16/06/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

MM : 720 Test - 12 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Topics covered : Complete Syllabus of XI and XII.

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :

h 2  2 / mc 2
1. Dimensional formula for is (where h
h
1
mc 2
is planck’s constant,  is frequency of light, m is
mass and c is speed of light).
(1) [ML–2T2] (2) [M–1L2T–2]
(3) [ML2T–2] (4) [M2L4T–2]
(1) First increase then decrease
2. Area of a square plate is (100 ± 2) m2 its side is
(2) First decrease then increase
(1) (10.0 ± 0.1) m (2) (10.0 ± 0.01) m
(3) Is zero
1
(3) (10 ± 2)m (4) (10 ± )m (4) Is non zero but constant
2
 5. A body is moving down a long inclined plane of
   

3. If a  iˆ  2 jˆ  2kˆ and b  2iˆ  jˆ  2kˆ . The inclination . The coefficient of friction between
  the body and inclined plane varies as  = 0.5x,
projection of b on a is
where x is distance travelled down the plane. The
(1)
9

8 ˆ
i  2 jˆ  2kˆ  (2)
9

8 ˆ ˆ
2i  j  2kˆ  body will have maximum velocity, when it has
travelled a distance x, given by (All quantities are
(3)
8

9 ˆ ˆ
2i  j  2kˆ  (4)
8

9 ˆ
i  2 jˆ  2kˆ  in SI units)
2
4. Figure shows position(x)-time(t) graph for two (1) x = 2 tan (2) x =
tan
boys going from their homes to school. Which of
the following statement is true about their relative 2
(3) x  2 cot  (4) x =
velocity, when both are in motion? cot 

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Test-12 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

6. The moment of inertia of a square sheet of side l ve

(1) v e 2 (2)
and mass per unit area  about an axis passing 2
through one of its corner and perpendicular to its
(3) 2ve (4) 4ve
plane is
11. A glass beaker having mass 390 g and an
l 2 l 4 interior volume of 500 cm3 floats just submerged
(1) (2)
12 6 in water when it is half filled with water. The
l 4 2l 4 density of material of beaker is (approximately)
(3) (4) (1) 1.8 g/cm3 (2) 2.8 g/cm3
12 3
7. A particle of mass m strikes elastically with a disc (3) 3.8 g/cm3 (4) 3.4 g/cm3
of same mass with speed v as shown in figure. 12. A cylindrical vessel filled with water up to a height
All the surface of contacts are smooth. The of 2 m stands on a horizontal plane. The side
velocity of disc just after collision is (consider wall has a small circular hole touching the
tangential line as +x-axis and radial toward C as bottom. The velocity of water coming out from the
+y-axis at point of impact) hole is (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 4 5 m/s (2) 2 5 m/s

(3) 10 m/s (4) 2 10 m/s

13. A ring is cut from a platinum tube of internal
diameter 8.5 cm and external diameter 8.7 cm. It
is supported horizontally on water surface. If an
3 ˆ 3 ˆ extra force of 4.0 g wt is required to pull it away
(1) vj (2) vi from water surface, then surface tension of water
2 2
is (g = 10 m/s2)
v ˆ vˆ
(3) j (4) i (1) 6.4 × 10–2 N/m (2) 7.4 × 10–2 N/m
2 2
–2
(3) 8.4 × 10 N/m (4) 4.8 × 10–2 N/m
8. A pendulum consists of a wooden bob of mass m
and a string of length l. A bullet of mass m1 is 14. The temperature of 200 g of water is to be raised
fired towards the pendulum with a velocity v1. from 24°C to 90°C by adding (at 100°C) steam to
it. The mass of steam required for this purpose is
v1
The bullet comes out of bob with speed and (1) 12 g (2) 24 g
4
bob just completes the vertical circle. The (3) 30 g (4) 15 g
velocity v1 is 15. If m denotes the wavelength at which the
radiative emission from a black body at a
3m 2 m1 temperature T K is maximum, then
(1) 5gl (2) 5gl
2 m1 3 m
(1) m  T 4 (2) m  T 0
4m 3 m
(3) 5gl (4) 5gl (3) m  T 1 (4) m  T
3 m1 4 m1
16. 0.014 kg of nitrogen is enclosed in a vessel at a
9. A body of mass M and radius R, rolling on a
temperature of 27°C. The amount of heat
smooth horizontal surface with velocity v, rolls up
transferred to the gas to double the r.m.s speed
 3v 2  of molecules is nearly
an inclined plane up to a vertical height   .
 4g
  (1) 2250 cal (2) 4500 cal
The shape of body is (3) 3150 cal (4) 6300 cal
(1) Disk (2) Ring 17. If 90 cal of heat is required to raise the
(3) Hollow sphere (4) Solid sphere temperature of 2 mole of an ideal gas at constant
10. The escape velocity from a spherical planet is ve. pressure from 30°C to 35°C. The degree of
The escape velocity corresponding to another freedom of the gas molecule is
planet of twice the radius and half the mean (1) 9 (2) 7
density is. (3) 5 (4) 3

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-12 (Code-A)

