LNLM-2023 (NCERT BASED RANK PROMOTER TEST SERIES)

LNLM-G5
CODE-A

Address: 17, Mahatma Gandhi Marg, Ring Rd, Lajpat Nagar IV, New Delhi, Delhi 110024

MM : 720 NCERT BASED RANK PROMOTER Time : 3 hrs. 20 min

TEST SERIES
(for NEET-2024)
Test – 5
Topics covered :
Physics : System of Particles and Rotational Motion (From moment of inertia), Gravitation
Mechanical Properties of Solid
Chemistry : Equilibrium
Botany : Anatomy of Flowering Plants, Plant Kingdom
Zoology : Excretory Products and their Elimination, Locomotion and Movement

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS

(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35

questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.

(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the

total score. Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.

(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.

(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.

(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.

(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.

(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other

rubbing material on the Answer sheet.

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LNLM-2023 (NCERT BASED RANK PROMOTER TEST SERIES)

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer : force of 9 N that acts at its centre of mass
then what is its acceleration?
SECTION - A
1. If the angular momentum of a rotating (1) 2 m/s2 (2) 1 m/s2
body increases by 3%, keeping its (3) 3 m/s2 (4) 4 m/s2
angular velocity constant. Then 7. The moment of inertia does not depend
percentage change in its moment of
upon
inertia is
(1) It decreases by 3% (1) The angular velocity of the body
(2) It increases by 3% (2) The mass of the body
(3) It decreases by 6% (3) The distribution of mass in the body
(4) It increases by 6% (4) The axis of rotation of the body
2. The ratio of rotational to translational 8. A block of mass 2M is connected with a
kinetic energy for a hollow sphere in pure string which is wound over a pulley (disc)
rolling motion is
of mass M and radius R as shown in
2 3
(1) (2) figure. It the system is released from rest.
3 2
Then angular acceleration of the Pulley
2 3
(3) (4) will be
5 5
3. A solid sphere, a ring and a solid cylinder
each of mass M, 2M and 3M respectively,
with the same radius R, roll down an
inclined plane without slipping. If they all
start from rest which of the bodies
reaches the ground last?
(1) Solid sphere
(2) Ring
2g 2g
(3) Solid cylinder (1) (2)
5R 3R
(4) All reach together
4g 4g
4. If a ring is in rolling motion on an inclined (3) (4)
5R 3R
plane inclined at an angle of 60° with the
horizontal and the coefficient of friction 9. A uniform ring of mass m and radius R
, then the condition for its pure rolling rolling without slipping on a horizontal
on the inclined plane is
surface as shown in figure. The angular
3 1
(1)   (2)   momentum of the ring about the origin
2 2
will be
1
(3)   2 (4)  
2
K2
5. The value of is same for
R2
(1) Solid sphere and hollow sphere
(2) Hollow cylinder and solid cylinder
(3) Ring and disc
(4) Ring and hollow cylinder
6. If a solid cylinder of mass 2 kg is in pure
rolling on a horizontal surface due to a

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LNLM-2023 (NCERT BASED RANK PROMOTER TEST SERIES)

mvR (1) – 60 G (2) – 120 G

(1) mvR (2)
2
(3) – 90 G (4) – 100 G
(3) 2mvR (4) 3mvR 15. The ratio of gravitational potential at the
10. If the change in value of acceleration due centre of the earth to the gravitational
to gravity, as compared to its value at potential at the surface of the earth will
surface, at a height h above the earth be
surface is double of the change at depth (1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
x below the surface of earth, then (h <<
Radius of the earth) (3) 3 : 2 (4) 3 : 1

h 16. The stress-strain graph for a metallic wire

(1) x = 2h (2) x  is shown at two different temperatures T1
2
and T2. Then
h
(3) x = h (4) x  Stress
4 T1
11. Two equal masses, m, are placed at the
two corners of an equilateral triangle of T2
side a. The gravitational potential at the
third corner of the triangle will be
Gm 3 Gm Strain
(1) (2)
a a (1) T1 > T2
2 Gm (2) T2 > T1
(3) (4) Zero
a
(3) T1 = T2
12. A uniform disc of mass m and radius R is
(4) Can’t be predicted
rotating with angular velocity ‘’ about its
main geometrical axis. If another 17. A steel wire of length 2.0 m is stretched
identical disc is placed gently over the through 1.0 mm. The cross-sectional area
previous disc and they rotate together, of the wire is 4.0 mm2. Find the energy
then common angular velocity of the density of wire. (Young’s modulus of steel
discs will be is 2.0 × 1011 N/m2)

(1)  (2) 2 (1) 5 × 104 J/m3 (2) 105 J/m3

(3) 2.5 × 104 J/m3 (4) 5 × 105 J/m3

(3) (4) 4
2 18. If radius of earth shrinks by 2%, then
13. The minimum kinetic energy required by percentage change in value of g is
a body of mass m to escape from earth (1) – 2% (2) + 2%
surface is (3) + 4% (4) – 4%
(g : acceleration due to gravity on earth
surface, 19. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R
R : radius of earth) starts falling under gravity as shown in
figure. If mass of chord is negligible, the
gmR acceleration of centre of mass of the
(1) (2) 2gmR
2
cylinder will be
3gmR
(3) gmR (4)
2
14. The gravitational potential energy of
system of three point masses each of
mass 2 kg placed at the three vertices of
an equilateral triangle of side 10 cm is

