All Full Syllabus Test

06/07/2022
CODE-A
Aakash
OeYJUS
Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8. Pusa Road New Delhi-110005. Ph
011-47623456
INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2022

MM: 720
Test 20 Time 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.
(Complete Syllabus of Class-XI & XII

Instructions:
There are two sections in each subject. ie Section-A & Section-8 You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15
(i) Each question carries 4 marks For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks
(ii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle
(iv) Mark should be dark and completel fill the circle
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only
(vi) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fuid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet
PHYSICS
Chooso the corroct answor:
SECTION-A A uniform rod of mass M and length L is hanging
1 If the net external force acting on a system vertically about a hinge passing through it's one
zero, the position of centre of mass of sy stem end The time period of rod for small oscillations
will be
(1) Will not change
(2) ill change only along a single axis
(3) Will change along all the axes )2
(4) May or may not change
Radius of gyration for a uniform solid sphere 3L
2) 2 29
about it's diametrical axis is (R = Radius of
sphere.)
(1) R
R
)2 392
2 (4) 2R (4) 269g
(33
Space for Rough Work
(1)
cST-20 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
4. A conducting rod of length I is moving with
velocity v in an uniform and transverse magnetic (2)
field B as shown in the figure. Potential difference
between centre of rod and its lower end (Vo - Va) (3) (4)
is
x
8. Consider a hot body initially at temperature T
placed in an environment at lower temperature
X
To. Choose the correct conclusions in
accordance with the given situation.
(1) The rate of emission of body is more than
rate of absorption initially
(1) +Bv (2) Zero (2) The rate of emission of body is less than rate
of absorption initially
(4) Bv2
(3) B / v
(3)+ (3) The rate of emission of body will be equal to
rate of absorption when equilibrium is
5 The focal length of a convex lens when immersed attained
in liquid having same refractive index as that of (4) Both (1) and (3)
lens will be 9 The wave function (in S.I units) for an
(1) Zero electromagnetic wave is given as
(x, ) = 10sin(3 x 10x - 9x 1014). The angular
(2) Infinity
frequency of the wave is
(3) Equal to its focal length outside liquid
(1) 9 x 1014 rad/s (2) 3 x 106 rad/s
(4) Half of its focal length outside liquid (4) 9x 107 rad/s
(3) 3x 107 rad/s
6 For a person, eye lens can form the image on 10. The phenomenon of interference is based upon
retina only if the object is placed beyond,15 cm.
1)
Conservation of charge
for the object placed at 14 cm the image formed
(2) Conservation of energy
will be
(3) Equipatition of energy
(1) Real image in front of retina (4) Conservation of mass
Virtual image in front of retina graph represents uniform
(2) 11 Which of the following
(3) On retina straight line motion?
(4) Behind retina

S S
conductor as shown
7. The thermal conductivity of (1) (2)
thermal resistance
in figure is K. The ratio of
between c and d and a and b is
points
S
(3) (4) Both (2) and (3)
d
(2)
Intensive Program for NEET-2022
12. A bodyfloats in water with 20% of its volume
CST-20 (Code-A)
17. To determine Young's modulus of
outside water. When the same body floats in an
a wire, the
oil, 60% of its volume remains outside oil. The relation Y Stress FIA is used. The
Strain
relative density of the oil is
multiplicative conversion factor to change value
1 of Young's modulus from SI to CGS
(1)2 system is:
2)3 (1) 1 (2) 10
(3) 0.1 (4) 100
(4) 3
18. A refrigerator operating on reverse carnot cycle
13. n identical drops of mercury having same electric takes heat from water at 0°C and transfer it to a
potential V coalesce to form a single bigger room at 30°C. If 100 kg of water is converted in
drop. The electric potential of new drop will be ice at 0°C then calculate the work input.
(Latent
heat of ice is 3.4 x 105 J/kg).
(2) nV
(1) 3.36 x 10 J (2) 4.36 x 10s J
(3) n2 (4) n23V (3) 3.16 x 105 J (4) 3.73 x 10 J

14. Electrical conductivity increases in the order of 19. Four molecules of a gas have speed u, 4u, 10u
and 15u. The ratio of their rms speed to average
(1) Al, Ag. Cu (2) Al, Cu, Ag
speed of molecules will be
(3) Cu, Al, Ag 4) Ag, Cu, Al
15. The reading of ideal ammeter 66
(1) 56 (2) 342
connected in the V225
following circuit is
62
www- (4) 1
4 20.Magnetic dipole moment of a bar magnet is

2.4 A m2 If.dimensions of bar magnet are 12 cm,
3 2 2 çm and 1 cm than what is its
ww.- intensity of
magnetisation?
ww
1 105 Am-1
2 2 (2) 4 x 104 A m-1
(1) 0.5 A (2) 0.4 A
(3) 2* 105 Am-1
(3) 0.3 A (4) 0.1 A (4) 2 x 104 A m1
16. When a bird of weight W sits on a stretched wire,
21. Vectors A and B have equal magnitudes of
the tension Tin the wire is always.
5 unit. If the sum of A and B is the vector
(1) (2) = W 6junit, the angle between and B can be
(1) 53 (2) 74
(3)<W 4) 2 (3) 37 (4) 106
(3)
20 TOgtdin
A satellite is orbiting round the earth. While in 27. A rectangular coil of dimensions 5.40 cm x 8.50 cm
22
orbit a small part separates from the satellite. consists of 25 turns of wire and carries a current
The separated part. of 15.0 mA. A magnetic field of 0.35 T is applied
parallel to the plane of the loop. The magnitude
(1) Falls directly to the earth of its magnetic dipole moment is
(2) Moves in a spiral path and reaches the earth (1) 1.72 x 10-3 A m2 (2) 6.8x 10-2 A m2
after few revolutions about the earth (4) 9.8 x 10-2 A m2
(3) 4.3 x 102 A m2
(3) Continues to move in the same orbit 28. In the given figure if i = 3sinwt and h = 4 cosot,
(4) Moves gradually farther from the earth then is is
23 The speed of sound in water, which has a bulk

modulus of 2.1 x 10° N/m2 and a density of
1.00x 103 kg/m> is nearly
(1) 250 m/s (2) 750 m/s
(3) 1450 m/s (4) 2800 m/s

(1) 5sin(ot+ 53°) (2) 5sin(t+37)
24. Two waves travelling in opposite directions
(3) 5sin(ot+ 45°) (4) 5cos(ot+ 53)
produce a standing wave. The individual wave
new system of
functions are 29 One calorie is equal to 4.2 J. In a
is y m
units the unit of mass is x kg. Unit of length
y1 =
(4.0 cm) sin(3.0x-2.0) and unit of time is z s. Then in
terms of new units
and y = (4.0 cm) sin(3.0x +2.0 one calorie is equal to
where x and y are measured

in centimetres. The (1) 4.2x-222 (2) 4.2xy2z2
amplitude of the simple

harmonic motion of the (3) 4.2xy (4) 4.2xPz
of the medium located at
x 2.3 cm is no dimensions is
particle 30. Quantity having units but
nearly (use sin(6.9 rad)
= 0.6) (2) Solid angle
(1) Intensity of sound
(2) 4.8 cm (4) Relative density
(1) 1.2 cm (3) Strain
(4) 16.2 cm emitter mode as
A transistor is used in
(3) 8 cm common
31.
of the electron of a namplifier. Then
25. The magnitude of energy
orbit of radius n is forward biased.
orbiting in a stationary
hydrogen (a) The base emitter junction
reverse biased.
is proportional to
(b) The base emitter junction is
(2) 1/m Base-collector junction is reverse biased.
(1) (c)
(4) 1/ connected in series with
(3) P (d) The input signal is collector
with fast bias the base
aluminium is bombarded
voltage applied to
Consider when of
26. sodium with
emission junction.
neutrons, it changes into
and (c) are correct
to the equation (1) (a)
particle according correct
Na+x, what is
the name
of x? (2) (b) and (c) are
Al+n (3) (a) and (b) are correct

(2) Proton
(1) Electron are correct
(4) (b) and (d)
(4) Alpha-particle
(3) Neutron
Work
Space for Rough
(4)
Jucton. FiNd Lana mass m IS
the kinetic energy of the hole \ying
when it crosses the
junction if the hole approached the junction from on a smooth table and
th part of its length is
the p-side
hanging vertically down over the edge of the
(1) 100 meV (2) 200 meV table. If g is acceleration due to
gravity then
(3) 150 meV (4) 50 meV minimum work required to pull the
hanging part
of the chain on the table is
33 Consider the following two statements.
A. Total electric flux (1) mgL
through any closed surface
is always zero. 5
B. Electric field due to
uniform.
an electric dipole is (2) 8 mgL
5
Which of the following option is correct? (3) SmgL
(1) Statement A is correct while statement B
is 25
incorrect
(4) 2mgL
(2) Statement B is correct while statement A is 25
incorrect
37. Two narrow bores of radius 3.0 mm and 6.0 mm
(3) Both statement A and B are correct are
joined together to form a U-shaped tube open
(4) Both statement A and B are incorrect at both ends. If the U-tube contains water, what
34. A point charge of is the difference in its levels in the two limbs of
+4C is placed near a positively
charged metallic shell. Which of the following thetube, Surface tension of water is 7.3 * 10-2
statement is true? N/m. (Take the angle of contact to be zero and
(1) Both objects will repel each other density of water to be 103 kg/m3;g= 9.8 m/s)
(2) Both objects will attract each other 1) 6.52 mm
(3) Both objects may attract each other (2) 5.81 mm
(4) Both objects neither attract nor repel each 3 2.48 mm
other (4) 1.12 mm
35. A small ball is released from a height of 20 m 38. Two conducting spheres A and B of radii 4 cm
from ground. It strikes ground and bounce back. and 2 carry charges of 18* 10- C and
cm
If coefficient of restitution for ball and ground is
9x 10-8 C respectively. When they are put in
1/2 then height attained by the ball after 3d
contact, the charge will
collision will be
(1) Not flow at all
()3m (2)m (2) Flow from A to B

(3) Flow from B to A
5
(3)m16 (4)m (4) Disappear from both spheres
(5)
CST-20 (Code-A)
39. The current drawn from the battery shown in the 44. A block slides down a ramp of inclination 45 with
figure is constant velocity as shown in figure. The
R magnitude of its angular momentum about
ww.-
point O
R
w-
R
45
() (2 3R (1) Increases continously
4) V
(2) First increases then decreases
()2R 4R
(3) First decreases then increases
40. Monochromatic light of wavelength 3000 À is
incident on a surface of area 4 cm?. If intensity of (4) Remains constant
light is 150 mW/m? Find the rate at which 45. A concave mirror of radius of curvature R is
photons strike the target.
placed at h height above surface of liquid as
(1) 9x 1011 s-1 (2) 8x 1013 s-1
shown. If image of object O coincides with it, then
(3) 9x 1010 s-1 (4) 9x 1013s-1
depthx of object under liquid surface is
41. If A = B C= 1 and X = ABC +BCACAB,
(refractive index of liquid is )
then X=
neea*a**
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 100 (4) 110
42. The minimum and maximum temperature of

day are (18 0.2)°C and (34 0.4)°c. The rise of
temperature of the day will be
(1) (12 0.2)°C (2) (16 +0.2)C

(3) (160.6)°C (4) (12+0.6)
43. An unpolarised light has amplitude A which falls
on a polariser and angle between analyser and (1) (R-h)
polariser is 30. Light transmitted by analyser has
amplitude (2) 2(R-h)
(3)-h
(3) (4) A (4) R-h

2/2 2
(6)
Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-20 (Code-A)
A metal sphere is hung by a string fixed to a wall. (1) Zero (2) 0.6 calories
46
The forces acting on the sphere are shown in (3) 1.2 calories (4) 6 calories
figure. Which of the following statements is
48. The electric current in a circuit is given by i =i
corect?
(TTension in string, R Normal reaction for some time. What is the rms current for the
from wall, W> Weight of sphere) period t= 0, to t= t.
(2)
3
() 4)
Rw 49. Two different planets have same density but

different radii. The acceleration due to gravity(9)
on the surface of the planets depend on its radius
(R) as:
a. R+T+W=ô b. T=R+ W (1) gR (2) g oc R2
C. T R+ W d. R= W tane
(1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d (3) 9R (4) goc R
(3) a, b, d (4) a, b, c, d 50. A singly charged ion completes five revolutions in

47. 300 calories of heat is supplied to aise the a uniform magneti field of magnitude 5.00 x 10-2
temperature of 50 g of air from 20°C to 30°C Tin 1.50 ms. The mass of the ion in kilograms is
(1)3.8x10-25 kg (2) 8.48 x 10-1 kg
without any change in its volume Changein
internal energy for one gram of air is SS (3) 11.2 x 10-19 kg (4) 17.38 x 10-17 kg
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A (2) HI<HBr< HCI< HF (pKa)
51. The alcohol which gives blue colourain Victor (3) l2 < Br2 F2 < Ck (Bond dissociation
Meyer test is enthalpy)
(1) CH:CH20H (2) CH-CH-OH (4) Fa< Ch < Bra « le (Density)
CHa 53. Strongest oxidising agent among the following is
(1) CIO
(3) CH,-- OH CH,OH
CH (2) CIO
52. Which of the following property is not in
(3) CIo
accordance with the property stated against it?
(1) HCI<HBr <HF <HI (Melting point) (4) CIO

(7)
CST-20 (Code-A) 59. I n magnesiui(2 =
0 are
biphenyl is optically number n
=
2 and m
Which of the following having quantum
54.
active? equal to
CH NO2 (1) 6
(2) 8
(4) 4
(3) 5
(1) mixed in the
60. Two volatile liquids A and B are
CHs NO, molar ratio of 1:2. If vapour

pressure of pure
CH 300 mm Hg and 600

mm Hg
Br liquids A and B is Hg)
then the vapour pressure (in
mm
respectively
(2) of the solution will be
Br CH (1) 500
(2) 400
NO (3) 200
(4) 350
Br
states
61. The correct statements regarding gaseous
(3) of matter are
CI direction.
SoH I. Gases exert pressure equally in all
Gases have lower density than that
of solids
II.
(4) and liquids.
amines
Gases have lower kinetic energy than that of
55 Total number of primary and secondary IlI.
possible with molecular formulaCaHeNH2 solids and liquids at room temperature.
respectively are
(1) and ll only (2) l and lll only
(2) 4 and3
(1) 4 and2 (3) 1and lll only (4) I, Il and IlI
(3) 3 and3 (4) 5 and 3
62 The total number of semi-metals among the
56. Semi-synthetic polymer among the following is following is
(1) Cellulose (2) Cellulose nitrate
Al, Ge, Ga, As, Sn, Se
(3) Proteins (4) Buna-S
(1) 5 (2) 4
57. Which of the following is/are antiseptic?
(3) 3 (4) 2
2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol-water
63 Which of the following compound is used in the
mixture. for
preparation of bleaching powder and
I1. Boric acid in dilute aqueous solution.
purification of sugar?
I1. .2% solution of phenol. (1) CaCOs (2) Ca(OH2
(1) I only (2) I and ll only
(3) CasO4 (4) Ca:SioOs
(3) I, Il and II (4) 1I and Il only
64. When Borax is heated in Bunsen burner flamne
A real gas is most likely to obey ideal gas laws at
58 with a metal oxide on a loop of platinum wire, a
(1) High temperature and high pressure blue coloured bead is formed due to the
(2) High temperature and low pressure formation of
(3) Low temperature and high pressure (1) Co(BO2)2 (2) NaBO2
(4) Low temperature and low pressure (3) Ni(B0:)2 (4) Fe(BO:)2
CST-20 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
54. Which of the following biphenyl is optically 59. In magnesium (Z = 12), the no. of electrons
active? having quantum number n 2 and m = 0 are
CH, NO equal to
(1) 6 (2))8
(1)
(3) 5 (4) 4
C NO 60. Two volatile liquids A and B are mixed in the
Br molar ratio of 1:2. If vapour pressure of pure
liquids A and B is 300 mm Hg and 600 mm Hg
respectively then the vapour pressure (in mm Hg)
of the solution will be
3
CH (1) 500 (2) 400
Br NO,
(3) 200 (4) 350
(3) 61. The correct statements regarding gaseous states

of matter are
SOH
I.Gases exert pressure equally in all direction.
Il. Gases have lower density than that of solids
and liquids.
55. Total number of primary and secondary amines I1. Gases have lower kinetic energy than that of
possible with molecular formula CaHsNH2 solids and liquids at room temperature.
respectively are
(1) Iand II only (2) 11 and ll onily
(1) 4 and 2 (2) 4 and 3
(3) I and l only (4) I, Il and lIl
(3) 3 and3 (4) 5 and 3
62. The total number of semi-metals among the
56. Semi-synthetic polymer among the following is
following is
(1) Cellulose (2) Cellulose nitrate
Al, Ge, Ga, As, Sn, Se
(3) Proteins (4) Buna-S
(1) 5 (2) 4
57. Which of the following is/are antiseptic?
(3)3 (4) 2
. 2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol-water
63 Which of the following compound is used in the
mixture.
preparation of bleaching powder and for
II. Boric acid in dilute aqueous solution purification of sugar?
II. 0.2% solution of phenol. (1) CaCOs (2) Ca(OH)2
(1) Ionly (2) I and ll only
(3) CasOs (4) CasSiOs
(3) I, Il and Ill (4) 1l and Ill only
64. When Borax is heated in Bunsen burner fame
likely to obey ideal gas
A real gas is most laws at with a metal oxide on a loop of platinum wire, a
58.
blue coloured bead is formed due to the
(1) High temperature and high pressure
formation of
(2) High temperature and low pressure
(3) Low temperature and high pressure
(1) Co(BO (2) NaBO2
Low temperature and low pressure

(3) Ni(BO2)2 (4) Fe(BO2)
(4)
(8)
Intensive Programfor NEET-2022 cST-20 (Code-A)
65. The highly polluted water has BOD value more 70. Copper crystallises into a fcc lattice with edge
than length 3.6 x 10- cm. The density of the crystal is
(atomic mass of Cu = 63.5 and Na = 6 x 1023)
(1) 5 ppm (2) 0.5 ppm
(3) 10 ppm (4) 17 ppm (1) 9.07 g/cm (2) 8.15 g/cm3
66. Statement-l: Hydrogenation of vegetable oils (3) 9.72 g/cm3 (4) 10.12 g/cm
using nickel as catalyst gives Vanaspati ghee. 71. An example of cubic crystal system among the
Statement-|l: Hydroformylation of ethene gives following is

propanal. (1) Graphite (2) Calcite
In the light of above statements, choose the (3) Zinc blende (4) Rhombic sulphur
correct option among the following. 72. Maximum number of atoms are present in which
(1) Both statement-I and statement-ll are true of the following options?
(2) Both statement-l and statement-ll are false (1) 2g of Hao)
(3) Statement-l is true but statement-ll is false (2) 2 mol of He(g)
(4) Statement-l is false but statement-1l is true (3) 22.4 L of SOs (g) at STP
67. Which among the following reaction generally not (4) 0.5 g-molecules of HeO(g)
take place at 500-800 K in blast furnace during9 73. For isothermal irreversible change
the metallurgy of Iron ore?
(1) 3Fe20s + CO 2FesO4 + CO (1) W-nRT
(2) Fes04 +4C0 3 F e + 4CO2
3) Fe20s + CO>2FeO + CO2 (2) W nC(T-T)

(3) W=- Pext. (V-V)
(4) FeO+ CO > Fe +CO2
(4) W nCT-T)
68. What is the change in oxidation number of Hg in
the following reaction? 74 Considerthe following compounds
2HgCla(aq ) + SnCh(aq.)-> Hg2Cla(s) +SnClulag)
ON NO2 NO
(1) +2 to 0 (2) +2 to +1
(4) +4 to +2
(3) +1 to +2
NO O,N No, NO2
69. For the cell reaction Zn(s) Fe(aq.)
) (i) (ii)
Zn2(aq) Fe(s), Eell will be (Given:
The correct order of reactivity towards
ET2
Zn/Zn
0.76 V and E2 =0.44 V) nucleophilic substitution reaction is
(1) 1.2V
(1) ()> ()> (i)
(2) (ii)> (i) > ()
(2) 0.32 V
(3) () ( i ) > (i)
(3) -0.32 VV
(4) ()> (i) > (ii)
(4) 1.2 V
(9)
75. Which among the following compounds on 79 Consider the following compounds
reaction with copper at 573 K gives ketone as
major product? OH
(2)
OH () (ii)
(ii)
OH
(3)
OH
76. Statement-!: A 40% solution of
formaldehyde is
known as formalin. (iv) (
Statement-ll: Ethanoic acid is used as solvent The number of compounds which will show keto-
and enol tautomerism is
as vinegar in food industry.
In (1) 4 (2) 3
light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer (3)2 (4) 5
(1) Both statement-i and statement-ll are correct 80. Statement-l: Rate of reaction of alkanes with
(2) Both statement-1 and statement-ll are halogens in presence of light is
incorrect l>BrClaFa
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-1l is Statement-l: lodination of alkane is carried out
incorrect in presence of oxidising agents like HIO3 or
(4) Statemer is incorrect but statement-ll is HNO
correct In light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer
77. Corect order of ligand field strength based on (1) Statement-I is correct but statement-ll is
spectrochemical series is
(1) F>S>ÖH>H,O incorrect

2Statement-! is incorrect but statement-ll is
(2) OH H20> F-> S2 correct
(3) HO>ÖH>F">$2 (3) Both statement-I and statement-ll are correct

(4) Both statement-I and statement-l are
(4) SH,0>ÕH>F incorrect
78. The pair of amino acids which contain sulphur 81. If Kp of the reaction 2S02 + O2 2S03 is 4 x
atomi is
(1) Lysine and Arginine 1024 then K, for the reaction

$O,SO,+;02
(2) Valine and Leucine at same temperature will be
(3) Cysteine and Methionine (1) 2 x 1024 (2) 2 x 1012
(4) Tyrosine and Serine (3) 5x 10-13 (4) 4 x 1024
(10)
Intensive Program for NEET-2022 cST-20 (Code-A)
82. Maximum covalent character among the 87. Match the reaction given in column I with their
following is in names given in column II
(1) NaC Column Column lI

(2) MgClh
(3) AIC ) Carbylamine
R-C-NH,BrNa
a.
reaction
(4) KCI
CHCIyKOH i) Gatterman
83. A ternary electrolyte AB2 has degree of b. R NH2
dissociation = 0.2. The van't Hoff factor of the reaction
electrolyte is
KO CuBryHBr i)Hoffmann
(1) 1.2 (2) 1.4
.
Bromamide
(3) 1.6 (4) 1.8 degradation
reaction
84 Negative deviation from Raoult's law is shown by
(1) Bromoethane and chloroethane
KO-ix
Cu/HCI
(iv) Sandmeyer
(2) Ethanol and acetone reaction
(3) Chloroform and acetone (1) a), b(i), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(ii), bi), c(iv), d(i)
(4) Benzene and toluene (3) a(ii), b), c(i), dfiv) (4) a), b{i), civ), d(i)
85. Average rate is equal to instantaneous rate 88. Energy of the electron in the second orbit of Li2
for ion will be
which of the following order reaction?
(1) First order (1)-13.6eV
(2) Zero order (2-30.6 eV
(3) Third order (3) 54.4 eV
(4) Second order (4) 23.4 eV
SECTION-B 89. Which of the following hydroxide is the most
soluble in water?
86. Statement-i: Lyophilic sols are more stable than
lyophobic sols (1) Be(OH)2 (2) Mg(OH)2
Statement-ll: Lyophilic sols are extensively (3) Ca(OH)2 (4) Sr(OH)2
solvated. 90. Equivalent weight of Fe in the following reaction
In the light of the above statements, choose the
corect answer from the options given below: Fe + H20 Fe:O4 + H2
(1) Statement-l is false but statement-ll is true

(1) 56 (2)
(2) Both statement -I and statement-|l are true 8
(3) Both statement-I and statement-ll are false (3) x56 (4) 8 x56
(4) Statement-l is true but statement-ll is false 8 3
(11)
cST-20 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
91. Aqueous solution of which of the following 96. Total number of lone pair of electrons present in
compounds is the best conductor of electric ICl, ion is
Current?
(1) Urea (2) Sulphuric acid (1) 3 (2) 5

(3) Acetic acid (4) Sucrose
(3) 6 (4) 9
92. Which of the following has shortest C-O bond
length? 97. When viewed by the reflected light, a mixture of
milk and water appears
(1) [Ni(CO)4 (2) IFe(CO)
(3) [Mn(CO) (4) [Co(co)-T (1) White (2) Transparent
93. Which among the following is a tribasic acid?
(3) Blue (4) Red
(1) Adipic acid (2) Glutaric acid
98. It takes 100 min for 75% completion of a first
(3) Malonic acid (4) Carballlic acid
order reaction. The rate constant of the reaction
94. Heterocyclic aromatic compound among the
following is is
(1) 0.0138 min-1 (2) 0.027 min

(1) (2)
(3) 0.041 min (4) 0.31 min-1
NH2 99. Conjugate base of HPO is
(3)
H (1) PO (2) H,PO
95. A hydrocarbon on reductive ozonolysis gives
compounds X and Y. X gives iodoform test but Y (3) HPO (4) HPO
does not. The structure of hydrocarbon could be
100 ArH is non zero for which of the following
(2) species?
(1), Smonocinie (2) Cgraphite

(4) (3) PAwhite (4) Oz(g)
BOTANY
SECTION-A (1) Family Muscidae

101. Select the correctly written scientific name of (2) Genus Solanum
(3) Order Polymoniales
mango.
(4) Class Primata
(1) Mangifera Indica
103. Select the correct statement about aerobic
(2) Mangifera indica respiration.
(3) mangifera indica
(1) It is incomplete oxidation of glucose
(2) Most common in higher organisms
(4) Mangifera Indica
(3) In all organisms it takes place in cytosol only
102. Select the incorrect match. (4) It is a process of generating NADPH2
(12)
104. State true (T) or false (F) for the following 108. All the following characters belong to algae,
statements and select the correct option. except
A. Breeding of crops with high levels of minerals, (1) They bear chitinous and nitrogenous
polysaccharide cell wall
vitamins and proteins is called
biofortification (2) They are autotrophic
B. Ratna developed for green revolution is the
(3) They have simple, thalloid body
variety of rice.
(4) Their form and size is highly variable
A
109. Select the incorrect match
(1) T F (1) Solute potential Always negative
of a solution
(2) F
(2) Simple diffusion Uphill transport
(3) F (3) Facilitated transport - Requires special
membrane proteins
(4) T T
(4) Active transport Requires pump
105. Read the following statements and select the 110. Toxicity of which among the following is
correct option. responsible for appearance of brown spots
surrounded by chlorotic veins?
A. Fungus fixes atmospheric nitrogen for the alga
in lichens. (1) Magnesium (2) Calcium
B. Lichen is
(3) Iron (4) Manganese
symbiotic association between algae
and fungi.
111.
Which ofthe following is the best stage to study
the shape of chromosomes?
(1) Only statement A is correct
(1) Anaphase (2) Telophase
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Prophase (4) Metaphase
(3) Both statements A and B are correct 112. inplant cells,
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect (1)Cytokinesis is achieved by furrow formation
(2) Furrow formation starts at the periphery and
106. Anthropogenic ecosystem does not have t h e n moves inward
(1) High productivity (3) Cell plate formation starts at the centre of the
(2) Little diversity cell and grows outwards
(3) Simple food chain (4) Both (1) and (2) are correct
113. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t chief
(4) Self regulatory mechanism
photosynthetic pigment.
107. Select the odd one out w.r.t mosses. (1) It is chlorophyll-a
(1) Marchantia (2) It has magnesium element
(2) Sphagnum (3) Photosystem I lacks this pigment

(4) It appears bright or blue green in
(3) Polytrichum
chromatogram during chromatographic
(4) Funaia separation of leaf pigments.
(13)
114. The rRNA 120. Read the following statements and select the
correct option.
(1) Constitutes 5% of total RNA in a cell
(2) Carries code for a polypeptide Statement A: Biogas production was developed
in India due to efforts of KVIC and lIARI.
(3) Has structural and catalytic role during
Statement B: In organic farming. pests are
translation
completely eradicated from the farm lands
(4) Carries amino acid during translation
(1) Only statement A is incorrect
115. Which of the given statements is true for the
(2) Only statement B is incorrect
terminator in a transcription unit?
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(1) It is present at 3' end of coding strand
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(2) It is present upstream towards 5' end of
structural gene of transcription unit 121. Select the plant group whose pollen grains can
lose viability within 30 minutes of their release?
(3) It provides binding site for RNA Polymerase
to start transcription (1) Members of Solanaceae
(4) It has some short conserved sequences, (2) Members of Poaceae

known as recognition sequences (3) Members of Rosaceae
116. Which of the given is not required during (4) Members of Leguminosae
activation of amino acids w.r.t the process of 122. The fusion of gametes occurs inside the body of
translation?
all given organisms, except
(1) Amino acids
(1) Pteridophytes (2) Bryophytes
(2) tRNA (4) Most of the algae
(3 Gymnosperms
(3) Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase 123 n plant cells
(4) ATP
Vacuole Jacks tonoplast
117. Which of the given contributes maximum to
(2).Organele involved in
photosynthesis also
global biodiversity of vertebrates? contains enzymes for protein synthesis
(1) Fishes (2) Mammals (3y Main arena of various types of activities is
(3) Birds (4) Reptiles nucleoplasm
118. Which component of CFC molecules reacts with (4) Outermost layer of cell envelope is made up
ozone in stratosphere of phospholipids
(2) Chlorine 124. Which of the following functions is not performed
(1) Hydrogen
(4) Carbon
by eukaryotic cell?
(3) Sulphur
to
(1) CO2 Fixation
119. Application of which
chemical helps overcome
(2) Protein synthesis

seed dormancy?
(1) Abscisic acid (2) Phenolic acids (3) Synthesis of lipids
Para-ascorbic acid (4) Nitrates (4) Atmospheric Na fixation

(3)
(14)
IntensiveProgram for NEET-2022
125. The structure that forms the
CST-20 (Code-A)
living component in 130. Choose the correct
the dead cell wall of plants is statement(s) for the gene
which leads to white eye mutation in
Drosophila.
(1) Middle lamella (2) Bordered pit (a) It shows pleiotropic effect.
(3) Plasmodesmata (4) Primary wall (b) Causes depigmentation in many other parts
126. Select the incorrect option regarding of body.
racemose
inflorescence (c) Shows incomplete dominance.
(1) The shoot axis continues to grow (1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and ()
(2) Flowers are borne in a basipetal order (3) (a) and (c) 4) (a) only
(3) Younger flowers are present towards the 131. Which of the given is false for chromosomal
apex theory of inheritance?
(4) Such inflorescence is seen in the members of (1) Both chromosomes as well as genes Occur in
family Fabaceae pairs in somatic or diploid cells
127. Underground stem in all of the (2) A gamete carries only one chromosome of a
following plants
modifies to store food material, except in type
(1) Sweet potato (3) The paired condition of both chromosomes
(2) Ginger
as well as mendelian factors is restored
(3) Turmeric (4) Potato during gamete formation
128. Fascicular vascular cambium is found between
(4) Chromosomes retain their number, structure
(1) Cork and secondary cortex of stem and individuality throughout the life of an
(2) Pericycle and secondary phloem of dicot organism
roots 132. Female Drosophila
(3) Xylem and phloem of conjoint vascular (1) Has smaller body size than male
bundle (2) Has heteromorphic autosomes
(4) Endodermis and primary phloem (3) Has egg laying structure
129. Read the following features related to an element (4) Both (2) and (3)
of complex permanent tissue in plants. 133. Based on the sequence of A genes, Carl
Woese found that the six kingdoms naturally
Stores reserve foods like starch orfat. cluster into B
Helps in radial conduction of water.
Select the correct option for A and B.
Also stores substancesliketannins
A B
Identify the element and choose the correct
option. (1) mRNA wo domains
(1) Companion cell
(2) 16S rRNA Three domains
(2) Vessel
(3) DNA Four domains
(3) Phioem fibre -
(4) Xylem parenchyma (4) 16S rRNA | Three kingdoms

(15)
134. Organisms with soap box like body 139. Mark True (T) or False (F) for thee following
(a) Are very good indicators of water pollution. statements w.r.t. gymnosperms.
(b) Have silica impregnated cell membrane. I. The multicellular female
gametophyte is not
(c) Are called flagellated golden protists. retained within megasporangium in
(d) Lack chiorophyll a gymnosperms.
Choose the incorrect one(s) I. The ovules are not enclosed by
ovary wall,
both before and after fertilization.
(1) (a). (b) and (c) (2) (b). (c) and (d)
Select the correct option.
(3) (a) only (4) (b) and (d) only
135. Agaricus sexually reproduces through
(1) Somatogamy
(1) T
(2) Endogenously produced non motile spores
(3) Haploid mitospores (2) F
T
(4) Gametangial copulation (3) F
SECTION-B (4)F
136. Find the incorrect match.
140. The city in India where the entire public transport
(1) Terrestrial ecosystem Desert
i.e. buses were converted to run on CNG by the
(2) Aquaticecosystem- Estuaries end of 2002 is
(3) Natural ecosystem - Forests
(1) Delhi (2) Bangalore
(4) Man made ecosystem- Ocean
(3) Kolkata (4) Chennai
137. Select the incorrect one about
logistic growth 141 Conservation of biodiversity outside the natural
(1) Resources are limiting in the environment. habitat is done through/in
(2) Species cannot grow beyond carrying, (1)
Ex situ conservation (2) In situ conservation
capacity
(3) Hotspots (4) Biosphere reserve
(3) Organisms always show exponential growth
142. The principle of complementarity governs the
(4) Population growth is represented by a procèss of
sigmoid curve.
1 ) Replication (2) Transcription
138. Read the following statements and select the
correct option. (3) Translation (4) Both (1) and (2)
Statement A: Adhesion is the attraction of water 143. A flowering plant (2n) has 36 chromosomes, then
molecules to polarsurfaces what would be the number of chromosomes in
Statement B: Transpiration cools leaf surfaces its zygote and primary endosperm nucleus
by evaporative cooling. respectively?

(1) Only statement A is true (1) 36 and 36
(2) 18 and 36
(2) Only statement B is true
(3) 36 and54
(3) Both statements are false
(4) Both statements are true (4) 72 and 108
(16)
144. Read the following statements, state them True (3) Granum Stacks of thylakoids
(T) or False (F) and select the correct option. Single membrane bound
(4)Amyloplast
A. Abscisic acid acts as an antagonist to structure
gibberellic acid
148. Which of the following options does not
B. Both ethylene and ABA are responsible for differentiate dicot leaf and monocot leaf
promoting shedding of leaves, fruits and
correctly?
flowers.
Dicot leaf Monocot leaf
C. 2,4-D is a natural auxin.
A B C (1) Leaves are Leaves are

isobilateral dorsiventral
(1) TT| Vascular bundles
(2) Veins vary in
(2) TT thickness in are nearly similar in
reticulate size except in main

()FFT venation vein
(4)FT (3) Bulliform cells are Bulliform cells are

145. Which microbe can be used for bread making
not present present in grasses
and is also known as Brewer's yeast?
(4)Stomataare Stomata are equal
(1) Clostridium butylicum
usually more in in number on lower
(2) Lactobacillus
number on lower and upper
(3) Monascus purpureus epidermis
epidermis
(4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
149. Prions lack
146. The leaflets are attached at a common point, ie
at the tip of petiole in
(1) Genetic material
(1) Calotropis 2 )Pathogenicity

(3) Protein
(2) Alstonia
(3) Silk cotton

4) Any type of biomolecule
(4) Neem 150. Down's syndrome is due to trisomy of
147. Select the incorrect match from the following. (1) An allosome
(1) Elaioplast Stores fats and oils (2) X chromosome
(2) Stroma Space enclosed by inner (3) 11th chromosome
membrane of chloroplast (4) An autosome
(17)
Z00LOGY
SECTION-A 157. The new oral contraceptive for females contains

151. Mark the correct statement w.r.t. rib cage of an a non-steroidal preparation. This contraceptive is
adult man. (1) With maximum side effects
(1) Each rib is a thin flat bone connected dorsally
(2) High in average failure rate
to sternum and ventrally to vertebral column.
(3) Once a week pill
(2) First seven pairs of ribs are called vertebro
chondral ribs. (4) Taken on the day of ovulation only
(3) 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs do not articulate 158. Select the genetically engineered bacterium that
directly with the sternum but join the 7th pair is used to clean up oil-spills.
of ribs by hyaline cartilage.
(1) Escherichia coli
(4) Last 2 pairs of ribs are non-bicephalic and
are connected only ventrally to the vertebral (2) Pseudomonas putida
column. (3) Bacillus thuringiensis
152. Pivot joint is present in between (4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(1) Atlas and axis vertebra
159. The middle layer of the wall of the eye ball is
(2) Humerus and ulna thickened in the anterior part to form:
(3) Carpal and metacarpal of thumb
(1) Ciliary body (2) Lens
(4) Carpal bones
(3) Retina (4) Cornea
153. Select the organism that does not release uric
acid as the prime excretory product. 160 How many of the following are not second
messengers?
(1) Parrot (2) Lizard
(3) Grasshopper (4) Duck-billed platypus (a) Ca (b) IPs

154. Which of the following set of volumes/capacities c) Cyclic AMP
cannot be measured by spirometer? Choose the correct option.
(1) TLC, IRV (2) RV, FRC 1) Zero (2) One
(3) VC, ERV (4) IRV, ERV (3) Two (4) Three
155. Complete the given analogy by selecting the
161. Agarose is a natural polymer extracted from sea
correct option.
weeds. It is the most commonly used matrix in
Babesiosis:: Mad-cow disease Prion technique X in biotechnology. This technique is
(1) Virus (2) Bacterium done for
(3) Protozoan (4) Helminth (1) Isolation of the genetic material
156. What was the approximate world population in
(2) Amplification of gene of interest
the year 2000?
(3) Insertion of rDNA into the host cell
(1) 7.2 billion (2) 6 million
(4) Separation and isolation of DNA fragments
(3) 10 billion (4) 6 billion
(18)
Intensive Program for NEET-2022
162. In PCR
technique, Taq polymerase adds
cST-20 (Code-A)
deoxyribonucleotides to 166. When migration of a section of
population to
another place occurs, this may not result in
(1) 3-OH end of primers
(1) Change in gene frequencies of
(2) 5-P end of primers original
population
(3) 3-OH end of template DNA strand (2) Change in gene frequencies of new
(4) 5-P end of template DNA strand population
163. A research student (3) Maintenance of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
ligated gene of interest in the
coding sequence of B-galactosidase of the (4) Evolution
cloning vector pUC8. In this scenario, which of
the following is 167. Which of the
likely to occur? following is not a correct statement
w.r.t. chordates?
(1) He will not be able to
identify between the
recombinant and non-recombinant host cells (1) Viviparity is characteristic feature of all
(2) Recombinants will produce white coloured mammals.
colonies in presence of (2) Three-chambered heart is present in
substrate
a
chromogenic
amphibians and reptiles.
(3) Non-recombinants will produce blue colones (3) Paired fins and jaws are absent in
in absence of
chromogenic substrate cyclostomes.
(4) Insertional activation of the gene for the (4) In bony fishes, gills are covered by an
synthesis of B-galactosidase
operculum
164. In large population which is in Hardy-Weinberg
a 168. Which of the given classes is named on the basis
equilibrium, the percentage of the homozygous of their
creeping or crawling mode of locomotion?
recessive genotype is 36%.
frequency of heterozygotes?
What would be the (1 Amphibia (2) Aves
(1) 0.36 (2) 0.6 3) Mammalia (4) Reptilia
(3) 0.48 (4) 0.16 169 Match column-I with column-l and select the
165. Read the following statements and choose correct optton.
correct option.
the
Column- Column-
(a) According to Thomas Malthus populations
are stable in size except forseasonar Euspongia () Liver fluke
fluctuations.
Fasciola Ci) Bath sponge
(b) When we describe the story of life on earth,
we treat evolution as a consequence of a c. Ophiura (ii) Hagfish
process called natural selection.
(c) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt
d. Myxine Civ) Brittle star
and get selected by nature a b C d
(1) (a) and (b) are incorrect, and (o) is correct (1) () () (ii) iv)
(2) (a) and (c) are correct, and (b) is incorrect (2) (i) iv) (ii)
(3) (b) and (c) are correct, and (a) is incorrect (3)(i) (iv) (i
(4) (a), (b) and (o) are correct (4) (v) () (i)
(19)
170. Assetion(A): Events in sexual reproduction (1) Only statement A is correct
after the formation of zygote are called
fertilisation events.
post (2) Only statement B is correct
Reason(R): Formation of the diploid zygote is (3) Both statements A and B are incorrect
not universal in all sexually reproducing (4) Both statements A and B are correct
organisms. 175. Choose the odd one w.r.t. jointed sense organs
In the light of above statements, choose the of cockroach.
correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Antennae (2) Anal cerci
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
corect explanation of (A) (3) Anal styles (4) Labial palps
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the 176. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. second
corect explanation of (A) heart sound?
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (1) Produced by closure of semilunar valves
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true (2) Low pitched as compared to first heart sound
171.Which of the followingis not an event in (3) Heard at the beginning of ventricular diastole
reproduction in humans? (4) It is of short duration
(1) Gametogenesis (2) Fertilisatior 177. Match column-I with column-|l and select the
(3) Implantation (4) Assimilation correct option
172. Each seminiferous tubule is lined
on itsinner side
by all of the following cells, except Column-l Column-
(1) Sertoli cells (2) Male germ cells (a) Monocytes ) Non-nucleated cell
(3) Leydig cells (4) Spermatogonia fragments
173. In humans at puberty, starts due to 6)Eosinophils (i) Bilobed nucleus
significant increase in the secretion of GnRH
Select the
option that correctly flls )Neutrophils (ii) Nucleus is bean
the blank. shaped
(1) Spermatogenesis
(2) Oogenesis
(d) Platelets (iv) Many lobed
nucleus
(3) Formation of oogonia
(4) Descend of testis (1) a(i), bi), cfiv), d(i) (2) a(i), b[ii), c(iv). d()
174. Read the given statements and select the (3) a(i), b(i), c(), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b[ii),. c), d)
correct option. 178. Choose the odd one w.r.t. the type of blood
Statement A: All smooth muscle fibres are carried by them.
involuntary but all involuntary muscle fibres are (1) Pulmonary artery
not smooth muscle fibres.
(2) Vena cava
Statement B: In nearly all animal tissues,
(3) Hepatic vein
specialised junctions provide both structural and
functional links between its individual cells. (4) Pulmonary vein
(20)
179. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. vitamin and its (1) Two copies of ssRNA
deficiency disease.
(2) Two copies of ssDNA
(1) Calciferol Rickets (3) Single copy of ssRNA
(2) Retinol Xerophthalmia (4) Single copy of ssDNA
(3) Tocopherol Beri beri
184. Read the given statements carefully and select
(4) Niacin Pellagra the correct one.
180. The initial step in the digestion of proteins in
(1) In DNA, the two strands of polynucleotides
humans is carried out in by are parallel to each other.
Mark the correct option that fill the blanks (2) The backbone is formed by the sugar
respectively. phosphate, sugar chain.
(1) Mouth, Amylase (3) The nitrogen bases are projected more or
(2) Stomach, Pepsin less perpendicular to the backbone but face
(3) Small intestine, Pepsin outside.
(4) Oesophagus, Trypsin (4) T andC of one strand complementarily base

pairs with G and A in other strand,
181. Select the correct option w.r.t. lymph nodes
respectively.
(1) ls the primary lymphoid organ
(2) Constitute 50% of the lymphoid issue in our
185. Identirý the bacterial disease that shows air
borne transmission
body
(1)Tetanus
(3) Fluid that flows in it has thesame
composition as that of blood Typhoid
(4) Serves to trap the micro-organisms that 3) Diptheia
activates lymphocytes and causes immune (4 Smallpox
response SECTION-B
182. Select the correct option to complete 186. Read the given statements and choose the
analogy. correct option.
Oral Polio Vaccine Artificial active immunity Statement X: There is reduction in the size of T-
Anti-tetanus serum: wave in coronary ischemia.
(1) Natural active immunity Statement Y: A thick wall of fibrous tissue called
(2) Artificial active immunity inter-atrial septum separates the right and the let
atria.
(3) Artificial passive immunity
(1) Both statements X and Y are incorrect
(4) Natural passive immunity
183. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome is caused (2) Both statements X and Y are correct
by a retrovirus which has as its genome. (3) Only statement X is correct
Select the option that fills the blank correctly. (4) Only statement Y is correct
(21)
187. Choose the mismatch among the following. (d) Ligation of the DNA fragment into a vector
Cnidoblasts (e) Transferring the recombinant DNA into the

(1) Hydra
host
(2) Salamandra Tympanum represents Choose the option which represents the correct
ear
sequence.
(3) Pteropus Oviparous (1) c>b>a >d-e
(4) Crocodilus 4-chambered heart (2) a>b>C->d e
188. Choose the common feature among Obelia, (3) C d a > b > e
Pleurobrachia and Asterias. (4) a->e>d>b>c
(1) Water vascular system 192. Select the correct match from the following.
(2) Water canal system
(3) Diploblasty
(1) Sweet potato and -Homologous organs
potato
(4) Radial symmetry
(2) Proteins and genes-Molecular homology
189. Read the following statements w.r.t. adut
of humans and
humans and choose the correct option.
Male reproductive system is located in the
chimpanzees
(1)
thoracic region of the body. (3) Darwin'sfinches -Adaptive
(2) The testes are situated inside the abdominal convergence
cavity within a pouch called scrotum.
(4) Antibiotic -Artificial selection
(3) The male sex accessory ducts include rete resistance bacteria
testis, vasa efferentia, epididymisand
seminal vesicle. 193 All ofthe following are required for the successful
(4) The vasa efferentia leave the testis and open implementation of various action plans to attain
into epididymis located along the posterior reproductive health, except

surface of each testis. (1) Infrastructural facilities
190. The segment of circular dsDNA of the bacterium (2) Promotion of unsafe sexual practices
which causes crown gall tumor in dicot plants is
(3) Professional expertise
(1) T-DNA (2) Ti plasmid
(4) Material support
(3) Agrobacterium (4) Bacteriophage 194. Radioactivity is used in which of the given
involved in recombinant DNA
191. A few steps diagnostic procedures?
technology are given below (1) ELISA
(a) Isolation of desired DNA fragment
(2) Widal test
of DNA by restriction
(b) Fragmentation
endonucleases
(3) Autoradiography
(4) Serum analysis
(c) Isolation of DNA is pure form.
(22)
195. The stapes is attached to the A and the 198. Mechanism of breathing varies among different
groups of animals, depending on their habitat
malleus is attached to the B
and level of organisation.
Select the option which fills the blanks A and B Which of the following organisms shows
respectively. exchange of O2 with CO2 by simple diffusion over
(1) Tympanic membrane, Oval window their entire body surface.
(2) Round window, Eustachian tube (1) Locusta (2) Planaria
(3) Tympanic membrane, Round window (3) Aplysia (4) Neophron
(4) Oval window, Tympanic membrane 199. All of the following are polymeric substances,
196. Choose the odd one among the following w.r.t. except
the number in an individual's body. (1) RuBisCO
(1) Testes (2) Ovary (2) Rubber
(3) Pancreas (4) Adrenal gland
(3) Collagen
197. Juxta-medullary nephrons in humans do not
(4) Glycerol
possess the given characteristics, except
200. Select the amino acid among the following that
(1) They constitute about 85% of total nephrons. does not contain a cyclic ring in its structure.
(2) Loop of Henle is too short and extends a litte
into the medulla.
(1) Phenylalanine
(2) Tryptophan
(3) Vasa recta is absent or highly reduced
(4) They have longer loop of Henle which helps (3) Tyrosine
BYJU'
YJUS
in concentration of urine. (4)Valine
(23)
Intensive Prograi
SECTION-B
potential barrier of 250 meV
32. In a p-n junction, a
and mass m is lying
across the junction. A hole with a kinetic
36. A uniform chain of length L
exists
the junction. Find
energy of 300 meV approaches smooth table and th part of its length is
when it c r o s s e s the on a
the kinetic energy of the hole
if the hole approached the junction
from
down edge of the
over the
junction hanging vertically
due to gravity then
the p-side table. If g is acceleration
the hanging part
(1) 100 meV
(2) 200 meV minimum work required to pull
(4) 50 meV of the chain on the table is
(3) 150 meV
33. Consider the following two statements.

(1) mgL
closed surface 5
A. Total electric flux through any
is always zero.
(2) mgL
B. Electric field due to an electric dipole is 5
uniform.
correct? (3) 8mgt
Which of the following option is 25
B is
(1) Statement A is correct while statement
incorrect (4) 2mgL
statement A is
25
(2) Statement B is correct while
3.0 mm and 6.0 mm
incorrect 37 Two narrow bores of radius
U-shaped tube open
Both statementA and B are correct
are joined togetherto form a
(3) U-tube contains water, what
statement incorrect
A and B are
at
both ends. If the two limbs of
(4) Both is the difference in its levels in the
A point charge of +4C is placed near positively of water is 7.3 x 10-2
a
34.
Which of the following sthe tube, Surface tension
charged metallic shell. the of contact to be zero and
angle
N/m (Take
statement is true? to be 103 kg/m g= 9.8 m/s*)
each other
density ofwater
(1) Both objects will repel
will attract each other
1) 6.52 mm
(2) Both objects (2) 5.81 mm
(3) Both objects may attract each other
32.48 mm
(4) Both objects neither attract nor repel each
4) 1.12 mm
other
conducting spheres A and B of radii 4
cm
20 m
35. A small ball is released from a height of 38. Two
from ground. It strikes ground and bounce

back. and 2 cm carry charges of 18* 1 0 Cand
in
If coefficient of restitution for ball and ground
is 9x 10-3C respectively. When they are put
the ball after 3rd
1/2 then height attained by contact, the charge will
collision will be
(1) Not flow at all
(1) 10
30 ()m (2) Flow from A to BB
(3) Flow from B to A

5
(3m
16 (4)m (4) Disappear from both spheres
(5)
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Dt 02/05/2022
03/09/2021
30/08/2021 CODE-A
Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456
MM : 720 INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2021 Time : 200 Minutes
Mock Test-06
Complete Syllabus of NEET
Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.
PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer:
SECTION-A (1) OR gate (2) AND gate
1. Which of the following is a wrong description of (3) NOR gate (4) XOR gate
binding energy of a nucleus? 3. Symbol of Zener diode is
(1) It is the energy required to break a nucleus
into its constituent nucleons (1)
(2) It is the energy released when free nucleons
combine to form a nucleus
(2)
(3) It is the sum of the rest mass energies of its
nucleons minus the rest mass energy of the
nucleus (3)
(4) It is the sum of kinetic energy of all the

nucleons in the nucleus
2. The combination of ‘NAND’ gates shown below is (4)
equivalent to
4. Value of current in the circuit given below is
(1) 35 mA (2) 28.5 mA

(3) 16 mA (4) Zero
(1)
5. Which relation between common base current 10. Three particles, each of mass m, are situated at
gain  and common emitter current gain  is not the vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC of side
correct? ‘L’ as shown in the figure. Moment of inertia of
 2 the system about the line AD perpendicular to AB
(1)   (2)  
1  1  2 in the plane of triangle is

(3)   (4) Both (1) and (2)
1 
6. When a conservative force does positive work on
a body then
(1) Its kinetic energy must increase
(2) Its potential energy must decrease
(3) Its potential energy must increase
5
(4) Its total energy must decrease (1) 2 mL2 (2) mL2
4
7. A particle of mass 6 gram is acted upon by a
force such that position of the particle as a 3 7
(3) mL2 (4) mL2
function of time is given by x = 3t –4t2 + t3, where 2 4
x is in metre and t is in second. The work done
during the time t = 0 to t = 4 s, will be 11. A uniform rod of mass m and length L is free to
rotate in horizontal plane about a vertical axis
(1) 528 mJ (2) 512 mJ
mg
(3) 1056 mJ (4) 829 mJ passing through one of its end. A force of is
2
8. Two balls of equal masses undergo an inelastic
collision (head on) as shown in the figure. If the L
applied normal to the rod at a distance from
1 6
coefficient of restitution is , then speed of ball the other (free) end. Angular acceleration of the
3
A and ball B after collision will be rod will be
2g 5g
(1) (2)
L 4L
(1) 1 m/s (2) 2 m/s 4g 3g
(3) (4)
(3) 3 m/s (4) 4 m/s 5L 2L
9. Tom, John and Harry are standing on a plank 12. A uniform solid cylinder of mass m and radius 2R
having mass 90 kg. The plank is kept on ice. If rolls without slipping down an inclined plane of
Tom and Harry swap their positions, then John
length L and height h. Speed of centre of cylinder
will shift
when it reaches the bottom of inclined plane will
be
4
(1) gh (2) gh
3
5 7
(3) gh (4) gh
2 5
1
(1) m towards left 13. The escape speed from surface of the earth is ve.
3
The escape speed from centre of earth will be
1
(2) m towards right
3 3 1
(1) ve (2) ve
(3) Will be at same position 2 2
2 7
(4) m towards right (3) ve (4) Zero
3 2
(2)
14. Two aluminium wires have lengths 1 m and 2 m 19. The time period of small oscillations of mass m
as shown in the figure is (All springs are ideal)
and their diameters are d and 2 d. If they are
stretched by applying equal forces, the ratio of
increase in their lengths will be
(1) 2 : 1
(2) 3 : 2
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 2 : 2
15. A force of 16 N is applied to lift a ring lying on
surface of water. If radius of ring is 2 m, then
calculate surface tension of water.
1 2
(1) N/m (2) N/m
  6m 11m
(1) 2 (2) 2
11K 6K
(3) 2 N/m (4) 4 N/m
16. Two drops of same radius are falling through air m 6K
(3) 2 (4) 2
with terminal velocity of 10 m/s. If these two K 11m
drops coalesce, then terminal velocity of new 20. A particle is subjected to two simple harmonic
drop will be motions (both along x-axis) which are given by
 
(1) 3 4  5 m/s x1 = 5sint and x2 = 5sin  t   . The path of
 2 
3 particle will be
(2) 4 m/s
(1) An ellipse (2) A straight line
(3) 3 4 10 m/s (3) A hyperbola (4) A circle
(4) 10 m/s 21. A transverse wave which is travelling along
the positive x-axis given by y = Asin(kx – t) is
17. Consider four blocks P, Q, R, S such that P and superposed with another wave given by
Q are in thermal equilibrium and R & S are also y = –Asin(kx + t). The point x = 0 is
in thermal equilibrium. However, P & R are not in
(1) A node
thermal equilibrium, we can conclude that
(2) An antinode
(1) Q and S are in thermal equilibrium (3) Neither a node nor an antinode
(2) Q and S are not in thermal equilibrium (4) Having maximum displacement A
(3) The zeroth law of thermodynamics does not 22. Stationary waves are produced in a 20 m long
apply here because there are more than stretched string fixed at both ends. If the string
three objects vibrates in 10 loops and wave velocity in the
string is 20 m/s, then the frequency of the wave
(4) Can’t say anything is
18. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of nitrogen and (1) 20 Hz (2) 10 Hz
4 moles of xenon at temperature T. Neglecting all (3) 9 Hz (4) 5 Hz
vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the 23. A whistle producing a sound of frequency 540 Hz
system is approaches a stationary observer at speed of
(1) 4 RT 33 m/s. If speed of sound in air is 333 m/s, then
frequency heard by the observer (in Hz) will be
(2) 5 RT nearly
(3) 15 RT (1) 500 (2) 600
(4) 11 RT (3) 400 (4) 300
(3)
24. The electric flux through a surface area of 27. Energy stored in the capacitor of capacitance
400 m2, lying in a space where electric field 4 F connected in the circuit as shown below will
r be
E  5iˆ  2 jˆ  4kˆ exists will be [Surface area is
lying in x – y plane]
N 2 N 2
(1) 2000 m (2) 400 2 m
C C
N 2 N 2
(3) 1600 m (4) 2750 m
C C
25. A small electric dipole is placed at origin with
dipole moment directed along positive x-axis.
The direction of electric filed at the point ‘P’ as
shown in the figure will be
(1) 200 J (2) 300 J

(3) 400 J (4) 800 J
28. Four arrangement of resistors are given below. If
ammeter ‘A’ has a resistance of 2  then which
arrangement give the largest reading when same
potential difference is applied between the points
X and Y?
(1)
(1) Along z-axis
(2) Along negative x-axis
(3) Along y-axis (2)
(4) At angle tan–1(1/2) from x-axis

26. Three capacitors each having capacitance of
1 F are connected with a battery of emf 10 V as
(3)
shown in the figure.
(4)
29. An electric heater having heating coil of 484 
connected with a supply voltage of 220 V is used
to heat water. Time taken to increase the
Potential difference across the points A & B is temperature of 100 g water by 50ºC is
5 10 (1) 140 s
(1) (2)
3 3 (2) 270 s
(3) 210 s
20 15
(3) (4) (4) 315 s
3 3
(4)
30. A galvanometer having coil resistance 20 and SECTION-B

full scaledeflection current 1 mA is converted 36. The potential difference V and current I
into a voltmeter with a maximum range of 10 V. flowing through the AC circuit is given by
Value of resistance to be connected in series  = 20cos(t –/6) Volt and I = 5sint A. The
with galvanometer for this purpose should be  average power dissipated in the circuit is
(1) 998  (2) 98  (1) 25 W (2) 15 W
(3) 50 W (4) 100 W
(3) 9980  (4) 9998 
37. An object is placed at 10 cm infront of a concave
31. A conducting wire is bent in the form of an mirror. The mirror produces a real image that has
equilateral triangle of side 10 cm. current flowing 4 times bigger size than object. The distance of
through it is 0.5 A. Magnetic moment of current image from mirror is
carrying triangular loop is
(1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm
3 (3) 30 cm (4) 40 cm
(1) Zero (2)  10 2 A m2
8 38. The wavelength of light in vacuum is 8000 Å and
in a medium is 4000 Å. The refractive index of
3 3
(3)  10 4 A m2 (4)  10 4 A m2 the medium is
4 2
(1) 1 (2) 2
32. The unit of electric current “Ampere” is the
(3) 3 (4) 4
amount of current that is flowing through each of
two parallel long wires 1 m apart will give rise to 39. A ray of light incident on a prism having prism
angle 30º is retracing its path as shown in figure.
a force per unit length between them equal to
Refractive index of the prism is
(1) 1 N/m (2) 2 × 107 N/m
(3) 4 × 107 N/m (4) 2 × 10–7 N/m
r
33. A uniform magnetic field B  B0 ˆj exists in a
region. A particle of mass m and charge q is
projected along negative x-axis with speed v from
the point (d, 0, 0). The maximum value of v for
which the particle does not hit y – z plane will be
qBd 2m 3 5
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2m qBd 2 6
qBd 3qBd (3) 2 (4) 3
(3) (4)
m 2m 40. A ray of light travelling in vacuum enters into a
34. A conducting ring is placed in a uniform magnetic medium of refractive index . It is found that
field with its plane perpendicular to the field. An angle of refraction is half of the angle of
emf is induced in the ring if incidence, then value of angle of incidence is
(1) It is translated along the axis of ring 
(1) cos1   (2) 2cos–1( /2)
(2) It is translated in the plane of the ring 2

(3) It is rotated about its axis (3) sin–1( /2) (4) 2sin1  
2
(4) It is rotated about one of its diameter
41. White light is incident normally on a glass plate
35. An ac source is represented by E  200 2 sin placed in air. If the thickness of glass plate is
100t   / 3 Volt. If this source is connected 5000 Å and its refractive index is 3/2, then
(among the following) wavelength that is strongly
across a capacitor of 10 F capacitor through an reflected by the plates will be (Visible light range
ac ammeter, then the reading of ammeter will be is 4000 Å to 7000 Å)
(1) 20 mA (2) 200 mA (1) 4700 Å (2) 6000 Å
(3) 0.2 mA (4) 2 mA (3) 5500 Å (4) 6500 Å
(5)
42. If the ratio of intensity of wave from two coherent 48. A projectile ‘P’ is fired from ground. An observer
sources is 9, then the visibility of the fringes is ‘Q’ running on ground with uniform velocity of
5 3 magnitude v observes ‘P’ to move along a
(1) (2)
4 5 straight line. The time of flight of ‘P’ as measured
by ‘Q’ is T. Then the range R of the projectile on
4 5
(3) (4) ground is
5 3
(1) R = vT
43. Mass number of a radioactive nucleus is A. It
undergoes an α-decay such that α-particle (2) R < vT
comes out with kinetic energy of 96 MeV. If Q
(3) R > vT
value of the reaction is 100 MeV. Then the value
of A is (Assume that daughter nucleus is in (4) Insufficient information
ground state) 49. An elevator is descending with an acceleration ‘a’
(1) 384 (2) 296 as shown in the figure .If block M exerts a force
(3) 104 (4) 100 Mg
of on weighing machine, then value of ‘a’ is
44. Wavelength of 2nd
line of Balmer series in 10
hydrogen spectrum is equal to the wavelength of [g = acceleration due to gravity]
one of the lines in the emission spectrum of Li2+.
The electronic transition corresponding to this
line for Li2+ is
(1) n = 4 to n = 2 (2) n = 7 to n = 3
(3) n = 8 to n = 3 (4) n = 12 to n = 6
45. The voltage applied to an X-ray tube is 20 kV.
Minimum wavelength of X-ray photon emitted by
the tube will be nearly (1) 0.3g
(1) 0.1 Å (2) 0.6 Å (2) 0.1g
(3) 12 Å (4) 6 Å
(3) 0.9g
46. A toy car starts from rest and is uniformly
accelerated for 15 seconds. The distance (4) 0.6g
travelled in the first 5 seconds is d1, in next 50. Figures I, II, III and IV show the variation of force
5 seconds is d2 and in the last 5 seconds is d3. with time, impulse will be maximum in case of
Then, d1 : d2 : d3 is the same as
(1) 1 : 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 4
(3) 1 : 3 : 5 (4) 7 : 5 : 2
47. A man crosses the river perpendicular to river
flow in time t and travels an equal distance down
the stream in time T. The ratio of man’s speed in
still water to the speed of river will be
T 2  t2
(1)
T 2  t2
t2 T 2
(2)
t2 T 2
(1) (II) and (III)
t2  t2
(3)
t2 T 2 (2) (I) and (IV)
(3) (I) and (III)
t2 T 2
(4)
t2 T 2 (4) (II) and (IV)
(6)
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 61. Which among the following properties is intensive
51. Number of atoms in 0.68 g C3O2 is (molar mass in nature?
of C3O2 is 68 g mol–1) (1) Volume (2) Heat
(1) 0.5 NA (2) 0.05 NA (3) Pressure (4) Adiabatic work
(3) 0.02 NA (4) 0.2 NA
62. If 1 mol ideal gas expanded from 5 L to 50 L at
52. Molality of an aqueous solution of urea in which 27°C then entropy change involved in the
mole fraction of urea is 0.18, is process will be
(1) 1.2 m (2) 12.2 m
(1) 2R (2) 2.303R
(3) 0.12 m (4) 122.2 m
(3) 10R (4) 20R
53. Select the incorrect value of quantum number of
last electron of Mg atom among the following. 63. pH of an aqueous solution of 0.1 M NH4Cl
(1) n = 3 (2) l = 0 solution is (Given pKb (NH4OH) = 4.7)
1 (1) 9 (2) 5.15

(3) m = +1 (4) s 
2 (3) 8 (4) 10
54. Select the atom of largest atomic size among the 64. If Ksp (CuCl) > Ksp (CuBr) > Ksp (CuI) > Ksp (CuS)
following. then most soluble salt at 25°C
(1) Li (2) Be (1) CuCl (2) CuBr
(3) Na (4) Mg
(3) CuI (4) CuS
55. Paramagnetic species among the following is
65. Oxidation states of oxygen in KO2 and Na2O2
(1) C 22  (2) N2 respectively are
(3) F2 (4) H2 (1) +1, –1 (2) –0.5, +1
56. Which among the following molecules is most (3) –0.5, –1 (4) +1, –2
polar?
66. Percentage strength of 5.6 volume of H2O2 is
(1) NF3 (2) NH3
(3) H2O (4) CO2 (1) 3.4% (2) 1.7%
57. During conversion of O2 to O 2 , coming electron (3) 0.85% (4) 34%

will enter in 67. Halide of highest boiling point among the
(1) 2px (2) 2pz following is
(3) *2px (4) *2s (1) KF (2) KCl
58. Which among the following will be the correct (3) KBr (4) KI
order of bond length? 68. Heating of LiNO3 produces
(1) C–O > C–H > C–C (2) C–C > C–O > C–H (1) LiNO2 and O2 only
(3) C–C > C–H > C–O (4) C–O > C–C > C–H
(2) Li2O and N2 only
59. 1 poise is equivalent to
(3) Li2O, NO2 and O2 only
(1) 1 g cm–1 s–1 (2) 0.1 g cm–1 s–1
(4) Li2O and N2O only
(3) 0.01 kg m–1 s–1 (4) 0.001 kg m–1 s–1
60. If equal masses of both He(g) and SO2(g) are 69. Correct match of chemical formula is
taken in a 5 L vessel at total pressure of 10 atm (1) Gypsum: CaSO4 .H2O
then partial pressure of He(g) in the mixture will
be (2) Quick lime: Ca(OH)2
(1) 9.4 atm (2) 4.7 atm (3) Slaked lime: CaO
(3) 28 atm (4) 94.3 atm (4) Dead burnt plaster: CaSO4
(7)
70. Most electronegative element of 14 group 77. Consider the following reaction sequence,
elements, is (CH ) CHCl
Phenol 
Zn dust
 A 3 2
Anhydrous AlCl3
 B
(1) Carbon (2) Germanium
(i) Alk. KMnO4 /
(3) Tin (4) Lead 
(ii) H O
C
3
71. Man-made silicate among the following is The product ‘C’ is

(1) Glass (2) Feldspar
(3) Zeolites (4) Asbestos (1) (2)
72. Heterocyclic compound among the following is
(1) (2) (3) (4)
78. Which among the following pairs of molecules

can be distinguished by haloform reaction?
(3) (4) (1) CH3OH and CH3CH2CH2OH
(2) CH3CHO and CH3CH2OH
73. In the Kjeldahl’s method for estimation of (3) CH3CH2OH and CH3CH2COCH2CH3
nitrogen present in an organic compound,
(4) CH3CH2COCH3 and CH3CHO
ammonia evolved from 0.8 g organic compound
neutralizes 20 ml of 0.8 M of H2SO4. The 79. Select the compound of highest pKa among the
percentage of nitrogen in the organic compound following.
is (1) HCOOH (2) CH3CH2COOH
(1) 28% (2) 56% (3) CCl3COOH (4) ClCH2COOH
(3) 33% (4) 84% 80. Which among the following amine respond to
carbylamine test?
74. Which amongst the following is the most stable
carbocation? (1) (CH3)2NH (2) PhCH2CH2NH2
  (3) PhNHPh (4) (CH3)3N
(1) Ph  CH2  CH2 (2)  CH3 2CH
81. Most stable diazonium salt among the following
  is
(3) Ph  CH CH3 (4) CH3  CH2
NO2
75. Which among the following is aromatic in nature? |
 –
(1) CH3 CH2N2 Cl– (2) CH3 CHCH2N2 Cl
(1) (2)
   
(3) PhN2 Cl (4) PhCH2CH2N2 Cl
82. Novolac is a condensation polymer of
(3) (4)
(1) Caprolactam and Ethylene glycol
76. Which of the following compounds undergoes (2) Ethylene glycol and Terephthalic acid
nucleophilic substitution reaction most easily? (3) Phenol and formaldehyde
(4) Melamine and formaldehyde
83. Valium is used as
(1) (2)
(1) Antibiotic (2) Tranquilizer
(3) Antiseptic (4) Antifertility drug
84. Packing efficiency of diamond unit cell is
 
(1) (2) 3
(3) (4) 8 8
 
(3) 3 (4)
16 6
(8)
85. Boiling point of an aqueous solution of 0.2 m 93. Hydrogen halides of highest pKa is
K4[Fe(CN)6] will be (Kb(H2O) = 0.5 K molal–1)
(1) HF (2) HCl
(1) 0.5 °C (2) 273.5 °C
(3) HBr (4) HI
(3) 100.5 °C (4) 373.5 °C
94. Which among the following complexes is
SECTION-B paramagnetic in nature?
86. A binary solution is formed by taking 2 and 3 (1) [Co(H2O)6]Cl3 (2) K4[Fe(CN)6]
moles of two volatile component A( PA = 400 mm
(3) K3[Fe(CN)6] (4) [Zn(H2O)6]Cl2
Hg) and B( PB = 250 mm Hg) respectively. Partial
95. Select the molecule which can show optical
pressure of B in the solution will be isomerism
(1) 100 mm Hg (1) [Zn(H2O)4(NH3)2]Cl2
(2) 150 mm Hg
(2) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
(3) 310 mm Hg
(3) [Co(NH3)4(en)]Cl3
(4) 450 mm Hg
(4) [Fe(H2O)(NH3)(Py)ClBrI]
87. Reduction potential of hydrogen electrode which
is placed in a solution of pH = 2, is 96 Correct electronic configuration of Gd(III) ion is
(Atomic number of Gd is 64)
(1) –0.33 V (2) –0.118 V
(3) –0.71 V (4) –0.92 V (1)  Xe 4f 7 5d1 (2)  Xe 4f 8
88. If initial concentration of reactant in a first order (3)  Xe 4f 7 (4)  Xe 4f 6 5d1
reaction increases to four times, then rate
constant of reaction 97 Select the hydride of 15 group elements of
highest boiling point.
(1) Increases by a factor of 4
(2) Increases by a factor of 8 (1) NH3 (2) PH3
(3) Increases by a factor of 2 (3) AsH3 (4) BiH3
(4) Remains same 98 Magnetic moment of Cu2+ ion is [Cu : Atomic no

is 29]
89. Select the ion which has highest coagulating
power for coagulation of charcoal sol. (1) 2 BM (2) 3 BM
(1) Na+ (2) Al3+
(3) 8 BM (4) 15 BM
(3) F– (4) PO34
99 Which among the following compounds does not
90. Solvent used in leaching process of bauxite is
exhibit tautomerism?
(1) NaCl (aq) (2) NaOH (aq)
(3) NH4Cl (aq) (4) H2SO4 (aq)
91. Select the incorrect statement about white (1) (2)
phosphorus
(1) It is insoluble in water but soluble in carbon
disulphide
(2) It undergoes disproportion on boiling with
(3) (4)
NaOH solution
(3) It is most reactive allotrope of phosphorous
(4) It does not catches fire in air 100. Most basic oxide of vanadium among the
92. Number of ‘P – OH’ bond(s) in phosphonic acid is following is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) VO (2) V2O3
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) V2O4 (4) V2O5
(9)
BOTANY
SECTION-A 109. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t racemose
101. Which of the given cell organelles contain(s) inflorescence
ribosomes? (1) Shoot axis continues to grow indefinitely
(A) Mitochondria (2) Flowers are borne in acropetal succession
(B) Chloroplast (3) Younger flowers are present toward apex
(C) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (4) It is seen in Dianthus
(D) Lysosome 110. Which of the given is a medicinal plant of family-
(1) Only (A) and (B) (2) All except (D) Fabaceae?
(3) Both (A) and (D) (4) Only (C) (1) Muliathi (2) Lupin
102. Which of the given chromosomes appear (3) Trifolium (4) Aloe
V-shaped during anaphase? 111. Cork cambium is also known as
(1) Metacentric chromosome (1) Phelloderm (2) Phellem
(2) Sub-metacentric chromosome (3) Phellogen (4) Pith
(3) Acrocentric chromosome 112. Which of the following can be called ‘starch
(4) Telocentric chromosome sheath’?
103. How many generations of mitosis are required to (1) Pericycle of stem (2) Epiblema of root
produce 64 cells? (3) Endodermis of stem (4) Hypodermis of stem
(1) 32 (2) 4 113. Select the correct option w.r.t ploidy of capsule,
(3) 6 (4) 8 seta and rhizoids respectively in Funaria.
104. Morphology of chromosome can be best studied (1) 2n, 2n and n (2) n, n and 2n
in (3) 2n, n and 2n (4) n, 2n and n
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase 114. Syngamy refers to
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase (1) Fusion of male gamete with egg cell
105. Which of the given is not an obligate category (2) Fusion of male gamete with diploid
w.r.t taxonomic hierarchy? secondary nucleus
(1) Phylum (2) Order (3) Formation of endosperm
(3) Family (4) Tribe (4) Formation of triploid tissue
106. In case of plants, classes with a few similar 115. Which of the following transport mechanisms
characters are assigned to higher taxonomic is/are highly selective in nature?
category called
(1) Active transport (2) Simple diffusion
(1) Phylum (2) Order
(3) Facilitated transport (4) Both (1) & (3)
(3) Division (4) Family
116. Symplast pathway of water movement
107. How many kingdom(s) w.r.t Whittaker’s kingdom
(1) Consists of non-living parts of plant body
classification system exhibit both autotrophic as
well as heterotrophic mode of nutrition? (2) Is not affected by metabolic state of root
(1) Three (2) Two (3) Is slightly slower
(3) One (4) Four (4) Involves cell walls
108. Mycelium is found to be aseptate or coenocytic in 117. Which of the given bacteria oxidises ammonia to
members of which of the given classes of fungi? nitrite w.r.t nitrogen cycle?
(1) Phycomycetes (2) Ascomycetes (1) Nitrobacter (2) Nitrocystis
(3) Basidiomycetes (4) Deuteromycetes (3) Nitrosomonas (4) Thiobacillus
(10)
118. How many ATPs are consumed for production of 126. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t most of the
5 molecules of NH3 during biological N2-fixation? species of Chara.
(1) 5 (2) 40 (1) They are monoecious
(3) 10 (4) 20 (2) Male sex organ is globule
119. The first action spectrum of photosynthesis was (3) Female sex organ is nucule
described by T.W. Engelmann. He experimented
(4) Globule occupies upper position than the
on
nucule
(1) A green alga, Cladophora
127. All of the given are monocarpic plants, except
(2) A green alga, Chlorella
(1) Wheat (2) Mango
(3) An aquatic plant, Hydrilla
(3) Marigold (4) Rice
(4) Green sulphur bacteria
128. Select the correct sequence of anther wall layers
120. The primary acceptor molecule of CO2 during C3
from outermost to innermost
cycle is
(1) Epidermis  Middle layer  Tapetum 
(1) RuBP (2) OAA
Endothecium
(3) PEP (4) 3-PGA
(2) Epidermis  Endothecium  Middle layer 
121. It is said to be protoplasmic respiration, when Tapetum
respiratory substrate is
(3) Tapetum  Epidermis  Middle layer 
(1) Fats (2) Carbohydrates
Endothecium
(3) Protein (4) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Tapetum  Middle layer  Epidermis 
122. Select the incorrect match. Endothecium
(1) Acetyl CoA — Carotenoids 129. The stalk of ovule by which it remains attached to
(2) Succinyl CoA — Terpenes placenta is called
(3) Oxaloacetic acid — Pyrimidines (1) Funicle (2) Hilum
(4) -ketoglutaric acid — Amino acid synthesis (3) Integument (4) Micropyle
123. Which of the given is/are synthetic auxins? 130. Which of the given traits selected by Mendel w.r.t
(A) IAA (B) IBA pea plants express itself in both homozygous as
well as heterozygous conditions?
(C) 2,4-D (D) NAA
(1) Only (C) (2) Both (C) & (D) (1) Constricted pod (2) Yellow pod
(3) Only (A) (4) Both (A) & (B) (3) Terminal flower (4) Green pod
124. Which of the given plant hormone is known as 131. How many types of gametes can be produced by
stress hormone? a diploid organism with genotype AaBBCcDd?
(1) ABA (2) Cytokinin (1) 4 (2) 8
(3) Ethylene (4) GA3 (3) 3 (4) 6
125. Match the following columns and select the 132. Which of the given is an autosomal dominant
correct option. disorder?
Column-I Column-II (1) Haemophilia (2) PKU
A. Penicillium (i) Rhizome (3) Myotonic dystrophy (4) Thalassemia
B. Banana (ii) Bulb 133. Consider the following cross,
C. Onion (iii) Bulbil PpQq × PpQq
D. Lily (iv) Conidia What are the chances of occurrence of a progeny
A B C D with ppQq genotype?
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) 1 1
(1) (2)
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) 4 8
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) 1 1
(3) (4)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) 2 16
(11)
134. In a polynucleotide chain, phosphodiester linkage 143. A population is said to be mature or stable, when
joins (1) Its age pyramid appears bell-shaped
(1) Two complementary nitrogenous base
(2) It shows a declined growth
(2) A phosphate group to a nucleoside
(3) It shows a rapid increase in population size
(3) Two nucleotides
(4) It has very high proportion of pre-
(4) Nitrogenous base and pentose sugar reproductive individual
135. How many different types of histones form core 144. Which of the given is least productive
part of nucleosome? ecosystem?
(1) 4 (2) 8 (1) Desert
(3) 5 (4) 6
(2) Coral reefs
SECTION-B
(3) Tropical rain forest
136. Which of the given is a start codon?
(4) Sugar cane field
(1) AUG (2) UAA
145. Which of the given constitute pioneer community
(3) UAG (4) UGA in hydrarch succession?
137. In lac-operon, permease is coded by (1) Phytoplankton
(1) lac-y (2) lac-z (2) Submerged plant
(3) lac-a (4) lac-i
(3) Scrub stage
138. During somatic hybridisation, the plant cells are
(4) Forest
first treated with
146. Species-area relationship was given by
(1) Pectinase (2) Cellulase
(1) Alexander von Humboldt
(3) PEG (4) Both (1) & (2)
(2) Paul Ehrlich
139. The crucial step for success of breeding
programme is (3) David Tilmann
(1) Collection of variability (4) Robert May
(2) Evaluation and selection of parents 147. The most important cause driving animals and
(3) Selection and testing of superior plants to extinction is
recombinants (1) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(4) Cross hybridisation (2) Overexploitation
140. Puffed-up appearance of dough during (3) Alien species invasion
preparation of bread is due to
(4) Co-extinction
(1) Production of CO2 during fermentation
148. Mark the odd one w.r.t primary air pollutants.
(2) Death of yeast
(1) CO (2) SO2
(3) Release of ethyl alcohol
(3) NOx (4) Ozone
(4) Secretion of enzymes by yeast
149. Noise become unbearable at
141. Major component of biogas is
(1) 30 dB
(1) Methane (2) CO2
(2) 60 dB
(3) H2S (4) H2
(3) 80 dB
142. Which of the following contributes to decrease in
population density? (4) 140 dB
(1) Natality and Mortality 150. Which of the given green house gases contribute
(2) Mortality and Immigration maximum to total global warming?
(3) Emigration and Immigration (1) CO2 (2) CH4

(4) Mortality and Emigration (3) CFCs (4) N2O
(12)
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 156. Complete the analogy w.r.t. Periplaneta
151. The characteristic cells of animals exhibiting americana.
tissue level of organisation and metagenesis are Spiracles : 10 pairs : : Alary muscles : ________
(1) Ciliated cells Choose the option which correctly fills the blank
(2) Choanocytes (1) 10 pairs (2) 12 pairs
(3) Cnidoblasts (3) 13 pairs (4) 6 pairs
(4) Collar cells 157. The co-factors which are attached to
152. Match column-I with column-II and choose the apoenzyme transiently, usually during the course
correct option of catalysis are called
Column-I Column-II (1) Prosthetic groups
a. Clarias (i) Claspers on pelvic fins (2) Co-enzymes

(3) Metal ions
b. Doliolum (ii) Notochord in larval tail (4) Holoenzyme
158. Read the following statements and choose the
c. Aptenodytes (iii) Presence of terminal correct option.
mouth and air bladder Statement A: The blood concentration of
d. Pristis (iv) Homoiothermous glucose in a normal healthy individual is 4.2 m
mol/L – 6.1 mmol/L.
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
Statement B: Hormones' level in blood is usually
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) expressed in nanograms/mL.
153. Which of the following is a function of areolar
(1) Both A and B are correct
connective tissue?
(2) Both A and B are incorrect
(1) Serves as a support framework for epithelium
(3) Only A is correct
(2) Specialised to store fats
(3) Site of production of blood cells (4) Only B is correct
(4) Attach one bone to another 159. Choose the odd one w.r.t. enzymes of succus
entericus
(1) Lipases
(1) Fallopian tubes – Ciliated epithelium
(2) Dipeptidases
(2) PCT of nephrons – Cuboidal epithelium (3) Amylase
(3) Air sacs of lungs – Squamous epithelium (4) Nucleotidases
(4) Pancreatic ducts – Simple epithelium 160. Gross calorific value of 10 g of fat would be
(1) 90 kcal (2) 94.5 kcal
155. The external genitalia in male Periplaneta
americana are represented by (3) 56.5 kcal (4) 40 kcal
a. Three pairs of gonapophyses 161 During normal quiet inspiration
b. Right, left and ventral phallomere (1) External intercostal muscles relax
c. Calcareous asymmetrical structures, (2) Internal intercostal muscles contract
surrounding the male gonopore
(3) Intra-pulmonary pressure is more than
Choose the correct option atmospheric pressure
(1) a, b and c (2) b and c (4) Volume of thoracic chamber increases in
(3) a and c (4) b only both antero-posterior and dorso-ventral axis
(13)
162. The enzyme catalysed reaction given below 168. Polyuria, glycosuria and ketonuria in a person
occurs in backward direction at are indicative of
Carbonic Carbonic (1) Diabetes insipidus (2) Starvation
HCO3  H
anhydrase anhydrase
CO2  H2O H2CO3
(3) Diabetes mellitus (4) Renal calculi
(1) Alveolar site where pCO2 is high
169. Match column-I with column-II and choose the
(2) Tissue level where pCO2 is high correct option
(3) Alveolar site where pCO2 is low
Column-I Column-II
(4) Tissue level where pO2 is low
a. PCT (i) Almost impermeable
163. Branchial respiration is present in
to electrolytes
(1) Adult frog
(2) Aquatic molluscs b. DCT (ii) Filtrate becomes
hypotonic after
(3) Earthworm
passing through it
(4) Reptiles
c. Ascending limb of (iii) Helps to maintain
164. A person having only anti-A in his plasma can
Henle’s loop ionic balance
donate blood to persons with blood group
(1) B and AB (2) A and AB d. Descending limb of (iv) Conditional
Henle’s loop reabsorption of Na+
(3) AB and O (4) A and B
and water
165. Volume of blood pumped by both ventricles in
one minute by a normal adult human is (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(1) 70 mL (2) 140 mL (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(3) 5 L (4) 10 L 170. Which of the following is not true for amoeboid
movement?
166. Read the following statements (a – d) w.r.t. ECG
of healthy individual and select the option which (1) Pseudopodia are formed
correctly states each statement as true (T) or (2) Cytoskeletal elements are not involved
false (F).
(3) Streaming of protoplasm
a. Atrial contraction starts shortly after start of Q
(4) Exhibited by macrophages
wave.
171. Select the correct match w.r.t. joints
b. ECG is a graphical representation of the
mechanical activity of heart during a cardiac (1) Gliding joint – Between atlas and axis
cycle.
(2) Fibrous joint – Between adjacent
c. “Pip…..pip…..pip….peeeee” sound indicates
vertebrae
heart failure.
d. Electrical leads are connected one to each (3) Cartilaginous – Between flat skull bones
wrist and to right ankle in standard ECG. joint
a b c d (4) Synovial joint – Between carpal and

(1) F F F F metacarpal of thumb
(2) T F T T 172. Which of the following parts of brain is located

(3) T F F F between hypothalamus and pons?
(4) F F T T (1) Corpora quadrigemina
167. Osmoreceptores are present in (2) Cerebellum
(1) Hypothalamus (2) Medulla oblongata (3) Medulla oblongata
(3) Heart (4) Kidneys (4) Thalamus
(14)
173. How many statement(s) is/are incorrect w.r.t. 179. The cells which are not found in the interstitial
sense organs? spaces between the seminiferous tubules are
a. Nose and tongue can detect dissolved (1) Immunologically competent cells
chemicals
(2) Interstitial cells
b. The chemical senses of gustation and
(3) Leydig cells
olfaction are functionally dissimilar
(4) Sertoli cells
c. The olfactory epithelium consists of three
kinds of cells 180. During parturition in human female, foetal
d. Olfactory bulbs are extension of brain’s limbic ejection reflex triggers the release of A from
system
the B . Here A and B are
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four A B
174. Auditory receptor(s) in internal ear of human (1) Oxytocin Foetal pituitary
is/are
a. Macula (2) Cortisol Foetal adrenal medulla
b. Crista ampullaris (3) ACTH Foetal hypothalamus

c. Hair cells in organ of Corti (4) Oxytocin Maternal pituitary
Choose the correct option
181. Which of the following is an incorrect statement
(1) a and b (2) a and c
w.r.t. adult human female reproductive system?
(3) b and c (4) c only
(1) Ovaries are located one on each side of the
175. Select the protein hormone which is secreted by lower abdomen
a gland composed of two lobes and regulates
blood calcium levels (2) Each ovary is covered by a thin epithelium,
which encloses ovarian stroma
(1) PTH (2) TCT
(3) Vaginal opening is anterior to urethral
(3) T4 (4) PRL
opening
176. Which hormone is released in response to high
(4) The last part of oviduct which joins uterus is
blood pressure?
isthmus
(1) ADH (2) Aldosterone
182. The population of India according to May 2011
(3) Renin (4) ANF census report is
177. Select the monoecious animal which exhibits
(1) 7.2 million (2) 1 billion
self-fertilisation
(3) 1.2 billion (4) 6 billion
(1) Pheretima (2) Periplaneta
183. Given below are the names of contraceptives,
(3) Taenia solium (4) Sycon
their composition and mechanism of action.
correct option. Choose the correct option
Statement A: In animals, the juvenile phase is Contraceptive Composition Mechanism of action

followed by morphological and physiological
(1) Male condom Latex Covers vagina but
changes prior to active reproductive behaviour. allows deposition of
Statement B: In both plants and animals, semen in it
hormones are responsible for the transitions (2) Multiload 375 Copper coating Alters the quality of
between the three phases of life. cervical mucus
(1) Both A and B are correct (3) LNG-20 Levonorgestrel Makes the uterus
(2) Only A is correct unsuitable for
implantation
(3) Only B is correct
(4) Saheli Progestogens Prevents implantation
(15)
184. The preferred method for assisting the case of 191. Mating of more closely related individuals within
infertility due to impotency is the same breed for 4-6 generations, where there
is selection at each step will result in all except
(1) ICSI (2) AI
(1) Increase in homozygosity
(3) GIFT (4) ZIFT
(2) Exposure of harmful recessive genes
185. When the same structure developed along
(3) Decrease in the productivity of inbred
different directions due to adaptation to different population
needs is called
(4) Accumulation of superior genes
(1) Analogous organs 192. The breeding and rearing of fishes only by
(2) Convergent evolution artificial means is called
(3) Divergent evolution (1) Fishery (2) Pisciculture
(4) Co-evolution (3) Apiculture (4) Sericulture

193. DNA fragment containing desired gene can be
SECTION-B
identified by
186. Life span of ‘A’ species is more than the life span (1) Staining with ethidium bromide under visible
of ‘B’ species then in which case new life forms light
would appear early? (2) Probe followed by autoradiography
(1) A species (3) Agarose gel electrophoresis after staining
(2) B species with bromophenol blue
(3) Simutaneously in A and B species (4) Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay based
on antigen-antibody interaction
(4) Neither in A nor in B species
194. Why same restriction endonuclease is employed
187. Select the correct sequence w.r.t. evolution of to cut the cloning vector and donor DNA?
plants a. Resultant DNA fragments have same kind of
(1) Seed ferns  Progymnosperms  Dicots  ‘sticky-ends’
Monocots b. Resultant DNA fragments have
complementary sequences
(2) Psilophyton Progymnosperms  Seed
c. Allows bond formation between the resultant
ferns  Dicots DNA fragments
(3) Progymnosperms Seed ferns  Monocots Choose the correct option
 Dicots (1) a only (2) a and b only
(4) Seed ferns Cycads Dicots Monocots (3) a and c only (4) a, b and c
188. Choose the odd one w.r.t mode of transmission 195. Bacillus thuringiensis bacteria form
(1) Chicken pox (2) Diptheria (1) Protein crystals throughout their growth
(3) Pneumonia (4) Typhoid (2) Active toxin which kills cotton bollworm
(3) Inactive protoxins during a particular phase of
189. Select the correct match w.r.t vaccine and its
their growth
composition
(4) Proteins that kill lepidopterans like beetles
(1) BCG vaccine – Killed bacteria
(2) OPV – Killed virus correct option.
(3) Recombivax HB – Polysaccharide Statement A: Notochord is dorsal to nerve cord
in chordates.
(4) Covaxin – Killed virus
Statement B: Urochordates are exclusively
190. Cancer can be detected by all except marine.
(1) Computed tomography (1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Antibodies against cancer-specific antigens (2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Techniques of molecular biology (3) Both A and B statements are correct
(4) -interferons (4) Both A and B statements are incorrect
(16)
197. The pitch of B-DNA is 199. Which of the following is responsible for LH
(1) 34 Å (2) 3.4 Å surge?
(3) 0.34 nm (4) 36 Å (1) Under secretion of GnRH

198. Select the mismatch. (2) High levels of estrogen
(1) Addison's disease – Hyposecretion of (3) High levels of progesterone
mineralocorticoids
(4) High levels of prolactin
and glucocorticoids
200. Factor which does not affect the Hardy-Weinberg
(2) Acromegaly – Hyposecretion of
growth hormone in equilibrium is
adults (1) Gene flow
(3) Cretinism – Hyposecretion of (2) Genetic drift
thyroid hormones
(3) Mutation
(4) Diabetes insipidus – Hyposecretion of
(4) Random mating
ADH

(17)
Dt 29/04/2022
30/08/2021 CODE-A
Mock Test-05
Instructions:
PHYSICS
SECTION-A 3. What is approximately the ratio of nuclear radii of
197 108
1. In a zener regulated power supply, a zener diode gold isotope 79 Au and silver isotope 47 Ag ?
with Vz = 6 V is used for regulation. The load
current is 5 mA and unregulated input is 10 V (1) 1.23 (2) 2.47
(as shown). The value of series resistance (R) (3) 2.52 (4) 3.72
required is
4. The half life of 92U undergoing -decay is
238
1.42 × 1017 s. What is activity (initial) of 1 gm of

the sample?
(1) 1.2 × 102 s–1 (2) 1.96 × 103 s–1
(3) 1.23 × 104 s–1 (4) 4.5 × 1012 s–1
5. The work function of caesium metal is 2.15 eV.
(1) 130  (2) 160  When light of frequency 6 × 1014 Hz is incident on
(3) 150  (4) 240  metal surface, photoemission occurs. Maximum
2. Two amplifiers are connected one after other in kinetic energy of emitted photon electron will be
series. The first amplifier has voltage gain of 15 (1) 1.52 × 10–19 J
and second has voltage gain of 20. If input signal
voltage is 0.3 V, the output signal voltage is (2) 0.54 × 10–19 J
(1) 100 V (2) 105 V (3) 3.2 × 10–19 J
(3) 90 V (4) 9 V (4) 4.68 × 10–20 J
(1)
6. A bus is moving on a straight road with speed of 12. The radius of earth is 6400 km. At what depth
20 m/s. A man is driving a car behind bus in below the surface of earth the acceleration due to
same direction. The driver of car observes bus to gravity decreases by 2% than on surface of
be moving at a speed of 10 m/s. The speed of earth?
car may be
(1) 32 km (2) 128 km
(1) 10 m/s (2) 20 m/s
(3) 256 km (4) 64 km
(3) 30 m/s (4) Both (1) and (3)
13. What is depth of lake at which density of water is
7. Acceleration of a particle starting from rest varies 2% greater than that at surface?
with time (t) according to relation a = t + 
Compressibility of water is 25 × 10–6/atm.
( and  are positive constant). The velocity v of
particle as a function of time is given as (1) 1 km (2) 2 km
t  
2 (3) 4 km (4) 8 km
(1) v  (2) v = t2 + t
2 14. A wire is stretched by 1 mm by a force of 1 kN.
t 2 How long would a wire of same material and
(3) v   t (4) v = t2 + 2t length but of four times radius be stretched by
2
same force?
8. A car is moving on circular track of radius 150 m
and at some time its speed is decreasing at a 1 1
(1) mm (2) mm
rate of 8 m/s2, if the speed of car at that instant 2 4
was 30 m/s, net acceleration of the car will be 1 1
(3) mm (4) mm
(1) 8 m/s2 (2) 6 m/s2 8 16
(3) 10 m/s2 (4) 14 m/s2 15. Calculate velocity of flow of an ideal fluid in the
9. Two blocks A and B of masses 2m and m lower branch of the tube shown.
respectively are connected by a massless spring
of stiffness constant k. At the instant shown,
there is force acting on 2m equal to F and
acceleration of mass m is 'a' towards left. The
acceleration of 2m at that instant is
2F  2ma F  2ma
(1) (2)
3m 3m
(1) 16 m/s (2) 32 m/s
F  ma F  ma
(3) (4) (3) 35 m/s (4) 18 m/s
2m 2m
10. A small ball is dropped from a height of 10 m on 16. A diatomic gas ( = 1.4) does 60 J of work when
horizontal floor. If the coefficient of restitution it is expanded isobarically. The heat given to gas
between ground and ball is 0.5 then maximum in the process is
height to which ball will rise after second collision (1) 210 J
with ground is
(2) 240 J
(1) 10 cm (2) 62.5 cm
(3) 160 J
(3) 105 cm (4) 16 cm
(4) 170 J
11. A motor is used to deliver water at a certain rate
from a given pipe. To obtain 3 times water from 17. An ideal heat engine operates between 227ºC
same pipe in same time, by what factor should and 127ºC. It absorbs 5 kcal of heat at higher
power of the motor be increased? temperature. What is heat rejected to sink?
(1) 9 times (2) 6 times (1) 4 kcal (2) 3.6 kcal
(3) 8 times (4) 27 times (3) 4.6 kcal (4) 3.2 kcal
(2)
18. Time period of oscillation of light springs system (1) 4 V (2) 8 V
shown in figure will be (Mass of block is 2 kg and (3) –6 V (4) –4 V
spring constant of each spring is 600 N/m)
24. A charge Q is placed at a distance 'a' vertically
above the one corner of a square plate of side a
as shown in figure. The electric flux through
square plate will be
(1) 0.61 s (2) 0.21 s
(3) 0.42 s (4) 1.36 s
19. One mole of hydrogen gas at temperature T is
mixed with one mole of helium gas at
temperature 2T in an isolated vessel. The
equilibrium temperature of the gas mixture is
11 5
(1) T (2) T
8 4
3 7
(3) T (4) T
2 5 Q Q
(1) (2)
20. When a stretched wire and a tuning fork are 0 240
sounded together 5 beats per second are heard
in both cases, when the lengths of stretched wire Q Q
(3) (4)
were 100 cm or 95 cm in fundamental mode with 80 120
same tension. Then frequency of tuning fork is 25. The velocity of the image when mirror and object
(Hz) are moving with velocities as shown in figure, will
(1) 105 (2) 100 be
(3) 175 (4) 195
21. The fourth overtone of an open organ pipe has
the same frequency as the second overtone of a
close pipe of length L. The length of open pipe
will be
(1) 3iˆ  3 jˆ m/s (2) iˆ  3 jˆ m/s
(1) L (2) 2L
(3) 2iˆ  6 ˆj m/s (4) 5iˆ  3 jˆ m/s
L
(3) 4L (4)
2 26. A convex lens and a concave lens of focal
lengths 15 cm and 20 cm respectively are placed
22. Three equal charges Q each are placed at the in contact with each other. When an object is
vertices of an equilateral triangle of side l. How placed at 60 cm from the combination, image is
much work has to be done in bringing them formed at
l (1) 60 cm (2) 30 cm
closer to an equilateral triangle of side ?
2
(3) 120 cm (4) Infinity
2 2
3Q 3Q 27. A ray of light is incident on a glass sphere of
(1) (2)
80 l 40 l refractive index 3 at an angle 60º as shown in
figure. The angle by which it is deviated as it
Q2 Q2 comes out of sphere is
(3) (4)
40 l 20 l
23. In the given figure, the potential of point M is
(1) 30º (2) 90º

(3) 45º (4) 60º
(3)
28. Three rods of same dimensions have thermal 34. With the fall in temperature, the electric
conductivities k, 2k, and 3k. They are arranged conductivity of intrinsic semiconductors
as shown in figure with their ends at 100ºC, 40ºC (1) Increases
and 0ºC. The temperature of their junction is (2) Decreases
(3) First decreases and then increases
(4) Remains same
35. The combination of gates shown below is
(1) 40ºC (2) 50ºC

(1) AND gate (2) NAND gates
(3) 60ºC (4) 30ºC
(3) OR gate (4) XOR gate
29. An electron is accelerated by a potential
SECTION-B
difference of V volt to acquire kinetic energy
equal to maximum kinetic energy of ejected 36. A battery is connected to a circular wire loop,
what is ratio of magnetic field produced at the
photoelectron from a metal of work function
centre due to arc ACB and arc ADB?
3.2 eV, using a light of wavelength 2000 Å. Value
of V is
(1) 1 volt (2) 2 volt
(3) 3 volt (4) 5 volt
30. In a spectrum of hydrogen atom, the ratio of
shortest wavelength in Lyman series to longest
wavelength in Paschen series is
1 9
(1) (2)
9 1 (1) 5 : 1 (2) 1 : 5
(3) 6 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
136 7
(3) (4) 37. A beam of electrons is moving with constant
7 144
velocity in a region having electric and magnetic
31. A freshly prepared radioactive sample having half fields of strengths 20 V/m and 0.5 T respectively
life 4 hours, emits radiation of intensity which is at right angles to direction of electron. What is
64 times the permissible level. The minimum time velocity of the electron?
in hours after which it is safe to work with the (1) 20 m/s (2) 40 m/s
source will be (3) 5 m/s (4) 8 m/s
(1) 20 hours (2) 24 hours 38. A galvanometer has a coil of resistance 20  and
its full scale deflection current is 9 A. Value of
(3) 16 hours (4) 28 hours shunt resistance that should be connected with it
32. A person can see clearly beyond a distance of so that it can read a maximum of 99 A current, is
40 cm. He wants to read a book placed at 25 cm (1) 10  (2) 2 
from his eyes. What is power of lens of his (3) 1  (4) 9 
spectacles required? 39. A small circular loop of radius a is placed inside a
(1) 2 D (2) 1.5 D circular loop of radius b (b > > a). The loops are
coplanar and concentric. The mutual inductance
(3) 1.66 D (4) 2.5 D of the system is proportional to
33. Two nuclei have their mass numbers in the ratio a2 a
of 1 : 27. The ratio of their volume is (1) (2)
b b2
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 27 a
(3) (4) a × b
(3) 9 : 1 (4) 27 : 1 b
(4)
40. In the given figure, charge stored in capacitor in 45. Which of the following is not possible value of
steady state will be radius of stable orbit of hydrogen atom? Where 
is de Broglie wavelength of the electron.
 3
(1) (2)
2 4
3 
(3) (4)
2 
(1) 32 C (2) 16 C 46. A particle is moving with uniform speed v on a

circle of radius R. The magnitude of change in
(3) 24 C (4) 8 C
acceleration of the particle in going from P1 to P2
41. To obtain displacement current of 0.2 A between is
the plates of a capacitor of capacity 0.5 F, the
rate of change of potential difference between
the plates should be
(1) 4 × 105 V/s (2) 105 V/s
(3) 8 × 105 V/s (4) 2 × 105 V/s
v2
42. In the following circuit the current through 2  (1) Zero (2)
R
resistor is (ideal diode)
2v 2 2v 2
(3) (4)
R R
47. For a particle projected with speed of 20 m/s
from ground, the kinetic energy at top most point
 1
of trajectory is   th of the initial kinetic energy.
4
(1) 1.2 A (2) 0.6 A The angle of projection from horizontal is
(3) 0.8 A (4) 1.25 A (1) 30º (2) 60º
43. Intensity of central maxima in Young’s double slit (3) 45º (4) 37º
experiment is found to be 20 units. Then intensity r
48. Vector A has magnitude of 5 unit directed along
at a point where phase difference between ur
 east, then vector 6 A
identical interfering waves is is
2 (1) Has magnitude 6 unit along East
(1) 10 unit (2) 20 unit (2) Has magnitude 5 unit along East
44. Two beams A and B of plane polarised light with (4) Has magnitude 6 unit towards West
mutually perpendicular planes of polarisation are 49. Position of particle during motion is expressed as
r
r   5t 2 iˆ  3t jˆ  m. The magnitude of acceleration
seen through a polaroid from the position where
beam A has maximum intensity. A rotation of
of particle at t = 0, is
polaroid through 60º makes two beams appears
equally intense. If initial intensities of two beams (1) 10 m/s2 (2) 12 m/s2
I (3) 15 m/s2 (4) 0 m/s2
is IA and IB then A equals
IB 50. If velocity (v), time (T) and mass (M) are taken as
3 fundamental quantities, then dimensional formula
(1) 3 (2) for gravitational potential would be
2
(1) [MvT0] (2) [Mv2T0]
2
(3) (4) 9
3 (3) [M0v2T0] (4) [M–2vT0]
(5)
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 59. SI unit of viscosity coefficient is
51. If mass percentage of sulphur in a biomolecule is (1) N s m–1 (2) N m–2
0.02% then the number of sulphur atoms present (3) N s m–2 (4) N s–1 m–1
in 16 g of biomolecule is
60. A gas is allowed to expand in an insulated
(1) 3.01 × 1020 (2) 6.02 × 1019 container against a constant external pressure of
(3) 6.02 × 1021 (4) 3.01 × 1022 4 atm from the initial volume of 1.8 L to a final
volume of 5.2 L. The change in internal energy of
52. Number of radial nodes and angular nodes
the gas is
present in 5d orbital respectively are
(1) –3.25 kJ (2) –4.21 kJ
(1) 2 and 2 (2) 2 and 3
(3) –1.38 kJ (4) –6.25 kJ
(3) 3 and 2 (4) 2 and 5
61. Which among the following is an aromatic
53. Which among the following has lowest value of
species?
negative electron gain enthalpy?
(1) Li (2) O
(1) (2)
(3) F (4) Cl
54. Which among the following has highest bond
order? (3) (4)
(1) O2 (2) NO+ 62. IUPAC name of the given compound is
(3) C2 (4) O2
55. Shortest bond length among the following is of

(1) C – H (2) O – H
(3) C – N (4) N – O (1) 1-Ethyl-4-fluoro-3-nitrobenzene
56. If density of a gas in closed cylinder is 3.5 gL–1 at (2) 5-Ethyl-2-fluoro-1-nitrobenzene
4.1 atm pressure and 127°C temperature then (3) 4-Ethyl-1-fluoro-2-nitrobenzene
molar mass of the gas will be
(4) 3-Ethyl-6-fluoro-1-nitrobenzene
(R = 0.082 L atm K–1 mol–1)
63. The species in which hyperconjugation does not
(1) 32 g mol–1 (2) 28 g mol–1 occur is
(3) 40 g mol–1 (4) 46 g mol–1
(1) (2)
57. Ratio of root mean square speed of O2 at
200 K and N2 at 400 K will be
(3) (4)
(1) 3 : 2 7 (2) 7:4
64. Consider the following statements
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1: 2 2
(a) Anthracene contains 14  electrons
58. Consider the following reaction at equilibrium
(b) Phenol is reduced to cyclohexane by passing
PCl5 (g)  PCl3 (g) + Cl2(g). If some amount of its vapours over heated zinc dust
argon gas is added to the reaction mixture at (c) Benzene on reaction with acetyl chloride in
constant pressure then presence of anhydrous AlCl3 forms
(1) Dissociation of PCl5 increases acetophenone
(2) Formation of PCl5 increases The correct statements are
(3) There is no effect on equilibrium (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(4) Equilibrium constant value increases (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
(6)
65. The compound which will react fastest by SN1 70. Consider the following reaction sequence
mechanism is
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
66. Consider the following reaction sequence

Major product C is
CH3 CH2OH 
Cu
573 K
 A 
dilute NaOH

B (major)
Major product B is
(1) (2)
O
||
(1) CH3CH2  C  CH3
O
||
(2) CH3CH  CH  C H
(3) CH3COONa+
(3) (4)
OH
|
(4) CH3  CH2  CH CH3
67. Most acidic compound among the following is 71. The compound which does not reduce Tollens’
reagent is
(1) Glucose
(1) (2) (2) Benzaldehyde
(3) Fructose
(4) Sucrose
72. Which of the following amino acids contain
sulphur atom?
(3) (4)
(1) Serine (2) Tyrosine
(3) Histidine (4) Cysteine
68. Major product obtained on reaction of sodium 73. Monomer of neoprene is

phenoxide with CO2 followed by acidic hydrolysis (1) CH2  CH  C  CH2
|
is CH3
(1) 4-Hydroxybenzoic acid
(2) CH2 = CH – CN
Cl
(3) 3-Hydroxybenzoic acid |
(3) CH2  C  CH  CH2
(4) Benzoic acid
(4) Ph – CH = CH2
69. The compound which does not give yellow
precipitate on reaction with NaOI is 74. Iproniazid is used as a/an
(1) Acetone (1) Antihistamine drug
(2) Acetaldehyde (2) Tranquilizer
(3) Isopropanol (3) Antipyretic drug
(4) Formaldehyde (4) Antibiotic
(7)
75. When benzene diazonium fluoroborate is heated 82. Bond order of Cl – O bond in ClO4 is
with aqueous sodium nitrite solution in the
presence of copper then the product formed is (1) 2 (2) 1.5
(3) 1.33 (4) 1.75
83. Most common oxidation state of vanadium is
(1) (2) (1) +2 (2) +3
(3) +4 (4) +5
84. Which metal is most easily oxidised to its divalent
metal cation?
(1) Cr (2) Mn
(3) (4) (3) Co (4) Zn
85. Spin only magnetic moment value of [Mn(CN) 6]3–
76. SF4 is isostructural with ion is
(1) 2.83 BM (2) 3.87 BM
(1) XeF4 (2) SO24
(3) 4.9 BM (4) 1.73 BM
(3) XeO2F2 (4) [ICI4]– SECTION-B
77. Which among the following is an oxide ore of 86. Which among the following is not an outer orbital
metal? complex?
(1) Zincite (2) Sphalerite (1) [Co(C2O4)3]3– (2) [MnCl6]3–
(3) Calamine (4) Copper glance (3) [FeF6]3– (4) [CoF6]3–
78. The metal which is refined by liquation is 87. IUPAC name of the given compound is
K3[Cr(C2O4)3]
(1) Zn (2) Sn
(1) Potassium trioxalatochromium(III)
(3) In (4) Ni
(2) Potassium trioxalatochromate(III)
(3) Potassium trioxalatochromate(IV)
(a) In acidic medium, nitrous acid disproportionate (4) Potassium trioxalatochromium(IV)
to nitric acid and nitrogen gas
88. The enzyme which converts starch to maltose is
(b) Ammonium nitrate on heating gives nitrous
(1) Diastase (2) Zymase
oxide
(3) Maltase (4) Invertase
(c) N – N bond is present both in N2O3 and N2O4
89. In whipped cream, the dispersed phase and
gases
dispersion medium respectively are
The correct statements are (1) Liquid and liquid (2) Gas and liquid
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only (3) Liquid and gas (4) Liquid and solid
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) 90. If rate constant of a first order reaction is
80. Product which is not obtained on the reaction of 2.31 × 10–3 s–1 and initial concentration of the
white phosphorous with thionyl chloride is reactant is 1.6 M then the rate of the reaction
after second half life period will be
(1) PCl3 (2) SO2
(1) 4.6 × 10–3 M s–1 (2) 2.5 × 10–2 M s–1
(3) S2Cl2 (4) POCl3 (3) 7.5 × 10–3 M s–1 (4) 9.2 × 10–4 M s–1
81. Correct order of boiling point of the given 91. A hydrogen gas electrode is made by dipping
compounds is platinum wire in a solution of HCl of pH = 4 and
(1) HI > HF > HBr > HCl passing hydrogen gas around the platinum wire
at one atm pressure and at 298 K. The reduction
(2) HF > HCl > HI > HBr potential of the hydrogen electrode would be
(3) HF > HI > HBr > HCl (1) – 0.059 V (2) – 0.118 V
(4) HI > HBr > HCl > HF (3) – 0.177 V (4) – 0.236 V
(8)
92. Correct order of limiting molar conductivity of the 97. Consider the following statements
given ions at 298 K is (a) Density of sodium is more than potassium.
(1) Br   Cl  OH (2) OH  Cl  Br  (b) Potassium carbonate is manufactured by
Solvay process
(3) Cl  Br   OH (4) OH  Br   Cl
(c) LiNO3 evolves NO2 gas on heating but
93. If AgCl is doped with 10–6 mol% of CdCl2, the NaNO3 does not
concentration of cation vacancies will be The correct statement(s) is/are
(1) 6.02 × 1017 mol–1 (2) 6.02 × 1016 mol–1 (1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only
(3) 6.02 × 1015 mol–1 (4) 6.02 × 1018 mol–1 (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
94. If 0.2 m aqueous solution of K4[Fe(CN)6] is 100% 98. Which among the following does not exist?
ionised, then the freezing point of the solution will (1) SiF62 (2) [Sn(OH)6]2–
be (Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1)
(3) [GeCl6]2– (4) [SiCl6]2–
(1) – 3.21°C (2) –1.86°C
99. In Carius method of estimation of halogens, 0.5 g
(3) 1.86°C (4) –0.37°C of an organic compound gave 0.376 g of AgBr.
95. Which among the following does not The percentage of bromine in the compound is
disproportionate in alkaline medium? (Atomic mass of Ag = 108 u and Br = 80 u)
(1) 16% (2) 48%
(1) F2 (2) Cl2
(3) 64% (4) 32%
(3) S8 (4) P4
100. The molar solubility of Agl (Ksp = 8.3 × 10–17) in
96. Metallic hydride among the following is 0.1 M KI solution will be
(1) NaH (2) LiH (1) 8.3 × 10–16 M (2) 8.3 × 10–8 M
(3) CrH (4) MgH2 (3) 8.3 × 10–15 M (4) 8.3 × 10–17 M
BOTANY
SECTION-A 104. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex occurs in
101. Which of the given cell organelles do not contain (1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene
DNA? (3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene
A. Mitochondria B. Chloroplast 105. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. taxonomic
C. Golgi complex D. Lysosome categories of wheat.
The correct ones are (1) Family – Poaceae

(2) Order – Monocotyledonae
(1) A and B (2) A and C
(3) Division – Angiospermae
(3) B and C (4) C and D
(4) Genus – Triticum
102. Which of the given chromosomes appear
106. Rules of scientific naming of animals is assigned
L-shaped during anaphase?
in
(1) Metacentric (2) Sub-metacentric
(1) ICBN (2) ICNCP
(3) Acrocentric (4) Telocentric
(3) ICZN (4) ICNB
103. What will be the DNA content at the end of 107. Bacteria are the sole members of which of the
S-phase of cell if its meiotic products have 8 pg given kingdom w.r.t Whittaker’s kingdoms system
of DNA in each cell? of classification?
(1) 8 pg (2) 16 pg (1) Monera (2) Protista
(3) 4 pg (4) 32 pg (3) Fungi (4) Animalia
(9)
108. The parasitic fungi on mustard causing white rust 116. Active transport differs from facilitated transport
of leaves is as the former
(1) Phytophthora (2) Albugo (1) Requires special membrane protein
(3) Pythium (4) Colletotrichum (2) Is highly selective
109. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. cymose (3) Shows response to protein inhibitors
inflorescence. (4) Is ATP dependent
(1) Peduncle terminates into a flower 117. Deficiency of which of the given sets of elements
(2) Shoot axis continues to grow indefinitely causes necrosis?
(3) Flowers are borne in a basipetal order (1) N, S and Fe (2) N, S and Mo
(4) It can be seen in Begonia and Teak (3) Ca, Mg, Cu and K (4) Zn, Mo, Fe and S
110. Which of the given symbols represents 118. Which of the given prokaryotes fixes nitrogen
epipetalous stamens? symbiotically as well as in free living state?
(1) Rhizobium (2) Thiobacillus
(1) C A (2) P A
(3) Anabaena (4) Azotobacter
(3) A  (4) K(n) 119. How many ATPs are consumed to fix one
111. Vascular bundles are conjoint and open in molecule of CO2 in C3 pathway?
(1) Dicot root (2) Dicot stem (1) Two (2) Three
(3) Monocot stem (4) Monocot root (3) Eighteen (4) Twelve
112. Refer the given statements and select the 120. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t.
correct option. Photosystem II.
(1) The reaction centre is P680
Statement A : Cork cambium is also called the
extrastelar cambium. (2) It occurs on the inner surface of the
thylakoids
Statement B : Phelloderm develops during
secondary growth. (3) It is found in both grana and stroma lamellae
(1) Only statement A is correct (4) It is involved only in non-cyclic flow of
electrons
121. Which of the given organic molecules have RQ
(3) Both statements are correct
less than unity?
(4) Both statements are incorrect
A. Fat B. Oxalic acid
113. How many of the given plants has/have
C. Protein D. Carbohydrate
archegonia and produce(s) seeds in their life-
cycle? (1) A and B (2) B and C
(3) C and D (4) A and C
Marchantia, Cedrus, Ginkgo, Funaria, Pinus,
122. Conversion of glucose to glucose 6-phosphate in
Mustard, Sunflower
EMP pathway is catalysed by
(1) Two (2) Three (1) Aldolase
(3) Five (4) One (2) Phosphofructokinase
114. Which of the given is a red alga? (3) Enolase
(1) Chara (2) Volvox (4) Hexokinase
(3) Polysiphonia (4) Ulothrix 123. Which of the given plants do not show any
115. Water channels are made up of how many correlation between exposure to light duration
different types of aquaporins? and induction of flowering response?
(1) Eight (2) Four (1) Tomato (2) Tobacco
(3) Five (4) Twenty (3) Wheat (4) Radish
(10)
124. Cells in the meristematic phase exhibits all of the 132. In which genetic condition, each cell in the
given characteristics, except affected person, has only one sex chromosome
i.e., XO?
(1) Dense protoplasm
(1) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(2) High respiration rate
(2) Thalassemia
(3) Presence of large nucleus
(3) Colourblindness
(4) Increased vacuolation
(4) Turner’s syndrome
125. Which one of the following is correctly matched.
133. In Mendelian dihybrid cross, out of 240
(1) Water hyacinth – Conidia individuals obtained in F2 generation, how many
(2) Banana – Offset of the offsprings would be pure homozygous?
(3) Chlamydomonas – Zoospores (1) 60 (2) 30
(4) Ginger – Sucker (3) 120 (4) 40
126. Which of the given algae produces isogametes? 134. In the structure of polynucleotide chain,
phosphoester linkage joins
(1) Cladophora (2) Fucus
(1) Two complementary nitrogenous bases
(3) Volvox (4) Chara
(2) A phosphate group to nucleoside
127. Cells of innermost layer of anther
(3) Two hexose sugars
(1) Have -cellulosic fibrous band
(4) Nitrogenous base and pentose sugar
(2) Do not degenerate
135. During post-transcriptional processing, ______ is
(3) Nourish the developing pollen grains added to the 5 – end of hnRNA.
(4) Help in dehiscence of anther Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
128. Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils (1) Adenylate residues
because of the presence of (2) Methyl guanosine triphosphate
(1) Sporopollenin (2) Cellulose (3) Adenosine monophosphate
(3) Pectin (4) Both (2) and (3) (4) Deoxythymidine
129. Wind-pollinated flowers show all of the given SECTION-B
characteristics, except
136. Select the odd one w.r.t stop codons.
(1) Pollen grains are light and non-sticky
(1) AUG (2) UAA
(2) Flowers have well-exposed stamens (3) UAG (4) UGA
(3) Flowers have large feathery stigma
137. In human genome, chromosome 1 has A
(4) Pollen grains are generally surrounded by
genes and the Y has B genes.
mucilaginous covering
130. Which of the given traits of pea plants selected Select he correct option to fill in the blanks A
by Mendel expresses itself only in homozygous and B.
condition? (1) A – 231, B – 2968 (2) A – 2968, B – 231
(1) Round seed (2) White flower (3) A – 123, B – 2698 (4) A – 2698, B – 123
(3) Inflated pod (4) Axial flower 138. Recovery of healthy plants from diseased plants
is possible by
131. How many types of gametes can be produced by
a diploid organism, if it is heterozygous for three (1) Protoplast culture
locus? (2) Embryo culture
(1) 3 (2) 8 (3) Meristem culture
(3) 9 (4) 6 (4) Both (1) and (2)
(11)
139. Pusa Shubhra is bred by hybridisation and 144. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t
selection for resistance to black rot and curl blight anthropogenic ecosystem.
black rot is a variety of (1) It possess self regulatory mechanism
(1) Wheat (2) It has little diversity
(2) Brassica (3) Simple food chain is present in it

(4) It shows high productivity
(3) Chilli
145. Which of the given is not seral community w.r.t.
(4) Cauliflower
xerarch succession?
140. Match column-I with column-II and select the (A) Lichens (B) Bryophytes
correct option
(C) Herbs (D) Forest
Column-I Column-II (1) Only (A)
(2) Both (B) and (C)
a. Cyclosporin A (i) Blood-cholesterol
lowering agent (3) Both (A) and (D)
(4) Only (C)
b. Statins (ii) Clot buster
146. The effect of reduction in biodiversity has been
c. Streptokinase (iii) Immunosuppressive explained through Rivet popper hypothesis by
agent (1) Alexander von Humboldt
(2) Paul Ehrlich
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)
(3) Robert May
(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
(4) David Tilman
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)
147. Which of the following is an example of organism
(4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) that has recently become extinct in Africa?
141. The technology of biogas production was (1) Dodo
developed in India mainly due to the efforts of (2) Thylacine
(1) IARI (3) Steller’s sea cow
(2) KVIC (4) Quagga
(3) Ministry of Environment and Forest 148. Biomagnification is found to be maximum in

which of the given organisms of an aquatic food
(4) Both (1) and (2) chain?
142. Which of the given refers to number of deaths in (1) Zooplankton
the population during a given period? (2) Small fish
(1) Natality (3) Large fish
(2) Mortality (4) Fish-eating birds
(3) Immigration 149. Ramesh Chandra Dagar is associated with
(4) Emigration (1) Remedy to plastic waste

(2) Integrated organic farming
143. Epiphytes growing on mango tree is an example
of which of the given population interaction? (3) Chipko Movement
(4) Appiko Movement
(1) Commensalism
150. How many meiotic divisions are required to
(2) Mutualism
produce 100 seeds in a typical flowering plant?
(3) Amensalism (1) 25 (2) 100
(4) Competition (3) 50 (4) 125
(12)
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 155. The below given figures (a) and (b) are included
151. Select the correct option w.r.t. animals and their in connective tissue. Select the correct option
characteristics. w.r.t. figures (a) and (b).
Animals Characteristics
(1) Pennatula – Exhibit metagenesis
(2) Asterias – Possess water canal

system
(3) Pleurobrachia – Exhibit internal

(1) (a) is included in dense regular connective
fertilisation
tissue
(4) Chiton – Possess calcareous (2) (b) allows compression and is present in
exoskeleton limbs
152. Among Aedes, Limulus, Pheretima, Ancylostoma, (3) In humans (a) is considered as haemopoietic
Antedon, how many possess true coelom, organ
segmentation and closed circulatory system? (4) (b) interact with skeletal muscles that are
attached to them to bring about movement
(1) One
156. Inner lining of ducts of salivary gland and
(2) Two
pancreatic duct consists of
(3) Three
(1) Simple squamous epithelium
(4) Four (2) Simple columnar epithelium
153. Choose the correct statements w.r.t. chordates. (3) Compound epithelium
(1) All chordates possess notochord in adult as (4) Ciliated epithelium
well as in embryonic stage
157. Select the hormone of adrenal cortex which is
(2) In all chordates, the dorsal hollow nerve responsible for hyperglycaemia.
chord is replaced by brain and spinal cord (1) Aldosterone (2) Epinephrine
(3) Heart is ventral in all chordates without any (3) Cortisol (4) Sex corticoids
exception
158. Which lobe of pituitary is connected to
(4) Post anal tail is present in adult stage also, in hypothalamus through hypophyseal portal
some chordates system?
154. Read the following statements and choose the (1) Neurohypophysis
correct answer. (2) Adenohypophysis
A. The amphibians possess eyelids and (3) Pars nervosa
tympanum represents ear in them
(4) Posterior lobe of pituitary
B. Animals which possess paired and unpaired
159. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. hormone and
fins are included in super class Pisces its action.
(1) Both statements A and B are correct (1) PRL – Acts on mammary gland
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect (2) MSH – Acts on melanocytes
(3) Only statement A is correct (3) ACTH – Acts on adrenal gland
(4) Only statement B is correct (4) GnRH – Acts on gonads
(13)
160. Match the column I with column II and choose 166. Filtration slits or slit pores are spaces maintained
the correct answer. by
(1) Podocytes in parietal layer of Bowman's
a. Limbic system (i) Thirst centre
capsule
b. Hypothalamus (ii) Emotional brain (2) Renal pyramids in medullary region
c. Medulla (iii) Major coordinating (3) Cells of glomerular capillary

oblongata centre for sensory and (4) Podocytes in visceral layer of Bowman's
motor impulses capsule
167. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. type of WBCs
d. Thalamus (iv) Vomiting centre
and their percentage of total WBC count.
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (1) Eosinophils – 2-3%
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) Neutrophils – 60-65%
161. Vestibular apparatus contains (3) Basophils – 0.5-1%
(1) Semicircular canals and cochlea (4) Monocytes – 20-25%
(2) Semicircular canals and otolith organ 168. During ventricular systole
(3) Otolith membrane and cochlea A. Blood gets filled in atria.

B. AV valves remain close.
(4) Middle ear and cochlea
C. 70 ml blood is pumped by each ventricle.
162. Hexoses are rapidly absorbed across the wall of
the small intestine into capillaries which finally (1) A and B are correct, C is incorrect
drain them into (2) B and C are correct, A is incorrect
(1) Hepatic artery (2) Hepatic portal vein (3) A and C are correct, B is incorrect
(3) Hepatic vein (4) Carotid vein (4) All of these are correct
163. Which of the following respiratory capacity 169. Common passage for bile and pancreatic juice is
includes residual volume? (1) Duct of Wirsung
(1) TLC (2) VC (2) Hepato-pancreatic duct
(3) IC (4) EC (3) Duct of Santorini
164. Given below is a list of some structures of human (4) Cystic duct
respiratory system in a box. 170. Even in presence of ADH, the maximum
reabsorption of water occurs in
Primary bronchi, Trachea, Terminal bronchiole,
(1) DCT (2) PCT
Respiratory bronchiole
(3) Loop of Henle (4) Collecting duct
How many of them do not possess incomplete 171. All of the following muscles possess gap
cartilaginous rings? junctions, except
(1) One (2) Two (1) Muscles in stomach wall
(3) Four (4) Three (2) Muscles in abdominal wall
165. In humans, the contraction of which of the (3) Cardiac muscles
following muscle causes an increase in the (4) Muscles of urinary bladder
volume of thoracic chamber in dorso-ventral
172. Which of the following bones in human body are
axis?
involved in the formation of pivot joint?
(1) Abdominal muscles (1) Radius and humerus
(2) Internal intercostal muscles (2) Carpal and metacarpal of thumb
(3) External intercostal muscles (3) Femur and tibia
(4) Muscles of diaphragm (4) Atlas and axis
(14)
173. In cockroach, the elytra are present in 180. According to the 2011 census report, the
(1) Head region population growth rate was less than
(2) Neck region (1) 20 / 100 / year
(3) Thorax region (2) 10 / 100 / year
(4) Abdominal region (3) 20 / 1000 / year

(4) 10 / 1000 / year
174. -1,4 glycosidic linkage is present in
181. The extinct hominid who lived in near-east and
(1) Starch (2) Inulin
central Asia between 1,00,000 – 40,000 years
(3) Cellulose (4) Glycogen back and used hides to protect their body, were
175. Menstruation is triggered by an abrupt decline in (1) Cro-Magnon man
the amount of a hormone secreted by
(2) Australopithecines
(1) Pituitary gland
(3) Homo erectus
(2) Secondary oocyte
(4) Neanderthal man
(3) Ovary
182. Pelycosaurs were evolved from
(4) Tertiary follicle
(1) Therapsids (2) Thecodonts
176. Chromosome number in meiocyte of butterfly is
(3) Sauropsids (4) Synapsids
(1) 78 (2) 380
183. Complete the analogy.
(3) 46 (4) 630
Pneumonia : Alveoli : : Common cold : ______
177. A receives a duct from seminal vesicle and (1) Lungs
opens into urethra as the B . (2) Nose and upper respiratory passage
Choose the option that correctly fills the blanks (3) Lungs and respiratory passage
A and B.
(4) Alveoli
A B
184. Choose the odd one w.r.t. marsupial radiation.
(1) Rete testis Vasa efferentia
(1) Wombat (2) Bandicoot
(2) Vas deferens Ejaculatory duct
(3) Sugar glider (4) Lemur
(3) Epididymis Vas deferens
185. Match the column I with column II and choose
(4) Vasa efferentia Rete testis the correct answer.
178. During embryonic development, the body of
Column I Column II
foetus is covered with fine hair by the end of
a. T-lymphocyte (i) Included in opiates
(1) First trimester
(2) Second trimester b. Macrophages (ii) Cellular barrier of
innate immunity
(3) Fifth month of pregnancy
(4) Second month of pregnancy c. Anti-tetanus (iii) Rejection of
injection transplanted organ
179. Among the given below STIs, how many are
caused by bacteria? d. Codeine (iv) Passive immunity
Genital herpes, Genital warts, Chlamydiasis, (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
Trichomoniasis (2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(1) One (2) Two (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) Three (4) Four (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(15)
SECTION-B 190. Choose the incorrect statement.

186. The figure given below is a diagrammatic (1) In gel electrophoresis, the undigested DNA
representation of the pBR322 vector. fragment is likely to move least distance
If recombinants can grow only in Ampicillin- (2) Any piece of DNA when linked to ori site
containing medium, then we can say the gene of sequence can be made to replicate within
interest was inserted in: host cells
(3) EcoRI breaks the bond between sugar and
nitrogenous base in a DNA
(4) PCR is included in molecular diagnosis
191. Choose the odd one w.r.t. recombinant
therapeutics.
(1) Erythropoietin (2) FSH
(3) Estrogen (4) Somatotropin
192. The technique to get pure line in cattles is
(1) Out-breeding
(2) Inbreeding
(1) X (2) T (3) Interspecific hybridisation
(3) P (4) Q (4) Out-crossing
187. Which of the following enzyme is not used for 193. Benign tumors:
extraction of DNA from a bacterium? (1) Show a property of contact inhibition
(1) Lysozyme (2) Exhibit metastasis
(2) Ribonuclease (3) Remain confined to their original location
(3) Chitinase (4) Depict malignancy
(4) Protease 194. Match the secondary metabolites given in column
188. Correct palindromic sequence of restriction I with their examples given in column II.
enzyme Hind III is Column I Column II
(1) 5-GAATTC-3
a. Toxins (i) Vinblastine, curcumin
3-CTTAAG-5
b. Drugs (ii) Morphine, codeine
(2) 5-GGATCC-3
3-CCTAGG-5 c. Alkaloids (iii) Concanavalin A
(3) 5-AAGCTT-3 d. Lectins (iv) Abrin, Ricin

3-TTCGAA-5 Choose the correct option.
(4)5-CCCGGG-3 (1) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
3-GGGCCC-5 (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
189. The vector used to transfer a gene to produce (3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
pest-resistant tobacco plant is
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(1) pBR322
195. Which of the following is not a dioecious
(2) pUC8 organism?
(3) Modified Ti plasmid (1) Ascaris (2) Octopus
(4) Simian virus (3) Wuchereria (4) Ctenoplana
(16)
196. Choose the mismatch w.r.t. scientific name and A B C
common name of certain animals.
(1) T T T
Scientific name Common name
(2) T T F
(1) Exocoetus – Flying fish
(3) F T F
(2) Scoliodon – Dog fish
(4) T F F
(3) Gorgonia – Sea-fan
198. In which of the following ART, embryo is formed
(4) Aplysia – Sea-mouse by in-vitro fertilisation?
(1) ICSI (2) IUI
option which correctly states each statement as (3) AI (4) GIFT
true (T) or false (F). 199. Over-secretion of GH in adults lead to
A. The bolus is conveyed from pharynx to (1) Gigantism (2) Acromegaly

oesophagus by the process called deglutition. (3) Dwarfism (4) Cretinism
B. Each jaw of adult human contains 16 200. In a resting neuron, the axonal membrane is
thecodont teeth. more permeable for which of the following ions?
C. Nucleotidases are present in pancreatic juice (1) Na+ (2) K+

in active form. (3) Ca+2 (4) Mg+2

(17)
CODE-A
Dt 28/04/2022
Mock Test-04
Instructions:
PHYSICS
SECTION-A
1. The work function of a metal is w0 and  is
wavelength of incident radiation. There is no
emission of photoelectron when
hc hc
(1)   (2)  
w0 w0
hc hc
(3)   (4)  
w0 w0 (1) 2 gh (2) 2gh
2. Two pillars are at distance of 6.28 m from each (3) gh (4) 3 gh

other. What should be the maximum distance of
an observer from pillar to see them separately? 4. A liquid of coefficient of cubical expansion  is
filled in a container having coefficient of linear
(R = 1 arc minute)

(1) 21.6 km (2) 43.2 km expansion . On heating, liquid level in the
3
(3) 10.8 km (4) 5.1 km container will
3. The velocity of liquid coming out of a small hole
(1) Fall (2) Rise
of a large vessel containing two different liquids
shown in figure is (3) Remain same (4) Becomes half
(1)
5. The kinetic energy of a body varies directly as 10. A farsighted person cannot focus distinctly
square of time elapsed. The force acting varies objects closer than 100 cm. The lens that will
directly as permit him to read from a distance of 50 cm, will
have a focal length:
(1) t (2) t
(1) +50 cm (2) –50 cm
1
(3) (4) t0 (3) +100 cm (4) –100 cm
t
11. The value of alternating emf (E) in the given
6. For the arrangement shown in figure, the tension circuit will be
in the string to prevent it from sliding down, is
(g = 10 m/s2)
kg
=2  = 0.6
m
37º
(1) 12 N
(2) 21.6 N (1) 200 V (2) 220 V
(3) 0 N 220
(3) V (4) 100 V
(4) 2.4 N 2
7. A charged particle of mass m and charge q is 12. What is the current through an ideal P – N
released from rest in a uniform electric field E. junction diode shown in figure below?
The KE of particle after time t is:
qEt 2 q 2E 2t 2
(1) (2)
2m 2m
q 2E 2t qE 2 t 2
(3) (4)
2m 2m
(1) 40 mA (2) 20 mA
8. A body possesses kinetic energy x, moving on a (3) 10 mA (4) 80 mA
rough horizontal surface, is stopped in a distance
13. If force (F), mass (M), length (L) are taken as
y. The friction force exerted on the body is
fundamental quantities, dimensions of time will
x x be
(1) (2)
y y (1) [M L F]
x y (2) [M L F–1]
(3) (4)
y x (3) [M1/2 L1/2 F1/2]
9. Figure shows four plates each of area A and (4) [M1/2 L1/2 F–1/2]
separated from another by a distance d. What is 14. Resistance of given carbon resistor is
the capacitance between P and Q?
A 0 2 A 0 (1) 10 × 103 ± 5%

(1) (2)
d d (2) 10 × 104  ± 5%
3 A 0 4 A0 (3) 10 × 103  ± 10%

(3) (4)
d d (4) 10 × 104  ± 10%
(2)
15. The correct graph between logeR and 21. A particle moves in a circular orbit of radius r
loge( – 0) during cooling of a body may be k
under a central attractive force F  – , k is
(R is the rate of cooling and 0 is surrounding r
temperature) constant. The time period of its motion is
logeR logeR proportional to
(1) r1/2 (2) r
(1) (2) (3) r2/3 (4) r3/2
O O 22. An insect of mass m = 2 g is inside a vertical
loge ( –  0) loge ( –  0)
drum of radius 1 m that is rotating with an
logeR logeR angular velocity of 10 rad/s. If the insect does not
fall off then the minimum coefficient of friction is
(3) (4) 
O loge ( –  0) O loge ( –  0)
16. If T is the half-life of a radioactive material, then
T 1m
the fraction that would remain after a time is
2
1 1
(1) (2)
2 2
2 1 2 1
(3) (4) (1) 0.1 (2) 0.2
2 2
(3) 0.3 (4) 0.4
17. Two balls each of mass 1 kg moving in opposite
23. A body of moment of inertia 4 kg m 2 rotating with
directions with speed 15 m/s collides and
an angular speed of 4 rad/s has the 4x J of
rebounds with the same speed. The magnitude
kinetic energy. Determine the value of x.
of impulse imparted to each ball due to other is
(1) 2 (2) 4
(1) 15 kg m s–1 (2) 5 kg m s–1
(3) 8 (4) 16
(3) 30 kg m s–1 (4) 10 kg m s–1
24. In rotational motion of a rigid body about an axis,
18. If length of stretched string is increased by 50%
particles move with
keeping mass per unit length same, then in order
to keep its frequency of vibration constant, its (1) Same linear and angular velocity
tension must be increased by (2) Same linear but different angular velocity
(1) 50% (2) 100% (3) Different linear but same angular velocity
(3) 75% (4) 125% (4) Different linear and different angular velocity
19. In case of horse pulling a cart, the force that 25. Two circular rings (of same material) are of same
causes the horse to move forward is the force thickness. The diameter of first ring is twice that
that of second. The moment of inertia of first ring as
(1) The cart exerts on the horse compared to that of second is
(2) The ground exerts on the horse (1) 4 times (2) 8 times
(3) The horse exerts on the cart (3) 16 times (4) 2 times
(4) The horse exerts on the ground 26. A rain drop of radius r falls in air with terminal
velocity v. What is the terminal velocity of a rain
20. The position x of a particle of mass 2 kg moving drop of radius 3r?
along straight line is given as x = (t – 2)2, where t
is in second and x is in metre. The work done by v
(1) (2) 3v
the force in first 2 s is 3
(1) 0 J (2) –16 J v
(3) (4) 9v
(3) 16 J (4) 32 J 9
(3)
27. Consider a process on a system shown in figure 32. Magnetic flux through a closed conducting
below. During the process, the work done by the loop of resistance 4  changes with time as
system  = (2t2 + 8t + 6) Wb, where t is time in seconds.
The heat produced from t = 0 to t = 2 s is
224 112
(1) J (2) J
3 3
86 172
(3) J (4) J
3 3
(1) First increases then decreases 33. ISRO observed the wavelength of sodium line
(2) First decreases then increases emitted by a star is 589.6 nm. The actual
wavelength emitted by star is 589 nm. The speed
(3) Continuously increases
of the star with respect to us would be
(4) Continuously decreases
(1) 306 km/s (2) 206 km/s
28. A Carnot engine working between the
(3) 406 km/s (4) 106 km/s
temperature 500 K and 1000 K does a work of
1000 J. The heat energy supplied by the source 34. An electromagnetic wave propagates in a
to the engine per cycle is medium, whose electric field vector is given as
E = 200sin (18×108t + 8x) V m–1. Refractive index
(1) 1000 J
of medium and amplitude of magnetic field will be
(2) 1500 J
3 2
(3) 2000 J (1)   ; B   10–6 T
2 0 3
(4) 2500 J
4 2
29. An observer moves towards a stationary source (2)   ; B0   10–6 T
3 3
of sound with a velocity one-fourth of the velocity
3 8
of sound. What is the percentage increase in the (3)   ; B0   10–6 T
apparent frequency? 2 9
(1) 25% (2) 50% 4 8

(4)   ; B   10–6 T
(3) 10% (4) 20% 3 0 9
30. The equation of a wave travelling on a string is 35. A direct current of 4 A and an alternating current
of 4 A flows through two identical resistors. The
  x 
y  10sin    5t –  , where x, y are in cm and t ratio of heat produced in the two resistances in
  4  same time interval will be
is in second. The velocity of wave is
(1) 1 : 1
(1) 40 cm/s, in x-direction
(2) 1 : 2
(2) 40 cm/s, in –x-direction
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 4 : 1
SECTION-B
31. A metal wire of uniform mass is used as simple
36. An electric bulb and a capacitor are connected in
pendulum. If the temperature of metal wire is
series with an AC source. On increasing the
increases by 10ºC and coefficient of linear
frequency of the source, the brightness of the
expansion of the wire is 2 × 10–6 ºC–1, the time
bulb:
period of pendulum will increase by
(1) Remains same
(1) 1 × 103 %
(2) Increases
(2) 1 × 10–3 %
(3) Decreases
(3) 2 × 103 %
(4) 2 × 10–3 %
(4)
r
37. In a meter bridge experiment, the galvanometer 43. Electric field in a region is E  3 ĵ N/ C .
shows a null point when jockey is pressed at
Equipotential surfaces are parallel to
40.0 cm using a standard resistance of 100  as
(1) xy plane (2) xz plane
per the diagram. The least count of the scale
used is 1 mm. The unknown resistance is nearly (3) yz plane (4) All of these
44. A square loop of side l is placed at a separation a
with a very long wire AB, in same plane. If the
current through BA is increasing in the direction
shown, the induced current produced in the loop
is
A
(1) (66.7  0.1)  (2) (66.7  0.3) 

a
(3) (33.3  0.1)  (4) (33.3  0.3) 
B
38. Determine the energy required to launch a
(1) Clockwise
satellite of mass m from the surface of a planet of
(2) Anti-clockwise
mass M and radius R in a circular orbit at an
altitude of 3R. (3) Zero
(4) First clockwise then anti-clockwise
5GMm 5GMm
(1) (2) 45. A proton is revolving in a circular path with
6R 3R constant speed. Angle between angular
GMm 7GMm momentum and magnetic dipole moment
(3) (4) associated with it is
3R 8R
(1) 0º (2) 45º
39. A photocell works on the principle of
(3) 90º (4) 180º
(1) Bernoulli’s principle (2) Photoelectric effect 46. The potential energy of a particle varies with x
(3) Kirchhoff’s rule (4) Radioactivity law according to the relation U(x) = x2 – 4x. The point
x = 2 is a point of
40. Density of nucleus is of the order of
(1) Stable equilibrium (2) Unstable equilibrium
(1) 1012 kg/m3 (2) 1016 kg/m3
(3) Neutral equilibrium (4) None of these
(3) 1017 kg/m3 (4) 1024 kg/m3 r r r r r
47. If A  B  3 A  B then angle between A and
41. Power factor of series LCR circuit at resonance is r
B will be
(1)
1
(2)
3  
(1) (2)
2 2 6 4
(3) 1 (4) Zero  
(3) (4)
42. Which of the following represent the variation of 3 2
intensity of magnetisation (I) versus magnetising 48. In an isobaric process, the absolute temperature
force (H) graph for a diamagnetic substance? is doubled. The mean free path () and the
I I relaxation time () will become respectively
1
(1) (2) (1) times and 2 times
2
O H O H
(2) 2 times and 2 times
1
(3) 2 times and times
(3) (4) 2
1
2
(5)
49. A man is swimming with speed 10 km/h in still 50. The displacement wave in a string is given as
water crosses a river of width 1 km along the y = 5sin(62.8x – 157t). Here y and x are in cm
shortest path in 10 minutes. The velocity of river and t in second. The wavelength of the wave is
flow is
1
(1) 4 mm (2) mm
(1) 6 km/h (2) 7.5 km/h 2
(3) 10 km/h (4) 8 km/h (3) 1 mm (4) 2 mm
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
51. The correct relationship between edge length (a)
and radius of atom (r) for BCC unit cell is (1) (2)
3r 4r (3) CH3CHO (4) HCHO

(1) a  (2) a 
4 3 57. In the given reaction sequence, major product B
is
(3) a  2 2 r (4) a = 2r
52. Which of the following is an example of

ferrimagnetic substance?
(1) CrO2 (2) Co
(3) MnO (4) Fe3O4
53. 56 g of CO contains (NA = Avogadro's No.)
(1) (2)
(1) NA molecules (2) 0.5 NA molecules
(3) 4 NA molecules (4) 2 NA molecules
54. Angular momentum of electron in 3rd stationary
orbit of hydrogen atom is (3) (4)
h 3h 58. The amine which is most basic in aqueous

(1) (2) solution is
 2
(1) (CH3)2NH (2) (CH3)3N
h h
(3) (4) (3) CH3NH2 (4) NH3
2 3
59. The maximum prescribed concentration of
55. Major product of the given reaction is manganese in drinking water is
(1) 5 ppm (2) 0.05 ppm
(3) 0.005 ppm (4) 0.5 ppm
60. Monomer of orlon is
(1) (2)
(1) (2) (3) (4)

61. Which among the following is not an aromatic
species?
(3) (4) (1) (2)

56. Which among the following compounds on
reaction with methyl magnesium bromide
followed by hydrolysis gives a tertiary alcohol? (3) (4)
(6)
62. Major product of the given reaction is 70. The IUPAC name of the following compound is
dil. KMnO
CH3CH  CH2 
273 K
4

(1) CH3CH2CH2OH
(2) CH3CH(OH)CH2(OH)
(3) CH3COCH3
(1) 1-methyl-3-chloro-4-methoxybenzene
(4) CH3COCH2CH3
(2) 2-chloro-4-methylanisole
63. The compound which will not show geometrical
isomerism is (3) 1-chloro-2-methoxy-5-methylbenzene
(1) PhCH = CHPh (2) (Ph)2C=CHCH3 (4) 1-methoxy-2-chloro-4-methylbenzene
(3) CH3CH=CHCH3 (4) CH3CH2CH=CHCH3 71. Which of the following gases can be liquefied
64. The molarity of 20 volume H2O2 is nearly most easily?
(1) 3.4 (2) 5.1 (1) N2 (2) O2

(3) 2.1 (4) 1.8 (3) H2 (4) NH3
65. Which one of the following ions has the largest 72. The total kinetic energy associated with
size in aqueous solution? n moles of monoatomic gas is
(1) Cs+ (2) Na+ 3 3
(1) kT (2) nRT
(3) K+ (4) Li+ 2 2
66. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 1 1
element is (3) nRT (4) kT
2 2
(1) B > Ga > Al > Tl > In 73. Entropy is a
(2) Tl > In > Ga > Al > B (1) State function and extensive property
(3) Tl > In > Al > Ga > B
(2) State function and intensive property
(4) In > Tl > Ga > Al > B
(3) Path function and intensive property
67. 0.16 g of an organic compound gave 0.094 g of
(4) Path function and extensive property
AgBr by Carius method. The percentage of Br in
the compound is (Atomic mass of Ag = 108 u, 74. Which of the following is correct for a reaction to
Br = 80 u) be spontaneous?
(1) 38% (2) 25% (1) G = +ve, H = +ve (2) H = –ve, S = +ve
(3) 12.5% (4) 50% (3) G = +ve, H = –ve (4) H = +ve, S = –ve
68. Which of the following species cannot behave as 75. The pH of 1 M CH3COONa solution in water will
electrophile? be nearly (pKa for CH3COOH = 4.74)
(1) BF3 (2) AlCl3 (1) 6.4 (2) 10.4
(3) NH4 (4) SO3 (3) 9.4 (4) 7.4
69. Least stable carbocation among the following is 76. Conjugate base of H3BO3 is
(1) H2BO3– (2) B(OH)4–
(3) HBO32– (4) BO3–

3
(1) (2)
77. The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be
needed to react completely with one mole of
oxalate ion in acidic solution is
5 3
(1) (2)
(3) (4) 2 2
2 1
(3) (4)
5 2
(7)
78. The rate constant for a first order reaction which 87. Which among the following carboxylic acids has
has half-life 231 s is the highest pKa value?
(1) 10–4 s–1 (2) 3 × 10–3 s–1 (1) HCOOH (2) C6H5COOH
(3) 10–6 s–1 (4) 3 × 10–2 s–1 (3) O2NCH2COOH (4) CH3COOH
79. For a chemical reaction X  P, the rate of 88. Select the ion of minimum limiting molar
reaction doubles when the concentration of X is conductivity in water at 298 K.
increased 4 times. The order of reaction with
respect to X is (1) CH3COO– (2) SO2–
4
1 1 (3) Cl– (4) OH–

(1) (2)
2 3 89. Shape of XeF4 molecule is
(3) 1 (4) Zero (1) Tetrahedral (2) Octahedral
80. Among the given options, enthalpy of atomisation (3) Square planar (4) Pyramidal
is maximum for
90. Species having two unpaired electrons is
(1) Sc (2) Ti
(1) He2 (2) B2
(3) Mn (4) V
81. The migration of colloidal particles under the (3) O2– (4) N2
influence of an electric field is known as
91. Depletion of ozone in stratosphere is due to
(1) Brownian movement
(1) CF2Cl2 (2) CO2
(2) Dialysis
(3) C6H6 (4) C6H6Cl6
(3) Electrophoresis
92. Major product of the given reaction is
(4) Electro-osmosis
82. The coagulating power of ions for haemoglobin
decreases in the order
(1) Na+ > Ca2+ > Al3+ (2) PO3– 2–
4  SO4  Cl
–
(3) Al3+ > Ca2+ > Na+ (4) Cl–  SO2– 3–

4  PO4 (1)
83. Which of the following processes is endothermic?
(1) O  O– (2) O–  O2– (2)
(3) Na  Na– (4) Cl  Cl–
(3)
84. Correct electronic configuration of cobalt in
complex cation [Co(NH3)6]3+ is (Atomic No. of Co
is 27) (4)
4 2 4 1
(1) t 2g eg (2) t 2g eg
93. When glucose reacts with Br2 water, it gives
(3) t 62ge0g (4) t52ge1g (1) Saccharic acid (2) Gluconic acid
85. Select the compound of highest covalent (3) n-Hexane (4) Formic acid
character. 94. Aldol condensation will take place in
(1) NaCl (2) NaF (1) HCHO (2) PhCHO
(3) NaBr (4) NaI
SECTION-B (3) (4) (CH3)3CCHO
86. Anionic species obtained on reaction of XeF2 with
PF5 is 95. Correct formula of calamine is
(1) [XeF7]– (2) [PF6]– (1) ZnO (2) ZnS
(3) [PF4]– (4) [XeF3]– (3) ZnCO3 (4) CuCO3
(8)
96 An ideal solution made by mixing two volatile 99. The cis-alkenes are formed by the reduction of
components A and B. If the vapour pressure of alkynes with
solution is 170 mm Hg, then mole fraction of A in (1) NaBH4
vapour phase is
(2) Na/liq. NH3
PA  200 mm Hg, PB  100 mm Hg (3) H2 – Pd/C, BaSO4
(1) 0.72 (2) 0.82 (4) Fe + HCl
(3) 0.68 (4) 0.50 100. Consider the following chlorides
97. Strongest reducing agent among the following is
(1) NH3 (2) BiH3
(3) AsH3 (4) PH3
98. Which of the following compounds is not an The correct order of reactivity towards SN1
antacid? reaction is
(1) Ranitidine (1) C > B > A
(2) Cimetidine (2) B > A > C
(3) Magnesium hydroxide (3) C > A > B
(4) Serotonin (4) B > C > A
BOTANY
SECTION-A 105. Select the true one about prions
101. The taxonomic category which comes just after (1) Has RNA as genetic material
species in ascending order of taxonomic (2) Abnormally folded proteins
hierarchy is
(3) Larger than viruses
(1) Family (2) Genus
(4) RNA shape is same as in TMV
(3) Order (4) Division
106. Mark the incorrect about ribosomes
102. Select the incorrect statement
(1) Smallest cell organelle
(1) In unicellular organisms growth is (2) Membraneless
synonymous with reproduction
(3) Found in cytoplasm of prokaryotes
(2) A scientific name has two words in binomial
(4) Not found in double membrane bound cell
nomenclature
organelles of any eukaryotes
(3) Herbarium contains pressed and preserved
107. Select the incorrect statement about plasma
plant specimens
membrane
(4) Botanical gardens are 'in situ' conservation
(1) Most common types of lipids are
strategies
phosphoglycerides
103. Which of the following are good indicators of
(2) Tails of lipids are non-polar
water pollution?
(3) Proteins show flip flop movement within the
(1) Diatoms (2) BGA membrane
(3) Methanogens (4) Archaebacteria (4) Polar heads are present towards outer side
104. The organism which perform oxygenic 108. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is synthesized
photosynthesis is during which phase of cell cycle in animal cells?
(1) Chlorobium (2) Nostoc (1) G1 phase (2) S phase
(3) Nitrosomonas (4) Nitrococcus (3) G2 phase (4) M phase
(9)
109. Pairing of homologous chromosomes during 117. If two molecules A & B move in the same
zygotene is called direction. This movement can be called
(1) Dyad formation (1) Antiport (2) Symport
(2) Synapsis (3) Uniport (4) Guttation
(3) Congression of chromosomes 118. Biological nitrogen fixation is conversion of
(4) Agglutination of chromosomes (1) N2  NH3 (2) NH3  NO2–
110. The feature not related to family Fabaceae is
(3) NO2–  NO3– (4) NO3–  N2/NH3
(1) Vexillary aestivation
119. Which of the following nutrient is required for
(2) Pod fruit
auxin synthesis?
(3) Non endospermous seeds
(1) B (2) Mg
(4) Presence of perianth
(3) Ca (4) Zn
111. All of the following have half inferior ovary,
120. The chlorophyll molecule in reaction center of
except
PS II has maximum absorption at
(1) Rose (2) Plum
(1) 680 nm (2) 700 nm
(3) Mustard (4) Peach
(3) 720 nm (4) 460 nm
112. Parenchyma is living tissue. Select the incorrect
121. Select the incorrect one about Photosystem I
one about it
(1) Found in stroma lamellae
(1) Cells are generally isodiametric
(2) Involves in non cyclic photophosphorylation
(2) Walls are thin and cellulosic
(3) Has chl a which shows maximum absorption
(3) May have small intercellular spaces
at 700 nm
(4) Provides mechanical support to young stem
(4) Is not involved in cyclic photophosphorylation
as has lignin deposition
122. Which of the following steps of respiration takes
113. Select the odd one w.r.t. ground tissue system
place in cytoplasm?
(1) Pericycle (2) Pith
(1) ETS (2) Krebs cycle
(3) Epidermis (4) Cortex
(3) Glycolysis (4) Link's reaction
114. Select the incorrect match.
123. The respiratory quotient is unity for
(1) Cycas - have seeds but no fruits
(1) Proteins (2) Carbohydrates
(2) Selaginella – heterosporous
(3) Fats (4) Organic acids
(3) Marchantia – Dioecious liverwort
124. The plant hormone which counteracts apical
(4) Wolffia – non vascular plant dominance is
115. Egg apparatus of embryo sac has (1) Auxin (2) Cytokinin
(1) Two egg cells (3) Ethylene (4) ABA
(2) One egg cell + one synergid 125. Which of the following hormones is also known
(3) One egg cell + one antipodal as stress hormone?
(4) One egg cell + two synergids (1) Cytokinin (2) ABA
116. Movement of molecules takes place along the (3) Auxin (4) Ethylene
concentration gradient in 126. Algae are/have
(1) Simple diffusion (1) Always diploid
(2) Facilitated diffusion (2) Chlorophyllous
(3) Active transport (3) Only unicellular
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) Well developed vascular tissues
(10)
127. Isogametes are not produced by SECTION-B

(1) Ulothrix (2) Volvox 136. A bioactive molecule _______ is used as an
(3) Spirogyra (4) Rhizopus immunosuppressive agent in organ transplant
patients produced by the fungus Trichoderma
128. Myotonic dystrophy is polysporum.
(1) Autosomal dominant disorder (1) Statins (2) Amylase
(2) Autosomal recessive disorder (3) Cyclosporin A (4) Streptokinase A
(3) Sex linked recessive disorder 137. Biocontrol agent Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is
(4) Sex linked dominant disorder used to control
129. Cleistogamy ensures seed set formation. This is (1) Butterfly caterpillars
an advantage but still there are disadvantages (2) Nucleopolyhedrovirus
too. One of the disadvantage is
(3) Aphids
(1) It brings genetic variations
(4) Mosquitoes
(2) Pollinators are not required
138. A population interaction in which one species is
(3) Genetic variations are limited in progeny benefitted and other species remains unaffected
(4) Flowers remain fragrant throughout the life (+, 0) is called
130. Two to three layers of anther wall which are (1) Mutualism (2) Proto-cooperation
ephemeral called (3) Commensalism (4) Parasitism
(1) Middle layer (2) Epidermis 139. Mortality refers to
(3) Endothecium (4) Tapetum (1) Death rate (2) Birth rate
131. Females are heterogametic in all, except (3) Immigration (4) Emigration
(1) Birds (2) Grasshopper 140. The Pioneer community in xerarch succession is
(3) Butterflies (4) Moth (1) Phytoplankton (2) Zooplankton
132. In lac operon, the product of 'i' gene binds to the (3) Lichens (4) Ferns
operator
141. Reservoir for phosphorus cycle is
(1) When bacterial cell has abundant amount of
(1) Troposphere
lactose
(2) Ionosphere
(2) When bacterial cell has no lactose
(3) Located in Earth's crust
(3) RNA polymerase binds to the promoter
(4) Stratosphere
(4) RNA polymerase synthesizes  galactosidase
continuously 142. Which of the following is most important cause of
animals and plants to become extinct?
133. The size of mini satellites is
(1) Co-extinction
(1) 1 to 2 kb (2) 0.1 to 20 kb
(2) Co-evolution
(3) 1-6 bp (4) 100-120 bp
(3) Habitat loss and fragmentation
134. Protoplast is
(4) Alien species invasion
(1) Cell without tonoplast
143. Which of the following is ex-situ conservation
(2) Cell without cell wall strategy?
(3) Cell without cell membrane (1) Wildlife safari park (2) Biosphere reserves
(4) Cell without double membrane bound cell (3) Hotspots (4) National parks
organelles
144. Montreal protocol was signed is 1987 but
135. Variety of Brassica resistant to white rust is became effective in
(1) Pusa komal (2) Pusa sadabahar (1) 1989 (2) 1994
(3) Pusa swarnim (4) Pusa shubra (3) 1992 (4) 1999
(11)
145. The part of atmosphere which acts as a shield 148. Starch sheath is found in endodermis of
absorbing UV radiations from the sun is called
(1) Dicot stem (2) Dicot root
(1) Ionosphere (2) Stratosphere
(3) Monocot root (4) Monocot stem
(3) Troposphere (4) Both (1) and (3)
149. Roots have all, except
146. Mark the incorrect match w.r.t. symbols used for
pedigree analysis (1) Pericycle
(1)  Affected male (2) Hypodermis

(3) Radial vascular bundles
(2)  Affected female
(4) Epiblema
(3)  Five unaffected offspring 150. Loading of sucrose in sieve tube elements is
(4) Mating between relatives (1) Simple diffusion
147. There is no tRNA for codon which has sequence (2) Active process
(1) AGU (2) AUG (3) Facilitated diffusion
(3) UAA (4) UUU (4) Osmosis
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 156. Select the mismatch among the following.
151. Number of chromosomes present in the meiocyte (1) ZIFT – Transfer of zygote or early embryos
of house fly is (with upto 8 blastomeres) into fallopian tube
(1) 12 (2) 6 (2) GIFT – Gametes are transferred in uterus
(3) 24 (4) 48 (3) IUT – Transfer of embryos with more than 8
152. Read the following statement and choose the blastomeres within uterus
option that correctly fills the blank.
(4) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection - Sperm is
Small amounts of urea could be eliminated directly injected into the ovum
through ________.
157. Read the following statements about
(1) Lungs (2) Saliva
Echinoderms and choose the option that
(3) Bile (4) Liver correctly fill the blanks A and B.
153. The first human hormone produced by
Adult echinoderms show A symmetry, but
recombinant DNA technology is
(1) Insulin (2) Melatonin their larvae show B symmetry.
(3) Testosterone (4) Progesterone (1) (A) – Radial; (B) – Radial

154. The human embryo develops from (2) (A) – Bilateral; (B) – Bilateral
(1) Only hypoblast cells (2) Inner cell mass (3) (A) – Radial; (B) – Bilateral
(3) Allantois (4) Trophoblast
(4) (A) – Bilateral; (B) – Radial
155. Given below is the percentage of nitrogenous
158. Which type of vector is used to introduce a
bases present in four different samples of the
functional ADA cDNA into lymphocytes, in gene
genetic material. Identify, which sample belongs
to an RNA virus therapy for ADA deficiency?
(1) Sample A : A-23%, G-27%, C-27%, T-23% (1) Plasmid

(2) Sample B : G-22%, A-28%, C-22%, T-28% (2) Bacteriophage
(3) Sample C : U-22%, G-23%, C-23%, A-32% (3) BAC
(4) Sample D : C-8%, A-42%, G-8%, T-42% (4) Retrovirus
(12)
159. Match column I with column II w.r.t. gestation and 163. Use of bioresources by multinational companies
choose the correct option. and organisations without authorisation from the
concerned country and its people is called
Column I Column II
(1) Bio-infringement
a. Foetus develop (i) End of second (2) Biopatent
limbs and digits trimester
(3) Biopiracy
b. First movements (ii) End of first (4) Bio-exploitation
of foetus month
164. All of the following are complications of STIs,
c. Heart formed (iii) Fifth month except
(1) Pelvic inflammatory diseases
d. Eye-lids separate (iv) End of second (2) Periodic abstinence
and eye lashes month (3) Ectopic pregnancy
are formed
(4) Still births
(1) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) 165. Colostrum is the milk produced during the initial
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) few days of lactation. It is essential to develop
resistance for the new-born babies because it
160. Which of the following is an active ATPase
contains antibodies of
enzyme?
(1) IgG type (2) IgM type
(1) Light meromyosin
(3) IgA type (4) IgE type
(2) Globular head of meromyosin
166. Carefully read the following statements and
(3) Tropomyosin
choose the option that correctly fill the blanks
(4) Tail of meromyosin (A) and (B).
161. Enzyme commission number of amylase is In human ear, the membranous labyrinth is
(1) 6.2.7.1.2 (2) 3.2.1.1 surrounded by a fluid called A , and is itself
(3) 2.3.1.4.1 (4) 3.2.1 filled with a fluid called B .
162. Consider the following statements and choose
(1) A – Perilymph, B – Endolymph
the option that correctly fill the blanks (A) and
(B). (2) A – Endolymph, B – Perilymph
Statement I : The intercellular material of (3) A – Perilymph, B – Perilymph
cartilage is A and resists compression. (4) A – Endolymph, B – Endolymph

167. Which of the following will not be released when
Statement II : Bones have a B ground there is a decrease in blood pressure/volume?
substance rich in calcium salts and collagen (1) Atrial natriuretic factor
fibres which give bone its strength.
(2) Aldosterone
(1) (A) – Hard and non-pliable
(3) ADH
(B) – Solid and pliable
(4) Renin
(2) (A) – Solid and pliable
168. Bioluminescence can be seen commonly in the
(B) – Hard and non-pliable organisms of Phylum
(3) (A) – Soft and non-pliable (1) Cnidaria
(B) – Solid and pliable (2) Ctenophora
(4) (A) – Solid and pliable (3) Coelenterata
(B) – Soft and non-pliable (4) Cyclostomata
(13)
169. Read the following statements about enzyme co- Case I Case II
factors and choose the option that correctly
states them true (T) or false (F). (1) Natural passive Artificial passive
(A) Co-enzyme nicotinamide adenine immunity immunity
dinucleotide contain the vitamin B3
(2) Natural active immunity Natural passive
(B) Haem is the transient bound co-enzyme for immunity
enzyme catalase
(C) Co-factors are non-protein constituents that (3) Natural active immunity Artificial passive
bound to some enzymes, to make them immunity
catalytically active
(4) Natural active immunity Artificial active
(D) Zinc is a co-enzyme for enzyme immunity
carboxypeptidase
(A) (B) (C) (D) 174. Choose the incorrect match.
(1) T F T F (1) Oral steroidal – Inhibition of ovulation

(2) F F T T contraceptive pills
(3) F F T F (2) IUDs – Inserted by doctors and
(4) T T T F expert nurses in uterus
170. The mating of more closely related individuals (3) Copper releasing – Make the uterus
within the same breed for 4-6 generations is IUDs unsuitable for
known as implantation, inhibit
(1) Out-crossing ovulation
(2) Inbreeding
(4) Hormone – Make cervix hostile to
(3) Cross-breeding releasing IUDs the sperms
(4) Interspecific hybridisation
175. Study the alimentary canal of cockroach and
171. A gene is expressed in a host organism, which select the option that correctly define the
does not naturally have this gene or gene structure whose function is given below.
fragment. Such a host organism is called as
(1) Novel host
(2) Heterologous host
(3) Non-recombinant host
(4) Homologous host
172. The crops engineered for glyphosate are
resistant/ tolerant to
(1) Nematodes (2) Herbicides
(3) Worms (4) Bacteria
173. Study the following given cases carefully. (i) A structure which secrete digestive juice.
Case I : A person is infected by SARS CoV-2, (ii) A structure used for storing of food.
with very mild symptoms and is quarantined at (iii) A structure which helps in removal of
home. He gets healthy within few days without excretory products from haemolymph.
taking any medications.
(iv) A structure which help in grinding the food
Case II : Another person also got infected by particles.
same coronavirus strain, with severe symptoms
like difficulty in breathing, sore throat, fever and (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
has lost the sense of smell and taste. He has (1) A B C D
been admitted to hospital and given convalescent (2) D A C B
plasma therapy.
(3) C B D A
Which type of immunity is associated with the
above two cases? (4) C A D B
(14)
176. Which of the following can be caused by anxiety, 181. Read the following statements about cells
food poisoning, over eating and spicy food? present in gastric glands and choose the correct
option.
(1) Indigestion
Statement I : Paneth cells secrete mucus.
(2) Constipation
Statement II : Chief cells secrete HCl and
(3) Diarrhoea
intrinsic factor.
(4) Jaundice
(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
177. Read the statements w.r.t dinosaurs and choose correct
the correct option. (2) Statement I is correct but statement II is
Statement I : About 85 mya, the dinosaurs incorrect
suddenly disappeared from the earth. (3) Both statements are correct
Statement II : Tyrannosaurus rex was about 20 (4) Both statements are incorrect
feet in height and had huge fearsome dagger like 182. To form the shoulder joint, glenoid cavity
teeth. articulates with the
(1) Both statements are correct (1) Clavicle
(2) Both statements are incorrect (2) Scapula
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is (3) Head of the humerus
incorrect
(4) Acromian process
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is 183. Flavr savr variety of tomato, remains fresh for a
correct longer period than normal tomato due to
178. Select the incorrect match. (1) Presence of pest resistance gene
(1) JG cells of kidney – Erythropoietin (2) Over expression of gene coding for enzyme
(2) CCK – Stimulate secretion of polygalacturonase
gastric juice (3) Silencing of gene coding for enzyme
(3) Gastrin – Stimulates secretion of polygalacturonase
HCl and pepsinogen (4) Presence of vitamin A and C
(4) GIP – Inhibits gastric motility 184. Study the given statements about HIV.
179. An Rh -ve female, conceive twin boys in her first (i) The primary target cells for HIV are
pregnancy. What is the probability of suffering macrophages and helper T-lymphocytes
from erythroblastosis foetalis in this first (ii) HIV is a non-enveloped retrovirus, having two
pregnancy by the Rh +ve foetus? identical molecules of ss RNA genome
(1) 33.3 per cent (iii) HIV gets attached to the CD8 receptors
present on helper T-lymphocytes, to gain
(2) 50 per cent
entry in them
(3) 0 per cent
(iv) A widely used diagnostic test for AIDS is
(4) 100 per cent enzyme linked immuno-sorbent assay
180. How many features given below in box are (ELISA)
present in skeletal muscles? (v) Treatment of AIDS with anti-retroviral drugs
is only partially effective
Voluntary, Uninucleate, Attached to bones,
How many of the above given statements are
Striations, Intercalated discs
correct?
(1) Two (1) Two
(2) Three (2) Four
(3) One (3) Five
(4) Four (4) Three
(15)
185. Which of the following animal evolved into first 192. Read the following statements about blood and
amphibians that lived on both land and water? choose the option that correctly states them true
(1) Neopilina (2) Lobe finned fishes (T) or false (F).
(3) Archaeopteryx (4) Ichthyosaurs (A) A healthy individual has 12-16 g of
SECTION-B haemoglobin in every 100 ml of blood
186. All of the following structures of internal ear are (B) IgA antibodies are mainly involved in allergic
responsible for maintenance of balance of the reactions
body and posture except (C) Eosinophils resist infections and are
(1) Crista ampullaris (2) Macula utriculi associated with allergic reactions
(3) Macula sacculi (4) Organ of Corti (D) Spleen is the graveyard of RBCs
187. Which part of the brain is involved in the (A) (B) (C) (D)
regulation of sexual behaviour?
(1) T T T T
(1) Corpora quadrigemina
(2) F T T T
(2) Only hypothalamus
(3) T F F T
(3) Limbic system and hypothalamus
(4) T F T T
(4) Cerebellum
193. The brain capacities of Homo habilis were
188. Read the following statements w.r.t regulation of
respiration and choose the correct option. (1) 900cc (2) 650-800cc
Statement I : Respiratory rhythm centre present (3) 1400cc (4) 1350cc
in the medulla region of brain, is primarily
194. Complete the analogy
responsible for regulation of normal rhythm of
breathing. Industrial pollutants : Occupational respiratory
Statement II : The role of oxygen in the disorders :: Cigarette smoking : ______
regulation of respiratory rhythm is very (1) Asthma (2) Emphysema
significant.
(3) Rhinitis (4) Heart attack
195. The copy number of the linked DNA in the vector,
correct
is controlled by a sequence called as
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect (1) Ori site
(3) Both statements are correct (2) Selectable marker
(4) Both statements are incorrect (3) Palindromic sequence

189. How many external rows of ciliated comb plates (4) Recognition site
are usually present in the body of comb jellies? 196. Select the mismatch among the following w.r.t.
(1) 8 (2) 12 Animal kingdom
(3) 10 (4) 16
(1) Ctenophora – Radial symmetry
190. Evolution of DDT resistant mosquitoes is an
example of (2) Aschelminthes – Coelomate
(1) Stabilising selection (3) Annelida – Segmentation present
(2) Balancing selection
(4) Platyhelminthes – Incomplete digestive
(3) Disruptive selection
system
(4) Directional selection
197. Select the odd one out regarding excretion in
191. In which of the following connective tissue, cells
cockroach.
does not secrete fibres of collagen or elastin?
(1) Areolar tissue (2) Adipose tissue (1) Urecose glands (2) Nephrocytes
(3) Blood (4) Bone (3) Antennal glands (4) Fat body
(16)
198. Complete the analogy for the following Choose the option that mention only correct
Flagellar movement : Spermatozoa : : Amoeboid statements.
movement (1) Only a, b and c
(1) Ciliated epithelial cells (2) Only a and c
(2) RBCs (3) Only b, c and d
(3) Leucocytes (4) a, b, c and d
(4) Cuboidal epithelial cells
200. Select the mismatch among the following w.r.t.
199. Consider the following statements regarding contraceptives
hormonal disorders
(1) Natural method of – Periodic
a. Grave’s disease is a form of hypothyroidism
contraception abstinence
b. Excessive secretion of growth hormone after
puberty leads to acromegaly (2) Copper releasing – CuT
c. Prolonged hyperglycemia leads to a complex IUD
disorder called diabetes mellitus
(3) Hormone releasing – Multiload 375
d. Cretinism is the defective development and IUD
maturation of the growing baby due to
hypothyroidism during pregnancy (4) Non-medicated IUD – Lippes loop

(17)
Dt 26/04/2022 CODE-A
MOCK TEST - 03
Instructions:
PHYSICS
SECTION-A 4. When an elevator is moving downward with a
1. A particle is moving in a straight line with increasing speed, the apparent weight of a body
velocity (v)  (t – 4) m/s. What is the average inside elevator
speed between t = 0 to t  8 second? (1) Will increase
(1) 0 ms–1 (2) 1 ms–1 (2) Will decrease
(3) 2 ms–1 (4) 4 ms–1 (3) Remains the same
2. Avalanche breakdown of p-n junction diode is (4) First increase then decrease
due to r r
5. Two non-zero vectors A and B are essentially
(1) Collision of electrons with atoms perpendicular if
(2) Forward biasing r r r r
(1) A  B  0 (2) A  B  0
(3) Field emission r r r r
(3) A  B  0 (4) A  B  0
(4) All of these
6. Mercury does not wet glass because
3. A proton and a deuteron enter in a uniform
magnetic field with equal kinetic energy in the (1) Cohesive force is equal to adhesive force
direction perpendicular to the field. The ratio of (2) Cohesive force is much greater than
radius of circular path is adhesive force
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) Cohesive force is less than adhesive force
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 (4) Angle of contact is 90°
(1)
7. Two infinitely long parallel wires having linear 13. The kinetic energy of a body decreases by 36%.
charge densities 1 and 2 respectively are The decrease in linear momentum is
placed at a distance of R. The force per unit (1) 10% (2) 20%
length on either wire will be
(3) 36% (4) 45%
2k 12 k 1 2
(1) (2) 14. In the circuit shown in figure, what is the value of
R R
I0 just after pressing the key K?
2k 1 2 k 1 2
(3) (4)
2
R R2
8. Equation of a standing wave is expressed as
y = 2Asint coskx. In this equation, quantity /k
represents.
(1) The speed of standing wave (1) 0.25 A (2) 0.75 A
(2) The speed of either of component wave (3) 2.25 A (4) 1 A

(3) The transverse speed of particle of the string 15. A proton moving with velocity v along the axis
approaches a circular current carrying loop as
(4) None of these
shown in figure. The magnitude of magnetic force
9. A ball is projected from ground with initial
on proton at this instant is
momentum p at an angle . What is the
magnitude of net change in linear momentum
when it reaches at maximum height of journey?
(1) psin (2) pcos
(3) 2psin (4) psin  pcos
10. Gravitational force between two point masses is
found to be F when both are in vacuum. If both 0 evR 2
(1)
 
the masses are immersed in water, new 3/2
gravitational force will be: 2 R2  x2
(1) Greater than F

0eviR 2
(2)
 
(2) Less than F 3/2
2 R2  x2
(3) F
(4) Information insufficient 0 eviR 2
(3)
11. An automobile engine develops 105
W power
 
3/2
4n R 2  x 2
when rotating at an angular speed of 900
rad/minute. The instantaneous torque delivered
(4) Zero
by the engine is
16. Five metallic plates each of area A and
1
(1) 104 N-m (2)  104 N-m separated from adjacent plate by a distance d as
3
shown in figure. The capacitance of the system
2 across A and B is:
(3)  104 N-m (4) 2  104 N-m
3
12. A particle of mass m is dropped from rest from a
height h0 on a horizontal floor. The coefficient of
restitution between the floor and particle is e.
Maximum height attained by the particle after A 0 2A 0
(1) (2)
second collision is d d
(1) eh0 (2) e2h0 3A 0 4A 0
(3) (4)
(3) e3h0 (4) e4h0 d d
(2)
17. The magnetic induction at the centre O in the (1) Diamagnetic substance
figure shown is: (2) Paramagnetic substance
(3) Soft iron
(4) Steel
21. Maximum wavelength in Balmer series of
hydrogen spectrum is (R : Rydberg constant)
4 9
(1) (2)
R R
  i  i 1 36
(1) Zero (2)  0  0  k$ (3)
R
(4)
5R
 4R 4R 
22. Determine the number of nuclei that will be
  i  i   i  i
(3)  0  0  k$ (4)  0  0  k$ decayed upto one average life of radioactive
 2R 2R   2R 4R  material? (N0 : Initial number of nuclei)
18. Two co-planar circular loops are placed N0  1
(1) (2) N0  1  
concentrically as shown in figure. The radius of e  e
the outer and inner loops are R and r respectively
R >> r. The mutual inductance between them will N0  e
(3) (4) N0(1 – e)
be 2
23. Two particles of masses 5 kg and 10 kg are
placed along x-axis at positions x = 1 m and
x = 3 m. The moment of inertia of the system
about an axis respectively passing through
centre of mass and parallel to y-axis is
20
(1) 15 kgm2 (2) kgm2
3
0 r 2 0 r 2
(1) (2) 40
2R 4R (3) 20 kgm2 (4) kgm2
3
0 R 2 0 R 2
(3) (4) 24. The logic gate realised from the circuit as shown
2r 4r
in figure is (P and Q are inputs and Z is output)
19. In a transverse progressive wave of amplitude A,
the maximum particle velocity is four times its
wave velocity. The wavelength of the wave is:-
A
(1) A (2)
2
A
(3) (4) 2A
4
(1) AND Gate (2) OR Gate
20. The B-H curve of two material are given below.
Substance (a) most likely indicate (3) NAND Gate (4) NOR Gate
238
25. A radioactive element 92 U undergoes
successive radioactive decay and decays into
206
82 Pb . The number of  and  particles emitted
–
respectively are:
(1) 10 and 4 (2) 6 and 6
(3) 8 and 6 (4) 8 and 8
(3)
26. An objective lens of a telescope has diameter (1) 1.5P0V0 (2) 2.5P0V0
200 cm. The limit of resolution of telescope for (3) 3.5P0V0 (4) 2P0V0
wavelength 600 nm is nearly
32. The following figure depicts snapshot of a wave
(1) 9  10–7 rad (2) 3.7  10–7 rad
travelling in a medium. Which pair of particles are
(3) 3  10–8 rad (4) 3.7  10–8 rad in phase?
27. In Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom, which of the
following represents the variation of nth orbit
radius with n?
(1) rn  n3 (2) rn  n
(3) rn  n4 (4) rn  n2
28. The current in a coil changes from 8 A to zero in
0.2 s. If self-inductance is 4 H then average
induced emf is: (1) A and D (2) B and F
(1) 160 Volt (2) 180 Volt (3) C and E (4) B and G
(3) 120 Volt (4) 60 Volt 33. Light wave is travelling along +y-direction. If the
r
29. The area of cross-section of cylindrical wire corresponding E vector at any time is along the
r
increases uniformly from left to right as shown in +z-axis. Then the direction of B vector at this
figure. When steady current flows in the wire, time is along:
then in the direction of current
(1) Drift speed increases

(1) y-axis (2) +x-axis
(2) Drift speed decreases
(3) –x-axis (4) –z-axis
(3) Electric field intensity increases
34. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.5, what is the
(4) Current density increases
percentage loss of energy on each rebounding of
30. What should be the minimum coefficient of static a ball dropped from a height?
friction between an inclined plane and the solid
cylinder, for which the cylinder does not slip on (1) 25% (2) 50%
the inclined plane? (3) 67.5% (4) 75%
1 2 35. Centre of mass for a uniform semi-circular ring
(1) sin  (2) sin 
3 3 will be at (from centre)
2 1 2R 4R
(3) tan  (4) tan  (1) (2)
3 3  3
31. The P-V diagram of 4 g of helium gas for a 2R 4R
certain process A → B is shown in the figure. (3) (4)
3 
What is the heat given to the gas during the
process A → B? SECTION-B
36. A nuclear fusion reaction is given by
4  
4
2 He  16
8 O. If atomic mass of He is
4.0026 amu and that of O is 15.9994 amu then

the Q-value of the reaction will be approximately
(1) 5.4 MeV (2) 10.2 MeV
(3) 18.6 MeV (4) 20.4 MeV
(4)
37. For the transistor circuit as shown. If  = 100, 43. When a metallic surface is illuminated with
voltage drop between emitter and base is 0.7 V radiation of wavelength , the stopping potential
then value of VCE will be:- is V. If the same surface is illuminated with
radiation of wavelength 2, the stopping potential
V
is . The threshold wavelength for metallic
4
surface is
(1) 2 (2) 3
5
(3)  (4) 5
(1) 10 V (2) 15 V 2
(3) 20 V (4) 5 V 44. A resistance R draws power P when connected
to an AC source. If an inductance is now placed
38. If wavelength corresponding to 2nd line of Lyman in series with the resistance, such that the
series is , then the wavelength corresponding to impedance of the circuit becomes Z the power
last line of Balmer series will be: drawn will be
9 32 R 
(1) (2) (1) P (2) P  
8 9 Z
2
27 24 R PR 2
(3) (4) (3) P   (4)
16 7 Z Z
39. Consider a uniform square plate of side ‘a’ and 45. Which of the following graph represents the
mass ‘m’. The moment of inertia of this plate damped oscillation motion?
about an axis perpendicular to its plane and
passing through one of its corners is:
(1)
2 7
(1) ma2 (2) ma2
3 12
5 1
(3) ma 2 (4) ma2
6 12
(2)
40. The change in surface energy when a drop of
radius R splits into 8 droplets, each of radius r is
(surface tension is T)
(1) 2R2T (2) 4R2T
(3) 8R2T (4) 16R2T (3)
41. The force required to stretch a steel wire of cross
section 4 cm2 to 1.02 times its length would be
(Y  2  1011 N m–2)
(1) 1.6 106 N (2) 1.6 10–6 N
(4)
(3) 1.6 10–7 N (4) 1.6 107 N
42. The core of a transformer is laminated to reduce
energy losses due to 46. If a star emitting light of wavelength 500 nm is
(1) Resistance in winding moving towards earth with a velocity of 1.5  106
m/s then the shift in the wavelength due to
(2) Hysteresis doppler’s effect will be:
(3) Eddy currents (1) 25 Å (2) 250 Å
(4) None of these (3) 2.5 Å (4) Zero
(5)
47. The spectrum of a black body at two temperature 49. If the gravitational acceleration at the surface of
127°C and 527°C is shown in the figure. Let A1 earth is g, then increase in potential energy in
and A2 be the areas under the two curves
lifting an object of mass m from earth surface to a
A
respectively. The value 1 is: height equal to half of radius of earth from
A2
surface will be:
mgR 2mgR
(1) (2)
2 3
mgR mgR
(3) (4)
3 4
50. Water has been filled in a vertical capillary tube
upto the top after closing its lower end by a finger
Consider radius of capillary r  1 mm, surface
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 8 tension is 70 dyne/cm and g  980 cm/sec2.
(3) 1 : 16 (4) 1 : 2 Which of the option is correct when finger is
48. The length of a potentiometer wire is . A cell of removed?
emf E is balanced at a length/4 from the (1) Whole of water will fall down from the
positive end of the wire. If the length of the wire is capillary tube
increased by /2, at what distance will the same (2) Whole of water will stay inside the capillary
cell give a balanced point? (Potentiometer tube
battery is ideal)
(3) Nearly 1.42 cm of water will stay inside
3l 3l capillary tube and rest will fall down
(1) (2)
4 8
(4) Nearly 2.86 cm of water will stay inside the
l l
(3) (4) capillary tube and rest will fall down.
4 2
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 54. If vapour pressure of two liquids A and B in pure
51. The first co-ordination number of Cs+ in CsCl state are 400 and 500 mm of Hg respectively
then mole fraction of A in vapour phase of
lattice is
solution obtained by mixing equal moles of A and
(1) 4 (2) 8 B is
(3) 6 (4) 3 1 3
(1) (2)
52. Packing efficiency of fcc lattice is 2 5
  4 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 2 2 3 9 3
3  55. Which among the following is malachite?