18. The temperature inside and outside a refrigerator 23. In the given circuit diagram E = 5 V, r = 1 ,
are 273 K and 303 K respectively. Assume that R1 = R3 = 1, R2 = 4  and C = 3 F. Then the
refrigerator cycle is reversible. The heat rejected numerical value of charge on each capacitor is
outside for every joule of work is (approximately)
(1) 9 J (2) 10 J
(3) 20 J (4) 40 J
1 
19. Assume a sitar string is plucked at about  th 
6 
of its length from one end. The most prominent
harmonic will be.
(1) Sixth (2) Fourth
(3) Third (4) Second
20. 21 tuning forks are arranged such that every fork (1) 24 C (2) 12 C
gives 5 beats per second with the next. The last
fork has a frequency that is double of the first. (3) 6 C (4) 3 C
Frequency of 11th fork (in Hz) is 24. The capacitance of capacitor of plate area A1 and
(1) 135 (2) 145 A2 (A1 < A2) at a distance d as shown in figures is
(3) 150 (4) 155
21. When an oscillator completes 50 oscillations,
1
its amplitude reduces to times of the initial
3
value. The amplitude, when it completes 100
oscillations will be 0 ( A1  A2 ) 0 A1
(1) (2)
2d d
1
(1) times of initial value
8 0 A2 0 A1  A2
(3) (4)
1 d d
(2) times of initial value
9 25. As the switch S is closed in the circuit shown in
2 figure, the current passed through point A is
(3) times of initial value
3
1
(4) times of initial value
6
22. A particle having charge equal to that of electron
and mass 1.6 × 10–30 kg is projected with an
initial speed v at an angle of 45° with the lower
plate as shown in figure. The plates are
sufficiently long and have separation (1) 4.5 A (2) 6.0 A
2 cm. Electric field between the plates is
(3) 3.0 A (4) 1.5 A
0.5 × 103 V/m upward. The maximum value of
velocity of particle not to hit the upper plate is 26. Resistance of a conductor at temperature t°C is
R = R0 (1 + at + bt2). Here R0 is resistance at
0°C. The temperature coefficient of resistance at
temperature t°C is
(1) 1 × 106 m/s a  2bt
(1) (2) a
6
(2) 2 ×10 m/s 1  at  bt 2
(3) 3 × 106 m/s 1  at  bt 2
6 (3) (4) (a + 2b)
(4) 4 × 10 m/s at  2bt

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Test-12 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

27. A potentiometer wire, 10 m long has a resistance 31. Figure shows a square current carrying loop
of 40 . It is connected in series with a 1
ABCD of side 2 m and current A. The
resistance box and a 2 V storage cell. If the 2

mV magnetic moment ( M ) of the loop is
potential gradient along the wire is 0.1 . The
cm
resistance unplugged in the box is
(1) 260  (2) 760 
(3) 960  (4) 1060 
28. If E denotes electric field in a uniform conductor
and vd the drift velocity of free electrons in the
conductor, then which of the following graph is
correct?

(1) (2)
(1)  iˆ  3kˆ  A m2
(2)  3iˆ  kˆ  A m
2

(3)  iˆ  kˆ  A m
2
(4)  iˆ  3kˆ  A m
2

32. An ammeter is obtained by shunting a

30 galvanometer with a 30  resistance. The
additional shunt required to double the range is
(3) (4) (1) 15  (2) 10 
(3) 5  (4) 30 
29. A conducting circular loop of same material is 33. The coercivity of a bar magnet is 120 A/m. It is to
placed as shown in figure. The area of cross be demagnetised by placing it inside a solenoid
section of part APC is A and of AQC is A/3. The having number of turns per unit length 60 m–1.
The current flowing through the solenoid is
magnetic field at centre O is
(1) 1.0 A (2) 0.5 A
(3) 2.0 A (4) 3.0 A
34. A conducting rod of length  is hinged at one end,
it is free to rolate in vertical plane. There exist a

uniform magnetic field B perpendicular to plane
of rotation of rod. The rod is released from
horizontal position. The potential difference
between the two ends of rod when rod makes an
angle  with horizontal, is proportional to
0 i 30i
(1) (2) (1) 3 (2) 2
8R 16R
1

(3)
0 i
(4) Zero (3) sin (4)  sin   2
16R
35. A capacitor, an inductor and an electric bulb are
30. An electron and proton having same kinetic connected in series to an AC supply of variable
energy enter into a magnetic field perpendicular frequency. As the frequency of supply increased
to it, then gradually, then the electric bulb is found to be
(1) The path of electron is less curved (1) Increase in brightness
(2) The path of proton is less curved (2) Decrease in brightness
(3) Both have equal curved path (3) Increase in brightness, reach a maximum
(4) Curvature of path of both the particles is and then decrease in brightness
zero (4) Of same brightness

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-12 (Code-A)

36. White light is incident on the interface of glass 41. The threshold frequency for a certain metal is 0.
and air as shown in figure. If green light is just When light of frequency 20 is incident on it, the
totally internally reflected, then the emerging rays
maximum velocity of photoelectron is 4 × 106 m/s.
in air contains:
If the frequency of incident radiation is increased
to 50, then the maximum velocity of
photoelectrons will be
(1) 0.8 × 106 m/s
(2) 2 × 106 m/s
(3) 8 × 106 m/s
(4) 2 × 107 m/s
42. In the Bohr model of hydrogen atom, let R, v and
(1) Yellow, orange, red E represents, radius of orbit, speed of electron
and energy of electron respectively. Which of the
(2) Violet, indigo, blue
following quantities is proportional to quantum
(3) All colours number n?
(4) All colours except green
R E
37. Rays from a lens are converging towards a point (1) (2)
E v
P as shown in figure. How much thick glass plate
(3) RE (4) vR
having refractive index 1.6 must be located
between lens and point P, so image is formed at 43. Two radioactive material X1 and X2 contain same
P? number of nuclei. If 6s–1 and 4s–1 are the
decay constants of X1 and X2 respectively. The
ratio of number of nuclei undecayed of X1 to that
 1
of X2 will be   after a time
e
1 1
(1) s (2) s
2 10