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LNLM-2023 (NCERT BASED RANK PROMOTER TEST SERIES)

g g (1) 21 kW (2) 100 kW

(1) (2)
3 2 (3) 4.8 kW (4) 12.56 kW
2g 25. If the density of water at the surface of
(3) (4) g
3 sea
is 1000 kg/m3 and bulk modulus of water
20. A particle of mass m is revolving in a
is
horizontal circle of radius r with constant
2 × 109 N/m2. Then the change in density
angular speed . The areal velocity of
of water in ocean at a depth of 500 m
particle is
from surface is
2
(g = 10 m/s )
(1) 3 kg/m3 (2) 2.5 kg/m3
(3) 5.0 kg/m3 (4) 1.5 kg/m3
26. The length of a metal wire is l1 when the
(1) r 
2
(2) r
2 tension in it is T1 and is l2 when tension is
T2. The original length of wire is
r 2 r 2
(3) (4) l1T2  l 2T1 l1T2  l 2T1
2 2 (1) (2)
T2  T1 T2  T1
21. A ring rolls down without slipping, on an
inclined plane of inclination 30°. The l1T2  l 2T1 l1T2  l 2T1
(3) (4)
linear acceleration of cylinder is T2  T1 T2  T1
3g g 27. If energy of a satellite planet system is
(1) (2)
4 4 zero, then satellite will
g (1) Move around the planet in circular
(3) g (4)
2 orbit.
22. The potential energy of a planet in an (2) Move around the planet in elliptical
elliptical orbit about the sun at point P, Q orbit.
and R are UP, UQ and UR respectively. S
(3) Escape such that its speed at infinity
is the position of sun. Then
is zero.
(4) Escape such that it has some speed
at infinity.
28. Effect of rotation of earth on value of ‘g’
is
(1) UP > UR > UQ (2) UQ > UP > UR (1) Same at all places
(3) UQ > UR > UP (4) UQ = UP = UR (2) Maximum at equator
23. A rope of diameter 1 cm breaks if the (3) Maximum at poles
tension in it exceeds 500 N. The
(4) Maximum at angle of latitude 45°
maximum tension that a rope of twice the
diameter and double the length made up 29. A body is projected from surface of the
of same material can bear is earth, vertically upwards with a speed of
(1) 500 N (2) 1000 N 2
gR (where Re is radius of earth).
3 e
(3) 2000 N (4) 4000 N The body will attain a height (from the
24. The shaft of a motor is making 1000 rpm. surface) of
The torque supplied by the motor is 120 Re
N m. The power supplied by the motor is (1) Re (2)
2

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LNLM-2023 (NCERT BASED RANK PROMOTER TEST SERIES)

Re Re 38. A uniform thin rod of length L and mass

(3) (4)
3 4 M is bent to form a semicircle. The
30. If a mass M is split into two parts m and gravitational potential at centre will be
(M – m) which are then separated by GM 22GM
(1) (2)
M m L L2
some distance, the ratio of   that
 M  GM
(3) Zero (4)
maximises the gravitational force L
between two part is
SECTION - B
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1:1
36. Two planets have radii R1 and R2 and
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 2:1 densities d1 and d2 respectively. The ratio
31. The time period of earth’s satellite in of acceleration due to gravity at their
circular orbit is independent of surfaces will be

(1) Mass of earth (1) R12d1 : R22d2 (2) R1d1 : R2d2

(2) Mass of satellite (3) R1d2 : R2d1 (4) R22d1 : R12d2

(3) Height of satellite above earth surface 37. A uniform solid sphere of mass 0.5 kg
(4) Both (1) and (3) rolls on horizontal surface without
slipping. If the velocity of centre of mass
32. Two identical spherical masses of mass
4 cm/s, the work done in stopping sphere
m and radius d/3 each are released from
is
rest such that initial separation between
them is d. The speed of any mass, when (1) 8 × 10–4 J (2) 5.6 × 10–4 J
they are about to collide is (3) 1.6 × 10–4 J (4) 2.4 × 10–4 J
2 Gm Gm 38. If the radius of orbit of a satellite is
(1) (2)
d d increased by a factor of 4. Then the time
period of satellite increases by a factor of
Gm 3Gm
(3) (4)
2d d (1) 4 (2) 6

33. A solid sphere rolls without slipping on an (3) 8 (4) 16

inclined of inclination 45°. The minimum 39. A satellite with kinetic energy E is
coefficient of static friction to support revolving around the earth in a circular
pure rolling should be orbit. The minimum additional kinetic
2 3 energy required for it to escape is
(1) (2)
7 7 (1) 2E (2) E
2 2 E E
(3) (4) (3) (4)
5 3 2 4

34. Two concentric spherical shells have 40. If the polar ice caps of the earth melts,
masses M and m and their radii are R then the length of day will
and r respectively, where R > r. Then (1) Increase (2) Decrease
gravitational potential at distance x from
(3) Remain same
centre (R > x > r) is
(4) Earth stops to rotate
M  m  M  m 
(1) G   (2) G   41. If the radius of wire of a given material is
 x   R 
doubled then its breaking stress will
M m M m 
(3) G    (4) G    (1) Become half
R x  R r 
(2) Become double

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LNLM-2023 (NCERT BASED RANK PROMOTER TEST SERIES)

(3) Become four times (3) 1 × 109 N/m2 (4) 0.5 × 109 N/m2
(4) Remain same 47. Isothermal bulk modulus of gases is
42. A solid sphere and a spherical shell roll equal to
down an incline from rest from same (1) Temperatures of gas
height. The ratio of time taken by these (2) Pressure of gas
bodies to reach the bottom is
(3) Zero
21 21
(1) (2) (4) Infinity
25 25
48. Match the list I with list II
10 25
(3) (4) List-I List-II
21 21
A. Angular acceleration P. Js
43. A force F makes the length of wire,
2
1.0001 times the original length of wire of B. Moment of inertia Q. kg m
cross-section A. The Young’s modulus of C. Torque R. rad/s2
material of wire is
D. Angular momentum S. Nm
F 10000F
(1) (2)
A A
(1) AR, BQ, CS, DP
500F 1000F
(3) (4)
A A (2) AQ, BR, CP, DS
44. A structural steel rod has radius of cross (3) AQ, BP, CR, DS
section 20 mm and length 4 m. When a (4) AR, BS, CR, DS
force of 314 kN is applied, it stretches the
rod along the length. Young’s modulus of 49. When a mass M is suspended from rigid
support with the help of wire of length L,
steel is 2 × 1011 N/m2. The elastic energy
it increases its length by l. If the same
density of rod is
arrangement is suspended in an elevator
(1) 1.56 × 105 J/m3 (2) 1.56 × 104 accelerating upwards with an
J/m3 g
5 3 4 acceleration , then increase in length
(3) 3.12 × 10 J/m (4) 3.12 × 10 2
J/m3 will be
45. The load versus elongation graph for four
wires of same length and the same
material is as shown in figure. The
thinnest wire is represented by line

