Aakash National Young Talent Search Exam 2014 Sample Paper

Sample Paper (IX Studying) Aakash National Young Talent Search Exam 2014
Aakash National Young Talent Search Exam 2014

(For IX Studying)
Time : 2 Hours MM : 320
SECTION-A : SCIENCE
1. The velocity-time graph of a body is given below. 5. The direction of momentum of an object is always
What is the displacement of body from time t = 0 along the direction of
to t = 2 seconds?
(1) Its velocity (2) Its acceleration
v (m/s) (3) Force acting on it (4) Its weight
2 6. If two bodies A and B of masses m and 2m are
moving with velocities 2v and v respectively, then
1
(1) A requires more force to stop in a given time
t (s) (2) B requires more force to stop in a given time
0 1 2
(1) 1 m (2) 3 m (3) Both require same force to stop in a given time
(3) 4 m (4) 5 m (4) Same force will accelerate them equally

2. A body describing circular path at uniform speed of 7. A block of mass 750 g occupies a volume of
2 m/s takes 33 seconds to complete 3.5 revolutions. 250 cm3. The relative density of the block is
The radius of the circular path is
(1) 3 (2) 3.5
(1) 3 m (2) 5 m
(3) 1.5 (4) 2.5
(3) 2 m (4) 1 m
8. A bullet stops after travelling a distance of x m, under
3. The mass of a planet is 4 times while its radius is the action of a uniform retarding force. How far will
8 times that of the earth. If the weight of an object it go before being stopped by the same force if its
is 640 N on earth, what will be its weight on the velocity is doubled?
planet?
(1) x (2) 3 x
(1) 40 N (2) 80 N
(3) 4 x (4) 2.5 x
(3) 160 N (4) 120 N
9. A box is moving with constant velocity towards right.
4. A car accelerates uniformly from rest to attain a
The net force acting on the box is
speed of 20 m/s after covering a distance of 80 m.
It then decelerates uniformly and comes to rest after (1) Rightwards
covering further a distance of 160 m. The total time
taken for this journey is (2) Zero
(1) 8 s (2) 16 s (3) Towards the centre of gravity
(3) 24 s (4) 12 s (4) Leftwards
Space for Rough Work
1
Aakash National Young Talent Search Exam 2014 Sample Paper (IX Studying)
10. Which of the following graphs correctly shows the 15. The correct molecular formula of sodium sulphite is
variation of universal gravitational constant G with the (1) Na2SO4 (2) Na2S
acceleration due to gravity g ?
(3) Na2SO3 (4) Na2S2O3
16. The ratio by mass of carbon to oxygen in carbon
G G monoxide is
(1) (2) (1) 3 : 8 (2) 8 : 3
g g (3) 1 : 4 (4) 3 : 4
17. Match the following :
Element Valency
G G a. Nitrogen (i) 1
(3) (4) b. Sodium (ii) 2
g g c. Carbon (iii) 3
11. A solution is prepared by addition of 10 g salt in d. Calcium (iv) 4

100 g water. To make the concentration of the (1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
solution 15% (w/w), the amount of salt added to the
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
solution is approximately
18. The rate of evaporation does not increase with
(1) 5.8 g (2) 5.0 g
increasing
(3) 6.9 g (4) 7.6 g
(1) Surface area (2) Temperature
12. Which of the following colloids does not have the
(3) Humidity (4) Wind speed
same dispersion medium as that in the remaining
three? 19. Consider the following process :
(1) Milk of Magnesia (2) Mud X

Liquid
Gas
Y
(3) Butter (4) Milk
X and Y are respectively
13. A gas jar contains 10 g of oxygen gas. In which
condition, the interparticle space between oxygen (1) Vaporisation and sublimation
molecules would decrease? (2) Vaporisation and condensation
(1) Removal of 5 g gas from gas jar (3) Condensation and sublimation
(2) Decreasing pressure (4) Fusion and vaporisation
(3) Addition of more oxygen gas to the same gas jar 20. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(4) Transferring gas to another gas jar having double (1) Formula unit mass of sodium chloride is 58.5 u
volume
(2) Ammonium ion is a polyatomic anion
14. Which of the following is not an element?
(3) Sulphur molecule is octa-atomic
(1) Diamond (2) Brass
(4) The smallest constituent of matter with
(3) Mercury (4) Sulphur independent existence is a molecule
2
21. Which of the following taxa comes before family and 25. Statement 1 – Mitochondria and chloroplasts can
after class? produce their own proteins as they contain
ribosome.
(1) Order (2) Genus
Statement 2 – Energy currency of the cell is
(3) Phylum (4) Division produced by RER.
22. The rod like structure visible during cell division is (1) Both the statements are true
made up of
(2) Both the statements are false
(1) RNA and lipids
(3) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
(2) DNA and proteins (4) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true
(3) DNA and phospholipids 26. What is common to both Marsilea and Ipomoea?
(4) Proteins and phospholipids (1) Both are aquatic plants
23. Which of the following is true for the elements (2) Both are cryptogamae
depicted in the given diagram? (3) Both produce naked seeds
(4) Both are vascular plants
27. Which of the following organisms possess jointed
legs and blood filled coelomic cavity?
(1) Nereis, Leech, Antedon and Asterias
(2) Scolopendra, Musca, Nereis and Leech
(3) Musca, Chiton, Pila and Echinus
(4) Scolopendra, Musca, Aranea and Butterfly
(i) Dead
28. Which of the following are egg laying mammals?
(ii) Contain pits
(1) Anabas and Draco
(iii) Transport water in both directions
(2) Whale and Ostrich
(1) Only (iii) (2) (i) & (ii)
(3) Kangaroo and Pigeon
(3) (i), (ii) & (iii) (4) (i) & (iii)
(4) Platypus and Echidna
24. Which of the following is incorrectly matched? 29. The term protoplasm was coined by
Animal Class Characteristic (1) Purkinje (2) Leeuwenhoek
(1) Ostrich Aves Exoskeleton of feathers (3) Schwann (4) Virchow
(2) Hyla Amphibia Shiny skin 30. __________provides flexibility to plants.
(3) Exocoetus Pisces Breathing through gills (1) Chlorenchyma (2) Sclerenchyma
(4) Draco Reptilia Exoskeleton of hair
(3) Parenchyma (4) Collenchyma
3
SECTION-B : MATHEMATICS
2 36. If 22 x  256 , then the value of x is

31. The decimal representation of is
11
7
(1) (2) 8
(1) 0. 1 (2) 0.17 2
(3) 4 (4) 2
(3) 0.18 (4) 0.19 37. If P(x) = 3x2 + 2x – 4, then P(–1) is equal to
32. The expression 27x3 – 125y3 on factorisation gives (1) –3 (2) 3
(1) (3x – 5y)3 (3) 1 (4) 0
(2) (3x – 5y)(9x2 + 25y2 + 15xy) 38. In parallelogram PQRS, T and U are any two points
on the sides QR and PQ respectively. The ratio of
(3) (3x – 5y) (9x2 + 25y2 – 15xy) ar(PST) to ar(RSU) is
(4) (3x + 5y)3 S R
33. In ABC and PQR, if B = Q and C = R,
then for ABC to be congruent to PQR by ASA
congruence rule, we must have T
(1) BC = PQ (2) AB = PR
(3) AC = PQ (4) BC = QR P Q
U
34. A quadrilateral ABCD is a parallelogram if and only (1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 3
if
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 3 : 2
(1) Its diagonals are perpendicular
39. If a  9  4 5 , then the value of a is
(2) Its diagonals bisect each other
(3) One pair of its opposite sides is parallel (1) 3 − 2 5 (2) 5 5
(4) One pair of its opposite angles is equal 2 5

(3) 5 2 (4)
35. If in ABC, E is the mid-point of median AD, then 40. The expression (2a – 3b)3 + (3b – 5c)3 + (5c – 2a)3
area of BEC is equal to is equal to
1 1 (1) 3(2a – 3b) (3b – 5c) (2a – 5c)

