30/03/2024 Code A

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MM : 300 SCORE300_Phase-II Test Series-2024_T03 (Code-A) Time : 180 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics-Mock Test on Complete Syllabus
Chemistry-Mock Test on Complete Syllabus
Mathematics-Mock Test on Complete Syllabus

General Instructions :

1. Duration of Test is 3 hrs.

2. The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
3. There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30 questions in each part of
equal weightage. Each part has two sections.
Section-I : This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question carries +4
marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Section-II : This section contains 10 numerical value based questions. In Section-II, attempt any five questions out of 10.
The answer to each question should be rounded off to the nearest integer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
4. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top right corner of screen will display the remaining time available for
you to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You will not be required to end or
submit your examination.
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Answered
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Marked for Review
Not Visited
Answered and Marked for Review
6. Ensure that the battery in your device is sufficiently charged for serving 1 hr before starting the test. We recommend your device is on
charging mode during the test.
7. Make sure you begin the test with a plan. Start with your strongest section.
8. Go through the entire paper and attempt the questions you know first.
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You can only attempt the test from one device. You will be logged out from the first device if you log in from another device.
10. Don’t change the date and time of the device in between the test.
11. Don’t submit the test before time. Try to use the entire duration of the test wisely.

PHYSICS

Section-I

1
SCORE300_Phase-II Test Series-2024_T03 (Code-A)

1. Find the current I of the circuit as shown in the 3. The mass density of a spherical body is given by
arrangement
for r ≤ R and ρ(r) = 0) for r > R, where r is the
k
ρ(r) =
r

distance from the centre. The correct graph that describes

qualitatively the acceleration, a, of a test particle as a
function of r is :

(1)

(1)
V

(2)
V

2R

V
(3) 2R√2

(4) V √2

(2)
2. The given arrangement is in vertical plane and intitally
the springs are in natural length. The uniform rod is
hinged at end O, about which it can freely rotate. What is
the angular frequency of small oscillations of the rod?
mg
[Given: m = mass of rod, L = length of rod and k = L
]

(3)

(1) 3
(
k
)
2

4 m

(2) 1
(
k
)
2

2 m

(3) 3
(
k
)
2

(4)
2 m

(4) (
2k
)
2

5m

2
SCORE300_Phase-II Test Series-2024_T03 (Code-A)

4. A homogenous solid right circular cone of height h and 7. For the circuit shown in figure, potential difference across
base radius R is placed on a trolley accelerating with a and b, is
acceleration a horizontally, so that it does not topple as
shown in figure (Friction is sufficient between the trolley
and the base of the cone), then maximum possible value
of acceleration a is (h = 4R)

(1) 10 V
(2) 8 V
(3) 6 V
(4) 12 V

(1)
g
8. Two blocks of masses m1 and m2 are connected by a
2

spring of spring constant k and placed vertically on a

(2) g horizontal surface as shown in the figure. The minimum
(3)
g
compression in the spring so that the lower block can
3
jump-off when the system is set free, is
(4)
2g

5. Refer to the arrangement of logic gates. For A = 0, B = 0

and A = 1, B = 0, the values of output Y are, respectively

(m1 + m2 )g
(1) k

(1) 0 and 1
(2) (m1 +2m2 )g

(2) 1 and 0 k

m2 g
(3) 1 and 1 (3) k

(4) 0 and 0
(4) (2m1 + m2 )g

k
6. For a particle moving along x-axis, acceleration 'a' varies
as a = kV2, where V is the velocity of the particle, k is a 9. A beta particle is emitted in the following decay scheme
positive constant. If velocity is V0 at x = 0, then choose the 12N → 12C* + e+ + v
correct option. 12C* → 12C + γ (4.43 MeV)
(1) V = V0ekx If the atomic mass of 12N is 12.018613 u, then the
maximum kinetic energy of beta particle emitted, in
(2) V = V0e–kx 12N → 12C + e+ + v + γ (4.43 MeV) is close to
−−−−−−−−−−
(3) . Atomic mass of carbon is 12v
2 2 MeV
V = √V − 2kV x [ me = 0.511 2
]
0 c

