07/11/2020 CoE-XII

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NCERT BOOSTER TEST SERIES

Test No. –03

Topics covered in various subjects:

Physics : System of particles and Rotational motion, Gravitation, Mechanical Properties of solids
Chemistry: Equilibrium, Redox reactions

Botany : Cell Cycle and Cell Division, Transport in Plants

Zoology : Neural Control and Coordination

Choose the correct answer:

1. Three particles of mass 10 g, 15 g and 20 g are
placed at the vertices of equilateral triangle of
side of 0.1 m as shown. Centre of mass will be
located at the point

 5 1   1 15  5 5  5 5 
(1)  , (1)  m, m  (2)  m, m 
m (2)  , m
6 6  2 2 
 18 3 3   3 3 18 

 1 1  1 1  5 5  5 5 
(3)  m, m  (4)  m, m 
(3)  , m (4)  , m  2 6  3 3 
 15 3 18   18 15 3 
4. A projectile, following the usual parabolic
2. Mass is distributed uniformly over a thin
triangular lamina. If co-ordinates of vertices are trajectory, explodes into fragments midway in
(– 6, 2)m, (2,6)m and (4, – 8) m then the Co- air. The centre of mass of fragments will follow
ordinates of centre of mass is
(1) Horizontal rectilinear path
(1) (0,0) (2) (–3,2)m
(2) Vertical rectilinear path
3 5  7 4
(3)  ,  m (4)  – ,  m (3) Any parabolic path
2 3  2 7
3. A uniform L-shaped lamina (a thin flat plate) with (4) Same parabolic path
dimensions as shown. If the mass of the lamina
is 6kg then the centre of mass of lamina is
NBTS-03 CoE-XII
5. The motion of centre of mass, of a system of
particles depends
(1) On the external forces
(2) On the internal forces
(3) On the nature of the system of particles
(4) All of these
6. A boy sits stationary at one end of a long trolley
moving uniformly with a speed 20 km/h on a
smooth horizontal floor. If the boy gets up and
runs with a speed 3km/h on the trolley in the
same direction, the speed of the CM of the
(trolley + boy) system is
(1) 20 km/h (2) 3 km/h
(1) 98 N (2) 200 N
(3) 23 km/h (4) 17 km/h
7. Select incorrect option about the vector product (3) 65.3 N (4) 76 N

(1) The scalar product of two vectors is 11. A rigid rod of negligible mass of length L with a
commutative pair of small masses, rotating about an axis
(2) The scalar product of two vectors is through the centre of mass perpendicular to the
distributive with respect to vector condition. rod as shown in the figure. The moment of
(3) The vector product of two vectors is inertia of the masses is
commutative
(4) The vector product of two vectors is
distributive with respect to vector addition
8. The vector products of two vectors,
 