3l
(1) l (2)
2
2l
(3) 2l (4)
(1) D (2) C 3

(3) B (4) A 50. A body weighs 1000 N at the surface of

earth. How much will it weigh at a height
46. A cube of side 50 mm has its upper face
equal to the radius of earth?
displaced by 0.1 mm w.r.t. lower face by
applying a tangential force of 5 kN. The (1) 125 N (2) 250 N
shear modulus of cube is (3) 375 N (4) 500 N
9 2 9 2
(1) 3 × 10 N/m (2) 2 × 10 N/m

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LNLM-2023 (NCERT BASED RANK PROMOTER TEST SERIES)

CHEMISTRY
Choose the correct answer : (1) Decrease HCOOH(aq) concentration
SECTION - A (2) Reduce the H+(aq) ion concentration
51. For the reaction, (3) Increase the equilibrium constant
C(s) + CO2(g)  2CO(g) (4) Decrease the equilibrium constant

The partial pressures of carbon dioxide 57. For the equilibrium,

and carbon monoxide are 4.0 and 8.0 atm 2A(g) A2(g), rH = –15 kcal, with
respectively at equilibrium. Kp for the increase in temperature
reaction is
(1) Equilibrium constant increases
(1) 2 atm (2) 8 atm
(2) Equilibrium is not affected
(3) 16 atm (4) 4 atm
(3) Formation of A2 is favoured
52. An equilibrium constant of 1024 for a
(4) Decomposition of A2 is favoured
reaction implies that
58. Which of the following is not acid-base
(1) The reaction proceeds nearly to
conjugate pair?
completion
(2) The reaction proceeds rarely (1) HNO3 , NO3

(3) Appreciable concentrations of reactants (2) NH4 , NH2

as well as products are present at (3) CH3COOH, CH3COO–
equilibrium
(4) HCl, Cl–
(4) Reactants predominate over products
K
53. If at 25°C, Ka (HX) is 1 × 10–5, the 59. -D-glucose -D-glucose
hydrolysis constant of NaX will be The equilibrium constant of given
(1) 5 × 10–7 (2) 1 × 10–9 equilibrium reaction is 2. The percentage
of -D-glucose at equilibrium is
(3) 5 × 10–8 (4) 4 × 10–5
(1) 33.33 (2) 55.6
54. Which of the following will undergo
(3) 44.4 (4) 66.67
hydrolysis in water?
60. Which of the following equilibrium is not
(1) (NH4)2SO4 (2) NaCl
affected by change in pressure?
(3) K2SO4 (4) NaNO3
(1) 2C(s) + O2(g)  2CO(g)
55. Buffer solution is prepared by mixing
(2) H2(g) + I2(g)  2HI(g)
(1) NaCl (0.01 M, 100 mL) + KCl (0.1 M,
100 mL) (3) 2SO2(g) + O2(g)  2SO3(g)
(2) K2SO4(0.1 M, 300 mL) + H2SO4(0.2 M, (4) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)  PCl5(g)
100 mL)
61. If an aqueous solution of 0.2 M NH4OH
(3) CH3COOH (0.2 M, 200 mL) + NaOH
and 0.2 M NH4Cl has pOH 4.7 then pKb of
(0.2 M, 50 mL)
NH4OH is
(4) NaCl (0.1 M, 300 mL) + HCl (0.2 M,
(1) 8.3 (2) 3.8
100 mL)
(3) 4.7 (4) 5.2
56. Consider the following equilibrium
62. The solubility of AgCl in presence of 0.2 M
–
HCOOH(aq) HCOO (aq) + H (aq) +
NaCl solution is (Ksp (AgCl) = 10–10)
(1) 2 × 10–5 mol L–1
At equilibrium, the addition of HCOONa will
(2) 1 × 10–5 mol L–1

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LNLM-2023 (NCERT BASED RANK PROMOTER TEST SERIES)
–10 –1
(3) 4 × 10 mol L Which of the following condition will shift
(4) 5 × 10–10 mol L–1 the equilibrium in the forward direction?
63. Consider the reaction, A + B C + D (1) Removal of A
If Kc (equilibrium constant) for the reaction (2) Addition of B
is 3 × 1013 at 400 K then G° (in J) at 400 (3) Removal of C
K is equal to
(4) The pressure of the system is
(1) – 8.314 × 300 × log10(3×1013)
increased
(2) – 8.314 × 400 × log10(3×1013)
72. Value of equilibrium constant depends on
(3) 8.314 × 400 × log10(3×1013)
(1) Concentration of reactant
(4) – 8.314 × 400 × 2.303 log10(3×1013)
(2) Concentration of product
64. AlCl3 is a
(3) Pressure
(1) Lewis acid (2) Arrhenius acid
(4) Temperature
(3) Bronsted acid (4) Bronsted base
73. For the reaction A(s) 2B(g)  C(g) at
65. The degree of ionization of 0.1 M weak
acid HY(aq) is (Ka(HY) = 1 × 10–5) equilibrium, partial pressure of gas C is p
then the value of Kp will be
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.1
4 3
(3) 0.01 (4) 0.001 (1) p (2) 4p3
27
66. At 298 K, the pH of 10–3 M solution of
NaOH is (3) 3p3 (4) 4 p3
9
(1) 12 (2) 11
74. For an exothermic reaction value of
(3) 10 (4) 8
equilibrium constant KC is 250 at 25°C,
67. If the solubility of Mg(OH)2 in pure water is then the value of KC at 225°C may be
s mol/L then its solubility product will be (1) 500 (2) 450
(1) 4s2 (2) 4s3 (3) 400 (4) 150
3 2
(3) s (4) 2s
75. For a reaction A B equilibrium constant
68. The relation between KP and KC for the K = 10–8 then the extent of reaction in the
following reaction forward direction is
PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) is (1) Negligible (2) 40%
(1) KP = KC(RT) (2) KP = KC (3) 75% (4) Almost 100
3
(3) KC = KP(RT) (4) KP = KC(RT) 76. Aqueous solution of which of the following
1 K1
salt will be alkaline in nature?
69. SO2 (g)  O2 (g) SO3 (g)
2 (1) NH4Cl (2) NaNO3
2SO3 (g)
K2
2SO2 (g)  O2 (g) (3) CH3COONa (4) NaCl
–2
Equilibrium constant K2 in terms of K1 is 77. pH of 10 M aq NaOH solution is
1 (1) 12 (2) 10
(1) K12 (2)
K12 (3) 2 (4) 8
1 78. pH of a solution containing 0.5 mol
(3) K1 (4)
K1 CH3COOH and 0.5 mol of CH3COONa is
(given: pKa of CH3COOH is 4.76)
70. Strongest acid among the following is
(1) HCl (2) HBr (1) 5.76 (2) 9.24
(3) HI (4) HF (3) 4.14 (4) 4.76
71. A(g) B(g)  C(g); H = –x kcal 79 AgCl will be least soluble in