(3) (4)
8 6 (1) 2CuCO3Cu(OH)2
53. Which of the following aqueous solution has (2) Cu2O
highest boiling point? (3) CuCO3Cu(OH)2
(1) 0.1 M Glucose (4) Cu2SFe2S3
(2) 0.1 M NaCl 56. When CaC2 reacts with H2O then, it gives
(3) 0.1 M K2SO4 (1) C2H4 (2) C2H2
(4) 0.1 M K4[Fe (CN)6] (3) C2H6 (4) CH4
(6)
57. Which of the following is not an acidic oxide? 64. Most acidic among the following is
(1) NO (2) NO2
(3) N2O5 (4) N2O3
58. Which of the following is least likely to exist? (1) (2)
(1) HClO4 (2) HIO3
(3) HOF (4) HBrO2
59. The effective atomic number of Fe in K4[Fe(CN)6]
is (3) (4)
(1) 35 (2) 38
(3) 36 (4) 34
60. Which of the following is the correct order of 65. Which of the following aqueous solution will have
increasing field strength of ligands to form the maximum specific conductance?
coordination compounds? (1) 0.1 M HCl (2) 0.1 M Glucose
(1) OH– < I– < NCS– (2) I– < OH– < NCS– (3) 0.1 M NaCl (4) 0.1 M NH4OH
(3) NCS– < I– < OH– (4) OH– < NCS– < I– 66. For which order reaction, half-life is inversely
proportional to the concentration of reactant?
61. Benzotrichloride on reaction with aq. KOH
followed by hydrolysis gives (1) Zero (2) First
(3) Second (4) Half
67. Emulsion is a colloidal solution of
(1) (2) (1) Liquid in liquid (2) Liquid in solid
(3) Gas in liquid (4) Solid in gas
68. The equilibrium constant for the reaction
Zn(s) + Cu2+ (aq.)  Cu(s) + Zn2+ (aq.), E° = 1.10 V
(3) (4) at 298 K is
(1) 1042.38 (2) 1028.56
62. Which of the following compounds is optically (3) 1050.73 (4) 1037.22
active?
69. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
physisorption of a gas on solid surface?
(1) Reversible in nature
(1) (2)
(2) Uni-molecular layer formation
(3) Involves van der waals forces
(4) Low enthalpy of adsorption
(3) (4) 70. The ionization constant of HCN is 4.5 × 10–10 at
298 K. Hydrolysis constant of sodium cyanide is
(1) 1.11 × 10–6 (2) 3.33 × 10–4
63. Which of the following compounds will give (3) 2.22 × 10–5 (4) 4.44 × 10–7
positive test with FeCl3? 71. Which of the following equilibrium will shift in
forward direction on applying pressure?
1
(1) (2) CH3OH (1) SO2(g) + O2 (g) SO3 (g)
2
(2) PCl5 (g) PCl3 (g)  Cl2 (g)
(3) H2 (g)  Cl2 (g) 2HCl(g)

(3) (4)
(4) CaCO3 (s) CaO(s)  CO2 (g)
(7)
72. Oxidation number of S in H2SO5 is 81. The number of moles of K2Cr2O7 that will be
(1) +8 (2) +6 needed to react with one mole of nitrite ion in
acidic solution is
(3) +4 (4) +7
2 1
73. An element with atomic number 50 belongs to (1) (2)
3 3
(1) s-block (2) p-block
1 1
(3) d-block (4) f-block (3) (4)
6 2
74. Identify the incorrect match
82. A gas at 300 K and 10 bar has molar volume
Name IUPAC Official Name 10% more than that for an ideal gas under the
same conditions. The correct option about the
a. Unnilbium (i) Nobelium
gas and its compressibility factor (Z) is
b. Unnilquadium (ii) Rutherfordium (1) Z > 1 and attractive forces are dominant
c. Unnilseptium (iii) Bohrium (2) Z > 1 and repulsive forces are dominant
(3) Z < 1 and repulsive forces are dominant
d. Unnilennium (iv) Dubnium
(4) Z < 1 and attractive forces are dominant
(1) a, (i) (2) b, (ii)
83. Which among the following is not a state
(3) c, (iii) (4) d, (iv) function?
75. The correct shape and hybridization for XeF2 are (1) Gibbs energy (2) Pressure
(1) Octahedral, sp3d2 (3) Temperature (4) Work
(2) Planar triangle, sp3d3 84. Select the incorrect statement among the
(3) Linear, sp3d following
(4) Square planar, sp3d (1) Ortho and para hydrogen differ in proton spin
76. Which of the following species is nonpolar? (2) Heavy water is used as a moderator in
(1) NF3 (2) SO2 nuclear reactors
(3) BF3 (4) NO2 (3) Covalent hydrides are formed by p-block
elements
77. Which among the following has maximum
number of atoms among the following? (4) H2O2 oxidises PbS into SO2
(1) 22 g CO2 (2) 16 g O3 85. Select the correct statement among the following
(3) 14 g N2 (4) 24 g Mg (1) Suspension of slaked lime in water is known
78. If 65.5 g of a metal chloride contains 35.5 g as lime water
chlorine, then equivalent mass of metal is (2) Crude sodium chloride obtained by
(1) 30 (2) 35.5 crystallisation of brine solution contains MgSO4
(3) 40.5 (4) 25 (3) Beryllium salts are rarely hydrolysed
79. The number of radial nodes and angular nodes in (4) Gypsum contains a lower percentage of Ca
3p orbital respectively are than in plaster of Paris
(1) 1 and 1 (2) 1 and 2 SECTION-B
(3) 2 and 1 (4) 0 and 1 86. +1 oxidation state is most stable for
80. The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 100 (1) Tl (2) In
kJ and 200 kJ respectively. The relation between (3) Ga (4) B
their frequencies i.e. 1 and 2 will be
87. Among the following second ionisation energy is
(1) 1 = 22 (2) 21 = 2 maximum for
(1) V (2) Ti
2
(3) 1 = (4) 1 = 42
4 (3) Cr (4) Mn
(8)
88. The aqueous solution containing which one of 94. The essential amino acid among the following is
the following ions will be colourless? (1) Glycine (2) Alanine
(1) Fe2+ (2) Zn2+ (3) Glutamine (4) Histidine
(3) Ni2+ (4) V3+ 95. Monomer of Nylon-6 is
89. Reaction between acetaldehyde and ethyl (1) Acrylonitrile (2) Chloroprene
magnesium bromide followed by hydrolysis gives (3) Caprolactam (4) Styrene
(1) n-butyl alcohol (2) sec. butyl alcohol 96. Photochemical smog does not contain
(3) iso-butyl alcohol (4) tert. butyl alcohol (1) O3 (2) SO2
(3) PAN (4) NOx
90. Cannizzaro reaction will not take place in
97. A single compound of the structure
(1) HCHO (2) CH3 – C– CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – C– CH2CH3
|| ||
O O
(3) CH3CHO (4) (CH3)3C–CHO
is obtain from ozonolysis of which of the following
91. Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction is given by compounds?
(1) CH3COOH (2) CH3COCH3
(1) (2)
(3) CH3CHO (4) CH3CH2OH
92. Strongest base among the following is
(1) N, N-Diethylethanamine
(3) (4)
(2) Phenylmethanamine
(3) Benzamine
98. Non-aromatic species among the following is
(4) N, N–Dimethylaniline
93. Aniline in a set of reactions yielded a product (D) (1) (2)
(3) (4)
the structure of the product D would be
99. The correct IUPAC name of Cl – CH2 – CH = CH2
is
(1) 3-Chloroprop-1-ene (2) 1-Chloroprop-2-ene
(1) (2)
100. The number of aldehyde isomers for C4H8O will
be
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) (4)
(3) 2 (4) 5
BOTANY
SECTION-A 102. Which of the given chromosomes appear L-
101. Which of the given cell organelles is the shaped during anaphase?
important site of glycosylation of proteins?
(1) Metacentric chromosome
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(2) Sub-metacentric chromosome
(2) Golgi apparatus
(3) Lysosome (3) Acrocentric chromosome
(4) Vacuoles (4) Telocentric chromosome
(9)
103. How many generations of mitosis are required for 110. Which of the given is medicinal plant of family
producing 32 cells? Fabaceae?
(1) 16 (2) 32 (1) Petunia (2) Gloriosa
(3) 8 (4) 5 (3) Muliathi (4) Belladonna
104. All of the given are significance of meiosis, 111. Vascular bundles are conjoint and open in
except (1) Dicot root (2) Monocot root
(1) Formation of gamete (3) Dicot stem (4) Monocot stem
(2) Maintenance of chromosome number 112. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. monocot
(3) Maintenance of cell size root.
(4) Introduction of variation (1) Pericycle gives rise to lateral roots
105. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. rules of (2) Vascular bundles are polyarch
Binomial nomenclature (3) Cambium develops at the time of secondary
(1) Biological names are generally taken from growth
Latin language irrespective of their origin (4) Pith is large and well developed
(2) Each organism is given only one name 113. Red algae
consisting of one word (1) Have chlorophyll a and b as major pigments
(3) The first word denoting genus starts with a (2) Have starch as stored food
capital letter
(3) Contain cellulose and algin in their cell wall
(4) The name of the author or discoverer is
(4) Lack flagella
written after specific epithet in abbreviated
form 114. Double fertilisation is an unique event to which of
the given plant groups?
106. Select the incorrect match w.r.t taxonomic
categories of mango. (1) Algae (2) Pteridophytes
(1) Family - Anacardiaceae (3) Gymnosperms (4) Angiosperms
(2) Order - Dicotyledonae 115. The process of absorption of water by hydrophilic

solid particles of a substance without forming a
(3) Division - Angiospermae solution is called
(4) Genus - Mangifera (1) Plasmolysis (2) Imbibition
107. In which of the given protists, the cell wall (3) Transpiration (4) Guttation
resembles a soap box?
116. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. apoplast
(1) Diatoms (2) Dinoflagellates pathway of absorption of water in plants.
(3) Euglenoids (4) Slime moulds (1) It consists of living parts of plant body
108. The algal partner of lichens (2) There is a little resistance in the movement of
(1) Is called mycobiont water
(2) Absorbs water and minerals (3) It is faster
(3) Forms bulk body of lichens (4) It is not affected by metabolic state of root
(4) Performs photosynthesis 117. Nitrogen is absorbed mainly in which of its given
form from the soil?
109. How many of the given plants have
actinomorphic and zygomorphic flowers, (1) NO2 (2) NO3
respectively?
(3) NH4 (4) Both (1) and (3)
Mustard, Gulmohur, Canna, Cassia, Datura,
Pea 118. Which of the given monerans fixes nitrogen
symbiotically as well as in free-living state?
(1) 2 and 3 (2) 3 and 2 (1) Rhizobium (2) Azotobacter
(3) 2 and 4 (4) 4 and 2 (3) Frankia (4) Anabaena
(10)
119. The primary CO2 acceptor molecule in C3 cycle is 126. Embryogenesis is absent in which of the given
a plant groups?
(1) 3-carbon aldose sugar (1) Algae (2) Bryophyte
(2) 5-carbon ketose sugar (3) Pteridophyte (4) Gymnosperm
(3) 3-carbon ketose sugar 127. All of the given are true w.r.t. innermost wall layer
(4) 5-carbon aldose sugar of anther, except
120. During photorespiration, loss of CO2 occurs in (1) Surrounds sporogenous tissue
which of the given cell organelles?
(2) Helps in dehiscence of anther
(1) Chloroplast (2) Peroxisome
(3) Their cells nourish developing pollen grains
(3) Mitochondria (4) Sphaerosome
(4) Possess dense cytoplasm
121. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. intermediates of
Krebs cycle and their products 128. The largest cell of embryo sac is
(1) Acetyl CoA – Carotenoids (1) Synergids (2) Egg
(2) Succinyl CoA – Pyrimidines (3) Antipodal cells (4) Central cell
(3) Oxaloacetic acid – Alkaloids 129. If a colour-blind female marries a normal male.
(4) -Ketoglutaric acid – Amino acid synthesis The probability of their daughter(s) being
colourblind is
122. Select the correct option w.r.t. increasing order
of respiratory quotient of various substrates. (1) Zero (2) 0.5
(1) Fats < Protein < Oxalic acid (3) 0.25 (4) 0.75
(2) Malic acid < Oxalic acid < Fat 130. In which genetic condition, each cell in the
(3) Protein < Fat < Malic acid affected person has only one sex chromosome,
i.e. XO?
(4) Oxalic acid < Protein < Malic acid
123. Read the given statements and select the (1) Turner’s syndrome
correct option. (2) Klinefelter’s syndrome
Statement A: All GAs are acidic (3) Phenylketonuria
Statement B: Tomato is a long day plant (4) Haemophilia
(1) Only statement A is correct 131. All of the given are stop codons, except
(1) UAA (2) AUG
(3) UAG (4) UGA
132. Opening of DNA helix during transcription is
124. Stimulus for vernalisation is perceived by performed by
(1) Shoot apex (2) Embryo of the seed
(1) Helicase (2) RNA polymerase
(3) Leaves (4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Ligase (4) Topoisomerase
125. Match the columns w.r.t. plants and their
reproductive structure. 133. Agriculture contributes about A of India’s
GDP and gives employment to nearly B of
Column-I Column-II
the population.
a. Chlamydomonas (i) Conidia
Select the option which correctly fills A and B.
b. Penicillium (ii) Rhizome
A B
c. Eichhornia (iii) Zoospore (1) 33% 62%
d. Ginger (iv) Offset (2) 62% 33%
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (3) 35% 89.5%
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (4) 89.5% 35%
(11)
134. Pusa Shubhra is bred by hybridisation and 141. Among vertebrates which of the given species
selection for resistance to black rot and curl blight contributes maximum to global biodiversity?
black rot, is a variety of which of the given crop? (1) Fish (2) Mammals
(1) Wheat (2) Brassica (3) Birds (4) Reptiles
(3) Chilli (4) Cauliflower 142. Rivet-popper hypothesis was given by
135. Which of the given household product is obtained (1) Alexander von Humboldt
by using only bacteria?
(2) Paul Ehrlich
(1) Bread (2) Toddy
(3) Robert May
(3) Dosa (4) Camembert cheese
(4) David Tilman
SECTION-B
143. In aquatic food chain, biomagnification is found to
136. Cyclosporin-A is used as an immunosuppressive be highest in which of the given organism?
agent. It is produced by
(1) Zooplankton
(1) Trichoderma polysporum
(2) Phytoplankton
(2) Monascus purpureus (3) Large fish
(3) Streptococcus (4) Fish-eating birds
(4) Rhizopus 144. Which of the given greenhouse gases contributes
137. Population is said to be mature or stable, when minimum to total global warming?
(1) Size of population increases rapidly (1) CO2 (2) CH4
(2) Growth rate being almost zero (3) N2O (4) CFC
(3) Population shows a declined growth 145. Read the given statements stating true (T) or
(4) Age pyramid for human population appears false (F) and select the correct option.
like a triangle A. Myotonic dystrophy is an autosomal
dominant disorder
138. Which of the given contribute to increase the
population density during a given period in an B. Sickle cell anaemia exhibits transversion
area? substitution mutation
(i) Natality (ii) Mortality C. Polarity of template strand which forms
continuous complementary strand during
(iii) Immigration (iv) Emigration
replication is 5  3
(1) Both (i) and (ii) (2) Both (ii) and (iii)
D. Human genome project as ‘Mega project’
(3) Both (i) and (iii) (4) Both (ii) and (iv) was a 13-year project
139. Anthropogenic ecosystem possesses all of the A B C D
given characteristics, except
(1) T F T F
(1) Have little diversity
(2) F F F F
(3) T T T T
(3) Simple food chain
(4) T T F T
(4) Little cycling of nutrients
146. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. pollen
140. In hydrarch succession, the successional series grains.
progress from
(1) It represents male gametophyte
(1) Xeric to mesic condition
(2) These are generally spherical in structure
(2) Hydric to mesic condition
(3) Their wall consists of exine and intine layers
(3) Xeric to hydric condition (4) Their inner wall has prominent apertures
(4) Hydric to xeric condition called germ pores.
(12)
147. The phenotype of F1 hybrid resemble both of the 149. Which of the given nitrogenous bases is/are
parents in purine?
(1) Co-dominance a. Cytosine b. Adenine
(2) Incomplete dominance c. Uracil d. Guanine
(3) Dominance (1) Both a and c (2) Only c
(4) Both (1) and (3) (3) Both b and d (4) Only a
148. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was 150. How many types of histones form core part of
proposed by nucleosome?
(1) Sutton and Boveri (1) Two
(2) Thomas Hunt Morgan (2) Five
(3) A.R. Wallace (3) Three
(4) Charles Darwin (4) Four
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 156. Match column I with column II and choose the
151. Choose the odd one w.r.t. menstrual cycle. correct option.
(1) Humans (2) Apes Column I Column II

(3) Tiger (4) Monkeys a. World's population in (i) 1 billion
152. How many chromosomes are present in a rat year 2000
sperm cell?
b. India's population in (ii) 7.2 billion
(1) 21 (2) 42
year 2000
(3) 23 (4) 19
c. India's population in (iii) 6 billion
153. Read the statement and choose the option that
May 2011
correctly fills the blank.
In a human male, each testis has about d. World's population in (iv) 1.2 billion
________ compartments called testicular year 2011
lobules. (1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(1) 125 (2) 250 (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) 150 (4) 280 (3) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
154. How many of the items given below in box (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
belongs to human male reproductive system?
157. All of the following are the features of an ideal
Seminal vesicles, Glans penis, Prostate contraceptive except
gland, Infundibulum, Foreskin, Hymen, Mons (1) Easily available (2) Effective
pubis
(3) Irreversible (4) User-friendly
(1) Six (2) Four 158. How many items given in the box below are
(3) Two (4) Three IUDs?
155. At which stage of oogenesis does theca layer
Cu7, LNG-20, Saheli, Lippes loop, Nirodh,
organise itself into inner theca interna and outer
Progestasert, Depo-Provera
theca externa?
(1) Secondary follicle (2) Primary follicle (1) Six (2) Three
(3) Tertiary follicle (4) Corpus luteum (3) Four (4) One
(13)
159. Read the statements and choose the option that 163. How many of the following are associated with
states all the correct ones. the harmful effect of smoking?
(i) Vertebrate hearts are example of Bronchitis, Emphysema, Coronary heart disease,
homologous organs Cancer of lung, Cancer of urinary bladder,
(ii) Eye of octopus and mammals are analogous Gastric ulcer
(iii) Darwin's finches are examples of evolution (1) Six (2) Two
by anthropogenic action
(3) Three (4) Four
(iv) Evolution of modern man appears to be
parallel evolution of human brain and 164. Complete the analogy for the following
language Marine fish : Pomfret : : Freshwater fish :
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (i), (ii) and (iv) (1) Hilsa (2) Mackerel
(3) Only (i) and (ii) (4) Only (ii) and (iv) (3) Sardine (4) Common carp
160. Australian marsupial spotted cuscus shows 165. Which is the most common species of honey bee
convergent evolution with a placental mammal in India?
called _____. (1) Apis mellifera (2) Apis indica
Choose the option that correctly fills the blank. (3) Apis dorsata (4) Apis florea
(1) Bobcat (2) Mole 166. Read the following statements about agarose gel
(3) Lemur (4) Flying squirrel electrophoresis and choose the incorrect option.
161. Read the following statements w.r.t. evolution of (1) The agarose gel used in the technique is
man and choose the incorrect one. extracted from seaweeds
(1) Homo habilis were the first human like being (2) The DNA fragments separate according to
the hominid their size
(2) Homo erectus had a large brain around 650- (3) Separated DNA fragments can be visualised
800 cc after staining with ethidium bromide followed
by exposure to infrared rays
(3) Ramapithecus was more man-like
(4) DNA fragments move from cathode to anode
(4) Neanderthal man used hides to protect their
under the influence of an electric field
body
167. Select the odd one w.r.t. downstream
162. Match column I with column II and choose the
processing.
correct option.
(1) Separation
Column I Column II
(2) Preservatives
a. Plague (i) Haemophilus (3) Marketing
influenzae
(4) Purification
b. Pneumonia (ii) Babesia 168. Transgenic animals exist for which of the
following human diseases?
c. Filariasis (iii) Entamoeba
histolytica a. Alzheimer's b. Cancer
c. Cystic fibrosis
d. Babesiosis (iv) Yersinia pestis
Choose the option which includes all the correct
(v) Wuchereria ones
(1) a(iv), b(v), c(i), d(ii) (1) Only a and b
(2) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) (2) Only b and c
(3) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (3) a, b and c
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(v), d(ii) (4) Only a and c
(14)
169. A plasmid containing complete gene copied from A B

human genome is introduced in a bacterial cell, (1) Pons Bile pigments
but the bacteria is unable to make a working
(2) Medulla Bile pigments
copy of the protein because
(3) Medulla Bile salts
(1) It cannot recognise the start codon in mRNA
(4) Pons Bile salts
(2) Of the absence of similar amino acids in
bacteria 174. Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a
normal expiration is called
(3) Of the absence of similar splicing machinery
(1) Residual volume
(4) The foreign gene cannot replicate in bacteria
(2) Vital capacity
170. Read the following statements about insulin and
choose the option that states all correct (3) Functional residual capacity
statements. (4) Expiratory capacity
a. Earlier, insulin was extracted from pancreas 175. Choose the odd one w.r.t. formation of
of slaughtered cattles and pigs oxyhaemoglobin.
b. Mature insulin do not contain polypeptide C (1) High pO2
c. Mature insulin consists of two short (2) Low pCO2
polypeptides: chain A and chain B (3) Higher H+ concentration
d. During commercial production of insulin, (4) Lower temperature
chain A and B were produced together, 176. Match column I with column II w.r.t. percentage
extracted and combined by creating of leucocytes and choose the correct option.
disulphide bonds
Column I Column II
(1) Only a, b and c (2) Only b, c and d
a. Eosinophils (i) 60-65 per cent
(3) a, b, c and d (4) Only b and c
b. Neutrophils (ii) 20-25 per cent
171. The first restriction endonuclease isolated was
c. Basophils (iii) 2-3 per cent
(1) Eco RI (2) Hind III
d. Lymphocytes (iv) 0.5-1 per cent
(3) Hind II (4) Bam HI
(v) 6-8 per cent
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
correct option.
(2) a(v), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
Column I Column II
(3) a(i), b(v), c(iv), d(ii)
a. Small intestine (i) pH 6.8
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(v)
b. Salivary amylase (ii) pH 1.8
177. Study the following diagrams w.r.t. blood groups
c. Urine (iii) pH 7.8 and donor compatibility and choose the correct
d. Gastric HCl (iv) pH 6 option.
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (1) (2)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
173. Read the statements w.r.t. disorders of digestive (3) (4)
system and choose the option that correctly fill
the blanks A and B.
(i) Vomiting is the ejection of stomach contents 178. Choose the mismatch among the following.
through the mouth, which is controlled by (1) Antennal glands – Prawns
vomit centre present in A . (2) Malpighian tubules – Cockroach
(ii) In jaundice, skin and eyes turn yellow due to (3) Nephridia – Earthworm
deposit of B . (4) Flame cells – Pila
(15)
179. Complete the analogy for the following 184. The inner layer of eye, retina contains three
Reabsorption of 70-80% of electrolytes : PCT : : layers of neural cells, which does not include
Conditional reabsorption of Na+ : (1) Photoreceptor cells (2) Unipolar cells
(1) PCT (2) DCT (3) Ganglion cells (4) Bipolar cells
(3) Henle's loop (4) Bowman's capsule 185. Consider the following statements w.r.t.
180. Malfunctioning of kidneys may lead to a condition endocrine system and choose the correct option.
called uremia in which a. A is released from hypothalamus,
(1) Urea is accumulated in urine which inhibits the release of growth hormone
(2) Uric acid is accumulated in blood from pituitary gland.
(3) Urea is accumulated in blood b. Pars intermedia secretes only one hormone
called B .
(4) Uric acid is accumulated in joints
181. Read the following statements w.r.t. muscle A B
contraction and choose the option that states all (1) GnRH FSH
the correct statements.
(2) Somatostatin MSH
a. Actin and myosin filaments do not get short
(3) GnRH LH
but rather slide passes each other
(4) Somatotrophin MSH
b. The size of A-band reduces
SECTION-B
c. Length of H-zone decreases
186. All of the following are associated with
(1) a and b (2) a, b and c
catecholamines except
(3) a and c (4) Only a
(1) Increase alertness
182. Read the following statements about human
(2) Heartbeat increases
skeleton system and choose the option that
correctly states them true (T) and false (F). (3) Glycogenesis
a. Total number of bones in hind limbs are 60 (4) Piloerection
b. There are 26 bones in vertebral column of an 187. Consider the following statements about
adult man glucocorticoids.
c. There are 2 pairs of vertebrochondral ribs a. They stimulate gluconeogenesis and lipolysis
d. Axial skeleton is comprised of 80 bones b. They produce inflammatory reactions and
a b c d suppresses the immune system
(1) T F F T c. They stimulate RBC production
(2) T T F T d. They promote cellular uptake and utilisation

of amino acids
(3) F T T F
How many of the above statements are correct?
(4) F T T T
(1) Four (2) Three
183. Association areas in forebrain of humans are
associated with (3) Two (4) One
a. Communication 188. All of the following hormones interact with
membrane bound receptors except
b. Memory
(1) Epinephrine (2) Insulin
c Intersensory associations
(3) Cortisol (4) ADH
ones 189. Bone cells present in lacunae are called
(1) a only (2) b only (1) Osteoblasts (2) Osteocytes
(3) a, b and c (4) c only (3) Chondrocytes (4) Chondroblasts
(16)
190. Read the following statements about cockroach 193. The bond which connects a nitrogenous base
and choose the incorrect one. with deoxyribose sugar in a nucleotide of DNA
molecule is
(1) The hind wings are used in flight
(1) Hydrogen bond
(2) Anal styles are absent in females (2) Glycosidic bond
(3) The inner thick layer of crop forms six highly (3) Ester bond
chitinous plate called teeth (4) Phosphodiester bond
(4) Malpighian tubules help in removal of 194. Which of the following play known roles in normal
excretory products from haemolymph physiological processes?
(1) Concanavalin A (2) Abrin
191. Uricose glands in cockroach are associated with
(3) Anthocyanin (4) Tryptophan
(1) Digestion
195. Study the given picture of actin filament carefully
(2) Excretion and choose the option that correctly labels A
and B.
(3) Circulation
(4) Respiration
192. Study the graphs given below and choose the

A B
option which correctly shows the activity of
enzyme, salivary amylase. (1) Troponin Tropomyosin
(2) Troponin F actin
(1) (3) Tropomyosin F actin
(4) F actin Troponin
196. Which of the following is the correct sequence of
structures formed during spermatogenesis?
(1) Primary spermatocytes  Spermatogonium
 Spermatids  Spermatozoa
(2) (2) Spermatogonium Primary spermatocytes
 Spermatozoa  Spermatids
(3) Primary spermatocytes Secondary
spermatocytes  Spermatids 
Spermatozoa
(4) Spermatogonium Secondary
(3) spermatocytes  Primary spermatocytes 
Spermatozoa
197. Complete the analogy regarding assisted
reproductive technologies.
IUT : Embryo with more than 8 blastomeres is
transferred into uterus : : ZIFT : ______
(1) Only zygote is transferred into fallopian tube
(4)
(2) Only embryo with 4 blastomeres is
transferred into fallopian tube
(3) Zygote is transferred into uterus
(4) Zygote or early embryo (upto 8 blastomeres)
is transferred into fallopian tube
(17)
198. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. secondary 200. Consider the following statements regarding
regulation of respiration.
lymphoid organs.
a. Role of oxygen is insignificant in regulation of
(1) Peyer's patches respiratory rhythm.
b. An increase in concentration of CO2 and H+
(2) Thymus
ions, in arterial blood, activate
(3) Spleen chemosensitive area, which in turn signals
pneumotaxic centre to make necessary
(4) Tonsils adjustments.
c. Respiratory rhythm centre in medulla is
199. The protein produced by some strains of Bacillus
primarily responsible for regulation of
thuringiensis can kill all of the following except respiration.
(1) Beetles d. Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre can
increase the duration of inspiration.
(2) Armyworm Choose the option that mentions all correct
statements.
(3) Flies
(1) Only a, b and c (2) Only a, c and d
(4) Ants (3) Only a and c (4) a, b, c and d

(18)
Dt 22/04/2022
19/08/2021 CODE-A
Mock Test-02
Instructions:
PHYSICS
SECTION-A 4. Two blocks of mass 10 kg and 5 kg are
1. The exchange particles responsible for nuclear connected with a light string which passing over
weak interaction are an ideal pulley attached with a fixed smooth
(1) Photon wedge. If the system is released from rest, then
(2) W and Z bosons the acceleration of the blocks will be
(3) -Mesons
(4) Gluons
2. If energy E, volume V and time T are taken as
fundamental units, the dimensional formula of the
force will be
(1) [EV–1/3T0] (2) [EV–2T]
(3) [E2V–1T–1] (4) [EV–1T0] (1) 5 m/s2
3. A body when dropped freely from certain height,
7
reaches the ground in time t second. The (2) m/s2
3
average velocity during its journey is
(1) gt (2) 2gt (3) 2 m/s2
gt 14
(3) Zero (4) (4) m/s2
2 3
(1)
5. If a ball of mass 4 kg moving with velocity of 11. The equation y = acos2t + asin2t is
3 m/s collides elastically head on with another (1) Periodic but not oscillatory
ball of mass 6 kg which is at rest, then the ratio of
(2) Oscillatory but not periodic
speed of second ball to first after collision will be
(3) SHM
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(4) Non-periodic
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 4 : 3
12. A mass m attached to a spring oscillates with a
6. A uniform chain of length L and mass M is lying
th
time period 4 s. If the mass is increased by 1 kg,
1 then period increases by 1 s. Its initial mass is
on a table and of its length is hanging
4
vertically down over the edge of the table. If g is 16
(1) kg
acceleration due to gravity, the work required to 9
pull the hanging part back on the table 4
(2) kg
MgL MgL 3
(1) (2)
16 32 8
(3) kg
MgL MgL 9
(3) (4)
8 4 4
(4) kg
7. Two balls are thrown vertically upward 9
simultaneously. While they are in air, the 13. Two capillary tube of radii 0.3 cm and 0.4 cm are
acceleration of their centre of mass dipped in the same liquid. The ratio of respective
(1) Depends on the masses of the balls heights through which liquid will rise, is
(2) Depends on volume of the balls (1) 3 : 4 (2) 4 : 3
(3) Depends on the speed of the balls (3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 2
(4) Is equal to acceleration due to gravity 14. Heat is supplied to an ideal monoatomic gas at
constant pressure. The ratio of Q : U : W is
8. We have two spheres, one of which is hollow and
other is solid. They have identical mass and (1) 5 : 3 : 2 (2) 1 : 5 : 2
moment of inertia about its tangent. The ratio of (3) 2 : 3 : 5 (4) 2 : 5 : 7
their radii is given by
15. The bulk modulus of a spherical object is B. If it is
3 5 subjected to uniform pressure P, the fractional
(1) (2) decrease in surface area is
5 7
P P
21 7 (1) (2)
(3) (4) B 3B
5 5
2P P
9. A particle of mass m is moving in a plane along a (3) (4)
3B 2B
circular path of radius r. Its angular momentum
about the axis is L. The centripetal force acting 16. The latent heat of vaporisation of substance is
on the particle is (1) Greater than its latent heat of sublimation
2 2
L Lm (2) Greater than its latent heat of fusion
(1) (2)
mr r (3) Equal to latent heat of sublimation
2 2
L L (4) Less than its latent heat of fusion
(3) (4)
mr 3 mr 2 17. A string of linear density 0.4 kg/m is stretched
10. If the earth suddenly stop rotating, the value of ‘g’ with force of 1000 N. A transverse wave is set up
at the equator would along it. The speed of the wave is
(1) Remains same (2) Slightly increase (1) 75 m/s (2) 25 m/s
(3) Decrease (4) None of these (3) 100 m/s (4) 50 m/s
(2)
18. A pipe open at both ends produces a note of 23. A battery of emf, 20 V is connected to
fundamental frequency 1. When the pipe is kept resistances as shown in figure. The potential at
 1
rd the point C will be
with   of its length in water, it produces a
3

note of frequency 2.The value of 1 is
2
4 2
(1) (2)
3 3
3 8
(3) (4)
2 3
19. A set of 16 tuning forks are so arranged that
each produce 4 beats with the previous one. If (1) 10 V (2) 8 V
the frequency of last tuning fork is double that of (3) 6 V (4) 12 V
first, the frequency of third tuning fork is 24. A long solenoid has 1000 turns per meter length
(1) 68 Hz (2) 60 Hz of solenoid. A current of 3.2 A flow through it.
(3) 120 Hz (4) 32 Hz The magnetic induction at the end of solenoid is
q1 (1) 2 × 10–3 T
20. If q1 + q2 = 3q, then the value of the , for which
q (2) 8 × 10–4 T
the force of repulsion between q1 and q2 is (3) 8 × 10–3 T
maximum is
(4) 2 × 10–4 T
1 3
(1) (2) 25. The relative permeability (r) of a substance is
2 2
related to its susceptibility () as
3
(3) 1 (4) (1) r = 1 –  (2) r = 1 + 
4
21. A cube of side a has charge q at two diagonally (3) r = 1 – 2 (4) r = 1 + 2
opposite vertices as shown in the figure. The net 26. A 0.2 m long conductor carrying a current of 20 A
electric potential at the centre of the cube will be is held perpendicular to magnetic field of 2.5 mT.
The mechanical power required to move the
conductor with speed 2 m/s perpendicular to
length and field is
(1) 20 mW (2) 6.25 mW
(3) 12.5 mW (4) 10 mW
27. A circuit is made up of resistance 3  and
inductance 0.01 H. An alternating emf of 100 V at
50 Hz is connected, then the phase difference
4q q
(1) (2) between the current and the emf in the circuit is
30 a 30 a
(1) tan1  
4q q
(3) (4)
0 a 2 0 q 
(2) tan1  
22. Ohm’s law is valid if 3
(1) V is directly proportional to I3 

(3) tan1  
(2) The relation V and I is non-linear 2
(3) V is directly proportional to I2 
(4) tan1  
(4) I depends on V linearly 4
(3)
28. A ray of light strikes a silvered surface as shown 35. The distance of closest approach of an alpha
inclined to another one. Then the net deviation of particle fired towards gold nucleus with kinetic
the reflected rays will be energy k is r0. The distance of closest approach
when the alpha particle is fired towards same
nucleus with kinetic energy 4k will be
r0 r0
(1) (2)
2 3
r0
(3) (4) r0
4
(1) 90º (2) 45º SECTION-B
(3) 180º (4) 0º 36. Activity of radioactive element decrease to

29. Magnification at least distance of distinct vision one-fourth of original activity R0 in 16 years, after
by simple microscope having focal length 2.5 cm further 16 years, its activity will be
is R0 R0
(1) 6 (2) 11 (1) (2)
8 16
(3) 5 (4) 10
R0 R0
30. The angle between the plane of vibration and (3) (4)
plane of polarization is 12 20
(1) 90º (2) 60º 37. When a soap bubble is illuminated by source of
(3) 30º (4) 45º white light, it appears coloured. This is due to
31. n photons of wavelength  are absorbed by a (1) Dispersion (2) Interference
black body of mass ‘m’. The momentum gained
(3) Refraction (4) Diffraction
by the body is
38. A point mass m is placed at a distance 2R from
nh nh
(1) (2) the centre of the shell of mass M and radius R.
 m
The gravitational force exerted by shell on the
mnh h point mass is
(3) (4)
 m
GMm GMm
32. The output (X) of the logic circuit shown in figure (1) (2)
will be R2 4R 2
4GMm
(3) (4) Zero
R2
(1) AB (2) A  B 39. An incompressible liquid flows through a
horizontal tube as shown in the following figure.
(3) A  B (4) AB  BA
The velocity v of the fluid is
33. A n-p-n transistor can be used as
(1) Choke coil (2) Voltage regulator
(3) Rectifier (4) Amplifier
34. The current flow through the resistance in the
given circuit is : (Cut-off voltage for both diodes is
0.7 V)
(1) 3.0 m/s (2) 1.5 m/s

(1) 4.65 mA (2) 5 mA
(3) 4.8 mA (4) 5.2 mA (3) 4.0 m/s (4) 2.0 m/s
(4)
40. Two moles of helium gas are taken over the 44. Four metallic plates, each with a surface area A,
cycle ABCDA as shown below in P-T diagram. are placed at a distance d from each other as
Assuming the gas to be ideal, the work done on shown in the figure. If points A and B is
the gas in taking from A to B is connected with a battery of emf V, then the
charge on the plate a will be
3A0V A0V
(1) (2)
d 3d
(1) 200R
2 A0V A0V
(2) 500R (3) (4)
3d d
(3) 400R
45. A fish from inside water sees a bird in air at a
(4) 300R
distance
41. If the absolute temperature of hot black body is
(1) Equal to its real distance
raised by 2%, by how much percentage rate of
heat energy radiated would be increased nearly? (2) Less than its real distance
(1) 4% (2) 8% (3) Greater than its real distance
(3) 20% (4) 16% (4) Equal to its real distance but displaced
sideway
42. A child is standing with folded hands at the
centre of a platform rotating about its central axis. 46. A potentiometer wire of length 100 cm has
The kinetic energy of the system is K. The child resistance of 20 ohm. It is connected in series
now stretches his arms so that the moment of with an external resistance and a cell of emf
3 2 volt and of negligible internal resistance. A
inertia of the system becomes of the initial source of emf 20 mV is balance against a length
2
moment of inertia. The kinetic energy of the of 40 cm of the potentiometer wire. What is the
system is now value of external resistance?
2K (1) 790  (2) 620 

(1)
3 (3) 780  (4) 560 
K 47. The pressure exerted by an electromagnetic
(2)
3 W
wave of intensity I  2  on a non-reflecting
K m 
(3) surface is (c is the velocity of light)
4
4K I
(4) (1) Ic (2)
9 c
43. The potential energy of a particle of mass 2 kg in I

(3) Ic2 (4)
motion along the x-axis is given by U = 2 (1 – cos c2
2x) J, where x is in meters. The period of small 48. In Young double slit experiment the nth red bright
oscillations (in s) is band coincide with (n + 1)th blue bright band. If
  the wavelength of red and blue light are 7500 Å
(1) (2)
2 4 and 5000 Å, then the value of ‘n’ is
2 (1) 1 (2) 2
(3)  (4)
3 (3) 5 (4) 4
(5)
49. Variation of photoelectric current with intensity of

light for a given frequency, is
(4)
(1)
50. Two SHMs in same direction are represented by
y1 = asint and y2 = asin(t + ). When they
superimpose, the initial phase difference of the
resultant SHM is
(2) (1) 
(2) 2

(3)
2
(3)

(4)
4
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 56. Correct order of van der Waals constant b of
51. Which among the following species is pyramidal given gases is
in shape? (1) CO2 > N2 > O2 > H2 > He
(1) ClF3 (2) N2 > CO2 > O2 > H2 > He
(2) SF4 (3) CO2 > N2 > O2 > He > H2
(3) NF3 (4) N2 > O2 > H2 > He > CO2
(4) BCl3 57. For the reaction, CaCO3(s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g)
52. The species which does not exist is
H = 82.8 kJ at 25°C, U at 25°C is
(1) H2 (2) He2
(1) 85.28 kJ (2) 82.8 kJ
(3) C2 (4) O2
(3) 80.32 kJ (4) 234 kJ
53. Maximum number of electrons present in p
58. Which of the following is most acidic in nature?
subshell is
(1) HClO (2) HClO2
(1) 2 (2) 6
(3) 10 (4) 5 (3) HClO3 (4) HClO4
54. Packing fraction of body centred cubic structure 59. pH for 0.01 M NaOH solution is
is (1) 2 (2) 12
 3 (3) 10 (4) 8
(1) (2) 
6 8 60. Oxidation state of oxygen in KO2 is
2 3 1
(3)  (4)  (1) – 1 (2) –
8 6 2
55. Monomer of neoprene polymer is 1
(3) – 2 (4) 
(1) 2-Chloro-1, 3-butadiene 2
(2) 1-Chloro-1, 3-butadiene 61. The volume strength of 0.75 M H2O2 solution is
(3) 2-methyl-1,3-butadiene (1) 8.4 (2) 0.26

(4) 3-Hydroxybutanoic acid (3) 3 (4) 7.5
(6)
62. Which one of the alkali metal can directly react 70. Limiting molar conductivity of HAc
with N2 of air?
[i.e., m
o
(HAc) ] is equal to
(1) Li (2) Na
(3) K (4) Rb (1) m
o
(HCl) – m (NaAc) – m (NaCl)
o o
63. When copper is reacted with dilute HNO3, the

(2) m
o
(HCl)  m (NaAc) – m (NaCl)
o o
gaseous product(s) obtained is/are
(1) NO2 only (3) m
o
(NaCl)  m (NaAc) – m (HCl)
o o
(2) N2O only

(4) m
o
(HCl)  m (NaAc)  m (NaCl)
o o
(3) NO
(4) N2O and NO2 71. For the reaction, N2 + 3H2  2NH3, if
d[N2 ]
64. Which of the following can show maximum   2  10–3 mol L–1 s–1, the value of
covalency of six? dt
– d[H2 ]
(1) C (2) B would be
dt
(3) N (4) Si
(1) 1 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1 (2) 6 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
65. Among the following, which is the strongest
oxidising agent? (3) 3 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1 (4) 4 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
(1) O2 (2) F2 72. Minimum boiling point among the following is of
(3) Br2 (4) I2 (1) H2O (2) H2S

66. The number of 3-centre-2-electron bonds in B2H6 (3) H2Se (4) H2Te
is 73. In the given reaction
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4) 6
67. The most stable carbanion among the following
is
The product P is
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
68. The compound which will react fastest by SN2

mechanism is
(3) (4)
(1)
(2) 74. Consider the following reaction sequence

(i) NH2NH2
CH3CHO 
dil NaOH

A 
(ii) Ethylene glycol/KOH/ 
 B.
(3) Ph—CH2—Br
B is
(4) (Ph)3C—Br
(1) CH3–CH=CH–CHO
69. At 25°C, the highest osmotic pressure is
exhibited by 0.1 M solution of (2) CH3–CH=CH–CH2–OH
(1) Urea (2) Glucose (3) CH3–CH=CH–CH3
(3) NaCl (4) AlCl3 (4) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3
(7)
75. Which of the following does not undergo 83. Phenelzine is an example of
Cannizzaro reaction?
(1) Tranquilizer (2) Antimicrobial
(1) HCHO (2) (3) Analgesic (4) Antiseptic

(3) CH3–CH2–CHO (4) (CH3)3C–CHO
(1) Ethene (2) Acrylonitrile
76. Which of the following gives both positive
(3) Vinylchloride (4) Tetrafluoroethene
iodoform test and positive Fehling’s solution test?
(1) Acetaldehyde (2) Acetone 85. Which of the following compounds gives positive
carbylamine test?
(3) Ethyl alcohol (4) Formaldehyde
(1) Secondary amine
77. Major product formed on oxidation of 1-Decanol
in the presence of Jones reagent is (2) Tertiary amines
(1) Decanal (2) Decanoic acid (3) Primary amine
(3) Pentanoic acid (4) Pentanal (4) Quaternary ammonium salt
78. Compound which will undergo fastest SECTION-B
nucleophilic substitution reaction among the
86. Incorrect statement among the following is
following is
(1) Myosin is fibrous protein
(2) Insulin has fibre-like structure
(1) (2) (3) Glycine is an optically inactive molecule
(4) Proline is non-essential amino acid
87. The process of settling of colloidal particles is
known as
(3) (4) (1) Electrophoresis
(3) Coagulation
(4) Peptization
PBr H O
RCH2OH 3 A   B 
alc. KCN 3

C(major) 88. Magnetic moment (in BM) of Cu2+ ion is
Major product C is
(1) 1.73 (2) 5.92
(1) RCH2CHO (2) RCH2COOH
(3) Zero (4) 4.89
(3) RCH2CN (4) RCH2CH2NH2
89. Select the correct statement among the following.
80. The number of isomers for the complex species
[Co(en)2Br2]+ is (1) The prescribed upper limit concentration of
lead in drinking water is about 50 ppm
(1) 6 (2) 3
(2) Na3AsO3 is used as pesticide
(3) 4 (4) 2
(3) Excessive nitrate ion in drinking water can
81. Chloroform on reaction with O2 in presence of
light gives cause methemoglobinemia
(1) CO2 (2) COCl2 (4) Photochemical smog occurs in cool humid
climate
(3) CO (4) CCl3-CHO
90. Cationic detergent among the following is
82. The correct order of basic strength is
(1) Aniline > p-nitroaniline > p-toluidine (1) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
(2) p-nitroaniline > Aniline > p-toluidine (2) Sodium laurylsulphate
(3) p-toluidine > Aniline > p-nitroaniline (3) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate
(4) p-toluidine > p-nitroaniline > Aniline (4) Sodium-potassium tartrate
(8)
91. Select the alcohol which will give immediate 96. The correct order of bond order of the given
turbidity on reaction with conc. HCl in presence species is
of anhyd. ZnCl2.
(1) CH3–CH2–OH (2) CH3CH2CH2–OH (1) O2  O2  O2
(3) (4) (CH3)3C–OH (2) O2  O2  O2
92. Which of the following is arranged in the order of (3) O2  O2  O2
increasing radius of ions in aqueous solution?
(4) O2  O2  O2
(1) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Rb+ < Cs+
(2) Cs+ < Rb+ < K+ < Na+ < Li+ 97. The orbital angular momentum of 3d electron is
(3) Rb+ < Na+ < Li+ < Cs+ < K+ (1) 2h (2) 6h
(4) Cs+ < K+ < Rb+ < Li+ < Na+
93. Correct order of acidic strength is (3) 5h (4) 3h
(1) BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3 < BI3 98. Ratio of the kinetic energy of 14 g of N2 at 27°C
(2) BBr3 < BCl3 < BF3 < BI3 to 16 g of O2 at 127°C will be
(3) BI3 < BBr3 < BCl3 < BF3 (1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 1
(4) BBr3 < BI3 < BCl3 < BF3 (3) 3 : 4 (4) 2 : 3
99. The correct IUPAC name of is
(1) 1-Methoxypropane
Product B is
(2) 2-Methoxybutane
(1) C6H5–CH2–NH2 (2) C6H5CN
(3) 2-Methyl-2-methoxy propane
(3) C6H5–NC (4) C6H5–CH2–NC
95. Major product of the given reaction is (4) 3-Methoxy butane
(CH3)3CBr + CH3–CH2–ONa  product 100. The most acidic compound among the following
(1) is
(1) C2H5OH
(2) H2O
(2)
(3)
(3) CH3–CH2–O–CH3
(4) CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3 (4) HC  CH
BOTANY
SECTION-A 102. Which of the following options about tapetum is
101. The bulbil of Agave represents: correct?
(1) Reduced disc shaped stem inside the bulb (1) It is protective layer of thick walled cells
(2) Vegetative propagule (2) It is sporogenous layer
(3) Leaf bud (3) It nourishes the developing pollen grains
(4) Modified underground bud (4) It helps in dehiscence of anther
(9)
103. The device that prevents both autogamy and 110. Find odd one w.r.t. single cell protein.
geitonogamy in some flowering plants is (1) Yeast and blue-green alga
(1) Monoecious condition (2) Methylophilus and Saccharomyces species
(2) Hermaphrodite condition (3) Mushrooms and Spirulina
(3) Dioecious condition (4) Atlas-66 and IR-8
(4) Cleistogamous condition 111. Ethyl alcohol and bread are produced on
104. Among the following, which fruit would we not commercial scale by using
select to induce parthenocarpy by the application (1) Streptococcus (2) Aspergillus
of plant growth regulators?
(3) Saccharomyces (4) Leuconostoc
(1) Banana (2) Pomegranate
112. All are the important photosynthetic biofertilizers,
(3) Grape (4) Orange except
105. Choose the incorrect statement regarding lac (1) Oscillatoria (2) Nostoc
operon.
(3) Frankia (4) Anabaena
(1) There are 3 structural genes
113. Which of the following options most appropriately
(2) It consists of regulatory gene-i describes colour blindness?
(3) i-gene has its own promoter (1) Chromosomal disorder
(4) Operator is the site of attachment of RNA (2) Recessive autosomal gene disorder
polymerase
(3) X-linked dominant genetic disorder
106. In tailing of hnRNA, nearly how many adenylate
(4) X-linked recessive genetic disorder
residues are added at 3-end in a template
independent manner? 114. Which of the following statements is not correct
regarding the selection of Drosophila
(1) 10 - 20 (2) 200 - 300
melanogaster by T.H. Morgan in his experiment?
(3) 1000 - 5000 (4) 61 - 64
(1) A single mating produces very large number
107. In point mutation, the reading frame of genetic of offspring
code remains unaltered from that point onwards
(2) It has life cycle of about two weeks
in case of
(3) It could be grown on simple synthetic
(1) Insertion of one base
medium
(2) Deletion of one base
(4) Female and male Drosophila are not
(3) Deletion of two bases distinguishable
(4) Insertion of three bases 115. Mendel’s law of dominance concludes all, except
108. The x-ray diffraction data of famous double helix (1) The factors occur in pairs
model for the structure of DNA was produced by
(2) Factors are discrete units that control
(1) M. Wilkins and R. Franklin characters
(2) J. Watson and F. Crick (3) Gamete carries only one factor of a character
(3) F. Miescher and F. Crick (4) Dominant factor expresses in heterozygous
(4) A. Hershey and M. Chase condition, recessive does not
109. In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic virus 116. Select the wrong match regarding sex
and powdery mildew were developed by determination.
(1) Cross hybridization (1) XX-XY type — Mammals
(2) Mutation breeding (2) XX-XO type — Grasshopper
(3) Polyploidy (3) ZW-ZZ type — Birds
(4) Somatic hybridisation (4) ZO-ZZ type — Chickens
(10)
117. In Mendel’s experiment on Pisum sativum, plant 122. In which of the following areas, highest diversity
with inflated pods and round seeds was crossed in birds species is seen?
with constricted pods and wrinkle seeds. The F1 (1) Colombia (2) Arctic
offsprings were “IiRr”. What would be the
(3) New York (4) Greenland
genotypic ratio in F2 generation when F1 is
crossed with pea having “iirr” genotype? 123. In relation, log S = log C + Z log A, large the
explored area,
(1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(1) Less is steepness of the slope of line
(2) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(2) More is steepness of the slope of line
(3) 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1
(3) The slope of line would be paralles to the
(4) 1 : 1 area axis
118. Langdon Down first described a chromosomal (4) Decrease in the number of the species
disorder in human called Down’s syndrome is 124. Human being is the only organism who has
due to
(1) Consciousness
(1) Three copies of chromosome 21
(2) Self-consciousness
(2) Two copies of Y-chromosomes (3) Ability to detect change in the environment
(3) Two copies of X-chromosomes in males (4) Cellular organisation
(4) Just one X-chromosome in females 125. Choose the incorrect one regarding wheat plant.
119. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly (1) Wheat is a dicot annual plant
matched?
(2) It belongs to family Poaceae
(1) High pressure in – Biochemical (3) Its genus is Triticum
ocean adaptation in fishes (4) Its division is Angiospermae
(2) Desert lizards – Behavioural 126. Slime moulds form plasmodium
adaptation (1) Under unfavourable condition
(3) All archaebacteria – Deep sea (2) Due to aggregation of mycelium
hydrothermal vents (3) Which causes malaria in human beings
(4) High altitude – Altitude sickness (4) Under favourable conditions

127. Which one of the following diseases is not
120. Read the following statements: caused by bacteria?
(a) Slash and burn agriculture commonly called (1) Tetanus (2) Citrus canker
jhum cultivation.
(3) Mad cow disease (4) Typhoid
(b) Deforestation disturbs hydrological cycle. 128. Lichens are
(c) Chipko Movement started in Garhwal (1) Mutual association between algae and fungi
Himalayas.
(2) Symbiotic associations of algae and mosses
(d) Amrita Devi Bishnoi has introduced concept
(3) Association of roots of angiosperms and
of Joint Forest Management.
fungi
How many are correct? (4) Good pollination indicators as they grow in
(1) Four (2) Three polluted areas
(3) Two (4) One 129. Classification of flowering plants given by
Bentham and Hooker are based on all the
121. During primary succession in water, the pioneer
following features, except
species are replaced with time by
(1) External features
(1) Rooted sub-merged plants
(2) Internal features like anatomy and
(2) Sub-merged free floating plants ultrastructure
(3) Marsh-meadow plants (3) Phytochemistry
(4) Reed-swamp plants (4) Evolutionary relationships among organisms
(11)
130. Proponent of artificial system of classification of SECTION-B

organisms is 136. Choose the incorrect statement.
(1) Takhtajan (2) Hutchinson (1) The divisions in meristematic tissues results
(3) Engler (4) Linnaeus in open type growth in plants
131. Among the following characteristics, how many (2) The growth of multicellular organisms is due
are correct for Volvox? to mitosis
a. Colonial algae (3) In lower plants, haploid cells do not divide
b. Fresh water algae (4) The division of cells restores the

nucleocytoplasmic ratio
c. Chloroplast with pyrenoid
137. Which one of the following organelles is
d. Sexual reproduction isogamous
observed in large number in the cells actively
(1) Four (2) Three involved in protein synthesis and secretion?
(3) Two (4) One (1) Plastids
132. Statement-A : Mosses along with lichens are the (2) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
first organisms to colonise rocks. (3) Peroxisome
Statement-B : Mosses are of great ecological (4) Lysosome
importance.
138. In roots, the innermost boundary of the cortex is
Select the correct option regarding the impervious to water because of
statements A and B.
(1) A band of lignified matrix
(1) Both statements are false
(2) Plasmodesmata
(2) Statement A is false
(3) Casparian strips
(3) Both statements are true
(4) Deposition of inclusion bodies
(4) Statement B is false
139. The best defined function of manganese is
133. Gymnosperms are (1) Carbohydrate translocation
(1) Vascular cryptogams (2) Synthesis of chlorophyll
(2) Thallophytes (3) Synthesis of auxin
(3) Homosporous (4) Splitting of water during photosynthesis
(4) Heterosporous 140. Which one of the following statements is wrong
134. Which one of the following is wrongly matched? for the plants showing ‘Kranz anatomy’?
(1) Hard and stony endocarp – Drupe (1) Bundle sheath cells are present
(2) Edible part is thalamus – Apple (2) The cells surrounding the vascular bundle
have a large number of chloroplasts
(3) Opposite phyllotaxy – Alstonia
(3) Primary CO2 acceptor is C4-acid
(4) Events precursor to seed habit – Selaginella
(4) RuBisCO is present in stroma of chloroplast
135. Nucleus is double membrane bound organelle of
cell. The width of perinuclear space between 141. In glycolysis, water molecule is released during
outer and inner membrane is which of the following conversion steps?
(1) 1 - 2 nm (1) Glucose-6-Phosphate Fructose-6-Phosphate
(2) 10 - 50 nm (2) 2-Phosphoglycerate Phosphoenolpyruvate
(3) 100 - 500 nm (3) PEP Pyruvic acid
(4) 0.1 – 0.5 nm (4) 3-Phosphoglycerate 2-Phosphoglycerate
(12)
142. Match the following columns and select the 146. Which of the following plants show clear cut
correct option. vegetative, reproductive and senescent phases?
a. ABA (i) Helps to overcome (1) Mango plant (2) Carrot
apical dominance
(3) China rose (4) Coconut
b. Gaseous PGR (ii) Stress hormone
147. The haplodiploid system of sex determination
c. NAA (iii) Thinning of cotton mechanism is designated in
fruits
(1) Drosophila (2) Birds
d. Cytokinin (iv) Rooting in stem cutting
(3) Honey bee (4) Grasshopper
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
148. Select the incorrect match from the following.
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
143. The hypothetical hormone that induces flowering (1) Psilotum – Vascular system
is synthesised in (2) Ginkgo – Double fertilization
(1) Flower bud (2) Leaves
(3) Polytrichum – Protonema
(3) Apical meristem (4) Lateral cambium
144. Choose the incorrect match. (4) Zostera – Sea-grass
(1) Sclerenchyma — Lignified cell walls 149. Water loss in the form of droplets around
(2) Collenchyma — Thickening at the corners openings of the veins near the tip of grass blades
due to high root pressure is called
(3) Parenchyma — Small intercellular space
(1) Transpiration (2) Translocation
(4) Bast fibres — Living cells
(3) Guttation (4) Bleeding
145. In the floral formula of family Solanaceae A5
represents 150. Find odd one w.r.t. the results of dedifferentiation.
(1) Polyandrous condition (1) Cork cambium
(2) Epipetalous condition (2) Interfascicular cambium
(3) Epitepalous condition (3) Wound cambium
(4) Polyadelphous condition (4) Secondary cortex
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 153. Complete the analogy for the following.
151. Proboscis gland is an excretory organ for Collar cells : Sycon :: Muscular foot : ______
(1) Echinus (1) Physalia (2) Euspongia
(2) Pheretima (3) Taenia (4) Pila
(3) Balanoglossus
154. Cells present in all of the following connective
(4) Rana tissue secrete fibres, except
152. Study the following table and choose the (1) Adipose tissue (2) Bone
incorrect option.
(3) Blood (4) Areolar tissue
Phylum Symmetry Segmentation 155. Type of cell junction that help to stop substances
from leaking across a tissue is
(1) Annelida Bilateral Present
(1) Tight junctions
(2) Mollusca Bilateral Present
(2) Gap junctions
(3) Cnidaria Radial Absent (3) Adherens junctions
(4) Chordata Bilateral Present (4) Hemi-desmosomes
(13)
156. A are bone forming cells, whereas B are 161. While leaving for work, Rohan's mother who by
profession is a Zoology lecturer at Aakash
bone maintaining cells.
institute, instructed him to place the tomatoes in
Choose the option that correctly fills the blank A the refrigerator. Rohan had been too occupied
and B. with his PUBG squad online and didn't pay much
A B attention, and eventually had trouble recalling
what he had been instructed to do. On her return
(1) Osteoblasts Osteoclasts during evening hours, she finds the tomatoes still
lying on the table and decided to explain this fact
(2) Osteoblasts Osteocytes
to Rohan, that keeping tomatoes in the
(3) Osteocytes Osteoblasts refrigerator would keep them fresh for long
because
(4) Osteoclasts Osteocytes
(1) Low temperature preserves the colour and
157. In a cockroach, how many among the following smell
given in box, helps in excretion? (2) Low temperature preserves the enzyme in a
Malpighian tubules, Fat body, Flame cells, temporary inactive state
Nephrocytes, Uricose glands (3) Tomato ripe quickly when comes in contact
with air at very high temperature outside
(1) Thee
refrigerators
(2) Four
(4) Atmospheric air destroys the enzyme activity
(3) Five
162. Read the statement and choose the option which
(4) Two correctly fills the blank.
158. How many among the following given in box are The tongue is a freely movable muscular organ
secondary metabolites? attached to the floor of the oral cavity by ______.
Cellulose, Codeine, Anthocyanin, Fructose, (1) Papillae (2) Frenulum

Vinblastin, Lysine (3) Sphincter (4) Valve
(1) Six (2) Three 163. Which layer forms the gastric glands in stomach?
(3) Four (4) Five (1) Mucosa
159. Choose the mismatch among the following. (2) Sub-mucosa
(1) Nucleoside – Uridine (3) Serosa
(2) Nucleotide – Adenylic acid (4) Muscularis
(3) Nitrogen base – Cytosine 164. All of the following statements are correct w.r.t
stomach and gastric gland, except
(4) DNA – Ribose sugar
(1) The stomach stores the food for 4-5 hours
correct option. (2) Oxyntic cells secrete HCl
Statement-A : Adenine and guanine are (3) Lipases are completely absent in gastric juice
substituted purines. (4) Pepsin converts proteins into proteoses and
Statement-B : Uracil is present in DNA, instead peptones
of thymine. 165. Select the mismatch among the following.
(1) Both A and B are correct (1) pO2 in alveoli – 104 mm Hg
(2) Both A and B are incorrect (2) pCO2 in deoxygenated blood – 45 mm Hg
(3) A is correct but B is incorrect (3) pCO2 in tissues – 40 mm Hg
(4) A is incorrect but B is correct (4) pO2 in oxygenated blood – 95 mm Hg
(14)
166. Which among the following is incorrect 171. Complete the analogy w.r.t excretion in human
statement? beings.
(1) Concentration of enzyme, carbonic Urea : 25-30 g/day :: CO2 : ______
anhydrase is very high in RBCs as compare
to plasma (1) 10 L/hr (2) 12 L/hr
(2) Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can (3) 200 L/hr (4) 5 L/hr
transport 4 ml of O2 under normal 172. Which of the following is an active ATPase
physiological conditions enzyme?
(3) Role of oxygen in regulating respiratory (1) Globular actin
rhythm is quite insignificant
(4) Around 20-25 percent of CO2 is transported
by RBCs (3) Globular head in HMM
167. Match column I with column II and choose the (4) Tropomyosin
correct option. 173. Study the following table and choose the
Column I Column II mismatch.
(1) Hinge joint – Knee joint
a. Platelets (i) Allergic reactions
(2) Saddle joint – Between carpal and
b. Neutrophils (ii) Secrete
metacarpal of
antibodies
thumb
c. Eosinophils (iii) Anti-inflammatory (3) Gliding joint – Between atlas and
reactions axis
d. B lymphocytes (iv) Phagocytic cells (4) Ball and socket joint – Between humerus
and pectoral girdle
(v) Blood clotting
174. Choose the incorrect statement among the
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(v), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
following.
(3) a(iv), b(v), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
(1) The left and right hemispheres of brain are
168. A person with only anti-A antibodies in his connected by corpus callosum
plasma can donate blood to people with blood
group(s) (2) The medulla in hind brain does not contain
centre for gastric secretions
(1) Only B (2) Only O and B
(3) The hypothalamus contain a centre which
(3) Only AB (4) Only AB and B
control body temperature
169. Incomplete double circulation of blood is found in
(4) Limbic system along with hypothalamus is
(1) Scoliodon (2) Crocodile
involved in regulation of sexual behaviour
(3) Parrot (4) Frog
175. The photopic vision is the function of A
170. Read the following statement and choose the
option that correctly fills the blank A and B. cells, whereas scotopic vision is the function of
Conditional reabsorption of Na+ occurs in A , B cells.
whereas 70-80 percent of electrolytes are Choose the option that correctly fills the blank A
reabsorbed in B of a nephron. and B.
A B A B
(1) DCT Collecting duct (1) Rods Cones
(2) DCT PCT (2) Cones Rods
(3) Henle’s loop PCT (3) Cones Bipolars

(4) DCT Henle’s loop (4) Rods Bipolars
(15)
176. How many hormones given in the box below are A B

directly secreted by pituitary gland?
(1) Spermatogenesis Spermiogenesis
FSH, ACTH, Thymosins, Adrenaline, Prolactin,
Somatotrophin, Somatostatin (2) Spermatocytogenesis Spermiation
(1) Six (2) Three (3) Spermiogenesis Spermatogenesis

(3) Five (4) Four (4) Spermiogenesis Spermiation
177. Which among the following hormones interact
183. Presence of a fluid filled cavity called antrum is a
with membrane bound receptors on a cell?
characteristic of
(1) Testosterone (2) Cortisol (1) Secondary follicle (2) Tertiary follicle
(3) Epinephrine (4) Progesterone (3) Primary follicle (4) Corpus albicans
178. How many among the following given in box are 184. Study the given diagram carefully and read the
linked with the functions of melatonin? following statements.
Diurnal rhythm, Body temperature,
Pigmentation, Menstrual cycle, Defence
capability
(1) Five (2) Three

(3) Four (4) Two
179. Which among the following is pseudo-coelomate
and a human parasite?
(1) Anopheles (2) Aedes
(3) Wuchereria (4) Hirudinaria
180. Oestrus cycle does not occur in
(1) Cows (2) Tiger
(i) The embryo at stage (e) contain A cells.
(3) Monkeys (4) Dogs
(ii) The growing embryo at stage (g) is known as
181. Which among the following statement is
incorrect w.r.t male reproductive tract? B .
(1) Prostate gland is an accessory male Choose the option that correctly answers the
reproductive gland blanks above.
(2) Seminal plasma is rich in sucrose, calcium A B
and certain enzymes
(1) 16-32 Morula
(3) The secretions of bulbourethral gland helps
in the lubrication of penis (2) 8-16 Blastocyst
(4) Penis is made up of special tissue that helps
(3) 8-16 Gastrula
in erection
182. Read the statements and choose the option that (4) 16-32 Blastocyst
correctly fills the blank A and B. 185. Choose the option which correctly states the
(i) LH acts on leydig cells and stimulate hormones produced in women only during
secretion of androgens, which in turn pregnancy.
stimulate the process of A . (1) hCG, relaxin, progesterone
(ii) FSH acts on Sertoli cells and stimulate (2) hCG, hPL, relaxin and cortisol
secretion of some factors which help in the (3) hCG, hPL and relaxin
process of B . (4) hCG, hPL and oestrogen
(16)
SECTION-B 191. All of the following can be used to reduce the

186. Select the mismatch among the following. symptoms of allergy, except
(1) Saheli – Non-steroidal pill (1) Adrenaline
(2) Multiload 375 – Hormone releasing (2) Steroids

IUD (3) Anti-histamine
(3) Lippes loop – Non-medicated IUD (4) Oxytocin
(4) Periodic abstinence – Natural method of 192. Jersey is an improved breed of
contraception
(1) Chicken
187. How many among the items given below in the
box are viral STls ? (2) Cattle
(3) Fish
Hepatitis-B, AIDS, Gonorrhoea, Genital herpes,
Syphilis, Genital warts, Chlamydiasis (4) Pig
193. Which of the following gene will get inactivated if
(1) Six (2) Three
an alien DNA is ligated at the Pvu I restriction site
(3) Five (4) Four of vector, pBR322?
188. Who disapproved the embryological support for (1) ori
evolution, proposed by Ernst Heckel?
(2) rop
(1) Charles Darwin
(3) ampR
(2) Thomas Malthus
(4) tetR
(3) Hugo de Vries
194. During DNA isolation from animal cells, chilled
(4) Karl Ernst von Baer
ethanol is used to precipitate the purified DNA.
189. Read the following statements carefully about This separated DNA can be seen as fine threads
evolution of man. in the suspension and can be removed on glass
(i) They had a large brain around 900 cc rod by
(ii) They existed around 1.5 mya (1) Elution
(iii) They probably ate meat (2) Centrifugation
‘They’ in the above statements are (3) Gel electrophoresis
(1) Australopithecines (4) Spooling
(2) Homo erectus 195. Which of the following option is most suitable for
(3) Homo habilis permanent cure of ADA deficiency?
(4) Neanderthal man (1) Regular enzyme replacement therapy
190. Match column I with column II and choose the (2) Bone marrow transplantation
correct option.
(3) Insertion of ADA cDNA into adult
Column I Column II lymphocytes
(4) Introduction of the gene isolated from bone
a. Cellular barriers (i) Mucus coating
marrow cells producing ADA into cells at
b. Physiological (ii) Interferons early embryonic stages
barriers
196. Select the mismatch among the following.
c. Cytokine barriers (iii) Neutrophils
(1) Bioluminescence – Pleurobrachia
d. Physical barriers (iv) Tears from
(2) Metagenesis – Obelia
eyes
(3) Proboscis gland – Petromyzon
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) Air bladder – Hippocampus
(17)
197. The bond present between ribose sugar and 199. Which of the following is not a function of
nitrogenous base within a nucleotide is a association areas present in forebrain?
(1) H-bond (1) Memory

(2) Communication
(2) Glycosidic bond
(3) Expression of emotional reactions
(3) Phosphodiester bond
(4) Inter sensory association
(4) Peptide bond
200. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. functions of
198. Complete the analogy regarding number of ribs cortisol.
present in human beings.
(1) It stimulates RBC production
Vertebrochondral ribs : 6 : : Vertebrosternal ribs : (2) It is not involved in maintaining kidney
(1) 4 functions
(2) 6 (3) It is involved in maintaining the cardio-

vascular system
(3) 14
(4) It produces anti-inflammatory reactions and
(4) 8 suppresses immune system

(18)
17/08/2021 CODE-A
20/04/2022
Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456
Mock Test-01
Instructions:
PHYSICS
SECTION-A
1. Identify the vector quantity among the following (3) (4)
(1) Distance (2) Heat
(3) Angular momentum (4) Energy
4. A ball is projected from ground at angle  with the
2. Distance travelled by a particle starting form rest horizontal. After t = 1 s, it is moving at 45° with
4
and moving with an acceleration of ms2 , in the horizontal and after t = 2 second, it is moving
3 horizontally. What is speed of projection of ball?
third second is [g = 10 m s–2]
10 19 (1) 10 2 m/s (2) 10 3 m/s
(1) m (2) m
3 3
(3) 20 m/s (4) 10 5 m/s
(3) 4 m (4) 6 m
5. In the equation of angular displacement of a
3. A ball is projected vertically up with an initial particle moving on a circular path is given as
velocity. Which of the following graph represent  = 2t3 + 0.5,  is in radian and t in second. The
KE of ball? angular velocity of the particle at t = 2 s is
(1) 16.5 rad/s
(2) 19.5 rad/s
(1) (2)
(3) 24 rad/s
(4) 12 rad/s
(1)
6. Bullets of 0.03 kg mass each hit a plate at a rate 13. A body is released from height equal to radius R
of 200 bullets per second with velocity of 50 m/s of the earth. The velocity of body with which it will
and reflect back with velocity of 30 m/s. The strike the earth surface is
average force acting on the plate in newton is
(1) 2gR (2) 2 gR
(1) 120 (2) 180
(3) 480 (4) 245 gR
(3) gR (4)
7. A block rests on an inclined plane making an 2
angle of 30° with the horizontal. The coefficient of 14. The height at which the weight of an object
static friction between block and the plane is 0.8.  1
If the frictional force on the block is 10 N, then becomes   th of its weight on the surface of
 16 
mass of block (in kg) (Take g = 10 m/s2)
earth is (R is radius of earth)
(1) 2.0 (2) 2.5
(1) 3 R (2) 2 R
(3) 4.0 (4) 1.5
(3) 4 R (4) 5 R
8. A mass of 1 kg is suspended by a thread. It is
lifted up with an acceleration of 4.9 m s–2, and 15. A wire can be broken by a load of 20 kg-wt. The
then lowered with an acceleration of 4.9 m s–2. force required to break wire of same material with
The ratio of tensions in first case to second cases twice the diameter will be
is (g = 9.8 ms–2) (1) 20 kg-wt (2) 60 kg-wt
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 (3) 90 kg-wt (4) 80 kg-wt
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 3 16. If work done in increasing the size of rectangular
9. A particle moves along x axis from x = 1 m to x = 3 m soap film with dimensions 8 cm × 3.75 cm to
under the effect of the force F = 3x2 – 2x + 5 N. Work 10 cm × 6 cm is 2 × 10–4 J. The surface tension
done in process is of film in newton per meter is
(1) 24 J (2) 38 J (1) 2.1 × 10–2 (2) 1.65 × 10–2
(3) 18 J (4) 28 J
(3) 3.3 × 10–2 (4) 4.2 × 10–2
10. In stable equilibrium position, a body has
17. Two rain drops reach earth from clouds with
(1) Maximum potential energy different terminal velocities having ratio 9 : 4.
(2) Minimum potential energy Then the ratio of their volumes is
(3) Minimum kinetic energy (1) 3 : 2 (2) 27 : 8
(4) Neither maximum nor minimum potential (3) 64 : 81 (4) 8 : 27
energy
18. In a thermodynamic process, pressure of fixed
11. Two bodies of mass 10 kg and 2 kg are moving
mass of a gas is changed in such a manner that
with velocities (2i  7 ˆj  3kˆ ) m/s and the gas releases 20 J of heat and 8 J of work is
(10iˆ  35 ˆj  3kˆ ) m/s respectively. The velocity done on the gas. If initial internal energy of the
of their centre of mass is gas was 40 J, what will be final internal energy?
(1) 2iˆ m/s (1) 18 J (2) 28 J

(3) 52 J (4) 32 J
(2) 2kˆ m/s
19. Choose the correct statement.
(3) 4iˆ  2 ˆj m/s (1) Internal energy is a path function, while heat
(4) 6iˆ  2 ˆj  3kˆ m/s is not
(2) Heat is a path function, while internal energy
12. A flywheel of mass 50 kg and radius of gyration
is not
about its axis of rotation of 0.5 m is acted upon
by a constant torque of 12.5 N m. Its angular (3) Both heat and internal energy are not path
velocity at t = 5 s is function
(1) 2 rad/s (2) 5 rad/s (4) Both heat and internal energy are path
(3) 10 rad/s (4) 12 rad/s function
(2)
20. An ideal engine whose efficiency is 40%, 27. In the shown circuit, current through 4  resistor
receives heat at 500 K. If required efficiency is is
50%, then intake temperature for the same
exhaust temperature is
(1) 800 K (2) 700 K
(3) 400 K (4) 600 K
21. The root mean square speed of molecules of a
gas is 1260 m/s. The average speed of the gas (1) 0.6 A (2) 0.7 A
molecules is
(3) 1 A (4) 1.2 A
(1) 1161 m/s (2) 1671 m/s
28. Two identical cells connected in series send 10 A
(3) 912 m/s (4) 1040 m/s current through a 5  resistor. When they are
22. An object on a spring vibrates in a simple connected in parallel, they send 8 A current
harmonic motion at a frequency of 4 hertz and an through same resistance. What is internal
amplitude of 8 cm. If the mass of the object is resistance of each cell?
200 g, the spring constant is (1) 2.5  (2) 1 
(1) 40 N/m (2) 160 N/m (3) 1.5  (4) 1.9 
(3) 126 N/m (4) 109 N/m 29. Three long wires, carrying current 10 A, 20 A and
23. A heavy rope is suspended from rigid support. A 30 A are placed parallel to each other as shown.
Point P and Q are in midway of wires. What is
wave pulse is set up at the lower end. Then
ratio of magnetic field at P to the Q?
(1) The pulse travels with uniform speed
(2) The pulse will travel with increasing speed
(3) The pulse will travel with decreasing speed
(4) The pulse cannot travel through rope
24. Two waves of wavelength 50 cm and 51 cm
produced 12 beats per second. The velocity of
sound is
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 3 : 2
(1) 306 m/s (2) 333 m/s
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 1
(3) 342 m/s (4) 356 m/s
30. A 0.8 m long solenoid has 800 turns and has a
25. A positive charge is moved from low potential field density of 2.52 × 10–3 T at its centre. What is
point A to a high potential point B. Then the current in the wire?
electric potential energy (1) 3 A (2) 2 A
(1) Increases (3) 1 A (4) 4 A
(2) Decreases 31. A charge particle having charge 2 C is thrown
(3) Will remain same with velocity of (2iˆ  3 ˆj ) m/s inside a region
r
(4) Nothing definite can be predicted having E  2 ˆj N/C and magnetic field 5kˆ T. The
26. A parallel plate capacitor is charged and then Lorentz force acting on particle is
charging battery is disconnected. If the plates are
(1) (30iˆ  16 ˆj )N (2) (15iˆ  20 ˆj )N
now pulled apart with insulated handles
(1) The capacitance increases (3) (15iˆ  30 ˆj )N (4) (30iˆ  15 jˆ)N
(2) Potential energy decreases 32. The relative permeability of iron is 5500. What is
its magnetic susceptibility?
(3) Potential difference increases
(1) 1 (2) 5499
(4) Charge and potential difference both remains
same (3) 5501 (4) 4999
(3)
33. The resistance of a silicon junction diode, whose 39. The fringe width in Young’s double slit
V - I characteristics is as shown in figure is experiment increases when
(Vk = 0.7 V) (1) Wavelength decreases
(2) Distance between sources and screen
decreases
(3) Source slit is moved closer to slit openings
(4) Distance between slits plane and screen
increases
40. A defective eye cannot see close objects clearly
(1) 0.2 k (2) 0.1 k because their image is formed
(3) 1.5 k (4) 3.7 k (1) On the eye lens
34. The horizontal component of earth’s magnetic (2) Between eye lens and retina
field at a place is 4 × 10–4 T and dip is 45°. A (3) On the retina
metal rod of length 20 cm is placed in north south (4) Beyond retina
direction and is moved at constant speed of
41. Rainbow is formed due to
5 cm/s towards East. What is e.m.f. induced in
the rod? (1) Scattering and refraction
(1) 4 × 10–6 V (2) 2 × 10–4 V (2) Scattering and reflection
(3) 4 × 10–5 V (4) 3 × 10–6 V (3) Internal reflection and dispersion
35. According to Lenz’s law of electromagnetic (4) Dispersion alone
induction 42. When light of maximum wavelength 300 nm falls
(1) The induced emf in the direction opposing the on a photoelectric emitter, photoelectrons are
change in magnetic flux liberated. For another emitter however light of
maximum wavelength 600 nm causes
(2) The relative motion between coil and magnet
photoelectric emission. The ratio of work
produces no change in magnetic flux in any
functions of first emitter to second emitter will be
case
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
(3) Only magnet should be moved towards coil
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
(4) Only the coil should be moved towards
magnet 43. The Boolean equation for the circuit as shown in
SECTION-B figure is
36. A coil has resistance of 30 ohm and inductive

reactance 20 ohm at 50 Hz frequency. If an ac
source of 200 V, 100 Hz is connected across the
coil, current in coil will be (1) A  B (2) A + B
(1) 2 A (2) 4 A (3) A B (4) A + B
(3) 5 A (4) 6 A 44. After one alpha particle emission and one
37. A plane electromagnetic wave EZ = 100 cos – particle emission from a nucleus
(6 × 108t + 4x) V/m, where x is in metre and t is (1) Mass number reduces by 5
in second. propagates in medium, what is
(2) Atomic number increases by 1
refractive index of the medium?
(3) Mass number reduces by 2
(1) 1.2 (2) 2.0
(4) Atomic number reduces by 1
(3) 1.4 (4) 1.5
45. To measure light intensity we use
38. If two coherent waves are represented by y1 = 4
sint and y2 = 3 sin(t + /3) interfere at a point, (1) LED with forward bias
the amplitude of resulting wave will be about (2) LED with reverse bias
(1) 7.2 (2) 6.1 (3) Photodiode with forward bias
(3) 5 (4) 12 (4) Photodiode with reverse bias
(4)
46. Two trains 101 m and 99 m in length are running 49. The radii of circular orbits of two satellites A and
in opposite direction with velocities 54 km/h and B of the earth, are 4R and R, respectively. If
36 km/h. In what time they will completely cross speed of satellite A is 2V, then the speed of
each other? satellite B will be
(1) 20 s (2) 8 s
V
(3) 10 s (4) 16 s (1) 2V (2)
2
47. A body of mass M is rotating in a vertical circle of
radius r with critical speed. The difference in its V
(3) 4V (4)
kinetic energy at the top and the bottom is 4
(1) 2 Mgr (2) 4 Mgr 50. If the distance between successive compressions
(3) 6 Mgr (4) 3 Mgr and rarefaction in a sound wave is 2 m and
48. The angular frequency of a simple pendulum is velocity of sound is 360 m/s, then the frequency
 rad/s. Now the length is made one fourth of the is
original length, the angular frequency becomes (1) 180 Hz
 (2) 45 Hz
(1) (2) 2
2 (3) 120 Hz
(3) 4 (4)  (4) 90 Hz
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 56. The correct order of ionic radii is represented in
51. 21.75 g of MnO2 on reaction with HCl forms 2.8 L (1) O > O– > O2– (2) Al+ > Al2+ > Al3+
of Cl2(g) at STP, the percentage purity of MnO2 is (3) S2– > K+ > Cl– (4) Mg2+ > Na+ > N3–
(atomic mass of Mn = 55u) 57. Which of the following pairs of compounds are
MnO2 + 4 HCl  MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O isostructural?
(1) 80% (2) 75% 
(1) H2O and SO3 (2) I3 and XeF2
(3) 33% (4) 50% (3) NH3 and BF3 (4) SF4 and XeF4
52. Which of the following has the maximum number 58. The species which does not exist is
of electrons?
(1) Li2 (2) C2
(1) 14 g of N3– ion (2) 4 g of Ca2+ ion (3) H2 (4) He2
(3) 16 g of O3 (4) 2.3 g of Na+ ion 59. The number of  and  bonds in the following
53. The radii of 2nd Bohr orbit of Be3+ ion is compound respectively are
(1) 26.45 pm (2) 52.9 pm O
(3) 79.35 pm (4) 105.8 pm ||
CH2  CH – C– CH2 – CN
54. For hydrogen atom, the correct order of energy of
orbitals is (1) 12 and 3 (2) 11 and 3
(3) 12 and 4 (4) 11 and 4
(1) 4f > 4d > 4p > 3d > 3p > 3s
60. The temperature at which rms velocity of CH4 will
(2) 4f = 4d > 3d > 4p > 3p > 3s
be same as that of O2 at 27ºC is
(3) 4f > 4p > 4d = 3d > 3p > 3s
(1) 150 K (2) 450 K
(4) 4f = 4d = 4p > 3d = 3p = 3s (3) 600 K (4) 900 K
55. If the value of ionisation enthalpy of K is x eV 61. van der Waals constant (a) for the gases A, B, C
then the value of electron gain enthalpy of K+ is and D are 1.25, 3.29, 4.28 and 0.244 respectively.
(1) –x eV (2) –2x eV The gas which is most easily liquefied is
1 (1) A (2) B
(3) +2x eV (4)  x eV
2 (3) C (4) D
(5)
62. For the reaction, 69. The characteristic colour exhibited by Rb atom to
CCl4(g) + 2H2O(g)  CO2(g) + 4HCl(g) at an oxidizing flame is
constant temperature, H – E is (1) Crimson red (2) Yellow
(1) –RT (2) RT (3) Red violet (4) Blue
(3) –2RT (4) 2RT 70. The 13th group element which has the least
melting point is
63. Four monobasic acids A, B, C and D have their
respective neut H° values as – 11.5, –7.5, –12.4 (1) B (2) Al
and – 8.9 kcal/mol. Which of the following acids (3) Ga (4) In
has the highest pKa value? 71. Thermodynamically, the most stable allotrope of
(1) A (2) B carbon is
(3) C (4) D (1) Coke (2) Fullerene
64. For the reversible reactions, (3) Diamond (4) Graphite
72. Formic acid on reaction with concentrated H2SO4
CaCO3(s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g)
at 373 K gives
Which of the following does not affect the (1) CO2 (2) HCHO
equilibrium state? (3) CH3OH (4) CO
(1) Increase in the volume of the container 73. Kjeldahl’s method is applicable to which of the
(2) Decrease in the volume of the container following compounds?
(3) Addition of CaO(s)
(1)
(4) Addition of inert gas at constant pressure
2
65. Conjugate acid and conjugate base of HPO4
respectively are
(2)
  3
(1) H2PO4 and H3PO4 (2) H2PO4 and PO4
3 3  (3)
(3) H3PO4 and PO4 (4) PO4 and H2PO4
66. Which of the following is not a disproportionation
reaction?
   (4)
(1) Cl2  OH  Cl  ClO3  H2O
(2) P4  OH  H2O PH3  H2PO2 74. The compound which is most reactive towards
electrophilic substitution reaction is
 2 2
(3) S8  OH  4S  2S2O3  6H2O
(4) F2 + OH–  F– + OF2 + H2O (1) (2)
67. The oxidation state of central bromine atom in
Br3O8 is
(1) +6 (2) +3
(3) +4 (4) +5 (3) (4)
68. Which of the following is a method of laboratory

preparation of dihydrogen? 75. Which of the following pairs of compounds are
metamers of each other?
(1) Electrolysis of acidified water using platinum
electrodes (1)
(2) Reaction of granulated zinc with dil
hydrochloric acid (2)
(3) Reaction of steam on hydrocarbons or coke
at high temperature in the presence of (3)
catalyst
(4) Electrolysis of brine solution (4)
(6)
76. Ethene on reaction with Baeyer’s reagent gives SECTION-B

(1) Ethane-1, 2 diol (2) Ethanoic acid 86. The ion which has the highest magnetic moment
(3) Ethanal (4) Ethanol is
77. Anti-aromatic species among the following is (1) Sc3+ (2) Ni2+
(3) Ti3+ (4) Zn2+
(1) (2) 87. The co-ordination complex which shows linkage
isomerism is
(1) [Co(NH3)5NO2]2+ (2) [Co(NH3)6]3+
(3) (4) (3) [Co(NH3)5Br]2+ (4) [Cr(H2O)5Cl]2+
88. The alkyl halide which is most reactive towards
78. Maximum prescribed concentration of Cd in
dehydrohalogenation is
drinking water is
(1) R-F (2) R-Cl
(1) 0.2 ppm (2) 0.02 ppm
(3) R-Br (4) R-I
(3) 0.005 ppm (4) 0.05 ppb
89. The alcohol which reacts fastest with Lucas
79. Packing efficiency of fcc unit cell is reagent is
(1) 74% (2) 68%
(3) 52.8% (4) 26% (1) (2)
80. Which of the following colligative property is used (3) (4)
to determine molar masses of proteins?
(1) Relative lowering of vapour pressure
(2) Elevation in boiling point 90.
(3) Depression in freezing point
(4) Osmotic pressure B and C are
81. Which of the following metal has the highest
conductivity at room temperature?
(1) Na (2) Cu (1)
(3) Ag (4) Au
82. Which of the following quantities changes on
addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction?
(1) Equilibrium constant (2) Activation energy (2)
(3) Gibbs energy (4) Enthalpy

83. For the coagulation of methylene blue sol, the
flocculating power of which of the following ion is (3)
maximum?
(1) PO34 (2) Al3+
(3) Cl– (4) Ba2+
(4)
84. Select the incorrect statement about electrolytic
refining 91. Consider the following reaction sequence,
(1) Impure metal is made to act as anode KCN H3O NH3 /  Br2  NaOH
CH3CH2Cl 
 A 
B C 
D
(2) Pure metal is used as cathode Major product D is
(3) Zinc can be refined using this method (1) CH3CH2NH2 (2) CH3CH2CONH2
(4) Impurities deposit as cathode mud (3) CH3CH2CH2NH2 (4) CH3CH = NH
85. The compound which has the highest reducing 92. Nitrobenzene on reduction with LiAlH4 in the
character among the following is presence of ether yields
(1) H2O (2) H2S (1) Hydrazobenzene (2) Azoxybenzene
(3) H2Se (4) H2Te (3) Azobenzene (4) p-amino phenol
(7)
93. Purine base among the following is

(1) Cytosine (2) Guanine 98.
(3) Thymine (4) Uracil

The above reaction is known as
94. Monomer of Nylon-6 is
(1) Acrylonitrile (2) Styrene (1) Rosenmund reduction
(3) Caprolactam (4) Chloroprene (2) Clemmensen reduction
95. Antidepressant drug among the following is (3) Wolff-Kishner reduction
(1) Phenelzine (2) Chloramphenicol
(4) Stephen reaction
(3) Prontosil (4) Salvarsan
99. If the standard electrode potential for a cell,
96. Number of P-OH bonds in pyrophosphoric acid is
A2+(aq) + 2B(s)  A(s) + 2B+(aq) is 1.9 V, then
(1) 1 (2) 2
the standard Gibbs energy for the reaction is
(3) 3 (4) 4
97. Consider the following reaction, (1) 3.8 F J/mol
(2) –1.9 F J/mol
, (3) –3.8 F J/mol

(4) –7.6 F J/mol
The major product (B) obtained in the above 100. Most basic compound among the following is
reaction is
(1) Salicylaldehyde (2) Salicylic acid (1) La(OH)3 (2) Eu(OH)3
(3) Benzoic acid (4) Phthalic acid (3) Er(OH)3 (4) Lu(OH)3
BOTANY
SECTION-A 104. The organisms which can fix atmosphere CO 2
101. Which of the following taxonomic category is and releases O2 as by product is
represented by Solanum in the scientific name (1) Rhizobium (2) Rhodospirillum
Solanum tuberosum? (3) Wolffia (4) Chlorobium
105. Prions differ from viroids as the former has/is
(1) DNA as genetic material
(2) Low molecular weight RNA
102. Select the incorrect statement (3) Proteinaceous in nature
(1) In multicellular organism growth and (4) Obligate parasite
reproduction are not synonymous 106. Membrane less cell organelle common to both
(2) A scientific name should be printed in italics prokaryotes and eukaryotes is
according to binomial nomenclature (1) Lysosome (2) Vacuole
(3) A museum has preserved plant and animals (3) Ribosome (4) Spherosomes
specimens 107. Most common type of lipids found in plasma
membrane is A and they show B
(4) Taxonomy includes phylogeny as the basis of
classification of organisms movement within the plasma membrane.
Choose the most appropriate option to fill A and B.
103. Diatoms, which are good indicators of water
pollution are A B
(1) Photosynthetic protists (1) Glycolipid Flip flop

(2) Saprophytes (2) Phospholipid Flip flop
(3) Heterotorphs (3) Glycolipid Lateral
(4) Chemoautotrophs (4) Phospholipid No
(8)
108. Which of the following is synthesized during S- 117. If water potential of cell A, B and C are -2, -4 and
phase of cell cycle? -6 respectively then the water will move from
(1) Tubulin protein (1) A  B  C (2) C  B  A
(2) Spindle fibre (3) A  C  B (4) B  C  A
(3) Deoxyribonucleic acid 118. Root nodules in some plants like soyabean
(4) Nucleotides export fixed nitrogen along with transpiration
109. Synapsis and desynapsis takes place respectively stream in the form of
during (1) NH3 (2) Amino acids
(1) Leptotene and Zygotene (3) Amides (4) Ureides
(2) Pachytene and Diplotene
(3) Zygotene and Leptotene pollen germination?
(4) Zygotene and Diplotene (1) Ca (2) Zn
110. The feature not related to family Solanaceae is (3) B (4) Mg
(1) Persistent calyx
120. The primary CO2 accepter in C4 plants in
(2) Epipetalous condition of androecium mesophyll cells are
(3) Swollen placenta (1) PEP (2) RUBP
(4) Incomplete flower with Perianth
(3) RuBisCO (4) OAA
111. Hypogynous flowers are seen in
121. In PSII, the reaction centre chlorophyll a has an
(1) Plum (2) Rose absorption peak at
(3) Pea (4) Peach (1) 680 nm (2) 700 nm
112. Collenchyma is living mechanical tissue. Select
(3) 720 nm (4) 400 nm
the incorrect about it
122. Which of the following processes takes place in
(1) Has cell wall thickening
anaerobic bacteria?
(2) Lacks protoplasm at maturity
(3) Provides mechanical support
(3) Glycolysis (4) Link reaction
(4) Generally lacks intercellular spaces
123. The respiratory quotient of which of the following
113. Ground tissue of leaf is called
substrate is less than one?
(1) Pith (2) Medulla
(1) Proteins (2) Organic acids
(3) Mesophyll (4) Endodermis
(3) Carbohydrates (4) Malic acid
124. The plant hormone responsible for apical
(1) Salvinia – Heterosporous dominance is
(2) Pinus – Monoecious (1) Cytokinin (2) Auxin
(3) Selaginella – Homosporous (3) Ethylene (4) ABA
(4) Funaria – Dominant 125. Which of the following hormone promotes
gametophyte bolting?
115. The ploidy level of egg apparatus of embryo sac (1) ABA (2) Gibberellins
which contains three cells is (3) Auxin (4) Cytokinin
(1) Triploid (2) Haploid 126. The most common type of asexual spores in
(3) Diploid (4) Tetraploid algae are
116. Active transport does not involve (1) Zoospores (2) Conidia
(1) Energy in the form of ATP (3) Buds (4) Sporangiospores
(2) Membrane proteins 127. All of the following produce isogametes, except
(3) Movement down the concentration gradient (1) Ulothrix (2) Rhizopus
(4) Uphill movement of substances (3) Cladophora (4) Volvox
(9)
128. Colourblindness and haemophilia are 137. Select the mismatched pair
(1) Autosomal recessive disorders (1) Anabaena – Autotrophic
(2) Sex-linked recessive disorders
(2) Rhizobium – N2 fixer
(3) Autosomal dominant disorders
(4) Sex-linked dominant disorders (3) Trichoderma – Cyclosporin A
129. Genetically different type of pollen grains land on (4) Tobacco – Biocontrol agent
stigma of ovary in mosaic virus
(1) Geitonogamy (2) Homogamy 138. A population interaction in which both species
(3) Cleistogamy (4) Xenogamy are benefitted is called
130. The innermost layer of anther wall which (1) Commensalism (2) Ammensalism
surrounds the sporogenous tissue and nourishes
(3) Predation (4) Mutualism
the developing pollen grains is
(1) Epidermis (2) Endothecium 139. Natality refers to
(3) Tapetum (4) Middle layer (1) Birth rate

131. Number of chromosomes are different in male (2) Death rate
and female individuals in (3) Death of an organism
(1) Drosophila (2) Grasshopper (4) Number of individuals leaving the habitat
(3) Humans (4) Birds 140. The pymarid which is always upright is
132. In lac operon, when repressor protein binds to (1) Pyramid of biomass
operator then
(2) Pyramid of number
(1) There is synthesis of -galactosidase
(3) Pyramid of biomass in sea
enzyme
(4) Pyramid of energy
(2) RNA polymerase cannot bind to the promoter
(3) RNA polymerase binds to the promoter 141. In an ecosystem the rate of production of organic
matter by producers which is available to
(4) There is mutation in i gene
herbivores is
133. Select the incorrect about minisatellites.
(1) Net primary productivity
(1) They are VNTRs
(2) Gross primary productivity
(2) They are surrounded by conserved restriction
sites (3) Secondary productivity
(3) Size varies from 0.1 to 20 kb (4) Tertiary productivity
(4) Their copy number varies from individual to 142. Which of the following is most important cause of
individual but not from chromosome to animals and plants to become extinct?
chromosome in an individual (1) Co-extinction
134. The entire collection of plants/seeds having all (2) Overexploitation
the diverse alleles for all genes of a given crop is
called
(1) Genome (2) Germplasm (4) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(3) Protoplasm (4) Cytoplasm 143. Which of the following is in-situ conservation
strategy?
135. Himgiri is a variety of
(1) Mustard (2) Chilli (1) Botanical gardens
(3) Wheat (4) Cauliflower (2) Wildlife safari parks

SECTION-B (3) Wildlife sanctuaries
136. Which of the following is a commercial blood (4) Cryopreservation
cholesterol lowering agent? 144. Montreal Protocol was signed in
(1) Cyclosporin A (2) Statin (1) 1986 (2) 1987
(3) Amylase (4) Streptokinase (3) 1988 (4) 1989
(10)
145. Polyblend, a fine powder of recycled modified 148. Casparian strips on endodermis are seen in
plastic, has proved to be a good material for (1) Monocot root
(1) Making plastic bags (2) Monocot leaf
(2) Making plastic pipes and tubes (3) Monocot stem
(3) Laying roads (4) Dicot stem
(4) Both (1) and (2) 149. Monocot stem has all, except
146. Select the wrong match w.r.t. symbols used in (1) Epidermis
pedigree
(2) Vascular bundles
(1) – Mating (3) Medullary rays
(2) – Affected female (4) General cortex
(3) – Mating between relatives 150. All of the following do not have nucleus at
maturity, except
(4) – Five unaffected offspring (1) Sieve tube elements
147. Which of the following is not a stop codon? (2) Companion cell
(1) UAA (2) UAG (3) Vessel element
(3) AUG (4) UGA (4) Sclerenchymatous fibre
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 154. Choose the incorrect match among the
151. Which one of the following statement is correct following:
regarding digestion and absorption of food in (1) Balanoglossus – Body is cylindrical and is
humans? composed of anterior
proboscis, a collar and a
(1) About 50% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary long trunk
amylase in mouth (2) Hippocampus – Contains one auricle and
(2) Parietal cells in stomach secrete proenzyme, one ventricle
pepsinogen (3) Naja – Shows ecdysis
(3) Micelles are small glycoprotein particles that (4) Pheretima – Excretes through
are transported from intestine into blood Malpighian tubules
capillaries 155. Characteristics: Bioluminescence, exclusively
marine, radially symmetrical, diploblastic, tissue
(4) Diglycerides and monoglycerides are broken
level of organization.
into fatty acids and glycerol by the action of
Organisms which have the above mentioned
lipases in small intestine characteristics belong to which phylum?
152. Where do certain symbiotic micro-organisms (1) Coelenterata (2) Aschelminthes
normally occur in human body? (3) Ctenophora (4) Echinodermata
(1) Duodenum (2) Rectum 156. Which of the following feature(s) is not present in
(3) Caecum (4) Jejunum the phylum Arthropoda?
153. Complete the analogy: (1) Chitinous exoskeleton
(2) Jointed appendages
Calorific value of carbohydrate : 4.1 kcal/g ::
Calorific value of fat : _____. (3) Compound and simple eyes
(4) Parapodia
(1) 5.65 kcal/g
157. Which of the following bone falls under the
(2) 9.45 kcal/g category of sesamoid bone?
(3) 5.45 kcal/g (1) Patella (2) Radius
(4) 6.95 kcal/g (3) Parietal bone (4) Incus
(11)
158. _____ in some bones is the site of haemopoiesis. 163. Read the given statements w.r.t. co-factors:
Fill the blank with correct option Statement-A: Prosthetic groups are organic
(1) Epiphysis (2) Bone marrow compounds which are tightly bound to the
(3) Periosteum (4) Perichondrium apoenzyme.
159. The tergum, sternum and pleurite of the body of Statement-B: Coenzymes are organic
cockroach are joined by compounds which are loosely bound to the
(1) Pronotum holoenzyme to form apoenzyme.
(2) Haemolymph Choose the correct option w.r.t. the above given
(3) Arthrodial membrane statements.
(4) Muscular tissue (1) Statement A is correct, statement B is
160. Which of the following statement is incorrect incorrect
w.r.t. reproductive system and development of (2) Statement A is incorrect, statement B is
cockroach? correct
(1) The development of Periplaneta americana is
paurometabolous
(2) Females produce 9-10 oothecae, each
containing 14-16 eggs 164. Majority of CO2 in blood is transported in the form
(3) Male reproductive system consists of a pair of
of testes, one lying on each lateral side in the (1) Carboxyhaemoglobin in erythrocytes
4th to 6th abdominal segments
(2) Carbaminohaemoglobin in plasma
(4) Mushroom shaped gland is present in the 4th
(3) Free CO2 in blood plasma
to 6th abdominal segments of male cockroach
161. A competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase (4) Bicarbonate in blood plasma
is 165. Name the disease which occurs due to
(1) -ketoglutaric acid inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles in which
(2) Acetic acid breathing becomes difficult and leads to
wheezing.
(3) Malate
(1) Emphysema
(4) Malonate
162. The following figure shows a tripeptide portion of (2) Asthma
a protein. Identify the correct sequence of amino (3) Pleurisy
acids arranged in the following tripeptide. (4) Pneumoconiosis
166. Mark the incorrect option w.r.t. respiratory
capacities:
(1) IC = TV + IRV
(2) VC = IRV + ERV
(3) EC = TV + ERV
(4) TLC = VC + RV
167. A boy goes to a park where he gets stung by a
bee. His body shows allergic reactions. Certain
cells of the body produce histamine which results
in the inflammation at the site of where he was
Choose the correct option: stung. These histamine-secreting cells are:
(1) Phenylalanine – Tyrosine – Aspartic acid (1) Eosinophils
(2) Tyrosine – Tryptophan – Glutamic acid (2) Acidophils
(3) Tryptophan – Tyrosine – Glycine (3) Neutrophils
(4) Hydroxyproline – Alanine – Asparagine (4) Basophils
(12)
168. Match column-I correctly with column-II 172. Find the incorrect match.
Column-I Column-II (1) High concentration – Uremia
of urea in blood
a. Visceral (i) Pace-setter of the
pericardium heart (2) High concentration – Glycosuria
b. Sino-atrial node (ii) Outer pericardial of glucose in urine
membrane (3) Presence of blood in – Polyuria
c. Parietal (iii) Pace-maker of the urine
pericardium heart (4) Inflammation of – Glomerulonephritis
d. Atrio-ventricular (iv) Inner pericardial glomeruli of kidney
node membrane 173. Uric acid is the main excretory product in
Choose the correct option. (1) Pisces (2) Insects
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (3) Mammals (4) Amphibians
(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) 174. Match column-I correctly with column-II
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) Column-I Column-II
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) a. Smooth muscle (i) Thin filament
169. The T-wave in ECG represents: b. Actin (ii) Involuntary
(1) Repolarization of both atria c. Red muscle (iii) Sutures
(2) Repolarization of both ventricles
d. Skull (iv) Myoglobin
(3) Depolarization of both atria
(4) Depolarization of both ventricles
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
170. Observe the given diagram of nephron
(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
175. Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric
acid crystals:
(1) Gouty arthritis (2) Osteoporosis
(3) Tetany (4) Muscular dystrophy
(1) Knee joint – Hinge joint
(2) Joint between atlas and – Pivot joint
axis
Select the correct option which represents the
(3) Joint between carpals – Saddle joint
labelling for the site where maximum
reabsorption of water occurs and the labelling for (4) Joint between humerus – Ball and socket
the site which brings impure and oxygenated and pectoral girdle joint
blood to the nephron respectively.
177. Choose the incorrect statement:
(1) B and C (2) C and B
(1) Dorsal portion of midbrain consists of corpora
(3) A and C (4) C and A
quadrigemina
171. Complete the analogy:
(2) Midbrain is located between hypothalamus of
Increases blood pressure : Renin :: Decreases
the forebrain and pons of hindbrain
blood pressure: ______.
(3) The cerebral hemispheres are connected by
(1) Atrial natriuretic peptide
a tract of nerve fibres called corpus callosum
(2) Adrenaline
(4) Hypothalamus is responsible for complex
(3) Serotonin functions like intersensory associations,
(4) Cortisol memory and communication
(13)
178. Read the given statements: 185. Which of the following is not a copper-ion
Statement-A: Organ of corti rests on tectorial releasing IUD?
membrane. (1) CuT (2) Cu7
Statement-B: Organ of corti helps to maintain (3) Lippes loop (4) Multiload 375
equilibrium of the body. SECTION-B
Choose the correct option.
186. The first movements of the foetus and
(1) Both statements A and B are correct appearance of hair on the head are usually
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect observed during:
(3) Statement A is correct, statement B is (1) 4th month (2) 5th month
incorrect (3) 6th month (4) 7th month
(4) Statement A is incorrect, statement B is 187. Arrange the following structures from the point of
correct fertilization till the point of implantation:
179. Complete the analogy:
a. 4-celled stage b. 2-celled stage
Milk-producing hormone : Prolactin :: Milk-
c. Early morula d. Blastocyst
ejecting hormone : _______.
e. Late morula
(1) Oxytocin (2) Relaxin
Choose the correct option from the following:
(3) ADH (4) Vasopressin
(1) a  b  c  d  e
180. Aldosterone aids in the maintenance of
a. Electrolytes (2) e  d  c  b  a
b. Body fluid volume (3) b  c  a  d  e
c. Osmotic pressure (4) b  a  c  e  d
d. Blood pressure 188. Read the following statements and select the
How many of the above factors hold true for the incorrect one:
functionality of aldosterone? (1) Opioids bind to specific opioid receptors
(1) Four (2) Three present in CNS and GI tract
(3) Two (4) One (2) Cannabinoids interact with cannabinoid
181. Which of the following was absent in the receptors present principally in the brain
atmosphere at the time of origin of life? (3) Cocaine interferes with the transport of the
(1) NH3 (2) CH4 neurotransmitter, dopamine which leads to a
potent stimulating action on CNS, producing
(3) H2 (4) O2
a sense of increased energy and euphoria.
182. An important evidence in favour of organic
(4) Morphine does not function as an effective
evolution is the occurrence of
sedative and a painkiller
(1) Analogous and vestigial organs
189. Most cancers are treated by the combination of
(2) Analogous and homologous organs
a. Radiotherapy
(3) Homologous organs only
b. Chemotherapy
(4) Homologous and vestigial organs
c. Surgery
183. Mating of the related individuals having common
ancestors upto 4-6 generations is called: Choose the correct option
(1) Inbreeding (1) Only c (2) Only b and c
(2) Outbreeding (3) Only a and b (4) a, b and c
(3) Outcrossing 190. HIV is a member of group of viruses called
(4) Interspecific hybridization (1) Retrovirus
184. Which of the following is not an STD? (2) Rhinovirus
(1) Down's syndrome (2) Syphilis (3) Baculovirus
(3) Genital warts (4) AIDS (4) Nucleopolyhedrovirus
(14)
191. Which of the following vector is commonly used 196. Select the incorrect match.
in transfer of gene of interest into the crop (1) Porifera – Circulatory system is
plants? absent
(1) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (2) Platyhelminthes – Circulatory system is
absent
(3) Aschelminthes – Respiratory system is
(3) Monascus purpureus
absent
(4) Penicillium notatum (4) Annelida – Respiratory system is
192. ______ refers to the use of bio-resources by present
multinational companies and other organizations 197. Felis belongs to class
without proper authorization from the countries (1) Reptilia (2) Amphibia
and people concerned without compensatory
(3) Aves (4) Mammalia
payment.
Fill the blank with a suitable option: correct option.
(1) Bioaugmentation Statement A: Aspartic acid is the only known
(2) Biopiracy acidic amino acid.
(3) Bioremediation Statement B: Methionine is an essential amino

acid.
(4) Biological patent
193. A Bt prototoxin is
(1) A toxin produced by protozoa (3) Only statement B is correct
(2) Inactive toxin (4) Only statement A is correct
(3) An active toxin 199. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. secondary
(4) Primitive toxin metabolites.
194. In pBR322 vector, a foreign gene is inserted at (1) Pigments – Carotenoids,

Anthocyanins
Pst I restriction site. The recombinant so formed:
(2) Toxins – Abrin, Ricin
(1) Will grow in a culture medium containing
(3) Drugs – Curcumin,
ampicillin only
Concanavalin-A
(2) Will grow in a culture medium containing both
(4) Polymeric substances – Rubber, Gums
ampicillin and tetracycline
200. Read the following statements and state them as
(3) Will grow in a culture medium containing true(T) or false(F).
tetracycline only A. DNA and RNA function as genetic material.
(4) Will grow in a culture medium containing B. Nucleic acids are monomers of nucleotides.
Kanamycin only
C. Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, Uracil and
195. Select the incorrect match Thymine are nitrogenous bases.
(1) Gene gun – Suitable for incorporating Choose the correct option.
foreign gene into animal cells A B C
(2) Lysozyme – Degrades bacterial cell wall (1) F T F
(3) Chitinase – Degrades fungal cell wall (2) F F T
(4) Heat shock – Suitable for (3) T T T
incorporating foreign gene into bacterial cells (4) T F T

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07/09/2021 CODE-A
MM : 720 INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2021 Time : 3 Hrs.
CST – 22
Instructions:
PHYSICS
SECTION-A 1 1
 5 2  5 2
1. A nuclear fusion reaction is given by: (1) Equal to   v (2) Less than   v
 4   4 
16
4  24 He 
 8 O . If atomic mass of He is 4.0026 1
 5 2
amu and that of O is 15.9994 amu then the (3) Greater than   v (4) Can’t be predicted
 4 
Q-value of the reaction will be approximately:
(1) 5.4 MeV (2) 10.2 MeV 4. A proton and α-particle are accelerated from rest
by same potential difference V. Then the ratio of
(3) 20.4 MeV (4) 15.6 MeV
λp
2. If wavelength corresponding to 3rd line of Lyman their de Broglie wavelength is:
λα
series is λ, then the wavelength corresponding to
last line of Balmer series will be: (1) 1 (2) 2
15λ 9λ
(1) (2) (3) 2 (4) 2 2
4 8
5. Electrons with de Broglie wavelength λ fall on the
27λ 24λ
(3) (4) target in an X-ray tube. The cut-off wavelength of
16 5 the emitted X-rays is:
3. Radiation of wavelength λ is incident on a mc λ 2
photocell. The fastest emitted electron has speed (1) λ 0  λ (2) λ 0 =
2h
4λ
v. If the wavelength is changed to , the speed
5 2mc λ 2 mc λ 2
(3) λ 0 = (4) λ 0 =
of the fastest emitted electron will be: h h
(1)

6. Intermolecular potential energy between two 12. A force F  (2t i  4 j ) N acts on a body and
molecules depends with intermolecular distance r
position of body varies with time t as
a b 
as: U (r )  2  , where a and b are positive r  (t 2 i  2 j ) m. Work done by the force in first
r r
constants. The equilibrium distance between the 3 second is:
molecules will be: (1) 20 J (2) 36 J
a a (3) 24 J (4) 16 J
(1) (2)
2b b 13. A system of wedge and block as shown in figure
is released when the spring is in its natural
2a 4a
(3) (4) length. All surfaces are frictionless. Maximum
b b
elongation in the spring will be
7. If force (F), velocity (v) and time (T) are taken as
fundamental quantities, find the dimensions of
torque:
(1) [F v T] (2) [F0 v1 T–1]
(3) [F–1 v–1T0] (4) [F v T–1]
1
8. The moon has mass of that of the earth and
81 mg cos  2mg
(1) (2)
1 k k
radius th that of the earth. The escape speed
4
mg sin 2mg sin
from the surface of the earth is 11.2 km/s. The (3) (4)
k k
escape speed from the surface of moon is:
14. A compound microscope consists of an objective
(1) 11.2 km/s (2) 2.5 km/s lens of focal length 2 cm and an eye piece lens of
(3) 5.6 km/s (4) 1.23 km/s focal length 6 cm, separated by a distance 12
9. When the temperature of an ideal gas is cm. If final image is formed at infinity then the
distance of object from the objective lens will be
increased:
(1) 2 cm (2) 2.5 cm
(1) Its molecular potential energy increases
(3) 3 cm (4) 4.5 cm
(2) Its molecular kinetic energy increases
15. The refracting angle of a prism ‘A’ and refractive
(3) Molecular potential energy decreases and
 A
molecular kinetic energy increases index of the material of the prism is cot   . The
 2 
(4) Molecular potential energy increases and
angle of minimum deviation is:
molecular kinetic energy decreases
(1) 90° – A (2) 90° + A
10. The acceleration of a proton at a certain moment
 (3) 180° – 2A (4) 180° + 2A
moving in a magnetic field B  3iˆ  4 ˆj  5kˆ is
 16. At constant pressure, how much fraction of heat
a  2iˆ  xjˆ  kˆ . The value of x is supplied to gas is converted into mechanical
work?
(1) 1.0 (2) 1.25
(1) γ – 1
(3) 2.50 (4) 2.75
γ
11. A boat having a speed of 5 km/h in still water, (2)
γ 1
crosses a river of width 500 m in shortest
possible path in 10 minutes. The speed of river in γ −1
(3)
km/h is γ
(1) 1 (2) 2 γ
(4)
(3) 3 (4) 4 γ −1
(2)
17. Linear expansion coefficient of a solid sphere is 22. A uniform magnetic field B is confined in a
2 cylindrical region as shown in the figure. If
103 per °C. If its temperature is increased by magnetic field B increases at a constant rate,
3
then the graph showing the variation of induced
30°C, then the percentage change in its moment
electric field (E) with distance (r) from the axis of
of inertia will be
cylinder is:
(1) +4% (2) –2%
(3) +3% (4) +6%
18. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a
gas is found to be proportional to fifth power of its
absolute temperature. The value of γ for the gas
is:
(1) (2)
4 5
(1) (2)
3 4
3 7
(3) (4)
2 5
(3) (4)
19. The ratio of magnetic field at centre of circular
loop to the magnetic field at the centre of square
loop which are made by a current carrying wire of
same length will be: (Assume current is same in 23. Consider a situation shown in figure. After long
time, switch is opened. Then direction of induced
both loops)
current in closed loop will be:
2
(1)
8 2
2
(2)
4 2
(1) Clockwise
2
(3) (2) Anticlockwise
8
(3) No current will induced
2
(4) (4) Depends upon the resistance of the circuit
16
24. What is the minimum value of force required to
q slide a block of mass m on a horizontal surface
20. In a cyclotron, if for a charge particle is
m having coefficient of friction µ?
108 C/kg and angular frequency is 2×108 rad/s
mg
then applied magnetic field is: (1) µmg (2)
1  2
(1) π tesla (2) 2 tesla
mg
2  (3) 1   2 mg (4)
(3) tesla (4) tesla 1  2
 2
21. The flux of magnetic field through a closed 25. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
conducting loop of resistance 2 Ω changes with (1) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding friction
time according to the equation φ = (t2 + 6t + 4) Wb, (2) Limiting value of static friction is directly
where t is time in seconds. The induced current proportional to normal reactions
at t = 2 s is (3) Friction force opposes the relative motion
(1) 2 A (2) 4 A (4) Coefficient of sliding friction has dimensions
(3) 3 A (4) 5 A of area
(3)
26. The acceleration due to gravity at a height 1 km 31. Figure shows the graph of deviation δ versus
above the earth is the same as at a depth d angle of incidence for a light ray striking a prism.
below the surface of earth. The d is equal to Angle of prism is
(1) 1 km (2) 2 km
1
(3) 4 km (4) km
4
27. In a stretched string, wave equation is given by
y = 0.4 sin(100 t – 10 x), where x and y are in
meter and t is in second and linear mass density
µ = 0.1 kg/m. Then the tension in the string is
(1) 10 N (2) 20 N (1) 50° (2) 40°
(3) 30 N (4) 40 N (3) 30° (4) 10°
28. A metallic solid sphere is placed in a uniform 32. A container whose bottom has a round hole with
electric field. Which of the following path of diameter 2 mm is filled with liquid of surface
electric line of force is correct?
tension 50 × 10–3 N m–1. Consider that surface
tension acts only at hole, then the maximum
height to which the liquid can be filled in
container without leakage is:
(Density of liquid = 1.5 × 103 kg m–3)
(1) 2 cm
(1) 1 (2) 2 2
(2) cm
(3) 3 (4) 4 3
29. The resistance of a wire is R ohm. If it is melted (3) 1 cm

and redrawn to 4 times of its original length then
1
its new resistance will be: (4) cm
3
(1) 4R
33. In negative beta decay
R
(2) (1) Neutrino is emitted with positron
4
(2) Antineutrino is emitted with electron
(3) 16R
(3) Antineutrino is emitted with positron
R
(4)
16 (4) Neutrino is emitted with electron
30. In YDSE, the intensity of light at a point on the 34. The electric potential energy at a point (x, y, z) is
screen where path difference is λ is I0. The given by
intensity of light at a point where the path U = xy2 + y2z
λ 
difference is , will be: The force F at (–1, 2, –2) will be
4
(Consider intensity of light through both slit is (1) 4 i  12 j  4 
k
same and λ is wavelength of light)
(2) 9 i  4 j  3 
k
I
(1) I0 (2) 0
4 (3) 8 i  4 j  4 
k
I0 I0
(3) (4) (4) 4 i  12 j  8 
k
2 16
(4)
35. Period of oscillation of the spring system shown 38. A thin semi-circular ring of radius r has a positive
in figure is charge q distributed uniformly on it. The net field

E at the centre O is
q q
(1) ( ˆj ) (2) ( ˆj )
2 0 r 2 4 0 r 2
q q
(3) ( ˆj ) (4) ( ˆj )
2 0 r 2
2
4 0 r 2
2
m m 39. A man is standing on bank of a lake. If a fish

(1) 2 (2) 2
k 6k under water, looks the man, then which of the
following option is correct?
m m
(3) 2 (4) 2
9k 2k
SECTION-B
36. In a damped oscillator, the amplitude becomes
1
times in 30 minutes. The time in which the
8
(1) The man will appear taller
amplitude becomes half is:
(2) The man will appear shorter
(1) 15 minute (2) 10 minute
(3) The man will appear as tall as he is
(3) 20 minute (4) 5 minute
(4) The man will not be visible
37. In the NaCl crystal structure, Na+ and Cl– ion are
40. An open and closed pipe have same length. The
arranged in a bcc configuration as shown in ratio of frequencies of their nth overtone is
figure but one Na+ is missing. The net
n n 1
electrostatic force exerted on the Cl– ion is (1) (2)
1 1 2n  1
 1 
 k = 4πε  2(n  1) n 1
 0  (3) (4)
2n  1 n
41. To find the thermal conductivity of a liquid, we
keep the upper part hot and lower part cool so
that
(1) Convection may be stopped
(2) Heat conduction is easier downward
(3) Radiation may be stopped
(4) Convection must occur
42. A diffraction pattern is obtained using a beam of
blue light. If the blue light is replaced by red light,
then:
ke 21 ke 2 (1) Diffraction fringe width remains unchanged
(1) (2)
2 3 2
(2) Diffraction fringe width become narrower
4 ke 2
(3) Diffraction fringe width become broader
(3) (4) Zero
3 2 (4) Diffraction pattern disappear
(5)
43. What will be the input P and Q for the Boolean 47. The value of power factor in the given circuit will
  
expression P.Q . P  Q  1 be:
(1) 1, 1 (2) 0, 0
(3) 1, 0 (4) 0, 1
44. The velocity of sound through a diatomic
gaseous medium of molecular weight M
(in kg/mole) at 0°C, is nearly
273 R 3R
(1) (2)
M M
382 R 473 R
(3) (4) (1) 0.6 (2) 0.4
M M
(3) 0.8 (4) 1.0
45. Find out the current through 5 Ω resistance for
given circuit: 48. At 0 K, intrinsic semiconductor behaves as:
(1) A conductor (2) An insulator
(3) A superconductor (4) Both (1) and (3)
49. A hollow sphere of volume V is floating on water
surface with half immersed in it. What should be
(1) 1 A (2) 0.5 A the minimum volume of water poured inside the
sphere so that the sphere now sinks into the
(3) 2 A (4) Zero
water?
46. Figure shows two bulbs B1 and B2, resistor R and
inductor L. As the switch S is turned on: V
(1) V (2)
3
V V
(3) (4)
2 4
50. An elastic material of young’s modulus Y is
subjected to a stress S. The elastic energy stored
per unit volume of the material is:
(1) Both B1 and B2 glow with some delay 2Y S2

(1) (2)
S2 2Y
(2) Both B1 and B2 glow immediately
(3) B1 glow immediately but B2 with some delay S2 S
(3) (4)
(4) B2 glow immediately but B1 with some delay Y 2Y 2
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 53. Which of the following is not a permissible
51. Number of molecules of water in 18 mL of water arrangement of electrons in an atom?
is (density of water = 1 g mL–1) 1
(1) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = +
(1) 10 NA (2) 0.01 NA 2
(3) NA (4) 0.1 NA 1
(2) n = 4, l = 1, m = –2, s = +
52. 12.044 × molecules of glucose are present
1021 2
in 200 mL of its solution. The molarity of the 1
solution is (3) n = 4, l = 2, m = –1, s = –
2
(1) 0.1 M (2) 1 M 1
(4) n = 5, l = 3, m = 1, s = –
(3) 2 M (4) 0.2 M 2
(6)
54. A ball of mass 66 g is moving with a speed of 63. Consider the following reaction,
100 m/s. The associated wavelength will be NaOH
Cl2 → NaCl + NaOCl + H2O
(h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js)
The equivalent mass of Cl2 in the above reaction
(1) 1 × 10–32 m (2) 6.6 × 10–32 m
is (M is the molar mass of Cl2)
(3) 1 × 10–36 m (4) 1 × 10–34 m
M M
55. Identify the incorrect match (1) (2)
4 3
Atomic number IUPAC official name
M
(1) 101 Mendelevium (3) (4) M
2
(2) 103 Lawrencium
64. In which of the following reactions, Kp = Kc?
(3) 104 Rutherfordium


(1) PCl5(g) 
 PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(4) 105 Seaborgium
56. Correct order of increasing metallic character is 

(2) N2O4(g) 
 2NO2(g)
(1) Si < P < Mg < Na 

(3) H2(g) + I2(g) 
 2HI(g)
(2) P < Si < Mg < Na


(4) CaCO3(s) 
 CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(3) P < Si < Na < Mg
(4) Si < P < Na < Mg 65. The solubility of Cu(OH)2 in 0.2 M aqueous
solution of NaOH is (Ksp of Cu(OH)2 = 2.2 × 10–20)
57. Lowest unoccupied molecular orbital in C2 is
(1) 5.5 × 10–19 mol/L (2) 5.5 × 10–20 mol/L
(1) π2px (2) σ2pz
(3) 1.1 × 10–19 mol/L (4) 2.2 × 10–20 mol/L
(3) π*2px (4) σ*2pz
66. Temporary hardness of water is due to the
58. Correct order of C–O bond length among CO, presence of
CO32− and CO2 is (1) MgHCO3 (2) MgCl2
(1) CO2 > CO > CO32− (2) CO > CO2 > CO32− (3) CaCl2 (4) MgSO4
67. Chemical formula of dead burnt plaster is
(3) CO32− > CO > CO2 (4) CO32− > CO2 > CO
1
59. Identify the correct relation (1) CaSO4⋅2H2O (2) CaSO4 ⋅ H2 O
2
(1) urms = 0.921 × uav (2) urms = 1.085 × uav
(3) CaSO4⋅10H2O (4) CaSO4
(3) urms = 0.617 × ump (4) uav = 0.921 × ump
68. Incorrect statement about lithium among the
60. Decreasing order of critical temperature of the following is
given gases is
(1) It imparts crimson red colour to the oxidizing
(1) O2 > N2 > NH3 flame
(2) O2 > NH3 > N2 (2) It is the strongest reducing agent
(3) NH3 > O2 > N2 (3) It mainly forms superoxides
(4) N2 > O2 > NH3 (4) Its solution in liquid ammonia is deep blue in
61. Which of the following is an incorrect option for colour
free expansion of an ideal gas under reversible 69. Total number of gaseous products obtained
adiabatic conditions? during the electrolysis of aqueous solution of
(1) q = 0 (2) w = 0 sodium salt of acetic acid is
(3) ∆T = 0 (4) ∆U > 0 (1) 2 (2) 3
62. If the internal energy change for vapourisation of (3) 4 (4) 5
water at 100°C is 37.56 kJ/mol then the enthalpy 70. Which of the following elements reacts with
change for vapourisation of water at 100°C is steam?
(1) 40.66 kJ/mol (2) 45.66 kJ/mol (1) C (2) Si
(3) 34.21 kJ/mol (4) 31.29 kJ/mol (3) Ge (4) Sn
(7)
71. Hydration of alkene in acidic medium is a type of 80. Consider the following statements about first
(1) Nucleophilic substitution reaction order reaction
(2) Electrophilic substitution reaction I. Time required for 99.9% completion is 10

times of t1/2.
(3) Electrophilic addition reaction
[R]0
(4) Nucleophilic addition reaction II. Slope of graph plotted between log
[R]
72. Dumas method is used for the estimation of
k
(1) C (2) Br versus t is −
2.303
(3) S (4) N III. Decomposition of N2O5 and N2O follows first
73. Benzene on reaction with Cl2 under ultra-violet order kinetics
light at 500 K, yields a compound (X). The Correct statement(s) among the following is/are
number of π bonds present in the compound (X)
(1) I only (2) I and II only
is
(3) I and III only (4) I, II and III
(1) Zero (2) 1
81. Paints is an example of
(3) 2 (4) 3
(1) Sol (2) Aerosol
74. Clean water would have BOD value of
(3) Gel (4) Foam
(1) Less than 10 ppm (2) Less than 5 ppm
82. Copper Matte contains
(3) More than 5 ppm (4) More than 10 ppm
(1) Cu2O and SO2 (2) FeS and Cu2O
75. Shortest distance between tetrahedral and
octahedral voids in ccp lattice is (3) Cu2S and Cu2O (4) Cu2S and FeS
a a 83. Correct order of H-E-H bond angle is (E is group

(1) (2) 15 element)
2 2
(1) SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > NH3
3a a 3
(3) (4) (2) AsH3 > SbH3 > PH3 > NH3
2 4
(3) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
76. The two ions X+ and Y– have radii 50 and 200 pm
respectively. In the closed packed structure of (4) NH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > SbH3
compound XY, the coordination number of A+ is 84. Which of the following does not react with oxygen
(1) 8 (2) 6 directly?
(3) 4 (4) 3 (1) P4 (2) C
77. Highest freezing point among the following is of (3) Ca (4) Pt
(1) 0.1 m NaCl (2) 0.1 m AlCl3 85. Hydrochloric acid on reaction with sodium
sulphite gives
(3) 0.1 m urea (4) 0.1 m MgCl2
(1) SO3 (2) SO2
78. In which of the following options, the reduction
potential of hydrogen half cell will be negative? (3) S (4) H2S
(1) [H+] = 10 M and pH2 = 1 atm SECTION-B

o
(2) [H+] = 1 M and pH2 = 1 atm 86. The metal which has negative value of EM 3+
/M2+
is
(3) [H+] = 10 M and pH2 = 10 atm (1) V (2) Mn
(4) [H+] = 1 M and pH2 = 10 atm (3) Fe (4) Co
79. The amount of electricity that can deposit 6.35 g 87. Most common oxidation state shown by actinoids
of Cu from CuSO4 solution is is
(1) 1930 C (2) 19300 C (1) +1 (2) +3
(3) 38600 C (4) 3860 C (3) +4 (4) +5
(8)
88. The IUPAC name of the complex [CoCl2(en)2]+ is 93.

(1) Di(ethane-1, 2-diamine)dichloridocobalt(II)
(2) Dichloridodi(ethane-1, 2-diamine)cobalt(III) The major products obtained in the above
(3) Dichloridobis(ethane-1, 2-diamine)cobalt(III) reaction are
(4) Dichloridobis(ethane-1, 2-diamine)cobalt(II)
89. According to spectrochemical series, correct (1)
order of ligand field strength among the following
is
(1) CO > CN– > en > edta4–
(2)
(2) edta4– > en > CN– > CO
(3) CO > edta4– > CN– > en
(4) CO > CN– > edta4– > en
90. Consider the following reaction, (3)
(4)
A is
94. Which of the following compounds yield
cyanohydrin most readily?
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4)
95. The compound which on reaction with Grignard

reagent followed by hydrolysis yields carboxylic
(3) (4) acid is
91. Correct order of nucleophilicity in polar protic (1) HCHO

solvent is (2) HCN
(1) Br– > I– > Cl– (2) I– > Br– > Cl–
(3) CO2
(3) I– > Cl– > Br– (4) Cl– > Br– > I–
(4) CH3COCH3
92. Consider the following reaction sequence,
96.
Major product (B) is Major product obtained in the above reaction is
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
(9)
97. Aniline on reaction with bromine water at room 98. All naturally occurring α-amino acids are optically
temperature, majorly yields active except
(1) Glycine (2) Alanine
(3) Valine (4) Lysine
(1) (2)
99. Elastomer among the following is
(1) Terylene (2) Neoprene
(3) Polystyrene (4) Bakelite
100. Phenelzine is a/an
(3) (4) (1) Antibiotic (2) Antacid
(3) Analgesic (4) Tranquilizer
BOTANY
SECTION-A 104. Ribosomes are not present in the
101. Match the following columns and select the (1) Matrix of mitochondria
correct option w.r.t. cell cycle. (2) Stroma of chloroplast
Column I Column II (3) Lumen of endoplasmic reticulum
A. G2 phase (i) Centriole duplication (4) Cytosol of the cell

105. Heterophylly due to different habitat is seen in
B. Anaphase (ii) Duplication of
semiautonomous (1) Buttercup (2) Cotton
organelles (3) Rice (4) Coriander
C. S phase (iii) Nuclear membrane 106. All of the following are the physiological effect of
starts to disappear ethylene in plants, except
(1) Breaking of dormancy of seeds and buds
D. Prophase (iv) Splitting of centromere
(2) Initiation of germination in peanut seeds
A B C D
(3) Influencing apical hook formation in dicot
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) seedlings
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) Production of chloroplast in leaves
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
107. Identify the incorrect statement(s) from the
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) following.
102. During pachytene, exchange of genetic material a. Cytochrome c is a mobile electron carrier
takes place between attached to the outer membrane of
(1) Sister chromatids of a chromosome mitochondria.
(2) Two non-homologous chromosomes b. NAD+ is a nucleotide source for ATP
(3) Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous synthesis in cellular respiration.
chromosomes c. Inner mitochondrial membrane is permeable
(4) Non-sister chromatids of homologous to protons at F0 protein complex.
chromosomes d. Proton gradient required for oxidative
103. Microtubules arrangement in flagella as 9 + 2 phosphorylation of ADP is obtained with the
array is not seen in use of energy of oxidation-reduction.
(1) Euglena (2) Gonyaulax (1) a and c (2) b and c
(3) Spirilla (4) Trypanosoma (3) c and d (4) a and b
(10)
108. How many step(s) is/are there in Krebs cycle A B C D

where substrate level phosphorylation for ATP (1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
synthesis occurs?
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(1) Two (2) One
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) Four (4) Three
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
109. During photorespiration
114. Arrange the following steps involved in DNA
(1) CO2 binds with RuBisCO in C4 plants fingerprinting technique in correct order and
(2) ATP is used in chloroplasts in C3 plants choose the option accordingly.
(3) NADH is formed in peroxisomes in C3 plants (a) Transferring of DNA fragments to synthetic
membrane.
(4) O2 is not used in C3 plants
(b) Digestion of DNA by restriction
110. In tomato plant, the primary CO2 acceptor is
endonucleases.
(1) A four carbon acid
(c) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe.
(2) PEP carboxylase
(d) Separation DNA fragments by
(3) A five carbon ketose electrophoresis.
(4) A three carbon phosphoenolpyruvate (1) (c), (b), (a), (d) (2) (c), (a), (d), (b)
111. Which of the following statements is not true (3) (b), (c), (d), (a) (4) (b), (d), (a), (c)
regarding photosystem I involved in the light 115. For which of the following codons, there would be
reaction in plants? no tRNA?
(1) The reaction centre is P680 (1) 5′ UAG 3′ (2) 5′ UGG 3′
(2) It lies on the outer surface of the thylakoids (3) 5′ AUG 3′ (4) 5′ UUG 3′
(3) It is not associated with splitting of water 116. In human, which genotype of sperm when fuses
(4) It is found in both stroma and grana lamellae with normal egg results in Klinefelter's
112. In the root nodules of leguminous plants, syndrome?
nitrogenase is protected from molecular oxygen (1) (22 + Y) (2) (23 + Y)
due to presence of (3) (22 + XY) (4) (23 + X)
(1) Mo-Fe protein in the enzyme 117. ABO blood grouping in human beings is an
(2) Thick wall of cortical cells example of
(3) Mucopeptide in Rhizobium cell wall a. Incomplete dominance
(4) Pigment leghaemoglobin b. Co-dominance
113. Match the following columns and select the c. Complete dominance
correct option w.r.t. lac operon. d. Pleotropy
Column I Column II e. Multiple allelism

The correct one(s) is/are
A. z gene (i) Codes for repressor
(1) a, c and d (2) b, c and e
protein
(3) b only (4) b and e only
B. Operator (ii) Codes for
118. In angiosperms, triple fusion involves the union of
β-galactosidase
(1) Two male gametes with one polar nucleus
C. Regulator gene (iii) Site for RNA
(2) One male gamete with two fused polar nuclei
polymerase attachment
(3) Two male gametes with one egg nucleus
D. Promotor (iv) Interacts with repressor (4) One male gamete, one egg nucleus and one
protein polar nucleus
(11)
119. Select the incorrect match from the following. 125. The equation that describes geometric growth of
the population resulting in a J-shaped curve is
(1) Tapetum – Made up of multinucleated
haploid cells dN dN K −N
(1) =rN (2) = rN  
dt dt  K 
(2) Exine – Made up of sporopollenin
dN  N
(3) Pollen grain – Male gametophyte (3) = r 1 −  (4) N0 = Ntert
dt  K
(4) Ovule – Megasporangium 126. Which one is not a reason of deforestation?
120. Fusing gametes are morphologically distinct type (1) Conversion of forest land into lands for
in agricultural purpose
(1) Rhizopus (2) Cladophora (2) Jhum cultivation

(3) Chara (4) Synchytrium (3) Using forests for source of timber, fire wood,
121. Which one of the following is a perennial cattle ranching
monocarpic plant? (4) Conservation of wildlife
(1) Carrot (2) Henbane 127. If a host fish becomes extinct, all the parasites
(3) Grapevine (4) Neelakurinji exclusively found on it will become extinct. This
biodiversity loss is said to be due to
122. The pollutant that has maximum contribution to
total global warming is (1) Over-exploitation
(1) A nitrogen containing compound (2) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(2) An inflammable gas (3) Co-extinction
(3) A fire extinguisher (4) Alien species invasions

(4) Said to be good only in stratosphere 128. What amount of energy in the form of sunlight
should be available to producer so that the
123. Identify the following statements as true(T) and
false(F) and choose the option accordingly. secondary carnivore in the following food chain
can get 100 J energy in the form of food from its
A. Population is assemblage of groups of
prey?
different species in an area.
Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake →
B. In an ecosystem, there is the exchange of
Eagle
energy and recycling of nutrients among the
biological communities and physical (1) 100000 kJ (2) 10000 kJ
environment. (3) 100000 J (4) 1000 kJ
C. Organisms, populations, communities and 129. The interaction between plants and animals can
biomes are the four basic levels of biological be
organisation.
(1) Protocooperation and competition
A B C
(2) Commensalism and parasitism
(1) T T F
(3) Amensalism and competition
(2) F T T
(4) Mutualism and predation
(3) T F T
130. Cyclosporine A is produced by the
(4) F F T
(1) Bacterium Staphylococci
124. All of the following considered as secondary
consumer in the ecosystem, except (2) Fungus Trichoderma polysporum
(1) Hydra (2) Tadpole (3) Bacterium Streptococcus thermophilus
(3) Spider (4) Lizard (4) Fungus Monascus purpureus
(12)
131. Which of the following is not involved in 138. Scattered vascular bundles is a major
secondary treatment of sewage? characteristics of
(1) Growth of aerobic heterotrophic microbes (1) Dicot stem (2) Monocot stem
into flocs (3) Monocot root (4) Dicot root
(2) Digestion of bacteria and fungi by anaerobic 139. Extensions of xylem parenchyma cells into the
bacteria vessels of heartwood are known as
(3) Removal of pesticides, pathogens and heavy (1) Lenticles (2) Sclereids
metals from waste water (3) Duramen (4) Tyloses
(4) Reduction of BOD of waste water 140. Which of the following features is not true for the
members of family solanaceae?
132. Somatic hybrid pomato was obtained by the
cross between the individuals belong to the (1) Bisexual actinomorphic flowers
(2) Epipetalous stamens
(1) Same family (2) Same species
(3) Gynoecium tricarpellary and ovary trilocular
(3) Different classes (4) Different families
(4) Corolla gamopetalous with valvate
133. Parbhani Kranti is aestivation
(1) White rust resistant variety of Brassica 141. Match the following columns and select the
(2) Tobacco mosaic resistant variety of chilli correct option.
(3) Yellow mosaic resistant variety of bhindi Column I Column II

(4) Black rot resistant variety of cauliflower (Plant) (Placentation)
134. The step that belongs to the condition A. Lemon (I) Parietal
responsible for closing of stomata is
B. Mustard (II) Marginal
(1) Increase of CO2 concentration in sub-
stomatal cavity C. Pea (III) Basal
(2) Dissociation of malic acid into malate ion and D. Sunflower (IV) Axile
protons
A B C D
(3) Storage of potassium malate in vacuoles of
guard cells (1) (II) (I) (IV) (III)
(2) (IV) (III) (I) (II)
(4) Transportation of H+ out of the guard cells
(3) (II) (III) (I) (IV)
135. In plants, apoplast pathway does not include
(4) (IV) (I) (II) (III)
(1) Plasmodesmata (2) Cell wall
142. Genetic material in Mycoplasma is
(3) Intercellular space (4) Middle lamella
(1) dsDNA (2) ssDNA
SECTION-B
(3) dsRNA (4) ssRNA
136. Cycas is different from Cedrus in having
143. (i) asexually reproduce by (ii) but lack
(1) Naked seeds sexual reproduction.
(2) Archegonia in female gametophyte Select the correct option to fill in the blanks (i)
(3) Unbranched stem and (ii).
(4) Tap root system (i) (ii)
137. Both male and female gametes are non-motile in (1) Colletotrichum Zoospores
(1) Most of the bryophytes
(2) Alternaria Conidia
(2) All the members of Phaeophyceae
(3) Neurospora Conidia
(3) All angiosperms
(4) Most of the pteridophytes (4) Albugo Zoospores
(13)
144. The taxonomical aid that is concerned with both 147. Prokaryotic cells are different from eukaryotic
plants and animals is cells in all of the following aspects, except
(1) Herbarium (1) Plasma membrane
(2) Museum (2) Cell wall
(3) Botanical garden (3) Cytoplasmic ribosomes

(4) Packaging of DNA
(4) Flora
148. Out of the following, homosporous species is
145. The common taxonomic categories of mango
and wheat are (1) Selaginella (2) Funeria
(3) Marsilea (4) Salvinia
(1) Class and division
149. Respiratory quotient (RQ) of which of the
(2) Division and kingdom
following substrate when completely oxidised will
(3) Order and class be less than 1?
(4) Order and family (1) Oxalic acid (2) Glucose
146. To produce 800 male gametes in a typical (3) Malic acid (4) Tripalmitin
angiosperm, how many meiotic divisions are 150. One of the ex-situ conservation strategies for
required? threatened animals is
(1) 50 (2) 400 (1) Hotspot (2) Wildlife safari park
(3) 100 (4) 200 (3) National park (4) Sanctuary
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 154. Choose the pair of animals which are not similar
to each other pertaining to feature stated against
151. Which of the following trait is not a characteristic them
feature of animals belonging to class Reptilia?
(1) Neophron and Canis → Homeotherms
(1) Bony endoskeleton (2) Naja and Hyla → Dioecious
(2) Presence of cloaca (3) Aurelia and Pennatula → Polyp form
(3) Metanephric kidney (4) Fasciola and Chaetopleura → Bilateral
symmetry
(4) Shows viviparity
155. Common bile duct is guarded by a sphincter
152. Select the correct statement called
(1) Bioluminescence is well marked in (1) Sphincter of Boyden
coelenterates (2) Sphincter of Oddi
(2) Metagenesis is present in Hydra (3) Gastro-oesophageal sphincter
(4) Pyloric sphincter
(3) In Taenia, the sexes are separate
156. Which amongst the following teeth of humans are
(4) Comb plates help in locomotion in not diphyodont?
Ctenoplana (1) All incisor and canine teeth
153. Set of the animals which possess metamerism, (2) All premolar and molar teeth
closed circulatory system and true coelom are (3) All canine and molar teeth
(1) Limulus, Nereis (4) All premolar and 3rd molar teeth
157. Volume of air that remain in lungs after a normal
(2) Pheretima, Branchiostoma
expiration is
(3) Ascidia, Antedon (1) ERV + RV (2) FRC + IC
(4) Loligo, Culex (3) VC + RV (4) ERV + EC
(14)
158. Select the mismatch. 162. Our lungs remove CO2 approximately
(1) Breathing – Process of exchange of O2 (1) 20 ml/min (2) 1200 ml/hr

from the atmosphere with (3) 288 L/day (4) 600 ml/sec
CO2 produced by the cells
163. In humans, the scapula is
(2) Alveoli and – Form the respiratory part
(1) Included in vertebral column
their ducts where exchange of gases
occur with blood (2) A bone which does not articulate with any
other bone
(3) Relaxation of – Reduces the thoracic
diaphragm volume and thereby (3) Situated in the dorsal part of the thorax
pulmonary volume in between the first and second rib
dorso-ventral axis (4) A bone which contains acromion process
(4) Total lung – Total volume of air 164. Total number of cranial bones are equal to
capacity accommodated in the lungs number of
at the end of a forced
inspiration (1) Carpals in a wrist
(2) Tarsals in an ankle
159. End of isovolumetric contraction of ventricles
lead to (3) True ribs present in ribcage
(1) Opening of AV valves (4) Girdle bones
(2) Opening of semilunar valves 165. An autoimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular
(3) Closure of AV valves junction leading to fatigue, weakening and
(4) Closure of semilunar valves paralysis of skeletal muscles is called
160. Choose the mismatch w.r.t. ECG (1) Muscular dystrophy
(1) P wave – Excitation of the atria (2) Myasthenia gravis

(3) Tetany
(2) QRS – Depolarisation of the ventricles
complex (4) Gout
(3) T wave – Return of ventricles from 166. Identify the diagram of the simple epithelium
excited state to normal state shown below and from the options given below,
(repolarisation) choose the correct type of tissue along with its
correct location in human body
(4) S-T – Elevates when heart muscles
segment receive insufficient blood supply
161. Identify the statements as true (T) or false (F)

and select the correct option.
A. An increase in body fluid volume switch off
the osmoreceptors and suppress the ADH
release.
B. Human kidneys can produce urine nearly four
times concentrated than initial filtrate formed. (1) Squamous – Present in air sacs of
C. Loop of Henle plays a significant role in epithelium lungs
creating high osmolality in medullary
(2) Cuboidal – Present in tubular part
interstitial fluid.
epithelium of nephron
A B C
(1) T T F (3) Columnar – Present in lining of
epithelium stomach
(2) F T F
(3) T F T (4) Ciliated – Present in fallopian
(4) T T T epithelium tube
(15)
167. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. female 174. In knee jerk reflex, the efferent neurons terminate
reproductive system of cockroach at
(1) 2 large ovaries are present laterally in 2nd to (1) Receptor
6th abdominal segments (2) White matter of spinal cord
(2) 1 pair of spermatheca is present in the 6th (3) Grey matter of spinal cord
segment of abdomen (4) Motor end plate
(3) Vagina opens into the genital chamber 175. At the base of the cochlea, the scala vestibuli
(4) Collaterial glands open into vestibulum (1) Ends at the round window
168. Select the incorrect statement (2) Ends at the oval window
(1) Cellulose is the most abundant organic (3) Opens into scala media
molecule in the biosphere (4) Contains three semi-circular canals
(2) Polysaccharides are component of cell wall 176. The gross calorific value of protein is
of plants, fungi and also of the exoskeleton of (1) 4.1 kcal/g (2) 5.65 kcal/g
arthropods (3) 9.45 kcal/g (4) 9.0 kcal/g
(3) Enzymes eventually bring down the 177. High level of which of the following hormone is
activation energy of biochemical reaction responsible for maintaining pregnancy?
(4) In starch, monomer units are not linked by (1) FSH (2) LH
glycosidic bonds (3) Inhibin (4) Progesterone
169. If an enzyme transfers a group (G) (other than 178. Match the column I with column II and choose
hydrogen) between a pair of substrate, then the the correct answer
enzyme belongs to which class?
Column I Column II
(1) Transferase (2) Isomerase
a. Tertiary follicle (i) Zona pellucida is
(3) Lyase (4) Hydrolase present
b. Primary follicle (ii) Primary oocyte is
PTH : Parathyroid gland :: PRL : _____ surrounded by
(1) Thyroid gland (2) Hypothalamus granulosa cells
(3) Adenohypophysis (4) Female gonads c. Corpus luteum (iii) Completion of

meiosis I
171. Choose the odd one w.r.t. adrenocorticoids
(1) Aldosterone (2) Sexcorticoids d. Graafian follicle (iv) Formed after
ovulation
(3) Angiotensin I (4) Cortisol
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
172. Cretinism is associated with
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) Adenohypophysis
(2) Thyroid gland correct answer.
(3) Adrenal cortex A. In amniocentesis, some of the amniotic fluid
(4) Thymus of the developing foetus is taken to analyse
the fetal cells and dissolved substances.
173. Identify the correct statement.
B. A rapid decline in death rate, MMR, IMR as
(1) Retinal is present in all the visual well as increase in number of people in
photopigments reproducible age, are the factors which are
(2) Cornea is vascularised structure responsible for population growth in India.
(3) Vitreous chamber is present between lens (1) Both statements are correct
and cornea (2) Both statements are incorrect
(4) Pseudounipolar neurons are present in retina (3) Only statement A is correct
of human eye (4) Only statement B is correct
(16)
180. Select the incorrect statement for MTP. 184. The process of elution is associated with
(1) Voluntary termination of pregnancy before full (1) Isolation of the genetic material from plant
term is called MTP cell
(2) It accounts for about 1/5th of total number of (2) Extraction of DNA fragment containing
conceived pregnancies in a year in whole
desired gene from the gel piece
world
(3) It is considered relatively safe upto end of (3) Amplification of gene of interest using PCR
second trimester (4) Formation of recombinant DNA and its
(4) Government of India legalised MTP in 1971 insertion into host cell
with some strict conditions 185. How many from the box given below, are
181. The blastomeres in the blastocyst arrange into an included in applications of Biotechnology?
outer layer called A and an inner group of
Waste treatment, GM crops for agriculture,
cells attached to 'A' called B . Choose the
Bioremediation, Therapeutics
option that correctly fill the blanks A and B.
(1) One (2) Two
A B
(3) Three (4) Four
(1) Inner cell mass Trophoblast
SECTION-B
(2) Endoderm Mesoderm
186. Indian government has set up organisations such
(3) Trophoblast Inner cell mass as a , which will make decision regarding
(4) Hypoblast Epiblast the validity of GM research
182. Palindromic nucleotide sequence for restriction Choose the option to fill the blank 'a'
enzyme, EcoRI is (1) NDRI (2) IARI
(1) 5′ GAATTC 3′ (2) 5′ CTTAAG 3′ (3) GEAC (4) EFB
(3) 5′ GGATCC 3′ (4) 5′ AAGCTT 3′ 187. Dog, bat, human and cheetah share similarities
183. Some restriction sites of cloning vector pBR322 in
are shown in given diagram. If insertion of a
(1) Curvature of vertebral column
piece of DNA occurs at Hind III then
(2) Pattern of bones of forelimbs
(3) Number of molar and premolar teeth
(4) Habit
188. The first non-cellular forms of life could have
originated about
(1) 4 billion years ago (2) 3 billion years back
(3) 2 billion years back (4) 1 billion years back
189. All living organisms that we see today were
created as such, this connotation belongs to
(1) Darwinism
(2) Lamarckism
(1) Recombinants can’t grow in ampicillin
containing medium (3) Theory of special creation
(2) Transformant can grow in tetracycline (4) Chemical theory of evolution
containing medium
190. Which of the following hominid started to dug
(3) Non-transformant can grow in ampicillin holes to bury their deads?
containing medium
(1) Cro-Magnon man (2) Homo erectus
(4) Non-recombinants can’t grow in tetracycline
containing medium (3) Homo habilis (4) Neanderthal man
(17)
191. The side-effects of the use of anabolic steroids in 196. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. blood
female includes all of the following except vascular system of cockroach.
(1) Increased aggressiveness (1) Blood vessels are poorly developed and
(2) Excessive hair growth on the face and body open into haemocoel
(3) Breast enlargement (2) Haemolymph contains haemocytes
(4) Enlargement of clitoris (3) Visceral organs located in the haemocoel are
192. Read the following statements w.r.t. AIDS. bathed in haemolymph
A. In HIV-infected macrophages, the viral RNA (4) Heart of cockroach consists of elongated
transcribes in order to form viral DNA with the muscular tube lying along ventro lateral line
help of enzyme, reverse transcriptase; then of thorax and abdomen
the viral DNA integrates with the human 197. Normal inspiration is initiated by the contraction
genome and finally replicates. of diaphragm which increases the volume of
B. AIDS is included in congenital disease. thoracic cavity in
C. For AIDS, the time lag may vary from a few (1) Antero-posterior axis
months to many years.
(2) Dorso-ventral axis
(3) Lateral axis
(4) Both antero-posterior axis and dorso-ventral
(2) Only statement B is correct axis
(3) Only statements B and C are correct 198. Choose the incorrect statement for Asthma.
(4) Only statements A and C are correct (1) Characterised by wheezing sound
193. Spleen is included in
(2) Patient feel difficulty in breathing
(1) Primary lymphoid organs
(3) Inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles
(2) Secondary lymphoid organs
(4) Alveolar walls are damaged
(3) Physiological barrier of innate immunity
199. Average life span of RBCs is of
(4) Lymphoid organs which are involved in
formation of lymphocytes (1) 80 days
194. How many infectious diseases from the box (2) 4 months
given below, have been controlled to a large (3) 2 months
extent by the use of vaccines?
(4) 180 days
Polio, Diptheria, Pneumonia, Tetanus 200. Read the following statements and choose the
correct answer.
(1) One (2) Two
A. Vena cava and pulmonary veins are included
(3) Three (4) Four
in systemic circulation.
195. Animal breeding method which allows the
desirable qualities of two different breeds to be B. Excitation of the atria is represented by T
combined, is wave.
(1) Inbreeding (1) Both statements are correct

(2) Cross-breeding (2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Interspecific hybridisation (3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Out-breeding (4) Only statement B is correct
  
(18)
Edition: 2020-21
08/09/2021 CODE-A
CST – 23
Instructions:
PHYSICS
SECTION-A 3. The wavelength of first spectral line in the Balmer
1. de Broglie wavelength associated with an series of hydrogen atom is 6561 Å. The
wavelength of the second spectral line in the
electron accelerated through a potential
Balmer series of singly ionized Helium atom is
difference of 200 V is nearly
(1) 617 Å (2) 1836 Å
(1) 0.1 Å
(3) 2525 Å (4) 1215 Å
(2) 0.86 Å
4. The radius of a nucleus with nucleon number 16
(3) 0.25 Å is 5×10–15 m. The radius of other nucleus with
nucleon number 128 will be
(4) 2.1 Å
3
2. The work function of metal A (atomic number x) (1) 5 × 10−15 m (2) × 10−16 m
5
and metal B(atomic number y) are 4.3 eV and
3.1 eV respectively. The ratio of slopes of the 128
(3) 10−14 m (4) × 10−15 m
16
stopping potential versus frequency plot for metal
A to that of metal B is 5. The half life of a radioactive nucleus is 60 days.
The time interval ∆t between the time when 2/3 of
4.3 x it has decayed and time when 1/3 of it had
(1) (2)
3.1 y decayed is
y (1) 60 days (2) 90 days
(3) (4) 1
x (3) 30 days (4) 75 days
(1)
6. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined 11. A small spherical ball of diameter d falls from rest
wedge of inclination θ as shown in the figure. A in any viscous liquid. During this, heat is
force F is applied over the wedge such that block produced due to viscous force. If the ball is
remains stationary over the wedge. Value of F is moving with terminal velocity in the liquid then
rate of production of heat is proportional to
(1) d2 (2) d5
(3) d5/3 (4) d–5/2
12. Point of suspension of a simple pendulum having
length l = 1 m is moving vertically upward such
that its position as a function of time t (in second)
is given by y = (3t2 + 4) m. Time period of small
(1) (m + M)g (2) (m + M)g cotθ oscillations of this pendulum is
(3) mg cosecθ (4) (m + M)g tanθ (1) 2 π s (2) π s
7. A small ball of mass 2m, moving with speed v π π
(3) s (4) s
collides with another stationary ball having mass 2 4
5m. If the lighter ball comes to rest after collision,
13. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
then the value of coefficient of restitution (e) will incorrect?
be
(1) Rolling friction is greater than sliding friction
(1) 0.1 (2) 0.2
(2) Friction force opposes the relative motion
(3) 0.3 (4) 0.4  
(3) Value of limiting friction is given by fL = µs N
8. A solid sphere of mass M and radius R and a
(4) Both (1) & (3)
M
hollow sphere of mass and radius 2R are
2 14. Two moles of oxygen is mixed with eight moles
of helium. Effective molar specific heat of the
spinning with the same angular speed ω about
mixture at constant volume is
their own symmetry axes. The ratio of amount of
work required to bring them to rest is (1) 1.0R (2) 1.4R
(3) 1.7R (4) 1.6R
3 3
(1) (2)
10 5 15. Two conducting rods are joined to each other to
form a composite rod as shown in the figure.
5 2
(3) (4)
3 7
9. A rope is wound around a solid cylinder of mass
Their thermal conductivities and lengths are
5 kg and radius 30 cm. If the rope is pulled with a
shown. Temperature of junction of two rods will
force of 50 N, then what is the angular be
acceleration of the cylinder (in rad/s2)?
(1) 23.8 ºC (2) 57.1 ºC
(1) 33.34 (2) 28.75
(3) 76.2 ºC (4) 88.5 ºC
(3) 66.67 (4) 18.57 16. The power radiated by a black body is P and it
10. A Jupiter year is 11.86 times the earth year. How radiates maximum energy at wavelength λ0. If the
far is the Jupiter from the Sun if the Earth is temperature of the black body is now changed so
1.50×108 km away from the Sun? that it radiates maximum energy at wavelength
5
(1) 9.2 × 108 km λ , the power radiated by it becomes NP. The
7 0
(2) 7.8 × 108 km value of 625N is
(3) 11.86 × 108 km (1) 1024 (2) 1420
(4) 4.5 × 108 km (3) 2401 (4) 4102
(2)
17. In an adiabatic process, pressure is increased by m π 3m

4 C 3 (1) π (2)
% . If P = , then the volume in the process is 16k 2 k
5 CV 2
m 3m
decreased by about (3) 2π (4) 2π
3k 4k
9 8
(1) % (2) % 23. If a piece of polythene is rubbed with wool, a
12 15
charge of –3×10–7 C is developed on polythene.
7 4
(3) % (4) % Amount of mass which is transferred to polythene
13 15
is nearly
18. 20 gram of ice at 0ºC is mixed with 160 gram of
water at 10ºC in a calorimeter. Contents and final (1) No mass is transferred
temperature of the mixture will be (Water (2) 1.9×10–19 kg
equivalent of calorimeter is negligible)
(3) 9.1×10–31 kg
(1) Water at 3ºC
(4) 1.7×10–18 kg
(2) 10 gram ice and 170 gram water both at 0ºC
24. A metallic sphere of radius 1 cm in air is given a
(3) Water at 0ºC
charge of 1 coulomb. Electric potential at the
(4) Water at 12°C
surface of sphere will be
19. The fundamental frequency of an open organ
pipe is equal to the fifth harmonic of a closed (1) 9×1011 V
organ pipe. If the length of the open organ pipe is (2) 9×109 V
30 cm, then the length of the closed organ pipe is
(3) Zero
(1) 15 cm (2) 105 cm
(4) Sphere cannot hold this charge
(3) 90 cm (4) 75 cm
25. An electric dipole is placed at the centre of an
20. The efficiency of Carnot heat engine working
between the temperature 273 K and 273ºC is imaginary sphere. Which of the following option
is/are correct?
(1) Zero (2) 25%
(3) 50% (4) 40% (1) Electric field is not zero anywhere on the
sphere
21. A person have a whistle, emitting continuously a
sound of frequency 660 Hz. While producing this (2) Electric potential is not zero anywhere on the
sound he is running towards a vertical wall with a sphere
speed of 5 m/s. If the speed of sound in air is 335
(3) Net flux through the sphere is zero
m/s then number of beats heard by him will be
(1) 20 Hz (4) Both (1) & (3)
(2) 10 Hz 26. A parallel plate capacitor of capacity 20 µF with

(3) 8 Hz air in the gap between the plates. Now if one half
of the space is filled with a dielectric of dielectric
(4) No beats will be heard
constant K = 4 as shown in the figure, then new
22. A spring of force constant k and natural length L
capacity of the capacitor becomes
3L L
is cut into two parts of length and
4 4
respectively and connected with a block of mass
m as shown in the figure. If the mass is displaced
slightly and then released the time period of
oscillation of the block is
3 L/ 4 L/ 4
(1) 30 µF (2) 50 µF
(3) 48 µF (4) 60 µF
(3)
27. In the given circuit if point Q is connected to the 31. A proton carrying 4 MeV kinetic energy is moving
earth as shown in the figure. Potential of point R in a circular path of radius R in uniform magnetic
is (Given potential of point P is + 2000 V) field. Energy of α-particle to describe a circle of
same radius in same field should be
(1) 1 MeV (2) 4 MeV
(3) 7 MeV (4) 2 MeV
32. If current in a coil changes uniformly from 2 A to
0.5 A in 0.3 s, then an emf of 20 V is induced in
it. Self-inductance of the coil is
(1) 1500 V (2) 1000 V
(1) 4 H (2) 5 H
(3) 500 V (4) Zero
(3) 3 H (4) 2 H
28. A cylindrical copper rod is reformed to thrice its
original length. Resistance between its ends 33. Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer
before the change was R. Now its new resistance is 30 division/mA and its voltage sensitivity
(angular deflection per unit voltage) is
becomes
20 division/V. The resistance of the galvanometer
(1) 3R (2) 6R is
R (1) 500 Ω (2) 1700 Ω
(3) 9R (4)
9 (3) 800 Ω (4) 1500 Ω
29. Three resistors are connected to form a T shape 34. Two coils have a mutual inductance of 0.05 H.
network as shown in the figure. The current Current changes in the first coil according to the
through the resistor 8R is equation I = 20A sin ωt, where ω = 100π rad/s
and t is time in s. The maximum value of emf
induced in second coil is
(1) 10π V (2) 5π V
(3) 50π V (4) 100π V
35. RMS value of the current in a circuit given by
I = (5sin ωt + 7 cos ωt)A, will be
67 32 (1) 32 A (2) 37 A
(1) (2)
28R 41R
12
(3) 74 A (4) A
47 63 2
(3) (4)
53R 31R
SECTION-B
30. If there are two semicircles of radii R1, R2 in
36. An alternating voltage of 220 V, 50 Hz is applied
which a current is flowing as shown in the figure.
across a capacitor of capacitance 20 µF. The
The magnetic field at point ‘O’ will be
impedance of the circuit is
500 50
(1) Ω (2) Ω
π π
5000 5
(3) Ω (4) Ω
π π
37. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency
25 MHz travels in free space along the x-
direction. At a particular point in space and time
µ0I ( R1 + R2 ) µ0 2I (R1 − R2 )  
(1) (2) E = 7.5 j V/m . The value of B at this point is
4R1R2 4π R1 + R2
µ0  1 1  µ0  1 1
( )
(1) 7.5 × 10−8 −kˆ T (2) 3.5 × 108 kˆ T
(3) I  −  (4) 2I  + 
2π  R1 R2  4π  R2 R1  (3) 2.5 × 10 −8 kˆ T (4) 2.5 × 108 kˆ T
(4)
38. A thin lens which is cut into two equal halves are 43. A person wants to resolve two thin poles
kept in contact as shown in the figure. Focal standing near each other from the distance of 2
length of original lens was 30 cm. If an object is km. The minimum separation between poles
placed at a distance of 20 cm left from the should be nearly (θR = 1 arc min)
system of lens then position of image will be
(1) 30 cm (2) 40 cm
(3) 60 cm (4) 120 cm
44. A spaceship is moving away from Earth with
(1) 30 cm, left of the system
speed 0.03c, where c is speed of light in air. The
(2) 60 cm, right of the system spaceship emits signal of frequency 6×107 Hz.
(3) 30 cm, right of the system Frequency of signal observed by the observer on
(4) 60 cm, left of the system Earth will be
39. A person is having hypermetropic eye whose (1) 1.2 × 107 Hz (2) 1.8 × 107 Hz
near point is at 125 cm. What is the power of the (3) 4.8 × 107 Hz (4) 5.82 × 107 Hz
spectacles required for that person?
45. If only 8% of the energy supplied to a bulb is
(1) 2.5 D (2) –3.2 D
radiated as visible light, then number of photons
(3) 3.2 D (4) – 3.6 D
emitted per second by a 100 watt bulb
40. Which of the following statement is not true are (Assume wavelength of visible light is
regarding the communication through optical 5.6×10–7 m)
fibre?
(1) 2.3 × 1019 (2) 1.43 × 1019
(1) Optical fibres can be of graded refractive
index (3) 3.15 × 1019 (4) 8.12 × 1019
(2) Optical fibres have extremely high 46. A force acting on an object is given in terms of
transmission loss time t and displacement x by the equation
(3) Refractive index of core is lesser than the F = Acos αx + Bsin βt. The dimensional formula
refractive index of cladding β
of is
(4) Both (2) and (3) α
41. A ray of light is travelling from glass to air. (1) [M0L–1T–1] (2) [M0L–1T1]
Refractive index of glass is 3/2. If the angle of
(3) [M0L1T–1] (4) [M0L0T0]
incidence is 57º, then the deviation of the ray is
[cosec 42º = 1.5] 47. The heat generated in a circuit is dependent
(1) 57º (2) 66º upon the resistance, current and time for which
the current is flown. If the errors in measuring the
 sin57º  −1  sin57º 
(3) 57º − sin−1   (4) sin   − 57º above are 2%, 1% & 3% respectively, then the
 32   32  maximum error in measuring heat will be
42. The intensity of the polarized light becomes (1) 5% (2) 11%
1
th of its initial value after passing through the (3) 9% (4) 7%
20
 
analyser. Angle between the transmission axis of 48. If vectors A =iˆ − 3 jˆ + 5kˆ and B = 7iˆ + 2 ˆj − xkˆ
the analyser and the initial direction of electric
are perpendicular to each other, then the value of
field of polarized light is
x is
 1   2 
(1) sin−1   (2) cos –1   1 1
2 5   5 (1) – (2)
5 5
 1 
(3) cos−1  
2 5 
(
(4) tan−1 2 5 ) (3)
3
2
(4) –
3
2
(5)
49. A particle starts with a velocity of (10 m/s) iˆ at

t = 0 from origin and moves in x – y plane with a
( )
constant acceleration of 2iˆ + 3 j m/s2. Speed of
the particle at t = 2 second will be
(1) 232 m/s (2) 289 m/s

4 3
(3) 342 m/s (4) 175 m/s (1) (2)
3 4
50. Velocity-time graph of two particles A and B
moving in a straight line are shown in the figure. 1 7
Acceleration of A with respect to B will have (3) (4)
3 3
magnitude
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 57. The compound which will not exhibit tautomerism
51. Which one of the following is a negatively is
charged sol.?
(1) CdS (2) TiO2 sol
(3) Al2O3⋅xH2O (4) Haemoglobin (1) (2)
52. In sodium chloride, having the rock salt structure,

the coordination number for Na+ ion and chloride
ion are respectively
(1) 4 and 4 (2) 6 and 6 (3) (4)
(3) 8 and 8 (4) 4 and 8
53. At 27°C, the osmotic pressure of 8% (w/v) urea 58. Which among the following is not an
solution is electrophile?
(1) 46.12 atm (2) 32.84 atm +
(3) 13.3 atm (4) 36.12 atm (1) Br+ (2) NO2
54. Which compound is least soluble in water? +

(3) :CCl2 (4) NH4
(1) Mg(OH)2 (2) Ba(OH)2
(3) Ca(OH)2 (4) Sr(OH)2 59. Major product of the given reaction is
55. Methemoglobinemia is caused by which

pollutant?
(1) Lead (2) Fluoride
(3) Sulphate (4) Nitrate
(1) (2)
56. Arrange the given carbonium ion in decreasing
order of stability
(3) (4)
(1) II > I > III (2) I > II > III (1) C2 (2) O2
(3) III > II > I (4) II > III > I (3) H2 (4) N2
(6)
61. The compound which will undergo fastest 67. An ether which cannot be directly prepared by
nucleophilic substitution reaction is Williamson’s synthesis method is
(1) C2H5–O–C2H5 (2) Ph–O–CH2–Ph
(3) (CH3)3C–O–C2H5 (4) Ph–O–Ph
(1) (2)
68.
Identify B in the above reaction
(1) Propene (2) Propyne
(3) Propanone (4) Propanal
69. Which of the following complex ions is not an
(3) (4) inner orbital complex?
(1) [Fe(CN)6]4– (2) [Co(NH3)6]3+
(3) [CoF6]3– (4) [Co(H2O)6]3+
62. Which among the following is a basic oxide? 70. Most acidic compound among the following is
(1) Cl2O7 (2) Al2O3 (1) CH3OH (2) C2H5OH
(3) ZnO (4) CaO
63. Shape and hybridisation of [ICI4]– ion respectively
are (3) (4)
(1) See-saw and sp3d

71. Magnetic moment of a trivalent metal ion is
(2) Tetrahedral and sp3 5.91 BM. The atomic number of the metal is
(3) Square planar and sp3d2 (1) 26 (2) 27
(4) Square pyramidal and sp3d2 (3) 28 (4) 21
64. The compound which is least soluble in water is 72. The crystal field splitting energy for octahedral
(1) Ethanol (2) Acetone (∆O) and tetrahedral complexes (∆t) is related as
(3) Ethanal (4) Hexane 9 4

(1) ∆O = ∆t (2) ∆O = ∆t
4 9
65. The major product (Z) of the given reaction
sequence is 3
(3) ∆O = ∆t (4) ∆O = 4∆ t
4
73. Which of the following is water soluble vitamin?
(1) Vitamin D (2) Vitamin E
(3) Vitamin A (4) Vitamin C
74. The biodegradable polymer is
(1) (2)
(1) Buna-S (2) Nylon-6
(3) PHBV (4) Terylene
75. Which among the following artificial sweetener
has the highest sweetness value in comparison
(3) (4) to cane sugar?
(1) Alitame (2) Aspartame
66. Highest positive electron gain enthalpy (∆Heg) is (3) Saccharin (4) Sucralose
shown by 76. Which mixture of gases is called synthesis gas?
(1) N (2) Ne (1) CO2 + H2 (2) N2 + CO
(3) He (4) Ar (3) CO + H2 (4) N2 + CO2
(7)
77. The product (D) of the following reaction is 83. Select the hydride of group 15 which has the
highest boiling point
(1) PH3 (2) SbH3
(3) AsH3 (4) BiH3
84. For first order reaction, t 1 will be ([R]0 is the
(1) Aniline (2) Benzenamide 2
(3) Benzoic acid (4) Benzene nitrile initial concentration, k is rate constant).
78. Which of the following compounds is most basic? [R]0 ln2
(1) (2)
2k k
(1) (2)
[R]0 2.303
(3) (4)
k k
(3) (4) 85. Standard Gibbs energy (∆rG°) of the

reaction Mg(s) + Cu2+(aq)  Mg2+(aq) + Cu(s);
E°cell = 2.71 V at 298 K is

79. (1) –5.23 kJ mol–1 (2) –52.30 kJ mol–1
The major product (B) is (3) –523.03 kJ mol–1 (4) –52303 kJ mol–1
SECTION-B
86. Correct order of limiting molar conductivity of the
(1) (2) given ions in water at 298 K is
(1) H+ < Ca2+ < Mg2+ (2) Ca2+ < Mg2+ < H+
(3) Mg2+ < Ca2+ < H+ (4) Mg2+ < H+ < Ca2+
87. Distillation is used for refining of
(3) (4) (1) Silicon (2) Zinc

(3) Nickel (4) Copper
80. Which one is most reactive towards nucleophilic 88. Chlorine on reaction with cold and dilute sodium
addition reaction? hydroxide gives
(1) NaCl and NaClO3 (2) NaCl + NaOCl
(1) CH3CHO (2)
(3) HCl and NaCl (4) HCl + Na2O
89. Platinised asbestos is used as a catalyst in the
(3) CH3COCH3 (4)
manufacture of
81. Wolff-kishner reduction of ketone is carried out in (1) Ammonia (2) Nitric acid
the presence of which of the following? (3) Phosphine (4) Nitrogen
(1) NaBH4 90. Consider the given molecules
(2) H2 and Pt as catalyst
(3) Zn–Hg with HCl
(4) NH2–NH2 + KOH/ethylene glycol
82. Maximum number of electrons present in sodium
atom having quantum numbers m = 0 and
1
s = ± is
2 The correct order of boiling point will be
(1) 5 (2) 4 (1) III > I > II (2) I > III > II
(3) 1 (4) 7 (3) III > II > I (4) II > III > I
(8)
91. When 1 mol of A reacts with 1.4 mol of B. 96 100 mL 0.1 M CH3COOH is mixed with 100 mL
According to the following reaction, A + 2B  C, 0.2 M HCl solution. pH of the mixture is,
then the mol of C formed will be approximately (pKa of CH3COOH = 4.74)
(1) 2 (2) 2.4 (1) 1 (2) 5.74
(3) 0.7 (4) 1.7 (3) 3.74 (4) 4.74
92. Mass of CH3COOH required to prepare 500 mL 97. Which of the following is not a state function?
of 0.1 M aqueous solution is (1) H – TS (2) S
(1) 1.5 g (2) 3 g (3) q + w (4) w
(3) 4.5 g (4) 6 g 98. pH of 0.1 M aqueous solution of CH3COONH4 is
93. 30 mL of methane gas diffuses out through a (given pKa of CH3COOH = 4.76, pKb of
small hole of a vessel in 15 minutes. The time NH4OH = 4.74)
taken by 20 mL of helium to diffuse out from the (1) 7.01 (2) 10.37
same hole is (3) 4.37 (4) 6.26
(1) 10 minutes (2) 5 minutes 99. Entropy change during the isothermal reversible
(3) 15 minutes (4) 20 minutes expansion of 2 mol ideal gas from 10 L to 100 L
at 100 K is nearly
94. Which of the following mixture of gases follows
Dalton’s Law of partial pressure? (1) 2.3 R (2) 4.6 R
(1) O2 and H2 (2) H2 and Cl2 (3) –2.3 R (4) –4.6 R
(3) He and Ne (4) NH3 + HCl 100. Ratio of moles of PH3 and NaH2PO2 formed
during the disproportionation of P4 in alkaline
95. Among the following, Lewis base is medium is
(1) SO3 (2) NH+4 (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) NH3 (4) BF3 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 2 : 3
BOTANY
SECTION-A 104. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. viroids
101. Which of the following taxonomic category is not (1) They were discovered by T.O. Diener
related to Mango? (2) Infectious agent smaller than viruses
(1) Anacardiaceae (3) They can cause Cr-Jacob disease in humans
(2) Sapindales (4) They have free RNA molecule
(3) Dicotyledonae 105. Which of the following is related to both
(4) Poaceae chloroplast and mitochondria?
102. Which of the following kingdoms includes (1) Site of aerobic respiration
unicellular organisms having nucleoid? (2) To possess circular DNA molecule
(1) Monera (2) Fungi (3) To contain 80S ribosomes
(3) Plantae (4) Animalia (4) Single membranous organelle
103. How many organisms are related to 106. When centromere is present slightly away from
Basidiomycetes? the middle of chromosome. It is said to be
Aspergillus, Neurospora, Puccinia, Agaricus, (1) Metacentric

Mucor (2) Telocentric
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Sub-metacentric
(3) Four (4) Five (4) Acrocentric
(9)
107. Which characteristic is related to anaphase? (1) Both A and B are correct
(1) Spindle fibres get attached to kinetochores of (2) Both A and B are incorrect
chromosomes (3) Only A is correct
(2) Centromeres split and chromatids separate (4) Only B is correct
(3) Nucleolus, ER, Golgi complex reappear 115. Nitrates present in soil is converted into free
(4) Nuclear membrane start to dissolve nitrogen by a bacterium named
108. Diplotene of Meiosis-I is recognized by (1) Rhizobium (2) Frankia
(1) Terminalisation of chiasmata (3) Thiobacillus (4) Azotobacter
(2) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex 116. Which of the following elements is required for
the activation of catalase?
(3) Bivalent or tetrad formation
(1) Iron (2) Zinc
(4) Crossing over or recombination
(3) Molybdenum (4) Calcium
109. Stem is modified into tendrils in all the given
117. Photosystem II
plants, except
(1) Is attached to OEC
(1) Cucumber (2) Opuntia
(2) Participates in cyclic photophosphorylation
(3) Pumpkins (4) Watermelon
(3) Has P700 reaction center
110. Superior ovary is found in
(4) Does not involve in NADPH formation
(1) Mustard (2) Plum
118. RuBisCO enzyme
(3) Rose (4) Peach
(1) Is responsible for primary CO2 fixation in C4
111. Collenchymatous cells plants
(1) Have lignified cell wall (2) Is present in bundle sheath cells of C4 plants
(2) Are highly thickened dead cells (3) Is absent in C3 plants
(3) Provide mechanical strength to young stem (4) Require Mn2+ and Ca2+ for activation.
and petiole of leaf 119. Which of the following enzyme catalyses
(4) Are commonly found in seed coats of conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl-CoA during
Iegumes the link reaction?
112. Select the odd one out w.r.t. sapwood (1) Hexokinase
(1) Lighter in colour (2) Phosphofructokinase
(2) Involved in conduction of water (3) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(3) Involved in mineral transport (4) Alcohol dehydrogenase
(4) Comprises dead elements with highly 120. NADH dehydrogenase enzyme
lignified walls and darker in colour (1) Is the first enzyme of Krebs cycle
113. Facilitated diffusion (2) Is involved in only EMP pathway
(1) Is that where membrnae proteins set up the (3) Transfers the electrons to ubiquinone during
concentration gradient ETC.
(2) Requires the ATP during transport (4) Donate the electrons to NADH2
(3) Requires the membrane protein for transport 121. Which of the following is not a function of
gibberellins?
(4) Cannot be inhibited by inhibitor
(1) Increase the length of stem in sugarcane
114. If a pressure greater than the atmospheric
(2) Hasten the maturity period in juvenile
pressure is applied to a solution
conifers
A. Its water potential will decrease
(3) Promotes bolting in beet and cabbage
B. Its free energy of water will increase
(4) Antagonist of auxin in terms of apical
Select the correct statement(s) dominance
(10)
122. In the terms of seed germination, which of the 130. In eukaryotes 5.8S rRNA is synthesised by/in
following enzymes are antagonist? (1) RNA polymerase I (2) RNA polymerase III
(1) Auxin and cytokinin (2) Zeatin and ethylene (3) Cytoplasm (4) RNA polymerase II
(3) GA and ABA (4) Ethylene and IAA 131. Wheat variety which was developed through
123. Plant, which reproduces mainly by rhizome is biofortification with increased protein content is
(1) Banana (2) Onion (1) Kalyan Sona (2) Sonalika
(3) Aloe (4) Agave (3) Atlas-66 (4) Pusa Komal
124. Life span of 132. Parbhani Kranti
(1) Crow is more than parrot (1) Is a variety of bhindi/okra
(2) Parrot is less than banana (2) Is resistant to powdery mildew
(3) Banana is greater than tortoise (3) Is a wheat variety with high amino acid
content
(4) Crocodile is approximately 60 years
(4) Was developed through induced mutation
125. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. anther
133. Blood cholesterol lowering agent statins are
(1) Outermost layer is called epidermis produced by
(2) Endothecium layer is responsible for (1) Trichoderma (2) Acetobacter aceti
dehiscence
(3) Monascus purpureus (4) Pseudomonas
(3) Tapetum is responsible for nourishing to
134. Clot buster agent is commercially produced by
developing pollen grains
(1) Streptococcus (2) Lactobacillus
(4) Middle layers are permanent layers
(3) Penicillium (4) Clostridium
126. Female gametophyte of majority of the flowering
plants 135. How many organisms given below are
conformers?
(1) Has total 8 cells
Snake, Fish, Rat, Human, Frog
(2) Has three antipodal cells at micropylar end
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) Contains two celled egg apparatus
(3) Four (4) Five
(4) Contains two synergids at micropylar end
SECTION-B
127. Which of the following is an autosomal dominant
136. Antibiotic production by Penicillium inhibit the
disorder in humans?
growth of bacteria is an example of
(1) Sickle cell anemia (2) Haemophilia
(1) Commensalism (2) Amensalism
(3) Phenylketonuria (4) Myotonic dystrophy (3) Mutualism (4) Parasitism
128. Enzyme which do not take part in DNA 137. Decomposition process is
replication is
(1) Largely anaerobic process
(1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(2) Faster when detritus contains lignin
(2) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(3) Faster in moist and warm environment
(3) Helicase
(4) Slower when detritus has water soluble
(4) Topoisomerase sugars
129. Person suffering from which of the given 138. Pioneer community during the hydrarch
disorders has only 45 chromosomes? succession is
(1) Turner’s syndrome (1) Emerged vegetation stage
(2) Down’s syndrome (2) Lichen
(3) Klinefelter's syndrome (3) Phytoplankton
(4) Thalassemia (4) Reed-swamp
(11)
139. How many beverages given below are produced 145. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. extinct animal
without distillation? and the region from where they got extinct
Wine, Brandy, Whiskey, Beer, Rum (1) Dodo – Mauritius
(1) Two (2) Three (2) Quagga – Africa
(3) Four (4) Five (3) Thylacine – India
140. Read the statements and select the correct (4) Steller’s Sea Cow – Russia
option. 146. Passenger pigeon become extinct mainly due to
A. Euryhaline organisms can tolerate wide (1) Alien species invasion
range of salinities in water. (2) Co-extinction
B. Stenothermal organisms cannot tolerate wide (3) Habitat loss and fragmentation
range of temperature. (4) Over-exploitation
(1) Both A and B are correct 147. All the given are the in-situ conservation
(2) Both A and B are incorrect strategies, except
(3) Only A is correct (1) National park
(4) Only B is correct (2) Zoological park
141. The interaction in which one species is benefited (3) Sacred groves
and other species neither harmed nor benefited, (4) Sanctuaries
is called 148. Eutrophication
(1) Commensalism A. Is the natural ageing of lake by nutrient
(2) Amensalism enrichment of its water
(3) Mutualism B. Is the process in which fertility of lake
decreases
(4) Parasitism
C. Is always seen in young lakes
142. Bacterial enzyme and fungal enzyme degrade
the fragmented detritus into simpler inorganic (1) All A, B and C are correct
substances by a process named (2) Only C is incorrect
(1) Fragmentation (3) Only B is correct
(2) Leaching (4) Only A is correct
(3) Catabolism 149. In the following food chain DDT concentration will
be highest in
(4) Humification
Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Small fishes →
143. Amount of inorganic nutrients present in the soil
Bird
at any given time is referred to as the
(1) Phytoplanktons
(1) Standing crop
(2) Zooplanktons
(2) Standing state
(3) Small fishes
(3) Secondary productivity
(4) Birds
(4) Primary productivity
150. Relative contribution of various green house
144. Maximum biodiversity amongst the vertebrates is gases to total global warming in ascending order
of is
(1) Mammals (1) CH4 < N2O < CFCs < CO2
(2) Fishes (2) N2O < CFCs < CH4 < CO2
(3) Reptiles (3) CO2 < CH4 < N2O < CFCs
(4) Amphibians (4) CFCs < N2O < CO2 < CH4
(12)
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A A B C D
151. The opening of hepato-pancreatic duct into (1) T T F T
duodenum is guarded by
(2) F T F T
(1) Pyloric sphincter
(2) Gastro-oesophageal sphincter (3) T T F F
(3) Sphincter of Oddi (4) T F T F
(4) Ileocecal valve 156. All of the following statements are correct
152. All of the following are present in bile except regarding RBCs except
(1) Bilirubin (2) Cholesterol (1) A healthy adult man has 5 to 5.5 million of
(3) Phospholipids (4) Lipase RBCs mm –3 of blood
153. Match column I with column II w.r.t. partial
(2) RBCs are formed only in yellow bone marrow
pressure of respiratory gases and choose the
correct option. in adults
Column I Column II (3) The average life span of RBCs is around 120
days
a. pO2 in alveoli (i) 40 mmHg
(4) Spleen is known as the graveyard of RBCs
b. pO2 in oxygenated (ii) 45 mmHg
blood 157. A person having anti-A and anti-B antibodies in
his plasma can receive blood from people with
c. pO2 in tissues (iii) 0.3 mmHg
blood group(s).
d. pCO2 in (iv) 104 mmHg
(1) A and B only (2) O and A only
deoxygenated
blood (3) O (4) AB
(v) 95 mmHg 158. Read the following statements w.r.t. urine
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(v), c(i), d(ii) formation and choose the option that correctly
fills the blank A, B and C.
(3) a(v), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
154. How many of the following items given in box, a. The descending limb of loop of Henle is A
are favourable for dissociation of oxygen from the to water but almost B to electrolytes.
oxyhaemoglobin?
b. Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water
Low pCO2, Low pO2, High H+ concentration,
Low temperature, High concentration of 2,3 takes place in C .
BPG (1) A – Permeable,
(1) Five (2) Three B – Impermeable,
(3) Four (4) Two
C – Ascending limb of Henle's loop
155. Read the statements regarding regulation of
respiration and choose the option that correctly (2) A – Permeable,
states them true (T) or false (F). B – Impermeable,
A. Respiratory rhythm centre present in medulla
region of forebrain is primarily responsible for C – PCT
regulation (3) A – Impermeable,
B. Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre can B – Permeable,
reduce the duration of inspiration
C. Oxygen plays a very important role in the C – DCT
regulation of respiratory rhythm (4) A – Permeable,
D. A chemo-sensitive area adjacent to rhythm
B – Impermeable,
centre is highly sensitive to pCO2 and
hydrogen ions C – DCT
(13)
159. Which hormone is directly involved with 166. Select the odd one among the given second
reabsorption of Na+ and water from distal parts of messengers in a cell.
the tubules in a nephron? (1) IP3 (2) cAMP
(1) Renin (2) Aldosterone (3) Ca++ (4) MSH
(3) ANF (4) Cortisol 167. A young boy fell from stairs while playing outside.
160. All of the following are eliminated by sebaceous His mother took him to doctor, where he was
glands through sebum except diagnosed with a fracture in femur. Which of the
following cells are involved in the healing
(1) Waxes (2) Hydrocarbons process?
(3) Sterols (4) Lactic acid (1) Kupffer cells (2) Osteoblasts
161 The cells present in human body that exhibit (3) Chondroblasts (4) Chondrocytes
amoeboid movement are
168. Read the statements w.r.t. morphology of
(1) RBCs cockroach and choose the option that correctly
(2) Platelets fill the blanks A, B and C.
(3) Macrophages a. Sclerites present on the dorsal side of
cockroach body are called A and on the
(4) Squamous epithelial cells
ventral side are called B .
162. Match column I with column II w.r.t. parts of
human brain and choose the correct option b. The sclerites are joined to each other by a
thin and flexible articular membrane called
Column I Column II C .
a. Hind brain (i) Pia mater (1) A – Tergites

B – Sternites
b. Fore brain (ii) Corpora
quadrigemina C – Fibrous membrane
(2) A – Tergites
c. Cranial meninx (iii) Pons
B – Sternites
d. Mid brain (iv) Cerebrum C – Arthrodial membrane
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (3) A – Sternites
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) B – Tergites
163. The body temperature, urge for eating etc. are C – Arthrodial membrane
regulated by (4) A – Sternites
(1) Hypothalamus B – Tergites
(2) Cerebral aqueduct C – Fibrous membrane
(3) Corpora quadrigemina 169. Read the following statements about alimentary
(4) Cerebellum canal of cockroach and choose the incorrect
one.
164. All of the following are pituitary hormones except
(1) The alimentary canal is divided into 3 regions
(1) Prolactin (2) TSH foregut, midgut and hindgut
(3) Somatostatin (4) Growth hormone (2) Malpighian tubules are present at the junction
165. Cholecystokinin acts on of midgut and hindgut
(1) Pancreas only (3) The crop has an outer layer of thick circular
muscles and a thick inner cuticle forming
(2) Gastric glands
chitinous teeth
(3) Both pancreas and gall bladder
(4) Hepatic caeca are present at the junction of
(4) Gall bladder only foregut and midgut
(14)
170. Study the given picture and choose the option 175. The main function of fimbriae present in human
that correctly identifies it. female reproductive tract is to
(1) Hold the ovary in position
(2) Act as site for fertilization
(3) Hold the uterus in position
(4) Help in collection of ovum after ovulation
176. Read the following statements regarding
(1) Uracil (2) Thymine
oogenesis and choose the incorrect one.
(3) Cytosine (4) Adenine
(1) At puberty, only 60000 – 80000 primary
171. Match column-I with column-II regarding proteins follicles are left in each ovary
and their function and choose the correct option.
(2) Secondary follicles are characterised by a
Column I Column II fluid filled cavity called antrum
(3) The theca layer organise itself into theca
a. Globulins (i) Osmotic balance
interna and theca externa in a tertiary follicle
b. GLUT-4 (ii) Intercellular ground (4) The primary oocyte within the tertiary follicle
substance grows in size and completes its first meiotic
division
c. Albumin (iii) Defense mechanism of
body 177. Which of the following is a diploid cell?
(1) Primary spermatocyte
d. Fibrinogen (iv) Enable glucose
transport into the cell (2) Secondary oocyte
(3) Spermatozoa
(v) Coagulation of blood
(4) First polar body
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(v) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
178. Which of the following is not the working
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(v), d(ii) mechanism for steroidal oral contraceptive pills?
172. Enzymes isolated from thermophilic organisms (1) They inhibit ovulation
are different from other enzymes and has an
(2) They facilitate phagocytosis of sperms by
important quality of
causing inflammation
(1) Higher catalytic power
(3) They inhibit implantation
(2) Thermal stability
(4) They alter the quality of cervical mucus to
(3) pH independence prevent the entry of sperms
(4) Higher substrate affinity 179. How many of the following are associated with
173. The percentage of nitrogen bases in four different the complications due to STIs?
dsDNA samples are given. Study the given data
Still births, Ectopic pregnancies, Tubectomy,
and choose the option that shows the mutated
Infertility, Pelvic inflammatory disease, Abortions
DNA sample.
(1) A = 32%, C = 18%, T = 32%, G = 18% (1) Six (2) Four
(2) G = 24%, A = 26%, T = 26%, C = 24% (3) Two (4) Five
(3) C = 20%, T = 28%, G = 24%, A= 28% 180. The best assisted reproductive technology to
conceive in case of a female who cannot produce
(4) T = 17%, G = 33%, A = 17%, C = 33%
ovum, but can provide suitable environment for
174. All of the following are bisexual animals except fertilization and further development is
(1) Tapeworm (2) Cockroach (1) GIFT (2) ICSI
(3) Leech (4) Earthworm (3) IUI (4) ZIFT
(15)
181. During post industrialization period, the increase 188. Which of the following is not among the three
in the number of melanised moth is an example basic steps used in genetically modifying an
of organism?
(1) Stabilizing selection (2) Balancing selection (1) Identification of DNA with desirable genes
(3) Directional selection (4) Disruptive selection
(2) Introduction of identified DNA into host
182. Consider the following statements regarding
(3) Maintenance of introduced DNA into host and
Homo habilis and choose the option that
correctly states them true (T) or false (F). transfer of DNA to its progeny
A. Their brain capacities were between (4) Purification and separation of the desired
650-800 cc protein produced in a bioreactor
B. They were first human like being the hominid 189. Recognition site for restriction endonuclease
C. They probably did not eat meat EcoRI is
D. They used hides to protect their body 5′ - G T C G A C - 3′

(1)
A B C D 3′ - C A G C T G - 5′
(1) T T T F 5′ - G A A T T C - 3′
(2)
(2) F T T F 3′ - C T T A A G - 5′
(3) F T F T 5′ - G G A T C C - 3′
(3)
(4) T F T F 3′ - C C T A G G - 5′
183. The possible direct ancestors of herbaceous and 5′ - C C C G G G - 3′
(4)
arborescent lycopods were 3′ - G G G C C C - 5′
(1) Psilophyton (2) Zosterophyllum 190. If a foreign gene is inserted at Pvu I recognition
(3) Rhynia-type plants (4) Progymnosperms site of E.coli cloning vector pBR322, then the
184. All of the following are the drugs used to reduce transformed non-recombinants will be resistant to
the symptoms of allergy except (1) Only tetracycline
(1) Adrenaline (2) Antihistamine (2) Only ampicillin
(3) Concanavalin-A (4) Steroids
(3) Both tetracycline and ampicillin
185. Read the statements and choose the option that
(4) Only Kanamycin
correctly fills the blank A and B.
Main receptors present on the Helper T 191. The inactive Bt protoxin is converted into active
lymphocytes are A and on cytotoxic T form in the gut of the insect, due to the
lymphocytes are B . (1) High temperature of the gut
(1) A – CD8, B – CD4 (2) A – CD4, B – CD20 (2) Acidic pH of the gut
(3) A – CD8, B – CD21 (4) A – CD4, B – CD8 (3) Alkaline pH of the gut
SECTION-B (4) Special solubility of proteins in gut
186. The opioid heroin, commonly called smack is 192. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. Insulin.
obtained by acetylation of
(1) Insulin is produced as a pro-hormone
(1) Curcumin (2) Morphine
(2) The mature insulin contains only A and B
(3) Concanavalin-A (4) Carotenoids
peptide chains
187. Multiple ovulation embryo transfer technology
has been used to obtain (3) Earlier insulin was extracted from pancreas
of slaughtered cattles and pigs
(1) A new breed of sheep called Hisardale
(4) Eli lilly, an American company produced
(2) Increase in herd size in a short time
chain A and B together, extracted and
(3) The domesticated mule combined them by creating disulfide bonds to
(4) Superior males and females of cattle only form human insulin
(16)
193. In 1997, an American company got patent rights 197. The type of junctions present between the
on Basmati Rice through the US patent and epithelial cells lining the urinary bladder, which
Trademark office, but these rice were not an prevent urine from leaking out into extracellular
invention or novelty rather space are
(1) A distant relative of basmati rice (1) Tight junctions (2) Gap junctions
(2) Indian basmati was crossed with semi-dwarf (3) Adhering junctions (4) Zonula adherens
varieties 198. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. gastric glands
(3) Indian basmati was crossed with pest (1) Oxyntic cells (2) Mucus neck cells
resistant varieties
(3) Paneth cells (4) Chief cells
(4) An indigenous variety of basmati rice from
199. Select the incorrect statement regarding sliding
Punjab
filament theory of muscle contraction.
194. In an ECG, if P wave, QRS complex and T wave
(1) Actin and myosin filaments do not shorten in
appear as a straight line, it implies
length
(1) Ventricular depolarisation is very weak
(2) A-band decreases in size
(2) Atrial depolarisation is very weak
(3) Length of H-zone decreases
(3) There is clotting in the aorta
(4) I-band reduced in width
(4) The heart is not beating
200. Consider the following statements regarding
195. The sino-atrial node (SAN) can generate the skeletal system.
maximum number of action potentials
a. The facial region consists of 14 bones.
(1) 60-65 min–1 (2) 70-75 min–1
b. There are 12 lumbar and 7 thoracic vertebrae
(3) 100-120 min–1 (4) 40-50 min–1 in our vertebral column.
196. Select the mismatch among the following w.r.t. c. There are two pairs of vertebrochondral ribs.
subphylum vertebrata.
d. Each limb is made of 30 bones.
(1) Cyclostomata – Petromyzon
Choose the option that mention only correct
(2) Osteichthyes – Trygon statements.
(3) Amphibia – Ichthyophis (1) Only a and b (2) Only a, c and d
(4) Mammalia – Ornithorhynchus (3) Only a and d (4) a, b, c and d
  
(17)
Edition: 2020-21
00-00-2021 Code-A
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456
Time : 3:00 Hrs. Pre NEET Mock Test-1 M. Marks : 720

(for NEET-2021)
(Complete Syllabus of Class XI & XII)

Instructions :
Unanswered /unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on the Answer sheet.
PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :

SECTION-A 3. Light with an average flux of 10 W/cm 2 falls on a
non-reflecting surface at normal incidence having
1. A wire of length L, area of cross-section A is surface area 40 cm 2. The energy received by the
hanging from a fixed support. The length of the surface during time span of 2 minutes is
wire becomes 1.1L when a mass M is suspended
(1) 24 kJ (2) 240 J
from its free end. The Young’s modulus of wire is
given by (3) 12 kJ (4) 48 kJ
4. Two bodies of mass 1 kg and 2 kg are tied to an
Mg 10 Mg ideal string. The string passes over a smooth
(1) (2)
A A pulley as shown in the figure. The acceleration of
40 Mg 4Mg the 2 kg block is
(3) (4)
A A
2. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas (Molar mass
M) at pressure P and temperature T. If R is
universal gas constant, then the density of gas is
given as
PT RT
(1) (2)
RM PM g 2g
(1) downwards (2) upwards
PM RP 3 3
(3) (4)
RT TM g g
(3) downwards (4) downwards
2 4
(1)
Pre NEET Mock 2021 Test-1 (Code-A)
5. The mean free path for a gas, with molecular 11. Two cylinders P and Q of equal capacity are
diameter d and number density n can be connected to each other via a stopcock. Cylinder
expressed as (T is temperature and P is pressure P contains an ideal gas at standard temperature
of the gas) and pressure. Cylinder Q is completely
evacuated. The entire system is thermally
1 1
(1) 2 2
(2) insulated. The stopcock is suddenly opened.
2n d 2nd 2 What is the effect on internal energy of gas?
kBT (1) Increases
(3) 2
(4) Both (2) and (3)
2Pd (2) Decreases
6. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed (3) No change
10 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits the ground (4) May increase or decrease
after some time with a speed of 50 m/s. The 12. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to a
height of tower is (g = 10 m/s2) magnetising field of 1200 A/m. The relative
(1) 240 m (2) 120 m permeability of the material of the rod is
(3) 60 m (4) 80 m (1) 599 (2) 600
7. The colour code of a carbon resistor is given (3) 2.4  × 10–5 (4) 4 × 10–7
below. 13. The energy equivalent of 1 kg of a substance is
(1) 4.5 × 1015 J (2) 4.5 × 1016 J
(3) 9 × 1013 J (4) 9 × 1016 J
14. A 0.1 H inductor is connected to a 220 V, 50 Hz
ac supply. The rms value of the current in the
circuit is
The value of resistance with tolerance is given as
(1) 7 A (2) 8 A
(1) (4.2 k ± 5%) (2) (4.2 k ± 10%)
(3) 5 A (4) 7 2 A
(3) (4.3 k ± 10%) (4) (2.4 k ± 5%)
15. If E0 and B0 are the amplitudes of electric and
235
8. A radioactive element 92 X is bombarded with a magnetic field vectors in an electromagnetic
89 wave, then the ratio of energy densities due to
neutron, it generates 36 Y , three neutrons and
both fields is
A
56 Z . The value of A is (1) 1 : c (2) c : 1
(1) 140 (2) 148 (3) c2 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
(3) 144 (4) 142 16. The position of two point masses are shown in
the figure
9. A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a
charge of 3.2 C distributed uniformly over it. The
magnitude of electric field at a point 5 cm from
the centre of sphere is
The position of centre of mass is
(1) 1.28 × 105 N/C (2) 2.88 × 106 N/C
(1) (10, 0) (2) (6, 0)
(3) 1.15 × 107 N/C (4) Zero (3) (12, 0) (4) (8, 0)
10. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one 17. An unknown resistance R1 is connected in series
surface of small angle prism (prism angle is A) with resistance 10 . When the combination is
and emerges normally from the opposite surface. connected in left gap of a meter bridge and R2 is
The refractive index of material of prism is = 2. connected in right gap, the balance point from left
The angle of incidence is nearly (consider end is at 50 cm. When the 10  is removed the
incidence angle i small) balance point from left end becomes 40 cm. The
(1) 2A (2) A value of R1 is
A (1) 10  (2) 20 
(3) (4) 3A
4 (3) 50  (4) 40 
(2)
Test-1 (Code-A) Pre NEET Mock 2021
18. In Young’s double slit experiment, two slits 4 mm 25. The solids which have the negative temperature
apart, are illuminated by a light of wavelength coefficient of conductance is/are
600 nm. What will be the fringe width on a screen
(1) Metals (2) Insulators
placed 2 m from the slits?
(3) Semiconductors (4) Both (2) and (3)
(1) 0.3 mm (2) 3 mm
26. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with
(3) 4 mm (4) 0.12 mm
oil filled in space between plates is 40 F. If oil is
19. There is a current of 20 A in a wire of cross- removed then capacitance becomes 5 F. The
sectional area 0.01 cm 2. If number of free dielectric constant of the oil is
electrons per cubic metre is 1029, then the drift
velocity will be (1) 16 (2) 2
(1) 1.25 × 103 m/s (2) 2. 5 × 10–3 m/s (3) 4 (4) 8
(3) 2.5 × 10–4 m/s (4) 1.25 × 10–3 m/s 27. The daily intake of a human adult is nearly 107 J.
Its value in kilocalorie will be approximately
20. The dimensions of Young’s modulus ‘Y’ is
(1) 2400 (2) 2000
(1) [MLT–2] (2) [ML–1T–2]
(3) 1200 (4) 10000
(3) [M0L0T0] (4) [ML0T–2]
28. Depletion width of a p-n junction can be
21. Bohr’s atomic model
increased by
(1) Uses Einstein’s photoelectric equation
(1) Decreasing doping concentration
(2) Predicts continuous emission spectra for
(2) Reverse biasing
atoms
(3) Forward biasing
(3) Predicts same emission spectra for all types
of atom (4) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Assumed that the angular momentum of 29. Water is used as a coolant because it
electron is quantized (1) Has lower density
22. For a series LCR circuit, the power dissipated at (2) Is easily available
resonance is (symbols have their usual meaning)
(3) Has low specific heat
(I : rms current)
(4) Has high specific heat
V2
(1) (2) I2L 30. For the logic circuit shown the truth table is
( X L  XC )
(3) I2R (4) I2(XL – XC)
23. A capillary tube of radius r and height 2h is
immersed in water. The water rises up to height
h. The mass of water in the tube is 10 g. If the
whole system falls freely under gravity then the (1) A B Y (2) A B Y
mass of water that will rise in the tube is
0 0 0 0 0 1
(1) 20 g (2) 10 g
0 1 1 0 1 0
(3) 5 g (4) 40 g
1 0 1 1 0 0
24. Consider the statements.
(a) The limit of resolution of a microscope can be 1 1 1 1 1 0
decreased by filling a liquid of high refractive
index between object and the objective lens. (3) A B Y (4) A B Y
(b) Resolving power is inversely proportional to
0 0 1 0 0 0
wavelength .
0 1 1 0 1 0
Choose the correct statements.
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only 1 0 1 1 0 0
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b) 1 1 0 1 1 1
(3)
31. The bipolar junction transistor is used as a switch 37. The average translational kinetic energy of
‘ON’ in molecules of an ideal gas is (symbols have their
(1) Active region (2) Cut off region usual meanings)
(3) Saturation region (4) Both (2) and (3) 1 3

(1) kBT (2) kBT
32. A tuning fork A of frequency 510 Hz produces 4 2 2
beats per second when sounded with another 7 5
tuning fork B of unknown frequency. If B is (3) kBT (4) kBT
2 2
loaded with wax the number of beats is again 4
per second. The frequency of the tuning fork B 38. A force 7iˆ  3 ˆj  kˆ acts on a particle whose
before it was loaded is position vector is iˆ – jˆ  kˆ . The torque of the
(1) 510 Hz (2) 514 Hz given force about the origin is
(3) 512 Hz (4) 506 Hz
(1) 2iˆ  8 ˆj  10kˆ (2) 2iˆ  8 jˆ  10kˆ
33. The distance between H+ and Cl– ion in HCl
molecules is 1.38 Å. The electric potential due to (3) 2iˆ  8 jˆ  10kˆ (4) 2iˆ  8 jˆ  10kˆ
this dipole at a distance 10 Å on the equatorial
39. A light of frequency three times the threshold
line of the dipole is
frequency is incident on a photosensitive
(1) 0.2 V (2) 0.4 V material. Maximum kinetic energy of
(3) 0.1 V (4) Zero photoelectrons, if frequency of the incident light
34. A body weighs 250 N on the surface of earth. becomes half of its initial value, becomes
How much it weighs half way down to the centre (1) Four times of its initial value
of the earth? (2) Half of its initial value
(1) 250 N (2) 125 N
(3) Two times of its initial value
(3) 111 N (4) 75 N
(4) One fourth of its initial value
35. Which of the following graph represents the
40. A solenoid 100 cm long have 10 layers of
variation of resistivity () with absolute
winding of 200 turns each. If the current carried is
temperature (T) for nicrome?
2 A, then the magnetic field at the centre of the
solenoid is nearly
(1) 1 mT (2) 5 mT
(1) (2) (3) 10 mT (4) 3 mT
41. At what angle of incidence will the light reflected
from the glass ( = 1.5) be completely polarised?
3 4
(1) tan1   (2) tan1  
(3) (4) 4 3
3 2
(3) tan1   (4) tan1  
2 3
SECTION-B 42. An electron is accelerated through a potential
difference of 10000 V. The de Broglie wavelength
36. For an isolated uniformly charged spherical associated with the electron will be
conductor, the electrostatic
(1) 0.286 Å (2) 12.27 Å
(1) Potential is zero everywhere inside conductor
(3) 1.227 Å (4) 0.1227 Å
(2) Potential is non-zero constant inside the
conductor and equal to its value at the 43. The value of 100 + 0.40 with regards of
surface of conductor significant figure will be
(3) Field is zero inside the conductor (1) 100 (2) 100.4
(4) Both (2) and (3) are correct (3) 100.40 (4) 101
(4)
44. In a screw gauge, the main scale division is 1 mm 48. A sphere encloses an electric dipole within it. The
and there are 100 divisions on circular scale. The total electric flux through the sphere is
least count of screw gauge is (Pitch = 1 mm) (1) Zero
(1) 0.01 mm (2) 0.1 mm (2) Double of that due to a single charge
(3) 0.02 mm (4) 0.2 mm (3) Half that due to a single charge
45. The phase difference between displacement and (4) Dependent on the position of dipole inside
velocity of a body executing SHM is sphere
 49. If E is the energy of electron in nth orbit of
(1)  (2)
2 hydrogen atom, then the energy of electron in nth
 orbit of He+ will be
(3) (4) Zero
4 (1) E (2) 2E
46. A body is released from rest from the top of a (3) 4E (4) 8E
tower of height 3h. The ratio of the intervals of 50. The equivalent resistance of the circuit, as shown
time to cover the three equal heights h is in the figure, between points A and B if VA < VB is
(1) t1 : t2 : t3 = 1 : 3 : 5
(2) t1 : t2 : t3 = 1 : 2 : 5
(3) t1 : t2 : t3 = 3 : 2 :1
(4) t1 : t2 : t3 = 1 : ( 2  1) : ( 3  2)
47. Centripetal acceleration in uniform circular

motion is
(1) 10 
(1) A constant vector
(2) 5 
(2) Not a constant vector
(3) 20 
(3) A constant scalar
(4) 15 
(4) A magnitude changing vector
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A (a) (b) (c) (d)
51. The calculated spin only magnetic moment of (1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Mn2+ ion is
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(1) 4.90 BM
(2) 5.92 BM (3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(3) 2.84 BM (4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(4) 3.87 BM 53. The mixture which shows negative deviation from
52. Match the following and identify the correct Raoult’s law is
option. (1) Acetone + Aniline (2) Benzene + Toluene
(a) CO(g) + N2(g) (i) MgCl2 + CaSO4 (3) Benzene + acetone (4) Ethanol + Water
54. Identify the correct statement from the following :
(b) Permanent (ii) An electron (1) Copper matte contains high percentage of
hardness of precise hydride copper as Cu2O
water
(2) Vapour phase refining is carried out for Nickel
(c) CH4 (iii) Producer gas by Mond’s process
(3) Percentage of carbon in pig iron is about 1%
(d) B2H6 (iv) Lewis acid
(4) Cast iron is the purest form of Iron
(5)
55. Chocolate brown precipitate (A) is formed when 62. For the reaction, PCl5(g)  PCl3(g) + Cl2(g), the
aq. CuSO4 reacts with K4[Fe(CN)6]. What is the correct option is :
formula of A from the following? (1) rH = 0 and rS < 0
(1) CuCN (2) CuO
(2) rH < 0 and rS = 0
(3) Cu2O (4) Cu2[Fe(CN)6]
(3) rH < 0 and rS > 0
56. If for a reversible reaction the equilibrium
constant (KC) is 5 × 1012 at 25°C, the value of (4) rH > 0 and rS > 0
rG at the same temperature will be:

63. The calcium concentration in plasma is regulated
(1) – 8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 298 K × ln(2 × 1012) at about
(2) – 2.303 × 8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 298 K × (1) 10 mg L–1 (2) 100 mg L–1
log(5 × 1012) (3) 1 mg L–1 (4) 1000 mg L–1
(3) –8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 298 K × log(5 × 1012) 64. Identify the incorrect statement.
(4) – 2.303 × 8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 298 K × (1) The transition metals are known to form
ln(5 × 1012) complex compounds
57. Identify the incorrect match. (2) Interstitial compounds are usually non-
stoichiometric
Name IUPAC Official Name
(3) CrO24 and Cr2O72 are yellow coloured ions
(a) Unnilbium (i) Bohrium
(4) Cr2+ (d4) is reducing agent and Mn3+ (d4) is
(b) Unnilpentium (ii) Dubnium oxidizing agent in water
(c) Unniloctium (iii) Hassnium 65. Addition of a catalyst during a reaction leads to
change in
(d) Unnilennium (iv) Meitnerium
(1) Heat of reaction
(1) (a), (i) (2) (c), (iii) (2) Threshold energy
(3) (d), (iv) (4) (b), (ii) (3) Equilibrium constant
58. Which of the following is an acidic amino (4) Gibb’s energy
acid ? 66. Reaction between trimethylacetaldehyde and
(1) Glycine (2) Glutamic acid formaldehyde in presence of conc. NaOH is
(3) Leucine (4) Arginine known as
(1) Cannizzaro’s reaction
59. What is the change in oxidation number of
carbon in the following reaction? (2) Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction
1 (3) Mixed Aldol condensation

CO(g)  O2 (g)  CO2 (g)
2 (4) Aldol condensation
(1) 0 to + 4 (2) – 4 to + 4 67. A benzyl carbocation is more stable than a
methyl carbocation because of which of the
(3) + 2 to + 4 (4) – 2 to + 4
following?
60. Maltose on hydrolysis gives (1) Resonance effect
(1) -D-Glucose +-D-Glucose (2) Inductive effect
(2) -D-Glucose +-D-Galactose (3) Electromeric effect
(3) -D-Fructose +-D-Glucose (4) Hyper conjugation effect
(4) -D-Glucose +-D-Fructose 68. Find out the solubility of AgCl in 0.1 M HCl. Given
that the ionic product of AgCl is 1.8 × 10–10
61. The number of Faradays(F) required to produce
2.3 g of sodium from molten NaCl (Atomic mass (1) 1.8 × 10–10 M
of Na = 23 g mol–1) is (2) 1.8 × 10–9 M
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.1 (3) 1.34 × 10–5 M
(3) 0.4 (4) 0.5 (4) 1.25 × 10–8 M
(6)
69. Identify a molecule which is paramagnetic in 75. Thin layer chromatography is another type of
nature. (1) Partition chromatography
(1) N2 (2) H2 (2) Paper chromatography
(3) O2 (4) He2 (3) Column chromatography
70. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to form (4) Adsorption chromatography
pent-1-ene by using potassium tert. butoxide is
76. Formula of caro’s acid is
(a) -Elimination reaction
(1) H2SO5 (2) H2S2O6
(b) Follows Hofmann’s elimination rule
(3) H2S2O7 (4) H2S2O8
(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
(1) Only (a) (2) Only (a) and (b) 77. The rate constant for a first order reaction is
6.93 × 10–3 s–1. The Half-life period of the reaction is
(3) Only (b) and (c) (4) (a), (b), (c)
(1) 10 s (2) 10000 s
71. The potential difference between the fixed
charged layer and the diffused layer having (3) 1000 s (4) 100 s
opposite charges is known as 78. Which of the following alkanes can be prepared
(1) Electrode potential in good yield by Wurtz reaction?
(2) Streaming potential (1) (2)
(3) Zeta potential
(4) Electrochemical potential (3) (4)
72. The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in
31 3  79. Match the following:
15 P respectively, are
(1) 15, 18 and 16 Oxide Nature
(2) 15, 16 and 18 (a) SO3 (i) Basic

(3) 16, 15 and 18 (b) As2O3 (ii) Neutral
(4) 18, 16 and 15 (c) CaO (iii) Acidic
73. Identify the correct statements from the (d) N2O (iv) Amphoteric
following: Which of the following is correct option?
(a) Solid CO is known as dry ice
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(b) The structure of C60 contains twenty six
carbon rings and twelve five carbon rings. (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(c) Hydrated zeolites are used as an ion (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
exchanger in softening of hard water
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(d) CO2 is colorless and odourless gas.
(1) (a) and (c) only (4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (b) and (c) only 80. Total pressure of a gaseous mixture containing
(3) (c) and (d) only 28 g N2 and 16 g O2 in a cylinder of volume
8.21 L at 300 K is
(4) (b), (c) and (d) only
[Given: R = 0.0821 L atm mol–1 K–1]
74. An element has a face centered cubic (fcc)
structure with a cell edge of 200 pm. The atomic (1) 3.5 atm (2) 2.5 atm
radius is (3) 4.5 atm (4) 5.5 atm
3 1 81. An alkene on ozonolysis gives ethanal as one of
(1)  200 pm (2)  200 pm
2 2 the product. Its structure is
1 2 (1) CH2 = CH2 (2) CH3 – CH = CH2
(3)  200 pm (4)  200 pm
2 2 3 (3) C2H5CH = CHC2H5 (4) (CH3)2C = CH2
(7)
82. The boiling point elevation constant (Kb) of water 89. Crude sodium chloride contains
is 0.52 K kg mol–1.The boiling point of 0.1 m aq. (1) Only Na2SO4
solution of urea is (2) Only CaSO4
(1) 105.2°C (2) 1002.5°C (3) Na2SO4, CaSO4 and CaCl2
(3) 100.52°C (4) 100.052°C (4) Only CaSO4 and CaCl2
83. The incorrect option for cyclic process for an 90. Which of the following is correct statement about
ideal gas is carbon monoxide?
(1) H = 0 (2) W = 0 (1) It is highly soluble in water
(3) U = 0 (4) S = 0 (2) It is a powerful oxidizing agent
84. Which one of the following has minimum number (3) It increases oxygen carrying ability of blood
of molecules?
(4) It is a component of synthesis gas
(1) 10 g H2 (2) 88 g CO2
91. Phenetole on cleavage with HI gives
(3) 51 g NH3 (4) 18 g H2O
85. Identify compound Y in the following sequence of
reactions
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
92. Which of the following amines will not react with

(1) (2)
Hinsberg’s reagent?
(1) (CH3)2NH (2) (CH3)3N
(3) CH3NH2 (4) C6H5NH2
93. Reaction between acetaldehyde and
(3) (4)
ethylmagnesium chloride followed by hydrolysis
will give
SECTION-B (1) Sec. butyl alcohol (2) Tert. butyl alcohol
86. Which of the following ligand has the highest (3) Isobutyl alcohol (4) Sec. propyl alcohol
ligand field strength among the following? 94. On electrolysis of dil. NaCl using Platinum (Pt)
(1) OH– (2) H2O electrode, the product obtained at cathode will be
(3) CO (4) NH3 (1) O2 gas (2) Na
87. Which of the following is a condensation (3) Cl2 gas (4) H2 gas
polymer? 95. Which of the following is an anionic detergent?
(1) Nylon 6, 6 (1) Glyceryl palmitate
(2) Buna-S (2) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium chloride
(3) PVC (3) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate
(4) Teflon (4) Glyceryloleate
88. Which of the following molecules will have non- 96 Correct option for the position of Al in periodic
zero dipole moment? table is
(1) 1,2-dichlorobenzene (1) 13th group, 3rd period
(2) 1,3,5-trichlorobenzene (2) 3rd group, 3rd period
(3) 1,4-dichlorobenzene (3) 3rd group, 4th period
(4) Hexachlorobenzene (4) 14th group, 4th period
(8)
97. Thermally least stable carbonate among the

following is 99. IUPAC name of is
(1) SrCO3
(2) MgCO3 (1) 4-bromo-1-chloro-2,3-dimethyl butane
(3) CaCO3 (2) 4-chloro-1-bromo-2,3-dimethyl butane

(3) 1-chloro-4-bromo-2,3-dimethyl butane
(4) BaCO3
(4) 1-bromo-4-chloro-2,3-dimethyl butane
98. The anionic unit of ortho silicates is
100. Clemmensen reduction is used for the reduction
(1) Si2O24 (2) Si3O96  of
(1) Alcohols (2) Carboxylic acid
(3) SiO 44  (4) Si4O64 
(3) Cyanides (4) Ketones
BOTANY
SECTION-A (1) A – 2NH3, B – O2 (2) A – NO3 , B – H2O
101. Select the pairs in which both the structures (3) A – 2NH3, B – H2 (4) A – NO3 , B – H2
belong to two different generations.
(a) Pollen and male gametes 105. Sapwood can be differentiated from heartwood
because
(b) Anther and microspores
(1) Sapwood does not conduct water and
(c) Embryo sac and ovule
minerals but provides support
(d) Ovary and ovule
(2) Heartwood is secondary xylem while
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (b) and (c) sapwood is primary xylem
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (a), (c) and (d) (3) Heartwood is deposited with tannins, resins
102. During photorespiration, RuBP binds with O2 to and oils whereas sapwood lack them
form
(4) Heartwood conducts water as well as
(1) 1 molecule of PGA only provides mechanical support
(2) 1 molecule of PGA and 1 molecule of 106. Dried spores of Bacillus thuringiensis are used as
phosphoglycolate biocontrol agent to control
(3) 2 molecules of PGA (1) Mosquitoes
(4) 1 molecule of 3C compound and 1 molecule (2) Butterfly caterpillars
of 4C compound
(3) Dragonflies
103. Select the incorrect statement for productivity in
the ecosystem. (4) Fungus of roots of higher plant
(1) GPP is rate of production of organic matter 107. Choose the odd one w.r.t. filamentous algae.
by producers during photosynthesis per unit (1) Ulothrix (2) Spirogyra
time and area
(3) Volvox (4) Ectocarpus
(2) NPP is less than GPP
108. Cones or strobili are absent in
(3) GPP is available biomass for consumption to
heterotrophs (1) Pinus (2) Selaginella
(4) NPP is rate of organic matter stored by (3) Equisetum (4) Pteris
producers in excess of respiratory loss 109. Which of the given enzymes of prokaryotes
104. Read the below given conversion: performs dual function i.e. opening of DNA helix
and polymerisation of nucleotides?
N2 + 8e– + 8H+ + 16 ATP  A + B + 16 ADP +
16 Pi (1) DNA polymerase I (2) RNA polymerase
Identify A and B and select the correct option. (3) DNA polymerase III (4) Helicase
(9)
110. Which of the given is true for G1 phase? 117. Match the columns and select the correct option.
(1) High metabolic activity Column-I Column-II
(2) Synthesis of deoxyribonucleic acid
(a) Zygotene (i) Recombination
(3) Reorganisation of cell components between homologous
(4) Duplication of mitochondria chromosomes
111. Select the incorrect statement for inclusion (b) Diplotene (ii) Formation of
bodies. synaptonemal
(1) Store reserve food material complex
(2) Not bound by any membrane system (c) Pachytene (iii) Terminalisation of
(3) They lie freely in cytoplasm chiasmata
(4) Found in eukaryotes only (d) Diakinesis (iv) Chiasmata formation
112. The total number of substrate level (a) (b) (c) (d)
phosphorylation reactions that occur during
conversion of 1 glucose into two pyruvic acids is (1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(1) 2 (2) 4 (2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(3) 1 (4) 8 (3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
113. Which of the given attributes is seen in an
(4) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
individual organism not in a population?
(1) Birth 118. Which plant growth regulator increases malt yield
in malt industries?
(2) Immigration
(3) Sex ratio (1) Ethylene (2) Cytokinin
(4) Death rate (3) Auxin (4) Gibberellins
114. According to Robert May’s scientifically sound 119. Epigynous flower is found in
estimate the number of global species diversity is (1) Plum (2) China rose
about (3) Guava (4) Mustard
(1) 20 to 50 million 120. If the distance between two consecutive base
(2) 1.5 to 1.7 million pairs is 0.34 nm, then calculate the length of E.
(3) 7 million coli DNA having 4.6 × 106 bp.
(4) 22 million (1) 2.2 m (2) 1.2 m

115. Identify the plant part on the basis of below given (3) 1.8 m (4) 1.56 mm
features. 121. The process of translation of the m-RNA to
(a) Conjoint closed vascular bundles protein begins when
(b) Pith and phloem parenchyma are absent (1) m-RNA binds with small subunit of ribosome
(c) Hypodermis is sclerenchymatous (2) t-RNA binds to m-RNA
(1) Monocot root (2) Dicot stem (3) One amino acid binds with other amino acid
(3) Monocot stem (4) Dicot root (4) Ribosome binds with t-RNA
116. In 1992, Earth summit was held for 122. Identify the wrong statement for ABO blood
(1) Control of emission of ozone depleting grouping in human beings.
substances (1) Blood group AB have both the antigens
(2) Conservation of biodiversity and sustainable (2) Six genotypes and four phenotypes are
utilisation of its benefits possible
(3) Control of disposal of waste (3) Allele i produce O type of sugar
(4) Control of release of greenhouse gases (4) Gene I has 3 alleles
(10)
123. Mark the incorrectly matched pair w.r.t. given 128. Which of the following is correct for DNA?
terrestrial food chain. (1) Adenine pairs with guanine by covalent
Plants  Rat  Snake  Eagle bonds
(2) Adenine pairs with thymine by 3 hydrogen
(1) Plants – First trophic level
bonds
(2) Rat – Primary consumer (3) Guanine pairs with cytosine by 3 covalent
bonds
(3) Snake – Secondary consumer
(4) A purine always pairs with a pyrimidine
(4) Eagle – Third trophic level
129. Match the following essential elements with their
124. In noncyclic photophosphorylation, plastocyanin functions in plants.
transfers electrons between
Column-I Column-II
(1) Cyt b6f to PS I
(a) Molybdenum (i) Activates catalase
(2) PS I to NADP+
(3) PS II to Cyt b6f (b) Copper (ii) Component of
nitrogenase
(4) PS I to ATP synthase
(c) Iron (iii) Activator for
125. Match the columns and select the correct option.
PEPcase
Column-I Column-II
(d) Magnesium (iv) Involved in redox
(a) Streptokinase (i) Acetobacter reaction
(b) Statins (ii) Trichoderma (a) (b) (c) (d)

polysporum
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(c) Acetic acid (iii) Monascus (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
purpureus
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(d) Cyclosporin A (iv) Streptococcus
(4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
130. Which of the following promotes seed
(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) germination?
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (1) Abscisic acid (2) Phenolic acid
(3) Gibberellic acid (4) Para-ascorbic acid
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
131. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) proposed by
126. Cells enter in quiescent stage (1) Morgan
(1) At the end of G1 phase (2) Sturtevant
(2) Where they remain metabolically inactive (3) Mendel
(3) When they do not want to proliferate (4) Sutton and Boveri
132. Which part of ovule stores abundant food
(4) Both (1) and (3)
reserves?
127. Snow blindness is not related to
(1) Chalaza (2) Integument
(1) Inflammation of cornea
(3) Funicle (4) Nucellus
(2) UV-B exposure 133. Synapsis occurs during
(3) Damage of retina by infrared radiation (1) Pachytene (2) Zygotene
(4) Ozone layer depletion (3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis
(11)
134. Which algal group stores food material similar to 142. Ray florets of sunflower
amylopectin and glycogen?
(1) Are epigynous
(1) Chlorophyceae (2) Phaeophyceae
(2) Have superior ovary
(3) Cyanophyceae (4) Rhodophyceae
(3) Have half superior ovary
135. Select the correct match.
(4) Are perigynous
(1) Sickle cell Autosomal dominant
143. Secondary treatment of sewage
anaemia disorder
(1) Is physical process
(2) Thalassemia Related to chromosome
11 and 16 (2) Involves aeration tank and anaerobic sludge
digester
(3) Phenylketonuria Y linked disorder
(3) Produces primary sludge
(4) Haemophilia X linked dominant
(4) Removes floating debris
disorder
144. How many characters of pea plant were taken by
Mendel for hybridisation experiment?
SECTION-B
(1) 7 (2) 14
136. The initial phase of growth when growth rate is
very slow is (3) 10 (4) 8
(1) Lag phase 145. Roots originate from the base of stem in
(2) Log phase (1) Banyan (2) Wheat
(3) Exponential phase (3) Peepal (4) Gram
(4) Stationary phase
146. Which of the following surface structures helps
137. The process responsible for guttation is bacteria in locomotion?
(1) Transpiration pull (1) Cilia (2) Fimbriae
(2) Due to negative hydrostatic pressure (3) Pili (4) Flagella
(3) Imbibition
147. Identify the characteristic feature of living
(4) Root pressure organisms which is not considered as defining
138. In all of the following aquatic plants pollination property.
occur by water current, except (1) Cellular organisation
(1) Vallisneria
(2) Intrinsic growth
(2) Hydrilla
(3) Metabolism
(3) Zostera
(4) Reproduction
(4) Water lily
148. Opposite phyllotaxy is seen in
139. Processing and packaging of proteins is done at
(1) Golgi bodies (2) SER (1) Mustard (2) Alstonia
(3) Ribosome (4) Lysosome (3) China rose (4) Calotropis
140. _______ in South America has the greatest 149. Identify the dioecious plant among these.
biodiversity on earth. (1) Riccia (2) Funaria
Complete the above statement by choosing
(3) Maize (4) Marchantia
correct option.
(1) Colombia (2) Ecuador 150. A biofortified variety of wheat is
(3) New York (4) Amazon rainforest (1) Sonalika

141. Viroids differ from virus as they (2) Kalyan Sona
(1) Have RNA (2) Have protein coat (3) Atlas-66
(3) Have DNA (4) Lack capsid (4) Pusa Lerma
(12)
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 153. Insect pest resistant plant, developed by the
151. Match the organism with its use in biotechnology. introduction of genes of Bacillus thuringiensis is
(a) Thermus (i) First rDNA (1) Flavr Savr tomato

aquaticus constructed by Cohen (2) Tobacco plant
and Boyer
(3) Bt cotton
(b) Agrobacterium (ii) Forms insecticidal (4) Golden rice
tumefaciens proteins in inactive
154. Identify the wrong statement with reference to
form
transport of oxygen.
(c) Bacillus (iii) Used as a vector to (1) Low H+ concentration in alveoli favours the
thuringiensis introduce nematode formation of oxyhaemoglobin
specific genes into the
host plant (2) Formation of oxyhaemoglobin is mainly
related to partial pressure of CO2
(d) Salmonella (iv) Taq polymerase is (3) High pCO2 in tissues favours the dissociation
typhimurium used for extension of oxyhaemoglobin
step in PCR
(4) High pO2 in alveoli favours the formation of
Select the correct option from the following given oxyhaemoglobin
options.
155. Match the following diseases with the causative
(a) (b) (c) (d) organism and select the correct option.
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) Column-I Column-II
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (a) Elephantiasis (i) Trichophyton
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(b) Ringworm (ii) Wuchereria malayi
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(c) Malignant (iii) Entamoeba
152. Match the following and choose the correct malaria histolytica
option.
(d) Amoebiasis (iv) Plasmodium
(a) Inhibitor (i) Most abundant protein in falciparum
animal world
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(b) Abrin (ii) Homopolysaccharide
present in exoskeleton of (1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
insects
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(c) Collagen (iii) A plant toxin, considered
as secondary metabolite (3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(d) Chitin (iv) A chemical which shuts off (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
enzyme activity
156. First meiotic division of primary oocyte is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
completed
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(1) At the time of copulation within fallopian tube
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (2) After formation of ovum within the ovary
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (3) At the time of fertilization within ampulla
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (4) Within tertiary follicle prior to ovulation
(13)
157. ‘Hisardale’ developed in Punjab by crossing (3) Genetically engineered insulin is produced in
Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams is a new breed of Entamoeba coli in its active and ready made
(1) Sheep form
(2) Cattle (4) In man, insulin is synthesized within -cells of

pancreas
(3) Goat
163. Select the correct statement.
(4) Chicken
(1) Glucagon is a hypoglycemic hormone
158. Choose the correct pair from the following.
(2) Receptors for insulin are present on -cells of
(1) DNA – Separate the two pancreas
polymerases strands of DNA (3) Glucocorticoids stimulate glycogenolysis
(2) Nucleases – Break the nucleotides (4) Insulin is associated with transport of glucose
into nucleosides in adipocytes
164. Match the following columns and select the
(3) Restriction – Make cuts at specific correct option.
endonucleases positions within DNA
Column-I Column-II
(4) Ligases – Break the DNA into
(a) Body is devoid (i) Torpedo
fragments
of scales and
159. The stage of Plasmodium that infects mosquito to paired fins
complete its sexual cycle is (b) Presence of (ii) Scoliodon
(1) Sporozoites electric organ
(2) Gametocytes (c) Pelvic fins bear (iii) Petromyzon
(3) Trophozoites claspers
(4) Merozoites (d) Presence of air (iv) Pterophyllum
bladder
160. Select the correct events that occur during
expiration. (a) (b) (c) (d)
a. Contraction of diaphragm (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
b. Pulmonary volume decreases as diaphragm (2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
becomes dome shaped
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
c. Increase in intra-pulmonary pressure
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
d. Contraction of external inter-costal muscles
165. Identify the wrong statement with regard to
(1) a and b
restriction enzymes.
(2) b and c (1) Restriction enzymes belong to a larger class
(3) c and d of enzymes called nucleases
(4) a and d (2) Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the
ends of DNA
161. The end of T-wave in a standard ECG represents
(3) Sticky ends can be joined by using restriction
(1) Depolarisation of auricles
enzymes at the place of DNA ligases
(2) Depolarisation of ventricle (4) Each restriction enzyme functions by
(3) The end of ventricular systole inspecting the length of DNA sequence
(4) The end of joint diastole 166. Columnar epithelium with microvilli is found in the
inner lining of
(1) Pancreatic duct
(1) The functional insulin has A and B chains
linked together by disulphide bonds (2) PCT of nephron
(2) The proinsulin has an extra peptide called B- (3) Small intestine
peptide (4) External auditory meatus
(14)
167. Match the following columns and select the 172. Match the following columns and select the
correct option. correct option
Column-I Column-II Column-I Column-II
(a) cry gene (i) A single stranded DNA (a) Eosinophils (i) Synthesize and release
or RNA, tagged with a anticoagulant heparin
radioactive molecule
(b) Basophils (ii) Associated with allergic
(b) Adenosine (ii) Isolated from Bacillus reactions of the body
deaminase thuringiensis
(c) Neutrophils (iii) Produce memory cells
(c) RNA (iii) Enzyme which is
after first encounter
interference crucial for the immune
system to function (d) Lymphocytes (iv) Act as a cellular barrier
of innate immunity
(d) Probe (iv) Involves silencing of a
specific mRNA (a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
173. Embryological support for evolution was
168. Which of the following is the most abundant proposed by
protein in whole of the biosphere? (1) Louis Pasteur
(1) Collagen (2) S. L. Miller
(2) Lectin (3) Haldane
(3) Insulin (4) Ernst Haeckel
(4) RuBisCO 174. The acoelomate animals, which are triploblastic,
169. Which of the following will cause release of ovum having dorso-ventrally flattened body, are placed
from the Graafian follicle? in phylum
(1) High concentration of progesterone (1) Platyhelminthes (2) Aschelminthes
(2) High concentration of LH (3) Annelida (4) Ctenophora
(3) Low concentration of FSH 175. Which of the following is more likely to cause
(4) Low concentration of estrogen diuresis?
170. Wings of butterfly and wings of birds are (1) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from distal
examples of parts of renal tubules due to aldosterone
(1) Convergent evolution (2) Decrease in secretion of atrial natriuretic
(2) Industrial melanism factor which causes vasoconstriction
(3) Natural selection (3) Increase in secretion of renin by JG cells
(4) Adaptive radiation (4) Less water reabsorption from distal parts of
nephrons and collecting ducts due to under
171. Select the option including all sexually
secretion of ADH
transmitted diseases.
176. The females who cannot conceive, can be
(1) Syphilis, Tuberculosis, Genital warts
assisted by test tube baby programme, which
(2) Malaria, Filariasis, Gonorrhoea includes
(3) Genital herpes, Chlamydiasis, Trichomoniasis (1) GIFT and ZIFT (2) IUI and ZIFT
(4) AIDS, Filariasis, Hepatitis-B (3) GIFT and ICSI (4) ZIFT and IUT
(15)
177. Which of the following statements are true for 181. Choose the incorrect statement with reference
phylum Chordata? to restriction enzymes.
a. In cephalochordates, notochord extends from (1) The specific palindromic sequence which is
head to tail and it is present throughout their recognized by EcoRI is 5–CTTAAG–3
life
    3–GAATTC–5
b. All vertebrates are chordates but all
chordates are not vertebrates  (2) Restriction enzymes may cut the strands of
DNA a little away from the centre of the
c. Central neural system is dorsal and solid
palindrome sites
d. Chordates are divided into two subphyla,
Agnatha and Gnathostomata (3) Restriction endonucleases are used in
genetic engineering to form ‘recombinant’
(1) a and b (2) b and c
molecule of DNA
(3) c and d (4) a and c
(4) These enzymes cut the strands of DNA
178. Match the following columns and select the between the same two bases on the opposite
correct option. strands
Column-I Column-II 182. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond
(a) Pituitary gland (i) Diabetes mellitus and peptide bond, respectively in their structure.
(b) Thyroid gland (ii) Acromegaly (1) Glycerol, Chymotrypsin
(c) Adrenal gland (iii) Exopthalmic goitre (2) Starch, Inulin
(d) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s disease (3) Gingelly oil, Insulin

(a) (b) (c) (d) (4) Glycogen, Pepsin
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) 183. Match the following columns and select the
correct option.
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) Column-I Column-II
(4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (a) Malleus (i) Space within cochlea
179. From his experiments, S.L Miller produced which is filled with
endolymph
(1) Amino acids by mixing CH3, H2, NH4 and
water vapour at 800°C (b) Scala media (ii) Contains hair cells
(2) Sugars by mixing CH4, NH3, H2 and water that act as auditory
vapour at 600°C receptors
(3) Nitrogen bases by mixing CH3, N2, NH3 and
(c) Organ of Corti (iii) Composed of semi-
water vapour at 600°C
circular canals and
(4) Amino acids by mixing CH4, H2, NH3 and otolith
water vapour at 800°C
180. Identify the correct statement with reference to (d) Vestibular (iv) Attached to the incus
human digestive system. apparatus bone medially
(1) Serosa is made up of thin endothelium (a) (b) (c) (d)

without connective tissues
(2) Mucosa forms crypts of Lieberkuhn in (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
between the bases of villi in small intestine
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) Caecum and vermiform appendix participate
in digestion of cellulose (3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(4) Back flow of the faecal matter from ileum into
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
caecum is prevented by ileo-caecal valve
(16)
184. Identify the correct statement with reference to 188. Oxyntic cells secrete HCl which helps in
immunity. conversion of
(1) When ready-made antibodies are directly (1) Trypsinogen into trypsin
given, it is called “passive immunity” (2) Chymotrypsinogen into chymotrypsin
(2) Active immunity is quick and give its full (3) Pepsinogen into pepsin
effective response in less time (4) Procarboxypeptidase into carboxypeptidase
(3) Foetus receives IgG antibodies from mother 189. Match the following columns and select the
through placenta, it is an example of natural correct option.
active immunity
Column-I Column-II
(4) If a person is infected with tetanus bacterium
(Clostridium tetani), immunisation with anti- (a) Adult with radial (i) Pleurobrachia
tetanus serum will provide active immunity to symmetry and larva
the person with bilateral symmetry
185. In between brush border cells of small intestine, (b) Gregarious insect (ii) Limulus
certain cells are modified to secrete mucus called (c) Book gills (iii) Ophiura
goblet cells, which are modified
(d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta
(1) Columnar cells (2) Cuboidal cells
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) Squamous cells (4) Polygonal cells
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
SECTION-B (2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
186. Which of the following secondary metabolites are
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
produced by plants for their defence action?
(1) Morphine and chlorophyll (4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(2) Nicotine and carotenoids 190. Hyperglycemia, ketonuria and glycosuria are
indicative of
(3) Strychnine and caffeine
(1) Diabetes insipidus (2) Diabetes mellitus
(4) Terpenoids and glucose
(3) Addison’s disease (4) Dwarfism
correct option. 191. Match the following columns and select the
correct option.
Column-I Column-II
Column-I Column-II
(a) Placenta (i) Secretes hormones
(a) Vertebrosternal (i) Has two curvatures
which are either
ribs and commonly
proteins or steroids in
known as collar
chemical nature
bone
(b) Zona (ii) Acellular layer of the
(b) Acromion (ii) Formed by fusion
pellucida ovum formed by
of ilium, ischium
secondary oocyte
and pubis
(c) Cells of Sertoli (iii) Rich in calcium,
(c) Acetabulum (iii) Commonly known
fructose and certain
as true ribs and all
enzymes
are bicephalic
(d) Seminal (iv) Release certain factors (d) Clavicle (iv) Flat expanded
plasma which help in process of spine of
spermiogenesis scapula
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) (1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(17)
192. Choose the correct statement with reference to 197. Corpus callosum, a tract of nerve fibres present
neural system of cockroach. in our brain, connects
(1) If head of cockroach is removed, it may live (1) Forebrain to midbrain
for few days because head holds only a bit of
(2) Midbrain to hindbrain
a nervous system
(3) Left and right cerebral hemispheres
(2) The cockroach has only four ganglia in thorax
(3) The supra-oesophageal ganglion of (4) Association areas with brain stem
cockroach is not considered as its brain 198. Who among the following hominids, used hides
(4) The nervous system of cockroach is not to protect their body and buried their deads?
spread throughout the body (1) Homo habilis
193. All of the following organisms have evolved due (2) Homo erectus
to changes in environment brought about by
anthropogenic action except : (3) Neanderthal man
(1) Drug resistant eukaryotic organisms (4) Modern Homo sapiens
(2) Bacteria resistant to antibiotics 199. Select the incorrect match.
(3) Darwin’s finches of Galapagos islands (1) Lactational – Natural method of

(4) Man-created new breed of cattle producing amenorrhea contraception
protein enriched milk (2) Lippes loop – Barrier method of
194. Identify the aromatic amino acid from the contraception
following.
(3) Progestasert – Hormone releasing
(1) Aspartic acid (2) Arginine IUD
(3) Alanine (4) Tryptophan (4) Sterilization – Terminal method to
195. Separated bands of DNA in agarose gel prevent any more
electrophoresis observed under UV radiation are pregnancies
stained with
200. Select the incorrect statement with reference to
(1) Methylene blue (2) Ethidium bromide transgenic animals
(3) Acetocarmine (4) Coomassie blue (1) The animals that have had their DNA
196. The gene sequence encoding resistance to manipulated are termed as transgenic
antibiotic, which helps in identifying and animals
eliminating non-transformants and selectively (2) Human protein, -1-antitrypsin is used to
permitting the growth of transformants is called treat emphysema
(1) ori
(3) Transgenic mice are being used to test the
(2) Palindromic sequence safety of the polio vaccine
(3) Cloning site (4) The first transgenic cow, Rosie, produced
(4) Selectable marker human lactase enriched milk (2.4 g/litre)

(18)
06/09/2021 CODE-A
CST – 21
Instructions:
PHYSICS
SECTION-A 4. A ball is projected horizontally with velocity 4 m/s
from the top of a building 19.6 m high. The
1. Which among the following forces has the
distance of the point from the bottom of the
shortest range?
building where ball will hit the ground is
(1) Strong nuclear force (g = 9.8 ms–2)
(2) Weak nuclear force (1) 4 m (2) 12 m
(3) Electromagnetic force (3) 8 m (4) 6 m
(4) Gravitational force 5. A body of mass m is suspended by a spring
balance having spring constant 50 N/m on an
2. If radius of the sphere is (5.0 ± 0.2) cm, then the
inclined plane as shown in figure. If spring
percentage error in its surface area is balance measure 200 N, then value of m will be
(1) 4% (2) 2% (g = 10 m/s2)
(3) 6% (4) 8%
3. A river 2 km wide is flowing at the rate of 2 km/h.
A boatman, can row a boat at a speed of 6 km/h
in still water, goes 4 km upstream and then
comes back. The time taken by him to complete
the journey will be
(1) 90 min (2) 80 min (1) 5 kg (2) 40 kg
(3) 60 min (4) 30 min (3) 20 kg (4) 10 kg
(1)
6. A light and a heavy body have equal linear 11. Lateral strain to longitudinal strain ratio for a solid
momentum. Which one has greater kinetic material is called
energy? (1) Young’s modulus of elasticity
(1) The light body (2) Bulk modulus of elasticity
(2) The heavy body (3) Poisson’s ratio
(3) Both have equal kinetic energy
(4) Reynold’s number
(4) Insufficient information
12. If pressure at half of the depth of lake is equal to
7. A ball is dropped from a height of 10 m hits the 3
ground. If coefficient of restitution between the pressure at the bottom of the lake, then what
4
1 is the depth of the lake? (Patm = 105 N/m2)
ball and ground is , then the percentage loss
2
(1) 20 m (2) 10 m
of energy after the first collision will be
(3) 40 m (4) 5 m
(1) 50% (2) 25%
13. Water is heated from 0°C to 3°C, then its volume
(3) 40% (4) 75%
(1) Will increase
8. The moment of inertia of a square lamina of side
a and mass M about an axis passing through the (2) Will decrease
centre of mass and perpendicular to the plane is (3) Remain constant
2
Ma 3Ma 2 (4) First increase then decrease
(1) (2)
12 5 14. If the internal energy of n1 mole of Helium at
Ma 2
Ma 2 temperature 12T is equal to internal energy of n2
(3) (4) n
6 4 mole of hydrogen at 5T. The ratio of 2 is
n1
9. A block of mass 2m is connected with a string
which is wound over a pulley of mass m and 3
(1)
radius R as shown in figure. If the system is 5
released from rest, then angular acceleration of
the pulley will be 5
(2)
3
36
(3)
25
(4) 1
15. Which of the following P-T diagram best
represents an adiabatic process (γ = 1.5) for an
ideal gas?
2g 2g
(1) (2)
5R 3R
4g 4g
(3) (4) (1) (2)
5R 3R
10. The mass and diameter of a planet are thrice
those of earth. The period of oscillation of
pendulum on the planet will be (If it is seconds
pendulum on the earth)
(1) 2 s (2) 6 s (3) (4)
(3) 3 s (4) 2 3 s
(2)
16. A hot and a cold body are kept in vacuum 22. The total power dissipated in the circuit as shown
separated from each other. Which of the in the figure will be
following causes decrease in temperature of the
hot body?
(1) Conduction
(2) Convection
(3) Radiation (1) 25 W (2) 35 W
(4) Temperature remains same (3) 75 W (4) 40 W
17. A particle executes SHM with amplitude 0.4 m 23. AB is a potentiometer wire of length 100 cm and
and time period 24 s. The distance travelled by its resistance is 20 Ω. It is connected in series
the particle in 10 s is (initially particle is at its with resistance 30 Ω and a battery of emf 4 V
and negligible internal resistance. If a source of
mean position)
unknown emf is balanced by 60 cm length of
(1) 0.2 m (2) 0.4 m potentiometer wire, the value of E is
(3) 0.8 m (4) 0.6 m
18. A closed pipe of length 33 cm resonates with
frequency of 750 Hz. If the speed of the sound is
330 m/s, then this frequency is
(1) Fundamental frequency of pipe
(2) Third harmonic of pipe
(3) Sixth harmonic of the pipe
(4) Fourth harmonic of the pipe (1) 1.6 V (2) 0.64 V
19. If T is the reverberation time of an auditorium of (3) 0.96 V (4) 3.4 V
volume V then 24. A proton of energy 12 eV is moving in a circular
path in uniform magnetic field. The energy of an
1
(1) T ∝ V (2) T ∝ alpha particle moving in the same magnetic field
V2 and along the same path will be
1 (1) 8 eV (2) 12 eV
(3) T ∝ (4) T ∝ V2
V (3) 4 eV (4) 16 eV
20. Choose the incorrect statement among the 25. Earth’s magnetic field always has horizontal
component except at
followings.
(1) Magnetic equator
(1) In a uniform electric field, the field lines are
(2) Magnetic poles
straight parallel and uniformly spaced
(3) Every where
(2) The electrostatic field lines can never form (4) Geographical north pole
closed loops
26. In the following circuit, the energy stored in the
(3) Electric field lines are always directed from inductor in steady state condition will be
lower potential to higher potential
(4) Direction of electric field lines may also give
us an indication of the equipotential surface
(surface which has the same potential)
21. The electric potential V is given as a function of
distance x (meter) as V = (10x2 + 5x + 2) volt.
The magnitude of electric force on 2 µC charge
placed at x = 1 m will be
(1) 20 µN (2) 40 µN (1) 8 J (2) 10 J
(3) 25 µN (4) 50 µN (3) 4 J (4) Zero
(3)
27. A transformer works on the principle of 35. The kinetic energy of an electron in an orbit of
radius r in hydrogen atom is (e is electronic
(1) Self-induction
1 
(2) Mutual induction charge, k =
4πε0 
(3) Electrical inertia
ke 2 ke 2
(4) Magnetic effect of electrical current (1) (2)
r2 r
28. In a plano-convex lens (µ = 1.5) the radius of
ke 2 ke 2
curvature of the curved face is 20 cm. If the plane (3) (4)
2r 2r 2
side is silverised, then the focal length will be
SECTION-B
(1) 10 cm (2) 30 cm
36. The energy of He+ in the ground state is
(3) 20 cm (4) 5 cm –54.4 eV, then the energy of Li++ in the first
29. Critical angle for light passing from glass to air is excited state will
maximum for (1) –30.6 eV (2) 27.2 eV
(1) Red (2) Green (3) –13.6 eV (4) –27.2 eV
(3) Violet (4) Yellow 37. At the angle of polarisation, the angle between
the reflected and refracted rays is
30. In Young’s double slit experiment, for minima of
fifth order, phase difference is π π
(1) rad (2) rad
2 4
(1) 6π rad (2) 12π rad
π π
7π (3) rad (4) rad
(3) 9π rad (4) rad 3 6
2
38. An object is placed at a distance 2f from the pole
31. In a common emitter amplifier the output signal is of a convex mirror of focal length f. The linear
received across magnification is
(1) Emitter-collector (2) Collector-base 1
(1) 1 (2)
(3) Base-emitter (4) Anywhere 3
32. In the circuit diagram, the input is across the 3 2
(3) (4)
terminal A and C and the output is across B and 4 3
D. Then output is 39. The mutual inductance of a pair of coils, each of
N turns is M henry. If a current of I ampere in one
of the coil is brought to zero in t second, the emf
induced per turn in the other coil, in volt, will be
MI MN
(1) (2)
Nt It
NMI MIN 2
(3) (4)
t t
40. In the network shown below, the ring has zero
(1) Zero (2) Same as the input resistance. The equivalent resistance between
the points A and B will be
(3) Full wave rectifier (4) Half wave rectifier
33. A Zener diode works in
(1) Zero bias (2) Reverse bias
(3) Forward bias (4) None of these
34. Rutherford’s α-particle scattering experiment
showed that atoms have
(1) Neutrino (2) Nucleus (1) R (2) 16R
(3) Neutron (4) Electron (3) 2R (4) 4R
(4)
41. The net magnetic moment of two identical 44. Heat given to a body which raises its temperature
magnets each of magnetic moment M0 tied by 1°C is its
together, inclined at 120° with each other as (1) Water equivalent
shown in figure is
(2) Thermal capacity
(3) Specific heat
(4) Temperature gradient
45. The flight of an airplane is based on
(1) Torricelli’s theorem
(2) Law of gravitation
(1) 3M0 (2) 2M0
(3) Bernoulli’s theorem
(3) M0 (4) 2M0 (4) Conservation of linear momentum
42. ABC is an equilateral triangle. Three charged 46. The threshold intensity of sound is 10–12 W/m2.
particle each having charge +q are placed at What is the intensity level of sound whose
each corner as shown in figure. The net electric intensity is 10–10 W/m2?
force on charge which is at point A, is (1) 20 dB (2) 10 dB
(3) 30 dB (4) 5 dB
47. The displacement of a particle performing S.H.M.
when K.E. equal to P.E. and amplitude = 10 cm
is
(1) 5 cm (2) 5 2 cm
5
(3) 2 cm (4) cm
q2 3q 2 2
(1) (2)
4πε0  2 4πε0  2 48. A uniform circular disc is rolling down an inclined
plane of inclination 30° without slipping. Its linear
2q 2 acceleration along the inclined plane is
(3) (4) Zero
4πε0  2
2g g
(1) (2)
43. The capacitor, whose capacitance is 6 µF, 3 µF 3 2
and 2 µF respectively are connected with 12 volt
g
battery as shown in figure. The charge on (3) (4) g
3
3 µF capacitor will be

49. A force F = ( 3i + a j − 2k ) N is applied on a
particle which displaces it from origin to the point
( 2i − 2 j ) m . If the work done on the particle is
zero, then the value of a will be
(1) 1 (2) 3
1
(3) 2 (4)
2
(1) 12 µC 50. The equation of trajectory of a projectile is given

by y = 8x – 4x2 (where x and y are in m). The
(2) 24 µC horizontal range of the projectile will be
(3) 8 µC (1) 4 m (2) 1 m
(4) 16 µC (3) 2 m (4) 3 m
(5)
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 60. If heat of atomisation of CH4(g) is x kJ mol–1 then
51. Volume of oxygen required to completely burn the bond energy of C – H bond (in kJ/mol) will be
6 g of carbon into CO2 at STP will be x
(1) x (2)
(1) 5.6 L (2) 22.4 L 2
(3) 11.2 L (4) 16.8 L x
(3) 4x (4)
52. Empirical formula of a compound containing 25% 4
of A(atomic mass = 12.5) and 75% of B(atomic 61. The difference in heat of reaction at constant
mass = 7.5) is pressure and at constant volume for the reaction,
(1) AB2 (2) A2B3 1
CO(g) + O (g) → CO2 (g) at 27ºC will be
(3) AB3 (4) AB5 2 2
53. How many electrons in sodium atom have (1) – 300R (2) –200R
Ml = 0? (3) –450R (4) –150R
(1) 1 (2) 7 62. pH of 10–8 M aqueous NaOH is
(3) 6 (4) 3 (1) 8.06 (2) 6.04
54. Which of the following electronic transition from (3) 6.94 (4) 7.04
5th orbit of He+ ion spectrum will have maximum
frequency? 63. Consider the reactions:
(1) Balmer transition (2) Paschen transition A + B  C, K c =

K1
(3) Brackett transition (4) Lyman transition C  2D, Kc = K2
55. Correct option for the position of Mn in periodic 1 1

Then the Kc for the reaction, A + B  D will
table is 2 2
(1) 6th group, 3rd period be
(2) 8th group, 6th period K1
(1) (2) K1 K 2
(3) 5th group, 5th period K2
(4) 7th group, 4th period
(3) K1K 2 (4) K 2 K1
56. The number of lone pairs of electrons in XeF2 is
(1) 9 (2) 3 64. The oxidation number of sulphur in H2S2O8 is
(3) 6 (4) 7 (1) +7 (2) +6
57. The number of antibonding electrons present in (3) +5 (4) +4
O2+ ion is 65. Covalent hydride among the following is

(1) NaH (2) LaH3
(1) 5 (2) 6
(3) TiH4 (4) CH4
(3) 7 (4) 4
66. Thermally most stable carbonate among the
58. The ratio of average speed of O2 gas molecules
following is
at 27º C to 927ºC is
(1) BaCO3 (2) CaCO3
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 2
(3) MgCO3 (4) SrCO3
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 3 : 4
67. Among alkali metal halides minimum melting
59. The density of N2 gas is maximum at
point is of
(1) 1 atm and 27º C (2) 2 atm and 127º C
(1) NaF (2) NaCl
(3) 2 atm and 0º C (4) 1 atm and 127º C
(3) NaBr (4) NaI
(6)
68. Number of stereoisomers of compound 76. The relative lowering of vapour pressure of a
C6H5 – CH = CH – CH – C2H5 will be solution containing 0.1 mol of NaCl in 18 g of
| water is
Cl
2 3
(1) (2)
3 5
(1) 4 (2) 2
1 1
(3) 5 (4) 6 (3) (4)
10 6
69. Aromatic species among the following is
77. Fuel obtained from plastic waste has high octane
+
rating. It contains no lead and is known as
(1) (2) (1) Green fuel (2) Black fuel
(3) White fuel (4) Red fuel
– +
(3) (4) 78. If nitrogen and halogen both are present in a
+ organic compound then for the detection of
70. The ratio of 2c – 2e bonds to the 3c – 2e bonds halogen, the sodium fusion extract is first boiled
in B2H6 is with conc. HNO3 to decompose
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 (1) (CN)2 (2) NaCN
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 3 (3) NaNO2 (4) NaNO3
71. The anionic unit of pyrosilicates is 79. IUPAC name of the compound CN
(1) SiO4–
4 (2) Si2O76– is
(1) 2-Ethylbutanenitrile
(3) Si4 O64– (4) Si3 O96–
(2) 3-Methylbutanenitrile
72. Consider the reaction sequence (3) 3-Methylpentanenitrile
Red hot CH3 −Cl alk.KMnO4
C2H2 
Fe tube
→A 
anhy. AlCl3
→ B  →C (4) 3-Ethylbutanenitrile
80. Select the incorrect option for an ideal solution
The compound (C) is
obtained by mixing two components.
(1) CH3 – COOH (2) CH2 = CH – COOH
(1) ∆Gmix < 0 (2) ∆Smix < 0
COOH O (3) ∆Hmix = 0 (4) ∆Vmix = 0
|| 81. Rate of SN2 reaction will be fastest for
(3) (4) CH3 – C – CH3
(1) CH3 – CH – CH2Br
|
73. The number of monochloro derivative (exclude
CH3
stereoisomers) of Isobutane is
(1) 3 (2) 4 (2) CH3 – CH – CH2 – Br
(3) 2 (4) 5 |
C2H5
74. The coordination number of body centre atom in
BCC unit cell is
(3) CH3 – CH – Br
(1) 4 (2) 6 |
(3) 8 (4) 10 CH3
75. The unit cell parameters of triclinic crystal system
are (4) CH3CH2Br
(1) a ≠ b ≠ c and α ≠ β ≠ γ ≠ 90º 82. Number of Faraday required to reduce 0.5 mole
of MnO−4 to MnO2 is
(2) a = b = c and α = β = γ = 90º
(3) a = b ≠ c and α = β = γ = 90º (1) 1.5 F (2) 3 F
(4) a ≠ b ≠ c and α = β = 90º, γ = 120º (3) 2.5 F (4) 0.5 F
(7)
83. On decreasing the concentration of a weak 91. Which of the following compound is not oxidised
electrolyte solution by Fehling’s reagent?
(1) Specific conductance decreases (1) CH3COCH3 (2) HCOOH
(2) Molar conductance decreases (3) CH3 – CHO (4) CH2 CHO
(3) Equivalent conductance decreases
92. Which of the following reaction is not used for the
(4) Conductance decreases
preparation of aldehydes?
84. For which of the following order reactions, the
(1) Stephen's reduction
time required for 75% completion is independent
of initial concentration of reactant? (2) Rosenmund reduction
(1) Zero order (2) First order (3) Clemmenson reduction
(4) Etard oxidation
(3) Third order (4) Second order
93. Which of the following compounds give violet
85. The gold number of four protective colloids A, B,
colour with neutral FeCl3?
C and D are 0.1, 0.25, 5 and 15 respectively. The
maximum protecting power is of (1) OH (2) OH
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D (3) CH2 OH (4) OH
SECTION-B
94. In which of the following reactions, carbene is
86. Gabriel’s phthalimide reaction can be used for involved as an electrophile?
the synthesis of
(1) + CO/HCl/anhy. AlCl3
(1) (CH3)2NH (2) NH2
(2) CHO + CH3CHO/NaOH
(3) CH3CH2NH2 (4) (CH3)3N
87. Most basic compound among the following is (3) CH3CH2NH2 + NaNO2/HCl
NH2 NH2 (4) OH + CHCl3/NaOH
(1) (2) 95. Siderite, a mineral of iron is chemically
(1) FeS2 (2) FeCr2O4
NO2
(3) Fe3O4 (4) FeCO3
NH2 NH2
96 Strongest acid among the following is
(3) (4) (1) HClO2 (2) HClO
(3) HClO4 (4) HClO3
CN CH3
97. Square planar complex among the following is
88. Buna-S is a copolymer of butadiene and (1) [Ni(CN)4]2– (2) [CuCl4]2–
(1) CH3 – CH = CH2 (2) CH2 = CH2 (3) [Zn(NH3)4]2+ (4) [NiCl4]2–
98. Yellow coloured species among the following is
(3) CH –
– CH2 (4) CH2 = CH – CN
(1) Cr2O72– (2) CrO2–
4
89. Identify R in NH2 – CH – COOH for valine
| (3) MnO4– (4) MnO2–
4
R
99. Which of the following element generally does
not show variable oxidation state?
(1) CH3 – (2) (CH3)2CH –
(1) Mn (2) Co
(3) NH2 – (CH2)4 – (4) HO – CH2 – (3) Fe (4) Sc
90. Bithionol is used as 100. EAN of Co in [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 is
(1) Disinfectant (2) Antibiotics (1) 32 (2) 35
(3) Analgesics (4) Antiseptic (3) 36 (4) 34
(8)
BOTANY
SECTION-A 107. Plasma membrane
101. The lowermost taxonomic category in taxonomic (1) Has phospholipids
hierarchy is (2) Has polar tails of lipids
(1) Family (2) Genus (3) Has non polar heads towards cytoplasm
(3) Order (4) Species
(4) Has proteins towards cytosolic surface only
102. Match column-I with column-II and select the
108. Histone proteins are synthesized during
correct option.
(1) G1 phase
Column-I Column-II
(2) S phase
(i) Herbarium (a) Preservation of
plants & animals (3) G2 phase
(ii) Botanical Garden (b) Description of plants (4) M phase
of a particular area 109. Pairing of homologous chromosomes is called
(iii) Museum (c) Preservation of synapsis. It leads to formation of
plants (1) Dyad (2) Bivalent or tetrad
(iv) Flora (d) Ex-situ conservation (3) Monovalent (4) Monad
strategy
110. The feature not related to family liliaceae is
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) (a) (d) (c) (b)
(2) Axile placentation
(2) (a) (c) (d) (b)
(3) Trimerous flowers
(3) (b) (d) (a) (c)
(4) Epipetalous condition
(4) (c) (d) (a) (b)
111. Superior ovary is seen in
103. Which of the following are photosynthetic protists
and have cellulosic plates on outer surface of cell (1) Cucurbits (2) Plum
wall? (3) China rose (4) Rose
(1) Diatoms (2) Methanogens 112. All of the following components of xylem are
(3) Dinoflagellates (4) BGA dead, except
104. The organism which is autotrophic but does not (1) Xylem fibres
have pigments is (2) Xylem parenchyma
(1) Nitrosomonas (2) Nostoc (3) Vessels
(3) Chlorobium (4) Anabaena (4) Tracheids
105. Mark the incorrect about viroids. 113. Which of the following is not a part of stele?
(1) Discovered by T.O Diener
(1) Pith
(2) RNA is of low molecular weight
(2) Vascular bundles
(3) Has proteinaceous outermost coat
(3) Endodermis
(4) Smaller than viruses
(4) Pericycle
106. Palade particles or ribosomes
114. Mark the wrongly matched pair.
(1) Are made up of RNA and proteins
(1) Pinus — Monoecious
(2) Are largest cell organelles
(2) Funaria — No vascular tissues
(3) Are found in eukaryotes but not in
prokaryotes (3) Eucalyptus — Seeds but not fruits
(4) Are single membrane bound only (4) Salvinia — Heterosporous
(9)
115. Egg apparatus has three cells. The number of 122. The respiratory quotient is more than one for
egg cell(s) in it is/are A with ploidy level (1) Fats (2) Carbohydrates
B . (3) Proteins (4) Organic acids
123. ______ is used to speed up the malting process
A B in brewing industry.
(1) Two n (Haploid) (1) Cytokinins (2) GA3
(3) Auxin (4) Ethylene
(2) Three 2n (Diploid)
124. Select the incorrect statement about
(3) One n (Haploid) phytohormones.
(4) One 2n (Diploid) (1) Auxin is generally produced by the growing
apices of the stems
116. Select the odd one w.r.t macronutrients.
(2) Kinetin does not occur naturally in plants
(1) C (2) H
(3) Ethylene is a simple gaseous PGR
(3) P (4) B
(4) ABA always promotes seed germination
117. Mark the incorrect about PS II.
125. Life span of crow is more than
(1) Found on inner surface of thylakoid
(1) Parrot (2) Tortoise
membrane
(3) Crocodile (4) Butterfly
(2) Is involved in non-cyclic photophos-
phorylation 126. Mark the odd one w.r.t pollen grains of
angiosperms.
(3) Evolves O2
(1) Represent male gametophytes
(4) Has an absorption maxima at 700 nm
(2) The hard outer layer of pollen grain is exine
118. The transporters which can help in both active as
well as passive transport of molecules are (3) Generally spherical
(1) Pumps (2) Carrier (4) Intine is made up of sporopollenin
(3) Channel (4) Aquaporin 127. The genotype of an individual suffering from
Down’s syndrome would be
119. Select the incorrect about root pressure
(1) 44 + XO (2) 45 + XO
(1) Positive pressure
(3) 44 + XXY (4) 45 + XX
(2) Responsible for pushing up water to small
heights 128. Select the incorrect about thalassemia.
(3) Only provides a modest push in overall (1) Autosomal recessive disorder
process of water transport (2) In α thalassemia, the production of α globin
(4) Effect of root pressure is seen when chain is affected
transpiration is high (3) β thalassemia is controlled by a single gene
120. Select the odd one w.r.t steps of Calvin cycle. HBB on chromosome
(1) Reduction (4) It is qualitative problem of synthesizing an

incorrectly functioning globin
(2) Carboxylation
129. Which of the following are heterogametic, means
(3) Regeneration produce two types of gametes?
(4) Transportation of malic acid to bundle sheath (a) Human female
cells
(b) Female grasshopper
121. The first enzyme of glycolysis or EMP pathway
which phosphorylates glucose into glucose-6- (c) Female bird
phosphate is (d) Male Drosophila
(1) Aldolase (2) Enolase (1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) Hexokinase (4) Pyruvate kinase (3) (a) and (d) (4) (c) and (d)
(10)
130. Which of the following is sex-linked recessive 138. The size of VNTR varies from
disorder? (1) 2 to 3 bp (2) 30 to 50 kb
(1) Myotonic dystrophy
(3) 0.1 to 20 kb (4) 1 to 6 bp
(2) Colour blindness
139. _______ is the root of any breeding programme.
(3) Phenylketonuria
(1) Testing of superior recombinants
(4) Sickle cell anaemia
(2) Genetic variability
131. Insect pollinated aquatic plant is
(3) Cross hybridisation
(1) Hydrilla (2) Vallisneria
(4) Evaluation of new cultivars
(3) Zostera (4) Water hyacinth
140. Select the incorrect about Saccharum barberi
132. Parthenocarpic fruits
(1) Was originally grown in North India
(1) Develop without fertilisation
(2) Are also called false fruits (2) Had poor sugar content
(3) Produce numerous seeds (3) Had poor yield
(4) Are banana and pomegranate (4) Has thicker stems than Saccharum
officinarum
133. All of the following are albuminous seeds, except
141. Which of the following is used as an
(1) Wheat (2) Barley
immunosuppressive agent in organ-transplant
(3) Groundnut (4) Castor
patients?
134. DNA dependent DNA polymerases
(1) Statins (2) Streptokinase
(1) Can initiate the process of replication
(3) Cyclosporin A (4) Lipase
(2) Cannot work without DNA ligase
142. All of the following are autotrophic microbes
(3) Catalyse polymerisation only in one direction which can fix atmospheric nitrogen except
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(1) Anabaena (2) Nostoc
135. Select the wrong for genetic code
(3) Oscillatoria (4) Rhizobium
(1) Degenerate
143. Which of the following contributes to increase in
(2) Universal population density?
(3) Triplet (1) Immigration
(4) Non-contiguous reading of codons in m-RNA
(2) Mortality
SECTION-B
(3) Emigration
136. Select the incorrect about UTR (Untranslated
(4) Increased death rate than birth rate
regions)
(1) Required for efficient translation process 144. The type of population interaction in which one
species benefits and the other is neither harmed
(2) Present before start codon
nor benefited is
(3) Found after stop codon
(1) Competition
(4) Seen in every polypeptide synthesized
(2) Parasitism
137. (a) A polycistronic structural gene is regulated by
a common promoter and regulatory genes (3) Commensalism
(b) It is seen in bacteria (4) Protocooperation
Above statements are true for 145. The ecological pyramid that is always upright is
(1) trp operon (1) Pyramid of biomass in pond ecosystem

(2) lac operon (2) Pyramid of number in tree ecosystem
(3) Gene codes for RuBisCo in Wolffia (3) Pyramid of energy in grassland ecosystem
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) Both (1) and (3)
(11)
146. The rate of decomposition of detritus is faster 149. Read the following statements and select the
when correct option.
(1) It is rich in lignin & chitin Statement A : Good ozone is found in the upper
(2) There is low temperature part of the atmosphere.
(3) It is rich in nitrogenous compounds Statement B : CFCs in the stratosphere have
(4) The conditions are anaerobic permanent and continuing effects on ozone
147. Which of the following is the most important levels.
cause driving animals and plants to extinction? (1) Only A is correct
(2) Over-exploitation
(3) Both A & B are correct
(4) Both A & B are incorrect
(4) Co-extinction
150. Montreal protocol was signed in Canada in
148. ‘In-situ’ conservation strategy is
(1) Zoological park (2) Wildlife sanctuaries (1) 1989 (2) 1988
(3) Botanical garden (4) Wildlife safari park (3) 1987 (4) 1986
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 155. Match items in column-I with those in column-II.
Choose the option with all correct match.
151. Which of the following animals represent bilateral
symmetry in larval stage and radial symmetry in Column-I Column-II
adult stage? a. Proventriculus (i) Sperms are stored in
(1) Sycon and Spongilla male cockroach
(2) Physalia and Adamsia b. Seminal vesicles (ii) Part of left phallomere
(3) Pleurobrachia and Ctenoplana c. Genital pouch (iii) Outer thick layer of
circular muscle and
(4) Asterias and Ophiura inner thick layer of
152. All of the following features are related with cuticle
cyclostomes except d. Pseudopenis (iv) Formed anteriorly by
(1) Presence of 6-15 pairs of gills. genital chamber and
(2) Body is devoid of scales and fins posteriorly of
vestibulum
(3) Presence of closed type circulation
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(4) They have sucking and circular mouth
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
without jaws
156. Choose the incorrect match
153. Annelids can be differentiated from arthropods on
the basis of presence of (1) Loose – Most abundant and widely
(1) Metamerisation connective distributed in the body of
tissue complex animals
(2) Coelom
(3) Bilateral symmetry (2) Cartilage – Matrix is solid and pliable
and resist compression
(4) Closed type circulation
154. Head of cockroach is connected with thorax by (3) Glycogen – Left end is considered as
short extension of _____known as neck. reducing end having right
side branching
Choose the option which fills the blank correctly.
(4) Brush-border – Increases absorptive
(1) Head (2) Prothorax
epithelium surface area in PCT and
(3) Mesothorax (4) Ocellus intestine
(12)
157. Which of the following is not a property of 163. Which of the following lung volumes/capacities
connective tissue fibres? can be measured by spirometer?
(1) Provide strength (2) Conductivity (1) RV (2) VC
(3) Elasticity (4) Flexibility (3) FRC (4) TLC
158. Complete the analogy 164. At the tissue site where pCO2 is high, CO2
Ciliated epithelium : Bronchioles :: Compound diffuses into RBCs and forms carbonic acid
epithelium : ________ thereby increases
(1) Endothelium (2) Air sacs of lungs (1) Osmolarity within RBCs
(3) Buccal cavity (4) Germinal epithelium (2) Affinity of haemoglobin for O2
159. Choose the incorrect statement. (3) pH of the blood
(1) Energy level of products is more than energy (4) Dissociation of carbamino haemoglobin
level of reactants in exothermic reactions
(2) Cofactors are non-protein substances and option having all correct statements
attached with apoenzyme
a. To obtain a standard ECG, a patient is
(3) Efficiency of an enzyme is represented by its
connected to the machine with three
turn-over number
electrical leads
(4) Zinc is a cofactor which forms coordination
b. ST segment represents isoelectrical line
bonds with both active site of enzyme
obtained during plateau phase of
carboxypeptidase and substrate protein.
repolarisation of ventricular myocardium
160. Match column-A with column-B and choose the
correct option c. End of T-wave marks the end of ventricular
diastole
Column-A Column-B
d. QRS complex represents complete
a. Catalase (i) Storehouse of ventricular systole
energy in plants (1) a and b (2) b and c
b. Nuclease (ii) Heterocyclic ring (3) c and d (4) a and d
structure 166. Select the incorrect match.
c. Purine (iii) Hydrolase (1) Cardiac arrest – Heart stops beating
d. Starch (iv) Haem (2) Heart attack – Heart muscle is suddenly
damaged
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) Heart failure – Acute chest pain due to
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) deficiency of O2 in
161. Which of the following function is not considered myocardium
a function of bile juice?
(4) Atherosclerosis – Caused by deposition of
(1) Emulsification of lipids fat, cholesterol, calcium
(2) Hydrolysis of lipids and fibrous tissue which
(3) Activation of lipases makes lumen of arteries
narrower
(4) To maintain alkaline pH in intestine
167. Which of the following animals require maximum
162. Sphincter of Oddi present at the opening of
amount of water for removal of their nitrogenous
hepatopancreatic duct regulates release of which
waste products?
of the following secretion in duodenum?
(1) Only pancreatic juice (1) Bony fishes
(2) Only bile juice (2) Terrestrial amphibians
(3) Both pancreatic and bile juice (3) Land snails

(4) Secretion of succus entericus (4) Mammals
(13)
168. Read the following statements A and B and 174. RBC production is not stimulated by
choose the correct option w.r.t. nephron in (1) Erythropoietin (2) Cortisol
human kidney.
(3) Thyroxine (4) Oestrogen
Statement A: Potassium ions are reabsorbed as
well as secreted in PCT. 175. Match column-I with column-II and choose the
correct option
Statement B: Countercurrent mechanism helps
to maintain a concentration gradient in the Column-I Column-II
medullary interstitium by increasing absorption of a. Adrenal cortex (i) Gigantism
urea from DCT. b. Thyroxine (ii) Diabetes mellitus
(1) Both statements A and B are correct c. Pancreas (iii) Graves' disease
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect d. Pituitary gland (iv) Addison’s disease
(3) Only statement A is incorrect (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(4) Only statement B is incorrect (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
169. About 40-50 percent of body weight of a human 176. Which of the following individuals is considered
adult is contributed by as immortal?
(1) Neural tissue (2) Muscles (1) Amoeba (2) Planaria
(3) Bones (4) Connective tissues (3) Hydra (4) Sycon
170. Read the following statements and choose the 177. Select the incorrect statement
correct option
(1) A haploid parent produces gametes by
A. During resting condition of skeletal muscle mitotic division
fibre, A-band is formed by both actin and
(2) Zygote is a vital link that ensures continuity of
myosin filaments
species between organisms of one
B. Short arm of meromyosin is formed by head generation and the next
and cross arm
(3) Events in sexual reproduction before
C. Masking of active sites for myosin on actin is formation of zygote is called post-fertilization
removed by binding of calcium with sub unit event
of troponin
(4) In both plants and animals, interaction
(1) Statements A and B are correct but C is between hormones and certain
incorrect environmental factors regulate the
(2) Statements A and C are correct but B is reproductive processes
incorrect 178. Select the correct match.
(3) Statements B and C are correct but A is
incorrect (1) Meiocyte – Haploid cell which
undergo meiosis
(4) Statements A, B and C are correct
(2) Gametogenesis – Formation of gamete
171. Osteoporosis is age related disorder in women
mother cell
caused after menopause due to decrease in
plasma level of (3) Parturition – Implantation and
(1) Parathormone (2) Progesterone embryonic development
(3) FSH (4) Oestrogen (4) Fertilisation – Fusion of male and
172. Cerebral aqueduct passes through female gametes to form
diploid zygote
(1) Cerebrum (2) Cerebellum
(3) Midbrain (4) Pons 179. Inhibin inhibits secretion of FSH and is
synthesized from ______ in males.
173. Light induces dissociation of the retinal from
opsin resulting in change in the structure of Choose the option which fills the blank correctly.
(1) Rods (2) Cones (1) Granulosa cells (2) Leydig cells
(3) Opsin (4) Retinal (3) Sertoli cells (4) Germ cells
(14)
180. Match items in column-I with those in column-II 185. Read the following statements carefully and
and choose the correct option. choose the option with only incorrect statements
Column-I Column-II a. Any population has built in variation in

characteristics
A. Primary oocyte p. Formed by secondary
b. According to Darwin, the fitness refers
oocyte ultimately and only to reproductive fitness
B. Zona pellucida q. Have potency to give c. Evolution is a stochastic process based on
rise to all the tissue and chance mutation in nature and chance event
organs in organisms
d. Lamarck had said that evolution of life forms
C. Inner cell mass r. Formed during fetal
had occurred but driven by use and disuse of
life
organs
D. Sex s. Presence of X or Y (1) a, b and c (2) a, b, c and d
determination chromosomes in the
(3) Only c (4) a and c
sperms
SECTION-B
(1) A-q, B-r, C-p, D-s (2) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s
186. Darwin’s finches are not example of
(3) A-r, B-p, C-q, D-s (4) A-r, B-q, C-s, D-p
(1) Adaptive radiation
181. Which of the following is not a feature of ideal
(2) Adaptive convergence
contraceptive pill?
(3) Founder effect
(1) User friendly
(4) Natural selection
(2) Irreversible
187. Which of the following are living relative of
(3) Easily available
Therapsids?
(4) No effect on sexual drive
(1) Pelycosaurs (2) Mammals
182. Which of the following STI is completely curable
(3) Early reptiles (4) Thecodonts
if diagnosed earlier and treated properly?
(1) AIDS
(1) Malignant malaria – Plasmodium falciparum
(2) Genital warts
(3) Hepatitis-B (2) Pneumonia – Haemophilus influenzae
(4) Genital herpes (3) Typhoid – Salmonella typhi
183. According to amendment act 2017, for medical (4) Ascariasis – Wuchereria bancrofti
termination of pregnancy of twenty weeks 189. Read the following statements A and B and
(1) Opinion of only one registered medical choose the correct option.
practitioner is required Statement-A – Subsequent encounter with the
(2) Opinion of two registered medical practitioner same pathogen elicits a highly intensified
is required anamnestic response.
(3) Opinion of only pregnant women is required Statement-B – Both bone marrow and thymus
provide micro-environments for development and
(4) MTPs are performed legally by unqualified
maturation of T-lymphocytes.
quacks
184. The study of history of life forms on earth is (1) Both statements are correct
called (2) Both statements are incorrect
(1) Evolutionary biology (2) Adaptive radiation (3) Only statement A is correct
(3) Paleontology (4) Big Bang theory (4) Only statement B is correct
(15)
190. Match items in column-I with those in column-II (1) I and II only (2) I and III only
and choose the correct option (3) I, II and IV (4) I, III and IV
Column-I Column-II
196. In an adult human having 32 permanent teeth,
a. Window period (i) Biological response how many teeth are present in each half of upper
modifiers and lower jaw?
b. Contact inhibition (ii) Ionising and non- (1) 16 and 16 (2) 8 and 8
ionising radiations
(3) 10 and 6 (4) 20 and 12
c. Carcinogens (iii) Time lag between
infection and 197. Choose the incorrect statement
appearance of AIDS (1) Diaphragm becomes flattened during
symptoms inspiration
d. α-interferons (iv) By virtue of which (2) During inspiration, intrapleural pressure
contact with other becomes more than atmospheric pressure
cells inhibits their (3) Ribs and sternum moves forward and upward
uncontrolled growth
due to contraction of external intercostal
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) muscles
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) Our lungs are covered by a double layered
191. Opium is extracted from pleura, with pleural fluid between them
(1) Atropa belladonna (2) Papaver somniferum 198. Select the incorrect match
(3) Vinca rosea (4) Cannabis sativa (1) Neutrophils – Phagocytic cells in blood
192. Inbreeding is carried out in animal husbandry
because it (2) Monocytes – Largest leucocyte
(1) Increases vigour, if continued (3) Erythrocytes – Transport only O2
(2) Improves the breed, if continued
(4) Eosinophils – Constitute 2-3% of total
(3) Increases heterozygosity WBCs
(4) Increases homozygosity
199. The cortex extends in between medullary
193. The heat shock method in bacterial pyramids as renal columns called
transformation facilitates
(1) Renal papilla (2) Duct of Bellini
(1) Binding of DNA to the cell wall by ester bond
(3) Columns of Bertini (4) Renal pelvis
(2) Uptake of DNA through membrane transport
proteins 200. Match items in column-I with those in column-II
and choose the correct option.
(3) Uptake of DNA through transient pores in the
bacterial cell wall Column-I Column-II
(4) Expression of antibiotic resistance gene
a. Myasthenia gravis (i) Caused due to
194. Golden rice contains high contents of precursor defective
of metabolism of
(1) Vitamin-A (2) Vitamin-C purine
(3) Vitamin-K (4) Vitamin-B b. Gout (ii) Due to deficiency
195. Which of the following components are used in of Ca+2
gel electrophoresis?
c. Muscular dystrophy (iii) Autoimmune
I. Ethidium bromide disorder
II. Restriction exonuclease
d. Tetany (iv) Genetic disorder
III. Agarose gel
IV. UV radiation (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
Choose the correct option. (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
  
(16)
Edition: 2020-21
03/09/2021 CODE-A
CST – 19
Instructions:
PHYSICS
SECTION-A (1) OR gate (2) AND gate
1. Which of the following is a wrong description of (3) NOR gate (4) XOR gate
binding energy of a nucleus? 3. Symbol of Zener diode is
(1) It is the energy required to break a nucleus
into its constituent nucleons (1)
(2) It is the energy released when free nucleons
combine to form a nucleus
(2)
(3) It is the sum of the rest mass energies of its
nucleons minus the rest mass energy of the
nucleus (3)
(4) It is the sum of kinetic energy of all the

nucleons in the nucleus
2. The combination of ‘NAND’ gates shown below is (4)
equivalent to
4. Value of current in the circuit given below is
(1) 35 mA (2) 28.5 mA

(3) 16 mA (4) Zero
(1)
5. Which relation between common base current 10. Three particles, each of mass m, are situated at
gain α and common emitter current gain β is not the vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC of side
correct? ‘L’ as shown in the figure. Moment of inertia of
β β2 the system about the line AD perpendicular to AB
(1) α = (2) α =
1− β 1 + β2 in the plane of triangle is
β
(3) α = (4) Both (1) and (2)
1+ β
6. When a conservative force does positive work on
a body then
(1) Its kinetic energy must increase
(2) Its potential energy must decrease
(3) Its potential energy must increase
5
(4) Its total energy must decrease (1) 2 mL2 (2) mL2
4
7. A particle of mass 6 gram is acted upon by a
force such that position of the particle as a 3 7
(3) mL2 (4) mL2
function of time is given by x = 3t –4t2 + t3, where 2 4
x is in metre and t is in second. The work done
during the time t = 0 to t = 4 s, will be 11. A uniform rod of mass m and length L is free to
rotate in horizontal plane about a vertical axis
(1) 528 mJ (2) 512 mJ
mg
(3) 1056 mJ (4) 829 mJ passing through one of its end. A force of is
2
8. Two balls of equal masses undergo an inelastic
collision (head on) as shown in the figure. If the L
applied normal to the rod at a distance from
1 6
coefficient of restitution is , then speed of ball the other (free) end. Angular acceleration of the
3
A and ball B after collision will be rod will be
2g 5g
(1) (2)
L 4L
(1) 1 m/s (2) 2 m/s 4g 3g
(3) (4)
(3) 3 m/s (4) 4 m/s 5L 2L
9. Tom, John and Harry are standing on a plank 12. A uniform solid cylinder of mass m and radius 2R
having mass 90 kg. The plank is kept on ice. If rolls without slipping down an inclined plane of
Tom and Harry swap their positions, then John
length L and height h. Speed of centre of cylinder
will shift
when it reaches the bottom of inclined plane will
be
4
(1) gh (2) gh
3
5 7
(3) gh (4) gh
2 5
1
(1) m towards left 13. The escape speed from surface of the earth is ve.
3
The escape speed from centre of earth will be
1
(2) m towards right
3 3 1
(1) ve (2) ve
(3) Will be at same position 2 2
2 7
(4) m towards right (3) ve (4) Zero
3 2
(2)
14. Two aluminium wires have lengths 1 m and 2 m 19. The time period of small oscillations of mass m
as shown in the figure is (All springs are ideal)
and their diameters are d and 2 d. If they are
stretched by applying equal forces, the ratio of
increase in their lengths will be
(1) 2 : 1
(2) 3 : 2
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 2 : 2
15. A force of 16 N is applied to lift a ring lying on
surface of water. If radius of ring is 2 m, then
calculate surface tension of water.
1 2
(1) N/m (2) N/m
π π 6m 11m
(1) 2π (2) 2π
(3) 2 N/m (4) 4 N/m 11k 6k
16. Two drops of same radius are falling through air m 6k

(3) 2π (4) 2π
with terminal velocity of 10 m/s. If these two k 11m
drops coalesce, then terminal velocity of new 20. A particle is subjected to two simple harmonic
drop will be motions (both along x-axis) which are given by
 π
(1) 3 4 × 5 m/s x1 = 5sinωt and x2 = 5sin  ωt +  . The path of
 2
particle will be
(2) 3 4 m/s
(1) An ellipse (2) A straight line
(3) 3 4 ×10 m/s (3) A hyperbola (4) A circle
(4) 10 m/s 21. A transverse wave which is travelling along
the positive x-axis given by y = Asin(kx – ωt) is
17. Consider four blocks P, Q, R, S such that P and superposed with another wave given by
Q are in thermal equilibrium and R & S are also y = –Asin(kx + ωt). The point x = 0 is
in thermal equilibrium. However, P & R are not in
(1) A node
thermal equilibrium, we can conclude that
(2) An antinode
(1) Q and S are in thermal equilibrium (3) Neither a node nor an antinode
(2) Q and S are not in thermal equilibrium (4) Having maximum displacement A
(3) The zeroth law of thermodynamics does not 22. Stationary waves are produced in a 20 m long
apply here because there are more than stretched string fixed at both ends. If the string
three objects vibrates in 10 loops and wave velocity in the
string is 20 m/s, then the frequency of the wave
(4) Can’t say anything is
18. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of nitrogen and (1) 20 Hz (2) 10 Hz
4 moles of xenon at temperature T. Neglecting all (3) 9 Hz (4) 5 Hz
vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the 23. A whistle producing a sound of frequency 540 Hz
system is approaches a stationary observer at speed of
(1) 4 RT 33 m/s. If speed of sound in air is 333 m/s, then
frequency heard by the observer (in Hz) will be
(2) 5 RT nearly
(3) 15 RT (1) 500 (2) 600
(4) 11 RT (3) 400 (4) 300
(3)
24. The electric flux through a surface area of 27. Energy stored in the capacitor of capacitance
400 m2,lying in a space where electric field 4 µF connected in the circuit as shown below will
 be
E =5iˆ + 2 ˆj + 4kˆ exists will be [Surface area is
lying in x – y plane]
N 2 N 2
(1) 2000 m (2) 400 2 m
C C
N 2 N 2
(3) 1600 m (4) 2750 m
C C
25. A small electric dipole is placed at origin with
dipole moment directed along positive x-axis.
The direction of electric filed at the point ‘P’ as
shown in the figure will be
(1) 200 µJ (2) 300 µJ

(3) 400 µJ (4) 800 µJ
28. Four arrangement of resistors are given below. If
ammeter ‘A’ has a resistance of 2 Ω then which
arrangement give the largest reading when same
potential difference is applied between the points
X and Y?
(1)
(1) Along z-axis
(2) Along negative x-axis
(3) Along y-axis (2)
(4) At angle tan–1(1/2) from x-axis

26. Three capacitors each having capacitance of
1 µF are connected with a battery of emf 10 V as
(3)
shown in the figure.
(4)
29. An electric heater having heating coil of 484 Ω
connected with a supply voltage of 220 V is used
to heat water. Time taken to increase the
Potential difference across the points A & B is temperature of 100 g water by 50ºC is
5 10 (1) 140 s
(1) (2)
3 3 (2) 270 s
(3) 210 s
20 15
(3) (4) (4) 315 s
3 3
(4)
30. A galvanometer having coil resistance 20 Ω and SECTION-B

full scale deflection current 1 mA is converted 36. The potential difference V and current I
into a voltmeter with a maximum range of 10 V. flowing through the AC circuit is given by
Value of resistance to be connected in series ε = 20cos(ωt –π/6) Volt and I = 5sinωt A. The
with galvanometer for this purpose should be average power dissipated in the circuit is
(1) 998 Ω (2) 98 Ω (1) 25 W (2) 15 W
(3) 50 W (4) 100 W
(3) 9980 Ω (4) 9998 Ω
37. An object is placed at 10 cm infront of a concave
31. A conducting wire is bent in the form of an
mirror. The mirror produces a real image that has
equilateral triangle of side 10 cm. current flowing 4 times bigger size than object. The distance of
through it is 0.5 A. Magnetic moment of current image from mirror is
carrying triangular loop is
(1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm
3 (3) 30 cm (4) 40 cm
(1) Zero (2) × 10−2 A m2
8 38. The wavelength of light in vacuum is 8000 Å and
in a medium is 4000 Å. The refractive index of
3 3
(3) × 10−4 A m2 (4) × 10−4 A m2 the medium is
4 2
(1) 1 (2) 2
32. The unit of electric current “Ampere” is the
(3) 3 (4) 4
amount of current that is flowing through each of
two parallel long wires 1 m apart will give rise to 39. A ray of light incident on a prism having prism
a force per unit length between them equal to angle 30º is retracing its path as shown in figure.
Refractive index of the prism is
(1) 1 N/m (2) 2 × 107 N/m
(3) 4π × 107 N/m (4) 2 × 10–7 N/m

33. A uniform magnetic field B = B0 ˆj exists in a
region. A particle of mass m and charge q is
projected along negative x-axis with speed v from
the point (d, 0, 0). The maximum value of v for
which the particle does not hit y – z plane will be
qBd 2m 3 5
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2m qBd 2 6
qBd 3qBd (3) 2 (4) 3
(3) (4)
m 2m
40. A ray of light travelling in vacuum enters into a
34. A conducting ring is placed in a uniform magnetic medium of refractive index µ. It is found that
field with its plane perpendicular to the field. An angle of refraction is half of the angle of
emf is induced in the ring if incidence, then value of angle of incidence is
(1) It is translated along the axis of ring µ
(1) cos−1   (2) 2cos–1(µ /2)
(2) It is translated in the plane of the ring 2
(3) It is rotated about its axis µ
(3) sin–1(µ /2) (4) 2sin−1  
(4) It is rotated about one of its diameter 2
41. White light is incident normally on a glass plate
35. An ac source is represented by E = 200 2 sin placed in air. If the thickness of glass plate is
(100t + π / 3 ) Volt. If this source is connected 5000 Å and its refractive index is 3/2, then
across a capacitor of 10 µF capacitor through an (among the following) wavelength that is strongly
reflected by the plates will be (Visible light range
ac ammeter, then the reading of ammeter will be
is 4000 Å to 7000 Å)
(1) 20 mA (2) 200 mA (1) 4700 Å (2) 6000 Å
(3) 0.2 mA (4) 2 mA (3) 5500 Å (4) 6500 Å
(5)
42. If the ratio of intensity of wave from two coherent 48. A projectile ‘P’ is fired from ground. An observer
sources is 9, then the visibility of the fringes is ‘Q’ running on ground with uniform velocity of
5 3 magnitude v observes ‘P’ to move along a
(1) (2)
4 5 straight line. The time of flight of ‘P’ as measured
by ‘Q’ is T. Then the range R of the projectile on
4 5
(3) (4) ground is
5 3
(1) R = vT
43. Mass number of a radioactive nucleus is A. It
undergoes an α-decay such that α-particle (2) R < vT
comes out with kinetic energy of 96 MeV. If Q
(3) R > vT
value of the reaction is 100 MeV. Then the value
of A is (Assume that daughter nucleus is in (4) Insufficient information
ground state) 49. An elevator is descending with an acceleration ‘a’
(1) 384 (2) 296 as shown in the figure .If block M exerts a force
(3) 104 (4) 100 Mg
of on weighing machine, then value of ‘a’ is
44. Wavelength of line of Balmer series in
2nd 10
hydrogen spectrum is equal to the wavelength of [g = acceleration due to gravity]
one of the lines in the emission spectrum of Li2+.
The electronic transition corresponding to this
line for Li2+ is
(1) n = 4 to n = 2 (2) n = 7 to n = 3
(3) n = 8 to n = 3 (4) n = 12 to n = 6
45. The voltage applied to an X-ray tube is 20 kV.
Minimum wavelength of X-ray photon emitted by
the tube will be nearly (1) 0.3g
(1) 0.1 Å (2) 0.6 Å (2) 0.1g
(3) 12 Å (4) 6 Å
(3) 0.9g
46. A toy car starts from rest and is uniformly
accelerated for 15 seconds. The distance (4) 0.6g
travelled in the first 5 seconds is d1, in next 50. Figures I, II, III and IV show the variation of force
5 seconds is d2 and in the last 5 seconds is d3. with time, impulse will be maximum in case of
Then, d1 : d2 : d3 is the same as
(1) 1 : 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 4
(3) 1 : 3 : 5 (4) 7 : 5 : 2
47. A man crosses the river perpendicular to river
flow in time t and travels an equal distance down
the stream in time T. The ratio of man’s speed in
still water to the speed of river will be
T 2 + t2
(1)
T 2 − t2
t2 −T 2
(2)
t2 +T 2
(1) (II) and (III)
t2 − t2
(3)
t2 +T 2 (2) (I) and (IV)
t2 +T 2 (3) (I) and (III)

(4)
t2 −T 2 (4) (II) and (IV)
(6)
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 61. Which among the following properties is intensive
51. Number of atoms in 0.68 g C3O2 is (molar mass in nature?
of C3O2 is 68 g mol–1) (1) Volume (2) Heat
(1) 0.5 NA (2) 0.05 NA (3) Pressure (4) Adiabatic work
(3) 0.02 NA (4) 0.2 NA
62. If 1 mol ideal gas expanded from 5 L to 50 L at
52. Molality of an aqueous solution of urea in which 27°C then entropy change involved in the
mole fraction of urea is 0.18, is process will be
(1) 1.2 m (2) 12.2 m
(1) 2R (2) 2.303R
(3) 0.12 m (4) 122.2 m
(3) 10R (4) 20R
53. Select the incorrect value of quantum number of
last electron of Mg atom among the following. 63. pH of an aqueous solution of 0.1 M NH4Cl
(1) n = 3 (2) l = 0 solution is (Given pKb (NH4OH) = 4.7)
−1 (1) 9 (2) 5.15

(3) m = +1 (4) s =
2 (3) 8 (4) 10
54. Select the atom of largest atomic size among the 64. If Ksp (CuCl) > Ksp (CuBr) > Ksp (CuI) > Ksp (CuS)
following. then most soluble salt at 25°C
(1) Li (2) Be (1) CuCl (2) CuBr
(3) Na (4) Mg
(3) CuI (4) CuS
65. Oxidation states of oxygen in KO2 and Na2O2
(1) C22 − (2) N2+ respectively are
(3) F2 (4) H2 (1) +1, –1 (2) –0.5, +1
56. Which among the following molecules is most (3) –0.5, –1 (4) +1, –2
polar?
66. Percentage strength of 5.6 volume of H2O2 is
(1) NF3 (2) NH3
(3) H2O (4) CO2 (1) 3.4% (2) 1.7%
57. During conversion of O2 to O2− , coming electron (3) 0.85% (4) 34%
will enter in 67. Halide of highest boiling point among the
(1) π2px (2) σ2pz following is
(3) π*2px (4) σ*2s (1) KF (2) KCl
58. Which among the following will be the correct (3) KBr (4) KI
order of bond length? 68. Heating of LiNO3 produces
(1) C–O > C–H > C–C (2) C–C > C–O > C–H (1) LiNO2 and O2 only
(3) C–C > C–H > C–O (4) C–O > C–C > C–H
(2) Li2O and N2 only
59. 1 poise is equivalent to
(3) Li2O, NO2 and O2 only
(1) 1 g cm–1 s–1 (2) 0.1 g cm–1 s–1
(4) Li2O and N2O only
(3) 0.01 kg m–1 s–1 (4) 0.001 kg m–1 s–1
60. If equal masses of both He(g) and SO2(g) are 69. Correct match of chemical formula is
taken in a 5 L vessel at total pressure of 10 atm (1) Gypsum: CaSO4 .H2O
then partial pressure of He(g) in the mixture will
be (2) Quick lime: Ca(OH)2
(1) 9.4 atm (2) 4.7 atm (3) Slaked lime: CaO
(3) 28 atm (4) 94.3 atm (4) Dead burnt plaster: CaSO4
(7)
70. Most electronegative element of 14 group 77. Consider the following reaction sequence,
elements, is (CH ) CHCl
Phenol 
Zn dust
→ A 3 2
Anhydrous AlCl3
→ B
(1) Carbon (2) Germanium
(i) Alk. KMnO4 /∆
(3) Tin (4) Lead 
(ii) H O+
→C
3
71. Man-made silicate among the following is The product ‘C’ is

(1) Glass (2) Feldspar
(3) Zeolites (4) Asbestos (1) (2)
72. Heterocyclic compound among the following is
(1) (2) (3) (4)
78. Which among the following pairs of molecules

can be distinguished by haloform reaction?
(3) (4) (1) CH3OH and CH3CH2CH2OH
(2) CH3CHO and CH3CH2OH
73. In the Kjeldahl’s method for estimation of (3) CH3CH2OH and CH3CH2COCH2CH3
nitrogen present in an organic compound,
ammonia evolved from 0.8 g organic compound (4) CH3CH2COCH3 and CH3CHO
neutralizes 20 ml of 0.8 M of H2SO4. The 79. Select the compound of highest pKa among the
percentage of nitrogen in the organic compound following.
is (1) HCOOH (2) CH3CH2COOH
(1) 28% (2) 56% (3) CCl3COOH (4) ClCH2COOH
(3) 33% (4) 84% 80. Which among the following amine respond to
74. Which amongst the following is the most stable carbylamine test?
carbocation? (1) (CH3)2NH (2) PhCH2CH2NH2
⊕ ⊕ (3) PhNHPh (4) (CH3)3N
(1) Ph − CH2 − CH2 (2) ( CH3 )2 CH
81. Most stable diazonium salt among the following
⊕ ⊕ is
(3) Ph − CH− CH3 (4) CH3 − CH2
NO2
75. Which among the following is aromatic in nature? |
–
(2) CH3 CHCH2N2 Cl
+
(1) CH3 CH2N2+ Cl–
(1) (2)
(3) PhN2+ Cl− (4) PhCH2 CH2N2+ Cl−
(3) (4) 82. Novolac is a condensation polymer of

(1) Caprolactam and Ethylene glycol
76. Which of the following compounds undergoes (2) Ethylene glycol and Terephthalic acid
nucleophilic substitution reaction most easily?
(3) Phenol and formaldehyde
(4) Melamine and formaldehyde
(1) (2) 83. Valium is used as

(1) Antibiotic (2) Tranquilizer
(3) Antiseptic (4) Antifertility drug
84. Packing efficiency of diamond unit cell is
π π
(1) (2) 3
(3) (4) 8 8
π π
(3) 3 (4)
16 6
(8)
85. Boiling point of an aqueous solution of 0.2 m 93. Hydrogen halides of highest pKa is
K4[Fe(CN)6] will be (Kb(H2O) = 0.5 K molal–1)
(1) HF (2) HCl
(1) 0.5 °C (2) 273.5 °C
(3) HBr (4) HI
(3) 100.5 °C (4) 373.5 °C
SECTION-B paramagnetic in nature?
86. A binary solution is formed by taking 2 and 3 (1) [Co(H2O)6]Cl3 (2) K4[Fe(CN)6]
moles of two volatile component A( PA° = 400 mm
(3) K3[Fe(CN)6] (4) [Zn(H2O)6]Cl2
Hg) and B( PB° = 250 mm Hg) respectively. Partial
95. Select the molecule which can show optical
pressure of B in the solution will be isomerism
(1) 100 mm Hg (1) [Zn(H2O)4(NH3)2]Cl2
(2) 150 mm Hg
(2) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
(3) 310 mm Hg
(3) [Co(NH3)4(en)]Cl3
(4) 450 mm Hg
(4) [Fe(H2O)(NH3)(Py)ClBrI]
87. Reduction potential of hydrogen electrode which
is placed in a solution of pH = 2, is 96 Correct electronic configuration of Gd(III) ion is
(Atomic number of Gd is 64)
(1) –0.33 V (2) –0.118 V
(3) –0.71 V (4) –0.92 V (1) [ Xe] 4f 7 5d 1 (2) [ Xe] 4f 8
88. If initial concentration of reactant in a first order (3) [ Xe] 4f 7 (4) [ Xe] 4f 6 5d 1
reaction increases to four times, then rate
constant of reaction 97 Select the hydride of 15 group elements of
highest boiling point.
(1) Increases by a factor of 4
(2) Increases by a factor of 8 (1) NH3 (2) PH3
(3) Increases by a factor of 2 (3) AsH3 (4) BiH3
(4) Remains same 98 Magnetic moment of Cu2+ ion is [Cu : Atomic no

is 29]
89. Select the ion which has highest coagulating
power for coagulation of charcoal sol. (1) 2 BM (2) 3 BM
(1) Na+ (2) Al3+
(3) 8 BM (4) 15 BM
(3) F– (4) PO34−
99 Which among the following compounds does not
90. Solvent used in leaching process of bauxite is
exhibit tautomerism?
(1) NaCl (aq) (2) NaOH (aq)
(3) NH4Cl (aq) (4) H2SO4 (aq)
91. Select the incorrect statement about white (1) (2)
phosphorus
(1) It is insoluble in water but soluble in carbon
disulphide
(2) It undergoes disproportion on boiling with
(3) (4)
NaOH solution
(3) It is most reactive allotrope of phosphorous
(4) It does not catches fire in air 100. Most basic oxide of vanadium among the
92. Number of ‘P – OH’ bond(s) in phosphonic acid is following is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) VO (2) V2O3
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) V2O4 (4) V2O5
(9)
BOTANY
SECTION-A 109. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t racemose
101. Which of the given cell organelles contain(s) inflorescence
ribosomes? (1) Shoot axis continues to grow indefinitely
(A) Mitochondria (2) Flowers are borne in acropetal succession
(B) Chloroplast (3) Younger flowers are present toward apex
(C) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (4) It is seen in Dianthus
(D) Lysosome 110. Which of the given is a medicinal plant of family-
(1) Only (A) and (B) (2) All except (D) Fabaceae?
(3) Both (A) and (D) (4) Only (C) (1) Muliathi (2) Lupin
102. Which of the given chromosomes appear (3) Trifolium (4) Aloe
V-shaped during anaphase? 111. Cork cambium is also known as
(1) Metacentric chromosome (1) Phelloderm (2) Phellem
(2) Sub-metacentric chromosome (3) Phellogen (4) Pith
(3) Acrocentric chromosome 112. Which of the following can be called ‘starch
(4) Telocentric chromosome sheath’?
103. How many generations of mitosis are required to (1) Pericycle of stem (2) Epiblema of root
produce 64 cells? (3) Endodermis of stem (4) Hypodermis of stem
(1) 32 (2) 4 113. Select the correct option w.r.t ploidy of capsule,
(3) 6 (4) 8 seta and rhizoids respectively in Funaria.
104. Morphology of chromosome can be best studied (1) 2n, 2n and n (2) n, n and 2n
in (3) 2n, n and 2n (4) n, 2n and n
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase 114. Syngamy refers to
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase (1) Fusion of male gamete with egg cell
105. Which of the given is not an obligate category (2) Fusion of male gamete with diploid
w.r.t taxonomic hierarchy? secondary nucleus
(1) Phylum (2) Order (3) Formation of endosperm
(3) Family (4) Tribe (4) Formation of triploid tissue
106. In case of plants, classes with a few similar 115. Which of the following transport mechanisms
characters are assigned to higher taxonomic is/are highly selective in nature?
category called
(1) Active transport (2) Simple diffusion
(1) Phylum (2) Order
(3) Facilitated transport (4) Both (1) & (3)
(3) Division (4) Family
116. Symplast pathway of water movement
107. How many kingdom(s) w.r.t Whittaker’s kingdom
(1) Consists of non-living parts of plant body
classification system exhibit both autotrophic as
well as heterotrophic mode of nutrition? (2) Is not affected by metabolic state of root
(1) Three (2) Two (3) Is slightly slower
(3) One (4) Four (4) Involves cell walls
108. Mycelium is found to be aseptate or coenocytic in 117. Which of the given bacteria oxidises ammonia to
members of which of the given classes of fungi? nitrite w.r.t nitrogen cycle?
(1) Phycomycetes (2) Ascomycetes (1) Nitrobacter (2) Nitrocystis
(3) Basidiomycetes (4) Deuteromycetes (3) Nitrosomonas (4) Thiobacillus
(10)
118. How many ATPs are consumed for production of 126. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t most of the
5 molecules of NH3 during biological N2-fixation? species of Chara.
(1) 5 (2) 40 (1) They are monoecious
(3) 10 (4) 20 (2) Male sex organ is globule
119. The first action spectrum of photosynthesis was (3) Female sex organ is nucule
described by T.W. Engelmann. He experimented
(4) Globule occupies upper position than the
on
nucule
(1) A green alga, Cladophora
127. All of the given are monocarpic plants, except
(2) A green alga, Chlorella
(1) Wheat (2) Mango
(3) An aquatic plant, Hydrilla
(3) Marigold (4) Rice
(4) Green sulphur bacteria
128. Select the correct sequence of anther wall layers
120. The primary acceptor molecule of CO2 during C3
from outermost to innermost
cycle is
(1) Epidermis → Middle layer → Tapetum →
(1) RuBP (2) OAA
Endothecium
(3) PEP (4) 3-PGA
(2) Epidermis → Endothecium → Middle layer →
121. It is said to be protoplasmic respiration, when Tapetum
respiratory substrate is
(3) Tapetum → Epidermis → Middle layer →
(1) Fats (2) Carbohydrates
Endothecium
(3) Protein (4) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Tapetum → Middle layer → Epidermis →
122. Select the incorrect match. Endothecium
(1) Acetyl CoA — Carotenoids 129. The stalk of ovule by which it remains attached to
(2) Succinyl CoA — Terpenes placenta is called
(3) Oxaloacetic acid — Pyrimidines (1) Funicle (2) Hilum
(4) α-ketoglutaric acid — Amino acid synthesis (3) Integument (4) Micropyle
123. Which of the given is/are synthetic auxins? 130. Which of the given traits selected by Mendel w.r.t
(A) IAA (B) IBA pea plants express itself in both homozygous as
(C) 2,4-D (D) NAA well as heterozygous conditions?
(1) Only (C) (2) Both (C) & (D) (1) Constricted pod (2) Yellow pod
(3) Only (A) (4) Both (A) & (B) (3) Terminal flower (4) Green pod
124. Which of the given plant hormone is known as 131. How many types of gametes can be produced by
stress hormone? a diploid organism with genotype AaBBCcDd?
(1) ABA (2) Cytokinin (1) 4 (2) 8
(3) Ethylene (4) GA3 (3) 3 (4) 6
125. Match the following columns and select the 132. Which of the given is an autosomal dominant
correct option. disorder?
Column-I Column-II (1) Haemophilia (2) PKU
A. Penicillium (i) Rhizome (3) Myotonic dystrophy (4) Thalassemia
B. Banana (ii) Bulb 133. Consider the following cross,
C. Onion (iii) Bulbil PpQq × PpQq
D. Lily (iv) Conidia What are the chances of occurrence of a progeny
A B C D with ppQq genotype?
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) 1 1
(1) (2)
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) 4 8
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) 1 1
(3) (4)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) 2 16
(11)
134. In a polynucleotide chain, phosphodiester linkage 143. A population is said to be mature or stable, when
joins (1) Its age pyramid appears bell-shaped
(1) Two complementary nitrogenous base
(2) It shows a declined growth
(2) A phosphate group to a nucleoside
(3) It shows a rapid increase in population size
(3) Two nucleotides
(4) It has very high proportion of pre-
(4) Nitrogenous base and pentose sugar reproductive individual
135. How many different types of histones form core 144. Which of the given is least productive
part of nucleosome? ecosystem?
(1) 4 (2) 8 (1) Desert
(3) 5 (4) 6
(2) Coral reefs
SECTION-B
(3) Tropical rain forest
136. Which of the given is a start codon?
(4) Sugar cane field
(1) AUG (2) UAA
145. Which of the given constitute pioneer community
(3) UAG (4) UGA in hydrarch succession?
137. In lac-operon, permease is coded by (1) Phytoplankton
(1) lac-y (2) lac-z (2) Submerged plant
(3) lac-a (4) lac-i
(3) Scrub stage
138. During somatic hybridisation, the plant cells are
(4) Forest
first treated with
146. Species-area relationship was given by
(1) Pectinase (2) Cellulase
(1) Alexander von Humboldt
(3) PEG (4) Both (1) & (2)
(2) Paul Ehrlich
139. The crucial step for success of breeding
programme is (3) David Tilmann
(1) Collection of variability (4) Robert May
(2) Evaluation and selection of parents 147. The most important cause driving animals and
(3) Selection and testing of superior plants to extinction is
recombinants (1) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(4) Cross hybridisation (2) Overexploitation
140. Puffed-up appearance of dough during (3) Alien species invasion
preparation of bread is due to
(4) Co-extinction
(1) Production of CO2 during fermentation
148. Mark the odd one w.r.t primary air pollutants.
(2) Death of yeast
(1) CO (2) SO2
(3) Release of ethyl alcohol
(3) NOx (4) Ozone
(4) Secretion of enzymes by yeast
149. Noise become unbearable at
141. Major component of biogas is
(1) 30 dB
(1) Methane (2) CO2
(2) 60 dB
(3) H2S (4) H2
(3) 80 dB
142. Which of the following contributes to decrease in
population density? (4) 140 dB
(1) Natality and Mortality 150. Which of the given green house gases contribute
(2) Mortality and Immigration maximum to total global warming?
(3) Emigration and Immigration (1) CO2 (2) CH4

(4) Mortality and Emigration (3) CFCs (4) N2O
(12)
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 156. Complete the analogy w.r.t. Periplaneta
151. The characteristic cells of animals exhibiting americana.
tissue level of organisation and metagenesis are Spiracles : 10 pairs : : Alary muscles : ________
(1) Ciliated cells Choose the option which correctly fills the blank
(2) Choanocytes (1) 10 pairs (2) 12 pairs
(3) Cnidoblasts (3) 13 pairs (4) 6 pairs
(4) Collar cells 157. The co-factors which are attached to
152. Match column-I with column-II and choose the apoenzyme transiently, usually during the course
correct option of catalysis are called
Column-I Column-II (1) Prosthetic groups
a. Clarias (i) Claspers on pelvic fins (2) Co-enzymes

(3) Metal ions
b. Doliolum (ii) Notochord in larval tail (4) Holoenzyme
c. Aptenodytes (iii) Presence of terminal correct option.
mouth and air bladder Statement A: The blood concentration of
d. Pristis (iv) Homoiothermous glucose in a normal healthy individual is 4.2 m
mol/L – 6.1 mmol/L.
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
Statement B: Hormones' level in blood is usually
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) expressed in nanograms/mL.
153. Which of the following is a function of areolar
connective tissue?
(1) Serves as a support framework for epithelium
(3) Only A is correct
(2) Specialised to store fats
(3) Site of production of blood cells (4) Only B is correct
(4) Attach one bone to another 159. Choose the odd one w.r.t. enzymes of succus
entericus
(1) Lipases
(1) Fallopian tubes – Ciliated epithelium
(2) Dipeptidases
(2) PCT of nephrons – Cuboidal epithelium (3) Amylase
(3) Air sacs of lungs – Squamous epithelium (4) Nucleotidases
(4) Pancreatic ducts – Simple epithelium 160. Gross calorific value of 10 g of fat would be
(1) 90 kcal (2) 94.5 kcal
155. The external genitalia in male Periplaneta
americana are represented by (3) 56.5 kcal (4) 40 kcal
a. Three pairs of gonapophyses 161 During normal quiet inspiration
b. Right, left and ventral phallomere (1) External intercostal muscles relax
c. Calcareous asymmetrical structures, (2) Internal intercostal muscles contract
surrounding the male gonopore
(3) Intra-pulmonary pressure is more than
Choose the correct option atmospheric pressure
(1) a, b and c (2) b and c (4) Volume of thoracic chamber increases in
(3) a and c (4) b only both antero-posterior and dorso-ventral axis
(13)
162. The enzyme catalysed reaction given below 168. Polyuria, glycosuria and ketonuria in a person
occurs in backward direction at are indicative of
Carbonic
anhydrase
Carbonic
anhydrase
(1) Diabetes insipidus (2) Starvation
    − +
CO2 + H2O   H2CO3   HCO3 + H
(3) Diabetes mellitus (4) Renal calculi
(1) Alveolar site where pCO2 is high
(2) Tissue level where pCO2 is high correct option
(3) Alveolar site where pCO2 is low
Column-I Column-II
(4) Tissue level where pO2 is low
a. PCT (i) Almost impermeable
163. Branchial respiration is present in
to electrolytes
(1) Adult frog
(2) Aquatic molluscs b. DCT (ii) Filtrate becomes
hypotonic after
(3) Earthworm
passing through it
(4) Reptiles
c. Ascending limb of (iii) Helps to maintain
164. A person having only anti-A in his plasma can
Henle’s loop ionic balance
donate blood to persons with blood group
(1) B and AB (2) A and AB d. Descending limb of (iv) Conditional
Henle’s loop reabsorption of Na+
(3) AB and O (4) A and B
and water
165. Volume of blood pumped by both ventricles in
one minute by a normal adult human is (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(1) 70 mL (2) 140 mL (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(3) 5 L (4) 10 L 170. Which of the following is not true for amoeboid
movement?
166. Read the following statements (a – d) w.r.t. ECG
of healthy individual and select the option which (1) Pseudopodia are formed
correctly states each statement as true (T) or (2) Cytoskeletal elements are not involved
false (F).
(3) Streaming of protoplasm
a. Atrial contraction starts shortly after start of Q
(4) Exhibited by macrophages
wave.
171. Select the correct match w.r.t. joints
b. ECG is a graphical representation of the
mechanical activity of heart during a cardiac (1) Gliding joint – Between atlas and axis
cycle.
(2) Fibrous joint – Between adjacent
c. “Pip…..pip…..pip….peeeee” sound indicates
vertebrae
heart failure.
d. Electrical leads are connected one to each (3) Cartilaginous – Between flat skull bones
wrist and to right ankle in standard ECG. joint
a b c d (4) Synovial joint – Between carpal and

(1) F F F F metacarpal of thumb
(2) T F T T 172. Which of the following parts of brain is located

(3) T F F F between hypothalamus and pons?
(4) F F T T (1) Corpora quadrigemina
167. Osmoreceptores are present in (2) Cerebellum
(1) Hypothalamus (2) Medulla oblongata (3) Medulla oblongata
(3) Heart (4) Kidneys (4) Thalamus
(14)
173. How many statement(s) is/are incorrect w.r.t. 179. The cells which are not found in the interstitial
sense organs? spaces between the seminiferous tubules are
a. Nose and tongue can detect dissolved (1) Immunologically competent cells
chemicals
(2) Interstitial cells
b. The chemical senses of gustation and
(3) Leydig cells
olfaction are functionally dissimilar
(4) Sertoli cells
c. The olfactory epithelium consists of three
kinds of cells 180. During parturition in human female, foetal
d. Olfactory bulbs are extension of brain’s limbic ejection reflex triggers the release of A from
system
the B . Here A and B are
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four A B
174. Auditory receptor(s) in internal ear of human (1) Oxytocin Foetal pituitary
is/are
a. Macula (2) Cortisol Foetal adrenal medulla
b. Crista ampullaris (3) ACTH Foetal hypothalamus

c. Hair cells in organ of Corti (4) Oxytocin Maternal pituitary
181. Which of the following is an incorrect statement
(1) a and b (2) a and c
w.r.t. adult human female reproductive system?
(3) b and c (4) c only
(1) Ovaries are located one on each side of the
175. Select the protein hormone which is secreted by lower abdomen
a gland composed of two lobes and regulates
blood calcium levels (2) Each ovary is covered by a thin epithelium,
which encloses ovarian stroma
(1) PTH (2) TCT
(3) Vaginal opening is anterior to urethral
(3) T4 (4) PRL
opening
176. Which hormone is released in response to high
(4) The last part of oviduct which joins uterus is
blood pressure?
isthmus
182. The population of India according to May 2011
(3) Renin (4) ANF census report is
177. Select the monoecious animal which exhibits
(1) 7.2 million (2) 1 billion
self-fertilisation
(3) 1.2 billion (4) 6 billion
(1) Pheretima (2) Periplaneta
183. Given below are the names of contraceptives,
(3) Taenia solium (4) Sycon
their composition and mechanism of action.
correct option. Choose the correct option
Statement A: In animals, the juvenile phase is Contraceptive Composition Mechanism of action

followed by morphological and physiological
(1) Male condom Latex Covers vagina but
changes prior to active reproductive behaviour. allows deposition of
Statement B: In both plants and animals, semen in it
hormones are responsible for the transitions (2) Multiload 375 Copper coating Alters the quality of
between the three phases of life. cervical mucus
(1) Both A and B are correct (3) LNG-20 Levonorgestrel Makes the uterus
(2) Only A is correct unsuitable for
implantation
(4) Saheli Progestogens Prevents implantation
(15)
184. The preferred method for assisting the case of 191. Mating of more closely related individuals within
infertility due to impotency is the same breed for 4-6 generations, where there
is selection at each step will result in all except
(1) ICSI (2) AI
(1) Increase in homozygosity
(3) GIFT (4) ZIFT
(2) Exposure of harmful recessive genes
185. When the same structure developed along
(3) Decrease in the productivity of inbred
different directions due to adaptation to different population
needs is called
(4) Accumulation of superior genes
(1) Analogous organs 192. The breeding and rearing of fishes only by
(2) Convergent evolution artificial means is called
(3) Divergent evolution (1) Fishery (2) Pisciculture
(4) Co-evolution (3) Apiculture (4) Sericulture

193. DNA fragment containing desired gene can be
SECTION-B
identified by
186. Life span of ‘A’ species is more than the life span (1) Staining with ethidium bromide under visible
of ‘B’ species then in which case new life forms light
would appear early? (2) Probe followed by autoradiography
(1) A species (3) Agarose gel electrophoresis after staining
(2) B species with bromophenol blue
(3) Simutaneously in A and B species (4) Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay based
on antigen-antibody interaction
(4) Neither in A nor in B species
194. Why same restriction endonuclease is employed
187. Select the correct sequence w.r.t. evolution of to cut the cloning vector and donor DNA?
plants a. Resultant DNA fragments have same kind of
(1) Seed ferns → Progymnosperms → Dicots → ‘sticky-ends’
Monocots b. Resultant DNA fragments have
complementary sequences
(2) Psilophyton → Progymnosperms → Seed
c. Allows bond formation between the resultant
ferns → Dicots DNA fragments
(3) Progymnosperms → Seed ferns → Monocots Choose the correct option
→ Dicots (1) a only (2) a and b only
(4) Seed ferns → Cycads → Dicots → Monocots (3) a and c only (4) a, b and c
188. Choose the odd one w.r.t mode of transmission 195. Bacillus thuringiensis bacteria form
(1) Chicken pox (2) Diptheria (1) Protein crystals throughout their growth
(3) Pneumonia (4) Typhoid (2) Active toxin which kills cotton bollworm
(3) Inactive protoxins during a particular phase of
189. Select the correct match w.r.t vaccine and its
their growth
composition
(4) Proteins that kill lepidopterans like beetles
(1) BCG vaccine – Killed bacteria
(2) OPV – Killed virus correct option.
(3) Recombivax HB – Polysaccharide Statement A: Notochord is dorsal to nerve cord
in chordates.
(4) Covaxin – Killed virus
Statement B: Urochordates are exclusively
190. Cancer can be detected by all except marine.
(1) Computed tomography (1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Antibodies against cancer-specific antigens (2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Techniques of molecular biology (3) Both A and B statements are correct
(4) α-interferons (4) Both A and B statements are incorrect
(16)
197. The pitch of B-DNA is 199. Which of the following is responsible for LH
(1) 34 Å (2) 3.4 Å surge?
(3) 0.34 nm (4) 36 Å (1) Under secretion of GnRH

198. Select the mismatch. (2) High levels of estrogen
(1) Addison's disease – Hyposecretion of (3) High levels of progesterone
mineralocorticoids
(4) High levels of prolactin
and glucocorticoids
200. Factor which does not affect the Hardy-Weinberg
(2) Acromegaly – Hyposecretion of
growth hormone in equilibrium is
adults (1) Gene flow
(3) Cretinism – Hyposecretion of (2) Genetic drift
thyroid hormones
(3) Mutation
(4) Diabetes insipidus – Hyposecretion of
(4) Random mating
ADH
  
(17)
Edition: 2020-21
00-00-2021 Code-A
(for NEET-2021)

Instructions :
PHYSICS

SECTION-A 3. The maximum wavelength of radiation that can
produce photoelectric effect in a certain metal is
1. The pitch of a screw gauge is 0.5 mm and there
2000 Å. The maximum kinetic energy acquired
are 50 divisions on its circular scale. The screw
by electron due to radiation of wavelength 1000
gauge has least count of
Å will be nearly
(1) 0.05 mm
(1) 3.4 eV
(2) 0.25 mm
(2) 6.2 eV
(3) 0.01 mm
(4) 0.001 mm (3) 1.2 eV
2. The mean free path () for an ideal gas at (4) 12.4 eV
constant pressure with molecular diameter d in
4. The electric field in a certain region is given by
terms of absolute temperature T has relation ur
(1)   T
( )
E = 5iˆ kV/m. The potential difference (VB – VA)
between two points A and B having co-ordinates
(2)   T (4, 0, 0) and (10, 3, 0) respectively, is equal to
1 (co-ordinates x, y, z are in metre)
(3)  
T (1) 12 kV (2) 18 kV
(4)   T 2 (3) –42 kV (4) – 30 kV
(1)
5. Which of the following graphs best represents the 10. What is de Broglie wavelength associated with
variation of resistivity () with temperature (T) for an electron, accelerated through a potential
manganin? difference of 64 volt?
(1) 0.451 nm (2) 0.361 nm
(3) 0.153 nm (4) 0.281 nm
(1) (2) 11. For which of the following inputs, output is
high (1)?
(3) (4)
(1) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0 (2) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1
(3) A = 0, B = 1, C = 0 (4) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
6. A wire of length L with Young's modulus Y is 12. A short electric dipole has dipole moment of
hanging from a fixed support. The length of wire 2.4 × 10–10 C m. The electric potential due to the
becomes L1 when mass M1 is suspended and it dipole at a point at a distance of 0.4 m from the
becomes L2 when mass M2 is suspended at its centre of dipole situated on a line making an
free end. Then original length L is equal to angle 60° with the dipole axis is
L1M2 + L2M1 L1M2 − L2M1 (1) 3.25 V (2) 4.55 V

(1) (2)
M1 + M2 M2 + M1 (3) 6.75 V (4) 12.50 V
( L1M2 − L2M1 ) 13. A solenoid has a core of a material with relative

(3) (4) L1 L2 permeability 500. The winding of solenoid are
( M2 − M1 ) insulated from core and carry current of 5 A. If
7. Two tuning forks A and B produce notes of the number of turns is 1000 per metre, what is
frequencies 336 Hz and 340 Hz. An unknown intensity of magnetisation of the core?
note of guitar string when sounded with fork A (1) 2.495 × 106 A/m (2) 5.225 × 105 A/m
produce certain beats. When same note is
sounded with fork B, the beat frequency gets (3) 6.335 × 105 A/m (4) 5.325 × 106 A/m
doubled. The unknown note of guitar string 14. When a diode is heavily doped
is (the frequency of guitar string is less than that
(1) Depletion region will be wide
of A)
(2) Depletion region will be very thin
(1) 332 Hz (2) 340 Hz
(3) Diode material will be positively charged
(3) 344 Hz (4) 348 Hz
(4) Avalanche voltage will be high
8. A 15 F capacitor is connected to 220 V, 50 Hz
source. The rms value of current in the circuit is 15. A capillary tube has radius of 0.05 cm. The tube
nearly is dipped in a container filled with water (Surface
tension of water = 0.075 N m–1). What is the
(1) 1.52 A (2) 1.04 A
height of water rise in capillary tube due to
(3) 0.92 A (4) 1.72 A capillary action?
9. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with velocity of (1) 4 cm (2) 5 cm
10 m/s from the top of a tower. It returns back to
(3) 3 cm (4) 6 cm
ground after some time with speed of 60 m/s.
The height of the tower is (g = 10 m/s2) 16. The energy equivalence of 2 g of a substance is
(1) 375 m (2) 175 m (1) 1.8 × 1010 J (2) 1.8 × 1012 J
(3) 125 m (4) 225 m (3) 1.8 × 1013 J (4) 1.8 × 1014 J
(2)
17. The solid which has negative temperature 23. For transistor action, which of the following
coefficient of resistance, is statements is correct?
(1) Mercury (2) Nichrome (1) The collector side is heavily doped and has
small cross-sectional area
(3) Manganin (4) Graphite
(2) Transistor works as an amplifier when both
18. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one emitter-base and collector-base junction is
face of a prism with angle of prism 6° and reverse biased
emerges from second face. If the prism is dipped
in transparent liquid of refractive index 1.2 and (3) In p-n-p transistor, current enters from emitter
angle of deviation is 2°, then what is the into base region
refractive index of prism material? (4) Base current is approximately equal to
collector current in a n-p-n transistor
(1) 1.20 (2) 1.82
24. The capacitance of a capacitor with dielectric as
(3) 1.60 (4) 1.98
a medium is 60 F. When dielectric is removed,
19. In Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom, for dynamic its capacitance changes to 12 F. The
stable orbit, relation between orbit radius (r) and permittivity of dielectric medium is
speed of electron (v) is
(1) 4.4 × 10–11 C2 N–1 m–2
e2 (2) 5 × 10–11 C2 N–1 m–2
(1) r =
20 mv 2 (3) 5.00 C2 N–1 m–2
(4) 1.85 × 10–11 C2 N–1 m–2
3e2
(2) r = 25. Taking into account, the rules of significant
40 mv 2
figures, what is value of (436.32 g + 0.301 g +
227.2 g)?
e2
(3) r =
80 mv 2 (1) 663.82 g (2) 663.8 g
(3) 663.821 g (4) 664 g
e2
(4) r = 26. Two bodies of masses 15 kg and 10 kg are tied
40 mv 2 to the ends of massless string. The inextensible
string passes over a frictionless pulley as shown.
20. Assuming that light of wavelength 6000 Å is
The acceleration of 15 kg mass is (in terms of
coming from a star. What is the limit of resolution
acceleration due to gravity g)
of telescope whose objective has diameter of 122
cm?
(1) 3 × 10–7 rad (2) 6 × 10–7 rad
(3) 9 × 10–7 rad (4) 1.5 × 10–7 rad
21. A body weighs 120 N at a height equal to radius
of the Earth. Its weight on the Earth surface will
be g g
(1) (2)
6 3
(1) 140 N (2) 72 N
g g
(3) 390 N (4) 480 N (3) (4)
4 5
22. An electron has drift velocity of 4 × 10–4 m/s. If
the mobility of electron is 3 × 10–2 m2 V–1 s–1, then 27. A cylinder contains oxygen gas at pressure of
applied electric field is 260 kPa and temperature of 27°C, the density of
gas is (R = 8.3 J mol–1 K–1)
(1) 4 × 10–6 V m–1
(1) 0.2 kg/m3
(2) 7.5 × 10–6 V m–1
(2) 1.2 kg/m3
(3) 1.33 × 10–2 V m–1 (3) 3.34 kg/m3
(4) 3.33 × 10–9 V m–1 (4) 0.5 kg/m3
(3)
28. An electromagnetic wave contains non zero 34. Two cylinders A and B of equal volume are
energy density associated with it. It has both connected to each other via a stopcock. Cylinder
electric and magnetic fields associated with it. A contains an ideal gas at temperature T and
Then pressure P. Cylinder B is completely evacuated.
The entire system is thermally insulated. Now
(1) In free space with rms value of electric field
as E, the average energy density associated stopcock is suddenly opened. Then
0 E 2 (1) The process is an isochoric process

with electric field is
2 (2) The intermediate states before attaining
equilibrium do not satisfy gas equation
(2) In free space with rms value of magnetic field
as B, the average energy density associated (3) Temperature in final state will decrease
B2 (4) Internal energy of the gas increases
with magnetic field is
2 0 35. Electromagnetic radiation with an energy flux of
10 W/cm2 falls on a reflecting surface at normal
(3) Contribution of electric field to average
incidence. The surface has an area of 20 cm2,
energy density is double to that by magnetic
what is average force exerted on surface during
field
a 30 minute time span?
(4) Both (1) and (2) are correct
(1) 1.2 × 10–6 N (2) 2.4 × 10–6 N
29. A closely wound solenoid is 60 cm long and has (3) 1.33 × 10–6 N (4) 2.66 × 10–6 N
5 layers of 300 turns each. The diameter of
solenoid is 1.2 cm. If the current carried is 5 A, SECTION-B
the magnitude of magnetic field inside solenoid 36. Two solid spheres are made of copper. The
near its centre is radius of second sphere is 3 times that of the
(1) 1.57 × 10–2 T (2) 1.57 × 10–4 T first. The quantities of heat required to raise
temperature of each sphere by 2 K are in the
(3) 3.14 × 10–3 T (4) 3.14 × 10–2 T
ratio of
30. In Young's double slit experiment, if the
1 9
separation between slit plane and screen is (1) (2)
doubled and wavelength of coherent light used in 9 4
two slits is halved, then fringe width 1 1
(3) (4)
(1) Becomes half (2) Becomes four times 18 27
(3) Becomes one fourth (4) Remains unchanged 37. The average thermal energy for a diatomic gas
molecule is (kB is Boltzmann constant, T is
31. In a metre bridge, the null point is found to be at
absolute temperature)
distance of 33.33 cm from left end A. The
resistance connected in right gap is 12 . What 3
(1) kBT (2) 2 kBT
is unknown resistance in left gap? 2
(1) 24  (2) 18  5
(3) kBT (4) kBT
(3) 36  (4) 6  2
38. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac
32. Daily food intake of a human adult is equivalent
107 joule. Its value in electron volt is voltage source. When L is removed from circuit,
the phase difference between current and
(1) 1.6 × 10–25 eV (2) 6.25 × 10+25 eV 
voltage is . If instead of L, C is removed from
(3) 3.25 × 10–20 eV (4) 6 × 10+20 eV 4
235 the circuit, the phase difference between current
33. When a 92 U isotope is bombarded with a

neutron it generates 133
four neutrons and and voltage is again . The power factor of the
51 Sb, 4
94 140 original circuit is
(1) 38 Sr (2) 54 Xe
(1) 0.707 (2) 0.5
99 89
(3) 41 Nb (4) 36 Kr (3) 1.0 (4) 0.785
(4)
39. In the HCl molecule, separation between the 45. Find the torque about origin when a force of
nuclei of two atoms is about 1.46 Å. Mass of 6iˆ + 3 jˆ acts on a particle whose position vector
chlorine atom is about 35.5 times as massive as
is 3 ˆj + 5kˆ .
hydrogen atom and nearly all mass is
concentrated at its nucleus. The distance of
(1) 21kˆ (2) 15iˆ − 30 jˆ + 18kˆ
centre of mass from hydrogen atom is
(1) 0.67 Å (2) 0.73 Å (3) −15iˆ + 30 jˆ − 18kˆ (4) 15iˆ + 18kˆ
(3) 1.42 Å (4) 0.96 Å
46. At a depth of 2 km in an ocean, what is force
40. In SHM, when displacement from mean position acting on a window of area 25 cm × 20 cm of a
is maximum submarine at this depth, the interior of which is
kept at sea level atmospheric pressure? (The
(1) Velocity is minimum in magnitude
density of sea water is 1030 kg m–3, g = 10 m/s2)
(2) Acceleration is maximum in magnitude
(1) 6.02 × 105 N (2) 1.02 × 108 N
(3) Acceleration is minimum in magnitude
(3) 1.03 × 106 N (4) 2.06 × 105 N
(4) Both (1) and (2)
47. A wheel with 20 metallic spokes, each 0.5 m
41. What is Brewster's angle for air to glass
long, is rotated with a speed of 4 rev/s in a plane
transition? (Refractive index of glass 1.43)
normal to horizontal component of earth's
(1) 30° (2) 40° magnetic field BH = 0.5 G. What is emf induced
(3) 55° (4) 25° between axle and rim of the wheel?
42. Dimensions of pressure gradient are (1) 1.57 × 10–4 V
(1) [ML–3T–2] (2) 3.14 × 10–3 V
(2) [ML–2T–2] (3) 7.85 × 10–4 V

(3) [ML–4T–2] (4) 6.28 × 10–3 V
(4) [MLT–4] 48. Suppose a pure Si crystal has 5 × 1028 atom m–3.
43. Colour code of a carbon resistor is given as It is doped with 1 ppm concentration of
below. pentavalent Arsenic. Calculate the number of
holes (ni = 2.5 × 1016 m–3).
(1) 8 × 109 m–3
(2) 1.25 × 1010 m–3
The value of resistance and tolerance
(3) 6.25 × 1022 m–3
respectively, are
(4) 4.5 × 1022 m–3
(1) 62 × 105 , 10%
49. An object is placed 10 cm in front of a concave
(2) 63 × 105 , 5%
mirror of radius of curvature 10 cm, magnification
(3) 62 × 105 , 20% of the image is
(4) 12 × 105 , 5% (1) –2 (2) –1
44. A spherical conductor of radius 50 cm has (3) 1 (4) 2
charge of 3.6 C distributed over its surface.
What is magnitude of electric field at a point 150 50. A man can swim with speed of 4 km/h in still
cm from the centre of the conductor? water. He crosses 1 km wide river making
strokes normal to river current. The river flows
(1) 1.44 × 104 V/m steadily at 3 km/h. How far down the river, he
(2) 3.6 × 103 V/m drifts when he reaches the other bank?
(3) 1.22 × 105 V/m (1) 500 m (2) 600 m
(4) 6.2 × 104 V/m (3) 750 m (4) 1000 m
(5)
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 57. If the rate constant of a reaction is 2.303 × 10–4 s–1
then the time required to reduce 1.6 M of the
51. For positive deviation from Raoult’s law, which
reactant to 0.4 M is (log 2 = 0.3)
among the given relations is incorrect?
(1) 50 min (2) 20 min
(1) Hmix < 0 (2) Smix > 0
(3) 150 min (4) 100 min
(3) Vmix > 0 (4) Gmix < 0
58. The compound which contains two P–OH and
two P–H bonds is
(a) Mixture of CO and N2 is called synthesis gas
(1) H4P2O5 (2) H4P2O6
(b) CO reduces both Fe2O3 and ZnO to their
(3) (HPO3)3 (4) H4P2O7
respective metals
59. Reaction of benzoyl chloride with H2/Pd-BaSO4 is
(c) CO is a  acid ligand
known as
The correct statements are
(1) Etard reaction
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(2) Swarts reaction
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Rosenmund reduction
53. Mass of zinc deposited at cathode by passing a
current of 3.86 ampere for 100 minutes in molten (4) Clemmensen reduction
zinc chloride is (atomic mass of Zn = 65.4 u) 60. A metal crystallises as fcc crystal structure. If
(1) 10.5 g (2) 12.2 g edge length of unit cell is 320 pm then the radius
of the metal atom approximately will be
(3) 4.5 g (4) 7.8 g
(1) 139 pm (2) 178 pm
54. For the reversible reaction, A + 2B  3C if
(3) 160 pm (4) 113 pm
equilibrium constant is 1 × 102 at 27°C then the
value of rG° at the same temperature will be 61. Which among the following is an anionic
detergent?
(R = 2 cal K–1 mol–1)
(1) C17H35COO–Na+
(1) – 8.21 kcal mol–1
+
(2) – 2.76 kcal mol–1  CH3 
 | 
(3) – 4.31 kcal mol–1 (2)  CH3 (CH2 )15 − N − CH3  Br −
(4) 12.27 kcal mol–1  | 
 CH3 
55. For the reaction, Br2(g) → 2Br(g), the correct
option is (3) CH3 (CH2 )10 CH2OSO3−Na+
(1) rH < 0 and rS > 0
(4) CH3 (CH2 )16 COO(CH2CH2O)n CH2CH2OH
(2) rH > 0 and rS > 0
62. Spin only magnetic moment of Fe2+ is
(3) rH < 0 and rS < 0
(1) 1.73 BM (2) 3.87 BM
(4) rH > 0 and rS < 0
(3) 4.90 BM (4) 5.92 BM
(a) Thin layer chromatography is a type of
partition chromatography (a) Potassium carbonate can be synthesised by
Solvay process
(b) Silica gel and alumina are commonly used
adsorbents in adsorption chromatography (b) Washing soda is used in softening of hard
water
(c) In paper chromatography, chromatography
paper contains water trapped in it, which acts (c) Crystals of sodium hydroxide are
as stationary phase deliquescent
The correct statement(s) is/are The incorrect statement(s) is/are
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only (1) (a) only (2) (c) only
(3) (b) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
(6)
64. Match the following and identify the correct 70. The enzymes which utilise ATP in phosphate
option transfer require which metal as co-factor?
(a) Baking soda (i) Ca(OH)2 (1) Ca (2) Na
(3) K (4) Mg
(b) Slaked lime (ii) CaO
71. Chlorobenzene on reaction with sodium in
(c) Quick lime (iii) Na2CO3 presence of dry ether forms
(d) Soda ash (iv) NaHCO3
(1)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (2)
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (3)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
65. The rate of dehydrohalogenation of the given (4)
compounds follows the order
72. Which colloidal sol is most easily precipitated by
Al3+ ions?
(1) TiO2 sol
(2) As2S3 sol
(1) (iii) > (i) > (ii) (3) Al2O3·xH2O sol
(2) (ii) > (iii) > (i) (4) Haemoglobin
(3) (ii) > (i) > (iii) 73. If 12 g of urea is dissolved in 500 g water then
(4) (iii) > (ii) > (i) the freezing point of the solution will be
66. Which of the following is the correct order of (Kf of water = 1.86 K kg mol–1)
decreasing field strength of ligands according to
(1) –1.74°C (2) –0.22°C
spectrochemical series?
(3) –0.74°C (4) –1.21°C
(1) Br– > H2O > edta4– > NH3
74. The compound which will not give positive
(2) edta4– > NH3 > H2O > Br–
carbylamine test is
(3) NH3 > edta4– > H2O > Br–
(4) edta4– > Br– > H2O > NH3
67. Incorrect statement among the following is (1) (2)
(1) Pig iron contains about 4% carbon
(2) Aniline can be used as froth stabiliser in froth
floatation process
(3) Brass is an alloy of copper and zinc
(4) Zirconium is refined by zone refining method (3) (4)
68. Which among the following is not a disaccharide?
(1) Sucrose 75. Which among the following is synthetic rubber?
(2) Maltose (1) Buna-N (2) PHBV
(3) Lactose (3) Orlon (4) Glyptal
(4) Galactose 76. Incorrect statement among the following is
69. What is the change in oxidation number of (1) The most common oxidation state of titanium
chromium in the following reaction? is +4

Cr2O3 + 2Al ⎯⎯ → Al2O3 + 2Cr (2) V2O5 on reaction with alkalies forms VO34−
(1) +6 to +3 (2) +3 to 0 (3) Interstitial compounds are chemically inert
(3) +4 to 0 (4) 0 to +6 (4) Density of iron is greater than nickel
(7)
77. Which of the following set of molecules will have 83. Which among the following has maximum
zero dipole moment? number of atoms?
(1) Water, hydrogen sulphide, ozone, chlorine (1) 14 g of N2 (2) 8 g of CH4
trifluoride (3) 22 g of CO2 (4) 15 g of C2H6
(2) Sulphur hexafluoride, carbon tetrachloride, 84. Non-essential amino acid among the following is
boron trifluoride, phosphorus pentachloride
(1) Proline (2) Histidine
(3) Sulphur tetrafluoride, xenon tetrafluoride, (3) Valine (4) Methionine
ammonia, bromine pentafluoride
85. A gas is allowed to expand in a well insulated
(4) Methane, carbon dioxide, chloroform, sulphur container against a constant external pressure of
dioxide 2 atm from an initial volume of 4.25 L to a final
78. On electrolysis of dilute copper sulphate solution volume of 6.25 L. The change in internal energy
using platinum electrodes, the products obtained (U) of the gas will be
at cathode and anode respectively are (1) – 675 J (2) + 675 J
(1) H2 and O2 (2) Cu and O2 (3) 405.2 J (4) – 405.2 J
(3) H2 and SO2 (4) O2 and H2
79. Benzyl phenyl ether (PhCH2OPh) on cleavage SECTION-B
with HI gives 86. IUPAC official name of element having atomic
number 102 is
(1) Mendelevium (2) Bohrium
(1) (2) (3) Rutherfordium (4) Nobelium
87. According to molecular orbital theory, which
among the following is diamagnetic species?
(1) B2 (2) O2
(3) (4) (3) NO (4) C2
88. Identify the correct statement from the following.
80. The number of electrons, protons and neutrons in (a) On commercial scale, CO2 is obtained by
169 heating limestone
69 Tm respectively are
(1) 69, 100, 69 (2) 69, 69, 100 (b) Graphite is used as a dry lubricant
(3) 100, 69, 69 (4) 69, 100, 100 (c) SiO2 reacts with HF but does not react with
NaOH
81. Match the following and find the correct option
(d) In [GeCl6]2–, the hybridisation of central atom
(a) NO (i) Acidic is sp3d2
(1) (a) and (b) only
(b) CO2 (ii) Basic
(2) (b) and (c) only
(c) SnO (iii) Neutral
(3) (b) and (d) only
(d) CrO (iv) Amphoteric (4) (a), (b) and (d) only
(a) (b) (c) (d) 89. Which compound on reductive ozonolysis gives
propanone and isobutyraldehyde?
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(1)
(2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
82. Most stable carbocation among the following is (3)
 
(1) (Ph)2 CHCH2 (2) (Ph)2CCH3
 
(4)
(3) PhCH2 (4) (CH3 )3 CCH2
(8)
90. Reaction of acetaldehyde with ethylmagnesium 95. In which of the following reaction white
bromide followed by hydrolysis will give precipitate is obtained?
(1) Tertiary alcohol (2) Secondary alcohol (1) FeCl3(aq) + NH4OH(aq) →
(3) Ester (4) Ether (2) ZnSO4(aq) + NH4OH(aq) →
91. 16 g of O2 and 8 g of He is present in a closed (3) Cu2+(aq) + NH3(aq) →
container. If total pressure of the mixture of
(4) AgCl(s) + NH3(aq) →
gases in the cylinder is 15 atm then the partial
pressure of He in the cylinder will be 96. Number of unpaired electrons present in
[Mn(CN)6]3– is
(1) 3 atm (2) 10 atm
(1) Zero (2) 2
(3) 6 atm (4) 12 atm
92. For Arrhenius equation, the intercept of the plot (3) 4 (4) 3
1 97. Which among the following is a tranquilizer?
lnk vs is
T (1) Luminal (2) Seldane
Ea (3) Vancomycin (4) Ranitidine
(1) − (2) lnA
R 98. Which among the following is a carbonate ore of
metal?
1
(3) A (4) (1) Bauxite (2) Siderite
ln A
(3) Sphalerite (4) Zincite
93. Solubility of AgCl in 0.1 M calcium chloride
99. Products obtained by the reaction of CaC2 and
solution is (Ksp of AgCl = 1.8 × 10–10)
Al4C3 with heavy water respectively are
(1) 1.8 × 10–9 M (2) 9 × 10–10 M
(1) CD4 and C2D6 (2) C3D4 and C2D2
(3) 1.8 × 10–8 M (4) 1.3 × 10–5 M
(3) C2D2 and CD4 (4) C2D6 and CD4
94. Benzal chloride on reaction with H2O at 373 K
100. Most acidic compound among the following is
forms
(1) C6H5COOH (2) HCOOH
(1) Benzoic acid (2) Benzyl alcohol
(3) BrCH2COOH (4) CH3COOH
(3) Benzaldehyde (4) Phenol
BOTANY
SECTION-A 104. Which of the following is a colonial alga?
101. Viroids have (1) Spirulina (2) Ectocarpus
(1) DNA enclosed in capsid (3) Spirogyra (4) Volvox
(2) RNA of low molecular weight 105. The phenomenon of loss of water in liquid form
(3) RNA enclosed in capsid from the tip of grass blades at night and in early
(4) DNA without protein coat morning is
102. Which of the following pairs has/have same (1) Root pressure
ploidy in a typical angiospermic plant? (2) Imbibition
a. Pollen grain and anther
(3) Plasmolysis
b. Male gamete and pollen grain
(4) Guttation
c. Seed and endosperm
106. Select the incorrect statement.
d. Embryo sac and ovule
(1) a and c (2) b and d (1) NPP is available biomass for the
consumption to herbivores
(3) b only (4) b, c and d
(2) NPP is less than GPP
103. Who experimentally verified chromosomal theory
of inheritance and proposed the term (3) GPP is primary productivity whereas NPP is
recombination? secondary productivity
(1) Sturtevant (2) T.H. Morgan (4) GPP is rate of organic matter formation by
(3) Boveri (4) Sutton producers
(9)
107. The stalk of ovule by which it remains attached to 113. Choose the incorrect one for G0 stage
placenta is (1) Cells are metabolically active
(1) Hilum (2) Cells that exit G1 phase enter G0 stage
(2) Micropyle (3) Cells in this stage undergo protein synthesis
(3) Chalaza (4) Cells that enter G0 stage can never
(4) Funicle proliferate
108. In light reaction, plastoquinone 114. Identify the incorrect statement for G2 phase.
(1) Acts as electron acceptor and does not (1) DNA replication occurs
accepts H+ (2) Tubulin protein synthesises
(2) Is primary acceptor of electrons from PS II (3) Golgi body duplicates
(3) Transfers electrons between PS II to cyt b6f (4) Protein synthesis occurs
(4) Transfers electrons between cyt b6f to PS I 115. If the distance between two consecutive base
109. Match the columns and select the correct option. pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base
pairs of DNA double helix in haploid mammalian
Column I Column II cell is 3.3 × 109 bp then length of DNA is
approximately
a. Saccharomyces (i) Making of
cerevisiae curd (1) 1.12 m (2) 1.36 m
(3) 1.18 nm (4) 1.56 m
b. Monascus purpureus (ii) Baking
industry 116. Which of the following regions of globe is
commonly called ‘Lungs of planet’?
c. Clostridium butylicum (iii) Statins
(1) Himalaya (2) Western Ghat
d. Lactobacillus (iv) Butyric acid (3) Indo-Burma (4) Amazon forest
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) 117. Nitrogenase
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (1) Catalyses conversion of N2 to ammonia
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (2) Activity is seen in nodules of cereals
(4) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (3) Is a Cu-Fe protein
110. All of the following cause seed dormancy, except (4) Fixes nitrogen in presence of oxygen
118. The primary treatment of sewage
(1) Phenols
(1) Produces activated sludge
(2) Gibberellins
(2) Is anaerobic biological process
(3) Impermeable seed coat
(3) Is a physical process
(4) ABA
(4) Involves anaerobic sludge digester
111. Which of the given enzymes is capable of
opening of DNA helix and polymerisation of 119. Select the wrong match.
nucleotides? (1) Sickle cell anaemia – Point mutation
(1) DNA polymerase I (2) Haemophilia – X linked recessive
(2) RNA polymerase disorder
(3) DNA polymerase II (3) Phenylketonuria – Autosomal dominant
disorder
(4) DNA polymerase III
(4) Colourblindness – X linked disorder
112. Inferior ovary is found in
120. In a newly colonised habitat, which of the
(1) Plum following population attributes contributes
(2) Tomato maximally?
(3) Mustard (1) Emigration (2) Sex ratio
(4) Ray florets of sunflower (3) Natality (4) Immigration
(10)
121. Identify the incorrect one for photorespiration 128. In Krebs’ cycle, at how many step(s)
(1) RuBisCO shows carboxylase activity decarboxylation occur(s)?
(2) It does not produce ATP or NADPH2 (1) 1 (2) 3
(3) Oxygen is utilised in chloroplast (3) 2 (4) 4
(4) In first step one molecule of PGA and one 129. If a couple has blood group AB and O then which
molecule of phosphoglycolate is formed of the given blood groups can be seen in their
children?
122. Match the columns and select the correct option.
(1) O and B (2) AB and O
Column I Column II
(3) A and B (4) AB and B
a. Calcium (i) Required for formation 130. Which plant hormone stimulates internodal
of chlorophyll elongation in plants?
b. Boron (ii) Found in middle (1) Auxin (2) ABA
lamella (3) Ethylene (4) Gibberellins
c. Molybdenum (iii) Uptake and utilisation 131. Which of the following statements regarding DNA
of Ca++ is incorrect?
d. Iron (iv) Component of (1) The two strands run antiparallelly

nitrogenase (2) Adenine pairs with thymine through three
H-bonds
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) Purine always pairs with pyrimidine
(2) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(4) Guanine pairs with cytosine through three
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) H-bonds
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) 132. In first phase of translation
123. In eukaryotes which cell organelle is the site of (1) t-RNA joins with amino acid
glycosylation of proteins?
(2) m-RNA binds with ribosome
(1) RER (2) Peroxisome
(3) Ribosome binds with t-RNA
(3) Golgi bodies (4) SER
(4) t-RNA binds at initiator codon
124. Which of the given is an adventitious root?
133. Floridean starch is stored food material of
(1) Roots of radish
(1) Porphyra (2) Fucus
(2) Roots of mustard
(3) Spirogyra (4) Ectocarpus
(3) Respiratory roots of Rhizophora
134. Strobili or cones are not found in
(4) Prop roots of banyan
(1) Equisetum (2) Selaginella
125. Half inferior ovary is found in
(3) Pinus (4) Marchantia
(1) Peach (2) Guava
135. Mendel selected how many characters and
(3) China rose (4) Brinjal varieties respectively of pea plant for
126. Select the odd one for heartwood. hybridisation experiments?
(1) Dark in colour (1) 14, 7 (2) 22, 14
(2) Does not conduct water (3) 7, 14 (4) 7, 7
(3) Gives mechanical support SECTION-B
(4) It is outermost secondary xylem 136. Snow blindness is related to
127. Ladybird is used to control (1) Inflammation of cornea by exposure of UV-B
(1) Mosquitoes (2) Damage of cornea by greenhouse gases
(2) Aphids (3) Exposure of retina by CFCs
(3) Root pathogen in plants (4) Blindness of eye in colder areas due to IR
(4) Viruses that infect plants rays
(11)
137. Match the following columns and select the 143. Montreal protocol was signed at Montreal
correct option. (Canada) and became effective in the year
Column I Column II (1) 1987 (2) 1981

(3) 1976 (4) 1989
a. Leptotene (i) Bivalent formation
144. Read the below given food chain and select the
b. Zygotene (ii) Crossing over incorrectly matched pair.
c. Diplotene (iii) Condensation of Crop → Grasshopper → Sparrow → Falcon
chromatin (1) Grasshopper – At second trophic level
d. Pachytene (iv) Dissolution of (2) Crop – Are transducers
synaptonemal complex (3) Sparrow – Primary consumer
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) Falcon – Top consumer
(3) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) 145. Terminalisation of chiasmata occurs during
(1) Diplotene
138. Inclusion bodies
(2) Diakinesis
(1) Are bound by double membrane
(3) Pachytene
(2) Are found in purple and green photosynthetic
bacteria (4) Zygotene
(3) Store food material in eukaryotes 146. The reaction centre of PS II has an absorption
peak at
(4) Are found in nucleus
(1) 700 nm
139. The transverse section of a plant shows following
anatomical features: (2) 680 nm
(3) 720 nm
a. Vascular bundles are arranged in a ring
(4) 660 nm
b. Hypodermis is collenchymatous
147. Members of Ascomycetes asexually reproduce
Identify the plant part
commonly by
(1) Monocot root
(1) Conidia
(2) Dicot stem
(2) Zoospores
(3) Monocot stem
(3) Sporangiospores
(4) Dicot root
(4) Budding
140. Pollination occurs by insect in
148. Actinomorphic flowers are found in
(1) Vallisneria (1) Lily
(2) Maize (2) Bean
(3) Water lily (3) Pea
(4) Zostera (4) Indigofera
141. According to IUCN (2004), the total number of 149. Identify the ex-situ conservation strategy among
plants and animal species described is these.
(1) 7 million (1) Wild life sanctuaries
(2) Slightly more than 1.5 million (2) National park
(3) 50 million (3) Biosphere reserve
(4) 20 million (4) Wildlife safari park
142. In geometrical growth, rate of growth slows down 150. Choose the odd one w.r.t. major greenhouse
leading to gases
(1) Lag phase (2) Exponential phase (1) CH4 (2) CO2
(3) Log phase (4) Stationary phase (3) CFCs (4) SO2
(12)
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 157. Which of the following is not true w.r.t. copy
number of the linked DNA in the vector?
151. Select the option including only those examples
which are examples of natural selection as well (1) It is equal to the copy number of vector in
as evolution by anthropogenic action host cell
(a) Industrial melanism (2) It is controlled by ori sequence
(b) Antibiotic resistant bacteria (3) It is controlled by selectable marker
(c) Pesticide resistant insects (4) Depends on the sequence from where
replication starts
(d) Man-created breeds of dogs
158. Brush border columnar epithelium is found in
Choose the correct option:
inner lining of
(1) Pancreatic ducts
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(2) PCT of nephron
(3) Small intestine
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) Bronchioles
152. Second polar body during oogenesis is formed
159. Match the following diseases with the causative
(1) At the time of copulation organism and select the correct option
(2) Before ovulation, within tertiary follicle
Column-I Column-II
(3) When sperm enters in secondary oocyte
during fertilization a. Common cold (i) Streptococcus
(4) After zygote formation b. Elephantiasis (ii) Entamoeba
153. Which of the following is produced by plants for c. Dysentery (iii) Wuchereria
defence action?
(1) Nicotine and Anthocyanins d. Pneumonia (iv) Rhino viruses
(2) Strychnine and Nicotine (a) (b) (c) (d)

(3) Caffeine and Carotenoids (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) Strychnine and Anthocyanins (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
154. Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed in (3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Punjab by crossing (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(1) Bikaneri rams and Marino ewes 160. Which of the following statements are true for the
(2) Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams phylum Chordata?
(3) Nali ewes and Deccani rams (a) In cephalochordates, notochord extends from
(4) Patanwadi rams and Nellore ewes head to tail
155. The stage of Plasmodium which enters in human (b) Urochordates are exclusively marine
blood on the bite of infected female Anopheles is (c) Notochord is dorsal to nerve cord
(1) Merozoite (2) Sporozoite (d) All vertebrates are jawed
(3) Gametocyte (4) Trophozoite (1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
156. S.L. Miller in 1953, created electric discharge in a (3) (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (c)
closed flask containing 161. Goblet cells are present in
(1) CH4, NH3, H2 and water vapour at 600°C (1) Squamous epithelium
(2) CH4, O2, NH3 and water vapour at 800°C (2) Compound epithelium
(3) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapour at 800°C (3) Transitional epithelium
(4) CH4, H2 and NH3 only at 800°C (4) Columnar epithelium
(13)
162. Match the following 167. The T wave in a standard ECG represents
(a) Competitive inhibitor (i) Morphine (1) Depolarisation of ventricles

of succinic (2) Repolarisation of ventricles
dehydrogenase (3) Repolarisation of atria
(b) Possess glycosidic (ii) Malonate (4) Depolarisation of atria
bonds 168. Which of the following option includes all STIs?
(c) Homopolymer of (iii) Chitin (1) Syphilis, Genital herpes, Cancer
NAG (2) Genital warts, Gonorrhoea, AIDS
(d) Secondary (iv) Cellulose (3) AIDS, Hepatitis-B, Malaria
metabolite (4) Toxoplasmosis, Gonorrhoea, Cancer
Choose the correct option from the following 169. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) Glucagon is released in response to
hyperglycemia
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) Cortisol stimulates glycogenolysis
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) Insulin is a hyperglycemic hormone
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) Insulin acts on hepatocytes and adipocytes
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
170. In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments
163. Triploblastic and acoelomate animals are
appear as orange coloured bands after staining
exemplified by
with
(1) Platyhelminthes
(1) Acetocarmine, under UV radiation
(2) Sponges
(2) Ethidium bromide, under UV radiation
(3) Cnidarians (3) Methylene blue, under UV radiation
(4) Annelids (4) Ethidium bromide, under visible light
164. Select the set of conditions in urine which are 171. The transfer of zygote or embryo with upto 8
indicative of Diabetes mellitus blastomeres and embryo with more than 8
(1) Proteinuria and Renal calculi blastomeres is respectively called
(2) Uremia and Proteinuria (1) IUI and ZIFT
(3) Ketonuria and Polyuria (2) ZIFT and AI
(4) Polyuria without glycosuria (3) ZIFT and IUT
165. Identify the correct set of substances having (4) GIFT and ZIFT
glycosidic bond in their structure 172. Which of the following events are correct for
(1) Glycerol and lecithin normal quiet inspiration?
(2) Triglyceride and cellulose (a) Diaphragm becomes dome shaped
(3) Glycogen and Adenylic acid (b) Ribs and sternum move downward and
inward
(4) Chitin and cholesterol
(c) Intra pleural pressure becomes more
166. Select the incorrect statement negative
(1) C-peptide is removed during maturation of (d) Intra pulmonary pressure decreases
proinsulin into insulin
(2) The functional insulin has A and B chains
linked by only one disulphide bond (1) (a) and (b)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Humulin is produced in E.coli
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) Recombinant therapeutics do not induce
unwanted immunological responses (4) (b), (c) and (d)
(14)
173. Match the following columns and select the 177. Wings of butterfly and wings of birds are
correct option examples of
Column-I Column-II (1) Homologous organs (2) Divergent evolution
(a) False ribs (i) Flat, expanded (3) Analogous organs (4) Co-evolution
process of scapula 178. Which of the following is an incorrect statement
w.r.t. transport of oxygen?
(b) Glenoid cavity (ii) Articulates with
head of humerus (1) Formation of oxyhaemoglobin mainly
depends on pO2
(c) Clavicle (iii) Has two curvatures
(2) High pCO2 at tissue level favours the
and articulates with
dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin
a process of
scapula (3) Low pH at alveolar level favours the
formation of oxyhaemoglobin
(d) Acromion (iv) Do not articulate
directly with sternum (4) Low pCO2 at alveolar level favours the
formation of oxyhaemoglobin
(a) (b) (c) (d)
179. Select the neutral amino acid from the following
(1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(1) Glutamic acid (2) Lysine
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) Valine (4) Tyrosine
(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
180. Match the organism with its use in biotechnology
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(a) Bacillus (i) Host cell for human
174. Which of the following is correct w.r.t. nervous
thuringiensis insulin production
system of Periplaneta americana ?
(1) Ventral part of body holds a bit of nervous (b) Thermus aquaticus (ii) Taq polymerase
system while rest is present in head (c) Agrobacterium (iii) Insecticidal protein
(2) Brain supplies nerves to antennae and tumefaciens coding gene
compound eyes (d) E.coli (iv) Ti plasmid
(3) Brain is represented by sub-oesophageal
Select the correct option from the following
ganglion
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) If the head of cockroach is removed, it will
immediately die as brain is situated in head (1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
region (2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
175. Bt cotton is resistant to (3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(1) Cotton bollworm which belongs to order (4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Lepidoptera 181. Match the following columns and select the
(2) Corn borer which belongs to order Lepidoptera correct option
(3) Beetles which belong to order Coleoptera Column-I Column-II
(4) Cotton bollworm which belongs to order (a) Tracheal system (i) Pila
Coleoptera
(b) Ciliated comb (ii) Echinus
176. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. restriction
plates
enzymes
(1) They break phosphodiester bonds (c) Calcareous (iii) Pleurobrachia
endoskeleton
(2) Each restriction endonuclease functions by
inspecting the length of a DNA sequence (d) Mantle and shell (iv) Periplaneta
(3) Each restriction enzyme binds to its specific (a) (b) (c) (d)
recognition sequence and cut two strands of (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
the double helix of DNA
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(4) Restriction enzymes do not cut between the
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
same two bases on the opposite strands of
DNA, thereby produce sticky ends (4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(15)
182. An excessive loss of fluid from the body can 187. The recognition sequence of EcoRI is how many
activate all except base pairs in length?
(1) Release of ADH from neurohypophysis (1) 6 (2) 8
(2) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal (3) 4 (4) 5
tubules in presence of aldosterone 188. Which of the following converts trypsinogen into
(3) Release of renin from JG cells trypsin?
(4) Release of ANF from atria of heart (1) HCl

(2) Enterokinase
183. Select the mismatch
(3) Castle’s intrinsic factor
(1) DNA ligases – Join ends of cut
(4) Pepsin
DNA molecules
(2) Exonucleases – Remove correct option
nucleotides from
the ends of the Column-I Column-II
DNA
(a) Eosinophils (i) Phagocytic,
(3) Nucleases – Separate the two agranular
strands of DNA
(b) Basophils (ii) Release
(4) DNA polymerase – Adds nucleotides histaminase
to 3 end of a DNA (c) Neutrophils (iii) Secrete histamine,
strand involved in
inflammation
184. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. human
digestive system (d) Monocytes (iv) Most abundant of
(1) Mucosa is the outermost layer of the total WBCs
alimentary canal (a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) Ileum is the longest part of small intestine (1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) Vermiform appendix arises from ileum and is (2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
vestigial
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) Peyer’s patches are present in submucosa of
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
ileum
185. Embryological support of evolution was given by correct option
(1) Alfred Wallace
Column-I Column-II
(2) Charles Darwin
(a) Thyroid gland (i) Acromegaly
(3) Oparin
(b) Adrenal glands (ii) Cretinism
(4) Ernst Haeckel
(c) Pituitary gland (iii) Tetany
SECTION-B
186. Which of the following is responsible for LH (d) Parathyroid glands (iv) Aldosteronism
surge? (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) High concentration of progesterone (1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) Low concentration of GnRH (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) High concentration of estrogen (3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) High concentration of prolactin (4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(16)
191. Match the following columns and select the (c) RNAi (iii) In-vitro DNA
correct option amplification
Column-I Column-II
(d) PCR (iv) Resistant to insect
(a) Placenta (i) Secrete pest
testosterone in
(a) (b) (c) (d)
presence of LH
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(b) Zona pellucida (ii) Secretes hPL
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(c) Bulbourethral (iii) Secreted by (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
glands secondary oocyte
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(d) Leydig cells (iv) Homologous to
Bartholin's glands
correct option
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Column-I Column-II
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(a) Macula (i) Filled with
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
endolymph
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(b) Organ of Corti (ii) Attached to the
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
tympanic
192. Match the following columns and select the membrane
correct option
(c) Malleus (iii) Saccule and
Column-I Column-II Utricle
(a) Scales and paired (i) Torpedo (d) Scala media (iv) Contain hair cells
fins absent that act as auditory
(b) Claspers on pelvic (ii) Cyclostomes receptors
fins of males (a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) 4 pairs of gills (iii) Chondrichthyes (1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
covered with (2) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
operculum
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(d) Electric organs (iv) Osteichthyes
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(a) (b) (c) (d) 195. The most abundant protein in the whole
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) biosphere is
(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (1) Collagen
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) (2) RuBisCO
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (3) Chitin
193. Match the following columns and select the (4) Cellulose
correct option
196. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t immunity
Column-I Column-II (1) Active immunity is slow and takes time to
(a) Bt cotton (i) Enzyme give its full effective response
replacement (2) Passive immunity generates on exposure to
therapy antigen
(b) Adenosine (ii) Silencing of (3) Antitoxin is an example of passive immunity

deaminase specific mRNA (4) IgA through colostrum provides passive
deficiency immunity to infant
(17)
197. Choose the odd one w.r.t. forebrain of humans 200. Transgenic animals are being produced for
(1) Hippocampus (2) Amygdala various purposes. Select the option which
includes all the correct reasons with reference to
(3) Thalamus (4) Cerebral aqueduct
above mentioned statement.
198. Select the mismatch w.r.t. cranial capacity
(a) Transgenic animals allow the study of how
(1) Homo habilis – 650-800 cc
genes are regulated
(2) Homo erectus – 900 cc
(3) Neanderthal man – 1400 cc (b) For investigation of new treatments for
diseases
(4) Homo sapiens sapiens – 1650 cc
199. Which of the following is incorrect for implants? (c) For production of biological products
(1) Their composition is similar to that of oral (d) For vaccine safety testing
steroidal pills
(2) Their mode of action is similar to oral
steroidal pills (2) (c) and (d) only
(3) Their effective periods are much longer (3) (b) and (c) only
(4) They are implanted in uterus by doctors or
expert nurses (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
❑ ❑ ❑
(18)
04/09/2021 CODE-A
CST – 20
Instructions:
PHYSICS
SECTION-A 3. The potential energy of a harmonic oscillator of
2
mass 5 kg in its mean position is 4 J. If its total
1. Dimensional formula of ∫x dx is energy is 12 J and its amplitude is 20 cm, then its
(x is displacement of a particle) time period will be
(1) [M0L2T2] (2) [M0L2T0] π π
(1) s (2) s
(3) [M0L3T0] (4) [M0L2T] 10 50
2. The ratio of velocities of two particles, whose π π
position-time graph is represented by lines A and (3) s (4) s
2 5 40
B as shown in the graph below, is
4. If net torque acting on a system is zero, then
(1) Linear momentum of system will be
conserved
(2) Angular momentum of system will remain
constant
(3) Angular velocity will remain constant
(4) Force acting on the system must be zero
(1) 1 : 1 5. The distance covered by a particle varies with
time as x = k(1 – e–λt), here k and λ are
(2) 1: 3 constants. The speed of particle at time t is
(3) 2 :1 (1) ke–λt (2) – ke–λt
(4) 3 : 1 (3) kλe–λt (4) –kλe–λt
(1)

6. Dipole moment of a short dipole is P . A point 11. A ball of mass m is projected with velocity u at an
π angle θ with horizontal. What will be its angular
charge q is placed at point A at an angle with momentum at maximum height of journey with
3
respect to projection point?
respect to dipole axis. What will be force on a
charge q at point A? mu 2 sin2 θ mu 3 sin2 θ cos θ
(1) (2)
2g 2g
mu 3 cos θ
(3) (4) Zero
g
12. The length of second’s pendulum at the surface
of earth is 1 m. What will be the length of
(O is the mid-point of dipole) second’s pendulum at the surface of moon?
 ge 
kPq 2kPq  gm = 
(1) (2)  6 
3
r r3
1 1
5 kPq 7 kPq (1) m (2) m
(3) (4) 2 3
2r 3 2r 3
1 1
7. A charged particle of mass m and charge q is (3) m (4) m
 6 12
released from rest in a uniform electric field E .
13. An open organ pipe and a closed organ pipe are
The KE of charged particle after time t is of equal lengths. What will be the ratio of the
qEt 2 q 2E 2t 2 frequencies of their fourth overtone?
(1) (2)
2m 2m (1) 1 : 1 (2) 4 : 7
q 2E 2t q 2E 2t (3) 10 : 7 (4) 10 : 9
(3) (4)
m 2m 14. Three long straight wires P, Q and R are carrying
currents as shown in the figure. The resultant
8. The ratio of path difference to phase difference is
force on Q is directed
(λ is the wavelength of wave used)
2π λ
(1) (2)
λ 2π
(3) 2π (4) λ
9. A rigid solid sphere is spinning about an axis
without any external torque. Due to increase in (1) Towards P
temperature, the volume of sphere increases by
(2) Towards R
6%. The angular velocity will approximately
(3) Perpendicular to plane of paper and inward
(1) Increase by 2% (2) Decrease by 2%
(4) Perpendicular to plane of paper and outward
(3) Increase by 4% (4) Decrease by 4%
15. What will be the current through a p-n junction
10. A rigid body rolls down on an inclined plane. If its diode made of Germanium shown in figure
kinetic energy of rotational motion is 50% of its below?
kinetic energy of translational motion then the
body is
(1) Solid cylinder
(2) Solid sphere
(3) Hollow sphere (1) 0⋅2 A (2) 0⋅4 A
(4) Ring (3) 0⋅16 A (4) Zero
(2)
16. Which of the following relationship between 23. Half-life of a radioactive substance is 60 minutes.
change in the internal energy ∆U and ratio of What is the approximate time duration between
molar specific heat γ for an ideal gas is true? 33% decay to 67% decay of the substance?
P ∆V (1) 30 minutes (2) 60 minutes

(1) ∆U = P∆V (2) ∆U =
γ (3) 90 minutes (4) 120 minutes
24. A Capacitor of capacitance C is charged with a
P ∆V γ P ∆V battery of potential V and then disconnected.
(3) ∆U = (4) ∆U =
γ –1 γ –1 Now a charge +Q is given to negative plate, then
17. In young’s double slit experiment, fringe width potential difference between the plates is
observed is β. If the frequency of the source is Q
(1) V (2) V –
tripled, then new fringe width will become C
(1) β/9 (2) 3β Q 2Q
(3) V – (4) V –
(3) β/3 (4) 9β 2C C
18. The angle between transmission axis of a 25. Light appears to travel in straight line since
polarizer and an analyser is 30°. The percentage (1) Its wavelength is very small
of polarized light passing through analyser is:
(2) It is reflected by atmosphere
(Intensity of polarized light = I0)
(3) It is not absorbed by the atmosphere
(1) 75% (2) 25%
(4) Its velocity is very small
(3) 50% (4) 100%
26. A Carnot engine absorbs 2000 J of heat energy
19. The amount of charge Q passing through the
from a reservoir at 127°C and rejects 800 J of
conducting wire in time t through a cross-section
heat energy during each cycle. The efficiency of
of wire is Q = 3t2 + 2t + 1. The magnitude of
engine and temperature of sink will be
current flowing at t = 3 is
(1) 50% and –33°C (2) 60% and –73°C
(1) 10 A (2) 20 A
(3) 60% and –113°C (4) 50% and –83°C
(3) 40 A (4) 5 A
27. If temperature versus density graph is a
20. A magnet of magnetic dipole moment 10 A m2 is rectangular hyperbola, then the process is
placed along the y-axis in uniform magnetic field (consider ideal gas)

B (2iˆ + 3 ˆj )T . What is the torque experienced
= (1) Isochoric (2) Isothermal
by the dipole? (3) Isobaric (4) Adiabatic
(1) 80 N m (2) 60 N m 28. The charge stored in the capacitor of capacitance
(3) 30 N m (4) 20 N m C = 4 µF in the circuit as shown is
21. In an AC circuit, alternating current is given by
I = I0sinωt. Then the time taken by the current to
rise from zero to RMS value of current is (T is
time period of a.c.)
T T
(1) (2)
2 4
T T (1) 20 µC (2) 40 µC
(3) (4)
8 6
(3) 80 µC (4) Zero
22. If V1 and V2 are stopping potentials of
29. In a common emitter amplifier, voltage gain is 40.
photoelectrons emitted when light of wavelength
If input impedance of 80 Ω and an output
λ1 and λ2 are incident on metallic surface
impedance is 160 Ω are present, then the power
respectively. If λ1 = 4λ2, then gain of the amplifier is
(1) V1 > 2V2 (2) V2 = V1 (1) 800 (2) 400
(3) V1 > 4V2 (4) V2 > 4V1 (3) 200 (4) 80
(3)
30. The equivalent resistance across P and Q is SECTION-B

36. Two charged spheres having radius a and b are
joined with a conducting wire, then the ratio of
E
(1) 2 Ω (2) 4 Ω electric fields a on their surfaces is
Eb
4
(3) 20 Ω (4) Ω a b
5 (1) (2)
b a
31. The springs in figure A and B are identical but
length in A is two times each of that in B. The a2 b2
(3) (4)
ratio of periods, TA/TB is b2 a2
37. The ratio of intensities of two waves are 16 : 1
then the ratio of their maximum and minimum
equivalent intensities due to interference will be
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 9 : 1
(3) 16 : 9 (4) 25 : 9
(A) (B) 38. A person observes two trains, one of them is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 coming with speed of v/5 and another is going
away with same speed. Here v is speed of sound
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 3
in air. If both trains blow whistles each of
32. The equation for the displacement of a stretched frequencies 240 Hz. The difference in frequencies
string is given by
heard by stationary person will be
y = Asin(ωt – kx)
(1) 50 Hz (2) 100 Hz
The equation of reflected wave from fixed end
(3) 200 Hz (4) 300 Hz
will be
(1) yR = Asin(ωt – kx) (2) yR = –Asin(kx + ωt) 39. The best graph of molar specific heat at constant
volume (CV) versus absolute temperature (T) for
(3) yR = Asin(kx + ωt) (4) yR = Asin(kx – ωt) a monoatomic ideal gas is
33. Two bodies of masses m and 4m are placed at a
distances r apart. The gravitational potential at a
point on the line joining them, where the
gravitational field is zero, is (1) (2)
–2Gm –4Gm
(1) (2)
r r
–6Gm –9Gm
(3) (4)
r r
34. Water rises to height h in a capillary tube of (3) (4)
cross-sectional area A. The height to which water
will rise in a capillary tube of cross-sectional area
4A will be
40. What will be the ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths
h h of proton to photon, when kinetic energy of a
(1) (2)
4 2 proton is equal to energy of a photon? (Symbols
(3) h (4) 2h have their usual meaning)
35. The degree of freedom of an ideal gas molecule
mp c 2 E
is 5. The gas perform 50 J work in expansion at (1) (2)
constant pressure. The heat absorbed by the gas 2E 2mp c 2
during this expansion is
(1) 100 J (2) 125 J E mp c 2
(3) (4)
(3) 150 J (4) 175 J mp c 2 E
(4)
41. The ratio of stress to strain within proportional (1) 12 cm from P (2) 15 cm from P
limit is called (3) 16 cm from P (4) 18 cm from P
(1) Modulus of elasticity (2) Poisson’s ratio 47. A conducting wire of length 1 m is placed in x-y
(3) Compressibility (4) Permanent set 
plane. It is moved with velocity v = (iˆ + ˆj + 2kˆ )
42. A soap bubble is given a negative charge; then m/s through a region of magnetic induction
its radius 
B (4 jˆ + 3kˆ ) . Then potential difference across
=
(1) Increases (2) Decreases between the ends of the wire
(3) Remains same (4) Can’t be predicted
43. Which among the following arrangement can be
used to verify Ohm’s Law?
(1)
(1) 5 V (2) 2 V
(3) 3 V (4) 4 V
(2)
48. What is the value of current just after pressing
the key k through the circuit shown in figure?
(3)
(1) 0 A (2) 1 A
1
(3) 2 A (4) A
(4) 2
49. A black body at 400 K, is found to have
maximum energy at a wavelength of 20 µm.
44. Surface tension of water is 0.072 N m–1. The When its temperature is raised to 1000 K, the
excess pressure inside a water drop of radius wavelength at which maximum energy emitted
2 mm is will be
(1) 48 Pa (2) 72 Pa (1) 8 µm (2) 12 µm
(3) 96 Pa (4) 124 Pa
(3) 16 µm (4) 24 µm
45. Which among the following is self adjusting
50. The r.m.s. value of an alternating voltage V, as
force?
shown in the figure, is:
(1) Limiting friction (2) Kinetic friction
(3) Static friction (4) All of these
46. A point object O is placed in front of a glass rod
having spherical end of radius of curvature 30
cm. The image will formed at
V0 V0
(1) (2)
2 2 2
V0 V0
(3) (4)
2 4
(5)
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 59. Which compound is not a component of
51. The correct order of oxidation state of nitrogen in photochemical smog?
the given compounds is (1) HCHO (2) PAN
(1) N2 < NH3 < HNO2 < HNO3
(3) C2H5OH (4)
(2) HNO2 < HNO3 < N2 < NH3
(3) NH3 < N2 < HNO3 < HNO2 60. The correct order of electron affinity of the given
(4) NH3 < N2 < HNO2 < HNO3 elements is
(1) F > Cl > O > S (2) F > O > Cl > S
52. The ∆G° for a reversible reaction at 25°C whose
Keq = 10 is (3) O > Cl > F > S (4) Cl > F > S > O
61. The orbital angular momentum of 3p electron is
(1) – 298 × R (2) 2.303 × R
(1) 2 (2) 6
(3) 2.303 × 298 × R (4) –2.303 × 298 × R
53. Which of the following salts will undergo anionic (3) 5 (4) 3
hydrolysis only? 62. Consider the following reactions sequence
(1) NaCl (2) NH4Cl H O
2 → A 
CaC2 
Re d hot iron tube
→B
(3) CH3COONa (4) BaCl2
The compound B is
54. The most basic hydroxide among the following is
(1) C2H4 (2) C2H2
(1) Ce(OH)3 (2) Lu(OH)3
(3) C2H6 (4) C6H6
(3) Gd(OH)3 (4) Er(OH)3
63. Which among the following is non-benzenoid
55. Identify the correct statement from the following aromatic compound?
(1) Lithium is softer among all alkali metals
(2) All alkali metal nitrates decompose to give (1) (2)
the corresponding nitrite
(3) Magnesium nitrate crystallises with six
molecules of water (3) (4)
(4) Calcium hydroxide is highly soluble in water
at room temperature 64. The correct order of bond order of the given
56. Negative hydration enthalpy of which ion is species is
highest?
(1) N2+ > N2− > N2 (2) N2 > N2+ =
N2−
(1) Li+ (2) Na+
(3) N2+ > N2 =
N2− (4) N2 > N2+ > N2−
(3) K+ (4) Rb+
57. The complex having magnetic moment value
5.92 BM is
65.
(1) [Co(C2O4)3]3– (2) [FeF6]3–
(3) [Mn(CN)6]3– (4) [MnCl6]3-
Above reaction proceeds via formation of which
58. Which among the following is a square planar electrophile?
complex?
(1) :CH2 (2) :CCl2
(1) [NiCl4]2– (2) [Ni(CO)4]
+ +
(3) [PtCl4]2– (4) [CoCl4]2– (3) Cl (4) CCl3
(6)
66. Alkyl fluorides can be prepared by 73. Standard enthalpy of formation is zero for
(1) Swarts reaction (1) O3(g) (2) Cl2(g)
(2) Finkelstein reaction (3) Br2(g) (4) Diamond
(3) Hunsdiecker reaction 74. When 5 moles of an ideal gas is expanded at
(4) Sandmeyer reaction 350 K reversibly from 5 L to 50 L, then the
entropy change for the process is
(R = 2 cal mol–1K–1)
67. (1) 2.3 cal K–1 (2) 4.6 cal K–1

(3) 23.03 cal K–1 (4) 46.06 cal K–1
Product (P) is 75. Which of the following molecules in a pair are
diamagnetic and ferromagnetic substances
respectively?
(1) (2)
(1) C6H6 and MnO
(2) MnO and C6H6
(3) C6H6 and CrO2
(3) (4) (4) CrO2 and MnO
76. Which of the following order is incorrect?
(1) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 – Bond dissociation energy
68. In diborane(B2H6), maximum number of atoms lie (2) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 – Oxidising power
in one plane is (3) HF > HCl > HBr > HI – Acidic strength
(1) 2 (2) 4 (4) F > Cl > Br > I – Electronegativity
(3) 6 (4) 8 77. The freezing point of 0.02 m solution of glucose
69. The strongest oxidising agent among the in water is (Kf = 1.86°C m–1)
following is (1) 0.0372°C (2) –1.86°C
(1) ln3+ (2) Tl3+ (3) –0.93°C (4) –0.0372°C
(3) Al3+ (4) Ga3+ 78. Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu, E° = Y1 volt
70. Total number of electrons in 1 mole N3– ions is Cu+ + e– → Cu, E° = Y2 volt, then for
(1) 10 (2) 7 NA Cu2+ + e– → Cu+, E° (volt) will be
(3) 10 NA (4) 18 NA (1) Y2 – 2Y1 (2) Y1 – Y2
71. Consider three sealed jars of equal volume. First (3) 2Y1 – Y2 (4) Y2 – Y1
jar contains 2 g of H2 at 200 K, second one
1
contains 32 g of O2 at 400 K and the third one 79. The plot of ln k versus is linear with slope of
contains 28 g of N2 at 800 K. The gases in the T
three jars will have −Ea
(1) ln A (2)
(1) The same number of molecules R
(2) The same pressure Ea Ea
(3) (4)
(3) The same average speed R 2.303R
(4) The same average kinetic energy 80. Which of the following is lyophilic sol?
72. The suitable thermodynamic conditions for a (1) Starch sol
spontaneous reaction at all temperatures are (2) Silver sol
(1) ∆H < 0, ∆S > 0 (2) ∆H > 0, ∆S < 0 (3) As2S3 sol
(3) ∆H > 0, ∆S > 0 (4) ∆H < 0, ∆S < 0 (4) Sulphur sol
(7)
81. The most stable carbocation among the given 87. Novestrol is used as
species is (1) Antiseptic (2) Tranquilizer
(3) Analgesic (4) Antifertility drug
88. The compound which does not react with
NaHCO3 is
(1) (2)
(1) CH3COOH (2)
(3) HCOOH (4) CH3–CH2–OH

89. The compound which will not give positive
(3) (4) Fehling test is
(1) Propanal (2) Formaldehyde
(3) Propanone (4) Acetaldehyde
82. The correct order of increasing acidic character is 90. Product obtained in the reaction is
(1) HC ≡ CH < CH3C ≡ CH < H2C = CH2
(2) H2C = CH2 < HC ≡ CH < CH3C ≡ CH
(3) H2C = CH2 < CH3C ≡ CH < HC ≡ CH
(1)
(4) CH3C ≡ CH < H2C = CH2 < HC ≡ CH
83. (2)
Major product, X is (3)
(4)
(1) (2)
91. Arrange the following compounds in order of
increasing reactivity towards nucleophilic addition
reaction.
(3) (4)
84. Bakelite is an example of

(1) Branched chain polymer (1) I < II < III (2) II < I < III
(2) Linear polymer (3) III < II < I (4) I < III < II
(3) Cross linked polymer 92. Major product formed in the following reaction is
(4) Thermoplastic polymer

85. Glucose on prolonged heating with HI, forms (1)
(1) Gluconic acid (2) n-pentane
(3) n-hexane (4) Iodohexane
SECTION-B (2)
86. The base which is absent in DNA is (3) CH3 – CH2 – CH2OH
(1) Guanine (2) Cytosine (4)
(3) Adenine (4) Uracil
(8)
93. Arrange the following compounds in order of 97. CaC2 on reaction with D2O gives
ease of dehydrohalogenation by using alcoholic
(1) CD4 (2) C2D2
KOH
(3) C2D4 (4) C2D6
98. The element which cannot be detected by
Lassaigne’s test is
(1) Sulphur (2) Nitrogen
(1) X < Z < Y (2) Z < Y < X
(3) Y < X < Z (4) Z < X < Y (3) Oxygen (4) Chlorine
94. Strongest acid among the following is 99. Major product (P) of the given reaction is
(1) HOCl (2) HClO2 3 ( CH
2
COO ) Mn
CH3 CH3 + O2 →P
∆
(3) HClO3 (4) HClO4
95. Among the following, which ore is concentrated (1) CH3CH2OH
by froth flotation process? (2) CH3COCH3
(1) Sphalerite (2) Cuprite (3) CH3COOH
(3) Bauxite (4) Zincite
(4) CH3CHO
96. The half life (in seconds) for a first order reaction
100. Which among the following is a paramagnetic?
which takes 10 seconds for 90% completion is
(1) 2.3 (2) 3 (1) N2O3 (2) N2O
(3) 6 (4) 4.6 (3) NO2 (4) N2O5
BOTANY
SECTION-A 104. The site of active rRNA synthesis is
101. Genetic material is not naked in (1) Ribosome (2) Nucleolus
(1) Mycoplasma (2) Blue green algae (3) Cytoplasm (4) Nuclear membrane
(3) Bacteria (4) Plants 105. The stage of interphase in which DNA synthesis
occurs is also related with
102. Identify the statement which is incorrect for golgi
(1) Tubulin protein formation
apparatus.
(2) Golgi duplication
(1) Cis face of golgi apparatus is also called
(3) Chromatin condensation
maturing face
(4) Centriole duplication
(2) Golgi cisternae are concentrically arranged
106. Metaphase I differs from metaphase II as the
near nucleus
former
(3) Golgi vesicles pinch off from tubules
(1) Involves formation of double metaphasic
(4) Some of the golgian vacuoles function as plates
lysosomes (2) Occurs in haploid cells
103. The inner membrane of mitochondria (3) Lacks pairing of homologous chromosome
(1) Forms infoldings called thylakoids (4) Involves splitting of centromeres
(2) Contains enzymes and electron carriers for 107. Bivalents are clearly visible as tetrad in
ATP formation (1) Zygotene stage
(3) Contains 80% lipids and 20% proteins (2) Pachytene stage
(4) Forms infoldings towards perimitochondrial (3) Diplotene stage

space (4) Diakinesis stage
(9)
108. Characteristic of living beings which is not seen 116. Which one is not true for Chlorophyceae
in worker honey bees is members?
(1) Growth (2) Metabolism (1) Main photosynthetic pigments are chlorophyll
a and b
(3) Consciousness (4) Reproduction
(2) Inner layer of cell wall is composed of pectin
109. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. eubacteria
(3) Produce zoospores with 2-8 flagella
(1) Heterotrophs are the most abundant in
(4) Stored material is starch and protein
nature
117. Gemmae are
(2) Some members can have chlorophyll a
similar to plants (1) Unicellular
(3) Some members play great role in recycling of (2) Non-green structures
nutrients (3) Sexual buds
(4) Chemosynthetic autotrophs are involved in (4) Produced in small receptacles
fixation of nitrogen in legume plants 118. Transpiration pull
110. Chief producers in the oceans are (1) Is positive hydrostatic pressure
(1) Diatoms (2) Dinoflagellates (2) Provides pushing force for water transport
(3) Euglenoids (4) Protozoans (3) Results from active absorption of water
111. Members of Basidiomycetes (4) Accounts majority of water transport
(1) Lack dikaryophase in their life 119. Active transport of molecules does not
(2) Form fruiting bodies that produce mitospores (1) Require ATP
(2) Occur from their high to low concentration
(3) Produce meiospores endogenously
(3) Saturate
(4) Lack sex organs but not sexual reproduction
(4) Show response to protein inhibitors
112. Whorled phyllotaxy is seen in
120. The element required for pollen germination is
(1) Alstonia (2) Mustard
(1) B (2) Cl
(3) China rose (4) Guava
(3) S (4) P
113. Choose the odd one for monocot seeds.
121. In chromatogram, the primary photosynthetic
(1) Seed coat is generally fused with fruit wall pigment appears
(2) Aleurone layer separates endosperm from (1) Blue yellow in colour
embryo (2) Yellow in colour
(3) Contain single cotyledon called scutellum (3) Yellow-Orange in colour
(4) Plumule and radical are covered by (4) Blue green in colour
coleorhiza and coleoptiles respectively
122. The primary acceptor molecule during C3 cycle is
114. The only dead component of phloem tissue is/are (1) 5C compound
(1) Phloem parenchyma (2) Sieve tubes (2) A ketose sugar
(3) Companion cells (4) Bast fibres (3) Phosphoglyceric acid
115. Select the wrong match. (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) Protonema — Juvenile stage of 123. Enzyme of TCA cycle i.e., found attached to
Polytrichum inner mitochondrial membrane catalyse the
conversion of
(2) Marchantia — Asexually reproduce by
gemmae (1) Succinyl CoA → Succinic acid
(3) Liverworts — Unicellular rhizoids (2) Succinic acid → Fumaric acid
(4) Funaria — Main plant body is (3) α-ketoglutaric acid → Succinyl CoA
sporophyte (4) Oxalosuccinic acid → α-ketoglutaric acid
(10)
124. Complex IV of electron transport system is (1) Given pedigree is applicable for haemophilia
(1) Cytochrome bc1 complex (2) For a sex linked character, genotype of I b is
XcY
(2) Contains cytochromes a, a3 and two copper
centres (3) This pedigree is not applicable for any
autosomal dominant disorder
(3) Known as NADH dehydrogenase
(4) For a sex linked character, genotype of II b is
(4) Consist of F0 and F1 parts XX
125. The hormone known as antagonist of gibberellins 132. Genetic disorder which is a classical example of
point mutation is
(1) Breaks seed dormancy
(1) Down’s syndrome
(2) Is a terpene derivative
(3) Induce closure of stomata
(3) Sickle cell anaemia
(4) Delays senescence process
126. In plants, sites of light/dark perception for 133. Find the incorrect match.
flowering is/are
(1) Ligase – Joins Okazaki fragments
(1) Embryo (2) Shoot apex
(2) Helicase – Unwinds DNA during
(3) Floral meristem (4) Leaves transcription only
127. Which one produces heterogametes? (3) DNA polymerase – Polymerise DNA
(1) Rhizopus (2) Cladophora (4) Topoisomerase – Releases tension in helix
produced during
(3) Spirogyra (4) Chara replication
128. In flowering plants, the female gametophyte 134. Read the statement and select the wrong one.
(1) Is produced from microspore (1) In prokaryotes, single RNA polymerase
(2) Is located in the ovule transcribes all RNAs.
(2) In eukaryotes RNA polymerase III forms
(3) Is 3 celled and 3 nucleate
SnRNAs
(4) Is diploid
(3) Sigma factor acts as termination factor during
129. Water is the medium for pollination in prokaryotic transcription
(1) Water lily (2) Eichhornia (4) Eukaryotes have 3 types of RNA polymerases
in the nucleus to transcribe different types of
(3) Zostera (4) Amorphophallus
RNAs.
130. Which of the given is true w.r.t. a test cross? 135. All of the given are salient features of human
(1) TT × Tt (2) Tt × Tt genome project, except
(3) tt × tt (4) Tt × tt (1) Human genome contains 3164.7 million

nucleotide bases
131. Consider the pedigree chart and select the
(2) Functions of over 50% of discovered genes
correct option.
are unknown
(3) Less than 2% of genome codes for proteins
(4) Repeated sequences make up very small
portion of human genome
SECTION-B
136. Wheat variety which is developed to make it
resistant against hill bunt and stripe rust is
(1) Sonalika (2) Himgiri
(3) Atlas 66 (4) Pusa sawani
(11)
137. Statins are produced by 143. Loss of biodiversity in a region may lead to
(1) Streptococcus (1) Increase in productivity
(2) Monascus purpureus (2) Reduced resistance to environmental
perturbations
(3) Reduced variability in pest and disease cycle
(4) Azotobacter
(4) Decreased variability in water use
138. All of the below given are xerophytic adaptations
in plants, except 144. Find the wrong one for catalytic converters.
(1) Sunken stomata on leaf surface (1) It has costly metals like platinum-palladium
and rhodium
(2) CAM pathway
(2) Converts unburnt hydrocarbons into CO2 and
(3) Thick cuticle on leaf surface H2O
(4) Reduced size of stem and roots (3) Automobile fitted with catalytic converter
139. Mark the wrong match. uses leaded petrol
(1) Barnacles and whale – Commensalism (4) Reduces emission of CO, NOx and
hydrocarbons
(2) Streptococus and Penicillium – Amensalism
145. Eutrophicated lakes are usually
(3) Orchid and mango – Mutualism
(1) Shallower with cold water
(4) Abingdon tortoise and goat – Competition
(2) With high pesticide concentration
140. Decomposition
(3) With low nutrients than fresh and clean lake
(1) Is favoured in anaerobic conditions
(4) Shallower with warmer water
(2) Of water soluble carbohydrates occur at 146. Choose odd one w.r.t. the parts of flowering
faster rate than lignin and chitin plant regarding its ploidy
(3) Occurs at faster rate when soil temperature is (1) Embryo sac (2) Pollen
below 20°C
(3) Perisperm (4) Antipodals
(4) Is favoured by warm and dry atmosphere
147. Select the wrong match.
141. Select the correct option for given food chain
(1) Seed bank – Ex situ conservation
Plant → Rat → Snake → Eagle (2) Indo-Burma – Biodiversity hot spot of India
1000 J
(3) National park – In-situ conservation
(1) Energy available for rat is 1000 J
(4) National park – 14 in India
(2) Energy provided by snake to eagle is 1 J
148. The UTRs are
(3) Rat is acting as transducer
(1) Present at 5′ end after start codon
(4) GPP of crop is available for consumption to
rat (2) Present at 3′ end before stop codon
142. Select the correct statement(s). (3) Some additional sequences that are
translated into proteins
a. Area with more species diversity shows much
(4) Required for efficient translational process
variation in total biomass year to year.
149. Members of family Liliaceae show/have
b. A stable community should show resistance
to disturbances. (1) Imbricate aestivation of perianth
c. As per rivet-popper hypothesis, rivets on the (2) Parietal placentation
wings represent key species. (3) Tricarpellary syncarpous gynoecium
(1) a and c (4) Epipetalous stamens
(2) b and c 150. All are spermatophytes with archegonia, except
(3) a and b (1) Pinus (2) Cycas
(4) All a, b and c (3) Cedrus (4) Eucalyptus
(12)
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 155. Match the column-I with column-II and choose
151. Choose the correct statement. the correct answer.
(1) Platyhelminths are pseudocoelomates Column-I Column-II

(2) Metamerism is exhibited by chordates a. Cuboidal (i) Inner lining of
(3) True coelom and bilateral symmetry is epithelium blood vessels
exhibited by aschelminthes
b. Brush bordered (ii) Inner lining of small
(4) Mesoglea is present between body wall and columnar intestine
gut wall in annelids epithelium
152. Identify the below given diagram of an animal
c. Ciliated epithelium (iii) Inner lining of
and select the correct statement about it
oviduct
d. Squamous (iv) Present in tubular

epithelium parts of nephrons
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
156. Choose the mismatch w.r.t. connective tissue.
(1) It contains ciliated choanocytes
(2) It is a dioecious animal which exhibits (1) Loose connective – Structural proteins
external fertilisation tissue called collagen and
elastin are present
(3) It is a primitive multicellular animal which
have cellular level of organisation (2) Adipose tissue – Located beneath the
(4) It possess bilateral symmetry skin
153. Paired fins or limbs are present in all except (3) Dense irregular – Mostly contains
connective tissue elastin fibres
(1) Branchiostoma
(2) Labeo (4) Tendons – Attached skeletal
muscles to bones
(3) Hyla
(4) Testudo 157. Communication junctions in the intercalated disc
regions are found in
154. Read the following statements.
(1) Skeletal muscle (2) Smooth muscle
A. Some mammals have adapted to fly or live in
water. (3) Cardiac muscle (4) Voluntary muscle
B. Long bones are hollow with air cavities in 158. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. Periplaneta
birds. americana
C. Tympanum represents ear in reptiles and (1) The entire foregut is lined by cuticle
pisces. (2) Heart is consist of elongated muscular tube
From above lying along mid dorsal line of thorax and
abdomen
(1) A and B are correct
(3) In male, the genital pouch lies in thorax
(2) B and C are correct
region
(3) A and C are correct
(4) Malpighian tubules help in removal of
(4) A, B and C all are correct excretory products from haemolymph
(13)
159. Choose the odd one w.r.t. paired structures 164. Pepsinogen changes into active pepsin by
present in female Periplaneta americana (1) Enterokinase
(1) Spermatheca (2) Collaterial glands (2) HCl
(3) Alary muscles (4) Vagina (3) Trypsin
160. How many molecule(s) from given below in box (4) Proteins present in food
have molecular weight more than 800 Dalton?
165. Every 1000 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver
Adenine, Lecithin, DNA, Glycine, Glucose around______ ml of O2 to the tissues under
normal physiological conditions
(1) One (2) Two
(1) 5 (2) 15
(3) Three (4) Four
(3) 50 (4) 100
161 Match the column-I with column-II and choose
166. Complete the analogy w.r.t. respiratory
the correct answer.
volumes/capacities
Column-I Column-II FRC : ERV + RV : : VC : ____
Component % of the total
(1) TV + IRV (2) TLC – RV
cellular mass
(3) TV + ERV (4) IRV + ERV
a. Proteins (i) 10-15
167. Identify the X, Y and Z in given below table and
b. Lipids (ii) 3 choose the option with all correct identification.
c. Nucleic acid (iii) 2 Antibodies in Donor’s blood

blood plasma group
(iv) 5-7
X A, O
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (2) a(iv), b(i) c(iii)
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(iv) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv) Y B, O
162. Read the following statements and choose the Nil Z

correct answer
X Y Z
A. As living organisms work continuously, they
cannot afford to reach equilibrium. (1) Anti-A Anti-B AB, A, B, O
B. Ligases enzymes are involved in catalysis of (2) Anti-B Anti-A AB, A, B, O
joining of C–O, C–S, C–N, P–O etc. bonds
(3) Anti-A Anti-B A, AB
(1) Statement A is correct, B is incorrect
(2) Statement B is correct, A is incorrect (4) Anti-A Anti-B O, AB
(3) Both statements are correct 168. During joint diastole

(4) Both statements are incorrect (1) AV valves remain close
163. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t. (2) Semilunar valves remain open
Kwashiorkor (3) Blood flows from left ventricle to aorta
(1) It is produced by protein deficiency (4) Ventricles receive the blood from atria
accompanied by calorie deficiency
169. In ECG, the T-wave represents
(2) It occurs in children more than one year in
(1) Depolarisation of the atria
age
(2) Depolarisation of the ventricles
(3) It shows wasting of muscles and failure of
growth and brain development (3) Return of the ventricles from excited to
normal state (repolarisation)
(4) Extensive oedema and swelling of body parts
are seen in it (4) Repolarisation of the atria
(14)
170. The part of renal tubule which allows transport of 176. Choose the mismatch.
only electrolytes is
(1) Cornea – Anterior portion of external layer
(1) PCT of eye
(2) DCT
(2) Fovea – Thinned-out portion of retina
(3) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
where only cones are present
(4) Descending limb of loop of Henle
(3) Retinal – An aldehyde of vitamin A,
171. The portion of myofibril between two successive
present in only rods
‘Z’ lines is
(1) Called light band (4) Labyrinth – Fluid filled inner ear
(2) Consist of one A band and one half I band 177. Addison’s disease is associated with
(3) Considered as functional unit of contraction (1) Over production of mineralocorticoids
(4) Consist of only thin filaments (2) Over production of thymosin
172. During muscle constriction (3) Under production of cortisol and
(1) The over lapping area between actin and mineralocorticoids
myosin increases (4) Under production of glycogen
(2) The length of A band increases 178. Match the columns and choose the correct
(3) The length of sarcomere increases answer.
(4) The length of I band increases Column-I Column-II
173. Choose the odd one w.r.t. facial bones Hormones Chemical nature
(1) Maxilla (2) Zygomatic a. CCK (i) Catecholamine
(3) Lacrimal (4) Ethmoid
b. Thyroxine (ii) Lipid soluble
174. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. human
skeleton. c. Epinephrine (iii) Peptide
(1) Sternum is a flat bone on the ventral midline (1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)
of thorax
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)
(2) Thoracic vertebrae, ribs and sternum
179. Choose the odd one w.r.t. number of
together form the ribcage
chromosomes in meiocyte of following animals.
(3) Each half of the pelvic girdle consists of one
coxal bone Organisms Number of chromosome
(4) The number of girdle bones is equal to in meiocyte
number of cranial bones (1) House fly – 12
(2) Dog – 78
correct answer.
A. Fluid filled synaptic cleft is present in (3) Fruit fly – 8
chemical synapse.
(4) Butterfly – 190
B. All myelinated nerve fibres found in CNS and
PNS are enveloped with schwann cells. 180. Middle piece of sperm contains
(1) Only statement A is correct (1) Mitochondria and centriole
(2) Only statement B is correct (2) Acrosome and axial filament
(3) Both statements are incorrect (3) Centriole and axial filament
(4) Both statements are correct (4) Mitochondria and axial filament
(15)
181. 1000 primary spermatocytes and 4000 primary 188. Which is the particular type of drug that is
oocytes will form obtained from the given below plant?
(1) 1000 spermatids and 4000 ova
182. Which of the following are associated with
Graafian follicle?
(1) Antrum and primary oocyte
(2) Zona pellucida and secondary oocyte
(3) Theca and primary oocyte (1) Cannabinoids (2) Opioids
(4) Zona pellucida and primary oocyte (3) Cocaine (4) LSD
183. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. IUDs 189. In filariasis, the pathogens are transmitted
(1) LNG-20 and progestasert are included in through female
hormonal IUDs (1) Culex mosquito (2) Aedes mosquito
(2) Cu IUDs release Cu ions which suppress the (3) Anopheles mosquito (4) Xenopsylla
motility and fertilising capacity of sperms 190. Which of the following is an exotic breed of
poultry birds?
(3) Non-medicated IUDs prevent ovulation and
implantation (1) Karan swiss (2) Jersey
(4) Insertion of IUDs within 72 hours of (3) Leghorn (4) Hisardale

unprotected coitus have been found to be 191. Choose the restriction endonuclease which
very effective emergency contraceptive produces blunt ends
method (1) EcoR I (2) Hind II
184. All of the following are included in test tube baby (3) BamH I (4) Hind III
programme except 192. How many from given below in box are required
(1) ZIFT (2) IUT in amplification of DNA fragment by PCR?
(3) ET (4) IUI dATP, Primers, dUTP, DNA ligase, Taq

185. Complete the analogy w.r.t. convergent evolution polymerase, dGTP
of Australian marsupials and placental mammals (1) One (2) Two
Lemur : Spotted Cuscus : : Bobcat : ____ (3) Three (4) Four
(1) Bandicoot (2) Koala 193. Term used to refer to the use of bioresources by
(3) Wombat (4) Tasmanian tiger cat multinational companies without prior permission
from countries and people concerned is
SECTION-B
(1) Biopatent (2) Biopiracy
186. Tuataras evolved from
(3) Bioethics (4) GEAC
(1) Sauropsids (2) Thecodonts
194. Basmati rice is distinct for its unique aroma and
(3) Pelycosaurs (4) Therapsids flavour, and X documented varieties of
187. Immunoglobulin which is mainly present in basmati are grown in India.
mucous secretions of the respiratory tract is Choose the option that correctly fills the blank X
(1) IgA (2) IgD (1) 200,000 (2) 25
(3) IgE (4) IgG (3) 27 (4) 200
(16)
195. Brazzein is a 198. The opening of common hepatopancreatic duct is

(1) Carbohydrate (2) Protein guarded by
(3) Nucleic acid (4) Lipid (1) Sphincter of Boyden (2) Sphincter of Oddi
196. Consider the features/characters given in box (3) Ileo-caecal valve (4) Pyloric sphincter
below 199. Which of the following factor cannot activate
RAAS mechanism?
Choanocytes, Cnidocytes, Spongocoel,
Hypostome, Ostia (1) Decrease in body fluid volume/blood volume
How many features/characters are associated (2) Low glomerular blood pressure
with the members of Phylum Porifera? (3) Low osmolarity
(1) 3 (2) 2 (4) Low GFR
(3) 1 (4) 4 200. If alien DNA is ligated at BamH I site in pBR322
197. Choose the odd one w.r.t. secondary metabolites vector, the transformant recombinants will be
(1) Cellulose (1) Sensitive to ampicillin

(2) Curcumin (2) Resistant to tetracycline
(3) Concanavalin A (3) Sensitive to tetracycline
(4) Chlorophyll (4) Resistant to chloramphenicol
  
(17)
Edition: 2020-21
Code-A
(for NEET-2021)

Instructions :
PHYSICS

SECTION-A 3. A short electric dipole has dipole moment of
1. A telescope has an objective lens of 20 cm 3 2 10-10 C m. The electric potential due to
diameter and is situated at a distance of 2 km the dipole at a point which is at a distance 0.3 m
from two objects. The minimum distance from the centre of the dipole, situated on a line
between the two objects, which can be resolved making an angle of 45° with the dipole axis is :
by the telescope, when mean wavelength of light  1 
is 6000 Å, is order of  = 9  109 N m2 C2 
 40 
(1) 7 m (2) 7 cm
(1) 300 V (2) 30 V
(3) 7 mm (4) 7 km
(3) 200 V (4) 20 V
235
2. When a Uranium isotope 92 U is bombarded
4. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one
141
with a thermal neutron, it generates 56 Ba , three surface of a small angled prism (with angle of
neutrons and : prism 8°) and emerges normally from the
101 opposite surface. If the refractive index of the
(1) 36 Kr
3
91
material of prism is , then the angle of
(2) 40 Zr 2
incidence nearly equal to
92
(3) 36 Kr
(1) 12° (2) 8°
144
(4) 56 Ba (3) 14° (4) 6°
(1)
5. A body weighs 80 N on the surface of the earth.

