Test-13 (Code-B)

31/07/2021
3. A body of mass 1 kg crosses a point O moving
with velocity of 60 m/s. A force of 10 N opposite
to velocity starts acting on the body at O. The
body will cross point O again in

(1) 12 s (2) 6 s
Regd. Office: No. 111, 8th Cross, Paramount Gardens, Thalaghattapura, Kanakapura Main Road, Bengaluru
(3) 9 s (4) 15 s

MM : 720 FINAL TEST SERIES 4. Two identical balls are projected one vertically up
and other at an angle of 30° to the horizontal,
Test with same initial speed. The potential energy at
their highest point is in the ratio
Mock Test for NEET (Complete Syllabus
(1) of
2:1 (2) 3 : 4

(3) 6 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
:
5. A particle is moving eastwards with a velocity of
(i) 20 m/s. In 10 s the velocity changes to 20 m/s
(ii) northwards. The average acceleration of particle
during this time is
(iii)
(1) 0 ms 2
(iv)

(v) (2)

(3)
(vi) 4
(4) 20 ms 2 S-E
(vii) 2 -A -B
6. Which of the following graph represents variation
15 10
of vertical component of velocity of projectile
motion (oblique) with time?

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer : (1) (2)

SECTION-A

1. kg s 2 could be unit of
(1) Momentum
(3) (4)
(2) Viscosity
(3) Force (spring) constant
(4) Gravitational potential 7. A small mass m starts from rest at top and slides
down the smooth surface of a solid sphere of
2. A body dropped from top of a tower covers of radius R. The angle of radius vector of the mass
with respect to the vertical when it leaves the
its total height in last second of its fall. The time of
surface of the sphere is nearly
fall is
(1) 2 s (2) 4 s (1) 90° (2) 60°

(3) 3 s (4) 5 s (3) 37° (4) 48°

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B)

8. In case of horse pulling a cart, the force that 15. A ring, a solid sphere and a thin disc of different
causes the horse to move forward is the force masses rotate with same rotational KE. Equal
that (Choose best possible answer) torques are applied to stop them. Which one will
(1) Cart exerts on the horse make least number of revolutions before coming
(2) The ground exerts on the horse to rest?
(3) The horse exerts on the cart (1) Ring
(4) The horse exerts on the ground
(2) Disc
9. Two identical point masses are placed at a
distance of r. The gravitational force of attraction (3) Solid sphere
between them will be proportional to (4) All make same number of revolutions
(1) r2 (2) r 2
16. The volume of an air bubble is doubled when it
(3) r4 (4) r6 rises from the bottom to the surface of a lake. The
10. It is found that on certain smooth inclined plane of depth of the lake is approximately (assume same
angle 30° with horizontal, a minimum force of 10 temperature along depth)
N is required to start a body up when applied
parallel to inclined plane. The minimum force (1) 10.2 m (2) 15.3 m
required to be applied horizontally to start the (3) 20 m (4) 22 m
same body up will be (in N)
17. If a graph is drawn between height of liquid inside
(1) 20 (2) 15
capillary and radius of capillary tube for a given
(3) 14 (4) 11.5 liquid, which of the following will it be?
11. A car of mass 1000 kg moves on rough road
(1) Straight line through origin having positive
where road friction is 10 percent of its weight and
air friction is 2 percent of its weight. To keep the slope
car moving at constant speed of 36 km h 1, the (2) Straight line through origin having negative
power required is slope
(1) 11.76 kW (2) 18.32 kW
(3) Rectangular hyperbola
(3) 9.31 kW (4) 7.52 kW
(4) Parabola
12. The ratio of magnitude of potential energy to
18. If a gas is allowed to expand adiabatically against
orbit is external pressure
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 (1) There is decrease in internal energy of gas
(3) 2 : 1 (4) (2) Pressure remains constant
13. A body of mass 1 kg moving with velocity of (3) Its temperature remains constant
6 m/s collides head on elastically with another
identical body at rest. After colliding the velocity (4) There is increase in its internal energy of gas
of second body in ms 1 will be
19. An ideal homodiatomic gas has r.m.s. speed of
(1) 6 (2) 8 molecules equal to v. On doubling the
(3) 12 (4) 4 temperature, the gas molecules dissociate into
14. The frequency of spring mass system is 16 Hz. If monoactomic gas. The new r.m.s. speed will be
the spring is cut into two halves and one half
oscillates with same mass, the frequency of (1) 2v (2)
oscillation will be
(1) 16 Hz (2) 32 Hz (3) 3v (4)
(3) 32.4 Hz (4) 22.62 Hz

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B)

20. Two spheres of same material but radii in ratio 26. How many photons are emitted per second by a
2 : 1 are heated to same temperature and left in yellow lamp of power 10 watt? (Wavelength of
same surrounding. The rate of the cooling will be yellow light = 600 nm)
in the ratio of (1) 3.33 × 1020 (2) 3.03 × 1019
(3) 3.3 × 1016 (4) 1.5 × 1016
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4
27. If a lens is moved towards the object from a
(3) 1 : 8 (4) 6 : 1 distance of 20 cm to 15 cm, the magnification of
the image remains the same. The focal length of
21. It is difficult to cook at high altitudes because of
the lens is
(1) Lack of oxygen (1) 15.5 cm (2) 16.8 cm
(2) High moisture content in air (3) 17.5 cm (4) 12.6 cm

(3) Decrease in boiling point of water 28.