(1) 0.8 cm 1 1
(3) s (4) s
5 8
(2) 1.6 cm
44. In the circuit shown in the figure, the current
(3) 5.0 cm
through ideal diode is
(4) 2.4 cm
38. Refractive index of material of prism is   2
and the angle of prism is 60°. The angle of
incidence for minimum deviation is
(1) 30° (2) 45°
(3) 60° (4) 90°
39. The diameter of objective lens of a telescope is
0.61 m. The wavelength of light used is 5000 Å. (1) 75 mA (2) 20 mA
The resolving power of telescope is (3) 100 mA (4) 25 mA
(1) 1 × 106 (2) 2 × 104 45. To get an output y = 1 from the circuit shown, the
(3) 2 × 102 (4) 2 × 106 input A, B and C must be respectively:
40. The maximum number of possible interference
maxima for slit separation equal to 2.5 times the
wavelength in young’s double slit experiment is
(1) Infinite (2) Five (1) 0, 1, 0 (2) 1, 0, 0
(3) Three (4) Six (3) 1, 0, 1 (4) 1, 1, 0

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Test-12 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

CHEMISTRY
46. Incorrect statement about NaCl crystal structure 52. Consider the following reaction
is
(1) Chloride ions are present at the lattice points
of a fcc close structure
(2) Na+ ions occupy all the octahedral voids
(3) The unit cell of NaCl has contribution of 4Na+
ions and 4 Cl– ions. Product D in the given reaction sequence is
(4) Coordination number of each Na+ and Cl– are (1) Toluene (2) Benzaldehyde
eight (3) Benzyl alcohol (4) Benzyl chloride
47. If cell constant and resistance of 0.02 M solution 53. The compound having highest percentage of
of a strong electrolyte at 298 K is 0.3 cm–1 and enol content is
120 ohm respectively then molar conductivity of
the electrolyte at same concentration will be
(1) (2)
(1) 85 S cm2 mol–1 (2) 145 S cm2 mol–1
(3) 125 S cm2 mol–1 (4) 110 S cm2 mol–1
48. Which relation is incorrect for a solution that
(3) (4)
shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law?
(1) (H)mix  0 (2) (S)mix  0 54. Which among the following is the enantiomer of
the given compound?
(3) ( G)mix  0 (4) (V)mix  0
49. 100 ml of 0.4 M formic acid is neutralised by
0.1 M NaOH solution. The pH of the solution
at the equivalence point will be (pKa of formic
acid = 3.75)
(1) (2)
(1) 10.2 (2) 6.5
(3) 8.3 (4) 9.1
50. Incorrect statement among the following is
(1) Leaching of alumina from bauxite is done by (3) (4)
concentrated NaOH solution
(2) Mixture of Cu2S and FeS is called copper
matte 55. In the given species hyperconjugation occur(s) in
(3) In froth floatation process aniline is used to
stabilise the froth
(4) Zone refining method is utilised to refine
Ni and Zr
51. Correct order of acidic strength of the given
compounds is (1) (i) and (ii) only (2) (ii) and (iii) only
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv) only (4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
56. Which among the following is not an aromatic
species?

(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv) (1) (2)
(2) (ii) > (iii) > (i) > (iv)
(3) (ii) > (iv) > (iii) > (i)
(3) (4)
(4) (ii) > (i) > (iv) > (iii)

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-12 (Code-A)

57. Consider the following reaction 61. When white phosphorous reacts with thionyl
chloride then which of the following products is
not formed?
(1) PCl3 (2) P2O5
(3) SO2 (4) S2Cl2
62. Shape and hybridisation of SeF4 is
(1) Tetrahedral and sp3
(2) Square planar and sp3d2
Major products A and B respectively are
(3) Sea-saw and sp3d
(1) C6H5CH(CH3)2 and C6H5CH2CH2CH3
(4) Square pyramidal and sp3d
(2) C6H5CH2CH2CH3 and C6H5CH(CH3)2
63. When chlorine reacts with excess of ammonia
(3) C6H5CH = CHCH3 and C6H5CH(CH3)2
then the product(s) formed is/are
(4) C6H5C  CCH3 and C6H5CH = CHCH3 (1) NCl3 (2) N2
58. Match the compounds given in List-I with List-II (3) NH4Cl (4) Both (2) and (3)
and select the suitable option using the code
64. Incorrect statement among the following is
given below.
(1) XeF6 on complete hydrolysis produces an
List-I List-II
explosive compound
a. Acetone (i) Paraldehyde
(2) XeOF4 is a colourless volatile liquid
b. Acetaldehyde (ii) Phorone (3) XeF4 is square planar in shape
c. Benzaldehyde (iii) Salicylic acid (4) XeF6 undergoes disproportionation reaction
d. Phenol (iv) Cinnamic acid in aqueous medium
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) 65. Correct order of negative hydration enthalpy of
(2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) V2+, Co2+, Fe2+ and Cr2+ is
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (1) V2+ > Co2+ > Cr2+ > Fe2+
(4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) Co2+ > Fe2+ > Cr2+ > V2+
59. t1/2 of a first order reaction is 16 min. If initial (3) Fe2+ > Co2+ > Cr2+ > V2+
concentration of the reactant is 2 M then the rate (4) Co2+ > Cr2+ > Fe2+ > V2+
of the reaction after 48 minute will be 66. In which of the following complexes C – O bond
(1) 2.5 × 10–2 mol L–1 min–1 length is shortest?
(2) 7.5 × 10–2 mol L–1 min–1 (1) [Co(CO)4]– (2) [Cr(CO)6]
(3) 1.08 × 10–2 mol L–1 min–1 (3) [Fe(CO)4]2– (4) [Mn(CO)6]+
(4) 4.21 × 10–2 mol L–1 min–1 67. In the given reaction sequence product D is