   
a  3iˆ – 4 ˆj  2kˆ and b  – iˆ  2 ˆj – kˆ , is

(1) ˆi – ˆj  2Kˆ (2) 2iˆ  ˆj – 2kˆ

(3) – ˆj  2kˆ (4) ˆj  2kˆ

ML2 ML2
9. The magnitude of the area of the triangle (1) (2)
2 4

contained between the vector a  2iˆ  ˆj  kˆ and
(2) ML2 (4) 2ML2

b  – iˆ  3 ˆj  4kˆ , is 12. The radius of gyration of the circular disc of
131 radius R about its diameter is
(1) 131 unit (2) unit
2
R
(1) R (2)
131 2
(3) Unit (4) 131 unit
2
R R
10. A 5m long ladder weighing 10 kg leans on a (3) (4)
2 2 2
frictionless wall. Its feet rest on the floor 4 m
from the wall. The reaction force of the wall is
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13. A rope of negligible mass is wound round a torque of 80 Nm. If the efficiency of engine is
hollow cylinder of mass 2 Kg and radius 20 cm. 100%, then the power required by the engine is
If the rope is pulled with a force of 10 N then the (1) 8 kW (2) 18 kW
linear acceleration of the rope is (2) 9 kW (4) 36 kW
(1) 10 m/s2 (2) 25 m/s2 19. A rigid body is in mechanical equilibrium if
(3) 150 m/s2 (4) 5 m/s2 (1) It is in translational equilibrium only
14. A hoop of radius 1 m weighs 50 kg. It is rolling (2) It is in rotational equilibrium only
without slipping along a horizontal floor so that (3) It is in translational as well as rotational
its centre of mass has a speed 10 cm/s. The equilibrium
work done to stop it, is
(4) It is neither in translational nor in rotational
(1) 4J (2) 0.5 J equilibrium
(3) 2J (4) 1J 20. The centre of gravity of an extended body is that
15. A solid cylinder rolls up an inclined plane of point where
angle of inclination 37°. At the bottom of the (1) The total mass of the body is assumed to be
inclined plane the centre of mass of the cylinder concentrated
has a speed of 4m/s. The maximum distance
(2) The total torque on the body is zero
covered by the cylinder on the plane is
(3) The total gravitational torque on the body is
(1) 3.8 m (2) 2 m
zero
(3) 4.6 m (4) 3 m
(4) The total force is zero
16. A solid cylinder of mass 10kg rotates about its
21. According to Kepler, the law of area can be
axis with angular speed 50 rad s–1. The radius
understood as a consequence of conservation of
of the cylinder is 0.1 m. The magnitude of
(1) Linear momentum
angular momentum of the cylinder about its axis
(2) Angular momentum
is
(3) Mass
(1) 6.25 Js (2) 2.5 Js
(4) Energy
(3) 10 Js (4) 5 Js
22. The figure shows an elliptical orbit of a planet
17. A child stands at the centre of a turntable with
about the sun S. If t1 is the time for planet to
his two arms outstretched. The turntable is set
traverse BAC and t2 is the time to traverse CPB
rotating with an angular speed of 60 rev/min If
then
he folds his hands back and thereby reduces his
1
moment of inertia to times the initial value
4
then the angular speed of child is
(1) 8 rev/min (2) 240 rev/min
(3) 4 rev/min (4) 100 rev/min
18. To maintain a rotor at a uniform angular speed
(1) t1 = 2t2 (2) t1 < t2
of 100 rads–1, an engine needs to transmit a
(3) t1 > t2 (4) t1 = t2

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23. In considering the motion of an object under the mgR
(1) (2) mgR
gravitational influence of another object a 8
physical quantity which is not conserved, is
mgR mgR
(3) (4)
(1) Angular momentum 4 2

(2) Total mechanical Energy 27. A body weighs 54 N on the surface of the Earth.
The gravitational force on it due to earth at a
(3) Linear momentum
height equal to half of the radius of the earth is
(4) All of these
(1) 63 N (2) 45 N
24. An astronaut experiences weightlessness in a
space satellite. It is because (3) 24 N (4) 20 N

(1) Only astronaut is in ‘free fall’ towards the 28. The escape speed of a body from the earth does
earth not depend on

(2) Only satellite is in “free fall” towards the (1) The mass of the body
earth
(2) The location from where it is projected
(3) Astronaut and satellite (both) are in “free
fall” towards the earth (3) The direction of projection

(4) Gravitational force is small at that location in (4) All of these

space
29. The escape speed of a projectile on the earth’s
25. Three masses of 1Kg, 1Kg, and 2Kg are placed surface is 11.2 kms–1. A body is projected with
at the vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC as twice this speed. The speed of the body far
shown. The force acting on a mass 2 kg placed away from the earth is nearly
at the centroid G of the triangle is
(1) 16kms–1 (2) 20kms–1
[Take AG = BG = CG = 1m]
(3) 15kms–1 (4) 19kms–1
30. The most accurate expression for the
gravitational potential energy associated with
two particles of masses m1 and m2, separated
by a distance r, is

Gm1m2
(1) 6.67 × 10–11 N (2) 13.34 × 10–11 N (1) U  –
r
(3) 26.68 × 10–11 N (4) Zero
Gm1m2
(2) U  –
26. A satellite of mass m is in a circular orbit of 2r
radius 2R about the Earth. The energy required Gm1m2
(3) U  –  K (constant)
to transfer it to a circular orbit of radius 4 R is [R r
is radius of Earth]
Gm1m2
(4) U  –  k (constant)
2r

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31. The most accurate formula for the difference of 34. Assuming the earth to be a sphere of uniform
potential energy between two points r2 and r1 mass density if a body weighed 200 N on the

distance away from the centre of earth is surface of the earth thus the weight of it at half
way down to the centre of earth is
[Symbols have their usual meaning]

 1 1 (1) 50 N (2) 100 N

(1) GMm   
 r2 r1 
(3) 40 N (4) 20 N
(2) mg[r2 – r1]