wavelength , the intensity of bright fringe is
(4) Increase in boiling point of water I units, the intensity at a point where the path
22. A flask contains argon and chlorine in the ratio 2 : 1 difference is is
by mass at a temperature of 27°C. The ratio of
molar mass of chlorine to argon is roughly 3 : 5. (1) (2)
The ratio of average translational kinetic energy
of argon to chlorine molecule is
(3) (4)

(1) (2) 29. A clear sheet of polaroid is placed on top of

similar sheet so that their axis make an angle
(3) 1 (4) 1.41 sin 1(3/5) with each other. The ratio of intensity of
final emergent light to that of unpolarised light
23. Ice starts forming in a lake with water at 0°C
(incident) is
when atmospheric temperature is 10°C. If time
(1) 16 : 25 (2) 9 : 25
taken for 1 cm of ice layer to be formed is
7 hours, time taken for the thickness of ice to (3) 15 : 36 (4) 8 : 25
increase from 1 cm to 2 cm is 30. A person standing at a distance of 3.6 km can just
resolve two poles. The distance between the
(1) 7 hours
poles is (if eye, limit of resolution
(2) Less than 7 hours
(3) More than 7 hours but less than 14 hours (1) 1 m (2) 10 m
(4) 21 hours (3) 0.4 m (4) 5 m
31. An open pipe of length 40 cm and diameter 5 cm
24. The critical angle for the material a prism is 36°. vibrates. The wavelength of sound emitted by it in
The maximum angle of prism for which an fundamental mode is
emergent ray is possible will be (1) 77 cm (2) 81.5 cm
(1) 72° (2) 54° (3) 86 cm (4) 78.5 cm
32. If a source of frequency f and a listener
(3) 36° (4) 16°
approaches each other with a velocity of of
25. When an astronomical telescope is adjusted for
parallel rays, the distance of objective from the the velocity of sound each, the apparent
eye piece is found to be 1.05 m. The magnifying frequency heard by the listener is
power of telescope is 20. The focal length of 21
(1) f (2)
eyepiece lens is 20
(1) 1 m (2) 0.05 m 21
(3) f (4)
19
(3) 0.95 m (4) 0.52 m

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B)

33. A particle is executing SHM. Its maximum velocity 38. In the circuit shown in figure, galvanometer G
reads zero. The internal resistance of batteries is
is V0. Then its velocity at a distance of its negligible. The value of X is
amplitude from mean position will be

3
(1) V0 (2)
2

V0
(3) (4)
3 (1) 100 (2) 200
34. A particle of mass 1 kg and charge 1 C moves (3) 240 (4) 500
from rest through a potential of 1 V. Its final
velocity will be 39. An infinite long straight wire is bent into the shape
as shown in figure. It carries current i and radius
(1) 1 ms 1
of circular loop is a. The magnetic field at the
(2) 2 ms 1
centre of loop is (d << a)
(3) 4 ms 1

(4) 1.4 ms 1

35. The capacitance between diagonal AC of square

ABCD is

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

40. Two wires of same material and same length are

connected to two gaps of a meter bridge. The
balancing length measured from left gap is
25 cm. The ratio of radius of two wires in left gap
(1) 2 F (2) 3 F to that in the right gap is

(3) 4 F (4) 6 F (1) 3 : 1 (2)

SECTION-B (3) 1 : 9 (4) 3 : 2

36. In electrostatic condition of a conductor, 41. The relative permeability of material is 6000 (i.e.
high). The substance could be
(1) Potential all across conductor is constant
(1) Copper (2) Aluminium
(2) Electric field on surface is perpendicular to
surface (3) Bismuth (4) Iron
(3) Surface charge density is always uniform 42. A solenoid of diameter 0.2 m has 500 turns per
(4) Both (1) and (2) metre. At the centre of this solenoid, a coil of 100
turns is wrapped closely around it. If the current in
37. To make a voltmeter from sensitive galvanometer solenoid changes from zero to 2 A in
(1) A high resistance is connected in parallel 1 millisecond. Induced emf developed in the coil
is nearly
(2) A low resistance is connected in parallel
(1) 2.45 V (2) 3.95 V
(3) A high resistance is connected in series
(3) 6.55 V (4) 1.25 V
(4) A low resistance is connected in series

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B)

43. A transformer has efficiency of 75%. The power 49. The instantaneous angular position of a point on
input is 4 kW at 100 V. If secondary voltage is a rotating wheel is given by = 2t3 3t2. The
200 V, what is secondary current? torque on wheel becomes zero at
(1) 10 A (2) 9 A (1) 1 s (2) 3 s
(3) 12 A (4) 15 A (3) 0.5 s (4) 4 s
44. The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle moving 50. The percentage error in measurement of length
with velocity 2.25 × 108 ms 1 is equal to and time-period is 2% and 1% respectively. The
wavelength of a photon. The ratio of kinetic percentage error in measurement of g is
energy of the particle to energy of the photon is
(1) 2% (2) 3%
(velocity of light = 3 × 108 m/s)
(3) 6% (4) 4%
(1) 1 : 8 (2) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 5 (4) 3 : 8
CHEMISTR
45. The potential barrier for germanium p-n junction is
0.3 V. If the width of the depletion layer is SECTION-A
1 micron, then field strength at the junction is
51. Mole fraction of 4.5 molal aqueous solution is
(1) 3 × 105 V m 1 (2) 3 × 10 4 Vm 1

(3) 3 × 10 5 V m 1 (4) 3.33 × 106 V m 1 (1) (2)

