14/01/2024 Code-A_Phase-1&2

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A Time : 200 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics: Laws of Motion, Work, Energy and Power, System of Particles & Rotational Motion
Chemistry: Thermodynamics, Equilibrium
Botany: Biological Classification, Morphology of Flowering Plants (Including Malvaceae, Cruciferae, Leguminosae,
Compositae, Graminae)
Zoology: Breathing & Exchange of Gases, Body Fluids and Circulation, Excretory Products and Their Elimination

General Instructions :

1. There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
2. Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, –1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered/unattempted questions will be given no marks.
3. Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
4. Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
5. Dark only one circle for each entry.
6. Dark the circle in the space provided only.
7. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other rubbing material on the
Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1. The change in magnitude of velocity of a 2. A : Real forces are frame independent.

body undergoing uniform circular motion in R : Pseudo forces are frame dependent.
any quarter circle is (v : speed of particle) (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(1) 2 v the reason is the correct explanation of
(2) Zero the assertion
(3)
v (2) Both Assertion and Reason are false
2
statements
–
(4) √2v (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

3. A monkey of mass 60 kg climbs on a rope 8. The position-time graph for a particle of

which can withstand a maximum tension of mass 6 kg moving along x-axis is shown in
900 N. For which of the following value of figure. Then impulse on particle at t = 2
acceleration monkey will not be able to second is
climb safely on the rope?
(1) 4 m s–2
(2) 5 m s–2
(3) 0.8 m s–2
(4) 8 m s–2

4. Three blocks with masses m, 2m and 4m are (1) 120 Ns

connected by strings A and B as shown in
(2) – 420 Ns
figure. After an upward force F is applied on
block m, the masses are moving upward at (3) – 120 Ns
constant speed v. The tension in the string B (4) 60 Ns
will be
9. The tension (T) in the given diagram is (Take
g = 10 m/s2 )

(1) 7mg
(2) 6mg
(3) Zero (1) 20 N
(4) 4mg (2) 10 N
(3) 5N
5. If a truck moving with a constant speed of 2 (4) Zero
m/s on a level road can take a sharp circular
turn of radius 2 m, then the minimum value
of coefficient of friction between tyres of truck 10. ˆ ˆ
Two forces (3 i + 4 j ) N and
and road so that it does not skid is (Take g =
10 m/s2 ) ˆ ˆ
(2 i + j ) N are acting on a body of mass 1
(1) 0.1
kg, then magnitude of acceleration produced
(2) 0.2 in the body will be
(3) 0.3 (1) 5 m/s2
(4) 0.4 (2) – 2
√2 m/s

6. In uniform circular motion, which of the (3) – 2

5√2 m/s
following quantity remain constant?
(4) – 2
(1) Linear momentum 4√2 m/s
(2) Velocity
(3) Kinetic energy 11. The linear momentum p (in
⃗ kg m/s) of a
(4) Acceleration particle varies with time t (in s) as
2 ^
p ⃗ = (t . Acceleration of particle will
− 2t) i

7. In the figure shown if all the surfaces are be zero at t equal to

smooth and strings are inextensible. The (1) 1 s
ratio of T1 to the T2 is (2) 2 s
(3) 1
s
2

(4) 1
s
(1) 5 : 3 4

(2) 2 : 3
(3) 5 : 2
(4) 1 : 1

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

12. A ball released from a height of 20 m, hits 16. The potential energy of a particle at position
the ground and rebound to a height of 16 m. x is given by U = (x2 − 4x + 2) J where x
The coefficient of restitution of the collision is in meter. The equilibrium position of the
will be particle will be
(1) 4 (1) x = 2 m
√5

(2) 2 (2) x = 0
√5 (3) x = 1 m
(3) 4
(4) x = 3 m
5

(4) 2

5
17. When a man walks on horizontal surface
with constant velocity, work done by
13. When a spring is compressed by a distance (1) Friction force is zero
‘x’, the potential energy is U1 . When it is (2) Normal reaction is zero
further compressed by a distance 2x, the (3) Friction force is negative
potential energy is U2 . The ratio of U1 : U2
(4) Both (1) & (2)
is
(1) 1 : 3
(2) 1 : 9 18. →
ˆ ˆ ˆ
If A = 2 i + 3j − k and
(3) 1 : 16 →
ˆ ˆ ˆ
(4) 1 : 4 B = i + j + ak are perpendicular
vectors, then the value of a will be
(1) 3
14. The force acting on a particle moving along
x-axis varies with position on x-axis is as (2) 2
shown in figure. The particle is in stable (3) 5
equilibrium at (4) 7

19. In an inelastic collision

(1) Only momentum is conserved
(2) Only kinetic energy is conserved
(3) Neither momentum nor kinetic energy
is conserved
(4) Both momentum and kinetic energy are
conserved

(1) x = – x1
20. Two equal masses are moving along the
(2) x = x2 same straight line with velocities +3 m/s and
(3) x = 0 –5 m/s respectively collide elastically. Their
velocities after the collision will be
(4) Both (1) and (2)
respectively
(1) +4 m/s for both
15. →
ˆ (2) –3 m/s and +5 m/s
ˆ ˆ
A force F = ( i + j + 2k) N is acting on
(3) –4 m/s and +4 m/s
a particle moving with constant velocity (4) –5 m/s and +3 m/s
→
ˆ ˆ ˆ
v = (4 i + j − k) m/s the power
delivered by the force is 21. The centre of mass of a body
(1) 6 W (1) Lies always outside the body
(2) 1 W (2) May lie within, outside, on the surface
(3) 4 W of the body
(4) 3 W (3) Lies always inside the body
(4) Lies always on the surface of the body

22. Two particles of masses m and 4m are

moving with same kinetic energy, then ratio
of magnitude of linear momentum is
(1) 1 : 4
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 1 : 1