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LNLM-2023 (NCERT BASED RANK PROMOTER TEST SERIES)

(1) Water (2) 0.2 M HCl 87. Which one of the following equilibrium
(3) 0.1 M AgNO3 (4) 0.5 M NaCl moves in forward direction when pressure
is applied?
80. If solubility of sparingly soluble salt A3Y in
water is S mol/L. then the value of its (A) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)
solubility product (Ksp) is (B) PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
4 5
(1) 27S (2) 3S (C) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
3 4
(3) S (4) 3S (D) Ice water
1 1
81. Given : N2  O2 NO; K C  5 (1) A, C only
2 2
(2) C, D only
The value of equilibrium constant (KC) for
(3) B, C only
the reaction N2  O2 2NO will be
(4) A, D only
(1) 5 (2) 25
88. The dissociation constant of an acid HA is
(3) 2.23 (4) 125 10–5. The dissociation constant of its
conjugate base will be at 25°C
82. For the reaction NH 4HS(s) NH3(g) +
2 (1) 10–5 (2) 10–9
H2S(g) if KP = 9 atm then the equilibrium
pressure of gaseous mixture will be (3) 10–2 (4) 10–10
(1) 9 atm (2) 3 atm 89. With increase in temperature, pOH of pure
water
(3) 12 atm (4) 6 atm (1) Increases
83. For which among the following electrolytes (2) Decreases
both cation and anion undergoes
(3) First increases then decreases after
hydrolysis in aqueous solution? certain temperature
(1) CH3COONH4 (2) NaCl (4) Remain constant
(3) NH4Cl (4) KCN 90. Which of the following salts will give lowest
84. For which of the following reactions; KP = pH in water?
KC? (1) NaCl (2) KCN
(1) 2SO3(g) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) (3) Na2CO3 (4) NH4Cl
(2) 2HCl(g) H2(g) + Cl2(g) 91. At t°C, distilled water has [OH–]
concentration equal to 5 × 10–7 mole/litre.
(3) N2O4(g) 2NO2(g)
The value of KW at t°C will be
(4) NH2COONH4(s) 2NH3(g) +
(1) 5  1014 (2) 2.5 × 10–13
CO2(g)
(3) 5  10 7 (4) 10–14
85. If Keq = 1 for a reaction then value of G°
will be 92. The conjugate acid of HCO3 is
(1) 1 (2) –2.303 RT
(1) H2CO3 (2) CO32
(3) 0 (4) 2.303 RT
(3) CO2 (4) CO
SECTION - B
93. Statement-I : Melting of ice increase at
86. The equilibrium, 3A2(g) + B2(g) 5C(g) + high pressure and constant temperature.
3D(g) is obtain by mixing equal moles of A2
Statement-II : Density of ice is more than
and B2 in an evacuated vessel. When
water.
equilibrium is attained then
In the light of above statements choose the
(1) [A2] < [B2] (2) [C] < [D]
correct option.
(3) [C] = [D] (4) [A2] > [B2]

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LNLM-2023 (NCERT BASED RANK PROMOTER TEST SERIES)

(1) Both statement I and statement II are 97. In which of the following solution, AgCl has
correct maximum solubility?
(2) Both statement I and statement II are (1) 0.1 M NH3 (2) 0.1 M NaCl
incorrect (3) H2O (4) 0.1 M AgNO3
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is 98. The solubility of AgCl in 0.01 M AgNO3
incorrect solution at 25°C is (Ksp of AgCl is 1.6 × 10–
10
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II )
is correct (1) 4 × 10–5 M (2) 1.6 × 10–8 M
94. The reversible reaction, A(g) + 2B(g) (3) 1.6 × 10–5 M (4) 4 × 10–8 M
C(g) is carried out in a 500 ml flask. If at
99. 3A(g) + B(g) 2C(g) – 100 kcal
equilibrium
2 mole of A, 1 mole of B and 1 mole of C Which combination of pressure and
are present then equilibrium constant (KC) temperature gives highest yield of C at
equilibrium?
of the reaction is
(1) 500 atm, 600°C
(1) 0.525 (2) 1.755
(2) 500 atm, 200°C
(3) 0.125 (4) 0.752
(3) 1000 atm, 100°C
95. Which one of the following salts is most
soluble in water? (4) 500 atm, 100°C

(1) CuS (Ksp = 8 × 10–37) 100. H3X(aq)  H+(aq) + H2X–(aq); K a1

(2) MnS (Ksp = 7 × 10–16)
H2X–(aq)  H+(aq) + HX2–(aq); K a2
–9
(3) CaCO3 (Ksp = 4.7 × 10 )
(4) CaC2O4 (Ksp = 1.3 × 10–9) HX2–(aq)  H+(aq) + X3–(aq); K a3

96. Which of the following pairs constitutes a The correct relation between ionization
buffer? constant K a1 , K a2 and K a3 of a tribasic acid
(1) KOH + KNO3 H3X is
(2) H2SO4 + Na2SO4 (1) K a1  K a2  K a3 (2) K a1  K a3  K a2
(3) NH4OH + NaOH
(3) K a2  K a3  K a1 (4) K a3  K a2  K a1
(4) HCN + NaCN

BOTANY
Choose the correct answer.
SECTION - A 103. Agar-agar commonly used in culture
medium is obtained from
101. Isogamy with non-flagellated gametes is
seen in (1) Gelidium (2) Chara
(1) Chlamydomonas (2) Ulothrix (3) Sargassum (4) Polysiphonia
(3) Spirogyra (4) Volvox 104. Fucoxanthin is found in plants belonging
to group
102. Most algae are characterized by
(1) Bryophyta
(1) Presence of embryo
(2) Rhodophyceae
(2) Presence of multicellular jacketed sex
(3) Phaeophyceae
organs
(4) Chlorophyceae
(3) Possessing thalloid plant body
105. Pyrenoids contain
(4) Presence of photosynthetic (1) Protein
independent sporophyte
(2) Starch