60. Consider the following statements.

(i) PPP bond angle in white phosphorous is 60°
(ii) Red phosphorous is obtained by heating
white phosphorous in an inert atmosphere
(iii) White and red phosphorous are soluble in
CS2.
(iv) Red phosphorous shows chemilumine- (1) (2)
scence.
The correct statements are
(1) (i) and (ii) only
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (3) (4)
(3) (i) and (iv) only
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
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Test-12 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

68. In the given reaction compound Y is soluble in 75. In which of the following reactions C-C bond
aqueous alkali then X may be formation does not take place?
X + Ph – SO2Cl  Y (1) Benzoin condensation
(2) Aldol condensation
(1) (2)
(3) Gatterman-Koch reaction
(4) Etard reaction
(3) (4) 76. Which is correct order against indicated
property?
69. Decreasing order of nucleophilicity of the given (1) O2  O2  O2 (Bond order)
species in ethanol is
(2) HF > H2O > NH3 (Dipole moment)
PhO–, I–, EtO–, PhS–
(3) S > Se > Te (Electron affinity)
(1) I– > PhS– > EtO– > PhO–
(2) PhS– > I– > PhO– > EtO– (4) C > B > Be (Ionisation enthalpy)
(3) I– > PhS– > PhO– > EtO– 77. Which among the following is/are amphoteric
oxides?
(4) PhS– > I– > EtO– > PhO–
70. In mercury cell electrolyte used is (1) GeO2 (2) SnO
(1) Paste of HgO and carbon (3) PbO2 (4) Both (2) and (3)
(2) Paste of KOH and ZnO 78. Consider the following statements
(3) Moist paste of NH4Cl and ZnCl2 (i) Aluminium carbide on reaction with water
(4) 38% solution of H2SO4 gives methane gas.
71. Number of angular and radial nodes present in 4f (ii) Permanent hardness of water is easily
orbital respectively are removed by boiling
(1) 4 and 3 (2) 4 and 1 (iii) H2O2 dipole moment is more than that of H2O
(3) 3 and 1 (4) 3 and 0 (iv) Potassium impart blue colour to the flame
72. Consider the following statements test.
a. Neoprene is an elastomer. Incorrect statements among the following are
b. Buna-N is copolymer of 1, 3-butadiene and (1) (i) and (ii) only (2) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
styrene monomers. (3) (ii) and (iv) only (4) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
c. Orlon is used as a substitute for wool in 79. Prescribed upper limit concentration of lead in
making commercial fibres. drinking water is
d. Novolac is a linear polymer. (1) 50 ppm (2) 500 ppm
Correct statements are
(3) 5 ppb (4) 50 ppb
(1) a, b and c only (2) a, b and d only
80. A closed vessel at certain temperature contains
(3) a, c and d only (4) a, b, c and d carbon dioxide at a pressure of 1 atm. Some of
73. Lactose is composed of the CO2 is converted to CO by addition of
(1)  -D-glucose and  -D-fructose carbon. If total pressure of the gaseous mixture is
(2)  -D-glucose and  -D-fructose 1.2 atm at equilibrium then equilibrium constant
of the reaction,
(3)  -D-glucose and  -D-glucose
CO2(g) + C(s)  2CO(g) is
(4)  -D-galactose and  -D- glucose
74. Incorrect statement among the following is (1) 8 atm (2) 2 atm
(1) Histamine is a potent vasodilator (3) 0.4 atm (4) 0.2 atm
(2) Noradrenaline is one of the neurotransmitters 81. Solubility of Fe(OH)3 in 0.02 M solution of NaOH
that plays a role in mood changes will be (Ksp of Fe(OH)3 = 1 × 10–38)
(3) Aspirin is a narcotic analgesic (1) 1.25 × 10–27 M (2) 1.25 × 10–25 M
(4) Ofloxacin is a broad spectrum antibiotic (3) 1.25 × 10–30 M (4) 1.25 × 10–33 M
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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-12 (Code-A)