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

23. An engine lifts 400 kg mass through a height 28. Two particles of mass 2 kg and 3 kg are
of 100 m in 20 s. The rated power of the moving along positive x and positive y axis
engine is, if efficiency of engine is 80% (g = with speeds 3 m/s and 2 m/s respectively.
10 m/s2 ) The speed of the centre of mass of the
(1) 30 kW system is
(1) 2.5 m/s
(2) 20 kW
(2) 3 m/s
(3) 25 kW
(3) 6√3
(4) 10 kW 5
m/s

(4) 6√2
m/s
24. A position dependent force F is acting on a 5

particle of mass 1 kg and its force-position

curve is shown in the figure. Speed of 29. A wheel of radius 20 cm has forces applied
particle at x = 5 m if speed at x = 0 is zero to it as shown in figure. The net torque
produced by the forces about centre O is

(1) 10 m/s
(2) 5 m/s (1) 1.8 N m clockwise
−−
(3) √10 m/s (2) 1.2 N m clockwise
−−
(4) √15 m/s (3) 0.8 N m clockwise
(4) Zero
25. Angular momentum of solid sphere rotating
about its diameter with angular speed ω is 30. A ring of radius R and mass M is rolling on a
(Mass and radius of sphere are M and smooth horizontal surface with speed v. The
R respectively) kinetic energy of ring is
(1) 2 M R2 ω (1) Mv2
3

(2) 2 2
MR ω
(2) 2Mv2
5
(3) 1 M v2
(3) 7 2
MR ω 4
5
(4) 1
Mv
2
(4) 5 2
MR ω 2
7

31. A wheel initially at rest, starts rotating with a

26. A vector perpendicular to both vector uniform angular acceleration. The wheel
⃗ ^ ^ ^
A = i + 2j + k as well as rotates through an angle θ1 in first second
⃗ ^ ^ ^
B = i + j −k is and through an additional angle θ2 in next
θ2
(1) ^ ^ ^ two second. The value of is
3 i + 2j − k θ1

(2) ^ ^ ^ (1) 8
−6 i + 4 j − 2k
(2) 4
(3) ^ ^ ^
−6 i + 4 j + 2k
(3) 1

(4) ^ ^ ^
3 i + 2j + k
4

(4) 1

27. A force (2^ ^ ^

i − 3 j + 5k)N acts on a particle

lying at (2 m, –3 m, 5 m). The torque acting

on the particle about origin is
(1) Zero
(2) ^ ^
(3 i + 5k)N − m

(3) ^ ^ ^
(2 i − 4 j + 5k)N − m

(4) ^ ^ ^
(4 i + 3 j − 5k)N − m

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

32. A and B are two loops made from same wire. 34. Ten seconds after an electric fan is turned
The radii of A and B are r1 and r2 and their on, the fan rotates at 300 rev/min. Its
moment of inertia are I1 and I2 . If average angular acceleration is
I1
=
1
then the value of
r2
is (1) 30 rev/s2
I2 4 r1
(2) 3.14 rad/s2
(1) −
2

4
(3) 0.5 rad/s2
3

(2) −
2

2 3
(4) 1800 rev/s2
(3) 2

4 3

(4) 2 35. A particle of mass 2 kg is projected at an

2 3
angle of 60° above the horizontal, with a
speed 20 m/s. The magnitude of angular
momentum of the particle about point of
33. Radius of gyration of a body does not
projection, when it is at maximum height will
depend on
be
(1) The axis of rotation
(2) Angular speed of body
(3) Distribution of mass around the axis of
rotation
(4) Both (1) and (3)

(1) 300 kg m2 /s
(2) 120√– 2
3 kg m /s
–
(3) 40√3 kg m2 /s
(4) 150 kg m2 /s

SECTION-B

36. To keep the block A of mass 5 kg in
equilibrium, the man pulls the rope by a
force F as shown in the figure. The
magnitude of force F is (g = 10 m/s2 ) (string
and pulleys are ideal)
37. The acceleration of block A (of mass 10 kg),
kept on a smooth horizontal surface, when a
force F of magnitude 10 N is applied on it as
shown in figure will be

(1) 0.25 m/s2

(2) 2 m/s2
(3) 1 m/s2
(4) 0.5 m/s2

(1) 25 N
(2) 50 N
(3) 100 N
(4) 15 N

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

38. Tension in string PQ as shown in the figure 43. Internal forces cannot change
is (g = 10 m/s2 ) (1) Linear momentum of a system
(2) Kinetic energy of a system
(3) Potential energy of a system
(4) Both (1) and (2)

44. Water falls from a height 150 m at the rate of

20 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due
to frictional forces are 20% of energy. The
(1) 500 N power generated by the turbine is (g = 10
(2) 200 N m/s2 )
3
(1) 24 kW
(3) 100 N
(2) 30 kW
(4) 500 N
3 (3) 2.4 kW
(4) 3 kW
39. Action and reaction forces are
(1) Antiparallel to each other 45. A block of mass m moving on a frictionless
(2) Parallel to each other surface at a speed v, compresses a spring
(3) Perpendicular to each other through a distance x before its speed is
halved. The spring constant of spring is
(4) Inclined at an angle 60° to one another
(1) 3mv 2

2
4x

40. Maximum acceleration of the train in which a (2) 3mv

2

50 kg box lying on its floor will remain 2x

2

stationary with respect to floor of train is (3) mv

2

(Given coefficient of friction between floor of 4x

2

train and box is 0.3 and g = 10 m/s2 ) (4) 2

mv

(1) 3 m/s2 2x

(2) 6 m/s2
46. The radius of gyration of a uniform square
(3) 15 m/s2 plate of mass M and side a about its
(4) 5 m/s2 diagonal is
(1) a
√6

41. In the figure shown, a small ball hits (2) a

2√3
obliquely a smooth horizontal surface with
speed u whose x and y components are (3) a

2√2
indicated. If coefficient of restitution is
3 (4) a

e = . Speed of particle after the collision 4

4

will be
47. 9.8
kg m
2
A disc of moment of inertia 2
is
π

rotating. If the frequency of rotation changes

from 240 rpm to 120 rpm, then the work
done is [approximately]
(1) 5 m/s (1) 235 J
(2) 4 m/s (2) 470 J
(3) 3√–2 m/s (3) 588 J
(4) 3 m/s (4) 294 J