What is its weight at a height equal to radius of
the earth?
(1) 40 N (2) 60 N
(3) 30 N (4) 20 N
6. The angular momentum of an electron in
hydrogen atom for n = 4, is
h 3h
(1) (2) (1) 100  (2) 50 
2 2
(3) 200  (4) 25 
h 2h
(3) (4) 13. The average rotational kinetic energy for the
 
diatomic gas molecules is (kB is Boltzmann
7. A capillary tube of radius r and length 3h is constant and T is absolute temperature)
immersed in water. The water rises upto a height
h. The corresponding mass is m. What mass of 3 7
(1) kBT (2) kBT
water will rise in the capillary if the radius of the 2 2
tube is halved? 5
(3) kBT (4) kBT
m 2
(1) m (2)
2 14. In an electromagnetic wave, the amplitudes of
(3) 2m (4) 4m magnetic field (B0) and electric field (E0) in free
space are related as :
8. The least count of a vernier caliper is 0.01 cm
and 10 divisions of the vernier scale is equal to n E0
(1) B0 = E0 (2) B0 =
divisions of main scale. The value of n will be c2
(1 division of main scale is 1 mm)
0
(1) 6 (2) 9 (3) B0 = E0 (4) B0 = E0 0 0
0
(3) 10 (4) 12
9. The magnetic susceptibility of a medium is –0.08, 15. The dimensional formula of velocity gradient is
what will be its relative permeability? (1) [M0L2T–1] (2) [M0L0T–1]
(1) 1.8 (2) 1.08 (3) [ML0T–1] (4) [MLT–1]
(3) 0.08 (4) 0.92 16. A long solenoid of 100 cm length having 100 turns,
10. Which among the following quantities, is always carries a current of 5 A. The magnetic field at the
negative for a particle executing S.H.M.? end of the solenoid is : (0 = 4 × 10–7 T m A–1]
(Symbols have their usual meaning) (1) 3.14 × 10–4 T (2) 3.14 × 10–6 T
r r r r
(1) r  v (2) v  a (3) 6.28 × 10–4 T (4) 6.28 × 10–6 T
r r r r
(3) a  r (4) r  v 17. Taking into account of the significant figures,
11. The value of energy equivalent of 4 atomic mass what is the value of 23.623 cm + 8.7 cm?
unit (a.m.u) in MeV will be (1) 32.3 (2) 32.323
(1) 3726 MeV (2) 2762 MeV (3) 32.32 (4) 32
(3) 3264 MeV (4) 2332 MeV 18. Light of frequency 3 times the threshold
12. In a practical meter bridge circuit as shown, when frequency is incident on a photosensitive
one more resistance of 50  is connected material. What will be the saturation photoelectric
parallel with unknown resistance 'x', then ratio current, if the intensity is halved keeping
l1 frequency constant?
becomes '2'. The value of x is (1 is balance
l2 (1) Doubled (2) Halved
length, AB is uniform wire) (3) One fourth (4) Zero
(2)
19. The color code of a carbon resistor is given 24. An electric current of 8 A exists in a metal wire of
below cross section 10–4 m2 and length 2 m. The drift
speed of the free electrons in the wire will be
(Given n = 5 × 1028 m–3)
(1) 2 × 10–3 m/s (2) 1 × 10–3 m/s
The resistance of the resistor will be (3) 2 × 10–2 m/s (4) 1 × 10–5 m/s
(1) 24 × 107  ± 10% (2) 25 × 104  ± 10% 25. A ball is thrown vertically downwards with speed
30 m/s from the top of the tower of height 80 m.
(3) 35 × 106  ± 5% (4) 27 × 105  ± 5% The speed of the ball with which it hits the
20. Three particles each of mass m are placed at the grounds is (g = 10 m/s2)
corners of an equilateral triangle of side a as (1) 40 m/s
shown in the figure. The X-co-ordinate of centre
(2) 60 m/s
of mass will be
(3) 50 m/s
(4) 30 m/s
26. A light wire of length L, area of cross section A is
hanging from fixed support. If a mass M is
suspended from its free end, then strain
produced in the wire will be (symbols have their
usual meaning)
Mg Mg
3a 3a (1) (2)
(1) (2) 2YA YA
2 4
2Mg
a (3) (4) Zero
(3) (4) a YA
2
27. A fork P of unknown frequency gives six beats
21. In a bipolar junction transistor (BJT) per second when sounded with another fork Q of
(1) the base has the least concentration of frequency 260 Hz. The fork P is now loaded with
impurity. a piece of wax and again six beats per second is
(2) the emitter has least concentration of impurity heard, then frequency of fork P is
(3) all the three regions have equal concentration (1) 260 Hz (2) 254 Hz
of impurity (3) 266 Hz (4) 250 Hz
(4) the collector has least concentration of 28. Two bodies of masses 2 kg and 4 kg are tied to
impurity the ends of a massless string. The string passes
22. The mean free path for gas molecules with over a pulley which is frictionless as shown in
molecular diameter d and number density n is figure. If the system is released from rest, then
proportional to tension in the string connecting the bodies will be
(g = 10 m/s2)
1
(1) (2) d2
d
1 1
(3) (4)
n n2
23. If the density of a helium gas is 0.1 kg/m 3 at
pressure 249 kPa, then temperature of the gas
 25 
will be nearly R = J mol−1 K −1  80
 3  (1) 80 N (2) N
3
(1) 1195 °C (2) 922 °C
20
(3) 27 °C (4) 327 °C (3) 20 N (4) N
3
(3)
29. On removing dielectric slab from an isolated SECTION-B

charged capacitor, the quantity that remains
constant is 36. The light is incident from air to a medium of the
(1) Capacitance (2) Charge 4
refractive index . The Brewster's angle for this
(3) Potential difference (4) Energy stored 3
scenario will be
30. In Young's double slit experiment using yellow
and blue lights of wavelengths 560 nm and 420 (1) 37° (2) 45°
nm respectively, the value of n for which nth order (3) 53° (4) 90°
of yellow bright fringe coincides with (n + 1)th
37. For which of the following conditions, the width of
order of blue bright fringe is
the depletion region in a p-n junction diode
(1) 3 (2) 4 decreases
(3) 2 (4) 5 (1) Reverse bias
31. The sun delivers 105 W/m2
electromagnetic flux (2) Forward bias
to the earth's surface. The total power that is (3) Both forward bias and reverse bias
incident on the roof of dimensions (20×20) m2 will
(4) Decreasing the doping concentration
be
38. A charge q is uniformly distributed on a spherical
(1) 2 × 107 W (2) 106 W
shell of radius R. The electric field at a distance
(3) 2 × 106 W (4) 4 × 107 W
4R
from the centre will be
32. The resistivity () of a metallic conductor on 3
increasing temperature (T)
9q q
(1) Will increase (1) (2)
640R 2
40R 3
(2) Will decrease
3q
(3) Remains constant (3) (4) Zero
160R 2
(4) May decrease or remain constant
33. The quantities of heat required to raise the 39. The value of 64 J energy is equal to
temperature of two metallic spheres of same (1) 2 × 1020 eV (2) 1019 eV
mass having specific heat capacity S1 and S2 (3) 4 × 1020 eV (4) 2 × 1019 eV
(3S1 = 4S2) through 1 K are in the ratio:
40. An alternating voltage E (in volt) = 300 2 sin
4 9
(1) (2) (100t) is connected to a 2 F capacitor through
3 16
an AC ammeter. The reading of the ammeter
1 2 would be
(3) (4)
3 3 (1) 30 mA (2) 60 mA
r
34. ( )
A force F = iˆ + 2 jˆ N acts at O, the origin of the (3) 20 mA (4) 40 mA
co-ordinate system. The torque about the point 41. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron having
(1, –1, 1) m is 320 eV of energy is nearly (1 eV = 1.6 × 10 –19 J,
mass of electron = 9.1 × 10–31 kg, planck's
(1) ( 2iˆ − jˆ − 3kˆ ) N m (2) ( iˆ − ˆj − kˆ ) N m constant = 6.6 × 10–34 J.s)
(3) ( 2iˆ + 2 ˆj − kˆ ) N m (4) ( −iˆ + ˆj + 2kˆ ) N m (1) 70 Å (2) 0.7 Å

(3) 1.4 Å (4) 14 Å
35. The electric potential at any point (x, y, z) is given
42. In adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas
as V = (2y3) volt. The electric field at point (2, 1,
0) is (x, y, z all are in metre) (1) Heat is gained or lost by the gas
(2) Heat is neither gained nor lost by the gas
(1) 6 jˆ V m−1 (2) −6 ˆj V m−1
(3) Temperature remains constant
(3) 2iˆ V m−1 (4) −2iˆ V m−1 (4) Volume remains constant
(4)
43. The following figure shows the combination of 160

(1) 10 cm (2) cm
logic gates. 3
140
(3) 20 cm (4) cm
3
47. The maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons
in a photoelectric effect does not depend upon
This combination is equivalent to (1) Frequency (2) Wavelength
(1) NAND gate
(3) Work function (4) Intensity
(2) OR gate
48. The motion of a particle along a straight line is
(3) NOR gate described by equation x = 12t – t3 where x is in
(4) XOR gate meter and t is in second. The time instant when
44. Resistance of which of the following solids velocity of the particle becomes zero is
decreases on increasing temperature? (Consider (1) 2 s (2) 1 s
no change in dimensions)
(3) 4 s (4) 3 s
(1) Metals
49. A block of mass 4 kg rests on a rough horizontal
(2) Semiconductors only
surface. If a horizontal force of 12 N is applied on
(3) Insulators only the block, then the frictional force by the surface
(4) Insulator and semiconductors on the block is
45. An alternating potential V = V0 sin t is applied (k = 0.4, s = 0.5 and g = 10 m/s2)
across a circuit. As a result the current (1) 16 N (2) 12 N
 
I = I0 sin  t −  flows through it. The average (3) 20 N (4) 8 N
 3 
power consumed in the circuit is 50. The radius of gyration of a spherical shell of
mass M and radius R about its tangential axis will
(1) 0.5 V0I0 (2) 0.707 V0I0 be
(3) 0.25 V0I0 (4) 1.414 V0I0
2 7
46. What is the radius of curvature of an equiconvex (1) R (2) R
5 5
5
lens made of glass of refractive index , if its
3 2 5
(3) R (4) R
focal length is 40 cm? 3 3
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 52. Which of the following has maximum number of
atoms?
51. Manufacture of SO3 is given by the following
reaction (1) 10 g of N2(g) [Atomic mass of N = 14u]
(2) 10 g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O = 16u]
2SO2(g) + O2(g)  2SO3(g)
(3) 10 g of O3(g) [Atomic mass of O = 16u]
If the equilibrium constant Kc is 1.7 × 102 at (4) 10 g of Cu(s) [Atomic mass of Cu = 63.5u]
300K, then the value of rG° at the same 53. Which of the following is not correct about carbon
temperature will be monoxide?
(1) 8.314 J mol–1 K–1 × 300 K × ln (3.4 × 102) (1) Water soluble gas
(2) –8.314 J mol–1 K–1 × 300 K × ln (1.7 × 102) (2) It is a powerful reducing agent
(3) –8.314 J mol–1 K–1 × 300 K × ln (2.7 × 102) (3) Form complex with haemoglobin
(4) 8.314 J mol–1 K–1 × 300 K × ln (2.7 × 102) (4) Highly poisonous in nature
(5)
54. The calculated spin only magnetic moment of 62. An element has a body centered cubic (bcc)
Co2+ ion is structure with a cell edge length of 288 pm. The
(1) 4.90 BM (2) 5.92 BM shortest interatomic distance is
(3) 2.84 BM (4) 3.87 BM 4 2

(1)  288 pm (2)  288 pm
55. Which of the following is a natural polymer? 2 4
(1) Cellulose 3
(3)  288 pm (4) 3  288 pm
(2) Nylon 6, 6 2
(3) Neoprene 63. Identify the incorrect statement
(4) Buna-S (1) Inhibitors reduces the rate of reaction
56. Which of the following is a basic amino acid? (2) Catalyst reduces the activation energy
(1) Arginine (2) Serine (3) Rate constant increases on increasing
(3) Cysteine (4) Threonine temperature
57. A mixture of H2 and O2 gases in a cylinder (4) Catalyst catalyses the non-spontaneous
contains 10 g H2 and 64 g of O2. If the total reaction
pressure of the mixture of the gases in the
64. Which of the following alkane cannot be made in
cylinder is 35 bar, the partial pressure of H2 gas
good yield by Wurtz reaction?
is
(1) n-Butane
(1) 2 bar (2) 5 bar
(3) 25 bar (4) 20 bar (2) n-Hexane
58. Which of the following is a type of partition (3) 3, 4-Dimethylhexane

chromatography? (4) 3-Methylhexane
(1) Thin layer chromatography 65. Identify the incorrect statement
(2) Paper chromatography (1) Interstitial compounds are usually non-
(3) Column chromatography stoichiometric and are neither typically ionic
nor covalent
(4) Adsorption chromatography
(2) The oxidation state of manganese in
59. For the reaction CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g),
manganate and permanganate ions are same
the correct option is
(1) rH > 0 and rS > 0 (3) Oxidising power of VO2+ is lesser than that of
(2) rH > 0 and rS < 0 Cr2O72−
(3) rH < 0 and rS < 0 (4) Zn and Cd are not regarded as transition
metals
(4) rH < 0 and rS > 0
60. Urea reacts with water to form A which will 66. Which of the following is a cationic detergent?
decompose to form B. B when passed through (1) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
Co3+(aq), yellow coloured solution C is formed. (2) Sodium laurylsulphate
What is the formula of C from the following?
(3) Sodium dodecylbenzenesulphonate
(1) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (2) CoO
(4) Stearic acid
(3) Co2(SO4)3 (4) Co3O4
67. A benzyl carbocation is more stable than a
61. On electrolysis of aqueous NaCl solution using
secondary butyl carbocation mainly because of
platinum (Pt) electrodes, the product obtained at
which of the following?
anode will be
(1) –I effect of phenyl group
(1) Hydrogen gas
(2) Hyperconjugation
(2) Oxygen gas
(3) Chlorine gas (3) +I effect of phenyl group
(4) Ozone gas (4) Resonance effect of phenyl group
(6)
68. Which of the following is the correct order of 73. The number of Faradays (F) required to produce
increasing field strength of ligands to form 9 g of aluminium from molten AlCl3 is (Atomic
coordination compounds? mass of Al = 27 g mol–1)
– (1) 2 (2) 3
(1) CO < C N < en < NH3
(3) 1 (4) 4
–
(2) C N < CO < NH3 < en 74. Elimination reaction of 1-Bromohexane to form
– hex-1-ene is
(3) NH3 < en < C N < CO
(a) Dehydration reaction
–
(4) NH3 < en < CO < C N (b) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
69. Identify the correct statement from the following (c) -Elimination reaction
(1) Vapour phase refining is carried out for (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
Titanium by Mond process (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) Pig iron is the purest form of iron 75. Identify the correct statements from the following
(3) Blister copper has blistered appearance due (a) Silicones are used in surgical and cosmetic
to evolution of SO2 plants
(4) Pig iron is prepared from cast iron by (b) CO2(g) causes greenhouse effect
oxidising impurities
(c) Quartz is extensively used as piezoelectric
70. Which of the following sets of molecules will have
material
zero dipole moments?
(d) Carbon atoms in fullerenes are sp2 and sp3
(1) Boron trifluoride, carbon tetrachloride, 1,
hybridised
4-dichlorobenzene, sulphur dioxide
(1) (a) and (c) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(2) Ammonia, carbon dioxide, 1,
3-dichlorobenzene, water (3) (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) Boron trifluoride, 1,3-dichlorobenzene, 76. Identify the incorrect match
ammonia, ethanal
Name IUPAC Official
(4) Boron trifluoride, 1,4-dichlorobenzene, Name
carbon dioxide, carbon tetrachloride
a. Unnilseptium (i) Bohrium
71. Match the following and identify the correct
option b. Unnilpentium (ii) Dubnium
(a) CO(g) + N2(g) (i) An electron precise c. Unnilquadium (iii) Rutherfordium
hydride
d. Ununbium (iv) Nobelium
(b) Permanent (ii) Producer gas
hardness of water (1) b, (ii) (2) c, (iii)
(c) CH4 (iii) Peroxide linkage (3) a, (i) (4) d, (iv)
(d) H2O2 (iv) MgCl2 + MgSO4 77. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of
benzene is 5.12 K kg mol–1. The freezing point
(a) (b) (c) (d)
depression for the solution of molality 0.01 m
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is
(rounded off upto two decimal places)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(1) 0.1 K (2) 0.2 K
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) 0.05 K (4) 0.5 K
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
72. The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in carbon in the following reaction?
140
58 Ce respectively are N2O4(g) + 3CO(g) → N2O(g) + 3CO2(g)
(1) 140, 58 and 58 (2) 58, 58 and 82 (1) +2 to +4 (2) 0 to +4
(3) 58, 82 and 58 (4) 82, 58 and 58 (3) 0 to +2 (4) +4 to –4
(7)
79. The rate constant for a first order reaction is 87. Identify compound X in the following sequence of
2.303 × 10–2 s–1. The time required to reduce reactions
8.0 g of the reactant to 1.0 g is
(1) 60 s (2) 90 s
(3) 120 s (4) 150 s
80. The mixture which shows negative deviation from
Raoult’s law is
(1) n-hexane + n-heptane (1) (2)
(2) Acetone + chloroform
(3) Ethanol + Acetone
(4) Acetone + carbon disulphide
81. Which of the following oxoacids of sulphur has (3) (4)
–O–O– linkage?
(1) H2SO5 (2) H2S2O4 88. Reaction between methanal and ethanal in
presence of dilute NaOH is known as
(3) H2S2O7 (4) H2S2O3
(1) Cannizzaro’s reaction
82. Most effective ion for the coagulation of As 2S3 sol
is (2) Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction
(1) Al3+ (2) Mg2+ (3) Cross aldol condensation
(3) Cl– (4) SO24− (4) Aldol condensation

89. Identify a molecule which does not exist
83. Lactose on hydrolysis gives
(1) Be2 (2) N2
(1) -D-glucose and -D-fructose
(3) B2 (4) C2
(2) -D-glucose and -D-galactose
90. An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as one
(3) -D-glucose and -D-glucose of the product. Its structure is
(4) -D-glucose and -D-galactose
84. Find out the solubility of Mg(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH. (1) (2)
Given that solubility product of Mg(OH)2 is
1.8 × 10–11. (3) (4)
(1) 3.24 × 10–10 M (2) 1.8 × 10–9 M

91. Which of the following metal ions found primarily
(3) 3.24 × 10–9 M (4) 1.8 × 10–10 M on the outside of cells, being located in blood
85. The incorrect option for free expansion of ideal plasma and in the interstitial fluid which
gas under isothermal condition is surrounds the cells?
(1) H = 0 (2) S = 0 (1) Copper
(3) T = 0 (4) w = 0 (2) Iron
SECTION-B (3) Sodium

(4) Magnesium
86. Which of the following amines will give
carbylamine test? 92. Cleavage of CH2 = CH – O – CH2 – CH3 with HI
gives
(1) CH2 = CH – I + CH3 – CH2 – OH
(1) (2)
(2) CH2 = CH – I + CH3OH
(3) (4) (3)

(4) CH2 = CH – OH + CH3I
(8)
93. Match the following 96 Lewis acid among the following is

(1) BF3 (2) NH3
Oxide Nature
(3) CH3OCH3 (4) H2O
(a) N2O (i) Basic
97. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers
(b) SO3 (ii) Neutral is not possible?
1
(c) Na2O (iii) Acidic (1) n = 4, l = 3 , m = –2, s = +
2
(d) PbO (iv) Amphoteric 1
(2) n = 3, l = 0, m = –1, s = +
2
Which of the following is correct option?
1
(a) (b) (c) (d) (3) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = –
2
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) 1
(4) n = 3, l = 2, m = –2, s = +
2
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
98. Minimum ionic radii among the following is of
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(1) Ce3+
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (2) Pr3+
94. For the formation of NaOH using Castner Kellner (3) Sm3+
cell, cathode used is of metal (4) Eu3+
(1) Hg (2) Pt 99. Ambidentate ligand is
(3) Cu (4) Na (1) C2O24− (2) NO2−

95. Reaction between carbon dioxide and methyl (3) EDTA4– (4) H2O
magnesium bromide followed by hydrolysis will 100. Fastest rate of SN1 reaction is given by the which
give molecule?
(1) CH3CHO
(1) (2)
(2) CH3CH2OH
(3) CH3COOH
(4) CH3CH3 (3) (4)
BOTANY
SECTION-A (3) Colour blindness – Y-linked
101. Select the incorrect about Equisetum.
(4) Myotonic – Autosomal
(1) Has vascular tissues dystrophy recessive disorder
(2) Homosporous 103. Crossing over or recombination takes place in
(3) Has strobili or cones (1) Zygotene (2) Diplotene
(4) Produce two types of spores (3) Leptotene (4) Pachytene
102. Select the correct match. 104. Which of the following is not an attribute of a
population?
(1) Phenylketonuria – Autosomal
recessive disorder (1) Birth rate
(2) Death rate
(2) Thalassemia – Qualitative defect
in synthesis of (3) Sex ratio
globin (4) Sex of an individual
(9)
105. Identify the incorrect statement. 113. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) Sapwood is peripheral part of wood (1) Formation of peptide bond requires energy
(2) Heartwood has tannins, resins, oils etc (2) Charging of tRNA is called aminoacylation of
(3) Heartwood provides mechanical support tRNA.
(4) Sapwood lacks dead vessels and tracheids (3) Ribosome in its inactive state exists as two
subunits.
106. Snow blindness refers to
(4) First phase of translation is binding of mRNA
(1) Various type of skin cancers
to ribosomes.
(2) Aging of skin
114. Which of the following does not happen in G2
(3) Inflammation of cornea due to UV-B
phase?
(4) Cataract of eye
(1) Cell organelles duplication
dN K -N
107. In the equation = rN , K refers to (2) Tubulin synthesis
dt K
(3) Replication of DNA
(1) Population density
(4) RNA synthesis.
(2) Intrinsic rate
115. Inferior ovary is seen in epigynous flowers as in
(3) Carrying capacity
(4) The base of natural logarithms (1) Guava
108. Which of the following statements is incorrect (2) Plum
about DNA? (3) Rose
(1) Guanine is bonded with Cytosine with three (4) Pea
H-bonds.
116. Agar is obtained from red algae such as
(2) The two chains are coiled in a right handed
(1) Chlorella and Spirulina
fashion.
(3) Backbone is constituted by sugar-phosphate. (2) Gelidium and Gracilaria
(4) A purine comes opposite to a purine only. (3) Laminaria and Sargassum
109. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter (4) Anabaena and Volvox
vegetative inactive stage called 117. The plant parts which are haploid and present
(1) G1 (2) G2 inside diploid part are
(3) G0 (4) S (a) Embryo within the seed
110. Flower is perigynous in (b) Pollen grains within the Pollen sac
(1) Mustard (c) Seed inside the fruit
(2) Brinjal (d) Female gametophyte within the ovule
(3) Potato (e) Male gametes within the pollen grains.
(4) Peach (1) (a), (d) and (e)
111. An aquatic plant which requires biotic pollinating (2) (b) and (c)
agent is
(3) (b) and (d)
(1) Water Lily
(4) (c), (d) and (e)
(2) Hydrilla
118. Select the incorrect statement.
(3) Zostera
(1) Montreal Protocol was signed to control
(4) Vallisneria
emission of greenhouse gases.
112. Which of the following enzyme of transcription
helps in opening of DNA helix as well as (2) There is good ozone in stratosphere.
transcribing it? (3) The thickness of ozone is measured in
(1) DNA polymerase (2) RNA polymerase Dobson unit.
(3) DNA helicase (4) Topoisomerase (4) CFCs does not harm Ozone layer.
(10)
119. If the length of E. coli DNA is 1.36 mm, then what 125. Match the following columns w.r.t. mitosis and
will be the number of base pairs if distance select the correct option.
between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm?
Column-I Column-II
(1) 6.6 × 109 bp
(a) Prophase (i) Re-appearance of
(2) 3.3 × 109 bp nuclear membrane
(3) 4.0 × 106 bp
(b) Metaphase (ii) Condensation of
(4) 2.3 × 106 bp chromatin
120. Nitrogenase is enzyme which converts N2 into (c) Anaphase (iii) Separation of
NH3, it is chromatids
(1) Inhibited by pigment leghaemoglobin (d) Telophase (iv) Chromosomes align
(2) Oxygen sensitive on equator
(3) Found in all prokaryotes (a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) Copper containing enzyme (1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
121. Among the animals, which is the most species (2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
rich taxonomic group? (3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(1) Molluscs (4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(2) Insects 126. Which of the following are not membrane
bound?
(3) Fishes
(1) Inclusion bodies of prokaryotes
(4) Reptiles
(2) Lysosomes
122. Which of the following has ribosomes for protein
synthesis? (3) Plant vacuoles
(1) Peroxisomes
127. Beetle with red and black markings – the ladybird
(2) Golgi bodies
and dragonflies are useful to get rid of
(3) Lysosomes (1) Aphids and mosquitoes
(4) Rough endoplasmic reticulum (2) All fungal diseases
123. There were seven contrasting traits taken by (3) Plant nematodes
Mendel for his experiments on pea. Which of the (4) Insect predators
following was not taken?
128. Match the trophic levels with their correct species
(1) Flower colour (2) Stem height names in grassland ecosystem and select the
(3) Pod colour (4) Pod weight correct option.
124. Match the following columns and select the Trophic levels Species
correct option.
(a) Tertiary Consumer (i) Grass
Column I Column II
(b) Primary (ii) Crow
(a) Clostridium butylicum (i) Citric acid Consumer
(b) Aspergillus niger (ii) Acetic acid
(c) Producers (iii) Vulture
(c) Acetobacter aceti (iii) Butyric acid
(d) Secondary (iv) Rabbit
(d) Lactobacillus (iv) Lactic acid Consumer
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(11)
129. Name the plant growth regulator which helps in SECTION-B

cell division and counteracts apical dominance?
136. Fibrous roots originate from
(1) Gibberellin (2) Ethylene
(1) Radicle (2) Primary root
(3) ABA (4) Cytokinin
(3) Base of the stem (4) Lateral roots
130. Which of the following cause fruits like apple to
elongate and improve its shape? 137. Substrate level phosphorylation is
(1) Cytokinins (2) Gibberellins (1) NADH synthesis

(3) Auxin (4) Ethylene (2) Direct ATP synthesis
131. Primary productivity depends on all of the given (3) NADPH2 synthesis
factors, except (4) FADH2 synthesis
(1) Plant species inhabiting a particular area. 138. Father of Genetics is
(2) A variety of environmental factors. (1) Sutton (2) Boveri
(3) Photosynthetic capacity of plants. (3) Morgan (4) Mendel
(4) Various species of primary consumers. 139. Plasmolysis occurs when a plant cell is placed
132. Match the following essential elements and their (1) In a solution that is isotonic to the protoplasm
functions in plants. (2) In a solution that is hypertonic to the
Elements Functions protoplasm
(a) Iron (i) Photolysis of water. (3) In a solution that is hypotonic to the
protoplasm
(b) Magnesium (ii) Required for
(4) In pure water
chlorophyll
biosynthesis. 140. Select the incorrect statement about RuBisCO.
(1) It is the most abundant enzyme.
(c) Chlorine (iii) Maintains anion cation
balance (2) It has much greater affinity for CO2 than for
O2.
(d) Manganese (iv) Helps to maintain
(3) In C3 plants some O2 does bind to RuBisCO.
ribosome structure
(4) RuBP combines with O2 to form 3 molecules
Select the correct option. of 3-PGA, this reaction is also catalysed by
(a) (b) (c) (d) RuBisCO.
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) 141. How many genotypes and phenotypes are there
(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) in ABO blood groups in humans?
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) Genotype Phenotype
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(1) 6 4
133. Viroids have
(2) 4 6
(1) RNA
(2) DNA (3) 6 6
(3) Protein Coat (4) 4 4
(4) Proteinaceous envelope
142. Primary sludge contains
134. India has how many biosphere reserves?
(1) Methanogens and fungi
(1) 90 (2) 27
(2) Bacterial flocs
(3) 14 (4) 448
(3) Soil and small pebbles
135. Ovule has integuments which encircle the
(4) Aerobic bacteria and anaerobic bacteria
nucellus except at the tip where a small opening
is present called 143. Laminarin is stored food material in
(1) Chalaza (2) Hilum (1) Red algae (2) Brown algae
(3) Micropyle (4) Funicle (3) Green algae (4) Blue green algae
(12)
144. The transverse section of a plant part shows 147. The pioneer community in hydrarch succession is
following anatomical features. (1) Phytoplanktons (2) Bryophytes
(a) Mesophyll not differentiated (3) Lichens (4) Ferns
(b) Conjoint vascular bundles 148. Egg apparatus of embryo sac has egg cell and
(c) Cuticle present synergids. The ploidy level and number of
(d) Chlorenchyma present respective cells are
Identify the category of the plant and its part. Egg Cell Synergids
(1) Monocot stem (2) Monocot Leaf Ploidy Number Ploidy Number
(3) Dicot Root (4) Dicot Leaf
(1) n 1 n 1
145. Which of the following is present on stroma
lamellae and has reaction center P700? (2) 2n 1 2n 2
(1) PS II (3) n 1 n 2
(2) Cyt b6f complex
(4) 2n 2 2n 1
(3) PS I
(4) ATP synthase 149. The feature related to family Solanaceae is
146. A bioactive molecule _________ is used as an (1) Trimerous flowers

immunosuppressive agent in organ transplant (2) Epipetalous condition
patients produced by a fungus Trichoderma (3) Persistent tepals
polysporum.
(4) Inferior ovary
Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
150. Ribosomes
(1) Statins
(1) Are single membrane bound
(2) Amylase
(2) Are not found within the cell organelle
(3) Cyclosporin A
(3) Are found in cytoplasm of prokaryotes
(4) Streptokinase A
(4) Were discovered by Camillo Golgi
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A Choose the correct option
151. In a standard ECG, QRS complex represents (1) a - iii, b- ii, c- i, d- iv
(1) Depolarisation of ventricles (2) a - ii, b- i, c- iv, d- iii
(2) Repolarisation of ventricles (3) a - iii, b- ii, c- iv, d- i
(4) a - i, b- ii, c- iii, d- iv
(3) End of ventricular systole
153. IVF followed by ET in test tube baby programme
(4) Depolarisation of auricles
includes techniques like
152. Match column I and column II and choose the (1) GIFT and AI
correct option
(2) IUT and ZIFT
Column-I Column-II (3) AI and IUI
a. hPL (i) Androgens (4) ICSI and GIFT
154. Choose a combination of hormones which at high
b. Paired male sex (ii) Cowper's gland
concentration facilitates ovulation.
accessory gland
(1) Estrogen, Progesterone, LH
c. Secondary (iii) Placental hormone (2) LH, FSH, Progesterone
oocyte
(3) FSH, Estrogen, PRL
d. Interstitial cells (iv) Forms acellular layer (4) Estrogen, LH, FSH
(13)
155. Select the correct statement. 162. Match column I and column II and choose the
(1) Muscularis is the innermost layer of digestive correct option.
tract Column-I Column-II
(2) Ilium is a part of alimentary canal
a. cryIAc (i) A. tumefaciens
(3) Vermiform appendix is tubular projection from
rectum b. Taq polymerase (ii) Thermus
aquaticus
(4) Ileum opens into large intestine
156. An example of unicellular gland is c. Native plasmid of (iii) Specific Bt toxin
S. typhimurium gene
(1) Salivary gland (2) Brunner's gland
(3) Goblet cell (4) Gastric gland d. Natural genetic (iv) First
engineer for plants recombinant
157. S.L. Miller created electric discharge in a closed
DNA
flask and observed amino acids formation by
mixing which of the following components at (1) a - iii, b- iv, c- ii, d- i
800°C? (2) a - iii, b- ii, c- iv, d- i
(1) H2, O2, CH4, H2O (2) CH3, CO2, H2, H2O (3) a - i, b- ii, c- iii, d- iv
(3) CH4, H2, NH3, H2O (4) CH3, H2, SO2, H2O (4) a - ii, b- iii, c- iv, d- i
158. The infective stage of malaria causing pathogen 163. Match the following columns and choose the
in humans and its site of storage in mosquito correct option.
respectively are
Column-I Column-II
(1) Trophozoite, hepatocytes
(2) Sporozoites, salivary glands a. Bacterial pathogen (i) Malaria
(3) Sporozoites, RBCs b. Protozoan pathogen (ii) Elephantiasis
(4) Gametocytes, hepatocytes c. Helminthic pathogen (iii) Pneumonia
159. Linking of two fragments of DNA became
d. Streptococcus sp. (iv) Enteric fever
possible with the enzyme
(1) Restriction endonuclease (1) a - iii, b- i, c- ii, d- iv
(2) DNA ligase (2) a - iii, b- ii, c- i, d- iv
(3) Alkaline phosphatase (3) a - ii, b- iv, c- i, d- iii
(4) Catalase (4) a - iv, b- i, c- ii, d- iii
160. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. nervous 164. Which among the following induces the
system of cockroach. completion of the meiotic division in the
secondary oocyte?
(1) Consist of series of fused segmentally
arranged ganglia joined by connectives on (1) Mere contact of sperm with zona pellucida
the ventral side (2) Entry of sperm into cytoplasm of ovum
(2) Three ganglia in the head and six in the (3) Capacitation of sperms
thorax (4) Release of first polar body
(3) System is spread throughout the body 165. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. Ethidium
(4) Head holds a bit of a nervous system while bromide.
the rest is situated along the belly part (1) It is used to separate DNA fragments in gel
161. The ori sequence controls electrophoresis
(1) Growth of recombinants (2) Aids in visualization of DNA fragments under
(2) Action of restriction endonucleases UV light
(3) Copy number of the linked DNA (3) Enable the detection of RNA fragments under
infrared radiation
(4) Linking of antibiotic resistance gene in the
plasmid (4) Produces bright blue light under UV radiation
(14)
166. A triploblastic acoelomate among the following is 172. Match the following column I and column II and
(1) Ascaris (2) Aurelia choose the correct option.
(3) Fasciola (4) Pheretima Column-I Column-II
167. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. presence of a. Placoid scales (i) Trygon
bonds.
b. Operculated gills (ii) Pristis
(1) Chitin – Glycosidic bonds
c. Ectoparasites on (iii) Exocoetus
(2) Insulin – Peptide bonds some fishes
(3) Cholesterol – Phosphodiester bonds d. Sting ray (iv) Petromyzon
(4) Cellulose – Glycosidic bonds (1) a - ii, b- iii, c- iv, d- i (2) a - iii, b- iv, c- i, d- ii
168. Odd one w.r.t. events happening during (3) a - iv, b- ii, c- iii, d- i (4) a - i, b- iv, c- iii, d- ii
inspiration is 173. Collagen is the most abundant
(1) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles (1) Protein in whole of the biosphere
(2) Contraction of diaphragm
(2) Protein in animal world
(3) Decrease in intra-pulmonary pressure
(3) Polysaccharide in animal world
(4) Decrease in volume of thoracic chamber
(4) Lipid in whole of the biosphere
169. Match the following column I and column II and
174. Select a palindromic sequence
choose the correct option.
(1) 5' GAATTC3' (2) 5' GAATTC3'
Column-I Column-II
3' CTTAAG5' 5' CTTAAG3'
a. Adaptive immune (i) Neutrophils (3) 5' GGTTTG3' (4) 5' TTGCCT3'
response
3' CCAAAC5' 3' AACGGA5'
b. Associated with allergic (ii) Lymphocytes 175. Which of the following is not an example of
reactions evolution by anthropogenic action?
c. Secrete serotonin and (iii) Eosinophils (1) Industrial melanism
heparin (2) Pesticide resistant varieties
d. Most abundant (iv) Basophils (3) Herbicide resistant varieties
leucocyte (4) Australian marsupials within Australian island
(1) a - ii, b- iii, c- iv, d- i (2) a - ii, b- iv, c- iii, d- i 176. Match the following column I and column II and
(3) a - ii, b- iii, c- i, d- iv (4) a - i, b- ii, c- iv, d- iii choose the correct option.
170. Which of the following is not an example of Column-I Column-II

organs showing convergent evolution?
a. Shoulder joint (i) Scapula
(1) Eye of Octopus and of mammals
b. Triangular flat bone (ii) Articulates with
(2) Sweet potato and potato
acromion
(3) Wings of butterfly and of birds
c. 11 th and 12th pair of (iii) Floating ribs
(4) Vertebrate hearts or brains
ribs
171. Choose the incorrect match
d. Collar bone (iv) Glenoid cavity
(1) PCT of nephron – Brush border articulates with
cuboidal epithelium humerus
(2) Ducts of salivary – Compound (1) a - ii, b- iii, c- i, d- iv (2) a - iv, b- i, c- iii, d- ii
glands epithelium
(3) a - ii, b- i, c- iii, d- iv (4) a - iv, b- ii, c- iii, d- i
(3) Eustachian tube – Simple squamous 177. Choose the bacterial STI.
epithelium
(1) Malaria (2) Cancer
(4) Lining of intestine – Columnar epithelium (3) Trichomoniasis (4) Gonorrhoea
(15)
178. Restriction endonucleases 184. Select the incorrect match

(1) Cleave only ssDNA at the terminal end (1) Glucagon – Hyperglycemic hormone
(2) Joins two DNA fragments by hydrogen bonds (2) Insulin – Hypoglycemic hormone
(3) Cut the DNA strands at palindromic sites
(3) Cortisol – Emergency hormone
(4) Always produce sticky ends
(4) TCT – Hypocalcemic hormone
179. Select the factor which does not favour the
formation of oxyhaemoglobin. 185. Match column I and column II.
(1) Low pCO2 Column-I Column-II
(2) High pO2 a. Economically harmful (i) Buthus
(3) Low temperature gregarious arthropod
(4) High H+ concentration b. Radially symmetrical (ii) Ophiura
180. A salt retaining hormone responsible for echinoderm
reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal tubules c. Chitinous exoskeleton (iii) Locusta
is and book lungs
(1) ANF (2) Renin d. Ciliated comb plates (iv) Pleurobrachia
181. Most Bt toxins are
(1) a - iii, b- ii, c- i, d- iv
(1) Insect group specific
(2) a - i, b- ii, c- iii, d- iv
(2) Specific for fungal species (3) a - ii, b- i, c- iii, d- iv
(3) Nematode group specific (4) a - iv, b- i, c- iii, d- ii
(4) Specific for protozoans SECTION-B
182. ‘Hisardale’ is a result of cross breed between 186. An intestinal proteolytic enzyme that activates
(1) Bikaneri rams and Marino rams proteolytic biocatalyst of pancreatic juice is
(2) Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams (1) Carboxypeptidase (2) Enterokinase
(3) Bikaneri ewes and Marino ewes (3) Pepsin (4) Rennin
(4) Bikaneri rams and Marino ewes 187. Match the following column I and column II and
Column-I Column-II
(a) Three subphyla of phylum Chordata are
Tunicata, Cephalochordata and Vertebrata. a. Post transcriptional (i) PCR
(b) In Ascidia, notochord is present only in larval gene silencing
tail. b. DNA amplification (ii) Corrective
(c) Notochord persists throughout life in all therapy for
vertebrates. hereditary
diseases
(d) Nerve cord is ventral, solid and double in
chordates. c. Gene therapy (iii) Insecticidal
Choose the option with only incorrect protein
statements. d. Bt toxin gene (iv) RNAi
(1) (a) and (c) are correct
(1) a - iv, b- iii, c- i, d- ii
(2) (a) and (d) are correct
(2) a - iv, b- ii, c- i, d- iii
(3) (b) and (c) are incorrect
(3) a - ii, b- iv, c- iii, d- i
(4) (c) and (d) are incorrect (4) a - iv, b- i, c- ii, d- iii
(16)
188. Select the incorrect match 193. Read the following statements and choose the
incorrect statement.
(1) Tyrosine – Aromatic amino acid
(2) Lysine – Basic amino acid (1) Active immunity is a slow immune response
but pathogen specific
(3) Glutamic – Acidic amino acid
acid (2) lgG and lgA imparts passive immunity to
foetus
(4) Valine – Alcoholic amino acid
(3) Anti-tetanus serum is an example of passive
189. Glycosuria and ketonuria in urine helps in clinical immunity
diagnosis of
(1) Vasopressin deficiency mediated disorder (4) Active immunity is exemplified by a condition
when a snake bites and host’s body naturally
(2) Disease caused by ADH deficiency
produces antibodies against snake venom
(3) Disease caused by insulin deficiency
(4) Glucagon deficiency mediated disorder
190. Match the following column I and column II and (1) Alfred Wallace – Malay Archipelago
Column-I Column-II (2) Oparin and – Life could have
Haldane come from pre-
a. Auditory receptors (i) Eustachian tube existing non-living
b. Pressure equalizer (ii) Organ of Corti organic molecules
between middle ear
(3) Karl Ernst von – Biogeographical
and outer ear
Baer evidences of
c. Vestibular (iii) Increase evolution
apparatus efficiency of
sound wave (4) Charles Darwin – Natural selection as
transmission mechanism of
evolution
d. Ear ossicles (iv) Above coiled
portion of 195. Match the following column I and column II and
labyrinth called choose the correct option.
cochlea
(1) a - i, b- iv, c- iii, d- ii Column-I Column-II
(2) a - ii, b- i, c- iv, d- iii a. Abrin (i) Succinate
(3) a - i, b- ii, c- iv, d- iii dehydrogenase
(4) a - ii, b- iv, c- iii, d- i inhibitor
191. Choose a set of secondary metabolites b. Oxaloacetate (ii) Polymer of N-
(1) Caffeine and glucose acetylglucosamine
(2) Strychnine and valine
c. Exoskeleton of (iii) Posses peptide bonds
(3) Cellulose and codeine
arthropods
(4) Anthocyanin and chlorophyll
192. Functional and fully mature form of insulin has d. GLUT-4 (iv) Toxin, secondary
(1) Two polypeptide chains A and B mainly metabolite
linked by glycosidic bonds
(1) a - iv, b- iii, c- ii, d- i
(2) An extra peptide chain called C chain
(2) a - iii, b- ii, c- i, d- iv
(3) Two short polypeptides linked together by
disulphide bridges (3) a - iv, b- i, c- ii, d- iii
(4) One interchain and two intrachain disulfide
(4) a - i, b- iii, c- iv, d- ii
bridges
(17)
196. Match the following (3) Cerebral aqueduct, cerebrum, association

areas
Column-I Column-II
(4) Cerebrum, thalamus, hypothalamus
a. Exopthalmic (i) Adrenal gland
198. Which hominid arose during ice age between
goitre
75,000 – 10,000 years ago?
b. Insulin (ii) Thyroid gland (1) Homo erectus
deficiency
(2) Homo habilis
c. Aldosteronism (iii) Pituitary gland
(3) Modern Homo sapiens
d. Gigantism (iv) Pancreas (4) Neanderthal man
Choose the correct option from the following 199. Among the given sets of contraceptive methods,
(1) a -ii, b- iv, c- i, d- iii which set shares similar mode of action?
(2) a - i, b- ii, c- iii, d- iv (1) Saheli, Diaphragm
(3) a - iv, b- ii, c- i, d- iii (2) Multiload 375 and Progestasert
(4) a - iv, b- iii, c- ii, d- i (3) Lippes loop, Vasectomy
197. Select the option representing structures (4) CuT and Multiload 375
included in forebrain only. 200. The human protein-enriched milk is produced by
(1) Corpus callosum, cerebellum, hypothalamus first transgenic cow named
(2) Thalamus, hypothalamus, corpora (1) Tracy (2) Rosie
quadrigemina (3) Dolly (4) ANDi
❑ ❑ ❑
(18)
Code-A
(for NEET-2021)

Instructions :
PHYSICS

SECTION-A 2. A long solenoid of 100 cm length, having 200
turns carries 5 A current. The magnetic field at
1. The graph between displacement (x) from mean
position and time (t) for a particle undergoing one end of solenoid is (0 = 4 × 10–7 Tm/A)
SHM is as shown in the figure. (1) 6.28 × 10–4 T (2) 2.6 × 10–4 T
(3) 12.4 × 10–4 T (4) 9.81 × 10–3 T
3. Two blocks of masses 3 kg and 2 kg are tied to
two ends of an inextensible string which passes
over a frictionless pulley. The tension in the string
between ceiling and the axle of pulley is
The corresponding acceleration-time (a-t) graph
is
(1) (2)
(1) 24 N (2) 36 N
(3) (4)
(3) 48 N (4) 64 N
(1)
Pre NEET Mock Test 2021 Test-3 (Code-A)
4. The average energy intensity contribution of 13. The value of A and Z in the following nuclear
electric field in an EM wave is I. The net average reaction is
energy intensity of EM wave is 25
12 Mg + 24 He ⎯⎯→ 11H + ZA x
I
(1) I (2) (1) A = 28, Z = 13
2
(3) 2I (4) 4I (2) A = 14, Z = 2
5. In a region, electric potential varies with position (3) A = 36, Z = 16
x as V = 4x2. The magnitude of electric field at (4) A = 14, Z = 8
x = 2 m is
14. Mobility of charged particles is 6 × 10–2 m2 V–1 s–1. If
(1) 9 V/m (2) 2 V/m
the electric field applied is 9 × 10–3 V/m, then the
(3) 32 V/m (4) 16 V/m drift speed would be
6. Degrees of freedom of a diatomic gas is (neglect (1) 0.54 mm/s (2) 2 m/s
vibrational modes)
(3) 0.69 × 10–4 m/s (4) 2 × 10–4 mm/s
(1) 4 (2) 2
15. Considering the rules of the significant figures,
(3) 5 (4) 3
what is the value of 10.01 m × 9.11 m?
7. For which of the following forces, the torque
about the origin is zero, if force is applied at (1) 91.19 (2) 91.1911
r
r = 8iˆ m ? (3) 91.191 (4) 91.2
16. A substance has magnetic permeability equal to
(1) 16iˆ N (2) 16 ˆj N
22 × 10–4 Tm/A. The value of magnetic susceptibility
(3) 8 kˆ N (4) 8 iˆ + 16 jˆ N is
8. Mean free path for molecules of a gas is . If (1) 1750 (2) 1751
diameter of molecules is kept constant and the (3) 1752 (4) 1749
number density is increased to two times of its
17. A spherical body of radius 20 cm contains a
initial value, then new mean free path will be
charge 4 × 10–8 C, distributed uniformly in its
 volume. The magnitude of electric field at a
(1)  (2)
2 distance 10 cm from its centre will be closest to
 (1) 4500 N/C (2) 3100 N/C
(3)  (4)
4 (3) 6800 N/C (4) 1000 N/C
9. Energy equivalent to 4 g of a substance is 18. The power factor of the following circuit is
(1) 2 × 1010 J (2) 9 × 1016 J
(3) 6 × 102 J (4) 3.6 × 1014 J
10. A hypothetical screw gauge has a pitch of
0.2 mm and 10 divisions on circular scale. The
least count of screw gauge is
(1) 0.1 mm (2) 0.02 mm
(3) 0.5 mm (4) 0.06 mm 1 
(1) (2)
2 4
11. In adiabatic compression, which of the following
is true (Symbols have usual meaning) (3) 1 (4) 2
(1) Q = 0 (2) U < 0 19. A liquid in a capillary, rises up to a height h when
(3) W = 0 (4) Both (1) and (2) the capillary is vertical. If the capillary is inclined
12. 2 moles of an ideal gas are contained in a 20 litre at angle 45° with the vertical, then the length of
vessel. If the temperature of gas is 300 K, then liquid in capillary will be
the pressure of the gas will be (1 atm = 105 N/m2) (1) h (2) 2h
(1) 1.2 N/m2 (2) 2.5 atm h
(3) 2h (4)
(3) 6.1 atm (4) 2.1 × 103 N/m2 2
(2)
Test-3 (Code-A) Pre NEET Mock Test 2021
20. In YDSE, if the separation between the slits is 25. A body weighs 36 N at a depth equal to half of
tripled and the distance between screen and slit earth radius. The weight of the body on surface
plane is also tripled, then the fringe width of earth will be
(1) Becomes half (1) 36 N (2) 18 N
(2) Remains unchanged (3) 54 N (4) 72 N
(3) Becomes one-third 26. Two particles of mass 6 kg and 24 kg are
(4) Gets tripled separated by a certain distance. The ratio of
21. For the logic circuit shown in the figure, the truth distance of COM from 6 kg mass and that from
table is 24 kg mass will be
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 5 (4) 3 : 1
27. Consider following two statements
(1) A B C (2) A B C (A) In forward biased condition, width of
depletion region in p-n junction diode
0 0 1 0 0 0
decreases
1 0 0 1 0 0
(B) Barrier potential of a p-n junction depends on
0 1 1 0 1 1 amount of doping
1 1 0 1 1 0 The correct statement(s) is/are
(3) A B C (4) A B C (1) Only (A) (2) Only (B)
0 0 0 0 0 0 (3) Both (A) and (B) (4) Neither (A) nor (B)
1 0 1 1 0 0 28. Light of frequency f is incident on

a
f
0 1 0 0 1 1 photosensitive surface of threshold frequency .
2
1 1 1 1 1 1 The energy of the fastest photoelectron is found
22. The colour code of a carbon resistor is given to be equal to K. If the frequency of the incident
below. radiation is doubled, then the energy of the
fastest electron will be
(1) 3K (2) 2K
K
The value of tolerance limit is (3) K (4)
2
(1) 10% (2) 5%
29. For a light of wavelength 800 nm, the limit of
(3) 20% (4) 0% resolution of a telescope is found to be equal to
23. The capacitance of a capacitor with dielectric . The limit of resolution for light for wavelength
medium is 8 F. On removing the dielectric 400 nm will be
medium, the capacitance becomes 2 F. The 
(1)  (2)
dielectric constant of the medium is 2
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 3
(3) 2 (4) 4 30. A resistance wire having length 1m, when
24. A ball is thrown vertically up with a speed 40 m/s. connected in the left gap of a metre bridge
The speed of ball, at a height 10 m will be balances a 20  resistance in the right gap at a
point which divides the bridge wire in the ratio
(1) 37.4 m/s 1 : 2. The length of the resistance wire which will
(2) 21.4 m/s have resistance of 2  is
(3) 19.6 m/s (1) 2.0 × 10–1 m (2) 1.5 × 10–1 m
(4) 8.1 m/s (3) 1.5 × 10–2 m (4) 1.0 × 10–2 m
(3)
31. Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on an 37. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of
absorbing surface at normal incidence having 16 × 10–9 C m. The electric potential due to the
surface area 20 cm2. The momentum received by dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from the
the surface during time span of 1 second is centre of the dipole, situated on equatorial line is
(1) 12 × 103 N s (2) 24 × 103 N s  1 

 = 9  109 N m2 /C2 
(3) 48 × 103 N s (4) 1.33 N s  40 
(1) 200 V (2) 400 V
32. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one
surface of a prism (with angle of prism A = 90°) (3) Zero (4) 50 V
and emerges parallel to the opposite surface. If 38. Two tuning forks A and B made of same material
the refractive index of the material of the prism is are slightly out of tune and produce beats of
2 frequency 7 Hz. When B is slightly filed, the beat
, then the angle of incidence is equal to
3 frequency increases to 9 Hz. If the frequency of A
is 274 Hz, the original frequency of B was
(1) 15° (2) 30°
(1) 524 Hz (2) 268 Hz
 1 
(3) 45° (4) sin–1   (3) 281 Hz (4) 312 Hz
 3
39. An electron is accelerated from rest through a
33. A 40 mH inductor is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz potential difference of 12.27 V. The de Broglie
ac supply. The rms value of the current in the wavelength of the electron is
circuit is, nearly (1) 19.1 Å (2) 12 Å
(1) 2.05 A (2) 16 A (3) 4.81 Å (4) 3.5 Å
(3) 25.1 A (4) 1.7 A 40. Consider the following two statements
34. Dimensions of strain are (a) Resistance of a semiconductor decreases

with increase in temperature.
(1) [ML2T–2]
(b) Resistance of a conductor decreases with
(2) [M0L0T0] increase in temperature.
The correct statement(s) is/are
(3) [ML–1T–2]
(1) Only (a)
(4) [MLT–2]
(2) Only (b)
35. The Brewster's angle ib for an interface dividing
(3) Only (a) and (b)
mediums of refractive index  = 1 and  = 3
(4) Neither (a) nor (b)
should be (Light is incident from rarer to denser
medium) 41. Researchers have found that it takes only 375
joules of energy to crack a bone. The
(1) 15° (2) 45° corresponding energy in eV is
(3) 30° (4) 60° (1) 6 × 102 eV (2) 4.2 × 104 eV
SECTION-B (3) 2.3 × 1021 eV (4) 9.1 × 1010 eV
36. A wire of length 1 m, area of cross section 2 mm2 42. The quantities of heat required to raise the
is hanging from a ceiling of lift. The length of the temperature of two solid copper spheres of radii
wire changes to 1.1 m when a mass 2 kg is r1 and r2 (r2 = 1.5 r1) through 1 K and 2 K
suspended from its free end and lift is respectively are in the ratio :
accelerated upwards with acceleration 2 m/s2. 9 3
(1) (2)
The value of Young’s modulus is (g = 10 m/s2) 4 2
(1) 4.2 × 104 N/m2 (2) 6 × 104 N/m2
5 4
(3) 1.2 × 108 N/m2 (4) 8 × 103 N/m2 (3) (4)
3 27
(4)
43. Which of the following graph represents the

variation of resistivity () with temperature (T) for
nichrome
(1) (2)
(1) 2.5 m s–2 (2) 5 m s–2
(3) 10 m s–2 (4) 15 m s–2
47. A car moves along a straight line whose equation
(3) (4) of motion is given by s = 24t + 3t4 – 2t3, where s
is in metre and t is in second. The velocity of the
44. Which of the following is correct, for transistor in car at t = 0 will be
common emitter configuration? (1) 7 m/s (2) 9 m/s
(1) Input is given between collector and emitter (3) 12 m/s (4) 24 m/s
(2) Output is taken between base and emitter 48. An engine develops 20 kW of power. How much
time will it take to slowly lift a mass of 100 kg to a
(3) The variation of base current with base- height of 20 m? (g = 10 m/s2)
emitter voltage is called the input
characteristic (1) 4 s (2) 5 s
(3) 1 s (4) 10 s
(4) Variation of collector current with collector-
emitter voltage is called input characteristic 49. Moment of inertia of a uniform circular ring of
mass m and radius R about its diameter is
45. As per Bohr’s model, which of the following
(1) mR2 (2) 2mR2
cannot be angular momentum of an electron in
hydrogen atom? mR 2 mR 2
(3) (4)
h 3h 2 4
(1) (2)
 2 50. The angular frequency of motion whose equation
d 2y
h 2h is 9 + 16y = 0 is (y is displacement and
(3) (4) dt 2
4 
t is time)
46. A block of mass 2 3 kg rests on a horizontal 4
9
frictionless plane. What would be the (1) units (2) units
4 9
acceleration of the block if it is subjected to two
forces (in same horizontal plane) as shown in 4 2
(3) units (4) units
figure? 3 3
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 52. On electrolysis of aqueous Na2SO4 solution using
Platinum (Pt) electrodes, the product obtained at
anode will be
nitrogen in the following reaction?
(1) O2 gas (2) H2S gas
1
N2 (g) + O2 (g) → N2O(g) (3) SO2 gas (4) H2 gas
2
(1) 0 to + 1 53. Addition of a catalyst in a reaction does not alter
(2) 0 to + 2 (1) Rate of reaction
(3) 0 to – 1 (2) Threshold energy
1 (3) Equilibrium constant

(4) 0 to +
2 (4) Activation energy
(5)
54. Reaction between formaldehyde and 60. An element has a primitive cubic structure with
benzaldehyde in presence of concentrated NaOH unit cell edge length of 272 pm. The atomic
is known as radius is
(1) Cannizzaro’s reaction 2 4
(1)  272 pm (2)  272 pm
(2) Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction 4 3
(3) Cross Aldol condensation 1 1
(3)  272 pm (4)  272 pm
(4) Aldol condensation 2 2
55. Which of the following alkanes cannot be 61. Which of the following compounds is brown in
prepared in good yield by Wurtz reaction? colour?
(1) 2,3-Dimethylbutane (2) Propane (1) Fe2O3·xH2O
(3) n-Butane (4) Ethane (2) Zn(OH)2
56. Which of the following is a biodegradable (3) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4
polymer?
(4) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl
(1) PVC (2) Teflon
62. Reaction between acetaldehyde and
(3) PHBV (4) Dacron methylmagnesium chloride followed by hydrolysis
57. A mixture of N2 and O2 gases in a cylinder will give
contains 7 g of N2 and 8 g of O2. If the total (1) Secondary alcohol (2) Tertiary alcohol
pressure of the mixture of the gases in the (3) Primary alcohol (4) Unsymmetrical ether
cylinder is 12 bar, then the partial pressure of N2 63. The calcium concentration in plasma is regulated
is at about
[Use atomic masses (N = 14 u, O = 16 u] (1) 50 mg L–1 (2) 20 mg L–1
(1) 2 bar (2) 6 bar (3) 100 mg L–1 (4) 175 mg L–1
(3) 4 bar (4) 9 bar 64. The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in
235 respectively, are
92U
58. Match the following and identify the correct
option (1) 92, 92 and 143 (2) 92, 143 and 92
(a) CO(g) + H2(g) (i) Permanent (3) 143, 92 and 92 (4) 92, 235 and 92
hardness of 65. Which of the following molecules has zero dipole
water moment?
(b) CaSO4 + MgSO4 (ii) An electron (1) NH3 (2) BF3
deficient (3) H2O (4) SO2
hydride 66. Identify a molecule which does not exist
(c) B2H6 (iii) Synthesis gas (1) B2 (2) C2
(d) H2O2 (iv) Perhydrol (3) Li2 (4) Ne2
(a) (b) (c) (d) 67. IUPAC official names of elements with atomic
number 102 and 107 respectively are
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(1) Mendelevium and Nobelium
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (2) Nobelium and Bohrium
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (3) Lawrencium and Nobelium
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (4) Mendelevium and Lawrencium
68. Half-life period for a first order reaction is 10 s.
59. For the reaction, N2O4(g) → 2NO2(g), the correct
The time required to reduce 2.0 g of the reactant
option is
to 0.25 g is :
(1) rH > 0 and rS < 0 (2) rH < 0 and rS > 0
(1) 20 s (2) 50 s
(3) rH < 0 and rS < 0 (4) rH > 0 and rS > 0 (3) 30 s (4) 15 s
(6)
69. Identify the correct statement from the following 74. An alkene on ozonolysis gives acetone as one of
(1) Blister copper has blistered appearance due the product. The structure of alkene is
to evolution of SO3
(2) Vapour phase refining is carried out for Zinc
by van Arkel method (1)
(3) Cast iron has about 3% carbon
(4) Wrought iron is impure iron with 5% carbon
70. The existence of charge on colloidal particles is
confirmed by which experiment?
(2)
(1) Emulsification
(2) Electrophoresis
(3) Tyndall effect
(4) Brownian movement (3)
71. Which of the following oxoacids of sulphur has
– O – O – linkage?
(1) H2SO4, sulphuric acid
(4)
(2) H2SO5, peroxomonosulphuric acid
(3) H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid
75. Dumas method is used for the estimation of
(4) H2SO3, sulphurous acid (1) Nitrogen (2) Sulphur
72. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromobutane to form (3) Phosphorus (4) Halogens
but-2-ene is
76. Match the following
(a) -Elimination reaction
Oxide Nature
(b) Follows Hoffmann rule
(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction (a) N2O (i) Acidic
(d) Dehydration reaction (b) CaO (ii) Amphoteric
(1) (a), (c) and (d) only
(c) ZnO (iii) Basic
(d) SO3 (iv) Neutral
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only
(4) (a) and (c) only Which of the following is correct option?
73. Identify the correct statements from the following
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) CO2(s) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
and frozen food
(b) The structure of C60 contains twenty six (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
membered rings and twelve five membered (3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
rings
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert
alcohols into gasoline 77. Which one of the following has maximum number
(d) CO is fairly soluble in water of atoms?
(1) (a) and (c) only (1) 1 g of H2(g) [Atomic mass of H = 1 u]
(2) (b) and (c) only (2) 1 g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O = 16 u]
(3) (c) and (d) only (3) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7 u]
(4) (a), (b) and (c) only (4) 1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108 u]
(7)
78. Which of the following is a basic amino 85. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of
acid ? ethanol is 1.99 K kg mol–1. The freezing point
(1) Alanine depression for the solution of molality
0.075 m containing a non-electrolyte solute in
(2) Tyrosine
ethanol is
(3) Arginine
(1) 0.75 K (2) 0.15 K
(4) Serine
(3) 1.25 K (4) 1.75 K
79. The calculated spin only magnetic moment of
Cu2+ ion is SECTION-B
(1) 5.92 BM 86. Identify the incorrect statement
(2) 4.90 BM (1) The transition metals and their compounds
(3) 2.84 BM are known for their catalytic activity due to
(4) 1.73 BM their ability to adopt multiple oxidation states
and to form complexes
80. Maltose on hydrolysis gives
(2) Interstitial compounds are those which are
(1) -D-Glucose + -D-Glucose formed when small atoms like H, C or N are
(2) -D-Glucose + -D-Fructose trapped inside the crystal lattices of metals
(3) -D-Fructose + -D-Fructose (3) The oxidation states of phosphorus in P2O3
and H3PO3 are the same
(4) -D-Glucose + -D-Fructose
(4) E° value for Ce4+/Ce3+ is negative
81. The mixture which shows negative deviation from
Raoult’s law is 87. Which of the following is correct about carbon
monoxide?
(1) Benzene + Toluene
(1) It enhances oxygen carrying ability of blood
(2) Acetone + Ethanol
(2) The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin
(3) Chlorobenzene + Bromobenzene bound to CO) is less stable than
(4) Water + Nitric acid oxyhaemoglobin.
82. A tertiary butyl free radical is more stable than a (3) It is produced due to complete combustion of
secondary butyl free radical because of which of carbon
the following? (4) It is a neutral oxide
(1) + R effect of – CH3 groups 88. If the equilibrium constant (KC) for a reversible
(2) – R effect of – CH3 groups reaction is 5 × 1013 at 300 K, then the value of
rG° at the same temperature will be
(3) Hyperconjugation
(1) 8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(1013)
(4) – I effect of – CH3 groups
(2) 8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(3 × 1013)
83. Find out the solubility of Mg(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH
(3) –8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × log(4 × 1013)
solution. [Given that the solubility product of
(4) –8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(5 × 1013)
Mg(OH)2 is 1.8 × 10–11]
89. Which of the following ligand has the strongest
(1) 2 × 10–8 M (2) 1 × 10–13 M field strength to form coordination compounds?
(3) 1.8 × 10–9 M (4) 2 × 10–13 M (1) S2– (2) F–
84. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (3) NH3 (4) H2O
(1) Sodium stearate acts as a soap 90. Identify compound Z in the following sequence of
(2) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide is an reactions
anionic detergent H O+
RMgX + CO2 ⎯⎯→ Y ⎯⎯⎯→
3
Z
(3) Liquid dishwashing detergents are non-ionic
type (1) A carboxylic acid (2) An aldehyde
(4) Detergents cause water pollution (3) A ketone (4) An alcohol
(8)
91. Which of the following is not correct for a gas 96. Number of unpaired electron(s) in Co(Z = 27) is
undergoing Isothermal expansion? (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) U = 0 (2) T = 0 (3) 3 (4) 4
(3) W = 0 (4) H = 0 97. Salt having pH of its aqueous solution greater
92. The number of Faradays(F) required to produce than 7, is
4.5 g of aluminium from molten AlCl3 is (Atomic (1) NH4Cl
mass of Al = 27 u) (2) NaCl
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) CH3COONa
(3) 1 (4) 0.5
(4) NH4NO3
93. Crude sodium chloride contains impurities of
98. In polar protic solvent, strongest nucleophile
(1) Na2SO4 only among the following is
(2) Na2SO4 and CaCl2 only (1) F– (2) PhS–
(3) MgCl2 only
(3) I– (4) OH−
(4) Na2SO4, CaCl2, CaSO4 and MgCl2 99. Strongest acid among the following is
94. Tert-butyl methyl ether on cleavage with one (1) HCOOH
equivalent of HI gives
(2) C2H5OH
(1) Tert-butanol + methyl iodide
(3) C6H5COOH
(2) Tert-butyl iodide + methyl alcohol
(4) C6H5OH
(3) Isobutylene + methyl alcohol
100. Select the correct statement(s) among the
(4) Isobutylene + methane following
95. Which of the following amines will not give the (a) ICl is more reactive than Cl2
carbylamine test?
(b) BrF3 has bent T-shape
(1) CH3NH2 (2) CH3 − CH− NH2
| (c) ICl3 is diamagnetic is nature
CH3
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (4)
(4) (a) and (c) only
BOTANY
SECTION-A 103. The plant parts which have same ploidy level are
101. Which of the following promotes seed a. Pollen grains b. Seed
germination and inhibits dormancy? c. Ovule d. Embryo sac
(1) ABA e. Male and female gametes.
(2) Phenolic acid
(1) a, b and c (2) c and d
(3) Para-ascorbic acid
(3) c, d and e (4) a, d and e
(4) Gibberellic acid
104. Sapwood differs from heartwood in being/having
102. In light reaction, plastocyanin facilitates the
transfer of electrons from (1) Darker in colour
(1) PS I to NADP+ (2) Lignified xylary elements
(2) PS I to ATP synthase (3) Tannins, resins, oils as it is central part
(3) Cyt b6f complex to PS I (4) Involved in conduction of water from roots to
(4) PS II to cyt b6f complex stem
(9)
105. Both the parents of a child have same type of 114. Packaging and sorting of materials is done by
blood group that is AB. what is the type of blood (1) Lysosome (2) Peroxisome
group that cannot be seen in that child?
(3) Polysome (4) Golgi apparatus
(1) O (2) AB
(3) A (4) B correct option
106. Translation begins when
(a). Monascus (i) Streptokinase
(1) DNA molecule is recognized by RNA purpureus
polymerase
(b) Trichoderma (ii) Autotrophic N2 fixer
(2) There is binding of mRNA to ribosome
polysporum
(3) Recognition of anti-codon is done by codon
(c) Streptococcus (iii) Statins
(4) Aminoacylation of tRNA takes place in
cytoplasm (d) Nostoc (iv) Cyclosporin A
107. All of the following have half inferior ovary, (a) (b) (c) (d)
except (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(1) Plum (2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) Rose (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) Ray florets of sunflower (4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) Peach 116. Select the incorrect about viroids
108. Initial growth phase in geometric growth is (1) Are free RNA
(1) Log phase (2) Exponential (2) Lack protein coat
(3) Stationary (4) Lag phase (3) Were discovered by T.O. Diener
109. Which of the following is not adventitious roots? (4) Have free DNA with protein coat
(1) Prop roots 117. To control the emission of ozone depleting
(2) Stilt root substances Montreal Protocol was signed in
(3) Tap root 1987 and it became effective in
(4) Modified storage root of sweet potato (1) 1988 (2) 1989
110. In which of the following aquatic plants pollination (3) 1986 (4) 1985
takes place by insect? 118. During citric acid cycle substrate level
(1) Vallisneria (2) Zostera phosphorylation takes place when there is
conversion of
(3) Water hyacinth (4) Hydrilla
(1) Succinic acid ⎯→ Fumaric acid
111. Bacterial flocs are allowed to sediment in the
settling tank. This sediment is called (2) Fumaric acid ⎯→ Malic acid
(1) Primary sludge (2) Primary effluent (3) Succinyl CoA ⎯→ Succinic acid
(3) Activated sludge (4) Floating debris (4) -ketoglutaric acid ⎯→ Succinyl CoA
112. Select the incorrect statement about inclusion 119. Select the correct match
bodies.
(1)  thalassemia - Autosomal
(1) Are membrane bound recessive trait,
(2) Lie free in the cytoplasm chromosome 11
(3) Found in prokaryotes (2) Sickle cell anaemia - Autosomal
(4) Store reserve material recessive trait
chromosome 16
113. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was
proposed by (3) Colour blindness - Y linked
(1) Morgan and Boveri (2) Sutton and Boveri (4) Myotonic dystrophy - Autosomal
(3) Mendel and Morgan (4) Boveri and Mendel recessive disorder
(10)
120. UV B damages DNA and mutation may occur. It 127. Match the trophic levels with their correct
also examples in pond ecosystem.
(1) Causes inflammation of cornea called snow (a) Fourth trophic level (i) Phytoplankton
blindness (b) Second trophic level (ii) Small fishes
(2) Damages skin cells (c) First trophic level (iii) Zooplankton
(3) Directly harms the ozone layer by creating (d) Third trophic level (iv) Large fishes
hole in it.
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
121. Filamentous and colonial forms are respectively
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(1) Gracilaria and Chlorella
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) Gelidium and Spirulina
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) Laminaria and Sargassum
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) Anabaena and Volvox
128. Name the plant hormone which is gaseous in
122. The transverse section of a plant part shows
nature.
following anatomical features
(1) GA (2) Ethylene
a. Vascular bundles are arranged in a ring
(3) Cytokinin (4) ABA
b. Large pith present
c. Vascular bundles are conjoint and open 129. Pairing of homologous chromosomes takes place
in
d. Hypodermis is collenchymatous.
(1) Zygotene (2) Leptotene
Identify the category of plant and its part
(3) Diplotene (4) Pachytene
(1) Monocotyledonous root
130. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA
(2) Monocotyledonous stem
helix during DNA replication.
(3) Dicotyledonous stem
(1) DNA helicase (2) DNA polymerase
(4) Dicotyledonous root
(3) RNA polymerase (4) DNA ligase
123. How many total characters of pea plant were
131. Purine adenine pairs with pyrimidine thymine
studied by Mendel during his experiments?
through how many hydrogen bond(s)?
(1) 2 (2) 8
(1) One (2) Two
(3) 7 (4) 14
(3) Three (4) Four
124. Stored food in red algae is
132. Which of the following is a region of India that
(1) Cellulose (2) Floridean starch exhibits highest species diversity?
(3) Glycogen (4) Starch (1) Madagascar (2) Amazon forest
125. Which of the following does not happen in G 1 (3) Western Ghats (4) Himalayan regions
phase?
133. The reaction for nitrogen fixation is
(1) Cell organelles duplication
(2) DNA replication (1) N2 ⎯→ NO2− (2) NO2− ⎯⎯→NO3−
(3) Cytoplasmic growth (3) N2 ⎯⎯→ NH3 (4) NO2− ⎯⎯→ NH3
(4) RNA synthesis
134. Match the following essential elements and their
126. If the distance between two consecutive base functions in plants
pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base
pairs of a DNA double helix in a E.coli cell is (a) Zn (i) Required for formation of
4.6 × 106 bp, then the length of the DNA is mitotic spindle
approximately (b) Ca (ii) Constituent of biotin
(1) 2.2 mm (2) 1.13 mm (c) S (iii) Constituent of nucleic acid
(3) 1.56 mm (4) 2.5 mm (d) N (iv) Required for synthesis of auxin
(11)
Select the correct option 141. The positive pressure which can be responsible
(a) (b) (c) (d) for pushing up water to small heights in the stem
is
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(1) Imbibition (2) Plasmolysis
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) Root pressure (4) Transpiration
(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
142. Cells that enter an inactive stage called
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
quiescent stage (G0) of the cell cycle
135. The mass of the parenchymatous cell which fills
(1) Are metabolically inactive
the body of the ovule is
(2) Do not proliferate
(1) Micropyle (2) Nucellus
(3) Do not respire
(3) Chalaza (4) Hilum
(4) Cannot divide ever in future
SECTION-B 143. According to the International Union for
Conservation of Nature and Natural resources
136. Heterosporous species have male and female
(IUCN) 2004, the total number of plant and
cones as in
animal species described so far is
(1) Pteris (2) Marchantia
(1) About 20 million
(3) Equisetum (4) Selaginella
(2) More than 1.5 million
137. Select the correct relation for GPP and NPP (3) Less than 1 million
(1) GPP + NPP = R (2) GPP = NPP – R (4) Only 0.5 million
(3) GPP = NPP + R (4) GPP = NPP 144. Trichoderma species are free living and are
138. Which of the following is not an attribute of a effective biocontrol agents of several plant
population? pathogens. They are
(1) Sex ratio (1) Bacteria (2) Fungi
(2) Birth of an individual (3) Viruses (4) Nematodes
(3) Natality 145. RuBisCO shows oxygenase activity when
(4) Death rate concentration of
139. Match the following with respect to meiosis. (1) CO2 is higher at enzyme site
(a) Zygotene (i) Condensation of chromatin (2) O2 is higher at enzyme site

begins (3) O2 is equal to concentration of CO2
(b) Leptotene (ii) Dissolution of (4) O2 released by plant is zero
synaptonemal complex 146. The organisation of microtubules in basal body
(c) Diplotene (iii) Synapsis which gives rise to cilia and flagella is
(d) Diakinesis (iv) Terminalisation of (1) 9 + 1 (2) 9 + 2
chiasmata (3) 9 + 0 (4) 4 + 0
(a) (b) (c) (d) 147. Synthesis of histone proteins and tubulin proteins
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) takes place in A and B respectively.
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) A B
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (1) S-phase G1 phase
(4) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) (2) G2 phase S phase
140. The hypogynous flower is seen in (3) G1 phase G2 phase
(1) Mustard (4) S phase G2 phase
(2) Ray florets of Sunflower 148. Only passive type of transport takes place by
(3) Plum (1) Na+/K+ pump (2) Carriers
(4) Peach (3) Channels (4) All pumps
(12)
149. Ovule is known as 150. Which of the following does not takes place in
(1) Female gametophyte nucleus of eukaryotes?
(1) Replication of DNA
(2) Embryo sac
(2) Formation of mRNA
(3) Male gametophyte
(3) Protein synthesis
(4) Megasporangium (4) Splicing of hnRNA
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A Choose the correct option.
151. Which of the following factors in the alveoli favour (a) (b) (c) (d)
the formation of oxyhaemoglobin?
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) High partial pressure of CO2, lesser H+
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
concentration
(2) Low partial pressure of O2, lower temperature (3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) High partial pressure of O2, lesser H+ (4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
concentration 154. How many of the following given statements are
(4) High H+ concentration, higher temperature not correct w.r.t. the events that occur during
152. How many of the following is/are example(s) of inspiration?
organisms which have evolved due to the (a) Relaxation of diaphragm
changes in the environment brought about by
(b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles
anthropogenic action?
(a) Drug-resistant eukaryotes (c) Volume of thoracic cavity decreases
(b) Herbicide-resistant weeds (d) Intra-pulmonary pressure increases
(c) Darwin’s finches of Galapagos Islands Choose the suitable option among the following
(d) Pesticide-resistant pests given options.
Choose the correct option. (1) One (2) Two
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
(3) Three (4) Four 155. In agarose gel electrophoresis, the separated
153. Match column I with column II w.r.t. diseases and DNA fragments can be visualised after staining
their symptoms. the DNA with EtBr under
Column I Column II (1) Gamma-rays
(Diseases) (Symptoms) (2) Infra-red light
(a) Elephantiasis (i) Appearance of dry, scaly (3) X-rays
lesions on various parts of (4) Ultraviolet radiation
the body such as skin, nails
and scalp 156. In a standard ECG, ventricular repolarization is
represented by
(b) Ringworms (ii) Chronic inflammation of the
lymphatic vessels of the (1) P-wave (2) QRS complex
lower limbs. (3) T-wave (4) Q-wave
(c) Ascariasis (iii) Nose and respiratory 157. With respect to life cycle of Plasmodium,
passage is infected but fertilization and development take place in
lungs are not infected (1) RBCs of human
(d) Common cold (iv) Internal bleeding, muscular (2) Mosquito’s gut
pain, fever, anemia and
(3) Hepatocytes of human
blockage of the intestinal
passage (4) Hepatic lobule of human
(13)
158. Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita 165. Select the correct statement among the following
represent homologous organs which arise due to given options.
(1) Convergent evolution (1) Functional insulin consists of three
polypeptide chains A, B and C which are
(2) Divergent evolution
linked together by glycosidic bonds.
(3) Artificial selection
(2) In humans, insulin is synthesized as a
(4) Anthropogenic action prohormone.
159. Glycosuria and ketonuria are indicative of (3) Pro-insulin contains an extra stretch called
(1) Diabetes mellitus the B-peptide.
(2) Diabetes insipidus (4) Chains B and C were produced separately,

extracted and combined by creating
(3) Renal calculi
hydrogen bonds to form Humulin.
(4) Tetany 166. Karl Ernst von Baer
160. How many of the following statements are true (1) Disapproved the mutation theory of evolution
w.r.t. fundamental features of chordates?
(2) Approved the mutation theory of evolution
(a) Pharynx is perforated by gill slits.
(3) Disapproved the embryological support for
(b) Heart is dorsal (if present). evolution given by Ernst Haeckel
(c) Post-anal tail is absent. (4) Approved the embryological support for
(d) Notochord is absent. evolution given by Ernst Haeckel
(e) Central nervous system is dorsal, hollow and 167. The gene which codes for the proteins involved
single. in the replication of the plasmid is termed
Choose the correct option. (1) Selectable marker
(1) One (2) Two (2) rop
(3) Three (4) Four (3) ori
161. Hooks and suckers are present in which of the (4) Antibiotic resistance
following acoelomate animals? 168. High concentration of LH and estrogen lead to
(1) Ctenoplana (2) Pleurobrachia (1) Release of ovum from the secondary follicle
(3) Meandrina (4) Taenia (2) Release of ootid from the primary follicle
162. Identify the basic amino acid among the following (3) Release of ovum from the Graafian follicle
given options.
(4) Release of ovum from the tertiary follicle
(1) Aspartic acid (2) Glutamic acid
169. Compound epithelium is multi-layered which
(3) Arginine (4) Tryptophan covers the
163. Which of the following ART involves in-vitro (1) Inner surface of bronchioles
fertilization? (2) Inner surface of fallopian tubes
(1) GIFT (2) ICSI (3) Inner lining of ducts of salivary glands
(3) AI (4) IUI (4) Walls of air sacs of lungs
164. Select the correct option which includes STIs 170. Which among the following is an example of a
caused only by bacteria. cross-breed?
(1) Genital herpes, AIDS (1) Tigon
(2) Hepatitis-B, Genital warts (2) Hinny
(3) Syphilis, Gonorrhoea (3) Hisardale
(4) Hepatitis-B, Syphilis (4) Mule
(14)
171. Select the correct statement w.r.t. immunity (3) Ileum opens into the caecum of large
intestine.
(1) Each antibody molecule has three peptide
chains, two small called light chains and one (4) Caecum is a small blind sac which hosts
longer called heavy chain. some symbiotic micro-organisms.
(2) The primary and secondary immune 176. Identify the correct statement w.r.t. restriction
responses are carried out with the help of T- enzyme.
lymphocytes only.
(1) Restriction enzymes can cut the strands of
(3) The T-lymphocytes are responsible for cell- DNA a little away from the centre of the
mediated immunity. palindrome sites, but between the same two
bases on the opposite strands.
(4) Only IgA and IgM are produced in human
body. (2) Restriction enzymes cut the strands of DNA a
little closer towards the centre of the
172. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. nucleases. palindrome sites, but between the two
(1) Exonucleases and endonucleases are two different bases on the opposite strands.
kinds of nucleases. (3) Sticky ends are named so because they form
(2) Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the peptide bonds with their complementary cut
ends of the DNA. counterparts.
(3) Restriction endonucleases make cuts at (4) The stickiness of the ends do not facilitate the
random position within the DNA. action of DNA ligase.
(4) Each restriction endonuclease functions by 177. Match column I with column II and choose the
inspecting the length of a DNA sequence. correct option.
173. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t nervous Column I Column II

system of cockroach.
(a) Competitive inhibitor (i) Catalyze the joining
(1) Brain is represented by sub-oesophageal of C–O, C–S, C–N
ganglion. etc. bonds
(2) Nervous system is spread throughout the
(b) Ligases (ii) Malonate
body.
(3) Three ganglia lie in the thorax and six in the (c) Most abundant (iii) Lactose
abdomen. protein in animal
world
(4) It consists of a series of fused segmentally
arranged ganglia joined by paired longitudinal (d) Disaccharide (iv) Collagen
connectives on the ventral side.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
174. Which among the following conversion is carried
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
out under the influence of enterokinase?
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(1) Chymotrypsinogen into chymotrypsin
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) Procarboxypeptidase into carboxypeptidase
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) Trypsinogen into trypsin
178. Epithelium commonly found in ducts of glands
(4) Pepsinogen into pepsin
and tubular parts of nephrons in kidneys is
175. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t. human
(1) Squamous epithelium
alimentary canal.
(2) Columnar epithelium
(1) Duodenum is J-shaped.
(3) Cuboidal epithelium
(2) The opening of the stomach into the
duodenum is guarded by pyloric sphincter. (4) Compound epithelium
(15)
179. Match column I with column II and choose the (c) Release of ADH that facilitate water
correct option. reabsorption from latter parts of the tubule
Column I Column II Choose the correct option.
(Class) (Character) (1) Only (a) and (b) (2) Only (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) Only (a) and (c)
(a) Cyclostomata (i) Placoid scales
182. The second meiotic division is unequal and
(b) Chondrichthyes (ii) Cycloid scales results in the formation of
(c) Osteichthyes (iii) Presence of (1) First polar body and a diploid ovum
tympanum
(2) Second polar body and a haploid ovum
(d) Amphibia (iv) Jawless (3) Second polar body and a diploid ovum
vertebrates
(4) First polar body and a haploid ovum
(a) (b) (c) (d) 183. Match column I with column II and choose the
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) correct option.
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) Column I Column II
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (Phylum) (Character)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(a) Ctenophora (i) Presence of water
vascular system
correct option.
(b) Echinodermata (ii) Mouth contains a
Column I Column II
file-like rasping
(a) Thyroid gland (i) Located on the organ for feeding
dorsal side of
(c) Mollusca (iii) Bioluminescence
forebrain
(d) Arthropoda (iv) Jointed appendages
(b) Pineal gland (ii) Composed of two
lobes which are (a) (b) (c) (d)
located on either
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
side of the trachea
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) Parathyroid gland (iii) Located between
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
lungs behind
sternum on the (4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
ventral side of 184. Match column I with column II and choose the
aorta correct option.
(d) Thymus gland (iv) Present on the Column I Column II
back side of the
thyroid gland (a) Vertebrosternal ribs (i) Flat bone, on the
ventral midline of
(a) (b) (c) (d) thorax
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(b) Sternum (ii) 14 in number
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(c) Pectoral girdle (iii) Acetabulum
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (d) Pelvic girdle (iv) Glenoid cavity
181. Which of the following conditions will not (a) (b) (c) (d)
contribute in increasing the urine output?
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(a) Release of Atrial natriuretic peptide
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(b) Reabsorption of sodium ions and water from
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
the distal parts of the tubule in presence of
aldosterone. (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(16)
185. Which of the following is a set of secondary (a) (b) (c) (d)
metabolites produced by plants for defence? (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(1) Strychnine and fructose (2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) Nicotine and tyrosine (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) Ricin and glucose (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) Caffeine and nicotine 189. Genes cryIAb and cryIAc respectively control
SECTION-B (1) Cotton bollworms and corn borer
(2) Corn borer and cotton bollworms
correct option. (3) Corn borer and corn borer
(4) Cotton bollworms and cotton bollworms
Column I Column II
190. Select the incorrect pair(s) from the following
(a) ELISA (i) Single stranded given options and choose the suitable option.
DNA or RNA,
tagged with a (a) Ligases Used to join DNA
radioactive fragments that always
molecule have different kind of
sticky-ends.
(b) Probe (ii) Antigen-antibody
interaction (b) Restriction Used in genetic
endonucleases engineering so as to
(c) Pest resistant plants (iii) Functional ADA form recombinant
cDNA molecules of DNA,
which are composed of
(d) Gene therapy (iv) RNA interference
DNA from different
(a) (b) (c) (d) genomes.
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (c) Polymerases Extend the primers
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) using the nucleotides
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) provided in the
reaction.
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
187. S.L. Miller produced monomers of proteins by (1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only
mixing the following in a closed flask (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a) and (c) only
(1) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapour at 600°C 191. Match column I with column II and choose the
correct option.
(2) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapour at 800°C
(3) CH4, H2, NH4 and water vapour at 500°C Column I Column II
(4) CH3, NH3 and water vapour at 800°C (a) Neutrophils (i) 0.5-1.0% of the
188. Match column I with column II and choose the total WBCs
correct option. (b) Basophils (ii) 60-65% of the total
WBCs
Column I Column II
(c) Monocytes (iii) 2-3% of the total
(a) Thermus aquaticus (i) Denaturation,
WBCs
annealing,
extension (d) Eosinophils (iv) 6-8% of the total
WBCs
(b) Polymerase chain (ii) Thermostable DNA
reaction polymerase (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) Plasmid (iii) Post-transcriptional
silencing (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(d) Meloidogyne (iv) Cloning vector
incognita (4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(17)
192. Identify the substances having peptide bond and 196. Select the incorrect statement among the
glycosidic bond, respectively in their structure. following given options.
(1) Pepsin, trypsin (2) Insulin, inulin (1) Catecholamines stimulate the breakdown of
(3) Cellulose, actin (4) Inulin, cholesterol glycogen resulting in an increased
concentration of glucose in blood.
correct option. (2) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis,
lipolysis and proteolysis.
Column I Column II
(3) Glucagon inhibits the process of
(a) Sertoli cells (i) Secrete androgens gluconeogenesis which also contributes to
hyperglycemia.
(b) Interstitial cells (ii) Provide nutrition to the
germ cells (4) Insulin enhances the cellular glucose uptake
and utilization.
(c) Placenta (iii) Structural and
197. The left and right cerebral hemispheres are
functional unit
connected by a tract of nerve fibres called
between foetus and
maternal body (1) Cerebral aqueduct
(d) Zona pellucida (iv) Acellular layer formed
by secondary oocyte (3) Iter
(4) Corpus callosum
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
between
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(1) 650-800 cc.
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) 900-1000 cc.
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(3) 1100-1400 cc.
(4) 1400-1650 cc.
correct option.
199. Select the incorrect match among the following
Column I Column II given options.
(a) Cochlea (i) Ends at the oval (1) Multiload 375 – Copper-ions releasing IUD
window (2) Lippes loop – Non medicated IUD
(b) Scala vestibuli (ii) Coiled part of inner (3) LNG 20 – Hormone releasing IUD
ear (4) Saheli – Steroidal oral contraceptive pill
(c) Organ of Corti (iii) Equalizes the 200. Which of the following statement is incorrect
pressure on either w.r.t. transgenic animals?
sides of the ear drum (1) Animals that have had their DNA manipulated
(d) Eustachian tube (iv) Located on the basilar to possess and express foreign gene are
membrane termed as transgenic animals.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (2) Almost 55% of all existing transgenic animals
are mice.
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(3) They can be specifically designed to allow
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) the study of how genes are regulated, and
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) how they affect the normal functions of the
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) body and its development.
195. Which one of the following is the most abundant (4) They are specifically made to serve as
protein in whole of the biosphere? models for human diseases so that
(1) Myosin (2) RuBisCO investigation of new treatments for diseases
is made possible.
(3) Starch (4) Haemoglobin
❑ ❑ ❑
(18)
21/08/2021 CODE-A
CST – 10
Instructions:
PHYSICS
SECTION-A
1. For a cubical block, error in measurement of
length of sides is ± 1% and error in measurement
of mass is ± 2%, then maximum possible error in
density is
(1) 1% (2) 5%
(1) 12 m/s
(3) 3% (4) 7%
(2) 13 m/s
2. A stone falls from a balloon that is descending at
(3) 5 m/s
a uniform rate of 12 m/s. The displacement of the
stone from the point of release after 10 s is (4) 10 m/s
(1) 490 m 4. A body of mass m1 exerts a force on another

body of mass m2. If the magnitude of acceleration
(2) 510 m of m2 is a2, then the magnitude of the
(3) 610 m acceleration of m1 is (considering only two bodies
in space)
(4) 725 m
m2a2
3. A man is crossing a river flowing with velocity of (1) Zero (2)
m1
5 m/s. He reaches a point directly across at
distance of 60 m in 5 s. His velocity in still water m1a2
(3) (4) a2
should be : m2
(1)
5. A block of mass 0.1 kg is held against a wall by 10. A rocket is fired from inside a deep mine, so as to
applying a horizontal force of 5 N on the block. If escape the earth’s gravitational field. The
the coefficient of friction between the block and minimum velocity to be imparted to the rocket is
the wall is 0.5, the magnitude of the frictional (1) Exactly the same as the escape velocity of
force acting on the block is fire from the earth’s surface
(1) 2.5 N (2) A little more than the escape velocity of fire
from the earth’s surface
(2) 0.98 N
(3) A little less than the escape velocity of fire
(3) 4.9 N from the earth’s surface
(4) 0.49 N (4) Infinity
6. A force acts on a 30 g particle in such a way that 11. A planet moves around the sun. At a given point
the position of the particle as function of time is P, it is closest from the sun at a distance d1 and
given by x = 3t – 4t2 + t3, where x is in metre and has a speed v1. At another point Q, when it is
t is in seconds. The work done during the first 4 farthest from the sun at a distance d2, its speed
seconds is will be
(1) 5.28 J (2) 4.50 J d12v1 d2v1

(1) (2)
(3) 4.90 J (4) 6.12 J d22 d1
7. A body of mass 4 kg moving with velocity 12 m/s
d1v1 d22v1
collides with another body of mass 6 kg initially at (3) (4)
d2 d12
rest. If two bodies stick together after collision,
then the loss of kinetic energy of system is 12. Choose the wrong statement.
(1) Zero (2) 288 J (1) The bulk modulus for solids is much larger
than for liquids
(3) 172.8 J (4) 144 J
(2) Gases are least compressible
8. A uniform wire of length l is bent into the shape of
'V' as shown. The distance of its centre of mass (3) The incompressibility of the solids is due to
the tight coupling between neighbouring
from the vertex A is
atoms
(4) The reciprocal of the bulk modulus is called
compressibility
13. A liquid rises to a height of 1.8 cm in a glass
capillary ‘A’. Another glass capillary ‘B’ having
diameter 90% of capillary ‘A’ is immersed in the
same liquid. The rise of liquid in capillary ‘B’ is
(1) 1.4 cm (2) 1.8 cm
l l 3 (3) 2.0 cm (4) 2.2 cm
(1) (2)
2 4 14. A rain drop of radius 0.3 mm has a terminal
velocity in air 1 m/s. The coefficient of viscosity of
l 3 l
(3) (4) air is 18 × 10–5 poise. The viscous force on it is
8 4
(1) 101.73 × 10–4 dyne (2) 101.73 × 10–5 dyne
9. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls
(3) 16.95 × 10–5 dyne (4) 16.95 × 10–4 dyne
without slipping down an inclined plane of length
L and height h. What is the speed of its centre of 15. A constant volume gas thermometer shows
mass when the cylinder reaches its bottom? pressure reading of 40 cm and 80 cm of mercury
at 0°C and 100°C respectively. When the
3 pressure reading is 50 cm of mercury, the
(1) 2gh (2) gh temperature is
4
(1) 25°C (2) 40°C
4
(3) gh (4) 4gh (3) 15° (4) 12.5°C
3
(2)
16. Six identical metallic rods are joined together in a 21. A train moving at a speed of 220 ms–1 towards a
pattern as shown in the figure. Points A and D stationary object, emits a sound of frequency
are maintained at temperature 60°C and 240°C. 1000 Hz. Some of the sound reaching the object
The temperature of the junction B will be gets reflected back to the train as echo. The
frequency of the echo as detected by the driver
of the train is (speed of sound in air is 330 ms–1)
(1) 3500 Hz (2) 4000 Hz
(3) 5000 Hz (4) 3000 Hz
22. Three charges are located at the vertices of an
equilateral triangle as shown in the figure. At the
(1) 120°C (2) 150°C
centre of the triangle
(3) 60°C (4) 80°C
17. A particle performs simple harmonic motion
about X = 0 with an amplitude A and time period
A
T. The speed of the particle at X = will be
2
πA 3 πA
(1) (2)
T T
(1) The field is zero but potential is non-zero
πA 3 3π2 A
(3) (4) (2) The field is non-zero but potential is zero
2T T
(3) Both field and potential are zero
18. A system is shown in the figure. The time period
for small oscillations of the two blocks will be (4) Both field and potential are non-zero
(springs are ideal) 23. Uniform electric field of magnitude 100 V/m in
space is directed parallel to the line y = 3 + x.
Find the potential difference between points A
(3,1) & B(1,3)
3m 3m (1) 100 V (2) 200 2 V
(1) 2π (2) 2π
k 2k
(3) 200 V (4) Zero
3m 3m 24. Two identical capacitors are joined in parallel,
(3) 2π (4) 2π
4k 8k charged to a potential V and then separated and
19. The time taken by a particle performing SHM on then connected in series i.e. the positive plate of
a straight line to pass from point A to B where its one is connected to negative of the other while
velocities are same in 2 seconds. After another 2 open plates are kept open ended
seconds it returns to B. The time period of (1) The charges on the plates connected
oscillation is (in seconds) together finally become zero
(1) 2 (2) 4 (2) The charges on the free plates are enhanced
(3) 6 (4) 8 (3) The energy stored in the system increases
20. Two sources produce sound waves of equal (4) The potential difference between the free
amplitudes and travelling along the same plates becomes 2 V
direction producing 18 beats in 3 seconds. If one 25. A 40 µF capacitor in a defibrillator is charged to
source has a frequency of 341 Hz, the frequency 3000 V. The energy stored in the capacitor is
of the other source may be sent through the patient during a pulse of
(1) 329 or 353 Hz duration 2 ms. The power delivered to the patient
(2) 335 or 347 Hz is
(3) 338 or 344 Hz (1) 45 kW (2) 90 kW
(4) 332 or 350 Hz (3) 180 kW (4) 360 kW
(3)
26. Plane glass slab is kept between a model and a 30. A YDSE is performed with bi-chromatic light
plane mirror. The mirror is 50 cm away from the (5500 Å and 6000 Å) for d = 2 mm and D = 1 m.
model. The glass slab has a thickness of 15 cm Distance of first complete maxima from the
and refractive index of 1.5. At what distance central maxima on the screen, is
(in cm) from herself will the model see her
(1) 1.1 mm
image?
(1) 40 (2) 50 (2) 2.2 mm
(3) 80 (4) 90 (3) 3.3 mm

27. If 'O' is a real object then find out the position (4) 4.4 mm
(co-ordinate) of image formed by the optical 31. Two sources of emf 6 V and internal resistance
system shown in the figure. 3 Ω and 2 Ω are connected to an external
resistance R as shown. If potential difference
across terminal of battery A is zero, then value of
R is
(1) (+30 cm, +0.2 cm) (2) (+30 cm, –0.2 cm)
(3) (–30 cm, –0.2 cm) (4) (–30 cm, + 0.2 cm)
28. A light ray is incident perpendicularly on one face
of a 90° prism and is totally internally reflected at (1) 1 Ω (2) 2 Ω
the glass-air interface on other face. If the angle
(3) 3 Ω (4) 4 Ω
of reflection is 45°, we conclude that the
refractive index µ 32. In the arrangement shown, the magnitude of
each resistance is 2 Ω. The equivalent resistance
14
between O and A is given by Ω . Here x is
x
1
(1) µ < (2) µ > 2
2
(1) 22 (2) 13
1
(3) µ > (4) µ < 2 (3) 15 (4) 27
2
33. A very long solenoid is to be constructed by
29. Two closely located, monochromatic coherent
tightly wrapped wire with a magnetic field of
sources create a fixed interference pattern on a
0.168 T at its centre. The radius of solenoid is to
screen. The frequency of one of the sources is
be 0.01 m and the wire carries a current of 2 A. If
then decreased. What will happen to the
interference pattern as a result? the solenoid is 1.4 m long, what is the length of
wire needed in nearest integer (in m)?
(1) The pattern will completely disappear
(1) 4220
(2) The fringe spacing will increase
(2) 5842
(3) The fringes will shift up or down, but the
spacing will remain constant (3) 2550
(4) The fringe spacing will decrease (4) 5880
(4)
34. A square wire loop of side a with a uniformly 37. For the series network shown in figure, find out
distributed charge q rotates about its centroidal the average power delivered (in watt) by the
axis (perpendicular to its plane) with angular source in one cycle
velocity ω. The magnetic moment of the square
wire loop is
qa2 ω
(1)
3
qa 2 ω
(2)
6
2 2 (1) 300 (2) 200

(3) qa ω
3 (3) 150 (4) Zero
qa2 ω 38. The wavelength of Kα X-rays for lead isotopes

(4) Pb208, Pb206, Pb204 are λ1, λ2 and λ3 respectively.
12
Then
35. In the L-C circuit shown in figure, the current is in
direction shown in the figure and charges on the (1) λ1 = λ2 = λ3 (2) λ3 = λ1 ⋅ λ 2
capacitor plates have sign shown in the figure. At
(3) λ1 < λ2 < λ3 (4) Both (1) & (2)
this time
39. Choose the incorrect statement(s)
(1) Dimensional formula of impedance is
[ML2T–3A–2]
(2) Quality factor of a circuit for an AC source is
unitless
(3) Phase difference between current and the
(1) i as well as Q are increasing source is independent of the frequency of the
(2) i as well as Q are decreasing source
(3) i is increasing but Q is decreasing (4) For an LC circuit in parallel the currents
through L and C are 180° out of phase with
(4) i is decreasing but Q is increasing each other
SECTION-B 40. The second ionization potential for He electron is
36. Three resistors, an inductor and a capacitor are (1) 13.6 eV
connected with a battery as shown in the figure.
(2) 27.2 eV
Current in R3 in the circuit
(3) 54.4 eV
(4) 100 eV
41. In a radioactive substance at t = 0, the number of
active atoms is 8 × 104. Its half life period is 3
years. The number of atoms will remain 1 × 104
after interval
(1) 9 years (2) 8 years
(1) Just after closing the switch is zero (3) 6 years (4) 24 years
42. In an npn transistor the collector current is
(2) Long after closing the switch is zero
24 mA. If 80% of electrons reach collector its
E base current in mA is
(3) Just after closing the switch is
R3 (1) 36 (2) 26
(4) Both (1) and (2) (3) 16 (4) 6
(5)
43. If the frequency of input alternating potential is n, 47. Two projectiles A and B thrown with speeds in
then the ripple frequency of output potential of full the ratio 1: 2 acquired the same heights. If A is
wave rectifier will be thrown at an angle of 45° with the horizontal, the
(1) 2n (2) n angle of projection of B will be
n n (1) 0° (2) 60°
(3) (4)
2 4 (3) 30° (4) 45°
44. The pressure exerted by an electromagnetic 
48. A particle of mass m is moving with velocity v1 , it
wave of intensity I (watt/m2) on a non-reflecting
surface is [c is the velocity of light] is given an impulse such that the velocity

becomes v 2 . Then magnitude of impulse is
(1) Ic (2) Ic2
equal to
I I    
(3) (4) (1) m (v 2 − v1 ) (2) m (v1 − v 2 )
c c2
   
(3) m × (v 2 − v1 ) (4) 0.5 m (v 2 − v1 )
45. The binding energy of deuteron 12 H is 1.112 MeV
49. A car moves at a speed of 20 ms–1 on a banked
per nucleon and an α-particle 24 He has a binding
track and describes an arc of a circle of radius
energy of 7.047 MeV per nucleon. Then in the
40 3 m . The angle of banking is (g = 10 ms-2)
fusion reaction 12 H + 12H →24 He + Q , the energy Q
released is (1) 25° (2) 60°
(1) 1 MeV (2) 11.9 MeV (3) 45° (4) 30°
(3) 23.8 MeV (4) 931 MeV 50. Unit of power is
46. Which of the following can be zero, when a (1) Kilowatt hour
particle is in motion for some time? (2) Kilowatt/hour
(1) Distance (2) Displacement (3) Watt
(3) Speed (4) None of these (4) Erg
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 53. Threshold frequency of a metal is 7 × 1014 s–1.
The kinetic energy of electron emitted when
51. Mass of NaOH required to form 500 ml, 0.2 M
radiation of frequency 8 × 1014 s–1 hits the metal
NaOH solution is
is (h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js)
(1) 1 g
(1) 6.6 × 10–14 J (2) 6.6 × 10–20 J
(2) 2 g (3) 1.5 × 10–21 J (4) 1.5 × 10–14 J
(3) 4 g 54. Maximum first ionisation enthalpy among the
(4) 8 g following is of
52. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers (1) N (2) O
is correct? (3) C (4) Be
−1 55. Numbers of sigma and pi bonds in
(1) n = 4,  = –3, m = 0, s =
2 H2C = CH – CH = CH2 are respectively
+1 (1) 9σ and 3π (2) 3σ and 2π

(2) n = 3,  = 0, m = 2, s =
2 (3) 9σ and 2π (4) 3σ and 3π
1 56. Hybridisation of nitrogen in NH3 and NH+4 are
(3) n = 2,  = 1, m = –2, s =
2 respectively
+1 (1) sp3 and sp2 (2) sp2 and sp3
(4) n = 4,  = 3, m = –3, s =
2 (3) sp3 and sp3 (4) sp2 and sp2
(6)
57. O2+ has same bond order as of 64. For a hypothetical reaction 2A(g)  B(g) + 10J
(1) N2 (2) N2+ which of the following factor shift the equilibrium
in forward direction?
(3) CO (4) O2− (1) Decreasing pressure
58. Density of He gas at 8.21 atm pressure and (2) Increasing temperature
100 K temperature is
(1) 1 g/L (2) 2 g/L
(4) Removing B from the reaction
(3) 3 g/L (4) 4 g/L
65. If for a weak acid HA, Ka = 10–5 then value of pKb
59. van der Waals equation for 1 mol of real gas is −
for A (aq) is
 a2  (1) 5
(1)  P +  (V − b) =
RT
 V 
(2) 7
 a  (3) 9
(2)  P + 2  (V + b) =
RT
 V  (4) 11
 a  66. Oxidation of Cr in CrO5 is
(3)  P + 2  (V − b) =
RT
 V  (1) +3 (2) +5
 a2  (3) +6 (4) +10
(4)  P −  (V + b) =
RT
 V  67. Which of the following cannot form stable
superoxide?
60. Which of the following is true for an isolated
(1) Cs (2) Rb
system?
(3) K (4) Na
(1) Energy and matter exchange is possible
∆
(2) Matter can be exchanged but not energy 68. B2H6 + NH3 → A  →B
(3) Energy can be exchanged but not matter Product B in the above reaction is
(4) Neither energy nor matter can be exchanged (1) [BH2(NH3)2]+[BH4]–
61. If ∆Hf for C2H6, CO2 and H2O are –80, –400 and (2) B3N3H6
–250 kJ mol–1 then ∆HC for C2H6 is (in kJ mol–1) (3) BN
(1) – 570 (2) –1140 (4) B2H6 · 2NH3
(3) –1470 (4) –1550 69. Which among the following is an electrophile?
62. If for a process ∆H > 0 and ∆S > 0 then select the (1) H2O
correct statement (2) CH4
(1) Spontaneous at high temperature only (3) BF3
(2) Spontaneous at low temperature only (4) NH3
(3) Spontaneous at all temperature
(4) Non-spontaneous at all temperature 70. IUPAC name of is
63. For the reaction A(g) + 2B(g)  3C(g). The

concentration of A, B and C are 2M, 2M and 4M
respectively at equilibrium. The value of (1) 4-methyl-5-chloronitrobenzene
equilibrium constant KC is (2) 2-chloro-1-methyl-4-nitrobenzene
(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 2-chloro-4-nitro-1-methylbenzene
(3) 8 (4) 16 (4) 4-nitro-2-chlorotoluene
(7)
71. CH3 − C ≡ C − CH3 + H2 Na

→ A (Major) 77. Ratio of time required for 99% and 90%
Liq NH 3
completion for a first order reaction is
Product A in the above reaction is
2 10
(1) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3 (1) (2)
1 9
9 11
(3) (4)
(2) 1 10
78. Select the incorrect statement regarding
physisorption.
(1) Arises because of van der Waals forces
(3)
(3) Specific in nature
+
(4) CH3 − C ≡ CNa (4) Depends on surface area of adsorbent
79. 4M (s) + 8CN–(aq) + 2H2O(aq) + O2(g) →
4[M(CN)2]–(aq) + 4OH–(aq)
72. In the above reaction, M can be

(1) Zn or Cu (2) Ag or Au
Product B is (3) Zr or Ti (4) Fe or Al
80. Heating ammonium nitrate gives
(1) NO2 (2) NH3
(1) (2)
(3) N2O (4) N2
81. Which among the following contain S–S linkage?
(1) H2S2O3 (2) H2S2O7
(3) (4)
(3) H2S2O8 (4) All of these
82. Which of the following fluoride does not exist?
73. Herbicide among the following is
(1) NaCIO3 (2) Na2CO3 (1) TiF4 (2) VF5
(3) NaCl (4) NaOH (3) CrF6 (4) MnF7

74. For which of the following unit cell, body diagonal 83. Minimum ionic radii among the following is of
of unit cell is four times of radius of atoms?
(1) Ce3+ (2) Pm3+
(1) Simple cubic (2) Face centred cubic
(3) Gd3+ (4) Eu3+
(3) Body centred cubic (4) Hexagonal
84. Linkage isomerism is shown by
75. Vapour pressure of ideal solution of 10 mol A and
40 mol
= B is (PA 100
= torr, PB 300 torr) (1) [Pt(NH3)2Cl(NO2)]
(1) 100 torr (2) 140 torr (2) [CoCl2(en)2]Cl
(3) 150 torr (4) 260 torr (3) [Co(NH3)5(CO3)]Cl

76. Select the correct expression. (4) [Pt(NH3)2Cl(NH2CH3)]Cl
    Cl /hν (i) CO
(1) Λm KCl + Λm NaCl = Λm KBr + Λm NaBr 85. CH4 
2 Mg
→ A  → B 
+ →C
2
1 eq. dry ether (ii)H3O
   
(2) Λm KCl − Λm KBr = Λm NaCl − Λm NaBr
Product C in the above reaction is
   
(3) Λm KCl − Λm NaCl = Λm KBr + Λm NaBr (1) CH3CH3 (2) CH3CH2OH
   
(4) Λm KCl + Λm NaCl = Λm KBr − Λm NaBr (3) CH3CHO (4) CH3COOH
(8)
SECTION-B 90. Non-essential amino acid is

86. Which among the following ethers undergoes (1) Alanine (2) Valine
SN1 mechanism on reaction with HI?
(3) Leucine (4) Arginine
(1) CH3 — O — CH3
91. Which of the following bases in not present in
(2) DNA?
(1) Adenine (2) Guanine
(3) Cytosine (4) Uracil
(3)
92. Example of fibre among the following is
(1) Polystyrene (2) Polyvinyl
(3) Polyester (4) Polythene
(4)
93. Which of the following is not a tranquilizer?
(i) O3
87. CH3 − CH
= CH − CH3  →A
(ii) Zn/H2O (1) Equanil
(i) dilNaOH

+ → B (major) (2) Meprobamate
(ii)H / ∆
Product B in the given reaction is (3) Chlordiazepoxide

(1) CH3COCH3 (4) Chloramphenicol
(2) CH3COOCH3 94. Br2 on reaction with excess of F2 gives
(1) BrF (2) BrF3
(3) (3) BrF5 (4) BrF7
95. Incorrect statement regarding interstitial
(4) CH3 — CH = CH — CHO compounds is
88. Most basic compound among the following is (1) High melting point
(2) Very hard
(3) Highly reactive
(1) (2)
(4) Show metallic conductivity
96. Which of the following on reaction with Grignard’s
reagent followed by hydrolysis gives tertiary
alcohol?
(3) (4) (1) CO2

(2) HCHO
(3) CH3CHO
89. Which of the following amines can give (4) CH3COCH3
carbylamine test?
97. Chain length of silicone can be controlled by
(1)
adding
(1) (CH3)4Si (2) (CH3)3SiCl
(3) (CH3)2SiCl2 (4) CH3SiCl3
(2)
98. In which of the following, alternate tetrahedral
voids are filled?
(3) CH3 — NH — CH3 (1) NaCl (2) CsCl
(4) CH3 — NH — CH2 — CH3 (3) ZnS (4) Na2O
(9)
99. Which of the following pair represents functional

isomers? (4) and
(1) and CH3–CH2–CH2–CHO

100. Which of the following does not form hydrate?
(2) CH3 – CH2 – O – CH2 – CH3 and
(1) LiCl
CH3 – O – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
(2) KCl
(3) MgCl2
(3) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 –OH and (4) CaCl2
BOTANY
SECTION-A 106. Bundle sheath cells of C4-plants
101. Which of the following statement is not correct (1) Are rich in PEPcase
w.r.t. means of transport? (2) Are rich in RuBisCO
(1) Movement by diffusion is passive (3) Are rich in PEPcase as well as PEP
(2) Diffusion is a slow process (4) Lack RuBisCO
(3) In symport both molecules move in opposite 107. Glycerol, a product of fat, enters the respiratory
directions pathway after being converted to
(4) Porins are present in outer membrane of (1) Fatty acid (2) Amino acid
plastids (3) PEP (4) PGAL
102. A plant cell will 108. How many ATP are produced when 4 molecules
of pyruvate are completely oxidised during
(1) Swell in hypertonic solution
aerobic respiration?
(2) Shrink in hypotonic solution
(1) 15 (2) 30
(3) Swell in hypotonic solution (3) 60 (4) 72
(4) Shrink in isotonic solution 109. Choose the correct match.
103. Ammonia is oxidised to nitrite during nitrification
(1) Tapetum – Functionally protective
process by the bacterium
layer
(1) Nitrobacter (2) Nitrococcus
(2) Endothecium – Dehiscence of anther
(3) Thiobacillus (4) Frankia
(3) Pollen grain – Cannot be fossilised
104. Boron is required for uptake and utilization of
(1) Ca2+ (2) Zn2+ (4) Arrangement of – Inflorescence
leaves on stem
(3) Cl– (4) Fe3+
110. In a typical pollen-sac, how many microspore
105. Which of the following events supports ATP
tetrad will be formed from 24 microspore mother
synthesis through chemiosmosis?
cells?
(1) Lumen of thylakoid has low electrochemical
(1) 96 (2) 48
potential gradient as compared to stroma of
(3) 24 (4) 6
chloroplast
111. The epiblast is the structure visible in
(2) Lumen of thylakoid has high H+ level as
compared to stroma of chloroplast (1) A typical dicot embryo
(3) Energy is required to pump protons across a (2) Proembryo of pea

thylakoid membrane (3) Mature embryo of castor
(4) ATP → ADP + Pi, requires ATP synthase (4) L.S. of embryo of grass
(10)
112. How many types of gametes will be formed in the 120. Select incorrect statement which is not related
garden pea plant having the genotype AaBbCc? to DNA stability
(1) 27 (2) 8 (1) Presence of thymine at the place of uracil
(3) 16 (4) 9 (2) Absence of 2′OH group in sugar molecule
113. When zygote develops into embryo, exhibits (3) Faster mutation rate
(1) Geometric growth (4) Preferred as genetic material
(2) Arithmetic growth 121. Read the following statements and select the
(3) No cell division rather show cell enlargement correct option
(4) Both (1) and (2) a. Non-living objects show extrinsic growth
114. The gaseous phytohormone performs the b. For plants growth and reproduction are
following functions, except mutually exclusive events.
(1) Acceleration of abscission c. The filamentous algae easily multiply by

fragmentation.
(2) Fruit ripening
d. The patient in coma has self consciousness.
(3) Delay in senescence
(1) Only a and b are correct
(4) Breaking of dormancy of seeds
(2) Only a and c are correct
115. The life span of tortoise varies from
(3) All are correct except d
(1) 50-90 years (2) 100-150 years
(4) Only b, c and d are correct
(3) 15-55 years (4) 1000-1500 years
122. Choose the correct match w.r.t. taxonomic
116. Choose the incorrect statement. category
(1) Gametes are haploid cells even in haploid
organisms (1) Solanum – Genus
(2) In bryophytes male gametes are called (2) Pardus – Class

antherozoids
(3) Felidae – Order
(3) There are 12 chromosomes in meiocyte of
housefly (4) Diptera – Family
(4) Inside the mature seed the zygote is the 123. Trypanosoma is a
progenitor of the next generation
(1) Ciliated protozoan
117. In case of incomplete dominance, the F1 hybrid
(2) Flagellated protozoan
(1) Resembles either of the two parents
(3) Sporozoan
(2) Is intermediate of the two parents
(4) Amoeboid protozoan
(3) Resembles both the parents
124. Which of the cell surface structures of the
(4) Follows Mendelian principles bacteria play a role in motility?
118. Morgan carried out several dihybrid cross in (1) Sex-pili (2) Pseudopodia
Drosophila by taking characters as body colour
(3) Fimbriae (4) Flagella
and eye colour to study genes that were
125. The single membranous cell organelle, which are
(1) Y-linked only (2) Autosomal
actively involved in protein synthesis and
(3) X-linked only (4) Both (1) and (3) secretion is
119. Result of two dihybrid crosses conducted by T.H. (1) RER (2) SER
Morgan on Drosophila melanogaster reveals that (3) Lysosome (4) Golgi complex
a proportion of parental gene combination was
126. The chromosomes clustering at poles and the
(1) Much higher than non-parental combination loss of identity as discrete elements, is the
(2) Lower than non-parental combination characteristic of
(3) Equal to non-parental combination (1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
(4) Showing high recombination (3) Telophase (4) Anaphase
(11)
127. The secondary succession leads the 134. The edible part of mango is
establishment of biotic community on all, except (1) Endocarp (2) Cotyledons
(1) Deforested area (3) Mesocarp (4) Pericarp
(2) Igneous rock 135. Identify the wrong statement in context of
(3) Abandoned farm land secondary xylem
(4) Flooded land (1) It is light in colour in sapwood
128. The mean annual precipitation of arctic and (2) It does not conduct water in heart wood
alpine tundra range from
(3) It is dark with high density in late wood
(1) 300-450 cm (2) 200-350 cm
(4) On the basis of origin it is of two types -
(3) 150-400 cm (4) 5-125 cm protoxylem and metaxylem
129. If in a lake there were 100 water lily plants in SECTION-B
year 2000 and 40 plants were increased in lake
136. Water-containing cavities are present within the
in year 2001. The birth rate is
vascular bundles of
(1) 4 offspring per water lily per year
(1) Monocot root (2) Dicot root
(2) 0.4 offspring per water lily per year
(3) Monocot stem (4) Dicot stem
(3) 6 offspring per water lily per year
137. LAB play all beneficial roles, except
(4) 0.6 offspring per water lily per year
(1) Converting milk to curd
130. The evil quartet does not include
(2) Checking disease causing microbes in our
(1) Over-exploitation
stomach
(2) Alien species invasions
(3) Increasing vitamin B12 in curd
(3) Mass extinction
(4) Improves nutritional quality of curd by adding
(4) Habitat loss and fragmentation vitamin D and E
131. Among the 34 biodiversity hotspots of the world, 138. Match the columns and choose correct option
how many cover India’s rich biodiversity regions?
Column-I Column-II
(1) 25 (2) 12
(Crop) (Variety)
(3) 22 (4) 3
132. Read the following statements and choose the a. Chilli (i) Pusa komal
correct option b. Cauliflower (ii) Pusa sadabahar
A. Inhalation of PM 2.5 cause irritation,
c. Cowpea (iii) Pusa gaurav
inflammations and damage to the lungs and
premature death. d. Brassica (iv) Pusa shubhra
B. A scrubber can remove gases like sulphur
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
dioxide, passing through a spray of lime.
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
139. The final proof for DNA as the genetic material
came from the experiment of
(3) Only A is incorrect
(1) Hershey and Chase conducted on E. coli and
(4) Only B is incorrect virus
133. Prions differ from viroids in having
(2) Griffith on T2-bacteriophage
(1) RNA molecules with phospholipids
(3) Hershey and chase conducted on Qβ
(2) Protein molecules without nucleic acid bacteriophage
(3) DNA molecules without protein coat (4) Avery, McLeod and McCarty on S-strains of
(4) RNA of low molecular weight without protein E. coli
(12)
140. Which one is the smallest angiosperm? 146. The endosperm is not present in mature seeds of
(1) Rafflesia (2) Wolffia (1) Orchids (2) Maize
(3) Sequoia (4) Cascuta (3) Wheat (4) Rice
141. The stalk of a typical flower is called 147. The vascular bundles of dorsiventral leaf are
(1) Peduncle (2) Thalamus (1) Radial and closed type
(3) Pedicel (4) Funicle (2) Conjoint and closed type
142. The male gamete as well as female gamete, both (3) Conjoint and open type
are non-motile in (4) Nearly similar in sizes, not dependent on the
(1) Polysiphonia (2) Volvox size of veins
(3) Ulothrix (4) Ectocarpus 148. The haplodiploid sex determination mechanism is
found in
143. Pteridophytes are used for all, except
(1) All birds
(1) Soil-binding
(2) All insects including Drosophila
(2) Medicinal purpose
(3) Grasshopper
(3) Trans-shipment of living materials
(4) Honey bee
(4) Ornamentals
149. Find odd one w.r.t. biofertilizers
144. Vexillary aestivation is the feature of
(1) Nostoc (2) Oscillatoria
(1) Solanaceae (3) Spirulina (4) Glomus
(2) Fabaceae 150. Which one of the following helps in sexual
(3) Liliaceae reproduction?
(4) Brassicaceae (1) Eye of potato
145. Find odd one w.r.t. alternate phyllotaxy (2) Rhizome of ginger
(1) Mustard (2) Guava (3) Ascospores in Penicillium
(3) Sunflower (4) China rose (4) Gemmae of Marchantia
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 154. Select the incorrect match.
151. Unipolar neurons are usually found in (1) Glucagon – Hyperglycemic hormone
(1) Retina of eye (2) Embryonic stage (2) Melatonin – Sleep-wake cycle
(3) Cerebral cortex (4) Spinal cord (3) Thyroxine – Emergency hormone
152. Morula formed during human embryonic (4) Aldosterone – Salt retaining hormone
development is made up of
155. While excavating fossils in a cave, a group of
(1) 16-32 cells (2) 8-16 cells palaeontologists found some preserved fossils.
(3) Around 100 cells (4) 2 cells After various tests and careful analysis, they
isolated a DNA sample from the fossil, which was
153. Who disapproved embryological support for
found to be a dsDNA helix in which one full turn
evolution proposed by Ernst Heckel?
of the helical strand involve 12 base pairs. What
(1) Darwin and Wallace would be the rise per base pair, if the pitch is
(2) Karl Ernst von Baer 45 Å?
(3) Oparin and Haldane (1) 34 nm (2) 3.7 nm
(4) Louis Pasteur (3) 3.7 Å (4) 3.4 Å
(13)
156. All of the given volume/capacities of air can be 162. During a yoga session, a man has been told to
estimated by using a spirometer except follow two steps. In step 1, after normal
expiration, he has to inhale forcible and hold his
(1) VC (2) FRC
breath for 30 seconds. In step 2, he has to
(3) ERV (4) IRV forcibly expire all the air inhaled. Which of the
157. Which technique has been used to develop the following options correctly states the average
new sheep breed named Hisardale? amount of air inhaled in step 1 and exhaled in
step 2 respectively?
(1) Cross-breeding (2) Out-crossing
(1) 2500- 3000 ml 1000-1100 ml
(3) Out-breeding (4) Natural mating
(2) 3000 – 3500 ml 3500 – 4500 ml
(3) 3000 – 3500 ml 1000 - 1100 ml
(4) 2500 - 3000 ml 4000 – 4600 ml
Among the stories of evolution of individual
species, the story of evolution of modern man 163. An antibody is made up of heavy and light
chains, which can be represented as
appears to be _______ evolution of human brain
and language. (1) H2L2 (2) H2L4
(1) Divergent (2) Convergent (3) H4L2 (4) H4L4
(3) Spontaneous (4) Parallel 164. Which of the following organisms exhibit
metagenesis in their life cycles?
(1) Ctenoplana (2) Obelia
correct option.
(3) Fasciola (4) Hippocampus
Column I Column II 165. Which of the following is not correct about
glucocorticoids?
Portuguese (i)
a. Chondrichthyes (1) They stimulate gluconeogenesis, lipolysis
man-of-war
and proteolysis
b. Limulus (ii) Cyclostomata (2) Cortisol is the main glucocorticoid
(3) Cortisol is not involved in RBC production
c. Petromyzon (iii) Coelenterata
(4) Cortisol produces anti-inflammatory reactions
d. Trygon (iv) Arthropoda and suppresses the immune response
166. If vasa deferens gets blocked, sperms will not
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) reach from
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (1) Seminiferous tubules to rete testis
160. Which type of bonds are present in collagen? (2) Epididymis to ejaculatory duct
(1) Glycosidic bonds (3) Rete testis to vasa efferentia
(2) Peptide bonds (4) Vasa efferentia to epididymis
(3) Phosphodiester and peptide bonds 167. Rate of a physical or chemical process can be
best expressed as
(4) Glycosidic and peptide bonds
(1) δP/δt (2) δP-P/δt
161. Selectable marker is used to
(3) δP-δt/δt (4) δt/δP
(1) Identify the gene for a desired trait in an alien
organism 168. The average percentage of human beings having
Rh antigen on the surface of their RBCs is
(2) Select a suitable vector for transformation in
a specific crop (1) 80 percent (2) 20 percent
(3) 40 percent (4) 50 percent
(3) Help in eliminating the non-transformants,
permitting the growth of transformants 169. Select the odd one out w.r.t oestrous cycle.
(4) Mark a gene on a chromosome for isolation (1) Cows (2) Sheep
using restriction enzyme (3) Monkey (4) Rats
(14)
170. Match column I with column II and choose the (1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
correct option. (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
Column I Column II 175. Consider the following statements and choose
the option that correctly fills the blank (A) and (B).
Physical (i) (i) A present in Annelids, help in
a. Interferons
barrier
osmoregulation and excretion.
Physiological (ii) (ii) Some Annelids have B , which is primarily
b. Natural killer cells
barrier
concerned with osmoregulation.
Cellular (iii) (1) (A) – Nephridia (B) – Malpighian tubules
c. Mucus coating
barriers
(2) (A) – Nephridia (B) – Protonephridia
Cytokine (iv) (3) (A) – Protonephridia (B) – Nephridia
d. Tears
barriers
(4) (A) – Nephridia (B) – Antennal glands
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) 176. Complete the analogy
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) Primary spermatocyte : diploid (2n) :: Ootid :
171. Proteins encoded by which Bt genes controls ______
corn borer? (1) Haploid (n) (2) Diploid (2n)
(1) cryIAb (2) cryIAc (3) Haploid (2n) (4) Diploid (n)
(3) cryIIAb (4) cryIAc and cryIIAb 177. In order to avoid pregnancy by a female whose
172. In a population of 1000 individuals, 360 belong to menstrual cycle is of 29 days, the couple should
avoid coitus from
genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to
aa. What will be the frequency of allele A? (1) Day 7 to 14 of the menstrual cycle
(1) 0.7 (2) 0.5 (2) Day 17 to 23 of the menstrual cycle
(3) 0.6 (4) 0.4 (3) Day 12 to 19 of the menstrual cycle
173. Complete the analogy (4) Day 19 to 26 of the menstrual cycle
LH : Androgens : spermatogenesis :: FSH : some 178. Some restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA
factors : _______ in the centre of palindrome. Such ends are called
(1) Spermiogenesis (1) Sticky ends (2) Flush ends
(2) Spermatocytogenesis (3) Cohesive ends (4) Staggered ends
(3) Spermiation 179. The amount of protein human alpha-lactalbumin,

present in the milk produced by first transgenic
(4) Mitosis of spermatogonia cow, Rosie is
174. Match column I with column II and choose the (1) 4.2 grams per litre (2) 2.4 grams per litre
correct option.
(3) 5 grams per litre (4) 0.4 grams per litre
Column I Column II 180. Among the following, which is not a component
of downstream processing?
a. Cuboidal (i) Fallopian tubes
(1) Preservation (2) Purification
epithelium
(3) Expression (4) Separation
b. Columnar (ii) Tubular part of
181. In females, secondary oocyte complete its
epithelium nephron
second meiotic division
c. Ciliated (iii) Walls of blood (1) After fertilisation
epithelium vessels (2) Before ovulation
d. Squamous (iv) Inner lining of (3) During fusion of sperm and ovum
epithelium stomach (4) During embryonic development
(15)
182. Proboscis gland is the excretory organ of 189. In ECG, heart rate of an individual can be
(1) Asterias (2) Balanoglossus determined by counting
(3) Pheretima (4) Loligo (1) Total number of T waves
183. In the GI tract of human beings, crypts of (2) Total number of QRS complexes in a given
Lieberkuhn are formed by time period
(1) Muscularis (2) Mucosa (3) Total number of P waves

(3) Sub-mucosa (4) Serosa (4) PQ segment
184. Which of the following is not correctly matched? 190. Which ion is responsible for unmasking of active
sites on the F-actin for cross-bridge activity
(1) Gonorrhoea - Neisseria gonorrhoeae
during muscle contraction?
(2) Syphilis - Treponema pallidum
(1) Calcium
(3) Genital Herpes - Human papilloma virus
(2) Iron
(4) Chlamydiasis - Chlamydia trachomatis
(3) Sodium
correct option. (4) Magnesium
Statement I : Myelinated nerve fibres are found 191. Which of the following technique is preferred in
in spinal and cranial nerves. case of infertility due to very low sperm counts in
the ejaculate?
Statement II : Unmyelinated nerve fibre are not
enclosed by Schwann cells. (1) Artificial insemination
(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is (2) Gamete intra-fallopian transfer

correct (3) Intra-uterine transfer
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is (4) Zygote intra-fallopian transfer
incorrect
(3) Both statements are correct correct option.
Column I Column II
SECTION-B
186. A person with anti-A and anti-B antibodies in his a. DCT (i) Almost impermeable
plasma can donate blood to people with blood to electrolytes
groups
b. PCT (ii) Allows passage of
(1) Only A (2) Only AB and B small amounts of
(3) Only A and AB (4) A, B, O and AB urea
187. How many features given below in box are c. Descending limb of (iii) Conditional
present in cardiac tissue? loop of Henle reabsorption of Na+
Involuntary, Intercalated discs, Uninucleate, and water
Present in intestinal walls, Striations d. Collecting duct (iv) Globulin protein is
(1) Two (2) Three reabsorbed
(3) Five (4) Four (v) 70-80 per cent of

188. Complete the analogy electrolytes are
reabsorbed
Pyloric sphincter : Stomach :: Sphincter of Oddi :
(1) Common hepatic duct (1) a(ii), b(v), c(i), d(iii)
(2) Cystic duct (2) a(iii), b(v), c(i), d(iv)
(3) Pancreatic duct (3) a(iii), b(v), c(i), d(ii)
(4) Hepato-pancreatic duct (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(16)
193. The amount of CO2 transported by RBCs, in 197. Number of cervical vertebrae in humans are
dissolved state through plasma and as (1) Less than that of blue whale
bicarbonate is
(2) Same as that of a giraffe
(1) 20-25%, 70% and 7% respectively
(3) More than that of a horse
(2) 7%, 20-25% and 70% respectively
(4) Same as that of a Scoliodon
(3) 7%, 23% and 70% respectively
198. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. regulation
(4) 20-25%, 7% and 70% respectively
of cardiac activity.
194. Read the following statements about cockroach
(1) Adrenal medullary hormones can increase
and choose the option that correctly states them
the cardiac output
true (T) or false (F).
(2) Sympathetic neural signals can increase the
(A) On an average, females produce 9-10
strength of ventricular contraction
oothecae, each containing 22-26 eggs
(3) Parasympathetic neural signals can increase
(B) The nymph grows by moulting about 13 times
the speed of conduction of action potential
to reach the adult form.
and thereby cardiac output
(C) The next to last nymphal stage has wing
(4) A special neural centre in medulla can
pads.
moderate cardiac function through ANS
(D) Ootheca is a dark reddish to blackish brown
199. Complete the analogy w.r.t. human embryonic
capsule, about 3/8" (8 mm) long.
development.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Embryo heart formation : At the end of first month
(1) T T T T :: First movements of the foetus :
(2) F T T T (1) End of second month
(3) F T T F
(2) End of second trimester
(4) T F T F
(3) End of 12 weeks
195. Which of the following is an autoimmune
(4) During fifth month
disorder?
200. In a given population of birds with three different
(1) Gout (2) Myasthenia gravis
types of beak : longer beak, smaller beak and
(3) Muscular dystrophy (4) Emphysema medium sized beak, only birds with longer beak
196. Which of the following hormone is not secreted are selected by nature. Which type of selection
by anterior pituitary? occur in the example given above?
(1) ACTH (2) TSH (1) Directional selection (2) Stabilising selection
(3) PTH (4) PRL (3) Disruptive selection (4) Balancing selection
  
(17)
Edition: 2020-21
17/06/2022 CODE-A

MM : 720 Test - 7 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min.
Complete Syllabus of Class-XI & XII

Instructions:
PHYSICS
SECTION-A 3. Work done in increasing the potential of a
capacitor from V volt to 2V volt is W. Then, the
1. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower of
work done in increasing the potential of the same
height ‘h’. After 1 s another stone is dropped from capacitor from 2V volt to 4V volt will be
the balcony, 20 m below the top. Both reach the
(assume ideal scenario)
bottom simultaneously. What is the value of h?
(1) W (2) 2W
(g = 10 m s–2) (3) 4W (4) 8W
(1) 3125 m 4. A potential difference V is applied to a copper
wire of length l and radius ‘r’. If V is doubled, the
(2) 312.5 m
drift velocity
(3) 31.25 m (1) Is doubled (2) Is halved
(4) 25.31 m (3) Remains same (4) Becomes zero
2. A drop of liquid of density  is floating half- 5. Two resistors of resistances 200 k and 1 M
immersed in a liquid of density ‘d’. If  is the form a potential divider with outer junctions
maintained at potentials of +3 V and
surface tension, the diameter of the drop of the –15 V.
liquid is
 2
(1) (2)
g ( 2 − d ) g ( 2 − d ) The potential at the junction X between the
resistors is
6 12 (1) +1 V (2) 0 V
(3) (4)
g ( 2 − d ) g ( 2 − d ) (3) –0.6 V (4) –12 V
(1)
6. The equation of path of projectile of a particle is 11. The ratio of minimum to maximum possible
Y = 0.5 x − 0.04 x . The initial velocity of the
2 radiation energy in Lyman series of Bohr’s
particle is (g = 10 m/s2) Hydrogen atom is equal to
(1) 10 m/s (2) 15 m/s (1) 2 : 1 (2) 3 : 4

(3) 12.5 m/s (4) 14 m/s (3) 4 : 3 (4) 1 : 2
7. A point source of sound is placed in a non 12. A particle of mass 4 g, charge 4 mC is released
absorbing medium. Two points A and B are at N
from origin in a region of electric field E = ( 4i )
distance of 2 m and 3 m from source, C
( )
respectively. The ratio of intensity of wave at A to
at B is and magnetic field B = −4 j T . The speed of
(1) 3: 2 (2) 3 : 2 particle when the x-coordinate is 2 m, is (neglect

gravity)
(3) 9 : 4 (4) 2 : 3
(1) 1 m/s
8. A man weighs 60 kg on surface of earth. At what
height above surface of earth will the weight be (2) 3 m/s
45 kg? (3) 4 m/s
2− 3   3  (4) 2 m/s
(1)  R (2)   R
 3  2− 3  13. In the YDSE set up shown in figure if P is the
point on screen in front of mid point between
(3) ( 2+ 3 R ) (4) ( 3− 2 R ) slits, then
9. A particle displaced by wave has its motion

sin ( t ) cos ( t )
represented by equation + . The
2 2
amplitude of the motion is
1
(1) unit (2) 2 unit
2
(3) 1 unit (4) 2 unit
(1) Zero order maximum will lie above point P
10. A radioactive sample goes under a decay as per
the following graph. At time t = 0, the number of (2) Zero order maximum will lie at point P
undecayed Nuclei is N0. The number of nuclei left (3) Zero order maximum will lie below point P
after 1 hour is
(4) Zero order maximum may lie above or below
point P
14. The wavelength among the following is greatest
for
(1) Radio waves
(2) Microwaves
(3) Infrared
(4) Visible light
N0 N0 15. The emissivity of a black body is (where ‘e’
(1) 8
(2) 10
e e represents emissivity)
N0 N0 (1) e = 1 (2) 0 < e < 1

(3) (4)
e12 e14 (3) e > 1 (4) e = 0
(2)
16. In the arrangement shown in figure three very 20. On increasing the clockwise current in one of the
large plates are placed parallel and close to each coaxial loops, the current induced in the other
other. Considering them as ideal black body and loop will be
first plate being maintained at temperature 3T
and second plate being maintained at
temperature 2T, the temperature of middle plate
under steady state condition is
(1) Clockwise
(2) Anticlockwise
(3) No current will be induced
(4) Depends on distance between loops
1 1 21. Light emerges out of prism at 60° when incident
 97  4  90  4 at 30°. If light is incident at 60°, then it will
(1)   T (2)   T
 2   2  emerge at
1 1 (1) 30° (2) 60°
 65  4  81  4
(3)   T (4)   T (3) 90° (4) 45°
 13   4
22. A converging lens of focal length ‘f’ is dipped in
17. A rectangular sheet (3 m × 4 m) is hinged from
liquid of refractive index ‘n’. For lens to behave
its vertex and held in equilibrium by force F. If
as diverging lens of same focal length it should
mass of sheet is 6 kg then force F is
have refractive index
n 2n
(1) (2)
n +1 n +1
n 2n
(3) (4)
n −1 n −1
(1) 50 N (2) 40 N 23. A circular race track is banked at 45° and radius
of track is 30 m. The coefficient of friction
(3) 60 N (4) 80 N
between the wheels and a track is 0.5. What is
18. A solid cylinder and a hollow cylinder rolls down maximum speed at which a car can travel round
an inclined plane from same height. the track without skidding? (g = 10 m/s2)
Choose the correct statement (1) 26 m/s (2) 40 m/s
(1) Solid cylinder will take more time than hollow (3) 30 m/s (4) 36 m/s
cylinder 24. A solid sphere of radius R made of a material of
(2) Solid cylinder will take less time than hollow bulk modulus B is surrounded by a liquid in a
cylinder cylindrical container. A massless piston of area A
floats on surface of liquid. What is fractional
(3) Both will take same time
 R 
change in radius of sphere   when a weight
(4) Insufficient Information  R 
19. A block is attached to a spring of spring constant W is placed on piston to compress liquid?
K. If spring is cut into two equal parts and joined 2W W
in parallel, the time period of block will get (1) (2)
BA 2BA
(1) Doubled (2) Quadrupled W W
(3) (4)
(3) Halved (4) One-fourth 3BA BA
(3)
25. Two moles of an ideal gas are compressed 29. A system has two charges q1 = 4.5  10 −6 C and
through reversible isothermal process from an
q2 = −4.5  10 −6 C located at points A: (0, 0,
initial pressure of 2 atm to final pressure of 16
atm at 27°C. What is work done on the gas? –20 cm) and B: (0, 0, +20 cm), respectively.
Electric dipole moment of the system is
(1) 5432 J (2) 12,616 J
(1) 9 × 10–6 C m (2) 1.8 × 10–7 C m
(3) 10,369 J (4) 8,000 J
(3) 1.8 × 10–6 C m (4) 9 × 10–7 C m
26. The energy of gas molecule in a gas at given
30. Electric filed intensity at a point 2 m away from
temperature T(K) is calculated based on kinetic
the surface of a uniformly charged hollow sphere
theory of gases. Match column I with column II of radius 1 m is 9 × 102 N/C. Surface charge
density on the surface of hollow sphere will be
Column I Column II
nearly
A. Mean kinetic energy per (P) 3 (1) 5 × 10–6 C/m2 (2) 7.2 × 10–12 C/m2
k T
mole of diatomic gas 2 B (3) 9 × 10–6 C/m2 (4) 7.2 × 10–8 C/m2
B. Mean translational kinetic (Q) 3 31. A body is initially at rest. It undergoes one-
RT dimensional motion with acceleration given by
energy per molecule of a 2
gas a = kt, where k is a constant. Power delivered to
it at time ‘t’ is proportional to
C. Mean translational kinetic (R) 5 (1) t3 (2) t2
RT
energy per mole of an 2 (3) t3/2 (4) t–3
ideal gas
32. A Ge specimen is doped with Al. The
D. Mean rotational kinetic (S) kBT concentration of acceptor atoms is approximately
energy per molecule of 1024 m–3. Given that intrinsic carrier concentration
diatomic gas is nearly 1019 m–3, then the concentration of
electrons in the specimen is nearly
(1) A(P), B(R), C(S), D(Q) (1) 1010 m–3 (2) 1014 m–3
(2) A(R), B(Q), C(P), D(S) (3) 1019 m–3 (4) 1018 m–3
(3) A(R), B(S), C(Q), D(P) 33. The semiconductor material, ideal for solar cell
(4) A(R), B(P), C(Q), D(S) fabrication, has band gap energy Eg close to
27. When a bar magnet is made to vibrate in (1) 15 eV (2) 07 eV
horizontal plane, the time period of vibration is (3) 3 eV (4) 23 eV
3 2 s , angle of dip of the place is 60°. What will 34. Choose the incorrect options, among the
be period of vibration in vertical plane parallel to following
magnetic meridian at the same place? (1) 1° is equal to 1.745 × 10–2 rad
1 (2) 1 is equal to 2.91 × 10–4 rad
(1) s (2) 3 s
2 (3) 1 is equal to 4.85 × 10–6 rad
(3) 3 s (4) 4 s (4) 1 is equal to 4.85 × 10–8 rad
28. A 110 V, 40 W bulb is run from 220 V AC mains 35. Consider the following statements and choose
the correct statement.
using a capacitor in series with the lamp, instead
of a resistor, then the voltage across the Statement A: If an equation fails the test of
capacitor is about consistency of dimensions, it is proved wrong but
if it passes, it is not proved right.
(1) 110 V
Statement B: A dimensionally correct equation
(2) 140 V may or may not be physically correct.
(3) 138.6 V (1) A only (2) B only
(4) 190.5 V (3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
(4)
SECTION-B 39. Ten capacitors are joined in parallel and charged

36. Some numbers (values of various quantities) are with a battery upto a potential V. They all are
given in column I and number of significant then disconnected from battery and joined in
figures of them in column II. Match the column I series. The maximum potential difference across
with column II. this combination will be
(1) 1V (2) 10V
Column-I Column-II
(3) 5V (4) 2V
A. 0.005 m2 (P) 5 40. Two bulbs A and B of 25 W and 100 W power, at
B. 0.23480 g/cm3 (Q) 4 a rated voltage of 220 V are connected in series
across a 440 V supply. Which of the bulb will
C. 0.005020 m2 (R) 1 fuse?
D. 2.54×1024 kg (S) 3 (1) Only bulb ‘A’

(2) Only bulb ‘B’
(1) A(R), B(Q), C(P), D(S)
(3) Both bulbs ‘A’ and ‘B’
(2) A(P), B(R), C(S), D(Q)
(4) Neither bulb ‘A’ nor ‘B’
(3) A(S), B(R), C(Q), D(P)
41. For a given frequency of the incident radiation,
(4) A(R), B(P), C(Q), D(S)
the stopping potential is
37. For a CE amplifier, the audio signal voltage
(1) Directly proportional to intensity
across the collector resistance of 2 k is 2 V.
Suppose the current amplification factor of (2) Inversely proportional to intensity
transistor is 100. If dc base current is 10 times (3) Proportional to cube root of intensity
the signal base current, then choose the correct (4) Independent of intensity
options for the given circuit. (Take VBE = 0.6 V)
42. The magnetic field B at centre O due to the wire
bent in shape as shown in the figure is
(1) DC voltage drop across the collector 0 i  ( b − a ) 0 i  ( b − a )

resistance (RC) is 22 V (1) (2)
8ab 4ab
(2) Base resistance RB is equal to 14 k
0 i  ( b − a ) 0 i  ( b + a )
(3) DC base current is equal to 10 A (3) (4)
2ab 4ab
(4) DC collector current is equal to 1 mA
43. A particle hanging from a spring stretches it by
38. Water on surface of a river 10 m deep is 2 cm at earth’s surface. How much will the same
observed to be flowing at 5 m/s. The shearing particle stretch the spring at a place 400 km
stress between horizontal layers of the river is ( above the earth’s surface? (Radius of the earth
= 10–3 SI units) = 6400 km)
(1) 10–3 N/m2 (1) 0.9 cm
(2) 0.8 × 10–3 N/m2 (2) 3 cm
(3) 0.5 × 10–3 N/m2 (3) 1.77 cm
(4) 1 N/m2 (4) 2.5 cm
(5)
44. The intensity of each of two slits in YDSE is I0. 47. An ideal diatomic gas ( = 1.4) does 200 J of
The minimum separation between two points on work when it is expanded isobarically. What is
the screen where intensities are I0 and 2I0 is ( is heat given to the gas in this process?
the fringe width) (1) 600 J (2) 700 J
  (3) 500 J (4) 900 J
(1) (2)
12 6 48. A jet of water with cross-sectional area A is
striking against a wall at an angle of  from
 
(3) (4) normal to the wall and rebounds elastically. If the
4 2
velocity of jet of water is v and density of water is
45. A thin prism ( V = 1.625; R = 1.375 ) is being , the normal force acting on the wall is
used in combination with another thin prism (1) 2Av 2 cos  (2) Av 2 sin 
( V = 1.5; R = 1.3 ) to minimize deviation of
Av 2
(3) Av sin  (4) sin 
light. (V and R are refractive index of prism for 2
violet and red light). Choose the correct
49. A resistance of 40  and an inductance of
statement for the combination if prism angles are 95.5 mH are connected in series with a 50
4° and 5° respectively. cycle/second AC source of peak voltage 200 volt.
(1) Light is dispersed but not deviated What is peak value of current in the circuit?
(2) Light is deviated but not dispersed (1) 2 A (2) 2 2 A
(3) Light is neither dispersed nor deviated (3) 4 A (4) 4 2 A
(4) Light is deviated as well as dispersed 50. A block moving horizontally on a smooth surface
46. Friction force acting on a spherical shell of mass with a speed of 80 m/s splits into two equal parts.
2 kg rolling down the incline of inclination 30° is If one of parts moves at 60 m/s in the same
direction, then the fractional change in the kinetic
(1) 10 N energy of the system will be equal to
(2) 2.9 N (1) 16 (2) 8
(3) 4 N 1 1
(3) (4)
(4) Zero 8 16
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A (1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
51. The lowest value of n that allows h orbitals to correct
exist is
(2) Both statements I and II are correct
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) Both statements I and II are incorrect
(3) 5 (4) 6
52. The radical which initiates the chain reaction for (4) Statement I is correct but statement II is
ozone depletion is incorrect
(1) (2)
54. Which of the following oxides is not expected to
(3) (4) react with sodium hydroxide?
53. Statement I : The electronegativity of any given
element is not constant. (1) BaO
Statement II : Electronegativity varies depending (2) SO3

on the element to which it is bound.
(3) Al2O3
correct answer from the options given below. (4) SiO2
(6)
55. Select the incorrect match from the following 60. Statement-I: If the standard electrode potential
(1) Dry ice : Solid carbon dioxide of an electrode is greater than zero then its
reduced form is more stable compared to
(2) (CH3)3 SiCl : Controls the chain length Hydrogen gas.
(3) Boron : Extremely low melting point metal Statement-II: Electrolytic cells are extensively
(4) Pyrosilicate : One oxygen atom of SiO 4−
is used for determining the pH of solutions,
4
solubility product and other thermodynamic
shared
properties.
56. Identify the coal gasification reaction among the
In the light of above statements, choose the
following correct option.
(1) CH4 (g) + H2O(g) ⎯⎯⎯⎯
1270 K
Ni
→ CO(g) + 3H2 (g) (1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(2) CO(g) + H2O(g) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯673 K

→ CO2 (g) + H2 (g) (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are
Iron chromate
incorrect
(3) 2C(s) + O2 (g) + 4N2 (g) ⎯⎯⎯⎯
1273 K
→ 2CO(g) + 4N2 (g)
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
(4) C(s) + H2 O(g) ⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ CO(g) + H2 (g)
1270 K incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
57. Which of the following reaction represents
correct
Calcination process?
61. If NaCl crystal is doped with 10–4 mol% of AlCl3
(1) 2ZnS(s) + 3O2 (g) → 2ZnO (s) + 2SO2 (g) then the number of cation vacancies per mole of

(2) Fe2O3. xH2O (s) ⎯⎯ → Fe2O3(s) + xH2O (g) NaCl is (Given : NA = 6 × 1023)
(1) 1.8 × 1018 (2) 1.2 × 1018
(3) ZnO (s) + C (s) → Zn (s) + CO (g)
(3) 6 × 1017 (4) 1.2 × 1017
(4) FeO (s) + SiO2 (s) → FeSiO3
62. Mixture of chloroform and aniline is separated by
(1) Sublimation
(1) The half reactions that involve gain of
(2) Distillation
electrons are called reduction reactions.
(3) Differential extraction
(2) In oxygen difluoride, the oxidation state of
oxygen is +2. (4) Crystallisation
63. Number of moles of oxygen required for
(3) KMnO4 can oxide F– ions into F2.
complete combustion of one mole of benzene is
(4) The hypochlorite ion (CIO–) acts as a
7 9
bleaching agent. (1) (2)
2 2
59. Match Column-I with Column-II and identify the
15
correct option. (3) (4) 6
2
Column-I Column-II 64. Number of chiral carbons present in  – D – (+) –
(Type of solids) (Example) Glucopyranose is
(1) 6 (2) 5
a. Covalent solid (i) CaF2
(3) 4 (4) 3
b. Metallic solid (ii) Ar
c. Ionic solid (iii) Diamond CH3 CN ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
(i) SnCl2 / HCl
→ A ⎯⎯⎯⎯
NH2 OH
→B
(ii) H O+
3
d. Molecular solid (iv) Ag

Product B is an
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (1) Substituted imine (2) Hydrazone
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (3) Primary amine (4) Oxime
(7)
66. 1 L of an ideal gas at a pressure of 20 atm 71. If QC = KC then which of the following statement
expands isothermally into vacuum until its total is correct?
volume is 10 L. Heat absorbed and work done (1) Net reaction goes from reactants to products
during above expansion respectively will be (2) Net reaction goes from products to reactants
(1) Zero, – 19 L - atm (3) No net reaction occurs
(2) Zero, zero (4) Forward and backward reactions stopped.
(3) –19 L atm, + 19 L – atm 72. Number of atoms present in 5 g monoatomic gas
(4) Zero, + 19 L – atm with vapour density 8 will be
(1) 0.625 NA (2) 0.25 NA
67. Calculated magnetic moment of complex ion
[CoF6]3– is (3) 0.3125 NA (4) NA
73. Which of the following correctly represents
(1) Zero (2) 3 BM positive deviation from Raoult’s law for any liquid-
liquid mixture?
(3) 15 BM (4) 24 BM
68. The range of diameter of colloidal particles lies

between
(1)
(1) 1 to 10 nm (2) 1 to 100 nm
(3) 1 to 1000 nm (4) 1 to 10000 nm
69. Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
(a) NH+4 (i) Octahedral
(b) PCl6– (ii) Bent

(2)
(c) + (iii) Tetrahedral
H3 O
(d) ICl2+ (iv) Pyramidal
Choose the correct answer from the options

given below
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
70. Given below are two statements (3)
Statement I : A catalyst lowers the activation

energy by providing an alternate path for the
reaction.
Statement II : A catalyst alters Gibbs free
energy, G of a reaction.
given below.
(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is (4)
true
(2) Both statement I and statement II are true
(3) Both statement I and statement II are false
(4) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
(8)
74. Which of the following does not obey Henry’s 80. The correct order of thermal stability is
law?
(1) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
(1) Ar (2) H2
(2) HF > HBr > HCl > HI
(3) O2 (4) NH3
(3) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
75. Which of the following will be least reactive with
NH3 by following SN2 mechanism? (4) HCl > HF > HBr > HI
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Major product B is
76. Match the Column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’ and
identify the correct option. (1) (2)
Column A Column B
(i) (a) Aryl halide (3) (4)
(ii) (b) Vinyl halide 82. Consider the following reaction sequence,
(iii) (c) Allyl halide
Major product C is
(iv) (d) Alkyl halide
(1) (2)
(1) (i)a, (ii)c, (iii)b, (iv)d (2) (i)d, (ii)b, (iii)c, (iv)a
(3) (i)d, (ii)c, (iii)b, (iv)a (4) (i)d, (ii)b, (iii)a, (iv)c
77. Compressible factor (Z) will always be more than
1 for
(1) He (2) Ne (3) (4)
(3) CH4 (4) N2
78. Incorrect statement regarding interstitial
compounds of d-block element is 83. Consider the following reaction sequence
(1) They have high melting point
(2) They are chemically inert
(3) They loses metallic conductivity The major product B is
(4) They are very hard
79. Identify the incorrect match for the preparation of (1)
given compounds
Column I Column II (2)
(1) Haber’s process NH3
(2) Deacon’s process HCl (3)
(3) Ostwald’s process HNO3

(4)
(4) Contact process H2SO4
(9)
84. Consider the following statements about low 90. Consider the following statements
density polythene (a) But-2-yne does not react with ammoniacal
(I) Polymerisation takes place under high silver nitrate solution
pressure and high temperature (b) Acetylene is more acidic than propyne
(II) It has highly branched structure (c) But-1-yne decolourises bromine water
(III) It is chemically inert
Correct statements among the following are
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (c) only
(1) I and II only (2) II and III only
91. Correct order of -I effect of the given species is
(3) I and III only (4) I, II and III
(1) (2)
85. Identify an incorrect match
(1) Equanil : Tranquilizer (3) (4)
(2) Penicillin : antibiotic 92. Which among the following has highest pKa
value?
(3) Norethindrone : antifertility drug
(4) Bithionol : disinfectant
SECTION-B (1) (2)
86. The number of angular nodes and radial nodes in

3p orbital are
(1) 0 and 2, respectively (3) (4)
(2) 1 and 1, respectively 93. Which among the following complex species has
(3) 1 and 0, respectively longest ‘C – O’ bond length?
(1) [Fe(CO)5] (2) Ni(CO)4
(4) 3 and 1, respectively
(3) (4) [Co(CO)5]
87. The calcium concentration in plasma is regulated
at about 94. For which reaction enthalpy change will be equal
to enthalpy of formation?
(1) 50 mg L–1 (2) 100 mg L–1
(1) H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g)
(3) 200 mg L–1 (4) 500 mg L–1
(2) H2(g) + Br2 (l) → 2HBr(g)
88. The reducing agent in the given reaction is
(3) H2(g) + I2(g) → 2HI(g)
2Cu2O (s) + Cu2S (s) → 6Cu (s) + SO2 (g) (4) C(graphite) + O2(g) → CO2(g)
(1) Cu(I) of Cu2O (2) Sulphur of Cu2S 95. Conjugate base of NH+4 is
(3) Cu(I) of Cu2S (4) Sulphur of SO2
(1) NH2− (2) NH3
89. Select the incorrect option among the following
(3) NH4OH (4) NH2–
regarding lead storage battery
96. Maximum bond length is of
(1) During charging, Pb is deposited at anode
(1) C = C (2) C = N
(2) During charging, PbO2 is deposited at
(3) O = O (4) N = O
cathode
97. If the initial concentration of a second order
(3) A 38% solution of sulphuric acid is used as reaction 2A → B is doubled then half life of
an electrolyte reaction
(4) Lead grids filled with PbO2 behaves as (1) Remains unchanged (2) Becomes two times
negative plates. (3) Becomes four times (4) Becomes half
(10)
98. Classification on the basis of physical states of 100. Which of the following compound(s) give(s) a foul
dispersed phase and dispersion medium, how smelling substance on heating with chloroform
many types of colloids are possible? and ethanolic potassium hydroxide?
(1) 2 (2) 3 I.
(3) 8 (4) 9
II. (CH3)2NH
99. Dipole-dipole interaction energy (E) between
rotating polar molecule is related with distance III.
between polar molecule (r) as
(1) I only
1 1
(1) E  2 (2) E  3 (2) I and II only
r r
(3) I and III only
1 1
(3) E  5 (4) E  6 (4) I, II and III
r r
BOTANY
SECTION-A 105. In a test cross AaBb  aabb, all the progenies
101. As per five kingdom classification system, were like parents only. It means
organisms with loose tissue body organisation (1) Genes are distantly situated
(1) Are prokaryotes (2) Genes A and B are completely linked
(2) Show heterotrophic mode of nutrition (3) Crossing over occurred during gamete
(3) Have peptidoglycanic cell wall formation
(4) Lack nuclear membrane (4) Genes A and B are incompletely linked
102. Bacteria that oxidise nitrites and ammonia are 106. A colourblind boy was born to a completely
normal couple. Which of the following options
(1) Photoautotrophs (2) Saprophytes
provides the suitable reason for the same?
(3) Chemoautotrophs (4) Heterotrophs
(1) Colourblindness is sex linked dominant trait
103. Read the below given features and select how
(2) Mother is carrier of colourblindness while
many of them are true for Agaricus?
father is normal
(a) Mycelium is branched and septate
(3) Being autosomal recessive trait
(b) Sexual spores are produced inside ascus
colourblindness trait can skip a generation
(c) Fruiting bodies are edible
(4) Colourblindness arises due to chromosomal
(d) Lack sex organs and sexual reproduction aberrations
(1) 4 107. Direct elongation of the radicle leads to the
(2) 3 formation of roots in
(3) 1 (1) Wheat (2) Mustard
(4) 2 (3) Grass (4) Maize

104. In incomplete dominance 108. Which of the following characteristics is common
to both guava and cucumber?
(1) F1 did not resemble either of the two parents
(1) Leaf base swells to form pulvinus
(2) Both the alleles express themselves equally
(2) Axillary buds are modified into tendrils
(3) F1 progeny resembles both the parents
(3) Flowers are epigynous
(4) A single gene product may produce more
than one effects (4) Flowers are unisexual
(11)
109. Identify the following statements as true (T) or (1) Only statement-1 is correct
false (F) and choose the option accordingly. (2) Only statement-2 is correct
A. Some cells left behind from shoot apical (3) Both the statements are correct
meristem constitute the axillary bud.
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
B. Intercalary meristem is secondary in origin. 113. Cytoskeleton is involved in all of the following
C. Interfascicular cambium is secondary in origin functions, except
as well as in function. (1) Mechanical support
A B C (2) Transporting materials from one cell to
another
(1) F T T
(3) Motility
(2) T F T (4) Maintenance of the shape of the cell
(3) F F T 114. Growth occurs in both living organisms and non

living objects. However both are different as in
(4) T T F living organisms growth
110. Consider the following figure of a vascular bundle (1) Increases the body mass
and choose the option which is not correct (2) Is intrinsic
regarding this (3) Takes place by accumulation of material on
surface only
(4) Takes place in multicellular organisms only.
115. Potato and Brinjal
(1) Belong to the same genus
(2) Are same species of Solanum
(1) It is a closed type of vascular bundle
(3) Belong to two different plant families
(2) It is conjoint vascular bundle
(4) Have specific epithet called nigrum
(3) Such vascular bundles are usually found in
116. Select incorrect option about pyruvate
dicot stem
dehydrogenase enzyme.
(4) Such vascular bundles are responsible for
(1) Requires Mg2+ as cofactor
secondary growth
(2) Requires NAD+ as coenzyme
111. Golgi apparatus principally performs the function
(3) Converts pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA
of
(4) Converts pyruvic acid to acetaldehyde
(1) Synthesizing polypeptides
117. Pusa Komal is a variety of A and it is
(2) Digesting nucleic acids
resistance to B .
(3) Performing oxidative phosphorylation
Fill in the blanks A and B with correct option.
(4) Packaging materials
A B
option which is true for them. (1) Chilli Leaf and stripe rust
Statement-1: Telocentric chromosomes have no (2) Cowpea Bacterial blight

centromere.
(3) Cauliflower Bacterial blight
Statement-2: The satellite chromosomes have
secondary constriction. (4) Brassica Black rot
(12)
118. State true (T) or false (F) for the following 123. The completion of prophase can be marked by
statements and select the correct option (1) Condensed chromosomal material to form
A. Soil composition, grain size and aggregation compact mitotic chromosomes
determine the percolation and water holding (2) Splitting of centromeres
capacity of the soil.
(3) Movement of chromatids to opposite poles
B. Not all the colour components of the visible
(4) Assembly of nuclear envelope around the
spectrum are available for marine plants living
chromosome clusters
at different depths of the ocean.
124. Sexual reproduction may be isogamous or
A B anisogamous in members of
(1) T F (a) Chlorophyceae
(b) Rhodophyceae
(2) F T
(c) Phaeophyceae
(3) T T
(1) Only (a) (2) Only (b)
(4) F F (3) Only (a) and (c) (4) Only (b) and (c)
119. During decomposition, which of the following 125. Which among the following is one of the tallest
statements describes the process of catabolism? tree species which belong to division
Gymnospermae?
(1) Detritivores breakdown detritus into smaller
particles (1) Eucalyptus (2) Cedrus
(2) Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade (3) Sequoia (4) Wolffia
detritus into simpler inorganic substances 126. Consider the given statements, stating them true
(3) Humus is formed by earthworms (T) or false (F) and select the correct option.
(4) Water soluble substances get precipitated (A) Dark reaction occurs through Calvin cycle.
into the soil horizon (B) Calvin cycle occurs only in C3 plants.
120. The root endodermis (C) Productivity and yields are better in C4 plants
(1) Transports ions in bi-direction as compared to C3 plants.
(2) Has deposition of layer of suberin (1) A-T, B-F, C-T
(3) Transport charged ion passively only (2) A-T, B-T, C-T
(4) Both (1) and (3) (3) A-F, B-T, C-T
121. Select the odd one w.r.t role of potassium (4) A-F, B-F, C-F
(1) It is required in more abundant quantities in 127. Phosphodiester linkage in DNA
the meristematic tissues (1) Joins adenine with ribose sugar
(2) It helps to maintain an anion-cation balance (2) Connects a phosphate group to OH of 5C of
in cell a nucleoside
(3) It is a constituent of the ring structure of (3) Forms a nucleoside
chlorophyll
(4) Forms a dinucleotide
(4) It maintains the turgidity of cells
128. In capping an unusual nucleotide is added to 5
122. M-phase lasts upto ______ of the duration of cell end of hnRNA. This nucleotide is
cycle.
(1) Methyl uracil triphosphate
Fill in the above blank with correct option.
(2) Methyl guanosine triphosphate
(1) More than 95% (2) Less than 5%
(3) Methyl adenosine triphosphate
(3) Nearly 50% (4) More than 25%
(4) Methyl cytosine triphosphate
(13)
129. Select the incorrect interpretations w.r.t SECTION-B

transforming principle. 136. Haplo-diploid sex determination is seen in
(1) S strain → Inject into mice → Mice die (1) Honey bee (2) Grasshopper
(2) R strain → Inject into mice → Mice die (3) Drosophila (4) Bird
(3) S strain (heat-killed) → Inject into mice → 137. Viroids
Mice live
(1) Were discovered by T.O. Diener
(4) S strain (heat-killed) + R strain (live) → Inject
into mice → Mice die (2) Have ssDNA
130. Which of the given is ‘ex-situ’ conservation (3) Are causal agent of TMV
strategy of biodiversity? (4) Are facultative parasites
(1) Hot spots (2) National park 138. A single ovule is attached to the base of ovary in
(3) Sacred groves (4) Zoological park (1) Argemone (2) Sunflower
131. Consider the given statements and select the (3) Mustard (4) Citrus
correct option.
Statement A: CFCs discharged in the lower part
of atmosphere, move upward and reach (1) Bark – Includes pericycle
stratosphere.
(2) Periderm – Includes cork
Statement B: UV rays are highly injurious to
cambium
living organisms.
(1) Only statement A is correct (3) Complementary – Parenchymatous
(2) Only statement B is correct cells
(3) Both statements A and B are correct (4) Phellogen – Secondary

(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect permanent tissue
132. Which chemical can be used to overcome seed 140. In plants, secondary cell wall is formed
dormancy?
(1) On the inner side of primary cell wall
(1) Abscisic acid (2) Phenolic acids
(2) Between two cell walls of adjacent cells
(3) Nitrates (4) Para-ascorbic acids
(3) In place of middle lamella
133. Select the dioecious plant among the following
(4) By primary cell wall on its outer side
(1) Cucurbits (2) Date palm
141. Which of the following can be primary or
(3) Coconut (4) Pinus
secondary consumer?
134. Syngamy is
(1) Grasses (2) Sparrow
(1) Fusion of male gamete with the polar nuclei
(3) Lion (4) Rabbit
(2) Fusion of male gamete with the nucleus of
egg cell 142. Population density of an area is decreased by
(3) Fusion of two male gametes (1) Natality (2) Immigration

(4) Fusion of two male gametes with egg cell (3) Births of individuals (4) Mortality
135. Select the incorrect match from the following 143. Select the correct match
(1) Ladybirds - Aphids (1) Psilopsida – Adiantum
(2) Dragonflies - Mosquito (2) Sphenopsida – Equisetum
(3) Butterfly caterpillar - Trichoderma (3) Lycopsida – Dryopteris
(4) Biofertiliser - Cyanobacteria (4) Pteropsida – Selaginella
(14)
144. Read the following statements and mark true (T) 147. EI Nino effect refers to
or false (F) for them. (1) Odd climatic change in environment
A. Diffusion is a fast process (2) Development of substitute for CFCs
C. Facilitated diffusion is very specific (3) Reducing deforestation
C. Solute potential is always positive (4) Slowing down population growth
A B C 148. Select the incorrect statement for abscisic acid

(1) Stimulates the closure of stomata in the
(1) T F T epidermis
(2) F F T (2) Induces dormancy
(3) Acts as an antagonist to auxin only
(3) T T F
(4) Inhibits seed germination
(4) F T F
149. When bacterial flocs sediment into the settling
145. DNA as an acidic substance present in nucleus, tank then it is called
which was first identified by (1) Primary effluent (2) Debris
(1) Altmann (2) Friedrich Miescher (3) Secondary effluent (4) Activated sludge
(3) Watson and Crick (4) R. Franklin 150. Select the characteristic not seen in
anemophilous flower.
146. Which of the given contributes maximum to
proportionate number of species of (1) Very colourful flowers
invertebrates? (2) Light and non-sticky pollen grains
(1) Insects (2) Molluscs (3) Well exposed stamens
(3) Crustaceans (4) Fishes (4) Mostly single ovule in each ovary
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A (a) In humans, ammonia produced by
151. Respiration is a complex process which involves metabolism is converted into urea in the
kidneys and then excreted out by them.
a number of steps. Arrange the given steps in a
(b) The outer layer of kidney is a tough capsule.
correct sequence and select the correct option.
(c) Inside the kidney, there are two zones, an
(a) Cellular respiration outer medulla and an inner cortex.
(b) Transport of gases by the blood (d) The cortex extends in between the medullary
pyramids as renal columns called columns of
(c) Diffusion of gases across alveolar membrane
Bertini.
(d) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and (e) In kidney, there is a broad funnel-shaped
tissues space called the renal pelvis with projections
called calyces.
(e) Pulmonary ventilation
(1) Five (2) Three
(1) a → b → c → d → e
(3) Four (4) Two
(2) a → c → b → d → e 153. Muscles present in the human body exhibit
(3) e → c → b → d → a special properties. Select the option w.r.t
property not shown by all muscles present in the
(4) e → d → b → c → a humans.
152. How many of the given statements are correct (1) Contractility (2) Extensibility
w.r.t. human urinary system? (3) Excitability (4) Autorhythmicity
(15)
154. Match column I with column II and select the 158. Which of the following options is incorrect w.r.t
correct option. heart sounds?
Column I Column II (1) First heart sound is associated with the

closure of semilunar valves.
a. Striated (i) Assist in transportation
(2) First heart sound is produced at the
muscles of food through the
beginning of ventricular systole.
digestive tract
(3) Second heart sound is not associated with
b. Visceral (ii) Primarily involved in closure of atrioventricular valves.
muscles changes of body
(4) First heart sound is lub and second heart
postures
sound is dub.
c. Cardiac (iii) Fibres are branched 159. How many of the following are present in saliva
muscles and involuntary of human?
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
Salivary amylase, HCO3– , K+, Lysozyme, Cl–,
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
Pepsin, Na+
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i)
(1) Five (2) Six
(4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii)
(3) Seven (4) Four
155. Select an improved breed of cattle among the
given options. 160. Choose the option that correctly represents ‘A’
and ‘B’.
(1) Jersey
'A '
(2) Leghorn Lactose ⎯⎯⎯ → Glucose + ‘B’
(3) Mule ‘A’ ‘B’

(4) Hisardale
(1) Amylase Galactose
156. Select the correct equation from the below
(2) Lactase Galactose
options.
(1) Blood = Plasma + RBCs + (3) Lipase Fructose

WBCs – Platelets (4) Lactase Glucose
(2) Serum = Plasma + Clotting 161. Which among the following is a common feature
factors between muscle fibres present in heart and in
(3) Agranulocytes = T lymphocytes + B intestine?
lymphocytes + (1) Fusiform in shape
Monocytes (2) Multinucleated
(4) Lymph = Plasma + Formed (3) Involuntary
elements (4) Branched
157. The correct set of phagocytic WBCs that 162. Choose the odd one w.r.t mouth parts of
destroys foreign organisms entering the body is Periplaneta.
(1) Neutrophils and lymphocytes (1) Hypopharynx
(2) Neutrophils and monocytes (2) Maxillae
(3) Eosinophils and monocytes (3) Antennae
(4) Basophils and eosinophils (4) Mandibles
(16)
163. Read the following statements carefully. (1) Both of them will give results at the
Statement I: Reproductive health refers to a total approximately same time.
well-being in all aspects of reproduction, i.e., (2) The non-transgenic mice will give results in
physical, emotional, behavioural and social. lesser time compared to the transgenic mice.
Statement II: USA was the first nation in the (3) The transgenic mice will give results in lesser
world to initiate various action plans at national time as compared to the non-transgenic mice
level towards attaining a reproductively healthy as the former is less sensitive to the toxic
society. substance being studied.
Choose the option which correctly describes the (4) The transgenic mice are made more
sensitive to the toxic substances, hence, they
above given statements.
will give results faster than the non-
(1) Both statements I and II are correct transgenic mice.
(2) Both statements I and II are incorrect 167. In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules
(3) Only statement I is correct are separated on the basis of
(4) Only statement II is correct a. Size
164. Select the correct match w.r.t steps involved in b. Charge

PCR. c. Charge to size ratio
(1) Denaturation – Phosphodiester bonds d. Length of agarose gel

break Select the correct option.
(1) a only (2) b only
(2) Annealing – Primers anneal at 5’ end
of DNA template (3) a, b and c (4) a, b, c and d
168. Select the option among the following that
(3) Extension – Taq polymerase forms
correctly states the condition when the
hydrogen bonds
sensation of white light is produced.
between adjacent
nucleotides of growing (1) The photoreceptor cells responsible for day
DNA strand light vision are stimulated equally
(2) All the colour vision controlling photoreceptor
(4) Elongation – Thermostable DNA cells are stimulated unequally
polymerase adds
(3) All the scotopic vision controlling
nucleotide to 3’ end of
photoreceptor cells are stimulated
primers
equally
165. A couple is planning to take the help of ART to (4) All the photoreceptor cells are stimulated
have children. The wife is normal and healthy except cones
and wants in vivo fertilisation. The husband has 169. To isolate DNA from the bacteria, which of the
low sperm count in his ejaculate. They proceed following are not required?
with the ART and the woman gets pregnant. The
(1) Lysozyme, Spooling, Ribonuclease
procedure they underwent is ‘X’.
(2) Protease, Ribonuclease, Lysozyme
Which option from the following can ‘X’ be?
(3) Lysozyme, Deoxyribonuclease, Elution
(1) ICSI or AI (2) GIFT or IUI
(4) Centrifugation, Chilled ethanol, Spooling
(3) IUT or IUI (4) AI or IUI
170. Endocrine system comprises
166. Toxicity testing is done on non-transgenic as well
(1) Only endocrine glands
as transgenic mice. Out of these two scenarios,
which one will allow us to obtain results in less (2) Hormone producing diffused tissues only
time? (3) Endocrine as well as exocrine glands
Select the option that correctly answer the given (4) All hormone producing organs, tissues and
question. cells
(17)
171. In a hypothetical scenario, a transgenic mouse is 175. Read the statements given below carefully w.r.t
made to carry a gene, which results in ringworm.
deactivation of the -cells of Islets of
(a) It is one of the most common non-infectious
Langerhans.
diseases in man.
To compensate this, the mouse should be
(b) Neurospora belongs to the same kingdom to
administered with which of the following
which the organisms causing ringworm
substances for the normal functioning of the
infection belong.
body?
(1) Insulin (c) Heat and moisture helps the infection to
spread.
(2) Hypoglycemic substance
(3) Glycogenesis-inducing substance
(1) Statements (a) and (b) are correct while
(4) Glucagon
statement (c) is incorrect.
172. Match the structures given in column I with their
names in column II. Select the correct option. (2) Statements (b) and (c) are correct while
statement (a) is incorrect.
Column I Column II
(3) Statements (a) and (c) are correct while
a. (i) Alanine statement (b) is incorrect.
(4) Statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
176. Which of the following is responsible for the
b. (ii) Serine rejection of grafted kidney in a patient?
(1) Passive immune response
(2) Humoral immune response
c. (iii) Glycine (3) Cell-mediated immune response
(4) Innate immune response
177. The taxonomical classification helps in
d. (iv) Glycerol (1) Giving a common name to a newly described
species
(2) Nomenclature of a previously described
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) species
(3) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (3) Assigning a systemic position to newly
described species
173. Read the statements given below carefully w.r.t
lipids and select the incorrect statement. (4) Identification of biochemical reactions in an
(1) Lipids are generally water insoluble. anabolic pathway of animals
(2) Gingelly oil has lower melting point than fats. 178. Unsegmented body covered with calcareous
shell is distinctive feature of members placed in
(3) Lecithin is a simple lipid found in cell
the phylum
membrane.
(1) Annelida
(4) Arachidonic acid is an unsaturated fatty acid.
174. Which of the following is a primary metabolite? (2) Coelenterata
(1) Carotenoid (2) Anthocyanin (3) Arthropoda
(3) Cellulose (4) Ribose (4) Mollusca
(18)
179. Gnathostomata has two A , B and 183. Gonadotropins (LH and FSH) peak during the
Tetrapoda. Classes Chondrichthyes and C end of
bear fins for locomotion and are grouped under (1) Secretory phase
D . (2) Menstruation
Choose the option which fills the blanks A, B, C (3) Follicular phase
and D correctly.
(4) Luteal phase
A B C D
184. Darwin’s finches are examples of all of the
(1) Classes Pisces Cyclostomata Tetrapoda
following except
(2) Super Pisces Osteichthyes Pisces
classes
(1) Biogeographical evidences for evolution
(3) Super Vertebrata Osteichthyes Tetrapoda

classes
(3) Founder’s effect
(4) Classes Pisces Osteichthyes Gnathostomata
(4) Speciation without geographical barrier
180. Assertion (A): Zygote is the vital link that 185. The fitness according to Darwin, refers to
ensures continuity of species between organisms
of one generation and the next. (1) Reproductive fitness only
Reason (R): Zygote is the product of fusion of (2) Physical vigor
male and female gametes and it is producer of
next generation. (3) Ability to live longer
In the light of above statements, choose the (4) Ability to survive without passing genes to the
correct answer from the options given below. next generations
(1) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct SECTION-B
explanation of (A)
186. Read the following statements (A) and (B) w.r.t.
(2) (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A) bony fishes and choose the correct answer from
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false following given options.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true Statement (A): Osteichthyes includes both
181. The seminiferous tubules of the testis open into marine and fresh water fishes with bony
the vasa efferentia through endoskeleton.
(1) Epididymis (2) Rete testis Statement (B): Their body is streamlined and
(3) Vas deferens (4) Ejaculatory duct mouth is ventral in position.
(1) Both statements (A) and (B) are correct
correct option.
(2) Only statement (A) is incorrect
Column-I Column-II
(3) Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect
a. Perimetrium (i) Inner glandular layer of
uterus (4) Only statement (B) is incorrect
b. Myometrium (ii) External thin membrane 187. Choose the mismatch among the following.
of uterus
(1) Rabbit – Ureotelic
c. Endometrium (iii) Middle thick layer of
smooth muscles (2) Crow – Uricotelic
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) (3) Hydra – Ureotelic
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii) (4) Crayfish – Ammonotelic
(19)
188. Consider the given statements and mark them as 191. Select the odd one among the options given
true (T) or false (F). below.
a. The membrane of alveoli is very thin and (1) Adenosine (2) Uridine
richly supplied with blood capillaries to assist (3) Cytosine (4) Thymidine
diffusion of gases between alveoli and 192. How many of the following are features of
blood. ‘Nirodh’?
b. The anatomical setup of lungs in thorax is (a) Is a natural method of contraception
such that any change in the volume of the (b) Is similar to LNG-20 in its mechanism of
thoracic cavity will be reflected in the action
pulmonary cavity. (c) Can be self-inserted by males
c. The type of epithelium found in the walls of (d) Is a barrier method of contraception
blood vessels is same as that of alveoli of Select the correct option for the above given
lungs. question.
d. Increased asthmatic attacks in certain (1) One (2) Two
seasons are related to hot and humid (3) Three (4) Four
environment only. 193. The gene which encodes the toxin that controls
Select the correct option. corn borers is
a b c d (1) cryIAc (2) cryIAb
(1) T T T T (3) cryIIAb (4) Ori

194. Select the incorrect statement from the following
(2) T T T F
w.r.t the structural and functional unit of neural
(3) F T T F system.
(4) T F T F (1) Unmyelinated nerve fibres are commonly
found in autonomous neural system.
189. Read the given statements carefully.
(2) Nissl’s granules are present in the cell body
(a) Congestion of lungs is one of the main
of the neuron.
symptom of heart failure.
(3) Neurons with cyton and one axon only are
(b) Each vein has an inner lining of cuboidal usually found in the embryonic stage.
endothelium, called tunica intima. (4) Only myelinated nerve fibres are enveloped
(c) The cardiac output of an athlete will be much with Schwann cells.
lower than that of an ordinary man. 195. Match the following columns I and II and choose
Select the correct option. the correct option.
(1) Only statements (a) and (b) are correct Column-I Column-II
(2) Only statements (a) and (c) are correct a. Parturition (i) Release of ovum from
(3) Only statement (c) is correct ruptured Graafian follicle
(4) Only statements (b) and (c) are incorrect b. Menopause (ii) Delivery of the baby
190. Select the disease among the following that can c. Ovulation (iii) Blastocyst becomes
be transmitted through semen of an infected embedded in endometrium
male.
d. Implantation (iv) Menstrual cycles ceases
a. Malaria b. Ebola virus infection around age of 50 years in
c. Chikungunya d. Hepatitis-B human female
(1) a and b (2) b and d (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(3) c and d (4) d only (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(20)
196. Choose the correct option to complete the (1) Directional selection
analogy.
(2) Stabilising selection
Echinus : Calcareous ossicles : : Trygon : _____
(1) Calcareous bones
(4) Disruptive selection
(2) Chitinous endoskeleton
199. How many fragments will be obtained if the given
(3) Cartilaginous endoskeleton
vector is cut by EcoRI, BamHI as well as HindIII
(4) Calcareous shell at all the restriction sites mentioned in the
197. Which of the following is a pre-fertilisation event? vector?
(1) Zygote formation
(2) Embryogenesis
(3) Syngamy
(4) Gamete formation
198. Natural selection can act on characters with
quantitative variations and this can lead to the
result depicted in the following graph. (1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Five
200. Choose the odd one w.r.t genetic engineering.
The bold line shows the distribution of (1) Gene cloning
phenotypes in the population before selection (2) Traditional hybridisation
and the broken lines shows the effect of the
selection. The changes in the phenotypic traits (3) Recombinant DNA
observed after selection represents (4) Gene transfer
❑ ❑ ❑
(21)
09/06/2022 CODE-A

MM : 720 Test - 1 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.
Instructions :
PHYSICS
SECTION-A 3. Charge Q is given to a conducting shell of radius
R such that it has surface charge density .
1. A body is displaced from x = –1 m to x = 2 m
Which of the following is the correct expression
under the effect of a force F = (5x2 – 2) N acting
of electric field intensity just outside the shell?
along x-axis. Work done by this force is
 1 
(1) –19 J (2) 9 J  K = 
 40 
(3) 27 J (4) 13 J
2. Consider the following statements. KQ KQ
(1) 3
(2)
(A) Electrostatics field lines do not form any R R2
closed loop. 
(B) In a charge free region, electric field lines can (3) (4) Both (2) and (3)
0
be taken to be continuous curves without any
break. 4. The contribution of electric field in energy density
of an EM wave is u. Then half of the contribution
Which of the following option is correct?
of magnetic field in average energy density of the
(1) Statement A is correct while statement B is EM wave will be
incorrect
u
(2) Statement B is correct while statement A is (1) u (2)
incorrect 2
(3) Statement A & statement B both are incorrect u

(3) 2u (4)
(4) Statement A & statement B both are correct 4
(1)
5. An unpolarized light beam of intensity I is incident 11. Some logic gates are given in column I and
on a polarizer and then it passes through an column II contains their names.
analyzer which has its axis perpendicular to the
Match the column I with column II.
polarizer. The final intensity of the emergent
beam is Column-I Column-II
I
(1) Zero (2) A P OR
2
I I
(3) (4)
6 4
6. Two identical plates of different metals but with B Q AND
same area of cross-section, are joined to form a
single plate whose thickness is double the
thickness of each plate. If the coefficients of C R NAND
thermal conductivity of each plate are 4 and 3
unit respectively, then conductivity of composite
plate will be D S NOT
(1) 3.43 unit (2) 1.21 unit
(3) 3.99 unit (4) 5.21 unit
7. A slab consists of two parallel layers of copper (1) A → R, B → S, C → Q, D → P
and brass of same thickness and equal area are
(2) A → R, B → Q, C → S, D → P
having thermal conductivities in the ratio 1 : 4. If
the free face of brass is at 100°C and that of (3) A → P, B → S, C → Q, D → R
copper at 0°C, the temperature of interface is
(4) A → P, B → Q, C → R, D → S
(1) 80°C (2) 20°C
12. The force versus time graph of a body of mass
(3) 60°C (4) 40°C
18 kg is shown in figure. The velocity of the body
12 seconds after stating from rest is
(1) Nuclear forces are attractive only for all
ranges
(2) Gravitational forces are repulsive only
(3) Electromagnetic force can be attractive or
repulsive
(4) Nuclear forces are central force
9. A student of class XI have two iron rods one of
length (4.89 ± 0.01) cm and other of length (7.01
± 0.02) cm. He welded both the rods to form a
single rod. If the extra length of rod increased (1) 5 m/s (2) 10 m/s
due to welding material is (0.05 ± 0.01) cm, then
the total length of the rod will be (3) 12 m/s (4) 15 m/s
(1) (11.95 ± 0.02) cm (2) (11.95 ± 0.04) cm 13. What is the depth of lake at which the density of
(3) (11.90 ± 0.03) cm (4) (11.90 ± 0.04) cm water is 1.5% more than at the surface, if the
10. Consider the following two statements compressibility of water is 50 × 10–11 m2 N–1?
Statement A: p-type semiconductor is (1) 1.5 km (2) 2.0 km
electrically positive charged.
(3) 2.5 km (4) 3.0 km
Statement B: The conductivity of pure
germanium is given as  = nie(e + h), where ni 14. A cylinder contains 5 litre of oxygen gas at STP.
is intrinsic carrier concentration, e is electron If the cylinder is cooled by 60 K, what amount of
mobility and h is hole mobility. heat will be lost by the gas? (At S.T.P., P = 1 bar,
Choose the correct statement(s). T = 0°C)
(1) A only (2) B only (1) 240 J (2) 274.7 J
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B (3) 321.6 J (4) 156.2 J
(2)
15. If horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic field g g

is 0.36 G and dip angle is 30° at the given place, (1) (2)
3R 2R
the value of Earth’s total magnetic field is
g 2g
(1) 0.72 G (2) 0.36 3 G (3) (4)
R 3R
(3) 0.24 3 G (4) 0.18 G
22. Match the column-I with column-II for physical
16. A pure inductor of 50 mH is connected to source quantity with its SI units.
of 200 V. The frequency of the source is 60 Hz,
the amplitude of current in circuit is Column-I Column-II
(1) 10 A (2) 12 A A Angular acceleration P Js
(3) 15 A (4) 10.6 A
B Moment of inertia Q kg m2
17. One mole of monoatomic ideal gas is mixed with
3 moles of a diatomic gas. What is the molecular C Torque R rad/s2
specific heat of the mixture at constant volume?
D Angular momentum S Nm
(1) 12.5 J/mol K (2) 16.5 J/mol K
(3) 18.7 J/mol K (4) 9.6 J/mol K (1) A → R, B → Q, C → S, D → P
18. The refractive angle of a prism is A. If angle of (2) A → P, B → S, C → R, D → Q
minimum deviation is (180° – 2A) then refractive
index of the material of the prism will be (3) A → S, B → P, C → Q, D → R
 A  A (4) A → P, B → Q, C → S, D → R
(1) tan   (2) cot  
2 2 23. The frequency of a particle performing SHM is
10 Hz. Its amplitude of oscillations is 6 cm. Its
 A  A
(3) sin   (4) cos   initial displacement is 3 cm and velocity towards
2 2
positive extreme position then its equation for
19. When an object is at distances 12 cm and 4 cm displacement is
from the optical centre of a convex lens, a real
and a virtual image of same magnification are  
(1) x = 0.06sin 10t +  m
obtained. The focal length of the lens is  6 
(1) 16 cm (2) 4 cm
 
(3) 8 cm (4) 6 cm (2) x = 0.06sin  20t +  m
 6 
20. The radius of a coil decreases steadily at the rate
of 2 × 10–3 m/s. A constant and uniform magnetic  
(3) x = 0.06sin  40t +  m
field of induction 10–4
Wb
acts perpendicular to  4
m2
 
the plane of the coil. The radius of the coil when (4) x = 0.06sin  20t +  m
the induced emf of the coil is 2 V is  4
2 5 24. Displacement time graph of a particle moving in a
(1)   m (2)   m
  straight line is shown in the figure below. Then
3 4
(3)   m (4)   m
 
21. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R starts
falling under gravity at t = 0 as shown in figure. If
the mass of chord is negligible and there is no
slipping of chord on cylinder, the angular
acceleration of the cylinder will be
(1) In region A, acceleration is negative
(2) In region B, acceleration is negative
(3) In region C, acceleration is non zero
(4) In region D, acceleration is non zero
(3)
25. A and B are two soap bubbles. Bubble A is larger

than B in size. If these two bubbles are now
joined by a narrow tube, then
(1) Bubble A becomes more large
(2) Bubble B becomes more large
(3) Both the bubbles acquire same size (1) 10 m (2) 20 m
(4) Both the bubbles will get bursted (3) 30 m (4) 40 m
26. A charge q is placed at the centre of cubical 30. Four identical masses are kept at corners and
vessel (with one face open) as shown in figure. centroid of an equilateral triangle as shown in
The flux of electric field through the complete figure. Then which particle among the following
vessel is particles is in equilibrium?
q 5q
(1) (2)
60 0
5q q (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) (4)
60 40 (3) 3 (4) 4
27. Resistance of a wire at temperature t°C is 31. Figure shows a string of linear mass density
R = R0(1 + 2t + 3t2). Here R0 is the resistance at 2 kg m–1 on which a wave pulse is travelling.
0°C. The temperature coefficient of resistance at Find time taken by pulse in travelling a distance
temperature t is of 4 m on the string. (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) (2 + 6t) (2) Constant
 1 + 3t   2 + 6t 
(3)   (4)  
 1 + 2t + 3t 2   1 + 2t + 3t 2 
28. The value of current ‘i’ in the part of circuit shown
in the figure is
(1) 2 10 s (2) 3 10 s
(3) 1.26 s (4) 2.3 s
32. Consider a transverse wave propagating as
Y = 10 mm sin[(2 cm–1) x – (50 s–1)t]. The time
period and linear wave number of wave
respectively are
 
(1) s, 1 cm–1 (2) s, 2 cm–1
30 40
(1) 8 A (2) 12 A  1 
(3) s, cm–1 (4) s, 2 cm–1
(3) 16 A (4) 4 A 25  30
29. A drone flying horizontally at height 20 m with 33. In which of the following transition, in hydrogen
velocity 10 m s–1 has to hit stationary enemy atom, will the wavelength of emitted photon be
target. At what horizontal distance H before maximum?
target should the drone drop the bomb so as to (1) n = 5 to n = 4 (2) n = 4 to n = 3
hit the target? (g = 10 m s–2) (3) n = 3 to n = 2 (4) n = 2 to n = 1
(4)
34. The half life of a radioactive nuclide is 30 hr. 38. A transistor is used in common emitter
What fraction of original activity will remain after configuration. If  = 100 and VBE = 0.7 V, then for
60 hr? the given amplifier (in figure) the co-ordinates of
(1) One-third (2) Half operating point (VCE, Ic) is
(3) One-fourth (4) One-sixth
35. A square loop of side length 25 cm is partially
hanged in magnetic field of 4 T by an insulated
pan of a spring balance as shown. The loop
carries an anti-clock wise current of 4 A. Find the
increase in tension of spring if direction of current
is reversed in the loop.
(1) (5 V, 5 mA)
(2) (7 V, 5 mA)
(3) (7 V, 0.05 mA)
(4) (4.3 V, 0.05 mA)
39. The parallax of a far off planet, measured from
two diametric extremes on equator of the earth is
(1) 4 N (2) 6 N 1 minute. If radius of earth is 6400 km, then the
(3) 8 N (4) 10 N distance of planet from earth is
(1) 2.2 × 1010 m
SECTION-B
(2) 1.1 × 1010 m
36. Two identical discs ‘A’ & ‘B’ collides elastically (3) 4.4 × 1010 m
such that disc ‘A’ hits disc ‘B’, which was at rest,
while moving in a straight line as shown in figure. (4) 5.5 × 1010 m
40. For the shown situation in figure, how much time
block A will take lining up with front face of B?
(g = 10 m s–2)
(mA = 1 kg and mB = 2 kg &  = 0.2)
If radius of each disc is R, then speed of disc A
and disc B after collision are respectively
2V0 V0 V0 2V0
(1) and (2) and
3 3 3 3
V0 2 2V0
(3) and (4) 0 and V0
3 3
(1) 0.2 s (2) 0.3 s
37. A beam of light contains two wavelengths
(3) 0.6 s (4) 0.9 s
4000 nm and 6000 nm. The beam is used to
obtain interference fringes in Young’s double slit 41. A monoatomic gas at pressure P and volume V is
experiment. The distance between the slits is expanded adiabatically to volume 8V. Final
2 mm and the distance of screen from the slit pressure is
plane is 100 cm. What is the least distance from
P P
central maximum where the bright band due to (1) (2)
32 16
both wavelengths coincide?
(1) 2 mm (2) 3 mm P
(3) (4) P
(3) 5 mm (4) 6 mm 8
(5)
42. A series LCR circuit is shown in figure below 46. A physicist wants to eject electrons by making
light incident on a metal surface. If wavelength of
light is 600 nm, then which of the following metal
will produce most energetic electrons (work
function of lithium & tungsten is 2.3 eV, 2.5 eV
respectively)?
(1) Lithium (2) Tungsten
The correctly matched row for the given
parameters are (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2)
S. Value Resonance Inductive Average 47. The equation of equipotential line in an electric
No of R frequency reactance power field is y = 4x, then electric field vector at (1, 4)
consumption
may be
A 2 100 Hz 2 5 kW
(1) 4iˆ + 3 jˆ (2) 4iˆ + 4 ˆj
B 4 50 Hz 2 400 W
C 6 200 Hz 4 4 kW (3) –8iˆ + 2 ˆj (4) –8iˆ + 4 jˆ

D 4 100 Hz 2 10 kW 48. A syringe having area ‘A’ of its cylindrical portion
(1) A (2) B is fitted with a plunger. Area of orifice at the front
(3) D (4) C end of the syringe is ‘a’. What should be the
43. A boy of mass 40 kg is running with a velocity of value of force ‘F’ applied on plunger so that liquid
2 m/s on ground just tangentially to a merry-go- (density, ) comes out of syringe with speed ‘v’?
round at rest, which has radius R = 2 m, mass (All contacts are frictionless and air inside the
100 kg and radius of gyration 1 m. If the boy syringe is at atmospheric pressure)
suddenly jumps on to the merry-go-round and
sits on it, the angular velocity acquired by the
system is
8 8
(1) rad/s (2) rad/s 1  a2 
5 13 (1) F = Av 2  1– 2 

2  A 
5 5
(3) rad/s (4) rad/s
13 8 1  a2 
(2) F = av 2  1– 2 

44. An astronomical telescope has large aperture to 2  A 
(1) Reduce spherical aberration
(2) Have high resolving power v 2
(3) F =
(3) Increase span of observation 2A
(4) Have low dispersion 1   A 2 
45. In the circuit shown, if a wire is connected (4) F = Av 2  1–   
2  a 
between points A and B. Current through wire AB  
is 49. A conducting wire shaped in form of regular
hexagon of side 4 cm carries a current of 4 A.
Find magnetic field at centre of hexagon.
(1) 4 3  10 –5 T (2) 6 3  10 –5 T
(3) 8 3  10 –5 T (4) 2 2  10 –5 T
50. Two particles A and B of masses 2 kg and 4 kg
respectively are kept 1 m apart, are released to
move under the mutual gravitational force of
10 10 attraction. The separation between both the
(1) A from A to B (2) A from B to A
3 3 particles when speed of B is 10–5 m/s, is
20 20 (1) 0.8 m (2) 0.6 m
(3) A from A to B (4) A from B to A
3 3 (3) 0.47 m (4) 0.125 m
(6)
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 59. The given reaction is called
51. The strength of ‘10 volume’ solution of Hydrogen
peroxide is nearly
(1) 35 g/L (2) 45 g/L
(3) 30 g/L (4) 40 g/L
(1) Wolff-Kishner reduction
52. In the metallurgy of silver and gold, the
respective metal is leached with a dilute solution (2) Clemmensen reduction
of NaCN or KCN in the presence of (3) Stephen reaction
(1) O2 (2) N2 (4) Etard reaction
(3) H2 (4) Cl2 60. Pernicious anaemia is caused by the deficiency
53. The oxidation state of central carbon atom in of
C3O2 is (1) Vitamin B6 (2) Vitamin B1
(1) +2 (2) 0 (3) Vitamin B2 (4) Vitamin B12
(3) +4 (4) +3 61. Which among the following ligand has highest
54. Excess of potassium makes KCl crystals violet field strength?
due to (1) H2O (2) CO
(1) Frenkel defect
(3) OH– (4) en
(2) Schottky defect
62. 1 mol of an ideal gas expanded reversibly from
(3) Metal deficiency defect 10 L to 100 L at 27°C. Work done involved in the
(4) Metal excess defect process is
55. If the molar conductivity of 10–3 M HA is 39 S cm2 (1) –11.5 kJ (2) –5.74 kJ
mol–1, then its dissociation constant will be
(3) –57.4 kJ (4) –109.8 kJ

[Given: m (HA) = 390 S cm2 mol–1] 63. Ratio of time taken for 99.9% and 99%
(1) 10–7 M (2) 10–6 M completion of a first order reaction is
(3) 10–8 M (4) 10–5 M 2 10
(1) (2)
56. The formula of compound formed by two 1 1
elements A and B if they form cubic solid in
3 9
which atoms of A are at the corners of cube and (3) (4)
2 1
B are at the body centre, will be
64. Molar solubility of Zn(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH
(1) A2B (2) AB
solution is (Ksp Zn(OH)2 = 1 × 10–15)
(3) AB2 (4) A2B3
(1) 10–9 M (2) 10–13 M
57. Which among the following is yellow coloured
(3) 10–14 M (4) 10–15 M
species?
65. Correct order of bond order is
(1) [Fe(SCN)]2+ (2) (NH4)3PO4·12MoO3
(3) PbS (4) [Fe(CN)5NOS]4– (1) O2  O2−  O2+ (2) O2−  O2  O2+
58. Which compound on reductive ozonolysis gives
(3) O2+  O2  O2− (4) O2  O2+  O2−
propanone as one of the product?
66. Which of the following does not depend upon
(1) (2) charge on colloidal particle?
(1) Electrophoresis (2) Peptization
(3) (4) (3) Tyndall effect (4) Coagulation
(7)
67. Number of significant figures in 2140 pencils are 72. Which of the following graph is not according to
(1) 3 (2) 4 Boyle’s law?
(3) Infinite (4) 2
68. Molarity of 6% (w/v) glucose solution will be
(1) (2)
M
(1) 1 M (2)
3
M M
(3) (4)
4 6
69. Which of the following is not true for a solution
that shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law?
(3) (4)
(1) mixH < 0 (2) mixV < 0
(3) mixG < 0 (4) mixS < 0
70. Which of the following alkyl halides is most
reactive towards SN1 reaction?
(1) CH3 = CH – CH2 – Cl 73. Which of the following elements will have the
highest number of unpaired electrons in ground
state?
(2)
(1) Cr (2) Mn
(3) V (4) Fe
(3) 74. Consider the following statements
I. TeO2 is an oxidising agent.
II. TeF4 is solid while SeF4 is liquid.
(4)
III. Hybridization of S in SF4 is sp3d.
Correct statements among the following are
71. (1) I and II (2) I and III
(3) II and III (4) I, II and III
Organic compounds (A) and (B) formed in the 75. Which of the following oxoacids of phosphorus
above reaction sequence are respectively
has maximum number of P – OH bonds?
(1) Phosphinic acid
(1) (2) Phosphonic acid
(3) Orthophosphoric acid
(4) Pyrophosphorous acid
(2) 76. Propan-2-one on reaction with methyl

magnesium bromide followed by hydrolysis gives
(1) Butan-1-ol
(2) 2-methylpropan-2-ol
(3) (3) 2-methylpropanol
(4) Butan-2-ol
77. Electrophile involved in the Reimer Tiemann
reaction is
(4)
(1) :CHCl2 (2) :CCl2
(3) :CCl3 (4) CO2
(8)
78. Which of the following pairs of compounds can SECTION-B

be distinguished using isocyanide test? 86. For the balanced redox reaction,
xMnO−4 (aq.) + yI− (aq.) + zH2O(l) → MnO2(s) + I2(s)
(1)
+ OH–(aq.), the coefficient x, y and z respectively
are
(2) (1) 2, 4 and 6 (2) 1, 2 and 4
(3) 2, 3 and 6 (4) 2, 6 and 4
(3) (CH3CH2)2NH and (CH3CH2)3N
87. During the electrolysis of dilute sulphuric acid
using inert electrodes the product obtained at
(4)
anode is
79. Polyester among the following is (1) SO2(g) (2) O2(g)

(3) H2(g) (4) SO3(g)
(1) Nylon 6,6 (2) Nylon-6
88. The species which does not show
(3) Teflon (4) Dacron hyperconjugation is
80. Norethindrone is a/an
(1) Antifertility drug (2) Tranquilizer (1) (2)
(3) Antibiotic (4) Analgesic
81. The correct relation for Heisenberg’s uncertainty
principle is represented by
h h (3) (4)
(1) x  p x  (2) x  p x 
4 2
h h
(3) x  p x  (4) x  p x 
2 4 89. Consider the following statements
82. The correct order of decreasing ionic size is a. Cyclopentadienyl anion is aromatic in nature.
(1) N3– > F– > Mg2+ (2) Na+ > F– > O2– b. Pyrole is a heterocyclic aromatic compound.
c. Naphthalene and anthracene contain 14 and
(3) F– > O2– > Na+ (4) Mg2+ > N3– > F–
10  electrons respectively.
83. Which among the following does not give flame
test?
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a) only
(1) Mg (2) Ca
(3) (b) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Sr (4) Ba 90. Consider the following reaction sequence
84. Lewis acidity of boron halides decreases in the
sequence
(1) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 (2) BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
(3) BF3 > BBr3 > BCl3 (4) BBr3 > BF3 > BCl3
Product B formed is a/an
85. The incorrect statement regarding photochemical
(1) Ether (2) Acetal
smog is
(3) Ester (4) Ketal
(1) It occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate
91. Which among the following complexes shows
(2) It is mixture of smoke, fog and sulphur optical isomerism?
dioxide (1) [Pt(NH3)2ClBr]
(3) Nitrogen oxides produced from automobiles (2) [Pt(NH3)(H2O)(Cl)(Br)]
and factories contributes in it (3) [Co(en)3]Cl3
(4) It is also called as oxidising smog (4) [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4
(9)
92. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and XY 97. If 10 g He diffuses from a tiny hole in 2 s, then
are in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 4. H for the formation of amount of SO2 diffused from same tiny hole in
XY is –450 kJ mol–1. The bond dissociation 5 s at same temperature and pressure conditions
energy of X2 will be will be
(1) 50 g (2) 100 g
(1) 400 kJ mol–1
(3) 1.56 g (4) 40 g
(2) 900 kJ mol–1
98. Most basic compound among the following is
(3) 300 kJ mol–1
(1) N-ethylethanamine
(4) 150 kJ mol–1
(2) Benzenamine
93. Shape of ICl3 molecule is
(1) Pyramidal (4) N, N-Dimethylaniline
(2) Trigonal planar 99. Statement-I : Salts of lithium are mostly
(3) Tetrahedral hydrated.
(4) Bent T-shape Statement-II : Hydration enthalpy increases with
decrease in ionic sizes of cations.
94. Which of the following pair can act as a buffer
solution? In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) NaOH + HCl
(2) NaOH + CH3COONa correct
(3) CH3COOH + HCl (2) Both statements-I and II are correct
(4) CH3COONa + CH3COOH (3) Both statements-I and II are incorrect
95. Unit of rate constant for a zero order reaction is (4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
incorrect
(1) s–1 (2) mol L–1 s–1
100. The total number of electrons that can be
(3) L mol–1 s–1 (4) L2 mol–2 s–1
accommodate in an orbital having n = 2 and l = 1
96. Positively charged sol among the following is is
(1) TiO2 sol (2) Ag sol (1) 14 (2) 10
(3) As2S3 sol (4) Gum (3) 6 (4) 2
BOTANY
SECTION-A (3) The reduced ubiquinone is then oxidised by
101. Self-consciousness is a characteristics feature transferring its electrons to complex II
not the defining, because (4) It is found in the matrix of the mitochondria
(1) It is seen in non-living objects too 104. The major advantage of producing plants by
(2) It is not seen in all living organisms micropropagation is that
(3) It is seen in all mammals only (1) A large number of plants can be propagated
in very short duration.
(4) It cannot be seen in multicellular forms
(2) Genetically different plants can be produced
102. Mark the correctly written scientific name of
mango. (3) Without use of hormones, plants can be
produced
(1) Mangifera Indica (2) Mangifera indica
(4) Commercially important vegetables or fruits
(3) mangifera indica (4) mangifera Indica
can be produced which are genetically
103. Select the correct statement about ubiquinone of different from parent plant.
electron transport system of mitochondria.
105. All of the given factors may increase the
(1) It receives reducing equivalents via FADH2. population density of an area, except
(2) It transfers electrons to NADH (1) Food availability (2) Natality
dehydrogenase (complex I) (3) Emigration (4) Immigration
(10)
106. The organisms present at first trophic level in a 114. In DNA replication, DNA unwinds to form two
pond are strands: the leading strand and the lagging
(1) Phytoplanktons (2) Zooplanktons strand.
(3) Fishes (4) Birds Which of the following statements about these
strands is true?
107. Which of the following statement is incorrect
(1) The leading strand is formed on template
w.r.t. hydroponics?
with polarity 3 → 5
(1) It was first demonstrated by Julius von Sachs
(2) The lagging strand can only be synthesized
(2) It controls soil borne pathogens once the leading strand has been completed
(3) It is used for commercial production of (3) The lagging strand of DNA is synthesized
seedless cucumber, lettuce continuously
(4) It does not help in identifying the deficiency (4) The leading strand requires DNA ligase
symptoms of an essential element during its formation on template DNA.
108. Which of the following represents the correct 115. The smallest unicellular organism
relationship between s, p and w? (1) Is a eukaryote
(1) w = s + p (2) w = s – p (2) Has cellulosic cell wall
 s + p (3) Does not have cell organelles
(3)  w = (4) w = s × p
2 (4) Has both DNA and RNA
109. Which among the following shows isogamous as 116. Which of the following is/are present in cytidine?
well as anisogamous type of reproduction? (A) Cytosine (B) Hydrogen bond
(1) Volvox (2) Fucus (C) Deoxyribose sugar (D) N-glycosidic linkage
(3) Chlamydomonas (4) Spirogyra (1) A only (2) A, C and D
110. Stored food in Porphyra is (3) A and D (4) A, B and D
(1) Floridean starch 117. In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase is not found in
which of the given organelles?
(2) Starch
(1) Mitochondria (2) Golgi apparatus
(3) Mannitol
(3) Nucleus (4) Chloroplast
(4) Laminarin
111. Which of the following statement is not correct
w.r.t. G1 phase of cell cycle? (1) Amyloplast – Stores starch
(1) Cell does not replicate its DNA (2) Stroma – Space enclosed between
(2) Cell synthesizes nucleotides, ATP, protein, outer and inner membrane
amino acids, RNA of chloroplast
(3) Synthesis of tubulin protein takes place (3) Thylakoid – Flattened membranous sac
(4) Duplication of most of the cell organelles (4) Chromoplast – Has fat soluble pigments
occur in this phase
119. The IUCN red list (2004) documents the recent
112. The best stage to study shape of chromosomes extinction of steller’s sea cow from
is (1) Mauritius (2) Africa
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase (3) Austria (4) Russia
(3) Telophase (4) Anaphase 120. Smaller sub-unit of ribosome associated with
113. Which of the given is both reactant as well as mitochondria and rough endoplasmic reticulum
product in various stages of Calvin cycle? are of
(1) 3-phosphoglycerate (1) 60S
(2) CO2 (2) 30S
(3) NADPH (3) 30S and 40S respectively
(4) ATP (4) 50S and 60S respectively
(11)
121. In which among the given organisms of an 129. How many chromosomes are present in the
aquatic food chain, biomagnification of heavy gamete of fruit fly?
metals would be least? (1) Eight (2) Fourteen
(1) Fish eating birds (2) Zooplankton (3) Twenty (4) Four
(3) Small fish (4) Large fish 130. In a given typical dicot embryo diagram, select
122. In Whittaker’s classification system saprophytic the correct option for labelling A-D.
organisms are not included in the kingdom
(1) Monera (2) Animalia
(3) Fungi (4) Plantae
123. Chemosynthetic autotrophs
(1) Play great role in recycling of nutrients
(2) Are found in Kingdom Protista
(3) Fix nitrogen in legume plants A B C D
(4) Have heterocysts
(1) Hypocotyl Cotyledons Plumule Radicle
124. Mark the wrongly matched pair.
(2) Plumule Cotyledons Hypocotyl Radicle
(1) Trichoderma – Meiospores are exogenously
(3) Epicotyl Scutellum Radicle Hypocotyl
produced
(2) Albugo – Parasite on mustard (4) Plumule Scutellum Hypocotyl Root cap
(3) Ustilago – Branched and septate mycelium 131. Match the following column I with column II and
(4) Aspergillus – Ascus is the site of meiosis select the correct option
125. A single gene can exhibit multiple phenotypic Column I Column II

expressions. Select the incorrect statement for
A. Clostridium (i) Acetic acid
this gene.
(1) It is pleiotropic gene B. Aspergillus (ii) Ethanol
(2) It can affect multiple metabolic pathways C. Acetobacter (iii) Butyric acid
(3) It has more than two alleles D. Saccharomyces (iv) Citric acid
(4) Mutation of a gene that codes for the enzyme
A B C D
phenylalanine hydroxylase can show
pleiotropy (1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
126. Term recombination was given by (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(1) Sturtevant (2) Morgan (3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) Mendel (4) Punnett (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
127. In birds 132. The structure which cannot be seen in mature
(1) Males are heterogametic sugarcane plant is
(2) Egg decides sex of progeny (1) Axillary bud (2) Primary root
(3) Egg has one chromosome less than the (3) Node (4) Expanded leaf base
sperm 133. Select the option which is not true for the plant
(4) Males produce two different types of sperms that has following floral formula.