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(3) Cellulose 113. In some pteridophytes, the spore

(4) Both (1) and (2) germinates to form prothallus, which is
106. Chlorophyll a, d and phycoerythrin occur (1) Inconspicuous and unicellular
in (2) Multicellular and green in colour
(1) Green algae (3) Mostly non-photosynthetic
(2) Brown algae (4) Thalloid and non-photosynthetic
(3) Red algae 114. Vascular archegoniates include
(4) Blue green algae (1) All embryophytes
107. Red algae differ from the green algae as (2) All spermatophytes
they lack
(3) Pteridophytes
(1) Chlorophyll a
(4) Angiosperm
(2) Specialised sex organs
115. Large empty, colourless cell which help
(3) Cellulose in their cell wall
in minimising water loss during drought
(4) Flagella throughout the life condition are found in
108. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. (1) Dicot stem (2) Dicot leaf
bryophytes. (3) Monocot leaf (4) Monocot stem
(1) Commonly growing in moist and 116. Water containing cavities are present
shaded areas within the vascular bundle of
(2) Dependent on water for sexual (1) Dicot root (2) Monocot stem
reproduction
(3) Monocot root (4) Dicot stem
(3) Lack true roots, stem and leaves 117. The parenchymatous cells which lie
(4) Zygote undergoes reduction division between the xylem and phloem of roots
to form spore are called
109. The main plant body of bryophytes is (1) Stele
(1) Free living sporophyte (2) Casparian strip
(2) Free living gametophyte (3) Endodermis
(3) More differentiated than that of ferns (4) Conjunctive tissue
(4) Non green structure dependent on 118. In flowering plants, male and female
sporophyte gametophytes are called respectively
110. In which of the following features (1) Pollen grain and endosperm
bryophytes do not resemble green (2) Pollen grain and embryosac
algae? (3) Stamen and carpel
(1) Thalloid plant body (4) Anther and ovule
(2) Absence of vascular tissues 119. Select the incorrect match.
(3) Need of water for sexual reproduction (1) First embryophytes
(4) Presence of embryo – Bryophytes
111. Heterospory is not found in (2) First plant with vascular tissue
(1) Liverworts and mosses – Pteridophytes
(2) Selaginella and Salvinia (3) Archegoniate spermatophytes
(3) Dicots and monocots – Gymnosperms
(4) Seed plants without ovary
(4) Cycas and Cedrus
– Angiosperms
112. In pteridophytes the sporophylls are born
120. Trichomes are not involved in
on
(1) Control of transpiration
(1) Gametophytes (2) Sporophytes
(2) Secretion of sticky substances
(3) Prothallus (4) Rhizoids

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(3) Absorption of water 128. Choose the odd one for monocot stem
(4) Providing protection (1) Hypodermis
121. Identify the meristem which is not (2) Phloem parenchyma
secondary in origin.
(3) Xylem
(1) Cork cambium
(4) Ground tissue
(2) Vascular cambium of dicot root
129. Large well-developed pith is found in
(3) Intrafascicular cambium
(1) Monocot leaf (2) Dicot root
(4) Interfascicular cambium
(3) Monocot root (4) Dicot leaf
122. Primary meristem, intercalated in
between the permanent tissues is 130. Haplo-diplontic life cycle is seen in
(1) Root apical meristem (1) Fucus (2) Volvox
(2) Shoot apical meristem (3) Polysiphonia (4) Spirogyra
(3) Intercalary meristem 131. How many of the following features are
correct for monocot leaves?
(4) Lateral meristem
(a) Both layers of epidermis are
123. Collenchyma differs from sclerenchyma
cuticularized.
as the former
(b) Sub-stomatal cavity is present above
(1) Have nucleus at maturity
the stoma of abaxial epidermis.
(2) Is dead tissue (c) Mesophyll is not well-differentiated
(3) Lack chloroplast (d) Presence of parallel venation.
(4) Lack secondary cell wall (1) One (2) Two
124. Axillary bud is formed by the cells which (3) Three (4) Four
are left behind from 132. Trichomes differ from root hairs as the
(1) Lateral meristem former is
(2) Intercalary meristem (1) Unicellular
(3) Shoot apical meristem (2) Unbranched always
(4) Root apical meristem (3) Epidermal appendage
125. Select the odd one w.r.t. functions of (4) Helpful in preventing water loss
parenchyma tissue. 133. All of the following are the functions of
(1) Photosynthesis parenchyma, except
(2) Storage (1) Provide mechanical strength
(3) Provide mechanical strength (2) Perform photosynthesis
(4) Secretion (3) Provide buoyancy to aquatic plants
126. Root have (4) Perform secretion
(1) Exarch xylem 134. Monocot stems have
(2) Scattered vascular bundle (1) Bundle sheath surrounded vascular
(3) Parenchymatous hypodermis bundles.
(4) Cuticle (2) Collenchymatous hypodermis.
127. Cells of which of the given layer is (3) Well differentiated ground tissue.
impervious to water? (4) Presence of phloem parenchyma.
(1) Pith 135. In dicot leaves, guard cells
(2) Endodermis (1) Contain chloroplasts
(3) Cortex (2) Have thicker outer wall
(4) Pericycle (3) Are dumb-bell shaped
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LNLM-2023 (NCERT BASED RANK PROMOTER TEST SERIES)