42. At the highest point of a projectile 48. A particle is revolving about origin with
→
instantaneous power of gravity is [u is initial angular velocity ˆ ˆ
ω = (2 i + j ) rad/s. The
velocity and θ is angle of projection with
horizontal] linear velocity of the particle when its
→
(1) mgucosθ position vector is ˆ ˆ
r = ( i + 2j ) m, is
(2) mgusinθ
(1) ˆ
3k m/s
(3) mgu
(4) Zero (2) ˆ
j m/s
(3) ˆ
2k m/s
(4) ˆ
2j m/s

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

49. The moment of inertia of a metre scale of

mass 0.6 kg about an axis perpendicular to
the scale and located at the 25 cm position
on the scale in kgm2 is (Breadth of the scale
is negligible)
(1) 0.0176
(2) 0.1760
(3) 0.0875
(4) 0.1482

50. Two solid spheres each of mass M and

R
radius 2 are connected with a massless rod
of length 2R as shown in the figure. What
will be the moment of inertia of the system
about an axis passing through the centre of
one of the spheres and perpendicular to the
rod?

(1) 21
mR
2

(2) 2
mR
2

(3) 5
mR
2

(4) 5
mR
2

21

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

51. Standard entropies of A2 , B2 and A2 B3 are 53. If for the given reaction, 2X(g) + Y(g) ⇌
50, 20 and 60 JK–1 mol–1 respectively. X2 Y(g), at 300 K
For the reaction ΔS° = 8.0 JK–1 mol–1 and ΔG° = 60 kJ mol–1
A2 +
3
B2 → A2 B3 , ΔH° = – 7.5 KJ, to be
then ΔH° will be
2

at equilibrium, the temperature will be (1) 2460 J mol–1

(1) 375 K (2) 62.4 kJ mol–1
(2) 350 K (3) 57.6 kJ mol–1
(3) 450 K (4) 6.24 kJ mol–1
(4) 475 K

54. The ΔHf° for CO2 (g), CO(g) and H2 O(g) are
52. For which of the following reactions, ΔH is
not equal to ΔE? –393.5, –110.5 and –241.8 kJ mole–1
respectively. The standard enthalpy change
(1) N2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2NO(g) in kJ for the reaction
(2) H2 (g) + I2 (g) → 2 HI(g) CO2 (g) + H2 (g) → CO(g) + H2 O(g) is
(3) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) → 2 NH3 (g) (1) + 524.1
(4) C(s) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) (2) + 41.2
(3) – 524.1
(4) –41.2

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

55. The values of standard enthalpy of formation 61. Which of the following is always true for a
of SF6 (g), S(g) and F(g) are -1100, 275 and spontaneous change at all temperatures?
80 kJ mol–1 respectively. Then the average (1) ΔH > 0, ΔS < 0
S - F bond energy in SF6 is (2) ΔH < 0, ΔS > 0

(1) 301 kJ mol–1 (3) ΔH > 0, ΔS > 0

(2) 320 kJ mol–1 (4) ΔH < 0, ΔS < 0

(3) 309 kJ mol–1

(4) 280 kJ mol–1 62. In a system, AB2 (s) ⇌ A(g) + 2B(g) on
doubling the quantity of AB2 (s) at
equilibrium
56. A system is provided 50 joule of heat and
the change in internal energy during the (1) Partial pressure of A becomes double
process is 60 J. Work done during the (2) Partial pressure of B becomes double
process (3) Partial pressure of A becomes half
(1) –10 J (4) Partial pressure of B remains same
(2) 10 J
(3) 110 J 63. If Kw = 10–12 at 90°C, then the pH of pure
(4) –110 J
water and its nature at 90°C will be
(1) pH = 7, neutral
57. In which one of the following sets, all the (2) pH = 6, acidic
properties belong to same category (all
extensive or all intensive)? (3) pH = 6, neutral
(1) Mass, volume, pressure (4) pH = 8, neutral
(2) Temperature, pressure, volume
(3) Heat capacity, density, entropy 64. Which of the following pair constitutes a
buffer solution?
(4) Enthalpy, internal energy, volume
(1) C6 H5 CO2 H and C6 H5 CO2 Na
(2) CH3 CO2 Na and NaCl
58. In which of the following entropy increases?
(1) A liquid crystallizes into a solid (3) HCl and KCl
(2) Temperature of gas decreases from (4) NaOH and NaCl
500K to 400 K
(3) Polymerisation of ethylene molecules 65. A buffer solution with pH=9.66 is to be
(4) 2NaHCO3 (s)→ Na2 CO3 (s) + CO2 (g) + prepared by mixing NH4 OH (pKb = 4.34)
H2 O(g) and NH4 Cl. The number of moles of NH4 Cl
required to be added to 1 litre 1 M NH4 OH
will be
59. 10 moles of an ideal gas expands
(1) 1
spontaneously into vacuum. The work done
is equal to (2) 0.1
(1) 10 J (3) 0.2
(2) 100 J (4) 2
(3) Infinite
(4) Zero 66. If equilibrium pressure in the reaction A(s)
⇌ B(g) + C(g) is 10 atm then Kp will be

60. Which of the following reactions will evolve (1) 100 atm2
maximum amount of heat? (2) 25 atm2
(1) HF + NaOH → (3) 0.01 atm2
(1 mole) (1 mole)
(4) 1000 atm2
(2) HNO3 + KOH
(1 mole) (1 mole)

(3) H Cl + NaOH → 67. Conjugate acid of HS– is

(1 mole) (1 mole)
(1) S2–
(4) CH3 COOH + NaOH →
(1 mole)
(2) H2 S
(1 mole)
(3) SO2
(4) SO3