46. A particle has initial velocity . The

(3) (4)
particle experiences a constant acceleration
. The velocity of particle 52. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers
is not correct?
becomes parallel to x axis at t equal to
(1) 2 s (2) 3 s (1) n= 5, l = 4, m = 0,
(3) 4 s (4) 6 s
47. Which of the following distance-time graph is not (2) n = 5, l = 0, m = 1,
possible
(3) n = 5, l = 4, m = 3,

(1) (2) (4) n = 5 , l = 3, m = 0,

53. If for a bulb, rate of emission of photon having

wavelength 662.6 nm is 3 × 1020 s 1 then power of
bulb is
(1) 10 W (2) 30 W
(3) (4)
(3) 90 W (4) 100 W
54. Minimum negative electron gain enthalpy among
48. The location of centre of mass of three bodies of the following is of
mass 1 kg each, located at the points (0, 0) (3, 0)
(1) F (2) Cl
and (0, 4) in xy plane is
(3) Br (4) I
(1) (2) 55. Shape of SF4 molecule is
(1) Pyramidal (2) Tetrahedral
(3) (4) (3) Square planar (4) See-saw

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B)

56. Maximum bond order among the following is of

(1) O2 (2) 67. IUPAC name of is

(3) (4) (1) 5-Hydroxyhexanoic acid

57. An ideal gas is heated in open container from 27º (2) 5-Oxohexanoic acid
to 127ºC. The fraction of moles of gas remained (3) 1-Carboxypentan-5-one
in the container is (4) 5-Carboxypentan-2-one
1
(1) (2) 68. Aromatic species among the following is
2
3
(3) (4) (1) (2)
4
58.
(1) L (2) L mol 1
(3) (4)
(3) mol L 1 (4) mol L 2
59. For which of the following reaction Kp = Kc?
69.
(1) PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

(2) CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g)

(3) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)

Product C in the above reaction is
(4) N2O4(g) 2NO2(g)
60. pH of the solution made by mixing 0.2 M, 100 mL (1)
NaOH and 0.1 M, 400 mL of CH3COOH is
(pKa of CH3COOH = 4.7)
(1) 2.35 (2) 4.7 (2)
(3) 7 (4) 9.3
61. Which of the following is incorrect regarding
isothermal free expansion of an ideal gas? (3)
(1) q = 0 (2) w = 0
(3) U = 0 (4) S = 0
(4)
62. Oxidation number of sulphur in Na2S4O6 is
(1) 2 (2) 2.5
(3) 6 (4) 2 70. Ratio between crystal field splitting 0 and t is
63. Electron rich hydride among the following is
(1) (2)
(1) NaH (2) CH4
(3) HF (4) NiH0.7
(3) (4)
64. Which of the following does not exist as solid?
(1) NaHCO3 (2) LiHCO3
71.
(3) CaCO3 (4) MgCO3
_____ in drinking water.
65. Hybridisation of Al in the acidified aqueous
solution of AlCl3 is (1) Fluorides (2) Lead
(1) sp2 (2) sp3 (3) Sulphate (4) Nitrate
(3) sp3d (4) sp3d2
72. Which of the following compounds shows both
66. The chain length of silicone polymer can be Frenkel as well as Schottky defects?
controlled by adding
(1) CH3SiCl3 (2) (CH3)2SiCl2 (1) NaCl (2) AgBr
(3) (CH3)3SiCl (4) SiCl4 (3) CsCl (4) ZnS

(11 (12
Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B)

73. Vapour pressure of an ideal solution made by 82. Volume of CO2 gas obtained at STP by the
mixing 5 moles of A and 10 moles of B is complete combustion of 45 g of ethane is
(1) 67.2 L (2) 22.4 L
(3) 44.8 L (4) 11.2 L
(1) 150 torr (2) 166.7 torr
83. Temporary effect among the following is
(3) 133.3 torr (4) 125 torr
(1) Inductive effect (2) Resonance effect
74. Most basic compound in aqueous medium among
the following is (3) Electromeric effect (4) Hyperconjugation

(1) NH3 (2) (C2H5)3N 84. If for NaCl, HCl and NaAc are a, b and
(3) (C2H5)2NH (4) C2H5NH2 c S cm2 mol 1 then for HAc is
75. Rate of SN2 reaction will be maximum in
(1) a + b c (2) b + c a
(1) CH3Br (2) CH3CH2Br
(3) a + c b (4) a + b + c
(3) (CH3)2CHBr (4) (CH3)3CBr
85. Half life of a reaction is constant for
76. Which of the following ethers can not be formed
(1) Zero order (2) First order
by Williamson ether synthesis?
(3) Second order (4) Third order
(1)
SECTION-B

(2) CH3 O CH3 86. Butter is an example of

(1) Gel (2) Foam
(3)
(3) Emulsion (4) Sol

(4) CH2 = CH O CH3 87. In the extraction of gold by leaching with CN , the
reducing agent involved is
77. Rickets is caused by the deficiency of
(1) Zn (2) OH
(1) Vitamin C (2) Vitamin A
(3) Cu (4) CN
(3) Vitamin D (4) Vitamin B6
88. Which of the following reaction gives N 2 as a
78. Which of
product?