(4) Enclose subsidiary cells (3) Considered phylogeny

SECTION - B (4) Is also called numerical taxonomy
136. Select the mismatched pair 142. Pteridophytes differ from bryophytes as
(1) Parenchyma – Thin cellulosic cell the former
wall (1) Lack root, stem and leaves
(2) Tracheids – Absent in (2) Are non-photosynthetic
gymnosperms (3) Have vascular tissues
(3) Vessels – Lack protoplasm at (4) Require water for fertilisation
maturity
143. Which of the following organisms
(4) Xylem fibres – Obliterated central
belongs to the class Sphenopsida?
lumen
(1) Equisetum
137. In typical angiosperms, embryo sac is
(2) Dryopteris
comprised of
(3) Pteris
(1) One egg cell, two synergids and three
(4) Adiantum
antipodal cells.
144. In Pteridophytes prothallus is
(2) One egg cell, three synergids and two
antipodal cells. (1) Monoecious in homosporous species
(2) Mostly non-photosynthetic
(3) One egg cell, three synergids and
three antipodal cells. (3) Unicellular
(4) Two egg cells, two synergids and two (4) Large in size
antipodal cells. 145. Leaves of conifers do not have
138. Sporophytic generation is represented by (1) Needle like shape
only one cell zygote in all, except (2) Very thin cuticle
(1) Chlamydomonas (2) Volvox (3) Sunken stomata
(3) Ectocarpus (4) Spirogyra (4) Adaptation to withstand extreme
139. Leafy stage in mosses temperature
(1) Is unicellular and bears oppositely 146. In the given TS of monocot leaf, identify
arranged leaves. to . Choose the correct option
(2) Is attached to the soil through
unbranched rhizoids.
(3) Does not bear the sex organs.
(4) Develops from secondary protonema
as a lateral bud.
140. ______ uses chemical constituents of the
plants to resolve confusion while
classification.
Fill in the blank with the correct option.
(1) A-Abaxial epidermis, B-Xylem, C-
(1) Classical taxonomy Mesophyll, D-Adaxial epidermis, E-
(2) Cytotaxonomy Phloem
(3) Karyotaxonomy (2) A-Abaxial epidermis, B-Phloem, C-
(4) Chemotaxonomy Mesophyll, D-Adaxial epidermis, E-
141. Classification system based on natural Xylem
affinities (3) A-Adaxial epidermis, B-Phloem, C-
(1) Was given by Bentham and Hooker Mesophyll, D-Abaxial epidermis, E-
Xylem
(2) Is known as artificial classification

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LNLM-2023 (NCERT BASED RANK PROMOTER TEST SERIES)

(4) A-Adaxial epidermis, B-Xylem, C- (3) A-Radial, B-Conjoint closed, C-

Mesophyll, D-Abaxial epidermis, E- Conjoint open
Phloem (4) A-Conjoint open, B-Conjoint closed,
147. Identify and indicated in diagram of C-Radial
root apex given below 149. Identify and in the given diagram
of shoot apical meritem

(1) A-Leaf primordium, B-Axillary bud, C-

Vascular bud
(2) A-Leaf primordium, B-Axillary bud, C-
Vascular tissue
(1) A-Vascular bundle, B-Epidermis, C-
(3) A-Shoot primordium, B-Axillary bud,
Root apical meristem
C-Vascular tissue
(2) A-Cortex, B-Epidermis, C-Root apical
(4) A-Shoot primordium, B-Apical bud, C-
meristem
Vascular tissue
(3) A-Cortex, B-Protoderm, C-Root
150. In the given diagram of phloem tissue,
apical meristem
identify and
(4) A-Cortex, B-Epidermis, C-Root apical
meristem
148. Identify type of vascular bundle with
respect to and figure

(1) A-Sieve tube cells, B-Xylem

parenchyma, C-Companion cell
(2) A-Sieve tube cells, B-Phloem
parenchyma, C-Companion cell
(3) A-Sieve pore, B-Xylem parenchyma,
(1) A-Conjoint closed, B-Conjoint open, C- Companion cell
C-Radial (4) A-Sieve pore, B-Phloem parenchyma,
(2) A-Radial, B-Conjoint open, C- C-Companion cell
Conjoint closed

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LNLM-2023 (NCERT BASED RANK PROMOTER TEST SERIES)

ZOOLOGY
Choose the correct answer. (3) Only statement B is correct.
SECTION - A (4) Both statements are incorrect.
151. Which of the following options includes A
156. Ca2+ binds with a subunit of in the
uricotelic organisms?
skeletal muscles and leads to the exposure
(1) Cartilaginous fishes and mammals B C
of the binding site for on
(2) Land snails and insects
filament.
(3) Marine fishes and mammals Choose the option that correctly fill the
(4) Bony fishes and lizards blanks A, B and C respectively.
152. Match the column-I and column-II. (1) Troponin, myosin, actin
Column-I Column-II (2) Troponin, actin, tropomyosin
a. Nephridia (i) Annelids (3) Actin, myosin, troponin
b. Flame cells (ii) Insects (4) Tropomyosin, myosin, actin
c. Antennal glands (iii) Platyhelminthes 157. Select the incorrect statement.

d. Malpighian tubules (iv) Crustaceans (1) All muscles have special properties like
excitability, contractibility, extensibility,
Choose the correct option.
elasticity and autorhythmicity.
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (2) Flagellar movement helps in the
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) maintenance of water current in the
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) canal system of sponges.
(4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (3) Specialised cells like macrophages in
connective tissue and leucocytes in
156. Choose the incorrect pair w.r.t. an adult
blood exhibit amoeboid movement.
man.
(4) Striated muscles are closely associated
(1) Axial skeleton – 80 bones with the skeletal component of the
(2) Cranium – 8 bones body.
(3) Vertebral column – 26 vertebrae 158. Green glands perform excretory function in
(4) Ribs – 22 pairs (1) Palaemon (2) Sycon
154. Select an example of synovial joint. (3) Balanoglossus (4) Pheretima
(1) Knee joint 159. Choose the incorrect statement.
(2) Joint between adjacent vertebrae (1) All locomotions are movements.