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

68. The value of KC for the reaction, 72. Which of the following is not correct
X(g) + Y (g) ⇌ 2Z (g) is 4 × 10–2 . If, at a regarding the effect of catalyst on the
equilibrium?
given time the [X] = [Y] = 1 × 10–2 M and [Z] =
(1) It increases the extent of reaction
4 × 10–4 M then
(2) It increases the speed of forward and
(1) QC = KC, reaction is at equilibrium backward reactions to the same extent
reaction will proceed in (3) It does not alter the concentration of the
(2) QC > KC,
the backward direction reactants and products in a state of
reaction will proceed in equilibrium
(3) QC < KC, (4) It has no effect on the value of
the forward direction
equilibrium constant.
reaction will proceed in
(4) QC < KC,
the backward direction
(1) (1) 73. For the reaction is in state of equilibrium
(1) ΔG < 0
(2) (2)
(2) ΔG = 0
(3) (3)
(3) ΔG > 0
(4) (4)
(4) ΔG° > 0

69. For the reaction.

FeO(s) + CO(g) ⇌ Fe(s) + CO2 (g) 74. Which of the following salts do not undergo
Kp = 0.5. The equilibrium partial pressure of hydrolysis?
CO2 if the intial partial pressure of CO is 3 (1) Salts of strong acid and weak base
atm, will be (2) Salts of weak acid and strong base
(1) 3 atm (3) Salts of weak acid and weak base
(2) 2 atm (4) Salts of strong acid and strong base
(3) 1 atm
(4) 0.5 atm 75. If the equilibrium constant for the reaction
N2 + 3 H2 ⇌ 2 NH3 is K, then the
equilibrium constant for the reaction NH3
70. Consider the following reversible reaction. 1 3
Kf ⇌
2
N2 +
2
H2 is
2A(g) + 3 B(g) ⇌ C(g) + 2D(g) (1) K
Kb −
−
(2) √K
According to law of mass action, the rate of
forward reaction is (3) 1

√K
(1) [A] [B]2 3

2
(4) K2
[C] [D]

(2) [C] [D]

76. Kc

[A]
2
[B]
3 At 300 K, the value of ( ) will be lowest
Kp

(3) K [A]2 [B]3 for

f
(1) 2HI(g) ⇌ H2 (g) + l2 (g)
(4) Kb [C][D]2
(2) PCl5 (g) ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
(3) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g)
71. If Ka for an acid is 10–6 , then the value of
(4) N2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2NO(g)
pKb for its conjugate base at 298 K is
(1) 6
77. If N2 O4 decomposes to 60% into NO2 at
(2) 8
90°C then vapour density of equilibrium
(3) 10 mixture will be
(4) 14 (1) 57.5
(2) 28.75
(3) 115
(4) 49

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

78. An example of Heterogeneous equilibrium 82. Choose the correct option from the following:
is, Statement-I: H2 (g) + I2 (g) ⇌ 2HI(g), in these
(1) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2N H3 (g) reaction any change in pressure is not affect
the equilibrium state of reaction.
(2) 2S O2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2S O3 (g)
Statement-II: The equilibrium constant for
(3) N i(s) + 4CO(g) ⇌ N i(CO) (g)
4
an endothermic reaction increases as the
temperature increase.
(4) CO(g) +
1
O2 (g) ⇌ CO2 (g)
2 (1) Both statements are false
(2) Statement-I is true but statement-II is
79. Incorrect relation among the following is false
(1) ΔH = ΔU + Δ(PV) (3) Both statements are true
(2) ΔU = Q + W (4) Statement-II is true but statement-I is
(3) ΔH = QP false

(4) ΔU = QP
83. The enthalpy of solution of a substance is
given by
80. Given below are two statements: One is (1) Δ H0 = −Δ H0 − Δ H
0

labelled as Assertion (A) and other is sol hyd lattice

labelled as Reason (R). (2) Δ

sol
0
H = Δ
lattice H
0
−Δ
hyd H
0

Assertion (A): A water filled bucket

represents an open system. (3) Δ
sol H
0
= Δ
lattice H
0
+Δ
hyd H
0

Reason (R): In an open system only energy (4) 0 0 0

Δ
is exchanged between system and sol H = Δ
hyd H −Δ
lattice H
surroundings.
In the light of the above statements, choose
84. The standard enthalpy of combustion of
the correct answer from the options given
hydrogen is
below.
(1) Equal to standard enthalpy of formation
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
of H2 O
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion (2) Half of standard enthalpy of formation
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but of H2 O
the reason is not the correct (3) Twice of standard enthalpy of formation
explanation of the assertion of H2 O
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason (4) Thrice of standard enthalpy of
is false formation of H2 O
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements
85. For the reaction A2 (l) → 2A(g), ΔU = 2 kcal
ΔS = 10 cal K–1 at 300 K hence ΔG is
81. Match List-I (Equations) with List-II (Type of
process) and select the correct option. (1) 0.2 kcal
List-I List-II (2) –0.4 kcal
(3) –3 kcal
a. kp > Q (i) Non-spontaneous
(4) 200 kcal
ΔG° <
b. (ii) Equilibrium
RTlnQ
Spontaneous and
c. kp = Q (iii)
endothermic
ΔH
d. T >
ΔS
(iv) Spontaneous

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)