82. Consider the following redox reaction Correct relation between T1, T2 and T3 is
I2 + NaOH  NaIO3 + NaI + H2O (1) T1 > T2 > T3
Mole of NaIO3 formed on the complete reaction (2) T2 > T1 > T3
of 2 mole of I2 is (3) T1 > T3 > T2
4 1 (4) T3 > T2 > T1
(1) (2)
3 2 88. Consider the following redox processes with
2 2 different emf values as shown in the diagram.
(3) (4)
3 5 1.56V
H5IO 6   IO3 
1.15V 1.43V
 HOI   I2
83. Standard molar enthalpy of formation of which of
the following, substances is zero?
0.54V
 I
(1) C(diamond) (2) C6H6(l) The species which will undergo
(3) Br2(l) (4) Cl(g) disproportionation is
84. Which among the following is/are paramagnetic (1) IO3
in nature? (2) I2
(1) B2 (2) C2
(3) HOI
(3) N2 (4) Both (1) and (3) (4) H5IO6
85. SI unit of viscosity coefficient is 89. 1 mole of propane on complete combustion
(1) Nm–2 (2) Nm–1 under standard conditions liberates 2220 kJ of
(3) Nsm–2 (4) Ns–1m–2 heat. Heat of formation of propane is
86. Mass of calcium phosphate obtained by reacting [ Hof of CO2 = –390 kJ mol–1 and Hof of H2O
560 g of CaO with 284 g of P4O10 is (Atomic = – 240 kJ mol–1]
mass of Ca = 40 u, P = 31 u)
(1) – 120 kJ mol–1
(1) 450 g (2) 620 g
(2) + 90 kJ mol–1
(3) 550 g (4) 375 g
(3) + 75 kJ mol–1
87. Consider following pressure-volume graph for a
(4) + 120 kJ mol–1
given mass of an ideal gas
90. Incorrect statements among the following is
(1) Haemoglobin is positively charged sol.
(2) Invertase enzyme convert sucrose into
glucose and fructose
(3) Adsorption is accompanied by decrease of
enthalpy as well as entropy
(4) Chemisorption results into multimolecular
layers

BOTANY
91. Select the incorrect representation regarding the (1) Photorespiration (2) Detoxification
size of the organisms. (3) Glycosylation (4) Autodigestion
(1) PPLO < BGA 93. Select the wrong statement w.r.t. eukaryotic cilia
(2) Mycoplasma > Bacteria and flagella.
(3) Nerve cell > PPLO (1) These are membrane-bound extensions
(4) RBC > Mycoplasma (2) They arise from basal bodies
92. All of the following functions are associated with
(3) Their core is called axoneme
those organelles which are considered as a part
of the endomembrane system, except one. (4) There are total eleven radial spokes in each
Identify that one. cilium and flagellum

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Test-12 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

94.  Chromosomes are thickest and shortest. (1) a and c (2) a, b and c
 Mitotic spindle formation is completed. (3) c and d (4) a, c and d
 Spindle fibres are attached to the 99. In six kingdom classification, how many
kinetochore. kingdoms have autotrophic organisms?
All the above given features are associated with (1) Four (2) Three
which of the following stages of mitosis? (3) One (4) Two
(1) Telophase 100. Select the incorrect match from the following.
(2) Prophase
(1) Red tide causing Cyanobacteria
(3) Metaphase organism
(4) Anaphase
(2) Photosynthetic Dinoflagellate
95. Match the following columns and select the
protist
correct option.
Column I Column II (3) Cell wall absent but Euglena
performs
a. Zygotene (i) Random distribution
photosynthesis
of bivalents
b. Metaphase I (ii) Nuclear envelope (4) Most notorious Sporozoan
disintegrates endoparasite
c. Diakinesis (iii) Single metaphasic 101. Read the following statements and identify them
plate is formed as true (T) or false (F).
d. Metaphase II (iv) Occurs before A. Midrib in pinnately compound leaf is called
pachytene rachis.
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) B. Tendrils in sweet pea are modified stem.
(2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) C. Fleshy stem of Opuntia is called phyllode.
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) A B C
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (1) T T F
96. In animal cells, histone protein synthesis and (2) F F T
centrioles duplication occur during
(3) T F F
(1) S phase and G1 phase respectively
(4) F T F
(2) S phase of cell cycle
102. Select the characteristic features which are true
(3) G1 phase and G2 phase respectively for tomato plant.
(4) First phase of interphase a. Placentation is axile.
97. Reproduction cannot be considered as defining b. Flower is actinomorphic and perigynous
feature of living organisms. Which of the
c. Seeds are endospermous.
following statements supports the given
conclusion? d. Stamens are epipetalous.
(1) Some organisms can reproduce even by e. Gynoecium is apocarpous.
fragmentation (1) (a), (b) and (e) (2) (a), (c) and (d)
(2) No any specialised reproductive structures (3) (a), (c) and (e) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
are formed in unicellular organisms 103. Which of the following is not a function of
(3) In unicellular organisms, reproduction is parenchyma tissue?
synonymous with growth (1) Storage of food in the forms of
(4) Few organisms cannot produce their carbohydrates, fats, proteins etc.
offspring (2) Synthesis of food from inorganic substances
98. The taxonomical aid that has preserved plants for (3) Secretion of substances like resin, nector, oil
study and reference are etc.
a. Museum b. Botanical garden (4) Providing mechanical support with the help of
c. Herbarium d. Flora their lignified cell walls

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-12 (Code-A)