(1) ar (ABC ) (2) ar (ABC )
4 2 (2) 3(2a – 5c) (5c – 3b) (3b – 2a)
(3) –3(2a – 3b) (3b – 5c) (2a – 5c)
1 1
(3) ar (ABC ) (4) ar (ABC )
3 5 (4) 3(a – 3b) (3b – 2c) (2c – a)
4
41. A quadrilateral in which diagonals are equal and 1 1
bisect each other at right angles is a 45. A rational number between and can be
3 2
(1) Rectangle (2) Square 1 2
(1) (2)
(3) Rhombus (4) Kite 5 5
3 4
42. The decimal 0.27 can be expressed in the form (3) (4)
5 5
p
, where p and q are integers and q  0, as 46. The expression 343x3 – 64y3 – 588x2y + 336xy2 is
q
equivalent to
27 5 (1) (4y – 7x)3 (2) (4x – 7y)3
(1) (2)
100 18
(3) (7x – 4y)3 (4) (7y – 4x)3
25 3 47. If area of a parallelogram with sides m and n is P
(3) (4)
99 11 and that of a rectange with sides m and n is R, then
43. The expression (1) P > R (2) P < R
2x 2  3 y 2  z 2  2 6 xy  2 3 yz  2 2 xz (3) P  R (4) P = R
can be factorised as 48. If ABC  PQR and A = 60º, then Q + R is

equal to
(1) ( 2x  3y  z )2 (2) ( 2x  3y  z )2
(1) 30º (2) 120º
2 2
(3) ( 3 x  2y  z ) (4) ( 2 x  3 y  6z ) (3) 60º (4) 300º
44. In the given figure, quadrilateral PQRS is formed by 49. For a square ABCD, BAC + ACD is equal to
the angle bisectors of interior angles of a (1) 45º (2) 60º
parallelogram ABCD. If PS = 6 cm and QS = 10 cm,
then area of quadrilateral PQRS is (3) 90º (4) 130º
50. ABCD is a parallelogram in which BAC = 30° and
D C DOC = 110°. The measure of ODC is
P A B
S 30°
Q
O
R
A B 110°
D C
(1) 80 cm2 (2) 60 cm2 (1) 35° (2) 30°
(3) 48 cm2 (4) 40 cm2 (3) 60° (4) 40°
5
51. The expression 57. The figure formed by joining the mid-points of the
sides of a quadrilateral, taken in order, must be a
(2 x  3y )2  (2x  3y )2  (2x  3y )(2 x  3y )
(1) Square (2) Rhombus
is equal to
(3) Parallelogram (4) Rectangle
(1) 27 x 2  4y 2 (2) 4 x 2  27y 2
58. In the given figure, E is the mid-point of DF and
(3) 12 x 2  9 y 2 (4) 4 x 2  27y 2 AD = DB. If AB = 10 cm, then CF is equal to
52. In the given figure, if PT = VR, RTP = RVP and A
SPT = QRV, then SP is equal to
P V Q
cm
D E
F
10
B C
S R 10
T (1) 2.5 cm (2) cm
(1) VR (2) QR 3
(3) TR (4) PV (3) 5 cm (4) 7.5 cm
53. ABCD is a parallelogram and E is the mid-point of 59. In the given figure, if ABCD is a parallelogram, then
AD. CE and BA are produced to meet at F. If the length of CD is
ar(ABCD) = 36 cm2, then ar(AEF) is equal to
A D
(1) 12 cm2 (2) 9 cm2
8 cm
(3) 36 cm2 (4) 18 cm2 E
54. If AD is the median on side BC of an equilateral 6 cm
ABC, then ADB is equal to
(1) 90º (2) 45º B C
M
(3) 30º (4) 60º 10 cm
55. The expression x 2  (3  2)x  3 2 can be (1) 6 cm (2) 13.3 cm
factorized as (3) 5.5 cm (4) 7.5 cm
(1) ( x  3)( x  2) (2) ( x  3)( x  2) 60. (a  b )( a  b ) is equal to
(3) ( x  3)( x  2) (4) ( x  3)( x  2) (1) a3  b3  ab
56. In ABC, if B > A, then which of the following is (2) a3/2  ab  (ab)1/2  b3/2
always true?
(3) a3/2  b3/2  (ab)3/2
(1) BC > AC (2) AB > AC
(3) AC > BC (4) BC > AB (4) a1/2  b1/2  (ab)1/2  ab
6
SECTION-C : MENTAL ABILITY
61. Look carefully for the number patterns given below Directions for Q.64 & Q.65 : If '+' means '×' , '–' means
and then choose the number that comes at last. '+', '×' means '÷', '÷' means '–' then find the solution of the
2, 5, 11, 23, 47, ? following questions.
64. 16 – 21 × 7 ÷ 10 + 2 = ?
(1) 95 (2) 90
(1) 1 (2) –1
(3) 97 (4) 82
(3) 0 (4) 10
62. Find the mirror image of the following figure as given
below. 1
65. 222 – 22 + 5 ÷ 32 × =?
4
P T (1) 204 (2) 12
R U (3) 1 (4) 198

V
S 66. Five boys took part in a race. Roshan finished before
Zafar but behind Saurav, Devesh finished before
Sohan but behind Zafar. Who won the race?
(1) (2) (1) Roshan (2) Zafar

(3) Saurav (4) Devesh
Directions for Q.67 & Q.68 : The figure (Q) given as the
question figure in each of these problems is folded to
(3) (4) form a cube. Choose from the given alternatives (1), (2),
(3) and (4) the correct answer for these questions.
67. 4 2
Directions for Q. 63 : In the following question arrange
the words in a meaningful logical order and thereby select 1
the appropriate answer option. 6
63. A. Fly B. Elephant 3 5
(Q)
C. Cat D. Whale
Find the number contained in the face opposite to
E. Lion the face containing 3.
(1) ADCEB (2) ACEBD (1) 1 (2) 5
(3) ABCED (4) AECBD (3) 4 (4) None of these
7
68. Find the number contained in the face opposite to 74. Where is Sarla serving?
the face containing 6. (1) Yorkshire (2) Abu Dhabi or Paris
(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) Jakarta (4) Bangkok
(3) 2 (4) 3 75. Where is Shalini working?
69. Find the missing term from the given sequence. (1) Yorkshire (2) Abu Dhabi or Paris
AC, EG, IK, ? (3) Jakarta (4) Bangkok
(1) MO (2) OM Directions for Q.76 & Q.77 : In the following figure, the
smaller triangle represents doctors, the bigger triangle
(3) NP (4) PN
represents teachers, the circle represents females and
Directions for Q.70 & Q.71 : the rectangle represents citizens of Delhi.
A C F J C
L N Q x
G I L P
A B
O Q T y D E H
70. x = ? F G
(1) T (2) M I
(3) U (4) V
71. y = ? On the basis of the above diagram, answer the following
(1) W (2) X questions :
76. Who among the following are doctors but not
(3) R (4) S
females?
72. Find the missing term.
(1) D, E (2) F, G
GFH : EGG : : ? : FSS
(3) A, B (4) C, H
(1) GHF (2) HGF 77. Who among the following teachers are neither
(3) HRT (4) GEF females nor doctors?
Directions for Q.73 to 75 : Five girls Sheela, Sarla, Shalini, (1) C, H (2) F, I
Vini and Usha are serving in Yorkshire, Abu Dhabi, Jakarta, (3) E, G (4) A, I
Paris and Bangkok. The places of service are not in the
78. How many squares are there in the given figure?
serial order as the names are mentioned. Sheela and Usha
do not serve in Jakarta or Bangkok. Sarla and Shalini are
not serving in Abu Dhabi or Paris. Vini has nothing to do
with Jakarta or Abu Dhabi. Shalini is not in Jakarta and
Vini is neither in Bangkok nor in Paris.
73. Where is Sheela serving?
(1) Yorkshire (2) Abu Dhabi or Paris (1) 20 (2) 22
(3) Jakarta (4) Bangkok (3) 30 (4) 34
8
79. If animals that live on land and the animals that live 80. Find the correct option that best completes the figure.
in water are represented by two circles and there are
animals that live on land and in water both. The
relationship between all the three classes of animals
can be best represented in figure as ?
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)

9
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075 Ph.: 011-47623456
Aakash National Young T

Young alent Search Exam 2014
Talent
(For IX Studying)
Sample Paper
ANSWERS
1. (1) 17. (1) 33. (4) 49. (3) 65. (1)

