Scrubber (1) G1 (2) S

(2) Catalytic converters (3) G2 (4) G0

124. Deficiency symptoms like chlorosis, inhibition of
(3) Electrostatic precipitator
cell division and delayed flowering are commonly
(4) Ear muffs caused by deficiency of which of the given sets of
114. Which of the given taxonomic categories is elements in plants?
assemblage of families which exhibit a few similar (1) Mg, Mn, Zn (2) Cu, Ca, Mg
characters inspite of many differences? (3) N, S, Mo (4) Mo, Mn, Zn
(1) Kingdom (2) Species 125. First action spectrum of photosynthesis was
(3) Order (4) Class described by
115. Which of the given fungi causes rust disease in (1) Joseph Priestley (2) P. Mitchell
wheat? (3) T. W. Engelmann (4) C. V. Niel
(1) Agaricus (2) Puccinia 126. How many generations of mitosis are required for
(3) Ustilago (4) Alternaria producing 64 cells?

116. Cellulose is present in the cell wall of (1) 64 (2) 32

a. Euglena b. Volvox (3) 8 (4) 6

127. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. given
c. Plasmodium d. Albugo
diagram.
e. Neurospora
(1) b and d (2) a, c and e
(3) b, c and e (4) All except a
117. Select the odd one w.r.t. green algae
(1) Volvox (2) Chlamydomonas
(3) Chara (4) Porphyra
118. Which of the given is ornamental plant of family-
solanaceae? (1) It is shown by all cells, tissues and organs of
a plant
(1) Lupin (2) Tulip
(2) Both division and differentiation occur
(3) Gloriosa (4) Petunia
simultaneously
119. Conjoint open vascular bundle is found in (3) It occurs at constant rate
(1) Dicot root (2) Dicot stem (4) Gives linear curve when growth plotted
(3) Monocot root (4) Monocot stem against time
120. Ribosomes present in prokaryotic cells has a 128. How many gametes can be obtained with a plant
larger subunit of with genotype AaBBCc
(1) 60 S (2) 50 S (1) 4 (2) 8
(3) 40 S (4) 30 S (3) 6 (4) 5

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129. Substitution of a purine base with a pyrimidine 133. In sewage treatment plants, the soil and small
base or vice versa is called pebbles are removed by
(1) Transition (2) Transversion (1) Sequential filtration in primary settling tank
(3) Deletion (4) Insertion (2) Sedimentation during primary treatment
130. How many ATPs are required to produce (3) Sedimentation in aeration tank
4 molecules of NH3 w.r.t. nitrogen fixation?
(4) The action of aerobic microbes in aeration
(1) 16 (2) 8 tank
(3) 32 (4) 24 134. The pioneer community on rocks is
131. Which of the given is a start codon w.r.t. genetic (1) Herbs
code?
(2) Shrubs
(1) AUG (2) UAA
(3) Forest
(3) UAG (4) UGA
(4) Lichens
132. In photosynthetic pathway of Sorghum plant,
C4-acids are decarboxylated in ________ to start 135. Which of the given is most important cause
_______ enzyme activity. driving animals and plants to extinction?

(1) Mesophyll; PEPcase (1) Alien species invasion

(2) Bundle sheath cell; RuBisCO (2) Over-exploitation
(3) Mesophyll; RuBisCO (3) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(4) Bundle sheath cell, PEPcase (4) Co-extinctions

ZOOLOGY
136. Select the odd one w.r.t. the hormones secreted 140. Select the incorrect statement
from the thyroid gland (1) PCT is lined by brush border epithelium to
(1) Calcitonin (2) Parathormone minimise resorption of nutrients
(3) Triiodothyronine (4) Thyroxine (2) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is
impermeable to water
137. The ear ossicles in the middle ear which are
attached to one another in a chain-like fashion (3) Collecting duct extends from the cortex of
the kidney to the inner parts of the medulla
(1) Increase the efficiency of transmission of
(4) The counter current between the Henle’s loop
sound waves to the inner ear
and vasa recta helps in maintaining an
(2) Help in equalising the pressures on either increasing osmolarity towards the inner
sides of the ear drum medullary interstitium
(3) Connect the inner ear with the trachea 141. The term ‘molecular scissors’ refers to
(4) Divide the perilymph filled middle ear cavity (1) DNA ligases
into an upper scala vestibuli and a lower (2) Plasmid DNA
scala tympani
(3) Palindromic sequence
138. Which of the following is a fungal disease?
(4) Restriction enzymes
(1) Ascariasis (2) Filariasis 142. The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium will not be
(3) Ringworm (4) Kala-azar affected by
139. Person belonging to which blood group has anti- (1) Natural selection
A and anti-B antibodies in his plasma? (2) Genetic drift
(1) O (2) B (3) Random mating in a large population
(3) A (4) AB (4) Mutations
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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-24 (Code-A)