(4) V =
V0
x
(1) 15.31 MeV
k
(2) 16.82 MeV
(3) 11.88 MeV
(4) 21.39 MeV

10. The rms velocity of the molecules in a sample of helium

th
is (
5

7
) of that of the molecules in a sample of hydrogen.
If the temperature of the hydrogen gas is 0°C,the
temperature of the helium sample is close equal to
(1) 4 K
(2) 0°C
(3) 273 C
∘

(4) 100 C
∘

3
SCORE300_Phase-II Test Series-2024_T03 (Code-A)

11. The oscillations of magnetic field vector, during the 15. Three capacitors A, B and C shown in following circuit are
propagation of electromagnetic wave, is given by of same capacitance 10 μF. Initially the capacitors A and
B = 3 × 105 cos[ π (0.5x + 108t)] SI unit C are charged while B is uncharged. The potential
The refractive index of the medium in which wave is difference across A is 2 V. The key K1 is closed at t = 0
propagating, is and is kept closed for long time. Now K1 is opened and
(1) 1.8 K2 closed. If there is no current in the cell then, find initial
(2) 1.3 charge on capacitor C
(3) 1.5
(4) 2.0

12. Dimensional formula for −−−−−

√μ0 ∈0 , μ0 is magnetic
permeability of free space, ∈0 is electric permittivity of
free space
(1) L
−1
T
1 (1) 15 μC
(2) 20 μC
(2) LT
−1

(3) 30 μC
(3) 2
L T
−1

(4) 10 μC
(4) LT
16. A magnetising field of 2 × 103 Am–1 produces a
13. A charge particle of mass m and charge +q enters into a
uniform magnetic field B with a velocity v as shown in magnetic flux density of 8 π Tesla in an iron rod. The
figure. Time spent by the particle in the magnetic field relative permeability of the rod will be
region is (1) 102
(2) 100
(3) 103
(4) 104

17. A fixed cylinder made of perfectly non conducting

material closed at both ends is divided into two equal
parts by a frictionless adiabatic piston of area A0 = 25
cm2. Both parts of the cylinder contain the same mass of
3πm a gas at a temperature t0 = 27°C and pressure P0 = 1 ×
(1)
105 N/m2 as shown. Now if the gas in one of the parts is
4qB

(2)
2πm

qB
slowly heated to t = 57°C while the temperature of other
part is maintained at t0 (by some external mechanism).
2πm
(3) 3qB Find the work done by expanding gas in joule. (Total
4πm
length of the cylinder 2l0 = 84 cm
(4) 3qB

14. The coefficient of friction between an insect and bowl is μ

and the radius of the bowl is ‘r’. The maximum height to
which the insect can crawl in the bowl is

(1) 105 ln (
21

20
)

(2) 115 ln (
21

20
)

(1) r (3) 105 ln (

14

13
)

(2) r (1 −
1
) (4) 155 ln (
14

13
)
√μ2 +1

(3) √μ +1
2

(4) √μ2 +1

4
SCORE300_Phase-II Test Series-2024_T03 (Code-A)

18. A neutron having kinetic energy of 65 eV collides

inelastically with a singly ionised He atom at rest and in
ground state. It is scattered at an angle of 90° with respect
to its initial direction. Find the kinetic energy of scattered
neutron after collision if the He atom is excited to first
excited state. [Given : Mass of He atom = 4 × Mass of a
neutron]
(1) 12.72 eV
(2) 22.20 eV
(3) 40.80 eV
(4) 6.36 eV

19. A block of mass m is suspended in a lift with the help of a

uniform wire of negligible mass. The wire can sustain the
maximum stress of σ. If the lift is accelerated vertically
upward with acceleration a, then minimum radius of the
wire has to be
(1) m(g−a)