(1) CH3CHO (2) HCHO (1)

(3) CH3COCH3 (4) C6H5CHO (2)

79. Which of the following property is widely used to
determine the molar masses of proteins? (3)

(1) Relative lowering in vapour pressure (4) 2NO N2O 4

250K

(2) Elevation in boiling point

89. I on reaction with in neutral or faintly
(3) Depression in freezing point
alkaline solution gives
(4) Osmotic pressure
(1) I2 (2)
80. Which of the following condition(s) is/are true for a
galvanic cell at equilibrium?
(3) (4) IO
(1) G=0 (2) Ecell = 0
90. 1 mole of CoCl3.4NH3 on reaction with excess of
(3) K = Q (4) All of these AgNO3 gives 1 mol AgCl. The secondary valency
81. A process is never spontaneous if of cobalt in the complex is
(1) H > 0 and S > 0 (2) H < 0 and S > 0 (1) 1 (2) 3
(3) H < 0 and S < 0 (4) H > 0 and S < 0 (3) 5 (4) 6

(13 (14
Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B)

98. For the equilibrium H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g), which

91.
of the following change alters the equilibrium
constant?
Product B is
(1) Addition of inert gas
(2) Increase in pressure
(3) Addition of catalyst
(1) (2)
(4) Increase in temperature
99. Aromatic species among the following is

(3) (4) (1) (2)

(3) (4)

92.
100. Mass of CO2 formed by the reaction of 16 g CH4
and 32 g oxygen is
Product C in the above reaction is
(1) 11 g (2) 22 g
(3) 44 g (4) 88 g

(1) (2)
BOTANY

SECTION-A

101. Match the different taxonomical aids given in

(3) (4) column-I with their correct explanation given in
column-II, and select the most appropriate option
as answer?

93. Which of the following is not a disaccharide? Column-I Column-II

(1) Lactose (2) Sucrose a. Herbarium (i) Information on any
(3) Amylose (4) Maltose one taxon

94. Monomer of Bakelite is b. Museum (ii) Quick referral

systems.
(1) Phenol (2) Formaldehyde
(3) Phthalic acid (4) Both (1) and (2) c. Key (iii) Analytical in nature.
95. Tranquilizer among the following is d. Monographs (iv) Collections of
(1) Equanil (2) Aspirin preserved plant and
animal specimens
(3) Prontosil (4) Norethindrone
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
96. Ratio of t99 to t90 for a first order reaction is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 9 : 1 (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
97. Which of the following does not react with (4) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
102. The three domain system of classification has
(1) (2) (1) Two domains for Eukaryotes
(2) Two domains for Prokaryotes
(3) (4) (3) Kept all prokaryotes in one domain
(4) One domain for virus, viroid, prions etc.

(15 (16
Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B)

103. Pigments of which of the following group of 111. Select the odd one w.r.t. the endomembrane
protists are identical to those present in higher system?
plants? (1) RER is frequently observed in cells actively
(1) Chrysophytes involved in protein synthesis and secretion
(2) Diatoms and desmids (2) Lysosomal vesicles have been found to be
very rich in almost all types of hydrolytic
(3) Euglenoids
enzymes
(4) Dinoflagellates
(3) Vacuoles contain water, sap, excretory
104. Hydrocolloids like algin are present in products and other materials
(1) Green algae (2) Brown algae (4) The Golgi cisternae are concentrically
(3) Red algae (4) Blue green algae arranged near the nucleus with distinct cis or
the maturing face and the concave trans or
105. The inconspicuous, small but multicellular free-
the forming face
living, mostly photosynthetic thalloid
gametophytes in pteridophytes developing from 112. Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles,
spores is called: their identity as discrete elements is lost, nuclear
membrane develops around the chromosome
(1) Primary protonema
clusters during which of the following stages of
(2) Secondary protonema mitotic division?
(3) Prothallus (1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
(4) Lateral bud (3) Telophase (4) Anaphase
106. The axillary bud gives rise to slender and spirally 113. The homologous chromosomes separate, while
coiled stem tendrils which help plants to climb are sister chromatids remain associated at their
found in: centromeres, during which of the following stages
(1) Bougainvillea (2) Citrus of division?
(1) Metaphase-I (2) Anaphase-I
(3) Peas (4) Gourds
(3) Prophase-I (4) Anaphase-II
107. Select the mismatched pair.
114. Match the stages of interphase given in column-I,
(1) Epipetalous Brinjal
with the correct events taking place during the
(2) Epiphyllous Flowers of lily stages in column-II and select the most
(3) Monoadelphous Pea appropriate option as the answer.

(4) Polyadelphous Citrus Column-I Column-II

108. The arrangement of primary xylem, where the a. G1-phase (i) Cells remain
protoxylem lies towards periphery and meta metabolically active
xylem lies towards the centre is called. but no longer
proliferate.
(1) Exarch (2) Endarch
b. S-phase (ii) Most organelle
(3) Triarch (4) Tetrarch duplication occurs
109. In dicotyledonous root, initiation of lateral roots during this phase.
and formation of vascular cambium during the c. G2-phase (iii) DNA replication
secondary growth takes place in the cells of: takes place.
(1) Epidermis (2) Hypodermis d. G0-phase (iv) Period of
(3) Pericycle (4) Casparian strips cytoplasmic growth.