(3) Pubic symphysis (2) Flagellar movement help in the

swimming of spermatozoa.
(4) Joint between flat skull bones
(3) In Paramoecium, cilia helps in the
155. Read the following statements and select
the correct option. movement of food through

Statement-A : When H2O has to be cytopharynx.

conserved in body, ADH is synthesised (4) All movements are locomotions.
from posterior pituitary.
160. Which one of the following is a common
Statement-B : ADH renders the walls of
DCT, collecting duct and tubule feature in both skeletal and cardiac muscle
impermeable to H2O. fibres?
(1) Both statements are correct.
(1) Cylindrical and striated
(2) Only statement A is correct.
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LNLM-2023 (NCERT BASED RANK PROMOTER TEST SERIES)

(2) Involuntary and striated (1) Renin (2) Angiotensin-II

(3) Branched and voluntary (3) Rennin (4) Erythropoietin

167. The wall of the atria of the heart releases
(4) Uninucleated and involuntary
‘A’ in response to a/an ‘B’ in blood volume
161. In which of the given organisms, kidneys and pressure. Choose the option which
identifies A and B correctly.
do not play any significant role in the
removal of nitrogenous wastes? A B

(1) Lizards (2) Pigeons (1) Angiotensin-I Increase

(3) Tadpoles (4) Whales (2) Angiotensin-II Decrease

162. Select the incorrect pair w.r.t. given (3) ANF Increase
diseases and their description.
(4) ANF Decrease
(1) Arthritis – Inflammation of
168. A number of muscle bundles are held
joints
together by a common collagenous
(2) Myastheni – Auto-immune connective tissue layer called
a gravis disorder (1) Fascia (2) Fasciculi
(3) Muscular – Deficiency of the (3) Perimysium (4) Endomysium
dystrophy calcium 169. Monomeric G-actin polymerises to form
(4) Osteoporo – Decreased bone A in the presence of Mg++ ions.
sis mass Select the option that correctly identifies
163. On an average, _______ mL of blood is ‘A’.
filtered by the kidneys per minute in (1) Tropomyosin (2) F-actin
humans, under normal conditions. (3) Myosin (4) Troponin
Choose the option that correctly fills the 170. Arrange the following order of events
blank. taking place during muscle contraction in
(1) 200 – 300 (2) 1100 – 1200 correct order.
(3) 4500 – 5000 (4) 3000 – 4000 a. Nerve impulse
164. Where are the specialised cells called b. Cross – bridge formation
podocytes found in a nephron? c. Release of calcium ions
(1) PCT d. Impulse reaches sarcoplasmic
(2) DCT reticulum
(3) Bowman’s capsule e. Actin – Myosin complex
(4) Henle’s loop f. Muscle contraction
165. A posterior pituitary hormone which (1) a  d  c  b  e  f
prevents wide swings in water balance
(2) a  d  c  e  b  f
helping to avoid dehydration or water
overload is (3) a  d  b  c  e  f
(1) Vasopressin (2) Oxytocin (4) a  c  d  b  e  f
(3) Aldosterone (4) Creatinine 171. The repeated contraction of the skeletal
166. A fall in GFR can activate the JG cells to muscle anaerobically leads to the
release _______ which can stimulate the accumulation of
glomerular blood flow and thereby bring (1) Lactic acid (2) Citric acid
the GFR back to normal. Choose the (3) Hydrochloric acid (4) Linoleic acid
option which fills the blank correctly.

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172. Select the incorrect point of differentiation Choose the correct option regarding the
between red muscle fibres and white labelled structure along with their
muscle fibres.
description
Red muscle White muscle
fibres fibres (1) A → The cortex is divided into a few

(1) They have more They have less conical masses to form
sarcoplasmic sarcoplasmic this structure.
reticulum reticulum
(2) B → This is known as Column of
(2) They have more They have less
Bertini.
blood capillaries blood capillaries
(3) Mitochondria are Mitochondria are (3) C → This is renal vein responsible for
more in number less in number the formation of afferent arteriole
(4) Depend on Depend on (4) D → This is a broad funnel shaped
aerobic process anaerobic process
space called the renal pelvis.
for energy for energy
175. Match the column-I and column-II w.r.t
173. Read the following statements and choose
the correct option. excretory structures and organisms.

Statement-A: The most toxic form of Column-I Column-II

nitrogenous waste is excreted mainly by
(a) Protonephridia (i) Palaemon
the diffusion across body surfaces or
through kidneys. (b) Green glands (ii) Pteropus
Statement-B: Reptiles and land snails
(c) Nephridia (iii) Planaria
excrete the most toxic nitrogenous waste
in the form of pellet or paste as a terrestrial (d) Kidneys (iv) Pheretima
adaptation.
Choose the correct answer from the
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
following given options
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(1) a-(i) b-(ii) c-(iii) d-(iv)
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct (2) a-(iv) b-(iii) c-(ii) d-(i)

174. Given below is the diagram representing (3) a-(iii) b-(i) c-(iv) d-(ii)
longitudinal section of kidney in which
(4) a-(iv) b-(i) c-(iii) d-(ii)
different structures are labelled as A, B, C
and D 176. Assertion (A): The most toxic nitrogenous
waste produced by metabolism is
converted into urea in the lungs of
terrestrial amphibians and released into
the blood which is filtered and excreted out
by the kidneys.

Reason (R): Some amount of urea may be

retained in the kidney matrix of some
animals to maintain a desired osmolarity.

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LNLM-2023
In the light of the above statements,
choose the correct answer from the
options given below.
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false
177. Select the correct statement w.r.t kidneys
in humans.
(1) Kidneys are situated between the
levels of last thoracic and third lumbar
vertebra close to the ventral inner wall
of the abdominal cavity.
(2) Hilum is present towards the centre of
convex surface of the kidney.
(3) In human, kidneys has nearly one
million complex tubular structures
called nephrons.
(4) Each kidney of an adult human
measures 0.10 to 0.12 m in length,
0.05-0.07 m in width, 0.02 to 0.03 m in
thickness with an average weight of
0.12-0.17 kg.
178. Which of the following does not form the
part of functional units in kidneys of
Panthera tigris?
(1) Proximal convoluted tubule
(2) Loop of Henle
(3) Glomerulus
(4) Collecting duct
179. Select the structures which form the renal
tubule of a nephron.
(1) Bowman’s capsule + Renal corpuscle
(2) PCT + DCT + Glomerulus
(3) Bowman’s capsule + PCT + DCT +
Loop of Henle
(4) PCT + DCT + Loop of Henle +
Collecting Duct
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180. During ultrafiltration which of the following
events does not occur?
(1) On an average, 1.1-1.2 L of blood is
filtered by the kidneys per minute.
(2) Podocytes, modified muscle cells, are
arranged in an intricate manner on the
inner side of Bowman’s capsule with
minute spaces called filtration slits
which are responsible for ultrafiltration.
(3) The glomerular capillary blood
pressure causes filtration of blood
through three layers.
(4) Roughly 1/5 th of the blood pumped
out by each ventricle of the heart in a
minute is filtered by the kidneys per
minute.
181. Type of nephron maximally and effectively
involved in the urine concentration is/are
(1) Nephrons in which a minute vessel of
fine capillary network running parallel
to the Henle’s loop is absent or highly
reduced
(2) Mostly nephrons having short Loop of
Henle
(3) Chiefly cortical nephrons
(4) Nephrons having long Loop of Henle
182. How many of the following statement(s)
is/are correctly related with cortical
nephrons?
(a) The Loop of Henle is very long and
reaches deep into the cortex.
(b) The U-shaped blood vessel running
parallel to the Henle’s loop is very
prominent.
(c) They are present in abundance in
human kidney for osmoregulation and
constitutes about 60 per cent of total
nephrons.
(d) The Bowman’s capsule, PCT and DCT
of the nephron are situated in the
cortical region.
Select the correct option
(1) One (2) Three
(3) Two (4) Four
LNLM-2023 (NCERT BASED RANK PROMOTER TEST SERIES)