πσ

−−−−−
(2) √
m(g+a)

πσ

−−−−−
(3) √
m(g+a)

2πσ

−−−−−
(4) √
m(g−a)

πσ

20. In a Young's double slit experiment, slits are separated by

0.5 mm, and the screen is placed 150 cm away. A beam
of light consisting of two wavelengths, 650 nm and 520
nm, is used to obtain interference fringes on the screen.
The least distance from the common central maximum to
the point where the bright fringes due to both the
wavelengths coincide is
(1) 9.75 mm
(2) 15.6 mm
(3) 1.56 mm
(4) 7.8 mm

Section-II

21. A sphere of radius 2R is uniformly charged with volume 23. A point object is placed at distance of 40 cm from a
charge density ρ. There is a cavity of radius R
centered at composite refracting slab whose one face is silvered as
2
shown. The separation between the object and its final
a distance R from centre. A short dipole is placed in the image is (100 + n)cm. Find the value of n
cavity at its centre, along the line joining the centers of the
cavity and sphere. Work done by external agent in
rotating the dipole (dipole moment P )⃗ from 60° to 120° is
2P ρR

x∈0
. Find the value of x.

22. A composite wire of two materials having lengths l1 and

l2 and linear densities μ1 and μ2 respectively are
stretched between two rigid ends as shown in the figure.
24. Two spherical stars A and B emit blackbody radiation.
The radius of A is 400 times that of B and A emits 104
λA
times the power emitted from B. The ratio (
λB
) of their

It is given that the ratio of length segments l1

=
2
, ratio of wavelengths λA and λB at which the peaks occur in their
l2 1

μ1 respective radiation curves is

linear densities μ2
=
9

4
and joint of the two wires is node
for transverse standing waves. If standing waves are
created in the composite wire then find minimum number
of antinodes which are possible in the composite wire

5
SCORE300_Phase-II Test Series-2024_T03 (Code-A)

25. A wire 4 m long moves with a velocity 28. If l is the length of liquid (density ρ0) inside the capillary
tube (radius r) placed inside an accelerating container
The wire is parallel to the z-axis and the magnetic field is
having acceleration g, then value of l is nT

3r ρ g
. Value of n
uniform and has a value The emf induced 0

is ____ (Angle of contact is zero)

between the ends of the wire is P volt. Find P.

26. In the arrangement shown the plank of mass M lies

horizontally on top of a solid sphere of equal mass M. The
plank is pushed with a horizontal force whose magnitude
is F. There is no slipping at any contact and the
acceleration of the plank is pF

qM
where p and q are
integers in their simplest form. Find the value of (p + q)
29. A projectile is to be projected on an inclined plane of
inclination 40° as shown in figure. At what angle (in
degree) with the horizontal should the projectile be
projected so that its range on inclined plane will be
maximum?

27. In a metre bridge experiment, the gaps are bridged by

coils P and Q having some resistance. A balance is
obtained when the jockey key makes contact at a point of
bridge wire 40 cm from the P side end. On shunting the
coil Q with a resistance of 50 Ω, the balance point moves
by 10 cm. The resistance of Q (in Ω) is
30. A metal surface is illuminated by light of two different
wavelengths λ1 = 500 nm and λ2 = 620 nm. The
maximum speed of ejected photoelectrons corresponding
to these wavelengths are in the ratio 3 : 2. If work function
of the metal is ϕeV, then find the value of 15 ϕto the
nearest integer. (take hc = 1240 neV)

6
SCORE300_Phase-II Test Series-2024_T03 (Code-A)

CHEMISTRY

Section-I

31. In which of the following, equilibrium constant is highest? 35. For the reaction, 2H2 ( g) + O2 ( g) → 2H2 O(g) ;
ΔH = −571 kJ and bond energy of
(H − H) is 435 kJ / mole and (O = O) is 498 kJ ,
(1)
/ mole

then calculate the average bond energy of (O − H) bond

using the above data.
(2)
(1) 271 kJ/mole
(2) –271 kJ/mole
(3) 484 kJ/mole
(4) –484 kJ/mole
(3)
36. The correct order of boiling points of the given
compounds H2O, HF, NH3
(1) HF > H2O > NH3