2. (1) 18. (3) 34. (2) 50. (4) 66. (3)
3. (1) 19. (2) 35. (2) 51. (2) 67. (1)
4. (3) 20. (2) 36. (3) 52. (2) 68. (3)
5. (1) 21. (1) 37. (1) 53. (2) 69. (1)
6. (3) 22. (2) 38. (3) 54. (1) 70. (3)
7. (1) 23. (2) 39. (3) 55. (2) 71. (2)
8. (3) 24. (4) 40. (3) 56. (3) 72. (3)
9. (2) 25. (3) 41. (2) 57. (3) 73. (2)
10. (2) 26. (4) 42. (2) 58. (3) 74. (3)
11. (4) 27. (4) 43. (2) 59. (4) 75. (4)
12. (3) 28. (4) 44. (3) 60. (2) 76. (3)
13. (3) 29. (1) 45. (2) 61. (1) 77. (1)
14. (2) 30. (4) 46. (3) 62. (3) 78. (3)
15. (3) 31. (3) 47. (2) 63. (2) 79. (2)
16. (4) 32. (2) 48. (2) 64. (2) 80. (3)
Suggested Time : 40 Mins.
SAMPLE PAPER
Paper-I : Ap
Apttitud
itude & G
ude ener
General Kno
eneral Knowwledge
4. A cuboid is painted in 6 colours – Green, Blue,

SECTION - A
Yellow, Violet, Red and Orange. Two positions are
Analytical & Quantitative Aptitude Questions shown below :
Orange
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions numbered
1 to 7. Each question has 4 choices, out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
Green
Yellow
Choose the correct answer : Blue
1. Which two numbers come next in the sequence?
Green
* Red
0 2 7 9 26 28 ? ? Orange
Violet
(1) 63, 65
(2) 36, 39
(3) 36, 49
What is the colour of the zone marked with
(4) 56, 63
mark?
2. The sides of a quadrilateral are all positive integers
*
(1) Green (2) Yellow
and three of them are 5, 10, 20. How many possible
values are there for the fourth side? (3) Violet (4) Blue
(1) 29 5. A sheet of paper is folded along the arrows and

then cut in the manner shown in the following
(2) 31 figures. How would it look like when unfolded?
(3) 32
(4) 34
3. If the volume of a sphere increases by 72.8%, then
its surface area increases by
(1) 20%
(1) (2)
(2) 24%
(3) 40%
(3) (4)
(4) 44%
1
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam.-2011 Sample Paper
6. Two lines BD and GD are drawn on the faces of an (v) D is the father of B, the grandfather of G and is
imaginary cube shown below. Both lines converge at an engineer.
point D. Can you calculate the angle between these
(vi) No lady is either an Engineer or a Lawyer.
two diagonal lines? B C
(1) 90° (vii) G, who is a student, is the grandson of E.
A
D 10. Which one of the following is a married couple?
(2) 120°
(3) 60° E (1) BF (2) AC
(4) 75° G F (3) BD (4) DE
7. Mira is eleventh from either end of a row of girls.
How many girls are there in that row? SECTION - C
(1) 20 (2) 21 General Knowledge
(3) 22 (4) 23 This section contains 5 multiple choice questions numbered
11 to 15. Each question has 4 choices, out of which ONLY
SECTION - B ONE is correct.
Verbal & Reading Aptitude Questions
11. The Vice-President is elected by
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions numbered
8 to 10. Each question has 4 choices, out of which ONLY (1) The people
ONE is correct. (2) The electoral college which elects the President
8. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank in the (3) The members of both Houses of Parliament
following sentence :
(4) Also by the members of the State Legislatures
The King’s __________ fell ill during his journey and
was unable to negotiate on his behalf when he 12. Aqua regia used by alchemists to separate silver
arrived at the economic summit. and gold is a mixture of
(1) Zealot (2) Emissary (1) Hydrochloric acid (concentrated) and nitric acid
(3) Miscreant (4) Denizen (concentrated)
9. Given below are four sentences. Each has a pair of (2) Hydrochloric acid (concentrated) and sulphuric
words that are italicized and highlighted. Select the acid (concentrated)
most appropriate word (A or B) to form correct (3) Nitric acid (concentrated) and sulphuric acid
sentences. The sentences are followed by options (concentrated)
that indicate the words, which may be selected to
correctly complete the set of sentences. From the (4) Hydrochloric acid (dilute) and sulphuric acid
options given, choose the most appropriate one (dilute)
(A) We were not successful in defusing (A) / 13. What was the motto for the 2010 Common Wealth
diffusing (B) the guru’s idea Games?
(B) The hoard (A) / horde (B) rushed into the (1) Come out and play (2) Participate and enjoy
campus
(3) Fight to win (4) Jeet lo
(C) They heard the bells peeling (A) / pealing (B)
14. Which of the following books has not been written
far and wide
by Marx?
(D) Jeans that flair (A) / flare (B) at the bottom, are
in fashion these days (1) The Communist Manifesto
(1) BBBA (2) BBBB (2) Das Capital
(3) BBAA (4) BBAB (3) Wealth of the Nations
Direction for Q.No. 10 : Using the following information, (4) The Critique of Political Economy
answer the question that follow :
15. As we all know Child labour is totally banned in
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members of India. As per the “Child Labour Prohibition &
the family.
Regulation Act”, ‘Child’ means a person who has
(ii) Six of them have a different profession of not completed
Accountant, Lawyer, Teacher, Manager, Doctor,
Engineer and one is a student. (1) 18 years of his/her age
(iii) There are two married couples in the family. (2) 16 years of his/her age
(iv) A and F’s professions are Accountant and (3) 14 years of his/her age
Doctor respectively. (4) 20 years of his/her age
2
Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam.-2011
Paper II : Science & Mathemat ics

Mathematics
16. Find the equivalent resistance between C and D 20. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) Boron rods are used as control rods in nuclear
R R
reactors
C B
R (2) Biogas is a mixture of methane, carbon dioxide,
R 2R hydrogen and hydrogen sulphide
2R R 2R
(3) Nuclear fission is involved in making of atom
bomb
R R
A 2R (4) 200 keV energy is released in nuclear fission
D
R R reactions
21. Alums used for purifying water are chemically
(1) R (2) 4R
(1) Double chlorides
(3) 2R (4) R/2
(2) Double sulphates
17. Four wires of a cube of side a carry equal current i
in the direction shown in figure. If a uniform magnetic (3) Sulphates of aluminium