183. In human kidneys, which substances are
mainly responsible for creating osmolarity
gradient of medullary interstitial fluid?
(1) CaCl2 and NaCl
(2) NaCl and urea
(3) Urea and carbonic acid
188. What will happen if the glomerular filtration
rate increases in a normal adult human?
(1) There will be no urine formation
(2) Complete filtrate get reabsorbed
(3) Renin-angiotensin mechanism will get
activated

(4) Urea and uric acid (4) Some needed substances may pass
out in the urine
184. Which of the following is not considered as
189. When a person is on high salt diet, what
a metabolic disorder?
will be its impact on secretion of
(1) Ketonuria (2) Uremia aldosterone?
(3) Glycosuria (1) Increases
(4) Glomerulonephritis (2) Decreases
185. Dialysing fluid in artificial kidney is (3) Remains same
(A) Hypertonic to blood (4) Initially increases then decreases

(B) Almost isotonic to plasma 190. Select the method by which waste material
from blood enters into dialysing fluid during
(C) Hypotonic to urine haemodialysis.
(D) Hypertonic to urine (1) Secondary active transport
Choose the option that contains only (2) Diffusion
correct ones.
(3) Facilitated diffusion
(1) (A), (B) and (C) (2) (B) and (C)
(4) Active transport
(3) (A) and (D) (4) (B), (C) and (D) 191. Study the diagram given below that
SECTION - B represents reabsorption and secretion of
major substances at different parts of the
186. Receptors which are activated on
nephron. Which of the following labelled
excessive loss of fluid from the body are
parts play a role in the maintenance of pH
present in
and ionic balance of the body fluids by the
(1) Medulla oblongata (2) Cerebrum selective secretion of H+ and K+ ions?
(3) Midbrain (4) Hypothalamus
187. Assertion (A): Low blood pressure causes
the release of atrial natriuretic factor from
the atria of the heart.
Reason (R): ANF mechanism acts as a
check on the renin- angiotensin
mechanism.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

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Select the correct option Statement-A : The two halves of the pelvic
(1) A and C (2) A, C and D girdle meet dorsally to form the pubic
symphysis containing fibrous cartilage.
(3) A and B (4) B, C and D
Statement-B : Pelvic girdle consists of two
192. The tubular epithelial cells in different coxal bones.
segments of nephrons perform
reabsorption either by passive or active (1) Both statements A and B are incorrect
transport. Which of the following
(2) Both statements A and B are correct
substances in the filtrate are mainly
reabsorbed by passive transport? (3) Only statement A is correct
(1) Nitrogenous wastes and water (4) Only statement B is correct
(2) Glucose and amino acids 197. Match the bones listed in Column-I with
(3) Water and Na+ their respective numbers in Column-II and
(4) Nitrogenous wastes and amino acids choose the correct option.
193. Which of the following pair is correctly Column-I Column-II
matched?
(a) Bones of appendicular (i) 14 in number
(1) Between – Hinge Joint skeleton
humerus and
(b) Bones of axial skeleton (ii) 8 in number
pectoral girdle
(2) Between atlas – Ball and socket (c) Cranial bones (iii) 80 in number
and axis joint (d) Facial bones (iv) 126 in number
(3) Between the – Fibrous joint
(a) (b) (c) (d)
carpals
(4) Between carpal – Saddle joint (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
and metacarpal (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
of thumb
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
194. An autoimmune disorder affecting
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue,
weakening and paralysis of skeletal 198. Which of the following is the incorrect
muscle is description of a certain part of an adult
(1) Arthritis (2) Gout human skeleton?
(3) Myasthenia gravis (4) Tetany (1) Malleus, incus, and stapes are
195. At the point of fusion of ilium, ischium and collectively called ear ossicles
pubis, is a cavity called ‘A’ to which the ‘B’
articulates. (2) Hyoid is a M-shaped bone which is
Select the correct option for ‘A’ and ‘B’. located at the base of the buccal cavity
A B (3) The skull region articulates with the
(1) Acetabulum Humerus superior region of the vertebral column
(2) Glenoid Femur with the help of two occipital condyles
(3) Acetabulum Femur
(4) Bone and cartilage are specialized
(4) Glenoid Humerus
connective tissues
196. Read the following given statements w.r.t.
pelvic girdle and choose the correct option. 199. Read the following given statements and
choose the correct option.

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LNLM-2023 (NCERT BASED RANK PROMOTER TEST SERIES)

A : Hyoid bone is included in the skull. Column-I Column-II

B : Sternum is a flat bone on the ventral (a) Cervical vertebrae (i) 5 in number
midline of thorax. (b) Thoracic vertebrae (ii) 12 in number
(1) Both statements A and B are False (c) Lumbar vertebrae (iii) 7 in number
(2) Both statements A and B are True (a) (b) (c)
(3) Only statement A is True (1) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) Only statement B is True (2) (iii) (i) (ii)
200. Match the vertebrae listed in Column-I with (3) (iii) (ii) (i)
their numbers in Column-II and choose the
(4) (ii) (i) (iii)
correct option.

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