(4) (2) NH3> HF > H2O

(3) H2O > HF > NH3
(4) NH3> H2O > HF
32. Which of the following is an aromatic species?
37. IUPAC name of element is ununquadium. What would be
(1) the group number the element?
(1) 112
(2) (2) 115
(3) 114
(4) 117
(3)
38. The correct expression for Heisenberg’s uncertainty
principle is

(4) (1) Δx. Δv <

h

4π

(2) Δp. Δx ≥
4h

33. In which reaction, n-factor of reducing agent is maximum? (3) Δp. Δx <
h

4π

(1) Cu + 2Ag+ ⟶ Cu2+ + Ag (4) ΔxΔV ≥

h

4πm

(2) I2 + HNO3 ⟶ HIO3 + NO2

39. 11.2 L of gas at STP weight 15 g. The gas would be
(3) SO2 + H2O2 ⟶ H2O + SO3
(1) NO
(4) 2Na + Mg2+ ⟶ 2Na+ + Mg (2) N2
34. In the presence of 10–2 M NaOH, what is the degree of (3) CO2
ionisation of 0.01 M NH4OH? (4) NO2
Kb (NH4OH) = 1.8 × 10–5 40. Which of the following are red and black coloured
(1) α = 1.8 precipitates respectively and both are soluble in excess
of KI?
(2) α = 1.8 × 10–1
(1) HgI2, Hg2I2
(3) α = 1.8 × 10–2
(2) HgI2, BiI3
(4) α = 1.8 × 10–3
(3) Cu2I2, AgI
(4) CdI2, PbI2

7
SCORE300_Phase-II Test Series-2024_T03 (Code-A)

41. Among the following amino acids, essential amino acids 44.
is/are
(1) Glycine
(2) Lysine
(3) Tyrosine
The major product obtained in the reaction is
(4) Alanine
42. Correct order of Kb values of given compounds are
(1)

(2)

(1) I > II > III

(2) I > III > II
(3) III > I > II
(4) III > II > I (3)
43. In Cannizzaro type of reaction given below

(4)

45. Match the following and choose the correct option

List-I List-II

(P) (1)

Which of the following is the slowest step?

(1) Transfer of H+ ion to carbonyl carbon
(Q) (2)
–
(2) Nucleophilic addition attack of OH at carbonyl
carbon of benzaldehyde
(3) Transfer of hydride to the carbonyl group
(4) Absorption of H+ ion to the medium (R) (3)

(S) (4)

(5)

(1) P → 3; Q→4; R→2; S→1

(2) P → 4; Q→2; R→1; S→3
(3) P → 5; Q→3; R→1; S→2
(4) P → 4; Q→3; R→2; S→1

8
SCORE300_Phase-II Test Series-2024_T03 (Code-A)

46. Which of the following reaction takes place at anode 49. Statement-1 : On increasing the temperature by 10°C, the
during discharging? rate of reaction becomes 2-3 times.
and
(1) PbSO4 (s) → Pb(s) + SO
2−

4
Statement-2 : Temperature increases activation energy
(2) PbSO4 + 2H2 O → PbO2 + SO4
2−
+ 4H
+
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2
(1)
is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(3) PbO2 (s) + SO4
2−
(aq) + 4H
+
→ PbSO4 + H2 O
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2
(4) (2)
Pb(s) + SO
2−