field (B ) along positive y-axis exists in space, then (4) Hydrated nitrates
(i) The force on wire 1 is in negative x-direction 22. Which of these reactions will not occur?
(ii) The force on wire 2 is in negative z-direction (1) Copper rod kept in silver nitrate solution
(iii) The force on wire 3 is zero (2) Zinc rod kept in iron sulphate solution
(iv) The force on wire 4 is in positive z-direction (3) Iron rod kept in magnesium sulphate solution
z
(4) Zinc rod kept in copper sulphate solution
3
23. Which of the following acts as the reducing agent in
2
a thermite reaction?
4
(1) Carbon
1 y
(2) Aluminium
(3) Hydrogen sulphide
x
(1) (i) & (ii) are true (4) Hydrogen
(2) (iii) & (iv) are true 24. Match the following in Column-I with Column-II
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true but (iv) is wrong Column- I Column- II
(4) All are correct (Chemical Name) (Common Name)
18. A bar magnet is falling freely through a conducting a. Sodium carbonate (i) Baking soda
ring. The acceleration of the magnet is
b. Sodium hydrogen (ii) Bleaching powder
(1) Equal to g
carbonate
(2) Greater than g
c. Calcium sulphate (iii) Soda ash
(3) Less than g hemihydrate
(4) Net upward acceleration
d. Calcium oxychloride (iv) Plaster of Paris
19. What is current in a gas discharge tube if 3.0 × 1017
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
electrons and 2.0 × 1016 positive ions pass through a
cross-section of the tube each second? (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(1) 0.0448 A (2) 0.448 A (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(3) 0.51 A (4) 0.051 A (4) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
3
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam.-2011 Sample Paper
25. Arrange the following in increasing order of hydrogen 29. When renal artery carrying waste and excess water
ion concentration from body enters kidney and forms a capillary
dil. HCl, conc. HCl, dil. NaOH, conc. NaOH, Pure water cluster known as A which remains associated
with a cup-shaped part of nephron.
(1) dil. HCl < conc. HCl < Pure water < conc.
NaOH < dil. NaOH Identify A in above statement
(2) conc. NaOH < dil. NaOH < Pure water < dil. (1) A – Tubular part of nephron
HCl < conc. HCl
(2) A – Malpighian body
(3) conc. NaOH < conc. HCl < Pure water < dil.
NaOH < dil. HCl (3) A – Glomerulus
(4) conc. NaOH < conc. HCl < dil. NaOH < dil. HCl (4) A – Bowman’s capsule
< Pure water
30. In the diagram given below, choose the correct
26. The part of human brain which controls the body answer for labelling indicated by A, B and C
temperature and the desire for eating is
(1) Pons C
(2) Cerebellum B
(3) Medulla
A
(4) Hypothalamus
27. Identify the mismatched pairs among the following
(1) A – Xylem, B – Cambium, C – Phloem
(i) Basic filtration unit in the kidney – Nephron (2) A – Xylem, B – Pericycle, C – Phloem
(ii) Abnormal increase in RBCs number in blood – (3) A – Pith, B – Phloem, C – Xylem
Polycythemia (4) A – Xylem, B – Cambium, C – Pericycle
(iii) Diaphragm dome-shaped – Expiration 31. Sides of ΔABC are subdivided into six equal parts as
(iv) Oxyntic cells–Pepsinogen shown in the figure below. Areas of ΔP2Q3R4 and
ΔABC are in the ratio
(v) Guard cells–Only green epidermal cells with
A
thick outer wall
R1 Q1
Select the correct option among the following R2 Q2
alternatives R3 Q3
R4 Q4
(1) (i), (iii) & (v) only
R5 O Q5
(2) (i), (ii) & (iv) only
(3) (i), (iv) & (v) only B C
P1 P2 P3 P4 P5
(4) (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v) only (1) 3 : 16 (2) 9 : 64
(3) 9 : 16 (4) 2 : 9
28. A Manufacture’s B Packages and
protein dispatches them 32. A tower PQ subtends an angle β at point O on the
to target ground. A flagstaff QR stands on the tower and
subtends angle α at the same point O. Height of the
Give the names of cell organelles labelled ‘A’ and ‘B’ n
respectively in above flow chart tower is 3 times the flagstaff. If OP  PR , then
m
tan α =
(1) A – E.R. and B – Vesicle
nm nm
(2) A – R.E.R. and B – Golgi apparatus (1) (2)
4n 2  3m2 4m 2  3n 2
(3) A – S.E.R. and B – Golgi apparatus
4nm 3mn
(4) A – R.E.R. and B – Lysosome (3) (4)
4n 2  3m2 4m 2  3n 2
4
Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam.-2011
33. Find the greatest number of 5 digits, which is 37. If in ΔABC, BD ⊥ AC, ∠BAC = 2α, ∠BCD = α,
exactly divisible by 7, 10, 15, 21 and 28 AB = c, AD = d and CD = e, then find the relation
between c, d and e
(1) 99840
B
(2) 99900
(3) 99960
(4) 99990
34. 1020 – 7 is divisible by 2 
A C
(1) 2 D
e
(2) 3 (1) c + d = e (2) c  d 
2
(3) 9 (3) c + d = 2e (4) 2c + d = e
(4) Both (1) & (2) 38. A trader professes to sell his goods at a loss of 8%
35. If both 112 and 33 are the factors of the number but weighs 900 g in place of 1 kg weight. His real
loss or gain percent is
a × 4 3 × 6 2 × 1311 , then what is the smallest
possible value of a? (1) 2% loss (2) 2.22% gain
(1) 121 (3) 2.22% loss (4) 2% gain
(2) 3267 144

39. A sum of money grows to times when invested
121
(3) 363
for two years in a scheme where interest is
(4) 33 compounded annually. The same sum of money
36. Rahul and Rajeev share the same birthday. Rahul is shall take ‘X’ years to triple under simple interest.
X is
twice as old as Rajeev was when Rahul was as old
as Rajeev is now. If Rahul is 24, how old is Rajeev (1) 9 years (2) 18 years
now? (3) 22 years (4) 33 years
(1) 6 40. The measure of central tendency that is most
affected by a few large or small values among
(2) 12 observations is
(3) 18 (1) Mean (2) Median
(4) 24 (3) Mode (4) Range

5
SAMPLE PAPER
(Paper-I & Paper II)
ANSWERS
1. (1) 9. (2) 17. (3) 25. (2) 33. (3)
2. (1) 10. (4) 18. (3) 26. (4) 34. (2)
3. (4) 11. (3) 19. (4) 27. (3) 35. (3)
4. (3) 12. (1) 20. (4) 28. (2) 36. (3)
5. (4) 13. (1) 21. (2) 29. (3) 37. (1)
6. (3) 14. (3) 22. (3) 30. (1) 38. (2)
7. (2) 15. (3) 23. (2) 31. (4) 39. (3)
8. (2) 16. (1) 24. (2) 32. (1) 40. (1)
6
SAMPLE PAPER
NATIONAL
TALENT HUNT EXAM

2012
Science & Mathematics
Mental Ability & General Knowledge
Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sector-11, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075. Ph.: (011) 47623456
Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012

Part – I
SECTION - A : SCIENCE
Choose the correct answer :
1. The I-V graph of four resistors A, B, C and D is given 3. Bio-gas is rich in
below. If all the four resistors are of the same length
(1) Methane (2) Propane
and same material, then the resistor having the
minimum cross-sectional area is (3) Ethane (4) Butane
A 4. _______ between the different layers of water in the

B ocean is used to produced energy in OTEC plants.
C (1) Tidal energy (2) Temperature difference
I (3) Waves (4) Depth
D
5. An AC generator can be converted into a DC
V generator by replacing
(1) A (2) B (1) Its armature with a coil
(3) C (4) D (2) Its concave magnets
2. A wire PQ of length l and area of cross-section A is (3) Its slip rings with split rings
connected to a supply of V volt as shown in the
(4) Two brushes with four brushes
figure given below.
6. If an alternating current changes its direction after
V
1
every s, then its frequency is
120
P Q
A (1) 50 Hz (2) 45 Hz
(3) 60 Hz (4) 70 Hz
7. In the following circuit, the equivalent resistance
V between points A and B is
If the length of the wire is doubled and its area of 1.5  1.5  1
cross-section halved, then the reading of the A
ammeter and the voltmeter respectively
3 3 2
(1) Increases, increases
(2) Increases, remains the same B
(3) Decreases, remains the same (1) 1.5 Ω (2) 3 Ω
(4) Remains the same, remains the same (3) 6 Ω (4) 2 Ω
1
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012 Sample Paper
8. The given figure shows the magnetic field pattern in 12. If a solution turns blue litmus red, its pH is likely to
a region. Which of the following is the correct be
relation regarding the strength of the magnetic fields (1) 4 (2) 8
BA, BB and BC?
(3) 10 (4) 13
13. The brown surface of copper becomes black on
heating in air. When hydrogen gas is passed over
BA BB BC this black surface, it turns
(1) Brown (2) Green
(3) Red (4) White
(1) BA = BB < BC (2) BA = BB = BC
14. 3MnO2 + bAl ⎯→ 3Mn + aAl2O3 + Heat
(3) BA = BB > BC (4) BA < BB < BC
The values of a and b for the above reaction are
9. The V - I graph of a metal cube is shown in the
figure. If the length of the conductor is 2 m, then (1) 4, 2 respectively (2) 2, 4 respectively
resistivity of the material is (3) 2, 2 respectively (4) 4, 3 respectively
V (V) 15. During the electrolytic refining of copper, the anode
30 is made up of
20 (1) Pure copper (2) Impure copper
10 (3) Graphite (4) Pure tin
16. Apart from sodium, which element among the
I (A)
5 10 15 following is kept immersed in kerosene oil?
(1) 10 Ωm (2) 2 Ωm (1) Magnesium (2) Zinc
(3) 4 Ωm (4) 5 Ωm (3) Potassium (4) Lead