104. A specimen of a plant part shows 111. Manganese and chlorine, both are involved in
sclerenchymatous hypodermis. That part may be photolysis of water in plants.
(1) Root of a dicot plant Which statement is true for them?
(2) Stem of a dicot plant (1) Both of them are micronutrients in plants
(3) Root of a monocot plant (2) Both are absorbed as monovalent ions
(4) Stem of a monocot plant (3) One of them is macronutrient and other is
micronutrient
105. During drought or lack of water, leaves of some
(4) Both of them determine anion-cation balance
grasses curl inwards. This inward curling is due
in cell
to
112. The hypothesis that, oxygen evolved by green
(1) The absence of cuticle on abaxial epidermis
plants comes from H2O and not from CO2 was
(2) The presence of bulliform cells proved by taking stable isotope of
(3) The presence of thick cuticle on the adaxial (1) Oxygen (2) Carbon
surface (3) Hydrogen (4) Sulphur
(4) The lack of spongy mesophyll towards the 113. The process of photophosphorylation that
abaxial surface involves photosystem I only, generates
106. Green algae do not store food in the form of (1) ATP and NADH (2) NADPH
(1) Protein (2) Starch (3) O2 and ATP (4) ATP
(3) Oil droplets (4) Glucose 114. In one turn of Calvin cycle, the regeneration step
107. Male and female reproductive structures are requires
developed on the same prothallus in (1) Two molecules of ATP and one molecule of
NADPH
(1) Lycopodium
(2) One molecule of ATP and two molecules of
(2) Salvinia
NADPH
(3) Selaginella (3) Only one molecule of ATP
(4) Marsilea (4) Only two molecules of NADPH
108. The property related to transport mechanisms in 115. Match the following columns and select the
living body that is true for both facilitated and correct option.
active transports is Column-I Column-II
(1) Uphill transport a. Phosphoglycolate (i) Primary CO2
(2) Movement of transport proteins acceptor in C3
(3) Highly selective plants
(4) Requires ATP energy b. Phosphoenol (ii) 2 carbon
pyruvate compound
109. Transport of water in plants follows some specific
c. RuBisCO (iii) Primary CO2
pathways. In apoplast pathway, it involves
acceptor in C4
(1) Plasma membrane only plants
(2) Cell walls and intercellular spaces d. RuBP (iv) Most abundant
(3) Only living parts of plants enzyme on earth
(4) Cytoplasm and plasmodesmata (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
110. Most of the minerals are absorbed actively by the (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
roots. One of the reasons is that 116. In which of the following conversion steps
(1) Minerals are insoluble in water occurring in the mitochondrial matrix, substrate
level phosphorylation occurs?
(2) Minerals are aggregated together to form
(1) 1, 3-bisphosphoglyceric acid 
large particles
3-phosphoglyceric acid
(3) Minerals are present in the soil as charged
(2) Phosphoenolpyruvate  Pyruvic acid
ions
(3) -ketoglutaric acid  Succinyl CoA
(4) Concentration of minerals are usually higher
in the soil than that in the roots (4) Succinyl CoA  Succinic acid

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Test-12 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

117. The terminal electron acceptor in ETS during 125. The trait which is expressed in both homozygous
oxidative phosphorylation receives electron from as well as in heterozygous conditions can be
(1) Cytochrome bc1 complex example of
(2) Cytochrome c oxidase complex (1) Complete dominance
(3) Succinate dehydrogenase (2) Incomplete dominance
(4) Ubiquinone (3) Codominance
118. Fatty acids enters the respiratory pathway after (4) Both (1) and (3)
being converted into 126. A violet flowered pea plant is crossed with white
(1) Pyruvic acid flowered pea plant. In F1 generation, violet
flowered and white flowered plants were
(2) Acetyl CoA
produced in 1 : 1 ratio. If violet flowered plants of
(3) Amino acid this generation is self crossed then what would
(4) Phosphoglyceric acid be the percentage of pea plant in F2 generation
119. Select the incorrect match from the following. which are true-breeding violet flowered?
Composition Phytohormones (1) 50% (2) 75%
(1) Terpenes – Gibberellins (3) 25% (4) 100%
(2) Adenine derivative – Kinetin 127. Consider the following pedigree chart in which
(3) Derivative of – Auxins the affected individuals for a particular trait is
carotenoids shown by shaded symbol.
(4) Indole compounds – IBA
120. Regarding seed dormancy, select the odd one
out.
(1) Gibberellin (2) Abscisic acid
(3) Phenolic acid (4) Para-ascorbic acid
121. Which of the following plant is perennial but
monocarpic?
(1) Henbane (2) Radish Which of the following conclusions cannot said
to be correct w.r.t. the given pedigree chart?
(3) Grape vine (4) Neelakurinji
(1) The trait is recessive autosomal
122. In a typical anther, the tissue involved in
microsporogenesis is (2) The trait is Y-linked
(1) Epidermis (2) Sporgenous tissue (3) The affected individual in II generation is
homozygous for that particular gene
(3) Tepetum (4) Connective tissue
(4) The trait can be recessive X-linked
123. In the most common type of ovule which is found
in 82% of angiosperm families, 128. Presence of which of the following features
make(s) the RNA less stable as compared to
(1) Embryo sac is horse-shoe shaped
DNA?
(2) Micropyle lies close to hilum
(a) Free 2 OH
(3) Micropyle, chalaza and funicle are in straight
(b) Single ringed nitrogenous base
line
(c) Uracil in place of 5-methyl uracil
(4) Funicle becomes coiled around the ovule
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (a) and (b)
124. All of the following are the advantages of seeds
to angiosperms, except (3) (b) and (c) (4) (c) only
(1) Providing a rich food source for other 129. During transcription in eukaryotes, both tRNA
organisms and rRNA synthesis is catalysed by
(2) Better adaptive strategies for dispersal to (1) RNA polymerase III
new habitat (2) RNA polymerase II
(3) Protection to young embryo (3)  factor
(4) Generation of new genetic recombination (4) Phosphorylase