110. Reserve material in prokaryotic cells are stored in (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
the cytoplasm in the form of: (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(1) Polysome (2) Inclusion bodies (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) Mesosomes (4) Capsule (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B)

115. Select the odd statement w.r.t. plant-water 121. During which of the following conversions
relations. substrate level phosphorylation takes place in
(1) The greater the concentration of water in a Glycolysis?
system, the greater is its kinetic energy or (1) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to Dihydroxy-
water potential acetone phosphate
(2) If a pressure greater than atmospheric (2) Phosphoenolpyruvate to Pyruvic acid
pressure is applied to pure water or a
(3) Glucose-6-phosphate to Fructose-6-phosphate
solution, its water potential decreases
(4) 2-phosphoglycerate to Phosphoenolpyruvate
(3) For a solution at atmospheric pressure water
potential w is equal to solute potential s 122. Complex-IV of the Electron transport system
(ETS) in aerobic respiration refers to:
(4) The more the solute molecules, the lower
(1) Cytochrome-c oxidase complex
(more negative) is the solute potential
116. Which of the following is ultimately responsible for (2) NADH dehydrogenase complex
enlargement and extension growth of cells? (3) Succinate dehydrogenase complex
(1) Hypertonic solution (2) Isotonic solution (4) Cytochrome bc1 complex
(3) Turgor pressure (4) Plasmolysis 123. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the
117. Root nodules in some plants like soyabean export most appropriate option.
fixed nitrogen along with the transpiration stream Column-I Column-II
in the form of:
a. S-curve (i) Ability of the plant to
(1) Ammonia (2) Amino acids produce new plant
(3) Amides (4) Ureides material.
118. Which of the following nutrient is a component of b. Arithmetic growth (ii) Root elongating at a
several enzymes like nitrogenase and nitrate constant rate.
reductase? c. De-differentiation (iii) Characteristic of
(1) Boron (2) Manganese living organism
(3) Molybdenum (4) Chlorine growing in a natural
environment.
119. The primary CO2 acceptor during the carbon
reactions in C4 plants present in the mesophyll d. Efficiency index (iv) Formation of inter
cells of leaf are fascicular cambium
(1) Phosphoenol pyruvate (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(2) Oxaloacetic acid (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(3) Malic acid (3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) RUBP (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
120. Consider the following statements. 124. Select the mismatched pair.
a. CO2 is the major limiting factor for (1) Auxin : Apical dominance
photosynthesis.
(2) Gibberellins : Promotes bolting
b. Dark reactions being enzymatic are
temperature controlled. (3) Cytokinin : Lateral shoot growth

c. Water stress causes the stomata to close
hence reducing CO2 availability.
d. Six turns of Calvin cycle results in the
formation of six molecules of glucose.
The correct statements are
(4) Abscisic acid : Root hair formation
125. Members of the Kingdom Fungi and simple plants
such as algae reproduce through special asexual
reproductive structures. The most common of
these structures are:

(1) b and c only (2) b, c and d (1) Gemmules (2) Buds

(3) a, b and c (4) only d (3) Zoospores (4) Bulb

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B)

126. Organisms exhibiting external fertilization: (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(1) Sharply reduce the number of eggs produced (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) Perform syngamy inside their body (3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(3) Show great synchrony between the sexes (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(4) Produce egg inside the female body where it 131. Select the odd statement w.r.t. structure of
fuses with male gamete polynucleotide chain?
127. The generative cell of the pollen grain: (1) A nitrogenous base is linked to the OH of 1ºC
(1) Is bigger with abundant food reserve pentose sugar through a N-glycosidic linkage
to form a nucleoside.
(2) Has a large irregularly shaped nucleus
(2) Two nucleotides are linked through 3' 5'
(3) Forms the pollen tube
phosphodiester linkage to form a dinucleotide
(4) Is spindle shaped with dense cytoplasm and a
(3) In RNA 5-methyl uracil is found at the place of
nucleus
thymine
128. Genetically different types of pollen grains can
(4) Cytosine is common for both DNA and RNA
come on the stigma of a flower, by which of the
following strategies of pollination: 132. Match column-I and column-II w.r.t. the various
aspects of Human Genome Project and select the
(1) Geitonogamy (2) Homogamy
correct option as the answer.
(3) Xenogamy (4) Autogamy
Column-I Column-II
129. Select the odd statement w.r.t sex-determination
a. Expressed (i) At about 1.4 million
in Honey Bee?
sequence tags locations
(1) An unfertilised egg develops as a male
(drone) by means of parthenogenesis b. Sequence (ii) Genes that are
(2) The females are diploid having 32 annotation expressed as RNA
chromosomes c. Bioinformatics (iii) Whole set of
(3) Males have father and can have sons genome containing
all coding & non-
(4) Males produce gametes/sperms by mitosis
coding sequence
130. Match the genetic conditions given in column-I,
d. Single nucleotide (iv) High speed
with the correct explanation given in column-II
and select the most appropriate option as answer. polymorphism computational
devices for storage,
Column-I Column-II
retrieval & analysis
a. Thalassemia (i) Autosome linked of data.
recessive blood (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
disease.
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
b. Phenylketonuria (ii) Due to lack of
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
enzyme that
converts (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
phenylalanine into 133. Select the odd statement w.r.t. Lac operon.
tyrosine (1) Essentially, regulation of Lac operon can be
c. Sickle-cell anemia (iii) Defect caused by visualised as regulation of enzyme synthesis
substitution of by its substrate
glutamic acid by (2) A very low level of expression of Lac operon
valine at 6th position has to be present in the cell all the time,
of -chain of otherwise lactose cannot enter the cells
haemoglobin (3) Regulation of Lac operon by repressor is
referred to as negative regulation
d. Haemophilia (iv) Sex-linked recessive
(4) Lac operon can never be under control of
condition
positive regulation

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B)