10. Which of the following is correct? 17. How many molecules of water of crystallisation are
present in one molecule of gypsum?
(1) Magnetic force depends on the mass of charge
(1) 10 (2) 2
(2) Magnetic force acts in the direction of current
(3) Magnetic force does work on a moving charge 1
(3) (4) 5
2
(4) Magnetic force can accelerate a charge
11. Anode mud is formed during 18. Which of the following is a sulphide ore?
(1) Anodising (2) Electrolytic refining (1) Haematite (2) Bauxite
(3) Galvanization (4) Corrosion (3) Cinnabar (4) Magnetite
2
19. xPb(NO3)2 ⎯→ xPbO + yNO2 + zO2 25. The initiating step in photosynthesis is the
The values of x, y and z respectively are (1) Formation of ATP and NADPH
(1) 2, 2, 4 (2) 2, 4, 1 (2) Reduction of carbon dioxide to glucose
(3) 2, 4, 2 (4) 1, 2, 1 (3) Photolysis of water
20. If a solution turns pH paper yellow, then the pH range (4) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
of the solution is
26. Stomatal pores open, when the guard cells
(1) 1 - 2 (2) 5 - 6
(1) Swell up due to endosmosis
(3) 8 - 9 (4) 7 - 8
(2) Shrink due to exosmosis
21. The cork cells become impervious to water, gases
and nutrients due to the deposition of (3) Swell up due to exosmosis
(1) Lignin (2) Suberin (4) Shrink due to endosmosis
(3) Pectin (4) Oxalic acid 27. The very first enzyme to act on starch, present in
food, is secreted by
22. A cell organelle ‘X’, responsible for synthesis of
proteins is produced by a structure ‘Y’, which is (1) Pancreas (2) Gastric glands
located inside another organelle ‘Z’. Identify X, Y (3) Small intestine (4) Salivary glands
and Z.
28. Sphygmomanometer reading of a patient as mentioned
(1) X-RER, Y-Nucleolus, Z-Mitochondria
by a doctor is 140/60. 140 and 60 represent
(2) X-RER, Y-Golgi apparatus, Z-Nucleus
(1) Normal systolic and diastolic pressure
(3) X-Nucleolus, Y-Nucleus, Z-RER
(2) Abnormal systolic and diastolic pressure
(4) X-Ribosome, Y-Nucleolus, Z-Nucleus
(3) Normal systolic and abnormal diastolic pressure
23. Which of the following elements is necessary to
prevent goitre? (4) Abnormal systolic and normal diastolic pressure
(1) Calcium (2) Iron 29. The contraceptive device copper-T, is placed in the
(3) Iodine (4) Copper (1) Vagina (2) Uterus
24. Which of the following is incorrect? (3) Ovary (4) Fallopian tube
(1) Vena cava carries deoxygenated blood 30. Which part of the brain is damaged if a person is
(2) Nephron is the basic filtration unit of kidneys unable to maintain the balance and posture of his
body?
(3) Bile juice is stored in the gall bladder
(1) Cerebrum (2) Medulla
(4) Both kidneys are present in the pelvic region at
the same height (3) Cerebellum (4) Pons
3
SECTION - B : MATHEMATICS
31. If k, l and m are the zeroes of the polynomial 37. What percent of 15 is 15 percent of 1?
6x3 + 5x2 + 4x – 1, then the value of k–1 + l–1 + m–1 is
(1) 0.01 (2) 0.001
1 5 (3) 0.0001 (4) 1
(1) (2)
4 6 38. The number of integral divisors of 720 is
4 (1) 15 (2) 20
(3) (4) 4
6 (3) 25 (4) 30
32. Mohit textiles marks their clothes up by 60%
39. The average weight of Anil, Mohan and Sohan is
subsequently offering a discount of 30%. The net
45 kg. If the average weight of Anil and Mohan is
profit made by them after offering the discount is
40 kg and that of Mohan and Sohan is 43 kg, then
(1) 7.5% (2) 10% the weight of Mohan is
(3) 12% (4) 15% (1) 31 kg (2) 34 kg
33. If (1 + cotA – cosecA) (1 + tanA + secA) = 2x2, (3) 35 kg (4) 38 kg
then the possible value of x is
3
1 40. In an acute angled ΔABC, if sin(A + B – C) = ,
2
(1) 0 (2) then angle C is equal to
2
(3) 1 (4) 2 (1) 30° (2) 45°
34. In an equilateral triangle ABC, D is a point on side (3) 60° (4) 90°
1 41. If a five digit number is written as pqrst, then the
BC such that BD  BC . The ratio of AD2 and AB2 difference of pqrst and prsqt will always be divisible
4
is by
(1) 11 : 16 (2) 7 : 9 (1) 9 (2) 18
(3) 9 : 16 (4) 13 : 16 (3) 45 (4) All of these
35. The number of different positive integers lying 42. HCF of three numbers taken pairwise is 2. If the
between 1015 and 1016, the sum of whose digits is LCM of the three numbers is 59976, then the product
equal to 2 is of the three numbers taken together is
(1) 16 (2) 24 (1) 2592 (2) 46656
(3) 36 (4) 64 (3) 31426 (4) 239904
36. For getting a ‘less than’ Ogive, we plot the graph of
43. The average of n non-zero numbers is zero. Out of
(1) Cumulative frequency with upper limits them at least, how many numbers may be greater
(2) Cumulative frequency with lower limits than zero?
(3) Cumulative frequency with classmark (1) 0 (2) 1
(4) Cumulative frequency with range (3) n/2 (4) n – 1
4
44. If a and b are the zeroes of the polynomial 49. If f(x) is a quadratic polynomial such that f(2) = – 3
f(x) = x 2 – 6x + 8, then the value of and f( –2) = 21, then the coefficient of x in f(x) is
a 1  b –1 a 1  b –1
 is (1) 4 (2) 7
a 1 b –1
(3) – 6 (4) – 3
3 5
(1) (2)
2 2 50. ABCD is a rectangle in which AB = 2AD. P and Q
are mid-points of AD and AB respectively. If BP and
10
(3) 5 (4) DQ intersect at R, then the ratio of the area of
3
quad BRDC and ar(Δ BAP)
45. Two ogives for a particular data, one ‘less than’ type
and other ‘more than’ type, intersect each other at (1) 1 : 5 (2) 4 : 2
a point P(a, b). The value of b is (3) 8 : 3 (4) 7 : 2
(1) Median of the data
2p
(2) Frequency of the data 51. If 0 < θ < 90°, sinθ + cosθ = p and q  ,
p2  1
(3) Half the frequency of the data
then q is equal to
(4) Half the median of the data
(1) sinθ – cosθ (2) cosθ + secθ
46. Which of the following can be the HCF and LCM of
two numbers? (3) secθ + cosecθ (4) cosecθ – cosθ
(1) HCF = 15, LCM = 155 52. ABCD is a trapezium. If diagonals AC and BD
intersect at O such that perimeter of ΔAOB = 30 cm
(2) HCF = 24, LCM = 1008
ar( AOB )
(3) HCF = 24, LCM = 252 and perimeter of ΔCOD = 15 cm, then
ar( COD )
(4) HCF = 22, LCM = 422
is
47. If cosθ + sinθ = 2 cos  , then cosθ – sinθ is equal (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
to
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
(1) 2 (2) 2 sin