SECTION-B

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

86. Given below are two statements: one is 91. At 298K, the solubility product of PbCl2 is 4.0
labelled as Assertion A and the other is × 10–6 . What is the solubility of PbCl2 in
labelled as Reason R:
mol/litre?
Assertion: Unit of KP for 2SO3 (g) ⇌ 2SO2 (g)
+ O2 (g) is atmosphere. (1) 10–2
Reason: Atmosphere is SI unit of pressure. (2) 3.0 × 10–4
In the light of the above statements, choose (3) 1.0 × 10–5
the correct answer from the options given
below (4) 4.6 × 10–14
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion 92. Solubility products of the salts of type MX,
MX2 , M3 X at temperature T are 4 × 10–8 , 3.2
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct × 10–14 and 27 × 10–16 respectively.
explanation of the assertion Solubility (moldm–3 ) of the salts at
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason temperature T are in the order
is false (1) MX > MX2 > M3 X
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (2) M3 X > MX2 > MX
statements
(3) MX2 > M3 X > MX
(4) MX > M3 X > MX2
87. The solubility of AgCN in 0.02 M KCN
solution, assuming no complex formation is
[Ksp (AgCN) = 1.0 × 10–16 ) 93. If the enthalpy of combustion of C is –a
(1) 1.0 × 10–8 M kJ/mol, then the heat released during
combustion of 0.012 g of C is
(2) 1.0 × 10–6 M (1) a × 103 J
(3) 5.0 × 10–15 M (2) a × 102 J
(4) 5.0 × 10–14 M (3) a × 10–2 J
(4) a J
88. Which will undergo cationic hydrolysis?
(1) Na2 CO3 94. Bomb calorimeter is used to calculate
(2) K2 SO4 (1) ΔS
(3) NH4 NO3 (2) W
(4) H3 PO4 (3) ΔG
(4) ΔU
89. pOH of mixture containing 0.1 M CH3 COOH
and 0.1 M CH3 COONa is (Given : 95. Which among the following is a path
pKa (CH3 COOH) = 4.74) function?
(1) Temperature
(1) 4.74
(2) Pressure
(2) 9.26
(3) Work
(3) 3.84
(4) 4.84 (4) Enthalpy

90. For the reaction, C(s) + CO2 (g) ⇌ 2CO(g). 96. The reaction for which Δr H = Δf H
∘
CO 2
is
An equilibrium mixture has partial pressures (1) CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 2H2 O(l)
for CO2 and CO equal to 4.0 and 8.0 atm
(2) CO(g) +
1
O2 (g) → CO2 (g)
respectively. Kp for the reaction is 2

(1) 32 atm–1 (3) C(graphite) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g)

(2) 32 atm (4) C(diamond) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g)

(3) 16 atm
(4) 16 atm–1 97. The moles of OH– in 100 ml of a solution of
pH = 10 is
(1) 10–10 mole
(2) 10–9 mole
(3) 10–5 mole
(4) 10–8 mole

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

98. The enthalpy of atomisation of CCl4 is 450 100. In the reactions,

kJ/mol and enthalpy of atomisation of COCl2 Y → Z, ΔH = +100 kcal/mol
is 600 kJ/mol. The bond energy of C = O Z → X, ΔH = – 80 kcal/mol
bond is Select the correct order of stability of X, Y
and Z.
(1) 125 kJ
(1) Y > X > Z
(2) 375 kJ
(2) Y > Z > X
(3) 225 kJ
(3) X > Z > Y
(4) 300 kJ
(4) X > Y > Z

99. Molar heat capacity of water in equilibrium

with ice at constant Pressure is
(1) Zero
(2) Infinite
(3) 1 cal
(4) 580 cal

BOTANY

SECTION-A

101. China rose and mustard both have 106. Which of the following is not the modified
(1) Zygomorphic flowers storage tap root?
(2) Flowers with superior ovary and axile (1) Carrot
placentation (2) Sweet potato
(3) Bisexual epigynous flowers (3) Radish
(4) Alternate phyllotaxy (4) Turnip

102. Which of the following statements is correct 107. Mango

w.r.t. vexillary aestivation? (1) Is parthenocarpic fruit
(1) Largest petals are wings (2) Has membranous mesocarp
(2) Smallest petals are found posteriorly (3) Develops from monocarpellary ovary
(3) Wings are smallest petals (4) Has stony epicarp
(4) Anterior petals are keel

108. Opposite phyllotaxy is found in

103. Tendril of cucumber is (1) Alstonia
(1) A modified leaf (2) China rose
(2) A modified axillary bud
(3) Mustard
(3) Present at internodes (4) Calotropis
(4) Woody and pointed

109. Epigynous flowers are found in

104. The edible plant of Liliaceae family is (1) Rose
(1) Tulip (2) Brinjal
(2) Asparagus (3) Ray florets of sunflower
(3) Chilli (4) Peach
(4) Soyabean

105. False septum occurs in the ovary of

(1) Tomato
(2) Mustard
(3) Indigofera
(4) Gloriosa

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

110. Which of the following symbol is not used in 115. Thorns and spines of plants are similar in
the floral formula of a legume plant? being
(1) G1 (1) Modified structures of the same part of
(2) the plants
(2) The structures for self defence
(3) The structures for vegetative
(3) K(5) propagation
(4) Perennating organs of the plant
(4) P(3+3)

116. The unicellular elongations of epidermal

111. Read the following statements and select cells which increase the surface area for
the correct option. absorption of water and minerals by the
Statement A : Soyabean plant has roots are found in its
papilionaceous corolla.
Statement B : In plants like tomato, (1) Root cap
endosperm is covered by a proteinaceous (2) Region of elongation
layer called aleurone layer. (3) Region of maturation
(1) Only A is correct (4) Region of meristematic activity
(2) Only B is correct
(3) Both A and B are correct 117. How many of the given features are related
(4) Both A and B are incorrect to plant family to which wheat belongs?
(a) Zygomorphic flower
(b) Endospermic seed
112. The gynoecium is said to be apocarpous (c) Ovary superior
when (d) Basal placentation
(1) The thalamus grows upward enclosing (e) Reticulate venation
the ovary completely (1) 5
(2) The ovary occupies the highest (2) 4
position while the other parts are
situated below it (3) 2
(3) The carpels are free (4) 3
(4) The carpels are united into two bundles
118. Protists have
113. Match the following columns and select the (1) Multicellular body
correct option. (2) Membrane bound cell organelles
(3) Primitive nucleus
Column I Column II
(4) 70S ribosomes only
a. Epipetalous stamens (i) Lily
b. Vexillary aestivation (ii) Brinjal 119. Loose tissue body organisation is
characteristic feature of
c. Parietal placentation (iii) Pea
(1) Monera
d. Epiphyllous stamens (iv) Mustard (2) Protista
(3) Fungi
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) Plantae
(2) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(4) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) 120. Infectious agent that causes potato spindle
tuber disease
(1) Is found to be a free DNA
114. Underground stem functions as storage
(2) Lacks the protein coat
organ and for vegetative reproduction in
(3) Was discovered by D.J. Ivanovsky
(1) Radish
(4) Is bigger than viruses
(2) Carrot
(3) Turnip
(4) Potato 121. The chief producers of the oceans are
(1) Archaebacteria
(2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Euglenoids
(4) Diatoms