134. The capacity to generate a whole plant from any 140. The rate of formation of new organic matter by
cell/explant is called: consumers is known as:
(1) Somatic hybrids (1) Primary production
(2) Totipotency (2) Gross primary productivity
(3) Traditional breeding (3) Secondary productivity
(4) Meristem culture (4) Net primary productivity
135. The new crop variety of Abelmoschus esculentus,
141. The amount of nutrients such as carbon, nitrogen,
called Prabhani Kranti, resistant to yellow mosaic
phosphorous, calcium etc., present in the soil at
virus was produced through:
any given time, which varies in different kinds of
(1) Conventional breeding ecosystems and also on a seasonal basis, is
(2) Mutation breeding known as:
(3) Genetic Engineering (1) Standing crop
(4) Tissue culture (2) Standing state

SECTION-B (3) Climax vegetation

(4) Sedimentary cycle
136. The ladybird and dragonflies respectively are
useful biocontrol agents to get rid of: 142. The most important cause driving animals and
plants to extinction is:
(1) Birds and fish
(1) Habitat loss & fragmentation
(2) Aphids and mosquitoes
(2) Over-exploitation
(3) Arthropods and insects
(3) Alien species invasion
(4) Root borne pathogens
(4) Co-extinctions
137. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. use of
microbes for household products? 143. Select the odd one w.r.t. on-site conservation
strategy.
(1) LAB play very beneficial role in checking
disease causing microbes (1) Biosphere reserves

(2) LAB converts milk to curd, which improves (2) National parks
the nutritional quality by increasing vit B12. (3) Wildlife safari parks
(3) The puffed-up appearance of dough is due to (4) Biodiversity hotspots
production of CO2 gas
144. Select the mismatch w.r.t. pollutants and their
(4) The 'Roquefort cheese' are ripened by treatment strategies.
growing a specific bacteria on them
(1) Hospital wastes Recycling
138. The salt concentration measured as salinity in
(2) Electronic wastes Recycling
parts per thousand in some hypersaline lagoons
is (3) Solid waste Sanitary land fills

(1) 5 (2) 30-35 (4) Domestic sewage Sewage treatment plant

(3) >100 (4) 50 145. Realising the significance of participation by local

communities in managing and protecting forests,
139. An overwhelming majority (99%) of animals and
the Government of India in 1980s has introduced
nearly all plants cannot maintain a constant
the concept of:
internal environment. Their body temperature
changes with the ambient temperature, so they (1) Jhum cultivation
are called: (2) Reforestation
(1) Conformers (2) Regulators (3) Joint forest management
(3) Partial regulators (4) Suspenders (4) Chipko movement

(23 (24
Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B)

146. If the amount of DNA and number of 152.

chromosomes in a meiocyte is 20 pg and 20
respectively then what will be the amount of DNA
and number of chromosome after meiosis II in temperature. Identify the Y and X respectively.
daughter cells?
(1) Lamprey, Hyla (2) Chelone, Scoliodon
DNA (in pg) Chromosome
(3) Bufo, Bungarus (4) Neophron, Naja
(1) 20 10
153. What type of blood group can be transfused to a
(2) 40 20
person having anti B antibodies in his plasma but
(3) 10 10 no Rh antigen on surface of his RBCs?
(4) 20 20 (1) AB+ve (2) B+ve
147. Which of the following component of phloem is (3) A ve (4) O+ve
non-living?
154. Antigen binding site in an antibody molecule is
(1) Sieve tubes present at
(2) Phloem parenchyma
(1) Variable region of light chain and constant
(3) Bast fibers region of heavy chain
(4) Companion cells (2) Constant region of light chain and variable
148. Which of the following has both RNA and DNA? region of heavy chain
(1) Virus (2) Prions (3) Variable region of both light and heavy chains
(3) Virusoids (4) Bacteria (4) Constant regions of light and heavy chains
149. Enzyme of Krebs cycle that does not present in 155. False statement about Chaetopleura is
mitochondrial matrix is (1) Sexes are separate and belongs to phylum
(1) Citrate synthase Arthropoda
(2) Malate dehydrogenase (2) Calcareous shell is present outside the body
(3) Succinate dehydrogenase as an exoskeleton
(4) Fumarase (3) Possess bilateral symmetry and true coelom
150. Cytochrome c ____ during respiratory ETC (4) Metamerism is absent and has muscular foot
(1) Accepts the electron from oxygen for locomotion

(2) Is a mobile electron carrier 156. Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a
normal expiration, includes
(3) Transfer the electrons to oxygen
(1) TV + ERV
(4) Is a main part of NADH dehydrogenase
(2) ERV + RV

ZOOLOGY (3) ERV + TV + IRV

(4) RV + ERV + TV + IRV
SECTION-A 157. Select the incorrect statement about
reproductive system of Periplaneta
151. Which of the following characteristic feature
always holds true for the corresponding group of Statement-A : Pair of spermatheca is present in
animals? the 6th abdominal segment of female which opens
into the genital chamber.
(1) External fertilisation and - Chondrichthyes
Statement-B : The external genitalia are
indirect development
represented by male gonapophysis or phallomeres
(2) External ear openings - Reptiles which are chitinous asymmetrical structures,
are present surrounding the male gonopore.
(3) Cartilaginous cranium & - Cyclostomata (1) Both statements are correct
vertebral column (2) Both statements are incorrect
(4) Gill slits are separate - Osteichthyes (3) Only statement A is correct
and without operculum (4) Only statement B is correct

(25 (26
Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B)