(1) Ethylene – Effective in fruit ripening (1) Anther is dithecous
(2) Auxin – Used to induce Parthenocarpy (2) Corolla is polypetalous
(3) Abscisic acid – Promote seed germination (3) Phyllotaxy alternate
(4) Gibberellins – Acidic in nature (4) Leaves exstipulate with parallel venation
(12)
134. On the basis of following characteristic, identify A B C D

the plant tissue.
(1) T T T T
• Elastic, living and mechanical.
• Lacks intercellular space. (2) F T F T
• Cell corners are thickened with cellulose, (3) F T F F
hemicellulose and pectin
(4) T T F T
(1) Sclerenchyma
(2) Epiblema 138. As the exhaust passes through the catalytic
converter, carbon monoxide and nitric oxide
(3) Collenchyma
respectively are converted to
(4) Parenchyma
(1) Carbon dioxide and water
135. Identify the false statement w.r.t. angiosperms.
(2) Carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas
(1) Conjoint vascular bundles are present in
dicot stem (3) Water and nitrogen gas
(2) Casparian strips are present in pericycle of (4) Carbon dioxide and nitrous oxide
dicot root 139. Read the following statements and select the
(3) Conjunctive tissue in dicot root is correct option.
parenchymatous Statement A: Desert lizards lack the
(4) Vascular bundles of monocot stem have physiological ability to deal with the high
water containing cavities temperatures of their habitat.
SECTION-B Statement B: Some species are capable of

burrowing into the soil to hide and escape from
136. Which of the following correctly represents the the above ground heat.
DNA replication enzyme with its function? (1) Only statement A is correct
(1) DNA polymerase I opens up the DNA at the (2) Only statement B is correct
replication fork
(2) Helicase seals gap between DNA fragments
(3) DNA primase extends primers by adding
nucleotides at 3 end 140. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(4) Topoisomerase functions ahead of the (1) Pyramid of biomass in aquatic ecosystem
replication fork to prevent supercoiling may be inverted
137. Read the given statements stating them true (T) (2) Energy content gradually decreases from first
or false (F) and select the correct option. to fourth trophic level
(A) The Evil quartet describes four major causes (3) Pyramid of biomass in tree ecosystem is
of biodiversity loss. inverted
(B) The most dramatic examples of habitat loss (4) Pyramid of number in grassland ecosystem is
come from tropical rain forests upright
(C) In Rajasthan, the sacred groves are the last 141. The natural classification system
refuge for a large number of rare and
threatened plants (1) Is based mainly on the androecium structure
(D) The historic convention on Biological (2) Was given by Linnaeus

Diversity (‘The Earth Summit) held in Rio de (3) Gave equal weightage to vegetative and
Janeiro in 1992, called upon all nations to sexual characteristics
take appropriate measures for conservation
(4) Considers external as well as internal
of biodiversity and sustainable utilisation of
features
its benefits.
(13)
142. Read the following statements and mark True (T) 147. Which biocontrol agent is used to get rid of
or false (F). mosquitoes?
(A) Diffusion is the only means for gaseous (1) Dragonflies (2) Ladybird
movement within plant body. (3) Trichoderma (4) B. thuringiensis
(B) Diffusion rate is not affected by the 148. The following diagram represents the aestivation
permeability of the membrane separating of corolla. Which option is correct regarding the
them. type and example of this aestivation?
(C) Diffusion is a fast process and is dependent
on a ‘living system’.
A B C
(1) F F T
(2) T F F
(3) T T F
(1) Imbricate – Cassia
(4) F T T
(2) Twisted – China rose
143. Euglenoids
(3) Vexillary – Bean
(1) Are majorly found in marine environment
(4) Valvate – Calotropis
(2) Have cell wall
149. The component of primary tissue in dicot plant
(3) Have pigments identical to those of green that is not a part of bark is
plants
(1) Cortex (2) Phloem
(4) Are multicellular eukaryotes
(3) Xylem (4) Pericycle
144. A heterozygous round seeded pea plant is
crossed with wrinkled seeded pea plant. Identify 150. Match the following columns and select the
the correct option w.r.t. above given cross. correct option.
(1) All progeny will be with round seeds Column I Column II

(2) 50% progenies will have round seed with A. Mesosomes (i) Help to attach
intermediate size starch grains the bacteria
(3) All progeny will be round seeded and long with host
starch grains tissues
(4) 50% progeny will be wrinkled seeded and B. Fimbriae (ii) Helps in DNA
with intermediate size starch grains replication
145. Which among the following chemical can be used
C. Flagella (iii) Contain
to break seed dormancy?
pigments for
(1) Phenolic acid (2) Nitrates photosynthesis
(3) Abscisic acid (4) Para-ascorbic acid
D. Chromatophores (iv) Have filament,
146. Triploid Primary Endosperm nucleus is formed hook and
when basal body
(1) Syngamy occurs during double fertilization.
A B C D
(2) Male gamete fuses with only one polar nuclei
located in central cell (1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(3) Male gamete fuses with two polar nuclei (2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
located in central cell
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) Male gamete fuses with two polar nuclei
located in antipodal cells (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
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ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 156. Which of the following statements is not a
connotation of the theory of special creation?
151. The vital link that ensures continuity of species (1) All living organisms that we see today were
between organisms of one generation and the created as such.
next is
(2) Diversity was always the same since creation
(1) Ootid (2) Zygote and will be same in future also.
(3) Sperm (4) Embryo (3) Earth is about 4000 years old.
152. Choose the incorrect statement. (4) Fitness refers ultimately and only to
reproductive fitness.
(1) Embryonal protection and care are better in
157. Choose the incorrect match.
viviparous organisms.
(1) Vertebrate hearts – Homology
(2) In both plants and animals, embryo is
progenitor of next generation. (2) Thorns of Bougainvillea – Divergent
and tendrils of Cucurbita evolution
(3) Reproduction enables continuity of the
species, generation after generation. (3) Sweet potato and potato – Convergent
evolution
(4) The most vital event of sexual reproduction is
gametogenesis. (4) Bones of forelimbs in – Analogy
whale and bat
153. Which of the following is not a component of
seminal plasma? 158. Intestinal perforation and death may occur in
severe cases of
(1) Fructose (2) Sperms
(1) Typhoid fever (2) Pneumonia
(3) Enzymes (4) Calcium (3) Ascariasis (4) Malaria
154. Assertion (A): Scientifically it is correct to say 159. Complete the analogy w.r.t drugs and their
that the sex of the baby is determined by the effects.
father and not by the mother. CNS depressant : Heroin : : CNS stimulant :
Reason (R): All ova produced by female have _____
the sex chromosome X whereas in sperms sex (1) Morphine (2) Smack
chromosomes could be either X or Y.
(3) Barbiturate (4) Cocaine
In the light of above statements, choose the 160. Following are the statements about MOET.
correct answer from the options given below. (a) It is a programme for herd improvement in
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true short time.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the (b) Hormones with FSH-like activity are
correct explanation of (A) administered in cattle to induce follicular
maturation and superovulation.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the (c) The cattle is only artificially inseminated with
correct explanation of (A) the semen collected from an elite bull.
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false (d) The fertilised eggs at 8-32 cells stages are
155. All of the following reasons are probably recovered non-surgically and transferred to
responsible for population explosion in India surrogate mothers.
except a rapid decline in Choose the correct answer from the options
given below.
(1) Death rate
(1) a, b and c are correct
(2) Maternal mortality rate
(2) b, c and d are correct
(3) Infant mortality rate (3) a, b and d are correct
(4) Number of people in reproducible age (4) a, c and d are correct
(15)
161. Which of the following is not a critical research 167. Read the following statements A and B and
area of biotechnology? choose the correct answer from the following
(1) Providing the best catalyst in the form of given options.
improved organism usually a microbe or pure Statement A: The intercellular material of
enzyme. cartilage is solid and pliable and resist
compression.
(2) Creating optimal conditions through
engineering for a catalyst to act. Statement B: Bones have a hard and non-pliable
matrix rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres.
(3) In vivo fertilisation and embryo transfer to
assist those females who can conceive but
cannot produce ovum (2) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Downstream processing technologies to (3) Only statement B is correct

purify protein/organic compound. (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
162. After gel electrophoresis, the separated DNA 168. Match the following:
fragments can by visualized only after staining List-I List-II
the DNA with a compound known as _______.
a. Euspongia (i) Hookworm
b. Meandrina (ii) Filarial worm
(1) Ethidium bromide followed by exposure to
visible light c. Wuchereria (iii) Brain coral
(2) Chromogenic substrate followed by exposure d. Ancylostoma (iv) Bath sponge

to gamma-rays Choose the correct answer from the options
(3) Chromogenic substrate followed by exposure given below.
to X-rays (1) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(4) Ethidium bromide followed by exposure to (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
UV radiation 169. The variable R group in amino acid serine is
163. The non-chordate animal which has closed type (1) Hydrogen (2) Methyl
circulation is
(3) Hydroxyl (4) Hydroxy methyl
(1) Pheretima (2) Periplaneta 170. Match column-I with column-II and choose the
(3) Saccoglossus (4) Branchiostoma correct answer from the options given below.
164. Select the correct match. Column-I Column-II
(1) Torpedo – Poison sting a. Collagen (i) Fights infectious agents
(2) Exocoetus – Marine bony fish
b. Haem (ii) Intercellular ground
(3) Hippocampus – Sea hare substance
(4) Carcharodon – Presence of air bladder c. Antibody (iii) Prosthetic group of
165. In pBR322, the number 322 depicts enzyme peroxidase
(1) Number of ori d. NADP (iv) Contains the vitamin
(2) Number of selectable marker niacin
(3) Distinguishes from other vectors developed (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
in the same laboratory (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(4) Size of the plasmid 171. An adult human has
166. What is the ratio of numbers of spermathecae (1) 20 milk teeth
found in earthworm and cockroach? (2) 12 deciduous teeth
(1) 2 : 4 (2) 1 : 6 (3) Only 20 permanent teeth
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 8 : 1 (4) 32 permanent teeth
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172. Statement I: Living state is a non-equilibrium 177. Select the incorrect match.
steady-state to be able to perform work.
(1) Planaria – Protonephridia
Statement II: The living state and metabolism
are synonymous. Without metabolism there (2) Pheretima – Nephridia
cannot be a living state. (3) Periplaneta – Malpighian tubules
correct answer from the options given below. (4) Ascaris – Flame cells
(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is 178. Choose the correct statement w.r.t humans.
correct (1) The first step in urine formation is filtration of
(2) Both statement I and statement II are correct blood which is carried out by malpighian
(3) Both statement I and statement II are tubules.
incorrect (2) Roughly 1/5th of blood pumped out by each
(4) Statement I is correct but statement II is ventricle of the heart in a minute is filtered by
incorrect the kidneys per minute.
173. Which of the following is not the function of (3) The glomerular capillary blood pressure
conducting part of respiratory system in humans? causes filtration of blood through 3 cellular
(1) Transports atmospheric air to the alveoli layers.
(2) Clears air of foreign particles (4) Capillary pores present in glomerulus are
actually responsible for filtration and called
(3) Site of actual diffusion of O2 and CO2
filtration slits or slit pores.
(4) Humidifies and also brings the air to body
temperature 179. A perfect coordinated activity of all of the
following systems are required for locomotion
except
(1) pCO2 of atmospheric air – 0.3 mmHg
(1) Muscular system (2) Skeletal system
(2) pO2 of blood in pulmonary veins – 40 mmHg
(3) Neural system (4) Excretory system
(3) PO2 of blood in aorta – 95 mmHg
180. Cerebral aqueduct is a
(4) pO2 of alveolar air – 104 mmHg
(1) Canal in cerebrum
(2) Round swelling in midbrain
(a) All chordates and a few non-chordates have
a closed circulatory system. (3) Canal in midbrain
(b) SAN sets the pace of activities of the heart. (4) Ventricle in midbrain
(c) The cardiac cycle is formed by sequential 181. Match column-I with column-II and choose the
events in the heart which is cyclically correct answer from the following given options.
repeated. Column-I Column-II
(d) The electrical activity of the heart can be
a. Myasthenia (i) Decreased bone mass
recorded from the body surface by using gravis and increased chances of
electrocardiogram and the recording is called fractures
electrocardiography.
b. Muscular (ii) Auto-immune disorder
Choose the option representing correct
dystrophy affecting neuromuscular
statements only. junction
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
c. Osteoporosis (iii) Rapid spasms in muscles
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (d) due to low Ca+2 in body
176. Choose the correct option to complete the fluid
analogy.
d. Tetany (iv) Progressive degeneration
Eosinophils : Resist infections : Platelets : _____ of skeletal muscles
(1) Form megakaryocytes mostly due to genetic
disorder
(2) Help in coagulation of blood
(3) Contract heart (1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(4) Gas transport (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(17)
182. Read the following statements A and B and

A B C
choose the correct answer from the options
given below. (1) Pituitary Adrenaline Pupilary dilation
Statement A: The membranous labyrinth is filled gland
with a fluid called endolymph surrounded by a (2) Corpus Androgens Piloerection
series of channels filled with perilymph. luteum
Statement B: The waves in the lymph induce a (3) Placenta Adrenaline Vasoconstriction
ripple in basilar membrane that bend the hair
cells present on tectorial membrane to generate (4) Corpus Aldosterone Increase
impulse. luteum alertness

SECTION-B
(3) Both statements A and B are incorrect 186. Which of the following structures is considered as
(4) Only statement B is correct structural and functional unit between developing
183. Which of the given statements is incorrect? embryo (foetus) and maternal body?
(1) Sterilisation procedure in the males as well (1) Zygote
as in females affect the hormonal level as
(2) Placenta
well as gamete formation.
(3) Blastocyst
(2) In periodic abstinence, the couples should
avoid or abstain from coitus from day 10 to (4) Mammary glands
17 of the menstrual cycle. 187. All of the following are grounds for medical
(3) Hormonal pills inhibit ovulation as well as termination of pregnancies except
alter the uterine endometrium.
(1) The continuation of pregnancy would involve
(4) The mode of action of implants is similar to
a risk to the life of pregnant women.
that of pills and their effective periods are
much longer in comparison to pills. (2) Continuation of the pregnancy involves a risk
184. Select the set of organs which secrete hormones of grave injury to physical or mental health of
but are not considered as organized endocrine child.
bodies. (3) A female is carrying female foetus in her
(1) Pituitary gland, pineal gland and thyroid womb.
gland (4) Substantial risk that if the child were born, it
(2) Parathyroid gland, thymus and adrenal gland would suffer from such abnormalities as to be
(3) Liver, kidneys and heart seriously handicapped.
(4) Testis, ovary and pineal gland 188. Which of the following set of mammals does not
185. Given below is an incomplete table about certain exhibit convergent evolution?
hormones, their source glands and one of their
(1) Lemur and Spotted cuscus
major effects on the body in humans.
(2) Anteater and Numbat
Identify the correct option for the three blanks A,
B and C. (3) Flying squirrel and Flying phalanger
Gland Secretion Effect on body (4) Wombat and Koala
(A) Progesterone Supports pregnancy 189. Genetically modified plants are useful in all of the
following ways except
Adrenal (B) Anabolic effects on (1) Crops are more tolerant to abiotic stresses
cortex protein and
carbohydrate (2) Decreased efficiency of mineral usage by
metabolism plants
Adrenal Adrenaline (C) (3) Reduced reliance on chemical pesticides

medulla (4) Reduced post harvest losses
(18)
190. Which of the following diseases given in the box 194. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t human
are viral as well as vector-borne diseases? digestive system.
(1) Threadworm is a parasite in human’s
Malaria, Elephantiasis, Typhoid, Chikungunya,
intestine.
Dengue fever, Taeniasis, Ascariasis, Ringworm,
Amoebic dysentery (2) Absorption of glucose in small intestine takes
place by active transport mechanism.
(1) Malaria, amoebic dysentery and chikungunya (3) The digestive wastes, solidified into coherent
(2) Malaria, elephantiasis and dengue faeces in the colon initiate a neural reflex
(3) Dengue and chikungunya causing an urge for its removal.
(4) Taeniasis, ascariasis and typhoid (4) In constipation, the faeces are retained in
colon as the bowel movements occur
191. Which of the following animal is triploblastic irregularly.
pseudocoelomate?
195. Match items in column-I with those in column-II
(1) Fasciola and choose the correct answer from the
(2) Pheretima following given options.
(3) Wuchereria Column I Column II
(4) Ctenoplana a. Respiratory (i) EC – TV
192. Following are the statements about amphibians. minute volume
(a) Body forms do not vary greatly among b. Inspiratory (ii) TLC – RV
species as tail is absent in all the species of capacity
class Amphibia and body is divisible into
head and trunk.
c. Expiratory reserve (iii) TV × Breathing
volume
rate
(b) Limbs are usually two pairs
(c) Ectothermic, body temperature depends d. Vital capacity (iv) TV + IRV
upon environmental temperature (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(d) Alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
tracts open into a common chamber cloaca (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
which opens to the exterior.
Choose the correct answer from the options 196. Percent of proteins in blood plasma is equal to
given below. percent of
(1) Only (b) and (c) are correct (1) Formed elements in blood
(2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct (2) Thrombocytes in formed elements
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct (3) Eosinophils in leucocytes
(4) (b), (c) and (d) are correct (4) Monocytes in total number of WBCs
193. Rate of a chemical reaction can be expressed as 197. Which of the following is correct arrangement of
P nitrogenous wastes in decreasing order of
Rate = requirement of water for their elimination?
t
(1) Urea > ammonia > uric acid
Where P represents
(2) Ammonia > urea > uric acid
(1) Product formed per unit time
(3) Uric acid > urea > ammonia
(2) Product formed in time t
(4) Urea > uric acid > ammonia
(3) Amount of reactants which changes into 198. Total number of facial bones is equal to the total
products in unit time number of
(4) Reactants present at the beginning of (1) Wrist bones (2) Ankle bones
reaction (3) Girdles (4) Ribs
(19)
199. Assertion (A): Bacterial cells are treated with a 200. Match the hormones and their target glands/cells.
specific concentration of a divalent cation, such
Column-I Column-II
as calcium, which increases the efficiency with
(Hormones) (Target
which DNA enters the bacterium.
glands/cells)
Reason (R): DNA is a hydrophobic molecule, it
cannot pass through cell membranes. a. Thyrotrophin (i) Cells of zona
fasciculata
correct answer from the options given below. b. Melanotrophin (ii) Follicular cells
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true c. Corticotrophin (iii) Melanocytes
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
d. Gonadotrophin (iv) Testis
correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the Select the correct option.
correct explanation of (A) (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false (3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
❑ ❑ ❑
(20)
10/06/2022 CODE-A


Instructions:
PHYSICS
SECTION-A 4. Three rods of material x and three rods of
1. In an electromagnetic wave travelling in free material y are connected as shown in figure. All
space peak value of the magnetic field is the rods are of identical length and cross-
B0 = 2.83 × 10–8 T. The peak value of electric sectional area. If the end A is maintained at 60°C
field is nearly
and the junction E at 10°C. The temperature of
(1) 6 V/m (2) 8.5 V/m
junction B is
(3) 7.25 V/m (4) 6.5 V/m
(Thermal conductivity of material x is 0.92 cal
2. Two coherent sources each emitting light of
intensity I0 and amplitude A0 interfere in a cm–1 s–1 °C–1 and thermal conductivity of material
medium at a point where path difference between y is 0.46 cal cm–1 s–1 °C–1.)

them is given by . Then the resultant intensity
3
and amplitude at that point would be
(1) 3I0 , 3 A0 (2) I0, A0
(3) 4I0, 2A0 (4) I0, 2A0
3. 10 g of water at 30°C and 10 g of ice at –20°C
are mixed together in a calorimeter. Find the (1) 20°C
amount of ice that melts. Specific heat of ice =
(2) 30°C
0.5 cal g–1°C–1 and latent heat of ice = 80 cal g–1.
(1) 2.5 g (2) 1.25 g (3) 35°C
(3) 3.5 g (4) 4.25 g (4) 50°C
(1)
5. A student measures the time period of a simple 9. You want to move a 500 N crate on a level floor.
pendulum. He uses the data to estimate value of To start the crate you need to pull it with a force
‘g’, the acceleration due to gravity. If the of 220 N horizontally. Once the crate starts you
maximum percentage errors in measurement of can keep it moving at constant velocity by
time period and length of pendulum are e1 and e2 applying a horizontal 180 N force. The coefficient
respectively, then the maximum percentage error of static friction and kinetic friction between the
in the estimation of ‘g’ is
crate and floor is
(1) e1 + e2 (2) 2e1 + 2e2
(1) 0.36, 0.36 (2) 0.44, 0.36
(3) e1 + 2e2 (4) 2e1 + e2
(3) 0.35, 0.25 (4) 0.52, 0.25
6. The velocity of a particle as a function of time is
c
10. A hydraulic press contains 0.25 m3 of oil. What is
given as v (t ) = at 2 + bt + 2 , where a, b, c decrease in the volume of the oil when it is
t +d
subjected to a pressure increase of 1.6 × 107 Pa?
and d are constants, The dimensions of   is
ab
The bulk modulus of oil is B = 5 × 109 Pa.
 
cd
(1) 2 × 10–4 m3 (2) 6 × 10–4 m3
(1) [L3T–8] (2) [LT–8]
(3) 8 × 10–4 m3 (4) 4 × 10–4 m3
(3) [L2T–6] (4) [LT–2]
11. Mean free path of a molecule of air at 27°C and
7. The output Y for logic circuit shown below is
1 atm is, given molecule as a sphere with radius
r = 2.0 × 10–10 m.
(1) 5.8 × 10–8 m (2) 3.6 × 10–7 m
(3) 4.2 × 10–7 m (4) 3.5 × 10–8 m
12. The work that has to be done isobarically on 1
mole of a diatomic gas to increase its rms speed
3 times from 300 K, is nearest to
(1) Y = A.B + A + B + B + C
(1) 2.4 × 103 J (2) 1.4 × 103 J
(2) Y = A.B + A  B + B  C (3) 1.8 × 102 J (4) 2.0 × 104 J
(3) Y = A.B + A  B + B  C 13. A compass needle having magnetic dipole
moment 60 Am2 is placed in a uniform magnetic
(4) Y = A + B + A + B + B  C
field of 4 × 10–5 Wb m–2. It experiences a torque
8. Match the Column I which having different types of 1.2 × 10–3 N m. The angle made by the dipole
of semiconductor at room temperature with
moment with magnetic field is
Column II containing the energy band
representations. (1) 30° (2) 37°
(3) 45° (4) 60°
Column I Column II
14. A 100 F capacitor in series with a 40  resistor
A. p-type semiconductor P.
is connected to 100 V, 60 Hz ac supply. The
current amplitude in the circuit is nearly
(1) 1.5 A (2) 2.95 A
(3) 2.0 A (4) 1.8 A
B. n-type semiconductor Q.
15. The differential equation representing the SHM of
d 2y
a particle is 25 + 9 y = 0 , the time taken by
dt 2
A
C. Intrinsic semiconductor R. the particle to travel from y = 0 to y = will be
2
(Where A is amplitude of the particle).
 
(1) (2)
6 12
(1) A(R), B(Q), C(P) (2) A(P), B(Q), C(R) 5 5
(3) (4)
(3) A(R), B(P), C(Q) (4) A(Q), B(P), C(R) 18 9
(2)
16. Moment of inertia of a solid cylinder of mass m,

length 2r, radius r about an axis passing through
its centre and perpendicular to its length is
mr 2 5mr 2
(1) (2)
3 6
7mr 2 2mr 2
(3) (4)
12 3 (1) 6.2 A (2) 0.004 A
17. A metre stick is balanced on a knife edge at its (3) 0.1 A (4) 0.6 A
centre. When two coin, each of mass 6 g are put 21. The average acceleration in first 20 seconds for
the graph shown in figure is
one on top of the other at the 20 cm mark, the
stick is found to be balanced at 40 cm. The mass
of the stick is
(1) 10 g (2) 18 g
(3) 30 g (4) 24 g
18. An optical system consist of a thin convex lens of (1) 20 m/s2 (2) 15 m/s2
focal length 20 cm and a plane mirror placed (3) 10 m/s2 (4) 25 m/s2
25 cm behind the lens. An object is placed 10 cm 22. A glass disc of radius ‘R’ is floating on the
infront of the lens. The distance of intermediate surface of a liquid having density ‘’ and surface
image (after reflection from mirror) from the tension ‘T’. The force on the disc due to surface
object is tension when it is just lift off from water surface is
(1) 80 cm (2) 20 cm (1) 2RT (2) R2T
(3) 10 cm (4) 30 cm (3) 2R2T (4) RT
19. The image for the converging beam, after 23. Seven capacitors, each of capacitance 2 F are
10
refraction through the curved surface, from the to be combined to obtain a capacitance of F.
11
point O is formed at a distance of
Which of the following combination is possible?
(1) 2 in parallel, 5 in series
24. When a current I is set up in a wire of radius r,
the drift velocity is vd. If the same current is setup
through a wire of radius 2r of same material, the
drift velocity will be
(1) 4vd (2) 2vd
8 vd vd
(1) 18 cm (2) cm (3) (4)
7 2 4
(3) 8 cm (4) 4 cm 25. In the circuit shown in figure, the potential
difference between the points A and B would be
20. A rectangular loop with a sliding connector of
length 5 cm is situated in uniform magnetic field
perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The
magnetic induction is 0.2 tesla and resistance of
the connector (R) is 1 ohm. The side AB and CD
each have resistances 8 . The current in the
(1) 10 V (2) 9 V
connector which is moving with velocity 2 m/s will
be (3) 20 V (4) 12 V
(3)
26. A particle moves in a space such that 31. Current flows through uniform square frames as
its co-ordinates are x = 2t3 + 3t + 4; y = t2 + 4t –1; shown. In which case is the magnetic field at
z = 2sin(t) where x, y, z are measured in metre centre of frame not zero?
and t in seconds. The acceleration at t = 3 s is (i) (ii)
(1) (36iˆ + 2 ˆj + kˆ ) ms−2
(2) (36iˆ + 2 ˆj + kˆ ) ms−2

(iii)
−2
(3) (36i + 2 j ) ms
(1) (i), (ii) (2) (i)
(4) (12i + 2 j ) ms−2 (3) (ii), (iii) (4) (i), (iii)
27. At what height above the earth’s surface does 32. An electron in a hydrogen atom makes a
the acceleration due to gravity fall to 1% of its transition from n = n1 to n = n2. The time period of
value at the earth’s surface? electron in initial state is eight times that in final
state. The possible value of n1 and n2 are
(1) 9R (2) 10R
(1) n1 = 4, n2 = 2 (2) n1 = 8, n2 = 2
(3) 99R (4) 100R (3) n1 = 8, n2 = 1 (4) n1 = 6, n2 = 2
28. A pulse shown here is reflected from the rigid 33. An electric dipole placed in any uniform electric
wall A and then from free end B. The shape of field
string after there two reflections will be (1) Must experience some non-zero force
(2) Must experience some non-zero torque
(3) May experience some non-zero force
(4) May experience some non-zero torque
(1)
34. If 6 × 1011 electrons move out of a body to
another body every minute. Time required to get
(2) a total charge of 2 C on the other body is nearly
(1) 200 years (2) 400 years
(3) (3) 58 years (4) 40 years
35. Angle between the two vectors P = 2iˆ + 3 jˆ − 5kˆ
(4) and Q = 6iˆ + 2 jˆ + kˆ is
29. A metallic wire of length L is fixed between two  169   13 

(1) cos−1   (2) sin−1  
rigid supports. If the wire is cooled through a  1558   1558 
temperature difference of , then the frequency
−1  169  −1  1389 
of transverse vibration is proportional to (3) tan   (4) sin  
(Y = Young’s modulus,  = density,  =  1558   1558 
Coefficient of linear expansion) SECTION-B
 Y 36. In YDSE, the two slits are separated by 0.1 mm
(1) (2) and slit plane is 0.5 m away from the screen. The
Y 
wavelength of light used is 5000 Å. The distance
  between 7th maxima and 11th minima on the
(3) (4) upper side of screen.
Y Y
(1) 7 mm (2) 8.2 mm
30. The decay constant for radioactive nuclide 64Cu
(3) 8.75 mm (4) 7.75 mm
is 1.516 × 10–5 s–1. The initial activity of sample
containing 1 g of 64Cu is nearly 37. Two resistors R1 = (30  1) and R2 = (60  2)
are connected in series and then in parallel. The
Atomic weight of Cu is 63.5 g mol–1. Neglect
maximum percentage error in the measurement
mass difference between given radioisotope and of the equivalent resistance for series and
normal copper (take NA = 6 × 1023). parallel combinations will be
(1) 1.4 × 1014 Bq (2) 1.9 × 1013 Bq (1) 6.67%, 3.33% (2) 5%, 3.33%
(3) 1.4 × 1011 Bq (4) 1.9 × 1012 Bq (3) 3.33%, 3.33 % (4) 3.33%, 9.99%
(4)
38. If  and  are the current gains for common base 44. The density of water at the surface of ocean is .
and common emitter configuration of bipolar The density of ocean water at depth where
junction transistor, then correct relation between pressure is p0(p0 = atmospheric pressure,
 and  is B = bulk modulus of ocean water)
B B
1 1 1 1 (1) (2)
(1) + =1 (2) − =1 B − (  − 1) p0 B + (  − 1) p0
   
(3)  +  = 1 (4) . = 1 B B
(3) (4)
B − p0 B + p0
39. For a car travelling at a certain speed, it is
possible to bank a curve at just an angle so that 45. Some equipotential surfaces are shown in figure.
no friction at all is needed. Suppose a car is The magnitude and direction of the electric field
travelling at an average speed of 25 m/s and is ( = 30°)
radius of curved track is R = 85 m. The banking
angle required is approximately (g = 9.8 m/s2)
(1) 30° (2) 37°
(3) 45° (4) 15°
40. A gas at pressure P is adiabatically compressed
so that its density becomes twice that of initial
value. Given that ratio of specific heats at (1) 100 V/m making angle 120° with positive x
constant pressure and constant volume is (3/2). axis
What will be final pressure of the gas? (2) 200 V/m making an angle 60° with positive x
(1) 2.83P (2) 2.6P axis
(3) 0.6P (4) 1.6P (3) 200 V/m making an angle 120° with positive x
axis
41. An electric device draws 2 kW power from ac
(4) 100 V/m making an angle 60° with positive x
mains voltage 200 volt. The current lags in phase
axis
by  = tan−1   as compared to voltage. The
3
46. In the circuit shown in figure, current is zero
4 through
resistance in the circuit is
(1) 10  (2) 14 
(3) 20  (4) 12.8 
42. A force F is applied at the distance x from the
centre of the solid sphere as shown in figure. The
sphere starts pure rolling on the given smooth
(1) R4 only (2) R3 and R4
surface, then the value of x will be
(3) R2 and R4 (4) R2, R3 and R4
47. Let p and E denote the linear momentum and the
energy of a photon. For another photon of
smaller wavelength (in same medium)
(1) Both p and E increases
(2) p increases and E decreases
2R 2R (3) p decreases and E increases
(1) (2)
3 5 (4) Both p and E decreases
R R 48. Two point masses of mass 4m and m
(3) (4) respectively separated by a distance d are
2 4
revolving under mutual gravitational force of
43. The finger prints are observed by the use of attraction. The ratio of their kinetic energies is
(1) Telescope (2) Concave lens (1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 5
(3) Microscope (4) Galilean telescope (3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 2
(5)
49. A block of mass m and charge q is released on a 50. A block of mass m = 2 kg moving on a horizontal
long smooth inclined plane. The magnetic field B surface with speed 10 m/s enters a rough patch
is outward to plane of paper as shown. The time ranging from x = 0.2 m to x = 4.02 m. The
when block looses contact is retarding force Fr on the block in this range is
inversely proportional to x over this range,
−k
Fr = , for 0.2 < x < 4.02 m
x
= 0, for x < 0.2 m and x > 4.02 m
where, k = 2 J. Final speed of the block as it
crosses this patch will be nearly
m cos  m cosec
(1) (2) (1) 9.7 m/s
qB qB
(2) 7.6 m/s
m cot  m sin 
(3) (4) (3) 6.8 m/s
qB qB
(4) 11.2 m/s
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A (3) Non-essential amino acids can be
51. The correct order of decreasing priority of the synthesised in the body
given functional groups in IUPAC nomenclature (4) During denaturation of protein, 2° and 3°
is structures are destroyed but 1° structure
remain intact
(1) – SO3H > – COOH > – CONH2 > – COCl
55. Ambidentate ligand among the following is
(2) – COOH > – SO3H > – COCl > – CONH2
(1) H2O (2) en
(3) – COOH > – SO3H > – CONH2 > – COCl
(3) NO2− (4) ox
(4) – SO3H > – COOH > – COCl > – CONH2
52. Major product obtained by the reaction of 56. 2 mol of an ideal gas expanded from 10 L to 20 L
1-butene with Baeyer’s reagent is isothermally at 27°C. Entropy change in the
above process is
(1) (2) (1) R ln2 (2) 2R ln2
(3) R ln8 (4) 2R ln3
(3) (4)
57. pH of the solution made by mixing 200 ml of 0.1
M CH3COOH and 100 ml of 0.1 M NaOH solution
is
(pKa (CH3COOH) = 4.7)
(1) 4.7 (2) 9.3
Products A and B respectively are (3) 2.3 (4) 11.7
58. In which of the following compounds, 180° bond
(1) (2) angle is not present?
(1) XeF4 (2) PCl5
(3) (4) (3) SF6 (4) ClF3
59. If half life for a first order reaction is 10 min then
54. Incorrect statement among the following is time required for 87.5% completion of the
reaction is
(1) Threonine is an essential amino acid
(1) 17.5 min (2) 20 min
(2) Myosin is an example of globular protein
(3) 30 min (4) 35 min
(6)
60. Maximum flocculating power for the coagulation 66. Compressibility factor of a gas at critical point is
of positive sol is of
8 3
(1) PO34− (2) SO24− (1) (2)
3 8
(3) Al3+ (4) Na+
27 8
61. Average atomic mass of an element ‘A’ that (3) (4)
exists as two isotopes 20A and 22A with the 8 27
percentage abundance of 80% and 20% 67. Which of the following is a Transuranium
respectively will be element?
(1) 21.6 u (2) 20.4 u (1) Tb (2) W
(3) 20.2 u (4) 21.8 u
(3) Th (4) Np
62. Mole fraction of urea in 5 m aqueous solution will
be 68. Compound which has the highest boiling point is
10 20 (1) H2O (2) H2S
(1) (2)
121 121 (3) H2Se (4) H2Te
25 10 69. Cl2 on reaction with hot and concentrated NaOH
(3) (4)
121 111 gives
63. If a mixture of water and ethanol boils at 370 K, (1) NaClO + NaClO2 (2) NaClO3 + NaClO4
then what will be the mole fraction of ethanol in
the given mixture? (3) NaCl + NaClO3 (4) NaCl +NaClO4
(at 370 K, PH O = 700 mmHg, PC H OH = 800 70. IUPAC name of catechol is
2 2 5
mmHg) (1) Benzene -1, 4-diol (2) Benzene-1, 2-diol

(1) 0.2 (2) 0.4 (3) 2-Methylphenol (4) Benzene-1, 3-diol
(3) 0.6 (4) 0.8 71. Consider the following reaction.
64.
Major product P is
(1) 2-Methoxybutan-1-ol
Identify the best suitable reagent ‘A’ for the
above reaction. (2) 2-Methoxy-2-methylpropan-1-ol
(1) C2H5OH + NaOH (3) 2-Methoxybutan-2-ol
(2) C2H5OH + KOH (4) 1-Methoxy-2-methylpropan-2-ol
(3) (CH3)3COH + (CH3)3CONa 72. Consider the following reaction sequence,
(4) Na/Hg + HCl
65.
Major product obtained in the above reaction will

be Major product (C) is
(1)
(1) (2)
(2)
(3) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 –Cl

(4) (3) (4)
(7)
73. Monomer(s) of Nylon 6 is/are 80. Statement I : Temporary Hardness of water is

due to the presence of magnesium and calcium
(1) Adipic acid and hexamethylenediamine
hydrogen carbonates.
(2) Terephthalic acid
Statement II: Permanent hardness of water can
(3) Acrylonitrile be removed by boiling the water.
(4) Caprolactam In the light of above statements choose the
74. Narrow spectrum antibiotic among the following correct option.
is (1) Statement-I and statement-II both are correct
(1) Vancomycin (2) Ofloxacin (2) Statement-I and statement-II both are
(3) Penicillin G (4) Chloramphenicol incorrect
75. The angular momentum of an electron in 3rd shell (3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
is incorrect
(1) 2  (2) 3
correct
(3) 1.5 (4) 81. In Hall-Heroult process, purified Al2O3 is mixed
76. Match the oxides in Column I with their properties with
shown in Column II (1) Na3AlF6
Column I Column II (2) Na3AIF4
(i) N2O (a) Acidic (3) CaCl2
(ii) Na2O (b) Amphoteric (4) NaF

82. Which among the following species can not show
(iii) As2O3 (c) Neutral
disproportionation reaction?
(iv) SO3 (d) Basic (1) S2Cl2 (2) SO2
(1) (i)a, (ii)b, (iii)d, (iv)c (3) SCl2 (4) H2SO4
(2) (i)c, (ii)d, (iii)b, (iv)a 83. The packing fraction for BCC unit cell is
(3) (i)a, (ii)d, (iii)b, (iv)c 3 3

(1) (2)
(4) (i)c, (ii)b, (iii)d, (iv)a 4 8
77. The products obtained upon heating washing 3 3 
soda at 375 K is (3) (4)
2 2 2 3
(1) Na2CO3 + 10H2O 84. Consider the following cell reaction,
(2) Na2CO3·H2O + CO2 + H2O Ni(s) + 2Ag+ (0.002M) → Ni2+(0.16M) + 2Ag(s),
(3) Na2CO3 + CO2 + 10H2O E°cell = 1.05 V, the Ecell will be
(4) Na2CO3·H2O + 9H2O (1) 0.91 V
78. The correct formula of borax is (2) 0.75 V
(1) Na2[B4O5(OH)4].8H2O (3) 1.21 V
(2) Na2[B4O7(OH)5].6H2O (4) 1.82 V
(3) Na2[B4O4(OH)3].7H2O 85. Bohr magneton is equal to
(4) Na2[B4O6(OH)2].9H2O (1) 3.25 × 10–23 A m2
79. Which among the following is not an eye irritant? (2) 5.27 × 10–22 A m2
(1) SO2 (2) O3 (3) 9.27 × 10–24 A m2
(3) PAN (4) N2 (4) 7.21 × 10–25 A m2
(8)
SECTION-B 93. Conjugate acid and base for H2PO 4− ion

86. The compound which on hydrogenation will respectively are
liberate highest amount of energy is (1) H3PO4 and H3PO2 (2) H3PO4 and PO34−
(1) (2) (3) H3PO3 and HPO 24 − (4) H3PO4 and HPO 24 −
94. Maximum dipole moment among the following is
(3) (4)
of
87. In Carius method of estimation of halogen, 0.5 g (1) NH3 (2) NF3
of an organic compound gave 0.564 g of AgBr. (3) CCl4 (4) CHCl3
Percentage of bromine present in the organic 95. Identify the gas which will show maximum
compound is negative deviation from ideal behavior according
to following graph.
(1) 16% (2) 64%
(3) 36% (4) 48%
88. The compound which reacts with the fastest rate
towards HCN addition reaction is
(1) D (2) B
(1) CH3CHO (2)
(3) A (4) C
96. Which of the following amines can be prepared
using Gabriel phthalimide synthesis?
(3) (4) (1) (2) (CH3)2NH
(3) (4) (CH3CH2)3N

89. Calculated magnetic moment of complex ion
97. The wavelength associated with a photon having
[Cr(H2O)6]3+ will be (Atomic No. of Cr : 24) mass 6.6 × 10–31 kg is
(1) 3 BM (2) 8 BM (1) 1.28 pm (2) 2.24 pm
(3) 3.33 pm (4) 33.3 pm
(3) 15 BM (4) 24 BM
98. The incorrect statement regarding CaCO3 among
90. For the reaction, A(g) → 2B(g) the following is
(1) CaCO3 is insoluble in water whereas
U = 2 kcal, S = 15 cal K–1 at 300 K
Ca(HCO3)2 is soluble
G for the above reaction is (2) It decomposes to slaked lime upon heating to
(1) –1.5 kcal mol–1 (2) –1.9 kcal mol–1 1200 K.
(3) Carbon dioxide is liberated upon reaction of
(3) –3.5 kcal mol–1 (4) –3.8 kcal mol–1 CaCO3 with dil HCl
91. Example of emulsion is (4) It is widely used in manufacturing of high
(1) Paints (2) Dust quality paper
99. The oxidation numbers of four sulphur atoms in
(3) Butter (4) Froth
S 4 O26 − are
92. Select the correct relation for the reaction
(1) +6, +6, –2 and –2 (2) +5, 0, 0, and +5
2A + B → C. (r is rate of reaction)
(3) 0, 0, +2 and +2 (4) +4, +2, +2 and +4
1 [A] [C] 100. Which among the following has highest
(1) r = (2) r =
2 t t conductivity at 298.15 K?
(1) 0.1 M HAc (2) 0.01 M KCl
[C] 2[A]
(3) r = – (4) r = (3) 0.1 M HCl (4) 0.01 M HAc
t t
(9)
BOTANY
SECTION-A 108. Which one of the following representations
101. Mark the defining features of all life forms. shows diadelphous condition of stamens?
(1) Growth (2) Self-consciousness (1) (2) A2 + 4

(3) Reproduction (4) Metabolism (3) A() (4) A(9) + 1
102. Which of the following is not the taxonomic 109. Meristematic tissues are not present in
category related to wheat? (1) Axillary bud
(1) Poaceae (2) Poales (2) Intercalary position
(3) Dicotyledonae (4) Angiospermae (3) Closed vascular bundle
103. Which of the following is mobile electron carrier (4) Root tip
between complex III and IV in ETS of 110. The only dividing cells present in the bark of tree
mitochondria? is of
(1) UQ (2) Cyt c (1) Phellem (2) Phellogen
(3) Cyt a (4) Cyt a3 (3) Phelloderm (4) Vascular cambium
104. The process which is crucial to success of the 111. Select the incorrect statement from the
plant breeding objective and requires careful following.
scientific evaluation of the progeny is (1) Cell theory states that all cells arise from pre-
existing cells
(1) Evaluation and selection of parents
(2) Schleiden and Schwann both were German
(2) Cross hybridisation among the selected botanist
parents
(3) Some cells in plants become dead at maturity
(3) Selection and testing of superior (4) Rudolf Virchow first explained Omnis cellula-
recombinants e-cellula
(4) Testing, release and commercialization of 112. The ribosomes having 60S and 40S subunits are
new cultivars. found
105. All of the following are examples of predation, (1) Attached to the nuclear membrane
except (2) Around the thylakoids in chloroplast
(1) Herbivores on plants (3) Attached to the mesosome
(2) Tiger on deer (4) Inside the nucleolus and rough endoplasmic
reticulum
(3) Sparrows which eat seeds
113. All of the following are the functions of cell wall,
(4) Cuscuta growing on hedge plants except
106. Which of the following pyramids are upright? (1) Providing shape to the cell
(a) Pyramid of biomass in grassland ecosystem (2) Protecting cell from mechanical damage
(b) Pyramid of energy in pond ecosystem (3) Helping in cell-to-cell interaction
(c) Pyramid of number in grassland ecosystem (4) Facilitating active transport of ions
(1) Only (b) (2) Only (a) and (c) 114. Archaebacteria that are found in gut of buffaloes
(3) Only (c) (4) All (a), (b) and (c) are
107. Opposite phyllotaxy and valvate aestivation of (1) Placed in the domain Bacteria
petals are seen in (2) Known as halophiles
(1) Calotropis (2) Solanum (3) Responsible for production of biogas
(3) Allium (4) Mustard (4) Heterotrophic in nature
(10)
115. Pigments of _____ are identical to those of 123. Read the following statements and select the
higher plants. correct option.
Select the correct option to fill in the blank. Statement A: Delay in flowering is caused due to
deficiency of N, S, Mo.
(1) Cyanobacteria (2) Euglenoids
Statement B: Nitrifying bacteria are mostly
(3) Diatoms (4) Dinoflagellates heterotrophs.
116. Select the incorrect statement for slime moulds. (1) Only statement A is correct
(1) These are saprophytic in nature (2) Only statement B is correct
(2) Under unfavourable conditions they form (3) Both statements A and B are incorrect
Plasmodium (4) Both statements A and B are correct
(3) Their spores possess true walls 124. Centrioles duplicate in the cytoplasm during
(4) Their spores can survive for many years (1) S phase (2) G0 phase
117. Choose the odd one w.r.t. recessive traits of (3) G2 phase (4) G1 phase
pea. 125. During cell cycle
(1) White flower (1) Major checkpoint is present at G1 → S
(2) Constricted pod transition
(3) Green pod (2) If a cell does not divide it will enter G2 phase
(3) Anaphase promoting complex (APC) is
(4) Wrinkled seed
involved in damaging the DNA
118. A pink flowered snapdragon plant is crossed with
(4) Interphase lasts for less than 5% of the total
red flowered snapdragon plant. What percentage duration
of progeny will be white coloured?
126. Which among the following plant growth regulator
(1) 25% (2) 50% is derivative of carotenoids?
(3) 75% (4) 0% (1) Gibberellic acids (2) Indole-3-acetic acid
119. Select the wrong statement for sickle-cell (3) Abscisic acid (4) Kinetin
anaemia. 127. In which stage of sewage treatment the masses
(1) It is an autosomal recessive disorder of bacteria associated with fungal filaments to
form mesh like structure called flocs?
(2) The defect is caused by substitution of valine
(1) Physical process
by glutamic acid
(2) Biological treatment
(3) The disease is controlled by a single pair of
allele (3) Physico-chemical process
(4) Tertiary treatment
(4) Heterozygous individuals appear apparently
unaffected 128. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Zygote ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
develops
120. Select the homosporous plant. into
Embryo
(1) Cycas (2) Selaginella
(2) Ovules ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Seeds
develop
into
(3) Dryopteris (4) Salvinia
(3) Ovary ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
develops
121. Which among the following are the first terrestrial into
Fruit
plants to possess vascular tissues?
(4) Integument ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
develops
into
Fruit wall
(1) Bryophytes
(2) Pteridophytes 129. In typical angiosperms, the mature embryo sac
has A antipodal cells, B polar nuclei and
(3) Angiosperms C egg cell.
(4) Gymnosperms Select the correct option to fill in the blanks.
122. Which of the following elements is not (1) A - three, B - two, C - one
remobilized in plants? (2) A - two, B - two, C - one
(1) Calcium (2) Phosphorus (3) A - three, B - one, C - one
(3) Potassium (4) Nitrogen (4) A - two, B - three, C - one
(11)
130. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. C3 cycle. 137. Nodes and internodes are not present in
(1) The primary acceptor of CO2 is a five carbon (1) Offset of Eichhornia
compound
(2) Pneumatophore of Rhizophora
(2) The first stable product is oxaloacetic acid
(3) 3 ATPs are consumed to fix one CO2 (3) Bulbil of Agave
(4) It occurs in all photosynthetic plants (4) Rhizome of ginger
131. How many nucleosomes are present in the 138. Select the incorrect match from the following.
nucleus of diploid eukaryotic cell which possess
6.6 × 109 bp? (1) Stele – All tissues inner to the
(1) 33 × 106 (2) 6.6 × 106 endodermis
(3) 6.6 × 10 9 (4) 3.3 × 109 (2) Casparian – Waxy material
132. Which of the given nitrogenous bases are strip
common in both DNA and RNA?
a. Thymine (3) Endodermis – Parenchymatous
b. Uracil (4) Conjunctive – Sclerenchymatous
c. Adenine tissue
d. Cytosine
139. How many of the following organisms have
flagella with 9 + 2 arrangement of axonemal
(3) c and d (4) a and d
microtubules?
133. Which of the given enzymes facilitates opening of
DNA helix during DNA replication? Spirillum, Gonyaulax, Euglena, Paramoecium,
(1) DNA helicase (2) DNA polymerase Nostoc, Trypanosoma, Chlamydomonas.
(3) DNA ligase (4) Primase (1) Six (2) Four
134. In the process of transcription in eukaryotes,
RNA polymerase III transcribes (3) Two (4) Five
(1) Precursor of mRNA 140. Identify the wrongly matched pair.
(2) 5S, 5.8S, rRNA (1) Trypanosoma – Flagellated parasite
(3) snRNA and 18S rRNA
(2) Amoeba – Lacks locomotory
(4) tRNA
structure
135. Which of the given is an ex-situ conservation
strategy of threatened animals and plants? (3) Plasmodium – Causes malaria
(1) Wildlife sanctuary (2) Wildlife safari park
(4) Paramoecium – Has gullet
(3) National park (4) Biosphere reserve
SECTION-B 141. Which of the given is not related to aneuploidy?
136. State the following statements as true (T) or (1) Arise due to failure of segregation of
false (F) and select the correct option. chromatids during cell cycle
A. Transition zone is the outermost part of (2) There is increase in whole set of
biosphere reserve. chromosomes
B. India has more than 1,200 species of birds
because most of land area of our country lies (3) Exemplified by Down’s syndrome
in tropics. (4) Involves gain or loss of one or a few
C. Greenland (71°N) in arctic area possess 105 chromosomes
species of birds.
142. Select the incorrect statement regarding
A B C bryophytes.
(1) T T T (1) Includes mosses and liverworts
(2) F F F (2) Sex organs are multicellular
(3) T T F (3) Antherozoids are biflagellated
(4) F T F (4) Gametophyte is not free-living
(12)
143. Select the incorrect match. (1) Only statement A is correct

(1) Uphill – Active transport (2) Only statement B is correct
movement (3) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) Highly – Symport (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
selective 147. Read the given statements and select the
(3) ATP – Facilitated diffusion correct option.
requirement Statement A: The industries which produce SO2
(4) Transport – Antiport as a by product must have scrubbing mechanism
saturates installed in them.
Statement B: Ahmed Khan is associated with
144. Match the following column-I with column-II and
select the correct option. integrated organic farming.
Column-I Column-II
a. Overcome apical (i) Gibberellins
dominance
b. Break bud (ii) Auxin (NAA and
dormancy 2,4-D) 148. The phenomenon through which certain
pollutants get accumulated in tissues in
c. Speed up the (iii) Cytokinin
increasing concentrations along the food chain is
malting process
called
d. Induce flowering (iv) Ethylene (1) Eutrophication
in litchi
(2) Global warming
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) Biomagnification
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(4) Bioprospecting
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
149. Only some organisms are capable of maintaining
(4) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) homeostasis in the changing environment. One
145. Consider the following features observed in a of the examples is
plant
(1) Birds
I. Sticky pollen grains
(2) Lower plants
II. Colourful flowers
(3) Majority of animals
III. Fragrant flowers full of nectar
(4) Zooplanktons
The flowers of this plant are most likely pollinated
by
correct option.
(1) Wind
Statement A: Primary productivity depends on
(2) Water
the plant species inhabiting a particular area.
(3) Bee
Statement B: The available biomass for the
(4) Lemur
consumption to herbivores and decomposers is
146. Read the following statements and select the also primary productivity.
correct option.
Statement A: Biogas is a mixture of gases which
predominantly contains methane.
Statement B: Baculoviruses are free living fungi (3) Both statements A and B are correct
that are very common in root ecosystem. (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(13)
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 155. More than ___ percent of the world livestock
population is in India and China.
151. Read the following statements and select the Select the option that fills the blank correctly.
correct option. (1) 50 (2) 70
Statement A: Oxygen is utilised by the (3) 60 (4) 25
organisms to form complex molecules like
156. Secretion of which of the following male sex
proteins, carbohydrates, fatty acids, etc., to accessory ducts/glands is not essential for
derive energy to perform various activities. maturation and motility of sperms?
Statement B: Respiration is an anabolic process (1) Epididymis (2) Vas deferens
in which there is process of exchange of O 2 from (3) Seminal vesicle (4) Cowper’s gland
the atmosphere with CO2 produced by the cells.
157. Complete the analogy w.r.t. ploidy of cells
(1) Both statements (A) and (B) are correct present in reproductive system of humans.
(2) Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect Haploid cell : First polar body :: Diploid cell : ___
(3) Only statement (A) is correct (1) Second polar body
(4) Only statement (B) is correct (2) Secondary oocyte
152. Select the odd one w.r.t. elimination of main (3) Secondary spermatocyte
nitrogenous waste. (4) Granulosa cells in secondary follicle
(1) Cartilaginous fishes (2) Bony fishes 158. Which of the following triggers the release of
oxytocin from the maternal pituitary gland during
(3) Aquatic insects (4) Aquatic amphibians
parturition?
153. Match column I with column II and choose the (1) Foetal ejection reflex
correct option.
(2) Release of amniotic fluid from vagina
Column I Column II (3) Increased secretion of oestrogen
a. Amoeba (i) Presence of (4) Increased secretion of progesterone
tentacles for 159. Match items in column-I with those in column-II
capturing its prey and choose the correct option.
b. Paramoecium (ii) Streaming of Column-I Column-II

protoplasm a. Placenta (i) Finger-like
projections appear on
c. Hydra (iii) Presence of cilia
the trophoblast after
that helps in the
implantation
movement of food
through cytopharynx b. Chorionic villi (ii) Blastocyst becomes
embedded in uterus
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) and it leads to
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii) pregnancy
154. Select the incorrect statement. c. Stem cells (iii) Structural and
(1) All locomotions are movements but all functional unit
between foetus and
movements are not locomotions
maternal body
(2) Movement and locomotion cannot be studied
separately d. Implantation (iv) Present in inner cell
mass which have
(3) Methods of locomotion performed by animals potency to form all
vary only with their habitat body tissues
(4) Locomotion is generally for search of food,
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
shelter, mate, suitable breeding grounds,
favourable climatic conditions, etc. (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(14)
160. Read the following statements carefully and 165. A patient suffering from ADA deficiency can be
choose the option with only incorrect permanently cured using how many of the given
statements. treatments?
(a) All multicellular animals exhibit the same (a) Enzyme replacement therapy
pattern of organisation of cells. (b) Bone marrow transplantation
(b) Organ level of organisation is exhibited by
(c) Infusion of ADA cDNA carrying genetically
members of Platyhelminthes and other higher
engineered lymphocytes
phyla where tissues are grouped together to
form organs. (1) Zero
(c) Organ systems in different groups of animals (2) One

exhibit various patterns of complexities. (3) Two
(d) In all multicellular animals which have organ (4) Three
level of body organisation, a complete
166. How many of the structures given below in the
digestive system has two opening, mouth
box are not present in the forebrain?
and anus.
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) Pons, Thalamus, Cerebrum, Medulla, Corpora
quadrigemina
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (d)
161. Which of the following animals is a gregarious (1) One (2) Two
pest? (3) Three (4) Four
(1) Laccifer (2) Aedes 167. In a hypothetical scenario, an individual has
(3) Locusta (4) Limulus hypersecretion of a hormone ‘X’. Due to this
condition this individual’s blood Ca++ levels are
162. Read the following statements A and B w.r.t.
persistently high.
chordates and choose the correct answer from
the following given options. The hormones X and Y, together play a
significant role in maintaining the calcium levels
Statement A: Protochordates are exclusively
in the body.
marine and they have notochord present only in
larval tail. Identify X and Y from the given options.
Statement B: In all vertebrates, notochord is X Y

replaced by bony vertebral column in the adult.
(1) TCT PTH
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect (2) PTH TCT
(3) Only statement A is correct (3) PTH Thyroxine

(4) Thyroxine Calcitriol
163. Select the odd one w.r.t. copper releasing IUDs.
168. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is known as a natural
(1) CuT (2) Cu7
genetic engineer because
(3) LNG – 20 (4) Multiload 375
(1) It can deliver its Ti plasmid in the animal cells
164. The female who cannot produce ovum, but can
(2) It enters into animal cells and transform them
provide suitable environment for fertilisation and
into tumor cells
further development could be assisted to have
children through ART. The preferred ART in this (3) It delivers a T-DNA fragment into plant cells
case would be that integrates with host cell’s chromosome
(1) ICSI (2) GIFT (4) It is able to transform all eukaryotic cells into
cancerous cells
(3) IUT (4) In vitro fertilisation
(15)
169. DNA ligase is known as molecular glue as it links 174. Epithelium which lines the walls of blood vessels
two DNA fragments by forming also lines
(1) Hydrogen bonds (1) Tubular parts of nephron
(2) Phosphodiester bonds (2) Air sacs of lungs
(3) Glycosidic bonds (3) Stomach
(4) Disulphide bonds (4) Ducts of salivary glands
170. Identify a restriction endonuclease which makes 175. Cube-like cells having microvilli are found in the
cuts away from the centre of recognition epithelium of
sequence. (1) Intestine
(1) SmaI
(2) Bronchioles
(2) EcoRV
(3) Surface of skin
(3) HindII
(4) PCT
(4) EcoRI
176. Dental formula for adult human is
171. An English economist, who worked on human
2123
populations and concluded that population are (1)
2123
stable in size except for seasonal fluctuations,
because natural resources are limited and nature 1121
(2)
keeps control is 1121
(1) Alfred Russel Wallace 0021
(3)
(2) A. I. Oparin 0021
(3) Charles Darwin 0011

(4)
(4) Thomas Malthus 0011
172. Assertion (A): New life forms of microbes are 177. A healthy individual has ___ gms of haemoglobin
appearing in a time scale of months or years and in every 1000 mL of blood. Select the option that
not centuries. fills the blank correctly.
Reason (R): The life span of microbes is less as (1) 12 – 16

compared to higher organisms. (2) 120 – 160
In the light of above statements, choose the (3) 16 – 20
correct answer from the following options. (4) 1.2 – 1.6
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false
178. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. a straw
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true coloured viscous fluid in blood.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the (1) Nearly 55% of blood
correct explanation of (A)
(2) It consists of 90-92% water
(3) It contains large amount of minerals
(4) Proteins contribute 6-8% of it
173. Select the odd one w.r.t. theories for the origin of
179. The graveyard of RBCs is
life.
(1) Thymus
(1) Panspermia theory
(2) Chemical evolution theory (2) Lymph node
(3) Darwinian theory (3) Liver
(4) Theory of biogenesis (4) Spleen
(16)
180. Read the given statements and select the Identify the labelled bonds A and B and select
correct option. the correct option.
Statement A: Each human tooth is embedded in (A) (B)
a socket of jaw bone and this type of attachment (1) Hydrogen bond Disulphide bond
is called pleurodont.
(2) Hydrogen bond Peptide bond
Statement B: The upper surface of tongue has
small projections called papillae, all of which bear (3) Peptide bond Hydrogen bond
taste buds. (4) Disulphide bond Hydrogen bond
(1) Both statements A and B are correct 184. Select the correct option to complete the
(2) Only statement A is correct analogy w.r.t. cofactors.
(3) Only statement B is correct Haem : Catalase :: Zinc : ___
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect (1) Peroxidase

(2) NAD
181. Early Greeks like Hippocrates as well as Indian
(3) Carboxypeptidase
Ayurveda system of medicine asserted on
(4) NADP
(1) Germ theory of disease
185. The most abundant element in human body w.r.t
(2) Balance of certain ‘humors’ percentage weight is
(3) Theory of continuity of germplasm (1) Oxygen
(4) Theory of use and disuse (2) Carbon
182. Good humor hypothesis of health was (3) Nitrogen
disapproved by/through (4) Hydrogen
(a) Discovery of blood circulation by William
SECTION-B
Harvey
(b) Demonstration of normal body temperature in 186. An organism ‘X’ in which the gaseous exchange,
persons with black bile i.e., intake of O2 and giving out of CO2 takes
place between blood capillaries of skin and moist
(c) Discovery of blood grouping
surface film. Identify the organism ‘X’ and select
(d) Demonstration of normal body temperature in the correct option.
persons with yellow bile (1) Periplaneta
(1) (a) and (b) (2) Pila
(2) (b) and (c) (3) Pheretima
(3) (c) and (d) (4) Psittacula
(4) (a) and (d) 187. Consider the given statements and select the
option that correctly states them as true (T) or
183. Consider the figure given below false (F).
A. Animals accumulate ammonia, urea, uric
acid, carbon dioxide, water and ions like Na+,
K+, Cl–, sulphate, etc., only by metabolic
activities.
B. Kidneys do not play any significant role in
+
removal of NH3 ions.
C. Ammonia produced by metabolism is
converted into urea in the liver of sharks.
D. The most toxic form of nitrogenous waste
requires large amount of water for its
elimination.
(17)
A B C D 192. Assertion (A): During molecular diagnosis using

a radioactive tagged probe, the mutated gene
(1) T T T T
does not appear on the photographic film.
(2) T F F F Reason (R): The single stranded DNA or RNA
(3) T F F T which are used as probes have complementarity
with the sample DNA but not with the mutated
(4) F T T T
gene.
188. Read the following statements A and B and In the light of the above statements, choose the
choose the correct answer from the options correct answer from the options given below.
given below.
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true
Statement A: Birds in captivity can be made to
lay eggs throughout the year. In this case, laying
egg is not related with reproduction but is a
commercial exploitation for human welfare. (3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
Statements B: Cyclical changes in the activities
of primary and secondary sex organs during (4) (A) is true but (R) is false
reproductive phase in non-primate females is 193. Arrange the following in the correct sequence
called menstrual cycle. w.r.t. mechanism of vision.
(1) Both statements A and B are correct (a) Image formed on the retina
(2) Only statement A is correct (b) Potential differences are generated in the
(3) Only statement B is correct rods and cones
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect (c) Action potentials in the ganglionic cells
189. Bioluminescence is well-marked in through the bipolar cells
(1) Fasciola (2) Ctenoplana (d) Light induces dissociation of retinal from
opsin
(3) Ancylostoma (4) Limulus
190. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. animals and (1) d → b → c → a
presence of structures in them. (2) a → c → b → d
(1) Torpedo – Electric organs (3) b → c → d → a
(2) Clarias – Air bladder (4) c → d → b → a

194. Complete the analogy by selecting the correct
(3) Canis – Mammary gland
option.
(4) Petromyzon – Presence of scales
-cells of islets of Langerhans : Glucagon ::
191. Read the following statements carefully and -cells of islets of Langerhans : ___
choose the incorrect one.
(1) Adrenaline
(1) As long as the mother breast-feeds the child
(2) Corticoids
fully, chances of conception are almost nil
(3) Insulin
(2) Pelvic Inflammatory Diseases (PIDs),
stillbirth, infertility are some of the (4) Somatostatin
complications of STIs 195. Which of the following does not involve use of
(3) Saheli - the new oral contraceptive for female PCR?
contains a non-steroidal preparation and is (1) Detection of mutations in genes
called ‘once a week’ pill.
(2) Diagnosis of genetic disorders
(4) Coitus interrupts, one of the barrier methods,
(3) Detection of HIV in suspected AIDS patients
prevent the ovum and sperms from physically
meeting (4) Separation and isolation of DNA fragments
(18)
196. If in a linear DNA of 12 kb size, two recognition (1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i)
sites of BamHI are present 4 kb distance apart (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
and one of them is at 4 kb distance from one
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)
end. Then, how many bands will be obtained on
separation of DNA fragments using agarose gel (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii)
electrophoresis, assuming complete digestion by 199. How many of the factors given below in the box
BamHI? are necessary for achieving good health?
(1) Three (2) Two
Vaccination, Proper disposal of wastes,
(3) One (4) Four Maintenance of hygiene in food and water,
197. In a population which is in Hardy-Weinberg Regular exercise, Control of vectors
equilibrium, 190 individuals out of 1000
individuals are showing dominant phenotype for (1) Two
a character. Then, what will be the frequency of (2) Three
heterozygotes for this character? (3) Four
(1) 0.3 (4) Five
(2) 0.18
200. Read the statements A and B carefully and select
(3) 0.7 the correct option.
(4) 0.4 Statement A: Co-enzymes are tightly bound to
198. Match column I with column II and select the the apoenzyme.
correct option.
Statement B: Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
Column I Column II is transiently associated with the apoenzyme.
(a) Fibrinogen (i) Coagulation of blood (1) Both statements A and B are correct
(b) Albumin (ii) Defense mechanism of
body (3) Only statement A is correct
(c) Globulin (iii) Osmotic balance (4) Only statement B is correct
❑ ❑ ❑
(19)
13/06/2022 CODE-A


Instructions:
PHYSICS
SECTION - A 3. An N-type semiconductor has a resistivity of
1.5  m at a certain temperature. If for a given
1. A Zener diode having breakdown voltage equal
to 8 V is used in a voltage regulator circuit as sample ni = 1.5 × 1010 cm–3 and e = 0.14 mV–1s–1,
shown in the figure. The current I, ID and IL are then hole concentration of the sample is nearly
respectively (Assume ne >> nh)
(1) 7.6 × 1016 m–3 (2) 5.3 × 10–9 m–3
(3) 7.6 × 1012 m–3 (4) 5.5 × 1019 m–3
R 2C
4. The dimensions of is [L → Inductance, C →
L
(1) 8 mA, 6 mA, 14 mA (2) 14 mA, 6 mA, 8 mA Capacitance and R → Resistance]
(3) 8 mA, 14 mA, 6 mA (4) 6 mA, 8 mA, 14 mA (1) [M0L0T] (2) [M0L0T–1]
2. The diagram shows part of Vernier scale on a (3) [MLT–1] (4) [M0L0T0]
pair of calipers. Which reading is correct? (Least
count is 0.1 mm) 5. A body of mass 2 kg is lying on a rough inclined
plane of inclination 30°. The magnitude of force
parallel to the incline needed to make the block
just move up the plane, if the coefficient of static
friction is 0.3 is
(1) 4.9 N (2) 16.7 N
(1) 3.7 cm (2) 3.72 cm
(3) 3.64 cm (4) 3.76 cm (3) 14.9 N (4) 22.6 N
(1)
6. A carnot engine takes 1000 calories of heat from (1) A → Q, B → P, C → S, D → R

a reservoir at 827°C and exhausts it to a sink at
(2) A → S, B → R, C → Q, D → P
27°C. How much work does it perform?
(3) A → Q, B → S, C → Q, D → R
(1) 272.7 Cal (2) 727.28 Cal
(3) 1272.7 Cal (4) 456.56 Cal (4) A → S, B → R, C → Q, P → Q
7. A tank used for filling helium balloons has volume 12. A defected eye is not able to see objects closer
of 0.3 m3 and contains 2.0 moles of helium gas at than 50 cm because
27°C. Assuming that helium behaves like an (1) The eye is not able to increase the focal
ideal gas, the total translational kinetic energy of length beyond a limit
the molecules of the gas is
(2) The eye is not able to decrease the focal
(1) 7.48 kJ (2) 5.32 kJ length beyond a limit
(3) 12.46 kJ (4) 17.45 kJ
(3) The focal length of the eye is 50 cm
8. The density of water at the surface of ocean is 
(4) The distance of the retina from the eye lens
and atmospheric pressure is P0. If bulk modulus
is 50 cm
of water is B, what is density of ocean water at
the depth where the pressure is 5 P0? 13. At what displacement from mean position is the
K.E. of a particle performing SHM of amplitude
B B
(1) (2) 20 cm, three times its P.E.
5P0 4P0
(1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm
B B
(3) (4) (3) 5 cm (4) 15 cm
( B – 4P0 ) ( B – 5P0 ) 14. The horizontal component of earth’s magnetic
9. A magnetising field of 3 × 103 A/m produces a field at a place is 4 × 10–4 T and the dip is
magnetic flux density of 6 tesla in an iron rod. 3
The relative permeability of the rod is tan–1   . A metal rod of length 0.5 m placed in
4
(1) 500 (2) 5000 the north-south position is moved at constant
(3) 2000 (4) 100 speed of 10 cm/s towards east, the emf induced
10. A transformer has 200 turns in the primary coil in the rod along the length, will be
and carries 10 A current. If the input power is (1) 10 V (2) 5 V
2.5 kW then the number of turns in the secondary
coil to have 1000 V output will be (3) 15 V (4) 30 V
(1) 600 (2) 8000 15. A particle of mass M is moving in yz-plane with a
(3) 800 (4) 100 uniform velocity v with its trajectory running
parallel to +ve y-axis and intersecting z-axis at
11. Power of an equiconvex lens is P. After cutting it
z = a. The change in its angular momentum
in different ways, combination of lens is given in
about the origin as its bounces back elastically
column-I and their effective power is given in
column-II. Match the following two columns from a wall represented by equation y = 6 m is
Column-I Column-II (1) Mvaiˆ (2) 2Mvaiˆ

(3) –Mvaiˆ (4) –2Mvaiˆ
A. P. Zero
16. If a sphere is released from rest on an incline of
2
B. Q. P friction coefficient greater than tan 
7
(1) It will stay at rest
C. R. 2P (2) It will make pure translational motion

(3) It will translate and rotate about the centre
P (4) The angular momentum of the sphere about
D. S.
2 its centre will remains constant
(2)
17. Acceleration-time (a-t) graph for particle starting 21. The maximum current that flows in the fuse wire,
from rest at t = 0 is as shown in figure. The before it blows out, varies with radius ‘r’ of fuse
particle has maximum speed at wire as
3
(1) r 2 (2) r
2 1
(3) r 3 (4) r 2
22. A number of bullets are fired from a point in all
(1) 1 s (2) 2 s possible directions with same initial speed u. The
maximum area of ground covered by the bullets
(3) 3 s (4) 4 s
is
18. A liquid flow through a tube of uniform 2 2
cross-section on a horizontal plane as shown in  u2  u 
(1)    (2)   
 g  g 
figure. The direction of net force exerted by the  
liquid on the tube is towards
2
 u2    u2 
(3)   2  (4)  
g  4  g 
 
23. The radius of a planet is R. A satellite revolves
around it in a circle of radius r with angular
velocity 0. The acceleration due to gravity on
planet’s surface is given by
(1) East (2) South
(3) North-west (4) North-east r 3 0 r 3 03
(1) (2)
R R2
19. The velocity v acquired by an electron starting
form rest when accelerated through a potential r 3 02 r 3 02
(3) (4)
difference V is shown by the graph R R2
24. If the maximum particle speed of a travelling
wave is v0, then the particle speed, where the
(1) (2) displacement is half of maximum value, is
v0 3v 0
(1) (2)
2 4
3v 0
(3) (4) v0
2
(3) (4)
25. A string of length 1 m and mass per unit length
0.001 kg/m is hanging vertically as shown. A
small pulse is generated at its lower end. The
20. What will be the equivalent resistance between pulse reaches the top end in approximately
the points A and D for the circuit shown in figure? (g = 10 m/s2)
1 3
(1) s (2) s
10 10
(1) 10  (2) 20  2 5
(3) s (4) s
(3) 30  (4) 40  10 2
(3)
26. The energy of ionization of hydrogen atom is EH. 32. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths
What is the energy of ionisation of doubly ionised 7000 Å and 5600 Å is used to obtain interference
lithium Li++? in YDSE. The distance between slits is 1 mm and
(1) 16EH (2) 9EH distance of screen from slits is 120 cm. What is
the least distance from central maximum where
(3) 3EH (4) 4EH
the bright due to both wavelengths coincide?
27. A radioactive sample decays by 63% of its initial (1) 0.312 cm (2) 0.156 cm
value in nearly 10 s. It would have decayed by
(3) 0.336 cm (4) 0.198 cm
50% of its initial value in approximately
33. A plane electromagnetic wave, propagating in the
(1) 7 s (2) 0.7 s
y-direction has a wavelength of 3 mm. The
(3) 1.4 s (4) 14 s electric field is in x-direction and its maximum
28. A conducting ring of mass 1 kg and radius 0.5 m magnitude is 30 V m–1. The frequency of the
is placed on a smooth horizontal plane. The ring magnetic field (in Hz) is
carries a current of 8 A. A horizontal magnetic 6.3  1011 3.5  1011
field B = 5 T is switched on at t = 0 as shown in (1) (2)
2 2
figure. The initial angular acceleration of ring will
be 5.6  1011 4.6  1011
(3) (4)
2 2
34. Under the steady state heat flow condition, the
temperature of a rod having uniform cross-
section
(1) Changes with position but no change with
(1) 40 rad/s2 (2) 60 rad/s2
time
(3) 80 rad/s2 (4) 100 rad/s2 (2) Changes with time but no change with
29. Which of the following option is not correct about position
the charge on a body? (3) Changes with both time and position
(1) Charge on isolated body remains constant (4) No change with time as well as position
(2) Charge on body is always an integral multiple 35. A steel rod of length 2 m, fixed between two rigid
of charge of an electron immovable walls is heated from a temperature of
(3) Charge on body can vary with the speed of 50°C to 100°C. The stress developed in the rod
body is (Coefficient of linear expansion of steel =
12 × 10–6°C–1)
(4) Transfer of charges between two bodies
takes place through transfer of electrons (1) Tensile
(2) Compressive
30. Electrostatic force of interaction between two
small spheres having charge of 3 × 10–7 C and (3) Shear
5 × 10–6 C placed at 50 cm apart in air, will be (4) Zero
(1) 3.0 × 10–3 N (2) 5.4 × 10–2 N
SECTION-B
(3) 5.4 × 10–3 N (4) 3.0 × 10–2 N
31. In a ballistic demonstration, a police officer fires a 36. The energy of a damped oscillator as a function
bullet of mass 100 g with a speed 150 m/s on a of time is given as E(t) = A2e–t, where
soft wooden sheet of thickness 5 cm. The bullet  = 0.1 s–1. The measurement of A has an error
emerges with only 30% of its initial kinetic of 1%. If the error in the measurement of time (t)
energy. Emergent speed of the bullet, will be is 2%, then the maximum percentage error in the
nearly value of E(t) at t = 2 s is
(1) 45 m s–1 (2) 120 m s–1 (1) 1.2% (2) 2%
(3) 82 m s–1 (4) 67 m s–1 (3) 6% (4) 2.4%
(4)
37. When emitter current increase by 10 mA, the (1) A → P, B → Q, C → S, D → R

base current increases by 0.1 mA. If output to (2) A → R, B → Q, C → S, D → P
input resistance ratio is 50, then the value of
(3) A → Q, B → R, C → P, D → S
voltage gain in common emitter configuration of
(4) A → Q, B → R, C → S, D → P
amplifier will be
41. A wheel of radius 0.5 m can rotate freely about
(1) 495 (2) 4950
its axis as shown in the figure. A string is
(3) 5000 (4) 500 wrapped over its rim and a force of 5 kgf is
38. The system of blocks shown in figure is released applied. An angular acceleration of 10 rad/s2 is
from rest. Ignore friction everywhere. The time produced in it due to the torque, then moment of
inertia of the wheel is (g = 10 m/s2)
taken by the block to reach ground is (g = 10 m
s–2)
(1) 2 kg m2 (2) 5 kg m2
(3) 1 kg m2 (4) 2.5 kg m2
42. A point source of light is placed at bottom of a
(1) 1 s (2) 1.41 s
water lake. If the circular illuminated area on the
(3) 0.5 s (4) 1.62 s surface is equal to 4 times the square of depth of
39. A series LCR circuit with L = 2 H, R = 20  and the lake, the refractive index of the water is
C = 25 F is connected to a variable frequency +2 +4
(1) (2)
160 V ac supply. When frequency of the supply 2 2
equals the resonating frequency of the circuit,
+2
what is average power transferred to circuit in (3)  +1 (4)
4
one complete cycle?
43. The maximum velocity of an electron, emitted by
(1) 6.4 kW (2) 1.28 kW
light of wavelength  when it incidents on the
(3) 7.9 kW (4) 8.4 kW surface of a metal of work function w is
 2 ( hc + w )  2 ( hc – w )
40. Heat taken by the gas in process a to b is 6 P0V0. 1/2
Match the column-I with column-II. (1)   (2)

 m  m
 2 ( hc – w )   2 ( h – w ) 
1/2 1/2
(3)   (4)  
 m   m 
44. The following figures show a liquid flowing ideally
through a tapered tube. Single tube manometers
are connected at three positions along the tube.
Identify the diagram showing the correct rise of
liquid in the tubes
Column-I Column-II
A. Wab P. 1.5 R
(1) (2)
B. Uab Q. 3P0V0
2
C. Molar heat capacity R. 9P0V0
in given process 2 (3) (4)
D. Cv for the gas S. 2R
(5)
45. A capacitor is charged to store an energy U. The 48. A rocket is launched from surface of earth with
charging battery is disconnected. An identical initial velocity v. How far above the surface of
capacitor is now connected to the first capacitor earth will it go? Neglect Air resistance.
in parallel. The energy in each of the capacitors
–1
is
 2gR 2  2gR 
U 3U (1) R  2 – 1 (2) R  2 – 1
(1) (2)  v   v 
2 2
–1 2
U  2gR   2gR 
(3) R  2 – 1 (4) R  2 – 1
(3) U (4)  v   v 
4
46. In a potentiometer experiment, the balancing 49. A body of mass 5 kg travels in straight line with
length with a cell is at 240 cm. On shunting the 3 –1
cell with a resistance of 2  the balancing length velocity v = kx 2 where k = 8 m 2 s –1 . Work done
becomes 120 cm. The internal resistance of the by the net force acting on the body during its
cell is
displacement from x = 1 m to x = 4 m will be
(1) 4  (2) 2 
(1) 10080 J
(3) 1  (4) 0.5 
(2) 140 J
47. Find the magnetic field at P due to the
arrangement of two perpendicular infinitely long (3) 7840 J
current carrying conductors as shown in the (4) 12380 J
figure
50. A YDSE apparatus is immersed in a liquid of
refractive index 1.5. It has a slit separation of 1
mm and interference pattern is observed on the
screen at a distance of 1.5 m from the slits. The
wavelength in air is 6300 Å. The distance of sixth
bright fringe from third bright fringe lying on the
same side of central bright fringe is
0 i  1  20 i (1) 2.52 mm
(1) 1–  (2) 
2d  2 2d (2) 1.89 mm
0 i 0 i  1  (3) 3.27 mm
(3)  (4) 1 + 
2d 2d  2 (4) 1.26 mm
CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A 54. Which of the following enzymes is used for the
conversion of proteins into amino acids?
51. Intensive property among the following is
(1) Pepsin (2) Diastase
(1) Resistance (2) Refractive index
(3) Urease (4) Invertase
(3) Mass (4) Volume
52. Oxidation state of cobalt in [Co(en)2ClBr]Cl is 1
55. Slope of plot between ln k vs is
T
(1) +2 (2) +3
Ea
(3) +1 (4) +6 (1) Ea (2)
R
53. Hybridisation of C1 and C2 carbon in the following
molecule are respectively −Ea −Ea
(3) (4)
2 1 R 2.303R
CH3 − CH = C = CH − CH = CH2
56. Maximum solubility of AgCl is in
(1) sp3 and sp2 (2) sp2 and sp (1) 0.1 M NaCl (2) 0.1 M AgNO3
(3) sp and sp2 (4) sp2 and sp2 (3) 0.1 M NH4OH (4) 0.1 M CaCl2
(6)
57. Minimum molar mass of a protein that contains 63. Aqueous solution of which of the following ions
0.7% by mass of nitrogen will be will be colourless?
(1) 1000 u (2) 2000 u (1) Cu2+ (2) Fe3+
(3) 4000 u (4) 3000 u (3) Cr3+ (4) Sc3+
58. Which colligative property is used for the 64. Chlorine water on standing loses its yellow colour
determination of molecular mass of proteins? due to the formation of
(1) Elevation in boiling point (1) HOClO3 and HOClO
(2) Depression in freezing point (2) HOClO and HOClO2
(3) Osmotic pressure (3) HCl and HOClO2
(4) Relative lowering in vapour pressure (4) HCl and HOCl
59. Difference between boiling point and freezing 65. An oxide of nitrogen which is obtained by the
point of aqueous solution of 1% (w/w) NaOH thermal decomposition of lead nitrate is
solution will be
(1) NO2 (2) N2O3
(For H2O Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1, Kb = 0.52 K kg
(3) NO (4) N2O
mol–1)
66. Consider the following reaction,
(1) 100.24 (2) 101.20
(3) 100.72 (4) 100.96
60. IUPAC name of compound given below is
Major product (P) is
(1) 1-Bromo-3-methyl-4-chlorocyclohexane (1)

(2) 1-Bromo-4-chloro-3-methylcyclohexane
(3) 4-Bromo-3-methyl-1-chlorocyclohexane
(4) 4-Bromo-1-chloro-3-methylcyclohexane (2)
61.
(3)
Major organic product formed in above reaction

will be
(4)
(1)
67. Statement-I: o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol can
be separated using steam distillation.
(2) CH2D – CH2–OH Statement-II: Intramolecular hydrogen bonding
(3) Racemic mixture of CH3 − CHOH exist in o-nitrophenol.
|
D In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) CH2 = CHD
62. Which of the following gases will give maximum
true
deviation from ideal behaviour under similar
conditions? (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are true
(1) CO2 (2) N2 (3) Both statement-I and statement-II are false
(3) NH3 (4) CH4 (4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is false
(7)
68. Consider the following reaction sequence. 76. Match list-I with list-II.
List-I List-II
(Hydride) (Category)
C is (i) NaH (a) Metallic Hydride
(ii) CrH (b) Electron precise

Hydride
(1) (2) (iii) HF (c) Electron rich Hydride
(iv) CH4 (d) Saline Hydride
Which of following options has all correct pairs?

(1) (i) – (d), (ii) – (a), (iii) – (c), (iv) – (b)
(3) (4)
(2) (i) – (a), (ii) – (b), (iii) – (d), (iv) – (c)
(3) (i) – (d), (ii) – (c), (iii) – (b), (iv) – (a)
69. In which of the following polymers, the
(4) (i) – (b), (ii) – (d), (iii) – (a), (iv) – (c)
intermolecular forces of attraction are weakest?
(1) Buna-N (2) Nylon 6, 6 77. Composition of German silver is
(3) Dacron (4) Bakelite (1) Cu (25–30%), Sn (40–50%), Zn (25–30%)

70. The artificial sweetener which has the maximum (2) Ni (25–30%), Ag (40–50%), Zn (25–30%)
sweetness value in comparison to cane sugar is (3) Cu (25–30%), Zn (25-30%), Ni (40–50%)
(1) Aspartame (2) Saccharin
(4) Ag (25–30%), Sn (40–50%), Cu (25–30%)
(3) Sucralose (4) Alitame
78. In acidic medium, MnO −4 as an oxidising agent
71. The correct order of decreasing energy of orbitals
for Be atom is changes into
(1) 3d > 5p > 4s
(1) MnO2 (2) MnO24−
(2) 3d > 4s > 5p
(3) Mn3+ (4) Mn2+
(3) 5p > 3d > 4s
(4) 4p > 4s > 3d 79. In sodium oxide, having the anti fluorite structure,
72. Eka-silicon and eka-aluminium respectively are the coordination number for sodium ion (Na+) and
also known as oxide ion (O2–) respectively are
(1) In and Sn (2) Ge and Ga (1) 6 and 6 (2) 4 and 8
(3) Sn and In (4) Ga and Ge (3) 8 and 4 (4) 6 and 4
73. The most stable peroxide among the following is 80. The reduction potential of Hydrogen electrode in
(1) Li2O2 (2) Na2O2 contact with a solution having pH = 8 is
(3) K2O2 (4) Rb2O2 (Given : pH2 = 1 atm)
74. When anhydrous borax is heated with platinum (1) – 0.71 V (2) – 0.47 V
wire coated CoO in a bunsen burner flame, the
blue coloured bead formed is (3) – 0.95 V (4) – 0.36 V
(1) Co(BO2)2 (2) B2O3 81. A metal crystallizes with face-centred cubic
(3) Co(OH)2 (4) NaBO2 lattice. The edge of the unit cell is 440 pm. The
radius of metal atom is nearly
75. The pH of acid rain is
(1) 5.6 (2) 7 (1) 128.3 pm (2) 172.2 pm
(3) < 5.6 (4) Between 5.6 and 7 (3) 155.5 pm (4) 191.7 pm
(8)
82. Most stable carbanion among the following is 88. Assuming x axis as internuclear axis, which of
the following will show zero overlap?
(1) 2s + 2px (2) 2s + 2s
(3) 2py + 2py (4) 2px + 2py
(1) (2)
89. KP is equal KC for which of the following
equilibrium?
(1) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g)

(3) (4) (2) CaCO3 (s) CaO(s) + CO2 (g)
(3) H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) 2HCl(g)

83. Which hydrocarbon cannot be prepared by
Kolbe’s electrolytic method? (4) CO2 (g) + H2 (g) CO(g) + H2O(l)
(1) n-Butane (2) Ethane 90. Which of the following is correct for first order
reaction A(g) → B(g)?
(3) Methane (4) Ethene
(i) CH MgBr (1) (2)
PhCH2CN ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
3
+
(ii) H3O
(1) PhCH2CH2CHO (2) PhCH2COCH3

(3) PhCH2CH2COOH (4) Ph − CH − CHO
|
CH3
(3) (4)
85. Lactose is composed of
(1) -D-glucose and -D-galactose
91. Principal emulsifying agent of O/W emulsion is
(2) -D-glucose and -D-galactose
(1) Synthetic soaps
(3) -D-glucose and -D-galactose
(2) Long chain alcohols
(4) -D-glucose and -D-fructose (3) Lampblack
SECTION-B (4) Heavy metal salts of fatty acids
86. Which among the following complex is optically 92. Expression of compressibility factor for a real gas
at very high pressure will be
active?
Pb a
(1) Co (NH3 ) Cl3  (1) 1 + (2) 1 −
 3  RT VRT
(2) Co (NH3 ) Cl2  Br

Pb a
(3) 1 − (4) 1 +
 4  RT VRT
(3) Ni (NH3 )  Cl2

93. Nitrobenzene on reduction with lithium aluminium
 6 hydride yields
(4) Pt (NH3 ) (H2O ) ( en ) ClBr  (1) Azoxybenzene

(2) Phenyl hydroxylamine
87. 1 mol monoatomic ideal gas expanded against (3) Azobenzene
2 atm pressure from 10 L to 60 L at 27°C. Work
(4) Aniline
done in above process is
94. Which of the following pair of d-orbitals has zero
(1) –10 L-atm electron density along the axis?
(2) –100 L-atm (1) dxy and d (2) dyz and d
x2 − y2 z2
(3) –200 L-atm
(3) d and d (4) dxy and dyz
(4) –400 L-atm x2 − y2 z2
(9)
95. The correct order of increasing negative electron (1) 28%

gain enthalpy for the following elements is (2) 36%
(1) K < Na < Li < Rb (2) Rb < Li < K < Na (3) 42%
(3) Rb < K < Na < Li (4) Li < Na < K < Rb (4) 54%
96. Oxidation number of oxygen is minimum in 99. The compound which liberates hydrogen gas on
(1) Oxides (2) Peroxides reaction with sodium metal is
(3) Superoxides (4) Dioxygen (1) CH3 − C  CH
97. The value of log KC for the reaction, (2) CH3 − C  C − CH3
Fe2+ (aq) + Ag+ (aq) ⎯⎯→ Fe3 + (aq) + Ag(s) is (3) CH3 − CH = CH2
Given : Eo (4) CH3 − CH = CH − CH3

= 0.77V and Eo + = 0.8V 
 Fe3 + /Fe2 + Ag / Ag 
100. The compound which does not show keto-enol
(1) 0.3 (2) 0.6 tautomerism is
(3) 0.4 (4) 0.5
98. During estimation of nitrogen present in an
organic compound by Kjeldahl’s method, the (1) (2)
ammonia evolved from 1.0 g of the compound
was neutralised by 15 mL of 1 M H2SO4 solution.
(3) (4)
The percentage of nitrogen present in the
compound is
BOTANY
SECTION - A 105. In three domain classification system, organisms
101. Which hormone stimulates the closure of stomata of kingdom Monera were placed in
under stress conditions? (1) All the three domains
(1) Indole acetic acid (2) Kinetin (2) Two different domains
(3) Abscisic acid (4) Gibberellic acid
(3) Single domain along with archaebacteria
102. In which plant, adventitious buds arises from the
notches present at margins of leaves and help in (4) The domain in which eukaryotes were kept
vegetative propagation? 106. Identify the organism in which cell wall has stiff
(1) Banana (2) Bryophyllum cellulose plates on outer surface.
(3) Water hyacinth (4) Sugarcane (1) Gonyaulax (2) Euglena
103. Which one among the following statements is not (3) Trypanosoma (4) Bacillus
true w.r.t. the pollen grains?
107. State true (T) or false (F) to the following
(1) They can be stored in liquid nitrogen for statements and select the correct option.
years
A. Sexual reproduction is absent in Alternaria
(2) It can cause severe allergy in some people
and Agaricus.
(3) Sporopollenin is one of the most resistant
organic material present in its wall B. Few plants are partially heterotrophic.
(4) Intine layer is thick made up of cellulose and C. Morels and truffles are club fungi.
lignin
A B C
104. Cyclosporin A is an immunosuppressive agent
produced by (1) T F T
(1) Monascus purpureus
(2) T T T
(3) Streptococcus (3) T T F
(4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (4) F T F
(10)
108. All of the below given parents can produce child 116. If 22 chromosomes are present at G1 phase of
with blood group ‘O’, except the cell cycle then, the number of chromosomes
after G2 phase will be
(1) lA i × lB i (2) ii × lB i
(1) 44 (2) 22
(3) lA lB × ii (4) lB i × lB i
(3) 66 (4) 11
109. A mulatto skin colour man marries to a very light
117. Protonema of mosses easily multiply by
skin coloured women. Which of the following skin
fragmentation but Amoeba does not because
colour is not possible in their children?
(1) It is filamentous
(1) Very light (2) Light
(2) It is unicellular
(3) Fairly light (4) Fairly dark
(3) It can reproduce sexually only
110. Down’s syndrome is not related to (4) It reproduces by budding only
(1) Trisomy (2) Chromosome 21st 118. In the name Panthera leo
(3) Gynecomastia (4) Aneuploidy (1) leo is generic name
111. When the cell is placed in an isotonic solution (2) Panthera is specific epithet
(1) There is no net flow of water towards the (3) Both words should be underlined separately
inside and outside of the cell if they are handwritten
(4) leo starts with small letter to show its Latin
(2) The cell becomes turgid
origin
(3) The cell undergoes plasmolysis
119. During respiration glucose is oxidised to A. A
(4) Water moves out of the cell further can form either lactic acid or ethanol +
CO2. Select the correct statement on the basis
112. Peat is formed from the plants such as
of this information.
(1) Cycas (2) Marchantia
(3) Sphagnum (4) Selaginella
113. The event which is a precursor of seed habit was
first seen in the members of
(1) Gymnosperm (2) Pteridophyta
(1) Ethanol and CO2 are produced by A in our
(3) Bryophyta (4) Angiosperm muscle cells during vigorous exercise
114. Read the following statements and mark true (T) (2) A is 3 carbon containing compound
or false (F).
(3) A forms lactic acid during aerobic respiration
(a) Toxicity symptoms in plants are difficult to
(4) A is end product of glycolysis which enters
identify.
matrix of mitochondria to carry out
(b) Excess of manganese in plants may induce fermentation
deficiencies of iron, magnesium and calcium.
120. During plant breeding programmes, superior
a b hybrid progeny is self-pollinated for several
generations
(1) T F
(1) Because pollinators are not available for such
(2) F T crops
(3) T T (2) Because cross pollination does not take
place naturally in these plants
(4) F F
(3) So that characters will not segregate in the
115. Chromatids move to opposite poles during progeny
(1) Anaphase (2) Telophase
(4) Because they consume a lot of time for cross
(3) Prophase (4) Metaphase pollination
(11)
121. Many desert plants have different adaptations to 127. When RNA transcript is first made in a eukaryote,
grow in arid regions. Which of the following is not it requires further processing to become
an adaptation w.r.t. such plants? functional mRNA.
(1) Thick cuticle on leaf surface Which of the given steps are required to produce
a mature mRNA?
(2) Stomata arranged in deep pits
A. A tail of uracil is added to one end of hnRNA.
(3) Special photosynthetic pathway called CAM
B. Introns are removed from the primary
(4) Broad leaves to increase photosynthetic transcript.
efficiency
C. Exons are joined together to form mature
122. All of the following are those areas in which mRNA.
succession starts where no living organism
D. Cytidine cap is added to 5' end of RNA.
existed before, except
(1) A and B (2) B and C
(1) Bare rock
(3) C and D (4) A and D
(2) Newly cooled lava
128. Biodiversity decreases when we move from
(3) Newly created pond
(1) Poles to equator
(4) Abandoned farmland
(2) Higher to lower altitudes
123. In a hypothetical condition, if the thylakoid
(3) Arctic to temperate areas
membrane tears off causing the lumen of
thylakoid continuous with the stroma, which of (4) Tropical to temperate areas
the following processes is likely to be most 129. Select the incorrect statement from the
affected? following.
(1) Reduction of NADP+ to NADPH (1) In Opuntia, modified leaves do not perform
photosynthesis
(2) Absorption of Sunlight by chloroplast
(2) Rhizome in Pistia grows horizontally beneath
(3) Movement of electrons from PS II to PS I
the soil
(4) ATP synthesis
(3) Thorns in plants are modified axillary buds
124. Select the correct one w.r.t. flow of genetic (4) Potato tuber has buds on its nodes
information during gene expression.
130. Floral diagram of a plants is shown below.
(1) DNA → Protein → mRNA
(2) Protein → mRNA → DNA
(3) mRNA → Protein → DNA
(4) DNA → mRNA → Protein
125. AMP is a/an
(1) DNA nucleotide (2) RNA nucleotide
Which representation regarding floral formula of
(3) DNA nucleoside (4) RNA nucleoside that plant is correct?
126. Which of the following components would be
(1) % (2)
there in a nucleosome?
(3) K(2 + 2) (4) G(2)
(1) Histone octamer + DNA
131. Which one of the following elements of vascular
(2) A pair of histone proteins + 2 nucleotides tissues are parenchymatous?
(3) 1 histone protein + chromosome (1) Bast fibres (2) Companion cells
(4) Histone octamer + H1 protein + RNA (3) Vessels (4) Sieve tubes
(12)
132. Vascular cambium is completely secondary in 138. Read the following features of flowers in a plant
and select the agent for pollination accordingly.
(1) Monocot stem (2) Dicot stem
A. Sticky pollen grains.
(3) Monocot root (4) Dicot root
B. Colorful flowers.
133. Which structure in prokaryotes has the similar C. Flower with pleasant odour and nectar.
function as that of mitochondria?
(1) Wind (2) Water
(1) Fimbriae (2) Plasmid (3) Insects (4) Earthworm
(3) Mesosome (4) Polysome 139. Female heterogamety is not seen in
134. Functions related to Golgi complex is/are (1) Fowl (2) Chick
a. Polymerisation of amino acids (3) Butterfly (4) Grasshopper
140. Choose the wrong statement w.r.t. prions.
b. Formation of glycoproteins
(1) Cause certain neurological disorders
c. Modification of proteins
(2) Much smaller than viruses
(1) a only (2) b and c only (3) These are abnormally folded proteins
(3) All a, b and c (4) b only (4) Infectious to humans as well as cattles
135. Select the incorrect match from the following. 141. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. algae.
(1) The food stored in red algae is in the form of
(1) Perinuclear – Space in the cytoplasm
floridean starch
space around the nucleus
(2) Pyrenoids in green algae contain protein
(2) Nucleolus – Membraneless structure besides starch
(3) Asexual reproduction in most brown algae is
(3) Chromatin – Nucleoprotein fibres
by non-motile spores
(4) Centromere – Primary constriction (4) Brown algae show great variation in size and
form
SECTION-B 142. Read the following statements about root
136. Which plant growth regulator is responsible for pressure and select the correct option.
the following effects? a. Its effect is observable when evaporation is
low.
A. Overcome apical dominance.
b. It can provide a modest push in the overall
B. Rapid cell division. process of water transport.
C. Delay leaf senescence. c. It is a positive pressure.
(1) Auxin (2) Ethylene d. It re-establish the continuous chains of water
molecule in the xylem.
(3) Cytokinin (4) Gibberellic acid
(1) Only a and c are correct
137. Match the following columns and select the (2) Only d is incorrect
correct option w.r.t. sewage treatment.
(3) Only a and b are correct
Column I Column II (4) All a, b, c and d are correct
143. Given ecological pyramid is always true for
A. Tertiary (i) Flocs formation
treatment
B. Secondary (ii) Sedimentation

treatment and filtration
C. Primary (iii) Ozone treatment a. Pyramid of number in grassland ecosystem

treatment b. Pyramid of energy in tree ecosystem
c. Pyramid of biomass in pond ecosystem
(1) A(iii), B(ii), C(i) (2) A(iii), B(i), C(ii)
(1) Only a (2) Only c
(3) A(ii), B(iii), C(i) (4) A(ii), B(i), C(iii) (3) All a, b and c (4) Only a and b
(13)
144. The interspecific interaction called amensalism 148. All of the following grow towards the gravity,
can be represented as except
(1) (+, +) (2) (+, 0) (1) Prop root in banyan
(3) (–, 0) (4) (–, –) (2) Pneumatophore in Rhizophora
145. Which of the given zones of biosphere reserve (3) Tap root in carrot
comprises an undisturbed and legally protected (4) Stilt root in maize
ecosystem? 149. Choose the option which is not true w.r.t
(1) Transition zone difference between dicot leaf and monocot leaf.
(2) Buffer zone Dicot Leaf Monocot Leaf
(3) Core zone (1) Stomata are usually Stomata are usually
(4) Both (1) and (2) more in number on more in number on
146. National forest policy (1988) of India has upper epidermis lower epidermis
recommended A of forest cover for the plains (2) Leaf type is Leaf type is
and B for the hills. dorsiventral isobilateral
(3) Mesophyll is Mesophyll is not
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks A
differentiated into differentiated
and B. palisade and spongy
A B parenchyma
(1) 33% 67% (4) Vascular bundles are Vascular bundles

of different sizes are nearly similar in
(2) 19.4% 30% size
(3) 22% 19.4% 150. Read the following statements and choose the
(4) 40% 30% option which is true for them.
Statement 1: A thylakoid has stack of flattened
147. According to CPCB, which size of particulate
membranous sacs called granum.
matter is responsible for causing the greatest
Statement 2: Ribosomes in chloroplast function
harm to human health?
similar to that of cytoplasmic ribosomes.
(1) 2.5 m or less in diameter
(1) Both the statements are correct
(2) 5.0 m in diameter
(3) 25 m or more in diameter (3) Only statement-1 is correct
(4) 7.0 m in diameter (4) Only statement-2 is correct
ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A (3) The trachea branches into two bronchi, one
leading to each lung.
151. Select the incorrect statement among the
following. (4) During swallowing of food glottis can be
covered by a thin elastic cartilaginous flap
(1) The nasal cavity leads to the larynx, an
intersection where the paths for food and air called epiglottis.
cross. 152. Locomotion and capture of prey in Hydra occurs
(2) Air enters through the nostrils and is then with the help of
filtered by hair, warmed, humidified and (1) Cilia (2) Flagella
sampled for odors as it flows through a maze
of spaces in nasal cavity. (3) Pseudopodia (4) Tentacles
(14)
153. Select the incorrect match w.r.t structures given 158. Choose the mismatch from the following.
in column I and movements associated with them
(1) Moist surface of – Compound
given in column II.
buccal cavity epithelium
Column-I Column-II
(2) Biceps – Smooth muscles
(1) Microfilaments – Amoeboid movement
(3) Blood – Fluid connective
(2) Jaws – Muscular movement
tissue
(3) Ovum – Pseudopodial movement
(4) Bronchioles – Ciliated
(4) Spermatozoa – Flagellar movement
epithelium
154. A type of excretory structure ‘X’ which helps in
159. Which pair of wings are used for flight in the
ionic and fluid regulation (osmoregulation) is
cockroach?
present in rotifers, some annelids and
cephalochordates. Identify the structure ‘X’. (1) Forewings (2) Tegmina
(1) Nephridia (3) Mesothoracic wings (4) Metathoracic wings
(2) Protonephridia 160. Match column-I with column-II and select the
correct option.
(3) Nephrocytes
Column-I Column-II
(4) Uricose glands
155. Dairying is the management of animals for the a. Corvus (i) Single circulation
given products except b. Aedes (ii) Open circulation
(1) Butter (2) Cheese
c. Calotes (iii) Double circulation
(3) Meat (4) Milk
d. Scoliodon (iv) Incomplete double
156. Observe the given figure. circulation
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
161. Sympathetic nerves have same effect on heart
beat rate as that of
(1) Aldosterone
(2) Acetylcholine
All of the following are present in the duct (3) Antidiuretic hormone
labelled as ‘A’, except
(4) Adrenaline
(1) Procarboxypeptidase
162. A special system of blood vessels in our body
(2) Bilirubin that is exclusively meant for the circulation of
(3) Nucleotidases blood to and from the cardiac musculature is
(4) Lipases (1) Pulmonary circulation
157. The structural and functional unit of liver is (2) Coronary circulation
(1) Hepatic lobule (2) Hepatic cell (3) Hepatic portal system
(3) Glisson’s capsule (4) Gall bladder (4) Renal portal system
(15)
163. Select the correct match from the following given 167. Read the following statements A and B and
options. choose the correct option.
Animal Level of Organisation Statement (A) : Soon after the placenta is
(1) Taenia – Tissue level delivered, the infant is also expelled out of the
uterus.
(2) Pheretima – Organ system level
Statement (B) : Doctors inject oxytocin to induce
(3) Sycon – Acellular level
delivery of the baby when it is not secreted in
(4) Obelia – Organ level adequate amount from maternal pituitary.
164. Choose the option which fills the blank correctly (1) Both statements (A) and (B) are correct
to complete the analogy.
Sea pen : Radial symmetry :: Liver fluke:______
(3) Only statement (A) is correct
(1) Asymmetry (2) Radial symmetry
(4) Only statement (B) is correct
(3) Biradial symmetry (4) Bilateral symmetry
168. Read the following statements carefully.
165. Match items in column-I with those in column-II
(a) Humans are sexually reproducing and
viviparous.
Column-I Column-II
(b) The ovaries in human females produce only
(a) Exocoetus (i) Tympanum
hormones.
represents the ear
(c) The mammary glands are one of the female
(b) Trygon (ii) Marine bony fish secondary sexual characters.
(c) Salamandra (iii) Air sacs connected (d) A normal human sperm is composed of a
to lungs head, neck and middle piece only.
(d) Aptenodytes (iv) Cartilaginous How many of the above statements are true w.r.t
marine fish human reproductive system?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) 1 (2) 3
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (3) 2 (4) 4
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 169. The cyclic changes in ovary and uterus during
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) menstrual cycle are induced by changes in the
levels of pituitary and _____ hormones.
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
166. Assertion (A) – In protists and monerans, cell
division is itself a mode of reproduction. (1) Thyroid
Reason (R) – In these organisms, the parent cell (2) Adrenal

divides to give rise to new individuals. (3) Ovarian
In the light of above statements, choose the (4) Testicular
170. Which institute developed the new oral
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the contraceptive for females named ‘Saheli’?
(1) EFB
(2) IARI
(3) GEAC
(3) (A) is true but (R) false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true (4) CDRI
(16)
171. Match column-I with column-II and choose the 175. Read the statements given below w.r.t disease
correct option. causing microbes.
Column-I Column-II (a) All parasites are pathogens as they cause

harm to the host.
a. Legalisation of MTP in (i) 2017
(b) Pathogens have to adapt to life within the
India
environment of the host.
b. Initiation of ‘family (ii) 1971
(c) Pathogen of dysentery lives in the gut of host
planning programmes’
organism.
c. India’s population (iii) 2011 (d) Pathogens can enter human body by various
reached 1.2 billion means causing functional damage but do not
d. MTP amendment act (iv) 1951 interferes with normal vital activities.
Select the option that contains correct
statements.
(2) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only
172. The use of bio-resources by multinational
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
companies and other organisations without
proper authorisation from the countries and 176. The diagnostic test for the disease caused by
people concerned without compensatory Salmonella typhi is
payment is called (1) ELISA (2) Widal
(1) Biowar (2) Biopatent (3) RT-PCR (4) Biopsy
(3) Biopiracy (4) Bioremediation 177. Analyse the equation given below and select the
173. How many of the given receptors in the box are enzyme that catalyses the same reaction.
helpful in detecting chemicals? S – G + S → S + S – G
Olfactory receptors, Gustatory receptors, (1) Transferase (2) Catalase

Photoreceptors, Mechanoreceptors (3) Amylase (4) Pepsin
(1) One (2) Two 178. Match the categories of enzymes listed in
column-I with the examples in column-II and
(3) Three (4) Four
select the correct option.
174. Which of the following can be used as
descriptors for the secretions of ductless glands? Column-I Column-II
(a) Chemical messengers a. Ligase (i) Peroxidase

(b) Nutrients enriched chemicals b. Lyase (ii) RuBP carboxylase
(c) Produced in extremely minute amounts
c. Oxidoreductase (iii) Lipase
(d) The production of any hormone in a healthy
d. Hydrolase (iv) Carbonic
individual is almost equal to the amount of
anhydrase
blood in the body
(e) Non-nutrient chemicals (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
Select the correct option. (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(1) (b), (d), (e) only (2) (a), (b), (c) only (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(3) (a), (c), (e) only (4) (b), (c), (d) only (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(17)
179. Choose the mismatch among the following. 184. The type of natural selection in which more
individuals acquire value other than mean
(1) GLUT-4 – Unables glucose
character value is known as
transport into cells
(1) Stabilising selection
(2) Trypsin – Enzyme
(3) Essential oil – Lemon grass oil (3) Disruptive selection
(4) Drug – Vinblastin (4) Normalising selection
180. To create recombinant pBR322, if the source 185. Match column-I with column-II and select the
DNA was cut by BamHI, then which of the correct option.
following is the preferred restriction enzyme to Column-I Column-II
cut pBR322?
a. Louis Pasteur (i) Chemical
(1) EcoRI
evolution theory
(2) PstI
b. Early Greek thinkers (ii) Inheritance of
(3) BamHI acquired
(4) SalI characters
181. Complete the analogy w.r.t. method of gene c. Oparin and Haldane (iii) Disapproved
transfer and the most suitable host cell for it spontaneous
Microinjection : Animal cell :: Biolistics:______ generation
Select the correct option. theory
(1) Bacteria d. Lamarck (iv) Cosmozoic

(2) Plant cell theory
(3) Bacteriophage (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(4) Fungal cell (3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

SECTION-B
correct option.
Statement (A): In gel electrophoresis, the most 186. Read the following statements (a) to (d) w.r.t.
commonly used matrix is agar. normal adult human and choose the option with
Statement (B): Agar is a natural polymer only correct statements.
extracted from sea weeds. (a) Interstitial spaces of testis contain Leydig
(1) Both statements (A) and (B) are correct cells and other immunologically competent
cells.
(b) Testes are situated inside the abdominal
(3) Only statement (A) is correct
cavity within a pouch called scrotum.
(c) The scrotum helps in maintaining the low
183. Select the set of animals showing convergent temperature necessary for spermatogenesis.
evolution with respect to each other.
(d) Each lobule of testis contains 250
(1) Koala and Bandicoot seminiferous tubules in which sperms are
(2) Tiger cat and Tasmanian Wolf produced.
(3) Lemur and Spotted cuscus (1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(4) Bobcat and Flying squirrel (3) (a) and (c) (4) (c) and (d)
(18)
187. Select the incorrect match . 192. A woman is 20 weeks pregnant but, due to some
unforeseen circumstances is in a need of an
(1) Porifers – Body with pores
and canals in MTP.
walls Select the incorrect statement from the following
regarding the procedure, validity and
(2) Coelenterates – Presence of
cnidoblasts requirements for this MTP.
(1) It is valid if the unborn child has a risk of
(3) Platyhelminthes – Flat body and
physical or mental abnormalities.
suckers
(2) Needs the opinion and go ahead from only
(4) Arthropods – Chitinous
one registered medical practitioner
exoskeleton,
comb plates (3) It is valid if the pregnant woman is at the risk
of a grave physical injury
correct option. (4) It helps in reducing maternal mortality and
morbidity if continuation of pregnancy can
Column-I Column-II
cause harm to mother
a. Prawn (i) Presence of mantle 193. The milk from ‘Rosie’ was more nutritionally
b. Apple snail (ii) Statocyst is present balanced as, it was enriched with
c. King crab (iii) Presence of jointed (1) Human beta-lactalbumin

appendages (2) Human alpha-lactalbumin
d. Cockroach (iv) Considered as living (3) Bovine protein

fossil (4) Human gamma-lactalbumin
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) 194. Arrange the given layers in the order of their
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) occurrence as the doctor cuts through the skull to
reach the brain.
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
a. Pia mater
b. Dura mater
189. A person with blood group ‘A–’ has suffered much
blood loss in an accident and needs immediate c. Arachnoid mater
blood transfusion. His one doctor friend at once (1) b → a → c
offers his blood. What was the blood group of the
(2) b → c → a
donor?
(1) O– (2) AB+ (3) a → b → c
(3) B– (4) A+ (4) c → a → b
190. Which of the following is not supported by 195. The thyroid gland is composed of____ and____.
incomplete cartilaginous rings? Select the option that correctly fills the blanks
(1) Trachea (2) Primary bronchi respectively.
(3) Alveoli (4) Tertiary bronchi (1) Follicles, stromal tissue
191. Antennal glands perform the excretory function in (2) Ducts, follicles
(1) Periplaneta (2) Prawn (3) Cartilage, cortex
(3) Pavo (4) Pheretima (4) Cortex, medulla
(19)
196. Read the statements given below w.r.t common (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
cold. correct explanation of (A)
(a) Infection by Rhino virus is the reason for it (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(b) Infects the nose and respiratory passage correct explanation of (A)
except lungs (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) Usually last for 3-7 days (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
(d) Can transmit through sharing of 199. How many statements given below are correct
contaminated objects such as pens, books w.r.t. plasmids?
etc.
(a) They float freely in the cytoplasm of certain
(e) Can be treated by antibiotics as they kill bacterial cells.
viruses
(b) They have ability to replicate independent of
How many of the above statements are the genomic DNA.
incorrect?
(c) Herbert Boyer developed a method of
(1) One removing and reinserting them in the cells.
(2) Two (d) They are circular ssDNA molecules.
(3) Three
(4) Four
(1) Three
197. For the nomenclature of enzymes, a four digit
(2) Four
enzyme commission number is assigned to each
(3) Two
enzyme, where the Ist digit represents
(4) One
(1) Class
(2) Sub-class 200. Which of the following can act as selectable
markers in a cloning vector?
(3) Sub-subclass
(a) ampR (b) tetR
(4) Individual enzyme
(c) ori (d) rop
198. Assertion (A): Adaptive ability is inherited.
Reason (R): Individuals having heritable and
useful variations reproduce better and leave (1) (a) and (b)
more progeny. (2) (c) and (d)
In the light of above statements, select the (3) (a), (c) and (d)
correct answer from the following options. (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
❑ ❑ ❑
(20)
15/06/2022 CODE-A
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456


Instructions:
PHYSICS
SECTION - A A
sin ( kr − t )
A
(1) (2) sin ( kr − t )
1. A projectile is fired from level ground at an angle r r
45° above the horizontal. The elevation  of the A
highest point on trajectory of particle as seen (3) Arsin(kr – t) (4) sin ( kr − t )
r2
from the point of projection is
4. An electron in a hydrogen atom makes transition
−1 
1
(1) tan   (2) 45° from shell N to shell M. The ratio of initial to final
4
value of magnitudes of centripetal acceleration of
 1 electron is
(3) tan−1   (4) tan–1(2)
2 (1) 81 : 256 (2) 16 : 9
2. A transverse wave is described by the equation (3) 3 : 4 (4) 4 : 3
  x 
Y = A sin 2  ft −   . The maximum particle 5. 90% of radioactive sample is left undecayed after
    time t has passed. What percent of initial sample
velocity is equal to four times wave velocity if will decay in a total time 2t?
A A (1) 20% (2) 19%
(1)  = (2)  =
4 2 (3) 40% (4) 38%
(3)  = A (4)  = 2A 6. A charged particle moves in a magnetic field
3. A wave travels uniformly in all directions from a B = 10i with an initial velocity u = 5i + 4 j . The
point source in an isotropic medium. The
path of particle will be
displacement of the medium at any point at
distance r from the source may be represented (1) Straight line (2) Circle
by (A is constant representing strength of source) (3) Helical (4) Parabola
(1)
7. Value of escape velocity from the moon is (mass 13. Find equivalent capacitance between A and B.
of the moon = 7.4 × 1022 kg and radius of the
moon = 1740 km).
(1) 1.2 km/s (2) 2.4 km/s
(3) 3.9 km/s (4) 3 km/s
8. Which of the following option is incorrect?
(1) Electric field lines can’t cross the conducting
surface
(2) Denser field lines represent strong electric
field strength 4
(1) 5 F (2) F
(3) Electric field lines due to an infinite long 5
uniformly charged thin wire are concentric
circular curve 5
(3) F (4) 2 F
(4) Electric flux associated with any closed 4
surface, having no charge inside it, in uniform 14. Which of the following has the maximum
electric field is zero resistance?
9. Two charges +4q and –9q are placed at
(1) Voltmeter (2) Millivoltmeter
separation ‘r’ as shown in the figure.
(3) Ammeter (4) Milliammeter
15. The ammeter shown in figure consists of a 580 
Net electric field due to these charges will be coil connected in parallel to 20  shunt. Find the
zero
reading of the ammeter.
(1) At a distance 2r from –9q
(2) At a distance r from +4q
(3) At a distance 3r from +4q
(4) At a distance 3r from –9q
10. A small block of mass m is moving under
the effect of a force which is given by (1) 1.25 A (2) 0.34 A
( )
F = 3 x j + 3yi N . (3) 0.68 A (4) 0.5 A
If this force displaces the block from point A(2 m, 16. In a new system of units, mass is measured in
3 m) to another point B(1 m, 4 m), then work multiple of x kg, length in multiple of y m and time
done by the force will be in multiple of z seconds. The value of 10 watt in
(1) 30 J (2) –6 J this new system of unit is
(3) –12 J (4) Can’t be calculated
10z 2 10z
11. The velocity of an object moving rectilinearly is (1) 2
(2)
xy xy
given as a function of time by v = 4 – 3t, where v
is in m/s and t is in s. The average velocity of
10z3 10y 2
particle between t = 0 to t = 2 s is (3) (4)
xy 2 xz 2
(1) 1 m/s (2) 2 m/s
(3) 3 m/s (4) 4 m/s 17. The separation between a point source of light
12. At critical temperature, the surface tension of and screen is increased by 0.5%. The intensity of
liquid light on the screen will
(1) Is zero (1) Increase by 1%
(2) Is infinity (2) Decrease by 1%
(3) Is same as that it has at any other
(3) Increase by 0.5%
temperature
(4) Depends on the nature of liquid (4) Decrease by 0.5%
(2)
18. Following truth table is for 24. Four particles of masses m, m, 2m and 2m are
placed at the four corners of a square of side a
Inputs Output
as shown in figure. The (x, y) coordinates of the
A B Y centre of mass of system are
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0
(1) NOR gate

(2) NAND gate
a  a 
(3) Ex-NOR gate (1)  , 2a  (2)  , a 
2  2 
(4) Ex-OR gate
 a 2a   3a a 
19. In the figure given, voltage of point B is (3)  ,  (4)  , 
2 3   8 2
25. A solid uniform disc of mass m rolls down without
slipping on an inclined plane with acceleration a.
The frictional force acting on the disc due to
(1) 0 V (2) –3 V surface of the plane is
(3) –2.3 V (4) –2.7 V 3ma
(1) 2ma (2)
20. The size of aperture opening to work with the 2
laws of ray optics using a monochromatic light of ma
(3) ma (4)
wavelength 550 nm to a distance of around 20 m 2
should be
3
(1) 3.316 mm (2) 4.612 mm 26. Refractive index of a medium is . For a light
2
(3) 5.312 mm (4) 6.235 mm ray incident on this medium the incidence angle
21. Which of the following is among the Maxwell’s is twice that of refracting angle. The angle of
equations of electromagnetism? incidence is
−d B −1  3  −1  3 
(1)  B  ds = 0 (2)  E  dl = dt
(1) cos  
4
(2) sin  
4
(3)  E  dl = 0 (4) Both (1) and (2) −1  3 
(3) 2cos  
−1  3 
(4) sin  
4 2
22. An ideal blackbody is one which is
(1) Black in colour (2) Perfect absorber 27. An object is kept at a distance of 40 cm in front of
a concave mirror. For getting a magnification of
(3) Ideal transmitter (4) Poor emitter
1
23. A slab of stone of area 0.48 m2 and thickness − , focal length of the concave mirror required
3
0.1 m is exposed on the lower surface to steam is
at 100°C. A block of ice at 0°C rests on the upper
(1) –20 cm (2) –10 cm
surface of the slab. In one hour, 5 kg of ice is
melted. The thermal conductivity of stone is (3) +20 cm (4) –15 cm
(Given latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.36 × 10 5 28. A straight conductor of length 6 m placed along
J/kg–1) z-axis starts moving along positive x-axis with
(1) 0.972 J/(m s °C) 5 m/s in a magnetic field B = ( 0.2iˆ + 0.1jˆ ) T . The
(2) 1.24 J/(m s °C) emf induced across the conductor is
(3) 5.02 J/(m s °C) (1) 6 V (2) 3 V
(4) 2.05 J/(m s °C) (3) 1 V (4) 5 V
(3)
29. A satellite of mass m is revolving at a height R Column-I Column-II

above the surface of earth. Here R is radius of
I = I0 sin t
(P) Only inductor
the earth. The gravitational potential energy of (A)
circuit
this satellite is
I = −I0 cos t (Q) May be CR
−mgR (B)
(1) –mgR (2) circuit
2
  (R) May be L-R
−mgR −mgR (C) I = I0 sin  t +  circuit
(3) (4)  4
3 7
30. A light string passing over a smooth pulley   (S) Only resistance
(D) I = I0 sin  t −  circuit
connects two blocks of masses m1 and m2 as  6
shown in the figure. If the magnitude of (1) A → S, B → Q, C → P, D → R
acceleration of either block is g/5, the ratio of the
(2) A → P, B → S, C → R, D → Q
masses m1 to m2 is
(3) A → S, B → P, C → Q, D → R
(4) A → S, B → P, C → R, D → Q
34. Hydrogen gas at STP in a container of volume
5 × 10–3 m3 is cooled by 100 K. What is the
amount of heat lost by the gas?
(1) 332 J (2) 457 J
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 3 : 2
(3) 252 J (4) 642 J
(3) 3 : 5 (4) 4 : 3
35. A magnetic needle performs 20 oscillations per
31. Poisson's ratio of a material is 0.5. If the force is
minute in a horizontal plane. If the angle of dip is
applied to a wire of this material, decrement in
30° then how many oscillations per minute will
cross-sectional area of the wire is 4%. The
this freely suspended needle perform in magnetic
percentage increase in its length is
meridian?
(1) 1% (2) 2%
(1) 16.5 (2) 19.5
(3) 2.5% (4) 4%
(3) 21.5 (4) 32.5
32. Choose the correct option regarding ideal gas.
SECTION-B
m
(1) In P = RT , m is mass of gas per unit
M 36. A body of mass 10 kg is moving with a uniform
volume speed of 6 m/s in x-y plane along the line
m 3y = 4x + 10. Magnitude of its angular
(2) In PV = RT , m is mass of one molecule of
M momentum about the origin in (kg m2/s) is
gas (1) Zero (2) 120
1 mN 2 (3) 80 (4) 30 2
(3) In P = V , m is total mass of gas
3 V rms
37. In a simple microscope, if the final image is
3kT located at infinity then its magnifying power is
(4) In Vrms = , m is total mass of the gas
m (Here symbols have their usual meaning)
33. Alternating voltage V = V0sint is applied to a D D +1
(1) (2)
circuit containing some elements in series. Match f f
the values of current in column-I with the possible f f
(3) (4)
elements connected in circuit in column-II. D +1 D
(4)
38. If the incident beam makes an angle  with the 41. Two identical masses each of mass 1.5 kg,
x-axis as shown in the figure, then the initially at rest, are at large distance apart. They
approach each other due to gravitational
y-coordinate of the central maxima is given by
interaction. The speed of each particle when they
are at distance 4 m apart is nearly
(1) 1.25 × 10–3 mm/s (2) 2.5 × 10–3 mm/s
(3) 5 × 10–3 mm/s (4) 7 × 10–3 mm/s
42. A particle having charge q enters a uniform
magnetic field of magnitude B (directed into the
plane of paper) and is deflected a distance X
after travelling a distance Y as shown. The
magnitude of linear momentum of particle is
(1) sin (2) D cos

(3) D tan (4) D cot
39. In an arrangement to amplify an audio signal, the
amplifier used has a voltage gain of Av. For an
input audio signal supply Vs, the output V0 will be
qBY qBY
(1) (2)
2 X
qB  Y 2  qBY 2
(3)  + X (4)
2  X  2X

43. A block of mass m is released from rest from the
top of a smooth path which ends into a vertical
(1)
1
(A V )
3 v s
(2)
1
(A V )
2 v s
circular path.
 RA 
(3) AvVs (4)  i v Vs
R +R
 i s 
40. Consider that force F acting on a body as
function of position (x) and time (t) is expressed
as F = A sin ( k1x ) + B cos ( k2t ) . From the given
Force applied by the surface of path on block
information, match the column I with column II. when it reaches the point ‘B’ will be
(1) 7mg (2) 5mg
Column I Column II
(3) 3mg (4) 9mg
(A) Dimensions of A (P) [M0L0T–1] 44. Consider the following statements regarding
photoelectric effect and choose the correct
(B) Dimensions of k1 (Q) [M0L–1T–1]
option.
(C) Dimensions of k2 (R) [MLT–2] (A) Photoelectric effect demonstrates the wave
nature of light.
(D) Dimensions of k1k2 (S) [M0L–1T0]
(B) The number of photoelectrons emitted is
(1) A → R, B → S, C → P, D → Q proportional to the frequency of incident light.
(1) Only (A) is correct
(2) A → P, B → Q, C → R, D → S
(2) Only (B) is correct
(3) A → R, B → P, C → Q, D → S (3) Both (A) and (B) are correct
(4) A → S, B → P, C → Q, D → R (4) Neither (A) nor (B) is correct
(5)
45. A ball of relative density 0.6 falls into water from (C) Equivalent (R) R
a height of 1 m above water surface. The depth resistance between
to which the ball will move inside water is ‘b’ and ‘d’
(neglect viscous forces)
(1) A → P, B → Q, C → R
(1) 2.5 m (2) 1.5 m
(3) 4.5 m (4) 5.0 m (2) A → Q, B → P, C → R
46. A part of the circuit is shown in figure. All the (3) A → R, B → P, C → Q

capacitors have capacitance of 2 F. Then (4) A → R, B → Q, C → P
48. Following figure shows a uniform thick rope of
length 60 cm having mass of 3 kg. The strings
shown in figure are pulled by constant forces 6 N
and 24 N. The force exerted by 40 cm part of the
rope on 20 cm part will be (all surfaces are
smooth and string, pulleys are light)
(1) Charge on capacitor C1 is zero

(4) Charge on all the capacitors C1, C2, C3 is non
zero
(1) 6 N (2) 12 N
47. In the figure shown, each resistor has resistance
(3) 18 N (4) 21 N
R. Match the column I and column II.
49. Two moles of a diatomic gas (ideal) is taken
through process PT = constant. Its temperature
is increased from T to 2T. What is work done by
the system?
(1) 2RT (2) 3RT
(3) 4RT (4) 8RT
50. A non ideal coil, a capacitor and an ac source of
rms voltage 24 V are connected in series. By
varying frequency of the source, a maximum rms
Column-I Column-II current of 6 A is observed. If coil is connected to
(A) Equivalent (P) a D.C battery of emf 12 V and internal resistance
R
resistance between 2 , the current in it in steady state will be
2
‘a’ and ‘b’ (1) 1 A
(2) 1.5 A
(B) Equivalent (Q) 5R
resistance between 8 (3) 2 A
‘a’ and ‘c’ (4) 2.4 A
CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A 52. Molarity of glucose solution with 18 gL–1 strength
will be
51. Which of the following has maximum mass?
(1) 1 M (2) 0.1 M
(1) 0.1 gram molecule oxygen
(3) 0.01 M (4) 10 M
(2) 10 ml H2O at STP
53. Which of the following is a colligative property?
(3) 3.01 × 1022 molecules H2SO4 (1) Osmotic pressure (2) Vapour pressure
(4) 1 gram atom hydrogen (3) Boiling point (4) Freezing point
(6)
54. Vinyl chloride is 61. Strongest acid among the following is

(1) CH2 = CH – CH2 – Cl
(1) (2) CH3CH2OH

(2)
(3) CH2 = CH – Cl
(4) CH3 – Cl
(3) (4)
55. Which of the following can not be obtained by
Sandmeyer’s reaction?
62. Which of the following compounds does not react
with Hinsberg reagent?
(1) (2)
(1)
(2)
(3) (4)
56. Which of the following gases has maximum rate

of diffusion under similar conditions? (3)
(1) CO2 (2) NO2
(3) CH4 (4) O2
57. Which of the following ion will be colourless in
aqueous medium? (4)
(1) Sc3+ (2) V3+
(3) Cu2+ (4) Fe2+ 63. Addition polymer among the following is
58. Consider the following statements (1) Teflon (2) Terylene

(3) Nylon-6 (4) PHBV
I. Single N-N bond is weaker than the single
P-P bond. 64. Consider the following statements
II. Nitrogen cannot form d-p bond. I. Equanil is used in controlling depression and
hypertension.
III. Except nitrogen, all the elements of 15th
group show allotropy. II. Barbiturates are hypotonic.
Correct statement among the following is/are III. Veronal and Luminal are derivatives of
barbituric acid.
(1) I only (2) II only
The correct statement(s) among the following
(3) I and II only (4) I, II and III
is/are
59. Pyrosulphuric acid among the following is
(1) I only (2) III only
(1) H2S2O4 (2) H2S2O7
(3) I and II only (4) I, II and III
(3) H2S2O5 (4) H2SO3
65. The maximum number of electrons in third shell
60. Phenetole (ethoxybenzene) on reaction with HI of an atom can be
gives
(1) 8 (2) 9
(1) (3) 18 (4) 32
66. The correct order of increasing metallic character
(2) is given by
(1) P < Si < Be < Na
(3) (2) Na < Be < Si < P
(3) Be < Na < P < Si
(4) (4) Si < P < Na < Be
(7)
67. Which of the following nitrates does not release In the light of above statements choose the
NO2 upon heating? correct option among the following.
(1) LiNO3 (2) Be(NO3)2 (1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
(3) Mg(NO3)2 (4) KNO3 incorrect
68. The total number of hydrogen bonds formed by (2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
each boric acid molecule is correct
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) Statement-I and statement-II both are correct
(3) 5 (4) 6 (4) Statement-I and statement-II both are
69. Which of the following solvent replaced incorrect
Cl2C = CCl2 for dry cleaning of clothes? 75. The formula of a solid compound formed by two
(1) CCl4 ( ) (2) CO2 ( ) elements A and B in which atoms of A form fcc
lattice and atoms of B occupy all the octahedral
(3) CH2 = O (g) (4) PAN (g)
voids and tetrahedral voids, is
(1) A2B3 (2) A2B
following.
(3) AB2 (4) AB3
(1) Dihydrogen is used as rocket fuel in space
research 76. Kjeldahl method for estimation of nitrogen is not
applicable to
(2) Dihydrogen is used in fuel cells for
generating electric energy (1) Aniline (2) Acetonitrile
(3) Atomic hydrogen and oxy-hydrogen torches (3) Pyridine (4) Benzamide
find use for cutting and welding purposes 77. Consider the following statements
(4) Protium (ordinary hydrogen) contains equal (a) Boiling point of 2-methylbutane is greater
number of protons and neutrons than n-pentane.
71. Purest form of iron is (b) Petrol and lower fractions of petroleum are
(1) Wrought iron (2) Cast iron used for dry cleaning of clothes to remove
(3) Pig iron (4) Steel grease stains.
72. The standard electrode potential (E) values of (c) Melting point of 2,2-Dimethylpropane is
Zn2+/Zn, Ni2+/Ni, K+/K and Ag+/Ag are –0.76 V, greater than pentane.
–0.25 V, –2.93 V and 0.80 V respectively. The The correct statement(s) is/are
correct decreasing order of reducing power of the (1) (b) only (2) (c) only
metals is (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
(1) Ag > Ni > Zn > K
78. The pair of compounds which can be
(2) Ag > K > Zn > Ni distinguished by iodoform test is
(3) K > Zn > Ni > Ag
(4) Ni > Zn > K > Ag
73. Formula of a metal oxide with metal deficiency (1)
defect in its crystal is M0.95O. The crystal contains
M2+ and M3+ ions. The fraction of metal that exist
as M3+ ions in the crystal is
3 2 (2)
(1) (2)
38 19
11 5
(3) (4)
19 38
(3)
74. Statement-I: Specific conductance of a weak
electrolyte increases on dilution.
Statement-II: Molar conductance of a strong (4)
electrolyte on dilution marginally increases.
(8)
79. Incorrect statement among the following is SECTION-B

(1) Amylose and amylopectin are components of 86. 5 L of a gas is heated from 27°C to 227°C at
starch constant pressure, then final volume of the gas
(2) Amylose and amylopectin are insoluble in will be
water (1) 42.04 L (2) 10 L
(3) Chemically amylose is a long unbranched (3) 8.33 L (4) 14.38 L
chain with 200-1000 -D-(+) glucose units
87. The rearranged product obtained on electrolytic
(4) Amylopectin is branched chain polymer of reduction of nitrobenzene in strongly acidic
-D-glucose units medium is
80. Number of five membered ring present in
(1) Azoxybenzene (2) p-aminophenol
complex [Co(en)2Cl2]Br is
(3) Hydrazobenzene (4) Azobenzene
(1) 5 (2) Zero
88. Which of the following set of quantum numbers
(3) 1 (4) 2
is/are possible?
81. Which among the following has highest entropy
at 25°C? n l ml ms
(1) H2( ) (2) O2( ) 1
I. 4 2 –2 +
(3) O3( ) (4) CO2(g) 2
82. For which of the following rate law, overall order
1
of reaction is one? II. 2 1 1 −
2
3
(1) r = k[A] 2 [B]1 1
III. 3 1 2 +
3 2
(2) r = k[A] [B]−1
2
1
3 1 IV 1 0 0 −
(3) r = k[A] [B]
2 2 2
3
−
1 (1) I, II and III
(4) r = k[A] 2 [B] 2
(2) I, II and IV
83. Brownian movement does not depend upon
(3) II, III and IV
(1) Nature of colloid
(4) I, III and IV
(2) Size of colloidal particles
89. The correct order of melting point the following
(3) Viscosity of solution compounds is
(4) Temperature of solution
(1) NaI > NaBr > NaCl
84. Which of the following concentrations of A, B and
(2) NaCl > NaBr > NaI
C represents the equilibrium concentration for the
reaction A + 2B 2C , having Kc = 2 M–1? (3) NaBr > NaCl > NaI
(4) NaI > NaCl > NaBr
(1) [A] = 1 M [B] = 2 M [C] = 2 M
90. The oxidation states of Cr and S in CrO 5 and
(2) [A] = 2 M [B] = 2 M [C] = 1 M H2SO5 respectively are
(3) [A] = 1 M [B] = 2 M [C] = 1 M (1) +10 and +8 (2) +6 and +8
(4) [A] = 2 M [B] = 1 M [C] = 2 M (3) +6 and +6 (4) +6 and +4
85. Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present in 91. The weight of zinc (atomic mass = 65.3 u)
(1) p-nitrophenol displaced by a quantity of electricity which
displaces 11200 ml of H2 at STP will be
(2) o-nitrophenol
(1) 65.3 g (2) 48.97 g
(3) Phenol
(4) Nitrobenzene (3) 32.65 g (4) 97.95 g
(9)
92. Correct order of stability of the given free radicals 96. The heat of combustion of carbon (graphite) to
is CO2 is –393.5 kJ mol–1. The heat release upon
• • • formation of 15.84 g of CO2 from carbon
( CH3 )3 C PhCH2 CH2 = CH − CH2 (graphite) and oxygen gas is
(i) (ii) (iii) (1) 212.49 kJ (2) 141.66 kJ

(3) 21.25 kJ (4) 42.5 kJ
(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii)
97. Which of the following graph is correct for zero
(2) (iii) > (i) > (ii)
order reaction A → B?
(3) (iii) > (ii) > (i)
(4) (i) > (iii) > (ii)
93. Consider the following reactions sequence (1) (2)
(3) (4)
Product B is
(1) n-propyl benzene
98. Which of the following converts alcohol into petrol
(2) Isopropyl benzene
directly?
(3) 1-ethyl-2-methylbenzene
(1) Ni
(4) 4-ethyl-2-methylbenzene
(2) NaAlO2
(3) ZSM–5
(4) Platinised asbestos
99. Extent of forward reaction for the equilibrium
Major product B is
2H2(g) + CO(g) CH3OH(g) can be increased
(1) (2) by
(1) Adding CH3OH
(2) Removing H2
(3) Increasing pressure
(3) (4)
(4) Increasing volume
95. Electronic configuration of iron in [Fe(H2O)6]Cl3 is 100. In which of the following molecules, numbers of
(1) t 32g e2g (2) t 52g e0g sigma and pi bonds are not equal?
(1) HCN (2) CO2
(3) t 22g e3g 4
(4) t 2g e1g (3) SO3 (4) C2H4
BOTANY
SECTION - A 102. Which of the following statement is correct w.r.t.
structure of double stranded DNA?
101. In PS-II, reaction centre has an absorption (1) Cytosine pairs with guanine through two
maxima at H-bond
(1) 680 nm (2) Adenine is linked with ribose sugar by N-
glycosidic linkage
(2) 700 nm
(3) The two strands run in parallel fashion
(3) 540 nm (4) It is consist of only two different pyrimidines
(4) 440 nm in it
(10)
103. Select the incorrect match from the following 108. Select the incorrect match.
(1) DNA ligase – Opens DNA (1) Boron – Pollen germination
helix during
(2) Iron – Activates catalase
replication
enzyme
(2)  – Initiation factor
(3) Nitrogen – Water-splitting reaction
involved in
in photosynthesis
transcription
(4) Zinc – Synthesis of auxin
(3)  – Termination
factor involved in 109. Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles
transcription and their identity is lost as discrete elements
during
(4) DNA dependent – Involved in
(1) Telophase (2) Anaphase
RNA polymerase primer formation
during (3) Cytokinesis (4) Metaphase
replication 110. The homologous chromosome separate, while
sister chromatids remain associated at their
104. Which of the given genes w.r.t. lac operon codes
centromere during
for transacetylase?
(1) Anaphase II (2) Metaphase II
(1) Lac i (2) Lac z
(3) Anaphase I (4) Prophase I
(3) Lac a (4) Lac y
111. Which among the following have colonial forms?
105. Read the given statements stating them true (T)
(1) Chlamydomonas (2) Ulothrix
or false (F) and select the correct option.
(3) Spirogyra (4) Volvox
(A) Parthenium is an exotic species which came
as a contaminant with imported wheat in 112. Distinct compact structures called strobili is/are
India. found in
(B) Tropical environments unlike temperate (a) Selaginella (b) Equisetum
ones, are less seasonal, relatively more (c) Funaria (d) Porphyra
constant and predictable. (1) Only (c) and (d) (2) Only (a)
(C) Tropical environments support a little range (3) Only (a) and (b) (4) Only (b)
of species. 113. Which among the following is pre-fertilisation
(1) A–T, B–T, C–F (2) A–T, B–T, C–T event in sexual reproduction of an organism?
(3) A–F, B–F, C–F (4) A–F, B–F, C–T (1) Formation of zygote (2) Embryogenesis
106. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. ‘terror of (3) Pollination (4) Syngamy
Bengal’. 114. Match the following column I with column II and
(1) These are plants of water hyacinth select the correct option.
(2) These are most problematic aquatic weed Column I Column II
(3) They do not grow in eutrophic water bodies
A. Dedifferentiation i. Cork
(4) These were introduced by Europeans in India
B. Redifferentiation ii. Tracheary element
107. In an antiport
(1) The two types of molecules cross the C. Differentiation iii. Cork cambium
membrane in the same direction
A B C
(2) The two different molecules or substance
move in opposite directions (1) i iii ii
(3) Different molecules utilize ATP energy for (2) iii i ii
movement
(3) iii ii i
(4) A molecule move across a membrane
independent of other molecule (4) ii iii i
(11)
115. Read the following statements and state them 120. Select the incorrect match from the following.
True (T) or False (F).
(1) Alternate phyllotaxy – Mustard
A. The portion of embryonal axis above the
level of cotyledon is hypocotyl. (2) Palmately compound – Silk cotton
B. Castor is non-albuminous seed. leaves
C. Banana develop without fertilisation. (3) Whorled phyllotaxy – Calotropis
A B C (4) Pinnately compound leaf – Neem
(1) T F F 121. Identify the correct statements and choose the
(2) T F T option accordingly.
(3) F T T (a) In dicot roots, pericycle is completely
transformed into vascular cambium.
(4) F F T
(b) Lenticels regulate the transpiration rate in
116. woody trees.
(c) Bark in a tree does not include the vascular
cambium.
(d) Cork is impervious to water due to suberin
deposition in the cell wall.
Select the correct option for the given age
pyramid. (1) (a) and (d) only
(1) This is stable population (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) Pre reproductive individuals are equal to (3) (c) and (d) only
post- reproductive individuals (4) (b) and (c) only
(3) This pyramid is shown by developing or 122. Lower epidermis of leaf usually has more number
growing countries
of stomata as compared to upper epidermis in
(4) In this pyramid number of females will be
(1) Sunflower (2) Maize
more than males always
117. A bioactive molecule which is used as an (3) Grass (4) Wheat
immunosuppressive agent in organ transplant 123. The ribosomes which has larger sub-unit as 60S
patients is produced by are found in
(1) Monascus purpureus (1) Perinuclear space
(2) Trichoderma polysporum (2) Inside the rough endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Streptococcus
(3) Stroma and chloroplast
(4) Saccharomyces
(4) Cytosol of eukaryotes
118. The green plants of the ecosystem
124. The material enclosed by inner nuclear
(1) Occupy the first trophic level
membrane has
(2) Are called primary consumers
(a) DNA
(3) Use NPP for their respiration
(b) RNA
(4) Can occupy more than one trophic level
(c) Non-histone proteins
119. Which of the following is not considered to be the
main function of root system? (d) Histone proteins
(1) Providing anchorage to the plant parts The correct one(s) is/are
(2) Synthesizing hexose sugar from inorganic (1) (a), (b) and (d) only
materials
(2) (a) and (d) only
(3) Absorption of water and minerals from the
(3) All (a), (b), (c) and (d)
soil
(4) Synthesizing plant growth regulators
(12)
125. The function of the membranous structures 132. Read the given features and identify the
‘chromatophore’ in cyanobacteria is similar to taxonomic aid.
that of ____________ in Euglena. (a) Used for identification of plants and animals
Select the correct option to fill in the blank. based on the similarities and dissimilarities.
(1) Nucleus (b) Are generally analytical in nature.
(2) Chloroplast (1) Flora (2) Monograph
(3) Rough endoplasmic reticulum (3) Taxonomic keys (4) Manual
(4) Vacuole 133. Taxonomy does not include
126. Carl Woese separated archaebacteria from (1) Classification (2) Nomenclature
eubacteria on the basis of major differences such (3) Phylogeny (4) Identification
as 134. One of the coenzymes for complex I is
(a) Occurrence of branched chain lipids in the (1) FAD (2) FMN
membrane. (3) UQ (4) Cyt c
(b) Absence of peptidoglycan in the cell wall 135. Read the following statements and select the
(c) Chemoautotrophic and heterotrophic mode of correct option.
nutrition A. Resistance of host plant to any disease is
Choose the correct one(s). determined by the genetic constitution of the
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) host plant.
(3) (a) and (c) (4) All (a), (b) and (c) B. Black rot of crucifers is a bacterial disease.
127. Specialised structures of cyanobacteria meant for (1) Only statement A is correct
nitrogen fixation is (2) Only statement B is correct
(1) Mesosome (2) Chromatophore (3) Both statements A and B are correct
(3) Heterocyst (4) Plasmid (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
128. Select the wrong one for slime moulds. SECTION-B
(1) They have naked protoplast
136. Match the following and select the correct one.
(2) They produce thick walled spores
(3) They show phagotrophic mode of nutrition A. Lactobacillus i. Butyric acid
(4) Under favourable condition they produce B. Acetobacter ii. Citric acid
fruiting bodies
C. Clostridium iii. Lactic acid
129. Which of the following traits of pea was not taken
by Mendel for hybridization experiments? D. Aspergillus iv. Acetic acid
(1) Green seed (2) Violet flower

A B C D
(3) Green pod (4) Green leaf
(1) iii ii i iv
130. Mark the genotype that will produce maximum
number of gametes. (2) iii iv i ii
(1) AaBbCcDD (2) AaBBCcDD (3) iv ii iii i
(3) AABbCcDd (4) AaBbCcDd (4) iv i iii ii
131. A pleiotropic gene
137. During which phase of growth model, rate of
(1) Express many traits that spread across a growth is very slow?
gradient
(1) Lag phase and log phase
(2) Has more than two alleles (2) Log phase and stationary phase
(3) Controls different characters (3) Lag phase only
(4) Follows Mendel's law of dominance (4) Lag phase and stationary phase
(13)
138. Read the given statements and select the 143. Select the correct option for vegetative cell and
correct option. generative cell of pollen grains.
Statement A: Algal bloom in water bodies Vegetative Cell Generative Cell
causes deterioration of the water quality and fish
mortality. (1) Large cell with Spindle shaped
abundant food small cell
Statement B: The town people along with the
reserve
biologists of Humboldt state university created
polyblend. (2) Small cell with Large cell with
(1) Only statement A is correct circular nucleus irregular shaped
(2) Only statements B is correct nucleus
(3) Both statements are correct (3) Small cell which Large cell with small
(4) Both statements are incorrect floats in the nucleus
cytoplasm of
139. Which of the given is not true w.r.t. stability for a
generative cell
biological community?
(1) A stable community should show too much (4) Large spindle Small cell floats in
variation in productivity from year to year shaped cell with the cytoplasm of
circular nucleus vegetative cell
(2) It must be resistant to occasional natural
disturbances 144. Select the odd one out w.r.t. symmetry of flower.
(3) It must be resistant to occasional man-made (1) Tulip (2) Trifolium
disturbances (3) Allium (4) Petunia
(4) It must be resistant to invasions by alien 145. Which of the following features is not true for
species dicot stem?
140. Select the incorrect one(s) for heterochromatin. (1) Hypodermis, consists of collenchymatous cell
A. Darkly stained region (2) Cells of endodermis are rich in starch grains
B. Loosely packed chromatin (3) Vascular bundles are arranged in a ring
C. Transcriptionally it is active (4) Exarch arrangement of primary xylem
D. Densely packed chromatin 146. The cell organelle in which the components has
(1) A and C (2) B and D an organisation like the cartwheel
(3) B and C (4) A and D (1) Provides mechanical support to the plasma
141. Select the incorrect statement regarding membrane
embryo-sacs in angiosperms. (2) Involves in the synthesis of proteins
(1) They are highly reduced female (3) Forms basal body of cilia and flagella
gametophytes
(4) Has central tubules enclosed by central
(2) Each have three-celled egg apparatus sheath
(3) Each cell of an embryo-sac is diploid 147. The subviral agent discovered by T.O. Diener
(4) Its formation is preceded by meiosis (1) Has low molecular weight RNA
142. Which of the following statement is true for (2) Contains wrongly folded proteins
stomata?
(3) Is infectious to animals only
(1) The orientation of the microfibrils in the cell
(4) Has dsDNA and proteins
wall of the guard cell aids the opening of
stoma 148. Female Drosophila
(2) The inner wall of each guard cell is thin and (1) Are easily distinguishable from male by
rigid smaller body size
(3) They are bean-shaped in grasses (2) Have 4 pairs of chromosomes
(4) Cellulose microfibrils are oriented (3) Produces two types of gametes
longitudinally for easy opening of stoma (4) Have heteromorphic sex chromosomes
(14)
149. Decomposition of detritus is favoured by 150. Plants cannot be seen away from their predators.
(1) Anaerobiosis environment So, they produce certain chemicals to defend
themselves. All of the following are examples of
(2) Oxygen them, except.
(3) Lignin and chitin in detritus (1) Caffeine (2) Cardiac glycosides
(4) Low temperature (3) Strychnine (4) Cellulose
ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A 155. Match column I with column II w.r.t. diseases and
151. Arrange the following reproductive events in their symptoms or characteristics.
humans according to their occurrence. Column I Column II
(a) Gestation
a. Pneumonia (i) Constipation,
(b) Gametogenesis
abdominal pain, stools
(c) Insemination with excess mucous
(d) Fertilisation and blood clots
(e) Parturition
b. Amoebiasis (ii) Infection occurs in
(f) Implantation conducting part of
Select the option with correct sequence. human respiratory
(1) a → c → d → f → b → e system
(2) b → c → d → f → a → e c. Ascariasis (iii) Infection occurs in
(3) b → c → d → a → f → e gaseous exchange
(4) c → b → d → e → a → f part of human
respiratory system
152. Animal in which syngamy occurs inside the body
of the organism and they lay fertilised eggs d. Common (iv) Internal bleeding,
covered by hard calcareous shell cold fever, anaemia,
(1) Felis (2) Rana blockage of intestinal
(3) Corvus (4) Catla passage
153. Contraceptive method/device whose mode of Select the correct option.
action is similar to that of pills and their effective
period is much longer, does not
(1) Inhibit ovulation
(2) Alter the quality of cervical mucus
(3) Placed under skin (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(4) Reduce fertilising capacity of sperms 156. Embryo of Rohu and Alligator have a row of
154. A person had renal failure so his doctor advised vestigial gill slits just behind the head but it is a
him to undergo kidney transplantation. The functional organ only in Rohu and not found in
chances of rejection by the immune system of Alligator. This evidence for evolution was
the host is least when the kidney is taken from a proposed by
(1) Parent (1) Karl Ernst von Baer
(2) Friend (2) Ernst Haeckel
(3) Twin brother (3) Charles Darwin
(4) Cousin (4) Lamarck
(15)
157. Choose the incorrect match among the 163. All of the given statements are true w.r.t.
following. separation of DNA fragments by gel
Enzyme Site of Substrate electrophoresis except
action (1) The cutting of DNA by restriction
endonucleases result in the fragments of
(1) Nucleases Intestine Nucleic
DNA and these fragments can be separated
acids
by this technique
(2) Pepsin Stomach Dipeptides (2) The most commonly used matrix is agarose
(3) Salivary Mouth Starch which is a natural polymer extracted from sea
amylase weeds
(4) Sucrase Intestine Sucrose (3) The DNA fragments resolve according to
their size. Hence, larger the fragment size,
158. Choose the odd one w.r.t. mucosa layer of the farther it moves
alimentary canal.
(4) The separated DNA fragments can be
(1) Villi (2) Rugae
visualised only after staining the DNA with a
(3) Gastric glands (4) Brunner’s gland compound known as ethidium bromide
159. Partial pressure of O2 in systemic vein is 164. Complete the analogy and select the correct
(1) Equal to pCO2 in pulmonary artery option.
(2) More than pCO2 in oxygenated blood Glenoid cavity : Pectoral girdle :: __________:
(3) Equal to pCO2 in pulmonary vein Pelvic girdle
(4) Less than pCO2 in atmospheric air (1) Acromion process (2) Occipital condyle
160. In which of the given organisms an excretory (3) Acetabulum (4) Coracoid process
system is absent?
165. Which of the following set of bones are unpaired?
(1) Pila (2) Antedon
(1) Frontal, Parietal, Temporal
(3) Aplysia (4) Anopheles
(2) Nasal, Occipital, Mandible
option that correctly states them as true (T) or (3) Ethmoid, Lacrimal, Palatine
false (F) w.r.t. human excretory system. (4) Sphenoid, Vomer, Frontal
(a) The cortex extends in between the medullary 166. Match column I with column II w.r.t human
pyramids as calyx. evolution and select the correct option.
(b) Vasa recta is absent or highly reduced in
Column I Column II
cortical nephrons.
(c) Kidney is situated between the levels of 12th a. Australopithecines (i) Probably ate
thoracic and 3rd lumbar vertebra close to the meat
dorsal inner wall of abdominal cavity.
b. Homo erectus (ii) Walked like
(a) (b) (c) gorillas
(1) F T T c. Neanderthal man (iii) Hunted with
(2) T F F stone weapons
but essentially
(3) F F T ate fruits
(4) F T F d. Ramapithecus (iv) Lived in near
162. How many of the organisms given in the box east and central
below exhibit metagenesis? Asia
Obelia, Hydra, Physalia, Aurelia, Gorgonia, (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
Meandrina, Pennatula, Adamsia (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(1) One (2) Three (3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) Two (4) Four (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(16)
167. Which of the following is not correct for axonal 171. A gland ‘X’ is present at the antero-superior
membrane, when a neuron is not conducting any region of ‘Y’. The cells of Y produce a peptide
impulse, i.e., resting? hormone called ‘Z’ which stimulates formation of
(1) Comparatively more permeable to K+ ions RBCs. Identify X, Y and Z and select the correct
option.
(2) Permeable to negatively charged proteins
present in axoplasm X Y Z
(3) Nearly impermeable to Na+ ions (1) Thymus Heart ANF
(4) Negatively charged on its inner surface (2) Parathyroid Thyroid TCT
168. Inner parts of cerebral hemispheres and a group (3) Adrenal Kidney Erythropoietin
of associated deep structures like amygdala, etc., (4) Neurohypo- Adenohypophysis TSH
form a complex structure which is concerned with physis
(a) Olfaction 172. Organism (a) differs from (b) in having
(b) Control of respiration
(c) Autonomic responses
(d) Expression of fear and rage
(e) Regulation of sexual behaviour
(f) Gastric secretions
(1) (a), (c), (d) and (e)
(2) (d) and (e) only
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (f)
(4) (b), (c), (d) and (f)
(1) Presence of one auricle and one ventricle
(2) External fertilisation
following.
(3) Separate sexes
(1) Palmitic acid has 16 carbons including
carboxyl carbon (4) Lack of capacity to regulate body
temperature
(2) Lipids are not polymers but they are
assembled from smaller molecules by 173. All the given options are functions of water
dehydration vascular system of echinoderms except
(3) Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon atoms (1) Locomotion

including the carboxyl carbon (2) Respiration
(4) Lecithin is an example of phospholipid found (3) Reproduction
in neural tissues but absent in cell membrane (4) Capture and transport of food
170. Which of the following disease is associated with 174. Identify phyla A and B from the following set of
symptoms given below? features in box given below.
(a) Low plasma Na+ concentration
Features Phylum A Phylum B
(b) High plasma K+ concentration
a. Presence of 3 Absent Present
(c) Hypoglycemia
germ layers
(d) Increased urinary Na+
b. Hermaphroditism Present Present
(e) Fatigue
(1) Acromegaly c. Regeneration Present Present in
some
(2) Graves’ disease
members
(3) Addison’s disease
d. Digestive System Absent Incomplete
(4) Diabetes mellitus
(17)
Select the correct option. 180. Which of the following step immediately precedes
A B artificial insemination in MOET?
(1) Platyhelminthes Arthropoda (1) Superovulation in superior breed of surrogate
mother
(2) Porifera Platyhelminthes
(2) Non-surgical transfer of embryo at 8-32 cell
(3) Cnidaria Aschelminthes stage
(4) Ctenophora Annelida (3) Mating with an elite bull
175. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. the (4) Injection of FSH like hormone in genetic
epithelium found in the lining of small intestine? mother
(1) Composed of a single layer of tall and 181. EcoRI cuts the DNA between bases _______
slender cells and ______ only when the recognition sequence
(2) Nuclei are located at the base GAATTC is present in the DNA.
(3) Free surface may have microvilli Select the correct option to fill the blanks
respectively.
(4) Also lines bronchioles
(1) A and T (2) T and C
176. Resistance against infection induced by vaccines
is an example of what type of immunity? (3) G and A (4) A and C
(1) Natural active immunity 182. Read the following statements carefully.
(2) Artificial active immunity (i) PCR is used to detect mutations in genes in
suspected cancer patients.
(ii) A direct method to insert foreign gene into
(4) Artificial passive immunity plant cells is micro-injection.
177. Malpighian tubules in cockroach are present at (iii) The first transgenic cow, Rosie, produced
the junction of A and B and are human protein enriched milk, i.e., 5.4 grams
per litre.
C in number. Choose the option that
(iv) RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms
correctly fills the blanks. as a method of cellular defense.
(A) (B) (C) How many of the above statements are correct?
(1) Foregut Midgut 6-8 (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
(2) Midgut Hindgut 100-150
183. How many cycles of PCR are required for
(3) Foregut Midgut 100-150 obtaining 256 molecules of dsDNA, if your
(4) Foregut Hindgut 6-8 starting material was one molecule of dsDNA?
(1) 4 (2) 9
178. Erythroblastosis foetalis can be prevented by
(3) 128 (4) 8
administering anti-Rh antibodies to
184. The ratio of maternal to foetal blood flowing
(1) Rh –ve mother post partum Rh +ve baby
through umbilical cord of a mammalian embryo is
(2) Rh +ve mother post partum Rh +ve baby
(1) 50 : 50 (2) 75 : 25
(3) Rh –ve mother post partum Rh –ve baby
(3) 0 : 100 (4) 100 : 0
(4) Rh +ve mother post partum Rh –ve baby
185. Select the option representing correct examples
179. If the enzyme commission number of an enzyme of analogous organs.
is 2.7.1.1 then it catalyse which of the following (a) Sweet potato and potato
reaction?
(b) Vertebrate hearts and brains
(1) AB + H2O  AH + BOH (c) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of
Cucurbita
(d) Eyes of the Octopus and of mammals
(2) (e) Flippers of penguin and dolphin
(3) S – G + S’ → S + S’ – G (1) (a), (d), (e) (2) (a), (b), (c)
(4) Alcohol + NAD → Aldehyde + NADH2 (3) (b), (c), (d) (4) (c), (d), (e)
(18)
SECTION-B 189. If a foreign gene of interest is inserted at SalI

recognition site of cloning vector pBR322, then
186. Assertion (A): The walls of ventricles are much
the transformants are selected by growing them
thicker than that of the atria.
on a medium containing
Reason (R): Ventricles pump blood to different (1) Tetracycline
organs and the pressure with which the blood
(2) Ampicillin
flows through them is much more than the
(3) Kanamycin
auricles.
(4) Both tetracycline and ampicillin
190. Identify the given molecule and select the
correct option.
incorrect option w.r.t. it.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (1) Its receptors are present principally in the
brain
187. Hormones which regulate gene expression or
chromosome function by the interaction of (2) It is taken by inhalation and oral ingestion
hormone-receptor complex with the genome (3) It is obtained from Papaver somniferum
excludes the hormone which (4) It affects cardiovascular system of the body
(1) Acts on CNS and influence male libido 191. Which of the following is true w.r.t. the most
variable phase of menstrual cycle w.r.t.
(2) Is secreted by stimulation from ACTH of
hormone?
pituitary and suppresses the immune
(1) Equal level of LH and FSH
response
(2) Level of estrogen and progesterone is almost
(3) Is secreted by gland located on either side of same
trachea and regulate BMR
(3) Level of LH is lower than FSH
(4) Is called emergency hormone (4) Level of estrogen is higher than progesterone
188. Match column I with column II and select the 192. How many of the following methods from the box
correct option. can be included under test tube baby
programme?
Column I Column II
ZIFT, IUT, AI, ICSI, GIFT, IUI
a. Patent on Basmati rice (i) 1983
by an American (1) Two (2) Three
company (3) Four (4) Five
b. First clinical gene (ii) 1997 193. Read the given statements and choose the
incorrect one.
therapy
(1) Oils generally have lower melting point than
c. Humulin by Eli Lilly Co. (iii) 1972 fats
d. Construction of first (iv) 1990 (2) Percentage of total cellular mass of
recombinant DNA carbohydrates is higher than that of nucleic
acids
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(3) Relative abundance of carbon and hydrogen
(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) with respect to other elements is higher in
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) any living organism than in earth’s crust
(4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) Abrin and ricin are toxins
(19)
194. B-DNA is the most common form of DNA having 198. Marine mollusc having white shell attached to
all the following salient features except white goose neck barnacles protect themselves
(1) The pitch would be 34 Å from predators. Mollusc having dark tan shell
(2) The strand turns 36° at each step of ascent attached to tan coloured rocks survive whereas
mollusc having intermediate shell colour fell prey
(3) The rise per base pair is 3.6 Å
to predator. The type of natural selection in
(4) One full turn of helical strand involves 10 above context is
base pairs
(1) Stabilising selection (2) Directional selection
195. Total volume of air accommodated in the lungs at
(3) Balancing selection (4) Disruptive selection
the end of a forced inspiration is
199. The set of hormones released by the functional
(1) VC + FRC
unit between developing embryo and mother are
(2) IC + ERV
(1) hCG, hPL, Oxytocin
(3) ERV + TV + IRV – EC
(2) Estrogen, Progesterone, FSH
(4) TV + IRV + FRC
(3) LH, hPL, Estrogen
196. Time duration between dub and lub under normal
physiological condition in an adult human is (4) hCG, hPL, progesterone
(1) 0.3 s (2) 0.5 s 200. Read the statements and select the correct
option.
(3) 0.4 s (4) 0.1 s
Statement-A: Inbreeding exposes harmful
recessive genes that are eliminated by selection.
(1) Atherosclerosis – Lumen of arteries Statement-B: Hisardale is a new breed of sheep
become narrower developed in Punjab by interspecific
(2) Heart attack – Congestive heart hybridisation.
failure (1) Only statement A is correct
(3) Angina pectoris – Acute chest pain (2) Only statement B is correct
(4) Heart failure – Heart is not pumping (3) Both statements A and B are correct
blood effectively (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
❑ ❑ ❑
(20)
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16/06/2022 CODE-A


Instructions:
PHYSICS
SECTION-A 3. In which of the following case, potential at point
1. The motion of a body is given by the equation O is not zero?
dv
= 4 − 2v , where v is the speed in m/s and t is
dt
(1)
time in s. If the body was at rest at t = 0 then
magnitude of initial acceleration of the body is
(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 4 m/s2
(2)
(3) 6 m/s2
(4) 8 m/s2
2. If W is the work done in forming a bubble of (3) For MORE

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radius r, the work done in forming a bubble of
radius 2r will be
(1) 2W
(2) 4W (4)
(3) W
(4) 3W
(1)
4. The voltmeter shown in figure reads 18 V across 9. A transverse wave described as

the 50  resistor. The resistance of the voltmeter
is  (
Y = 0.04 sin  2.0 m −1
) x + ( 60 s ) t 
−1
propagates
on a stretched string having linear mass density

of 1.5 × 10–4 kg/m. The tension in string is
(1) 0.110 N
(2) 0.135 N
(3) 0.175 N
(4) 0.210 N
10. The ratio of smallest wavelength of radiation that
may be emitted by He+ to that of Li++ is
900 500
(1)  (2) 
25 7 (1) 4 : 9
900 240 (2) 9 : 4

(3)  (4) 
7 7 (3) 3 : 2
5. Two batteries of different emfs and different (4) 2 : 3
internal resistances are connected as shown in
figure. The voltage across AB in volts is  R 
11. The graph of ln   versus In(A) (R = radius of
R
 0 
a nucleus and A = its mass number) is
(1) Straight line (2) Ellipse
(3) Parabola (4) Circle
12. A particle having a charge of 80 C and a mass
(1) 5 V (2) 10 V of 8 mg is projected in a uniform magnetic field of
20 mT with a speed of 10 m s–1. If the velocity is
(3) 15 V (4) 2.5 V
perpendicular to the magnetic field, how long will
6. The speed of satellite revolving above the
it take for the particle to come back to its original
surface of earth at a height h is
position for the first time after being projected?
2GM GM
(1) (2) (1) 15.7 s (2) 31.4 s
R R
(3) 62.8 s (4) 7.84 s
2GM GM
(3) (4) 13. Consider the following two statements
R+h (R + h )
Statement-A: In a charge free region, electric
7. Two bodies projected with initial speed of 4 m/s filed lines can be taken to be discontinuous
at two different angles 1 and 2 covers equal curves.
range, then
Statement-B: The concept of field was first
(1) sin 1 = sin 2 (2) sin 1 = cos 2
introduced by Faraday.
(3) sin 1 = tan 2 (4) sin 1 = sin 22 Which of the following option is correct?
8. The equation of wave travelling on a stretched (1) Statement A is correct while statement B is
string along x-axis is given by incorrect
2
x t  (2) Statement A is incorrect while statement B is
− + 
Y = Ae  a b  correct
The dimensional formula of a and b respectively (3) Statement A and statement B both are
are correct
(1) [T] and [L] (2) [L] and [T] (4) Statement A and statement B both are
(3) [L] and [L] (4) [T] and [T] incorrect
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(2)
14. A conducting sphere of radius 5 cm has an 20. A p-n photodiode is manufactured from a
unknown charge. If the electric field at 10 cm semiconductor with band gap of 2.4 eV. The
from the centre of the sphere is 3 × 10 3 N/C and wavelength which can be detected is
points radially outward then net charge on the (1) 5000 nm (2) 5000 Å
sphere is
(3) 4000 nm (4) 600 nm
(1) 2.51 nC (2) 6.67 nC
(3) 7.49 nC (4) 3.33 nC the correct statement(s).
15. Force acting on a body vary with the position(x) (a) Transistor oscillator utilises positive
according to the figure given below. feedback.
(b) Transistor amplifier never utilises the
negative feedback.
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b)
22. Using mass (M), length (L), time (T) and current
(A) as fundamental quantities, the dimensions of
Work done by this force on the body from x = 0 m magnetic permeability are
to x = 15 m will be (1) [ML2 T–2 A–2] (2) [ML T–2 A2]
(1) 120 J (2) 150 J (3) [ML2 T–2 A–1] (4) [ML T–2 A–2]
(3) 375 J (4) 75 J 23. The number of significant figures in result of
16. The maxima of decreasing intensity are observed (10.04 + 0.00230) is
in (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) Interference (2) Diffraction (3) 3 (4) 4
(3) Polarisation (4) Refraction 24. A stone of mass 0.20 kg tied to the end of a
17. An electromagnetic wave is generated by string, is whirled round in a circle of radius 1.2 m.
With what maximum speed stone can be whirled
(1) Charge moving with constant velocity
around if the string can withstand a maximum
(2) Charge at rest tension of 150 N? (Consider Horizontal circular
(3) Accelerating charges motion on smooth table)
(4) Both (1) and (2) (1) 20 m/s (2) 25 m/s
18. The latent heat of a body depends upon (3) 30 m/s (4) 35 m/s
(1) Pressure 25. A steel ring of radius 60 cm and cross-sectional
(2) Nature of phase change area 4 ×10–6 m2 is fitted on a wooden disc of
(3) Properties of substance radius 62 cm. If Young’s modulus of elasticity of
steel is 2 × 1011 N m–2, then tension with which
(4) All of these
the steel ring is expanded is
19. A cylinder of radius r and thermal conductivity K1
(1) 1.2 × 106 N (2) 2.67 × 104 N
is surrounded by a cylindrical shell of inner radius
r and outer radius 2r and thermal conductivity K2. (3) 3.48 × 105 N (4) 1.7 × 105 N
The two ends of system are maintained at 26. A heat engine operates in Carnot cycle between
temperature of T1°C and T2°C respectively. There 427°C and 27°C. It absorbed 15 kcal from the
is no heat loss from system. The equivalent source. The amount of heat that is converted into
thermal conductivity is given by work is equal to
K 2 + 3K1 K1 + 3K 2 (1) 6.23 × 103 cal
(1) (2)
4 4 (2) 7.52 × 103 cal
K1 + K 2 3K1 + 2K 2 (3) 8.57 × 103 cal
(3) (4)
2 4 (4) 9.42 × 103 cal
(3)
27. The density of a gas is 9 × 10–2 kg/m3 and root 32. For a damped oscillator, amplitude becomes
th
mean square velocity of gas molecules is  1
400 m/s. The pressure exerted by the gas on the  4  of its initial value in T time. After what time
 
walls of the vessel is th
 1 
from beginning will amplitude be   of its
(1) 4556 N/m2 (2) 8225 N/m2  64 
(3) 7520 N/m2 (4) 4800 N/m2 initial value?
28. If the apparent value of dip at a place in two (1) 2T (2) 3T
perpendicular vertical planes are respectively 60° (3) 4T (4) 5T
and 45° then true angle of dip at that place is 33. In the given magnetic flux versus time graph, find
magnitude of emf induced in the loop at t = 3 s.
(1) tan–1(2)
4
(2) tan−1  
3
 3
(3) tan−1 
 4 
 
(4) tan−1 ( 5) (1) 5 V (2) 4 V

(3) 30 V (4) Zero
29. The r.m.s. value of current I = (4 cos t + 34. An object is kept at (0, 5) and a plane mirror is
2 sin t ) is inclined at 45° with x-axis as shown in figure.
Coordinates of image formed by the mirror will be
(1) 10 A (2) 2 10 A
(3) 2 20 A (4) 2 5 A
30. A (2 × 2) square sheet is cut out from a (4 × 4)
square sheet as shown in the figure. Shift in
centre of mass will be (take length and breadth in
metre)
(1) (0, –5)

(2) (–5, 0)
(3) (5, 0)
(4) No image will be obtained
35. A thin biconvex lens is cut into four parts which
are rearranged as shown. If power of lens is P,
2 the power of combination after rearranging will be
(1) m (2) 2 2 m
3
74
(3) m (4) 1 m
3
31. A sphere is in pure rolling on the ground with
speed v. The speed of its bottom-most point at
any instant is
(1) v (2) 2v
(1) P (2) 2P
(3) 2v (4) Zero (3) 4P (4) Zero
(4)
SECTION-B 40. A particle having charge of 2 C, mass of 1 kg and

36. A sphere of radius R, made of material of relative speed of 2 m/s enters a uniform magnetic field,
density 1.5 has a concentric cavity of radius r. It having magnetic induction of 2 T at an angle
just floats when placed in a tank full of water. The  = 30° between velocity vector and magnetic
R induction. The pitch of its helical path is
value of will be (in meters)
r
1 3
(1) 3 (2) ( 3 ) 3 (1) 
2
1 (2) 3
1
 2 3
(3) ( 2) 3 (4)  
(3) 2 3
3
37. The charge on capacitor B in steady state is 3
(4) 
equal to 4
41. Three identical spheres are kept in such a way
that each touches the other two. The magnitude
of the gravitational force on any of the spheres
due to the other two is (M : mass of sphere,
a : radius of sphere)
GM 2
(1)
2a2
GM 2
(2)
20 35 4a2
(1) C (2) C
3 7 GM 2
(3) 3
(3)
60
C (4) 12 C a2
7
3 GM 2
38. In the following circuit, the current through the (4)
4 a2
resistor R = 2  connected between points A and
B, is I amperes. The value of I is 42. A uniform rope of length l and mass m is
connected to a uniform chain of length l and
mass 3m and hung vertically as shown in figure.
If the system is inverted and hung from same
point then change in gravitational potential
energy of the system will be
(1) 1 A (2) 2 A
(3) 3 A (4) 4 A
39. The stopping potential for photoelectrons ejected
from a surface by 375 nm photons is 1.870 V.
The stopping potential for 600 nm photons is
nearly
(1) 1.627 V (2) 0.627 V (1) mgl (2) 3mgl
(3) 2.627 V (4) 3.627 V (3) 2mgl (4) –2mgl
(5)
43. A slab of thickness t and refractive index 2 is (1) 12.5%

kept in a medium of refractive index 1. If two (2) 22.4%
rays parallel to each other passes through such a
100
system with one ray passing through the slab, (3) %
then the magnitude of path difference produced 13
between them due to slab will be 50
(4) %
3
47. A 3 kg block is moving in plane with its x and y.
coordinates given by x = 5t2 – 3 and y = 3t3 + 5.
Where x and y are in metre and t in second.
What is the magnitude of the force acting on this
mass at t = 2 s?
    (1) 112 N
(1)  1 − 1 t (2)  2 − 1 t
    (2) 316 N
 2   1 
(3) 59 N
(3) ( 2 − 1 ) t (4) ( 1 − 1) t (4) 138 N
44. If a = (10 ± 0.1) cm, b = (20 ± 0.2) cm and c = (80 48. An alternating emf 200 V, 50 Hz is connected to
± 0.4) cm, then the maximum percentage error in a circuit of resistance 1  and inductance 0.01 H
a2 b in series. What is the current in the circuit?
calculation of is
c4 (1) 60.6 A
(1) 6% (2) 4%
(2) 32.63 A
(3) 5% (4) 2%
(3) 72.3 A
45. The depletion width of a p-n junction depends on
(4) 50.75 A
which of the following parameters given below?
(a) Temperature 49. A man standing on a still boat jumps out
horizontally with speed of 20 m/s with respect to
(b) Type of semiconductor material
boat. If mass of man is 70 kg and that of boat is
(c) Doping concentration
210 kg. Speed of boat after man jumps will be
(d) Biasing of junction
(1) 20 m/s
(1) (a), (b), (c)
(2) 6.67 m/s
(2) (b), (c), (d)
(3) 5 m/s
(3) (a), (c), (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d) (4) 15 m/s
46. A thermodynamic process of one mole of an 50. A square sheet of area 1 mm2 is kept in front of a
ideal monoatomic gas is shown in figure. The concave mirror of focal length 30 cm. What will
efficiency of cyclic process ABCA will be be area of image formed by the mirror if its
principal axis passes through centre of sheet and
is perpendicular to it and placed at 90 cm from
mirror?
(1) 1 mm2
(2) 0.25 mm2
(3) 4 mm2
(4) 0.5 mm2
(6)
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 56. Natural polymer among the following is
51. Statement-I: I-Cl is more reactive than Cl2. (1) Poly (Butadiene – Acrylonitrile)
Statement-II: Interhalogen compounds are (2) cis-1, 4-polyisoprene
diamagnetic in nature. (3) Polythene
In the light of the above statements, choose the (4) Polyvinyl chloride
correct answer from the options given below. 57. Trichloro derivative of sucrose is
(1) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is (1) Saccharin (2) Alitame
correct
(3) Sucralose (4) Aspartame
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct 58. The energy (kJ mol–1)
of one mole of electrons of
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are radiations whose frequency is 2 × 1014 Hz, is
incorrect (1) 436.1 (2) 132.8
(4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is (3) 79.8 (4) 624.5
incorrect
59. Match List-I with List-II and identify correct code.
52. In which of the following reactions, N2 is not
obtained? List-I List-II
(1) NH4Cl (aq) + NaNO2 (aq) ⎯⎯→ a. Unnilunium (i) Dubnium

 b. Unniloctium (ii) Bohrium
(2) (NH4)2 Cr2O7 ⎯⎯→
 c. Unnilpentium (iii) Mendelevium
(3) Ba(N3)2 ⎯⎯→
d. Unnilseptium (iv) Hassium
(4) NH2CONH2 + 2H2O ⎯⎯→
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
53. Maximum number of structural isomers possible
for the molecular formula C4H11N is (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) 5 (2) 6 60. Enzymes that utilise ATP in phosphate transfer
require which metal as co-factor?
(3) 7 (4) 8
(1) Ca (2) Mg
54. Cumene is oxidised in the presence of air to give
(3) Na (4) K
a compound X which on treating with dilute acid
gives phenol and a compound Z. 61. The ratio of 2-centre-2-electron bonds to
3-centre-2-electron bonds in diborane is
The correct statements about the above reaction
sequence are (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1
(I) Compound X contains a peroxy linkage (3) 3 : 2 (4) 2 : 3
(II) Cumene is 1-phenylpropane 62. Which among the following is not a pesticide?
(III) Z on reaction with methyl magnesium (1) Aldrin (2) Sodium chlorate
bromide followed by hydrolysis gives a (3) Dieldrin (4) DDT
tertiary alcohol. 63. Statement I : Heavy water is used as a
(1) II and III only (2) I and II only moderator in nuclear reactors.
(3) I and III only (4) I, II and III Statement II : Perhydrol is used as an antiseptic.
55. Correct order of boiling point is In the light of above statements choose the
correct option among the following.
(1) n-butane < ethoxyethane < pentan-1-ol <
pentanal (1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(2) ethoxyethane < n-butane < pentanal < (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are
pentan-1-ol incorrect
(3) n-butane < ethoxyethane < pentanal < (3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
pentan-1-ol incorrect
(4) n-butane < pentanal < ethoxyethane < (4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
pentan-1-ol correct
(7)
64. Match the elements in column-I with their method

of purification in column-II. (1)
Column-I Column-II
a. Titanium (i) Zone refining
b. Zinc (ii) Electrolytic (2)

refining
c. Germanium (iii) van Arkel Method
d. Copper (iv) Distillation

(3)
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
65. Which of the given reaction is an example of
disproportionation reaction? (4)
−
(1) Br2 + 5H2O2 → 2BrO + 4H2O + 2H+
3
(2) S8 + 12OH– → 4S2– + 2S2 O32 − + 6H2O 70. Consider the following statements
(3) 2Cu2+ (aq.) + 4I– (aq.) → Cu2I2 (s) + I2 (aq.) (a) Electromeric effect is a temporary effect
(4) (NH4)2Cr2O7 → N2 + Cr2O3 + 4H2O (b) In negative resonance effect, the transfer of
66. Incorrect statement among the following is electrons is always from an atom or
substituted group attached to the conjugated
(1) For two-dimensions square close packing,
system.
co-ordination number is 4
(2) For three-dimensions AAA --- type of lattice, (c) Inductive effect operates through  bond
co-ordination number is 8 The correct statements are
(3) For two-dimensions Hexagonal close (1) (a) and (b) only
packing, co-ordination number is 6 (2) (b) and (c) only
(4) For three-dimensions ABCABC --- type of (3) (a) and (c) only
lattice, co-ordination number is 12
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
67. For a conductivity cell containing 10–3 M KCl
71. Statement-I : Aldehydes which do not have an
solution at 298 K, the resistance is 1500 ohm and
-hydrogen atom, undergo disproportionation
conductivity is 0.15 × 10–3 S cm–1. The cell
reaction on heating with concentrated alkali.
constant of the cell is
(1) 10 cm–1 (2) 0.1 cm–1 Statement-II : Benzaldehyde on reaction with
concentrated alkali gives sodium phenoxide and
(3) 0.115 cm–1 (4) 0.225 cm–1
sodium benzoate.
68. For NaCl crystal there is one Schottky defect per
(1) 1016 ions (2) 1020 ions
correct answer from the options given below
(3) 1014 ions (4) 1022 ions
69. Consider the following reaction sequence correct
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are
incorrect
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
Products A and B respectively are incorrect
(8)
72. Match List-I with List-II 80. Which among the following pair of solution shows
positive deviation from Raoult’s law?
List-I List-II
(1) CH3OH + H2O
(Name of (Deficiency
Vitamins) Diseases) (2) CHCl3 + CH3COCH3
(3) H2O + HNO3
a. Vitamin B12 (i) Convulsions
(4) C6H6 + C6H5CH3
b. Vitamin B1 (ii) Beri beri
81. Which of the following solutions has maximum
c. Vitamin B2 (iii) Pernicious anaemia boiling point? (Assuming 100% ionization)
d. Vitamin B6 (iv) Cheilosis (1) 0.1 m Glucose (2) 0.2 m Urea

(3) 0.1 m AlCl3 (4) 0.15 m KCl
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
82. Yellow coloured precipitate formed during
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) haloform test is of
73. 2 mol an ideal gas expanded against 1 atm (1) CHF3 (2) CHCl3
pressure from 10 L to 20 L at 27°C. Heat
(3) CHBr3 (4) CHI3
absorbed in the above process is
83. Electrophile for Reimer-Tiemann reaction is
(1) 10 L-atm (2) 20 L-atm
(1) CCl4 (2) CHCl3
(3) 40 L-atm (4) 30 L-atm
(3) :CCl2 (4) NaOH
74. Secondary valency of cobalt in complex
84. Partial pressure of H2 in a mixture of 4 g of H2
[Co(NH3)6]Cl3 is
and 16 g of O2 in an open container will be
(1) 2 (2) 3
(1) 1 atm (2) 0.8 atm
(3) 6 (4) 4
(3) 0.5 atm (4) 0.67 atm
75. Equilibrium constant varies with
85. Yellow colour of potassium dichromate in basic
(1) Addition of catalyst medium is due to presence of
(2) Change in temperature (1) Cr2O72− (2) CrO24−
(3) Cr3+ (4) CrO5
(4) Change in volume
SECTION-B
76. is known as 86. Benzamide on reaction with lithium aluminium
hydride followed by hydrolysis gives
(1) *2pz (2) 2px
(3) *2px (4) 2pz (1) (2)
77. The process of settling of colloidal particles is
known as (3) (4)
(1) Peptization (2) Osmosis
87. Lyman series of hydrogen atom falls in which of
(3) Coagulation (4) Dialysis the following region of electromagnetic
78. Which of the following plot is straight line for first spectrum?
order reaction R → P? (1) Microwave (2) Ultraviolet
 1 (3) Visible (4) Infrared
(1) [R] vs t (2) In[R] vs  
t 88. The correct order of decreasing thermal stability
(3) t1/2 vs [R]0 (4) rate vs t is given by
79. Which of the following will contain maximum (1) BaCO3 > MgCO3 > CaCO3 > BeCO3
number of atoms? (2) BeCO3 > MgCO3 > BaCO3 > CaCO3
(1) 1 g dihydrogen (2) 2.24 L O2 at STP (3) BeCO3 > MgCO3 > CaCO3 > BaCO3
(3) 16 g SO3 (4) 10 g Ca (4) BaCO3 > CaCO3 > MgCO3 > BeCO3
(9)
89. The number of mole of KMnO4 that will be 94. Standard enthalpy of formation is non-zero for
needed to react with one mole of FeSO 4 in acidic (1) C(graphite) (2) O2(g)
medium is
(3) P(white) (4) Br2(g)
2 2 95. Which among the following complex compound
(1) (2)
3 5 can be optically active?
1 4 (1) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl (2) K[Co(en)Cl2Br2]
(3) (4)
5 7
(3) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (4) [Pt(NH3)(H2O)ClBr]
90. Given : (i) Cu2+ + e– → Cu+, E° = 0.15 V 96. For the reaction 2N2O5(g) → 4NO2(g) + O2(g) if
(ii) Cu+ + e– → Cu, E° = 0.52 V −[N2O5 ] [O2 ]
is x then is
Electrode potential, E° for the reaction t t
Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu, will be nearly (1) x (2) (x)2
(1) 0.45 V (2) 0.28 V x
(3) (4) 2x
(3) 0.33 V (4) 0.39 V 2
91. IUPAC name of the given compound is 97. The accumulation of molecular species at the
surface rather than the bulk of a solid or liquid is
termed as
(1) Absorption (2) Adsorption
(3) Sorption (4) Desorption
(1) 4-Bromo-1-methyl-3-nitrobenzene
98. Bond order of S – O bond in SO24− ion is
(1) 1
(2) 2
3
92. Major product of the given reaction is (3)
2
4
(4)
3
(1) (2) 99. Which of the following can act as bronsted base
but not as Bronsted acid?
(1) HCO3−
(3) (4)
(2) HSO−4
(3) H2PO2−
93. The ester which is most easily hydrolysed in
presence of aqueous alkali is (4) H2PO4−
100. Critical temperature of a gas can be expressed

as
(1) (2)
a
(1)
27b2
8a
(2)
27Rb
(3) (4) (3) 3b
a
(4)
Rb
(10)
BOTANY
SECTION-A 107. Read the following statements and select the
101. The chief sink for the mineral elements in plants incorrect one.
are all, except (1) Turgor pressure in cells helps in extension
(1) Young leaves growth
(2) Storage organs (2) Water provides medium for enzymatic

reaction for growth
(3) Lateral meristems
(3) Nitrogen helps in release of metabolic energy
(4) Senescing parts
essential for growth activities in plants
102. Read the following statements and mark the
(4) Nutrients acts as a source of energy for
correct option:
growth in organisms
Statement-A: Rhizobium and Frankia are free-
108. Select the odd one out w.r.t. asexual
living in soil, but as symbionts, can fix
reproduction.
atmospheric nitrogen.
(1) Gamete formation can occur
Statement-B: Nitrogenase enzyme is present in
(2) Involvement of only one parent
both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells.
(3) Gametic fusion is absent
(4) Morphologically and genetically different
individuals are produced
109. How many sequential mitotic nuclear divisions
(4) Both the statements are correct are required for the formation of 8-nucleate stage
103. At the onset of anaphase of the embryo sac?
(1) Chromosomal material condenses (1) Eight (2) Three
(2) Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform (3) Four (4) Two
(3) Chromosomes move to spindle equator and 110. Which of the following beverages is not
get aligned produced by distillation of fermented broth?
(4) Chromosomes arranged at metaphase plate (1) Wine (2) Brandy
split simultaneously (3) Whisky (4) Rum
104. In prophase I synaptonemal complex is formed 111. The similarity between mango and wheat is that
during both
(1) Leptotene (2) Diplotene (1) Belong to the same class
(3) Diakinesis (4) Zygotene (2) Are members of same plant family
105. Unicellular alga which is rich in proteins and is (3) Belong to the order sapindales
used as food supplements by space travelers is (4) Share the same division
(1) Chlorella (2) Spirogyra 112. Which of the following taxonomic aids provides
(3) Gracilaria (4) Ectocarpus information about both plants and animals?
106. In gymnosperms (1) Flora (2) Botanical garden
(1) The female gametophyte have independent (3) Museum (4) Herbarium
free-living existence 113. If there is oxidation of fatty acids, proteins and
(2) Two different types of spores are produced carbohydrates then the common intermediate
(3) Ovules are enclosed by an ovary wall among them which enters the Krebs cycle is
(4) Pollen grains are carried to ovule by water (1) Acetyl CoA (2) Pyruvic acid
currents (3) OAA (4) Citric acid
(11)
114. A variety of rapeseed mustard resistant to aphids 122. What does ‘Z’ represents in equation
has been developed by IARI. It is log S = log C + Z log A for species area
(1) Pusa Sawani (2) Pusa Sem 2 relationship?
(3) Pusa Gaurav (4) Pusa Sem 3 (1) Species richness
115. Read the following statements and state true (T) (2) Regression coefficient
or false (F) for them.
(3) Y-intercept
A. The level of thermal tolerance of different
(4) Area
species determine to a large extent their
geographical distribution. 123. All of these are obligate parasites, except
B. A vast majority of organisms are stenothermal. (1) Viroid
A B (2) Tobacco mosaic virus
(1) T F (3) Rhizopus

(4) T4 phage
(2) F T
124. Neurospora does not
(3) T T
(1) Have cell wall
(4) F F
(2) Reproduce asexually by motile spores
116. Correct expression for GPP (Gross primary
(3) Have septate mycelia
productivity) is
(4) Have perfect stage in its life cycle
(1) NPP = GPP + R (2) NPP = GPP  R
125. Identify the wrong match.
(3) GPP = NPP ÷ R (4) GPP – R = NPP
117. In non-cyclic photophosphorylation, electrons are (1) Agaricus – Edible ascocarp
donated to PS-II by which of the given molecule?
(2) Gonyaulax – Flagellated protist
(1) CO2 (2) H2O
(3) Colletotrichum – Lack sexual spores
(3) NADPH (4) NADH
118. Which of the given is not a component of (4) Slime mould – Phagotrophic
nucleoside?
126. The recombination frequency between genes
(1) Purine (2) Ribose sugar A and B present on X chromosome is 17% while
(3) Phosphate (4) Pyrimidine C and D is 13%.
119. Variations at the genetic level is called Select the correct option concluded from above
polymorphism. It arises due to given information.
(1) Satellite DNA (2) Introns
(1) Genes A and B are closely situated than
(3) Mutations (4) Exons genes C and D
120. In the first phase of translation (2) Genes A and B are completely linked
(1) Smaller subunit of ribosome encounters
(3) Genes A and B must be present on one
mRNA
chromatid and C and D on sister chromatid
(2) Amino acids are activated
(4) Genes A and B are distantly situated than
(3) Peptide bond is formed
genes C and D
(4) Two amino acids are joined together
127. Select the wrong statement for persons suffering
121. Presence of large amounts of nutrients in water
with Klinefelter’s syndrome.
causes all of the given, except
(1) Such persons are sterile male
(1) Excessive growth of phytoplanktons
(2) Algal bloom (2) They have chromosome complement 44 +
XO
(3) Increase in biochemical oxygen demand
(BOD) (3) They have trisomy of sex chromosomes
(4) Increase in dissolved oxygen (DO) (4) They have feminine pitched voice
(12)
128. A colourblind male marries to a normal female 134. The functions of which of the following cell
and they have their first child as colourblind organelles are not coordinated with the members
female. What will be the genotype of the father of endomembrane system?
and mother respectively?
(1) Lysosome
(1) XCY, XX (2) XCY, XCX
(2) Vacuole
(3) XY, XCXC (4) XY, XCX
(3) Golgi complex
129. Stilt roots in maize arise from
(1) Maturation zone of radicle (4) Peroxisome
(2) Lower nodes of the stem 135. On the sides of centromere, disc shaped
(3) The junction of radicle and plumule structures are present known as
(4) Nodes of underground stem (1) Telomeres

130. Identify the statement which is true regarding the (2) Secondary constrictions
structure in the below given figure labelled as X. (3) Kinetochores
(4) Satellite
SECTION-B
136. How many plants given in the box show haplo-
diplontic pattern of life cycle?
(1) This structure in Australian Acacia expands, Ectocarpus, Kelps, Fucus, Volvox, Wolfia,
becomes green and synthesises food Eucalyptus, Ginkgo
(2) In pea plant, this structure modifies into
tendril (1) 1
(3) In Bougainvillea, this structure is modified (2) 3
into thorn (3) 2
(4) This structure becomes fleshy and stores (4) 5
food in cactus
137. Read the following statements and mark true (T)
131. Regarding the element of complex tissue in
or false (F).
flowering plants which has sieve plates, identify
the option that is not true. I. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association of a
(1) Its function is controlled by an adjacent cell fungus with a root system.
(2) It lacks nucleus at maturity II. Imbibition is a special type of diffusion.
(3) It possesses peripheral cytoplasm III. Facilitated transport is not highly selective.
(4) It is mainly responsible for the transportation I II III
of water and minerals
132. The cells of secondary medullary rays in dicot (1) T F F
plants are formed by (2) T T F
(1) Pith cells (2) Parenchyma cells
(3) F T T
(3) Vascular cambium (4) Endodermal cells
133. Select the incorrect statement from the (4) T T T
following. 138. Which plant growth regulator is an adenine
(1) Genetic material in PPLO is naked derivative?
(2) Plasmids are circular single stranded DNA (1) Auxin
outside the genomic DNA
(2) Kinetin
(3) Organelles found in prokaryotes are non-
membrane bound (3) Abscisic acid
(4) Mesosome is characteristic of prokaryotes (4) Ethephon
(13)
139. Read the following statements and select the 144. The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro called
correct option for blanks A, B and C. upon all nations to take appropriate measures for
I. The body of ovule fuses with funicle in the (1) Conservation of biodiversity
region called A . (2) Controlling emission of ozone depleting
substance
II. Female gametophyte is also called B .
(3) Reducing air pollution
III. C plays an important role in guiding the (4) Considering noise as air pollutant
pollen tube into synergids. 145. All of the given are dissolved materials present
as impurities in waste water, except
A B C
(1) Nitrate (2) Ammonia
(1) Hilum Embryo Antipodal cell
(3) Phosphate (4) Silt and clay
(2) Nucellus Ovary Polar nuclei 146. A protozoan without locomotory structure is
(3) Micropyle Ovary Filiform (1) Entamoeba (2) Trypanosoma
apparatus (3) Plasmodium (4) Paramecium
(4) Hilum Embryo Filiform 147. Mark the autosomal dominant disorder among
sac apparatus the following.
140. Which among the following can be directly (1) Sickle cell anaemia
released into natural water bodies? (2) Colour blindness
(1) Primary effluent (2) Secondary effluent (3) Phenylketonuria
(3) Primary sludge (4) Activated sludge (4) Myotonic dystrophy
141. 148. Regarding the position of calyx, corolla and
androecium w.r.t. ovary on thalamus, select the
example which is odd one out.
The given pyramid is most probably of
(1) Brinjal (2) Guava
(1) Energy in tree ecosystem
(3) China rose (4) Mustard
(2) Number in grassland ecosystem
149. In dicot stem, the lateral meristem which is
(3) Biomass in aquatic ecosystem
secondary in origin is
(4) Number in aquatic ecosystem
(a) Cork cambium
142. Select the incorrect statement about
(b) Fascicular vascular cambium
competition.
(c) Interfascicular cambium
(1) Totally unrelated species can also compete
for same resources
(1) (a) only (2) All (a), (b) and (c)
(2) In competition, the fitness of one species is
lowered in the presence of another species (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (b) and (c) only
(3) Resource partitioning promotes co-existence 150. Select the incorrect match from the following.
(4) In general, carnivores are appear to be more (1) Phospholipids - Major lipids in
adversely affected than plants and herbivores bacterial cell
wall
143. In sickle cell anaemia, there is point mutation in
which a change of single base pair in the gene (2) Centrioles - Absent in
almost all plant
for beta globin chain results in the substitution of
cells
(1) Glutamic acid by valine
(3) Cytoskeletal - Present in
(2) Valine by glutamic acid structures eukaryotes
(3) Phenylalanine by glutamic acid (4) Compartmentalisation - Absent in
(4) Lysine by Arginine of cytoplasm prokaryotes
(14)
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 156. Observe the labelling in the given figure and
151. Read the following statements carefully and select the sphincter which guards this duct.
choose the option with only correct statements.
(a) Spermatogonia produce sperm cells by
spermatogenesis that begins at puberty.
(b) All spermatogonia periodically undergo
meiosis.
(c) A primary spermatocyte completes first
meiotic division during embryonic
development.
(d) The secondary spermatocytes have only 23 (1) Sphincter of Boyden
chromosomes each.
(2) Sphincter of Oddi
(1) (a) and (b) (3) Cardiac sphincter
(2) (b) and (c) (4) Ileocecal sphincter
(3) (c) and (d) 157. The abnormal frequency of bowel movement and
(4) (a) and (d) increased liquidity of the faecal discharge is
(1) Jaundice (2) Vomiting
152. In which of the following organisms, kidneys do
not play any significant role in removal of (3) Indigestion (4) Diarrhoea
nitrogenous waste? 158. Match the formed elements in column I with their
percent in total WBCs in column II. Select the
(1) Macaca (2) Delphinus
correct option.
(3) Catla (4) Pavo
Column I Column II
153. The type of origin shown by muscles is same as
a. Eosinophils (i) 60-65%
that of blood vessels, bone and cartilage. Identify
the type of origin and select the correct option. b. Monocytes (ii) 0.5-1%
(1) Ectodermal (2) Endodermal c. Basophils (iii) 6-8%
(3) Mesodermal (4) Ecto-endodermal d. Neutrophils (iv) 2-3%
154. About ______ percent of the body weight of a (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
human adult is contributed by muscles. (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
Select the option that fills the blank correctly. 159. In which of the following adult organisms, the
(1) 40-50 (2) 60-70 blood is oxygenated by gills and is supplied to the
body parts?
(3) 70-80 (4) 20-30
(1) Frog (2) Aptenodytes
155. Select the incorrect statement from the following.
(3) Scoliodon (4) Calotes
(1) Poultry includes chicken, ducks and turkeys
160. To obtain a standard ECG, a patient is connected
but not geese. to the machine with three electrical leads
(2) Poultry is the class of domesticated fowl used attached one to each ‘A’ and to the ‘B’.
for food or for their eggs. Select the option correctly representing A and B.
(3) Selection of disease free and suitable breeds A B
are important components of poultry farm (1) Wrist Left chest region
management. (2) Ankle Left wrist
(4) Bird flu virus drastically affected egg and (3) Wrist Left ankle
chicken consumption. (4) Ankle Left chest region
(15)
161. Junctions which facilitate the rapid transfer of 166. Select the incorrect match w.r.t rDNA technology.
ions, small molecules and sometimes big
(1) Bioprocess – Maintenance of sterile
molecules are engineering ambience
(1) Tight junctions (2) Gap junctions
(2) Genetic – Alteration of genetic
(3) Adhering junctions (4) Desmosomes engineering material
162. In female Periplaneta, genital pouch is formed by
(3) Downstream – Biosynthetic stage
(1) 7th, 8th and 9th sternum processing
(2) 9th, 10th terga and 9th sternum
(4) Biosynthetic – Culturing of
(3) 7th, 8th terga and 9th sternum stage recombinant host cells
(4) 9th, 10th sterna and 9th tergum
163. How many statements given below are correct? correct option.
(a) Seed ferns are common ancestors for
Column I Column II
gnetales and cycads.
a. Salmonella (i) Source of EcoRI
(b) Zosterophyllum are avascular land plants typhimurium
evolved in Silurian period.
b. Bacillus thuringiensis (ii) Used in developing
(c) Lycopods are oldest extant vascular land transgenic tobacco
plants. plant
(d) Sphenopsids are evolved from the group of c. Agrobacterium (iii) Used in creating first
plants to which Psilophyton belongs. tumefaciens recombinant DNA
(1) Two d. Escherichia coli (iv) Gene used in

creating biopesticide
(2) Three
(3) Four (1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(4) One (3) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
168. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the
plasmid vector became possible with the enzyme
correct option.
_______.
Statement A: Similarities in proteins and genes
Choose the option which correctly fills the blank.
among diverse organisms indicates common
(1) Restriction endonuclease
ancestry.
(2) DNA ligase
Statement B: Humans and chimpanzees also
show biochemical similarities. (3) Alkaline phosphatase
(4) DNA polymerase
169. Choose the correct option to complete the
analogy.
Saw fish : Gill slits are present : : _____: Gill slits
(4) Only statement B is correct are absent
165. How many options given in the box are not true (1) Dog fish (2) Devil fish
for Darwinian theory of evolution? (3) Sting ray (4) Angel fish
Directional variations, Saltation, Minor 170. Choose the correct match.
variations, Inheritance of ‘factors’, Heritable (1) Balanoglossus – Stomochord
variations, Reproductive fitness (2) Cucumaria – Water canal system
(1) Four (2) Two (3) Chaetopleura – Chitinous exoskeleton
(3) Three (4) Five (4) Octopus – Dorsal hollow nerve cord
(16)
171. Match items in column-I with those in column-II 174. How many statements given below are correct?
and choose the correct option. (i) Relaxin is secreted by the ovary in the later
Column-I Column-II phase of pregnancy.
(ii) Inner cell mass differentiates into ectoderm
a. Annelids (i) Triploblastic
and endoderm just before implantation.
acoelomate
(iii) Implantation leads to pregnancy.
b. Platyhelminths (ii) Ciliated comb
(iv) Embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called
plates
morula.
c. Aschelminths (iii) Metamerism
(1) 2
d. Ctenophores (iv) Pseudocoelomates (2) 1
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (3) 4
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) 3
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) 175. Identify the label given in the diagram whose
function is to reduce friction on the lung surface
and if this is not present, then there will be
172. When two parents participate in the reproductive damage to the membranes which finally would
process and also involve A of B , it is affect breathing.
called sexual reproduction.
Choose the option which fills the blanks A and B
correctly.
A B
(1) Isolation Male and female gametes
(2) Fusion Male gametes
(3) Gametogenesis Only female gametes
(4) Fusion Male and female gametes

173. Assertion (A): During pregnancy the level of
several hormones like estrogens, progestogens, (1) B (2) A
cortisol, prolactin, thyroxine, etc are increased (3) C (4) D
several folds in the maternal blood. 176. How many of the following are indicators of
improved reproductive health of society?
Reason (R): Increased production of these
hormones is essential for supporting the foetal (a) More couples with larger families
growth, metabolic changes in mother and (b) Better detection and cure of STIs
maintenance of pregnancy. (c) Better post-natal care
In light of above statements, choose the correct (d) Increased number of medically assisted
answer from options given below. deliveries
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the (e) Increased IMR
correct explanation of (A) Choose the correct option from the following.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the (1) One
correct explanation of (A) (2) Three
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (3) Four
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true (4) Five
(17)
177. Rashmi had a sexual encounter with an unknown 181. Match column I with column II and select the
partner, without any protection. correct option.
In a few days she develops itching, fluid Column I Column II
discharge and swelling in the genital region. a. Phosphate and (i) Peptide bond
In spite of the discomfort she does not go to the hydroxyl group of
sugar in a nucleotide
doctor. What is the most probable reason for this
and what kind of complications can this infection b. Polymer of amino (ii) Glycosidic bond
lead to? acids
Choose the appropriate option. c. Polysaccharides (iii) Hydrogen bond

d. Adenine and thymine (iv) Ester bond
(1) Afraid of social stigma; ectopic pregnancies,
in a DNA
still birth or infertility
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(2) Afraid of social stigma; malaria, filariasis or
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
chikungunya
182. Read the statements A and B carefully and select
(3) Unafraid of social stigma; syphilis, gonorrhea the correct answer.
or genital herpes
Statement A: Enzyme-substrate complex
(4) Unafraid of social stigma; abortions, produced during a catalysed reaction is highly
ascariasis, or taeniasis reactive.
178. At present, about ______ recombinant Statement B: This complex dissociates into its
therapeutics have been approved for human-use product and changed enzyme with an
intermediate formation of enzyme-product
worldwide, and ______ of these are presently
complex.
being marketed in India.
Choose the option that respectively fills the
blanks correctly.
(1) 12, 30 (2) 32, 14 (4) Only statement A is incorrect
(3) 27, 22 (4) 30, 12 183. Applying the general rule of thumb, calculate the
179. The optic nerve leaves the eye at a particular increase in rate of reaction if the temperature
point. rises from 20°C to 60°C.
Read the following about this point.
(1) 2 times (2) 4 times
(a) Abundant photoreceptor cells present
(3) 8 times (4) 16 times
(b) Point is slightly above the posterior pole of
184. The active form of protozoa causing amoebic
the eyeball dysentery feeds upon
(c) Macula lutea is present lateral to this point. (1) Erythrocytes only
(d) It is medial to the posterior pole of the eye (2) Mucosa and submucosa of duodenum
ball. (3) Erythrocytes, mucosa and submucosa of
Choose the option which has all the correct ones colon
from above. (4) Mucosa and submucosa of colon only
(1) a, b only (2) b, c only 185. Select the event that is responsible for the chills
and high fever recurring every three to four days
(3) a, c, d only (4) b, c, d only in a person suffering with Plasmodium infection.
180. How many hormones given in the box are (1) Entry of sporozoites in the RBCs of human
produced by pars distalis? host through mosquito bite
(2) Multiplication of sporozoites within
FSH, TSH, Birth hormone, ACTH,
hepatocytes
ADH, MSH
(3) Rupture of RBCs to release haemozoin in
(1) Two (2) Three blood
(3) Four (4) Six (4) Development of gametocytes
(18)
SECTION-B (1) Six (2) Four

186. Select the correct statement from the following. (3) Five (4) Three
(1) Kidneys are reddish brown, round-shaped 189. Assertion (A): If BamHI cuts a 12 kb linear
structures situated between the levels of last dsDNA fragment at two restriction sites which are
thoracic and third lumbar vertebra. at the same distance from the ends and each
(2) Kidneys are close to the dorsal inner wall of other, then only one band is obtained on agarose
the abdominal cavity. gel electrophoresis.
Reason (R): Three equal sized fragments will be
(3) Each kidney of an adult human measures
obtained on restriction digestion by BamHI.
0.5 - 0.7 m in width, 0.2 – 0.3 m in thickness
with an average weight of 120 – 150 g.
correct answer from the following options.
(4) Towards the centre of the inner convex
surface of the kidney is a notch called hilum
through which the ureter, blood vessels and
nerves pass.
187. Match column I with column II and select the
correct option.
Column I Column II 190. If initially two identical dsDNA fragments are
a. (i) Implant taken for in-vitro amplification, then how many
copies of DNA will be obtained after 5 cycles of
PCR?
(1) 32 (2) 64
b. (ii) Copper T
(3) 10 (4) 16
191. Complete the analogy by choosing the correct
option.
Vertebrate brains : Divergent evolution
: : Eyes of the Octopus and of mammals
c. (iii) Condom for male : ________
(2) Homologous organs
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) Parallel evolution
d. (iv) Female condom
192. Select the incorrect match from the given
options.
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(1) Periplaneta – Head, thorax and abdomen
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(2) Pila – Head, muscular foot and visceral hump
188. How many of the stated functions are performed
(3) Rana – Head, neck and trunk
by conducting part of human respiratory system?
(4) Saccoglossus – Proboscis, collar and trunk
(a) Clearing the incoming air by trapping dust
particles present in it. 193. Read the following statements A and B and
choose the correct answer.
(b) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and
Statement A: The most unique mammalian
atmospheric air.
characteristic is the presence of milk producing
(c) Conducting air from external nostrils upto mammary glands.
bronchioles.
Statement B: Mammals have one pair of limbs,
(d) Bringing the temperature of air upto the body adapted for walking, running, climbing, burrowing
temperature. swimming or flying.
(e) Making the incoming air humid by providing (1) Both statements A and B are correct
moisture produced by epithelium of nasal (2) Only statement A is incorrect
cavities.
(f) Transporting the atmospheric air to the alveoli.
(4) Only statement B is incorrect
(19)
194. Match column-I with column-II and choose the 197. Parts A and B make up the CNS.
correct answer. Select the option that correctly identifies A and B.
Column-I Column-II A B
a. Breasts in lactating (i) Presence or (1) Brain Spinal cord
mothers absence is not a
(2) Brain Somatic neural system
reliable indicator of
virginity (3) Spinal cord PNS
b. Colostrum (ii) Cushion of fatty (4) Visceral nervous Cerebrum
tissue covered by system
skin and pubic hairs 198. Match the disorders in column I with their correct
c. Mons pubis (iii) Contains several causes in column II.
antibodies absolutely Column I Column II
essential for
newborns a. Diabetes insipidus (i) Hyperthyroidism
d. Hymen (iv) 15-20 mammary b. Graves’ disease (ii) Deficiency of

vasopressin
lobes each
c. Addison’s disease (iii) Hyposecretion of
hormones of
(2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) adrenal medulla
(iv) Hyposecretion of
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) corticoids
195. The correct route through which action potential Select the correct option.
travels in heart is
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv)
(1) SAN → Purkinje fibres → Bundle of His →
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
AV node → Heart muscle
199. Read the statements given below carefully
(2) SAN → AVN → Purkinje fibres → Bundle of regarding competitive inhibition.
His → Heart muscle (a) The inhibitor closely resembles the enzyme in
(3) AVN → Bundle of His → SAN → Purkinje its molecular structure.
fibres → Heart muscle (b) Inhibitor competes with the substrate for
(4) SAN → AVN → Bundle of His → Purkinje substrate binding site of the enzyme.
fibres → Heart muscle (c) It leads to decline in activity of the enzyme.
196. Read the following statements carefully. (d) Malonate inhibition by succinic
dehydrogenase is example of the same.
Statement A: Increased agricultural yields have
been partly due to the use of better management How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
practices and use of agrochemicals, but mainly
due to the use of improved crop varieties. (1) One (2) Two
Statement B: GMOs increased reliance on (3) Three (4) Four
chemical pesticides by producing pesticide 200. How many of the diseases given below in the box
resistant crops. are the result of autoimmunity?
(1) Both statements A and B are correct Rheumatoid arthritis, Vitiligo, Psoriasis,
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect Myasthenia gravis, Hay fever
(3) Statement A is correct, B is incorrect (1) Two (2) Three
(4) Statement A is incorrect, B is correct (3) Four (4) Five
❑ ❑ ❑
(20)
14/06/2022 CODE-A

MM : 720 Test - 4 Time : 3 Hr. 20 Min.

Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e., Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions
from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
PHYSICS
SECTION - A 3. The bipolar junction transistor acts as a switch
1. The number of significant figures in the result of (OFF) in
(7.1 + 7.3 + 9.1) is (1) Saturation region
(1) 1 (2) 2 (2) Cut-off region
(3) 3 (4) 4
(3) Active region
2. In the circuit containing an ideal diode, as shown
in the figure, the average power dissipated (4) Both saturation and cut-off region
through the resistor in one cycle is 4. The number of charge carriers crossing the unit
area (in y-z plane) per unit time along the x-axis
 n − n1 
is given by N = −D  2  , where n1 and n2
 x2 − x1 
are number of charge carriers per unit volume for
the values of x meant to be x1 and x2
respectively. The dimensional formula for the
diffusion constant ‘D’ is
E02 (1) [ML2T–1]

(1) Zero (2)
R (2) [M0L2T–1]
E02 E02 (3) [M0L–3T0]
(3) (4)
2R 4R (4) [M0L–2T–1]
(1)
5. Two particles are projected in air with same 10. If Tn denotes the time period of an electron
speed u at an angle 1 and 2 (both acute) to the orbiting in nth orbit around nucleus in an
horizontal, respectively. If the maximum height T 
hydrogen atom. Then graph between log  n 
reached by the first particle is greater than that of  T1 
second, then which of the following is correct? and log(n) is best possibly represented by
(T1 and T2 are time of flight of two particles
respectively)
(1)
(1) 1 > 2 (2) 1 = 2
(3) T1 < T2 (4) T1 = T2
6. A comet orbits the sun in a highly elliptical orbit.
Which of the following quantities remains
constant through its orbit? (2)
(i) Linear speed

(ii) Angular speed
(iii) Angular momentum
(3)
(iv) Kinetic energy
(v) Potential energy
(vi) Total energy
(1) (i), ii and (iii) (2) (iii), (iv) and (v) (4)
(3) (iii) and (vi) (4) (ii), (iii) and (vi)
7. Which of the following statements is true for
wave motion? 11. If in a nuclear fusion reaction, mass defect is
0.25% then energy released in fusion of 1 kg
(1) Mechanical transverse waves can propagate mass is
through all medium (1) 22.5 × 1011 J (2) 28 × 1012 J
(2) Longitudinal waves can propagate through (3) 22.5 × 1013 J (4) 28 × 1014 J
solids only 12. A stone is dropped into a well in which the level
(3) Mechanical transverse waves can propagate of water is 550 m below the top of the well. If
through solids speed of sound is 330 m/s, the time after which
sound of splash is heard, is
(4) Longitudinal waves can propagate through
(1) 10.5 s (2) 9.5 s
vacuum
(3) 12.2 s (4) 15.8 s
8. There are 25 tuning forks arranged in decreasing
13. A rubber balloon has 300 g of water in it. Its
order of their frequencies. Each tuning fork gives
weight in water will be (neglect weight of balloon)
2 beats with next. The first one is octave of last.
(1) 100 g (2) 200 g
What is frequency of 15th tuning fork?
(3) 300 g (4) Zero
(1) 99 Hz (2) 72 Hz
14. Choose the correct statements among the
(3) 68 Hz (4) 100 Hz following.
9. The inner and outer radius of a toroid core are A. Free electrons move always from a region of
22 cm and 28 cm respectively and around the higher potential to a region of lower potential.
core 3500 turns of a wire, are wounded. If the B. Capacitance of capacitor does not depend
current in wire is 10 A, then magnetic field inside upon the nature of the conducting material of
the core of toroid is nearly the plates of the capacitor.
(1) 2.8 × 10–2 T (2) 1.2 × 10–2 T (1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A and B
(3) 1.8 × 10–2 T (4) 3 × 10–2 T
(2)
15. A charged particle having drift velocity of 20. Which of the following wavelength does not lie in
8.0 × 10–4 m/s in an electric field of 6 × 10–6 V m–1 the range of visible light?
has a mobility in m2 V–1 s–1 of
(1) 2500 Å (2) 4500 Å
(1) 1.33 × 102 (2) 1.33 × 108
(3) 5500 Å (4) 6500 Å
(3) 4.33 × 106 (4) 4.33 × 108
16. A carbon resistor has a set of coaxial coloured 21. A polariser and an analyser are inclined to each
rings as shown in the figure. other at an angle . If the intensity of polarised
light emerging from analyser is I0 then the
intensity of unpolarized light incident on polariser
is
What is the resistance of carbon resistor?
I0 I0
(1) (24 × 105)   10% (2) (48 × 106)   5% (1) (2)
cos  2
2cos2 
(3) (48 × 105)   10% (4) (24 × 106)   10%
2I0 I0
17. Which among the curves shown below can (3) (4) cos2 
possibly represent electrostatics field lines? cos2  2
22. The correct dimensional formulae for coefficient

of thermal conductivity is
(1) (2) (1) [MLT–2K–1] (2) [MLT–3K–1]
(3) [ML–2TK–1] (4) [MLT–1K–3]
23. The radius of a spherical black body is R and  is
the rate of energy production in the body. The
(3) (4) temperature of the given black body in steady
state is
18. A point charge of +20 C is at a distance of 1 1

  4    4R 2 4
10 cm directly above the corner of a square of (1)  (2)  
2  
side 10 cm as shown in figure. Magnitude of the    4R   
electric flux through the square will be
 4R 2  
(3) (4)
  4R 2 
24. A disc rolls (purely) down on an inclined plane of
inclination 37°. The acceleration of centre of
mass of the disc will be
g 2g
(1) (2)
5 5
g 2g
(3) (4)
2 7
N 2 N 2
(1) 3.7  105 m (2) 3.7  106 m 25. A circular portion of radius ‘r’ is removed from a
C C
uniform circular disc of radius ‘4r’ in such a way
N 2 N 2
(3) 9.4  104 m (4) 9.4  105 m that the circumference of the removed part
C C
touches the circumference of the larger disc then
19. Two vectors A = 4i − 3 j + 2kˆ and B = 2i + 3 j + 5kˆ the shift in the centre of mass will be
are perpendicular to each other. Value of  will r r
be (1) (2)
6 4
(1) 18 (2) 8
r r
(3) 6 (4) 2 (3) (4)
3 5
(3)
26. A body executes S.H.M. under the influence of 31. A rigid rod CD of length 1.05 m having negligible
one force and has time period 3 s. Same body weight is supported at its ends by two light wires
execute S.H.M with period 4 s under the of steel A and aluminium B of equal lengths as
influence of another force. When both forces act shown in figure. The cross-sectional area of wire
simultaneously and in the same direction then A and B are 1 mm2 and 2 mm2 respectively. At
the time period of the same body is what point from end C along the rod, a mass m
(1) 7 s (2) 5 s be suspended in order to produce equal strain in
both steel and aluminium wires?
12 12
(3) s (4) s
7 5
27. Two coils 1 and 2, have mutual inductance M
and resistance R each. A current flow in coil 1,
which varies with time as; I1 = kt2, where k is
constant, ‘t’ is time. The total charge that flown
T
through coil 2, between t = 0 to t = will be
2
MkT 2 2MkT 2 (YS = 2 × 1011 N/m2, YA = 7 × 1010 N/m2)
(1) (2)
4R R
(1) 50 cm (2) 35 cm
2
MkT
(3) (4) Zero (3) 70 cm (4) 43.2 cm
2R
32. An ideal gas for which  = 1.5 is suddenly
28. A vessel of depth 2d is half filled with a liquid of
refractive index  and its upper half is filled with 1
compressed to th of its initial volume then the
3 4
liquid having refractive index . The apparent ratio of final to initial pressure is
4
depth of vessel, when seen perpendicularly from (1) 4:3 (2) 8:1
above is (3) 2:5 (4) 16:3
4d 5d 33. Two non-reactive monoatomic ideal gases have
(1) (2)
3 3 their atomic masses in the ratio of 3:2. The ratio
7d d of their partial pressures when enclosed in a
(3) (4) vessel kept at constant temperature is 5:4. The
3 
ratio of their densities is
29. Spherical aberration in a thin lens can be
(1) 1:8 (2) 15:8
reduced by
(3) 5:6 (4) 6:5
(1) Using a monochromatic light
34. Two identical shaped bar magnets A and B are
(2) Using a doublet combination
taken such that magnetic moment of A is twice of
(3) Using a circular annular mark over the lens B. The time period of vibration in uniform
(4) Increasing the size of lens magnetic field, when like poles together is T1 and
30. A block of mass M = 60 kg is suspended by when unlike poles, together is T2, then
means of three strings as shown in figure. (1) T1 = 3T2 (2) T1 = 2T2
System is in equilibrium. The tension in
horizontal string is T2 T2
(3) T1 = (4) T1 =
3 2
35. A circuit consisting of a resistor of resistance
R = 120  is connected to an induction coil of
inductance L = 4 H. The coil and resistor are
connected to an A.C. source of peak voltage 200
V and angular frequency 50 rad/s. Peak value of
potential drop across the induction coil is nearly
(1) 500 N (2) 600 N (1) 171 V (2) 200 V
(3) 130.9 N (4) 1039 N (3) 96.7 V (4) 32.6 V
(4)
SECTION-B 41. A silicon wafer of n type material of cross-

sectional area 3.14 × 10–6 m2 with conductivity of
36. A bullet of mass 0.05 kg moving with horizontal 5.8 × 107 siemens per meter and electron
speed 100 m/s strikes a block of wood of mass mobility of 0.0032 m2V–1s–1 is subjected to an
950 g and instantly comes to rest with respect to electric field of 20 mV/m. From these data, match
the block. The block is suspended from the the column I with column II. (Neglect hole
ceiling by means of a long thin wire. The height concentration).
to which the block rises will be (g = 10 m/s2)
Column I Column II
(1) 0.5 m (2) 1.25 m
A. The electron (P) 1.16 × 106 SI unit
(3) 3.2 m (4) 2.2 m
concentration in
37. Three waves from three coherent sources meet the wafer is
at some point. Each having an amplitude A0 and
B. Current density in (Q) 3.64 SI unit
corresponding intensity I0. The phase difference
wafer is
between first and second wave is 60° and phase
difference between first and third wave is 120°. C. Current flowing (R) 6.4 × 10–5 SI unit
The first wave is lagging behind in phase angle through wafer is
from both second and third wave. The resultant D. The drift velocity of (S) 1.13 × 1029 SI
intensity at this point is electrons is unit
(1) 4 I0 (2) 2 I0
(1) A(P), B(Q), C(R), D(S)
(3) 3 I0 (4) 16 I0 (2) A(P), B(S), C(R), D(Q)
38. In a rotor, a hollow vertical cylindrical structure (3) A(S), B(P), C(Q), D(R)
rotates about its axis and a person rests against (4) A(Q), B(P), C(R), D(S)
inner wall. At a particular angular speed of the
42. An ideal monoatomic gas is carried around the
rotor, the floor below the person is removed and
cycle ABCDA as shown in figure. The efficiency
person hangs resting against wall without floor. If of the cycle is
radius of rotor is 3 m, find the minimum angular
speed at which floor can be removed.
(Coefficient of static friction between wall and
person is 0.21)
(1) 2 rad s–1
(2) 4 rad s–1
(3) 6 rad s–1
(4) 12 rad s–1 2 4
(1) (2)
39. A coil of inductance 0.7 H is joined in series with 21 31
a resistor of 220 . When alternating emf of 110 4 3
volt at 50 cycles per second is applied to this (3) (4)
21 21
combination then wattful component of the
43. Surface tension is equal to
current in the circuit is
(1) Surface energy per unit length
(1) 0.5 A (2) 0.4 A
(2) Surface energy per unit volume
(3) 0.25 A (4) 0.35 A
(3) Surface energy per unit area
A B
40. A physical quantity Z is given by Z = and (4) Surface energy per unit mass
C4
44. Two spherical conductors each of capacity 2 F
the percentage errors in measurements of A, B are charged to potential 10 V and –10 V. These
and C are 1%, 2% and 0.5% respectively. The are then connected by means of a fine
maximum fractional error in calculation of Z is conducting wire. The loss of energy is
(1) 4 (2) 0.5 (1) 2 × 10–6 J (2) 2 × 10–4 J
(3) 1 (4) 0.04 (3) 3 × 10–4 J (4) 3 × 10–6 J
(5)
45. A cell develops the same power across two 49. A conducting wire bent in form of a parabola
resistances 5  and 25  separately. The y2 = 2x carries a current i = 2 A as shown in
internal resistance of the cell is figure. The wire is placed in uniform magnetic
(1) 30  (2) 15  field B = − 4kˆ T . The magnetic force on wire is
5 5
(3) 5 5  (4) 
2
46. Two radiations of photons having energy 2 eV
and 5 eV successfully illuminate a photosensitive
metallic surface of work function 1 eV. The ratio
of the maximum speeds of emitted electrons is (1) − 16i N (2) 32i N
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 2
(3) − 32i N (4) 16i N
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 5
50. A particle of mass m starts from rest at a
47. A particle of mass m is moving in a plane along a
distance R from the centre and along the axis of
circular path of radius r. Its angular momentum
a fixed ring of radius R and mass M. Its velocity
about the axis of rotation is L. The centripetal
at the centre of the ring is (m << M)
force acting on the particle is
L2 L2 m
(1) (2)
mr r
L2 L2
(3) (4)
mr 3 mr 2
48. A magnifying glass is made of a convergent lens
of power 16D. If the least distance of distinct
vision is 25 cm. The magnifying power for this 2GM 2GM
(1) (2)
distance is R R
(1) 7 (2) 5
(3) 8 (4) 3
(3)

1 −

1  GM

2 R
(4) ( 2 − 2 ) GM
R
CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A 52. Select the incorrect statement
(1) Lyophobic sols are irreversible sols
51. The following results have been obtained during
(2) Lyophilic sols need stabilising agent
the kinetic studies of the reaction 2A + 2B → C
(3) Lyophobic sols readily precipitated on
Experiment [A]/mol [B]/mol Initial rate of addition of small amounts of electrolyte
L–1 L–1 reaction mol (4) Starch is a Lyophilic sol
L–1 s–1 53. If the equilibrium constant for the reaction
I 2 2 4 × 10–3 N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g) is x then the
equilibrium constant for the reaction
II 4 2 4 × 10–3
1 3
NH3 (g) N2 (g) + H2 (g) will be
III 2 4 16 × 10–3 2 2
The overall order of the reaction is x

(1) x (2)
2
(1) 0 (2) 1
1
(3) 2 (4) 3 (3) 2x (4)
x
(6)
54. Minimum dipole moment among the following is 61. Total number of isomers obtained on
of monochlorination of CH3 − CH − CH2 − CH3 will
|
CH3
(1) (2) be
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 6
(3) (4) 62. Compound with highest reducing property is
(1) AsH3 (2) PH3
55. Empirical formula of a hydrocarbon that contains (3) NH3 (4) BiH3
20% ‘H’ by mass will be 63. XeF2 on reaction with PF5 gives
(1) CH (2) CH2 (1) [XeF]– [PF6]+ (2) [XeF]+ [PF6]–
(3) CH3 (4) CH4 (3) [XeF4]2– [PF3]2+ (4) [XeF3]– [PF4]+
56. Vapour pressure of a pure liquid depends upon 64. A carboxylic acid (X) reacts with acetic anhydride
(1) Surface area (2) Temperature in the presence of concentrated sulphuric acid to
form aspirin. The compound (X) is
(3) Volume (4) Number of moles
(1) Phthalic acid (2) Oxalic acid
57. Boiling point of a solution obtained after adding
5.85 g NaCl in 200 g water will be, (3) Salicylic acid (4) Glutaric acid
K -1  65. 2-Methylpropan-2-ol on reaction with Cu at 573 K

 b(H2O) = 0.52 K kg mol  gives
(1) 0.52 K (2) 372.48 K (1) Propanone (2) 2-methylpropene
(3) 100.52 K (4) 373.52 K (3) Butanal (4) Butanone
58. Which of the following can be classified as aryl 66. Which among the following diazonium chloride
halide? undergoes coupling reaction most readily?
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
59. The temperature at which real gases obey ideal (3) (4)
gas law over appreciable range of pressure is
known as
(1) Boiling point 67. Biodegradable polymer among the following is
(2) Boyle temperature (1) PHBV (2) Nylon 6, 6
(3) Kraft temperature (3) Buna-N (4) Glyptal
(4) Critical temperature 68. Cationic detergent among the following is
60. Which of the following oxo-ions has highest (1) Sodium dodecylbenzenesulphonate
oxidising power?
(2) Sodium laurylsulphate
(1) VO2+ (2) Cr2O72 −
(3) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
(3) MnO −4 (4) TiO2 + (4) Glyceryl oleate
(7)
69. If the radius of hydrogen atom in ground state is 75. Which among the following is an ore of copper?
r0, then the radius of Li2+ ion in 3rd stationary state (1) Haematite (2) Bauxite
will be
(3) Calamine (4) Malachite
r0
(1) r0 (2) 76. Statement-I: KMnO4 acts as self-indicator.
3
Statement-II: K2Cr2O7 is not used as a self-
(3) 2r0 (4) 3r0 indicator.
70. The correct order of increasing negative electron In the light of above statements choose the
gain enthalpy of the given elements is correct option.
(1) F < Cl < Br < I (2) Cl < Br < F < I (1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
(3) I < Br < F < Cl (4) I < Br < Cl < F incorrect
71. The incorrect statement among the following (2) Statement-I and statement-II both are correct
regarding lithium is (3) Statement-I and statement-II both are
incorrect
(1) It has higher melting point than other alkali
metals (4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
correct
(2) It is the most reactive and weakest reducing
agent among all alkali metals 77. Select the incorrect statement among the
following
(3) It also forms Li3N on combustion in air
(1) Fe3O4 becomes ferrimagnetic from
(4) LiCl is deliquescent in nature paramagnetic upon heating
72. Given below are two statements: (2) MgFe2O4 is weakly attracted by magnetic
Statement I: Ga is larger in size than Al. field
Statement II: The 3d electrons of Ga has poor (3) VO2 is a paramagnetic substance
screening effect. (4) Metallic properties of TiO3 depends on
In the light of the above statements, choose the temperature
correct answer from the options given below. 78. Following limiting molar conductivities are given
(1) Statement I is correct and statement II is
o
as m ( CaCl2 ) = x S cm2mol–1 , o (MgSO4 ) = y
incorrect
S cm2mol–1 and  o (CaSO 4 ) = z S cm2mol–1. The
(2) Both statement I and II are correct
o (MgCl2 ) in S cm2mol–1 will be
(3) Both statement I and II are incorrect
y z
(4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is (1) 2x + y – z (2) x − −
correct 2 2
y
73. The incorrect statement regarding CFCs is (3) x + y – z (4) x − −z
2
(1) These compounds are flammable and highly
reactive 79. Match column-I with column-II.
(2) These are non-toxic organic molecules Column-I Column-II

(3) They are used in refrigerators and air (Name of crystal (Inter-axial angles)
conditioners system)
(4) They are the transporting agents for
i. Cubic (a)  =  = 90°,   90°
continuously generating chlorine radicals in
stratosphere ii. Hexagonal (b)       90°
74. Synthesis gas is a mixture of
iii. Triclinic (c)  =  =  = 90°
(1) CO and H2 (2) CO and N2
(3) CO2 and N2 (4) CO2 and H2 iv. Monoclinic (d)  =  = 90°,  = 120°
(8)
Choose the correct answer. SECTION-B

(1) i(a), ii(c), iii(d), iv(b) (2) i(c), ii(d), iii(a), iv(b) 86. For a chemical reaction with rise in temperature
(3) i(c), ii(d), iii(b), iv(a) (4) i(b), ii(d), iii(a), iv(c) by 10°C, the rate constant is nearly
80. Which among the following is not an (1) Doubled (2) Tripled
electrophile? (3) Quadrupled (4) Remains constant
+
87. Which of the following conditions is not true for a
(1) NO2 (2) BF3
neutral solution at all temperature?
(3) (CH3)3N (4) SO3 (1) pH + pOH = 14 (2) [H+] [OH–] = Kw
81. Correct order of boiling point of the given pK w
(3) H  = K w
+
compounds is (4) pH =
2
(i) Pentane
88. Which of the following method is used to prepare
(ii) 2-Methylbutane metal sols only?
(iii) Hexane (1) Hydrolysis (2) Bredig’s Arc method
(iv) 2, 2 – Dimethylpropane (3) Peptization (4) Oxidation
(1) (iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii) (2) (iii) > (i) > (ii) > (iv) 89. Which among the following is square planar in
(3) (iii) > (iv) > (ii) > (i) (4) (iv) > (ii) > (iii) > (i) shape?
82. Most acidic compound among the following is (1) XeF4 (2) SF4
(3) CCl4 (4) ClF3
90. If root mean square speed, most probable speed
(1) (2)
and average speed are Urms, Ump and Uavg
respectively then Ump : Urms : Uavg for a particular
gas will be
(3) (4) (1) 1 : 1.128 : 1.224 (2) 1 : 1.224 : 1.128
(3) 1.224 : 1 : 1.128 (4) 1.128 : 1.224 : 1
83. Consider the following statements.
(a) Glucose is also known as dextrose.
(b) Glucose is oxidized to saccharic acid using
bromine water. Major product (C) is
(c) -D (+) – glucose contains five chiral centres. (1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
84. Primary valency of cobalt in complex 92. The number of neutrons, protons and electrons in
[Co(en)2Cl2]Br is 137
56
Ba2 + ion, respectively are
(1) 6 (2) 2 (1) 137, 81 and 56 (2) 56, 137 and 54
(3) 3 (4) zero (3) 81, 56 and 54 (4) 81, 56 and 56
85. For which of the following reaction, value of 93. Which of the following compounds is covalent in
(H – U) is maximum at 27°C temperature? nature?
(1) H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) ⎯⎯→ 2HCl(g) (1) BeCl2 (2) MgF2
(2) PCl5 (g) ⎯⎯→ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) (3) CaCl2 (4) SrF2
94. Oxidation state of P in H4P2O7 is
(3) N2O4 (g) ⎯⎯→ 2NO2 (g)
(1) + 5 (2) + 4
(4) NH4HS(s) ⎯⎯→ NH3 (g) + H2S(g) (3) + 3 (4) + 6
(9)
95. For the cell reaction 98. Consider the following statements.
2Cr(s) + 3Fe2+ (aq) ⎯⎯→ 2Cr 3 + (aq) + 3Fe(s) (a) Boiling points of aldehydes are higher than
ethers of comparable molecular mass.
The standard Gibbs energy (rG°) is [Given:
(b) Propanone is miscible with water in all
Eo = −0.44 V and Eo = −0.74 V]
Fe2 + /Fe Cr 3 + /Cr proportions.
(1) –153.5 kJ mol–1 (2) – 173.7 kJ mol–1 (c) Methanal and ethanal are gases at room
(3) 125.2 kJ mol–1 (4) 192.6 kJ mol–1 temperature.
96. Incorrect statement among the following is The incorrect statement(s) is/are
(1) Aniline is separated by steam distillation from (1) (c) only
aniline-water mixture (2) (b) only
(2) Different fractions of crude oil in petroleum (3) (a) and (b) only
industry are separated by fractional
distillation
99. For which of the following reaction, enthalpy
(3) Thin layer chromatography is a type of
partition chromatography change is equal to enthalpy of formation?
(4) Silica gel and alumina are commonly used 1

(1) C (Graphite) + O (g) ⎯⎯→ CO(g)
adsorbents in column chromatography 2 2
97. Consider the following reaction sequence (2) S (Rhombic) + O2 (l) ⎯⎯→ SO2 (g)
(3) 4P (White) + 3O2 (g) ⎯⎯→ 2P2O3 (s)
Incorrect statement about B is (4) H2 (g) + I2 (g) ⎯⎯→ 2HI(g)

(1) Degree of unsaturation is 5
100. Calculated magnetic moment of complex
(2) It reduces Tollens’ reagent [Ti(H2O)6]Cl3 is (Atomic number of Ti is = 22)
(3) It forms CHI3 on reaction with I2/NaOH
(1) 3 BM (2) 7 BM
(4) It forms ketal on reaction with excess
methanol in presence of dry HCl gas (3) 15 BM (4) 24 BM
BOTANY
SECTION - A 104. Annual rings that are formed due to secondary
growth are clearly seen in
101. Leaf base in angiosperms may bear two small
leaf-like structures. These structures are called (1) Roots of aquatic plants
(1) Petioles (2) Stipules (2) Stem of trees in tropical region
(3) Buds (4) Bracts (3) Both roots and stem of trees in tropical region
102. Select the incorrect match from the following. (4) Stem of trees in temperate regions
(1) Tulip – Bisexual flowers 105. In which of the following chromosomes, the p and
(2) Petunia – Endospermous seed q arms are differentiated?
(3) Aloe – Calyx (3 + 3) and Corolla (3 + 3) (a) Sub-metacentric (b) Telocentric
(4) Tobacco – Epipetalous androecium (c) Metacentric (d) Acrocentric
103. Cuticle is usually absent on the outer surface of The correct one(s) is/are
epidermis in
(1) (a) and (d) only
(1) Roots
(2) (a) only
(2) Stem
(3) Phyllodes
(4) All (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) Phylloclade
(10)
106. All of the following statements are true w.r.t. 113. All the buses of Delhi were converted to run on
aleuroplast, except CNG by the end of
(1) It is double membrane bound structure (1) 2000 (2) 2002
(2) It contains protein digesting enzymes (3) 2004 (4) 2006
(3) It is found in seeds 114. Match the following columns w.r.t. various
(4) It is a colourless plastid scientists and their respective discovery of plant
growth regulators.
107. The fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was
proposed by Column I Column II
(1) Wilkins and Franklin A. F.W. Went (i) Gibberellins
(2) Watson and Crick
B. Cousins (ii) Kinetin
(3) Singer and Nicolson
(4) Schleiden and Schwann C. E. Kurosawa (iii) Auxin
108. The correct sequence of various stages for D. F. Skoog (iv) Ethylene
synthesis of sugar during Calvin cycle is
A B C D
(1) Carboxylation → Regeneration → Reduction
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) Carboxylation → Reduction → Regeneration (2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) Reduction → Carboxylation → Regeneration (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) Regeneration → Carboxylation → Reduction (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
109. In the process of transcription in eukaryotes, the 115. Gemmules are asexual reproductive structure of
RNA polymerase II transcribes
(1) Penicillium (2) Hydra
(1) Precursor of mRNA
(3) Amoeba (4) Sponges
(2) tRNA
116. Seeds in which of the given plant has no residual
(3) rRNAs – 18S, 5S endosperm as it is completely used up during
(4) SnRNAs embryo development?
110. During post-transcriptional modification, splicing (1) Groundnut (2) Barley
does not occur in cells of (3) Castor (4) Maize
(1) E. Coli (2) Plants 117. Match the following column I with column II and
(3) Algae (4) Animals select the correct option.
111. During DNA replication, okazaki fragments are Column I Column II
(1) Continuous strands
A. Ladybird (i) Nucleopolyhedrovirus
(2) Produced on template with polarity 3 ' → 5 '
(3) Produced on template with polarity 5 ' → 3 '
(4) Also called leading strand B. Bacillus (ii) Mosquito
thuringiensis
112. Read the given statements stating them true (T)
or false (F) and select the correct option. C. Baculoviruses (iii) Aphids
(A) The term biodiversity was popularised by
sociobiologist Edward Wilson. D. Dragonflies (iv) Butterfly caterpillar
(B) Eastern ghats have greater amphibian
A B C D
species diversity as compared to western
ghats. (1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(C) Ecosystem diversity is quite low in India. (2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(1) A –T, B – T, C – T (2) A – F, B – T, C – F (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(3) A – F, B – F, C – T (4) A – T, B – F, C – F (4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(11)
118. The process of absorption of water by hydrophilic (3) Monograph – Contains information of all
solid particles of a substance without forming a plant species found in a
solution is called particular area.
(1) Imbibition (2) Mass flow (4) Taxonomic keys – Analytical in nature.
(3) Plasmolysis (4) Guttation 126. The end product of glycolysis
119. Which among the following bacteria carries out
(1) Enters mitochondrial matrix and undergoes
denitrification?
oxidative decarboxylation
(1) Nitrosomonas (2) Nitrococcus
(2) Is a 2C compound
(3) Thiobacillus (4) Nitrobacter
(3) Forms 3C Acetyl CoA
correct option. (4) Enters directly Krebs’ cycle
Statement A: Mitosis is seen in both diploid and 127. Which of the following leads to resistance to
haploid cells. maize stem borers?
Statement B: Meiosis involves two sequential (1) High aspartic acid and high nitrogen
cycles of nuclear and cell division but only a
(2) Low aspartic acid and nitrogen
single cycle of DNA replication.
(3) High aspartic acid and low nitrogen
(4) Low aspartic acid and high nitrogen
(3) Both statements are incorrect 128. Select the organism which shows the below
graph for its homeostasis.
121. Which of the following phase can last for months
or years in oocytes of some vertebrates?
(1) Diakinesis (2) Diplotene
(3) Leptotene (4) Zygotene
122. Coralloid roots
(1) Are found in Pinus
(2) Have fungal associations
(3) Are associated with N2 – fixing cyanobacteria
(1) Humans (2) Nearly all plants
(4) Possess root hairs
(3) Mammals (4) All birds
123. Select the odd one out w.r.t life cycle patterns of
the given algae 129. In the given food chain, the maximum energy will
(1) Ectocarpus (2) Polysiphonia be present at which trophic level?
(3) Spirogyra (4) Kelps
124. In which of the following taxonomic categories,
man is not classified?
(1) Chordata (2) Diptera
(3) Hominidae (4) Primata
(1) Flora – Actual account of
distribution of plants of a (1) (D) (2) (C)
given area (3) (B) (4) (A)
(2) Manual – Useful in providing 130. Mark the protist that do not have flagella as its
information for locomotory structure.
identification of names of
(1) Gonyaulax (2) Euglena
various species found in
an area (3) Trypanosoma (4) Paramecium
(12)
131. Match the columns and select the correct option SECTION-B
Column I Column II 136. In monocotyledonous seeds, coleoptile is

(1) The sheath that encloses plumule
a. Mycoplasma (i) Spore producing
eukaryote (2) The covering of endosperm
(3) Inner protective layer of seed coat
b. Nostoc (ii) Wall-less prokaryote
(4) A shield shaped cotyledon
c. Euglena (iii) Oxygenic 137. Which cells in flowering plants help in
photoautotroph maintaining the pressure gradient in the sieve
d. Slime mould (iv) Wall-less autotroph tubes?
(1) Complementary cells
a b c d
(2) Albuminous cells
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(3) Sieve cells
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) Companion cells
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) 138. Match the following columns and select the
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) correct option.
132. The rod shaped virus that infect plants of Column I Column II
solanaceae family is/has
A. Lysosome (i) Synthesizes
(1) ssRNA as its genetic material steroidal
(2) Known as bacteriophage hormones
(3) Six tail fibers B. Inclusion body (ii) Contains
(4) Devoid of protein coat excretory products
133. In honey bee C. Smooth (iii) Formed by the
a. Male bees are always haploid endoplasmic process of
reticulum packaging in Golgi
b. Only queens develop from fertilised egg
apparatus
c. Drones develop parthenogenetically
D. Vacuole (iv) Not bound by unit
Choose the correct one(s)
membrane
A B C D
(3) a and c (4) c only
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
134. All of the following conditions or disorders arise
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
when there is failure of segregation of chromatids
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
during cell division cycle, except
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(1) Trisomy
139. Read the given statements and select the
(2) Polyploidy
correct option.
Statement A: Thinning of egg shells in predatory
(4) Monosomy birds is due to biomagnification.
135. Select the incorrect one for sickle cell anaemia Statement B: Higher the amount of organic
(1) It is an autosomal recessive disorder matter in water bodies causes a drop in DO
content of water.
(2) Caused by substitution of valine by glutamic
acid
(3) It occurs due to point mutation
(4) Can be transmitted from parents to offspring
where both the parents are carrier for genes (4) Both statements are incorrect
(13)
140. Relationship between species richness (S) and (3) Rum

area (A) represented in the following graph is (4) Wine
described by which of the given mathematical
145. Sporophyte in mosses
expression?
(1) Is less elaborate than that in liverworts
(2) Consists of foot, seta and capsule
(3) Is free-living and photosynthetic
(4) Develops from specialised structures called
gemmae
146. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t.
transpiration.
(1) It is the evaporative loss of water by plants
(1) log S = log C + Z log A
(2) It transports minerals from the soil to all parts
(2) S = CAZ
of the plant
(3) Z = CAS
(3) It keeps the cell flaccid
(4) log Z = log S + C log A
(4) It cools the leaf surface
141. In the structure of DNA, N-glycosidic bond joins
147. Man-made ecosystem are
(1) Two nitrogenous bases
a. Estuary
(2) Purines to ribose sugar
b. Crop fields
(3) Pyrimidines to pentose sugar
c. River
(4) Nucleoside to phosphate
d. Aquarium
142. By the application of which of the given plant
(1) a and d
hormones, farmers can prepare weed-free
lawns? (2) b and c
(1) Cytokinin (3) Only b
(2) 2, 4 - D (4) b and d
(3) Ethephon 148. Some organisms breed only once in their lifetime
such as
(4) Abscisic acid
(1) Birds
correct option. (2) Pacific salmon fish
Statement-A : The synergid cell after triple (3) Humans

fusion becomes primary endosperm cell. (4) Mammals
Statement-B : Syngamy is the fusion of one 149. Term recombination was proposed by
male gamete with the nucleus of egg cell. (1) T. H. Morgan
(1) Only statement A is correct (2) Sturtevant
(2) Only statement B is correct (3) Sutton
(3) Both statements A and B are correct (4) Boveri
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect 150. Choose the odd one w.r.t sac fungi
144. The fermented beverage obtained without (1) Aspergillus
distillation is
(2) Albugo
(1) Whisky
(3) Neurospora
(2) Brandy
(4) Claviceps
(14)
ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A C. Movement of tongue uses contractile
151. At what level, trachea divides into right and left property of muscles.
primary bronchi? D. Methods of locomotion performed by animals
(1) 7th thoracic vertebra (2) 5th thoracic vertebra vary with their habitats and the demand of
the situation.
(3) 7th cervical vertebra (4) 6th cervical vertebra
A B C D
152. Identify the figure given below and select the
incorrect match of the labelled parts A, B, C and (1) T T T T
D with their respective description. (2) F F T T
(3) T T F F
(4) F T T F
155. Read the given statements w.r.t. cockroach.
(A) Heart of cockroach consists of an elongated
muscular tube lying along mid ventral line of
thorax and abdomen.
(B) In the head region, the brain is represented
by supra-oesophageal ganglion which
supplies nerves to antennae and compound
eyes.
(1) A Urine produced by kidneys exit (1) Both statements (A) and (B) are correct
through this and passes into a (2) Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect
common sac (3) Only statement (A) is correct
(2) B During urination, urine is expelled (4) Only statement (B) is correct
from the bladder through this 156. Which of the following is not a secretion of
exocrine gland?
(3) C Secretes antidiuretic hormone
when blood osmolarity rises above (1) Saliva (2) Oxytocin
a set point (3) Pepsin (4) Milk
(4) D Structure that stores urine 157. Match column-I with column-II and select the
correct option w.r.t. stomach.
153. Which is the common feature between Euglena Column-I Column-II
and sponges?
(a) Mucus neck cell (i) Mucus
(1) Presence of cilia
(b) Oxyntic cell (ii) Intrinsic factor
(2) Presence of flagella
(c) Chief cell (iii) Pepsinogen
(3) Presence of pseudopodia
(iv) HCl
(4) Presence of tentacles
(a) (b) (c)
154. Consider the given statements and choose the
(1) (i) (iii) (ii)
option which correctly states them as true(T) or
false(F). (2) (i) (ii) (iii)
A. Locomotion requires a perfect coordinated (3) (ii) (iv) (iii)

activity of muscular and skeletal system only. (4) (i) (iv) (ii)
B. Macrophages as well as erythrocytes in 158. Principal organ for absorption of nutrients is
blood move using pseudopodia formed by (1) Stomach (2) Large intestine
the streaming of protoplasm. (3) Small intestine (4) Mouth
(15)
159. An injury or trauma stimulates the ______ in the A B C D

blood to release ______ which activates the (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
mechanism of coagulation. Choose the correct
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
option that fills the blanks respectively.
(1) Leucocytes, Thrombin (3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) Thrombocytes, Thromboplastin (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) Erythrocytes, Prothrombin 165. Which of the following structures undergo
(4) Platelets, Fibrin cleavage to form embryo?
160. Choose the correct option to complete the (1) Zygote (2) Foetus
analogy. (3) Ovum (4) Sperm
Between right atrium and right ventricle : 166. Choose the incorrect statement from the
Tricuspid valve :: Between left ventricle and following given options.
aorta : ___________
(1) In adults, each testis is oval in shape, with a
(1) Semilunar valve (2) Pulmonary valve length of about 4 to 5 cm.
(3) Bicuspid valve (4) Mitral valve (2) Testis is covered by loose connective tissue.
161. The granulocytes which are involved in (3) Each testis has about 250 compartments
inflammatory reactions secrete all of the following
called testicular lobules.
except
(4) Temperature of testis within scrotum is lower
(1) Histamine (2) Serotonin
than the normal internal body temperature.
(3) Adrenaline (4) Heparin
167. Select the male accessory gland which is
162. All of the following are poikilothermous animals
unpaired and contributes in secretion of seminal
except
plasma.
(1) Labeo (2) Hyla
(1) Seminal vesicle (2) Prostate gland
(3) Struthio (4) Alligator
(3) Bulbourethral gland (4) Cowper’s gland
163. Assertion (A): The neural system of Hydra is
better organised than insects. 168. Spermiation is a process in which sperms are
Reason (R): Insects have a brain along with a (1) Detached from Sertoli cells and are finally
number of ganglia and neural tissues. released from the seminiferous tubules
In the light of above statements, select the (2) Produced within seminiferous tubules
correct option. (3) Embedded in cells of Sertoli for their
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the nourishment
correct explanation of (A) (4) Transported from testis to epididymis
169. Following are the stringent measures taken in the
dairy farm management. Choose the incorrect
(3) (A) is true, (R) is false measure.
(4) (A) is false, (R) is true (1) Selection of good breeds having high yielding
164. Match items in column-I with those in column-II potential, combined with resistance to
and choose the correct option. diseases.
Column-I Column-II (2) The feeding of cattle should be carried out in
a scientific manner – with special emphasis
A. Cyclostomata (i) Mouth without jaws
mainly on the quantity of fodder only.
B. Chondrichthyes (ii) Exclusively
(3) Regular inspections with proper record
oviparous
keeping that would help to identify and rectify
C. Aves (iii) Gills without the problems as early as possible.
operculum (4) Cleanliness and hygiene is of paramount
D. Mammalia (iv) Unique in importance while milking, storage and
possessing hair transport of milk and its products.
(16)
170. Read the statements A and B carefully and select c. Catalyse removal of (iii) Transferases
the correct option. groups from
Statement (A): Among non-infectious diseases, substrates by
cancer is the major cause of death all over the mechanism other
globe. than hydrolysis
Statement (B): Malignant malaria caused by leaving double bonds
Plasmodium malariae is the most serious one.
d. Catalyse linking (iv) Ligases
(1) Statements (A) and (B) are correct together of 2
(2) Statements (A) and (B) are incorrect compounds
(3) Only statement (A) is correct (v) Hydrolases
171. Read the given statements carefully w.r.t. health
and select the correct option. (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(v), d(i)
(1) Normal cells show a property called contact
inhibition which appears to be lost in (4) a(iii), b(v), c(ii), d(iv)
cancerous cells. 174. Select the correct match among the following.
(2) Some of the diseases like AIDS are non-fatal. (1) Collagen – Intracellular ground substance
(3) When people are healthy they are more (2) Toxin – Codeine
deficient at work. (3) Lectin – Ricin
(4) Reproductively healthy society means (4) Alkaloid – Morphine
increase in the IMR and MMR.
175. Choose the correct description of periodic
172. Read the given statements A, B and C and select abstinence from the given options.
the correct option. (1) Abstaining from coitus in the period of
(A) All enzymes are proteinaceous in nature. intense lactation following parturition
(B) Some competitive inhibitors are often used in (2) Withdrawal of penis from the vagina just
the control of bacterial pathogens. before ejaculation
(C) Active site of an enzyme is formed by the (3) Avoiding intercourse from day 18 to 28 of the
folding of the backbone of tertiary structure of menstrual cycle, post-ovulation
protein upon itself. (4) Avoiding intercourse from day 10 to 17 of the
(1) Statements (A) and (B) are correct menstrual cycle, when ovulation could be
(2) Statements (B) and (C) are correct expected
(3) Statements (A) and (C) are correct 176. A man underwent vasectomy few years ago. He
tried to reverse it, but that was not successful.
(4) Statements (A), (B) and (C) are correct
Using ART, this man and his wife are planning to
173. Match the column-I with column-II and select the have a child again. Which procedure from the
correct option. given options will not be required by the couple
Column-I Column-II as the woman’s fertility is normal and healthy?
(1) GIFT
a. Catalyse the transfer (i) Oxido-
(2) AI
of specific groups reductases
other than hydrogen (3) IUI
from one substrate to (4) In vivo fertilisation
other 177. The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990
b. Catalyse the (ii) Lyases to a 4 year old girl suffering from
breakdown of larger (1) SCID
molecules into (2) AIDS
smaller with addition (3) Diabetes mellitus
of water
(4) Addison’s disease
(17)
178. The structure which is attached to the oval (1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
window as well as the incus is (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) Malleus
(2) Stapes
(3) Cochlea
(4) Eustachian tube
correct option.
correct option. Statement (A): Change in gene frequency in a
small population by chance is known as genetic
Column-I Column-II
drift.
a. Glucagon (i) Steroid
Statement (B): When gene migration occurs
b. Epinephrine (ii) Peptide between A and B population, gene frequencies
c. Thyroxine (iii) Iodothyronine change in both the populations.
d. Estradiol (iv) Amino-acid derivative (1) Both statements (A) and (B) are correct
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (2) Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect
(2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (3) Only statement (A) is correct
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (4) Only statement (B) is correct
(4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) 184. How many statements given below are
180. A mixture containing DNA fragments, p, q, r and incorrect?
s with size of p + r = q, p > r and s > q, was
(a) Homo erectus fossil was discovered in Java
subjected to agarose gel electrophoresis. The
in 1981.
positions of these fragments from cathode to
anode sides of the gel would be (b) The Neanderthal man lived in near east and
(1) q, s, p, r (2) s, q, p, r central Africa between 75,000–10,000 years
(3) r, p, q, s (4) p, r, s, q ago.
181. EcoRI is obtained from (c) Australopithecines were probably taller than
(1) RD strain of Escherichia coli 4 feet but did not walk upright.
(2) RY 13 strain of Escherichia coli (d) Few fossils of man-like bones have been
(3) K12 strain of E. coli discovered in Ethiopia and Tanzania.
(4) O157 strain of E. coli (1) Three
182. Match column-I with column-II and choose the (2) Two
correct option.
(3) One
Column-I Column-II
(4) Four
a. Reverse (i) Forms 185. Select the incorrect match.
transcriptase phosphodiester
bonds (1) First cellular – Appeared 2 bya
b. Taq (ii) cDNA library forms of life
polymerase (2) First organisms – Plants
c. Alkaline (iii) Breaks that invaded land
phosphatase phosphodiester
(3) Sea weeds and – Existed probably
bonds
few plants around 320 mya
d. Restriction (iv) Used in ELISA
endonuclease (4) Icthyosaurs – Fish-like amphibians
(18)
SECTION-B 190. Assertion (A): Gaseous exchange in mammals

occurs in alveoli, air sacs clustered at the tips of
correct option. the finest bronchioles.
Reason (R): The type of epithelial layer of
Column-I Column-II
serous membranes such as the pleura is same
a. Milk (i) Spermatids are as that found in alveoli.
transformed into
spermatozoa
correct option.
b. Primary (ii) Stored in cavity of (1) (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct
spermatocyte alveoli explanation of (A)
c. Spermiogenesis (iii) First menstruation (2) (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct
begins at puberty explanation of (A)
d. Menarche (iv) Periodically (3) (A) is true, (R) is false
undergo meiosis (4) (A) is false, (R) is true
a b c d 191. Consider the given statements carefully.
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (a) Malpighian tubules help in the removal of
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) nitrogenous wastes and osmoregulation in
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) Periplaneta.
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (b) Flame cells are the excretory structure in
187. Which of the following is a common feature Planaria as well as rotifers.
between Pheretima and Ascaris? (c) Each kidney of an adult human measures 0.1
(1) Presence of true coelom to 0.12 meter in width.
(2) Presence of metameres (d) Kidneys are situated between the level of last
(3) Absence of pharynx thoracic and fourth lumbar vertebra.
(4) Presence of bilateral symmetry Select the option with correct statements only.
188. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. animals and (1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a) and (b)
their excretory structures. (3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
(1) Hirudinaria – Nephridia 192. _______ stage of Plasmodium parasite is not
(2) Saccoglossus – Proboscis gland present in humans.
(3) Pila – Radula Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
(4) Taenia – Flame cells (1) Gametocyte (2) Merozoite
189. Read the given statements carefully. (3) Ookinete (4) Signet ring
A. RBCs are devoid of nucleus in most of the 193. Select the correct option to complete the
mammals and are biconvex in shape. analogy.
B. Lymph has same mineral distribution as that Haemoglobin : Protein : : Ribozyme :_______.
in plasma.
(1) Protein (2) Polypeptide
C. By counting the number of QRS complexes
in ECG that occur in a given time period, one (3) Steroid (4) Nucleic acid
can determine the heart beat rate of an 194. ‘Reproductive health means a total well-being in
individual. all aspects of reproduction, i.e., physical,
D. Heart is an endodermally derived organ. emotional, behavioural and social’. This definition
How many of the given statements are correct? was given by
(1) Three (2) Four (1) UNESCO (2) UNICEF
(3) Two (4) One (3) WHO (4) EFB
(19)
195. Genetically modified tobacco plants were 198. Read the following statements and select the
produced using Agrobacterium vectors. Which option which includes only correct statements.
properties of Agrobacterium help in carrying (A) Thecodonts are extant ancestors of
nematode specific genes into the host plant? crocodiles and birds.
(1) Infectious for monocot plants; has Ti plasmid
(B) Mammals have evolved from sauropsids.
(2) Infectious for dicot plants; has Ti plasmid
(C) Snakes are closer to lizards than tuataras.
(3) Infectious for plants and animals; has Ti
(D) Birds are closer to dinosaurs than crocodiles.
plasmid
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (C) and (D)
(4) Infectious for monocot and dicots; has cry
genes (3) (A) and (C) (4) (A), (C) and (D)
196. Choose the correct match. 199. Complete the analogy and select the correct
option.
(1) Balanoglossus Open type circulation
with capillaries BamHI : Sticky ends : : EcoRV : ______
(1) Staggered ends
(2) Betta Closed type circulation
without capillaries (2) Cohesive ends
(3) Blunt ends
(3) Neophron Digestive tract with crop
and gizzard (4) Ends with overhanging stretches
200. If any protein encoding gene is expressed in a
(4) Balaenoptera Presence of mammary
heterologous host, it is called a
glands and pinnae
(1) Recombinant host
197. Growth hormone producing gland is located in a
bony cavity called (2) Recombinant protein
(1) Orbits (2) Glenoid (3) Recombinant vector
(3) Sella turcica (4) Acetabulum (4) Recombinant bacteria
❑ ❑ ❑
(20)
20/06/2022 CODE-A


Instructions:
PHYSICS
SECTION-A (1) 32 × 10–4 T (2) 16 × 10–4 T
1. The planet Jupiter has an atmosphere mainly of (3) 28 × 10–4 T (4) 64 × 10–4 T
methane at –130°C. The velocity of sound on this
4. If the wavelength of first member of Balmer
 Cp 
planet assuming  
 C 
for mixture to be 1.3 is series of hydrogen spectrum is 6563 Å, the
 V wavelength of second member of Balmer series
(Gas constant R = 8.3 J/mol°C) will be
(1) 311 m/s (2) 10 m/s (1) 1215 Å (2) 4861 Å
(3) 275 m/s (4) 350 m/s (3) 6050 Å (4) 7259 Å
2. Two waves represented by Y1 = 10 sin  20t −  x  5. A radioactive nucleus undergoes series of decay
 5 
according to the scheme

and Y2 = 15sin  20t − x  are superimposed.   –
 
 5  A ⎯⎯ → A1 ⎯⎯ ⎯
→ A2 ⎯⎯ → A3 ⎯⎯ → A4
The ratio of maximum intensity to minimum
intensity will be If mass number and atomic number of A are 180
and 72 respectively, then what are these
(1) 25 : 1 (2) 13 : 25
numbers of A4?
(3) 12 : 25 (4) 12 : 13
(1) 172 and 69
3. A closely wound solenoid 100 cm long has
4 layers of winding of 200 turns each. The (2) 174 and 70
diameter of solenoid is 2 cm. If current in (3) 176 and 69
solenoid is 10 A, the magnitude of magnetic field
inside solenoid near its centre is (4) 176 and 70
(1)
6. A particle is projected at an angle of 45°, then the 11. A rigid bar of mass 30 kg is supported
ratio of horizontal range to maximum height symmetrically by three wires each 1 m long.
attained by particle is Those at each end are copper wires and middle
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 4 one is of iron. What is ratio of copper to iron wire
diameters of each to have same tension.
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1
(YC = 1.1 × 108 N/m2, Yi = 3.3 × 108 N/m2)
7. Kepler’s second law states that the straight line
joining the planet to sun sweeps out equal areas (1) 3 (2) 2
in equal time intervals. This statement is 1
equivalent to saying that (3) 6 (4)
2
(1) Net acceleration is zero
12. What is total number of air molecules in a room
(2) Angular momentum is conserved of capacity 20 m3 at temperature of 300 K and
(3) Linear momentum is conserved 1 atm pressure?
(4) Radial acceleration is zero (1) 1.24 × 1029
8. The velocity(v)-time (t) graph of a lift moving (2) 4.88 × 1026

upwards has been shown below. Let T1, T2 and (3) 2.1 × 1016
T3 be the tensions in elevator cable during the
(4) 5.3 × 1024
time intervals t1, t2 and t3. Then T1 : T2 : T3 is
13. Two cylinders A and B fitted with pistons contain
equal amounts of an ideal diatomic gas at 300 K.
The piston of A is free to move. The piston of B is
fixed. Same amount of heat is given to the gas in
each cylinder. If the rise in temperature of gas A
is 30 K, then rise in temperature of gas B is
(1) 12 : 10 : 11 (2) 11 : 10 : 9 (1) 30 K (2) 42 K
(3) 11 : 10 : 8 (4) 12 : 10 : 11 (3) 50 K (4) 24 K
9. A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and area 14. Two coherent sources with intensity I0 and 4I0
of cross-section 1.6 × 10–4 m2 carrying a current respectively interfere at a point in a medium. The
of 4.0 A is suspended through its centre allowing ratio of maximum and minimum possible intensity
it to turn in a horizontal plane. The torque on is
solenoid if a uniform horizontal field of 7.5 × 10–2 T (1) 1 : 3 (2) 9 : 1
is set up at an angle of 30° with axis of solenoid,
(3) 1 : 8 (4) 27 : 1
is
1
(1) 1.2 × 10–4 Nm 15. The correct unit for is given by
0 0
(2) 4.8 × 10–3 Nm
(1) m s–2 (2) m s–1
(3) 4.8 × 10–2 Nm
(3) m2 s–3 (4) m2 s2
(4) 1.6 × 10–2 Nm
16. The ratio of emissive power of a body at an
10. A series LCR circuit with R = 20 , L = 1.5 H and
absolute temperature ‘T’ to the emissive power of
C = 35 F is connected to variable frequency of
black body at same absolute temperature T is
200 V ac supply. When frequency of supply
known as
equals the natural frequency of the circuit, the
average power transferred in one complete cycle (1) Emissivity
is (2) Reflectivity
(1) 1.6 kW (2) 2.0 kW (3) Transmissivity
(3) 1.5 kW (4) 2.4 kW (4) Absorptivity
(2)
Click Here for More Tests [@Aakash_Test_Series_PDF]
17. A point source of heat is placed at centre of 21. Figure shows a stepped pulley. Threads are
spherical shell whose outer and inner radii are wound over two steps of radii 3R and R. Find
given by ‘b’ and ‘a’ respectively. The inner and mass (m) of block so that system is in
outer faces of the spherical shell are maintained equilibrium.
at a temperature T1 and T2 respectively where
T1 > T2. If the thermal conductivity of material of
spherical shell is ‘K’ then power of point source of
heat is
K 4ab (T1 − T2 ) 4 ( b − a ) K
(1) (2)
b−a ab (T1 − T2 )
4 (T1 − T2 ) K 4 ( b + a ) (T1 − T2 ) K (1) M (2) 3M

(3) (4)
b+a ab
M
18. Two charges +q and –q forms an electric dipole (3) (4) 9M
3
and separation between these charges is l. This
22. A wet sponge, shaped like a circular disc, is
dipole is placed in any uniform electric field E
such that axis of the dipole makes an angle 37° rotating about its normal axis. As water moves
with the line perpendicular to the field. Torque outwards due to centrifugal force, the angular
acting on the dipole in this situation will be speed of disc
3 4 (1) Will increase
(1) qEl (2) qEl
5 5 (2) Will decrease
(3) qEl (4) Zero (3) First decreases then increase
19. A point charge q is placed at the centre of base
(4) First increases then decrease
of a circular cone having radius R and height H,
as shown in the figure. 23. Force acting on a body moving along x-axis is
given as F = –kx3, where x is displacement of
body from its mean position.
The motion of body is
(1) Simple harmonic motion
(2) Oscillatory but not SHM
(3) Periodic but not oscillatory
(4) Non-periodic
24. Uniform magnetic field exist in region where
Net electric flux linked with the circular face and x < 0. A rod is sliding over rails as shown in
slant surface of cone respectively is figure. The emf induced in the loop will be
q q q
(1) , (2) Zero,
0 0 0
q q q
(3) , (4) Zero,
20 20 20
20. A block of mass m = 5 kg starts moving with a
constant acceleration a = 2 m/s2 on a rough
horizontal plane surface. If the coefficient of
friction between the block and ground is  = 0.2
then power delivered by the external agent, at
(1) Blv (2) 2Blv
time t = 4 s is equal to
(1) 400 W (2) 160 W Blv
(3) (4) Zero
(3) 100 W (4) 240 W 2
(3)
25. A plane mirror is placed in y-z plane. A light ray (1) I (2) II
travelling in x-y plane is incident on it at an angle (3) III (4) Both I and III
of 45°. If mirror is rotated by 90° so that it is now
31. A body is dropped from a height of 80 m. Find
in x-z plane. The magnitude of deviation will
the time taken by the body to reach the ground
(1) Increase by 90° (2) Increase by 45° and velocity on reaching the ground.
(3) Remain same (4) Increase by 180° Take (g = 10 m s–2)
26. A light ray enters from air to glass medium. If (1) 4 s, 10 m s–1 (2) 4 s, 40 m s–1
sum of incident angle and refraction angle is 90°,
(3) 2 s, 20 m s–1 (4) 2 s, 40 m s–1
then refractive index of glass can be
32. A spherical ball falls through viscous medium
4
(1) (2) 3 with terminal velocity v. If this ball is replaced by
3 another ball of same mass but half the radius,
(3) 2 (4) All of these then the terminal velocity will be (neglect the
27. Choose the correct statement among the effect of buoyancy)
following. (1) v (2) 2v
(1) A most precise measurement must be most (3) 4v (4) 8v
accurate 33. The electric potential at the surface of an atomic
(2) A most precise measurement must be least nucleus (Z = 50) of radius 9 × 10–15 m due to
accurate nucleons is
(3) A most precise measurement may be most (1) 80 V (2) 8 × 106 V
accurate (3) 9 V (4) 9 × 105 V
(4) A most accurate measurement must be most 34. A non-conducting ring of radius R has charge Q
precise distributed unevenly over it. If it rotates with an
28. In a screw gauge, each main scale division is of angular velocity  the equivalent current will be
1 mm. There are 100 divisions on the circular
(1) 0 (2) Q
scale. The least count of the screw gauge is
 
(1) 0.1 cm (2) 1.1 mm (3) Q (4) Q
2 2R
(3) 0.01 mm (4) 10 mm
35. How many electrons per second pass through a
section of wire carrying current of 0.7 A?
(A) A material having band gap energy greater
(1) 6.235 ×1025 (2) 2.512 × 1012
than 2 eV must be insulator
(3) 4.126 × 1021 (4) 4.375 × 1018
(B) The approximate range of resistivity of the
SECTION-B
semiconductor material is 10–5  m to
106  m. 36. The magnetic field existing in a region is given by
 x
Choose the correct statement. B = B0 1 +  kˆ . A square loop of edge L and
 L
(1) (A) only (2) (B) only
carrying current I is placed with its two edges
(3) Both (A) and (B) (4) Neither (A) nor (B) parallel to x and y axes. The magnitude of net
30. The transfer characteristics of a CE amplifier is magnetic force experienced by loop is
shown in the figure. The transistor works as (1) 2B0IL (2) Zero
switch (off) in region
(3) B0IL (4) 4B0IL
37. Two satellites are in same parking orbits around
the earth. Mass of one is ten times that of other.
The ratio of their respective periods of revolution
is
(1) 1 (2) 10
(3) 10 (4) 100
(4)
38. A wooden block of mass 6 kg slides down an 43. Two waves from coherent sources meet at a
inclined plane of inclination 30° to the horizontal point in a phase difference of  and path
with a constant acceleration of 0.5 m s–2. What is difference x. Both waves have same intensities
the force of friction between the box and inclined I0. Match the column I and column II.
plane? (g = 10 m s–2)
Column I Column II
(1) 32 N (2) 30 N
(3) 27 N (4) 16 N a. If (p) Resultant intensity
39. One mole of an ideal gas at temperature T was  will be 3I0
x =
cooled isochorically till the gas pressure fell from 3
P 
P to   . Then by an isobaric process, the gas b. If  = 60° (q) Resultant intensity
n
will be I0
was restored to the initial temperature. The net
amount of heat absorbed by the gas in the c. If (r) Resultant intensity
process is  will be zero
x =
RT 4
(1) nRT (2)
n
d. If  = 90° (s) Resultant intensity
 1 will be 2I0
(3) RT(n – 1) (4) RT  1 − 
 n 
(1) a(q), b(p), c(s), d(s)
40. A resistance of 20  is connected to a source of
(2) a(s), b(p), c(s), d(q)
an alternating potential V = 220 sin (100t ) . The
(3) a(q), b(s), c(s), d(p)
minimum time taken by the current to change
from its peak value to rms value is (4) a(s), b(r), c(q), d(r)
(1) 2.5 × 10–3 s (2) 4.0 × 10–3 s 44. A block of mass 10 kg is pulled over a vertical
circular plane of radius 5 m. If applied external
(3) 1.5 × 10–3 s (4) 2.0 × 10–3 s
force is 300 N and block starts from rest at point
41. Using the ideal Zener diode approximations, the ‘A’ then velocity of block at point ‘B’ will be
range of current through the diode as shown in
the figure, is
(1) 2 mA  Iz  6 mA (2) 6 mA  Iz  7.8 mA

(3) 2 mA  Iz  6.8 mA (4) 2 mA  Iz  8 mA
(1) 5 m/s (2) 10 5 m/s
42. The value of Planck’s constant is h = 6.6 × 10–34 J s.
Suppose we employ a new system of unit in which (3) 5 10 m/s (4) 10 m/s
unit of mass is  kg, unit of length is  m and unit of
45. For a rod of mass M and length L, moment of
time is  s. The value of Planck’s constant in terms of
inertia about an axis passing through one end is
new unit will be
I0. What will be moment of inertia about an axis
(
(1) 6.6  10−34 2  −1 ) L
passing through rod at distance from end?
3
(2) 6.6  10−34 (   )
−1 2
ML2 ML2
(1) I0 + (2) I0 +
(3) 6.6  10−34 (   )
−1 −2 9 36
2ML2 ML2
(4) 6.6  10−34 (  )
−2
(3) I0 −
9
(4) I0 −
9
(5)
46. For a virtual object, image formed by concave 49. A particle of mass ‘m’ is projected from ground
mirror is always with velocity ‘u’ making an angle ‘’ with the
(1) Real, Erect, Diminished vertical. The de Broglie wavelength of the particle
(2) Real, Erect, Magnified of the highest point is
(3) Virtual, Inverted, Diminished
h h
(4) Real, Inverted, Magnified (1) (2)
mu tan  mu sin 
47. Calculate the work done against surface tension
in blowing a soap bubble from a radius of 10 cm h h
(3) (4)
to 20 cm, if the surface tension of soap solution is mu cos  mu
25 × 10–3 N/m.
50. n identical cells, each of emf ‘’ and internal
(1) 9.42 × 10–3 J (2) 18.84 × 10–3 J
resistance ‘r’ are joined in series to form a closed
(3) 26.12 × 10–3 J (4) 52.12 × 10–3 J
circuit. One cell ‘A’ is joined with reversed
48. When the separation between the two charges is polarity. The potential difference across each cell
increased, the electrical potential energy of the
charges except ‘A’, is
(1) Increases 2 
(1) (2)
(2) Decrease n n
(3) Remains the same n −2  2n 
(3)   (4)  
(4) May increase or decrease  n  n −2
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 53. Incorrect match among the following is
51. Statement I: At atmospheric pressure ice (1) 2H2O(l) + 2F2(g) ⎯→ 4HF(aq) + O2(g):
crystallises in the cubic form but at very low Disproportionation reaction
temperature it condenses to hexagonal form.
(2) 2NaH(s) ⎯→ 2Na(s) + H2(g): Decomposition
Statement II: Hydrogen bonding gives ice a reaction
rather open type structure with wide holes.
(3) Mg(s) + 2H2O(l) ⎯→ Mg(OH)2(s) + H2(g):
Non-metal displacement reaction
correct option.
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is (4) Cr2O3(s) + 2Al(s) ⎯→ Al2O3(s) + 2Cr(s):
incorrect Metal displacement reaction
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is 54. Density of an element (atomic mass = 60 u) that
correct crystallises into a fcc lattice with edge length
3 × 10–8 cm is (given: NA = 6 × 1023)
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are (1) 11.27 g/cm3
incorrect (2) 13.54 g/cm3
52. Identify the incorrect statement among the (3) 16.18 g/cm3
following.
(4) 14.81 g/cm3
(1) Hydraulic washing is based on the difference
55. Which among the following ion has highest
between specific gravities of the ore and the
gangue particle limiting molar conductivity in water at 298K?
(2) Bauxite usually contains SiO2, iron oxides (1) Ca2+

and TiO2 as impurities (2) Br–
(3) Gem ‘ruby’ has Co as impurity (3) SO24−
(4) The sulphide ores of copper are heated in
reverberatory furnace (4) H+
(6)
56. Select the correct statement regarding Frenkel 61. In which of the following molecule all the bond
defect. lengths are not equal?
(1) It changes the density of solid (1) XeF4 (2) PCl5
(2) It is a non-stoichiometric defect (3) SF6 (4) CH4
(3) It is metal excess defect 62. pH of solution made by mixing 100 ml, 0.2 M
NaOH and 0.1 M, 400 ml HCl solution is
(4) It is shown by ionic substance in which there
is a large difference in the size of ions. (1) 1.4 (2) 5.6
57. IUPAC name of the given compound is (3) 8.4 (4) 12.6
63. Given below are two statements
Statement I: Bredig’s Arc method involves
dispersion as well as condensation.
(1) 1-Ethyl-4, 4-dimethylcyclopentane Statement II: Only metal sols can be prepared
(2) 3-Ethyl-1, 1-dimethylcyclopentane by Bredig’s Arc method.
(3) 1-Ethyl-3, 3-dimethylcyclopentane Choose the correct answer from the options
given below.
(4) 4-Ethyl-1, 1-dimethylcyclopentane
58. Consider the following reaction sequence correct
( CH3 )3 C − CHBr − CH2Br ⎯⎯⎯
Zn
→ (2) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(i) B H
(3) Both statement I and statement II are
A ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
2 6
− → B (Major) incorrect
(ii) H2O2 /OH
Major product B is incorrect
64. Select the correct formula.
(1)
k1 Ea  T2 − T1 
(1) log =  
k 2 2.303 R  T1T2 
(2) k1 2.303 R  T2 − T1 
(2) log =  
k2 Ea  T1T2 
(3) (CH3)3C – CH2 – CH2 – OH Ea  T2 − T1 
k2
(3) log =  
(4) k1 2.303 R  T1T2 
k 2 2.303 Ea  T2 − T1 
59. Which among the following is a purine base? (4) log =  
k1 R  T1T2 
(1) Cytosine (2) Thymine
(3) Uracil (4) Guanine
homoleptic?
(1) [Co(en)3]Cl3
(2) [Co(en)(ox)(H2O)2]Cl
(3) [NiCl2Br2]
Major product B is (4) [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4
66. For which of the following reaction values of H
and U are equal at 27°C?
(1) (2)
(1) 2NH3(g) ⎯→ N2(g) + 3H2(g)
(2) N2O4(g) ⎯→ 2NO2(g)
(3) H2(g) + I2(s) ⎯→ 2HI(g)
(3) (4)
(4) CH4(g) + 2O2(g) ⎯→ CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)
(7)
67. Consider the following reaction, 71. Which of the following is an analgesic?
(1) Aspirin (2) Amytal
(3) Seldane (4) Dimetapp
72. Match List I with List II.
Major product (P) is List I List II
(a) ClF3 (i) Linear

(1)
(b) BrF5 (ii) Bent T-shape
(c) IF7 (iii) Square Pyramidal

(2)
(d) ICl− (iv) Pentagonal bipyramidal
2
(3)
given below.
(4) (1) (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
(2) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)
68. Which of the following alcohols gives red colour
in the Victor Meyer’s test? (3) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
(4) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(1) 73. Orthophosphorous acid on heating
disproportionates to gives
(2) (1) Phosphorus and orthophosphoric acid
(2) Phosphinic acid and pyrophosphoric acid
(3) CH3CH2CH2–OH (3) Orthophosphoric acid and phosphine
(4) Phosphorus and pyrophosphoric acid
(4) 74. Number of electrons in 1 kg electron is
69. Which of the following on reaction with Grignard (1) 1.09 × 1031 (2) 1.09 × 1030
reagent followed by hydrolysis give primary (3) 3 × 1030 (4) 5 × 1029
alcohol?
75. Which of the following aqueous solution will exert
(1) HCHO (2) CH3OH minimum osmotic pressure?
(3) CO2 (4) CH3COCH3 (1) 0.1 M HCl
(2) 0.1 M CH3COOH
70. Which one of the following is not a correct
match? (3) 0.1 M Urea
(4) 0.1 M CaCl2
Polymers Monomers
76. If 50 ml water is added in 100 ml 1 M NaCl(aq)
(1) Bakelite : Phenol and formaldehyde solution then final molarity of the solution will be
(2) Glyptal : Adipic acid and (1) 0.5 M (2) 0.25 M

ethane-1, 2-diol (3) 0.67 M (4) 1.5 M
(3) Gutta-percha : Isoprene 77. Poisonous gas formed on oxidation of chloroform

is
(4) Buna-S : Buta-1, 3-diene and
(1) Phosphine (2) Phosgene
styrene
(3) Mustard gas (4) Acetylene
(8)
78. Unit of coefficient of viscosity in cgs system is SECTION-B

(1) g s cm–1 (2) g cm s–1 86. Incorrect stock notation among the following is
(3) Poise (4) Erg (1) Hg2(II)Cl2 (2) HAu(III)Cl4
79. Consider the following statements (3) Mn(IV)O2 (4) Au(I)Cl
Statement 1: Molecules in surface as well as 87. How many electrons would flow through a
bulk experiences similar surface tension. metallic wire in which a current of 0.5 ampere
Statement 2: Lowest energy state for a liquid will flows for 2 hours?
be when it has maximum surface area. (1) 2.25 × 1022
(1) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true (2) 3.75 × 1021
(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false (3) 6.25 × 1020
(3) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are false (4) 1.25 × 1023
(4) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true 88. Match List-I with List-II
o
80. Positive EM 2+
/M
among the following is of List-I List-II
(1) Cu (2) Ni
(a) (i) Rosenmund
(3) Ti (4) Cr reduction
81. Maximum exchange energy is available in
(b) (ii) HVZ reaction
(1) d1 (2) d3
(3) d5 (4) d4 (c) (iii) Wolff-Kishner
82. Select the correct statement reduction
(a) IE1 of Be is greater than IE2 of Li (d) (iv) Clemmensen
(b) IE1 of Be is greater than IE1 of Na reduction
(c) IE2 of Mg is greater than IE2 of Na
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only given below.
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) (1) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
83. Formula of dead burnt plaster is (2) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
1 (3) (a) – (i), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)
(1) CaSO4  2H2O (2) CaSO4  H2O
2
(4) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(3) CaSO4 (4) CaO
89. Statement I: Furan is a heterocyclic aromatic
84. Select the incorrect statement. compound.
(1) Diborane is highly toxic gas Statement II: Furan contains a nitrogen atom in
(2) Higher boranes spontaneously flammable in the ring.
air In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) Diborane undergoes cleavage reactions with correct answer from the options given below.
Lewis acids (1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
(4) Boranes readily hydrolysed to give boron correct
acid
(2) Both statement I and statement II are correct
85. Maximum prescribed concentration of Cd in
(3) Both statement I and statement II are
drinking water is
incorrect
(1) 0.2 ppm (2) 0.05 ppm
(3) 0.005 ppm (4) 5.0 ppm incorrect
(9)
90. In the given reactions the major products P and 95. Which among the following complex species is
Q respectively are optically active?
Q ⎯⎯⎯Na
⎯ CH3CH2C  CCH3 ⎯⎯⎯2
→P
H (1) K4[Fe(CN)6] (2) K2[NiCl4]
liq. NH3 Pd/C
quinoline (3) cis[Co(en)2ClBr]I (4) [Zn(H2O)4]Cl2
96. 2 mol of an ideal monoatomic gas expanded from
(1) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 and 10 L to 200 L at 27°C. Entropy charge involved in
above process is (ln20 = 3)
(1) 2R (2) 3R
(2) and CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 (3) 6R (4) 9R
97. Phthalimide on treatment with ethanolic NaOH
forms a compound X which on heating with
(3) benzyl chloride followed by alkaline hydrolysis
gives
(1) Aniline (2) Benzylamine
(4) (3) Phenol (4) Benzamide

98. Non-polar molecule among the following is/are
91. For which of the following order, rate constant
and rate of reaction have same units?
(a) (b)
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3
92. Which of the following colloids at low
concentrations behave as normal strong (c) (d)
electrolytes, but at higher concentration exhibit
colloidal behaviour?
(1) (a) and (d) only (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(1) Lyophobic colloids
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only (4) (b) and (d) only
(2) Multimolecular colloids
99. For which of the following subshell(s) n + l = 5
(3) Macromolecular colloids
is/are possible?
(4) Associated colloids
(1) 5s (2) 4p
93. Addition of catalyst in an equilibrium alters the (3) 3d (4) All of these
(1) Equilibrium constant 100. Property of alkaline earth metals that increase(s)
(2) Equilibrium concentrations of reactants with increase of their atomic numbers.
(3) Rates of forward and reversed reactions (a) Ionisation enthalpy
(4) Equilibrium concentrations of products (b) Solubility of their hydroxides
94. Which of the following contains ionic, covalent (c) Thermal stability of their carbonates
and coordinate bonds? (d) Basic strength of their oxides
(1) NaCN (1) (b), (c) and (d) only
(2) PH4Cl (2) (a) and (d) only
(3) CH3COONa (3) (b) and (d) only
(4) N3H (4) (c) and (d) only
(10)
BOTANY
SECTION-A 107. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t features of
101. Which among the following is also known as genetic code.
stress hormone? (1) Each codon is made of three adjacent
(1) Ethylene (2) Abscisic acid nitrogenous bases
(3) Gibberellic acid (4) Auxin (2) Codons are degenerate
102. Which organism can reproduce through multiple (3) Codon is read in mRNA in a contiguous
fission under special circumstances? fashion without any punctuation
(1) Yeast (2) Hydra (4) One codon overlaps the next codon
(3) Penicillium (4) Amoeba 108. During the process of transcription in
103. Converting milk into curd will improve its prokaryotes, the produced mRNA
nutritional quality by increasing
(1) Requires splicing of exons
(1) Vitamin D (2) Vitamin B6
(2) Is polycistronic
(3) Vitamin B12 (4) Vitamin C
(3) Requires capping of unusual nucleotide at 5
correct option. end.
Statement A: The central cell after triple fusion (4) Is monocistronic

becomes the primary endosperm cell. 109. In species-area relationship curve, value of slope
Statement B: Fruits developed only from the of regression (Z) lies in the range of ___ when
ovary are called false fruits. analysis is done among small areas.
(1) Only statement A is correct (1) 0.6 to 1.2 (2) 0.1 to 0.2
(2) Only statement B is correct (3) 1.15 to 2.0 (4) 0.6 to 0.7
(3) Both statements A and B are correct 110. CO2 fertilisation effect leads to
(1) Increase in atmospheric concentration of CO2
105. A biologist is comparing the characteristics of a
(2) Decrease in rate of transpiration
tomato plant and a maize plant.
Which of the following is true regarding these (3) Increased productivity of C3 plants
two plants? (4) Mutations at very high rate in organisms
(1) The tomato plant makes glucose in its 111. Which of the following equation represents the
bundle-sheath cells correct relationship among s, p and w?
(2) The maize plant has stomata that opens only
s
at night, while the tomato plant has stomata (1) w = s – p (2)  w =
that opens only during the day. p
(3) The maize plant spatially separates its  s + p

phases of primary carbon fixation and the (3) w = s + p (4)  w =
Calvin cycle, while the tomato plant does not 2
(4) The maize plant uses RuBisCO for primary 112. Which of the following statements is not related
carbon fixation. to nitrogenase?
106. In lac operon, which of the given genes (1) It is a Mo-Fe protein
synthesizes a biochemical or protein which can (2) It catalyses the conversion of atmospheric
act positively as activator or negatively as
nitrogen to ammonia
repressor?
(3) It is present exclusively in eukaryotes
(1) Regulator gene (2) Operator gene
(3) Promoter gene (4) Structural gene (4) It is highly sensitive to oxygen
(11)
113. During cell cycle interphase lasts upto 120. In biofortification, nutritional quality and content is
(1) More than 95% of the total duration increased. For which of the following nutrients we
focus to improve the content not the quality?
(2) Nearly 50% of the total duration
(1) Protein
(3) Less than 5% of the total duration
(2) Oil
(4) Nearly 10% of the total duration
(3) Fats
114. The anaphase stage is characterised by
(1) Reformation of nucleolus, golgi complex and (4) Vitamins
ER 121. The clownfish gets protection from predators with
(2) Splitting of centromeres and separation of the help of sea anemone but sea anemone does
chromatids not appear to derive any benefit by hosting the
clownfish. This type of interaction is
(3) Initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle
(1) Proto-cooperation
(4) Movement of chromosomes to spindle
equator (2) Mutualism
115. Oogamous sexual reproduction accompanied by (3) Parasitism
complex post fertilisation developments is seen (4) Commensalism
in
122. Phosphorus is an important element. Herbivores
(1) Porphyra (2) Spirogyra
obtain this element
(3) Ulothrix (4) Chlamydomonas
(1) Directly from atmosphere
116. Which among the following is a liverwort?
(2) From plants
(1) Funaria (2) Polytrichum
(3) Directly from soil
(3) Marchantia (4) Sphagnum
(4) From its natural reservoir
117. Anacardiaceae is a plant family. Which of the
123. In the cells, Na+/K+ pump is an example of
following plants belongs to this family?
(1) Osmosis
(1) Makoi (2) Mango
(3) Potato (4) Wheat (2) Active transport
118. Select the incorrect one about key, a (3) Passive transport
taxonomical aid. (4) Diffusion
(1) Used for identification of plants and animals 124. One of the following functions which is not
(2) Based on the contrasting characters performed by the members included in
endomembrane system is
(3) Are generally analytical in nature
(1) Photolysis of water
(4) Same taxonomic key is required for each
taxonomic category (2) Formation of phragmoplast
119. Mark the incorrect statement about aerobic (3) Synthesis of hormones
respiration. (4) Osmoregulation in Amoeba
(1) Most common in higher organisms
125. In an eukaryotic cell, site of translation can be all,
(2) It involves complete oxidation of organic except
substances
(1) Stroma of chloroplast
(3) Does not take place in prokaryotes
(2) Matrix of mitochondria
(4) Glycolysis is the first step of aerobic
(3) Cytosol
respiration and it does not involve release of
CO2 (4) Nucleoplasm
(12)
126. Read the following statements. 131. Select the wrongly matched pair.
(a) Heartwood does not conduct water and (1) N2 fixing bacteria in – Heterotrophic
minerals. legume plant
(b) Sapwood is the peripheral region of primary
(2) Bacteria involved in – Chemoautotroph
xylem.
oxidation of ammonia
(c) Major portion in the stem of old trees is of
heartwood. (3) Bacterium that – Autotrophic
converts milk into curd
(d) Sapwood is resistant to attack of
microorganism due to deposition of non- (4) Purple sulphur – Photoautotroph
degradable organic compounds. bacteria
132. Which of the given structures is not a site of
(1) (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (d) meiosis in fungi?
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (a) only (1) Zygospore (2) Oospore
127. On the basis of following features, identify the (3) Ascus (4) Conidiophore
plant part. 133. Select the incorrect one for test cross.
• Vascular bundles are radially arranged. (1) It is used to determine the genotype of a
• Vascular cambium develops at the time of dominant phenotype
secondary growth. (2) In a typical test cross an organism with
(1) Monocot stem dominant phenotype is crossed with a
heterozygous one
(2) Dicot stem
(3) It is performed in both monohybrid and
(3) Monocot root
dihybrid crosses
(4) Dicot root
(4) The cross RrYy × rryy is an example of
128. Floral formula of a plant is given below. Which of typical test cross
the following features cannot be true for that
134. In a cross of round yellow seeded pea with round
plant?
green pea (RrYy × Rryy) the probability of
wrinkled green seeded pea plant will be
(1) Seeds are endospermous 1 1

(1) (2)
2 16
(2) Flowers have vexillary aestivation of petals
(3) Plant has tap root system 1 1
(3) (4)
8 4
(4) Phyllotaxy is alternate
135. A person suffering with Down’s syndrome
129. In which of the following plants, placentation is
parietal? (1) Has one extra copy of an allosome
(1) Tomato (2) Lemon (2) Has 47 chromosomes
(3) Mustard (4) Primrose (3) Shows trisomy of a chromosome
130. In Whittaker’s five kingdom classification system (4) Both (2) and (3)
the kingdom which has organisms with chitinous SECTION-B
cell wall 136. Select the incorrect match from the following
(1) Includes only eukaryotes (1) Indole compound – Auxin
(2) Has organism with holozoic mode of nutrition (2) Terpenes – Gibberellic acid
(3) Includes only unicellular organisms (3) Adenine derivative – Ethylene
(4) Is kingdom Monera (4) Carotenoid derivative – Abscisic acid
(13)
137. Match the following column I with column II and 140. Given below are two statements assertion (A)
select the correct option. and reason (R). Answer the question by selecting
correct option.
Column I Column II
Assertion (A) : Tropical communities can
A. Acetobacter (i) Citric acid support a wider range of species.
Reason (R) : Tropical areas receive more solar
B. Clostridium (ii) Ethanol
energy over the year.
C. Aspergillus (iii) Acetic acid (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct
explanation of (A)
D. Saccharomyces (iv) Butyric acid
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
A B C D correct explanation of (A)
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) 141. Water having dissolved oxygen (DO) content
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) ____ is considered as polluted.
138. Identify the figure and select the correct option (1) Greater than 180 mg/L
for the labellings A, B, C and D. (2) Below 80 mg/L
(3) Ranges between 120 – 140 mg/L
(4) Greater than 200 mg/L
142. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t
gymnosperms.
(1) They are homosporous
(2) Their ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall
(3) They include medium-sized trees and shrubs
(4) Seeds that develop post-fertilisation are
A B C D
naked
(1) Coleorhiza Shoot Epiblast Radicle 143. How many statement(s) given below is/are true
apex w.r.t mass flow hypothesis?
(2) Scutellum Coleoptile Shoot Coleorhiza a. The process of loading at the source
apex produces a hypertonic condition in the
(3) Coleoptile Cotyledon Epiblast Radicle
phloem
b. Sugar solution flows to regions of low turgor
(4) Scutellum Coleoptile Epiblast Coleorhiza
pressure
139. Semiconservative mode of chromosome c. Sugars are loaded into the sieve tube by
replication in eukaryotes using tritiated thymidine passive transport
(3H-thymidine) in roots of Vicia faba was proved d. Water from the adjacent xylem moves into
by the phloem by osmosis
(1) Taylor et al. (1) Three
(2) Matthew Meselson (2) Two
(3) Franklin Stahl (3) Four
(4) Cairns (4) One
(14)
144. All of the following contribute to an increase in 147. All of the following structures help in preventing
amount of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere, water loss due to transpiration, except
except
(1) Trichome
(1) Rapid deforestation
(2) Cuticularized epidermis
(2) Burning of fossil fuel
(3) Process of respiration (3) Suberised endodermis
(4) Process of photosynthesis (4) Bulliform cell
148. Pitcher in the insectivorous plant Nepenthes is
the modified
(1) Petal
145. (2) Sepal

(3) Leaf lamina
(4) Stipule
149. All viruses are/have
Species showing above growth curve (1) Protein coat and DNA
(1) Show finally an asymptote
(2) Obligate parasites
(2) Have unlimited resources to grow
(3) Both DNA and RNA
(3) Grow under carrying capacity
(4) Show logistic growth only (4) Inert inside living cell
146. Select the incorrect one regarding the cellular 150. In which of the given pairs, both the traits are
structure called microbodies. recessive in Drosophila?
(1) They contain various enzymes (1) Brown body and white eye
(2) These are non-membrane bound structures
(2) White eye and miniature wing
(3) They are present in both plants and animal
cells (3) Normal wing and red eye
(4) These are minute vesicles (4) Brown body and normal wing
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A Select the correct option from the following.

151. How many statements are correct w.r.t. (1) Two
mechanism of breathing?
(2) Three
(a) Inspiration occurs when there is a negative
pressure in the lungs with respect to (3) Four
atmospheric pressure.
(4) Five
(b) Lungs do not collapse between breaths and
some air always remains in the lungs 152. Select the incorrect statement among the
because there is a negative intrapleural following.
pressure pulling at the lungs walls.
(1) Efferent arteriole arises from the glomerulus.
(c) Expiration is initiated due to contraction of
diaphragm. (2) Efferent arteriole has wider lumen than that
(d) One can consciously breathe in and breathe of afferent arteriole.
out by moving the diaphragm alone, without (3) Efferent arteriole divides to form peritubular
moving the ribs at all.
capillary network around renal tubules.
(e) The strength of inspiration and expiration can
be increased with the help of additional (4) Renal artery enters the kidney and divides
muscles in the abdomen. many times to form afferent arterioles.
(15)
153. Read the given statements w.r.t. skeletal muscle (1) The DNA is a 10 kb plasmid.
and select the correct option. (2) The smallest fragment of DNA in lane 2 is
Statement A: The muscle bundles are bound closer to cathode.
together by a common collagenous sheath of (3) The largest fragment in lane 2 is of 10 kb
connective tissue called fascia. size.
Statement B: Muscle fibre is a syncytium as the (4) The DNA is a 10 kb linear DNA.
sarcoplasm contains many nuclei.
158. A and B are required in the extension
(1) Both statements A and B are correct step of PCR to extend the primer sequences
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect from the 3 end of each primer. Choose the
(3) Only statement A is incorrect option which correctly fills the blanks A and B.
(4) Only statement A is correct A B

154. Select the odd one w.r.t. thin myofilament. (1) Deoxyribonucleotide Thermolabile Taq
(1) Actin (2) Tropomyosin triphosphate polymerase
(3) Troponin (4) Meromyosin Ribonucleoside
(2) DNA polymerase
155. Which of the following diseases is caused by triphosphate
prions and affects cattle?
(3) Deoxyribonucleoside 94C temperature
(1) Newcastle disease (2) Rinderpest
monophosphate
(3) Mad-cow disease (4) Blastomycosis
(4) Deoxyribonucleoside Thermostable DNA
156. Assertion (A): Removal of phosphate from 3
triphosphate polymerase
end of cut plasmid prevents its self-ligation.
Reason (R): Removal of phosphate groups from 159. Match column-I with column-II and choose the
the cut ends of the vector facilitates the ligation of correct option.
alien DNA into the vector.
Column-I Column-II
With respect to above mentioned statements,
choose the correct answer from the following a. Lobe-finned (i) Amniotes and lay
options. fishes thick-shelled eggs
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the b. Tyrannosaurus (ii) Evolved into the first
correct explanation of (A) rex amphibians
c. Dinosaurs (iii) Disappeared about
65 mya
d. Reptiles (iv) Carnivorous, 20 feet
in height
157. A 10 kb DNA molecule having two restriction
sites for EcoRI was completely digested using (1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
EcoRI and the result obtained after agarose gel (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
electrophoresis is shown below.
Choose the option which holds true for the above
(4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
mentioned condition.
160. When few individuals from the original population
Lane 1 – Undigested DNA
start a new colony, usually in a new location, it is
Lane 2 – Digested DNA fragments called
(1) Bottle neck effect (2) Gene mutation
(3) Founder effect (4) Directional selection
(16)
161. How many statements given below are 166. Select the correct match w.r.t. standard ECG.
incorrect?
(1) P-wave : Ventricular
(a) The first mammals were like Macaca. depolarisation
(b) Due to continental drift, North American
(2) QRS complex : Atrial depolarisation
animals were overridden by south American
fauna. (3) T-wave : Ventricular
(c) Pouched mammals of Australia survived repolarisation
because of lack of competition from
(4) End of T-wave : Start of ventricular
metatherians.
systole
(d) Seals and sea cows are terrestrial mammals.
167. The duration between lub and dub is
(1) Zero (2) Four
(1) 0.3 s (2) 0.4 s
(3) Three (4) Two
(3) 0.5 s (4) 0.8 s
162. Read the given statements and choose the
correct option. 168. Heart is _____ derived organ and is situated in
the thoracic cavity, in between the two lungs.
Statement-A : Neuroglia, the unit of neural
system are excitable cells. Select the option that fills the blank correctly.
Statement-B : Arrival of disturbance at the (1) Endodermally (2) Ectodermally
neuron’s endings, triggers events that always (3) Mesodermally (4) Neuroectodermally
cause stimulation of adjacent neurons and other
169. Assertion (A): The acid insoluble fraction
cells.
contains lipids and proteins.
(1) Both statements A and B are incorrect.
Reason (R): Molecular weight of proteins and
(2) Both statements A and B are correct. lipids is in the range of ten thousand daltons and
(3) Only statement A is correct. above.
(4) Only statement B is correct. In the light of above statements, select the option
163. Choose the odd one w.r.t. male cockroach. with correct answer.
(1) Anal cerci (2) Collaterial glands (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
(3) Conglobate gland (4) Mushroom gland
164. Match the type of salivary glands in humans
(Column I) with their location (Column II) and
select the correct option. (3) (A) is true, (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, (R) is true.
Column I Column II
170. How many of the following diseases given below
a. Sub-maxillary (i) Near cheek
in the box are arthropod vector borne diseases?
b. Parotids (ii) Lower jaw
Dengue, Chikungunya, Filariasis, Ascariasis,
c. Sub-linguals (iii) Below the tongue Small pox, Tetanus.
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (1) Three (2) Four
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii) (3) Five (4) Six
165. Which of the following hosts symbiotic micro- 171. All of the given fungi are responsible for causing
organisms in human body? ringworm except
(1) Duodenum (2) Caecum (1) Microsporum (2) Morchella
(3) Rectum (4) Stomach (3) Trichophyton (4) Epidermophyton
(17)
172. Which of the following is the most abundant (1) a, b, c, d

protein in whole of the biosphere?
(2) a, b, c, d, e
(1) RuBisCO (2) GLUT-4
(3) a, b, d
(3) Collagen (4) Elastin
(4) c, d, e
173. Match the items listed in column-I with column-II.
177. Which of the following factors/biomolecules/
Column-I Column-II systems regulates the reproductive processes
a. Cellulose (i) Storehouse of energy in and associated behavioural expressions of
plants organisms?
b. Inulin (ii) Exoskeleton of arthropods (1) Only neural system

(2) Only endocrine system
c. Starch (iii) Polymer of fructose
(3) Only environmental factors
d. Chitin (iv) Structural element of plant
cell wall (4) Interaction between hormones and certain
environmental factors
178. The female external genitalia include all of the
following structures except
(1) Mons pubis
(2) Clitoris
(3) Hymen
174. In ctenophores, locomotion takes place with the
help of (4) Vagina
(1) Flagellated comb plates 179. FSH acts on Sertoli cells and stimulates
(2) Tentacles secretion of some factors which help in the
(3) Pseudopodia process of
(4) Ciliated comb plates (1) Formation of primary spermatocytes
175. Complete the analogy and choose the correct (2) Formation of spermatogonia
option. (3) Spermiogenesis
Choanocytes : Sycon :: Cnidocytes : _______
(4) Functional motility of sperms
(1) Physalia (2) Pleurobrachia
180. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. reproduction
(3) Ctenoplana (4) Spongilla in humans.
176. Read the following statements carefully w.r.t.
(1) Fertilization can only occur if the ovum and
taxon vertebrata.
sperms are transported simultaneously
a. Phylum vertebrata is divided into two through uterus to the ampullary-isthmic
superclasses - Pisces and Tetrapoda.
junction.
b. Superclass Pisces includes cyclostomes,
(2) During fertilization, sperm which comes in
cartilaginous and bony fishes.
contact with zona pellucida induces changes
c. In bony fishes, air bladder is present which
in the membrane that facilitate the entry of
regulates buoyancy.
additional sperms.
d. Body of all amphibians is divisible into head
neck and trunk. (3) All copulations do not lead to fertilization and
pregnancy.
e. Both fishes and amphibians are
poikilothermous animals. (4) In fallopian tubes, the second meiotic division
Choose the option with only incorrect is also unequal and results in the formation of
statements. secondary oocyte and 2nd polar body.
(18)
181. Read the following statements carefully. (1) Portal circulatory system, anterior pituitary
Statement-A: An ideal contraceptive should be (2) Lymphatic system, posterior pituitary
user-friendly, easily available, effective and
irreversible with no or least side-effects. (3) Direct neural regulation, posterior pituitary
Statement-B: An ideal contraceptive should in (4) Hepatic portal system, anterior pituitary
no way interfere with the sexual drive, desire
SECTION-B
and/or sexual act of the user.
Select the correct option regarding the above 186. Diagrammatic sectional view of mammary gland
given statements. is shown in following figure. Identify labellings a,
(1) Both statements A and B are incorrect b, c and d. Choose the option which represents
(2) Only statement A is correct a, b, c and d correctly.
182. The natural contraceptive method in which a
woman has almost no chance of getting pregnant
in the first few months due to intense lactation
after giving birth to her baby is
(1) Periodic abstinence
(2) Lactational amenorrhea
(3) Coitus interruptus
(4) Rhythm method
183.
a b c d
The image given above shows _____ infestation (1) Fat Ampulla Mammary Lactiferous
in the roots of Nicotiana plant. duct duct
(1) Platyhelminthic (2) Aschelminthic (2) Fat Mammary Lactiferous Ampulla

(3) Annelid (4) Insect duct duct
184. Nodes of Ranvier are
(3) Alveoli Mammary Ampulla Lactiferous
(1) Gaps between two neurons
tubule duct
(2) Granular bodies in cyton
(4) Alveoli Mammary Lactiferous Ampulla
(3) Gaps between adjacent myelin sheaths
tubule duct
(4) Knobs at the ends of axon
185. A hormone ‘P’ is produced by the hypothalamus. 187. Select the mismatch among the following.
It is a releasing hormone. It is originated in the
hypothalamic neurons, passed through axons (1) Bungarus - Epidermal scales
and was released from their nerve endings.
(2) Pteropus - Feathery wings
How will it reach the pituitary gland and which
part of the pituitary will it regulate? (3) Columba - Pneumatic bones
Choose the option which answers the above
(4) Rana - Tympanum
given question respectively.
(19)
188. Which of the following animals has radial 193. Match column-I with column-II and select the
symmetry with complete digestive system in adult correct option.
stage?
Column-I Column-II
(1) Hydra (2) Pleurobrachia
a. Residual volume (i) 0.5 L
(3) Fasciola (4) Echinus
189. A condom company is distributing free condoms b. Expiratory (ii) 2.5-3 L
to people as part of their advertising campaign. reserve volume
The company wants to target the age groups in
c. Inspiratory (iii) 1-1.1 L
which STIs are very high.
reserve volume
From the given age groups which one is their
target group? d. Tidal volume (iv) 1.1-1.2 L
(1) 15-24 years (2) 10-15 years (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) 8-10 years (4) 60+ years (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
190. Select the one from the following which is not (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
genetically modified.
(1) Golden rice (2) Rosie
194. Among the following, which is not present in
(3) Dolly (4) Bt cotton renal cortex completely?
191. Given below are three statements (a-c) each with (1) PCT (2) DCT
one or two blanks. Select the option which
(3) Loop of Henle (4) Bowman’s capsule
correctly fills up the blanks in two statements.
195. Read the given statements carefully.
(a) A canal called the (i) passes through the
midbrain. (a) The systemic circulation provides nutrients,
CO2 and other essential substances to the
(b) The cerebrum wraps around a structure
tissues and takes O2 and other harmful
called (i) , which is a major coordinating
substances away for elimination.
centre for sensory and motor (ii) .
(b) Heart of both humans and cockroach is
(c) The (i) portion of the midbrain consists
myogenic.
mainly of four round lobes called (ii) .
(c) Intestinal juice along with pancreatic juice is
Options:
known as succus entericus.
(1) (c)-(i) ventral (ii) corpora quadrigemina
(d) The SAN can generate the maximum number
(a)-(i) ventricle of action potentials, i.e., 70-75 min–1.
(2) (b)-(i) pons (ii) impulses How many of the above given statements are
(a)-(i) aqueduct correct?
(3) (a)-(i) aqueduct of Sylvius (1) Four (2) Three
(b)-(i) amygdala (ii) association (3) Two (4) One
(4) (a)-(i) cerebral aqueduct 196. Complete the analogy w.r.t. pBR322 cloning
(c)-(i) dorsal (ii) corpora quadrigemina vector and choose the correct option.
192. MSH secreted by pars intermedia acts on PvuI : ampR gene : : PvuII : ______ .
(1) Erythrocytes (1) tetR gene
(2) Pituicytes (2) ori
(3) Melanocytes (3) rop
(4) Mast cells (4) ampR gene
(20)
197. Match column-I with column-II and select the 199. Read the statements A and B carefully and select
correct option. the correct option.
Column-I Column-II Statement A: Haemophilus influenzae infects
a. Restriction (i) Hind II the alveoli of lungs as a result of which the alveoli
endonuclease gets filled with fluid.
b. First recombinant DNA (ii) Obtained from
Statement B: Rhinovirus infection leads to
strain RY13
common cold affecting the alveoli.
c. First restriction (iii) Isolated in 1963
endonuclease (1) Both statements A and B are correct
d. EcoRI (iv) Developed in (2) Only statement A is correct

1972
200. Read the statements given below and select the
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) correct one w.r.t amino acids.
198. In Lederberg's replica plating experiment, (1) The physical and chemical properties of
colonies of antibiotic resistant bacteria were amino acids are essentially of two groups
observed, which indicates
only i.e. carboxyl and amino group.
(1) Pre-existing advantageous mutations when
selected will result in observation of new (2) Valine and lysine are neutral amino acids.
phenotypes (3) The R group in serine is hydroxyl methyl.
(2) Exposure to antibiotics causes mutation that
confer antibiotic resistance (4) Amino acids are polymeric organic
(3) Mutations are directional variations compounds containing an amino group and
(4) All antibiotic resistant bacteria which exist an acidic group as substituents on the same
today are result of artificial selection carbon.
❑ ❑ ❑
(21)
16/08/2021 CODE-A
CST – 6
Instructions:
PHYSICS
SECTION-A 4. At 0ºC temperature, root mean square speed of
1. The dimension of the ratio of angular momentum which of the following gas will be maximum?
to linear momentum is (1) H2 (2) N2
(1) [MLT–1] (2) [ML2T–1]
(3) O2 (4) Same for all gases
(3) [M0LT0] (4) [M–1L–1T–1]
5. A particle starts from rest, accelerates at 2 m/s2
2. A body travels uniformly a distance of
for 10 s and then goes at constant speed for
(14.2 ± 0.2) m in a time (4.0 ± 0.3) s. The speed
30 s and then decelerates at 4 m/s2 till it stops.
of the body within error limit is
What is the total distance travelled by it?
(1) (3.55 ± 0.2) ms–1
(1) 700 m (2) 750 m
(2) (3.6 ± 0.3) ms–1
(3) 800 m (4) 850 m
(3) (3.6 ± 0.4) ms–1
(4) (3.45 ± 0.5) ms–1 6. A particle moves with a constant speed v in a
horizontal circular path. The change in its velocity
3. According to Huygen’s theory of light
on covering 90º will be
(1) Light is a stream of photon
(2) Light is a wave v
(1) 2v (2)
2
(3) Light behaves like a particle
(4) None of the above (3) 3v (4) v
(1)
th 12. A convex lens and a concave lens, each having

3
7. A particle travelled   of the circle of radius R the same focal length of 10 cm, are put in contact
4
to form a combination of lenses. The power of
in time t, The magnitude of the average velocity
the combination is
of the particle in this time interval is
(1) 0.2 D (2) –0.2 D
πR 3 πR
(1) (2) (3) Zero (4) Infinite
t 2t
13. To increase the resolving power of a telescope
2R R (1) Wavelength of light has to be decreased
(3) (4)
t 2t (2) Aperture of the objective lens has to be
increased
8. To decrease the fundamental frequency of a
stretched string fixed at both ends. Which of the (3) Both (1) & (2)
following option is correct? (4) Both the focal length and aperture of the
(1) Increase its tension objective lens has to be decreased
14. The area of a parallelogram whose adjacent
(2) Increase the wave velocity in it 
sides are given by vectors A =iˆ − 2 jˆ + 3kˆ and
(3) Increase its length 
(4) Decrease its linear mass density = 4iˆ + 5 jˆ is
B
9. Two tuning forks of frequency 250 Hz and (1) 10 (2) 40

256 Hz produce beats. Then beat frequency is (3) 88 (4) 538
(1) 6 Hz (2) 12 Hz 15. A calorimeter filled with hot water cools from
(3) 18 Hz (4) 21 Hz 60ºC to 50ºC in 4 min and 40ºC to 30ºC in 8 min.
10. The phase difference between the two given The temperature of surrounding is
waves is (1) 10ºC (2) 15ºC
 2π  (3) 20ºC (4) 25ºC

y1 a1 sin  ωt −
= x
 λ  16. Two charged spheres having radii R1 and R2
(R2 = 5R1) are joined with a conducting wire. The
 2π 
=y 2 a2 cos  ωt − x + φ ratio of electric field on their surface is
 λ 
1
2π (1) (2) 5
(1) ( φ) (2) φ 15
λ
1
(3) (4) 25
π π 25
(3) +φ (4) φ –
2 2
17. The expression for the equivalent capacitance of
11. A non-uniform rod of length L whose mass per the system shown is (A is the cross-sectional
unit length is proportional to x, where x is the area of one of the upper plates)
distance from one end. Position of centre of
mass of rod will be
L L Aε0 3Aε0
(1) (2) (1) (2)
3 2 3d d
2L 3L 11Aε0 6 Aε0
(3) (4) (3) (4)
3 4 6d d
(2)
18. A zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal 4 3

to 15 V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit as (1) Ω (2) Ω
3 2
shown in figure. The current through the diode is
8
(3) 7 Ω (4) Ω
7
25. In the circuit, the galvanometer G shows zero
deflection. If the batteries A and B have
negligible internal resistances, the value of the
resistor R will be
(1) 20 mA (2) 5 mA
(3) 10 mA (4) 15 mA
19. The radius of a spherical nucleus as measured
by electron scattering is 3.6 fm. What is the likely
mass number of the nucleus?
(1) 27 (2) 40
(3) 56 (4) 120
20. In the spectrum of hydrogen, the ratio of the (1) 200 Ω (2) 100 Ω
longest wavelength in the Lyman series to the
(3) 400 Ω (4) 1000 Ω
longest wavelength in the Balmer series is
CP
5 4 26. The ratio of molar specific heats = γ can be
(1) (2) CV
27 9
expressed in terms of degree of freedom (f) as
9 27
(3) (4)  f   2
4 5 (1)  1 +  (2)  1 + 
 3  f 
21. Light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on a metal
surface with work function 2.28 eV. Maximum  f   1
(3)  1 +  (4)  1 + 
kinetic energy of emitted electron is  2  f
(1) 0.1 eV (2) 0.5 eV 27. The freezing point of water on a thermometer is
(3) 0.2 eV (4) 0.6 eV marked as 20°X and the boiling point as 150°X.
22. For I131, half life is 8 days, the activity of an 8 µg A temperature of 80°C on this thermometer will
sample of I is be read as
(1) 3.18 × 10–15 days–1 (2) 3.18 × 1015 days–1 (1) 40°X (2) 112°X
(3) 3.18 × 1012 days–1 (4) 3.18 × 1018 days–1 (3) 98°X (4) 124°X
23. Determine value of V0 for the electrical network 28. A gas is taken through the cycle A → B → C →
shown in the figure. A, as shown. What is the net work done by the
gas?
(1) 6.6 V (2) 9 V

(3) – 9 V (4) – 6.6 V
24. In the network shown in figure each resistance is
1 Ω. The effective resistance between A and B is
(1) 800 J
(2) –2000 J
(3) –800 J
(4) Zero
(3)
1 33. A charge particle of charge q is moving in a circle

29. A Carnot engine has efficiency . Efficiency
4 of radius R with uniform speed v. Magnetic
1 moment M is given by
becomes when temperature of sink is
3 qvR
(1) qvR (2)
decreased by 50 K (keeping source fixed). What 2
is the original temperature of the sink?
qvR 2
(3) qvR2 (4)
(1) 350 K 2
(2) 400 K 34. The r.m.s value of potential difference V shown in
(3) 425 K the figure is
(4) 450 K
30. From the following P-T graph what inference can
be drawn?
V0
(1) (2) V0
3
V0 V0
(1) V2 > V1 (3) (4)
2 2
(2) V2 < V1
35. A 50 Hz a.c. source of 20 V is connected across
(3) V2 = V1 R and C as shown in figure. The voltage across
(4) Gas may be a real gas R is 12 V. The voltage across C is
31. Three 60 W, 120 V light bulbs are connected
across a 120 V supply. If resistance of bulb does
not change with temperature then find out power
delivered to bulb A?
(1) 8 V
(2) 10 V
(3) 12 V
(4) 16 V
SECTION-B
40 36. When the current changes from +2 A to –2 A in
(1) 20 W (2) W
3 0.05 s, an emf of 8 V is induced in the coil. The
80 coefficient of self-inductance of the coil is
(3) W (4) 80 W
3 (1) 0.2 H (2) 0.4 H
32. The voltage of an AC source varies with time (3) 0.8 H (4) 0.1 H
according to the relation 37. Power applied to a particle varies with time t as
E = 200 sin (100πt) cos(100πt) P = 4t2 – 3t + 2 watt, where t is in second. Find
the change in its kinetic energy between time
Select correct statement. t = 0 s and t = 2 s.
(1) The peak voltage of source is 200 V
26
(1) 8 J (2) J
(2) The peak voltage of source is 400 V 3
(3) The frequency of source voltage is 50 Hz 32
(3) 10 J (4) J
(4) The frequency of source voltage is 100 Hz 3
(4)
38. A solid sphere is under pure rolling on a table. 45. The stress-strain graph for two material A and B
The fraction of its total kinetic energy associated shown in figure. Then correct statement is
with rotation is
2 2
(1) (2)
5 3
2 4
(3) (4)
7 9
39. A particle is under uniform circular motion with
angular momentum L. If its kinetic energy is
(1) A is brittle than B
tripled and frequency of motion is halved then
new angular momentum becomes (2) B is more ductile than A
(1) 2 L (2) 3 L (3) A is more elastic than B
(3) 4 L (4) 6 L (4) Both (1) & (2)
40. In which type of collision, the momentum of
46. If temperature of a gas is kept constant, then the
system is conserved?
variation of the speed of sound in the gas with
(1) Perfectly elastic (2) Perfectly inelastic
pressure of the gas is correctly represented as
(3) Inelastic (4) All of these
41. The potential energy of a body (U) of mass 1 kg
varies with position co-ordinates of the particle
x (m) and y (m) as U = 4x + 3y. The acceleration (1) (2)
of the particle is
(1) Zero (2) 3 ms–2
(3) 4 ms–2 (4) 5 ms–2
42. A thin uniform disc of mass M and radius R is
rotating in a horizontal plane about an axis
passing through its centre and perpendicular to (3) (4)
its plane with angular velocity ω. Another disc of
M
same dimension but mass is placed gently on
2
the first disc co-axially. The angular velocity of 47. Power of a black body is P and it radiates
the system now is maximum energy around the wavelength λ0. If
ω the temperature of the black body is now
(1) ω (2)
2 changed so that it radiate maximum energy
ω 2ω 3λ 0
(3) (4) around , the power radiated by it will be
3 3 4
43. A constant torque acting on a uniform circular 16 64
(1) P (2) P
wheel changes its angular momentum from A0 to 9 81
7A0 in 3 s. The magnitude of average torque is
256 4
(1) 6A0 (2) 3A0 (3) P (4) P
81 3
3A 0
(3) (4) 2A0 48. A p-n photodiode is made of a material with a
4
band gap of 1.0 eV. The maximum wavelength of
44. Energy required to move an Earth’s satellite of
mass m from an orbit of radius R to 5R is radiation that can be absorbed by the material is
(M = mass of earth, R = radius of earth) nearly
GMm 2 GMm (1) 10–2 m
(1) (2)
5R 3R (2) 1.2 × 10–7 m
2 GMm GMm (3) 1.2 × 10–10 m
(3) (4)
5R 3R (4) 1.2 × 10–6 m
(5)
49. A piece of copper and another of germanium are

cooled from room temperature (300 K) to 280 K,
the resistance of (1) (2)
(1) Copper decreases and germanium increases
(2) Copper increases and germanium decreases
(3) Both of them increases
(4) Both of them decreases (3) (4)
50. If kinetic energy of a body remains constant, then
momentum versus mass graph is
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 55. Which among the following has lowest heat of
51. Incorrect statement among the following is hydrogenation?
(1) Density of lithium is more than sodium
(1) (2)
(2) Lithium is least reactive but it is the strongest
reducing agent among all alkali metals
(3) Lithium does not react with acetylene (3) (4)
(4) Lithium hydrogencarbonate is not obtained in
the solid form 56. Optically inactive compound among the following
52. Incorrect match of the flame colour of given is
metals is
Column-I Column-II
(1) (2)
(1) Potassium Violet
(2) Lithium Crimson red
(3) Barium Blue
(4) Calcium Brick red (3) (4)
53. Mole of permanganate ions required to react

completely with one mole of H2O2 in acidic 57. In Carius method of estimation of bromine, 0.5 g
medium is of an organic compound gave 0.376 g of AgBr.
2 1 The percentage of bromine present in the organic
(1) (2)
3 5 compound is (Atomic mass of Ag = 108 u and
1 2 Br = 80 u)
(3) (4)
2 5 (1) 40% (2) 32%
54. Consider the following statements (3) 24% (4) 48%
a. Boric acid is a weak monobasic protonic acid 58. The compound which will react at fastest rate
b. Orthoboric acid on heating above 370 K with aqueous silver nitrate solution is
forms metaboric acid
c. Diborane on hydrolysis forms boric acid.
The correct statements are (1) (2)
(1) a and b only
(2) b and c only
(3) a and c only (3) (4)
(4) a, b and c
(6)
59. Benzene on reaction with benzoyl chloride in 66. Furacine is used as an

presence of anhydrous AlCl3 forms (1) Antiseptic (2) Antihistamine
O (3) Antibiotic (4) Antacid

|| 67. The compound which does not evolve hydrogen
(1) Ph – CH2 – Ph (2) Ph – C– Ph on reaction with sodium is
OH O O
| || ||
(3) Ph – CH – Ph (4) Ph – C – C – Ph
(1) (2)
take place is
(1) (2) (3) (4)
68. The most acidic compound among the following

(3) (4) is
SOCl2 KCN (i) DIBAL −H
CH3 CH2CH2OH → A → B 
 → C(Major)
(ii)H2O
Product C is a/an (1) (2)
(1) Carboxylic acid (2) Amide

(3) Amine (4) Aldehyde
62. Which among the following is a homopolymer?
(1) Buna-N (2) Neoprene (3) (4)
(3) Glyptal (4) Nylon 6, 6
63. The compound which does not reduce Tollens’ 69. Which of the following is paramagnetic in nature?
reagent is
(1) C2 (2) O22−
(1) Glucose (2) Fructose
(3) B2 (4) N2
(3) Lactose (4) Sucrose
70. The species which is not isostructural with BH−4
is
(1) SiF4 (2) XeO2F2
+
(3) SO24− (4) NH4
Product D is
71. Maximum number of atoms are present in
(1) 8 g CH4 (2) 18 g C6H12O6
(3) 25 g CaCO3 (4) 28 g CO
(1) (2)
72. Energy of 2s orbital of which element is lowest?
(1) K (2) H
(3) Li (4) Na
73. Spin only magnetic moment of [Co(H2O)6]3+ ion is
(3) (4) (1) 24 BM (2) 15 BM
(3) Zero (4) 35 BM

65. Cheilosis is caused by the deficiency of which
vitamin? 74. Which ion is blue in colour in aqueous medium?
(1) Thiamine (2) Riboflavin (1) Zn2+ (2) Cu2+
(3) Pyridoxine (4) Ascorbic acid (3) Sc3+ (4) Ti4+
(7)
75. Consider the following statements 83. If solubility of Cu(OH)2 in water is 1.95 × 10–5 gL–1
a. Pyrophosphorous acid contains four P-OH then the value of its solubility product (Ksp) will be
bonds (Atomic mass of Cu = 63.5 u)
b. Orthophosphorous acid on heating (1) 1.6 × 10–22 mol3L–3 (2) 3.2 × 10–20 mol3L–3
disproportionates to give orthophosphoric
(3) 6.4 × 10–21 mol3L–3 (4) 2.5 × 10–18 mol3L–3
acid and phosphine
c. Phosphinic acid reduces aqueous silver 84. The metal which is not purified by vapour phase
nitrate solution to metallic silver refining is
the correct statement(s) is/are (1) Ni (2) Zn
(1) b only (2) a, b and c (3) Zr (4) Ti
(3) a and c only (4) b and c only 85. For which colloidal substance the dispersed
76. Correct order of bond dissociation enthalpy of the phase and dispersion medium are liquid and
given halogens is solid respectively?
(1) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 (2) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2 (1) Butter (2) Cell fluids
(3) F2 > Br2 > Cl2 > I2 (4) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
(3) Whipped cream (4) Jellies
77. Match the species in column-I with their structure
SECTION-B
in column-II and assign correct code.
86. The fraction of the total volume occupied by the
Column-I Column-II
atoms present in bcc unit cell is
a. XeOF4 (i) See-saw
π 3π
b. XeF4 (ii) Trigonal (1) (2)
3 2 8
bipyramidal
c. SF2Cl2 (iii) Square pyramidal 2π 3π
(3) (4)
8 6
d. PCl3F2 (iv) Square planar
87. 0.2 molal aqueous solution of a monobasic acid
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
is 60% ionised. If Kb for water is 0.52 K kg mol–1
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) then the boiling point of the solution wil be
(1) 100.81°C (2) 100.17°C
density?
(3) 101.72°C (4) 101.12°C
(1) Fe (2) Ti
(3) Ni (4) Cr 88. Correct order of limiting molar conductivity of the
given ions is
79. Metal carbon bond is strongest in
(1) [Cr(CO)6] (2) [Mn(CO)6]+ (1) K+ > Na+ > Ca2+
(3) [Ni(CO)4] (4) [Co(CO)4]– (2) Ca2+ > Na+ > K+
80. What is the maximum number of orbital(s) in an (3) Ca2+ > K+ > Na+
atom that can be identified with the following (4) Na+ > K+ > Ca2+
quantum numbers?
89. For negative deviation from Raoult’s law, which
n = 4, l = 2, mI = –1
of the following is an incorrect relation?
(1) 16 (2) 5
(1) ∆Hmix < 0 (2) ∆Vmix < 0
(3) 2 (4) 1
81. The gas which has lowest critical temperature is (3) ∆Smix < 0 (4) ∆Gmix < 0
(1) O2 (2) N2 90. If 10 ml of 0.4 M CH3COOH solution is mixed
(3) He (4) H2 with 40 mol of 0.1 M NaOH solution then the pH
82. Which among the following is an extensive of the resultant solution becomes (Given: pKa of
property? CH3COOH = 4.75)
(1) Volume (2) Viscosity (1) 9.5 (2) 8.8
(3) Density (4) Temperature (3) 7.8 (4) 10.8
(8)
91. Consider the following reaction at equilibrium 96. Conjugate acid and base pair of H2PO−4
N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g) respectively are
If small amount of helium gas is added to the (1) H3PO4 and PO34− (2) H3 O+ and PO34−
reaction mixture at constant pressure then −
(3) H3PO4 and HPO24− (4) H3PO4 and OH
(1) Formation of ammonia increases
97. Total number of nodes and radial nodes present
(2) Dissociation of ammonia increases in 4dxy orbital respectively are
(3) There is no effect on equilibrium (1) 3 and 1 (2) 1 and 2
(4) Equilibrium constant value increases (3) 2 and 3 (4) 2 and 4
92. Cathode used in Leclanche cell is 98. Correct order of boiling points of the given
compounds is
(1) Zinc-mercury amalgam
(1) H2Se > H2S > H2O (2) H2Se > H2O > H2S
(2) Graphite rod surrounded by MnO2 and
(3) H2O > H2Se > H2S (4) H2O > H2S > H2Se
carbon
99. Antiferromagnetic substance among the following
(3) Paste of HgO and carbon is
(4) Paste of KOH and ZnO (1) Fe (2) Co
93. If percentage strength of H2O2 solution is 17% (3) CrO2 (4) MnO
then the volume strength of H2O2 solution will be 100. Consider the following reaction sequence
(1) 28 V (2) 36 V
(3) 56 V (4) 65 V
94. If rate constant of a reaction is 1.155 × 10–3 s–1
then the half life period for the reaction will be Product B is
(1) 20 min (2) 15 min
(3) 5 min (4) 10 min
(1) (2)
95. For a reaction, A(l) → 4B(g) if ∆U = 4.5 kJ and
∆S = 60 JK–1 at 27°C then ∆G will be
(1) – 2.5 kJ (2) –1.5 kJ
(3) (4)
(3) –3.5 kJ (4) –6.5 kJ
BOTANY
SECTION-A 103. The common feature between chloroplast and
101. In prokaryotes, motility is provided by mitochondria is
(1) Pili (2) Cilia (1) 80S ribosome
(3) Flagella (4) Fimbriae (2) Single membrane bound
102. The component of endomembrane system that
(3) Starch storage
may have ribosomes on its surface
a. Is specialised in the synthesis of lipids (4) ds circular DNA
b. Is site of protein synthesis 104. The chromosome that appear i-shaped during
c. Helps in formation of plasma membrane anaphase is
during cytokinesis (1) Telocentric chromosome
d. Consists of cisternae, vesicle and tubules
Choose the correct one(s).
(3) Submetacentric chromosome
(1) a, c and d (2) b and c
(3) b and d (4) a, b and d (4) Acrocentric chromosome
(9)
105. Cells in quiescent stage 114. The living mechanical tissue of plants is
(1) Are metabolically active (1) Collenchyma (2) Parenchyma
(2) Duplicate their genome (3) Sclereids (4) Sclerenchyma
(3) Are the part of M-phase 115. Match the columns and select the correct option.
(4) Are in the most active stage of interphase Column-I Column-II
106. A bivalent a. Bryophytes (i) Have ovules

b. Gymnosperm (ii) Few members are
(1) Is pair of homologous chromosomes
heterosporous
(2) Is formed in pachytene stage
c. Algae (iii) First embryophytes
(3) Is stabilised by synaptonemal complex d. Pteridophytes (iv) Non archegoniate
(4) Both (1) & (3) plants
107. Terminalisation of chiasmata is seen in (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(1) Diplotene stage (2) Diakinesis stage (3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(3) Anaphase I (4) Pachytene stage 116. Which of the given is not true for members of
Chlorophyceae?
108. The defining feature of life forms i.e. unique to
human beings only is (1) Asexual reproduction by zoospores
(2) Cell wall is made up of cellulose and pectin
(1) Metabolism
(3) Food is stored in the form of oil droplet
(2) Intrinsic growth
(4) Photosynthetic pigments are chlorophyll a
(3) Cellular organisation
and c
(4) Self consciousness 117. Protonema is seen in
109. Choose the incorrect statement for (1) Sphagnum (2) Marchantia
cyanobacteria.
(3) Porella (4) Pteris
(1) Perform oxygenic photosynthesis 118. Identify the incorrect one for root pressure.
(2) Lack flagella throughout the life (1) Positive hydrostatic pressure
(3) Have specialised cells for nitrogen fixation (2) Develop due to passive absorption of water
(4) Have chlorophyll a and b similar to higher (3) Responsible for guttation phenomenon
plants (4) It provide a gentle push in the overall process
110. Soap box like body is seen in of water transport
(1) Chrysophytes (2) Dinoflagellates 119. Facilitated diffusion does not require/show
(3) Euglenoids (4) Archaebacteria (1) Special membrane proteins
111. Members of Basidiomycetes do not have/ (2) Saturation of transport
produce (3) ATP energy
(1) Fruiting bodies (4) Selective nature
(2) Dikaryophase in their life 120. Choose the odd one for macronutrients.
(3) Sex organs (1) Mg (2) S
(3) Ca (4) B
(4) Sexual spores
121. The pigment that appear yellow green in the
112. Alternate phyllotaxy is seen in
chromatogram is
(1) Guava (2) Calotropis
(1) Chlorophyll b (2) Xanthophyll
(3) Mustard (4) Alstonia (3) Carotenoids (4) Chlorophyll a
113. Select the wrongly matched pair. 122. The most crucial step of Calvin cycle
(1) Pea – Marginal placentation (1) Involves usage of NADPH molecule
(2) Coconut – Drupe fruit (2) Is catalysed by RuBisCO
(3) Maize – Perispermic seed (3) Is regeneration of substrate
(4) Muliathi – Medicinal plant (4) Involves usage of ATP
(10)
123. During conversion of all the following, CO2 is A B C

released along with synthesis of NADH + H+, (1) T T T
except
(2) T F T
a. Pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA
(3) F T T
b. α-ketoglutaric acid to succinyl CoA
(4) T F F
c. Malic acid to oxaloacetic acid
132. Statement-A : Turner syndrome is due to
(1) a only (2) b only
autosomal monosomy.
(3) b and c only (4) c only
Statement-B : High temperature cannot be a
124. Cytochromes present in complex IV is/are physical mutagen.
(1) Cytochrome a (2) Cytochrome bc1
Read the above statements and choose the
(3) Cytochrome a3 (4) Both (1) & (3) correct option.
125. The hormone i.e. used to increase sugarcane (1) Only A is true
yield is
(2) Only B is true
(1) Acidic in nature
(3) Both A and B are true
(2) Synthesised from indole compounds
(4) Both A and B are false
(3) Gaseous in nature
133. All of the following enzymes are involved in DNA
(4) Adenine derivatives
replication, except
126. Choose the odd one for L.D.P
(1) Ligase (2) Primase
(1) Henbane (2) Wheat
(3) DNA polymerase (4) Poly A polymerase
(3) Tomato (4) Radish
134. In eukaryotes, the most abundant RNA is
127. Homogametes are produced by
transcribed by
(1) Chara (2) Fucus
a. RNA polymerase I b. RNA polymerase II
(3) Volvox (4) Cladophora
c. RNA polymerase III
128. Mark the statement not true for an anatropous
ovule. (1) a only (2) a and b
(1) Encloses single female gametophyte (3) c only (4) a and c

(2) The micropyle lies close to hilum 135. Select the incorrect feature for the human
genome project.
(3) Its body is made of parenchymatous nucellus
(4) Ploidy of funicle, nucellus and all cells of (1) More than 50% of genome codes for proteins
embryo sac are same (2) Repeated sequences make up very large
129. Which of the given feature/phenomenon portion of human genome
promotes xenogamy? (3) Chromosome 1 has most genes
(1) Dioecy (2) Homogamy (4) Human genome contains 3164.7 million
(3) Cleistogamy (4) Bud pollination nucleotide bases
130. Only a true breeding pea plant can produce SECTION-B
(1) Yellow seeds (2) Violet flower 136. Which of the given high yielding wheat variety
(3) Full pod (4) Yellow pod was developed by mutating Mexican wheat?
131. Read the below given statements and select the (1) Pusa Lerma (2) Atlas 66
correct option. (3) Himgiri (4) Sonalika
A. Gene for phenylketonuria shows pleiotropy. 137. Statins are produced by
B. In person suffering from sickle cell anaemia, (1) A bacterium
the β-chain of globin protein has glutamic
(2) An yeast
acid in place of valine.
(3) A multicellular fungus
C. A normal couple cannot have haemophilic
children. (4) A virus
(11)
138. All of the following can be adaptations of 144. Identify the incorrect one for catalytic converters.
xerophytes, except (1) Equipped with costly heavy metals
(1) Thick cuticle on leaves (2) Convert CO and nitrogen oxides to CO2 and
(2) Sunken stomata H2O
(3) Poorly developed roots (3) Gets inactivated in presence of leaded petrol
or diesel
(4) Scotoactive stomata
(4) Used in automobiles to reduce air pollution
139. Mark the wrong match.
145. Discharge of sewage in water bodies does not
(1) Clown fish and sea – Commensalism leads to
anemone (1) Cultural eutrophication
(2) Cattle and cattle – Mutualism (2) Drop in DO
egret (3) Increase in BOD
(3) Penicillium and – Amensalism (4) Biomagnification

Staphylococcus 146. Which of the given population interaction is seen
between plant and pollinators?
(4) Abingdon tortoise – Competition
(1) Commensalism
and goat
(2) Predation
140. Which of the following ecosystems has smallest (3) Mutualism
food chain?
(4) Competition
(1) Pond
147. PEPcase catalyse primary carboxylation step in
(2) Tropical rain forest (1) Maize
(3) Wetland (2) Wheat
(4) Sugarcane field (3) Tomato
141. Select the incorrect statement for ecological (4) Potato
pyramid. 148. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Assumes simple food chain only
(1) Epipetalous Brinjal
(2) Counts producers, consumers and stamens
decomposers but not insectivorous plants
(2) Polyadelphous Citrus
(3) Does not take into account the same species stamens
belonging to two or more trophic levels
(3) Hypogynous Ray florets of sunflower
(4) Does not accommodate food web flower
142. All of the following have common cause of their
(4) Epipetalous Lily
extinction, except
stamens
(1) Dodo
149. Find the false statement.
(2) Passenger pigeon
(1) DPD of turgid cell is zero
(3) Clarias gariepinus
(2) In a plasmolysed cell OP = TP
(4) Steller’s sea cow
(3) Ψw of pure water is zero
143. A stable community show
(4) Ψs is always negative for a solution
(1) No variation in productivity from year to year 150. Plant body is not filamentous in
at all
(1) Spirogyra
(2) Resistance to invasion by alien species
(2) Ulothrix
(3) Very less species diversity (3) Ectocarpus
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) Volvox
(12)
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A Select the correct option.
151. Castle’s intrinsic factor is responsible for the (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
absorption of
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(1) Cholecalciferol (2) Phylloquinone
(3) Niacin (4) Cyanocobalamin
152. The structural and functional unit of liver is (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(1) Hepatocyte (2) Thrombocyte 158. Complete the analogy

(3) Leucocyte (4) Hepatic lobule Cockroach : Tracheal tubes :: Earthworm : _____
153. Few friends were eating their dinner together. (1) Gills (2) Moist cuticle
During deglutition of food, one of them started (3) Lungs (4) Pulmonary sac
coughing. This coughing could have been due to
159. Female partner has A-blood group whereas the
the result of improper movement of
male partner has B-blood group. Both are
(1) Glottis (2) Epiglottis
heterozygous for their respective blood groups.
(3) Gullet (4) Oesophagus
What will be the possibility of type(s) of blood
154. Identify a disorder which is not commonly groups in their children?
associated with the digestive system.
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(1) Diarrhoea (2) Indigestion
(3) Only A and B (4) A, B, AB and O
(3) Constipation (4) Gout
155. Decrease in pH of blood at tissue level will 160. What would be the cardiac output of a person if
his heart rate is 110 beats/min and stroke volume
(1) Reduce supply of blood to brain
is 90 ml?
(2) Shift the oxygen dissociation curve to left
(1) 9790 ml (2) 9000 ml
(3) Decrease the affinity of haemoglobin with
oxygen (3) 9900 ml (4) 8900 ml
(4) Promote release of bicarbonate ions from 161 Hypophyseal portal system is present between
stomach (1) Hypothalamus and liver
156. Cigarette smoking mainly causes which of the (2) Hypothalamus and pituitary gland
following chronic respiratory disorder?
(3) Hypophysis and liver
(1) Respiratory alkalosis
(4) Hypophysis and abdominal organs
(2) SARS
(3) Asthma 162. Identify A and B in the given graph (x-axis
depicts time and y-axis depicts intensity of the
(4) Emphysema
sound).
157. Match Column I with Column II.
Column I Column II
a. Left lung (i) Between parietal
pleura and visceral
pleura
b. Right lung (ii) Muscular structure Choose the correct option.
which helps in (1) A-DUB, B-LUB
breathing
(2) A-LUB, B-DUB
c. Pleural cavity (iii) Contains two lobes (3) A-High pitch sound, B-Low pitch sound
d. Diaphragm (iv) Contains three lobes (4) A-Short duration, B-Long duration
(13)
163. Complete the analogy 168. Rapid spasms in muscle due to hypocalcemia
Increases blood pressure : Renin :: Decreases leads to
blood pressure : ________ (1) Myasthenia gravis
(1) Aldosterone (2) Tetany
(2) Vasopressin (3) Muscular dystrophy
(3) Atrial natriuretic peptide (4) Gout
(4) Adrenaline 169. Match Column I with Column II.
164. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. micturition. Column I Column II
(1) Urine is stored in urinary bladder till a
a. Myoglobin (i) Thick filament
voluntary signal is given by the CNS
(2) Micturition signal is initiated by the stretching b. Troponin (ii) Monomer of F-actin
of urinary bladder c. Globular actin (iii) Distributed at regular
(3) The CNS passes on motor messages to intervals on the
initiate the contraction of voluntary muscles tropomyosin
of the bladder
d. Myosin (iv) Red coloured oxygen
(4) The neural mechanism causing micturition is storing pigment
called micturition reflex present in muscles
165. In ureotelic animals, A is produced by
metabolism and is converted to B in the (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
C of these animals and is released into the (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
blood which is filtered and excreted out by the (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
D . (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
Choose the option which correctly fill the blanks. 170. Identify the correct option in the relevance of
arrangement of cranial meninges from inside
A B C D
(which is in contact with the brain tissue) to
(1) Uric acid Urea Kidneys Liver outside (cranium):
(2) Urea Uric acid Liver Kidneys (1) Arachnoid → Pia mater → Dura mater
(3) Ammonia Urea Liver Kidneys
(2) Arachnoid → Dura mater → Pia mater
(4) Ammonia Urea Stomach Liver
(3) Pia mater → Dura mater → Arachnoid
166. Choose the incorrect statement.
(4) Pia mater → Arachnoid → Dura mater
(1) Patients with a condition such as uremia are
171. Which region in human eye is completely devoid
recommended hemodialysis for the urea to
of photoreceptor cells?
be removed from blood
(1) Fovea centralis (2) Retina
(2) Patients suffering from glomerulonephritis will
show low GFR (3) Blind spot (4) Macula lutea
(3) Kidney transplantation is the ultimate method 172. Eustachian tube is a passage which connects the
in the correction of acute renal failures (1) Middle ear with the pharynx
(4) Renal calculi are the stones of crystallised (2) Middle ear with the larynx
salts (oxalates, etc.) which are formed within (3) Inner ear with the pharynx
the kidney
(4) Inner ear with the larynx
173. A projecting ridge, having hair cells, present at
(1) Patella – shoulder bone the swollen base of semicircular canals is known
(2) Scapula and clavicle – pelvic girdle as
(3) 11th and 12th pair of ribs – floating ribs (1) Macula (2) Organ of corti
(4) Saddle joint – between atlas and axis (3) Otolith (4) Crista ampullaris
(14)
174. Complete the analogy 179. Identify the incorrect statement.

Milk-ejecting hormone : Oxytocin :: Milk-producing (1) Tissues are organized in specific proportion
hormone : _______ and pattern to form an organ like stomach,
(1) Antidiuretic hormone lung, heart and kidney
(2) Prolactin (2) Cells, tissues, organs and organ systems
split up the work in a way that exhibits
(3) Aldosterone
division of labour
(4) Melanocyte-stimulating hormone
(3) The human body is composed of billions of
175. Which of the following hormones fall under the
cells to perform various functions
category of steroids?
(4) In unicellular organisms, all physiological
a. Epinephrine b. Thyroid hormones
functions are performed by multiple or group
c. Insulin d. Glucagon of cells
e. Cortisol f. Testosterone 180. The function of gap junctions is to
Choose the correct option. (1) Help to stop substances from leaking across
(1) Only a, b, e, f a tissue
(2) Only a, b, c (2) Facilitate the cells to communicate with each
(3) Only d, e, f other by connecting the cytoplasm of
(4) Only e, f adjoining cells, for rapid transfer of ions,
small molecules etc.
176. (β1-4) glycosidic bond is found in
(3) Perform cementing to keep neighbouring
(1) Sucrose (2) Lactose
cells together
(3) Maltose (4) Isomaltose
(4) Perform cementing to keep distant cells
177. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. structure together
of DNA proposed by Watson and Crick.
181. Select the correct statement w.r.t. Periplaneta
(1) Watson-Crick structure is also known as B- americana.
form of DNA
(1) Hepatic caecae are present at the junction of
(2) The two anti-parallel polynucleotide chains in mid-gut and hind-gut
the structure given by Watson and Crick are
(2) Malpighian tubules are present at the junction
not identical in either base sequence or
of fore-gut and mid-gut
composition, rather they are complementary
to each other (3) Hind-gut is broader than mid-gut
(3) Each nucleotide base of one strand is paired (4) Mid-gut is thicker than hind-gut
with the base of another strand in which 182. Characteristics : Presence of mammary glands,
adenine pairs with thymine and guanine pairs two pairs of limbs, hair- bearing skin, pinnae,
with cytosine heterodont dentition, four- chambered heart.
(4) Adenine pairs with thymine by three Which of the following organism shows the above
hydrogen bonds and guanine pairs with mentioned characteristics?
cytosine by two hydrogen bonds (1) Ophiura (2) Ascidia
178. Identify the incorrect statement. (3) Canis (4) Pristis
(1) Apoenzyme is the protein part of holoenzyme
(2) Cofactor is the non-protein part of
Male : Bulbourethral gland :: Female : ________
holoenzyme
(1) Cowper’s gland
(3) Enzyme increases the rate of the reaction by
(2) Bartholin’s gland
lowering the activation energy
(4) Enzyme decreases the rate of the reaction by (3) Prostate gland
lowering the activation energy (4) Seminal vesicle
(15)
184. Match Column-I with Column-II. 188. Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed in
Punjab by crossing
Column-I Column-II
(1) Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams
a. Ampulla (i) Process to start
producing milk towards (2) Bikaneri rams and Marino ewes
the end of pregnancy (3) Bikaneri ewes and Bikaneri rams
b. Endometrium (ii) Delivery of foetus (4) Marino ewes and Marino rams
c. Parturition (iii) Site of fertilization in 189. ELISA is based on the principle of

female (1) Antigen-antigen interaction
d. Lactation (iv) Site of implantation of (2) Antigen-antibody interaction
blastocyst in female (3) Antibody-antibody interaction
Select the correct option. (4) Denaturation of proteins
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) 190. If the gene of interest is ligated at Lac-Z gene in
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) pUC8 vector, then
185. Hormone releasing IUD is (1) Recombinants will be tetracycline resistant
(1) CuT (2) LNG-20 (2) Non-recombinants will produce black
(3) Cu7 (4) Multiload 375 coloured colonies
SECTION-B (3) Both recombinants and non-recombinants
186. Identify the following given structure of a drug. will be ampicillin resistant
(4) Recombinants will produce red coloured
colonies
191. How many dsDNA molecules are obtained from
one dsDNA after completion of 8 cycles of PCR?
(1) 200 (2) 256
(3) 320 (4) 160
192. Select the molecular diagnostic tool which is
used for the detection of mutations in genes in
suspected cancer patients.
(1) ELISA (2) Widal test
(3) PCR (4) Wayson stain test
(1) Cannabinoid (2) Coke
(3) Crack (4) Barbiturate 193. Match Column I with Column II.
187. Read the given statements Column I Column II

Statement-A : HIV is an oncogenic virus. a. cryIAc (i) controls the corn borer
Statement-B : Non-cancerous cells exhibit
b. cryIAb (ii) controls the cotton
contact inhibition.
bollworm
Statement-C : Malignant tumors do not show
metastasis and angiogenesis. c. Golden (iii) ssDNA/ssRNA tagged
Choose the correct option. rice with radioactive molecule
(1) Statements B and C are correct; Statement A d. Probe (iv) rich in precursor of
is incorrect retinol
(2) Statements B and C are incorrect; Statement Select the correct option.
A is correct
(3) Statements A and C are correct; Statement B
is incorrect (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(4) Statements A and B are correct; Statement C (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
is incorrect (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(16)
194. Embryological support for evolution was 198. How many of the following factors given in the
proposed by box favour the formation of oxyhemoglobin?
(1) Ernst Haeckel (2) Miller High pO2, Low pCO2, High temperature, High
(3) Charles Darwin (4) Von Baer H+ concentration
195. Pre-industrialization era saw the catching of dark- Choose the correct option.
winged moths and survival of white-winged
(1) One (2) Two
moths; during post-industrialization period, the
white-winged moths were caught by predators (3) Three (4) Four
and dark-winged moths survived. The 199. Select the correct match.
phenomenon of industrial melanism is an (1) TLC → VC + IRV
example of
(2) VC → TV + IRV
(1) Insect- resistance
(3) EC → IRV + ERV
(2) Defensive adaptation of skin against radio
waves (4) FRC → RV + ERV
(3) Directional selection because of smoke from 200. Match the source gland with its respective
the industries hormone as well as its function and choose the
correct option.
(4) Drug- resistance
196. Meandrina belongs to phylum Source gland Hormone Function
(1) Porifera (2) Ctenophora (1) Neurohypophysis ADH Stimulates absorption

of K+ from PCT, DCT
(3) Platyhelminthes (4) Cnidaria
and CD
(2) Pancreas Glucagon Increases blood
(1) Ctenoplana – Exhibits bioluminescence glucose level
(2) Pleurobrachia – Possesses four external
(3) Adenohypophysis Oxytocin Promotes relaxation
rows of ciliated comb plates of myometrium during
(3) Taenia – Exhibits hooks and suckers child birth
(4) Fasciola – Exhibits flame cells which (4) Hypothalamus ACTH Stimulates adrenal
help in osmoregulation and medulla of suprarenal
excretion gland
  
(17)
Edition: 2020-21
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21/06/2022 CODE-A


Instructions:
PHYSICS
SECTION-A (1) The extension in steel and copper parts will
1. Two blocks A and B attached to each other by a be in ratio of 1 : 2
massless spring are kept on smooth horizontal
(2) The stress applied on copper rod will be
surface and pulled by a force of 90 N as shown in
more
figure. If at some instant, 10 kg mass has an
acceleration of 6 ms–2, what is acceleration of 20 (3) Extension produced in steel rod will be more
kg mass at the same instant?
(4) Stress in both copper and steel will be equal
3. Monoatomic, diatomic and nonlinear triatomic

gases whose initial pressure and volume are the
same are compressed until their final volume is
(1) 0.5 m s–2
one fourth of initial volume, if the process is
(2) 1.5 m s–2
(1) Isothermal, their final pressures will be
(3) 7.5 m s–2
different
(4) 4.5 m s–2
(2) Adiabatic, final pressures will be same
2. A composite rod consists of a steel rod of length
25 cm and area 2A and a copper rod of length 50 (3) Adiabatic, then triatomic gas will have
cm and area A. This composite rod is subjected maximum final pressure
to two equal and opposite axial forces F. If
Young’s modulus of steel and copper are in the (4) Adiabatic, then monatomic gas will have
ratio 2 : 1, then maximum final pressure
(1)
4. If the pressure of an ideal gas is increased at 9. What is equivalent capacitance between points A
constant temperature, then mean free path of and B shown in the figure?
gas molecules
(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) Remains unchanged
(4) May increase or decrease
5. Resonance occurs in a series LCR circuit when
frequency of applied ac source is 100 Hz. The
correct option is 5C 8C
(1) (2)
(1) When source frequency is 90 Hz, then 3 5
current through voltage source will be ahead 8C 4C
(3) (4)
of emf of source 21 5
(2) Only at resonance voltage across L and C 10. Three identical resistors are shown in the figure.
differ in phase by 180° If the power dissipation in resistance A is P, then
(3) If value of C is doubled, keeping L fixed, total power consumed in the circuit is
resonance occurs at 50 Hz
(4) When frequency of source is 120 Hz then
current through voltage source will be ahead
of emf of source
6. A short bar magnet is placed with its north pole
pointing magnetic north. The neutral point is
10 cm away from the centre of the magnet. If
horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is
BH = 0.4 G, then what is magnetic moment of the (1) 3P (2) 4P
magnet? (3) 6P (4) 9P
(1) 0.4 A/m2 (2) 0.8 A/m2 11. Two resistances of 100  and 300  are
(3) 0.2 A/m2 (4) 1.6 A/m2 connected in series with dc supply of emf 64 V
and negligible internal resistance. Now a
7. The position of a body from a reference point is
voltmeter of resistance 900  is connected
given as x = 2t + 3 , where x is in meter and t in
across 300  resistor. What is voltmeter reading
second. What is the acceleration of the body? (nearly)?
(1) 12 m s–2 (2) 8 m s–2
(3) 6 m s–2 (4) –2 m s–2
8. A thin rectangular metal plate 10 cm × 5 cm is
lying on the layer of glycerine of thickness 1 mm
and coefficient of viscosity 0.8 Pa s. What is
horizontal force needed to move the plate with
speed of 15 cm s–1 on the liquid?
(1) 0.2 N (1) 32 V
(2) 0.4 N (2) 15 V
(3) 0.6 N (3) 37 V
(4) 1.4 N (4) 45 V
(2)
12. Figure shows a spherical interface between air 17. Work done to completely stop a sphere of mass
and glass of refractive index 1.5. Radius of M and radius R rolling with angular speed 
curvature for interface is 60 cm. When object is 2 7
placed at a distance of 30 cm from the interface, (1) M 2R 2 (2) M 2R 2
10 10
its image will form
2 5
(3) M 2R 2 (4) M 2R 2
6 6
18. Which of the following statement is correct?
(1) Charges were named as positive and
negative by the American scientist Benjamin
Franklin
(1) 30 cm in air from interface (2) Gold leaf electroscope can be used to detect
(2) 30 cm in glass from interface charge on a body
(3) 36 cm in air from interface (3) Charge can be created on any substance by
the process of induction
(4) 36 cm in glass from interface
(4) Both (1) and (2)
13. Minimum deviation for a prism is equal to its
19. A hollow cylinder has a charge ‘q’ coulomb within
prism angle (A). The refractive index of prism is
it. If  is the electric flux in units of voltmeter
 A  A associated with the curved surface B then the
(1) 2 tan   (2) 2 sin  
2 2 flux linked with the plane surface A in units of
voltmeter will be
 A  A
(3) 2cos   (4) 2cosec  
2 2
14. Displacement of a body moving along x-axis is
given as x = 3 sin t + 4 sin 2t
Motion of the body can be said as
(a) SHM (b) Non-periodic motion
1 q  1 q 
(c) Oscillatory motion (d) Periodic motion (1)  +  (2)  – 
2  0  2  0 
(1) All (a), (b), (c), (d) (2) (b), (c), (d)
1q
(3) (c), (d) (4) Only (d) (3) (4) Can’t be calculated
3 0
15. A particle having charge q is rotating about a
point with string of length l. A variable magnetic 20. Work done in stretching a spring by x from its
field B0t is directed perpendicular to plane of natural length is W. Work done in stretching the
rotation. The kinetic energy gained by particle in same spring by an additional distance 2x will be
each rotation is (1) 2W (2) 4W
(1) qB0l2 (2) qB02l (3) 8W (4) 9W
B0 l 21. Consider the following statement and choose the

(3) q (4) qB0l correct option(s)
2
Statement-A: In a number less than 1, all zeros
16. A uniform circular disc of mass M and radius R is
on the right of decimal point are significant.
in pure rolling. If it is rotating with angular speed
Statement-B: Zeros between two non-zero
, then its angular momentum about the point of
numbers are not insignificant.
contact is
(1) Statement A is correct
5 7
(1) MR 2  (2) MR 2  (2) Statement B is correct
2 2
(3) Both statement A and B are correct
1 3
(3) MR 2  (4) MR 2  (4) Both statement A and B are incorrect
2 2
(3)
22. A book with many printing errors contains some 27. As a result of thermal expansion, the time period
formulae for the displacement y of a particle of simple pendulum
undergoing a certain periodic motion. (1) Increases
 4t  (2) Decreases
(a) y = a sin  
 T  (3) Constant
(b) y = asin(vt) (4) May increase or decrease
a  t  28. Two spherical bodies A(radius, rA) and B(radius,
(c) y = sin  
T  4a  rB) are at temperatures TA and TB respectively.
The maximum intensity in the emission spectrum
 4t 
(d) y = a 2 sin + cos(4tT ) of A is at A and in that of B is at B. Considering
 T 
the bodies, to be ideal black bodies the ratio of
Here a is displacement amplitude, v is speed, T total energy radiated by A to that of B is
is time period of oscillation, t is time. Which
4
formulae is correct? r 2  
(1) A2  A 
(1) (a) (2) (b) rB  B 
(3) (c) (4) (d) 1/2

r  
23. In p-n junction (2) A  A 
rB  B 
(1) Hole diffuses from p to n
4
(2) Hole diffuses from n to p r 2  
(3) A2  B 
(3) Electron diffuses from p to n rB   A 
(4) Both (2) and (3) 1/2

r  
24. Two amplifiers are connected one after other in (4) A  B 
rB   A 
series (cascaded). The first amplifier has voltage
gain 50 and second amplifier has voltage gain of 29. A drone takes off with velocity 40 kmph in
20. If 0.1 mV input is applied to the input of first direction 30° north of east. Wind is blowing at
amplifier, then the output voltage (at the output of 40 kmph from north to south. What is the
second amplifier) is resultant displacement of drone in 2 hrs?
(1) 1 V (2) 0.1 V (1) 40 km (2) 80 km
(3) 10 V (4) 0.02 V (3) 80 2 km (4) 100 km
25. The incorrect condition for the diffraction to take 30. Consider the following relations w.r.t. propagating
place is wave? (Symbols have usual meaning)
(1) Size of obstacle or aperture is nearly equal to 2
y    y 2 y
2
   y
2
wavelength of light (a) =  (b) = 
t  k  x t 2  k  x 2
(2) Size of obstacle or aperture is much larger
than wavelength of light (1) Only (a) is correct
(3) Size of obstacle or aperture is thrice the (2) Only (b) is correct
wavelength of light (3) (a) and (b) both are correct
(4) Size of obstacle or aperture is twice the (4) (a) and (b) both are incorrect
wavelength of light 31. An observer at sea coast observes 60 waves
26. The quantity carried out by electromagnetic reaching the coast per minute. If the wavelength
waves is of each wave is 10 m, the velocity of waves is
(1) Energy (2) Momentum (1) 6 m/s (2) 8 m/s
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Charge (3) 10 m/s (4) 15 m/s
(4)
32. Which graph represents the best possible (1) A B Y

variation of escape velocity (vE) of earth with
mass of earth (M) (Radius of earth constant)? 0 0 0
0 1 1
(1) (2) 1 0 1
1 1 1
(2) A B Y
(3) (4)
0 0 1
33. A long straight wire of diameter d carrying a 0 1 0

current i is replaced by another wire of diameter
1 0 0
2d carrying same current. The magnetic
induction at a distance r (r > 2d) from the centre 1 1 0
is
(1) Half the previous value
(2) Twice of previous value (3) A B Y
(3) Unchanged
0 0 1
(4) Quarter of its previous value
34. A hypothetical function defined as Yn = En – En–1 0 1 1
where En is the total energy of an orbit of
1 0 1
hydrogen atom having principal quantum number
n, then 1 1 0
(1) Y2 > Y3 (2) Y2 < Y3
(3) Y2 = Y3 (4) 2Y2 = Y3
12 (4) A B Y
35. The radius of nucleus of 6
C is nearly
(1) 1.3 × 10–15 m (2) 9 × 10–15 m 0 0 1
(3) 2.75 × 10–15 m (4) 7 × 10–15 m 0 1 0

SECTION-B
1 0 0
36. An object is oscillating about certain position.
Time period of oscillation is being measured by a 1 1 1
stop watch of least count 0.1 s and time for 100
oscillations is found to be 200 s. The measured 38. A canon ball is fired with a velocity 300 m/s at an
value of length of pendulum is L = 20.0 cm angle of 30° with the vertical. At the highest point
known to 1 mm accuracy. The accuracy in the of its flight it explodes in to 3 equal fragments,
determination of ‘g’ is one going vertically upwards with a velocity of
(1) 0.5% (2) 0.1% 100 m/s, the second one falling vertically
downwards with a velocity 100 m/s. The third
(3) 0.6% (4) 1%
fragment will be moving with a velocity
37. Truth table for the given logic circuit is
(1) 200 m/s along horizontal direction
(2) 300 m/s at an angle 45° with the horizontal
(3) 450 m/s along horizontal direction
(4) 300 m/s at an angle 60° with the horizontal
(5)
39. A glass slab of refractive index 1.5 is introduced 42. Two moles of a monoatomic gas are taken from
between object and a concave mirror of focal A to C via three paths ABC, AC and ADC.
length of 20 cm as shown in figure. What should
be thickness of slab so that the final image is
formed over object?
If WABC = W1, WAC = W2, WADC = W3, then correct

relation is
(1) W2 > W3 > W1 (2) W3 > W2 > W1
(1) 10 cm (2) 12.5 cm
(3) W3 > W1 > W2 (4) W3 = W2 > W1
(3) 15 cm (4) 30 cm
43. A 100  resistance is connected in series with a
40. A rod of mass M and length L is hinged about its
4 H inductor and an ac source voltage. The
corner and the other end of rod is tied to a string
instantaneous voltage across resistance is
as shown. The speed of centre of mass when rod VR = 2 sin (1000 t) volt. Which among the
becomes vertical after the string is cut will be following is mismatched?
Column I Column II
A Current in circuit P I = 2 × 10–2 sin

(1000 t) A
3gL 3g B Inductive Q 4000 
(1) (2)
2 L reactance of the
inductor
(3) 3gL (4) gL
C Peak voltage R 80 V
41. Three balls each of mass 1 kg are attached with
across inductor
three light strings each of length 1 m as shown in
figure. They are rotated in a horizontal circle with D Average power S 4 × 10–2 W
angular velocity  = 4 rad/s. Which among the consumption in
following options is correct? circuit
(1) A-P
(2) D-S
(3) B-Q
(4) C-R
44. A sphere of relative density  and radius R has
concentric cavity of radius r. It just floats on water
R
in a pond if the ratio is
r
  + 1
1/3
(1) T1 = 16 N, T2 = 32 N, T3 = 48 N   
(1)   (2)  
(2) T1 = 48 N, T2 = 32 N, T3 = 16 N      + 1
(3) T1 = 96 N, T2 = 80 N, T3 = 48 N 1/3 2/3
     + 1
(3)   (4)  
(4) T1 = 16 N, T2 = 80 N, T3 = 48 N   – 1   
(6)
45. A soap bubble of radius r, is charged to a 1 1

potential V. If the radius is increased to nr, the (1) (2)
4 2
potential on the bubble will become
1 1
(1) nV (2) n2V (3) (4)
3 8
V V 49. Two infinite length wires carries current 4 A and 3
(3) (4)
n n 2 A and are placed along x and y axis respectively.
Magnetic field at point P (0, 0, d) m will be
46. A uniform wire of length 4 m and resistance 2 
50 50
is used in a potentiometer. The wire is connected (1) (2)
in series with a battery of emf 5 V and an d 2d
external resistance of 3 . With a cell of emf E 30 40
balancing length is found to be 2.40 m. What is (3) (4)
d d
emf E?
50. Two coherent narrow slits emitting light of
(1) 1.20 V (2) 1.25 V wavelength  are placed parallel to each other at
(3) 1.50 V (4) 1.75 V a small separation of 2. The light is collected on
a screen S which is placed at a distance D(≫)
47. The photoelectric emission from a metal begins
from slit SA. If the intensity at R is equal to
at a frequency of 6 × 1014 Hz. The emitted
intensity at T, then finite distance y is
photoelectrons are fully stopped by a retarding
potential of 3.3 V. The frequency of incident
radiation is (h = 6.6 × 10–34 J s)
(1) 1.6 × 1015 Hz
(2) 1.2 × 1015 Hz
(3) 3.2 × 1014 Hz
(4) 1.4 × 1015 Hz
D
48. A mass M is split into two parts m and (M – m), (1) (2) 2D
which are then separated by certain distance. 3
What ratio (m/M) maximises the gravitational D
(3) (4) 3D
force between the two parts? 3
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 53. Which among the following is the most stable
conformation of n-butane?
Jones
CH OH
CH3CH2CH2OH ⎯⎯⎯ → A(Major) ⎯⎯⎯
reagent 3
+ → B(Major)
H
Major product B is (1) (2)
(1) CH3CH2CH2–O–CH3 (2)
(3) CH3CH2COOCH3 (4) CH3CH2COCH3

52. Incorrect statement among the following is (3) (4)
(1) In DNA the sugar moiety is -D-2-
deoxyribose
54. In Carius method of estimation of chlorine, 0.71 g of
(2) Thymine is absent in RNA an organic compound gave 0.574 g of AgCl. The
(3) Nucleotides are joined together by percentage of chlorine present in the compound is
phosphodiester linkage between 5 and 3 (Atomic mass of Ag = 108 u and Cl = 35.5 u)
carbon atoms of pentose sugar (1) 20% (2) 35%
(4) Cytosine is a bicyclic nitrogenous base (3) 30% (4) 45%
(7)
55. G° for a reversible reaction having equilibrium 63. Osmotic pressure of 0.1 M aqueous NaCl
constant 10–2 at 27°C will be solution at 27°C will be (Assume 100% ionisation)
(1) 500R (2) 2.303 × 600R (1) 4.9 atm (2) 2.45 atm
(3) 600R (4) 2.303 × 500R (3) 9.8 atm (4) 7.35 atm
56. Correct IUPAC name of [Co(H2O)4ClBr]I is 64. Reactive species formed on reaction of CHCl3
(1) Tetraaquachlorobromocobalt(II) iodide and warm KOH will be
(2) Tetraaquachloridobromidocobalt(III) iodide (1) Cl2 (2) ClO–
(3) Tetraaquabromidochloridecobalt(III) iodide (3) :CCl2 (4) CHCl

(4) Tetraaquabromidochloridocobalt(III) iodide 65. Dipole-dipole interaction is present in
57. Statement-I: For complex reaction, order has no (1) He and H2 (2) CCl4 and CH3OH
meaning. (3) NH3 and H2O (4) H2O and O2
Statement-II: Order of a reaction is experimental 66. Which of the following compounds will be
quantity. colourless?
In the light of the above statements, choose the (1) KMnO4 (2) [Cu(NH3)4]Cl2
(3) Na2[ZnCl4] (4) K2Cr2O7
correct 67. Incorrect statement regarding kinetic theory of
gases is,
(1) There is no force of attraction between the
particles of gas at ordinary temperature and
incorrect
pressure
(2) Collision of gas molecules are perfectly
incorrect
elastic
58. Optimum pH range of enzyme catalysis is
(3) At any particular time, different particles in
(1) 1-2 (2) 5-7 gas have same speed
(3) 7-9 (4) 13-14 (4) Particles of gas move in all possible direction
59. Which of the following mixture in aqueous in straight line
medium can act as buffer solution? 68. Correct order of basic strength in aqueous
(1) NaOH + Ca(OH)2 (2) NaCl + HCl medium for the given compounds is
(3) NH4OH + NH4Cl (4) CH3COOH + HCl (1) (C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2 > (C2H5)3N > NH3
60. Which of the following conversion results into (2) (C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N > C2H5NH2 > NH3
decrease in bond order and change in magnetic
(3) C2H5NH2 > (C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N > NH3
behaviour?
(4) (C2H5)3N > (C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2 > NH3
(1) O2 → O2− (2) O2 → O2+
69. Identify the major product obtained in the given
(3) N2+ → N2 (4) N2 → N2− reaction.
61. Mass of H2O formed on reaction of 11.2 L H2 and CH3 − CH = CH − CH2OH ⎯⎯⎯
PCC
→
excess O2 at STP will be
(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CHO
(1) 18 g (2) 9 g
(3) 36 g (4) 4.5 g
(2)
62. If mass ratio of CO2 and O2 is 1 : 2 then the ratio
of their number of atoms will be (3) CH3–CH=CH–CHO
(1) 8 : 11 (2) 6 : 11
(3) 3 : 4 (4) 1 : 4 (4)
(8)
70. Consider the following reaction sequence 75. The maximum number of orbital(s) with the
quantum numbers n = 3,  = 2, m = 0 in an atom
is
(1) 5 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 1
Major product C is
76. Which of the following properties generally
(1) Phthalic acid (2) Benzoquinone
decreases along the period?
(3) Salicylic acid (4) Salicylaldehyde
a. Ionization enthalpy b. Electronegativity
71. Identify the incorrect match c. Atomic size d. Metallic character
Polymers Uses (1) a and b only (2) a, b and c only
(3) c and d only (4) b, c and d only
(1) Urea- : For making unbreakable
formaldehyde- cups and laminated 77. The concentration of Na+ ion and K+ ion are
resin sheets higher in which sides of the cell?
(1) Na+ = Outside, K+ = Inside
(2) PVC : Manufacture of paints
(2) Na+ = Inside, K+ = Outside
and lacquers
(3) Na+ = Inside, K+ = Inside
(3) Bakelite : For making combs,
(4) Na+ = Outside, K+ = Outside
electrical switches,
handles of utensils 78. The hybridisations of each boron atom in diborane
is/are
(4) Polystyrene : As insulator, wrapping (1) sp3 only (2) sp3 and sp2
material, manufacture of
(3) sp2 only (4) sp only
toys, radio and television
cabinets 79. Green chemistry is the branch of chemistry which
involves
72. The other name of Zantac is (1) Chemical reactions which produces colour
(1) Cimetidine (2) Brompheniramine (2) Practices to reduce the production and use of
(3) Ranitidine (4) Histamine pollutants
73. The gas evolved when Zn reacts with dilute (3) Chemical reactions to increase BOD value of
HNO3 is water
(4) The study of chemical reactions occurring in
(1) NO (2) N2O
plants
(3) NO2 (4) O2
80. Statement-I: Synthetic resin method is more
74. Statement-I: Boiling point increases in the order efficient than zeolite process for softening of hard
HCl < HBr < HI < HF water.
Statement-II: Intermolecular hydrogen bonding Statement-II: Sodium hexametaphosphate

exist in HF molecules. (Na6P6O18), commercially called ‘Calgon’ is used
to remove permanent hardness of water.
In the light of above statements choose the
correct option among the following
correct
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct incorrect
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are (3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
incorrect incorrect
(4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is (4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
incorrect correct
(9)
81. Which of the following reactions does not take The compounds which will show keto-enol
place in blast furnace at 500-800 K? tautomerism are
(1) 3Fe2O3 + CO → 2Fe3O4 + CO2 (1) a, b and c only (2) b and c only
(2) Fe2O3 + CO → 2FeO + CO2 (3) a, b and d only (4) a, b, c and d
(3) Fe3O4 + 4CO → 3Fe + 4CO2 88. Statement-I: Cycloheptatrienyl cation is an
(4) FeO + CO → Fe + CO2 aromatic species.
82. Identify the substance oxidised in the following Statement-II: Cycloheptatrienyl cation contains
reaction 6 electrons in conjugation.
N2H4() + 2H2O2() → N2(g) + 4H2O() In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) N2H4 (2) H2O2 correct answer from the options given below.
(3) N2 (4) H2O (1) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is

correct
83. The ionic radii of A+ and B– ions are 160 pm and
181 pm respectively. The coordination number of (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
A+ ion is
(1) 8 (2) 4 incorrect
(3) 2 (4) 6 (4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
84. When 0.2 mol MnO −4 is converted into MnO2, the incorrect
quantity of electricity required is 89. 1 mol monoatomic ideal gas expanded
(1) 38600 C (2) 28950 C adiabatically, against a constant pressure of 2
(3) 57900 C (4) 77200 C atm from 10 L to 20 L. Select the correct option
for above process.
85. Percentage of free space in a face-centred cubic
unit cell is (1) q = 20 L-atm (2) U = 0
(1) 26% (2) 30% (3) U = –20 L-atm (4) w = 10 L-atm
(3) 28% (4) 32% 90. Correct order of ligand field strength for the given
SECTION-B species is
86. Consider the following statements (1) OH  Br −  Cl−  H2O
a. Benzoic acid does not undergo Friedel-Crafts
reaction. (2) OH  Cl−  Br −  H2O
b. Methanoic acid is a stronger acid than picric
acid. (3) Br −  OH  Cl−  H2O
c. Ethanoic acid on reaction with diborane (4) H2O  OH  Cl−  Br −

followed by hydrolysis give ethanol as major
product 91. Cottrell precipitator is used for
The correct statement(s) is/are (1) Electrical precipitation of smoke
(1) c only (2) a and b only (2) Purification of drinking water
(3) a and c only (4) a, b and c (3) Tanning
87. Consider the following compounds.
(4) Cleansing action of soaps
92. Fraction of molecules that have kinetic energy
greater than Ea at T temperature is given by
(1) k (2) A
Ea Ea
−
(3) e RT (4) e RT
(10)
93. A sample of AB2(g) was introduced into an The compound P and its colour respectively are
evacuated vessel. After equilibrium is attained,
concentration of AB2(g) is found to be 0.5 mol L–1. (1) , orange coloured dye
If value of KC is 0.5, then the concentration of
(2) , Yellow coloured dye
A(g) at equilibrium for the reaction AB2(g)  A(g)
+ B2(g) is (3) , yellow coloured dye
(1) 0.1 M (2) 0.2 M
(3) 0.5 M (4) 1 M
(4) , Orange coloured dye
94. Polar molecule among the following is
(1) SO3 (2) SO2 97. Which of the following electronic transition in
(3) BCl3 (4) XeF4 hydrogen atom releases maximum amount of
95. Match reactions in column-A with their name in energy?
column-B and identify the correct code. (1) n = 5 to n =4 (2) n = 4 to n = 3
Column-A Column-B (3) n = 3 to n = 2 (4) n = 2 to n = 1
a. (i) Sandmeyer 98. The correct order of increasing reducing nature

reaction of the given elements is represented by
b. (ii) Wurtz reaction (1) Be < Mg < Ca < Ba (2) Ba < Ca < Mg < Be
c. (iii) Finkelstein (3) Be < Ca < Mg < Ba (4) Ba < Mg < Be < Ca
reaction 99. In Br3O8, the oxidation state of terminal bromine
d. (iv) Swarts atoms is
reaction
(1) +4 (2) +5
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (3) 2 (4) +6
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) 100. Select the correct conditions for a spontaneous
96 Consider the following reaction sequence, cell reaction in standard state.
(1) Ecell = 0, K eq  1 (2) Ecell  0, K eq  1
(3) Ecell  0, K eq = 1 (4) Ecell  0, K eq  1
BOTANY
SECTION-A 103. In Hershey and Chase experiment, the DNA of T 2
101. The light reaction of photosynthesis supplies phase was made radioactive by using
which of the given to C3 cycle in biosynthetic (1) S32

phase? (2) S35
(3) P32
(1) Light energy (2) H2O and NADH
(4) N14
(3) Sugar and O2 (4) ATP and NADPH
104. Tailing of hnRNA is catalysed by
102. How many phosphodiester bonds are present in
(1) Peptidyl transferase
genetic material of  × 174 bacteriophage?
(2) Guanylyl transferase
(1) 48501 (2) 5385 (3) Poly A Polymerase
(3) 5384 (4) 5386 (4) Aminoacyl synthetase
(11)
105. Select the correct option w.r.t biodiversity in 112. In which of the following population interactions
different regions in ascending order. one partner is adversely affected and the other
(1) Temperate < Tropical < Arctic one is neither affected nor harmed?
(2) Tropical < Temperate < Arctic (1) Mutualism (2) Commensalism
(3) Arctic < Temperate < Tropical (3) Ammensalism (4) Parasitism
(4) Temperate < Arctic < Tropical 113. Select the correct sequence of tissue (from
inside to outside) of wall layer in microsporangia.
106. Which of the given chlorinated hydrocarbon
results in biological magnification? (1) Epidermis → Middle layer → Endothecium →
(1) DDT (2) PCB Tapetum
(3) BHC (4) Aldrin (2) Tapetum → Middle layer → Epidermis →

Endodermis
107. Which of the following features is seen in all
living organisms including microbes without (3) Tapetum → Middle layer → Endothecium →
exception? Epidermis
(1) Self- consciousness (2) Metabolism (4) Epidermis → Endothecium → Middle layer →
(3) Reproduction (4) Photosynthesis Tapetum
108. Order poales includes 114. Which among the following is not a main source
of biofertilisers?
(1) Wheat (2) Mango
(1) Azotobacter (2) Baculoviruses
(3) Makoi (4) Potato
(3) Glomus (4) Oscillatoria
109. Select the correct pair of statements.
115. Select the odd one w.r.t. simple diffusion
(A) In Lactic acid fermentation CO2 is released
(1) It is a slow process than active transport
(B) Enzymes for TCA cycle are present in
mitochondrial matrix. (2) It is not dependent on a ‘living system’.
(C) Succinate dehydrogenase is found in cytosol (3) It is the only means for gaseous movement
(D) Cytochromes are found in cristae of within the plant body.
mitochondria (4) It requires ATP energy
(1) A & B (2) A & C 116. How many ATP are required for production of
(3) B & D (4) B & C one NH3 molecule during nitrogen fixation?
110. In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic virus (1) 16 (2) 2

and powdery mildew were introduced by (3) 8 (4) 4
(1) Hybridisation method 117. If the initial amount of DNA is denoted by 4C,
(2) Mutation breeding then the amount of DNA present after S phase
will be
(3) Tissue culture
(1) 2 C (2) 8 C
(4) Genetic engineering
(3) 4 C (4) 16 C
111. If 10 J of energy is trapped at producer level,
then how much energy will be available to 118. Which of the following is the final stage of meiotic
peacock as food in the following chain? prophase I ?
Plant → Mice → Snake → Peacock (1) Diplotene (2) Diakinesis
(1) 1 J (3) Pachytene (4) Leptotene
(2) 0.1 J 119. The seeds are not covered in members of
(3) 0.01 J (1) Gymnosperms (2) Angiosperms
(4) 0.001 J (3) Pteridophytes (4) Both (1) and (3)
(12)
120. Algin is obtained from A B

(1) Blue green algae (2) Brown algae
(1) Epidermis Endodermis
(3) Green algae (4) Red algae
(2) Pith Medullary rays
121. A bacterial cell does not have
(1) Polynucleotides (2) Kinetochores (3) Epidermis Vascular bundles
(3) Flagella (4) Phospholipid bilayer (4) Pericycle Vascular bundles

122. Which mineral element is found in the middle 127. Water containing cavities within the vascular
lamella of plants? bundles is the feature of
(1) Carbon (2) Oxygen (1) Dicotyledonous stem
(3) Calcium (4) Boron (2) Monocotyledonous roots
123. A pair of microtubules present singly in the centre (3) Monocotyledonous stem
of (4) Dicotyledonous roots
(1) Pili (2) Cilia 128. Identify the incorrect one for Neurospora.
(3) Centrioles (4) Fimbriae (1) It has coenocytic mycelia
124. Consider the given diagram of a (2) It asexually reproduces by conidia
monocotyledonous seed. (3) It is a sac fungus
(4) It has a short dikaryophase
129. Choose the odd one w.r.t. sexual spore and the
fungus in which it is produced.
(1) Albugo – Oospore
(2) Agaricus – Basidiospore
(3) Claviceps – Zygospore
Select the option which is not true w.r.t. the
(4) Aspergillus – Ascospore
labelled part.
130. The causal agent of scrapie disease
(1) A – Formed by the integument of the ovule
(1) Is a proteinaceous particle
(2) B – Cells are triploid
(2) Has ss RNA
(3) C – A large cotyledon
(3) Is composed of protein and DNA
(4) D – Enclosed in coleoptile
(4) Is non infectious to humans
125. A flower of which of the following plants has
131. Which of the given genetic disorders is not
variation in the length of filaments of stamens?
shown by the below given pedigree chart?
(a) China rose (b) Onion
(c) Saliva (d) Mustard
(1) (a), (b) and (d) (2) (d) only
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (c) and (d) only
126. In flowering plants, all the tissues except A (1) X linked recessive
and B constitute the ground tissue. (2) Autosomal dominant
Complete the statement by selecting the correct (3) X linked dominant

option for A and B. (4) Autosomal recessive
(13)
132. In birds 139. Read the following statements and mark true (T)
(1) Male and female have unequal number of or false (F)
sex chromosomes (I) During post-fertilisation events, zygote
(2) ZZ – ZO type of sex determination is seen develops into endosperm in angiosperms
(3) Males are homogametic (II) The synergids and antipodals degenerate
after fertilisation.
(4) Sex chromosomes are homomorphic in
female I II
133. In incomplete dominance
(1) T T
(1) F1 phenotype is intermediate between
dominant and recessive phenotype (2) T F
(2) F1 resemble both the parents (3) F T
(3) A single gene product produces more than
(4) F F
one effects
(4) The F2 genotypic and phenotypic ratio are 140. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. symplastic
different. pathway.
134. Formation of different kind of structures in plants (1) It may be aided by cytoplasmic streaming
due to response of environment is called (2) Water movement is relatively slower.
(1) Maturity (2) Plasticity (3) Movement is down a potential gradient
(3) Photoperiodism (4) Flexibility (4) Does not involve crossing the cell membrane.
135. Match the following and select the correct 141. Select the incorrect match from the following
option.
(1) Rough – Has 80S ribosomes
Column I Column II
endoplasmic
a. Penicillium (i) Zoospores reticulum
b. Chlamydomonas (ii) Buds (2) Polysome – Single ribosome having
many rRNA molecules
c. Sponges (iii) Conidia
d. Hydra (iv) Gemmules (3) Amyloplast – Starch-storing
leucoplast
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) Golgi – Made up of cisternae
apparatus
SECTION-B
136. The codon in genetic code is read in mRNA in a 142. All of the following features are common to both
contiguous fashion. It reflects which of the given pea and makoi plants, except
features of genetic code? (1) Bisexual flowers
(1) Degeneracy (2) Commaless (2) Number of corolla in each flower is five
(3) Universality (4) Non-overlapping (3) Ovary is superior
137. Species which are more susceptible to extinction (4) Seed is endospermous
have all of the given population characteristics,
except option which is true for them.
(1) Large body size Statement A: Buds which are present in the axil
(2) Large population size and high reproductive of leaves have meristematic cells left behind from
rate shoot apical meristem.
(3) High trophic level in food chain Statement B: In grasses, intercalary meristem is
(4) Fixed habitat and migratory routes responsible for regeneration of removed parts.
138. Pyrolysis is anaerobic combustion of solid waste (1) Only statement A is correct
having organic waste inside chambers at (2) Only statement B is correct
(1) 850°C (2) 1000°C (3) Both the statements are correct
(3) 1650°C (4) 1050°C (4) Both the statements are incorrect
(14)
144. A flagellated protozoan among these is 148. Select the incorrect match among the following.
(1) Paramoecium (1) Gibberellins – Promotes bolting
(2) Euglena (2) Auxin – Widely used to kill monocot weeds
(3) Trypanosoma (3) Cytokinin – Delay leaf senescence
(4) Amoeba (4) Abscisic acid – Promote seed dormancy
145. In human, skin colour inheritance is an example 149. Read the following statements and state them
of true (T) or false (F).
(1) Pleiotropy A. In angiosperm, most of the pollen grain shed
(2) Polygenic inheritance at 3-celled stage
(3) Codominance B. The outer hard layer of pollen is made up of
(4) Multiple allelism sporopollenin.
146. The rate of formation of new organic matter by C. The pollen grain of members of Solanaceae
cow (herbivore) in a forest is called family remain viable only for 30 minutes after
their release.
(1) NPP
D. Pollen grains cannot be used as food
(2) Secondary productivity
supplement by humans.
(3) GPP
A B C D
(4) Community productivity
147. Select the incorrect match. (1) T F T T
(1) Parasite – Found on living plants (2) F T T F
(2) Predator – Overexploits its prey (3) F T F F
(3) Lichen – Symbiotic association (4) T T T F

between algae and fungi 150. In which stage of sewage treatment large and
(4) Mycorrhiza – Symbiotic association small particles of debris are removed?
between fungi and roots of (1) Secondary treatment (2) Primary treatment
higher plants. (3) Tertiary treatment (4) Biological treatment
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 152. How many of the following structures given in the
151. Read the given statements and select the correct box below are included in renal tubules?
option. Glomerulus, Bowman’s capsule, PCT, Loop of
Statement-A: One can breathe out air through Henle, DCT, Collecting duct
eustachian tubes by closing both the nose and
(1) Four (2) Five
the mouth.
(3) Three (4) Two
Statement-B: External inter-costal and
153. The restoration of the resting potential of the
abdominal muscles are muscles involved in
neuronal membrane at the site of excitation
inspiration under normal breathing. within a fraction of a second occurs mainly due to
(1) Both statements A and B are correct (1) Sodium potassium pump
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect (2) Efflux of potassium ions
(3) Only statement A is correct (3) Influx of sodium ions
(4) Only statement B is correct (4) Influx of chloride ions
(15)
154. How many of the given statements are correct? 157. Consider the statements given below w.r.t.
a. Sarcoplasmic reticulum of the muscle fibres enzymes and select the correct one.
is the store house of calcium ions. (1) High temperature preserves the enzymes
b. The type of muscles present in our thigh are (2) Enzymes get denatured at low temperature
striated and voluntary. (3) Enzymes work by lowering the activation
c. The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due energy
to the central gap between myosin filaments (4) Ribozymes are proteinaceous enzymes
in the A-band.
158. 'A' is chemically diacetylmorphine, obtained
d. Production of body heat and storage of
by acetylation of morphine, which is extracted
minerals are the functions of the skeletal
system. from 'B ' . Select the correct option to fill in
Select the correct option. the blanks ‘A’ and ‘B’.
(1) One (2) Three A B

(3) Two (4) Four (1) Smack Erythroxylum coca
155. Match column I with column II and select the (2) Datura Atropa belladona
correct option.
(3) Smack Papaver somniferum
Column-I Column-II
(4) Marijuana Cannabis sativa
a. I-band (i) Contains both thin and
159. ‘X’ is a substance that provides active immunity
thick filaments
whereas ‘Y’ provides natural passive immunity.
b. A-band (ii) Elastic fibre that Select the correct option for ‘X’ and ‘Y’ w.r.t.
bisects I-band humans.
c. M-line (iii) Contains thin filaments X Y
d. Z-line (iv) Thin fibrous membrane (1) Antivenom OPV
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) Anti tetanus serum Vaccination
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (3) Colostrum Anti tetanus serum
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) Oral polio vaccine Colostrum
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
160. New castle disease is a _____ disease of poultry.
156. Read the statements given below and select the Select the option that fills the blank correctly.
option that correctly identifies them as True(T) or
(1) Bacterial (2) Viral
False(F).
(3) Fungal (4) Helminthic
a. Alanine is a sulphur containing amino acid
161. Which of the labelled parts in the given figure are
b. Tyrosine is an aromatic amino acid absent in the main circulating fluid of human
c. Uracil is a substituted pyrimidine found in body?
nucleic acids containing deoxyribose sugar
d. The nitrogenous bases are projected more or
less perpendicular to the sugar-phosphate
backbone of polynucleotide chain
a b c d
(1) F T T T
(2) F T F T
(3) T F T T (1) A and D (2) A and C
(4) T T T T (3) B and C (4) A and B
(16)
162. The kind of epithelium which forms inner lining of 169. Choose the correct option to complete the
pancreatic ducts is analogy.
(1) Compound epithelium Taenia : Flame cells : : Bombyx : _______
(2) Squamous epithelium (1) Comb plates (2) Radula

(3) Flame cells (4) Malpighian tubules
(3) Ciliated epithelium
(4) Cuboidal epithelium correct option.
163. Assertion(A): The food and the acidic gastric
Column-I Column-II
juice in stomach are mixed thoroughly to form
chyme. a. Asterias (i) Notochord in
larval tail
Reason(R): Muscular layer present in the
stomach enables better churning of food. b. Balanoglossus (ii) Spiny body
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the c. Ascidia (iii) Cloaca present
d. Hyla (iv) Worm-like marine
animal
a b c d
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
164. Which of the following is not secreted by a
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
composite digestive gland?
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(1) Insulin (2) Chymotrypsinogen
171. Which of the following is not a hermaphrodite
(3) Nucleotidases (4) Glucagon animal?
165. If 2100 mL of blood is filtered by the kidneys per (1) Pheretima (2) Spongilla
minute and each ventricle pumps out (3) Taenia (4) Periplaneta
approximately 100 mL of blood per cycle, then
172. Which of the following hormonal levels will cause
calculate the heart beat rate. release of ovum (ovulation) from the Graafian
(1) 75 beats/min (2) 105 beats/min follicle?
(3) 70 beats/min (4) 90 beats/min (1) High concentration of estrogen and
progesterone
166. Blood pressure in aorta is
(2) Low concentration of FSH and estrogen
(1) Same as that in pulmonary artery
(3) High concentration of LH and estrogen
(2) Less than that in vena cava (4) Low concentration of estrogen and
(3) More than that in pulmonary vein progesterone
(4) Less than that in carotid artery 173. Choose the correct match.
167. When the heart muscle is suddenly damaged by (1) Proliferative – Mature follicle develops into
an inadequate blood supply it is termed as phase corpus luteum
(1) Cardiac arrest (2) Heart attack (2) Secretory – Rapid regeneration of
(3) Atherosclerosis (4) Heart failure phase myometrium
168. Tissue level of organisation first of all evolved in (3) Ovulatory – Release of ovum and corpus
members of phylum phase luteum from mature follicle
(1) Porifera (2) Coelenterata (4) Pregnancy – All events of menstrual cycle
stop
(3) Platyhelminthes (4) Aschelminthes
(17)
174. During oogenesis, first meiotic division of primary 180. Complete the analogy and choose the correct
oocyte is completed within the option.
(1) Primary follicle (2) Secondary follicle lacZ gene: -galactosidase : : rop sequence:
(3) Tertiary follicle (4) Graafian follicle ________
175. What does RCH stands for? (1) Origin of replication

(1) Reproductive and Complete Health (2) Ampicillin resistance
(2) Regional and Central Health Care (3) Proteins involved in replication
(3) Reproductive and Child Health Care (4) Selectable marker gene
(4) Reproductive and Cumulative Health 181. Read the following statements and choose the
176. Statutory ban on amniocentesis in India was correct option.
necessary because: Statement(A): DNA cannot pass through cell
(1) It is very expensive. membranes as it is a hydrophobic molecule.
(2) It can tell about chromosomal aberrations. Statement(B): Treatment with Ca+2 ions
increases the efficiency with which DNA enters
(3) It is an invasive procedure and carries high
into the bacterium.
risk abortions.
(4) It can be used for pre-natal sex determination
of the foetus leading to female foeticides. (2) Only statement A is incorrect
177. Two polypeptide chains of human insulin are (3) Both A and B statements are correct
linked together by (4) Both A and B statements are incorrect
(1) Phosphodiester bonds 182. Match column-I with column-II and choose the
(2) Ionic bonds correct option.
(3) Disulphide bridges Column-I Column-II
(4) Glycosidic bonds
a. Biosynthetic stage (i) Increased surface
178. Select the correct statement about hormones and
area for oxygen
their actions.
transfer
(1) Parathyroid hormone increases K+ absorption
from the digested food b. Downstream (ii) Large scale
processing production in
(2) Insulin and glucagon help to maintain blood
fermenter
sugar levels.
(3) Old aged people have weak immunity due to c. Sparged stirred-tank (iii) With foam braker
increased activity of thymus. bioreactor and flat bladed
(4) Osteoporosis in women occurs due to impeller
increased levels of estrogen. d. Simple stirred-tank (iv) Separation and
179. Select the correct match among the following. bioreactor purification
(1) EcoRI – Produces blunt ends (1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(2) pBR322 – Cloning vector (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
183. Which of the following dinosaur has three horns
(3) BamHI – Cloning site
with collared neck?
(4) Taq polymerase – Thermolabile DNA (1) Tyranosaurus (2) Brachiosaurus
polymerase
(3) Stegosaurus (4) Triceratops
(18)
184. All of the following plants were present during 189. Read the given statements and select the correct
carboniferous period except option.
(1) Lycopods (2) Sphenopsids Statement-A : Though the human heart is
(3) Ferns (4) Dicots autoexcitable, its functions can be moderated by
both neural and hormonal mechanisms.
185. Choose the odd one w.r.t. artificial selection.
Statement-B : Lymph is almost similar to blood
(1) Animal husbandry
except for the protein content and the formed
(2) Plant breeding programmes elements.
(3) Man-made breeds of dog (1) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Industrial melanism (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
SECTION-B (3) Only statement A is incorrect
186. Read the following statements (a to e) carefully (4) Only statement B is incorrect
190. Select the correct statement.
a. In human females, oogenesis is initiated
(1) Mammals have negative pressure breathing.
during the embryonic development stage.
(2) Inspiration is initiated by the relaxation of
b. Primary follicles are formed at puberty.
diaphragm.
c. At puberty only 60,000 to 80,000 primary
(3) There is an increase in the volume of thoracic
follicles are formed in ovaries.
chamber in the dorso-ventral axis due to the
d. The primary follicles surrounded by more contraction of diaphragm.
layers of granulosa cells and a new theca
(4) Forceful expiration is a passive process.
form secondary follicles.
191. Cortical nephrons differ from juxtamedullary
e. Tertiary follicle is characterised by a fluid
nephrons on all of the following basis except in
filled cavity called antrum.
(1) Number
(1) a, b and c are correct
(2) Location in kidney
(2) c, d and e are correct
(3) Size
(3) a, d and e are correct
(4) Number of parts
(4) a, b and d are correct
192. Read the statements given below w.r.t.
187. Which one of the following statements among all
cannabinoids carefully.
the four i.e., Sycon, Hirudinaria, Delphinus and
Psittacula is correct? a. They interact with cannabinoid receptors
present principally in GIT.
(1) All are bilaterally symmetrical.
b. They are naturally obtained from
(2) Psittacula is homeothermic whereas Sycon,
inflorescences of the plant Cannabis sativa.
Hirudinaria and Delphinus are poikilothermic.
c. They can be used as medicine to overcome
(3) Hirudinaria is a fresh water form whereas all
the pain.
other are marine.
d. They can increase heart rate.
(4) Sycon has special collared cells called
choanocytes, not found in the remaining How many of the statements given above are
three. correct?
188. Choose the diploblastic acoelomate animal from (1) One

the following given options. (2) Two
(1) Sea anemone (2) Tapeworm (3) Three
(3) Hookworm (4) Pearl oyster (4) Four
(19)
193. Match the column I with column II and select the (1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct option. correct explanation of (A)
Column I Column II
a. Structural (i) Malonate (3) (A) is true, (R) is false
component of cell
(4) (A) is false, (R) is true
wall of fungi
197. Which one of the following pairs is the correct
b. Competitive inhibitor (ii) Sucrose match of the source and the hormone it
of succinic secretes?
dehydrogenase
(1) Anterior pituitary – Thyroxine
c. Glycosidic bond (iii) Chitin
(2) -cells of pancreas – Glucagon
d. Alkaloid used as (iv) Morphine
(3) Thyroid – Epinephrine
painkiller
(4) Stomach epithelium – Secretin
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) 198. If alien DNA is inserted at PvuI restriction site in
pBR322, then which of the following holds true
194. A lady is diagnosed to have both her fallopian
for resultant host (E. coli)?
tubes blocked. Which of the following ART can
help her to conceive a child? (1) Non-transformants will grow on ampicillin
containing medium
(1) GIFT (2) ZIFT
(2) Non-recombinants will grow on ampicillin
(3) AI (4) IUT
containing medium
195. In Bt cotton, the Bt toxin present in plant tissue (3) Recombinants will grow on ampicillin
as protoxin is converted into active toxin due to containing medium
(1) Alkaline pH of the insect gut (4) Recombinants will not grow on tetracycline
(2) Acidic pH of the insect gut containing medium
(3) Action of gut microorganisms 199. Lizards are considered to be phylogenetically
more close to
(4) Presence of conversion factors in insect gut
(1) Turtles (2) Crocodiles
196. Assertion(A): When glucose is catabolised to
lactic acid, energy is liberated. (3) Tuataras (4) Snakes
Reason(R): In an exothermic reaction, the 200. A population has 700 individuals, 85 of genotype
energy level of ‘Product’ (lactic acid) is lower than AA and 295 of genotype aa. What is the
that of ‘Substrate’ (glucose). frequency of dominant allele?
In the light of above statements, select the (1) 0.3 (2) 0.5
correct answer from the options given below. (3) 0.7 (4) 0.4
❑ ❑ ❑
(20)
27/08/2021 CODE-A
CST – 13
Instructions:
PHYSICS
SECTION-A (1) A parabola (2) An ellipse
1. An AND gate can be prepared by repetitive use (3) A straight line (4) A circle
of
4. In the circuit shown in the figure, if ammeter and
(1) NOT gate (2) OR gate voltmeter are ideal, then the power consumed by
(3) Ex-OR gate (4) NAND gate 6 Ω resistor will be
2. A transistor is used in common-emitter mode in

an amplifier circuit. When a signal of 20 mV is
added to the base-emitter voltage, the base
current changes by 20 µA and collector current
changes by 2 mA. The load resistance is 5 kΩ.
The transconductance of the amplifier and
voltage gain is respectively
(1) 8 W
(1) 0.1 mho, 500 (2) 0.1 mho, 50
(2) 4 W
(3) 0.2 mho, 500 (4) 0.2 mho, 50
8
 R  (3) W
The graph of n  3
3.  versus n(A) is (Here R is
 R0 
4
radius of a nucleus and A is its mass number) (4) W
3
(1)
5. A very long solenoid as shown in the figure is 9. A uniform chain of length l and mass m
having n turns per unit length. The magnetic field overhangs a smooth table with one third part
at point P is hanging and two third part lying on the table. The
kinetic energy of the chain as it completely slips
off the table will be
mgl 2
(1) (2) mgl
3 9
µ0 ni mgl 4
(1) µ0ni (2) (3) (4) mgl
2 2 18 9
µ0 ni µ0 ni  1  10. In perfectly elastic collision
(3)
2
(4)
2 1 −  (1) The kinetic energy remains always constant
 2
(2) The kinetic energy first increases and then
6. A particle is moving along x-axis. The position-
decreases
time graph is shown in the figure. Select the
correction statement. (3) The initial kinetic energy is equal to final
kinetic energy
(4) The initial kinetic energy is greater than final
kinetic energy
11. A uniform cylinder of mass 1 kg and radius 2 cm
is rotating about its main axis at the rate of 4 rpm.
The constant torque required to stop it after 2π
revolution is
(1) The particle is continuously going in positive (1) 4.44 × 10–7 N m (2) 1 × 10–7 N m
x direction
(3) 5 × 10–6 N m (4) 1.78 × 106 N m
(2) The particle is always at rest 12. The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc is
(3) Velocity of particle increases up to a time t0 minimum about an axis perpendicular to the disc
and then becomes constant and passing through
(4) The particle moves at a constant velocity

up to time t0, then stops for time duration t0
and then returns back
7. Three particles A, B and C are situated at the
vertices of an equilateral triangle of side length 3
m. Each of the particles moves with constant (1) A (2) B
speed 2 m/s. A always has its velocity along (3) C (4) D
AB, B along BC and C along CA. After what time 13. Which among the following statement is incorrect
will the particles meet each other? regarding a uniform spherical shell?
(1) 1 s (2) 2 s (1) Inside the shell the gravitational potential is
(3) 1.5 s (4) 0.5 s zero
(2) Inside the shell, the gravitational field is zero
8. A park has a radius of 40 m. If a car goes round it
at speed of 36 kmph, then the proper angle of (3) Inside the shell, the gravitational potential is
banking should be same everywhere
(4) Inside the shell, the gravitational field is same
(1) tan–1 (4)
everywhere
(2) tan–1 (1) 14. The breaking stress of a wire depends on
 1 (1) Length of the wire
(3) tan−1  
2 (2) Radius of the wire
 1 (3) Material of the wire
(4) tan−1  
4 (4) Shape of the cross-section
(2)
15. Two liquids of same volume but of different 20. The efficiency of a Carnot engine operating with
densities, ρ1 and ρ2 are mixed together, then the reservoir temperature at 100°C and –7°C will be
density of the mixture is 100 + 7 100 + 7
(1) (2)
2ρ1ρ2 ρ1 + ρ2 100 373
(1) (2)
ρ1 + ρ2 2 100 − 7 100 − 7
(3) (4)
(3) ρ1 + ρ2 (4) 2 ( ρ1 + ρ2 ) 100 373
21. The equation y = Asin2(ωt – kx) represents a
16. A ball is thrown downward with some velocity into
a viscous liquid. Which of the following curves wave motion
may represents the possible variation for velocity ω
versus time? (1) With amplitude A and frequency
2π
ω
(2) With amplitude 2A and frequency
(1) (2) 2π
A ω
(3) With amplitude and frequency
2 π
A ω
(3) (4) All of these (4) With amplitude and frequency
2 2π
22. When a sound wave is refracted from air to water
17. A metallic wire with two masses, each of mass then which of the following will remain
unchanged?
m, fixed at the two ends is passing over a slab of
ice. This wire passes through the ice slab without (1) Frequency (2) Wavelength
splitting it. This demonstration is used in process (3) Wave number (4) Wave velocity
(1) Vaporisation 23. A simple pendulum is suspended from the ceiling
(2) Sublimation of a car accelerating uniformly on a horizontal
g
(3) Condensation road with acceleration . If length of pendulum
2
(4) Regelation is l, then time period of small oscillations about
18. A piece of metal is heated in a flame. It first mean position is
becomes dull red then becomes reddish yellow
 2
and finally turns white hot. The correct (1) 2π (2) 2π
g 5g
explanation for the above observation is possible
by using 2 2
(3) 2π (4) 2π
(1) Wien’s displacement law 5g 3g
(2) Newton’s law of cooling 24. An acoustic engineer places a sound detector on
(3) Stefan’s law a railway station. A train, approaching the
platform at a speed of 10 m/s sounds a whistle.
(4) Kirchhoff’s law
The detector detects 10 kHz as the most
19. The molar specific heat at constant pressure of dominant frequency in the whistle. If the train
7 stops at platform and sounds the whistle, then
an ideal gas is R . The ratio of specific heat at
2 most dominant frequency detected will be nearly
constant pressure to that at constant volume is (vsound = 340 m/s)
(1) 9.7 kHz
7 9
(1) (2) (2) 11.3 kHz
8 7
(3) 10.3 kHZ
7 5
(3) (4) (4) 8.5 kHz
5 3
(3)
25. In the arrangement, shown in the figures all the 500

bulbs have same resistance. If bulb D gets fused, (1) V (2) 100 V
3
then brightness of bulb B will (Battery is ideal)
200
(3) V (4) 150 V
3
29. A potentiometer having a wire 10 m long
stretched on it is connected to a battery having a
steady voltage. A cell gives a null deflection point
at 700 cm. If the length of potentiometer wire is
increased by 2 m, then the new position of null
point will be
(1) 740 cm (2) 800 cm
(1) Increase
(3) 950 cm (4) 840 cm
(2) Decrease
30. In a coaxial cylindrical straight cable, the inner
(3) Remains unchanged
solid conductor and the outer conductor carry
(4) Depend on resistance of D equal currents in opposite directions. The
26. A small sphere of mass m and having charge q is magnetic field is zero
suspended by an insulating thread of length l in a
(1) Inside the inner conductor except axis
uniform horizontal electric field. If it stands in
equilibrium at a distance d from the vertical line (2) Inside the outer conductor
from point of suspension, then magnitude of (3) In between the two conductor
electric field is
(4) Outside the cable
31. The maximum value of the permeability of
Mu-metal is 0.126 T m A–1. The maximum value
of relative permeability will be nearly
(1) 105 (2) 8 × 104
(3) 4 × 105 (4) 7 × 103
32. Which among the following pairs of coils has zero
mgd mgl coupling constant?
(1) (2)
q l2 − d2 q l2 − d2
mg mg  d 
(3) (4)
q q  l 
(1) (2)
27. Electric charge Q is uniformly distributed around
a thin ring of radius a. The electric potential is
maximum on the axis of ring at
(1) Centre of the ring
a
(2) ± on the axis of ring
2 (3) (4)
a
(3) ± on the axis of ring
2 33. A coil of resistance 100 Ω is placed in a magnetic
(4) Infinity field. If the magnetic flux φ (in Wb) linked with the
28. A 2 µF capacitor is charged to a potential of coil varies with time t(in s) as φ= 40t2 + 8. The
200 V and a 1 µF capacitor is charged to 100 V. current in the coil at time t = 1 s is
The capacitors are then connected in parallel
(1) 0.8 A (2) 1.6 A
with plates of opposite polarity joined together.
The common potential will be (3) 2.4 A (4) 1.0 A
(4)
34. The primary winding of an ideal transformer has 41. A certain radioactive material can undergo three
1000 turns whereas its secondary has different types of decay simultaneously each with
5000 turns. The primary is connected to an ac different decay constant λ, 2λ and 2λ. Then the
supply of 220 V, 50 Hz. The secondary will have effective decay constant λeff is
an output of (1) 4λ (2) 2λ
(1) 550 V (2) 1100 V (3) 5λ (4) 6λ
(3) 440 V (4) 44 V 42. The electrical conductivity of pure silicon can be
35. Which among the following is the cause of increased by
“Greenhouse effect”? (1) Increasing the temperature
(1) Infrared rays (2) X-rays (2) Doping the impurities
(3) Radio waves (4) Gamma rays (3) Irradiating UV light on it
SECTION-B (4) All of these
36. A light ray is incident on a glass sphere of 43. The dimensions of the ratio of electric dipole
refractive index µ = 3 at an angle of incidence moment to the magnetic dipole moment will be
60° as shown in the figure. The total deviation (1) [M0L0T0] (2) [M0L–1T]
after two refractions will be (3) [M0LT] (4) [M0LT–1]
44. Consider the following statements.
(a) The addition of 10.0 + 0.048 have three
significant figures.
(b) For a given quantity, the numerical value (n)
(1) 30° (2) 45° is directly proportional to the unit (u).
(3) 60° (4) 120° Choose the incorrect statement(s).