4
(aq) → PbSO4 (s) is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
47. Which of the following statement is correct?
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
(1) Fe(CO)5 has a square pyramidal geometry
(2) Mn2(CO)10 has an oxo bridge between two Mn atoms 50. On passing chromyl chloride gas in NaOH solution and
then adding AgNO3, the ppt. formed is
Co2(CO)8 has a Co—Co bond as well as a carbonyl
(3) (1) Ag2CrO4, red
bridge between the two Co atoms
The metal carbonyl σ bond is formed by the donation (2) Na2CrO4, yellow
(4) of electrons from a filled d-orbital of metal into vacant (3) AgCl, yellow
antibonding π* orbital of carbon monoxide
(4) CrO5, deep blue
48. Identify the products formed when an interhalogen
compound BrF3 undergoes hydrolysis.
(1) HBr + HF
(2) HOF + HBr
(3) HBrO2 + HF
(4) HBrO3 + HF

Section-II

51. When 0.36g of iron pyrite (FeS2) was heated strongly in
air following reaction takes place
FeS2(s) + O2(g) → SO2(g) + Fe2O3(s)
The SO2(g) produced was titrated with acidicfied
K2Cr2O7 solution. Calculate the volume in mL of 1M
K2Cr2O7 solution used in redox titration.
54. 1.8 g of ionic solid (that has CsCl type structure and
completely dissociated in water) is present in 1 L
aqueous solution and osmotic pressure of this solution is
4.92 atm at 300 K. The density of ionic solid is 30 g/cm3
with edge length a nm. The value of 100a is
(R = 0.082
L atm

mo l K
, NA = 6 × 10
23
)

(MW of Fe = 56 and S = 32)

55. The conductance of a 10–2 M aqueous solution of a
52. The sum of bond order of C and −
ion is A × 10–1.
2 N2
weak monobasic acid was determined by using a
The value of A is ___________. conductivity cell. The distance between electrodes is y cm
53. The photoelectric current from Na (work function, w0 = 2.3 with an area of cross section of 5 cm2. The conductance
eV) is stopped by the output voltage of the cell of this solution was found to be 10–6 S. The value of
Pt(s)|H2(g, 1 bar)|HCl(aq., pH = 1)|AgCl(s)|Ag(s). limiting molar conductivity (Λ ) of this weak monobasic
o
m

The pH of aq. HCl required to stop the photoelectric acid in aqueous solution is 103 S cm2 mol–1 and pH of
current from K(w0 = 2.25 eV), all other conditions 0.01 M aqueous solution is 5. The value of
y
is
remaining the same, is b × 10–1. Find the nearest
10

integer of b.
Given, 2.303 RT

F
= 0.06V; E
0

AgCl∣
−
= 0.22V
∣Ag∣
∣ Cl

9
SCORE300_Phase-II Test Series-2024_T03 (Code-A)

56. Identify the number of correct order of properties given in 59. Amongst the following, the total number of compounds
bracket. soluble in aqueous NaOH is
(A) Ba > Sr > Be > Mg > Ca (Density)
(B) Tl > In > Al > Ga > B (Atomic radius)
(C) C – F > C – H > C – O > C – C (Bond energy)
(D) HClO > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4 (Acidic strength)
(E) XeF6 > XeF4 > XeOF2 > XeF2 (Oxidation number of
central atom)

57. The number of geometrical isomers that can exist for

square planar [Pt(Cl)(py)(NH3)(NH2OH)]+ is (py =
pyridine)
58. 4 moles of chromite ore is treated with sufficient amount
of Na2CO3 to produce 8 moles Na2CrO4. The number of
60. Total number of possible stereoisomers of 1, 3-dimethyl
moles of O2 consumed is cyclopentane is _______

10
SCORE300_Phase-II Test Series-2024_T03 (Code-A)

MATHEMATICS

Section-I

61. If sin x + cos x = √y +

−−−−−
1
, (y > 0) then (x, y) is equal to 66. The complete set of values of ‘k’ for which both roots of
the equation x2 + 3kx + (k – 1) = 0 are less than or equal
y

to 1 is
(1) (
3π

4
, 1)