143. Select the hormone that acts on the uterine 151. An ART which involves in-vitro fertilisation is
muscle and causes strong uterine contractions (1) ICSI (2) GIFT
which in turn stimulates its further secretion
(3) IUI (4) AI
(1) FSH (2) Oxytocin
152. Select the false statement about general
(3) Progesterone (4) LH characters of chondrichthyes
144. Choose the mismatch w.r.t. the type of joint and (1) Sexes are separate and fertilisation is internal
its location (2) In males, pelvic fins bear claspers to transfer
(1) Pivot joint – Between atlas and axis sperms while mating
(2) Cartilaginous – Between cranial bones (3) Gill slits are without operculum, absence of
joint air bladder
(3) Hinge joint – Knee joint (4) Sharks use claspers to hold the prey while
(4) Ball and – Between humerus and feeding
socket joint pectoral girdle 153. Select the correct match
145. Eustachian tube connects the (1) Goblet cells – secrete succus entericus
(1) Cochlea with the cochlear nerve (2) Lysozyme – antibacterial agent present in
saliva
(2) Middle ear cavity with the pharynx
(3) Bile – proteolytic in nature
(3) External auditory canal with the malleus
(4) Pancreas – secretes rennin
(4) Stapes to the oval window of the cochlea
154. Among the following statements choose the
146. First heart sound ‘Lub’ is due to
correct statement w.r.t cockroach.
(1) Filling of ventricles under pressure (1) Male reproductive system consists of a pair
(2) Closure of semilunar valves of testes one lying on each lateral side in the
(3) Contraction of the atria 8th to 12th abdominal segments
(4) Closure of the atrio-ventricular valves (2) Mushroom gland is present in 4th to 6th
147. The most abundant of all the cells in blood are abdominal segments in male
(1) Neutrophils (2) Lymphocytes (3) The development of P. americana is
paurometabolous, nymph grows by moulting
(3) Erythrocytes (4) Thrombocytes
about 18 times to reach the adult form
148. Total volume of air a person can expire after a
(4) In female, a pair of spermatheca are present
normal inspiration is equal to
in the 6th abdominal segment which opens
(1) RV (2) TV + ERV
into genital chamber
(3) ERV + RV (4) TLC 155. Which of the following is a correct match
149. All of the following sentences are true except regarding the group and its example?
(1) Enzyme-substrate complex is highly reactive Group Example
and is short-lived (1) Aves – Columba
(2) Change in tertiary structure of enzyme can (2) Reptilia – Macaca
alter its activity
(3) Mammalia – Scoliodon
(3) Low temperature preserves the enzyme in a
(4) Chondrichthyes – Calotes
temporarily inactive state
156. Which of the following methods of animal
(4) Denatured protein can be restored to its
breeding involves mating of animals within the
original state by lowering of temperature same breed but having no common ancestors on
150. The cranial capacity of Neanderthal man was either side of their pedigree upto 4-6
about generations?
(1) 800 cc (2) 1400 cc (1) Close inbreeding (2) Out-breeding
(3) 900 cc (4) 1100 cc (3) Cross-breeding (4) MOET

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Test-24 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