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

122. Which of the following statement is not 129. Sexual reproduction in fungi involves
related to sac-fungi? formation of
(1) They can be both multicellular and (1) Conidia
unicellular (2) Zoospores
(2) They are saprophytic, decomposers, (3) Sporangiospores
parasitic or coprophilous
(4) Oospores
(3) Mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic
(4) Sexual spores are produced
endogenously 130. Read the following statements and select
the correct option.
Statement A: Euglenoids have pigments
123. Bacterial viruses usually contain identical to those in higher plants.
(1) Double stranded RNA Statement B: Euglenoids behave as
heterotrophs when deprived of sunlight.
(2) Single stranded RNA
(1) Only statement A is incorrect
(3) Double stranded DNA
(2) Only statement B is incorrect
(4) Single stranded DNA
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect
124. The protozoan which causes sleeping
sickness is a/an
(1) Sporozoan 131. Most notorious protozoan causing malaria
is
(2) Ciliated protozoan
(1) Trypanosoma
(3) Flagellated protozoan
(2) Paramoecium
(4) Amoeboid protozoan
(3) Amoeba
(4) Plasmodium
125. Which fungi is used extensively in
biochemical and genetic work?
(1) Agaricus 132. Red tide in sea is caused by
(2) Neurospora (1) Anabaena
(3) Morels (2) Gonyaulax
(4) Trichoderma (3) Diatoms
(4) Entamoeba
126. Main criteria for classification used by R.H.
Whittaker includes 133. Which of the following spores in
(a) Body organisation the Puccinia are sexual spores?
(b) Mode of nutrition (1) Ascospores
(c) Phylogenetic relationship
(2) Basidiospores
(d) Simple morphological characters
(1) (a), (b) and (d) only (3) Conidia
(2) (a) and (b) only (4) Zoospores
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only
(4) All (a), (b), (c) and (d) 134. Which of the following is rod shaped
bacteria?
(1) Spirillum
127. On the basis of five kingdom system of
(2) Vibrium
classification, Chlorella and Amoeba belong
to kingdom (3) Bacillus
(1) Monera (4) Coccus
(2) Plantae and Animalia respectively
(3) Protista 135. Read the following statements and select
(4) Plantae and Protista respectively the correct option.
Statement A : Bacteria as a group show
most extensive metabolic diversity.
128. Which of the following statement is incorrect Statement B : Bacteria have simple
regarding Chrysophytes? behaviour but very complex structure.
(1) They include both diatoms and (1) Only A is correct
desmids (2) Only B is correct
(2) They are microscopic and float (3) Both A and B are correct
passively in water current
(4) Both A and B are incorrect
(3) They belong to kingdom Protista
(4) Most of them are heterotrophs

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

SECTION-B

136. Which of the following is the correct floral 142. Member of angiospermic family that includes
formula of wheat? colchicine producing plant
(1) (1) Produce non-endospermous seeds
(2) Have tricarpellary syncarpous
gynoecium with axile placentation
(2) (3) Lack cymose inflorescence
(4) Are characterised by presence of
(3) zygomorphic flowers

143. The placenta develops at the base of the

(4) ovary in
(1) Marigold
(2) Dianthus
(3) Argemone
137. In monocot seed, the outer proteinaceous
layer of endosperm that separates the (4) China rose
embryo is
(1) Scutellum 144. Read the following statements and select
(2) Aleurone layer the correct option.
(3) Pericarp Statement A : Fungal component of lichen
is called phycobiont.
(4) Coleoptile Statement B : The fungal partner absorbs
mineral nutrients and water for its
138. The outermost covering of seed is a seed autotrophic partner.
coat. The seed coat has two layers, the (1) Only A is incorrect
outer A and inner B . (2) Only B is incorrect
Select¯¯the
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
correct option¯¯for
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
A and B. (3) Both A and B are incorrect
(1) A - Perisperm, B - Testa (4) Both A and B are correct
(2) A - Tegmen, B - Testa
(3) A - Testa, B - Tegmen 145. The body of fungi consists of long, slender
(4) A - Pericarp, B - Epicarp thread-like structures called (i) and the
¯¯¯¯¯¯
network of (ii) is known as (iii) .
139. Persistent calyx are found in members of ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks
family (i), (ii) and (iii).
(1) Brassicaceae (1) (i) & (iii) - Mycelia (ii) - Filament
(2) Solanaceae (2) (i) & (iii) - Filament (ii) - Thallus
(3) Liliaceae (3) (i) & (ii) - Hyphae (iii) - Mycelium
(4) Fabaceae (4) (i) - Thalli (ii) & (iii) - Hypha

140. Plant family Liliaceae includes genera 146. Fruiting body of Aspergillus is called
(1) Datura, Petunia (1) Conidium
(2) Allium, Datura (2) Basidiocarp
(3) Allium, Colchicum (3) Ascocarp
(4) Colchicum and Datura (4) Sporangium

141. Cymose inflorescence differs from racemose 147. Which of the following fungi is a parasite on
inflorescence in mustard plant?
(1) Possessing limited growth of axis as (1) Albugo
the shoot tip transforms into a flower
(2) Rhizopus
(2) Having acropetal succession of flowers
arrangement (3) Mucor
(3) Bearing younger flowers at the top (4) Aspergillus
(4) Bearing only a single flower on a floral
branch always