53. If A  B  , then (tanA + 1) (tanB + 1) is equal to
(3) 2 tan  (4) 2 cot  2
48. If X axis and Y axis form two triangles Δ1 and Δ2 (1) cosecA secA
with lines 3x + y = 3 and 2x + y = 7 respectively,
then the ratio of areas of Δ1 to Δ2 is (2) 2 + cosecA + secA
(1) 7 : 3 (2) 6 : 7 (3) 2 cosecA secA
(3) 6 : 49 (4) 36 : 7 (4) 2 + cosecA secA
5
sec   1 sec   1 1
54. The value of  is 58. If p   q , then for p > 0
sec   1 sec   1 p
(1) 2/cosecθ (2) cosecθ (1) q = 0
(3) 2cosecθ (4) sinθ (2) q ≥ 0
55. If a person sold his watch for Rs. 144 and got a (3) –2 < q < 2
percentage of profit equal to the cost price, then the
(4) q ≤ –2
cost price of the watch is
59. If ABC is a triangle right angled at B and M, N are
(1) Rs. 80 (2) Rs. 88
the mid-points of AB and BC, then 4(AN2 + CM2) is
(3) Rs. 84 (4) Rs. 83 equal to
56. If x + y = 1, then the value of x3 + y3 + 3xy is (1) 4 AC2 (2) 5 AC2
(1) 1 (2) 0 (3) 6 AC2 (4) AC2
(3) 2 (4) 3 60. The ratio of inradius to the circumradius of an
57. If a certain number divides 232 + 1, then which of equilateral triangle is
the following is also divisible by the same number?
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1: 2
(1) 296 + 1 (2) 216 – 1
(3) 216 + 1 (4) 7 × 233 (3) 2 : 5 (4) 2: 3
Part – II
SECTION - A : MENTAL ABILITY
This section contains 40 multiple choice questions numbered 61 to 100. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4),
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. If LADI is coded as 52, then TERG is coded as 63. Which is the incorrect number in the following
sequence?
(1) 100 (2) 50
2, 5, 10, 18, 26, 37, 50
(3) 25 (4) 75
(1) 18 (2) 26
62. If the day before yesterday was Sunday, then when (3) 37 (4) 50
will Friday be?
64. If SITA is coded as UGVY, then MONK is coded as
(1) Two days after today (2) Three days after today (1) OMLI (2) OMPI
(3) Tomorrow (4) Day after tomorrow (3) OKLI (4) OMKI
6
65. If JAIPOR is coded as 019658, then PIAJRO is Directions (Q.70 & Q.71) :
coded as
(i) P + Q means P is the son of Q
(1) 690185
(ii) P – Q means P is the wife of Q
(2) 691805
(iii) P × Q means P is the brother of Q
(3) 691080
(iv) P ÷ Q means P is the mother of Q
(4) 691085
(v) P = Q means P is the sister of Q
66. In a certain code, "Beautiful I peacock saw" is given
by "ACDE", "girl beautiful nature" is given by "AFB", 70. What does A + C – B mean?
"worship saw peacock" is given by "GEC" and "Saw
I beautiful" is given by "EDA". Which of the following (1) B is the father of A
is the code for "Peacock I beautiful"? (2) B is the son of A
(1) AEG (2) GAE (3) B is the uncle of A
(3) GDA (4) CDA (4) B is the brother of A
67. A clock is showing 3:30 pm. If at that instant,
71. What does A = C + B mean?
the minute hand of the clock is pointing in the
North-East direction, then the hour hand is pointing (1) A is the aunt of B
towards
(2) A is the daughter of B
(1) North (2) West
(3) A is the niece of B
(3) North-West (4) South-West
(4) A is the sister of B
68. In a row of trees, a tree is the fifteenth from either
end of the row. How many trees are there in the 72. If A is 60 m South-West of B and C is 60 m
row? South-East of the B, then C is in which direction
w.r.t. A?
(1) 28 (2) 29
(1) East (2) West
(3) 30 (4) 31
69. How many squares does the following figure contain? (3) North-East (4) South
73. In the following number sequence, how many such

even numbers are there which are exactly divisible
by their immediate preceding number but not exactly
divisible by their immediate following number?
4782679365024681
(1) 17 (2) 19 (1) 0 (2) 2
(3) 21 (4) 27 (3) 3 (4) 1
7
Directions (Q.74 & Q.75) : Choose the correct mirror 76. Rajesh is 7 ranks ahead of Sumit in a class of 49.
image of the given figure from among the four given If Sumit's rank is seventeenth from the last, what is
alternatives. Rajesh's rank from the start?
(1) 14th (2) 24th
(3) 26th (4) 27th
74. Directions (Q.77 to Q.79) : The following questions are

based on the diagram given below :
15
25
11
16 7 12
(1) (2) 9 2 13
5
21
(i) Rectangle represents males
(3) (4) (ii) Triangle represents engineers
(iii) Circle represents urban
(iv) Square represents doctors
77. Who among the following is a male engineer who is

75. not an urban resident?
(1) 16 (2) 5
(3) 7 (4) 13
78. Who among the following is an urban male doctor?
(1) (2) (1) 7 (2) 11
(3) 12 (4) 13
79. Who among the following is only a doctor but not a
male nor hails from urban area?
(3) (4) (1) 13 (2) 11
(3) 15 (4) 12
8
80. Find the missing number. 84. DTP : FWT : : STD : ?
(1) UWH (2) V WI
7
286 16 (3) UVE (4) UWF
85. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word
'PRAKASHAN' each of which have as many letters
142 34 between them as in the English Alphabet?
? (1) None (2) One
(1) 68 (2) 70 (3) Two (4) Three
(3) 66 (4) 62 86. Find the odd one out.

(1) Mango (2) Banana
Directions (Q.81 & Q.82) : Insert the correct missing
number from the choices given below : (3) Apple (4) Carrot
81. 87. Complete the series.
3 4 5
?
6 7 8
7 8 9
39 52 ?
(1)
(1) 61 (2) 67
(3) 72 (4) 84
82. (2)
2 4 6
3 5 ?
8 24 54
(3)
(1) 7 (2) 8
(3) 9 (4) 12
83. Weaver : Cotton : : Tailor : ?
(1) Fibre (2) Thread (4)
(3) Clothes (4) Food
9
Directions (Q.88 to Q.90) : Given below are three 93. The missing value in given arrangement is
positions of the same cube having numbers 1 to 6 written
on its six faces. Answer questions 88 to 90 after a
careful study of the three positions of the cube.
3 8 12
4
3 4 5 16 40
1 6
4 21 ?
4
1
6 (1) 50 (2) 52
(3) 42 (4) 36
88. Which number is on the face opposite to 6? 94. Find the missing number.
(1) 2 (2) 3 15, 25, 40, 65, ?, 195
(3) 4 (4) 1 (1) 115 (2) 110
89. The bottom face in the first figure is numbered (3) 90 (4) 105
(1) 6 (2) 2 95. Four girls are sitting on a bench to be photographed.

Shikha is to the left of Pinky. Manisha is to the right
(3) 5 (4) 1 of Pinky. Anu is between Pinky and Manisha. Who
would be second from right in the photograph?
90. The number on the face opposite to 1 is
(1) Manisha (2) Pinky
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) Shikha (4) Anu
(3) 6 (4) 3
96. If in a certain language: white is called blue, blue is
91. A and B can do a piece of work in 9 days, B and called red, red is called yellow, yellow is called
C can do it in 12 days and A and C can do it in 18 green, green is called black, black is called violet,
days. If A, B and C work together, then the work and violet is called orange. What would be the colour
would be finished in of human blood in that language?
(1) 6 days (2) 7 days (1) Red (2) Green
(3) 8 days (4) 4 days (3) Yellow (4) Blue
92. A clock is correctly set at 8 a.m. The clock gains 97. If 'p' stands for division, 'q' for multiplication, 'r' for
10 minutes in 24 hours. When the clock indicates addition and 's' for subtraction, then the value of
3 p.m. on the following day, the actual time is 18p6q3r2s15p3 is
(1) 2:50 p.m. (2) 3:10 p.m. (1) 15 (2) 11
(3) 2:48 p.m. (4) 2:40 p.m. (3) 8 (4) 6
10
Directions (Q.98 to Q.99) : These questions follow a set
of three figures X, Y and Z showing a sequence of folding
99.
of a piece of paper. Z shows the manner in which the
folder paper has been cut. These three figures are followed
X Y Z
by the four answer figures. Out of these four you have to
choose a figure which would most closely resemble the
unfolded form of Z. (1) (2)
98.
(3) (4)
X Y Z
100. Having reached the place of meeting 20 minutes
before 6:30 p.m., Prachi found herself 55 minutes
(1) (2) earlier than the scheduled time. What was the
scheduled time of meeting?
(1) 7:00 p.m. (2) 7:05 p.m.
(3) (4)
(3) 7:15 p.m. (4) 7:25 p.m.
SECTION - B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