158. Identify the below given diagram showing location 162. In a resting neuron
of endocrine glands in humans. Select the
labelled endocrine gland whose over secretion (1) K+ diffuse from inside to outside of the axonal
causes disfigurement (especially of the face) in membrane through leaky channels
adults
(2) Na+ diffuse from inside to outside of the
axonal membrane through leaky channels
(3) 3K+ move outside for 2Na+ into the axoplasm
by sodium-potassium pump
(4) K+ and Na+ both diffuse from inside to outside
of the axonal membrane through leaky
channels
(1) A (2) B 163. All of the following are correct features for lining of
(3) C (4) D alveoli except
159. For a biochemical reaction, when we increase (1) A single thin layer of flattened cells with
substrate concentration irregular boundaries
(1) The velocity of enzymatic reaction becomes (2) Cells are compactly packed with little
constant after reaching the Vmax intercellular matrix
(2) The value of Km increases continuously
(3) The epithelium which lines the alveoli is highly
(3) The velocity of enzymatic reaction increases vascular
continuously
(4) Lining cells of alveoli rest on a non-cellular
(4) The value of Km decreases continuously
basement membrane
160. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. glands and their
description 164. Identify the given below amino acids A and B

(1) Pancreas Secretes hypoglycemic

hormone which acts on
hepatocytes and GLUT-4

(2) Neurohypophysis Synthesises and releases a

hormone which acts on latter
parts of renal tubules

(3) Parathyroid Present on the dorsal side of

gland another endocrine gland Choose the correct option.

(4) Pineal gland Located on the dorsal side of A B

forebrain (1) Serine Tyrosine
161. Read the following statements for skeletal muscle (2) Cysteine Tyrosine
fibres and choose the correct answer.
(3) Cystine Phenylalanine
A. Each muscle fibre contains large number of
parallelly arranged myofibrils. (4) Cysteine Phenylalanine
B. Each myofibril has alternate dark and light 165. Which of the following cells/substances, are not
bands on it. found in all connective tissues?
C. Light band contains thick and thin
(a) Fibroblast (b) Proteins
myofilaments.
D. Dark band contains both thin and thick (c) Adipocytes (d) Matrix
filaments. (1) (a) and (c)
(1) A, B and C are correct
(2) (b) and (c)
(2) A, B and D are correct
(3) A, C and D are correct (3) (a) and (b)
(4) B, C and D are correct (4) (b) and (d)

(27 (28
Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B)

166. After taking a long deep breath, we can hold 172. Select the correct set of ammonotelic animals.
breathing for some time till (1) Bony fishes, aquatic amphibians, land snails
(1) More CO2 in arterial blood sensitize the (2) Cartilaginous fishes, tadpole larva of frog,
central chemoreceptor area crocodile
(2) More CO2 in venous blood sensitize the
(3) Aquatic insects, bony fishes, aquatic
central chemoreceptor area
amphibians
(3) More O2 in arterial blood sensitize the central
(4) Sponges, cnidarians, adult frog
chemoreceptor area
173. The 8th, 9th and 10th pair of ribs are called false
(4) More O2 in venous blood sensitize the central
ribs because
chemoreceptor area
(1) They are attached directly to sternum with the
167. Number of canine teeth in upper half jaw of a 14
help of hyaline cartilage
years old child is
(2) They are attached to sternum with the help of
(1) 14 (2) 10
fibrous cartilage
(3) 4 (4) 1
(3) They are attached to 7th rib with the help of
168. Consider the following statements. hyaline cartilage
(i) Steapsin is present in succus entericus. (4) They are not attached to thoracic vertebrae
(ii) Sphincter of Oddi regulates the opening of 174. In parasympathetic nervous system, which
hepatopancreatic duct into duodenum.
neurotransmitter is released?
(iii) Gastric juice of infants contains pepsin, renin
(1) Adrenaline (2) Nor-adrenaline
and trypsin.
Which of the following option includes incorrect (3) Acetylcholine (4) Dopamine
statements only? 175. Which lobe of cerebral hemisphere register
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii) feeling of hot, cold, touch and pain?
(3) (i) and (iii) (4) (i), (ii) and (iii) (1) Frontal (2) Parietal
169. During ventricular systole (3) Temporal (4) Occipital
(1) Atrioventricular valves remain open 176. If the haploid eggs without fertilisation develop
(2) Ventricles receive the blood from atria into only males, this type of parthenogenesis is
(3) Right and left atria receive blood from vena called
cava and pulmonary veins respectively (1) Amphitoky (2) Cyclic
(4) Semilunar valves remain open for about 0.5 (3) Arrhenotoky (4) Thelytoky
sec
177. Choose a brush border enzyme which can act on
170. The number of QRS complexes observed per the product, formed by action of the enzyme of
minute in an ECG of a person is 84. What would pancreatic juice.
be the number of cardiac cycles of that person for
(1) Amylase (2) Sucrase
15 seconds?
(3) Nucleases (4) Nucleotidase
(1) 84 (2) 42
178. In double circulation, the pulmonary circulation
(3) 21 (4) 72
starts from
171. Distal convoluted tubule differs from proximal
(1) Right atrium (2) Left atrium
convoluted tubule in
(1) Facultative reabsorption of water (3) Right ventricle (4) Left ventricle

(2) Reabsorption of almost all bicarbonates 179. Hormone which is responsible for libido in human
males, is secreted from
(3) Possessing brush bordered cuboidal
epithelium (1) Pituitary gland (2) Pancreas
(4) Secretion of maximum H+ (3) Testes (4) Liver