35. Two spheres, each of mass 10 kg and radius

 1 1
(3) GMm     K (constant) 0.20 m, are placed 2 m apart on a horizontal
 r2 r1 
table. The gravitational potential at mid-point of
(4) mg [r2  r1]  K (constant) the line joining the centres of the spheres, is

32. If potential energy is assumed to be zero at

(1) –2.7 × 10–8 J/kg
infinity then

(1) The total energy of an orbiting satellite is (2) –2.4 × 10–7 J/kg
negative of its potential energy.
(3) –3.2 × 10–9 J/kg
(2) The total energy of an orbiting satellite is
twice of its potential energy
(4) –1.3 × 10–9 J/kg
(3) The total energy of an orbiting satellite is
negative of its kinetic energy 36. Bulk modulus is defined for

(4) The total energy of an orbiting satellite is

(1) Solids only
twice of its kinetic energy

33. The energy required to launch an orbiting (2) Liquids only

satellite out of earth’s gravitational influence is
(3) Gases only
(1) More than the energy required to project a
stationary object at the same height (as the
(4) Solids, liquids and gases
satellite) out of earth’s influence

(2) Less than the energy required to project a 37. A structural steel rod has a radius of 20 mm and
stationary object at the same height (as the a length of 2.0 m. If a 10 kN force stretches it
satellite) out of earth’s influence along its length then stress produced in it is
nearly
(3) Twice the energy required to project a
stationary object at the same height (as the
(1) 3 × 108 Nm–2 (2) 3 × 106 Nm–2
satellite) out of earth’s influence

(4) Zero (3) 6 × 108 Nm–2 (4) 8 × 106 Nm–2

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38. A steel wire of length 4 m and cross-section area 42. A steel cable with a radius of 1 cm supports a
2× 10–5 m2 stretches by the same amount as a chairlift at a ski area. If the maximum stress is
copper wire of length 2.5 m and cross-section not to exceed 108 N/m2, the maximum load, the
area of 4 × 10–5 m2 under a given load. The ratio cable can support is
of Young’s modulus of steel to that of copper is
(1) 7 × 10–4 N (2) 6.28 × 104 N
(1) 1.2 (2) 1.8
(3) 3.14 × 104 N (4) 31.4 × 104 N
(3) 2.5 (4) 3.2
43. A glass slab is subjected to a hydraulic pressure
39. The average depth of an ocean is about 2200 m, if of 5 atm, the fractional change in volume of
the bulk modulus of water is 2.2 × 109 Nm–2, then glass slab is
V
the fractional compression of water is [Bulk modulus for glass = 37 GPa]
V

(1) 3.12 × 10–8 (2) 1.35 × 10–5

(1) 0.2 (2) 0.02

(3) 2.21 × 10–6 (4) 5.25 × 10–7

(3) 0.1 (4) 0.01

44. A solid copper cube of an edge 20 cm is subjected

40. Which of the following substances has the
to a hydraulic pressure of 14 × 106 Pa. If Bulk
highest elasticity?
modulus for copper is 140 GPa, then the change
(1) Aluminium (2) Brass in volume of the cube is

(3) Copper (4) Steel (1) 8 × 10–7 m3 (2) 5 × 10–7 m3

41. In case of bending of a beam, depression  (3) 5 × 10–8 m3 (4) 6 × 10–8 m3

depends on length of beam (L) as
45. The change in the pressure on a litre of water to
1 compress it by 0.5% is
(1)   (2)  L2
L
[Bulk modulus of water = 2.2 GPa]
1
(3)   (4)  L3
L3 (1) 11 × 106 Pa (2) 2.2 × 106 Pa

(3) 22 × 106 Pa (4) 20 × 106 Pa

Chemistry
46. Select the incorrect statement (3) All the measurable properties of the system
remain constant at equilibrium
(1) Both the opposing processes stop at
equilibrium (4) There is dynamic but stable condition at
equilibrium
(2) Equilibrium is possible only in a closed
container

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NBTS-03 CoE-XII
47. For a gaseous equilibrium A(g)  B(g) which 1
(3) (4) K2
of the following graph is correct? K

50. KP is greater than KC for the reaction

(1) N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g)

(1)
(2) 2SO2(g) + O2(g)  2SO3(g)

(3) N2O4(g)  2NO2(g)

(4) H2(g) + I2(g)  2HI(g)