101. Where is the National Physical Laboratory located? 104. The Parliament of USA is known as
(1) Ahmedabad (2) Pune (1) Federal Assembly (2) Diet
(3) New Delhi (4) Lucknow (3) Knesset (4) Congress
102. Which canal connects the Mediterranean Sea to the 105. Kourou city is well known for
Red Sea?
(1) Port facilities
(1) Erie Canal (2) Indira Gandhi Canal
(2) Racial problems
(3) Panama Canal (4) Suez Canal
(3) Satellite launching
103. Who was the last Mughal emperor of India?
(4) Volcanic eruptions
(1) Nadir Shah
106. Man passed from the food-gathering stage to the
(2) Aurangzeb food-producing stage in the
(3) Bahadurshah Zafar (1) Paleolithic age (2) Neolithic age
(4) Jehangir (3) Chalcolithic age (4) Mesolithic age
11
107. "Satyameva Jayate" has been taken from 114. During the British era, which city was the capital of
India before Delhi?
(1) Mundak upanishad
(1) Patna (2) Lucknow
(2) Rig veda
(3) Calcutta (4) Bombay
(3) Katho upanishad 115. Bismillah Khan was a legendary _______ Maestro.
(4) Atharva veda (1) Sitar (2) Shehnai
108. The forest area known as 'silent valley' is in (3) Tabla (4) Bansuri
116. Our national anthem was first sung in the year
(1) Kerala (2) Uttarakhand
(1) 1911 (2) 1913
(3) Nagaland (4) Karnataka
(3) 1936 (4) 1935
109. Martyrs' day is celebrated on 117. The author of book "The Discovery of India" is
(1) 24 January (2) 26 January (1) B.R. Ambedkar (2) Mahatma Gandhi
(3) 28 January (4) 30 January (3) J.L. Nehru (4) S.C. Bose
110. Angkor Wat temples are found in 118. Which Greek goddess of victory is depicted on the
Olympic medals?
(1) Nilgiri Hills (2) Belgium (1) Athena (2) Aphrodite
(3) Cambodia (4) Palestine (3) Nike (4) Hera
111. The outermost layer of the Sun is 119. The first Indian to win an individual Olympic gold
medal is
(1) Corona (2) Lithosphere
(1) Vijender Singh
(3) Medulla (4) Photosphere
(2) Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore
112. Who is called the 'Father of Indian Cinema'?
(3) Abhinav Bindra
(1) Ramanand Sagar (2) Amitabh Bachchan
(4) Khashaba Jadav
(3) Dada Saheb Phalke (4) Prithviraj Kapoor
120. Who won the first Indian Grand prix Formula One
113. When is the Independence day of Pakistan
world championship?
celebrated?
(1) January 25 (2) August 14 (1) Jenson Button (2) Mark Webber
(3) August 15 (4) August 16 (3) Michael Schumacher (4) Sebestian Vettel

12
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
Sample Paper
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam.-2012
ANSWERS
1. (4) 31. (4) 61. (1) 91. (3)
2. (3) 32. (3) 62. (1) 92. (3)
3. (1) 33. (3) 63. (1) 93. (3)
4. (2) 34. (4) 64. (2) 94. (2)
5. (3) 35. (1) 65. (4) 95. (4)
6. (3) 36. (1) 66. (4) 96. (3)
7. (2) 37. (4) 67. (3) 97. (4)
8. (3) 38. (4) 68. (2) 98. (4)
9. (3) 39. (1) 69. (4) 99. (1)
10. (4) 40. (3) 70. (1) 100. (2)
11. (2) 41. (4) 71. (2) 101. (3)
12. (1) 42. (4) 72. (1) 102. (4)
13. (1) 43. (2) 73. (3) 103. (3)
14. (2) 44. (2) 74. (1) 104. (4)
15. (2) 45. (3) 75. (1) 105. (3)
16. (3) 46. (2) 76. (3) 106. (2)
17. (2) 47. (2) 77. (2) 107. (1)
18. (3) 48. (3) 78. (1) 108. (1)
19. (2) 49. (3) 79. (3) 109. (4)
20. (2) 50. (3) 80. (2) 110. (3)
21. (2) 51. (3) 81. (2) 111. (1)
22. (4) 52. (3) 82. (2) 112. (3)
23. (3) 53. (4) 83. (3) 113. (2)
24. (4) 54. (3) 84. (1) 114. (3)
25. (4) 55. (1) 85. (2) 115. (2)
26. (1) 56. (1) 86. (4) 116. (1)
27. (4) 57. (1) 87. (4) 117. (3)
28. (2) 58. (2) 88. (2) 118. (3)
29. (2) 59. (2) 89. (2) 119. (3)
30. (3) 60. (1) 90. (1) 120. (4)

Part – I
SECTION - A : SCIENCE
1. Choose the correct statement. 5. The equivalent resistance of the given circuit across A
and B, when each resistor is of resistance R,
(1) Electric current is a vector quantity
will be
(2) Movement of electrons is from high potential to
low potential
A
(3) Resistivity of a conductor is independent of its
physical dimensions
(4) Net power of the circuit decreases when the
devices are connected in parallel
B
2. “Hydel electricity” is obtained from
(1) Fossil fuels (2) Dams
4R 3R
(3) Wind mills (4) Biogas plants (1) (2)
5 7
3. According to Fleming's right hand rule, if the
6R 2R
fore-finger of the right hand points towards east, then (3) (4)
5 5
the directions of induced current and motion of the
conductor cannot respectively be towards 6. A wire of resistance 20  is stretched to thrice its
length and then it is bent in the form of an equilateral
(1) North, upwards triangle. The equivalent resistance across any two
(2) Upwards, south vertices is
(3) South, downwards (1) 20  (2) 30 