(1) (a) only (2) (b) only
37. A near-sighted man can clearly see objects up to
a distance of 2 m. The power of the lens of the (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b)
spectacles necessary for the remedy of this  
45. The resultant of two vectors P and Q makes an
defect is  
angle α with P and β with Q , then
(1) – 1 D (2) 2 D
(1) α < β (2) α < β if P < Q
(3) 0.25 D (4) – 0.5 D
(3) α < β if P > Q (4) α < β if P = Q
38. Fringe width in YDSE
46. An object may have
(1) Is proportional to wavelength of light used
(1) Varying speed without having varying velocity
(2) Is inversely proportional to separation
between slits (2) Varying velocity without having varying speed
(3) Is directly proportional to separation between (3) Non zero acceleration without having varying
slits speed
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) Both (2) and (3)
39. The resolving power of an electron microscope 47. Consider two block system in equilibrium as
shown in the figure. All the surfaces are rough.
operated at 24 kV is x. The resolving power of
The direction of friction on B due to A
the electron microscope when operated at 6 kV is
x
(1) (2) x
2
(3) 2x (4) 4x
40. An electron in hydrogen like atom is in an excited
state. It has a total energy of – 3.4 eV. The de (1) Is upward
Broglie wavelength of the electron is nearly (2) Is downward
(1) 9.33 Å (2) 6.66 Å (3) Is zero
(3) 3.33 Å (4) 12.67 Å (4) Depends on masses of A and B
(5)
48. The velocity of centre of mass of the system 50. A body of mass 5 kg is acted upon by a force
remains constant. The net external force acting 
F =( −3i + 4 j ) N . If its initial velocity at t = 0 is
on the system is

(1) Minimum (2) Maximum =
u ( 6i − 12 j ) m/s . The time at which it will just
(3) Unity (4) Zero have a velocity along y axis is
49. The equation of a projectile are given by x = 36t (1) 10 s
and y = 48t – 4.9t2. Here x, y and t are in SI units.
(2) 2 s
The angle of projection is
(3) 15 s
(1) 37° (2) 45°
(3) 53° (4) 60° (4) 5 s
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 57. Maximum bond length among the following is of
51. Number of electrons present in 49 g of H2SO4 is (1) N2
(NA = Avogadro’s number)
(2) O2–
(1) 0.5 NA (2) 5 NA
(3) O2+
(3) 2.5 NA (4) 25 NA
52. Which of the following sets of quantum number is (4) O2
not possible? 58. Dipole-dipole interaction energy between
1 stationary polar molecules (as in solid state) is
(1) n = 4, l = 0, m = 1, s = –
2 proportional to
1 1 1
(2) n = 3, l = 2, m = –1, s = + (1) (2)
2 r6 r3
1 1 1
(3) n = 2, l = 0, m = 0, s = − (3) (4)
2 r2 r
1 59. A real gas approaches ideal behaviour at
(4) n = 4, l = 3, m = –2, s = +
2 (1) High temperature and low pressure
53. Ratio of energies of electrons in 4 orbit of He
th +
(2) Low temperature and low pressure
and 2nd orbit of H atom is
(3) High temperature and high pressure
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(4) Low temperature and high pressure
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 4 : 1
60. 1 mol of ideal gas expands reversibly and
54. Oxidation state and covalence of Al in isothermally from 1 L to 100 L at 300 K. The heat
[AlCl(H2O)5]2+ are respectively
exchange during the process is nearly
(1) 3 and 3 (2) 6 and 3
(1) 0 (2) 600R
(3) 3 and 6 (4) 6 and 6
(3) 900R (4) 1380R
55. Which of the following order is incorrect
61. If standard enthalpy of formation of NH3(g) is
regarding ionisation enthalpy?
–x kJ mol–1 then how much energy in kJ will be
(1) B > Li (2) B > Be required to break 34 g NH3(g) into N2(g) and
(3) N > O (4) F > N H2(g)?
56. Shape of ClF3 molecule is x
(1) (2) x
(1) Pyramidal (2) Trigonal planar 2
(3) Bent-T-shape (4) Tetrahedral (3) 2x (4) 4x
(6)
62. If Kc = x for CO(g) + 3H2(g)  CH4(g) + H2O(g) 71. Consider the following statements
then Kc for the reaction, I. Thin layer chromatography is adsorption
chromatography
1 1 1 3
CH4(g) + H2O(g)  CO(g) + H2(g) II. Paper chromatography is a type of partition
2 2 2 2
chromatography
will be
III. Chromatography is classified into adsorption
1
(1) x (2) and partition chromatography
x
(1) I, II and III (2) I and II only
1 1
(3) (4) (3) II and III only (4) I and III only
x 2x
72. 0.5 g of an organic compound gave 0.188 g
63. How much volume (in mL) of 0.2 M CH3COOH AgBr. The percentage of Br in the organic
should be added in 500 mL of 0.1 M NaOH compound is (At mass : Ag = 108 u, Br = 80 u)
solution to make a buffer solution of pH = 4.7?
(1) 48% (2) 16%
[pKa (CH3COOH) = 4.7]
(3) 8% (4) 24%
(1) 100 mL (2) 250 mL
O2
(3) 500 mL (4) 200 mL 73. CH3 CH3 → A
( CH3 COO )2 Mn, ∆
64. Maximum solubility of AgCl is in Product A in above reaction is
(1) 0.1 M aqueous NaCl (1) CH3CHO (2) CH3OCH3
(2) 0.1 M aqueous CaCl2 (3) CH3CH2OH (4) CH3COOH
(3) 0.2 M aqueous HCl
74.
(4) 0.2 M aqueous NH3
65. Oxidation state of P in PH3, P2H4 and P4
respectively are Product A in the given reaction is
(1) –3, –2, 0 (2) –1, –4, 0
(3) –3, 0, 0 (4) –3, –2, –1 (1) (2)
2– 2–
66. Ratio of Cr2 O 7 and SO 3 in balanced redox
reaction for acidic medium is (3) (4)
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 75. Most acidic compound among the following is
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 2 : 3 (1) HC ≡ CH (2) H2C = CH2
67. Soda ash is (3) CH3 – CH3 (4) CH3 – CH2 – CH3
(1) Na2CO3 ⋅ 10H2O (2) Na2CO3 ⋅ 9H2O 76.
(3) Na2CO3 ⋅ H2O (4) Na2CO3
Cu Powder H2 O
Product C in the above reaction is
68. 2CH3 Cl + Si 
570 K
→ A  →B
(1) (2)
Product B is
(1) CH3SiCl3 (2) (CH3)2SiCl2
(3) (CH3)2Si(OH)2 (4) (CH3)3SiOH (3) (4)
69. Which of the following on heating give(s) brown
colour gas?
77. Second nearest neighbour distance of Na+ in
(1) Be(NO3)2 (2) Mg(NO3)2
terms of edge length a for NaCl lattice is
(3) Ca(NO3)2 (4) All of these
a
70. IUPAC group prefix for – NH2 group is (1) a (2)
2
(1) amino (2) amine a a
(3) (4)
(3) amide (4) ammine 2 3
(7)
78. Mole fraction of component A in vapour phase of SECTION-B

ideal solution of 5 mol of A and 10 mol of B is 86. Least negative electron gain enthalpy among the
o o
( PA = 200 torr, PB = 100 torr) following is of
(1) O (2) S
1 1
(1) (2) (3) Se (4) Te
2 3
87. Which of the following acid contains peroxide
1 1
(3) (4) linkage?
4 5
(1) H2S2O4 (2) H2S2O5
79. Maximum prescribed concentration of zinc in
(3) H2SO5 (4) H2S2O7
drinking water is
CuCl2
88. 4HCl + O2  → 2Cl2 + 2H2O
(1) 50 ppm (2) 10 ppm
Given process is known as
(3) 100 ppm (4) 5 ppm
(1) Contact’s process
80. On dilution
(2) Deacon’s process
(1) ∧m increases while κ decreases
(3) Ostwald process
(2) ∧m and κ both increases (4) Lead chamber process
(3) ∧m decreases while κ increases 89. Consider the following statements
A. XeOF4 is a coloured volatile liquid
(4) ∧m and κ both decreases
B. XeOF4 has a square pyramidal molecular
81. Maximum emf among the following is of structure
(1) Mg(s) | Mg2+ (0.1 M) || Cu2+ (0.2 M) | Cu(s) C. Partial hydrolysis of XeF6 gives XeOF4
(2) Mg(s) | Mg 2+
(0.2 M) || Cu 2+
(0.1 M) | Cu(s) D. Hybridisation of Xe in XeOF4 is sp3d2
(3) Mg(s) | Mg2+ (0.2 M) || Cu2+ (0.3 M) | Cu(s) The correct statements are
(4) Mg(s) | Mg2+ (0.3 M) || Cu2+ (0.2 M) | Cu(s) (1) A, B, C and D (2) B, C and D only
82. Ratio of t99.9% to t90% for first order reaction is (3) A, B and C only (4) B and D only
(1) 10 : 1 (2) 9 : 1 90. Enthalpy of atomisation is lowest for
(3) 6 : 1 (4) 3 : 1 (1) Cu (2) Zn
83. For which of the following order unit of rate of (3) Co (4) Ni
reaction and rate constant are same? 91. Minimum ionic radii among the following is of
(1) 3 order
rd
(2) 2 nd
order (1) Ce3+ (2) Pr3+
(3) 1st order (4) 0th order (3) Nd3+ (4) Pm3+
84. Select the incorrect statement regarding lyophilic 92. Select the correct-regarding [NiCl4]2– ion
colloids? (1) Paramagnetic in nature
(1) Directly formed by mixing (2) sp3d hybridised
(2) Cannot be easily coagulated (3) Square planar shape
(3) Irreversible sols (4) Magnetic moment is 18 BM
(4) Gum and gelatin are the examples 93. Fastest SN1 reaction rate is observed in
85. Leaching of gold and silver is carried out by
(1) (2)
(1) NaCN
(2) Ca(OH)2
(3) H2SO4
(3) (4)
(4) NaOH
(8)
94. Weakest acid among the following is 97. Molecule which does not undergo Friedel –
(1) o-Nitrophenol (2) o-Cresol Crafts reaction is
(3) p-Cresol (4) Ethanol
(1) (2)
95.
P is (3) (4)
98. Vulcanisation of rubber requires use of

(1) 5% phosphorous (2) 5% sulphur
(1) (2) (3) 5% carbon (4) 5% silicon
99. Dettol, used as an antiseptic is a mixture of
(1) Boric acid and iodine
(2) Phenol and cresol
(3) (4)
(3) Chloroxylenol and terpineol
96 Select the most reactive compound towards (4) Iodoform and bithionol
nucleophilic addition reaction. 100. α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose are
(1) Ethanal (2) Propanal (1) Anomers (2) Epimers
(3) Propanone (4) Methanal (3) Tautomers (4) Enantiomers
BOTANY
SECTION-A 104. The site for active rRNA synthesis is
101. In certain bacteria, small circular DNA found (1) Nucleus (2) Nucleolus
outside the genomic DNA is called (3) Ribosome (4) Cytoplasm
(1) Nucleoid (2) Plasmid 105. Find the odd one for G1 phase.
(3) Polysome (4) Nucleolus
(1) Most of the cell organelles duplicate here
102. Select the incorrect statement for
(2) Involves protein synthesis
endomembrane system.
(3) Centriole duplicates in cytoplasm
(1) Consists of double as well as single
membrane bound organelles (4) RNA formation occurs
(2) Includes ER, Golgi body, lysosomes and 106. Bivalents
vacuoles (1) Are formed in pachytene stage
(3) Involved in processing and packaging of (2) Are made up of two non-homologous
materials chromosomes
(4) Functions of its cell organelles are (3) Are stabilised by synaptonemal complex
coordinated
(4) Consists of two chromatids only
103. Which one is not true for mitochondria?
107. Chiasmata terminalize during
(1) Inner membrane forms infoldings called
cristae (1) Diplotene
(2) It produces cellular energy (2) Pachytene
(3) It contains RNA as well as DNA (3) Diakinesis
(4) It contains 80S ribosomes (4) Zygotene
(9)
108. Which one is not a defining feature of human A B C

beings? (1) F T F
(1) Internal growth (2) Reproduction (2) T F T
(3) Metabolism (4) Cellular organisation
(3) F T T
109. Mark the incorrect one for eubacteria.
(4) T F F
(1) Some of them have chlorophyll a and b
116. Chlorophyceae members
(2) They can oxidise various inorganic
(1) Have chlorophyll a and c as major pigments
substances
(2) Produce laterally inserted biflagellated
(3) Includes some wall-less monerans
zoospores
(4) They can be unicellular, colonial or
(3) Store food in the form of starch
filamentous
(4) Have cellulosic inner cell wall and outer cell
110. The autotrophic protists that have stiff cellulosic
wall of algin
plates on surface of their walls are
117. The leafy member of liverworts is
(1) Diatom (2) Dinoflagellates
(1) Porella (2) Riccia
(3) Euglenoids (4) Desmids
111. Puccinia belongs to the group which includes (3) Marchantia (4) Funaria
organisms with 118. Root pressure
(1) Endogenously produced meiospores (1) Develops due to active absorption of water
(2) Dikaryotic hyphae (2) Is negative hydrostatic pressure
(3) Coenocytic branched hyphae (3) Is effective in day time
(4) Well developed sex organs (4) Develops and effective in tall plants
112. Opposite phyllotaxy is seen in 119. Facilitated diffusion does not
(1) Mustard (2) Guava (1) Require proteins
(3) Alstonia (4) China rose (2) Depend on ATP
113. Select the wrong statement. (3) Occur from high to low concentration
(1) Mature bean seed lacks endosperm (4) Show saturation
(2) Aleurone layer are triploid in nature 120. The element which is major component of middle
(3) Maize and pea have perispermic seeds lamella is
(4) Coleoptile and coleorhiza are protective (1) Calcium (2) Sodium
sheath like structure in monocot seed (3) Manganese (4) Sulphur
114. The only living component of xylem tissue is 121. The pigment that appears yellow-green in
(1) Tracheid chromatogram is
(2) Vessel (1) Chlorophyll a (2) Xanthophyll
(3) Xylem sclerenchyma (3) Carotenoid (4) Chlorophyll b
(4) Ray parenchyma 122. The most crucial step of Calvin cycle
115. State true (T) or false (F) to the following (a) Is catalysed by RuBisCO
statements and select the correct option.
(b) Utilises NADPH
A. Protonema is juvenile stage of Riccia.
(c) Is called carboxylation
B. Mosses have elaborated mechanism of spore
Select the correct one (s).
dispersal.
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a) only
C. Bryophytes can serve as food source for
birds. (3) (a) and (c) (4) (c) only
(10)
123. The steps of Krebs cycle where decarboxylation 129. Which of the given features promotes
occurs are xenogamy?
(a) Pyruvic acid → Acetyl CoA (1) Dioecy (2) Cleistogamy
(b) Oxalosuccinic acid → α-KGA (3) Homogamy (4) Bud pollination
(c) Succinyl-CoA → Succinic acid 130. ________ are slightly different forms of a gene.
(d) α-KGA → Succinyl CoA Fill the above blank by choosing correct option.
(1) (a), (b) and (d) only (1) Alleles (2) True line
(2) (b), (c) and (d) only (3) Dominant factors (4) Cistron
(3) (b) and (d) only 131. A normal woman whose mother was colourblind
marries a haemophilic man. What are the
(4) All (a), (b), (c) and (d)
chances of colourblindness and haemophilia in
124. During ETS, FADH2 transfers reducing their children?
equivalents to
(1) 50% daughter colourblind as well as
(1) FMN (2) UQ
haemophilic
(3) Cyt a and a3 (4) Cyt c
(2) 50% son colourblind and 50% son normal
125. Which of the given functions is not under
(3) 50% daughter haemophilic and 50% son
influence of gibberellins?
normal
(1) Bolting in rosette plants
(4) All children are normal
(2) Enhancement of sugarcane yield
132. An example of monosomy is
(3) Breaking of dormancy of seed
(4) Induction of root hair development on stem
cutting (2) Down’s syndrome
126. Choose the plants that do not show any (3) Klinefelter’s syndrome
correlation between exposure to light duration (4) Edward’s syndrome
and induction of flowering response.
133. During replication, unwinding of DNA helix is
(1) Tomato (2) Soyabean performed by
(3) Wheat (4) Radish
(1) Helicase (2) Gyrase
127. All are pre-fertilization events, except
(3) Topoisomerase (4) Ligase
(1) Syngamy (2) Pollination
134. Select the wrong match.
(3) Gametogenesis (4) Gamete transfer
(1) RNA polymerase – Unwinds DNA during
128. Match the columns and select the correct option. transcription
Column-I Column-II (2) RNA polymerase III – Transcribes transfer
RNA
a. Apocarpous (i) 3 celled, 3 nucleate
gynoecium (3) RNA polymerase II – Transcribes 5S rRNA
(4) RNA polymerase I – Transcribes peptidyl
b. Egg apparatus (ii) Lotus
transferase
c. Syncarpous (iii) Haploid 135. Which one is a high yielding variety of rice?
gynoecium
(1) Sonalika (2) Himgiri
d. Embryo sac (iv) Papaver (3) Jaya (4) Atlas 66
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) SECTION-B
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) 136. Citric acid is produced by
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (1) Acetobacter aceti (2) Aspergillus niger
(4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (3) Lactobacillus (4) Penicillium
(11)
137. Which one is incorrectly matched? 143. Read the given statements and choose the
correct option.
(1) CAM pathway – Opuntia
Statement A: Steller’s sea cow became extinct
(2) Kangaroo rat – Fat oxidation
due to over exploitation.
(3) Seals – Fat blubber
Statement B: Carrot grass is a weed that
(4) Altitude sickness – Body decreases RBC exterminate many herbs and shrubs of the area
production to adapt where it grows.
138. Which one is not a biofertiliser? (1) Only statement A is correct
(1) Anabaena (2) Only statement B is correct
(2) Nostoc (3) Both statements A and B are correct

(3) Oscillatoria
144. Which of the following is/are correctly matched?
(4) Nucleopolyhedrovirus
a. Electrostatic precipitator – Have costly metals
139. All of the following are important roles of
like platinum
predators in ecosystem, except
b. Scrubber – Removes SO2 produced from
(1) Transfer energy across trophic levels industries
(2) Keep pray population under control c. Catalytic converters – Converts unburnt
(3) Result in extinction of prey by overexploiting hydrocarbons into CO2 and H2O
them (1) a only (2) a and b
(4) Maintain species diversity (3) b and c (4) All a, b and c
140. Find the wrong one w.r.t. productivity. 145. Eutrophication
(1) GPP is the available biomass for (1) Can be man made only
consumption to heterotroph (2) Refers to aging of water bodies by nutrient
enrichment of its water
(2) Annual NPP of whole biosphere is
approximately 170 billion tons of organic (3) Occurs due to discharge of pesticides in
matter water
(4) Leads to decrease in temperature of water
(3) Deserts and deep sea are some of the least
body
productive ecosystems
146. Tropospheric ozone
(4) GPP is rate of production of organic matter
(1) Is also called good ozone
by producers per unit area and time
(2) Is a secondary air pollutant
141. In an ecological pyramid
(3) Is a part of photochemical smog
(1) Food chain and food webs are accommodated
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(2) Detritivores occupy top most position
147. If 1000 J energy falls on plants then how much
(3) Insectivorous plants does not occupies any energy will be provided by frog to snake?
place
Plant → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake
(4) Saprophytes are placed at all trophic levels
(1) 1 J (2) 0.1 J
142. In IUCN red data book, which of the given animal (3) 0.01 J (4) 10 J
is placed under extinct category?
148. Plants that have archegonia inside ovule
(1) Dodo
(1) Lack vascular system
(2) Lion
(2) Are called archegoniate spermatophyte
(3) Tiger (3) Produce flowers
(4) Panda (4) Show double fertilization
(12)
149. Cells that enter G0 phase 150. Choose the example which is odd one w.r.t. haplo-
(1) Become metabolically inactive diplontic life cycle.
(2) Can never proliferate (1) Fucus

(2) Funaria
(3) Start duplicating its cell organelles
(3) Pteris
(4) Exit the G1 phase to enter into an inactive
phase (4) Ectocarpus
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 156. Select the odd one w.r.t. reproductive system of
151. Study the scientific names and common names male cockroach.
of certain animals given below. (1) A pair of testes lying one each lateral side in
Scientific Name Common Name 4th-6th abdominal segment
(a) Physalia – Sea fur (2) A characteristic mushroom shaped gland is

present in 6th-7th abdominal segments which
(b) Asterias – Brittle star function as an accessory reproductive gland
(c) Gorgonia – Sea pen (3) Male gonopore is situated dorsal to anus
(d) Loligo – Squid (4) Sperms are stored in seminal vesicles
Which of the above option are correct? 157. Study the list of biomolecules given below and
(1) (a) and (b) are correct choose the option that shows molecules with
(2) (b) and (c) are correct glycosidic linkages.
(3) (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect a. Glycogen b. Haemoglobin
(4) (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect c. Adenosine d. Lactose
152. How many among Chiton, Limulus, Chaetopleura e. Lecithin

and Nereis, exhibit true segmentation and close (1) Only a and b (2) Only b and c
circulatory system? (3) a, c, and d only (4) All a, b, c, d and e
(1) One (2) Two 158. All of the followings act as stimulus for excitation
(3) Three (4) Four of chemoreceptors for regulation of respiration,
except
153. Homeothermy is a feature shared by
(1) Fall in pO2 in arterial blood
(1) Neophron and Macaca
(2) Increase in pCO2
(2) Calotes and Felis
(3) Fall in pH
(3) Chelone and Crocodilia
(4) Increase in H+ ion concentration
(4) Bungarus and Betta
159. Choose the option which give the correct
154. Animals belonging to how many classes of
combination.
division Gnathostomata exhibit internal
fertilisation? (1) Chloride shift Occurs only at lungs alveoli
(1) One (2) Two level
(3) Three (4) Four (2) Haemoglobin Binds approximate 65% of
155. Striated muscles are present in all except oxygen in a healthy person
(1) Biceps (3) Vital capacity After deep inspiration
(2) Abdominal wall maximum expiration by lungs
(3) Myocardium (4) Respiratory Present in pons
(4) Urinary bladder wall rhythm centre
(13)
160. Match column-I with column-II and choose the 164. The first heart sound is A which is
correct option.
associated with B and the second heart
Column-I Column-II sound is C which is associated with D .
a. Sphincter of Oddi (i) Inhibits gastric secretion
Choose the option that correctly fill the blanks A,
and motility
B, C and D.
b. GIP (ii) Contains both smooth
A B C D
and striated muscles
(1) Lub Opening of Dub Closure of semilunar
c. Oesophagus (iii) Hepatopancreatic duct
AV valves valves
d. Hepatic lobules (iv) Structural and functional
unit of liver (2) Lub Opening of Dub Opening of
AV valves semilunar valves
(3) Lub Closure of Dub Closure of semilunar
AV valves valves
(4) Lub Closure of Dub Opening of
(4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
AV valves semilunar valves
161. Select the correct statement w.r.t. dentition of
human. 165. Select the incorrect explanation w.r.t.
(1) All teeth in humans are diphyodont and phase/event in cardiac cycle in a standard
thecodont electrocardiogram.
(2) Upper jaw contains 3 premolar and 2 molar (1) QRS complex indicates ventricular
teeth in adults depolarisation
(3) 8 premolar and 4 molar teeth come only once (2) The end of T-wave marks the end of
time in a life ventricular systole
(4) Incisor teeth are present in between canine (3) By counting the number of QRS complexes
and molar teeth in humans that occur in a given time, one can determine
162. Every 1000 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers the heart rate of an individual
approximately ______ ml of CO2 to the alveoli. (4) P wave indicates beginning of ventricular
Choose the option that fills the blank correctly. contraction
(1) 15 (2) 40 166. Which of the following substance in the
(3) 30 (4) 4 glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed passively?
163. A histogram representing volume of blood (1) Some nitrogenous wastes
existing in veins (V), arteries (A) and (2) Glucose
capillaries (C) in the human body at a particular
time. Identify the correct option. (3) Amino acids
(4) Na+
167. Choose the incorrect statement.
(1) Muscular tissue is mesodermal in origin
(1) (2)
(2) Macrophages and leucocytes in blood exhibit
amoeboid movement
(3) Passage of ova through the female
reproductive tract is facilitated by ciliary
movement
(3) (4)
(4) In humans about 20-30 percent of body
weight is contributed by muscles
(14)
168. The osmolarity of the glomerular filtrate in 175. Which of the following event increases when
a is less than 300 mOsmol/L. there is depolarisation of a nerve fibre?
Choose the option that correctly fills the blank a. (1) Influx of sodium ions into the neuron
(1) PCT (2) Influx of potassium ions into the neuron
(2) DCT (3) Diffusion of Cl– ions into the neurons
(3) Ascending limb of Henle’s loop (4) Diffusion of Ca+2 ions into the neurons
(4) Descending limb of loop of Henle 176. Choose the wrong statement.
169. Identify the disorder of skeletal system which is (1) The dorsal root ganglion contains pseudo-
associated with disturbance in purine unipolar neuron
metabolism. (2) In eye, lateral to the blind spot is a yellowish
(1) Tetany (2) Gout pigmented spot called fovea with a central pit
called macula lutea having greatest visual
(3) Myasthenia gravis (4) Osteoporosis
acuity
170. Number of true ribs are equal to number of
(3) The otolith organ of vestibular apparatus of
(1) False ribs (2) Facial bones inner ear consists of the utricle and saccule
(3) Carpals (4) Floating ribs (4) The association areas in cerebral cortex are
171. If the rise in blood volume/body fluid volume is regions that are neither clearly sensory nor
more than normal then motor in function
(1) Secretion of ADH increases 177. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option.
(2) Secretion of aldosterone increases
(A) The sizes of crow and parrot are not very
(3) Secretion of ANF decreases
distinct yet their life spans show a wide
(4) Secretion of mineralocorticoids decreases difference.
172. Select the correct secondary messenger for (B) Sexual reproduction is a biological process in
FSH. which an organism give rise to genetically
(1) cGMP (2) cAMP different young ones from itself.
(3) IP3 (4) DAG (1) Both statements are correct
173. Parasympathetic nervous system is not (2) Both statements are incorrect
responsible for (3) Only statement A is correct
(1) Increase in peristalsis movement (4) Only statement B is correct
(2) Contraction of urinary bladder 178. In humans, first cleavage division in zygote is
(3) Increase in force of contraction and stroke completed in which of the following region of
volume female genital tract?
(4) Increase gastric juice from gastric glands (1) Uterus
174. An example/s of antagonistic hormones (2) Infundibulum of oviduct

controlling homeostasis is/are (3) Isthmus region of fallopian tube
(a) Epinephrine and nor-epinephrine (4) Cervix
(b) TCT and PTH hormone 179. Complete the analogy
(c) Oxytocin and prolactin Leydig cells : Androgens :: Sertoli cells : ____
(d) Insulin and glucagon (1) Testosterone
Choose the correct option. (2) Inhibin
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (3) Prolactin
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (b) and (d) (4) Progesterone
(15)
180. All of the following are steps taken by SECTION-B

government to check the increasing population 186. In below given diagram of cloning vector pBR322
growth, except choose the option which includes only
(1) Motivating smaller families to adopt incorrectly labelled components w.r.t. site of
contraceptive method restriction endonuclease enzymes.
(2) National programme and slogans to check on

population growth
(3) Promotion of abortion if second pregnancy
occurs
(4) Promotion of tubectomy and vasectomy
181. Accessory reproductive gland in human male
which contributes 60% of semen’s total volume
is/are
(1) Prostate gland (2) Cowper’s gland
(3) Seminal vesicles (4) Bulbourethral gland
182. Among the following contraceptive methods, (1) Bam HI and Pst I
select one which has maximum average failure (2) Pst I and Pvu I
rate
(3) Pvu I and Pvu II
(1) Rhythm method (2) LNG-20 (4) EcoRI and Sal I
(3) Norplant (4) Mala-D 187. Anti-tetanus serum is included in
183. Finger like projections called chorionic villi are (1) Physical barrier of innate immunity
formed by
(1) Trophoblast
(3) Artificial passive immunity
(2) Uterine myometrium
(4) Natural active immunity
(3) Uterine endometrium
(4) Inner cell mass correct answer.
184. Select the correct matching w.r.t. PCR. (A) Excessive dose of cocaine causes
hallucination.
(1) Denaturation Occurs at 40°C
(B) Flavr Savr tomato remains fresh for longer
(2) Annealing Requires activity of Taq duration.
polymerase
(3) Extension Requires deoxy-nucleotides (2) Both statements are incorrect
(4) Primers (3) Only statement (A) is correct

Attach on 5′ end of single
DNA strand (4) Only statement (B) is correct
189. Which of the following characteristics is correct
185. 5′ − GGATCC − 3′ is the recognition site for the
for Neanderthal man?
action of restriction endonuclease enzyme
(1) Discovered fire
(1) Hind II
(2) Tool maker man
(2) Bam HI
(3) Prehistoric cave art
(3) EcoRI
(4) Used hides as clothing and had burial
(4) Sma I customs
(16)
190. Which among the following is an example of 196. Read the following statements and choose the
adaptive convergence? correct answer.
(1) Tendrils of Cucurbita and thorn of A. The collagen fibres provide strength,
Bougainvillea elasticity and flexibility in all kinds of
connective tissue.
(2) Koala and marsupial wolf
B. In areolar connective tissue, the fibroblasts
(3) Darwin’s finches secrete modified polysaccharides, which
(4) Flying phalanger and flying squirrel accumulate between cells and fibres and act
as ground substance.
191. Fluid filled cavity called antrum is associated with
(1) Primordial follicle
(2) Primary follicle
(3) Only statements A is correct
(3) Secondary follicle (4) Only statement B is correct
(4) Tertiary follicle 197. Select the correct statement w.r.t. Exocoetus.
192. The hyperproduction of GH before puberty result (1) It is a viviparous animal
in a condition known as
(2) It contains 6-15 pairs of gill slits for
(1) Acromegaly respiration
(2) Gigantism (3) It possesses bony cranium and vertebral
column
(3) Cretinism
(4) It belongs to super class tetrapoda
(4) Dwarfism
198. Choose the mismatch w.r.t. digestive glands.
193. In MOET, the fertilised eggs at celled stage
are recovered non-surgically and transferred to (1) Liver – Largest gland of the body
surrogate mother.
(2) Gall bladder – Cystic duct
Choose the option that correctly fills the blank.
(3) Salivary – Situated inside the
(1) 5-8 glands buccal cavity
(2) 8-32
(4) Instestinal – Secrete succus entericus
(3) 32-64 gland
(4) 1-2
199. Every 1000 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers
194. Evolution of DDT resistant mosquito is best approximately
explained by which category of natural selection? (1) 5 ml of O2 to the alveoli
(1) Stabilising selection (2) Directional selection (2) 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli
(3) Disruptive selection (4) Balancing selection (3) 40 ml of CO2 to the alveoli
195. Which of the following disease is associated with (4) 50 ml of O2 to the alveoli
cattles? 200. In human heart, the pericardium is present
(1) Anthrax (1) Outside the myocardium
(2) Ranikhet (2) Inside the endocardium
(3) Pebrine (3) Between myocardium and endocardium
(4) New castle disease (4) Inside the myocardium
  
(17)
Edition: 2020-21
30/08/2021 CODE-A
CST – 15
Instructions:
PHYSICS
SECTION-A 3. What is approximately the ratio of nuclear radii of
197 108
1. In a zener regulated power supply, a zener diode gold isotope 79 Au and silver isotope 47 Ag
with Vz = 6 V is used for regulation. The load
current is 5 mA and unregulated input is 10 V (1) 1.23 (2) 2.47
(as shown). The value of series resistance (R) (3) 2.52 (4) 3.72
required is 238
4. The half life of 92 U undergoing α-decay is
1.42 × 1017 s. What is activity (initial) of 1 gm of
the sample.
(1) 1.2 × 102 s–1 (2) 1.96 × 103 s–1
(3) 1.23 × 104 s–1 (4) 4.5 × 1012 s–1
5. The work function of caesium metal is 2.15 eV.
(1) 130 Ω (2) 160 Ω When light of frequency 6 × 1014 Hz is incident on
(3) 150 Ω (4) 240 Ω metal surface, photoemission occurs. Maximum
2. Two amplifiers are connected one after other in kinetic energy of emitted photon electron will be
series. The first amplifier has voltage gain of 15 (1) 1.52 × 10–19 J
and second has voltage gain of 20. If input signal
voltage is 0.3 V, the output signal voltage is (2) 0.54 × 10–19 J
(1) 100 V (2) 105 V (3) 3.2 × 10–19 J
(3) 90 V (4) 9 V (4) 4.68 × 10–20 J
(1)
6. A bus is moving on a straight road with speed of 12. The radius of earth is 6400 km. At what depth
20 m/s. A man is driving a car behind bus in below the surface of earth the acceleration due to
same direction. The driver of car observes bus to gravity decreases by 2% than on surface of
be moving at a speed of 10 m/s. The speed of earth.
car may be
(1) 32 km (2) 128 km
(1) 10 m/s (2) 20 m/s
(3) 256 km (4) 64 km
(3) 30 m/s (4) Both (1) and (3)
13. What is depth of lake at which density of water is
7. Acceleration of a particle starting from rest varies
2% greater than that at surface. Compressibility
with time (t) according to relation a = αt + β
of water is 25 × 10–6/atm.
(α and β are positive constant). The velocity v of
particle as a function of time is given as. (1) 1 km (2) 2 km
(3) 4 km (4) 8 km
αt 2 + β
(1) v = (2) v = αt2 + βt
2 14. A wire is stretched by 1 mm by a force of 1 kN.
How long would a wire of same material and
αt 2
(3) =
v + βt (4) v = αt2 + 2βt length but of four times radius be stretched by
2
same force.
8. A car is moving on circular track of radius 150 m
1 1
and at some time its speed is decreasing at a (1) mm (2) mm
rate of 8 m/s2, if the speed of car at that instant 2 4
was 30 m/s, net acceleration of the car will be 1 1
(3) mm (4) mm
(1) 8 m/s2 (2) 6 m/s2 8 16
(3) 10 m/s2 (4) 14 m/s2 15. Calculate velocity of flow of an ideal fluid in the
9. Two blocks A and B of masses 2m and m lower branch of the tube shown.
respectively are connected by a massless spring
of stiffness constant k. At the instant shown,
there is force acting, on 2m, equal to F and
acceleration of mass m is 'a' towards left. The
acceleration of 2m at that instant is
2F + 2ma F + 2ma
(1) (2)
3m 3m
(1) 16 m/s (2) 32 m/s
F − ma F + ma
(3) (4) (3) 35 m/s (4) 18 m/s
2m 2m
10. A small ball is dropped from a height of 10 m on 16. A diatomic gas (γ = 1.4) does 60 J of work when
horizontal floor. If the coefficient of restitution it is expanded isobarically. The heat given to gas
between ground and ball is 0.5 then maximum in the process is
height to which ball will rise after second collision (1) 210 J
with ground is
(2) 240 J
(1) 10 cm (2) 62.5 cm
(3) 160 J
(3) 105 cm (4) 16 cm
(4) 170 J
11. A motor is used to deliver water at a certain rate
from a given pipe. To obtain 3 times water from 17. An ideal heat engine operates between 227ºC
same pipe in same time, by what factor should and 127ºC. It absorbs 5 kcal of heat at higher
power of the motor be increased. temperature. What is heat rejected to sink.
(1) 9 times (2) 6 times (1) 4 kcal (2) 3.6 kcal
(3) 8 times (4) 27 times (3) 4.6 kcal (4) 3.2 kcal
(2)
18. Time period of oscillation of light springs system (1) 4 V (2) 8 V

shown in figure will be (Mass of block is 2 kg and (3) –6 V (4) –4 V
spring constant of each spring is 600 N/m)
24. A charge Q is placed at a distance 'a' vertically
above the one corner of a square plate of side a
as shown in figure. The electric flux through
square plate will be
(1) 0.61 s (2) 0.21 s
(3) 0.42 s (4) 1.36 s
19. One mole of hydrogen gas at temperature T is
mixed with one mole of helium gas at
temperature 2T in an isolated vessel. The
equilibrium temperature of the gas mixture is
11 5
(1) T (2) T
8 4
3 7
(3) T (4) T
2 5 Q Q
(1) (2)
20. When a stretched wire and a tuning fork are ε0 24ε0
sounded together 5 beats per second are heard
in both cases, when the lengths of stretched wire Q Q
(3) (4)
were 100 cm or 95 cm in fundamental mode with 8ε0 12ε0
same tension. Then frequency of tuning fork is 25. The velocity of the image when mirror and object
(Hz) are moving with velocities as shown in figure, will
(1) 105 (2) 100 be
(3) 175 (4) 195
21. The fourth overtone of an open organ pipe has
the same frequency as the second overtone of a
close pipe of length L. The length of open pipe
will be.
(1) −3iˆ + 3 jˆ m/s (2) −iˆ + 3 ˆj m/s
(1) L (2) 2L
(3) −2iˆ + 6 ˆj m/s (4) −5iˆ + 3 jˆ m/s
L
(3) 4L (4) 26. A convex lens and a concave lens of focal
2
lengths 15 cm and 20 cm respectively are placed
22. Three equal charges Q each are placed at the in contact with each other. When an object is
vertices of an equilateral triangle of side l. How placed at 60 cm from the combination, image is
much work has to be done in bringing them formed at
l (1) 60 cm (2) 30 cm
closer to an equilateral triangle of side .
2 (3) 120 cm (4) Infinity
2 2
3Q 3Q 27. A ray of light is incident on a glass sphere of
(1) (2)
8πε0 l 4πε0 l refractive index 3 at an angle 60º as shown in
figure. The angle by which it is deviated as it
Q2 Q2 comes out of sphere is
(3) (4)
4πε0 l 2πε0 l
23. In the given figure, the potential of point M is
(1) 30º (2) 90º

(3) 45º (4) 60º
(3)
28. Three rods of same dimensions have thermal 34. With the fall in temperature, the electric
conductivities k, 2k, and 3k. They are arranged conductivity of intrinsic semiconductors
as shown in figure with their ends at 100ºC, 40ºC (1) Increases
and 0ºC. The temperature of their junction is (2) Decreases
(3) First decreases and then increases
(4) Remains same
35. The combination of gates shown below is
(1) 40ºC (2) 50ºC

(1) AND gate (2) NAND gates
(3) 60ºC (4) 30ºC
(3) OR gate (4) XOR gate
29. An electron is accelerated by a potential
SECTION-B
difference of V volt to acquire kinetic energy
equal to maximum kinetic energy of ejected 36. A battery is connected to a circular wire loop,
what is ratio of magnetic field produced at the
photoelectron from a metal of work function
centre due to arc ACB and arc ADB
3.2 eV, using a light of wavelength 2000 Å. Value
of V is
(1) 1 volt (2) 2 volt
(3) 3 volt (4) 5 volt
30. In a spectrum of hydrogen atom, the ratio of
shortest wavelength in Lyman series to longest
wavelength in Paschen series is
1 9
(1) (2)
9 1 (1) 5 : 1 (2) 1 : 5
(3) 6 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
136 7
(3) (4) 37. A beam of electrons is moving with constant
7 144
velocity in a region having electric and magnetic
31. A freshly prepared radioactive sample having half fields of strengths 20 V/m and 0.5 T respectively
life 4 hours, emits radiation of intensity which is at right angles to direction of electron. What is
64 times the permissible level. The minimum time velocity of the electron.
in hours after which it is safe to work with the (1) 20 m/s (2) 40 m/s
source will be (3) 5 m/s (4) 8 m/s
(1) 20 hours (2) 24 hours 38. A galvanometer has a coil of resistance 20 Ω and
its full scale deflection current is 9 A. Value of
(3) 16 hours (4) 28 hours shunt resistance that should be connected with it
32. A person can see clearly beyond a distance of so that it can read a maximum of 99 A current, is
40 cm. He wants to read a book placed at 25 cm (1) 10 Ω (2) 2 Ω
from his eyes. What is power of lens of his (3) 1 Ω (4) 9 Ω
spectacles required? 39. A small circular loop of radius a is placed inside a
(1) 2 D (2) 1.5 D circular loop of radius b (b > > a). The loops are
coplanar and concentric. The mutual inductance
(3) 1.66 D (4) 2.5 D of the system is proportional to
33. Two nuclei have their mass numbers in the ratio a2 a
of 1 : 27. The ratio of their volume is (1) (2)
b b2
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 27 a
(3) (4) a × b
(3) 9 : 1 (4) 27 : 1 b
(4)
40. In the given figure, charge stored in capacitor in 45. Which of the following is not possible value of
steady state will be radius of stable orbit of hydrogen atom. Where λ
is de Broglie wavelength of the electron.
λ 3λ
(1) (2)
2π 4π
3λ λ
(3) (4)
2π π
(1) 32 µC (2) 16 µC 46. A particle is moving with uniform speed v on a

circle of radius R. The magnitude of change in
(3) 24 µC (4) 8 µC
acceleration of the particle in going from P1 to P2
41. To obtain displacement current of 0.2 A between is
the plates of a capacitor of capacity 0.5 µF the
rate of change of potential difference between
the plates should be
(1) 4 × 105 V/s (2) 105 V/s
(3) 8 × 105 V/s (4) 2 × 105 V/s
v2
42. In the following circuit the current through 2 Ω (1) Zero (2)
R
resistor is (ideal diode)
2v 2 2v 2
(3) (4)
R R
47. For a particle projected with speed of 20 m/s
from ground, the kinetic energy at top most point
 1
of trajectory is   th of the initial kinetic energy.
4
(1) 1.2 A (2) 0.6 A The angle of projection from horizontal is
(3) 0.8 A (4) 1.25 A (1) 30º (2) 60º
43. Intensity of central maxima in Young’s double slit (3) 45º (4) 37º
experiment is found to be 20 units. Then intensity 
at a point where phase difference between 48. Vector A has magnitude of 5 unit directed along

π east, then vector 6 A
identical interfering waves is is
2 (1) Has magnitude 6 unit along East
44. Two beams A and B of plane polarised light with (4) Has magnitude 6 unit towards West
mutually perpendicular planes of polarisation are 49.Position of particle during motion is expressed as
seen through a polaroid from the position where 
=r ( 5t 2 iˆ + 3t ˆj ) m. The magnitude of acceleration
beam A has maximum intensity. A rotation of
of particle at t = 0, is
polaroid through 60º makes two beams appears
equally intense. If initial intensities of two beams (1) 10 m/s2 (2) 12 m/s2
I (3) 15 m/s2 (4) 0 m/s2
is IA and IB then A equals
IB 50. If velocity (v), time (T) and mass (M) are taken as
3 fundamental quantities, then dimensional formula
(1) 3 (2) for gravitational potential would be.
2
(1) [MvT0] (2) [Mv2T0]
2
(3) (4) 9
3 (3) [M0v2T0] (4) [M–2vT0]
(5)
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 59. SI unit of viscosity coefficient is
51. If mass percentage of sulphur in a biomolecule (1) N s m–1 (2) N m–2
0.02% then the number of sulphur atoms present (3) N s m–2 (4) N s–1 m–1
in 16 g of biomolecule is
60. A gas is allowed to expand in an insulated
(1) 3.01 × 1020 (2) 6.02 × 1019 container against a constant external pressure of
(3) 6.02 × 1021 (4) 3.01 × 1022 4 atm from the initial volume of 1.8 L to a final
volume of 5.2 L. The change in internal energy of
52. Number of radial nodes and angular nodes
the gas is
present in 5d orbital respectively are
(1) –3.25 kJ (2) –4.21 kJ
(1) 2 and 2 (2) 2 and 3
(3) –1.38 kJ (4) –6.25 kJ
(3) 3 and 2 (4) 2 and 5
61. Which among the following is an aromatic
53. Which among the following has lowest value of
species?
negative electron gain enthalpy?
(1) Li (2) O
(1) (2)
(3) F (4) Cl
54. Which among the following has highest bond
order? (3) (4)
(1) O2+ (2) NO+ 62. IUPAC name of the given compound is
(3) C2 (4) O2−
55. Shortest bond length among the following is of

(1) C – H (2) O – H
(3) C – N (4) N – O (1) 1-Ethyl-4-fluoro-3-nitrobenzene
56. If density of a gas in closed cylinder is 3.5 gL–1 at (2) 5-Ethyl-2-fluoro-1-nitrobenzene
4.1 atm pressure and 127°C temperature then (3) 4-Ethyl-1-fluoro-2-nitrobenzene
molar mass of the gas will be
(4) 3-Ethyl-6-fluoro-1-nitrobenzene
(R = 0.082 L atm K–1 mol–1)
(1) 32 g mol–1 (2) 28 g mol–1 occur is
(3) 40 g mol–1 (4) 46 g mol–1
(1) (2)
57. Ratio of root mean square speed of O2 at
200 K and N2 at 400 K will be
(3) (4)
(1) 3 : 2 7 (2) 7:4
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1: 2 2
(a) Anthracene contains 14 π electrons
58. Consider the following reaction at equilibrium
(b) Phenol is reduced to cyclohexane by passing
PCl5 (g)  PCl3 (g) + Cl2(g). If some amount of its vapours over heated zinc dust
argon gas is added to the reaction mixture at (c) Benzene on reaction with acetyl chloride in
constant pressure then presence of anhydrous AlCl3 forms
(1) Dissociation of PCl5 increases acetophenone
(2) Formation of PCl5 increases The correct statements are
(3) There is no effect on equilibrium (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(4) Equilibrium constant value increases (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
(6)
65. The compound which will react fastest by SN1 70. Consider the following reaction sequence
mechanism is
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

Major product C is
Cu dilute NaOH
CH3 CH2OH 
573 K
→ A → ∆
B (major)
Major product B is
(1) (2)
O
||
(1) CH3 CH2 − C − CH3
O
||
(2) CH3 CH= CH − C − H
(3) CH3COONa+
(3) (4)
OH
|
(4) CH3 − CH2 − CH− CH3
67. Most acidic compound among the following is 71. The compound which does not reduce Tollens’
reagent is
(1) Glucose
(1) (2) (2) Benzaldehyde
(3) Fructose
(4) Sucrose
72. Which of the following amino acids contain
sulphur atom?
(3) (4)
(1) Serine (2) Tyrosine
(3) Histidine (4) Cysteine
68. Major product obtained on reaction of sodium 73. Monomer of neoprene is

phenoxide with CO2 followed by acidic hydrolysis (1) CH2 = CH − C = CH2
|
is
CH3
(2) CH2 = CH – CN
Cl
(3) 3-Hydroxybenzoic acid |
(3) CH2 =C − CH =CH2
(4) Benzoic acid
69. The compound which does not give yellow (4) Ph – CH = CH2
precipitate on reaction with NaOI is 74. Iproniazid is used as a/an
(1) Acetone (1) Antihistamine drug
(2) Acetaldehyde (2) Tranquilizer
(3) Isopropanol (3) Antipyretic drug
(4) Formaldehyde (4) Antibiotic
(7)
75. When benzene diazonium fluoroborate is heated 82. Bond order of Cl – O bond in ClO−4 is
with aqueous sodium nitrite solution in the
presence of copper then the product formed is (1) 2 (2) 1.5
(3) 1.33 (4) 1.75
83. Most common oxidation state of vanadium is
(1) (2) (1) +2 (2) +3
(3) +4 (4) +5
84. Which metal is most easily oxidised to its divalent
metal cation?
(1) Cr (2) Mn
(3) (4) (3) Co (4) Zn
85. Spin only magnetic moment value of [Mn(CN)6]3–
76. SF4 is isostructural with ion is
(1) 2.83 BM (2) 3.87 BM
(1) XeF4 (2) SO24−
(3) 4.9 BM (4) 1.73 BM
(3) XeO2F2 (4) [ICI4]– SECTION-B
77. Which among the following is an oxide ore of 86. Which among the following is not an outer orbital
metal? complex?
(1) Zincite (2) Sphalerite (1) [Co(C2O4)3]3– (2) [MnCl6]3–
(3) Calamine (4) Copper glance (3) [FeF6]3– (4) [CoF6]3–
78. The metal which is refined by liquation is 87. IUPAC name of the given compound is
K3[Cr(C2O4)3]
(1) Zn (2) Sn
(1) Potassium trioxalatochromium(III)
(3) In (4) Ni
(2) Potassium trioxalatochromate(III)
(3) Potassium trioxalatochromate(IV)
(a) In acidic medium nitrous acid disproportionate (4) Potassium trioxalatochromium(IV)
to nitric acid and nitrogen gas
88. The enzyme which converts starch to maltose is
(b) Ammonium nitrate on heating gives nitrous
(1) Diastase (2) Zymase
oxide
(3) Maltase (4) Invertase
(c) N – N bond is present both in N2O3 and N2O4
89. In whipped cream, the dispersed phase and
gases
dispersion medium respectively are
The correct statements are (1) Liquid and liquid (2) Gas and liquid
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only (3) Liquid and gas (4) Liquid and solid
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) 90. If rate constant of a first order reaction is
80. Product which is not obtained on the reaction of 2.31 × 10–3 s–1 and initial concentration of the
white phosphorous with thionyl chloride is reactant is 1.6 M then the rate of the reaction
after second half life period will be
(1) PCl3 (2) SO2
(1) 4.6 × 10–3 M s–1 (2) 2.5 × 10–2 M s–1
(3) S2Cl2 (4) POCl3 (3) 7.5 × 10–3 M s–1 (4) 9.2 × 10–4 M s–1
81. Correct order of boiling point of the given 91. A hydrogen gas electrode is made by dipping
compounds is platinum wire in a solution of HCl of pH = 4 and
(1) HI > HF > HBr > HCl passing hydrogen gas around the platinum wire
at one atm pressure and at 298 K. The reduction
(2) HF > HCl > HI > HBr potential of the hydrogen electrode would be
(3) HF > HI > HBr > HCl (1) – 0.059 V (2) – 0.118 V
(4) HI > HBr > HCl > HF (3) – 0.177 V (4) – 0.236 V
(8)
92. Correct order of limiting molar conductivity of the 97. Consider the following statements
given ions at 298 K is (a) Density of sodium is more than potassium.
− −
(1) Br > Cl > OH −
(2) OH > Cl > Br − (b) Potassium carbonate is manufactured by
Solvay process
(3) Cl− > Br − > OH (4) OH > Br − > Cl−
(c) LiNO3 evolves NO2 gas on heating but
93. If AgCl is doped with 10–6 mol% of CdCl2, the NaNO3 does not
concentration of cation vacancies will be The correct statement(s) is/are
(1) 6.02 × 1017 mol–1 (2) 6.02 × 1016 mol–1 (1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only
(3) 6.02 × 1015 mol–1 (4) 6.02 × 1018 mol–1 (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
94. If 0.2 m aqueous solution of K4[Fe(CN)6] is 100% 98. Which among the following does not exist?
ionised then the freezing point of the solution will (1) SiF62− (2) [Sn(OH)6]2–
be (Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1)
(3) [GeCl6]2– (4) [SiCl6]2–
(1) – 3.21°C (2) –1.86°C
99. In Carius method of estimation of halogens, 0.5 g
(3) 1.86°C (4) –0.37°C of an organic compound gave 0.376 g of AgBr.
95. Which among the following does not The percentage of bromine in the compound is
disproportionate in alkaline medium? (Atomic mass of Ag = 108 u and Br = 80 u)
(1) 16% (2) 48%
(1) F2 (2) Cl2
(3) 64% (4) 32%
(3) S8 (4) P4
100. The molar solubility of Agl (Ksp = 8.3 × 10–17) in
96. Metallic hydride among the following is 0.1 M KI solution will be
(1) NaH (2) LiH (1) 8.3 × 10–16 M (2) 8.3 × 10–8 M
(3) CrH (4) MgH2 (3) 8.3 × 10–15 M (4) 8.3 × 10–17 M
BOTANY
SECTION-A 104. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex occurs in
101. Which of the given cell organelles do not contain (1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene
DNA? (3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene
A. Mitochondria B. Chloroplast 105. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. taxonomic
C. Golgi complex D. Lysosome categories of wheat.
The correct ones are (1) Family – Poaceae

(2) Order – Monocotyledonae
(1) A and B (2) A and C
(3) Division – Angiospermae
(3) B and C (4) C and D
(4) Genus – Triticum
102. Which of the given chromosomes appear
106. Rules of scientific naming of animals is assigned
L-shaped during anaphase?
in
(1) Metacentric (2) Sub-metacentric
(1) ICBN (2) ICNCP
(3) Acrocentric (4) Telocentric
(3) ICZN (4) ICNB
103. What will be the DNA content at the end of 107. Bacteria are the sole members of which of the
S-phase of cell if its meiotic products have 8 pg given kingdom w.r.t Whittaker’s kingdoms system
of DNA in each cell? of classification?
(1) 8 pg (2) 16 pg (1) Monera (2) Protista
(3) 4 pg (4) 32 pg (3) Fungi (4) Animalia
(9)
108. The parasitic fungi on mustard causing white rust 116. Active transport differs from facilitated transport
of leaves is as the former
(1) Phytophthora (2) Albugo (1) Requires special membrane protein
(3) Pythium (4) Colletotrichum (2) Is highly selective
109. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. cymose (3) Shows response to protein inhibitors
inflorescence. (4) Is ATP dependent
(1) Peduncle terminates into a flower 117. Deficiency of which of the given sets of elements
(2) Shoot axis continues to grow indefinitely causes necrosis?
(3) Flowers are borne in a basipetal order (1) N, S and Fe (2) N, S and Mo
(4) It can be seen in Begonia and Teak (3) Ca, Mg, Cu and K (4) Zn, Mo, Fe, S
110. Which of the given symbols represents 118. Which of the given prokaryotes fixes nitrogen
epipetalous stamens? symbiotically as well as in free living state?
  (1) Rhizobium (2) Thiobacillus

(1) C A (2) P A
(3) Anabaena (4) Azotobacter
(3) A ∞ (4) K(n) 119. How many ATPs are consumed to fix one
111. Vascular bundles are conjoint and open in molecule of CO2 in C3 pathway?
(1) Dicot root (2) Dicot stem (1) Two (2) Three
(3) Monocot stem (4) Monocot root (3) Eighteen (4) Twelve
112. Refer the given statements and select the 120. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t.
correct option. Photosystem II.
Statement A : Cork cambium is also called the (1) The reaction centre is P680
extrastelar cambium. (2) It occurs on the inner surface of the
thylakoids
Statement B : Phelloderm develops during
secondary growth. (3) It is found in both grana and stroma lamellae
(1) Only statement A is correct (4) It is involved only in non-cyclic flow of
electrons
121. Which of the given organic molecules have RQ
less than unity?
A. Fat B. Oxalic acid
113. How many of the given plants has/have
C. Protein D. Carbohydrate
archegonia and produce(s) seeds in their life-
cycle? (1) A and B (2) B and C
(3) C and D (4) A and C
Marchantia, Cedrus, Ginkgo, Funaria, Pinus,
Mustard, Sunflower 122. Conversion of glucose to glucose 6-phosphate in
EMP pathway is catalysed by
(1) Two (2) Three (1) Aldolase
(3) Five (4) One (2) Phosphofructokinase
114. Which of the given is a red alga? (3) Enolase
(1) Chara (2) Volvox (4) Hexokinase
(3) Polysiphonia (4) Ulothrix 123. Which of the given plants do not show any
115. Water channels are made up of how many correlation between exposure to light duration
different types of aquaporins? and induction of flowering response?
(1) Eight (2) Four (1) Tomato (2) Tobacco
(3) Five (4) Twenty (3) Wheat (4) Radish
(10)
124. Cells in the meristematic phase exhibits all of the 132. In which genetic condition, each cell in the
given characteristics, except affected person, has only one sex chromosome
i.e., XO?
(1) Dense protoplasm
(2) High respiration rate
(2) Thalassemia
(3) Presence of large nucleus
(3) Colourblindness
(4) Increased vacuolation
125. Which one of the following is correctly matched.
133. In Mendelian dihybrid cross, out of 240
(1) Water hyacinth – Conidia individuals obtained in F2 generation, how many
(2) Banana – Offset of the offsprings would be pure homozygous?
(3) Chlamydomonas – Zoospores (1) 60 (2) 30
(4) Ginger – Sucker (3) 120 (4) 40
126. Which of the given algae produces isogametes? 134. In the structure of polynucleotide chain,
phosphoester linkage joins
(1) Cladophora (2) Fucus
(1) Two complementary nitrogenous bases
(3) Volvox (4) Chara
(2) A phosphate group to nucleoside
127. Cells of innermost layer of anther
(3) Two hexose sugars
(1) Have α-cellulosic fibrous band
(4) Nitrogenous base and pentose sugar
(2) Do not degenerate
135. During post-transcriptional processing, ______ is
(3) Nourish the developing pollen grains added to the 5′ – end of hnRNA.
(4) Help in dehiscence of anther Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
128. Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils (1) Adenylate residues
because of the presence of (2) Methyl guanosine triphosphate
(1) Sporopollenin (2) Cellulose (3) Adenosine monophosphate
(3) Pectin (4) Both (2) and (3) (4) Deoxythymidine
129. Wind-pollinated flowers show all of the given SECTION-B
characteristics, except
136. Select the odd one w.r.t stop codons.
(1) Pollen grains are light and non-sticky
(1) AUG (2) UAA
(2) Flowers have well-exposed stamens
(3) UAG (4) UGA
(3) Flowers have large feathery stigma
137. In human genome, chromosome 1 has A
(4) Pollen grains are generally surrounded by
genes and the Y has B genes.
mucilaginous covering
130. Which of the given traits of pea plants selected Select he correct option to fill in the blanks A
by Mendel expresses itself only in homozygous and B.
condition? (1) A – 231, B – 2968 (2) A – 2968, B – 231
(1) Round seed (2) White flower (3) A – 123, B – 2698 (4) A – 2698, B – 123
(3) Inflated pod (4) Axial flower 138. Recovery of healthy plants from diseased plants
is possible by
131. How many types of gametes can be produced by
a diploid organism, if it is heterozygous for three (1) Protoplast culture
locus? (2) Embryo culture
(1) 3 (2) 8 (3) Meristem culture
(3) 9 (4) 6 (4) Both (1) and (2)
(11)
139. Pusa Shubhra is bred by hybridisation and 144. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t
selection for resistance to black rot and curl blight anthropogenic ecosystem.
black rot is a variety of (1) It possess self regulatory mechanism
(1) Wheat (2) It have little diversity
(2) Brassica (3) Simple food chain is present in it

(4) It shows high productivity
(3) Chilli
145. Which of the given is not seral community w.r.t.
(4) Cauliflower
xerarch succession?
140. Match column-I with column-II and select the (A) Lichens (B) Bryophytes
correct option
(C) Herbs (D) Forest
Column-I Column-II (1) Only (A)
(2) Both (B) and (C)
a. Cyclosporin A (i) Blood-cholesterol
lowering agent (3) Both (A) and (D)
(4) Only (C)
b. Statins (ii) Clot buster
146 The effect of reduction in biodiversity has been
c. Streptokinase (iii) Immunosuppressive explained through Rivet popper hypothesis by
agent (1) Alexander von Humboldt
(2) Paul Ehrlich
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)
(3) Robert May
(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
(4) David Tilman
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)
147 Which of the following is an example of organism
(4) b(iii), b(ii), c(i) that has recently become extinct in Africa?
141. The technology of biogas production was (1) Dodo
developed in India mainly due to the efforts of (2) Thylacine
(1) IARI (3) Steller’s sea cow
(2) KVIC (4) Quagga
(3) Ministry of Environment and Forest 148 Biomagnification is found to be maximum in

which of the given organisms of an aquatic food
(4) Both (1) and (2) chain?
142. Which of the given refers to number of deaths in (1) Zooplankton
the population during a given period? (2) Small fish
(1) Natality (3) Large fish
(2) Mortality (4) Fish-eating birds
(3) Immigration 149 Ramesh Chandra Dagar is associated with
(4) Emigration (1) Remedy to plastic waste

(2) Integrated organic farming
143. Epiphytes growing on mango tree is an example
of which of the given population interaction? (3) Chipko Movement
(4) Appiko Movement
(1) Commensalism
150 How many meiotic divisions are required to
(2) Mutualism
produce 100 seeds in a typical flowering plant?
(3) Amensalism (1) 25 (2) 100
(4) Competition (3) 50 (4) 125
(12)
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 155. The below given figures (a) and (b) are included
151. Select the correct option w.r.t. animals and their in connective tissue. Select the correct option
characteristics. w.r.t. figures (a) and (b).
Animals Characteristics
(1) Pennatula – Exhibit metagenesis
(2) Asterias – Possess water canal

system
(3) Pleurobrachia – Exhibit internal

(1) (a) is included in dense regular connective
fertilisation
tissue
(4) Chiton – Possess calcareous (2) (b) allows compression and is present in
exoskeleton limbs
152. Among Aedes, Limulus, Pheretima, Ancylostoma, (3) In humans (a) is considered as haemopoietic
Antedon, how many possess true coelom, organ
segmentation and closed circulatory system? (4) (b) interact with skeletal muscles that are
attached to them to bring about movement
(1) One
156. Inner lining of ducts of salivary gland and
(2) Two
pancreatic duct consists of
(3) Three
(1) Simple squamous epithelium
(4) Four (2) Simple columnar epithelium
153. Choose the correct statements w.r.t. chordates. (3) Compound epithelium
(1) All chordates possess notochord in adult as (4) Ciliated epithelium
well as in embryonic stage
157. Select the hormone of adrenal cortex which is
(2) In all chordates, the dorsal hollow nerve responsible for hyperglycaemia.
chord is replaced by brain and spinal cord (1) Aldosterone (2) Epinephrine
(3) Heart is ventral in all chordates without any (3) Cortisol (4) Sex corticoids
exception
158. Which lobe of pituitary is connected to
(4) Post anal tail is present in adult stage also, in hypothalamus through hypophyseal portal
some chordates system?
154. Read the following statements and choose the (1) Neurohypophysis
correct answer. (2) Adenohypophysis
A. The amphibians possess eyelids and (3) Pars nervosa
tympanum represents ear in them
(4) Posterior lobe of pituitary
B. Animals which possess paired and unpaired 159. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. hormone and
fins are included in super class Pisces its action.
(1) Both statements A and B are correct (1) PRL – Acts on mammary gland
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect (2) MSH – Acts on melanocytes
(3) Only statement A is correct (3) ACTH – Acts on adrenal gland
(4) Only statement B is correct (4) GnRH – Acts on gonads
(13)
160. Match the column I with column II and choose 166. Filtration slits or slit pores are spaces maintained
the correct answer. by
(1) Podocytes in parietal layer of Bowman's
a. Limbic system (i) Thirst centre
capsule
b. Hypothalamus (ii) Emotional brain (2) Renal pyramids in medullary region
c. Medulla (iii) Major coordinating (3) Cells of glomerular capillary

oblongata centre for sensory and (4) Podocytes in visceral layer of Bowman's
motor impulses capsule
167. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. type of WBCs
d. Thalamus (iv) Vomiting centre
and their percentage of total WBC count.
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (1) Eosinophils – 2-3%
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) Neutrophils – 60-65%
161. Vestibular apparatus contains (3) Basophils – 0.5-1%
(1) Semicircular canals and cochlea (4) Monocytes – 20-25%
(2) Semicircular canals and otolith organ 168. During ventricular systole
(3) Otolith membrane and cochlea A. Blood gets filled in atria.

B. AV valves remain close.
(4) Middle ear and cochlea
C. 70 ml blood is pumped by each ventricle.
162. Hexoses are rapidly absorbed across the wall of
the small intestine into capillaries which finally (1) A and B are correct, C is incorrect
drain them into (2) B and C are correct, A is incorrect
(1) Hepatic artery (2) Hepatic portal vein (3) A and C are correct, B is incorrect
(3) Hepatic vein (4) Carotid vein (4) All of these are correct
163. Which of the following respiratory capacity 169. Common passage for bile and pancreatic juice is
includes residual volume? (1) Duct of Wirsung
(1) TLC (2) VC (2) Hepato-pancreatic duct
(3) IC (4) EC (3) Duct of Santorini
164. Given below is a list of some structures of human (4) Cystic duct
respiratory system in a box. 170. Even in presence of ADH, the maximum
reabsorption of water occurs in
Primary bronchi, Trachea, Terminal bronchiole,
(1) DCT (2) PCT
Respiratory bronchiole
(3) Loop of Henle (4) Collecting duct
How many of them do not possess incomplete 171. All of the following muscles possess gap
cartilaginous rings? junctions, except
(1) One (2) Two (1) Muscles in stomach wall
(3) Four (4) Three (2) Muscles in abdominal wall
165. In humans, the contraction of which of the (3) Cardiac muscles
following muscle causes an increase in the (4) Muscles of urinary bladder
volume of thoracic chamber in dorso-ventral
172. Which of the following bones in human body are
axis?
involved in the formation of pivot joint?
(1) Abdominal muscles (1) Radius and humerus
(2) Internal intercostal muscles (2) Carpal and metacarpal of thumb
(3) External intercostal muscles (3) Femur and tibia
(4) Muscles of diaphragm (4) Atlas and axis
(14)
173. In cockroach, the elytra are present in 180. According to the 2011 census report, the
(1) Head region population growth rate was less than
(2) Neck region (1) 20 / 100 / year
(3) Thorax region (2) 10 / 100 / year
(4) Abdominal region (3) 20 / 1000 / year

(4) 10 / 1000 / year
174. β-1,4 glycosidic linkage is present in
181. The extinct hominid who lived in near-east and
(1) Starch (2) Inulin
central Asia between 1,00,000 – 40,000 years
(3) Cellulose (4) Glycogen back and used hides to protect their body, were
175. Menstruation is triggered by an abrupt decline in (1) Cro-Magnon man
the amount of a hormone secreted by
(2) Australopithecines
(1) Pituitary gland
(3) Homo erectus
(2) Secondary oocyte
(4) Neanderthal man
(3) Ovary
182. Pelycosaurs were evolved from
(4) Tertiary follicle
(1) Therapsids (2) Thecodonts
176. Chromosome number in meiocyte of butterfly is
(3) Sauropsids (4) Synapsids
(1) 78 (2) 380
(3) 46 (4) 630
Pneumonia : Alveoli : : Common cold : ______
177. A receives a duct from seminal vesicle and (1) Lungs
opens into urethra as the B . (2) Nose and upper respiratory passage
Choose the option that correctly fills the blanks (3) Lungs and respiratory passage
A and B.
(4) Alveoli
A B
184. Choose the odd one w.r.t. marsupial radiation.
(1) Rete testis Vasa efferentia
(1) Wombat (2) Bandicoot
(2) Vas deferens Ejaculatory duct
(3) Sugar glider (4) Lemur
(3) Epididymis Vas deferens
185. Match the column I with column II and choose
(4) Vasa efferentia Rete testis the correct answer.
178. During embryonic development, the body of
Column I Column II
foetus is covered with fine hair by the end of
a. T-lymphocyte (i) Included in opiates
(1) First trimester
(2) Second trimester b. Macrophages (ii) Cellular barrier of
innate immunity
(3) Fifth month of pregnancy
(4) Second month of pregnancy c. Anti-tetanus (iii) Rejection of
injection transplanted organ
179. Among the given below STIs, how many are
caused by bacteria? d. Codeine (iv) Passive immunity
Genital herpes, Genital warts, Chlamydiasis, (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
Trichomoniasis (2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(1) One (2) Two (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) Three (4) Four (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(15)
SECTION-B 190. Choose the incorrect statement.

186. The figure given below is a diagrammatic (1) In gel electrophoresis, the undigested DNA
representation of the pBR322 vector. fragment is likely to move least distance
If recombinants can grow only in Ampicillin- (2) Any piece of DNA when linked to ori site
containing medium, then we can say the gene of sequence can be made to replicate within
interest was inserted in: host cells
(3) EcoRI breaks the bond between sugar and
nitrogenous base in a DNA
(4) PCR is included in molecular diagnosis
191. Choose the odd one w.r.t. recombinant
therapeutics.
(1) Erythropoietin (2) FSH
(3) Estrogen (4) Somatotropin
192. The technique to get pure line in cattles is
(1) Out-breeding
(2) Inbreeding
(1) X (2) T (3) Interspecific hybridisation
(3) P (4) Q (4) Out-crossing
187. Which of the following enzyme is not used for 193. Benign tumors:
extraction of DNA from a bacterium? (1) Show a property of contact inhibition
(1) Lysozyme (2) Exhibit metastasis
(2) Ribonuclease (3) Remain confined to their original location
(3) Chitinase (4) Depict malignancy
(4) Protease 194. Match the secondary metabolites given in column
188. Correct palindromic sequence of restriction I with their examples given in column II.
enzyme Hind III is Column I Column II
(1) ′5-GAATTC-3′
a. Toxins (i) Vinblastine, curcumin
′3-CTTAAG-5′
b. Drugs (ii) Morphine, codeine
(2) ′5-GGATCC-3′
′3-CCTAGG-5′ c. Alkaloids (iii) Concanavalin A
(3) ′5-AAGCTT-3′ d. Lectins (iv) Abrin, Ricin

′3-TTCGAA-5′ Choose the correct option.
(4) ′5-CCCGGG-3′ (1) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
′3-GGGCCC-5′ (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
189. The vector used to transfer a gene to produce (3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
pest-resistant tobacco plant is
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(1) pBR322
195. Which of the following is not a dioecious
(2) pUC8 organism?
(3) Modified Ti plasmid (1) Ascaris (2) Octopus
(4) Simian virus (3) Wuchereria (4) Ctenoplana
(16)
196. Choose the mismatch w.r.t. scientific name and A B C

common name of certain animals.
(1) T T T
Scientific name Common name
(2) T T F
(1) Exocoetus – Flying fish
(3) F T F
(2) Scoliodon – Dog fish
(4) T F F
(3) Gorgonia – Sea-fan
198. In which of the following ART, embryo is formed
(4) Aplysia – Sea-mouse by in-vitro fertilisation?
(1) ICSI (2) IUI
option which correctly states each statement as (3) AI (4) GIFT
true (T) or false (F). 199. Over-secretion of GH in adults lead to
A. The bolus is conveyed from pharynx to (1) Gigantism (2) Acromegaly

oesophagus by the process called deglutition. (3) Dwarfism (4) Cretinism
B. Each jaw of adult human contains 16 200. In a resting neuron, the axonal membrane is
thecodont teeth. more permeable for which of the following ions?
C. Nucleotidases are present in pancreatic juice (1) Na+ (2) K+

in active form. (3) Ca+2 (4) Mg+2
  
(17)
Edition: 2020-21
02/09/2021 CODE-A
CST – 18
Instructions:
PHYSICS
SECTION-A (1) ( 2F +F) (2) ( 2F – F)
1. The dimensional formula of coefficient of mutual
(3) 3F (4) Zero
inductance is
4. A train moves northwards with speed 80 km h–1,
(1) ML2T2A–2 (2) ML2T–2A–2 while a car moves towards east with speed of
(3) ML3T–2A–2 (4) M2L2T–2A–1 60 km h–1. What is magnitude of velocity of train
w.r.t. driver of the car?
2. The maximum error in measurement of mass and
density of a cube are 2% and 1%, respectively. (1) 140 km h–1 (2) 20 km h–1
The maximum percentage error in measurement (3) 100 km h–1 (4) 70 km h–1
of volume will be 5. A projectile has the range of 40 m and reaches a
(1) 2% (2) 3% maximum height of 10 m. What is angle at which
projectile is fired with horizontal?
(3) 4% (4) 1%
(1) 60° (2) 45°
3. The magnitude of resultant of three vectors (as
(3) 30° (4) 37°
shown in figure) is equal to
6. The distance of particle moving on a circle of
radius 12 m and measured along circle is given
as s = 2t3. The ratio of tangential to centripetal
acceleration at t = 2 s is
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 9 : 1
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 2
(1)
7. The momentum P (in kg m/s) of a particle is 12. A small stone of mass 200 gm tied to a massless
varying with time as P = 3 + 3t2. The force acting string (inextensible) is made to rotate in a vertical
on the particle at t = 3 s will be loop. Radius of circle is 4 m. What is its speed at
highest point if it just completes vertical loop?
(1) 18 N (2) 9 N
(g = 10 ms–2)
(3) 21 N (4) 30 N
(1) 5.2 m/s (2) 5.72 m/s
8. The ratio of tension T2 to T1 in shown diagram
(3) 6.32 m/s (4) 12.6 m/s
will be
13. A ball of mass 4 kg moving on smooth horizontal
surface makes head-on elastic collision with
another ball of mass m at rest. If, after collision
(1) 5 : 3 (2) 1 : 2 first ball moves in the same direction with
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 4 : 3 one-fourth of its velocity before collision, the
mass of second ball is
9. A block of mass 10 kg is released on rough
inclined plane. Block starts descending with (1) 2 kg (2) 2.4 kg
acceleration of 2 m s–2. Kinetic friction on block is (3) 3.2 kg (4) 1.2 kg
(take g = 10 m/s2) 14. Two particles with masses 1 kg and 2 kg are
moving along same line with speed of 4 m/s and
3 m/s, respectively in same direction. The speed
of centre of mass after collision is (Surface is
smooth)
(1) 30 N (2) 50 3 N (1) 3.5 m/s (2) 2.5 m/s
(3) 50 N (4) 40 N (3) 3.33 m/s (4) 6.3 m/s
10. If the magnitude of two vectors are 4 unit and 15. If the distance between two bodies becomes half
6 unit and magnitude of their scalar product is and each mass is doubled, then percentage
change in gravitational force between masses is
12 2 unit. What is the angle between the
(1) 300% (2) 1600%
vectors?
900
(1) 60° (2) 45° (3) 1500% (4) %
4
(3) 30° (4) 90°
16. A particle is thrown vertically up with speed
11. A block of mass 8 kg is released from top of an
3gR
inclined plane which is smooth as shown in from earth surface. The maximum height
2
figure. The stiffness constant of spring is
(from earth surface) attained by particle is
200 N/m. If the block comes to rest after
(R = radius of earth)
compressing spring by 1 m, what was the total
(1) 2R (2) 3R
distance travelled by block till it comes to rest?
(3) 4R (4) 5R
17. A rod is fixed between two clamps on horizontal
surface. The temperature of rod is increased by
40°C. The thermal stress developed in rod is
(α = 5 × 10–5°C–1) (Y = 5 × 1011 N/m2)
(1) 1011 N/m2 (2) 2 × 109 N/m2
(3) 5 × 1011 N/m2 (4) 109 N/m2
(1) 1.5 m
18. A Carnot engine works between 227°C and
(2) 2.0 m 727°C. The efficiency is
(3) 2.5 m (1) 50% (2) 69%
(4) 2.9 m (3) 78% (4) 81%
(2)
19. Bernoulli’s theorem is valid for 24. A ringing mobile phone gets slipped from the
(1) Non-viscous and turbulent fluid hands of a boy standing in balcony at height of
100 m. The frequency of sound heard by the
(2) Incompressible and turbulent fluid person standing in balcony at height 55 m from
(3) Viscous streamlined flow of fluid ground just before mobile phone passes him will
be (actual frequency of ringing sound of mobile is
(4) Non-viscous and streamlined flow of fluid
200 Hz and velocity of sound is 330 m/s)
20. The linear charge density on upper half segment
(1) 220 Hz (2) 240 Hz
of ring is λ and at lower half is –λ. The direction
of electric field intensity at the centre of ring is (3) 260 Hz (4) 270 Hz
25. Figure shows velocity-time graph of an object
executing SHM. The correct equation for
displacement time representing this motion is
(1) Along OA (2) Along OD

(3) Along OB (4) Along OC π 
(1) x 50 sin  t + π  cm
=
21. The resistance of carbon resistor (in Ω) in colour 5 
coding figure is
 πt 
(2) x= 10π sin   cm
5
 πt 
(3) x = –10 sin   cm
5
(1) 10 × 105 ± 5% (2) 20 × 105 ± 10%
π 
(3) 20 × 106 ± 10% (4) 10 × 106 ± 10% (4) x 50 cos  t + π  cm
=
 5 
22. The value of resistance R in the circuit below is 26. An astronomical telescope of 10-fold angular
magnification has a tube-length of 44 cm in
normal adjustment. The focal length of objective
is
(1) 44 cm (2) 40 cm
(1) 20 Ω (2) 4 Ω (3) 4 cm (4) 30 cm
(3) 8 Ω (4) 16 Ω 27. A proton when accelerated through a potential
23. A point charge q is placed at rest at a point B at difference of V has de-Broglie wavelength λ
distance r from short electric dipole of dipole associated with it. An α-particle in order to have
moment p as shown. The force acting on the same wavelength λ must be accelerated
charged particle is through a potential difference of
(1) 2V (2) 4V
V
(3) (4) V
8
28. In Young’s double slit experiment carried out with
light of wavelength λ = 500 nm, the distance
5qp 5qp between slits is 0.2 mm and screen is at 200 cm
(1) (2)
8πε0 r 3
4πε0 r 3 from the plane of the slits. The central maxima is
at y = 0, third maxima will be at y equal to
7 pq 7 pq (1) 0.5 cm (2) 1.67 cm
(3) (4)
3 3
4πε0 r 8πε0 r (3) 5.0 cm (4) 1.5 cm
(3)
29. Which of the following is not associated with 35. If T is half-life of radioactive material, then the
Maxwell? T
fraction that would remain after time is
(1) Modification of Coulomb’s law 2
(2) Modification of Ampere’s law 1 1

(1) (2)
2 2
(3) Unification of laws of electricity and
magnetism 2 –1 3
(3) (4)
(4) Displacement currents 2 4
30. When a charged particle is projected SECTION-B

perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field, its path 36. A radioactive element 238
decays into
90 X
is circular. If a charged particle is thrown with 222
double the speed in same magnetic field, then 83 Y by α and β – decay. The number of
β particles emitted are
(1) Its time period of revolution becomes double
but radius remains same (1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 1 (4) 2
(2) Its time period remains same but radius
becomes double 37. The excess of pressure of first soap bubble is
3 times that of second bubble. The ratio of
(3) Time period and radius are doubled
volume of first to that of second bubble is
(4) Time period is halved and radius is doubled
(1) 8 : 1 (2) 1: 3 3
31. A series LCR circuit has resistance of 10 Ω and
impedance of 25 Ω. The power factor of circuit (3) 3 :1 (4) 9 : 1
will be 38. 100 gm of ice at 0°C is mixed with 10 gm of
steam at 100ºC, then mixture has
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.25
(1) 80 gm of ice and 30 gm of water
(3) 0.8 (4) 0.75
32. The radius of second stationary orbit of Bohr’s
atomic model is R. The radius of third orbit will be
(4) 110 gm of water
(1) 3R (2) 9R
39. The first law of thermodynamics is based on
R
(3) 2.25R (4) (1) Conservation of angular momentum
3
(2) Conservation of mass
33. Select the incorrect statement regarding the
(3) Conservation of energy
design of a transistor.
(4) Conservation of momentum
(1) Collector is moderately doped
40. A conducting wire is carrying current I as shown
(2) Base is thick and lightly doped in figure. The magnitude of magnetic field at a
(3) Emitter is heavily doped point P will be
(4) In common base transistor, emitter is forward

biased w.r.t. base
34. A pure semiconductor has equal electron and
hole concentration of 1016 m–3. Doping by Indium
increases nh to 4.5 × 1022 m–3. What is ne in
doped semiconductor?
(1) 1022 cm–3 µ0 I µ0 I
(1) (2)
(2) 2.22 × 109 m–3 2πr 4πr
(3) 4.5 × 1010 m–3 µ0 I µ0 I
(3) (4)
(4) 4.5 × 1016 m–3 8πr 6πr
(4)
41. At a place true magnetic dip is 60°. The apparent 45. The angle of minimum deviation produced by
dip when plane of dip circle is placed at angle of 60° prism is 46°. What is refractive index of
60° with the magnetic meridian is material of the prism?
 1 (1) 1.6
(1) tan–1  
2 (2) 1.40
 1  (3) 1.46
(2) tan–1  
 2 (4) 1.2
(3) tan–1 (2) 46. Select the correct option.

(1) Heat always refers to energy in transit from
(4) tan–1 ( 2 3 )
one system to another due to temperature
42. A uniform conducting rod of length L is moving difference
with velocity v0 in uniform transverse magnetic (2) Two bodies at different temperature are
field B0 as shown in figure. The emf developed always in thermal equilibrium
across the ends of the rod is (3) We cannot make heat flow spontaneously
from body at lower temperature to a body at
higher temperature
(4) A hotter body always has more heat contents
as compared to colder body
47. In a transistor the current amplification factor α is
0.9. The transistor is connected in common base
configuration. The change in collector current
when base current changes by 4 mA is
B0 Lv 0 3  B0 Lv 0 
(1) (2)  
2 4 2  (1) 36 mA (2) 12 mA
3 4 (3) 32 mA (4) 18 mA
(3) B0 Lv 0 (4) B0 Lv 0
5 5 48. The binding energy per nucleon for C12 is
7.68 MeV and that for C13 is 7.5 MeV. The
43. In the given branch PQ, a part of circuit, a current
energy required to remove a neutron from C13 is
I = (2t + 3) A is flowing where t is time in second.
What is value of potential difference (VP – VQ) at t (1) 9.5 MeV (2) 5.5 MeV
= 2 s? (3) 5.34 MeV (4) 4.32 MeV
49. Two blocks of masses 5 kg and 2 kg are
connected by a light spring and are placed on
frictionless horizontal surface. An impulse
(1) 24 V (2) 36 V provides a velocity of 7 m/s to the heavier block
(3) 48 V (4) 42 V in the direction of lighter block. The velocity of
centre of mass is
44. Which of the following statement is correct about
electromagnetic waves? (1) 3 m/s
(2) 2 m/s
(1) Both electric field vectors and magnetic field
vectors are opposite in phase (3) 5 m/s
(2) Electromagnetic waves always require a (4) 6 m/s
medium for propagation 50. A solid sphere of diameter 10 cm and mass 5 kg
(3) The energy in electromagnetic wave is is rolling down an inclined plane with speed of
divided equally between electric and 4 m/s. The total kinetic energy of the sphere is
magnetic fields (1) 56 J (2) 112 J
(4) Both (2) and (3) (3) 94 J (4) 38 J
(5)
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 58. Consider the following statements.
51. For balanced redox reaction, coefficient a, b and (a) XeO3 is a colourless explosive solid
d respectively are (b) Complete hydrolysis of XeF6 gives XeO3 and
aS8 + bOH → c S 2−
+ dS2O32− + eH2O HF
(c) XeOF4 is red colour solid
(1) 2, 10 and 5 (2) 1, 12 and 2
The correct statement are
(3) 2, 8 and 5 (4) 1, 10 and 3
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a) and (c) only
52. Correct order of melting point of the given metals
is (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
(1) Be > Mg > Ca 59. Which among the following has lowest enthalpy
of atomisation?
(2) Ca > Mg > Be
(1) Sc (2) Mn
(3) Be > Ca > Mg
(3) Ni (4) V
(4) Mg > Ca > Be
60. Maximum number of unpaired electrons are
53. Which hydrated salt undergoes hydrolysis on present in which ion?
heating?
(1) Sm3+ (2) Eu3+
(1) CaCl2·6H2O (2) BaCl2·2H2O
(3) Ho3+ (4) Gd3+
(3) SrCl2·6H2O (4) MgCl2·8H2O
61. Which among the following is not a heterocyclic
54. Acidic oxide among the following is aromatic compound?
(1) GeO2 (2) SnO
(1) (2)
(3) PbO (4) SnO2
55. If atoms of element X form fcc lattice and those
3
of element Y occupy th of tetrahedral voids,
4 (3) (4)
then the formula of the compound formed by
element X and Y will be
(1) XY3 (2) X3Y 62. Correct order of priority of the given functional
(3) X3Y2 (4) X2Y3 groups for IUPAC nomenclature is
56. Incorrect statement among the following is (1) – CN > – CONH2 > – HC = O >
(1) Enzyme invertase converts sucrose to (2) – CONH2 > – CN > – HC = O >
glucose and fructose (3) – CONH2 > – HC = O > – CN >
(2) Platinised asbestos is used as catalyst in the
(4) – CONH2 > – HC = O > > – CN
Ostwald’s process for the manufacture of
nitric acid 63. Consider the following compounds.
(3) ZSM-5 converts alcohols directly into petrol

(4) In Haber’s process for manufacture of
ammonia, V2O5 is used as promoter
57. Which among the following is not refined by The compound(s) which show(s) keto-enol
vapour phase refining? tautomerism is/are
(1) In (2) Zr (1) (i) and (ii) only (2) (i) only
(3) Ni (4) Ti (3) (ii) and (iii) only (4) All of these
(6)
64. In Kjeldahl’s method for estimation of nitrogen 68. Major product of the given reaction is
present in an organic compound, ammonia
evolved from 1.25 g of the compound was
neutralised by 20 mL of 0.5 M H2SO4 solution.
The percentage of nitrogen present in the
compound is
(1) 32.8% (2) 54.6%
(3) 17% (4) 22.4%
65. An alkene A on reaction with O3 followed by
(1) (2)
treatment with Zn/H2O gives 2-methylpropanal
and methanal in equimolar ratio. Addition of HBr
to alkene A gives B as major product. Product B
is
(3) (4)
(1) (2)
(3) (4) 69. When vapours of secondary alcohol and primary

alcohol are passed over heated copper at 573 K,
66. In which of the following molecules, all atoms are then the major products formed respectively are
coplanar?
(1) Aldehyde and alkene
(2) Ketone and alkene
(1) (3) Ketone and aldehyde

(4) Ketone and carboxylic acid
70. Consider the following reaction sequence.
(i) DIBAL −H CH OH(excess)
(2) Ph−CH2 −CN →
(ii) H O
A 
3
dry HCl
→ B (major)
2
Major product B is
(3) CH3 – CH = CH2
(1) Ester (2) Anhydride
(4) CH2 = C = CH2
(3) Acetal (4) Ketal
67. Which of the given biphenyls is optically active?
71. The given reaction is known as
(1)
(1) Stephen reduction
(2) (2) Rosenmund reduction

(3) Wolff-Kishner reduction
(4) Clemmensen reduction
72. Number of isomeric alcohol(s) with molecular
(3)
formula C5H12O which will give positive iodoform
test is
(1) 4 (2) 1
(4)
(3) 2 (4) 3
(7)
73. The correct order of decreasing pKa of benzoic 81. Consider the following statements.
acid (A), phenylacetic acid (B), formic acid (C) (a) Decomposition of N2O is an example of first
and monochloroacetic acid (D) is order reaction
(1) A > B > C > D (2) B > A > C > D (b) For first order reaction, plot of ln[R] vs t is a
straight line passing through origin of graph
(3) D > C > B > A (4) C > B > A > D
(c) Half-life of first order reaction is independent
of the initial concentration of the reactant
LiAlH
PhNO2 
4
→ The correct statements are
(1) Ph – NH2 (2) Ph – NHOH (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) All of these
(3) Ph – N = N – Ph (4) Ph – NH – NH – Ph
82. If standard reduction potential of three metals, A,
75. Consider the following statements. B and C are –0.5 V, +1.2 V and –1.5 V
a. Molar conductivity increases with decrease in respectively, then the order of reducing power of
concentration the metals will be
b. Conductivity always decreases with decrease (1) C > A > B (2) B > A > C
in concentration (3) A > C > B (4) C > B > A
c. Limiting molar conductivity of Mg2+ ions is 83. Which among the following has highest value of
greater than Ca2+ ions in water at 298 K first ionisation enthalpy?
(1) Cu (2) Ni
The incorrect statement(s) is/are
(3) Mn (4) Fe
(1) a and b only (2) b and c only
84. Which quantum number defines the three
(3) c only (4) a and c only dimensional shape of the orbital?
76. D-Glucose and D-Mannose are (1) Principal quantum number
(1) Epimers (2) Anomers (2) Azimuthal quantum number
(3) Enantiomers (4) Homomers (3) Magnetic quantum number
77. Which among the following is a polyamide (4) Spin quantum number
polymer? 85. Silver sol is most easily precipitated by which
(1) Nylon 6 (2) Terylene ion?
(3) Orlon (4) Neoprene (1) Al3+ (2) SO24−
78. Which among the following is used as hypnotic (3) PO34− (4) Na+
drug?
SECTION-B
(1) Seldane (2) Salvarsan
86. Consider the following statements about
(3) Seconal (4) Tetracycline chemisorption.
79. In which of the given species the magnitude of ∆0 (a) It results into unimolecular layer
(CFSE in octahedral field) will be maximum? (b) It is reversible in nature
(1) [CrF6]3– (2) [Cr(CN)6]3– (c) It is highly specific in nature
(3) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (4) [Cr(en)3]3+ The correct statements are
80. What is the correct electronic configuration of the (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
central metal ion of [Co(NH3)6]3+ based on crystal (3) (a) and (c) only (4) All of these
field theory? 87. If mass ratio of N2 and CH4 is 7 : 8 then the ratio
of their number of atoms will be
4 2
(1) t 2g eg (2) e3 t 32
(1) 7 : 8 (2) 1 : 5
(3) e4 t 22 (4) t 62ge0g (3) 2 : 5 (4) 4 : 5
(8)
88. Li+ is isoelectronic with (4) n- pentane and n-hexane

(1) B2+ (2) Be2+ 95. Maximum prescribed concentration of cadmium
(3) He+ (4) H in drinking water is
89. Which among the following has highest critical (1) 5 ppm (2) 10 ppm
temperature? (3) 0.005 ppm (4) 0.5 ppm
(1) N2 (2) O2 96. Which among the following has highest acidic
(3) CO2 (4) NH3 character?
90. Official IUPAC name of the element having (1) H2Se (2) H2O
atomic number 104 is (3) H2S (4) H2Te
(1) Mendelevium (2) Nobelium 97. Standard molar enthalpy of formation of which of
(3) Rutherfordium (4) Bohrium the given species is zero?
91. Correct order of dipole moment of the given (1) H2(g) (2) H2O()
molecules is
(3) Br2(g) (4) CO2(g)
(1) NH3 > H2O > NF3 (2) H2O > NH3 > NF3
98. Which among the following is isostructural with
(3) NH3 > NF3 > H2O (4) H2O > NF3 > NH3 [Ni(CO)4]?
92. If solubility of a saturated solution of cupric (1) [PtCl4]2–
hydroxide is 2 × 10–7 mole per litre, then the
(2) [Pt(CN)4]2–
solubility product of the compound will be
(3) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
(1) 4.8 × 10–18 (2) 3.2 × 10–20
(4) [NiCl4]2–
(3) 4.8 × 10–16 (4) 3.2 × 10–24
99. Which among the following is a covalent solid?
93. 10 ml of 0.1 M NaOH solution is mixed with 60 ml
of 0.1 M CH3COOH solution. The pH of the (1) AlN (2) ZnS
resultant solution becomes (pKa of CH3COOH = (3) I2 (4) Ice
4.75)
100. A solution of CuSO4 is electrolysed for 38.6
(1) 4.05 (2) 5.65 minutes with a current of 4 amperes. The mass
(3) 4.75 (4) 6.25 of copper deposited at cathode is (Atomic mass
of Cu = 63.5 u)
94. Which solution shows negative deviation from
Raoult’s law? (1) 6.20 g
(1) Benzene and toluene (2) 3.05 g
(2) Acetone and ethyl alcohol (3) 1.75 g
(3) Acetone and aniline (4) 4.35 g
BOTANY
SECTION-A 103. Cells of which of the given layers of anther
101. Which of the given is reproductive unit in generally have alpha-cellulosic fibres playing the
banana? role in dehiscence?
(1) Bulbil (2) Offset (1) Epidermis (2) Middle layers

(3) Sucker (4) Rhizome (3) Endothecium (4) Tapetum
102. Which of the following structures is developed 104. Pioneer community during hydrarch succession
into the seed coat after fertilisation? is of
(1) Hilum (2) Funicle (1) Phytoplanktons (2) Floating plants
(3) Integument (4) Micropyle (3) Lichens (4) Mosses
(9)
105. Decomposition of detritus 113. Which of the following genes of Lac operon
(1) Is fast when detritus is rich in lignin and chitin provides the attachment site for repressor
protein?
(2) Is largely an aerobic process
(1) Lac i (2) Operator gene
(3) Is slower when detritus is rich in water
(3) Lac z (4) Lac y
soluble sugar substances
114. Variety of wheat developed to make it resistant
(4) Gets faster when temperature is very low
against leaf and stripe rust is
106. Ahmed Khan (1) Sonalika (2) Kalyan Sona
(1) Is famous for organic farming (3) Himgiri (4) Atlas-66
(2) Developed the recycling technique for plastic 115. Select the odd one w.r.t. detritus food chain.
(3) Is famous for water pollution control (1) Begins with dead organic matter
(4) Established the Kisan Welfare Club (2) Made up of decomposers such as fungi and
107. Bad ozone is present in bacteria
(1) Troposphere (2) Stratosphere (3) Major conduit for energy flow among aquatic
ecosystem
(3) Thermosphere (4) Mesosphere
(4) Saprophytes secrete digestive enzymes to
108. Currently, highest biodiversity among the plants breakdown dead material
can be seen in the group
116. The entire collection (of plants/seeds) having all
(1) Algae (2) Pteridophytes the diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop is
(3) Angiosperms (4) Mosses called
109. Factor responsible for extinction of passenger (1) Evaluation and selection
pigeon was (2) Germplasm collection
(1) Habitat loss and fragmentation (3) Cross hybridisation
(2) Over-exploitation (4) Recombination
(3) Alien species invasion 117. Large holes in Swiss cheese is mainly due to the
action of
(4) Co-extinction
(1) A fungus named Trichoderma
110. In which genetic condition, each cell in the
affected person, has sex chromosomes XXY? (2) A bacterium named Propionibacterium
sharmanii
(3) Yeast
(2) Thalassemia
(4) A bacterium named Streptococcus
118. Select the incorrect option w.r.t. microbes and
(4) Haemophilia their commercial products
111. Histones are rich in _____ amino acids residues. (1) Cyclosporin A is produced by a fungus
Select the correct option to fill in the blank. (2) Statins are produced by Monascus purpureus
(1) Acidic (3) Butyric acid is produced by Clostridium
(2) Cysteine and glutamate (4) Clot buster streptokinase is produced by
(3) Aspartate and glycine Acetobacter aceti
(4) Arginine and lysine 119. All the given are correct for logistic growth of
population, except
112. Which of the following bonds/linkages are not
(1) Shown by a population growing in a habitat
present in DNA?
with limited resources
(1) Peptide bonds
(2) Lag phase is followed by log and then
(2) Hydrogen bonds deceleration phase
(3) Phosphodiester linkage (3) Growth curve is J-shaped
(4) N-glycosidic linkage (4) It is considered to be more realistic one
(10)
120. Read the statements and select the correct 127. Which of the following is not true about viruses?
option. (1) Have RNA or DNA as genetic material
Statement-A : The life cycles of parasites are (2) Discovered by T.O Diener
often complex, involving one or two intermediate
hosts or vectors to facilitate parasitisation of its (3) Capsid is composed of proteins
primary host. (4) Obligate parasites
Statement-B : Majority of the parasites harm the 128. Plant which shows the diplontic life cycle is
host; they may reduce the survival, growth and (1) Chlamydomonas
reproduction of the host and reduce its
(2) Riccia
population density.
(1) Both A and B are correct (3) Polysiphonia
(2) Both A and B are incorrect (4) Fucus
(3) Only A is correct 129. Respiratory roots are present in
(4) Only B is correct (1) Sugarcane (2) Maize
121. Organelle which is surrounded by double (3) Aloe (4) Rhizophora

membrane is 130. How many of the following plants have
(1) Lysosome zygomorphic flowers?
(2) Polysome Mustard, Bean, Pea, Datura, Chilli, Canna
(3) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (1) Two (2) Three

(4) Chloroplast (3) Four (4) Five
122. Plastid which stores proteins in large amount is 131. Majority of monocot stems
(1) Amyloplast (2) Aleuroplast (1) Have scattered vascular bundles
(3) Elaioplast (4) Chloroplast (2) Have well developed endodermis
123. Which of the following is not a defining feature of (3) Show secondary growth
living organisms? (4) Have well developed pericycle
(1) Metabolism 132. Which of the following features is not related to
(2) Cellular organisation facilitated diffusion?
(3) Internal growth (1) Transport proteins are required in it
(4) Reproduction (2) It occurs along the concentration gradient
124. Select the odd one w.r.t taxa of Mango. (3) It requires energy in the form of ATP
(1) Sapindales (2) Poaceae (4) It shows response to protein inhibitors
(3) Dicotyledonae (4) Angiospermae 133. Xylem parenchyma
125. Diatoms (1) Has dead cells
(1) Have cell wall composed of chitin (2) Has the cells with thin cellulosic cell wall
(2) Are mainly decomposers (3) Has highly lignified cells
(3) Have silica in their cell wall (4) Is responsible for water conduction upwards
(4) Have three flagella in vegetative stage in tall plants
126. Which of the following fungi is a member of 134. In plants, the micronutrient that activates the
Ascomycetes? enzyme carboxylase is
(1) Ustilago (2) Colletotrichum (1) Zinc (2) Boron
(3) Penicillium (4) Mucor (3) Molybdenum (4) Chlorine
(11)
135. Which of the following is not true for the 141. Embryo sac in a typical angiospermic plants
Glycolysis? (1) Has three synergids
(1) Hexokinase converts glucose to glucose-6- (2) Is surrounded by nucellus
phosphate (3) Has three egg cells
(2) NAD+ is reduced to NADH + H+ (4) Is an eight celled structure
(3) Through substrate level phosphorylation, net 142. Solution A has higher solute concentration as
gain of ATP is six compared to solution B. If they are at room
temperature and at the same atmospheric
(4) Two pyruvic acid molecules are produced pressure then, water potential of solution A will
from each glucose molecule be
SECTION-B (1) Higher than that of solution B
136. During the electron transport chain in (2) Equal to pure water
mitochondria (3) Less than that of solution B
(1) Electrons are donated by H2O (4) Higher than of pure water
143. Plant hormone which can delay the senescence,
(2) Terminal electron acceptor is oxygen
is
(3) NADH dehydrogenase accepts the electrons (1) Ethylene (2) A gaseous hormone
from ubiquinone
(3) Cytokinin (4) ABA
(4) Electrons are transferred from complex I to 144. Seed germination can be delayed or inhibited by
complex II
(1) GAs (2) Cytokinins
137. Photosystem II (3) Auxins (4) Abscisic acid
(1) Has P700 as reaction centre 145. Heterophylly regarding different stages of the life
(2) Participates in cyclic photophosphorylation of the plant is seen in
(1) Mango (2) Peepal
(3) Is associated with release of O2
(3) Rose (4) Coriander
(4) Is absent in cyanobacteria
146. Nitrogenase enzyme
138. Number of CO2 molecules used for production of
(1) Has Fe and Mo elements
a sugar polymer having 10 glucose molecules
(2) Is responsible for the conversion of NH3 into
through Calvin cycle in C3 plants will be
NO3−
(1) 10 (2) 50
(3) Is present in eukaryotes only
(3) 60 (4) 120
(4) Has copper as a cofactor
139. Read the statements and select the correct
147. The cell organelle that is mainly involved in
option. glycosylation of proteins is
A : Photorespiration does not occur in maize (1) Golgi body (2) Mitochondria
plant. (3) Chloroplast (4) Lysosome
B : Total 18 ATP are required for the synthesis of 148. Centriole duplicates in animal cells during
one glucose molecule through Calvin cycle. (1) G1-phase (2) S-phase
C: RuBisCO is the primary CO2 acceptor in C4 (3) G2-phase (4) M-phase
plants. 149. Nuclear envelope reassembles around the
(1) All A, B and C are correct chromosome clusters in
(2) Only A and B are correct (1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
(3) Telophase (4) Anaphase
(3) Only C is correct
150. In eukaryotes, pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
(4) Only B and C are correct
(1) Is present in cytoplasm
140. Mannitol is stored food in the members of (2) Converts the pyruvate into acetyl-CoA
(1) Pteridophytes (2) Brown algae (3) Is present in mitochondria matrix
(3) Red algae (4) Green algae (4) Both (2) and (3)
(12)
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 158. Pubic symphysis is a type of
151. Sulfanilamide drugs used in the control of (1) Fibrous joint (2) Pivot joint
bacterial pathogen is an example of (3) Saddle joint (4) Cartilaginous joint
(1) Non-competitive inhibition 159. In lumen of small intestine, fatty acids and
glycerol are incorporated into droplets called
(2) Competitive inhibition
(1) Micelle (2) Chylomicrons
(3) Feedback inhibition
(3) Fat droplets (4) Glycerides
(4) Allosteric modulation
160. Polyuria is a condition of
152. Organism which exhibits the nerve cell but not
(1) Scanty urination
brain, is
(2) Absence of urine
(1) Hydra (2) Spongilla
(3) Painful urination
(3) Periplaneta (4) Aedes
(4) Urination of large volumes of urine
153. In cockroach, choose the odd one w.r.t. location
161 Enzyme, trypsin is involved in
of structure/organ
(1) Digestion of sucrose
Structure/organ Location
(2) Coagulation of milk
(1) Oesophagus Foregut
(3) Converting prorennin to rennin
(2) Rectum Hindgut (4) Activation of procarboxypeptidase
(3) Malpighian tubules Foregut 162. The event that finally leads to the formation of
(4) Gizzard Foregut cross-bridge in muscle contraction is
154. A myocardial infarction is indicated by (1) Release of Ca++ from sarcoplasmic reticulum
(1) Enlarged P wave (2) Binding of Ca++ with Troponin-C, subunit of

troponin
(2) Enlarged T wave
(3) Exposing active site for myosin on actin
(3) Elevated ST segment (4) Hydrolysis of ATP
(4) Flattened T wave 163. How many bones from given below box are not
155. Select the correct match of amino acid included in cranium?
(1) Acidic – Glutamic acid and lysine Ethmoid, Temporal, Zygomatic, Maxilla, Frontal,
(2) Basic – Arginine and aspartic acid Vomer, Lacrimal
(3) Neutral – Glycine and valine (1) Three (2) Four

(4) Aromatic – Tryptophan and proline (3) Five (4) Six
156. Inspiration in humans is brought about by 164. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Contraction of diaphragm and relaxation of (1) Thiamine – Beriberi

external intercostal muscles (2) Ascorbic acid – Scurvy
(2) Relaxation of diaphragm and contraction of (3) Niacin – Pellagra
external intercostal muscles (4) Cyanocobalamin – Leukemia
(3) Relaxation of diaphragm and relaxation of 165. Choose the mismatch.
internal intercostal muscles (1) cAMP – Second messenger
(4) Contraction of diaphragm and contraction of (2) Oxytocin – Released by
external intercostal muscles neurohypophysis
157. Vital capacity can't be represented by (3) Angiotensin-II – Constricts the blood
vessels
(1) TLC – RV (2) TV + ERV + IRV
(4) Somatostatin – Posterior lobe of
(3) IC + ERV (4) EC + TV pituitary gland
(13)
166. Match column I with column II and choose the 171. Peritubular capillaries of nephron arise from
correct answer. (1) Vasa recta (2) Renal artery
Column I Column II (3) Afferent arteriole (4) Efferent arteriole
a. Erythropoietin (i) Controls the aldosterone 172. All of the following are responsible for muscle
secretion fatigue except
(1) Plenty of mitochondria
b. Cortisol (ii) Maintains the normal
functioning of heart and (2) Accumulation of lactic acid
kidney (3) Anaerobic breakdown of glycogen
c. Gastrin (iii) Released from JG cells (4) Repeated stimulus to a muscle
d. Renin (iv) Simulates the secretion 173. A symptom of congestion of lungs is associated
of gastric juice with
(1) Heart failure (2) Angina
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) Atherosclerosis (4) Cardiac arrest
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
167. Which of the following statements is correct in 174. Neurons with single axon are
relation to the endocrine system? a. Present in retina of eye
(1) Organ in the body like gastrointestinal tract, b. Present in cerebral cortex
heart, kidney and liver do not produce any
c. Present in dorsal root ganglion
hormones
Choose the correct answer.
(2) Non-nutrient chemical, produced by the body
in trace amount that acts as intercellular (1) a and b only (2) a and c only
messenger is termed as a hormone (3) Only a (4) a, b and c
(3) Releasing and inhibiting hormones are 175. Complete the analogy
produced by pituitary gland
Alveoli : Simple squamous epithelium : : Pharynx
(4) Adenohypophysis is under direct neural : _____.
regulation of the hypothalamus
(1) Simple columnar epithelium
168. The part of brain which is involved in intersensory
association, memory and communication is (2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(1) Pons (3) Simple squamous epithelium

(2) Sensory area of cerebrum (4) Compound epithelium
(3) Cerebellum 176. Which of the following infertility technique(s)
would be most suitable for a female with blocked
(4) Association area of cerebrum
fallopian tubes but normal ovaries and uterus?
169. Iris does not
(1) IVF followed by ZIFT
(1) Alter the size of pupil
(2) IVF followed by IUT
(2) Contain circular and radial muscles
(3) GIFT
(3) Contain melanin
(4) AI
(4) Secrete aqueous humour
177. Select the contraceptives which prevent
170. Which of the following organism is not correctly
implantation
matched with its excretory structure?
Organism Excretory structure a. Saheli b. LNG - 20
(1) Amphioxus – Protonephridia c. Mala-D d. Progestasert
(2) Humans – Metanephric kidneys e. Implant
(3) Cockroach – Malpighian tubules (1) a, b, c, d (2) b, c, d, e

(4) Prawn – Flame cells (3) b, c, d only (4) a, b, c, d, e
(14)
178. A pregnant female is usually able to feel the 185. Industrial melanism represents
movement of the foetus for the first time during
(1) Stabilising natural selection
(1) 12th week of pregnancy
(2) Directional natural selection
(2) 5th month of pregnancy
(3) Disruptive natural selection
SECTION-B
179. ICSI involves
186. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. Natural
(1) In-vivo fertilization
killer cells.
(2) In-vitro fertilization
(1) They are produced in bone marrow and are
(3) Fusion of one ovum with many sperms
matured in lymph nodes to provide acquired
(4) Infusion of sperms in female genital tract immunity
180. In humans, haemopoiesis starts first time in (2) They can act against virus infected cells and
(1) Bone marrow (2) Liver tumor cells
(3) Yolk sac (4) Spleen (3) They produce perforins
181. From given below structures, choose the one (4) They are included in cellular barrier of innate
which gets embedded in the uterus during
immunity
implantation.
187. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. secondary
immune response.
(1) Vigorous immune response against a
(1) (2)
pathogen on exposure to same antigen
repeatedly
(2) Slow and short-lived response against
pathogens entering again (at the second
time) in the body
(3) (4) (3) Such type of immune response is triggered
by memory T-cells
(4) It is also called anamnestic response
182. Choose the odd one w.r.t. methods of asexual
reproduction in organism.
correct answer.
(1) Sporulation – Amoeba
A. In 'MOET', a cow is administered hormones
(2) Budding – Hydra
with estrogen-like activity, to produce
(3) Gemmule formation – Sponge follicular maturation and superovulation.
(4) Multiple fission – Paramecium B. The success rate of crossing mature male
183. All of the following examples show adaptive and female animals is fairly low even though
convergency except AI is carried out.
(1) Mouth parts of insects (1) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) Eyes of octopus and mammals (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Thorns of different plants
(4) Malpighian tubules in cockroach and
nephridia in earthworm
189. Choose the odd one w.r.t. viral disease in poultry
184. Psilophyton gave rise to following set of plants
except birds.
(1) Ginkgos (2) Sphenopsids (1) Fowl pox (2) Fowl cholera
(3) Ferns (4) Lycopods (3) Bird flu (4) Ranikhet
(15)
190. Restriction site for PvuI in cloning vector, 196. Choose the mismatch w.r.t. animals and their
pBR322 is present in characteristics
(1) ampR gene (2) tetR gene (1) Meandrina – Contains gastro-vascular
cavity
(3) rop gene (4) lac Z gene
(2) Planaria – Possess high power of
191. To generate GM plants, one or more genes are
regeneration
inserted into their genome by all of the following
except (3) Ctenoplana – Possess cnidoblasts
(1) Biolistic method (4) Chaetopleura – Body is covered by a

calcareous shell
(2) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(3) Gemini virus correct answer.
(4) Clostridium botulinum A. Ileo-caecal valve prevents the back flow of
192. Identify the incorrect statement. the faecal matter, from large intestine into
ileum.
(1) Gene for β-carotene was extracted from B. Marasmus generally found in infants, below
daffodil one year in age, if mother’s milk is replaced
too early by other foods which are poor in
(2) GM plant, Brassica napus produces hirudin
both proteins and caloric value.
(3) Bt toxin enters the ovary of the insects and (1) Both statements are correct
causes sterility
(4) PCR is a molecular diagnostic tool (3) Only statement A is correct
193. Betta differs from Scoliodon due to the presence (4) Only statement B is correct
of 198. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. cardiac
cycle
(1) Placoid scales (2) Pelvic fins
(1) AV valves remain open during atrial systole
(3) Mesonephric kidney (4) Air bladder
(2) 70% filling of ventricles occur during joint
194. External ear openings are present in diastole
(1) Bangarus (2) Calotes (3) Each ventricle pumps out approximately
70 ml of blood during ventricular systole
(3) Chameleon (4) Pavo
(4) During joint diastole, the AV valves as well as
195. Match column I with column II and choose the semilunar valves both remain open
correct answer. 199. Which of the following epithelium is present in
outer layer of Bowman’s capsule?
Column I Column II
(1) Simple cuboidal
a. Annelids (i) Sexes are not (2) Simple columnar
separate (3) Simple squamous
b. Arthropods (ii) Exoskeleton (4) Compound epithelium
200. All of the following structures of human
c. Molluscs (iii) Sexual dimorphism respiratory system contain incomplete
cartilaginous ring except
d. Ctenophores (iv) Closed circulatory
(1) Primary bronchi
system
(2) Terminal bronchioles
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (3) Trachea
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (4) Tertiary bronchi
  
(16)
Edition: 2020-21
28/06/2022 CODE-A


Instructions:
PHYSICS
SECTION-A 3. Three progressive waves A, B and C are shown
1. A projectile of mass m is fired with velocity v at below. With respect to wave A :
an angle 45° with the horizontal from point A.
Neglecting air resistance, the magnitude of
change in velocity between the starting point A
and the striking point B is
v
(1) (2) 2v
2
(3) (4) (1) The wave C lags behind in phase by /2 and

B leads by /2
2. Radius of earth being R, gravitational potential
(V) and gravitational field intensity (I) at any (2) The wave C leads in phase by and B lags
r behind by
r > R, are related as
(3) The wave C lags behind in phase by /2 and
2
V B leads behind by
(1) I (2)
r2
(4) The wave C lags behind in phase by and B
(3) (4) leads by
(1)
4. Two waves can be expressed as 10. A lift of mass M is connected to a rope which is
moving upwards with maximum acceleration a.
and x 3cos( t kx ) . For maximum safe stress, the elastic limit of the
stress is T. The minimum diameter of the rope
Phase difference between the two waves is
required is
(1) radian (2) radian

(1) (2)
(3) radian (4) radian

(3) (4)
5. Bi has a half-life of 5 days. The time taken by

11. An ideal liquid is flowing through a horizontal pipe
having non-uniform cross-section as shown in
part of the sample to decay is
figure.
(1) 3.4 days (2) 10 days
(3) 15 days (4) 20 days
6. Magnetic field due to the motion of the electron in
nth energy state of hydrogen atom is proportional
to
1 If radius of pipe at A is 2R while that at B is R,
(1) (2)
n
then will be
(3) (4)
(1) (2)
7. A long straight wire of diameter 1 mm carrying
current 2 A is replaced by another wire of (3) 2 (4) 4
diameter 2 mm carrying the same current. The 12. The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is
magnetic induction at a distance 2 m away from 10. If the temperature inside freezer is 20°C, the
the centre is temperature of the surroundings to which it
(1) Half of the previous value rejects heat is
(1) 278.3 K (2) 293.5 K
(2) Twice of the previous value
(3) 315.4 K (4) 332.6 K
(3) Unchanged
13. The amount of heat energy required to raise
(4) Quarter of its previous value temperature of 1 g of helium at constant volume
8. A rocket moves vertically up with constant from T1 K to T2 K is
acceleration of 8 m/s2. After sometime, its fuel
gets exhausted and it falls under gravity. If the (1) (2)
maximum height attained by rocket is 180 m,
what was speed when fuel was exhausted (3) (4)
(1) 30 m/s (2) 40 m/s
14. Identify the wrong statement.
(3) 60 m/s (4) 50 m/s
(1) Equipotential surface due to a single point
9. A conveyer belt is moving at constant speed of charge is spherical
30 m/s. A box is gently dropped on it. The
(2) Equipotential surface can be constructed for
coefficient of friction between block and the belt dipole too
is 0.4. The time that the box will take before
(3) The equipotential surface is normal to electric
coming to rest on belt is (g = 10 m s 2)
field lines
(1) 12.5 s (2) 7.5 s (4) The work done in moving a test charge on an
(3) 1.5 s (4) 3.5 s equipotential surface is positive
(2)
15. Two wires A and B of equal lengths and of same 21. In a npn transistor, the emitter current is
metal are taken. The diameter of wire A is half to (1) Slightly more than the collector
that of wire B. If the resistance of wire A is 48 ,
(2) Slightly less than the collector
then resistance of wire B is
(3) Equal to the collector current
(1) 96 (2) 192
(4) Equal to the base current
(3) 24 (4) 12
22. Match the following.
16. In the circuit shown in diagram the current
through 6 resistor is Column-I Column-II
(a) (e)
(b) (f) A+B
(c) (g)
(d) (h)
(1) a f, b e, c h, d g
(1) 1 A (2) 0.1 A
(2) a e, b h, c f, d g
(3) 0.5 A (4) 1.2 A
(3) a g, b e, c h, d f
17. An iron rod is placed parallel to magnetic field of
intensity 2000 A/m. The magnetic flux through (4) a g, b f, c e, d h
the rod is 6 × 10 4 Wb and area of cross-section 23. The variation of density of water with temperature
is 3 cm2. The magnetic permeability of the rod in is best represented by
SI unit is
(1) 10 1 (2) 10 2
(3) 10 3 (4) 10 (1)

18. In an AC circuit, voltage V = V0sin t and an
inductor of inductance L are connected in series.
The instantaneous power will be
(1) (2)
(3) (4) Zero

(2)
19. The density of a cylinder is given by the formula
where M is mass, r is radius and is
length. The physical quantity that should be

measured more accurately is
(1) Mass
(2) Radius (3)
(3) Length
(4) All quantities should be measured with equal
accuracy
20. has the dimension of kinetic energy. Then x
has the dimension of (m is mass) (4)
(1) Pressure (2) Torque

(3) Moment of inertia (4) Impulse
(3)
24. Heat propagation via, natural convection is 30. An axle of length 2.5 m is joining the front tyres of
mainly a truck. If truck is moving towards North-East
(1) Due to temperature gradient mainly in with velocity of 10 m/s, then EMF induced across
horizontal direction
(2) Due to temperature gradient in vertical magnetic field = 0.4 gauss)
direction (1) 10 V (2) 1 mV
(3) There is no need of temperature gradient
(3) (4) 0.71 mV
(4) The temperature gradient cannot exist either
in horizontal or vertical direction 31. For a compound microscope magnification is 480
25. The plane polarised light can be obtained by when final image is formed at far point. If linear
magnification due to objective is 20, then what
(1) Reflection (2) Refraction
will angular magnification due to eyepiece when
(3) Scattering (4) All of these final image is formed at near point (object is
26. Choose the wrong statement from the following fixed)
for electromagnetic waves.
(1) 24 (2) 25
(1) EM waves are transverse waves
(3) 500 (4) 504
(2) EM waves travel with same speed in all
medium 32. Which of the following colour is scattered least in
atmosphere?
(3) Accelerating electric charges are sources of
electromagnetic waves (1) Violet (2) Green
(4) Frequency is an inherent characteristics of (3) Blue (4) Red
EM wave
33. Consider the following two statements.
27. A force F directed towards centre of the sphere is
A. Electrostatic field lines do not form any
acting parallel to the incline surface as shown in
diagram. If the incline is rough enough to support closed loops.
pure rolling, the minimum force F required to hold B.
the sphere of mass M in equilibrium is the electrostatic field when the system
Which of the following option is correct?

(1) Statement A is correct while statement B is
incorrect
(2) Statement B is correct while statement A is
(1) Mgsin (2) incorrect
(3) Both statement A and B are correct
(3) (4) Mgsin mgcos
(4) Both statement A and B are incorrect
28. An observer, at origin, is observing a force acting 34. An electric dipole is placed at the centre of a
on a body at (5, 4). If no angular acceleration is spherical shell. Which of the following option is
observed, then the force acting on body can be correct regarding this?
(1) (2) (1) Electric field is zero at every point on the
spherical shell
(3) (4)
(2) Electric field is zero at every point inside the
29. A body of mass 4 kg is executing SHM. Its potential spherical shell
energy varies with x, as U = [(x 2)2 + 20] J. If total
energy of body is 70 J, its maximum speed is (3) Electric field is uniform inside the spherical
shell
(1) (2)
(4) Total electric flux linked through the spherical
(3) (4) shell is zero
(4)
35. In the spring mass system shown in the figure, 38. An ice cube is kept in a gravity free hall. What will
block of mass m is connected with springs A and be its shape when it melts?
B. Now, spring A is compressed by (1) Cubical

(2) Spherical
from its natural length and then block is released
from rest. If initially both springs were in natural (3) Plane sheet
length then speed of block when it passes (4) It can be of any random shape
through its natural length again will be 39. An ideal gas is taken through the cycle ABCA as
shown in figure. Work done by the gas in the
process A B is
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
SECTION-B
(1) 2J (2) 6J
36. A particle of mass m = 10 kg moving at a speed
(3) 5J (4) 4J
of 2 m s 1 (along positive x axis) is acted upon by
a force which varies with time as shown in the 40. A parallel plate capacitor is charged and charging
figure. What will be the kinetic energy of particle battery is then disconnected. If the plates of the
when the force ceases to act? capacitor are moved apart by insulating handles,
then which among the following is incorrect.
(1) The potential difference across capacitor
increases
(2) The capacitance decreases
(3) Electrostatic energy stored in capacitor
increases
(4) Work done by the electric field between
(1) 620 joule (2) 820 joule plates is positive
(3) 670 joule (4) 800 joule 41. A rise in temperature of 6°C is observed in a
37. Two stones of masses m and 2m are whirled in conductor on passing a current. If the current is
doubled through conductor, rise in temperature of
horizontal circles. The radius of 2m is and that the conductor is
of mass m is r. The tangential speed of lighter (1) 12°C (2) 18°C
stone is n times to that of heavier stone when (3) 24°C (4) 36°C
they experience same centripetal forces. The
42. In L-C-R series circuit, the potential difference
value of n is
across each element is 60 V. Now the value of
(1) 1 resistance alone is doubled, then potential drop
(2) 2 across R, L and C respectively is
(3) 3 (1) 60 V, 30 V, 30 V (2) 60 V, 120 V, 120 V
(4) 4 (3) 30 V, 120 V, 120 V (4) 60 V, 100 V, 80 V
(5)
43. In photoelectric experiment, if the intensity 48.
(W/m2) of incident light is doubled keeping light used is 0. The distance of screen from slits
frequency same then the saturation current is D. The slit separation is d. The number of
(1) Remains constant (2) Is also doubled bright fringes between and central fringes is
(3) Is halved (4) Becomes four times (where 0
44. When a forward bias is applied to a p-n junction, central fringe)

it
(1)
(1) Lowers the potential barrier
(2) Raises the potential barrier
(2)
(3) Reduces the majority carrier current to zero
(4) None of these
(3)
45. The mass of a paper box is 2.3 g. Two cork
pieces each of mass 0.035 g are placed in it. The
(4)
total mass of the box and cork pieces with due
regard to significant digit will be
49. A projectile is fired with a speed from
(1) 2.4 g (2) 2.370 g
the surface of earth. It escapes the gravitational
(3) 2.37 g (4) 2.3 g
pull of earth. Its speed in interstellar space will
46. A uniformly charged sphere of mass M, radius R be
and charge Q is rolling along positive x-axis on a
rough horizontal surface with coefficient of friction (1)
. If a constant electric field of magnitude E is

(2)
acting along positive x-axis, then friction force
acting on sphere is (3)
(1) Mg (2) Zero

(4)
(3) (4) 50. A charged particle of mass m and charge q is

accelerated through a potential difference of
47. An object when viewed through a glass slab V. It enters a region of uniform magnetic field B
appears to be at distance of 30 cm. Refractive which is directed perpendicular to the direction of
index of glass is 1.5 and object is 20 cm away motion of the particle. The particle will move on a
from it as shown in figure. If object is moved by a circular path of radius
distance of 30 cm away from the observer, its
apparent distance will now be (1)
(2)
(3)
(1) 60 cm (2) 50 cm
(4)
(3) 75 cm (4) 120 cm
(6)
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 56. The mixture showing positive deviation from
51. Which of the following pair of d-orbitals does not
have electron density along the axis? (1) Ethanol and water
(1) (2) (2) Acetone and aniline
(3) Hydrochloric acid and water
(3) (4)
(4) Phenol and aniline
52. Match the elements with atomic numbers in 57. Statement-I: Hard water is harmful for boilers
List-I with their IUPAC official name in List-II. because of deposition of salts in the forms of
List-I List-II scale.
Statement-II: During boiling hard water, the
a. 102 (i) Dubnium soluble Mg(HCO3)2 is converted into insoluble
b. 105 (ii) Bohrium MgCO3.
(1) Both Statement-I and statement-II are correct
c. 103 (iii) Nobelium
(2) Both Statement-I and statement-II are
d. 107 (iv) Lawrencium incorrect
(1) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
incorrect
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
53. Statement-I : Soda ash is obtained upon heating
correct
of washing soda above 373 K
58. Oxidation state of hydrogen in CaH2 is
Statement-II : Baking soda is used as a mild
antiseptic for skin infections (1) +1 (2) 1
In the light of above statements, identify the (3) Zero (4) 2

correct option. 59. Argentite ore is concentrated by
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is (1) Froth floatation
incorrect (2) Hydraulic washing
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is (3) Magnetic separation
correct
(4) Leaching
(3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
60. Coordination number of an atom in simple cubic
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct unit cell is
54. Which among the following is the purest form of (1) 12 (2) 4
carbon?
(3) 8 (4) 6
(1) Diamond (2) Graphite
(3) Fullerenes (4) Charcoal
(1) The appearance of colour in solid alkali metal
55. The excess of which of the following species in halides is generally due to F-centre
water causes laxative effect?
(2) The number of Bravais is lattices in which
(1) Fluoride crystals can be categorized is 14
(2) Sulphate (3) Schottky defects have no effect on the
(3) Nitrate density of crystalline solids
(4) Lead (4) Quartz is a piezo electric crystal
(7)
62. The electricity required to produce 40 g of Al from 67. Which of the following decarboxylates most easily
molten Al2O3 will be on heating?
(1) 4.44 F
(1) (2)
(2) 2.82 F
(3) 3.64 F
(4) 5.12 F (3) (4)
63. Which among the following is optically inactive

68. If water vapour is assumed to a perfect gas then
compound?
the internal energy change for vapourization
of 1 mole water at 1 bar and 100°C will
(1) (2) be (Enthalpy of vapourization of water is
41 kJ mol 1)
(1) 37.9 kJ mol 1 (2) 22.1 kJ mol 1
(3) 49.1 kJ mol 1 (4) 29.5 kJ mol 1
(3) (4) 69. The Magnetic moment of complex ion [CoF6]3 is

(Atomic no. of Co = 27)
(1) (2) 0 BM
64. Cyclic amino acid among the following is
(1) Proline (2) Isoleucine (3) (4)
(3) Valine (4) Serine 70. Statement-I: Surface tension of H2O is more than
65. Correct order of I effect of the given groups is that of C2H5OH.
(1) CN > F > CO2H > OH Statement-II: Intermolecular forces present in
H2O molecule are stronger than intermolecular
(2) CN > CO2H > F > OH
forces present in C2H5OH molecules.
(3) F > CN > CO2H > OH
(4) F > CO2H > CN > OH
66. Consider the following reactions
incorrect
incorrect
correct
Major products A and B respectively are
71. Which among the following elements has zero
unpaired electron in the divalent cationic form?
(1)
(1) Sc (2) Ti
(3) Cu (4) Zn
(2) 72. If rate constant of a reaction is 9.212 × 10 3 s 1
then the time required for the completion of 90%
of the reaction will be
(3) (1) 250 s
(2) 275 s
(4) (3) 160 s
(4) 450 s
(8)
73. Statement-I: H of adsorption is always 80. Which of the following ethers cannot be formed
negative.
Statement-II: S of adsorption is negative.
(1)
In the view of above statements, choose the
correct option.
(1) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is (2)
correct
(2) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is
incorrect
(3)
(3) Both statements-I and II are correct
(4) Both statements-I and II are incorrect
74. Number of 90° bond angles possible in SF6 (4)
molecule is
(1) 4 (2) 6 81. Chemical formula of wood spirit of
(3) 8 (4) 12
75. Relation between Ksp and molar solubility s for (1) CH3OH (2)
the salt MxXy is
(3) CH3CH2OH (4) CH3 CHO
(1) Ksp = sx+y (2) Ksp = xxyysx+y
82. Correct order of reactivity of alkyl halides towards
(3) (4) Ksp = xxyysy amines is
(1) R Cl > R Br > R I (2) R Cl > R I > R Br
76. If mass percentage (w/w) of ethanol in water is (3) R I > R Br > R Cl (4) R I > R Cl > R Br
25% then the molality of the solution will be
83. Statement-I: Monomer of natural rubber is
(1) 3.2 m (2) 4.5 m isoprene.
(3) 5.9 m (4) 7.2 m Statement-II: Monomer of neoprene is
77. The correct order of H E H bond angle is (where chloroprene.
E is the group 15 elements) In the light of the above statements, identify the
(1) AsH3 > PH3 > SbH3 > NH3 correct option.
(2) NH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > SbH3 (1) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
(3) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 correct
(4) SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > NH3 (2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
incorrect
78. Which of the following is least likely to exist?
(3) Both statements-I and II are correct
(1) HOFO2 (2) HOClO2
(4) Both statements-I and II are incorrect
(3) HOBrO2 (4) HOlO2
84. Which of the following can be used as weak
79. Compound which is most reactive towards SN1
antiseptic for eyes?
reaction is
(1) 1% solution of phenol
(1) (2) 0.2 to 0.4 ppm chlorine in aqueous solution
(3) Sulphur dioxide in very low concentration
(2) CH2 = CH Cl (4) Boric acid in dilute aqueous solution
(3) CH2 = CH CH2 Cl 85. For which of the following option, formula mass is
preferred over molecular mass?
(4) (1) NH3 (2) NaCl
(3) Cl2 (4) H2O
(9)
SECTION-B 91. Consider the following statements.
86. Given below are two statements. (a) Benzene hexachloride is an aromatic
Statement-I: In photoelectric effect, the number compound.
of electrons ejected is proportional to intensity of (b) NHCOCH3 is meta directing group towards
light. aromatic electrophilic substitution reaction.
Statement-II: The kinetic energies of ejected (c) In arenium ion one of the carbon is sp3
electrons are independent of frequency of light hybridised.
used. The correct statements is/are
In light of above statements choose the correct (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a) and (c) only
answer.
(3) (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
(1) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false 92. Statement-I: Benzaldehyde and acetophenone in
(2) Both statements-I and II are true presence of aqueous alkali at 293 K gives
(3) Both statements-I and II are false benzalacetophenone as major product.
(4) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true Statement-II: Acetophenone contains three
enolizable hydrogen atoms.
87. Thermal decomposition of which of the following
In light of above statements, choose the correct
compounds does not produce NO2 gas?
answer.
(1) Mg(NO3)2 (2) Ca(NO3)2
(3) LiNO3 (4) KNO3 incorrect
88. On electrolysis of aqueous NaCl solution, the (2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
product obtained at cathode is correct
(1) Cl2(g) (2) O2(g) (3) Both statement-I and statement-II are
(3) H2(g) (4) Na(s) incorrect
89. The equivalent weight of FeC2O4 in given reaction (4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
is 93. Which among the following complex has highest
(Molar mass of FeC2O4 = M g mol 1) number of geometrical isomers?
(1) K2[NiCl4]
(2) [Pt(gly)2]
(1) M (2) (3) [Co(NH3)3(H2O)3]Cl3
(4) [Co(NH3)2(H2O)2 ClBr]I
(3) (4) 94. The enthalpy of combustion of C2H6(g) will be
(Enthalpy of formation of C2H6(g), CO2(g) and
90. Consider the following compounds. H2O(l) respectively are 84.68, 393.5 and
285.8 kJ mol 1)
(1) 155.97 kJ mol 1 (2) 1559.7 kJ mol 1
(3) 15.597 kJ mol 1 (4) 2345.2 kJ mol 1
95. Density of SO2(g) at 2 atm pressure and at 127°C

To how many of these compounds Kjeldahl temperature will be
method is not applicable for estimation of (1) 3.9 g/L
nitrogen? (2) 7.8 g/L
(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 1.95 g/L
(3) 2 (4) 4 (4) 3.6 g/L
(10)
96. Which of the following equilibrium reactions is not 98. pH of solution made by mixing 100 ml of 0.1 M
affected by adding inert gas at constant HCl and 400 ml of 0.1 M NaOH is (log3 = 0.48)
pressure? (1) 1.2
(1) (2) 4.8
(3) 12.8
(2)
(4) 13.2
(3) 99. Paramagnetic species among the following is
(1) N2 (2) B2
(4)
(3) C2 (4) H2
97. Unit of second order rate constant is 100. Aniline can be prepared by
(1) s 1
(1) Reduction of nitrobenzene by LiAlH4
(2) mol L s 1 1
(2) Reduction of nitriles by LiAlH4
(3) mol 1 Ls 1
(3) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
(4) mol 2 L2 s 1 (4) Hoffmann bromamide degradation
BOTANY
SECTION-A 104. Statement A: Pleiotropic gene produces more
101. The genetic material of causal agent of PSTD is than one effects.
different from genetic material of causal agent of Statement B: A gamete carries only one factor
tobacco mosaic disease as former of a character.
(1) Has ssRNA Consider the above statements and choose the
(2) Is composed of deoxyribose sugar correct option
(3) Has genetic material of low molecular weight (1) Only statement A is correct
(4) Is surrounded by protein coat (2) Only statement B is correct
102. Alternaria (3) Both statements A and B are correct
a. Asexually reproduces by conidia (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
b. Lacks sex organs but shows sexual 105. Identify the wrong match.
reproduction
c. Produces ascospores (1) X-ray Physical mutagen
Choose the correct one(s). (2) Polyploidy Common in plants

(1) a and b
(3) Thalassemia Related to chromosome 11
(2) a only
(4) Sickle cell Occur due to frameshift
(3) b and c
anaemia mutation
(4) a and c
103. Chlorophyll a cannot be seen in 106. Choose the odd one for phenylketonuria.
(1) Euglena and Gonyaulax (1) Inborn error of metabolism
(2) Nostoc and Desmids (2) It is a recessive trait
(3) Euglena and Wolffia (3) Autosomal disorder
(4) Purple bacteria and green sulphur bacteria (4) An example of polygenic inheritance
(11)
107. Read the following characteristics of a PGR and 113. Bulliform cells can be seen in
identify it accordingly.
(1) All dicot plants
a. Antagonist to gibberellins
(2) All seed producing plants
b. Induces dormancy of buds and seeds
(3) Some monocot plants
c. Reduces transpiration by partial closure of
stomata (4) All monocot and dicot plants
(1) Auxin (2) Ethylene 114. Cisternae are concentrically arranged near the
(3) Abscisic acid (4) Cytokinin nucleus with distinct convex and concave faces.
108. Plants which flower only once in their life time is This statement is true for
(1) Jackfruit (1) Golgi apparatus
(2) Some bamboo species (2) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Mango (3) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(4) Papaya
(4) Lysosome
109. Geitonogamy is
115. The structure that forms the basal body of cilia
(1) Transfer of pollen grains to the stigma
and flagella also forms
through water current
(2) Pollination of a flower by pollen of same (1) Phospholipids for plasma membrane
flower (2) Kinetochores
(3) Pollination of a flower by pollen from another (3) Centromere
flower of same plant
(4) Spindle fibres
(4) Genetically similar to xenogamy
110. Gases produced in biogas plant is/are 116. In cyanobacteria, photosynthetic pigments are
present
(1) Carbon dioxide and hydrogen sulphide only
(2) Methane only (1) In dissolved state in cytoplasm
(3) Methane and hydrogen sulphide only (2) In chromatophores

(4) Carbon dioxide, methane, hydrogen and (3) On the plasma membrane attached to the
hydrogen sulphide cell wall
111. is main constituent of thiamine and biotin (4) Inside the lysosome
in plants.
117. Which of the following is not one of the main
Select the correct option which fills the blank A function of roots?
correctly.
(1) Synthesis of plant growth regulators
(1) Iron (2) Potassium
(2) Absorption of water and minerals
(3) Sodium (4) Sulphur
112. Read the following properties related to a (3) Performing biosynthetic reactions for
particular element of a complex permanent plant synthesis of glucose
tissue.
(4) Storing reserve food material
It is lignified and has lumen.
118. Regarding the type of placentation, select the
Has pointed, needle-like apices.
odd one out.
At maturity it loses protoplasm and become
(1) Mustard
dead.
Regarding the above information, the element is (2) Lemon
(1) Vessel (2) Phloem fibre (3) Tomato
(3) Companion cell (4) Sieve tube (4) China rose
(12)
119. Chloroplasts align themselves along the lateral 125. According to binomial nomenclature, the
walls i.e., parallel to the incident light in the scientific name of mango is written as Mangifera
mesophyll cells under high light intensities. This indica. Select the correct option about it.
adaptation occurs for which of the given (1) Mangifera indicates specific epithet
processes? (2) Name in italics indicates its Latin origin
(1) For easy diffusion of gases (3) indica starts with small letter as it is generic
(2) To receive optimum quantity of incident light name
(3) For protection of pigment system against (4) Mangifera starts with capital letter to show its
latin origin
destruction by light
126. All of the following categories are same in plants
(4) For absorption of maximum part of spectrum
and animals, except
used in photosynthesis
(1) Class (2) Order
120. During the process of reverse central dogma in
(3) Kingdom (4) Division
molecular biology, the enzyme reverse
transcriptase facilitates 127. During aerobic respiration, NADH + H+ and ATP
molecules are synthesized. In which of the
(1) Replication of DNA following steps NADH + H+ is not synthesized?
(2) Synthesis of DNA over RNA template (1) Glycolysis
(3) Translation of mRNA into proteins (2) Link reaction
(4) Synthesis of RNA from DNA (3) Electron transport chain
121. The structural genes in lac operon is responsible (4) Krebs cycle
for all of the given, except 128. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Synthesis of repressor protein (1) Sonalika Wheat
(2) Formation of product that increases the (2) Parbhani Kranti Bhindi
permeability of the cell to -galactosides (3) Pusa Komal Flat bean
(3) Synthesis of enzyme that transfers acetyl (4) Pusa Gaurav Mustard
group to -galactosides 129. Snails and fishes escape in time during summer
(4) Synthesis of enzyme that hydrolyses lactose by a mechanism called
(1) Hibernation (2) Diapause
122. During the process of translation, charging of
tRNA is (3) Suspend (4) Aestivation
(1) Activation of amino acids 130. Which of the following is not associated with
humus?
(2) Binding of amino acids with ATP
(1) Light coloured and rich in lignin
(3) Aminoacylation of tRNA
(2) Reservoir of nutrients
(4) Formation of Aminoacyl-tRNA synthase (3) Slightly acidic
enzyme complex
(4) Colloidal
123. Which of the given taxa has least number of
131. Statement A: Organisms are classified on the
species w.r.t biodiversity in Amazonian basis of natural affinities.
rainforest?
Statement B: It considers both external and
(1) Mammals (2) Reptiles internal features for classification of organisms.
(3) Birds (4) Fishes Above given statements are true for
124. Which of the given gases contributes majorily in (1) Phylogenetic system of classification
greenhouse gases? (2) Natural system of classification
(1) Carbon dioxide (2) Sulphur dioxide (3) Artificial system of classification
(3) NOx (4) CH4 (4) Engler and Prantl system of classification
(13)
132. Colonial alga showing oogamous reproduction is 139. Read the following statements and select the
(1) Eudorina (2) Ulothrix correct option.
(3) Volvox (4) Chlamydomonas Statement A: A male gamete moves towards

micropylar end and fuses with synergid cells to
133. What will be the content of DNA in a somatic cell
form triploid primary endosperm nucleus.
at G2, phase if its meiotic product has 5 picogram
of DNA? Statement B: Embryo develops at chalazal end
of the embryo sac.
(1) 20 pg (2) 10 pg
(3) 5 pg (4) 30 pg (1) Only statement A is correct
134. Identify the correct statement for the given stage (2) Only statement B is correct
140. In dicot stem, secondary medullary rays are
formed by cells of
(1) Xylem parenchyma (2) Pericycle
(3) Vascular cambium (4) Endodermis
141. Match the following columns and choose the
(1) Microtubules from opposite poles of spindle correct option.
attach to centromeres of sister chromatids
(2) All the chromosomes are aligned on a single Column I Column II
equatorial plate
a. Singer and (i) Omnis cellula-e-
(3) The centromeres of the chromosomes are Nicolson cellula
arranged in two rows at the equator
b. Rudolf Virchow (ii) Proposed fluid
(4) The reduction of number of chromosomes
mosaic model of
occurs during this stage
cell membrane
135. The transport of the two different molecules in
opposite directions using transport proteins is c. Anton Von (iii) First observed
called Leeuwenhoek ribosomes
(1) Symport (2) Antiport d. George Palade (iv) First described a
(3) Uniport (4) Osmosis living cell
SECTION-B
(1) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
136. Silica shells are found in
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(1) Amoeba
(2) Some marine amoeboid protozoans
(1) Aloe Leaf spine
(3) Parasitic amoeboid protozoans
(2) Australian acacia Phylloclade
(4) Euglena
(3) Nerium Whorled phyllotaxy
137. How many contrasting traits of pea were studied
by Mendel? (4) Venus-fly trap Leaf modification
(1) 7 (2) 14 143. In lac operon, the gene which is always

expressing, codes for
(3) 22 (4) 4
(1) Lactose
138. Who first identified and crystallised the plant
growth regulator kinetin? (2) -galactosidase
(1) F. W. Went (2) Skoog and Miller (3) Transacetylase
(3) E. Kurosawa (4) Cousins (4) Repressor protein
(14)
144. The use of which of the given is crucial to 148. The pattern of life cycle followed by Fucus is
disposal of hospital waste?
(1) Haplontic life cycle
(1) Open landfill (2) Sanitary landfill
(2) Diplontic life cycle
(3) Incinerator (4) Scrubber
(3) Haplodiplontic life cycle
145. Which of the given biodiversity hotspots extend
from Bhutan to Myanmar covering most of the (4) Diplohaplontic life cycle
North-Eastern India? 149. Given below are values of s and p of cells.
(1) Western Ghat Analyse the table and choose the correct
(2) Sri Lanka statement.
(3) Indo-Burma Cell s p
(4) Himalaya
A 10 7
146. The graph given represents response of
organisms to abiotic factors. Which organisms B 7 10
show this?
C 15 10
D 2 6
(1) There is no net movement of water between

cell A and cell B
(2) Water moves from cell A to cell C
(1) Conformers (3) Water potential of cell B is highest amongst
(2) Regulators all cells
(3) Partial regulator (4) Water moves from cell C to cell B
(4) Most of the plants 150. Which microbe is used as biocontrol agent to
147. Pyramid is upright in all, except control plant pathogens?
(1) Pyramid of number in grassland ecosystem (1) Saccharomyces

(2) Pyramid of number in pond ecosystem (2) Trichoderma
(3) Pyramid of energy in terrestrial ecosystem (3) Azospirillum
(4) Pyramid of number in tree ecosystem (4) Azotobacter
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 152. Read the given statements and select the
correct option.
correct one. Statement A: Hydrostatic pressure during
glomerular filtration is responsible for the
(1) The lungs can be made fully empty by
formation of concentrated urine.
forcefully breathing out all the air from them.
Statement B: During summer, when body loses
(2) Unusually high quantity of carboxy-
a lot of water by evaporation, then the release of
haemoglobin content in a patient indicates
anti-diuretic hormone is suppressed from
that the patient has been inhaling polluted air
hypothalamus.
containing unusually high content of CO2.
(1) Both statements (A) and (B) are correct
(3) When CO2 concentration in blood decreases,
breathing becomes shallower and slow. (2) Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect
(4) Reduction in pH of blood will not alter the (3) Only statement (B) is correct
breathing rate. (4) Only statement (B) is incorrect
(15)
153. Bird flu is an avian influenza which can also 160. Consider the following features
attack human beings. The causative agent of the a. Stimulate erythropoiesis
given disease is a
b. Regulate cardio-vascular and kidney
(1) Virus (2) Bacteria functions
(3) Protozoan (4) Yeast Identify the hormone.
154. Which of the following bones are not included (1) Mineralocorticoids (2) Glucocorticoids
under cranial bones? (3) Progesterone (4) ADH
(1) Parietal (2) Frontal 161. Which of the following is true about the hormone
(3) Stapes (4) Occipital produced by pineal gland?
155. The only bone in the skull of human body that (1) It influences menstrual cycle
does not articulate directly with any other bone is (2) It does not maintain body temperature
(1) Incus (2) Hyoid (3) It is also known as vasopressin
(3) Stapes (4) Ilium (4) Hyperproduction of this hormone causes

cretinism
156. Which of the following is correct for MTP?
162. The cells performing the same function are
(1) Induced abortion arranged into tissues in
(2) Spontaneous abortion (1) Spongilla (2) Euspongia
(3) Aimed at increasing female foeticide (3) Sycon (4) Hydra
(4) Medical Transformation of Pregnancy 163. Select the correct option to complete the
157. Choose the incorrect statement regarding ZIFT. analogy.
(1) It is carried out after IVF Nereis : Parapodia :: Locusta : ___

(1) Jointed antennae
(2) Stands for Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer
(2) Malpighian tubules
(3) Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are
transferred into the uterus (3) Jointed legs
(4) Early embryo up to 8 blastomeres is (4) Indirect development

transferred into the fallopian tube 164. Match column-I with column-II and choose the
correct option.
158. The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990
to a 4-year old girl with _____. Deficiency. Column-I Column-II
Choose the correct option to fill in the blank.
A. Protochordates (i) Homoiothermous
(1) Adenosine deaminase
(2) Thyroxine B. Aves (ii) Circular mouth
without jaws
(3) Guanosine deaminase
C. Agnatha (iii) Exclusively
(4) Epinephrine
marine
159. The colour of the cerebral cortex is and it is
D. Pisces (iv) Streamlined
due to .
body and bear
Choose the option which fills the blanks fins
correctly.
A B C D
(1) A White; B Cell bodies of neurons
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2) A White; B Neuronal axons (2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(3) A Grey; B Synaptic knobs (3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) A Grey; B Neuronal cell bodies (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(16)
165. Select the correct match among the following. (1) Both statements A and B are correct
(1) Embryogenesis Completes in fallopian
tubes (3) Only statement A is correct
(2) External Lizards, frogs and bony
fertilization fishes 171. The valve which guards the opening between the
left atrium and the left ventricle is
(3) Reptiles and Calcareous shell is (1) Tricuspid valve
birds present around
(2) Semilunar valve
fertilized eggs
(3) Bicuspid valve
(4) Syngamy Occurs only inside the (4) Pulmonary valve
body, in vertebrates
172. The substance which is absorbed with the help of
166. All of the following cells are present in human carrier ion like Na+.
testes, except (1) Fatty acids (2) Fructose
(1) Leydig cells (2) Germ cells (3) Glycerol (4) Glucose
(3) Granulosa cells (4) Sertoli cells 173. The disorder in which food is not digested
167. Primary oocyte grows in size and completes its properly leading to a feeling of fullness and is
caused by anxiety, food poisoning, over eating
first meiotic division within
and spicy food is
(1) Primary follicle
(1) Constipation (2) Indigestion
(2) Primary follicle surrounded by a new theca
(3) Diarrhoea (4) Vomiting
(3) Follicle which contains antrum 174. Match column I with column II w.r.t. cockroach
(4) Secondary follicle and select the correct option.
168. Human male ejaculates about 300 million sperms Column I Column II
during a coitus. For normal fertility, at least what
per cent of sperms must have normal shape, size (A) Labium (i) Tongue
and vigorous motility?
(B) Labrum (ii) Lower lip
(1) 60% (2) 40%
(C) Hypopharynx (iii) Upper lip
(3) 24% (4) 12%
(A) (B) (C)
169. If a drop of blood serum is placed on a slide, then
it does not coagulate. Mark the equation (1) (ii) (iii) (i)
representing the correct explanation for it (2) (ii) (i) (iii)
(1) Serum = Plasma Clotting factors (3) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) Serum = Blood + Fibrinogen (4) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) Plasma = Serum Plasma proteins 175. Choose the odd one w.r.t. dense connective
tissue.
(4) Blood = Plasma + Serum
(1) Areolar tissue
correct option. (2) Tendons
Statement A: Human heart is protected by a (3) Dense irregular connective tissue

triple walled membranous bag, pericardium, (4) Ligaments
enclosing the pericardial fluid. 176. How many copies of DNA molecules are made
Statement B: Leucocytes are enucleated and from a DNA template after 5 cycles of PCR?
relatively lesser in number which average 6000- (1) 32 (2) 64
8000 mm 3 of blood. (3) 16 (4) 128
(17)
177. Exonucleases differ from endonucleases in 182. Identify a homopolymer which makes up the
plant cell walls.
(1) The type of bond which they break
(1) Starch (2) Cellulose
(2) The type of polymer on which they act
(3) Chitin (4) Inulin
(3) The location where they cut
183. State the following given statements either as
(4) The class of enzymes to which they belong true (T) or false (F) w.r.t. cancer.
178. Select the mismatch among the following. (A) Non-ionizing radiations like X-rays and -rays
cause DNA damage leading to neoplastic
(1) Traditional Hybrid has desired genes transformation.
hybridisation (B) MRI plays a significant role in detecting
cancers of internal organs.
(2) Genetic Introduces only desirable
modification genes in target organism (C) Cellular oncogenes are inactivated under UV-
rays leading to oncogenic transformation of
(3) Bioprocess Maintenance of sterile cells.
engineering ambience Select an appropriate option.
(A) (B) (C)
(4) Genetic Involves change in
engineering genotype without change (1) F T T
in phenotype (2) F F T
(3) F T F
179. Branching descent and natural selection are two
(4) T F F
key concepts of theory proposed by
184. Identify the incorrect statement among the
(1) Charles Darwin following.
(2) Lamarck (1) Rheumatoid arthritis is an auto-immune
(3) Hugo de Vries disease.
(2) Allergy is an exaggerated response of the
(4) Thomas Malthus
immune system to certain antigens present in
180. Which of the following is an incorrect statement the environment.
w.r.t. evolution? (3) The use of drugs such as steroids and anti-
(1) It is a stochastic process. histamine increase the signs and symptoms
of allergy.
(2) It is based on chance events in nature and
(4) Somehow, modern-day life style has resulted
chance mutation in organisms.
in lowering down the immunity level and
(3) It is a directed process in the sense of more sensitivity towards allergens.
determinism. 185. Read the following given statements w.r.t. nucleic
(4) Anthropogenic actions may play a role in acids.
evolution. (a) DNA possesses ribose sugar in its structure.
181. The type of natural selection in which the peak (b) Thymine bonds with cytosine through two
gets higher and narrower for the phenotype hydrogen bonds.
which was already exhibited by more number of (c) The rise per base pair in B-DNA would be
individuals in the population prior to natural 3.4 Å.
selection is (d) The pitch of B-DNA would be 34 nm.
(1) Stabilising selection How many statements mentioned above are
(2) Directional selection incorrect?
(3) Disruptive selection (1) One (2) Two
(4) Progressive selection (3) Three (4) Four
(18)
SECTION-B 192. Select the incorrect option w.r.t. birds.