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-12 (Code-A)

130. Better-yielding semi dwarf varieties of rice are 133. Ecological pyramid for a tree ecosystem
(1) Shakti and Rattan (1) Is always inverted
(2) Sonalika and Kalyan Sona (2) Is always upright
(3) Atlas-66 and Protina (3) May be upright, inverted or spindle-shaped
(4) Jaya and Ratna (4) Is only inverted or spindle shaped
131. Select the incorrect statement. 134. Which of the following population characteristic
(1) Wine and beer are produced without makes the species more susceptible to
distillation extinction?
(2) Cyclosporin A is produced by Trichoderma (1) Large body size
polysporum
(2) Large population size
(3) During sewage treatment, methane is
(3) High reproductive rate
produced in anaerobic sludge digester
(4) Low trophic level in food chain
(4) Major component of biogas is carbon dioxide
132. Interaction among which of the following 135. A greenhouse gas which is also responsible for
organisms is an example of protocooperation? ozone depletion is
(1) Orchid and mango (1) CO2
(2) Sea anemone and hermit crab (2) N2O
(3) Fig and fig wasp (3) H2
(4) Clown fish and sea anemone (4) H2O

ZOOLOGY
136. Match the diseases given in column I with their 139. The technique called MOET is useful for
causative agents given in column II. (1) Bee keeping in apiculture
Column-I Column-II (2) Herd improvement in cattle
a. Plague (i) Treponema (3) Fertilization in fish
pallidum (4) Contraception in females
b. Anthrax (ii) Vibrio cholerae 140. The enzyme know as molecular scissors in
c. Syphilis (iii) Bacillus anthracis genetic engineering is
d. Cholera (iv) Yersinia pestis (1) DNA ligase
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (2) Transferases
(3) DNA polymerase
(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) Restriction endonuclease
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
141. During the process of gel electrophoresis DNA
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
moves towards the of the
137. A 25 year old female develops a runny nose after electrophoretic chamber as it has
exposure to dust due to development of allergy. charge.
Which of the following antibodies is most likely to
Choose the option that fills the blanks correctly.
rise first in this condition?
A B
(1) IgG (2) IgM
(1) Cathode Positive
(3) IgE (4) IgD
(2) Cathode Negative
138. The psychedelic drug called LSD is obtained (3) Anode Positive
from
(4) Anode Negative
(1) Papaver somniferum 142. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used for
(2) Cannabis sativa amplification of
(3) Erythroxylum coca (1) Proteins (2) Hormones
(4) Claviceps purpurea (3) DNA (4) Enzymes

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Test-12 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

143. Choose the incorrect match. 149. Which among the following had the largest
(1) Transposon – Mobile genetic cranial capacity?
components (1) Java man (2) Taung child
(2) ELISA – Test for HIV infection (3) Neanderthal man (4) Peking man
(3) Retroviral vector – Gene therapy 150. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t contraceptive
(4) Alpha lactalbumin – Emphysema methods and their examples.
144. The first clinical gene therapy used for the (1) Surgical sterilization – Vasectomy and
treatment of SCID was done to treat tubectomy
(1) Hypersecretion of growth hormone (2) Oral contraceptive – Saheli and Mala-D
(2) Deficiency of adenosine deaminase pills

(3) Deficiency of insulin (3) IUDs – Diaphragms and

vaults
(4) Hypersecretion of thyroxine
(4) Barrier method – Condoms and
145. Read the following statements and choose the
cervical caps
incorrect one w.r.t ‘cry’ proteins.
151. Test tube baby programme employs which one of
(1) They are solubilized in acidic environment of
the following techniques?
insect midgut
(1) Zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT)
(2) They are called cry proteins due to their
crystalline nature (2) Artificial insemination (AI)

(3) Cry genes of Bacillus thuringiensis produce (3) Intrauterine insemination (IUI)
toxic proteins that are insect group specific (4) Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT)
(4) The toxins formed by these proteins cause 152. A temporary gland which is a remnant of the
pores in midgut of the insect’s alimentary graafian follicle after ovulation is
canal (1) Corpus spongiosum
146. India and China have more than _______ of (2) Corpus luteum
world livestock population. (3) Corpus callosum
Choose the option that fills the blank correctly. (4) Corpora quadrigemina
(1) 25% (2) 40% 153. The ideal time for fertilization, in a female of
(3) 55% (4) 70% reproductive age, is the _____ day starting from
147. Choose the odd one w.r.t vestigial structures in the first day of menstruation and considering a 28
humans. day cycle.
(1) Duodenum and ileum Choose the option that fills the blank correctly.
(2) Nictitating membrane (1) 2nd (2) 7th
(3) Vermiform appendix (3) 14th (4) 25th
(4) Third molars 154. Read the following statements and choose the
148. Match column I and column II and choose the correct option.
correct option. Statement-A : Seminiferous tubules are lined by
Column-I Column-II male germ cells, Sertoli cells and Leydig cells.

a. Natural selection (i) p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 Statement-B : Sertoli cells secrete androgens

called ICSH.
b. Thomas Malthus (ii) Migrations change
allele frequency (1) Both statements are correct

c. Gene flow (iii) Essay on (2) Only statements A is correct

population (3) Only statements B is correct
d. Hardy-Weinberg law (iv) Reproductive (4) Both statements are incorrect
fitness 155. Self fertilization occurs in
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (1) Tape worm (2) Earthworm
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (3) Leech (4) Rabbit