(2) 51. If initially 3M each of CO and H2O are present

and equilibrium constant KC = 4 the equilibrium
concentration of CO2 gas for the reaction

CO(g) + H2O(g)  CO2(g) + H2(g) is

(3) (1) 1 M (2) 2 M

(3) 3M (4) 4M

52. Heterogeneous equilibrium among the following

is

(4) (1) PCl5(g)  PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

(2) CaCO3(s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g)

48. Expression of equilibrium constant for the (3) 2NH3(g)  N2(g) + 3H2(g)
1 3
reaction N2 (g)  H2 (g)  NH3 (g) is (4) CO(g) + H2O(g)  CO2(g) + H2(g)
2 2
53. Unit of Kp for the reaction 2A(g) + 2B(g) 
[NH3 ]2 [N2 ][H2 ]3
(1) (2) 3C(g) is
[N2 ][H2 ]3 [NH3 ]2
(1) atm (2) atm–1
1 3
[NH3 ] [N2 ] [H2 ]
2 2
(3) 1 3
(4) (3) atm3 (4) atm–3
[N2 ] [H2 ]
2 2 [NH3 ]
54. If KC > 103 then
49. If equilibrium constant for the reaction
2 A+ 3 B  2 C is K then equilibrium constant
(1) Reactants predominate over products

3 (2) Both reactants and products are present at

for the reaction C  A+ B is
2 equilibrium in appreciable amount
1 1 (3) Reaction hardly proceeds
(1) (2)
K K2
(4) Products predominate over reactants
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NBTS-03 CoE-XII
55. Select the incorrect statement (3) PO 3–
(4) H2PO –
4 3

(1) If QC < KC, net reaction goes from left to right

61. Which of the following ions is/are possible
(2) If QC > KC, net reaction goes from right to left
(1) H3O2– (2) H5O3–
(3) If QC = KC, individual reactions stop
(3) H3O (4) All of these
(4) If QC = KC, then reaction is at equilibrium

56. Correct relation among the following 62. Which of the following is not an Arrhenius acid

(1) G° = G + RT ln Q (2) G = G° + RT ln (1) H3O+ (2) HCl

Q
(3) BF3 (4) HSO–4
(3) G° = RT ln K (4) G = RT ln k
63. Molarity of pure water in nearly
57. Which of the following condition will shift the
(1) 1 M (2) 18 M
equilibrium
(3) 55.5 M (4) 10–7 M
PCl5(g)  PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) in forward direction
64. Weakest base among the following is
(1) Adding PCl3 (2) Removing PCl5

(3) Increasing volume (4) Increasing (1) H– (2) NH2–

pressure (3) O2– (4) H2O

58. For the reaction
65. pH of 10–10 M HCl aqueous solution is nearly
2NO2(g)  N2O4(g); H = –57.2 kJ mol–1
(1) 2 (2) 4
The value of KC can be increased by (3) 7 (4) 10
(1) Adding NO2
66. Which of the following fluid has pH < 7
(2) Adding N2O4
(1) Egg white (2) Sea water
(3) Increasing temperature
(3) Human blood (4) Human saliva
(4) Decreasing temperature
67. pH of 10–1 M aqueous solution of CH3COOH is
59. Addition of inert gas at constant pressure exert (pKa CH3COOH = 4.7)
no effect on
(1) 1.4 (2) 2.85
(1) H2(g) + Cl2(g)  2HCl(g)
(3) 3.7 (4) 4.7
(2) 2SO2(g) + O2(g)  2SO3(g)
68. If Ka of NH4 is x then Kb of NH3 is
(3) CaCO3(s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g)
Kw
(4) C(s) + CO2(g)  2CO(g) (1) (2) Kw.x
x

60. Conjugate base of H2PO4– is x

(3) (4) Kw
Kw
2–
(1) H3PO4 (2) HPO 4

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69. For citric acid, which of the following option is are 0.1 M, 0.2 M and 0.1 M respectively. The
correct? value of KC for the reaction is

(1) K a1 < Ka2 < Ka3 (2) K a1  K a2  K a3 (1) 0.1 (2) 1

(3) 2 (4) 5
(3) K a1  K a2  K a3 (4) K a1  K a2  K a3
77. Which salt undergoes cationic hydrolysis
70. Common ion effect is not observed in
(1) NaCl (2) NH4Br
(1) NaCl + HCl
(3) CH3COONa (4) NaBr
(2) CH3COOH + HCl
78. Which of the following is not an oxidation?
(3) NH4OH + NH4Cl
(1) Addition of electronegative element to a
(4) CH3COOH + CH3COONa substance
71. Which of the following ion shows hydrolysis (2) Removal of electropositive element from a