(1) (0, ∞)
(2) (1,
π

4
) (2) [0, ∞)
(3) (
π
, 1)
(3) (–∞, 0)
4

–
(4) (–∞, 0]
(4) (
π

4
, √2)

67. If α, β ≠ 0 and f(n) = αn + βn and

62. If A and B are two non-zero n × n matrices such that A2 +
∣ 3 1 + f (1) 1 + f (2) ∣

B = A2B, then ∣
∣ 1 + f (1) 1 + f (2)
∣
1 + f (3) ∣ = K(1 – α)2(β – 1)2(α – β)2,
∣ ∣
(1) A2B = BA2 ∣ 1 + f (2) 1 + f (3) 1 + f (4) ∣

(2) A2B = I then K is equal to

(1) 1
(3) A2 = I or B = I
1

(4) AB = I (2) αβ

(3) αβ
63. Let f(x) = sin23x – cos22x and g(x) = 1 + tan (|x|), 1 –1

2 (4) –1
then the number of real values of x in interval [–10π, 20π]
satisfying the equation f (x) = [g(x)], where [·] denotes 68. The number of ways in which all the letters of the word
greatest integer function, is "EXTENSION" can be arranged such that no two E's and
(1) 6 no two N's come together, is
(2) 10 (1) 50250
(3) 15 (2) 55440
(4) 20 (3) 60293
64. If z lies on the circle – (4) 62421
∣
∣z − 4∣
∣ = 4√2, then a value of
−−
− 69. If sin (2 cos (cot (2 tan
−1 −1
= 0, x > 0, then which of
∣
∣
arg (
z−4i

z+4i
)
∣
∣
is equal to (where i = √−1 )
x)))

the following is incorrect?

π
(1) 2 (1) –
x = √2 − 1
π
(2) 6 (2) –
x = √2 + 1

(3) x = 3
π
(3) 12

(4)
π (4) x = 1
4

70. The value of 2C2 + 6C3 + 12C4 + … + 90C10 is (where

65. 2
tan[ x ] π
+ ax
3
+ b, 0 < x ≤ 1 10C = C ) equal to
If f (x) = { ax
2
is differentiable r r
−1
2 cos πx + tan x, 1 < x < 2
(1) 90(2)8
in (0, 2) and if a = 1

k1
and b =
π

4
−
26

k2
, then the value of (2) 210
2 2

(3) 45(2)7
k1 + k2

20
is (where [.] denotes greatest integer function)
(1) 9 (4) 50(28)
(2) 8
71. Consider the function f : R → R defined by
(3) 7
1
(2 − sin( )) ∣
∣x∣
∣, x ≠ 0
(4) 3 f (x) = {
x
Then f is :
0 , x = 0

(1) Monotonic on (0, ∞) only

(2) Monotonic on (– ∞, 0) ∪ (0, ∞)
(3) Monotonic on (– ∞, 0) only
(4) Not monotonic on (– ∞, 0) and (0, ∞)

11
SCORE300_Phase-II Test Series-2024_T03 (Code-A)

72. Let < an > be an increasing arithmetic progression with 77. Let A and B are two independent events. The probability
a1 = 2 and 7a = 4a , then a2 a5
that both A and B occur together is 1/6 and the probability
−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−
that neither of them occurs is 1/3. The probability of
√
4
(∑
10
aa ) − (∑
10
ar ) − 1 is equal to occurrence of A is
3 r=1 r r=2

(1) 0 or 1
(1) 0
(2)
1 1
or
2 3
(2) 2
(3) 4 (3) 1

2
or
1

(4) 6 (4) 1
or
1

3 4

73.
78. Tangents are drawn tothe ellipse
k
sin(k1 x) sin 2 x

If ∫ sin(101x) sin
99
xdx =
k3
+C then
x
2

+
y
2

= 1 (a > b)
2 2 2
and the circle x + y = a at the
K1 + K2 − K3 = a2 b
2

point where a common ordinate cut them (on the same

(1) 50
side of the x-axis). Then the greatest acute angle
(2) 0 between these tangents is given by
(3) 100
(1) tan
−1
[
a− b
]
(4) 125 2√ab