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-12 (Code-A)

156. Identify the feature present only in mammals but 164. If, A  Mucosa
absent in all other chordates. B  Submucosa
(1) Three germ layers (2) Dorsal nerve cord
C  Longitudinal muscle
(3) Mammary glands (4) Ventral heart
D  Circular muscle
157. Match the scientific names given in column I with
their common names in column II. E  Serosa
Column-I Column-II then the correct sequence of the layers of the
a. Delphinus (i) Tortoise alimentary canal from outside to inside is
b. Pavo (ii) Wall lizard (1) E  C  D  B  A
c. Hemidactylus (iii) Peacock (2) A  B  C  D  E
d. Testudo (iv) Dolphin (3) C  B  A  D  E
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) E  D  C  B  A
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) 165. The backflow of faecal matter from the large
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) intestine into the small intestine can occur due to
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) malfunction of
158. Cnidoblasts are a characteristic feature of (1) Cardiac sphincter
(1) Jellyfish (2) Scorpion (2) Pyloric sphincter
(3) Sponge (4) Mosquito (3) Ileo-caecal valve
159. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t cockroach. (4) Sphincter of Oddi
(1) Spiracles help in respiration 166. Match the lung volumes given in column I with
(2) Ommatidia help in vision their respective values in column II.
(3) Possesses ventral nerve cord Column-I Column-II
(4) Phallomere is present only in female a. Tidal volume (i) 1000 mL
cockroach b. Residual volume (ii) 2500-3500 mL
160. The blood brain barrier in adult humans is made c. Inspiratory reserve (iii) 1200 mL
up of volume
(1) Astrocytes (2) Ependymal cells d. Expiratory reserve (iv) 500 mL
(3) Neurons (4) Schwann cells volume
161. Ciliated epithelium : Fallopian tubes :: _______ : (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
Alveoli.
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
Complete the analogy.
167. The value of pO2 in deoxygenated blood is equal
(1) Columnar epithelium
to the value of
(2) Muscular tissue
(1) pCO2 in atmospheric air
(3) Squamous epithelium
(2) pO2 in alveoli
(4) Neural tissue
(3) pCO2 in deoxygenated blood
162. When the enzyme activity of succinate
(4) pCO2 in oxygenated blood
dehydrogenase is inhibited by malonate, it is a
classical example of 168. Pneumotaxic centre : _______ :: Dorsal
(1) Competitive inhibition respiratory group (DRG): Medulla complete the
analogy.
(2) Non- competitive inhibition
(1) Pons (2) Medulla
(3) Positive feedback mechanism
(4) Negative feedback mechanism (3) Cerebrum (4) Cerebellum
163. N-acetylglucosamine : _______ :: Glucose : 169. Pacemaker of the human heart is located in the
Cellulose. (1) Cardiac centre of medulla
Complete the analogy. (2) Wall of the right atrium
(1) Starch (2) RuBisCO (3) Wall of left atrium
(3) Collagen (4) Chitin (4) Interventricular septum of heart
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Test-12 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

170. If the heart rate of an individual is 60 beats/min 176. During the process of impulse conduction the
and the stroke volume is 60 ml, the cardiac depolarisation of axon takes place because
output will be
(1) Voltage gated K+ channels open
(1) 5000 mL (2) 3600 mL
(2) Equal amounts of Na+ and K+ are pumped
(3) 120 mL (4) 1600 mL
out
171. The fusion of which set of bones forms the coxal
bone of the pelvic girdle? (3) Voltage gated Na+ channels open
(1) Malleus, incus and stapes (4) Equal amounts of Na+ and K are pumped in
(2) Ilium, scapula and ischium 177. Which of the following represents the fluid filled
(3) Ilium, ischium and pubis space between lens and cornea of the human
(4) Incus, ilium and sternum eye?
172. Sarcomere is described as the part of myofibril (1) Cerebrospinal fluid
between two
(2) Synovial fluid
(1) M-lines (2) Z-lines
(3) Vitreous humour
(3) A-bands (4) I-bands
173. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t parts of a (4) Aqueous humour
nephron and their function. 178. The hormone which does not enter the
(1) Proximal convoluted – Reabsorption of cytoplasm of its target tissue is
tubule Na+ and K+ ions (1) Testosterone
(2) Bowman's capsule – Glomerular
(2) FSH
filtration
(3) Distal convoluted – Absorption of (3) Thyroxine
tubule glucose (4) Estrogen
(4) Henle’s loop – Conservation of 179. Hormone responsible for maintaining the normal
water sleep-wake cycle is
174. Ketonuria : Ketone bodies in urine : : Uremia :
(1) Serotonin
_______.
Complete the analogy. (2) Melatonin
(1) Elevated urea in circulating blood (3) Oxytocin
(2) Excretion of urea in urine (4) Vasopressin
(3) Deposits of uric acid in bones 180. Identify the structure marked X.
(4) Failure of urea production by liver
175. Identify the structure marked ‘X’

(1) Reissner’s membrane

(2) Tectorial membrane

(1) Humerus (2) Radius (3) Basilar membrane

(3) Scapula (4) Clavicle (4) Organ of corti



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Edition: 2020-21