(1) NO3– (2) Cl– substance

(3) Loss of electron(s) by any species

(3) CH3COO– (4) Br–
(4) Decrease in oxidation number of an element
72. If pKa of weak acid HA is 4 and pKb of weak base
BOH is 5 then pH of aqueous solution of BA is 79. Blue colour starts developing when

(1) 7.5 (2) 6.5 (1) Zn rod is dipped in copper nitrate solution

(3) 4 (4) 5 (2) Cu rod dipped in silver nitrate solution

73. pH of equimolar aqueous solution of (3) Zn rod dipped in silver nitrate solution
CH3COONa and CH3COOH is (pKa of (4) Cu and dipped in zinc nitrate solution
CH3COOH = 4.7)
80. Oxidation number of oxygen in superoxide is
(1) 1 (2) 4.7
(1) 0 (2) –1
(3) 7 (4) 14
1
(3) – (4) –2
74. If solubility of weak salt A2X3 is s molL–1 then its 2
Ksp is
81. Combination reaction among the following is
(1) s2 (2) 4s3
(1) 2KClO3  2KCl + 3O2
(3) 9s4 (4) 108s5
(2) CH4 + 2O2  CO2 + 2H2O
75. Molar solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.5 M Ca(OH)2 is
(3) Cr2O3 + 2Al  Al2O3 + 2Cr
(Ksp of Ni(OH)2 = 2 × 10–15 M)
(4) Mg + 2H2O  Mg(OH)2 + H2
(1) 2 × 10–13 M (2) 2 × 10–14 M
82. Oxidation number of middle Br in Br3O8 is
(3) 2 × 10–15 M (4) 2 × 10–16 M
(1) 0 (2) –1
76. For the reaction 2SO2(g) + O2(g)  2SO3(g)
equilibrium concentrations of SO2, O2, and SO3 (3) 4 (4) 6

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z (3) +3 (4) +5
83. xCr2 O72– + ySO 32 – + zH+  2 xCr 3+ + ySO 24 – + H2 O
2
87. Which among the following can not show
The value of x and y in above balanced equation disproportionation?
are respectively
(1) PH3 (2) H2O2
(1) 1, 3 (2) 3, 1
(3) S8 (4) HClO2
(3) 2, 3 (4) 3, 2
88. Example of redox reaction is
84. Which of the following is a self indicator?
(1) Na + HCl  NaCl + H2
– 2–
(1) MnO 4 (2) Cr2O 7
(2) Na2O + 2HCl  2NaCl + H2O

(3) I– (4) S2O32– (3) NaOH + HCl  NaCl + H2O

85. Given the standard electrode potentials (4) Na2CO3 + 2HCl  2NaCl + H2O + CO2

K+/K = –2.93 V, Ag+/Ag = 0.80 V 89. Fractional oxidation number is observed in

Hg2+/Hg = 0.79 V, Mg2+/Mg = –2.37 V (1) Na2S4O6 (2) CH3COOH

The element having strongest reducing power is (3) Fe2O3 (4) O2F2

(1) K (2) Mg 90. Oxidation number of hydrogen in CaH2 is

(3) Ag (4) Hg (1) 0 (2) +1

86. Oxidation number of P in H4P2O7 is (3) –1 (4) –2

(1) 0 (2) –3

Botany
91. All of the following are considered to be the (3) Same as the time taken by a typical human
event concerned with cell cycle, except cell
(1) DNA replication (4) 18 – 20 hours
(2) Glucose synthesis 94. If a human cell takes X unit time to complete its
(3) Cytoplasmic increase cell cycle then, what would be the duration of its
(4) Genome duplication M phase?
92. The approximate time taken to divide once by a (1) More than 95% of X (2) X/2 unit time
typical human cell in culture is (3) 95% of X (4) Less than 5% of X
(1) 24 hours (2) 38 minutes
95. M phase of a cell ends with
(3) 90 minutes (4) 30 hours
(1) Separation of chromosomes
93. The time taken by a yeast cell to complete its
cell cycle is (2) Replication of DNA
(1) Less than the time taken by a human cell (3) Division of cytoplasm
(2) 12 hours
(4) Condensation of chromatin

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