186. Select the odd one w.r.t. selective secretion of (1) Characteristic feature is presence of feathers
H+ and K+ ions.
(2) Forelimbs are modified into wings
(1) PCT
(3) Skin is dry without glands in all birds
(2) DCT
(4) They are oviparous and development is
(3) CD direct
(4) Descending limb of loop of Henle
187. The value of pCO2 present in blood vessel correct option.
containing oxygenated blood is
(1) Menstrual cycle starts with ovulatory phase
(1) More than pO2 in systemic veins and ends with menstruation.
(2) Equal to pO2 in systemic arteries
(2) The menstrual flow occurs due to breakdown
(3) More than pCO2 in pulmonary arteries of myometrial lining of uterus.
(4) Equal to pO2 in systemic veins (3) Menstruation only occurs if the released
188. Read the given statements and choose the ovum is not fertilized.
incorrect one regarding vasectomy. (4) Lack of menstruation is always an indication
(1) Reversibility is poor of pregnancy only.
(2) Vas deferens is cut and tied-up 194. The thickest chamber of heart receiving
(3) No sperms are present in epididymis oxygenated blood and having Purkinjee fibres is
(4) Sperms are not present in the seminal fluid (1) Left atrium
189. The main challenge for production of insulin (2) Right ventricle
using rDNA techniques was
(3) Left ventricle
(1) addition of C-peptide to pro-insulin
(4) Right atrium
(2) getting insulin assembled into mature form
195. If the desired gene is introduced in coding
(3) removal of C- peptide from mature insulin
sequence of -galactosidase in pUC 8 cloning
(4) splitting of A and B polypeptide chains vector, then resultant host cells will?
190. One of these centres is not present in the (1) Produce white coloured colonies
hypothalamus. Which one is it from the given
(2) Grow on tetracycline containing medium
options?
(3) Produce blue coloured colonies
(1) Respiratory rhythm centre
(2) Hunger centre (4) Not grow on ampicillin containing medium
(3) Thermoregulatory centre 196. Choose the correct option to complete the
analogy.
(4) Osmoregulatory centre
Direct gene transfer : Biolistics :: Indirect gene
191. Presence of which of the following is not an
exclusive feature of mammals? transfer : ___
(1) Mammary glands (1) Microinjection
(2) Hair (2) Electroporation
(3) Pinnae (3) Protoplast fusion
(4) Four chambered heart (4) Vector mediated gene transfer
(19)
197. Match column I with column II and choose the (1) (A) is false but (R) is true
correct option. (2) (A) is true but (R) is false
Column I Column II (3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
a. Vertebrate hearts (i) Vestigial organs
b. Eyes of the (ii) Homologous correct explanation of (A)
Octopus and of organs 199. Fats and oils are glycerides, in which the fatty
mammals acids are esterified with
c. Auricular muscles (iii) Analogous organs (1) Amino acid
and 3rd molar (2) Fatty acid
teeth
(3) Sugar
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) (4) Glycerol
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii) 200. A 27 years old man developed dry scaly lesions
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) in between the toes. The lesions are itchy and
spreading to other body parts as well. The most
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)
probable diagnosis is
198. Assertion (A): Co-enzymes are inorganic
(1) Ascariasis
compounds that bind tightly with the apoenzyme
to form holoenzyme. (2) Amoebiasis
Reason (R): Co-enzymes and prosthetic groups (3) Diphtheria

are cofactors. (4) Ringworm
(20)
24/08/2021 CODE-A
CST – 11
Instructions:
PHYSICS
SECTION-A 5. A particle starts with an initial velocity of 2.5 m/s
1. A dimensionless quantity along positive x-axis. How much distance will it
cover in reaching velocity of 7.5 m/s with uniform
(1) Never has a unit (2) Always has a unit acceleration of 0.5 m s–2?
(3) May have a unit (4) Does not exist (1) 20 m (2) 30 m
2. A force of 20 N acts on a particle along a (3) 40 m (4) 50 m
direction making angle 37º with the vertical. Its
component along horizontal direction is 6. A boy standing on road has to hold umbrella at
30º with vertical to keep the rain away. He throws
(1) 16 N (2) 12 N umbrella and starts running at 10 km/hr he finds
(3) 20 N (4) 10 N that rain drops are hitting his head vertically. The
3. The value of (24.36 + 0.0623 + 256.2) with speed of raindrops w.r.t. ground is
proper significant digit is (1) 10 km/h (2) 10 3 km/h
(1) 280.7 (2) 280.6
(3) 15 km/h (4) 20 km/h
(3) 280.622 (4) 281
7. Which of the following systems may be
4. The component of a vector is adequately described by classical physics?
(1) Always less than its magnitude (1) A hydrogen atom
(2) Always greater than its magnitude (2) A neutron changing to proton
(3) Always equal to its magnitude (3) Position of an electron
(4) May be greater than its magnitude (4) Motion of a cricket ball
(1)
8. A car accelerates on a horizontal road due to 13. The power factor of an ac series circuit having
force exerted by resistance R and inductance L connected in
(1) The engine of the car series with a source having angular frequency ω
is
(2) The road
R ωL
(3) The gravity of earth (1) (2)
ωL R
(4) The driver of car
R R
9. A block of mass 0.2 kg is suspended from the (3) (4)
R 2 + ω2L2 (R + ωL )2
ceiling by a light string. A second block of mass
0.3 kg is suspended from first block through 14. A wheel rotating at 20 rad/s is brought to rest by
another string. The ratio of tension in two strings a constant torque in 4 second. If moment of
is inertia of wheel is 0.2 kg m2. What is angle
rotated by wheel in first 2 seconds?
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2
(1) 20 rad (2) 25 rad
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 5 : 3
(3) 30 rad (4) 40 rad
10. A particle travels in circle of radius 20 cm at a
speed that uniformly increases. It speed changes 15. A force F acts tangentially at highest point of a
from 5 m/s to 6 m/s in 2 s. The angular solid sphere of mass M and radius R. The sphere
acceleration is is on rough horizontal surface, and there is no
slipping. What is acceleration of centre of mass
(1) 2 rad s–2 (2) 2.5 rad s–2 of sphere?
(3) 5 rad s–2 (4) 1.5 rad s–2
11. A circular frictionless track having radius of
150 m is to be designed for vehicles at an
average speed of 30 m/s. The ideal angle of
bank is (g = 10 m/s2)
3
(1) 37º (2) tan−1  
5 5F 5F
(1) (2)
5  1 2M 7M
(3) tan−1   (4) tan−1  
3 2 5F 10 F
(3) (4)
12. Three particles of masses 1 kg, 2 kg and 3 kg are 3M 7 M
placed at three corners of a right angled triangle 16. A solid sphere has mass M uniformly distributed
of sides 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm as shown in the over its volume and a is radius of sphere. What is
figure. The centre of mass from 1 kg mass is the gravitational potential at the centre of the
sphere?
GM 3 GM
(1) (2) –
a 2 a
–3 GM – GM
(3) (4)
5a 2a
17. A particle of mass 200 g executes SHM. The

restoring force is provided by spring of spring
constant 80 N m–1. What is magnitude of
(1) (1.33 cm, 1.5 cm)
acceleration when mass is 2 cm away from
(2) (2 cm, 1 cm) equilibrium position?
(3) (1.14 cm, 1.5 cm) (1) 4 m s–2 (2) 6 m s–2
(4) (1.7 cm, 0.9 cm) (3) 8 m s–2 (4) 10 m s–2
(2)
18. A simple pendulum clock keeping correct time at 24. Monochromatic light is passed through double slit
the earth surface is taken to high altitude and interference pattern is observed on screen
(1) It will keep correct time 2.5 m away. The separation between slits is
0.5 mm. The first bright fringe is 3.5 mm away
(2) Its length should be increased to keep correct from central fringe. The wavelength of light used is
time
(1) 600 nm
(3) Its length should be decreased to keep
(2) 500 nm
correct time
(3) 650 nm
(4) Its mass should be decreased to keep correct
time (4) 700 nm
19. In a streamline flow (homogeneous fluid) 25. When a drop of oil is spread on water surface, it
displays beautiful colours in daylight because of
(1) The speed of particle remain same
everywhere in flow (1) Dispersion of light
(2) The kinetic energy at different points is same (2) Reflection of light
(3) Polarisation of light
(3) Velocity of all particles arriving at a point are
same (4) Interference of light
(4) The velocity of particles always remain same 26. At what distance from a convex mirror of focal
length 2.5 m should a small object be kept so
20. A steel wire of length 2 m is stretched through
that its image has height of half of original height
2 mm. What is elastic potential energy stored in a
of object
wire of cross-sectional area 4 mm2 in stretched
condition (Y = 2 × 1011 Nm–2) (1) 2 m (2) 2.5 m
(1) 0.8 J (2) 1.2 J (3) 4 m (4) Infinity
(3) 2.4 J (4) 1.6 J 27. The rays of different colours fail to converge at a
point after going through a converging lens. This
21. A 50 cm long wire has mass of 20 g linearly
defect is called
distributed. This string is under a tension of 16 N.
(1) Spherical aberration
The speed of transverse pulse generated on it is
(2) Chromatic aberration
(1) 2 m/s (2) 10 m/s
(3) Distortion
(3) 20 m/s (4) 15 m/s
(4) Coma
22. A sound source produce sound of intensity I0 at a
point. When its amplitude become double and 28. A convex lens is made of material having
the frequency becomes one fourth then the refractive index 1.25. Both the surfaces are
intensity of sound at same point will be convex. It if is dipped in a liquid (transparent) of
refractive increase 1.4, it will behaves like
(1) I0 (2) 4 I0
(1) A convergent lens
I I
(3) 0 (4) 0 (2) A sheet
4 16
(3) A divergent lens
23. A parallel beam of monochromatic light of
wavelength 450 nm passes through a long slit of (4) A prism
width 0.2 mm. What is angular divergence in 29. A compound microscope has lens with objective
which most of the light is diffracted? of focal length 0.5 cm and eye piece of focal
length 5 and the lenses are separated by 7 cm.
(1) 4.5 × 10–3 rad
What is the magnification of microscope when
(2) 2 × 10–4 rad final image is formed at infinity?
(3) 4 × 10–3 rad (1) 12 (2) 14
(4) 4.5 × 10–4 rad (3) 15 (4) 18
(3)
30. A mass m supported by a massless string wound 35. A storage battery has an emf of 25 V and internal
around a uniform solid cylinder of mass m and resistance is 0.20 Ω. What is its terminal voltage
radius R. If the string does not slip on the when it is being charged by a current of 8 A?
cylinder, with what acceleration will the mass fall
after release? (1) 23.4 V
(2) 24.5 V
(3) 26.6 V
(4) 25 V
SECTION-B
36. The slide wire meter bridge shown in the figure is
balanced when the uniform slide wire AB is
divided as shown, the value of resistance X is
g 4g
(1) (2)
3 3
2g
(3) (4) g
3
31. Suppose the parallel metal plates shown in figure (1) 6 Ω (2) 4 Ω
at 0.50 cm apart and are connected to 90 V (3) 3 Ω (4) 2 Ω
battery. What is surface charge density of plates?
37. A 500 W heater is used to heat 250 mL of water
from 20°C to 100ºC. What is minimum time in
which this can be done?
(1) 142 s (2) 190 s
(1) 159 nC/m2 (2) 212 nC/m2 (3) 167 s (4) 210 s
(3) 116 nC/m2 (4) 516 nC/m2 38. Figure gives a system of logic gates. It can be
32. An oil drop carries six electronic charge, has found that to produce a high output (I) at Z.
mass of 1.6 × 10–12 g and falls with terminal Which of the following option is correct?
velocity in air. What magnitude of vertical electric
field is required to make drop upward with same
speed as it was for only moving downward.
(1) 16 kN C–1 (2) 32.7 kN C–1
(3) 48.5 kN C–1 (4) 0.68 kN C–1
33. How much charge is stored in capacitor
(1) X = 1; Y = 0 (2) X = 0; Y = 1
consisting of two concentric spheres of radii
30 cm and 31 cm of potential difference is 500 V (3) X = 1; Y = 1 (4) X = 0; Y = 0
(assume K = 1 for air)? 39. A He2+ ion travels at right angles to a magnetic
(1) 516 nC (2) 432 nC field of 0.80 T with a velocity of 105 m/s. What is
(3) 318 nC (4) 192 nC magnitude of force acting on the ion?
34. An ideal gas mixture filled inside a balloon (1) 1.5 × 10–14 N
expands according to the relation PV2/3 = constant.
(2) 2.56 × 10–14 N
The temperature inside the balloon is
(1) Constant (2) Increasing (3) 3.2 × 10–14 N
(3) Decreasing (4) Can't predict (4) 1.28 × 10–14 N
(4)
40. A parabolic section is located in x-y plane and 43. A conducting rod shown in figure rotates about
carries a current of 12 A. A uniform magnetic point C as pivot with constant frequency of
field B = 0.4 T making an angle of 60º with x-axis 5 rev/s. What is potential difference across its
exits throughout the plane. What is total force on ends 80 cm apart, due to magnetic field of 0.3 T?
wire between origin and point x1 = 0.25 m,
y1 = 1.00 m?
(1) 3 V (2) 0.2 V

(3) 8 V (4) 5.2 V
44. A sample of radioactive material contains
1018 atoms. The half life of the material is 2 days.
(1) –1.36 kˆ N Then initial activity of the sample is
(2) –2.4 kˆ N (1) 2 × 1010 Bq (2) 6 × 109 Bq
(3) 4 × 1012 Bq (4) 8 × 1010 Bq
(3) –1.72 kˆ N
45. The current amplification factor for common
(4) 1.42 kˆ N emitter amplifier is 59. If emitter current is
5 mA . What is value of collector current?
41. Figure shows two long parallel wires separated
by a distance of 18 cm. There is current of 8 A in (1) 1.62 mA (2) 4.58 mA
wire 1 and 12 A in wire 2. At what point on line (3) 4.72 mA (4) 4.92 mA
joining of the wires, the magnetic field is zero?
46. An ideal heat engine working between
temperature TH and TL has efficiency η. If both
the temperature are raised by 50 K each then the
new efficiency of heat engine will be
(1) Equal to η
(2) Less than η
(3) Greater than η
(1) 5.2 cm from wire 1 (4) Can’t predict
(2) 9.4 cm from wire 2 47. 4 moles of an ideal gas expand from initial
volume 2V to final volume 4V at constant
(3) 7.2 cm from wire 1
temperature 27°C. The work done by gas is
(4) 10.3 cm from wire 2 nearly
42. A flux of 900 µWb is produced in the iron core of (1) 7.5 kJ (2) 6.9 kJ
a solenoid. When core is removed a flux (in air)
(3) 8.3 kJ (4) 6.2 kJ
of 0.5 µWb is produced in same solenoid by
same current. What is relative permeability of 48. If the radiations of wavelength 200 nm and 400
iron? nm are incident on a substance of work function
2 eV one by one then the ratio of the stopping
(1) 1200
potentials for the emitted photoelectrons will be
(2) 900 (approx)
(3) 1600 (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(4) 1800 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 3
(5)
49. In given LCR circuit, the voltage across the 50. Oscillating magnetic field in a plane,
terminals of a resistance R and current through
electromagnetic wave is given by
ammeter will be

By = 4 × 10–6sin[9 × 109t – 30x] tesla. Expression
for oscillating electric field (in N C–1) will be


Ez 600 sin[9 × 109 t − 30 x ]k
(1) =

−600 sin[9 × 109 t − 30 x ]k
(2) Ez =

Ez 1200 sin[9 × 109 t − 30 x ]k
(3) =
(1) 200 V; 5 A (2) 400 V; 5 A 
(3) 400 V; 5 2 A (4) 200 V; 5 2 A −1200 sin[9 × 109 t − 30 x ]k
(4) Ez =
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 57. In which of the following pairs, both the species
51. A compound on analysis gave the following are paramagnetic and have the same bond
results C = 40%, H = 6.7% and O = 53.3%. order?
The empirical formula of the compound is (1) O22 – , O2– (2) N2 , CN–
(1) C2H4O (2) C2H6O (3) N2+ , O2+ (4) C2, O2
(3) CH2O (4) C3H6O
58. The ratio of most probable speed to root mean
52. If 2.8 g of a metal oxide contains 0.8 g oxygen, square speed of N2 at 298 K is
then the equivalent mass of the metal is
(1) 3: 1 (2) 2: 3
(1) 16 g (2) 20 g
(3) 12 g (4) 8 g (3) 3: 2 (4) 2 :1
53. An electron has a speed of 50 m/s with 59. Amount of heat evolved when 500 cm3 of 0.2 M
uncertainty of 0.02%. The uncertainty in locating H2SO4 is mixed with 200 cm3 of 0.5 M NaOH
its position is solution is
(1) 1.1 × 10–1 m (2) 3.2 × 10–7 m (1) 11.4 kJ (2) 2.85 kJ
(3) 1.2 × 10–5 m (4) 5.8 × 10–3 m (3) 5.71 kJ (4) 28.5 kJ
54. The total number of atomic orbitals in the third 60. Under what conditions, a reaction is spontaneous
energy level of an atom is at all temperatures?
(1) 9 (2) 8 (1) ∆H > 0, ∆S > 0
(3) 18 (4) 32 (2) ∆H < 0, ∆S < 0
55. The IUPAC official name of an element having (3) ∆H > 0, ∆S < 0
symbol Unt is (4) ∆H < 0, ∆S > 0
(1) Seaborgium (2) Lawrencium 61. Which one of the following pairs of solution is an
(3) Bohrium (4) Mendelevium acidic buffer?
56. The compound which has the highest lattice (1) H2SO4 + NaOH
energy is (2) CH3COOH + HCOONa
(1) NaF (2) NaCl (3) HCN + NaCN
(3) NaBr (4) NaI (4) NH4OH + NH4Cl
(6)
62. If a solution has 100 times as many hydroxide 70. The correct order of decreasing priority of the
ions as in pure water at 25ºC, then the pH of the functional group is
solution at the same temperature will be (1) – COOR > – COCl > – CONH2
(1) 9 (2) 6.4 (2) – COCl > – COOR > – CONH2
(3) 7 (4) 13.2 (3) – CONH2 > – COCl > – COOR
63. Oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 is (4) – COOR > – CONH2 > – COCl
(1) + 3 (2) + 5 71. Major products obtained when n-hexane is
(3) + 6 (4) + 4 heated in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 and
64. In ‘Coal gasification’ process, the products HCl gas are
obtained are
(1)
(1) CH3CH3 + N2 (2) H2CO3 + O2
(3) CO2 + H2 (4) CO + H2
(2)
65. The compound which forms hydrates is
(1) LiCl (2) NaCl
(3)
(3) KCl (4) RbCl
66. In pyrosilicates, the total number of oxygen (4)
atom(s) shared per SiO4–
4 tetrahedron is 72. Most acidic compound among the following is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) CH2 = CH2 (2) CH3–CH3
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) CH3 – C ≡ C – CH3 (4) CH ≡ CH
67. Incorrect statement about buckminsterfullerene is 73. Which of the following is not a green house gas?
(1) Shape like soccer ball (1) Ozone (2) Methane
(2) Impure form of carbon (3) Nitrogen (4) Nitrous oxide
(3) All carbons are sp2 hybridized 74. Antiferromagnetic substance among the following
(4) It contains six membered and five membered is
rings (1) MnO (2) Fe3O4
68. Most stable carbocation among the following is (3) CrO2 (4) NaCl
75. Which of the following aqueous solutions has the
highest boiling point?
(1) (2) (1) 0.01 m NaCl (2) 0.2 m Urea
(3) 0.02 m Glucose (4) 0.1 m Sucrose
76. The standard electrode potential (E°) values of
A+/A, B+/B, C+/C and D+/D are 2.19 V, 1.87 V,
–2.93 V and –1.7 V respectively. The correct
decreasing order of reducing power of the metal
(3) (4) is
(1) A > B > C > D (2) C > D > B > A
(3) A > B > D > C (4) D > C > A > B
69. Sodium fusion extract on reaction with Fe3+ gives
77. In a zero order reaction, for every 10° rise of
blood red colour indicates the presence of
temperature, the rate is doubled. If the
(1) Nitrogen only temperature is increased from 10°C to 60°C, the
(2) Sulphur only rate of the reaction becomes
(3) Nitrogen and sulphur both (1) 32 times (2) 16 times
(4) Nitrogen and chlorine both (3) 64 times (4) 128 times
(7)
78. Positively charged sol among the following is SECTION-B

(1) Gold sol (2) As2S3 86. Phenol on reaction with chromic acid produces
(3) Haemoglobin (4) Gelatin (1) Benzoic acid (2) Benzaldehyde
79. In the froth floatation method, the froth stabiliser (3) Benzoquinone (4) Resorcinol
used is
87. Correct order of boiling point is
(1) Pine oil (2) Cresol
(1)
(3) Fatty acids (4) Xanthates
(2)
80. Mond's process is used for refining of
(1) Ni (2) Zr (3)
(3) Ti (4) Ge (4)

81. Incorrect statement among the following is 88. The compound which is most reactive towards
(1) Ist IE of O2 is nearly identical with that of Xe nucleophilic substitution reaction is
(2) Partial hydrolysis of XeF6 gives XeO3 (1) CH3COCl (2) CH3CONH2
(3) XeOF4 is a colourless volatile liquid (3) (CH3CO)2O (4) CH3COOCH3
(4) Ne is used in fluorescent bulbs for
advertisement display purposes 89.
82. Iodine on reaction with concentrated nitric acid

gives The above reaction is known as
(1) HOI (2) HIO3 (1) Etard Reaction
(3) HIO4 (4) HI3 (2) Clemmensen Reduction
83. The metal which is present in both brass and (3) HVZ Reaction
bronze is
(4) Wolff-Kishner Reduction
(1) Tin (2) Zinc
90. Consider the following reaction
(3) Copper (4) Aluminium
84. Diamagnetic species among the following is
(1) [Co(C2O4 )3 ]3– (2) [Fe(CN)6 ]

3–
(3) [Mn(CN)6 ]3– (4) [FeF6 ]

3– The compound C and D respectively are
85. Consider the following reaction, (1)
(2)
(3)
R is
(4)
(1) (2)
91. Nitrobenzene on electrolytic reduction in strongly

acidic medium followed by rearrangement gives
(3) (4) (1) Hydrazobenzene (2) p-aminophenol
(3) Azobenzene (4) Azoxybenzene
(8)
92. Non-essential amino acid among the following is 97. Most acidic compound among the following is
(1) Proline (2) Lysine (1) C6H5COOH (2) NC – CH2COOH
(3) Valine (4) Arginine (3) O2N – CH2COOH (4) CF3COOH
93. Monomer of neoprene is 98. The compound which gives isocyanide test is
(1) 2-chloro-1, 3-butadiene
(2) Tetrafluoroethene (1)
(3) 2-methyl-1, 3-butadiene
(4) 1, 3-butadiene
(2)
94. Ranitidine is a/an
(1) Tranquilizer (2) Antihistamine
(3) CH3 – NHCH3
(3) Analgesic (4) Antacid
(4)
95. When butan-2-one reacts separately with 2, 4-
DNP and I2 in the presence of NaOH, the colour
of the precipitates so formed respectively are 99. In which of the following reactions, N2O is
(1) Orange - Red and White formed?
(2) Orange - Red and Yellow (1) Zn + conc. HNO3 (2) Cu + conc. HNO3
(3) Black and Yellow (3) Zn + dil. HNO3 (4) Cu + dil. HNO3
(4) Yellow, Green and White 100. If the bond dissociation enthalpy of H2, I2 and HI
96. Shape of I is − are x, y and z kJ/mol, then the enthalpy of
3
formation of HI is
(1) Linear
z
(2) Bent (1) x + 2y – 2z (2) x + y −
2
(3) Trigonal planar
x z x y
(4) Pyramidal (3) + −y (4) + −z
2 2 2 2
BOTANY
SECTION-A 103. Select the odd one w.r.t Fungi
101. Which of the following is not a defining property (1) Cell wall is composed of chitin
of all living organisms? (2) Some of them are photosynthetic
(3) Nucleus is present
(1) Reproduction
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum is present
(2) Metabolism 104. Diatoms are
(3) Cellular organisation (1) Members of deuteromycetes
(2) Photosynthetic organisms
(4) Consciousness
(3) Included in kingdom Monera
102. Which of the following is a taxonomic category
(4) Organisms without cell wall
related to wheat?
105. Select the mismatched pair
(1) Dicotyledonae (1) Deuteromycetes - Imperfect fungi
(2) Sapindales (2) Phycomycetes - Coenocytic mycelium
(3) Ascomycetes - Includes Ustilago and
(3) Mangifera Puccinia
(4) Poales (4) Basidiomycetes - Sex organs are absent
(9)
106. Which of the following feature is related to 112. Select the incorrectly matched pair
Pteridophytes? (1) RER – Secretion
(1) The juvenile stage of gametophyte is the (2) Amyloplast – Stores oil and protein
leafy stage (3) SER – Synthesis of steroidal
(2) Companion cells are present in phloem hormones
(3) They are first terrestrial plants to have (4) Polysome – Synthesis of protein
vascular tissues system 113. Process A- NH3 → NO2
(4) They produce cones as well as seeds Process B - NH3 → N2
107. Select the odd one w.r.t sapwood Process A and process B is respectively done by
(1) Responsible for water conduction in dicot (1) Rhizobium and Nitrobacter
trees (2) Pseudomonas and Azotobacter
(2) The peripheral region of secondary xylem (3) Nitrococcus and Pseudomonas
(3) Involved in mineral transport from soil to (4) Rhizobium and Nostoc
other parts of plant 114. Which of the following is correct statement for
(4) Provides mechanical support the reductional division?
108. Valvate type of aestivation is found in the petals (1) It involves two sequential cycles of DNA
of replication
(1) China rose (2) It involves recombination between non-sister

chromatids of homologous chromosomes
(2) Calotropis
(3) Anaphase-I involves the splitting of
(3) Pea centromere holding the sister chromatids
(4) Cassia (4) Diplotene is the first stage of prophase-I
109. Read the statements and select the correct 115. Read the following statements and select the
option. correct option.
Statement-A : Leaves of pea are converted into Statement A: Facilitated diffusion does not
tendrils for climbing. require any energy expenditure.
Statement B: In racemose type of inflorescence Statement B: Active transport cannot be

inhibited by inhibitors.
the main axis terminates in a flower, hence has
limited growth. (1) Both A and B are correct
(1) Only statement A is correct (2) Only statement A is correct
(2) Both A and B are correct (3) Both A and B are incorrect
116. Water potential of a solution at room temperature
and pressure
110. Which of the following is a characteristic feature (1) Is greater than pure water
of red algae?
(2) Can be increased by adding more solute
(1) Motile stage is absent
(3) Is less than zero
(2) Cell wall has pectose and algin
(4) Decrease when pure water is added
(3) Chlorophyll ‘c’ is present 117. Reappearance of the nuclear envelope during
(4) Always found in fresh water bodies mitosis occurs
111. All of the given cell organelles are single (1) In second phase of mitosis
membrane bound, except (2) In first phase of mitosis
(1) Lysosome (2) Golgi body (3) At the end of metaphase
(3) Ribosome (4) ER (4) In telophase
(10)
118. Which of the following is not a function of 124. Male gametophyte of flowering plants
potassium? (1) Has outer layer composed of sporopollenin
(1) It is required in pollen germination (2) Is a 8 celled structure
(2) Helps to maintain anion-cation balance in (3) Always enter into the embryo sac via
cells antipodal cells
(3) It is involved in opening and closing of (4) Has four male gametes
stomata
125. Conidia are
(4) Activates many enzymes and maintain the
(1) Asexual spores produced by Penicillium
turgidity of cells
(2) Sexual spores produced by Chlamydomonas
119. Read the statements and select the correct
option. (3) Produced by members of imperfect fungi only
Statement A: OEC is located near the PS-II. (4) Produced only under unfavourable conditions
Statement B: Only PS-II is involved in cyclic 126. All of the following plants are pollinated by water
photophosphorylation. except
(1) Both A and B are correct (1) Vallisneria (2) Zostera
(2) Only statement A is correct (3) Hydrilla (4) Water hyacinth
(3) Only statement B is correct 127. Which of the following is a main effect of auxin in
plants?
(1) Breaks seed and bud dormancy
120. In C3 plants, first product formed during carbon
(2) Promote senescence in plant
fixation, is
(3) Increase respiration rate in ripening fruits
(1) A two carbon compound
(4) Responsible for apical dominance
(2) Catalysed by PEPCase enzyme
128. ZZ-ZW type sex determination can be seen in
(3) Catalysed by RuBisCO enzyme
(1) Humans (2) All mammals
(4) Has four carbons
(3) Birds (4) Most of the insects
121. Which of the following is not true w.r.t glycolysis?
129. Chromosome complement of a person affected
(1) It occurs mainly in mitochondrial matrix
from the Klinefelter’s syndrome is
(2) NADH2 are formed
(1) 44+XO (2) 44+XXY
(3) Magnesium is necessary for the activation of
(3) 44+XX (4) 44+YY
most of the enzymes in it
130. Which ribosomal subunit act as catalyst in
(4) Two pyruvate are formed from one glucose
prokaryotes?
molecule during glycolysis
(1) 28 S rRNA (2) 23 S rRNA
122. Cytochrome c oxidase of respiratory electron
transport system (3) 18 S rRNA (4) 16 S rRNA
(1) Is located in outer membrane of mitochondria 131. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t DNA
replication
(2) Transfer the electron to oxygen from cyt c
(1) RNA primer is important to start the DNA
(3) Is also called complex V
replication
(4) Oxidize FADH2
(2) DNA ligase breaks apart the Okazaki
123. A are the derivatives of adenine and fragments
responsible for cell division. Here 'A' is (3) Helicase cleaves the hydrogen bonds of DNA
(1) ABA (2) GA duplex
(3) Cytokinin (4) Auxin (4) It is a semi-conservative process
(11)
132. Permease of Lac operon in bacteria 140. Pioneer species in the hydrarch succession is
(1) Is the product of Lac ‘z’ gene (1) Lichens (2) Reed swamp
(2) Catalyze the breakdown of lactose (3) Zooplanktons (4) Phytoplanktons
(3) Is the product of Lac ‘a’ gene 141. How many organisms given below are primary
(4) Is important for uptaking of lactose consumers?
133. Variety of Okra which is resistant to shoot and Phytoplanktons, Wolf, Zooplanktons, Large fish,
fruit borer is Grasshopper
(1) Pusa Gaurav (2) Pusa Sawani (1) Two (2) Three
(3) Pusa Komal (4) Pusa Sadabahar (3) Four (4) Five
134. Which of the following is a commercial product 142. Which of the following is incorrectly matched
formed by a fungus named Trichoderma? pair w.r.t extinct animals?
(1) Acetic acid (2) Citric acid
(1) Dodo – Mauritius
(3) Streptokinase (4) Cyclosporin A
(2) Steller’s Sea Cow – Russia
135. Organism which form the symbiotic association
(3) Quagga – India
with plant roots forming the mycorrhiza is
(1) Nostoc (2) Anabaena (4) Thylacine – Australia
(3) Glomus (4) Pseudomonas 143. Sacred grooves located in Meghalaya are
SECTION-B (1) Khasi and Jaintia Hills
136. Which of the following breaks seed dormancy? (2) Western Ghats
(1) Gibberellic acid (3) Chanda and Baster
(2) Abscisic acid (4) Aravalli Hills
(3) Para ascorbic acid 144. Select the correct statement w.r.t. catalytic
(4) Phenol converters
137. Considering the global biodiversity, maximum (1) It can remove over 99 percent particulate
proportionate number of species amongst the matter present in the exhaust from a thermal
vertebrates is of power plant
(1) Amphibians (2) Fishes (2) Can be used in the vehicles to remove
(3) Mammals (4) Reptiles poisonous gases like CO
138. Which of the following is an example of (3) It has electrode wires that are maintained at
commensalism? several thousand volts, which produce a
(1) An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a corona that releases electrons
mango branch (4) Vehicles fitted with these should use leaded
(2) Antibiotic production by fungi petrol
(3) Cuscuta, growing on hedge plants 145. Read the statements and select the correct
option
(4) Balanus and Chathalamus interaction in
intertidal area (i) Eutrophication is the natural aging of a lake
139. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. by nutrient enrichment of its water.
decomposition process. (ii) Friends of the Arcata Marsh or FOAM are a
(1) It is largely an anaerobic process group of citizens in California
(2) Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade (iii) There are many ‘EcoSan’ toilets in many
fragmented detritus into simpler inorganic areas of Kerala and Sri Lanka
substances (1) Only (i) and (ii) are correct
(3) Warm and moist environment favours
(2) All are correct except (ii)
decomposition
(3) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct
(4) Decomposition rate is slower if detritus is rich
in lignin (4) All (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(12)
146. Which of the following are components of 148. Non motile gametes are produced by
ribosomes? (1) Cladophora (2) Chlamydomonas
(1) Protein and tRNA (3) Gelidium (4) Volvox
(2) rRNA and proteins 149. Molybdenum is a part of
(3) RNA, DNA and proteins (1) Nitrogenase
(4) DNA and proteins (2) Nitrate reductase
147. Commercial production of blood cholesterol (3) Catalase
lowering agent statins is through (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) Monascus purpureus 150. Both chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b are main
(2) Streptococcus photosynthetic pigments in
(3) Aspergillus niger (1) Polysiphonia (2) Porphyra
(4) Pseudomonas (3) Gracilaria (4) Chlamydomonas
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A Choose the correct option.
151. Menstrual flow results due to the breakdown of (1) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(1) Perimetrium lining of the uterus (2) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) Myometrium lining of the uterus (3) Statement A is correct, statement B is
(3) Myometrium lining of the cervix incorrect
(4) Endometrium lining of the uterus (4) Statement A is incorrect, statement B is
152. How many spermatozoa and ova are formed correct
from four secondary spermatocytes and three 155. The similarities in the pattern of bones of
secondary oocytes respectively? forelimbs of whales, bats, cheetah and human
(1) 4 spermatozoa, 4 ova depicts
(2) 8 spermatozoa, 3 ova (1) Convergent evolution
(3) 16 spermatozoa, 12 ova (2) Divergent evolution
(4) 3 spermatozoa, 8 ova (3) Natural selection
153. Complete the analogy with respect to (4) Adaptive convergence
contraception.
156. As per origin and evolution of man, _______ was
Natural method : Periodic abstinence :: Barrier termed as the first human-like being, the hominid.
method : ________
Fill the blank with the correct option.
(1) Coitus interruptus (2) Vasectomy
(1) Dryopithecus (2) Ramapithecus
(3) Diaphragm (4) LNG-20
(3) Homo erectus (4) Homo habilis
154. Read the following given statements w.r.t. MTP
Statement A: As per MTP (Amendment) Act,
2017, a pregnancy may be terminated on certain (1) Ringworms – Epidermophyton
considered grounds within the 1st trimester of (2) Elephantiasis – Wuchereria malayi
pregnancy on the opinion of one registered
medical practitioner. (3) Ascariasis – Ascaris
Statement B: The MTP (Amendment) Act, 2017 (4) Amoebic dysentery – Plasmodium vivax
was enacted by government of India with the 158. Cell-mediated immune response is mediated by
intention of increasing the incidence of illegal
(1) B-lymphocytes (2) T-lymphocytes
abortion and consequent maternal mortality and
morbidity. (3) Monocytes (4) Macrophages
(13)
159. Effects of consuming hashish, ganja etc. can be 164. Correctly match Column-I with Column-II.
seen on
Column-I Column-II
(1) Gastrointestinal tract only
a. ADA deficiency (i) Milk contains alpha-
(2) CNS only
lactalbumin
(3) Cardiovascular system of the body
b. Rosie, (ii) Gene therapy
(4) Transportation of dopamine
transgenic cow
160. A patient visits a neurologist complaining of
severe headache, numbness, weakness, c. Validity of GM (iii) Single stranded
confusion and seizures. The neurologist research RNA or DNA
suggests the patient to get his M.R.I done. Upon
d. Probe (iv) GEAC
comprehending M.R.I results, the neurologist
diagnosed the patient with a tumor. This form of Choose the most appropriate option.
tumor spreads to other parts, causing more (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
damage in the body.
Which of the following statement holds true for
such tumor?
(4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(1) It is a form of benign tumor; no angiogenesis
165. Read the following given statements:
(2) It is a form of malignant tumor; no
angiogenesis Statement A: Plasmid is closed, circular extra-
chromosomal DNA.
(3) It is a form of malignant tumor; shows new
blood vessel formation Statement B: Plasmids are possessed only by
eukaryotic cells.
(4) It is a form of benign tumor; shows new blood
vessel formation Choose the correct option.
161 Which of the following given statement is (1) Both statements A and B are correct
incorrect w.r.t. inbreeding in animals? (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(1) Inbreeding increases heterozygosity (3) Statement A is incorrect, statement B is
(2) Inbreeding is necessary to evolve a pureline correct
in any animal (4) Statement A is correct, statement B is
(3) Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive genes incorrect
that are eliminated by selection 166. Orange coloured bands of DNA in a ethidium
bromide stained gel can be seen, when the gel is
(4) Inbreeding helps in the accumulation of
exposed to
superior genes and elimination of less
desirable genes (1) X-rays (2) UV light
162. Select the odd one w.r.t. the categorization of (3) β-rays (4) Radio waves
fish on the basis of habitat 167. Acromegaly is a resultant of
(1) Catla (2) Rohu (1) Hyposecretion of growth hormone in children
(3) Hilsa (4) Common carp (2) Hypersecretion of growth hormone in children
163. Proinsulin → Active human insulin (3) Hyposecretion of growth hormone in adults
↓
(A) (4) Hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults
Identify ‘A’ in the above drawn step of formation 168. Select the incorrect match
of human insulin (active form) from proinsulin: (1) Iodothyronines – Thyroid
(1) Removal of A-polypeptide chain hormones
(2) Removal of B-polypeptide chain (2) Amino-acid derivative – Epinephrine
(3) Removal of C-polypeptide chain (3) Protein hormone – GnRH
(4) Removal of D-polypeptide chain (4) Steroid – Insulin
(14)
169. Catecholamines in a normal person induces 175. A fall in GFR activates

(1) Alertness (1) Macula densa cells to release renin
(2) Pupillary constriction (2) JG cells to release rennin
(3) Reduction in heart beat (3) JG cells to release renin
(4) Reduction in rate of respiration (4) Macula densa cells to release rennin
170. Vestibular apparatus of inner ear is composed of 176. Identify the analogy
(1) 3 semi-circular canals only Antennal glands : Prawns :: ______ : Planaria
(2) Otolith only Choose the correct option.
(3) 3 semi-circular canals and otolith (1) Nephridia
(4) Saccule and utricle only (2) Flame cells
171. Identify the incorrect statement (3) Green glands
(1) Space between cornea and lens is called (4) Malpighian tubules
aqueous chamber 177. Match column-I correctly with column-II.
(2) Space between lens and retina is called
Column-I Column-II
vitreous chamber
(3) Vitreous humor is a thin watery fluid a. Angina pectoris (i) BP is 160/100 mmHg
(4) Aqueous humor is a thin watery fluid b. Cardiac arrest (ii) BP is 70/50 mm Hg
172. _______ is the point where visual acuity is the c. Hypotension (iii) Heart stops beating
greatest.
d. Hypertension (iv) Acute chest pain
Fill the blank with the correct option.
(1) Blind spot Choose the correct option.
(2) Fovea centralis (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(3) Pupil (3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(4) Iris 178. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. structure of

blood vessels
(1) Tunica intima is the middle layer of smooth
(1) Knee joint – Hinge joint muscle and elastic fibres
(2) Between – Ball and socket joint (2) Tunica externa is the outermost layer of
humerus and fibrous connective tissue with collagen fibres
pectoral girdle (3) Tunica media is the innermost layer of
squamous endothelium
(3) Saddle joint – Between the carpals
(4) Tunica externa is the outermost layer of
(4) Pivot joint – Between atlas and squamous endothelium
axis
179. Which of the following conditions are not
174. In the patients suffering with gouty arthritis, high favourable for dissociation of oxygen from
level of which compound is found in the joints? oxyhaemoglobin?
(1) Amino acid crystals (1) Low pO2 and high pCO2
(2) Uric acid crystals (2) High pCO2 and high H+ concentration
(3) Protein crystals (3) High temperature and acidosis
(4) Nucleic acid crystals (4) High pO2 and alkalosis
(15)
180. Select the incorrect match SECTION-B

(1) FRC = ERV + RV 186. Complete the analogy
(2) IC = TV – IRV Haemoglobin : Quaternary structure :: Myoglobin
(3) TLC = VC + RV : ________
(4) VC = ERV + IRV + TV
(1) Primary structure
(2) Secondary structure
(1) Physiologic calorific value of carbohydrates is
4.0 kcal/g (3) Tertiary structure
(2) Physiologic calorific value of proteins is
(4) Quaternary structure
4.0 kcal/g
(3) Gross calorific value of lipids is 9 kcal/g 187. Which of the following falls under the category of
(4) Gross calorific value of carbohydrates is 4.1 secondary metabolite?

kcal/g (1) Serine
182. Which of the following juice in the body is devoid
(2) 2-deoxyribose
of all enzymes?
(1) Succus entericus (3) Curcumin
(2) Bile juice (4) Thymidylic acid
(3) Pancreatic juice
188. Which of the following graph correctly shows the
(4) Intestinal juice
effect of pH on enzyme’s activity for most
183. Mucus neck cells and peptic cells, respectively in enzymes?
stomach secrete
(1) Mucus and vitamin B12
(2) Vitamin B12 and mucus
(1)
(3) Mucus and pepsinogen
(4) Pepsinogen and mucus
184. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. enzymes and
their role in digestive system
Enzyme Function
(2)
(1) Trypsinogen – Upon activation, it helps in the
digestion of proteins
(2) Pancreatic – It helps in the digestion of fats

lipase
(3) Pancreatic – About 70% of starch is

amylase hydrolyzed under its action
(3)
(4) Nucleases – Present in succus entericus,
aids in digestion of nucleic
acids
185. Which of the following are homopolysaccharides?

(1) Starch, peptidoglycan
(2) Inulin, insulin (4)
(3) Cellulose, inulin

(4) Peptidoglycan, collagen
(16)
189. How many of the given organisms exhibit radial (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
symmetry? (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(a) Pleurobrachia (b) Adamsia (3) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
(c) Aurelia (d) Ctenoplana (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(e) Aedes (f) Taenia
193. ______ are transparent, membranous and are
Choose the correct option used in flight.
(1) Two (2) Three Fill the blank with the correct option.
(3) Four (4) Six (1) Tegmina (2) Elytra
190. Observe the following figure and label A and B (3) Hindwings (4) Forewings
respectively
194. Female Periplaneta americana produces how
many oothecae?
(1) 14-16
(2) 10-20
(3) 9-10
Choose the correct option. (4) 10-12

195. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t. Periplaneta
A B
americana
(1) Notochord Post-anal part
(1) The brain is represented by sub-oesophageal
(2) Nerve cord Gill slits ganglia which supplies nerves to antennae
and compound eyes
(3) Gill slits Nerve cord
(2) Excretion is performed by malpighian
(4) Post-anal part Nerve cord
tubules, fat body, nephrocytes and uricose
191. Complete the analogy glands.
Fusiform: Smooth muscle fibres :: Intercalated (3) Blood vascular system is open type where
discs : _____ blood vessels are poorly developed and open
(1) Skeletal muscle tissue into space
(2) Voluntary muscle tissue (4) The hind gut is broader than midgut and is
(3) Non-striated muscle tissue differentiated into ileum, colon and rectum
(4) Cardiac muscle tissue 196. Thymosin is a hormone which is released by
192. Match column-I correctly with column-II. (1) Thymus gland
Column-I Column-II (2) Thyroid gland
a. Bone (i) Stores fat (3) Parathyroid gland
b. Adipose tissue (ii) Site of haemopoiesis (4) Pineal gland
c. Ligament (iii) Act as a support 197. Complete the analogy w.r.t. Islets of Langerhans
framework for of pancreas.
epithelium Insulin : β-cells : : Somatostatin : ______
d. Areolar tissue (iv) Connects bone to bone (1) F-cells (2) PP-cells
Choose the correct option. (3) δ-cells (4) α-cells
(17)
198. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. 200. Match column-I correctly with column-II.
characteristic features of Spongilla. Column-I Column-II
(1) Cellular level of organization a. Scoliodon (i) Notochord is persistent
throughout life
(2) Coelom is absent
b. Clarias (ii) Gills slits are separate and
(3) Digestive system is absent without operculum
(4) Segmentation is present (iii) Air bladder is present
which regulates buoyancy
199. A soft and spongy layer of skin forms a A
(iv) Skin is tough, containing
over the B in Pila. minute placoid scales.
(v) Skin is covered with
Fill the blanks A and B with a suitable option. ctenoid scales
A B Select the correct option.
(1) Head Muscular foot a b
(1) (i), (ii), (iv) (iii), (v)
(2) Muscular foot Visceral hump
(2) (i), (ii) (iii), (iv), (v)
(3) Mantle Visceral hump
(3) (i), (ii), (v) (iii), (iv)
(4) Mantle Head (4) (iii), (iv) (i), (ii), (v)
  
(18)
Edition: 2020-21
28/08/2021 CODE-A
CST – 14
Instructions:
PHYSICS
SECTION-A
1. The work function of a metal is w0 and λ is
wavelength of incident radiation. There is no
emission of photoelectron when
hc hc
(1) λ = (2) λ <
w0 w0
hc hc
(3) λ ≤ (4) λ >
w0 w0 (1) 2 gh (2) 2gh
2. Two pillars are at distance of 6.28 m from each (3) gh (4) 3 gh

other. What should be the maximum distance of
an observer from pillar to see them separately? 4. A liquid of coefficient of cubical expansion γ is
(θR = 1 arc minute) filled in a container having coefficient of linear

γ
(1) 21.6 km (2) 43.2 km expansion . On heating, liquid level in the
3
(3) 10.8 km (4) 5.1 km container will
3. The velocity of liquid coming out of a small hole
(1) Fall (2) Rise
of a large vessel containing two different liquids
shown in figure is (3) Remain same (4) Becomes half
(1)
5. The kinetic energy of a body varies directly as 10. A farsighted person cannot focus distinctly
square of time elapsed. The force acting varies objects closer than 100 cm. The lens that will
directly as permit him to read from a distance of 50 cm, will
have a focal length:
(1) t (2) t
(1) +50 cm (2) –50 cm
1
(3) (4) t0 (3) +100 cm (4) –100 cm
t
11. The value of alternating emf (E) in the given
6. For the arrangement shown in figure, the tension circuit will be
in the string to prevent it from sliding down, is
(g = 10 m/s2)
kg
=2 µ = 0.6
m
37º
(1) 12 N
(2) 21.6 N (1) 200 V (2) 220 V
(3) 0 N 220
(3) V (4) 100 V
(4) 2.4 N 2
7. A charged particle of mass m and charge q is 12. What is the current through an ideal P – N
released from rest in a uniform electric field E. junction diode shown in figure below?
The KE of particle after time t is:
qEt 2 q 2E 2t 2
(1) (2)
2m 2m
q 2E 2t qE 2t 2
(3) (4)
2m 2m (1) 40 mA (2) 20 mA
8. A body possesses kinetic energy x, moving on a (3) 10 mA (4) 80 mA
rough horizontal surface, is stopped in a distance
13. If force (F), mass (M), length (L) are taken as
y. The friction force exerted on the body is
fundamental quantities, dimensions of time will
x x be
(1) (2)
y y (1) [M L F]
x (2) [M L F–1]
y
(3) (4)
y x (3) [M1/2 L1/2 F1/2]
(4) [M1/2 L1/2 F–1/2]
9. Figure shows four plates each of area A and
separated from another by a distance d. What is 14. Resistance of given carbon resistor is
the capacitance between P and Q?
Aε0 2 Aε0 (1) 10 × 103 Ω ± 5%

(1) (2)
d d (2) 10 × 104 Ω ± 5%
3 Aε0 4 Aε0 (3) 10 × 103 Ω ± 10%

(3) (4)
d d (4) 10 × 104 Ω ± 10%
(2)
15. The correct graph between logeR and 21. A particle moves in a circular orbit of radius r
loge(θ – θ0) during cooling of a body may be k
under a central attractive force F = – , k is
(R is the rate of cooling and θ0 is surrounding r
temperature) constant. The time period of its motion is
logeR logeR proportional to
(1) r1/2 (2) r
(1) (2) (3) r2/3 (4) r3/2
O O 22. An insect of mass m = 2 g is inside a vertical
loge (θ – θ 0) loge (θ – θ 0)
drum of radius 1 m that is rotating with an
logeR logeR angular velocity of 10 rad/s. If the insect does not
fall off then the minimum coefficient of friction is
(3) (4) ω
O loge (θ – θ 0) O loge (θ – θ 0)
16. If T is the half-life of a radioactive material, then

T 1m
the fraction that would remain after a time is
2
1 1
(1) (2)
2 2
2 −1 2 +1
(3) (4) (1) 0.1 (2) 0.2
2 2
(3) 0.3 (4) 0.4
17. Two balls each of mass 1 kg moving in opposite
23. A body of moment of inertia 4 kg m2 rotating with
directions with speed 15 m/s collides and
an angular speed of 4 rad/s has the 4x J of
rebounds with the same speed. The magnitude
kinetic energy. Determine the value of x.
of impulse imparted to each ball due to other is
(1) 2 (2) 4
(1) 15 kg m s–1 (2) 5 kg m s–1
(3) 8 (4) 16
(3) 30 kg m s–1 (4) 10 kg m s–1
24. In rotational motion of a rigid body about an axis,
18. If length of stretched string is increased by 50% particles move with
keeping mass per unit length same, then in order
to keep its frequency of vibration constant, its (1) Same linear and angular velocity
tension must be increased by (2) Same linear but different angular velocity
(1) 50% (2) 100% (3) Different linear but same angular velocity
(3) 75% (4) 125% (4) Different linear and different angular velocity
19. In case of horse pulling a cart, the force that 25. Two circular rings (of same material) are of same
causes the horse to move forward is the force thickness. The diameter of first ring is twice that
that of second. The moment of inertia of first ring as
(1) The cart exerts on the horse compared to that of second is
(2) The ground exerts on the horse (1) 4 times (2) 8 times
(3) The horse exerts on the cart (3) 16 times (4) 2 times
26. A rain drop of radius r falls in air with terminal
(4) The horse exerts on the ground
velocity v. What is the terminal velocity of a rain
20. The position x of a particle of mass 2 kg moving drop of radius 3r?
along straight line is given as x = (t – 2)2, where t
is in second and x is in metre. The work done by v
(1) (2) 3v
the force in first 2 s is 3
(1) 0 J (2) –16 J v
(3) (4) 9v
(3) 16 J (4) 32 J 9
(3)
27. Consider a process on a system shown in figure 32. Magnetic flux through a closed conducting
below. During the process, the work done by the loop of resistance 4 Ω changes with time as
system φ = (2t2 + 8t + 6) Wb, where t is time in seconds.
The heat produced from t = 0 to t = 2 s is
224 112
(1) J (2) J
3 3
86 172
(3) J (4) J
3 3
(1) First increases then decreases 33. ISRO observed the wavelength of sodium line
(2) First decreases then increases emitted by a star is 589.6 nm. The actual
wavelength emitted by star is 589 nm. The speed
(3) Continuously increases
of the star with respect to us would be
(4) Continuously decreases
(1) 306 km/s (2) 206 km/s
28. A Carnot engine working between the
(3) 406 km/s (4) 106 km/s
temperature 500 K and 1000 K does a work of
1000 J. The heat energy supplied by the source 34. An electromagnetic wave propagates in a
to the engine per cycle is medium, whose electric field vector is given as
E = 200sin (18×108t + 8x) V m–1. Refractive index
(1) 1000 J
of medium and amplitude of magnetic field will be
(2) 1500 J
3 2
(3) 2000 J (1) µ= ;B = × 10 –6 T
2 0 3
(4) 2500 J
4 2
29. An observer moves towards a stationary source (2) µ= ; B0 = × 10 –6 T
3 3
of sound with a velocity one-fourth of the velocity
of sound. What is the percentage increase in the 3 8
(3) µ= ; B0 = × 10 –6 T
apparent frequency? 2 9
(1) 25% (2) 50% 4 8

(4) µ= ;B = × 10 –6 T
(3) 10% (4) 20% 3 0 9
30. The equation of a wave travelling on a string is 35. A direct current of 4 A and an alternating current
of 4 A flows through two identical resistors. The
  x 
= y 10 sin  π  5t –   , where x, y are in cm and t ratio of heat produced in the two resistances in
  4  same time interval will be
is in second. The velocity of wave is
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 4 : 1
SECTION-B
31. A metal wire of uniform mass is used as simple
36. An electric bulb and a capacitor are connected in
pendulum. If the temperature of metal wire is
series with an AC source. On increasing the
increases by 10ºC and coefficient of linear
frequency of the source, the brightness of the
expansion of the wire is 2 × 10–6 ºC–1, the time
bulb:
period of pendulum will increase by
(1) Remains same
(1) 1 × 103 %
(2) Increases
(2) 1 × 10–3 %
(3) Decreases
(3) 2 × 103 %
(4) 2 × 10–3 %
(4)

37. In a meter bridge experiment, the galvanometer 43. Electric field in a region is E = 3 ĵ N/ C .
shows a null point when jockey is pressed at
Equipotential surfaces are parallel to
40.0 cm using a standard resistance of 100 Ω as
(1) xy plane (2) xz plane
per the diagram. The least count of the scale
(3) yz plane (4) All of these
used is 1 mm. The unknown resistance is nearly
44. A square loop of side l is placed at a separation a
with a very long wire AB, in same plane. If the
current through BA is increasing in the direction
shown, the induced current produced in the loop
is
A
(1) (66.7 ± 0.1) Ω (2) (66.7 ± 0.3) Ω

a
(3) (33.3 ± 0.1) Ω (4) (33.3 ± 0.3) Ω
B
38. Determine the energy required to launch a
(1) Clockwise
satellite of mass m from the surface of a planet of
(2) Anti-clockwise
mass M and radius R in a circular orbit at an
altitude of 3R. (3) Zero
(4) First clockwise then anti-clockwise
5GMm 5GMm
(1) (2) 45. A proton is revolving in a circular path with
6R 3R
constant speed. Angle between angular
GMm 7GMm momentum and magnetic dipole moment
(3) (4) associated with it is
3R 8R
(1) 0º (2) 45º
39. A photocell works on the principle of
(3) 90º (4) 180º
(1) Bernoulli’s principle (2) Photoelectric effect 46. The potential energy of a particle varies with x
(3) Kirchhoff’s rule (4) Radioactivity law according to the relation U(x) = x2 – 4x. The point
x = 2 is a point of
40. Density of nucleus is of the order of
(1) Stable equilibrium (2) Unstable equilibrium
(1) 1012 kg/m3 (2) 1016 kg/m3
(3) Neutral equilibrium (4) None of these
(3) 1017 kg/m3 (4) 1024 kg/m3     
47. If A ⋅ =
B 3 A × B then angle between A and
41. Power factor of series LCR circuit at resonance is 
B will be
1 3 π π
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2 2 6 4
(3) 1 (4) Zero π π
(3) (4)
42. Which of the following represent the variation of 3 2
intensity of magnetisation (I) versus magnetising 48. In an isobaric process, the absolute temperature
force (H) graph for a diamagnetic substance? is doubled. The mean free path (λ) and the
I I relaxation time (τ) will become respectively
1
(1) (2) (1) times and 2 times
2
O H O H
(2) 2 times and 2 times
1
(3) (4) 2
1
2
(5)
49. A man is swimming with speed 10 km/h in still 50. The displacement wave in a string is given as
water crosses a river of width 1 km along the y = 5sin(62.8x – 157t). Here y and x are in cm
shortest path in 10 minutes. The velocity of river and t in second. The wavelength of the wave is
flow is
1
(1) 4 mm (2) mm
(1) 6 km/h (2) 7.5 km/h 2
(3) 10 km/h (4) 8 km/h (3) 1 mm (4) 2 mm
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
51. The correct relationship between edge length (a)
and radius of atom (r) for BCC unit cell is (1) (2)
3r 4r (3) CH3CHO (4) HCHO

(1) a = (2) a =
4 3 57. In the given reaction sequence, major product B
is
(3) a = 2 2 r (4) a = 2r
52. Which of the following is an example of

ferrimagnetic substance?
(1) CrO2 (2) Co
(3) MnO (4) Fe3O4
53. 56 g of CO contains (NA = Avogadro's No.)
(1) (2)
(1) NA molecules (2) 0.5 NA molecules
(3) 4 NA molecules (4) 2 NA molecules
54. Angular momentum of electron in 3rd stationary
orbit of hydrogen atom is (3) (4)
h 3h 58. The amine which is most basic in aqueous

(1) (2) solution is
π 2π
(1) (CH3)2NH (2) (CH3)3N
h h
(3) (4) (3) CH3NH2 (4) NH3
2π 3π
59. The maximum prescribed concentration of
55. Major product of the given reaction is manganese in drinking water is
(1) 5 ppm (2) 0.05 ppm
(3) 0.005 ppm (4) 0.5 ppm
(1) (2)
(1) (2) (3) (4)

61. Which among the following is not an aromatic
species?
(3) (4) (1) (2)

56. Which among the following compounds on
reaction with methyl magnesium bromide
followed by hydrolysis gives a tertiary alcohol? (3) (4)
(6)
62. Major product of the given reaction is 70. The IUPAC name of the following compound is
dil. KMnO
CH3=
CH CH2 
273 K
4
→
(1) CH3CH2CH2OH
(2) CH3CH(OH)CH2(OH)
(3) CH3COCH3
(1) 1-methyl-3-chloro-4-methoxybenzene
(4) CH3COCH2CH3
(2) 2-chloro-4-methylanisole
63. The compound which will not show geometrical
isomerism is (3) 1-chloro-2-methoxy-5-methylbenzene
(1) PhCH = CHPh (2) (Ph)2C=CHCH3 (4) 1-methoxy-2-chloro-4-methylbenzene
(3) CH3CH=CHCH3 (4) CH3CH2CH=CHCH3 71. Which of the following gases can be liquefied
64. The molarity of 20 volume H2O2 is nearly most easily?
(1) 3.4 (2) 5.1 (1) N2 (2) O2
(3) 2.1 (4) 1.8 (3) H2 (4) NH3
65. Which one of the following ions has the largest 72. The total kinetic energy associated with
size in aqueous solution? n moles of monoatomic gas is
(1) Cs+ (2) Na+ 3 3
(1) kT (2) nRT
(3) K+ (4) Li+ 2 2
66. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 1 1
element is (3) nRT (4) kT
2 2
(1) B > Ga > Al > Tl > In 73. Entropy is a
(2) Tl > In > Ga > Al > B (1) State function and extensive property
(3) Tl > In > Al > Ga > B (2) State function and intensive property
(4) In > Tl > Ga > Al > B
(3) Path function and intensive property
67. 0.16 g of an organic compound gave 0.094 g of
(4) Path function and extensive property
AgBr by Carius method. The percentage of Br in
the compound is (Atomic mass of Ag = 108 u, 74. Which of the following is correct for a reaction to
Br = 80 u) be spontaneous?
(1) 38% (2) 25% (1) ∆G = +ve, ∆H = +ve (2) ∆H = –ve, ∆S = +ve
(3) 12.5% (4) 50% (3) ∆G = +ve, ∆H = –ve (4) ∆H = +ve, ∆S = –ve
68. Which of the following species cannot behave as 75. The pH of 1 M CH3COONa solution in water will
electrophile? be nearly (pKa for CH3COOH = 4.74)
(1) BF3 (2) AlCl3 (1) 6.4 (2) 10.4
(3) NH+4 (4) SO3 (3) 9.4 (4) 7.4
69. Least stable carbocation among the following is 76. Conjugate base of H3BO3 is
(1) H2BO3– (2) B(OH)4–
(3) HBO32– (4) BO3–

3
(1) (2)
77. The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be
needed to react completely with one mole of
oxalate ion in acidic solution is
5 3
(1) (2)
(3) (4) 2 2
2 1
(3) (4)
5 2
(7)
78. The rate constant for a first order reaction which 87. Which among the following carboxylic acids has
has half-life 231 s is the highest pKa value?
(1) 10–4 s–1 (2) 3 × 10–3 s–1 (1) HCOOH (2) C6H5COOH
(3) 10–6 s–1 (4) 3 × 10–2 s–1 (3) O2NCH2COOH (4) CH3COOH
79. For a chemical reaction X → P, the rate of 88. Select the ion of minimum limiting molar
reaction doubles when the concentration of X is conductivity in water at 298 K.
increased 4 times. The order of reaction with
respect to X is (1) CH3COO– (2) SO2–
4
1 1 (3) Cl– (4) OH–

(1) (2)
2 3 89. Shape of XeF4 molecule is
(3) 1 (4) Zero (1) Tetrahedral (2) Octahedral
80. Among the given options, enthalpy of atomisation (3) Square planar (4) Pyramidal
is maximum for
90. Species having two unpaired electrons is
(1) Sc (2) Ti
(1) He2+ (2) B2
(3) Mn (4) V
81. The migration of colloidal particles under the (3) O2– (4) N2
influence of an electric field is known as
91. Depletion of ozone in stratosphere is due to
(1) CF2Cl2 (2) CO2
(2) Dialysis
(3) C6H6 (4) C6H6Cl6
(3) Electrophoresis
(4) Electro-osmosis
82. The coagulating power of ions for haemoglobin
decreases in the order
(1) Na+ > Ca2+ > Al3+ (2) PO3– 2–
4 > SO 4 > Cl
–
(3) Al3+ > Ca2+ > Na+ (4) Cl– > SO2– 3–
4 > PO 4 (1)
83. Which of the following processes is endothermic?
(1) O → O– (2) O– → O2– (2)
(3) Na → Na– (4) Cl → Cl–
(3)
84. Correct electronic configuration of cobalt in
complex cation [Co(NH3)6]3+ is (Atomic No. of Co
is 27) (4)
4 2 4 1
(1) t 2g eg (2) t 2g eg
93. When glucose reacts with Br2 water, it gives
(3) t 62g e0g (4) t 52g e1g (1) Saccharic acid (2) Gluconic acid
85. Select the compound of highest covalent (3) n-Hexane (4) Formic acid
character. 94. Aldol condensation will take place in
(1) NaCl (2) NaF (1) HCHO (2) PhCHO
(3) NaBr (4) NaI
SECTION-B (3) (4) (CH3)3CCHO
86. Anionic species obtained on reaction of XeF2 with
PF5 is 95. Correct formula of calamine is
(1) [XeF7]– (2) [PF6]– (1) ZnO (2) ZnS
(3) [PF4]– (4) [XeF3]– (3) ZnCO3 (4) CuCO3
(8)
96 An ideal solution made by mixing two volatile 99. The cis-alkenes are formed by the reduction of
components A and B. If the vapour pressure of alkynes with
solution is 170 mm Hg, then mole fraction of A in (1) NaBH4
vapour phase is
(2) Na/liq. NH3
=(PA° 200
= mm Hg, PB° 100 mm Hg ) (3) H2 – Pd/C, BaSO4
(1) 0.72 (2) 0.82 (4) Fe + HCl
(3) 0.68 (4) 0.50 100. Consider the following chlorides
97. Strongest reducing agent among the following is
(1) NH3 (2) BiH3
(3) AsH3 (4) PH3
98. Which of the following compounds is not an The correct order of reactivity towards SN1
antacid? reaction is
(1) Ranitidine (1) C > B > A
(2) Cimetidine (2) B > A > C
(3) Magnesium hydroxide (3) C > A > B
(4) Serotonin (4) B > C > A
BOTANY
SECTION-A 105. Select the true one about prions
101. The taxonomic category which comes just after (1) Has RNA as genetic material
species in ascending order of taxonomic (2) Abnormally folded proteins
hierarchy is
(3) Larger than viruses
(4) RNA shape is same as in TMV
106. Mark the incorrect about ribosomes
(1) Smallest cell organelle
(1) In unicellular organisms growth is (2) Membraneless
synonymous with reproduction
(3) Found in cytoplasm of prokaryotes
(2) A scientific name has two words in binomial
(4) Not found in double membrane bound cell
nomenclature
organelles of any eukaryotes
(3) Herbarium contains pressed and preserved
107. Select the incorrect statement about plasma
plant specimens
membrane
(4) Botanical gardens are 'in situ' conservation
(1) Most common types of lipids are
strategies
phosphoglycerides
103. Which of the following are good indicators of
(2) Tails of lipids are non-polar
water pollution?
(3) Proteins show flip flop movement within the
(1) Diatoms (2) BGA membrane
(3) Methanogens (4) Archaebacteria (4) Polar heads are present towards outer side
104. The organism which perform oxygenic 108. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is synthesized
photosynthesis is during which phase of cell cycle in animal cells?
(1) Chlorobium (2) Nostoc (1) G1 phase (2) S phase
(3) Nitrosomonas (4) Nitrococcus (3) G2 phase (4) M phase
(9)
109. Pairing of homologous chromosomes during 117. If two molecules A & B move in the same
zygotene is called direction. This movement can be called
(1) Dyad formation (1) Antiport (2) Symport
(2) Synapsis (3) Uniport (4) Guttation
(3) Congression of chromosomes 118. Biological nitrogen fixation is conversion of
(4) Agglutination of chromosomes (1) N2 → NH3 (2) NH3 → NO2–
110. The feature not related to family Fabaceae is
(3) NO2– → NO3– (4) NO3– → N2/NH3
(2) Pod fruit
auxin synthesis?
(3) Non endospermous seeds
(1) B (2) Mg
(3) Ca (4) Zn
111. All of the following have half inferior ovary,
120. The chlorophyll molecule in reaction center of
except
PS II has maximum absorption at
(1) Rose (2) Plum
(1) 680 nm (2) 700 nm
(3) Mustard (4) Peach
(3) 720 nm (4) 460 nm
112. Parenchyma is living tissue. Select the incorrect
121. Select the incorrect one about Photosystem I
one about it
(1) Found in stroma lamellae
(1) Cells are generally isodiametric
(2) Involves in non cyclic photophosphorylation
(2) Walls are thin and cellulosic
(3) Has chl a which shows maximum absorption
(3) May have small intercellular spaces
at 700 nm
(4) Provides mechanical support to young stem
(4) Is not involved in cyclic photophosphorylation
as has lignin deposition
122. Which of the following steps of respiration takes
113. Select the odd one w.r.t. ground tissue system
place in cytoplasm?
(1) Pericycle (2) Pith
(3) Epidermis (4) Cortex
(3) Glycolysis (4) Link's reaction
123. The respiratory quotient is unity for
(1) Cycas - have seeds but no fruits
(1) Proteins (2) Carbohydrates
(2) Selaginella – heterosporous
(3) Fats (4) Organic acids
(3) Marchantia – Dioecious liverwort
124. The plant hormone which counteracts apical
(4) Wolffia – non vascular plant dominance is
115. Egg apparatus of embryo sac has (1) Auxin (2) Cytokinin
(1) Two egg cells (3) Ethylene (4) ABA
(2) One egg cell + one synergid 125. Which of the following hormones is also known
(3) One egg cell + one antipodal as stress hormone?
(4) One egg cell + two synergids (1) Cytokinin (2) ABA
116. Movement of molecules takes place along the (3) Auxin (4) Ethylene
concentration gradient in 126. Algae are/have
(1) Simple diffusion (1) Always diploid
(2) Facilitated diffusion (2) Chlorophyllous
(3) Active transport (3) Only unicellular
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) Well developed vascular tissues
(10)
127. Isogametes are not produced by SECTION-B

(1) Ulothrix (2) Volvox 136. A bioactive molecule _______ is used as an
(3) Spirogyra (4) Rhizopus immunosuppressive agent in organ transplant
patients produced by the fungus Trichoderma
128. Myotonic dystrophy is polysporum.
(1) Autosomal dominant disorder (1) Statins (2) Amylase
(2) Autosomal recessive disorder (3) Cyclosporin A (4) Streptokinase A
(3) Sex linked recessive disorder 137. Biocontrol agent Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is
(4) Sex linked dominant disorder used to control
129. Cleistogamy ensures seed set formation. This is (1) Butterfly caterpillars
an advantage but still there are disadvantages (2) Nucleopolyhedrovirus
too. One of the disadvantage is
(3) Aphids
(1) It brings genetic variations
(4) Mosquitoes
(2) Pollinators are not required
138. A population interaction in which one species is
(3) Genetic variations are limited in progeny benefitted and other species remains unaffected
(4) Flowers remain fragrant throughout the life (+, 0) is called
130. Two to three layers of anther wall which are (1) Mutualism (2) Proto-cooperation
ephemeral called (3) Commensalism (4) Parasitism
(1) Middle layer (2) Epidermis 139. Mortality refers to
(3) Endothecium (4) Tapetum (1) Death rate (2) Birth rate
131. Females are heterogametic in all, except (3) Immigration (4) Emigration
(1) Birds (2) Grasshopper 140. The Pioneer community in xerarch succession is
(3) Butterflies (4) Moth (1) Phytoplankton (2) Zooplankton
132. In lac operon, the product of 'i' gene binds to the (3) Lichens (4) Ferns
operator
141. Reservoir for phosphorus cycle is
(1) When bacterial cell has abundant amount of
(1) Troposphere
lactose
(2) Ionosphere
(2) When bacterial cell has no lactose
(3) Located in Earth's crust
(3) RNA polymerase binds to the promoter
(4) Stratosphere
(4) RNA polymerase synthesizes β galactosidase
continuously 142. Which of the following is most important cause of
animals and plants to become extinct?
133. The size of mini satellites is
(1) Co-extinction
(1) 1 to 2 kb (2) 0.1 to 20 kb
(2) Co-evolution
(3) 1-6 bp (4) 100-120 bp
134. Protoplast is
(1) Cell without tonoplast
143. Which of the following is ex-situ conservation
(2) Cell without cell wall strategy?
(3) Cell without cell membrane (1) Wildlife safari park (2) Biosphere reserves
(4) Cell without double membrane bound cell (3) Hotspots (4) National parks
organelles
144. Montreal protocol was signed is 1987 but
135. Variety of Brassica resistant to white rust is became effective in
(1) Pusa komal (2) Pusa sadabahar (1) 1989 (2) 1994
(3) Pusa swarnim (4) Pusa shubra (3) 1992 (4) 1999
(11)
145. The part of atmosphere which acts as a shield 148. Starch sheath is found in endodermis of
absorbing UV radiations from the sun is called
(1) Dicot stem (2) Dicot root
(1) Ionosphere (2) Stratosphere
(3) Monocot root (4) Monocot stem
(3) Troposphere (4) Both (1) and (3)
149. Roots have all, except
146. Mark the incorrect match w.r.t. symbols used for
pedigree analysis (1) Pericycle
(1) → Affected male (2) Hypodermis

(3) Radial vascular bundles
(2) → Affected female
(4) Epiblema
(3) → Five unaffected offspring 150. Loading of sucrose in sieve tube elements is
(4) → Mating between relatives (1) Simple diffusion
147. There is no tRNA for codon which has sequence (2) Active process
(1) AGU (2) AUG (3) Facilitated diffusion
(3) UAA (4) UUU (4) Osmosis
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 156. Select the mismatch among the following.
151. Number of chromosomes present in the meiocyte (1) ZIFT – Transfer of zygote or early embryos
of house fly is (with upto 8 blastomeres) into fallopian tube
(1) 12 (2) 6 (2) GIFT – Gametes are transferred in uterus
(3) 24 (4) 48 (3) IUT – Transfer of embryos with more than 8
152. Read the following statement and choose the blastomeres within uterus
option that correctly fills the blank.
(4) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection - Sperm is
Small amounts of urea could be eliminated directly injected into the ovum
through ________.
157. Read the following statements about
(1) Lungs (2) Saliva
Echinoderms and choose the option that
(3) Bile (4) Liver correctly fill the blanks A and B.
153. The first human hormone produced by
Adult echinoderms show A symmetry, but
recombinant DNA technology is
(1) Insulin (2) Melatonin their larvae show B symmetry.
(3) Testosterone (4) Progesterone (1) (A) – Radial; (B) – Radial

154. The human embryo develops from (2) (A) – Bilateral; (B) – Bilateral
(1) Only hypoblast cells (2) Inner cell mass
(3) (A) – Radial; (B) – Bilateral
(3) Allantois (4) Trophoblast
(4) (A) – Bilateral; (B) – Radial
155. Given below is the percentage of nitrogenous
158. Which type of vector is used to introduce a
bases present in four different samples of the
genetic material. Identify, which sample belongs functional ADA cDNA into lymphocytes, in gene
to an RNA virus therapy for ADA deficiency?
(1) Sample A : A-23%, G-27%, C-27%, T-23% (1) Plasmid

(2) Sample B : G-22%, A-28%, C-22%, T-28% (2) Bacteriophage
(3) Sample C : U-22%, G-23%, C-23%, A-32% (3) BAC
(4) Sample D : C-8%, A-42%, G-8%, T-42% (4) Retrovirus
(12)
159. Match column I with column II w.r.t. gestation and 163. Use of bioresources by multinational companies
choose the correct option. and organisations without authorisation from the
concerned country and its people is called
Column I Column II
(1) Bio-infringement
a. Foetus develop (i) End of second (2) Biopatent
limbs and digits trimester
(3) Biopiracy
b. First movements (ii) End of first (4) Bio-exploitation
of foetus month
164. All of the following are complications of STIs,
c. Heart formed (iii) Fifth month except
(1) Pelvic inflammatory diseases
d. Eye-lids separate (iv) End of second (2) Periodic abstinence
and eye lashes month (3) Ectopic pregnancy
are formed
(4) Still births
(1) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) 165. Colostrum is the milk produced during the initial
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) few days of lactation. It is essential to develop
resistance for the new-born babies because it
160. Which of the following is an active ATPase
contains antibodies of
enzyme?
(1) IgG type (2) IgM type
(3) IgA type (4) IgE type
(2) Globular head of meromyosin
166. Carefully read the following statements and
(3) Tropomyosin
choose the option that correctly fill the blanks
(4) Tail of meromyosin (A) and (B).
161. Enzyme commission number of amylase is In human ear, the membranous labyrinth is
(1) 6.2.7.1.2 (2) 3.2.1.1 surrounded by a fluid called A , and is itself
(3) 2.3.1.4.1 (4) 3.2.1 filled with a fluid called B .
(1) A – Perilymph, B – Endolymph
the option that correctly fill the blanks (A) and
(B). (2) A – Endolymph, B – Perilymph
Statement I : The intercellular material of (3) A – Perilymph, B – Perilymph
cartilage is A and resists compression. (4) A – Endolymph, B – Endolymph

167. Which of the following will not be released when
Statement II : Bones have a B ground there is a decrease in blood pressure/volume?
substance rich in calcium salts and collagen (1) Atrial natriuretic factor
fibres which give bone its strength.
(2) Aldosterone
(1) (A) – Hard and non-pliable
(3) ADH
(B) – Solid and pliable
(4) Renin
(2) (A) – Solid and pliable
168. Bioluminescence can be seen commonly in the
(B) – Hard and non-pliable organisms of Phylum
(3) (A) – Soft and non-pliable (1) Cnidaria
(B) – Solid and pliable (2) Ctenophora
(4) (A) – Solid and pliable (3) Coelenterata
(B) – Soft and non-pliable (4) Cyclostomata
(13)
169. Read the following statements about enzyme co- Case I Case II
factors and choose the option that correctly
states them true (T) or false (F). (1) Natural passive Artificial passive
(A) Co-enzyme nicotinamide adenine immunity immunity
dinucleotide contain the vitamin B3
(2) Natural active immunity Natural passive
(B) Haem is the transient bound co-enzyme for immunity
enzyme catalase
(C) Co-factors are non-protein constituents that (3) Natural active immunity Artificial passive
bound to some enzymes, to make them immunity
catalytically active
(4) Natural active immunity Artificial active
(D) Zinc is a co-enzyme for enzyme immunity
carboxypeptidase
(A) (B) (C) (D) 174. Choose the incorrect match.
(1) T F T F (1) Oral steroidal – Inhibition of ovulation

(2) F F T T contraceptive pills
(3) F F T F (2) IUDs – Inserted by doctors and
(4) T T T F expert nurses in uterus
170. The mating of more closely related individuals (3) Copper releasing – Make the uterus
within the same breed for 4-6 generations is IUDs unsuitable for
known as implantation, inhibit
(1) Out-crossing ovulation
(2) Inbreeding
(4) Hormone – Make cervix hostile to
(3) Cross-breeding releasing IUDs the sperms
(4) Interspecific hybridisation
175. Study the alimentary canal of cockroach and
171. A gene is expressed in a host organism, which select the option that correctly define the
does not naturally have this gene or gene structure whose function is given below.
fragment. Such a host organism is called as
(1) Novel host
(2) Heterologous host
(3) Non-recombinant host
(4) Homologous host
172. The crops engineered for glyphosate are
resistant/ tolerant to
(1) Nematodes (2) Herbicides
(3) Worms (4) Bacteria
173. Study the following given cases carefully. (i) A structure which secrete digestive juice.
Case I : A person is infected by SARS CoV-2, (ii) A structure used for storing of food.
with very mild symptoms and is quarantined at (iii) A structure which helps in removal of
home. He gets healthy within few days without excretory products from haemolymph.
taking any medications.
(iv) A structure which help in grinding the food
Case II : Another person also got infected by particles.
same coronavirus strain, with severe symptoms
like difficulty in breathing, sore throat, fever and (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
has lost the sense of smell and taste. He has (1) A B C D
been admitted to hospital and given convalescent (2) D A C B
plasma therapy.
(3) C B D A
Which type of immunity is associated with the
above two cases? (4) C A D B
(14)
176. Which of the following can be caused by anxiety, 181. Read the following statements about cells
food poisoning, over eating and spicy food? present in gastric glands and choose the correct
option.
(1) Indigestion
Statement I : Paneth cells secrete mucus.
(2) Constipation
Statement II : Chief cells secrete HCl and
(3) Diarrhoea
intrinsic factor.
(4) Jaundice
177. Read the statements w.r.t dinosaurs and choose correct
the correct option. (2) Statement I is correct but statement II is
Statement I : About 85 mya, the dinosaurs incorrect
suddenly disappeared from the earth. (3) Both statements are correct
Statement II : Tyrannosaurus rex was about 20 (4) Both statements are incorrect
feet in height and had huge fearsome dagger like 182. To form the shoulder joint, glenoid cavity
teeth. articulates with the
(1) Both statements are correct (1) Clavicle
(2) Both statements are incorrect (2) Scapula
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is (3) Head of the humerus
incorrect
(4) Acromian process
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is 183. Flavr savr variety of tomato, remains fresh for a
correct longer period than normal tomato due to
178. Select the incorrect match. (1) Presence of pest resistance gene
(1) JG cells of kidney – Erythropoietin (2) Over expression of gene coding for enzyme
(2) CCK – Stimulate secretion of polygalacturonase
gastric juice (3) Silencing of gene coding for enzyme
(3) Gastrin – Stimulates secretion of polygalacturonase
HCl and pepsinogen (4) Presence of vitamin A and C
(4) GIP – Inhibits gastric motility 184. Study the given statements about HIV.
179. An Rh -ve female, conceive twin boys in her first (i) The primary target cells for HIV are
pregnancy. What is the probability of suffering macrophages and helper T-lymphocytes
from erythroblastosis foetalis in this first (ii) HIV is a non-enveloped retrovirus, having two
pregnancy by the Rh +ve foetus? identical molecules of ss RNA genome
(1) 33.3 per cent (iii) HIV gets attached to the CD8 receptors
present on helper T-lymphocytes, to gain
(2) 50 per cent
entry in them
(3) 0 per cent
(iv) A widely used diagnostic test for AIDS is
(4) 100 per cent enzyme linked immuno-sorbent assay
180. How many features given below in box are (ELISA)
present in skeletal muscles? (v) Treatment of AIDS with anti-retroviral drugs
is only partially effective
Voluntary, Uninucleate, Attached to bones,
How many of the above given statements are
Striations, Intercalated discs
correct?
(1) Two (1) Two
(2) Three (2) Four
(3) One (3) Five
(4) Four (4) Three
(15)
185. Which of the following animal evolved into first 192. Read the following statements about blood and
amphibians that lived on both land and water? choose the option that correctly states them true
(1) Neopilina (2) Lobe finned fishes (T) or false (F).
(3) Archaeopteryx (4) Ichthyosaurs (A) A healthy individual has 12-16 g of
SECTION-B haemoglobin in every 100 ml of blood
186. All of the following structures of internal ear are (B) IgA antibodies are mainly involved in allergic
responsible for maintenance of balance of the reactions
body and posture except (C) Eosinophils resist infections and are
(1) Crista ampullaris (2) Macula utriculi associated with allergic reactions
(3) Macula sacculi (4) Organ of Corti (D) Spleen is the graveyard of RBCs
187. Which part of the brain is involved in the (A) (B) (C) (D)
regulation of sexual behaviour?
(1) T T T T
(2) F T T T
(2) Only hypothalamus
(3) T F F T
(3) Limbic system and hypothalamus
(4) T F T T
(4) Cerebellum
188. Read the following statements w.r.t regulation of
respiration and choose the correct option. (1) 900cc (2) 650-800cc
Statement I : Respiratory rhythm centre present (3) 1400cc (4) 1350cc
in the medulla region of brain, is primarily
responsible for regulation of normal rhythm of
breathing. Industrial pollutants : Occupational respiratory
Statement II : The role of oxygen in the disorders :: Cigarette smoking : ______
regulation of respiratory rhythm is very (1) Asthma (2) Emphysema
significant.
(3) Rhinitis (4) Heart attack
195. The copy number of the linked DNA in the vector,
correct
is controlled by a sequence called as
incorrect (1) Ori site
(3) Both statements are correct (2) Selectable marker
(4) Both statements are incorrect (3) Palindromic sequence

189. How many external rows of ciliated comb plates (4) Recognition site
are usually present in the body of comb jellies? 196. Select the mismatch among the following w.r.t.
(1) 8 (2) 12 Animal kingdom
(3) 10 (4) 16
(1) Ctenophora – Radial symmetry
190. Evolution of DDT resistant mosquitoes is an
example of (2) Aschelminthes – Coelomate
(1) Stabilising selection (3) Annelida – Segmentation present
(4) Platyhelminthes – Incomplete digestive
(3) Disruptive selection system
197. Select the odd one out regarding excretion in
191. In which of the following connective tissue, cells
cockroach.
does not secrete fibres of collagen or elastin?
(1) Areolar tissue (2) Adipose tissue (1) Urecose glands (2) Nephrocytes
(3) Blood (4) Bone (3) Antennal glands (4) Fat body
(16)
198. Complete the analogy for the following Choose the option that mention only correct
Flagellar movement : Spermatozoa : : Amoeboid statements.
movement (1) Only a, b and c
(1) Ciliated epithelial cells (2) Only a and c
(2) RBCs (3) Only b, c and d
(3) Leucocytes (4) a, b, c and d
(4) Cuboidal epithelial cells
200. Select the mismatch among the following w.r.t.
199. Consider the following statements regarding contraceptives
hormonal disorders
(1) Natural method of – Periodic
a. Grave’s disease is a form of hypothyroidism
contraception abstinence
b. Excessive secretion of growth hormone after
puberty leads to acromegaly (2) Copper releasing – CuT
c. Prolonged hyperglycemia leads to a complex IUD
disorder called diabetes mellitus
(3) Hormone releasing – Multiload 375
d. Cretinism is the defective development and IUD
maturation of the growing baby due to
hypothyroidism during pregnancy (4) Non-medicated IUD – Lippes loop
  
(17)
Edition: 2020-21
25/08/2021 CODE-A
CST – 12
Instructions:
PHYSICS
SECTION-A 4. When an elevator is moving downward with a
1. A particle is moving in a straight line with increasing speed, the apparent weight of a body
velocity (v) = (t – 4) m/s. What is the average inside elevator
speed between t = 0 to t = 8 second? (1) Will increase
(1) 0 ms–1 (2) 1 ms–1 (2) Will decrease
(3) 2 ms–1 (4) 4 ms–1 (3) Remains the same
2. Avalanche breakdown of p-n junction diode is (4) First increase then decrease
due to  
5. Two non-zero vectors A and B are essentially
(1) Collision of electrons with atoms perpendicular if
(2) Forward biasing    
(1) A ⋅ B = 0 (2) A × B = 0
(3) Field emission    
(3) A + B = 0 (4) A − B = 0
(4) All of these
6. Mercury does not wet glass because
3. A proton and a deuteron enter in a uniform
magnetic field with equal kinetic energy in the (1) Cohesive force is equal to adhesive force
direction perpendicular to the field. The ratio of (2) Cohesive force is much greater than
radius of circular path is adhesive force
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) Cohesive force is less than adhesive force
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 (4) Angle of contact is 90°
(1)
7. Two infinitely long parallel wires having linear 13. The kinetic energy of a body decreases by 36%.
charge densities λ1 and λ2 respectively are The decrease in linear momentum is
placed at a distance of R. The force per unit (1) 10% (2) 20%
length on either wire will be
(3) 36% (4) 45%
2k λ1λ 2 k λ1λ 2
(1) (2) 14. In the circuit shown in figure, what is the value of
R R
I0 just after pressing the key K?
2k λ1λ 2 k λ1λ 2
(3) (4)
2
R R2
8. Equation of a standing wave is expressed as
y = 2Asinωt coskx. In this equation, quantity ω/k
represents.
(1) The speed of standing wave (1) 0.25 A (2) 0.75 A
(2) The speed of either of component wave (3) 2.25 A (4) 1 A
(3) The transverse speed of particle of the string 15. A proton moving with velocity v along the axis
(4) None of these approaches a circular current carrying loop as
shown in figure. The magnitude of magnetic force
9. A ball is projected from ground with initial
on proton at this instant is
momentum p at an angle θ. What is the
magnitude of net change in linear momentum
when it reaches at maximum height of journey?
(1) psinθ (2) pcosθ
(3) 2psinθ (4) psinθ + pcosθ
10. Gravitational force between two point masses is
found to be F when both are in vacuum. If both µ0 evR 2
the masses are immersed in water, new (1)
( )
3/2
gravitational force will be: 2 R2 + x2
(1) Greater than F

µ0 eviR 2
(2) Less than F (2)
( )
3/2
2 R2 + x2
(3) F
(4) Information insufficient
µ0 eviR 2
(3)
11. An automobile engine develops 105
W power
( )
3/2
when rotating at an angular speed of 900 4n R 2 + x 2
rad/minute. The instantaneous torque delivered
(4) Zero
by the engine is
16. Five metallic plates each of area A and
1
(1) 104 N-m (2) × 104 N-m separated from adjacent plate by a distance d as
3
shown in figure. The capacitance of the system
2 across A and B is:
(3) × 104 N-m (4) 2 × 104 N-m
3
12. A particle of mass m is dropped from rest from a
height h0 on a horizontal floor. The coefficient of
restitution between the floor and particle is e.
Maximum height attained by the particle after A ∈0 2A ∈0
(1) (2)
second collision is d d
(1) eh0 (2) e2h0 3A ∈0 4A ∈0
(3) (4)
(3) e3h0 (4) e4h0 d d
(2)
17. The magnetic induction at the centre O in the (1) Diamagnetic substance
figure shown is: (2) Paramagnetic substance
(3) Soft iron
(4) Steel
21. Maximum wavelength in Balmer series of
hydrogen spectrum is (R : Rydberg constant)
4 9
(1) (2)
R R
 µ i µ i 1 36
(1) Zero (2)  0 + 0  k (3) (4)
R 5R
 4πR 4R 
22. Determine the number of nuclei that will be
 µ i µ i  µ i µ i
(3)  0 + 0  k (4)  0 + 0  k decayed upto one average life of radioactive
 2πR 2R   2πR 4R  material? (N0 : Initial number of nuclei)
18. Two co-planar circular loops are placed N0  1
(1) (2) N0  1 − 
concentrically as shown in figure. The radius of e  e
the outer and inner loops are R and r respectively
R >> r. The mutual inductance between them will N0 × e
(3) (4) N0(1 – e)
be 2
23. Two particles of masses 5 kg and 10 kg are
placed along x-axis at positions x = 1 m and
x = 3 m. The moment of inertia of the system
about an axis respectively passing through
centre of mass and parallel to y-axis is
20
(1) 15 kgm2 (2) kgm2
3
µ0 πr 2 µ0 πr 2
(1) (2) 40
2R 4R (3) 20 kgm2 (4) kgm2
3
µ0 πR 2 µ0 πR 2
(3) (4) 24. The logic gate realised from the circuit as shown
2r 4r
in figure is (P and Q are inputs and Z is output)
19. In a transverse progressive wave of amplitude A,
the maximum particle velocity is four times its
wave velocity. The wavelength of the wave is:-
πA
(1) πA (2)
2
πA
(3) (4) 2πA
4
(1) AND Gate (2) OR Gate
20. The B-H curve of two material are given below.
Substance (a) most likely indicate (3) NAND Gate (4) NOR Gate
238
25. A radioactive element 92  undergoes
successive radioactive decay and decays into
206
82 Pb . The number of α and β particles emitted
–
respectively are:
(1) 10 and 4 (2) 6 and 6
(3) 8 and 6 (4) 8 and 8
(3)
26. An objective lens of a telescope has diameter (1) 1.5P0V0 (2) 2.5P0V0
200 cm. The limit of resolution of telescope for (3) 3.5P0V0 (4) 2P0V0
wavelength 600 nm is nearly
32. The following figure depicts snapshot of a wave
(1) 9 × 10–7 rad (2) 3.7 × 10–7 rad
travelling in a medium. Which pair of particles are
(3) 3 × 10–8 rad (4) 3.7 × 10–8 rad in phase?
27. In Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom, which of the
following represents the variation of nth orbit
radius with n?
(1) rn ∝ n3 (2) rn ∝ n
(3) rn ∝ n4 (4) rn ∝ n2
28. The current in a coil changes from 8 A to zero in
0.2 s. If self-inductance is 4 H then average
induced emf is: (1) A and D (2) B and F
(1) 160 Volt (2) 180 Volt (3) C and E (4) B and G
(3) 120 Volt (4) 60 Volt 33. Light wave is travelling along +y-direction. If the

29. The area of cross-section of cylindrical wire corresponding E vector at any time is along the

increases uniformly from left to right as shown in +z-axis. Then the direction of B vector at this
figure. When steady current flows in the wire, time is along:
then in the direction of current
(1) Drift speed increases

(1) y-axis (2) +x-axis
(2) Drift speed decreases
(3) –x-axis (4) –z-axis
(3) Electric field intensity increases
34. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.5, what is the
(4) Current density increases
percentage loss of energy on each rebounding of
30. What should be the minimum coefficient of static a ball dropped from a height?
friction between an inclined plane and the solid
cylinder, for which the cylinder does not slip on (1) 25% (2) 50%
the inclined plane? (3) 67.5% (4) 75%
1 2 35. Centre of mass for a uniform semi-circular ring
(1) sin θ (2) sin θ
3 3 will be at (from centre)
2 1 2R 4R
(3) tan θ (4) tan θ (1) (2)
3 3 π 3π
31. The P-V diagram of 4 g of helium gas for a 2R 4R
certain process A → B is shown in the figure. (3) (4)
3π π
What is the heat given to the gas during the
process A → B? SECTION-B
36. A nuclear fusion reaction is given by
4 ( 4
2 He ) → 16
8 O. If atomic mass of He is
4.0026 amu and that of O is 15.9994 amu then

the Q-value of the reaction will be approximately
(1) 5.4 MeV (2) 10.2 MeV
(3) 18.6 MeV (4) 20.4 MeV
(4)
37. For the transistor circuit as shown. If β = 100, 43. When a metallic surface is illuminated with
voltage drop between emitter and base is 0.7 V radiation of wavelength λ, the stopping potential
then value of VCE will be:- is V. If the same surface is illuminated with
radiation of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential
V
is . The threshold wavelength for metallic
4
surface is
(1) 2λ (2) 3λ
5
(3) λ (4) 5λ
(1) 10 V (2) 15 V 2
(3) 20 V (4) 5 V 44. A resistance R draws power P when connected
to an AC source. If an inductance is now placed
38. If wavelength corresponding to 2nd line of Lyman in series with the resistance, such that the
series is λ, then the wavelength corresponding to impedance of the circuit becomes Z the power
last line of Balmer series will be: drawn will be
9λ 32λ R
(1) (2) (1) P (2) P  
8 9 Z
2
27λ 24λ R PR 2
(3) (4) (3) P   (4)
16 7 Z Z
39. Consider a uniform square plate of side ‘a’ and 45. Which of the following graph represents the
mass ‘m’. The moment of inertia of this plate damped oscillation motion?
about an axis perpendicular to its plane and
passing through one of its corners is:
(1)
2 7
(1) ma 2 (2) ma2
3 12
5 1
(3) ma2 (4) ma2
6 12
(2)
40. The change in surface energy when a drop of
radius R splits into 8 droplets, each of radius r is
(surface tension is T)
(1) 2πR2T (2) 4πR2T
(3) 8πR2T (4) 16πR2T (3)
41. The force required to stretch a steel wire of cross
section 4 cm2 to 1.02 times its length would be
(Y = 2 × 1011 N m–2)
(1) 1.6 × 106 N (2) 1.6 × 10–6 N
(4)
(3) 1.6 × 10–7 N (4) 1.6 × 107 N
42. The core of a transformer is laminated to reduce
energy losses due to 46. If a star emitting light of wavelength 500 nm is
(1) Resistance in winding moving towards earth with a velocity of 1.5 × 106
m/s then the shift in the wavelength due to
(2) Hysteresis doppler’s effect will be:
(3) Eddy currents (1) 25 Å (2) 250 Å
(4) None of these (3) 2.5 Å (4) Zero
(5)
47. The spectrum of a black body at two temperature 49. If the gravitational acceleration at the surface of
127°C and 527°C is shown in the figure. Let A1 earth is g, then increase in potential energy in
and A2 be the areas under the two curves
lifting an object of mass m from earth surface to a
A
respectively. The value 1 is: height equal to half of radius of earth from
A2
surface will be:
mgR 2mgR
(1) (2)
2 3
mgR mgR
(3) (4)
3 4
50. Water has been filled in a vertical capillary tube
upto the top after closing its lower end by a finger
Consider radius of capillary r = 1 mm, surface
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 8 tension is 70 dyne/cm and g = 980 cm/sec2.
(3) 1 : 16 (4) 1 : 2 Which of the option is correct when finger is
48. The length of a potentiometer wire is . A cell of removed?
emf E is balanced at a length /4 from the (1) Whole of water will fall down from the
positive end of the wire. If the length of the wire is capillary tube
increased by /2, at what distance will the same (2) Whole of water will stay inside the capillary
cell give a balanced point? (Potentiometer tube
battery is ideal)
(3) Nearly 1.42 cm of water will stay inside
3 3 capillary tube and rest will fall down
(1) (2)
4 8
(4) Nearly 2.86 cm of water will stay inside the
 
(3) (4) capillary tube and rest will fall down.
4 2
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 54. If vapour pressure of two liquids A and B in pure
51. The first co-ordination number of Cs+ in CsCl state are 400 and 500 mm of Hg respectively
then mole fraction of A in vapour phase of
lattice is
solution obtained by mixing equal moles of A and
(1) 4 (2) 8 B is
(3) 6 (4) 3 1 3
(1) (2)
52. Packing efficiency of fcc lattice is 2 5
π π 4 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 2 2 3 9 3
3π π 55. Which among the following is malachite?

(3) (4)
8 6 (1) 2CuCO3⋅Cu(OH)2
53. Which of the following aqueous solution has (2) Cu2O
highest boiling point? (3) CuCO3⋅Cu(OH)2
(1) 0.1 M Glucose (4) Cu2S⋅Fe2S3
(2) 0.1 M NaCl 56. When CaC2 reacts with H2O then, it gives
(3) 0.1 K2SO4 (1) C2H4 (2) C2H2
(4) 0.1 M K4[Fe (CN)6] (3) C2H6 (4) CH4
(6)
57. Which of the following is not an acidic oxide? 64. Most acidic among the following is
(1) NO (2) NO2
(3) N2O5 (4) N2O3
58. Which of the following is least likely to exist? (1) (2)
(1) HClO4 (2) HIO3
(3) HOF (4) HBrO2
59. The effective atomic number of Fe in K4[Fe(CN)6]
is (3) (4)
(1) 35 (2) 38
(3) 36 (4) 34
60. Which of the following is the correct order of 65. Which of the following aqueous solution will have
increasing field strength of ligands to form the maximum specific conductance?
coordination compounds? (1) 0.1 HCl (2) 0.1 M Glucose
(1) OH– < I– < NCS– (2) I– < OH– < NCS– (3) 0.1 M NaCl (4) 0.1 M NH4OH
(3) NCS– < I– < OH– (4) OH– < NCS– < I– 66. For which order reaction, half-life is inversely
proportional to the concentration of reactant?
61. Benzotrichloride on reaction with aq. KOH
followed by hydrolysis gives (1) Zero (2) First
(3) Second (4) Half
67. Emulsion is a colloidal solution of
(1) (2) (1) Liquid in liquid (2) Liquid in solid
(3) Gas in liquid (4) Solid in gas
68. The equilibrium constant for the reaction
Zn(s) + Cu2+ (aq.) → Cu(s) + Zn2+ (aq.), E° = 1.10 V
(3) (4) at 298 K is
(1) 1042.38 (2) 1028.56
62. Which of the following compounds is optically (3) 1050.73 (4) 1037.22
active?
69. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
physisorption of a gas on solid surface?
(1) (2)
(2) Uni-molecular layer formation
(3) Involves van der waals forces
(4) Low enthalpy of adsorption
(3) (4) 70. The ionization constant of HCN is 4.5 × 10–10 at
298 K. Hydrolysis constant of sodium cyanide is
(1) 1.11 × 10–6 (2) 3.33 × 10–4
63. Which of the following compounds will give (3) 2.22 × 10–5 (4) 4.44 × 10–7
positive test with FeCl3? 71. Which of the following equilibrium will shift in
forward direction on applying pressure?
1 

(1) (2) CH3OH (1) SO2(g) + O2 (g) 
 SO3 (g)
2


(2) PCl5 (g) 
 PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)


(3) H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) 
 2HCl(g)
(3) (4)


(4) CaCO3 (s) 
 CaO(s) + CO2 (g)
(7)
72. Oxidation number of S in H2SO5 is 81. The number of moles of K2Cr2O7 that will be
(1) +8 (2) +6 needed to react with one mole of nitrite ion in
acidic solution is
(3) +4 (4) +7
2 1
73. An element with atomic number 50 belongs to (1) (2)
3 3
(1) s-block (2) p-block
1 1
(3) d-block (4) f-block (3) (4)
6 2
82. A gas at 300 K and 10 bar has molar volume
Name IUPAC Official Name 10% more than that for an ideal gas under the
same conditions. The correct option about the
a. Unnilbium (i) Nobelium
gas and its compressibility factor (Z) is
b. Unnilquadium (ii) Rutherfordium (1) Z > 1 and attractive forces are dominant
c. Unnilseptium (iii) Bohrium (2) Z > 1 and repulsive forces are dominant
(3) Z < 1 and repulsive forces are dominant
d. Unnilennium (iv) Dubnium
(4) Z < 1 and attractive forces are dominant
(1) a, (i) (2) b, (ii)
83. Which among the following is not a state
(3) c, (iii) (4) d, (iv) function?
75. The correct shape and hybridization for XeF2 are (1) Gibbs energy (2) Pressure
(1) Octahedral, sp3d2 (3) Temperature (4) Work
(2) Planar triangle, sp3d3 84. Select the incorrect statement among the
(3) Linear, sp3d following
(4) Square planar, sp3d (1) Ortho and para hydrogen differ in proton spin
76. Which of the following species is nonpolar? (2) Heavy water is used as a moderator in
(1) NF3 (2) SO2 nuclear reactors
(3) BF3 (4) NO2 (3) Covalent hydrides are formed by p-block
elements
number of atoms among the following? (4) H2O2 oxidises PbS into SO2
(1) 22 g CO2 (2) 16 g O3 85. Select the correct statement among the following
(3) 14 g N2 (4) 24 g Mg (1) Suspension of slaked lime in water is known
78. If 65.5 g of a metal chloride contains 35.5 g as lime water
chlorine, then equivalent mass of metal is (2) Crude sodium chloride obtained by
(1) 30 (2) 35.5 crystallisation of brine solution contains MgSO4
(3) 40.5 (4) 25 (3) Beryllium salts are rarely hydrolysed
79. The number of radial nodes and angular nodes in (4) Gypsum contains a lower percentage of Ca
3p orbital respectively are than in plaster of Paris
(1) 1 and 1 (2) 1 and 2 SECTION-B
(3) 2 and 1 (4) 0 and 1 86. +1 oxidation state is most stable for
80. The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 100 (1) Tl (2) In
kJ and 200 kJ respectively. The relation between (3) Ga (4) B
their frequencies i.e. ν1 and ν2 will be
87. Among the following second ionisation energy is
(1) ν1 = 2ν2 (2) 2ν1 = ν2 maximum for
(1) V (2) Ti
ν2
(3) ν1 = (4) ν1 = 4ν2
4 (3) Cr (4) Mn
(8)
88. The aqueous solution containing which one of 94. The essential amino acid among the following is
the following ions will be colourless? (1) Glycine (2) Alanine
(1) Fe2+ (2) Zn2+ (3) Glutamine (4) Histidine
(3) Ni2+ (4) V3+ 95. Monomer of Nylon-6 is
89. Reaction between acetaldehyde and ethyl (1) Acrylonitrile (2) Chloroprene
magnesium bromide followed by hydrolysis gives (3) Caprolactam (4) Styrene
(1) n-butyl alcohol (2) sec. butyl alcohol 96. Photochemical smog does not contain
(3) iso-butyl alcohol (4) tert. butyl alcohol (1) O3 (2) SO2
(3) PAN (4) NOx
90. Cannizzaro reaction will not take place in
97. A single compound of the structure
(1) HCHO (2) CH3 – C– CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – C– CH2CH3
|| ||
O O
(3) CH3CHO (4) (CH3)3C–CHO
is obtain from ozonolysis of which of the following
91. Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction is given by compounds?
(1) CH3COOH (2) CH3COCH3
(1) (2)
(3) CH3CHO (4) CH3CH2OH
92. Strongest base among the following is
(1) N, N-Diethylethanamine
(3) (4)
(3) Benzamine
98. Non-aromatic species among the following is
(4) N, N–Dimethylaniline
93. Aniline in a set of reactions yielded a product (D) (1) (2)
(3) (4)
the structure of the product D would be
99. The correct IUPAC name of Cl – CH2 – CH = CH2
is
(1) (2)
100. The number of aldehyde isomers for C4H8O will
be
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) (4)
(3) 2 (4) 5
BOTANY
SECTION-A 102. Which of the given chromosomes appear L-
101. Which of the given cell organelles is the shaped during anaphase?
important site of glycosylation of proteins?
(2) Sub-metacentric chromosome
(2) Golgi apparatus
(3) Lysosome (3) Acrocentric chromosome
(4) Vacuoles (4) Telocentric chromosome
(9)
103. How many generations of mitosis are required for 110. Which of the given is medicinal plant of family
producing 32 cells? Fabaceae?
(1) 16 (2) 32 (1) Petunia (2) Gloriosa
(3) 8 (4) 5 (3) Muliathi (4) Belladonna
104. All of the given are significance of meiosis, 111. Vascular bundles are conjoint and open in
except (1) Dicot root (2) Monocot root
(1) Formation of gamete (3) Dicot stem (4) Monocot stem
(2) Maintenance of chromosome number 112. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. monocot
(3) Maintenance of cell size root.
(4) Introduction of variation (1) Pericycle gives rise to lateral roots
105. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. rules of (2) Vascular bundles are polyarch
Binomial nomenclature (3) Cambium develops at the time of secondary
(1) Biological names are generally taken from growth
Latin language irrespective of their origin (4) Pith is large and well developed
(2) Each organism is given only one name 113. Red algae
consisting of one word (1) Have chlorophyll a and b as major pigments
(3) The first word denoting genus starts with a (2) Have starch as stored food
capital letter
(3) Contain cellulose and algin in their cell wall
(4) The name of the author or discoverer is
(4) Lack flagella
written after specific epithet in abbreviated
form 114. Double fertilisation is an unique event to which of
the given plant groups?
106. Select the incorrect match w.r.t taxonomic
categories of mango. (1) Algae (2) Pteridophytes
(1) Family - Anacardiaceae (3) Gymnosperms (4) Angiosperms
(2) Order - Dicotyledonae 115. The process of absorption of water by hydrophilic

solid particles of a substance without forming a
(3) Division - Angiospermae solution is called
(4) Genus - Mangifera (1) Plasmolysis (2) Imbibition
107. In which of the given protists, the cell wall (3) Transpiration (4) Guttation
resembles a soap box?
116. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. apoplast
(1) Diatoms (2) Dinoflagellates pathway of absorption of water in plants.
(3) Euglenoids (4) Slime moulds (1) It consists of living parts of plant body
108. The algal partner of lichens (2) There is a little resistance in the movement of
(1) Is called mycobiont water
(2) Absorbs water and minerals (3) It is faster
(3) Forms bulk body of lichens (4) It is not affected by metabolic state of root
(4) Performs photosynthesis 117. Nitrogen is absorbed mainly in which of its given
form from the soil?
109. How many of the given plants have
actinomorphic and zygomorphic flowers, (1) NO2− (2) NO3−
respectively?
(3) NH+4 (4) Both (1) and (3)
Mustard, Gulmohur, Canna, Cassia, Datura,
Pea 118. Which of the given monerans fixes nitrogen
symbiotically as well as in free-living state?
(1) 2 and 3 (2) 3 and 2 (1) Rhizobium (2) Azotobacter
(3) 2 and 4 (4) 4 and 2 (3) Frankia (4) Anabaena
(10)
119. The primary CO2 acceptor molecule in C3 cycle is 126. Embryogenesis is absent in which of the given
a plant groups?
(1) 3-carbon aldose sugar (1) Algae (2) Bryophyte
(2) 5-carbon ketose sugar (3) Pteridophyte (4) Gymnosperm
(3) 3-carbon ketose sugar 127. All of the given are true w.r.t. innermost wall layer
(4) 5-carbon aldose sugar of anther, except
120. During photorespiration, loss of CO2 occurs in (1) Surrounds sporogenous tissue
which of the given cell organelles?
(2) Helps in dehiscence of anther
(1) Chloroplast (2) Peroxisome
(3) Their cells nourish developing pollen grains
(3) Mitochondria (4) Sphaerosome
(4) Possess dense cytoplasm
121. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. intermediates of
Krebs cycle and their products 128. The largest cell of embryo sac is
(1) Acetyl CoA – Carotenoids (1) Synergids (2) Egg
(2) Succinyl CoA – Pyrimidines (3) Antipodal cells (4) Central cell
(3) Oxaloacetic acid – Alkaloids 129. If a colour-blind female marries a normal male.
(4) α-Ketoglutaric acid – Amino acid synthesis The probability of their daughter(s) being
colourblind is
122. Select the correct option w.r.t. increasing order
of respiratory quotient of various substrates. (1) Zero (2) 0.5
(1) Fats < Protein < Oxalic acid (3) 0.25 (4) 0.75
(2) Malic acid < Oxalic acid < Fat 130. In which genetic condition, each cell in the
(3) Protein < Fat < Malic acid affected person has only one sex chromosome,
i.e. XO?
(4) Oxalic acid < Protein < Malic acid
123. Read the given statements and select the (1) Turner’s syndrome
correct option. (2) Klinefelter’s syndrome
Statement A: All GAs are acidic (3) Phenylketonuria
Statement B: Tomato is a long day plant (4) Haemophilia
(1) Only statement A is correct 131. All of the given are stop codons, except
(1) UAA (2) AUG
(3) UAG (4) UGA
132. Opening of DNA helix during transcription is
124. Stimulus for vernalisation is perceived by performed by
(1) Shoot apex (2) Embryo of the seed
(1) Helicase (2) RNA polymerase
(3) Leaves (4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Ligase (4) Topoisomerase
125. Match the columns w.r.t. plants and their
reproductive structure. 133. Agriculture contributes about A of India’s
GDP and gives employment to nearly B of
Column-I Column-II
the population.
a. Chlamydomonas (i) Conidia
Select the option which correctly fills A and B.
b. Penicillium (ii) Rhizome
A B
c. Eichhornia (iii) Zoospore (1) 33% 62%
d. Ginger (iv) Offset (2) 62% 33%
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (3) 35% 89.5%
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (4) 89.5% 35%
(11)
134. Pusa Shubhra is bred by hybridisation and 141. Among vertebrates which of the given species
selection for resistance to black rot and curl blight contributes maximum to global biodiversity?
black rot, is a variety of which of the given crop? (1) Fish (2) Mammals
(1) Wheat (2) Brassica (3) Birds (4) Reptiles
(3) Chilli (4) Cauliflower 142. Rivet-popper hypothesis was given by
135. Which of the given household product is obtained (1) Alexander von Humboldt
by using only bacteria?
(2) Paul Ehrlich
(1) Bread (2) Toddy
(3) Robert May
(3) Dosa (4) Camembert cheese
(4) David Tilman
SECTION-B
143. In aquatic food chain, biomagnification is found to
136. Cyclosporin-A is used as an immunosuppressive be highest in which of the given organism?
agent. It is produced by
(1) Zooplankton
(2) Phytoplankton
(2) Monascus purpureus (3) Large fish
(3) Streptococcus (4) Fish-eating birds
(4) Rhizopus 144. Which of the given greenhouse gases contributes
137. Population is said to be mature or stable, when minimum to total global warming?
(1) Size of population increases rapidly (1) CO2 (2) CH4
(2) Growth rate being almost zero (3) N2O (4) CFC
(3) Population shows a declined growth 145. Read the given statements stating true (T) or
(4) Age pyramid for human population appears false (F) and select the correct option.
like a triangle A. Myotonic dystrophy is an autosomal
dominant disorder
138. Which of the given contribute to increase the
population density during a given period in an B. Sickle cell anaemia exhibits transversion
area? substitution mutation
(i) Natality (ii) Mortality C. Polarity of template strand which forms
continuous complementary strand during
(iii) Immigration (iv) Emigration
replication is 5′ → 3′
(1) Both (i) and (ii) (2) Both (ii) and (iii)
D. Human genome project as ‘Mega project’
(3) Both (i) and (iii) (4) Both (ii) and (iv) was a 13-year project
139. Anthropogenic ecosystem possesses all of the A B C D
given characteristics, except
(1) T F T F
(1) Have little diversity
(2) F F F F
(3) T T T T
(3) Simple food chain
(4) T T F T
(4) Little cycling of nutrients
146. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. pollen
140. In hydrarch succession, the successional series grains.
progress from
(1) It represents male gametophyte
(1) Xeric to mesic condition
(2) These are generally spherical in structure
(2) Hydric to mesic condition
(3) Their wall consists of exine and intine layers
(3) Xeric to hydric condition (4) Their inner wall has prominent apertures
(4) Hydric to xeric condition called germ pores.
(12)
147. The phenotype of F1 hybrid resemble both of the 149. Which of the given nitrogenous bases is/are
parents in purine?
(1) Co-dominance a. Cytosine b. Adenine
(2) Incomplete dominance c. Uracil d. Guanine
(3) Dominance (1) Both a and c (2) Only c
(4) Both (1) and (3) (3) Both b and d (4) Only a
148. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was 150. How many types of histones form core part of
proposed by nucleosome?
(1) Sutton and Boveri (1) Two
(2) Thomas Hunt Morgan (2) Five
(3) A.R. Wallace (3) Three
(4) Charles Darwin (4) Four
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 156. Match column I with column II and choose the
151. Choose the odd one w.r.t. menstrual cycle. correct option.
(1) Humans (2) Apes Column I Column II

(3) Tiger (4) Monkeys a. World's population in (i) 1 billion
152. How many chromosomes are present in a rat year 2000
sperm cell?
b. India's population in (ii) 7.2 billion
(1) 21 (2) 42
year 2000
(3) 23 (4) 19
c. India's population in (iii) 6 billion
May 2011
In a human male, each testis has about d. World's population in (iv) 1.2 billion
________ compartments called testicular year 2011
lobules. (1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(1) 125 (2) 250 (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) 150 (4) 280 (3) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
154. How many of the items given below in box (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
belongs to human male reproductive system?
157. All of the following are the features of an ideal
Seminal vesicles, Glans penis, Prostate contraceptive except
gland, Infundibulum, Foreskin, Hymen, Mons (1) Easily available (2) Effective
pubis
(3) Irreversible (4) User-friendly
(1) Six (2) Four 158. How many items given in the box below are
(3) Two (4) Three IUDs?
155. At which stage of oogenesis does theca layer
Cu7, LNG-20, Saheli, Lippes loop, Nirodh,
organise itself into inner theca interna and outer
Progestasert, Depo-Provera
theca externa?
(1) Secondary follicle (2) Primary follicle (1) Six (2) Three
(3) Tertiary follicle (4) Corpus luteum (3) Four (4) One
(13)
159. Read the statements and choose the option that 163. How many of the following are associated with
states all the correct ones. the harmful effect of smoking?
(i) Vertebrate hearts are example of Bronchitis, Emphysema, Coronary heart disease,
homologous organs Cancer of lung, Cancer of urinary bladder,
(ii) Eye of octopus and mammals are analogous Gastric ulcer
(iii) Darwin's finches are examples of evolution (1) Six (2) Two
by anthropogenic action
(3) Three (4) Four
(iv) Evolution of modern man appears to be
parallel evolution of human brain and 164. Complete the analogy for the following
language Marine fish : Pomfret : : Freshwater fish :
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (i), (ii) and (iv) (1) Hilsa (2) Mackerel
(3) Only (i) and (ii) (4) Only (ii) and (iv) (3) Sardine (4) Common carp
160. Australian marsupial spotted cuscus shows 165. Which is the most common species of honey bee
convergent evolution with a placental mammal in India?
called _____. (1) Apis mellifera (2) Apis indica
Choose the option that correctly fills the blank. (3) Apis dorsata (4) Apis florea
(1) Bobcat (2) Mole 166. Read the following statements about agarose gel
(3) Lemur (4) Flying squirrel electrophoresis and choose the incorrect option.
161. Read the following statements w.r.t. evolution of (1) The agarose gel used in the technique is
man and choose the incorrect one. extracted from seaweeds
(1) Homo habilis were the first human like being (2) The DNA fragments separate according to
the hominid their size
(2) Homo erectus had a large brain around 650- (3) Separated DNA fragments can be visualised
800 cc after staining with ethidium bromide followed
by exposure to infrared rays
(3) Ramapithecus was more man-like
(4) DNA fragments move from cathode to anode
(4) Neanderthal man used hides to protect their
under the influence of an electric field
body
167. Select the odd one w.r.t. downstream
processing.
correct option.
(1) Separation
Column I Column II
(2) Preservatives
a. Plague (i) Haemophilus (3) Marketing
influenzae
(4) Purification
b. Pneumonia (ii) Babesia 168. Transgenic animals exist for which of the
following human diseases?
c. Filariasis (iii) Entamoeba
histolytica a. Alzheimer's b. Cancer
c. Cystic fibrosis
d. Babesiosis (iv) Yersinia pestis
(v) Wuchereria ones
(1) a(iv), b(v), c(i), d(ii) (1) Only a and b
(2) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) (2) Only b and c
(3) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (3) a, b and c
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(v), d(ii) (4) Only a and c
(14)
169. A plasmid containing complete gene copied from A B

human genome is introduced in a bacterial cell, (1) Pons Bile pigments
but the bacteria is unable to make a working
(2) Medulla Bile pigments
copy of the protein because
(3) Medulla Bile salts
(1) It cannot recognise the start codon in mRNA
(4) Pons Bile salts
(2) Of the absence of similar amino acids in
bacteria 174. Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a
normal expiration is called
(3) Of the absence of similar splicing machinery
(1) Residual volume
(4) The foreign gene cannot replicate in bacteria
(2) Vital capacity
170. Read the following statements about insulin and
choose the option that states all correct (3) Functional residual capacity
statements. (4) Expiratory capacity
a. Earlier, insulin was extracted from pancreas 175. Choose the odd one w.r.t. formation of
of slaughtered cattles and pigs oxyhaemoglobin.
b. Mature insulin do not contain polypeptide C (1) High pO2
c. Mature insulin consists of two short (2) Low pCO2
polypeptides: chain A and chain B (3) Higher H+ concentration
d. During commercial production of insulin, (4) Lower temperature
chain A and B were produced together, 176. Match column I with column II w.r.t. percentage
extracted and combined by creating of leucocytes and choose the correct option.
disulphide bonds
Column I Column II
(1) Only a, b and c (2) Only b, c and d
a. Eosinophils (i) 60-65 per cent
(3) a, b, c and d (4) Only b and c
b. Neutrophils (ii) 20-25 per cent
171. The first restriction endonuclease isolated was
c. Basophils (iii) 2-3 per cent
(1) Eco RI (2) Hind III
d. Lymphocytes (iv) 0.5-1 per cent
(3) Hind II (4) Bam HI
(v) 6-8 per cent
correct option.
(2) a(v), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
Column I Column II
(3) a(i), b(v), c(iv), d(ii)
a. Small intestine (i) pH 6.8
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(v)
b. Salivary amylase (ii) pH 1.8
177. Study the following diagrams w.r.t. blood groups
c. Urine (iii) pH 7.8 and donor compatibility and choose the correct
d. Gastric HCl (iv) pH 6 option.
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (1) (2)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
173. Read the statements w.r.t. disorders of digestive (3) (4)
system and choose the option that correctly fill
the blanks A and B.
(i) Vomiting is the ejection of stomach contents 178. Choose the mismatch among the following.
through the mouth, which is controlled by (1) Antennal glands – Prawns
vomit centre present in A . (2) Malpighian tubules – Cockroach
(ii) In jaundice, skin and eyes turn yellow due to (3) Nephridia – Earthworm
deposit of B . (4) Flame cells – Pila
(15)
179. Complete the analogy for the following 184. The inner layer of eye, retina contains three
Reabsorption of 70-80% of electrolytes : PCT : : layers of neural cells, which does not include
Conditional reabsorption of Na+ : (1) Photoreceptor cells (2) Unipolar cells
(1) PCT (2) DCT (3) Ganglion cells (4) Bipolar cells
(3) Henle's loop (4) Bowman's capsule 185. Consider the following statements w.r.t.
180. Malfunctioning of kidneys may lead to a condition endocrine system and choose the correct option.
called uremia in which a. A is released from hypothalamus,
(1) Urea is accumulated in urine which inhibits the release of growth hormone
(2) Uric acid is accumulated in blood from pituitary gland.
(3) Urea is accumulated in blood b. Pars intermedia secretes only one hormone
(4) Uric acid is accumulated in joints
called B .
181. Read the following statements w.r.t. muscle A B

contraction and choose the option that states all (1) GnRH FSH
the correct statements.
(2) Somatostatin MSH
a. Actin and myosin filaments do not get short
(3) GnRH LH
but rather slide passes each other
(4) Somatotrophin MSH
b. The size of A-band reduces
SECTION-B
c. Length of H-zone decreases
186. All of the following are associated with
(1) a and b (2) a, b and c
catecholamines except
(3) a and c (4) Only a
(1) Increase alertness
182. Read the following statements about human
(2) Heartbeat increases
skeleton system and choose the option that
correctly states them true (T) and false (F). (3) Glycogenesis
a. Total number of bones in hind limbs are 60 (4) Piloerection
b. There are 26 bones in vertebral column of an 187. Consider the following statements about
adult man glucocorticoids.
c. There are 2 pairs of vertebrochondral ribs a. They stimulate gluconeogenesis and lipolysis
d. Axial skeleton is comprised of 80 bones b. They produce inflammatory reactions and
a b c d suppresses the immune system
(1) T F F T c. They stimulate RBC production
(2) T T F T d. They promote cellular uptake and utilisation

of amino acids
(3) F T T F
How many of the above statements are correct?
(4) F T T T
(1) Four (2) Three
183. Association areas in forebrain of humans are
associated with (3) Two (4) One
a. Communication 188. All of the following hormones interact with
membrane bound receptors except
b. Memory
c Intersensory associations (1) Epinephrine (2) Insulin
Choose the option which includes all the correct (3) Cortisol (4) ADH
ones 189. Bone cells present in lacunae are called
(1) a only (2) b only (1) Osteoblasts (2) Osteocytes
(3) a, b and c (4) c only (3) Chondrocytes (4) Chondroblasts
(16)
190. Read the following statements about cockroach 193. The bond which connects a nitrogenous base
and choose the incorrect one. with deoxyribose sugar in a nucleotide of DNA
molecule is
(1) The hind wings are used in flight
(1) Hydrogen bond
(2) Anal styles are absent in females (2) Glycosidic bond
(3) The inner thick layer of crop forms six highly (3) Ester bond
chitinous plate called teeth (4) Phosphodiester bond
(4) Malpighian tubules help in removal of 194. Which of the following play known roles in normal
excretory products from haemolymph physiological processes?
(1) Concanavalin A (2) Abrin
191. Uricose glands in cockroach are associated with
(3) Anthocyanin (4) Tryptophan
(1) Digestion
195. Study the given picture of actin filament carefully
(2) Excretion and choose the option that correctly labels A
and B.
(3) Circulation
(4) Respiration
192. Study the graphs given below and choose the

A B
option which correctly shows the activity of
enzyme, salivary amylase. (1) Troponin Tropomyosin
(2) Troponin F actin
(1) (3) Tropomyosin F actin
(4) F actin Troponin
196. Which of the following is the correct sequence of
structures formed during spermatogenesis?
(1) Primary spermatocytes → Spermatogonium
→ Spermatids → Spermatozoa
(2) (2) Spermatogonium → Primary spermatocytes
→ Spermatozoa → Spermatids
(3) Primary spermatocytes → Secondary
spermatocytes → Spermatids →
Spermatozoa
(4) Spermatogonium → Secondary
(3) spermatocytes → Primary spermatocytes →
Spermatozoa
197. Complete the analogy regarding assisted
reproductive technologies.
IUT : Embryo with more than 8 blastomeres is
transferred into uterus : : ZIFT : ______
(1) Only zygote is transferred into fallopian tube
(4)
(2) Only embryo with 4 blastomeres is
transferred into fallopian tube
(3) Zygote is transferred into uterus
(4) Zygote or early embryo (upto 8 blastomeres)
is transferred into fallopian tube
(17)
198. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. secondary 200. Consider the following statements regarding
regulation of respiration.
lymphoid organs.
a. Role of oxygen is insignificant in regulation of
(1) Peyer's patches respiratory rhythm.
b. An increase in concentration of CO2 and H+
(2) Thymus
ions, in arterial blood, activate
(3) Spleen chemosensitive area, which in turn signals
pneumotaxic centre to make necessary
(4) Tonsils adjustments.
c. Respiratory rhythm centre in medulla is
199. The protein produced by some strains of Bacillus
primarily responsible for regulation of
thuringiensis can kill all of the following except respiration.
(1) Beetles d. Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre can
increase the duration of inspiration.
(2) Armyworm Choose the option that mentions all correct
statements.
(3) Flies
(1) Only a, b and c (2) Only a, c and d
(4) Ants (3) Only a and c (4) a, b, c and d
  
(18)
Edition: 2020-21
31/08/2021 CODE-A
CST – 16
Instructions:
PHYSICS
SECTION-A 3. Choose the correct statement among the
1. The half life of a radioactive substance is following
20 minutes. The time taken between 40% decay
(1) A transistor acts as an amplifier in saturation
and 70% decay of the same radioactive
substance is region
(1) 20 minutes (2) 40 minutes (2) NAND and NOR gates are called universal
(3) 30 minutes (4) 15 minutes gates
2. An ideal p-n junction diode is connected in the
(3) Solar cell is used in forward biasing for its
circuit as shown in the figure. Choose the
incorrect option. proper operation
(4) At 0ºC, semiconductor acts as an insulator
4. If fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe

(1) In forward bias the potential drop across 2 Ω is 70 Hz, then the frequency of second overtone
is 4 V
is
(2) In forward bias, the voltage drop across the
diode is zero (1) 210 Hz
(3) In reverse bias, the potential droop across (2) 350 Hz
2 Ω is 4 V
(3) 280 Hz
(4) In reverse bias, the voltage drop across diode
is 4 V (4) 420 Hz
(1)
5. A ball of mass m strikes a rough horizontal 9. A car travels a distance x km on a straight road in
surface with speed u at an angle θ with the 3 hours and then returns immediately to the
normal and it rebounds with the speed v at angle starting point in next four hours with uniform
φ with the normal. If the ball remain in contact for speed. Its average speed in first four hours (in
km/h) is
time ∆t, then average normal force on the ball
due to horizontal surface is x 2x
(1) (2)
2 7
5x 3x
(3) (4)
16 16
10. Two satellites A and B of same mass are orbiting
the earth at altitudes R and 2R respectively,
where R is radius of earth. The ratio of their
m(v − u )cos θ m(v + u )cos φ respective kinetic energy is
(1) (2)
∆t ∆t (1) 3 : 1 (2) 3 : 2
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
m(v cos φ + u cos θ) m(v sin φ + u sin θ)
(3) (4) 11. Compressibility of a substance is equal to the
∆t ∆t
reciprocal of
6. The position (x) of a particle on straight line (1) Young’s modulus (2) Poisson’s ratio
motion is given by x = (2 + 5t – 5t2) m. Its velocity (3) Bulk modulus (4) Modulus of rigidity
v is best represented by
12. The speed of water stream at which velocity
head is 15 cm of water, will be
(1) ( 300 ) m/s (2) ( 200 ) m/s
(1) (2)
(3) ( 150 ) m/s (4) ( 3 ) m/s
13. Water flows in streamline through a frictionless
tube with a varying cross-section as shown in the
figure. The variation of pressure (P) at point (x)
along the axis is roughly given by (from left
cross-section)
(3) (4)
dx x
7. If ∫ = am sin−1   is dimensionally (1)
a2 − x 2 a
correct equation, then value of m is
(1) 2 (2) 1
(3) –1 (4) Zero
8. A class XI student measures the value of g with (2)
the help of simple pendulum using formula
4 π2 L
g= . L and T measured is 100.0 cm and
T2
2.0 s. The errors in L and T are ∆L and ∆T
(3)
respectively. In which of the following cases, the
error in the value of g is the minimum?
(1) ∆L = 0.1 cm, ∆T = 0.1 s
(2) ∆L = 0.2 cm, ∆T = 0.2 s
(4)
(3) ∆L = 0.5 cm, ∆T = 0.5 s
(4) ∆L = 0.1 cm, ∆T = 1.0 s
(2)
14. A spring-block system oscillates with time period 19. The equation of a wave pulse is given as
2 s on the earth surface. When the system is 7
y= , where t is in second and x
brought into a deep mine, the time period of 2 + (2t + 0.5 x )2
oscillation becomes T. The one can conclude is in metre, the speed of wave pulse is
that (1) 2 m/s (2) 5 m/s
(1) T = 2 s (2) T > 2 s (3) 4 m/s (4) 3 m/s
(3) T < 2 s (4) T = 4 s 20. A train moves towards a stationary observer with
15. The triple point of water speed 20 m/s. The train sounds a whistle and its
frequency is registered by observer as f1. If the
(1) Is a variable point train’s speed is increased by 10 m/s, the
(2) Is a point where ice and water is in frequency registered is f2. If the speed of sound is
equilibrium but not with vapour 300 m/s then f1 : f2 will be
(1) 25 : 26 (2) 27 : 28
(3) Is a point where water, ice and vapours exist
in the equilibrium (3) 31 : 32 (4) 17 : 18
21. Radius of a soap bubble is increased from R to
(4) Has been arbitrarily assigned the value of
2R. Work done in this process is (T is surface
273.14 K
tension)
16. A metal sheet with few holes is shown in the (1) 12πR2T (2) 48πR2T
figure
(3) 24πR2T (4) 36πR2T

22. An electric dipole of dipole moment P is

released in a uniform electric filed E from the
position of maximum torque. The angular speed
 
of the dipole when P becomes parallel to E will
be [I is moment of inertia of dipole]
How the parameters a, b, c and d changes with PE 2PE
(1) (2)
increase in temperature of the metal sheet? I I
(1) a, b, c and d all will increase 4PE 2I
(3) (4)
(2) a, c and d will increase and b will decrease 3I 3PE
(3) a and c will increase and b and d will 23. The electric field intensity and the electric
decrease potential are E and V respectively. Which of the
following is correct?
(4) a, b , c and d all will decrease
(1) If E ≠ 0, V cannot be zero
1
17. An ideal gas is suddenly compressed to th of (2) If V ≠ 0, E cannot be zero
4
its initial volume. If the initial temperature of the (3) If V = 0, E must be zero
gas is 27ºC, then rise in temperature is (γ = 1.5) (4) If E = 0, V may not be zero
(1) 300ºC 24. In the circuit shown in the figure, energy stored in
6 µF capacitor will be
(2) 300 K
(3) 327ºC
(4) Both (1) and (2)
18. Ten molecules have speeds 1 m/s, 2 m/s, 3 m/s
............ and 10 m/s respectively. The rms speed
of these molecules will be
(1) 4.7 m/s (2) 3.2 m/s (1) 24 µJ (2) 12 µJ
(3) 8.2 m/s (4) 6.2 m/s (3) 48 µJ (4) 96 µJ
(3)
25. If only 2% of main current is to be passed 32. Consider the following statements
through a galvanometer of resistance G, then the a. Resolving power of a telescope is inversely
resistance of shunt will be proportional to wavelength of light used
G b. Light of different colours travel with different
(1) (2) G
49 speed in vacuum
G G Choose the correct statement
(3) (4)
100 98 (1) a only
26. The magnetic moment of a magnet (5 cm × 2 cm (2) b only
× 1 cm) is 2 Am2. Its intensity of magnetisation is (3) Both a and b
(1) 105 A/m (2) 2 × 105 A/m (4) None of a and b
(3) 104 A/m (4) 3 × 104 A/m 33. The moment of inertia of a thin uniform circular
disc of mass m and radius R about an axis,
27. A circular wheel of 30 spokes is rotated at
which is tangential to the circumference of the
400 rpm in a uniform magnetic field of 2 mT,
disc and parallel to the plane of disc, is
length of each spokes is 0.25 m and magnetic
field is along the axis of wheel, then the value of mR 2 mR 2
(1) (2)
induced emf between rim and centre of wheel is 2 4
(1) 2.6 mV (2) 5.2 mV 5 mR 2 3
(3) (4) mR 2
(3) 1.3 mV (4) 4.3 mV 4 2
28. Eddy currents are used in 34. A thin spherical shell starts rolling from top
without slipping from rest. The speed of the shell
(1) Induction furnace
when it reaches to bottom is
(2) Electromagnetic brakes
(3) Speedometers
(4) All of these
29. In the circuit given below, the reading of
voltmeter V and quality factor will be
6gH
(1) (2) 2gh
5
6gh 10gh
(3) (4)
5 7
(1) 300 V, 4 (2) 200 V, 8
35. A system is released from rest. The surface is
(3) 100 V, 12.5 (4) 300 V, 12.5 smooth and string and pulley are ideal. The
30. Electromagnetic waves are produced by acceleration of centre of mass will be
(1) Static charge

(2) Charge in uniform motion
(3) An oscillating charge
(4) Both (2) and (3)
31. If the 5th order maxima of wavelength 400 nm in
YDSE coincides with nth order maxima of the  20iˆ − 10 jˆ  2  20iˆ − 10 jˆ  2
(1)   m/s (2)   m/s
wavelength 5000 Å, then the value of n is  3   6 
(1) 3 (2) 4  20iˆ − 10 ˆj  2  10iˆ − 20 ˆj  2
(3)   m/s (4)   m/s
(3) 5 (4) 6  9   9 
(4)
SECTION-B 41. The electrons used in an electron microscope are

36. Three cells of emf 2 V, 3 V and 4 V are accelerated through a voltage difference of
connected in parallel as shown in the figure. If 25 kV. If the potential difference is increased to
their internal resistances are 1 Ω, 1 Ω and 2 Ω 100 kV, then the de Broglie wavelength
respectively, then the current through the associated with the electrons would
external load resistance R is (1) Increase by four times
(2) Increase by two times
(3) Becomes half
(4) Becomes one fourth
42. The ratio of radii of 2nd and 3rd orbit of hydrogen
atom is
4 2
(1) (2)
9 7
2 3
(3) (4)
3 2
(1) 0.5 A (2) 0.2 A 43. A body of mass m initially at rest explodes into
two parts having masses in ratio 3 : 2. If energy
(3) 0.4 A (4) 1.0 A
of first part is E, the energy of second part will be
37. Which among the following has negative
2 3
temperature coefficient of conductance? (1) E (2) E
3 2
(1) Metals (2) Insulators
3 2
(3) Semiconductors (4) Both (2) and (3) (3) E (4) E
5 5
38. An object is placed at 40 cm from a concave 
44. An engine exerts a force F = (10iˆ − 2 ˆj + 3kˆ ) N
mirror of focal length 30 cm. The image is

and move with velocity v = (2iˆ + 5 ˆj − kˆ ) m/s . The
(1) Real, inverted and diminished
instantaneous power of engine is
(2) Real, inverted and enlarged
(1) 33 W (2) 17 W
(3) Virtual, erect and diminished
(3) 27 W (4) 7 W
(4) Real, inverted and same in size
45. In a cricket match, a player throws the ball to the
 3
39. A glass lens  µ =  of focal length 20 cm in air wicketkeeper which is at 20 m horizontal
 2
distance. The player throws the ball with speed u
6 at angle 45º with the horizontal. The value of u
is dipped in a oil of refractive index µ = . The
5 such that wicketkeeper just catches the ball
focal length of the dipped lens is directly, will be
(1) 24 cm (2) 48 cm
(1) 10 2 m/s (2) 10 m/s
(3) 40 cm (4) 30 cm
(3) 20 m/s (4) 17 m/s
40. A prism of refractive index 2 has a refracting 46. A ball of mass M falls from a height h on a floor
angle of 60º. The angle at which a ray must which has coefficient of restitution e. The height
incident on it so that it suffers minimum deviation attained by the ball after three rebounds is
will be
(1) e2h (2) e3h
(1) 45° (2) 30°
e
(3) 60° (4) 90° (3) e6h (4) h
3
(5)
47. A solid cylinder of mass 20 kg and radius 10 cm 49. A tuning fork A of frequency 512 Hz produces
rotates about its axis with angular velocity 5 beats per second when sounded with another
tuning fork B of unknown frequency. If B is
10 rad/s. The angular momentum of the cylinder
loaded with wax, the number of beats is again
about its axis is 5 per second. The frequency of tuning fork B
(1) 10 J s before it was loaded is
(1) 512 Hz (2) 507 Hz
(2) 1 J s
(3) 517 Hz (4) 522 Hz
(3) 0.1 J s 50. The equivalent capacitance for the network
(4) 5 J s shown in the figure is
48. An ideal fluid flows through a pipe of circular

cross-section made of two sections with
diameters 2.5 cm and 5 cm. The ratio of
velocities in two sections is
(1) 4 : 1
(2) 1 : 3 3C 3C
(1) (2)
4 7
(3) 3 : 1
C C
(3) (4)
(4) 9 : 4 4 7
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 55. An element (X) has electronic configuration
51. If 2 L of an aqueous solution containing 2 mol of 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5. To which group of modern
solute is diluted by adding 8 L of water. Final periodic table, element (X) belongs?
moles of solute in the solution is (1) Fifteenth (2) Second
(1) 0.02 mol (3) Sixteenth (4) Seventeenth
(2) 0.2 mol 56. Correct order of ionic radii is
(3) 2 mol (1) O2– > N3– > Mg2+ > Na+
(4) 0.5 mol (2) Mg2+ > Na+ > O2– > N3–
52. 0.2 mol of BaCl2 is mixed with 0.5 mol of Na2SO4. (3) N3– > O2– > Na+ > Mg2+
The total number of moles of BaSO4 formed is (4) Na+ > Mg2+ > O2– > N3–
(1) 0.4 mol (2) 0.2 mol 57. Paramagnetic species among the following is
(3) 0.1 mol (4) 0.5 mol
(1) CN–
53. Total number of nodes present in 4p orbital is 2–
(2) O2
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) C2
(3) 1 (4) Zero
(4) B2
54. According to the Bohr theory, which of the
following transitions in the hydrogen atom will 58. Compound which has both polar and non-polar
give rise to the most energetic photon? bonds is
(1) n = 5 to n = 3 (1) XeF4
(2) n = 4 to n = 3 (2) H2O2
(3) n = 3 to n = 1 (3) PCl5
(4) n = 6 to n = 5 (4) CO2
(6)
59. Consider the following Maxwell-Boltzmann 65. Which of the following salts will have the highest
distribution curve of a gas at three different pH?
temperature T1, T2 and T3. (1) CH3COONH4 (2) NaCN
(3) NH4Cl (4) NaCl
66. Oxidation numbers of P, Q and R are +3, +4
and –2 respectively. Possible formula of the
compound is
(1) P2(QR3)2 (2) P3(QR3)3
(3) P2(QR3)3 (4) P2(Q2R)3
67. Consider the two half cells,
A+(aq) → A(s); Eºred = 0.80 V
The correct order of temperature if (C* represents
B2+(aq) → B(s); Eºred = –0.44 V
most probable speed)
The Eºcell for the spontaneous cell reaction is
(1) T1 > T2 > T3 (2) T1 > T3 > T2
(1) 1.24 V (2) –0.36 V
(3) T3 > T2 > T1 (4) T2> T1 > T3
(3) 0.36 V (4) –1.24 V
60. Which of the following gases will diffuse fastest?
68. The product obtained when hydrated barium
(1) SO2 (2) O2 peroxide reacts with cold and dilute sulphuric
(3) CH4 (4) He acid is
61. 1 mole of an ideal gas expands isothermally at (1) H2 (2) H2O2
27ºC from 2 L volume to 20 L. The maximum (3) SO2 (4) SO3
work done in the process is 69. Correct order of density of the following alkali
(1) –690.9R (2) 690.9R metals is
(3) –345.2R (4) 345.2R (1) Rb > Na > Li > K (2) Na > Rb > K > Li
62. Equal volumes of two diatomic gases, X2 and Y2, (3) Rb > Na > K > Li (4) Rb > K > Na > Li
are mixed at same temperature and pressure. 70. Castner-Kellner cell is used for the preparation of
The ratio of specific heats (CP/CV) of the mixture (1) NaHCO3 (2) NaOH
will be (3) NaCl (4) Na2CO3
(1) 1.66 (2) 1.40 71. Strongest Lewis acid among the following is
(3) 1.33 (4) 1.25 (1) BI3 (2) BBr3
63. For the reversible reaction, (3) BCl3 (4) BF3
AB2(g)  A(g) + B2(g) – x kJ 72. Consider following species and identify the
correct statement
The reaction will proceed in the forward direction
by
(i) (ii)
(1) Decreasing temperature
(2) Addition of B2(g)
(3) Addition of inert gas at constant volume (iii) (iv)
(4) Addition of inert gas at constant pressure a. Species (ii) and (iii) are aromatic.
64. If at TK, KW = 10–10, then the pH of pure water at b. Species (iii) and (iv) are non-planar.
the same temperature will be c. Species (i) and (iii) are anti-aromatic.
(1) 6 (2) 7 (1) a and b only (2) b only
(3) 5 (4) 8 (3) b and c only (4) a and c only
(7)
73. The molecule which does not show tautomerism 81. The ion which has the maximum value of limiting
is molar conductivity in water at 298 K is
(1) Na+ (2) Mg2+
(3) Ca2+ (4) H+
(1) (2)
82. For a first order reaction, the time required for
90% completion of the reaction is (k is rate
constant)
4.606 2.303
(3) (4) (1) (2)
k 2k
2.303 6.909
(3) (4)
74. Propyne on passing through red hot iron tube at k k
873 K majorly gives 83. Incorrect characteristics of enzyme catalysis is
(1) Benzene (2) Toluene (1) One molecule of an enzyme may transform
(3) p-Xylene (4) Mesitylene one million molecules of the reactant per
75. Which among the following groups has the most minute
deactivating effect in electrophilic substitution (2) One catalyst cannot catalyse more than one
reaction? reaction
(1) –NO2 (2) –CHO (3) The rate of an enzyme catalysed reaction is
(3) –COOH (4) –CN minimum at optimum pH
76. Which of the following is not a common (4) The enzymatic activity is increased in the
component of classical smog? presence of co-enzymes
(1) Smoke (2) NO 84. The process which is used for the refining of
(3) Fog (4) SO2 gallium is
77. A compound which shows both Frenkel as well (1) Electrolytic refining (2) van Arkel method
as Schottky defect is (3) Mond’s process (4) Zone refining
(1) CsCl (2) AgBr
85. An ore of zinc among the following is
(3) NaCl (4) KCl
(1) Magnetite (2) Calamine
78. Contribution of an atom present at the face
(3) Malachite (4) Siderite
centre of a cubic unit cell is
SECTION-B
1
(1) (2) 1 86. Correct order of bond-dissociation enthalpy is
4
(1) Cl2 > Br2 > l2 > F2 (2) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
1 1
(3) (4) (3) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2 (4) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
8 2
79. Mass of urea required to dissolve in 72 g of water 87. Molecular shape of XeF4 is
8
th
(1) Tetrahedral (2) Square planar
to reduce the vapour pressure to of pure
9 (3) Pyramidal (4) See-saw
water is 88. Consider the following reaction,
(1) 5 g (2) 12 g Fused with KOH, Electrolytic oxidation
(3) 30 g (4) 60 g oxidized with air
MnO2 → A → B
in alkaline solution
80. van't Hoff factor for AlCl3 at 0.1 M is 2.8.

Percentage dissociation of AlCl3 is The colour of B is
(1) 30% (2) 80% (1) Purple (2) Green
(3) 40% (4) 60% (3) Yellow (4) Orange
(8)
89. The hybridization and geometry of the complex (1) B is orange - red in colour
[NiCl4]2– respectively are (2) A gives iodoform test
(1) sp3, square planar (2) dsp2, square planar (3) Reaction from A to B is catalysed by acid
(3) sp3, tetrahedral (4) dsp2, tetrahedral (4) A on reaction with conc alkali undergoes
90. Bidentate ligand among the following is disproportionation reaction
(1) NH3 (2) Ox 95. Most basic compound among the following is
(3) NO2 (4) CN– (1) Benzenamine

91. The compound which undergoes SN1 reaction
with fastest rate is (3) N-methylaniline
(4) N, N-dimethylaniline
(1) (2) 96. Consider the following reaction sequence,
(3) (4)
Major product C is
92.
Major product (B) formed in the reaction is (1) (2)
(1)
(2) (3) (4)
(3) 97. In lactose, the glycosidic linkage exist between

(1) C4 of β-D-galactose and C1 of α-D-glucose
(2) C1 of α-D-galactose and C4 of α-D-glucose
(3) C4 of β-D-galactose and C1 of β-D-glucose
(4)
(4) C1 of β-D-galactose and C-4 of β-D-glucose
98. Beri-beri is caused by the deficiency of
93. The IUPAC name of cinnamaldehyde is
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin C
(1) Benzene-1, 2-dicarbaldehyde
(3) Vitamin B1 (4) Vitamin K
(2) 3-Phenylpropanal 99. Co-polymer among the following is
(3) 2-Hydroxybenzaldehyde (1) PVC (2) Nylon 6, 6
(4) 3-Phenylprop-2-enal (3) Teflon (4) Polyacrylonitrile
94. Consider the following reaction sequence, 100. Dettol is a mixture of
(1) Chloramphenicol and terpineol
(2) Terpineol and O-xylene
(3) Chloroxylenol and terpineol
The incorrect statement among the following is (4) Chloroxylenol and prontosil
(9)
BOTANY
SECTION-A 107. Select the incorrect match from the following.
101. In a culture medium, there were 50 Euglena. (1) Vallisneria – Pollination by water
Within 24 hours, 20 were added through the (2) Water lily – Pollination by insects
process of reproduction and mean while 8 were
(3) Pea – Wind pollination
died. What is the growth rate of Euglena (in per
individual per day) in that medium? (4) Oxalis – Self-pollination
(1) 0.12 (2) 0.24 108. The remains of second cotyledon found in some
grasses is called epiblast. In the following
(3) 1.24 (4) 0.4
diagram, this structure is labelled as
102. Going down of water-soluble substances present
in decomposing detritus into the soil horizon by
percolating water is called
(1) Stratification (2) Catabolism
(3) Leaching (4) Mineralisation
103. Identify the following statements as true (T)
and false (F) and choose the option
accordingly.
A. Trees in rain forests have buttress roots and
leaves with drip tips.
(1) B (2) C
B. Permafrost lands are one amongst the harsh
habitats on earth. (3) D (4) A
C. Habitat of an organism includes abiotic 109. A normal-visioned woman whose mother was
components only. colourblind marries a normal visioned man. What
is the probability of their first child to be normal-
D. Two individuals of the same species can
visioned boy?
occupy the same niche.
1 3
A B C D (1) (2)
4 4
(1) F T F T
1
(2) T T F T (3) Zero (4)
2
(3) T F F T
110. Regarding sex-chromosomes, two types of eggs
(4) T T T F are produced in
104. Which of the following cannot be considered as (1) Grasshoppers and Drosophila
air pollutant?
(2) Birds and butterflies
(1) CO2 (2) SO2 (3) Human and Drosophila
(3) Noise (4) DDT (4) Honey bees and butterflies
105. All of the following monocarpic plants are 111. For replication of DNA, breaking of hydrogen
biennial, except bonds present between two strands is catalysed
(1) Bamboo (2) Radish by
(3) Henbane (4) Carrot (1) DNA ligase
106. Pericarp is not formed in (2) Topoisomerase
(1) Ficus (2) Brassica (3) DNA gyrase
(3) Pinus (4) Wheat (4) Helicase
(10)
112. In a transcription unit, the promoter sequence is 117. In high light intensities, C3 plants show saturation
present towards (1) At 360 ppm of CO2 concentration
(1) 5′ end of coding strand (2) Much before 220 ppm of CO2 concentration
(2) 5′ end of template strand (3) Only beyond 450 ppm of CO2 concentration
(3) 3′ end of coding strand (4) Between 110-280 ppm of CO2 concentration
(4) 3′ end of structural gene 118. Identify the conversion step of glycolysis during
113. Match the following columns and select the which substrate level phosphorylation occurs
correct option. (1) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate → 1, 3-bis-
phosphoglyceric acid
Column-I Column-II
(2) 3-phosphoglyceric acid → 2-
A. VNTRs (i) Identification of genes phosphoglycerate
expressed as RNA
(3) Glucose-6-phosphate → Fructose-6-
B. ESTs (ii) Required for efficient phosphate
translation process (4) 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate → 3-
phosphoglycerate
C. SNPs (iii) Small DNA sequence
arranged tandemly in 119. Select the incorrect statement from the following
many copy numbers (1) In all living organisms, oxidative
decarboxylation of pyruvic acid occurs in
D. UTRs (iv) Single base DNA
mitochondrial matrix
differences in population
(2) Carbon dioxide is released during Krebs
A B C D cycle
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (3) Substrate level phosphorylation also occurs
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) during Krebs cycle
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (4) Krebs cycle serves as a common oxidative
pathway for carbohydrates, fats and proteins
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
120. Initially the length of two tendrils A and B of a
114. The mineral element that is constituent of the ring
plant are 4 cm and 8 cm respectively. After one
structure of chlorophyll is
day they became 6 cm and 10 cm respectively.
(1) Magnesium (2) Iron Which of the following statements about their
(3) Manganese (4) Copper growth rates should be true?
115. According to chemiosmotic hypothesis of ATP (1) Absolute growth rate of B is less than that of
synthesis in chloroplast, NADPH reductase A
reaction occurs (2) Relative growth rates of both A and B are
(1) Towards the stroma side of the thylakoid same
membrane (3) Absolute growth rate of A is less than that of
(2) Inside the lumen of the thylakoid B
(3) Towards the stroma side of inner membrane (4) Relative growth rate of A is more than that of
of chloroplast B
(4) Towards the lumen side of the thylakoid 121. All of the following chemicals cause seed
membrane dormancy, except
116. In which of the following plants, primary CO2 (1) Phenolic acid
acceptor molecule is a three-carbon molecule? (2) Abscisic acid
(1) Tomato (2) Triticum (3) Gibberellic acid
(3) Bell pepper (4) Sorghum (4) Para-ascorbic acid
(11)
122. Which structure in bacteria prevents them from 128. Select the incorrect match from the following.
collapsing?
(1) Aspergillus – Forms non-motile
(1) Glycocalyx (2) Capsule gametes
(3) Cell wall (4) Mesosome (2) Ustilago – Meiospores are
123. Polysomes cannot be seen in produced exogenously
(1) Stroma of chloroplasts (3) Alternaria – Delayed karyogamy
(2) Cytoplasm of prokaryotes
(4) Albugo – Parasitic fungi
(3) Cytoplasm of eukaryotes
129. The genetic material in viruses that infect
(4) Nucleoplasm bacteria is usually
124. Which of the following processes does not occur (1) dsDNA (2) ssDNA
during S phase of cell cycle? (3) dsRNA (4) ssRNA
(1) Centrioles duplication 130. In which of the following plants, corolla and
(2) Nuclear envelope disintegration androecium in floral formula is represented as
(3) Histone protein synthesis ?
(4) DNA polymerisation (1) Trifolium (2) Petunia

125. Match the following columns and select the (3) Gloriosa (4) Brassica
correct option. 131. In pea plant, flowers are (i) and aestivation of
Column-I Column-II corolla is (ii) .
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks (i)

A. Metaphase II (i) Nucleolus disappears
and (ii).
B. Diakinesis (ii) Synaptonemal (i) (ii)
complex dissolves
(1) Epigynous Valvate
C. Metaphase I (iii) Alignment of bivalents
(2) Hypogynous Vexillary
at the equator
(3) Epigynous Vexillary
D. Diplotene (iv) Alignment of univalent
(4) Perigynous Imbricate
at the equator
132. In flowering plants, epidermal cells are
A B C D
(1) Collenchymatous in shoots and
(1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) sclerenchymatous in roots
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (2) Parenchymatous in shoots and
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) collenchymatous in roots
(3) Sclerenchymatous in shoots and
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
parenchymatous in roots
126. Select the characteristic of living beings which is
(4) Parenchymatous in both roots and shoots
not considered as their fundamental property.
133. Which of the following statements is not true
(1) Intrinsic growth (2) Reproduction w.r.t. dorsiventral leaf?
(3) Sensitivity (4) Metabolism (1) Mesophyll is divided into palisade and
127. The lowest common taxonomic category of spongy parenchyma
potato and makoi is (2) Venation is reticulate
(1) Genus (2) Family (3) Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed
(3) Order (4) Class (4) Adaxial surface has bulliform cells
(12)
134. How many of the following algae asexually 142. Regarding population interaction, select the odd
reproduce only by non-motile spores? one out.
Fucus, Dictyota, Gracilaria, Ulothrix, Polysiphonia, (1) Orchid – Mango tree
Volvox. (2) Clown fish – Sea anemone
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Barnacle – Whale
(3) Two (4) One (4) Cattle – Sheep
135. Which of the following plants shows event 143. Which of the following representation for
precursor to seed habit? ecological pyramid is not correct?
(1) Dryopteris (2) Salvinia

(3) Equisetum (4) Polytrichum
SECTION-B (1) (2)
136. In living system, facilitated transport

(1) Does not require special membrane protein
(2) Does not require ATP energy
(3) (4)
(3) Is not selective in nature
(4) Does not saturate
144. In the Rivet popper hypothesis, which one of the
137. In many herbaceous plants, guttation occurs following is compared with ecosystem?
through
(1) Rivets on the wings
(1) Hydathodes (2) Stomata (2) Wings of aeroplane
(3) Tips of trichomes (4) Lenticels (3) Cabin crew
138. In India, from 1960 to 2000, wheat production (4) Aeroplane
was increased by
145. In 1987, Montreal Protocol was signed to control
(1) 7.5 million tonnes (2) 35 million tonnes (1) The release of heavy metals in river water
(3) 64 million tonnes (4) 75 million tonnes (2) The emission of ozone depleting substances
139. Bacterial blight resistant variety of cowpea is (3) The emission of greenhouse gases
(1) Pusa swarnim (2) Pusa komal (4) The use of harmful chemicals such as
(3) Pusa sadabahar (4) Pusa shubhra insecticides and pesticides
140. Which of the following products are prepared by 146. Identify the incorrect statement regarding
using particular prokaryotes? monocot roots.
(1) Pericycle gives rise to lateral roots
(a) Bread (b) Roquefort cheese
(2) Hypodermis is sclerenchymatous
(c) Curd (d) Swiss cheese
(3) Pith is large and well developed
The correct ones are
(4) Vascular bundles are usually more than six in
(1) (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (b) number
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (b) and (d) 147. Modes of nutrition in the members of kingdom
141. In sewage treatment plants, methanogenic monera are
bacteria play their role a. Chemosynthetic b. Parasitic
(1) In anaerobic sludge digester c. Photosynthetic d. Saprophytic
(2) During tertiary treatment The correct ones are
(3) In aeration tanks (1) a and b only (2) b and c only
(4) During sedimentation of primary sludge (3) a, b and c only (4) All a, b, c and d
(13)
148. Select the incorrect match from the following (1) Only statement A is correct
(1) Mango – Gynoecium multicarpellary (2) Only statement B is correct
(2) Papaver – Syncarpous pistil
(3) Both the statements are correct
(3) Wheat – Single ovule in an ovary
(4) Michelia – Gynoecium apocarpous (4) Both the statements are incorrect
149. Read the following statements and choose the 150. 9 + 2 organisation of microtubules is seen in
option which is true for them.
(1) Flagella of prokaryotes and eukaryotes
Statement-A : Cytochrome c oxidase complex
contains cytochrome c and cytochrome bc1 along (2) Cilia and flagella of eukaryotes
with two copper centres.
(3) Flagella and centrioles
Statement-B : H+ is the terminal electron
acceptor in ETS of mitochondria. (4) Centrioles and cillia
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 156. Carefully read the following reactions
151. Select the odd one w.r.t. simple epithelium. Salivary amylase
(A) Starch  → maltose
(i)
(1) Walls of blood vessels
(ii)
(2) Inner surface of bronchioles (B) Nucleic acids → Nucleotides
(iii)
(3) Moist surface of buccal cavity (C) Dipeptides  → Amino acids
(4) Air sacs of lungs Choose the correct option that fill the blanks
152. Bone and cartilage share a common feature correctly.
called (i) (ii) (iii)
(1) Pliable matrix (1) pH 1.8 Nucleotidase Dipeptidases
(2) Non-pliable matrix (2) pH 7.8 Nucleases Amylase
(3) Lacunae (3) pH 6.8 Nucleases Dipeptidases
(4) Lamellae (4) pH 7.8 Nucleotidase Amylase
153. The head of cockroach connected with thorax via 157. Deficiency of vitamin C causes
neck which is a short extension of (1) Beri beri (2) Pernicious anemia
(1) Prothorax (2) Mesothorax (3) Scurvy (4) Night blindness
(3) Metathorax (4) Pronotum 158. The maximum volume of air a person can
154. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. Periplaneta. breathe in after a forceful expiration is best
(1) Alary muscle – 12 pairs represented as
(2) Spiracles – 20 pairs (1) TV + IRV
(3) Malpighian tubules – 100-150 (2) RV + ERV + TV + IRV

(3) IC + ERV
(4) Ommatidia in both eyes – 4000
(4) IC + FRC
155. Which of the following structure guards the
opening of tube that passes bolus to stomach? 159. pO2 in deoxygenated blood is
(1) Sphincter of Oddi (1) More than pCO2 in alveoli
(2) Gastro-oesophageal sphincter (2) Less than pCO2 in systemic artery
(3) Sphincter of Boyden (3) Equal to pO2 in tissues
(4) Ileo-caecal valve (4) More than pCO2 in tissues
(14)
160. Select the odd one w.r.t. factors responsible for 165. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. function of
favouring the dissociation of oxygen from the renal tubule.
oxyhaemoglobin. (1) Secretion of H+, K+ and ammonia takes place
(1) Low pH in PCT part of nephron
(2) Low pCO2 (2) Ascending limb of loop of Henle is almost
(3) High H+ concentration impermeable to electrolytes
(4) High temperature (3) Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water
occurs in DCT part of nephron
161. Consider the following statements w.r.t. formed
elements. (4) Nearly all essential nutrients are reabsorbed
A. Leucocytes are colourless due to the lack of in PCT part of nephron
haemoglobin. 166. Which of the following is associated with flagellar
B. A healthy individual has 12-16 gms of movement?
haemoglobin in every 1000 ml of blood. (1) Locomotion in Euglena
C. Lymphocytes are 20-25 percent of total (2) Movement of bolus in oesophagus
WBCs.
(3) Movement of leucocytes
(4) Movement of food through cytopharynx in
(1) A and B are correct Paramoecium
(2) B and C are correct 167. The portion of the myofibril between two
(3) A and C are correct successive ‘Z’ lines consists of
(4) A and B are incorrect (1) 2 full A bands
162. The ventricles pump blood without any mixing in (2) Actin and myosin filaments
(1) Amphibians (3) Only thick filament
(2) All reptiles (4) One A band and one I band
(3) Mammals 168. How many bones from given below in the box are
(4) Organisms which have incomplete double included in axial skeleton?
circulation
Lacrimal, Coxal, Scapula, Sternum, Patella
163. In humans, the systemic circulation included all
of the following except (1) One (2) Two
(1) Dorsal aorta (2) Vena cava (3) Three (4) Four
(3) Right atrium (4) Left atrium 169. When a neuron is not conducting any impulse,
the axonal membrane is
correct answer. (1) Impermeable for all ions
Statement A: Presence of concentration (2) Impermeable to negatively charged proteins,
gradient in medulla part of kidney helps in an present inside the axonal membrane
easy passage of water from collecting ducts (3) Comparatively more permeable for Na+
thereby concentrating the urine.
(4) More negative on outside compare to inside
Statement B: Human kidney can produce urine
nearly four times more concentrated than the 170. Which of the following is a type of
initial filtrate formed. thermoreceptor?
(1) Both statements A and B are correct (1) Meissner’s corpuscles
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect (2) Organ of Corti
(3) Only statement A is correct (3) End bulb of Krause

(4) Only statement B is correct (4) Pacinian corpuscles
(15)
171. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. aqueous (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
humour (3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(1) It is filled in space between lens and the 177. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. menstrual
retina cycle.
(2) It is a transparent, semi-solid and gelatinous (1) During follicular phase, the primary follicles
material grow to become a fully mature Graafian
(3) It is continuously drained into the blood follicle
(4) It is in direct contact with choroid layer of eye (2) Corpus luteum is formed in secretory phase
172. The hormone which stimulates the reabsorption (3) The secretion of gonadotropins increases
of water from DCT of nephrons and causes gradually during luteal phase
constriction of blood vessels is (4) Uterine endometrium proliferates under the
(1) Oxytocin (2) PRL influence of estrogen in proliferative phase
(3) ACTH (4) ADH 178. Emergency contraceptives include
173. In males, A stimulates the synthesis and A. Administration of progesterone within 72

hours of coitus
secretion of hormones called B from testis.
B. Administration of progesterone and estrogen
Choose the option that correctly fills the blank A in combination within 72 hours of coitus
and B. C. Insertion of IUD within 72 hours of coitus
A B D. Tubectomy after 72 hours of coitus
(1) FSH Estrogen Choose the correct option.
(2) LH Androgens (1) A, B and C (2) B, C and D
(3) FSH Androgens (3) A, C and D (4) Only B and C
(4) LH Estrogen 179. Choose the correct statement w.r.t ART.
174. Hormone GIP acts on (1) In IVF, the zygote or early embryo transferred
into uterus
(1) Liver (2) Pancreas
(2) GIFT included transfer of an ovum from a
(3) Intestinal glands (4) Gastric glands
donor into the fallopian tube of another
175. Choose the mismatch w.r.t. organisms and women who cannot produce ovum but
number of chromosomes in their meiocyte. provide the suitable environment for
Organism Chromosome number fertilisation
in meiocyte (3) In AI technique, the fertilisation occurs
(1) Dog 78 outside the female body
(2) Cat 19 (4) In-vivo fertilisation occurs in ZIFT and ET
(3) Fruit fly 8 180. Theory of special creation included all of the
following connotations except
(4) Housefly 12
(1) Any population has built in variation in
176. Match column I with column II and choose the characteristics
correct answer.
(2) All living organisms that we see today
Column-I Column-II created as such
(3) Diversity was always the same since creation
a. Vasa efferentia (i) Androgen binding
protein (4) Our earth is about 4000 years old
181. Which of the following examples exhibits
b. Bulbourethral gland (ii) Lubricative mucus adaptive divergency?
c. Mons pubis (iii) Open into (1) Eye of the octopus and of mammals
epidimysis (2) Flipper of penguins and dolphins
d. Sertoli cells (iv) Included in external (3) Potato and sweet potato
genitalia of female (4) Heart of vertebrates
(16)
182. In a population of 5000 individuals, 800 peoples 188. Cells are bombarded with high velocity
are aa type then find out the frequency of A. microparticles of a gold or tungsten coated with
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.5 DNA in a method called
(3) 0.6 (4) 0.7 (1) Electroporation (2) Microinjection
183. Identify the below given diagram and choose the (3) Biolistic (4) Transduction
correct option w.r.t. drugs which is obtained from
189. Palindromic sequence for Bam HI restriction
it.
endonuclease enzyme is
5′ - GAATTC - 3′ 5′ - GGATCC - 3′
(1) (2)
3′ - CTTAAG- 5′ 3′ - CCTAGG- 5′
5′ - AAGCTT - 3′ 5′ -CCCGGG- 3′
(3) (4)
3′ - TTCGAA - 5′ 3′ - GGGCCC - 5′
190. Choose the odd one w.r.t. transgenic animals.

(1) ANDi (2) Tracy
(1) Included in CNS stimulants (3) Rosie (4) Dolly
(2) Have hallucinogenic property 191. cry genes are not effective against
(3) Very useful in patients who have undergone (1) Lepidopterans (2) Coleopterans
surgery
(3) Dipterans (4) Meloidogyne
(4) Help the patient to cope with mental illnesses
like depression 192. Transgenic A are being used to test the
184. Cellular barriers of innate immunity included all of safety of the polio vaccine.
the followings except Choose the option that correctly fills the blank A.
(1) NK-cells (2) Monocytes (1) Sheep (2) Cow
(3) PMNL (4) B lymphocytes
(3) Mice (4) E. coli
185. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t.
193. Fowl pox is a
Plasmodium.
(1) Viral disease of poultry birds
(1) It reproduce asexually only in human RBCs
(2) Fertilisation and development take place in (2) Bacterial disease of poultry birds
the mosquito’s gut (3) Protozoal disease of poultry birds
(3) Female Anopheles mosquito takes up (4) Vitamin E deficiency disease of poultry birds
gametocytes of Plasmodium with blood meal
194. Karan Fries is produced at Karnal by
(4) P. falciparum causes malignant malaria
(1) Inbreeding
SECTION-B
(2) Out-crossing
186. In human ear, the fenestra ovalis is associated
with (3) Cross-breeding
(1) Scala vestibuli (2) Scala media (4) Interspecific hybridisation
(3) Scala tympani (4) Malleus 195. In the primary structure of a protein
187. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. PCR. A. The left end represents first amino acid
(1) The Taq polymerase can only add new B. The right end represents last amino acid
nucleotides to the 3′-OH end of a growing
C. The left end represents last amino acid
strand.
D. The right end represents first amino acids
(2) It require three sets of primers
(3) Denaturation step occurs at temperature
94°C (1) A and B (2) C and D
(4) It is included in molecular diagnosis (3) B and C (4) A and D
(17)
196. Choose the odd one w.r.t. unpaired cranium 199. Bees are the pollinators of all the following crop
bones of human species except
(1) Ethmoid (2) Sphenoid (1) Brassica
(3) Occipital (4) Temporal (2) Apple
197. Total number of paratopes in IgA type of antibody (3) Pear
is
(4) Banana
(1) 2 (2) 10
(3) 4 (4) 1
Lemur : Spotted cuscus : : Anteater : ______
198. A widely used diagnostic test for AIDS is
(1) ELISA (2) Widal test (1) Tiger cat (2) Sugar glider
(3) Schick's test (4) Mantoux test (3) Numbat (4) Wombat
  
(18)
Edition: 2020-21
01/09/2021 CODE-A
CST – 17
Instructions:
PHYSICS
SECTION-A 4. A ball is projected with an initial velocity
1. N m2/kg2 is the unit of
(1) Surface tension
=
v

( )
20i + 30 j m/s. The angle made by the
(2) Universal gravitational constant velocity vector of the ball with horizontal at t = 1 s
(3) Permittivity will be (g = 10 m/s2)
(4) Torque (1) 30º
a − t2 (2) 60º
2. The dimensions of ab in the equation P = ,
2
bx (3) 37º
where P is pressure, x is distance and t is time,
(4) 45º
are
(1) [M2LT–3] (2) [M–1L–1T4] 5. A body takes time t to reach the bottom, when it
(3) [M–1L–1T6] (4) [M2LT–4] slides on a smooth inclined plane of angle of
3. A body starts moving from rest with uniform inclination 45º with the horizontal. If the plane is
acceleration. The velocity of a body after made rough, time taken now is 2t. The coefficient
t second is v. The displacement of the body in
of friction of the rough surface is
last two second will be (t is total time of journey)
 1  1 3 2
(1) 2v  1–  (2) v  1 +  (1) (2)
 t  t 4 3
 1  1 1 1
(3) 3v  1 −  (4) 3v  1 +  (3) (4)
 2t  2t 4 2
(1)
6. The momentum of a body in two perpendicular 12. The displacement of a particle executing S.H.M
direction at any time t are given by px = (2t2 + 4) N s is given by the equation y = acos(3ωt) +
and py = (3t2 + 6) N s. The force acting on the bsin(3ωt). The time period of oscillation of the
body at t = 0 will be particle will be
(1) 2 N (2) 7 N 2π 4π
(1) (2)
(3) 10 N (4) Zero ω 3ω
7. A ball is dropped from height H. After striking the 2π 3π
(3) (4)
ground nth time it rebounds to height h. Then 3ω 4ω
coefficient of restitution is 13. A mass M is whirled in a vertical plane in critical
1 1 condition by tying it at one end by a inextensible
h n H n wire of length l. When the mass is at its lowest
(1)   (2)  
H  h position, the tension produced in the wire is
1 1 (1) 3mg (2) mg
 H n  h n (3) 6mg (4) Zero
(3)  (4) 
 h   H  14. If P is the pressure inside a soap bubble and P0
   
is atmospheric pressure outside the bubble. If R
8. In a system of two identical particle, one of the
is diameter of the soap bubble, then surface
particle is at rest and the other has an
tension of the liquid will be
acceleration 4 m/s2. The centre of mass has an
acceleration ( P − P0 ) R ( P − P0 ) R
(1) (2)
4 2
(1) 2 m/s2 (2) 4 m/s2
(3) 8 m/s2 (4) Zero ( P − P0 ) R
(3) (4) (P – P0)R
9. The moment of inertia does not depend upon 8
(1) The angular velocity of the body 15. One mole of an ideal diatomic gas is carried from
state A to state B as shown in figure. If the initial
(2) The mass of the body temperature at A is T0, the temperature at point B
(3) The distribution of mass in the body will be
(4) The axis of rotation of the body
10. A uniform rod of length L is free to oscillate in
vertical plane about a horizontal axis passing
through its one end. The rod is released from the
horizontal position. When it is vertical, its angular
velocity is
2g
(1) gL (2)
3L
(1) 8T0 (2) 12T0
3g 3g
(3) (4) (3) 4T0 (4) 6T0
L 2L
16. According to Wein’s displacement law
11. For a geostationary satellites
(1) The time period depends on the mass of (1) λ mT =
Constant (2) λ mT 2 =
Constant
satellite (3) λ 2mT =
Constant (4) λ mT 3 =
Constant
(2) The time period is equal to time period of the
17. Stationary waves of frequency 120 Hz are
rotation of the earth about its own axis
formed in a medium. If the velocity of the wave is
(3) The orbital radius is independent of the mass 360 m/s, then shortest distance between node
of earth and antinode will be
(4) The period is equal to time period of the (1) 0.5 m (2) 0.25 m
revolution of earth around the sun (3) 0.75 m (4) 1 m
(2)
18. Two tuning forks having frequencies 450 Hz and 23. An equilateral triangular conducting loop of side L
448 Hz are tuned together. The time interval carries a current as shown in the figure. The
between successive instants of maximum magnetic field at the point O will be
intensity
1 1
(1) s (2) s
4 2
1
(3) 1 s (4) s
6
19. Two thin parallel infinite line charge having
charge densities 2λ and –λ are placed with a
separation of distance R in free space. The net
electric field exactly mid-way between the two
line charges is µ0 I µ0 3 3I
(1) (2)
3λ λ 2 3πL 4πL
(1) (2)
2πε0 R 2πε0 R
3µ0I
(3) (4) Zero
5λ 3λ 4πL
(3) (4)
2πε0 R πε0 R 24. A paramagnetic liquid taken in U-tube and
20. Figure shows four capacitors connected to a 8 V arranged so that one of the limbs is kept between
battery. What is the charge on the 3 µF pole pieces of a magnet. The liquid level in the
capacitor? limb
(1) Goes down slightly
(2) Remains same
(3) Rises up slightly
(4) First goes down and then rises
25. A coil has 500 turns and 200 cm2 as its area. The
plane of the coil is placed perpendicular to a
uniform magnetic field of 4 × 10–5 T. The coil is
rotated through 180º in 0.1 s. The average emf
induced in the coil in mV is
(1) 4 (2) 6
(1) 12 µC (2) 6 µC
(3) 8 (4) 10
(3) 4 µC (4) 8 µC
26. An ideal transformer has 200 turns in the primary
21. On increasing the temperature of a conductor, its coil and carries 5 A current. If input power is
resistance increases because the 2 kW, the number of turns in the secondary coil
(1) Relaxation time increases to have 600 V output will be
(2) Electron density decreases (1) 200 (2) 400
(3) Relaxation time remains constant (3) 300 (4) 600
(4) Relaxation time decreases 27. The wave which cannot travel in vacuum are
22. The potential gradient along the length of a (1) x-rays (2) Infrasonic waves
uniform wire is 5 volt per metre. B and C are two (3) Radio waves (4) Ultraviolet ways
point at 40 cm, and 60 cm on a metre scale along 28. For what distance ray optics is a good
the wire. The potential difference between B and approximation when the aperture is 2 mm wide
C will be and wavelength is 200 nm?
(1) 2 V (2) 1 V (1) 40 m (2) 30 m
(3) 0.5 V (4) 5 V (3) 20 m (4) 50 m
(3)
29. The angle of minimum deviation produced by an SECTION-B

equilateral prism of refractive index 3 is 36. In the following logic circuit, output Y is
(1) 30º (2) 90º
(3) 45º (4) 60º
30. In a Young’s double slit experiment d = 1 mm
and D = 200 cm. It is found that 7th bright fringe is
(1) B (2) A
at a distance of 6.5 mm from 1st dark fringe of
fringe pattern. The wavelength of light used is (3) A + B (4) 1
(1) 4000 Å (2) 5200 Å 37. A triton contains
(3) 5000 Å (4) 2000 Å (1) 1 proton + 2 neutrons
31. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, (2) 1 proton + 1 neutron

the graph of KE of photoelectron emitted from the (3) 2 protons + 1 neutron
metal versus the frequency of incident radiation (4) 2 protons + 2 neutrons
is a straight line graph, whose slope
38. A radioactive substance has activity 2A0 at t = 0.
(1) Depends on intensity of the incident radiation After 3 second it has activity A0. The decay
(2) Depends on the nature of the metal and also constant of the sample is
on the intensity of incident radiation 1 −1 ln 2 −1
(1) s (2) s
(3) Is same for all metals and independent of 6 3
intensity of the incident radiation
1 1 −1
(4) Depends on the nature of metal (3) s−1 (4) s
3ln 2 3
32. What is the de-Broglie wavelength associated
39. An erect image, two times the size of the object,
with an electron, accelerated through a potential
is obtained with a concave mirror of radius of
difference of 400 volts?
curvature 24 cm. The position of the object from
(1) 0.06 nm (2) 0.123 nm the mirror is
(3) 0.143 nm (4) 0.153 nm (1) 36 cm (2) 4 cm
33. Which energy state of doubly ionised lithium has (3) 6 cm (4) 12 cm
same energy as that of first excitation state of
40. Two lenses of glass (µ = 3/2) having power + 10 D
hydrogen? (Given: Z for lithium = 3)
each are placed in contact inside the water.
(1) 4 (2) 3
Focal length of combination in water is
(3) 2 (4) 6
(1) 25 cm (2) 40 cm
34. p-type semiconductor is obtained by doping
(3) 20 cm (4) Zero
(1) Arsenic with germanium
41. The time period of a charged particle undergoing
(2) Aluminium with germanium
a circular motion in uniform magnetic field is
(3) Antimony with germanium independent of
(4) Phosphorus with germanium (1) Charge of particle (2) Mass of particle
35. In common emitter (CE) amplifier having a (3) Magnetic field (4) Speed of particle
voltage gain G, the transistor used has
42. A source of emf 10 V is connected in a circuit of
transconductance 0.05 mho and current gain 25.
a series combination of a resistance 8 Ω and
If the above transistor is replaced with another
inductance 4 H. The ratio of current in the circuit
one with transconductance 0.03 mho and current
at t = 1 s and at t = ∞ is
gain 15, the voltage gain will be
3 2G e2 − 1
(1) G (2) (1) (2) e2 – 1
5 5 e2
3G G e −1
(3) (4) (3) 1 (4)
4 2 e
(4)
43. For a cell, terminal potential difference is 2.8 V (1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 6 : 3 : 2

when circuit is open and reduce to 2.1 V when (3) 1 : 3 : 5 (4) 6 : 3 : 4
cell is connected to resistance of 4 Ω, then
47. How many gram of ice at –10ºC is needed to cool
determined the internal resistance of the cell
100 g of water from 25ºC to 10ºC?
10 4
(1) Ω (2) Ω (Specific heat of ice = 0.5 cal/gºC and latent heat
9 3
of fusion of ice = 80 cal/g)
5 5
(3) Ω (4) Ω (1) 6.3 g (2) 15.8 g
9 3
(3) 8.4 g (4) 12.2 g
44. The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc is
48. Water rises up to a height h in a capillary tube of
minimum about an axis perpendicular to the disc
plane and passing through certain diameter. This capillary tube is replaced
by a similar tube of one third diameter. Now
water rises to a height of
h
(1) (2) 9h
3
(3) 3h (4) h
  π
49. If angle between two vectors a and b is , then
6
 
angle between vectors 2a and –2b is
(1) B (2) C
π 2π
(3) D (4) A (1) (2)
3 3

45. ( )
−k 2 xyiˆ + x 2 j , acts on a particle
A force F =
(3)
π
(4)
5π
moving in x-y plane. Starting from origin, the 6 6
particle is taken along the positive x-axis to the 50. A particle is projected with velocity of 30 m/s, at
point (a, 0) and parallel to the y-axis to the point
3
(a, a). The total work done by the force is an angle of θ0 =tan−1   above the horizontal.
4
(1) –2ka4 (2) –ka3
After 1 second, the particle is moving at an angle
(3) –ka2 (4) –2ka2
θ with the horizontal, where tanθ is given by
46. If λ1, λ2, λ3 are wavelength of the waves produced
(1) 1 (2) 2
by fundamental, first overtone and second
overtone frequency respectively of an open 1 1
(3) (4)
organ pipe, then the ratio of λ1 : λ2 : λ3 2 3
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 53. Maximum number of electrons for which n + l = 3,

51. In order to prepare 500 mL of 0.2 M NaOH, the is
mass of NaOH required is (1) 2 (2) 6
(3) 8 (4) 10
(1) 2 g (2) 4 g
54. Ratio of radius of 4th orbit of He+ ion to 2nd orbit of
(3) 8 g (4) 16 g H atom is
52. Volume of CO2 liberated at STP by burning 220 g (1) 1 : 1
of C3H8 in excess of oxygen is (2) 2 : 1
(1) 56 L (2) 112 L (3) 1 : 2
(3) 224 L (4) 336 L (4) 4 : 1
(5)
55. Minimum ionization enthalpy among the following 63. Which of the following condition favours the
is of forward reaction for the given below reaction?
(1) Be (2) B A(s) + 2B(g)  C(g), ∆H > 0
(3) C (4) N (1) Addition of inert gas at constant pressure
56. Consider the following statements. (2) Increase in temperature
a. Highest Mn fluoride is MnF4 (3) Increase in volume
b. Due to high third ionisation energy, +3 state (4) Addition of C(g)
of Mn is of little importance 64. Which of the following mixture can act as a
c. Cr2+ is oxidising and Mn3+ is reducing in buffer?
nature (1) CH3COOH + HCl (2) CH3COOH + NaCl
The correct statement(s) is/are. (3) NH4Cl + NaCl (4) NH4OH + NH4Cl
(1) a only (2) a and c only 65. Solubility of Cu(OH)2 in 0.1 M aqueous NaOH
(3) b and c only (4) a and b only solution is (Ksp of Cu(OH)2 = 2.2 × 10–20)
57. Number of nodal plane(s) in antibonding (1) 1.4×10–10 M (2) 2.2×10–19 M
molecular orbital of π2px is (3) 1.4×10–9 M (4) 2.2×10–18 M
(1) Zero (2) 1 66. Conjugate acid of HCO3– is
(3) 2 (4) 5
(1) CO32– (2) H2CO3
58. Minimum bond length among the following is of
(3) CO (4) CO2
(1) O+2 (2) O2–
67. Which oxidation number of carbon is not present
(3) O2– (4) O2 in propanal?
2
(1) +1 (2) –1
59. Interaction energy in London forces is inversely
(3) –2 (4) –3
proportional to the (r = distance between two
molecules) 68. Disproportionation of phosphorous cannot be
shown by
(1) r (2) r2
(1) P4 (2) H3PO3
(3) r3 (4) r6
(3) H3PO4 (4) H3PO2
60. A gaseous mixture of equal mass of CH4 and O2
69. During boiling, the soluble Mg(HCO3)2 is
is stored over water. If total pressure is 0.5 atm
converted into
then partial pressure of dry CH4 gas is
(aqueous tension = 0.2 atm) (1) Soluble MgCO3
(1) 0.1 atm (2) 0.2 atm (2) Soluble Mg(OH)2

(3) Soluble Mg2C3
(3) 0.3 atm (4) 0.4 atm
(4) Insoluble Mg(OH)2
61. 0.1 mol of ideal gas compressed reversibly
isothermally from 10 L to 1 L at 100 K. The work 70. Volume of O2 liberated at STP by 100 mL of 10 V
done in the process is H2O2 solution is
(1) 1 L (2) 2.24 L
(1) 230R (2) 23R
(3) 10 L (4) 22.4 L
(3) –23R (4) –230R
71. Least thermal stable among the following is
62. If enthalpy of combustion of C(s), H2(g) and
CH4(g) are –x, – y and –z kJ mol–1 then enthalpy (1) BeCO3
of formation of CH4(g) is (2) MgCO3
(1) x + y – z (2) z – x – y (3) CaCO3
(3) z – x – 2y (4) x + 2y – z (4) SrCO3
(6)
72. Select the incorrect statement regarding solution 78. Red hot
CaC2 + H2O → A  → B 
3
CH COCl
→C
Fe tube Anhyd. AlCl
of alkali metals in liquid ammonia. 3
(1) Alkali metal in liquid ammonia gives deep Product C is

blue solution CH3 Cl
(2) The colour of solution is due to ammoniated
electrons (1) (2)
(3) Colour of solution is bronze if concentrated
COCH3 CHO
solution is taken
(4) Concentrated solution is highly paramagnetic
(3) (4)
in nature CH3
73. Select the incorrect statement about benzenedi- 79. Ozone and NO2 on reaction with unburnt
azonium chloride
hydrocarbon can give
(1) It is a colourless crystalline solid
(1) Formaldehyde (2) Acrolein
(2) It is readily soluble in water
(3) PAN (4) All of these
(3) It is stable in cold condition
(4) It does not react with water on warming 80. In which of the following, 50% filling of tetrahedral
voids take place?
74. Which of the following is used to control the chain
length of silicones? (1) ZnS (2) NaCl
(1) (CH3)4Si (2) (CH3)3SiCl (3) CaF2 (4) Na2O
(3) (CH3)2SiCl2 (4) CH3SiCl3 81. Vapour pressure of ideal solution of 5 moles A
75. Isobutyl group among the following is and 10 moles B is
(1) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – =(PA0 100
= torr, PB0 50 torr)
(2) CH3 – CH2 – CH–
(1) 41.7 torr (2) 66.7 torr
|
CH3 (3) 75 torr (4) 83.3 torr
82. Ecell for the cell at 298 K is nearly
CH3 – CH – CH2 –
Zn(s)|Zn2+(aq) (0.1 M) || Cu2+ (aq)(1M)| Cu(s)
(3) |
CH3
(E°cell = 1.1 V )
(1) 1.13 V (2) 2.26 V
CH3 (3) 3.05 V (4) 3.9 V
|
(4) CH3 – C– 83 For the reaction xA + yB → C, on doubling the
| concentration of both A and B rate becomes 8
CH3 times while on doubling the concentration of A
only rate becomes 4 times. The overall order of
76. Which of the following alkene is most stable?
reaction is
(1) (2)
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3
(3) (4)
84. Positively charged sol is
Cl2 (1 eqv) Mg (i) CO2
77. CH4 hv
→A 
Dry ether
→ B 
(ii)H3 O+
→C (1) TiO2 sol (2) Gold sol
Soda lime (3) Congo red sol (4) Cds sol

∆
→D
85. Liquation is used for
Product D in the above reaction is
(1) Zn (2) Hg
(1) CH3CHO (2) CH4
(3) Sn (4) Ni
(3) CH3CH2OH (4) CH3CH3
(7)
SECTION-B 93. Select the incorrect statement regarding

COCH3
86 Maximum boiling point among the following is of
(1) NH3 (2) PH3
(3) AsH3 (4) SbH3
(1) Forms 2, 4-DNP derivative
87. S – S bond is not present in
(2) Does not reduce Tollens’s reagent
(1) H2S2O3 (2) H2S2O4
(3) Give yellow ppt with I2/NaOH
(3) H2S2O5 (4) H2S2O7 (4) Decolourise Baeyer’s reagent
88. Hydration enthalpy of Ni2+ ion is equal to the 94. Consider the following statements
hydration enthalpy of a. Molecularity of a reaction can be zero or non-
(1) Co2+ (2) Cu2+ integer.
(3) Zn2+ (4) Fe2+ b. For complex reaction, molecularity has no
meaning.
89. Select the incorrect option regarding Na3[CoF6]
c. For complex reaction, order is given by the
(1) Octahedral geometry
slowest step
(2) High spin complex
(3) 4 unpaired electrons (1) a and b only (2) b and c only
(4) d2sp3 hybridisation (3) a and c only (4) a, b and c
90. Rate of SN1 is maximum for 95. Which among the following gives fastest
hydrolysis in alkaline medium?
(1) (2)
Br Br
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Br Br
91. Which of the following gives immediate turbidity
with HCl and Anhyd. ZnCl2?
(3) (4)
(1) (2) OH
OH
OH 96. Correct name according to IUPAC nomenclature

(3) OH (4) of element having atomic number 107 is
(1) Unnilseptium (2) Ununseptium
92. Which of the following ether cannot be
(3) Unseptium (4) Unnilquadium
synthesised by Williamson's method?
97. Which among the complex species has longest
(1) ‘C – O’ bond length?
(1) [Fe(CO)5] (2) [V(CO)6]–
(2) (3) [Mn(CO)6]+ (4) [Cr(CO)6]
98. Incorrect match of monomer of given polymer is
(3) (1) Orlon : Tetrafluoroethene
(2) Nylon 6 : Caprolactum
(3) Neoprene : 2-chloro-1,3-butadiene
(4)
(4) HDPE : Ethene
(8)
99. Jahn-Teller effect is not observed in which of the 100. Monosaccharides units present in maltose sugar
following high spin complexes? is
(1) α-D-Glucose and β-D-Glucose
(1) t12 g eg0 (2) t 22 g eg0 (2) α-D-Glucose and β-D-Fructose
(3) α-D-Glucose and α-D-Glucose
(3) t 32 g eg0 (4) t 32 g eg1
(4) α-D-Glucose and β-D-Galactose
BOTANY
SECTION-A 107. Match the following columns and select the

101. Which of the following statements is correct correct option w.r.t. various plants and their life
w.r.t. simple diffusion? span.
(1) The process of diffusion is faster than active Column-I Column-II

transport a. Rose (i) 90-120 days
(2) There is consumption of ATP b. Banyan tree (ii) 25 years
(3) Movement of molecules by diffusion is c. Banana (iii) 200-300 years

passive d. Rice (iv) 5-7 years
(4) It responses to protein inhibitors (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
102. The guard cells become turgid at the time of (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
opening of stomata due to 108. Growth and reproduction are mutually inclusive
events in all of the following organisms, except
(1) Exosmosis
(1) Amoeba (2) Planaria
(2) Endosmosis
(3) Paramoecium (4) Bacterium
(3) Imbibition
109. How many mitotic divisions are required to
(4) Increased CO2 concentration in leaf
produce eight cells from one cell?
103. Nitrite is oxidised to nitrate during N2-cycle by (1) Two (2) Four
(1) Nitrococcus (2) Nitrosomonas (3) Three (4) Seven
(3) Pseudomonas (4) Nitrobacter 110. Select the incorrect statement.
104. In plants, which mineral element is required in (1) Carrots are biennials
more abundant quantities in meristematic (2) Vernalisation refers to promotion of flowering by
tissues, buds, leaves and root tips? a period of low temperature
(1) Potassium (2) Calcium (3) Impermeable and hard seed-coat is one of
(3) Sulphur (4) Boron the reason which promotes seed germination
105. Which of the following are proteinaceous (4) The leaves perceive photoperiodic stimulus
infectious particles? for flowering
(1) Prions (2) Viroids 111. The female gametophyte at mature stage in a
typical flowering plant is
(3) Lichens (4) Protozoa
(1) 2-celled (2) 7-celled
106. The ethylene is involved in
(3) 8-celled (4) 7-nucleated
(1) Phototropism and geotropism
112. How many nuclei are involved in triple-fusion for
(2) Nutrient mobilization the formation of primary endosperm nucleus?
(3) Seed development, maturation and dormancy (1) Three (2) Five
(4) Ripening of fruits (3) Seven (4) Eight
(9)
113. The 2000 years old viable seed of which plant 119. Which of the given is not amongst the broad
species was discovered at King Herod’s palace categories w.r.t. taxonomic hierarchy?
near the Dead Sea? (1) Genus (2) Species
(1) Opuntia (2) Polygonum (3) Tribe (4) Phylum
(3) Phoenix (4) Papaver 120. National Botanical Research Institute is situated
in
114. Choose the correct match w.r.t. cytoskeleton.
(1) Howrah (2) Lucknow
(1) Microtubules – Solid rod-like fibrils
(3) Delhi (4) Indore
(2) Microfilaments – Non-contractile protein 121. Match the following columns and select the
correct option.
(3) Microtubules – Actin and myosin
Column-I Column-II
(4) Intermediate – Scaffolds of chromatin
filaments a. Anabaena (i) Smallest living cell
known
115. During photosynthesis, photochemical reaction
b. Thiobacillus (ii) Photosynthetic
occurs in ' A ' and dark reaction occurs in
c. Lactobacillus (iii) Chemosynthetic
'B ' of chloroplast.
d. Mycoplasma (iv) Are employed in curd
Select the correct option for A and B. formation
(1) A – Grana
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
B – Stroma (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(2) A – Stroma 122. The cell walls of which protistan are embedded
B – Grana with silica and thus the walls are indestructible?
(3) A – Grana (1) Euglena (2) Diatoms
B – Thylakoid (3) Protozoa (4) Slime moulds
123. All of the given are true w.r.t. viruses, except
(4) A – Matrix
(1) They are non-cellular
B – Stroma lamellae
(2) Absence of respiration
116. Which one of the given pathways is common to
(3) They are truly “living”
all green plants?
(4) Nucleoprotein with either RNA or DNA
(1) C2 pathway (2) C3 pathway
124. The fusing gametes are non-motile and similar in
(3) C4 pathway (4) CAM pathway size, as in species of
117. Which of the given enzymes catalyses the (1) Ulothrix (2) Volvox
conversion of glucose to glucose-6- phosphate in (3) Eudorina (4) Spirogyra
EMP pathway?
125. The branch of taxonomy in which we study the
(1) Enolase structure, number and behaviour of chromosome
(2) Isomerase is called
(3) Phosphofructokinase (1) Chemotaxonomy (2) Cytotaxonomy
(4) Hexokinase (3) Numerical taxonomy (4) Modern taxonomy

126. The mature gametophyte of Funaria:
118. When pyruvic acid is converted into ethanol and
CO2: (1) Has upright main axis with spirally arranged
leaves
(1) NAD+ is reduced to NADH + H+
(2) Has unicellular unbranched rhizoids
(2) NAD+ is oxidised to NADH + H+
(3) Has unicellular sex organs without jackets
(3) NADH + H+ is reduced to NAD+ (4) Shows vegetative reproduction by
(4) NADH + H+ is oxidised to NAD+ fragmentation and spore formation
(10)
127. The life cycle pattern of Cycas and Ginkgo 135. Which of the given is an ex-situ conservation
species is/are strategy of biodiversity?
(1) Haplontic type (1) Wildlife safari park (2) Wildlife sanctuary
(2) Diplontic type (3) National park (4) Biosphere reserve
(3) Diplontic and haplontic type respectively SECTION-B
(4) Haplo-diplontic type 136. Select the correct statement.
128. Sepals and petals of potato family show (1) Methane contributes 60% to total global
warming
(2) CO2 contributes 20% to total global warming
(2) Twisted aestivation
(3) Greenhouse gases absorb long wave (infrared)
(3) Valvate aestivation
radiation from the earth
(4) Imbricate aestivation
(4) During the last three decades, the temperature
129. The chloroplasts containing simple tissues of earth has increased by 6°C
showing thickening at the corners with cellulose, 137. With respect to ABO blood groups, how many
hemicellulose and pectin is genotypes and phenotypes, respectively, are
(1) Parenchyma (2) Collenchyma possible in the population of human being?
(3) Chlorenchyma (4) Sclerenchyma (1) 4 and 6 (2) 6 and 4
130. High aspartic acid, low nitrogen and sugar (3) 3 and 4 (4) 4 and 8
content in maize, leads to resistance against 138. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was
(1) Aphids (2) Jassids proposed independently by
(3) Leaf beetle (4) Stem borers (1) Sutton and Boveri
131. Which of the given microorganisms produces (2) Mendel and Morgan
butyric acid? (3) A. R. Wallace and C. Correns
(1) Aspergillus (2) Clostridium (4) Henking and Tschermak
(3) Streptococcus (4) Acetobacter 139. β-thalassemia is controlled by
132. The kangaroo rat in North-American deserts is (1) A single gene HBA1 on chromosome 16 of
capable of meeting all its water requirement each parent
through its (2) A single gene HBB on chromosome 11 of
(1) Ability to dilute its urine each parent
(2) Ability of synthesize protein (3) Two genes HBA1 and HBA2 on chromosome
(3) Internal fat oxidation 16 of each parent
(4) Thick layer of fat below their skin (4) Two genes HBA1 and HBA2 on chromosome
11 of men only
133. Which of the following pairs of organisms is not
an example of commensalism? 140. How many types of gametes are formed by the
parent of AaBBCC genotype?
(1) The cattle egret and grazing cattle
(1) Two (2) Four
(2) Barnacles growing on the back of whale
(3) Eight (4) One
(3) Ophrys and bumble bees
141. Watson and Crick proposed a scheme for
(4) Orchids on a branch of mango replication of DNA, just after proposal of double
134. The pyramid of biomass is generally found to be helical model of DNA.
inverted in According to this model, DNA replication is
(1) Sea ecosystem (1) Conservative
(2) Grassland ecosystem (2) Semi-conservative
(3) Forest ecosystem (3) Dispersive
(4) Crop-land ecosystem (4) Random
(11)
142. Select the incorrect match w.r.t operon concept 146. The detritus food chain
in E. Coli. (1) Begins with heterotrophic organisms, mainly
(1) Lac z – Codes for β-galactosidase algae and fungi
(2) Lac y – Codes for permease (2) Begins with dead organic matter
(3) Is the major conduit of energy flow in aquatic
(3) Structural – Lac z, lac y and lac a
ecosystem
genes
(4) Is not connected with the GFC at any level
(4) i gene – Codes for transacetylase
147. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex occurs in
143. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. features of
(1) Leptotene
human genome.
(1) Chromosome 1 has most genes (2968) (2) Zygotene
(2) Chromosome Y has the fewest genes (231) (3) Pachytene
(3) The average gene consists of 300 bases (4) Diplotene

(4) There are many locations in human genome 148. How many generations of mitosis are required to
where single nucleotide polymorphism occurs produce 32 cells from one cell?
144. Euchromatin is said to be (1) 16 (2) 31
(1) Transcriptionally active and densely packed (3) 5 (4) 8
chromatin 149. Gibberellin is used for
(2) Transcriptionally active and loosely packed
(1) Increasing length of grape stalks
chromatin
(2) Thinning of fruits in cherry and walnut
(3) Transcriptionally inactive and densely packed
(3) Reduction of internodal length in sugarcane
(4) Transcriptionally inactive and stained darkly
stem
145. Which of the following statement is not correct
regarding triplet codons? (4) Closing of stomata under water-stress
conditions
(1) UGG is non-degenerate codon
150. Select the odd one w.r.t. mosses.
(2) UUU is universal codon
(1) Polytrichum (2) Psilotum
(3) AUG is initiator as well as terminator codon
(4) 61 codons code for amino acids (3) Funaria (4) Sphagnum
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 152. Reptiles are characterised by the presence of

151. How many of the given organisms exhibit (1) Mammary glands
incomplete digestive system? (2) Mammary glands and hairs on the skin
(a) Euspongia (3) Dry and cornified skin
(b) Fasciola (4) Wet and cornified skin
(c) Hydra 153. Complete the analogy.
(d) Ancylostoma Placoid scales : Scoliodon : : Cycloid scales :
(e) Hirudinaria _____
Choose the correct option. Choose the correct option.
(1) One (2) Two (1) Carcharodon (2) Trygon
(3) Four (4) Five (3) Pristis (4) Exocoetus
(12)
154. Choose the incorrect match. 159. Select the incorrect statement among the
following given statements.
(1) Cartilage – Its intercellular material is solid,
non-pliable and do not resist (1) Catabolic pathways are degradation
compressions at all processes which lead to the release of
energy
(2) Bone – It has a hard and non-pliable
(2) Anabolic pathways are biosynthetic
ground substance, rich in calcium
processes which involve the consumption of
salts and collagen fibres
energy
(3) Blood – It is the main circulating fluid that
(3) Glucose is degraded to lactic acid in liver,
helps in the transport of various
energy is consumed
substances
(4) Most important form of energy currency in
(4) Areolar – It is present beneath the skin and living system is the bond energy in a
tissue serves as a support framework chemical called ATP
for epithelium
160. A condition in which the food is not properly
155. Match column I with column II. digested, leading to a feeling of fullness is termed
Column I Column II (1) Constipation (2) Indigestion

(3) Vomiting (4) Jaundice
a. Ciliated epithelium (i) Inner lining of
pancreatic ducts
Glucose: Simple diffusion : : Fructose : ______
b. Compound (ii) Inner surface of
(1) Facilitated diffusion
epithelium fallopian tubes
(2) Secondary active transportation
c. Cuboidal epithelium (iii) Lining of stomach
(3) Osmosis
and intestine
(4) Primary active transportation
d. Columnar epithelium (iv) In tubular parts of
nephron in
kidney (1) Oxyntic cells – Secrete HCl
(2) Chief cells – Secrete pepsinogen
(3) Mucous neck cells – Secrete mucus
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(4) Goblet cells – Secrete chymotrypsinogen
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
163. Receptors associated with carotid body can
156. ______ in cockroach helps in grinding the food
recognize changes in
particles.
(1) CO2, and Na+ concentration
Fill in the blank with the suitable option.
(2) K+ and H+ concentration
(1) Hypopharynx
(3) CO2 and H+ concentration
(2) Proventriculus
(4) H+ concentration only
(3) Malpighian tubules
(4) Hepatic caeca
(1) TLC → RV + TV (2) VC →TV + ERV
157. Find the odd one out from the following.
(3) FRC → ERV + RV (4) IC → ERV + IRV
(1) Uridylic acid (2) Cytidylic acid
165. Formation of oxyhaemoglobin is favoured by
(3) Thymidine (4) Guanylic acid
(1) High pCO2
158. Which of the following fatty acids are
unsaturated? (2) Lesser H+ concentration
(1) Arachidonic acid (2) Palmitic acid (3) Low pO2
(3) Stearic acid (4) Myristic acid (4) High temperature
(13)
166. Select the correct match. (1) A – Thrombin
(1) Angina pectoris Acute chest pain appears B – Formed elements

when not enough oxygen C – Clotting factors VII
is reaching the heart (2) A – Blood platelet factor III
muscle
B – Formed elements
(2) Hypertension Blood pressure becomes C – Thrombin
lower than the normal
(3) A – Thrombokinase
blood pressure
B – Thrombin
(3) Heart failure When the heart stops C – Blood corpuscles
beating
(4) A – Clotting factor IX
(4) Cardiac arrest When the heart muscle is B – Thrombokinase
suddenly damaged due to
C – Thrombin
inadequate blood supply
169. Select the incorrect option.
167. Choose the incorrect statement
(1) Bony fishes and aquatic amphibians are
(1) SAN is responsible for initiating and ammonotelic
maintaining the rhythmic contractile activity of
(2) Many terrestrial amphibians and marine
the heart
fishes are ureotelic
(2) The nodal musculature has the ability to
(3) Reptiles, birds and insects are uricotelic
generate action potentials without any
external stimuli (4) Land snails, aquatic insects and reptiles are
uricotelic
(3) SAN can generate the maximum number of
action potentials, i.e., 40-60 min–1 170. Which of the following is indicative of diabetes
mellitus?
(4) The walls of the ventricles are much thicker
(1) Polyuria, haematuria and ketonuria
than walls of the atria
168. Carefully study the cascade process of blood (2) Glycosuria and ketonuria
coagulation (3) Uremia, polyuria, haematuria
(4) Polyphagia, polydipsia and oliguria
(1) Saddle joint – Between carpal and
metacarpal of thumb
(2) Fibrous joint – Do not allow any
movement; sutures
(3) Cartilaginous joint – Joint between the
adjacent vertebrate in
the vertebral column
(4) Synovial joint – Do not allow
considerable
movement; hinge joint
172. Rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca2+ in the
body fluid leads to
Choose the option which correctly labels A, B (1) Osteoporosis (2) Tetany
and C (3) Gout (4) Arthritis
(14)
173. The 11th and 12th pair of ribs are 178. Select the incorrect match
(1) Connected dorsally to the sternum and (1) Insulin – Hypoglycemic hormone of human
ventrally to the vertebral column body
(2) Connected dorsally to the vertebral column (2) Glucagon – Hyperglycemic hormone of
and ventrally to the sternum human body
(3) Connected dorsally to the vertebral column (3) Epinephrine – Emergency hormone of human
and are not connected ventrally to the body
sternum
(4) Melanin – Regulates diurnal rhythm of human
(4) Connected dorsally to the sternum and are
body
not connected ventrally to the vertebral
column 179. Match column I with column II
174. Select the incorrect match. Column I Column II

(1) Brain : Divided into forebrain, midbrain and a. Testosterone (i) Amino acid
hindbrain derivative hormone
(2) Dura mater : Outer cranial meninx
b. Tetra- (ii) Protein hormone
(3) Pia mater: Middle cranial meninx
iodothyronine
(4) Hypothalamus: Centre which controls body
temperature, urge for eating and drinking c. Epinephrine (iii) Thyroxine hormone
175. Blind spot is the region where d. Glucagon (iv) Steroidal hormone
(1) Only rods are absent
(2) Only cones are absent
(3) Both rods and cones are absent
(4) Both rods and cones are present
176. Observe the given figure of a human ear.
180. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. MTP
(1) If the pregnancy has lasted more than
12 weeks, but fewer than 24 weeks, one
registered medical practitioner must be of the
opinion, formed in good faith, that the
required ground exists
(2) MTP is to get rid of unwanted pregnancies
(3) MTPs are also essential in certain cases
Choose the option from the following that where continuation of the pregnancy could be
correctly states harmful or even fatal
(a) Part of ear, which lead inwards and extends (4) MTPs are considered relatively safe during
upto the ear drum. the first trimester
(b) Smallest ear ossicle. 181. Which of the following is not a natural method of
(1) a - Y, b - X (2) a - Z, b - Y contraception?
(3) a - Y, b - Z (4) a - W, b - Z (1) Vaults

177. Exopthalmic goitre is result of (2) Lactational amenorrhea
(1) Hypogonadism (2) Hyperthyroidism (3) Periodic abstinence
(3) Hypothyroidism (4) Hypergonadism (4) Coitus interruptus
(15)
182. Choose the incorrect statement among the 188. Select the incorrect match
following given statements (1) Morphine : Extracted from the latex of poppy
(1) The seminal plasma along with sperm plant, Papaver somniferum
constitute semen (2) Cannabinoid : Obtained from inflorescences
(2) The functions of male sex accessory ducts of the plant, Cannabis sativa
and glands are maintained by androgens (3) Cocaine : Obtained from Erythroxylum coca
(3) Secretions of epididymis, vas deferens, (4) Hallucinogen: Obtained from Papaver
seminal vesicles and prostate are essential somniferum
for maturation and motility of sperms 189. Mule is a resultant of mating between
(4) Sperms are released from the accessory (1) Male horse and female donkey
ducts and are transported by seminiferous (2) Female horse and male donkey
tubules (3) Male horse and female horse
183. Umbilical artery carries (4) Male donkey and female donkey
(1) Oxygenated blood from foetus to mother 190. Find the odd one out w.r.t. the habitat of fish
(2) Oxygenated blood from mother to foetus (1) Sardine (2) Mackerel
(3) Deoxygenated blood from foetus to placenta (3) Pomfret (4) Rohu
(4) Deoxygenated blood from placenta to foetus 191. ELISA works on the principle which state?
184. Complete the analogy (1) Interaction between the epitope of an antigen
and the epitope of an antibody
Australian marsupial: Spotted cuscus : : Placental
mammal : _______ (2) Interaction between the epitope of an antigen
and the paratope of an antibody
(1) Numbat
(3) Interaction between the paratope of an
(2) Lemur antigen and the epitope of an antibody
(3) Flying phalanger (4) Interaction between the paratope of an
(4) Tasmanian wolf antigen and the paratope of an antibody
185. Branching descent and natural selection are the 192. After processing _____ PCR cycles, 32 ds DNA
two key concepts of duplexes are obtained from a single ds DNA.
(1) Mutation theory Fill in the blank with the correct option.
(2) Darwinian theory of evolution (1) Three (2) Four
(3) Lamarckism (3) Five (4) Two
(4) Modern synthetic theory of evolution 193. During batch fermentation, in which phase the
microbes in the fermenter are adapting to a new
SECTION-B environment when inoculated from external
186. MALT includes the lymphoid tissue, located source?
within the mucosa of (1) Stationary phase (2) Log phase
(1) Respiratory and digestive tracts only (3) Lag phase (4) Decline phase
(2) Digestive and urogenital tracts only 194. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. plasmid
(3) Respiratory and urogenital tracts only pBR322
(4) Respiratory, digestive and urogenital tracts (1) Contains Bam HI restriction site in the region
of tetR gene
187. Find the odd one out w.r.t. physiological barrier
(2) Contains Pvu II restriction site in the region of
of innate immunity
rop gene
(1) Acid in stomach
(3) Contains Pst I restriction site in the region of
(2) Saliva in mouth ampR gene
(3) Mucous coating of respiratory tract (4) Contains Pvu I restriction site in the region of
(4) Tears from eyes containing lysozyme tetR gene
(16)
195. Emphysema can be treated with the help of 199. For the process of transformation to be carried,
the microparticles that are coated with the
(1) β-1 trypsin (2) α-1-antitrypsin
desired DNA, which are to be bombarded with
(3) α-lactalbumin (4) β-lactalbumin gene gun, are made up of
196. Myxine belongs to class (1) Gold or tungsten
(1) Cyclostomata (2) Amphibia (2) Gold or silver
(3) Aves (4) Reptilia (3) Silver or zinc

(4) Platinum or zinc
197. In amphibians, alimentary canal, urinary and
reproductive tracts open into a common chamber
incorrect statement(s).
called
a. Cellulase is used to degrade the cell wall of
(1) Trunk (2) Head plant.
(3) Cloaca (4) Operculum b. Chitinase is used to degrade the cell wall of
198. Inbreeding refers to the fungus.
c. Lysozyme is used to degrade the cell wall of
(1) Mating in more closely related individuals
animal.
within the same breed for 4-6 generations
d. Purified DNA ultimately precipitates out after
(2) Mating between different breeds the addition of chilled ethanol.
(3) Mating between two different related species (1) Only a and b (2) Only c
(4) Mating between unrelated animals (3) Only c and d (4) Only b, c and d
  
(17)
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06/07/2022

INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2022

(Complete Syllabus of Class-XI & XII

(4) Behind retina

(3) (4) Both (2) and (3)

(3) n2 (4) n23V (3) 3.16 x 105 J (4) 3.73 x 10 J

4 20.Magnetic dipole moment of a bar magnet is

(1) (2) = W 6junit, the angle between and B can be

(4) Moves gradually farther from the earth then is is

23 The speed of sound in water, which has a bulk

(3) 1450 m/s (4) 2800 m/s

where x and y are measured

amplitude of the simple

Al+n (3) (a) and (b) are correct

()3m (2)m (2) Flow from A to B

Space for Rough Work

42. The minimum and maximum temperature of

(1) (12 0.2)°C (2) (16 +0.2)C

(3) (4) A (4) R-h

Rw 49. Two different planets have same density but

a. R+T+W=ô b. T=R+ W (1) gR (2) g oc R2

(3) a, b, d (4) a, b, c, d 50. A singly charged ion completes five revolutions in

(1) HCI<HBr <HF <HI (Melting point) (4) CIO

CHs NO, molar ratio of 1:2. If vapour

CH 300 mm Hg and 600

(3) 61. The correct statements regarding gaseous states

Low temperature and low pressure

Statement-|l: Hydroformylation of ethene gives following is

3) Fe20s + CO>2FeO + CO2 (2) W nC(T-T)

Space for Rough Work

(1) F>S>ÖH>H,O incorrect

(3) HO>ÖH>F">$2 (3) Both statement-I and statement-ll are correct

(1) Lysine and Arginine 1024 then K, for the reaction

(3) Cysteine and Methionine (1) 2 x 1024 (2) 2 x 1012

(4) Tyrosine and Serine (3) 5x 10-13 (4) 4 x 1024

Space for Rough Work

(1) NaC Column Column lI

(1) Statement-l is false but statement-ll is true

(4) Statement-l is true but statement-ll is false 8 3

Space for Rough Work

(1) Urea (2) Sulphuric acid (1) 3 (2) 5

(1) 0.0138 min-1 (2) 0.027 min

(1), Smonocinie (2) Cgraphite

SECTION-A (1) Family Muscidae

(2) Sphagnum (3) Photosystem I lacks this pigment

Space for Rough Work

(4) It has some short conserved sequences, (2) Members of Poaceae

(2) Protein synthesis

Para-ascorbic acid (4) Nitrates (4) Atmospheric Na fixation

(4) Xylem parenchyma (4) 16S rRNA | Three kingdoms

by evaporative cooling. respectively?

Space for Rough Work

A B C (1) Leaves are Leaves are

reticulate size except in main

(4)FT (3) Bulliform cells are Bulliform cells are

(1) Calotropis 2 )Pathogenicity

(3) Silk cotton

(4) Neem 150. Down's syndrome is due to trisomy of

(1) Elaioplast Stores fats and oils (2) X chromosome

(2) Stroma Space enclosed by inner (3) 11th chromosome

membrane of chloroplast (4) An autosome

Space for Rough Work

SECTION-A 157. The new oral contraceptive for females contains

(3) Grasshopper (4) Duck-billed platypus (a) Ca (b) IPs

(3) 2px (4) 2s (1) KF (2) KCl