74. Consider the triangle formed by the lines 3x + y + 2 = 0, (2) tan

−1
[
a+ b
]
2√ab
2x – 3y + 5 = 0 and x + 4y – 14 = 0. If (α, 2) lies inside the
triangle, then the set of exhaustive values of α is
(3) tan
−1
[
2ab
]
√a − b

(1) (
1

2
,
4

3
)

(4) −1 2ab
tan [ ]
(2) (−2, −
4

3
) √a + b

(3) (1,
4
) 79. Let the mean and the variance of 5 observations x1, x2,
3

x3, x4, x5 be and respectively. If the mean and

24

5
194

25

(4) (−
4
,
1
)
3 2 variance of the first 4 observation are 7

2
and a
75. The solution of the differential equation respectively, then (4a + x5) is equal to
dy (1) 13
xy
2
(x
dx
+ y) = a
2
is
(2) 15
(1) (3) 17
2
3 3 3x
x y = +k
2

2 2
(4) 18
(2) 3
x y
3
=
3a x

2
+k

3
80. If f(x) = √−−− −−−−
3|x| − x , g(x) = 1 – 2 sinx, then the domain of
(3) 2 2 3x
x y =
2
+k
definition of fog (x) is
(4)
3 3
2 2 3a x
x y =
2
+k
(1) [(2n − 1)π, 2nπ +
π

6
] ∪ [2nπ +
5π

6
, (2n + 1)π]

76. The number of circles that touch the line x – 3y – 4 = 0 at (2) R

the point (1, –1) and also touch the coordinate axes, is
(3) [2nπ +
5π
, 2nπ +
5π
]
(1) Zero 6 6

(2) 2 (4) R+
(3) 3
(4) 4

Section-II

81. Let set A = {1001, 1002, 1003, …, 2500} and set B = {x : x 83. If P be a point on the parabola y2 = 3(2x – 3) and M is the
is a natural number which is divisible by 3 or 5}, then the foot perpendicular drawn from P on the directrix of the
value of 1
n(A − B) is equal to parabola, then length of each side of an equilateral
100
triangle SMP, where S is focus of the parabola is____.
82. Let f1(x) and f2(x) be even and odd functions respectively, 84. 4 1 2
x sin( )+ x
x

where x f (x) − 2f ( ) = f (x), then the value of f1(3)is

2
1 1
1

x 2 lim (
3
) equals λ then λ + 3 is
x→−∞
1+ ∣ x ∣
∣ ∣

12
SCORE300_Phase-II Test Series-2024_T03 (Code-A)

85. Let f(x) = min{(x + 2)3, x2/3}. Then the sum of total number 88. Let z1, z2, z3 be three complex numbers such that |z1| =
of local maxima, local minima and inflection points of f(x), z
2
z
2
z
2

|z2| = |z3| = 1 and 1

+
2
+
3
+1 = 0 , then the sum
is z2 z3 z1 z3 z1 z2

of possible values of |z1 + z2 + z3| is

86. The least value of λ for which
(4
1+x
+4
1−x
) ,λ, ( 4
2x
+4
−2x
) are in A.P is 89. For a data of n observations x1 , x2 , …, xn , if
= 29n and = 34n , then
n 2 n 2
∑ (2x + 1) ∑ (3x − 1)
87. If the shortest distance between the line joining the points i=1 i i=1 i

y+1
the variance of this data is,
(1, 2, 3) and (2, 3, 4), and the line x−1

2
=
−1
=
z−2

0
is α,
90. If the total area bounded by the curve 4y2 = x2 (4 – x2) is
then 28α2 is equal to _______.
A, then [A] is (where [·] denotes the greatest integer
function)

13