(29 (30
Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B)

180. Cartilage differs from bone in that they SECTION-B

(1) Possess non-pliable matrix
186. The rapidly proliferating cells called neoplastic or
(2) Possess fluid matrix
tumor cells
(3) Lack lamellae
(1) Show apoptosis
(4) Are site of erythropoiesis in adults
(2) Have normal nucleus
181. Which extraembryonic membrane in humans
participates in formation of placenta during (3) Show contact inhibition
embryonic development? (4) Can show metastasis
(1) Amnion (2) Chorion 187. In controlled breeding experiments such as
(3) Allantois (4) Yolk sac MOET, the animal is generally inseminated
182. Identify the incorrect statement about (1) After superovulation
gonadotropin activity in a normal fertile woman (2) Before superovulation
(1) High level of circulating FSH & LH in blood (3) Before the administration of FSH-like
during follicular phase of menstrual cycle hormone
(2) Amount of progesterone increases (4) Just after the administration of FSH-like
continuously in luteal phase of menstrual hormone but prior to superovulation
cycle if fertilisation and implantation occur
188. All are objectives of animal breeding except
(3) LH surge is responsible for ovulation at the
end of follicular phase (1) To improve growth rate

(4) During pregnancy, FSH & LH increase (2) To increase production of milk, meat, egg etc.
gradually and give positive feedback to (3) To decrease resistance to various diseases
corpus luteum for secretion of estrogen and (4) To improve the desirable quality of animal
progesterone produce
183. What is correct for cleavage divisions in 189. In recombinant DNA technology, a plasmid vector
humans? pBR322 can be cleaved by
(1) Meroblastic (2) Determinate A. Sal I in ampR gene
(3) Fast (4) Asynchronous B. Pst I in tetR gene
184. Identify the incorrect statements from given C. Cla I outside the selectable marker genes
below statements and select the correct option.
D. EcoR I in both ampR and tetR gene
Statement-A : Innate immunity is majorly
responsible for graft rejection in humans. Select the option which correctly states each
statement as true (T) or false (F).
Statement-B : In allergy, the histamine and
steroids are given to combat only cell mediated A B C D
immunity.
(1) F T F T
Statement-C : Vaccination or immunisation boost
our immunity. (2) F F T F
(1) A and B only (2) B and C only
(3) F F T T
(3) A and C only (4) A, B and C
185. If a female Anopheles mosquito feeds on the (4) T T T F
blood of infected host suffering from malaria then
190. If only gene Q is to be isolated from given alien
(1) Merozoites will enter into its gut which will
form gametes DNA, what would be the best choice of enzyme?
(2) Gametocytes are taken up with blood meal
(3) Sporozoites enter into the body of female
Anopheles mosquito
(4) Oocyst enters into the body of female
Anopheles mosquito

(31 (32
Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B)

(1) Single digestion with EcoR I 196. Medulla oblongata regulates all of the following
functions except
(2) Single digestion with BamH I
(1) Gastric secretions
(3) Double digestion with EcoR I then with BamH I
(2) Cardiovascular
(4) Single digestion with Hind III (3) Moderates cardiac functions
191. Which of the following statement is incorrect for (4) Body temperature
Taq polymerase used in PCR technique? 197. Which of the following parts of nephron is not
(1) It is obtained from Thermus aquaticus included in renal tubule
(2) It adds new nucleotides to the 3' OH end of a (1) Glomerulus (2) PCT
growing strand
(3) DCT (4) Loop of Henle
(3) It can't begin synthesis de novo without
primer 198. Read the following statements A and B and
(4) Generally adds new nucleotides to only single choose the correct answer.
type of primer Statement A: PCT helps in osmoregulation as
192. Read the following statements and choose the well as acid base balance of the body fluids.
correct answer
Statement B: Potassium ions are reabsorbed in
Statement-A : Antisense RNA used for silencing
PCT and secreted in DCT.
a specific mRNA in RNAi has sequence
complementary to antisense strand of mRNA. (1) Both statements A and B are correct
Statement-B : Genetic modification have been (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
used to create tailor made plants such as
production of hirudin by Brassica napus. (3) Only statement A is correct

(1) Both statements are correct (4) Only statement B is correct

(2) Both statements are incorrect 199. Choose the incorrect match
(3) Only statement A is correct (1) Acromegaly Hypersecretion of GH
(4) Only statement B is correct (2) Dwarfism Hyposecretion of GH
193. All of the following can be used as vectors for (3) Cretinism Hyposecretion of thyroxine
introducing alien DNA in bacterium except (4) Osteoporosis Hyposecretion of
(1) pBR322 (2) pUC8 parathormone
(3) Retrovirus (4) phage 200. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. a nerve
194. Genetic modification in plants have been useful in fibre
many ways except (1) During resting condition, axoplasm is
(1) Made plants more tolerant to abiotic stresses negatively charged
(2) Increased reliance on chemical pesticides (2) Na+ K+ pump operates during polarised stage
of nerve fibres
(3) Helped to reduce post harvest losses
(3) Voltage gated sodium channels are open
(4) Enhanced nutritional value of food
during depolarisation
195. The DNA sequences for A chain and B chain
(4) Velocity of impulse conduction through
were introduced into which of the following
myelinated nerve fibres is less than through
selectable marker for production of human insulin
unmyelinated nerve fibres
by Eli Lilly company?
(1) lac Z gene for galactosidase
(2) ampR gene
(3) tetR gene
(4) neoR gene

(33 (34