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

148. Conidia and sporangiospores are produced 150. In five kingdom classification, which of the
respectively by following groups of organisms are placed in
(1) Mucor and Rhizopus the same kingdom?
(2) Trichoderma and Agaricus (1) Chlorella, Amoeba, Paramoecium,
Spirogyra
(3) Aspergillus and Mucor
(2) Chlamydomonas, Amoeba, Gonyaulax,
(4) Aspergillus and Pencillium Chlorella
(3) Spirogyra, Nostoc, Anabaena,
149. Fill in the blanks by selecting the correct Mycoplasma
option. (4) Spirogyra, Chlamydomonas, Euglena,
(i) A bacteria are helpful in making curd Nostoc
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
from milk.
(ii) B bacteria play a great role in
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
recycling of nutrients like nitrogen, iron,
sulphur and phosphorus.
(1) A - Autotrophic, B - Chemoautotrophic
(2) A - Heterotrophic, B - Photoautotrophic
(3) A - Chemoautotrophic, B -
Heterotrophic
(4) A - Heterotrophic, B -
Chemoautotrophic

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

151. Structure in lungs which is directly involved 154. In humans, under normal conditions, the
in exchange of O2 and CO2 between air and volume of air left in the lungs even after
blood in humans is forced expiration would be
(1) Bronchi (1) 1.2 L
(2) Trachea (2) 2.3 L
(3) Alveoli (3) 3.3 L
(4) Nasal chambers (4) 4.3 L

152. The maximum amount of carbon dioxide is 155. The thoracic chamber in humans is formed
transported by blood in the form of dorsally by the A , ventrally by the
(1) Bicarbonate ions ¯
¯¯¯¯¯
B and laterally by the C .
(2) Dissolved gas ¯
¯¯¯¯¯
Fill ¯¯¯¯¯¯
the above blanks with suitable option A,
(3) Carboxyhaemoglobin B and C are respectively.
(4) Carbaminohaemoglobin (1) Ribs, sternum, vertebral column
(2) Sternum, vertebral column, ribs
153. How much percentage of oxygen in blood of (3) Vertebral column, sternum, ribs
an healthy adult man is (4) Diaphragm, ribs, sternum
approximately, bound to haemoglobin and
carried from lung surface to the tissues?
(1) 70%
(2) 77%
(3) 97%
(4) 3%

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

156. Choose the option which is mismatched.
(1) Tidal volume = 500 mL
(2) Inspiratory reserve volume = 2500 –
3000 mL
(3) Expiratory reserve volume = 1500 –
1600 mL
(4) Residual volume = 1100 – 1200 mL
162. Which of the following factors do not favour
the formation of oxyhaemoglobin?
(1) High pCO2 and low pH
(2) High pO2 and high pH
(3) Lesser H+ concentration and lower
temperature
(4) Low pCO2 and low H+ concentration

157. When percentage saturation of Hb with O2 is

plotted against the pO2 , the shape of the 163. Pressure of blood is maximum when
curve will be (1) Blood from auricle enters in the
(1) A straight line ventricles
(2) Blood from right ventricle enters
(2) Sigmoid
pulmonary arch
(3) Hyperbolic
(3) Blood from left ventricle enters aorta
(4) Parabolic
(4) Blood from vena cava enters right
auricle
158. A person starts coughing suddenly while
swallowing some food. It could be due to
improper movement of 164. Choose the odd one w.r.t. closed circulatory
system.
(1) Neck
(1) Amphibians
(2) Diaphragm
(2) Most annelids
(3) Tongue
(3) Arthropods
(4) Epiglottis
(4) Reptiles

159. Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can

165. During a cardiac cycle, each ventricle
deliver around A of O2 to tissues and pumps out about 70 mL of blood, which is
¯¯
¯¯¯
every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood deliver called
approximately B of CO2 to the alveoli (1) End systolic volume
under normal ¯¯¯physiological
¯
conditions. (2) Stroke volume
Here, A and B respectively represent. (3) End diastolic volume
(1) 5 ml, 4 ml (4) Cardiac output
(2) 4 ml, 5 ml
(3) 20 ml, 15 ml 166. Sympathetic nervous system has same
(4) 15 ml, 20 ml effect on cardiac output as that of
(1) Acetylcholine
160. During normal expiration in humans (2) Adrenaline
(1) External intercostal muscles contract (3) Oxytocin
(2) Internal intercostal muscles contract (4) Estrogen
(3) External intercostal muscles and
diaphragm relax 167. In response to foreign antigens, the body’s
(4) Diaphragm and internal intercostal defense mechanism produces antibodies
muscles contract which are
(1) Modified polysaccharides
161. Complete the analogy. (2) Globulins in blood plasma
Aquatic arthropods : Gills : : Earthworm : (3) Phospholipids in blood plasma
X
(4) Globulins contained in RBCs
¯¯¯¯¯¯
Choose the correct option for X.
(1) Trachea
168. At the end of ventricular diastole
(2) Moist cuticle (1) Both semilunar and AV valves are
(3) Book lungs closed
(4) Book gills (2) Both semilunar and AV valves are open
(3) Semilunar valves are open and AV
valves are closed
(4) Semilunar valves are closed and AV
valves are open.

17
NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

169. Structure which prevents collapsing of AV 176. The condition of accumulation of urea in the
valves into the atria during strong ventricular blood is termed as
contraction is (1) Renal calculi
(1) Purkinje fibres (2) Glomerulonephritis
(2) Bundle of His (3) Uremia
(3) Chordae tendinae (4) Glycosuria
(4) Papillary muscles
177. Most toxic nitrogenous waste product among
170. Erythroblastosis foetalis is a condition which the following is
can be seen in subsequent pregnancies of (1) Ammonia
a
(2) Urea
(1) Rh –ve mother having Rh +ve foetus
(3) Uric acid
(2) Rh –ve foetus having Rh +ve mother
(4) Amino acids
(3) Rh –ve foetus having Rh – ve mother
(4) Rh +ve foetus having Rh +ve mother
178. The amount of filtrate formed by kidneys per
day in a healthy individual is
171. The end of T-wave marks the end of (1) 150 litres
(1) Auricular systole (2) 180 litres
(2) Ventricular diastole (3) 240 litres
(3) Ventricular systole (4) 125 litres
(4) Joint diastole
179. Which of the following factor stimulates atria
172. Atrial systole results in increase of blood of heart to release atrial natriuretic factor
flow into the ventricles by about (ANF)?
(1) 45% (1) A fall in glomerular blood flow
(2) 30% (2) A fall in glomerular blood pressure
(3) 70% (3) An increase in blood flow to atria
(4) 63% (4) A decrease in blood flow to atria