157. Mule is a result of 163. Which type of cartilage is present in the larynx
(1) Inbreeding and tracheal rings?

(2) Outcrossing (1) White fibrous cartilage

(3) Cross-breeding (2) Elastic cartilage

(4) Interspecific hybridisation (3) Hyaline cartilage

(4) Calcified cartilage
158. Select the odd one w.r.t. type of ends obtained
after restriction enzyme digestion 164. Malaria is caused by a
(1) BamH I (2) Eco RI (1) Helminth (2) Protist
(3) Pst I (4) Sma I (3) Virus (4) Fungus
159. Given below are four statements a to d. Choose 165. Choose the correct match
the option which correctly states, whether they (1) Pancreas – α-cells produce a peptide
are true or false. hormone which enhances
a. Mutation cannot bring about genetic variation. cellular uptake and utilization
of glucose
b. If the allele frequency of R is 0.70, then the
allele frequency of r is 0.7 (2) Parathyroid – Secretes PTH which
decreases the blood calcium
c. Ernst Haeckel on the basis of his work on levels
evening primrose, brought forth the idea of
(3) Vasopressin – Reabsorption of water from
mutation.
nephric filtrate
d. Sweet potato and potato are analogous
(4) Oxytocin – Synthesis of melanin pigment
structure
166. Which of the following cancer detection methods
a b c d
uses strong magnetic fields and non-ionising
(1) F F F T radiations to detect pathological changes in the
(2) T T T T living tissue?
(3) T F F F (1) CT (2) MRI
(4) T F T T (3) X-rays (4) Chemotherapy
160. If the nature favours those individuals in the 167. Which of the following statements is correct?
population which possess the mean character (1) GEAC makes decisions regarding the validity
value of a trait, then which kind of natural of GM research and the safety of introducing
selection is said to be operating? GM-organisms for public services
(1) Disruptive (2) Stabilising (2) The first gene therapy was done for blood
(3) Directional (4) Rotating cancer

161. Enzymes ______ the activation energy required (3) Golden rice is enhanced crop rich in vitamin
for a reaction. Choose the option which fills the K
blank correctly (4) Rosie, the first transgenic cow, produced
(1) Increase (2) Maintain human protein used to treat emphysema

(3) Lower (4) Do not affect 168. Bt toxin gene cryIAb is used to control

162. Cornea is (1) Corn borer

(2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(1) Highly vascular and richly supplied by nerves
(3) Thermus aquaticus
(2) Transparent and acts as a light refracting
structure (4) Meloidogyne incognita
(3) Deeply pigmented with melanin 169. An example of non-proteinaceous enzyme is
(4) Regulated by iridial muscles for controlling (1) Ribozyme (2) Amylase
the amount of light entering in eye (3) Maltase (4) Lipase

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-24 (Code-A)

170. A hormone whose mechanism of action involves 176. Following is a diagrammatic representation of the
interacting with intracellular receptors mostly anatomy of a muscle fibre showing a sarcomere.
regulating gene expression or chromosome
function by the interaction of hormone-receptor
complex with the genome is
(1) Insulin (2) Glucagon
(3) Prolactin (4) Cortisol
171. Which of the following plasma proteins mainly Which of the labelled parts represent region with
help in fighting infectious agents? only thin actin filaments?
(1) Fibrinogen (2) Globulins (1) A and C (2) D
(3) Albumin (4) Heparin (3) C and D (4) B and C
172. If an alien DNA is inserted within the coding 177. Vomit centre which regulates the ejection of
sequence of ampR then the recombinants will stomach contents through mouth is located in
(1) Lose resistance to tetracycline (1) Frontal lobe
(2) Grow in medium containing tetracycline (2) Corpus callosum
(3) Grow in medium containing ampicillin (3) Hypothalamus
(4) Lose resistance to both ampicillin and (4) Medulla oblongata
tetracycline 178. A condition associated with lowering of blood
173. Select the organism which is ureotelic Ca2+ levels manifesting in the form of sustained
(1) Pigeon (2) Monkey contraction of muscles is
(3) Cockroach (4) Snake (1) Rheumatoid arthritis

174. All of the following structures are present in a (2) Hyperthyroidism

female cockroach except (3) Tetany
(1) Compound eyes (4) Grave’s disease
(2) A pair of jointed filamentous structures called 179. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
anal cerci
(1) Heart – Mesodermally
(3) Anal styles derived organ
(4) Metathoracic wings
(2) Hepatic – Carries blood from
175. Choose the false statement portal vein liver to the intestine
(1) Vasa recta is absent or highly reduced in
(3) Adrenal – Increases the cardiac
cortical nephrons
medullary output
(2) The Malpighian corpuscles are situated in the hormone
cortical region of the kidney
(4) Heart – Prevent backflow of
(3) In juxta medullary nephrons, the loop of valves blood
Henle extends only very little into the medulla
180. pCO2 (in mmHg) in alveolus is about
(4) Podocytes are epithelial cells of Bowman’s
capsule and are arranged in an intricate (1) 96 (2) 40
manner forming slit pores (3) 45 (4) 0.3

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Edition: 2020-21