173. The first heart sound is associated with 180. Which one of the following is not located in
(1) Closure of semilunar valves renal pyramid?
(2) Opening of mitral valves (1) Loop of Henle
(3) Opening of tricuspid valves (2) Vasa recta
(4) Closure of atrioventricular valves (3) Convoluted tubules
(4) Collecting ducts
174. The state of heart when it is not pumping
blood effectively enough to meet the needs 181. Selective secretion of H+ and K+ ions occurs
of the body is called in
(1) Heart attack (1) PCT and Henle’s loop
(2) Coronary artery disease (2) DCT and Henle’s loop
(3) Cardiac arrest (3) Collecting duct and DCT
(4) Heart failure (4) Collecting duct and Henle’s loop

175. Match the following and select the correct 182. _______ inhibits the reabsorption of Na+ by
option.
the collecting duct.
Column-I Column-II Choose the option that fills the blank
(Leucocytes) (% in total correctly.
WBC
(1) Atrial natriuretic factor
count)
a. Neutrophils (i) 2 - 3% (2) ADH
b. Basophils (ii) 60 - 65% (3) Aldosterone
c. Monocytes (iii) 0.5 - 1% (4) Renin
d. Eosinophils (iv) 6 - 8%
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

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NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A

183. The part of renal tubule which is almost 185. Renal calculi refers to the condition in which
impermeable to water is
(1) Descending limb of loop of Henle (1) Tumor is present in renal pelvis
(2) Ascending limb of loop of Henle (2) Insoluble mass of oxalates is formed
(3) PCT within kidney(s)
(4) Collecting duct (3) Infection occurs in the pelvis region
(4) Urea accumulates in the blood
184. Presence of glucose and ketone bodies in
urine are indicative of
(1) Renal calculi
(2) Uremia
(3) Diabetes mellitus
(4) Diabetes insipidus

SECTION-B

186. Utilization of O2 by the cells for catabolic 190. A person with blood group ‘O’ has
reaction and resultant release of CO2 is (1) Antigen A on RBCs and anti B
known as antibodies in plasma .
(1) External respiration (2) No antigen on RBCs but both anti A
(2) Breathing and anti B antibodies in plasma
(3) Cellular respiration (3) Antigen A and B on RBCs, but neither
anti A nor anti B antibodies in plasma.
(4) Alveolar respiration
(4) Antigen A and B on RBCs and both anti
A and anti B antibodies in plasma
187. The TV + IRV + ERV is same as
(1) TLC – FRC
191. Match column-I correctly with column-II.
(2) IC + FRC Column-I Column-II
(3) EC + IRV Angina BP is 160/100 mm
(4) TLC – EC a. (i)
pectoris Hg
b. Cardiac arrest (ii) BP is 70/50 mm Hg
188. Pneumotaxic centre which can moderate c. Hypotension (iii) Heart stops beating
function of respiratory rhythm centre is d. Hypertension (iv) Acute chest pain
situated in
Choose the correct option.
(1) Medulla oblongata
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) Pons
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(3) Midbrain
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(4) Hypothalamus
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

189. Respiration through general body surface

takes place by simple diffusion in 192. In the heart of mammals the bicuspid valve
is present between A and B .
(1) Birds Choose the correct option that fills the
(2) Fish blanks A and B respectively.
(3) Flatworms (1) Left auricle, left ventricle
(4) Snakes (2) Right auricle, right ventricle
(3) Right auricle, left auricle
(4) Right ventricle, pulmonary aorta

19
NCERT Revision Test(P1&2)2324-T06A
193. The component of blood completely absent
in lymph is
(1) WBC
(2) Clotting factor
(3) Plasma protein
(4) RBC
194. Which among the following set of WBCs, is
phagocytic in nature?
(1) Monocytes and Basophils
(2) Neutrophils and Monocytes
(3) Lymphocytes and Eosinophils
(4) Basophils and Eosinophils
195. Read the following statements and choose
the correct option.
Statement A : Sweat produced by sweat
glands is a watery fluid containing NaCl,
small amount of urea, lactic acid etc.
Statement B : Sebaceous glands eliminate
certain substances like sterols,
hydrocarbons and waxes through sebum.
(1) Both statements are incorrect
(2) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
(3) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct
(4) Both statements are correct
196. Nearly all of the essential nutrients and 70 –
80 percent of electrolytes and water are
reabsorbed in which segment of nephron?
(1) PCT
(2) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
(3) Descending limb of loop of Henle
(4) DCT
197. Complete the analogy.
Rotifers : Flame cells :: Insects : _______
(1) Protonephridia
(2) Nephridia
(3) Malpighian tubules
(4) Green glands
20
198. Which of the following is the correct
explanation of the labelled parts?
(1) A – Formed by fusion of collecting
ducts
(2) B – Contains loop of Henle and
collecting ducts
(3) C – Consists of collagen fibres; forms a
layer around the kidney and protects it
(4) D – Extension of cortex into medulla
199. Assertion : JG cells help in regulation of
blood pressure and glomerular filtration rate
(GFR).
Reason : Juxtaglomerular cells secrete
renin in response to fall in B.P or GFR, which
through RAAS pathway restores B.P and
GFR in humans.
In the light of above statements select the
correct option.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements
200. The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the
tissues is
(1) Equal to that in alveoli
(2) More than that in alveoli
(3) Less than that in alveoli
(4) More than that in deoxygenated blood