(3) 40  (4) 60 
(4) Upwards, north
7. Which one of the following statements is incorrect
4. Which of the following is more eco-friendly than the
regarding magnetic field lines?
others?
(1) They can pass through vacuum
(1) Burning of petrol
(2) They cannot intersect with each other
(2) Burning of coal
(3) They can penetrate a metal only when they enter
(3) Burning of charcoal normal to its surface
(4) Burning of cow dung (4) They always form closed loops
1
8. Which of the following is different from the others? 13. Identify a, b, x and y for the following reactions :
(1) watt (2) kilowatt hour Reaction 1 : aNH3(g) + bO2(g)  cNO(g) + dH2O(g)
(3) erg (4) joule Reaction 2 : xFe2O3(s) + yCO(g)  pFe(s) + qCO2(g)
9. The direction of the current induced in the square (1) 4, 4, 2, 5 (2) 4, 5, 1, 3
loop shown below will be
(3) 2, 3, 2, 1 (4) 2, 4, 2, 3
14. Which of the following is a valid displacement
I v reaction?
(1) Cu(s) + FeSO4(aq)  CuSO4(aq) + Fe(s)
(1) Clockwise (2) Pb(s) + CuCl2(aq)  PbCl2(aq) + Cu(s)
(2) Anticlockwise (3) Cu(s) + ZnSO4(aq)  CuSO4(aq) + Zn(s)
(3) First clockwise, then anticlockwise (4) 2Ag(s) + CuSO4(aq)  Ag2SO4(aq) + Cu(s)
(4) First anticlockwise, then clockwise 15. pH scale ranges from
10. A positive charge Q is projected exactly between and (1) 1 – 14 (2) 0 – 14
in the plane of two current carrying wires, as shown
(3) 1 – 15 (4) 0 – 15
in the figure below. The deflection of the charge is
16. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) Ionic compounds are generally soluble in water
and insoluble in solvents like kerosene and
3A 5A petrol
Q
(2) Ionic compounds do not conduct electricity in
solid state due to their rigid structure
(1) Towards right (2) Towards left
(3) Ionic compounds conduct electricity only in their
(3) Out of the plane (4) Into the plane molten state
11. The formulae of slaked lime and quick lime (4) Heat is required to overcome the electrostatic
respectively are forces of attraction between the oppositely
(1) Ca(OH)2, CaO (2) CaO, Ca(OH)2 charged ions
(3) CaCO3, Ca(OH)2 (4) Ca(OH)2, CaCO3 17. In the chlor-alkali process
12. Which of the following is not a redox reaction? (1) Sodium hydroxide is produced near the cathode
(1) ZnO + C Zn + CO (2) Sodium hydroxide is produced near the anode
(2) MnO2 + 4HCl MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2 (3) Sodium hydroxide is produced exactly between
(3) CuO + H2 Cu + H2O the cathode and anode
(4) Na2SO4 + BaCl2 BaSO4 + 2NaCl (4) Sodium hydroxide is not produced
2
18. The formation of which ions is responsible for the 23. In an experiment regarding photosynthesis, the
basic nature of a substance in its aqueous solution? oxygen of CO2 and H2O is labelled as 16O and 18O,
respectively. The oxygen evolved during
(1) Hydrogen ions (2) Hydride ions photosynthesis would be labelled as
(3) Hydroxide ions (4) Peroxide ions 18O 16O
(1) (2)
19. Thermite process is an example of a 16O 18O 16O 18O
(3) Either or (4) Neither nor
(1) Combination reaction
24. Which part of the brain controls respiration?
(2) Displacement reaction
(1) Cerebrum (2) Cerebellum
(3) Neutralisation reaction
(3) Medulla (4) Hypothalamus
(4) Decomposition reaction
25. The blood vessels which permit exchange of
20. For the given chemical reactions : materials between blood and tissues are
2Na(s) + S(s) Na2S(s) (1) Capillaries only
Mg(s) + Cl2(g) MgCl2(s) (2) Capillaries and veins
The correct statement is (3) Capillaries, veins and arteries
(1) Sulphur and chlorine are oxidising agents (4) Capillaries and arteries
(2) Sulphur is oxidising agent and chlorine is 26. ______ is a contraceptive which acts by changing
reducing agent the hormonal balance of the body.
(3) Sulphur is reducing agent and chlorine is (1) Condom (2) Copper-T
oxidising agent
(3) Tubectomy (4) Oral pill
(4) Sulphur and chlorine are reducing agent
27. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
21. If a cell X with CO2 concentration 60 units is kept
adjacent to cells A, B and C with CO2 concentration (1) Liver stores bile
30, 80 and 60 units, respectively, then CO2 would
diffuse from (2) Liver secretes bile
(1) C to B (2) X to C (3) Gall bladder stores bile
(3) X to A (4) A to B (4) Bile does not contain digestive enzymes
22. Find the incorrect pair. 28. The temperature regulation in plants is
(1) Sclerenchyma – provides strength (1) Not required
(2) Aerenchyma – provides buoyancy (2) Performed through transpiration
(3) Parenchyma – stores food (3) Controlled by chloroplasts
(4) Collenchyma – provides rigidity (4) Operated through phloem
3
29. Which of the following is not the function of Golgi 30. All of the following are components of a nephron
apparatus? except
(1) Storage and packaging of products synthesised
(1) Loop of Henle
in ER
(2) Formation of lysosomes (2) Bowman's capsule
(3) Synthesis of complex sugars from simple (3) Kupffer cell
sugars
(4) Detoxification of drugs (4) Distal convoluted tubule
SECTION - B : MATHEMATICS
31. Consider the following graph of y = f(x). If n is the

degree of f(x), then the minimum possible value of n 352  1
34. If x is an integer and is also an integer, then
is x
x cannot be
Y
y = f(x) (1) 8 (2) 12
(3) 16 (4) 17
X X
O
35. A group of m people plan to contribute equally to
pay for a friend’s gift that costs rupees R. If n
additional people want to contribute for the gift, then
Y
the required contribution will reduce by rupees
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4 Rm Rn
(1) (2)
m 2  mn m 2  mn
1 1 1
32. If x   m and x 2   n , then x 3  is
x x3 x2 Rm Rn
equal to (3) 2 (4) 2
m  mn m  mn
(1) m3 – m2 + 3m + 4 – n
(2) m3 + m2 – 3m – 2 – n 36. If cot  and cosec  are the zeroes of the polynomial
ax2 + bx + c, then sin is equal to
(3) m3 + m2 – 3m + 6 + n
(4) m3 – m2 + 3m + 12 – n 2c
(1) a2  b2 (2)
33. If sin  + cosec  = 2, 0° <   90°, then the value a2  c 2
of sin2 + cot2 is
(1) 3 (2) 0 2b 2ab
(3) (4)
(3) 1 (4) 2 a2  c 2 a2  b2
4
37. If the diagonals of a quadrilateral ABCD intersect 42. In a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD, the value of
AE BE A B C D
 sin  sin  cos  cos is
each other at E such that , then ABCD 2 2 2 2
EC ED
must be a (1) 0 (2) 1
(1) Parallelogram (3) 2 (4) 3
(2) Kite 43. If p is a single digit number (0 - 9) such that
pn – p is always divisible by 5, where n is a natural
(3) Trapezium
number, then how many values can p take?
(4) Rhombus
(1) 2 (2) 3
38. In how many years will a sum of money double at
5% per annum simple interest? (3) 4 (4) 5
(1) 20 years (2) 25 years 44. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 13. If
the unit’s digit is divided by the ten’s digit, then
(3) 10 years (4) 15 years quotient is 1 and remainder is 3. The two digit
number is
⎛ 1 ⎞⎛ 1 ⎞⎛ 1 ⎞⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞⎛ 1 ⎞
39. If ⎜ 1 ⎟ ⎜ 1 ⎟ ⎜ 1  ⎟ ⎜ 1 ⎟....... ⎜ 1 ⎟ ⎜ 1 ⎟ (1) 67 (2) 76
⎝ 2 ⎠⎝ 3 ⎠⎝ 4 ⎠⎝ 5 ⎠ ⎝ 19 ⎠ ⎝ 20 ⎠
(3) 58 (4) 85
x
 , then the value of x is equal to 45. A girl bought a scooty for Rs. 45,000 in 2010.
20
Though the price of the scooty depreciated by 10%
p.a., she still managed to sell the scooty in 2012 for
1 3
(1) (2) Rs. 40,000. Overall, she had an approximate
20 20
(1) 10% profit (2) 10% loss
1
(3) 1 (4) (3) 15% profit (4) 15% loss
40
40. The average age in a class of 15 boys and one 46. In ABC, right angled at B, BD  AC. Which of the
teacher is 15 years. If the teacher’s age is excluded, following is true?
the average age of class reduces by 1 year, then the (1) BD2 = AD  DC (2) BD2 = AB  BC
teacher's age is
(3) AD2 = BD  DC (4) AD2 = AB  BC
(1) 28 years (2) 30 years
47. If Raj’s income is 60% less than his friend's income,
then his friend’s income is more than Raj’s income by
41. Which of the following numbers is the least?
200
(1) % (2) 150%
(1) 3
0.001 (2) 0.81 3
100
(3) (0.6)2 (4) 4
0.0016 (3) 200% (4) %
3
5
48. In the given figure, if AB = x units, BC = z units and 52. In the given figure, OA and OB bisect POQ and
DE = y units, then the value of BE is 1
QOR respectively. If CD  PR, PR = 12 cm,
3
A OC = 10 cm, OA = 12 cm and OP = OR, then the
value of AB is
D O
B E C C D
P R
( x  y )z yz A B
(1) units (2) units
x x
Q
(1) 2.4 cm (2) 4.8 cm
( z  x )y ( x  y )z
(3) units (4) units
x 2x (3) 5 cm (4) 6 cm
49. If the difference between the simple interest and 1 1 1 1

53. The value of      is
compound interest compounded annually on a 35 57 79 23  25
certain sum for two years at 5% rate of interest is
22 21
Rupee 1, then the sum is (1) (2)
75 75
(1) 350 (2) 300 4 11
(3) (4)
(3) 400 (4) 275 75 75
54. On dividing a certain number by 342, we get 49 as
50. In a grouped frequency distribution, the class with
remainder. If the same number is divided by 18, then
the maximum frequency is called
the remainder will be
(1) Mean class (1) 13 (2) 11
(2) Median class (3) 12 (4) 10
(3) Modal class 55. If the zeroes of the polynomial ax2 + bx + c (a  0)
are equal, then which of the following must be true?
(4) Distribution class
(1) a and c have opposite signs
51. The unit’s digit of (723)463 is
(2) a and c have same sign
(1) 3 (2) 7 (3) a and b have same sign
(3) 1 (4) 9 (4) a and b have opposite signs
6
56. In the given figure, PQR is right angled at Q and 58. 461 + 462 + 463 + 464 + 465 is divisible by
the points S and T trisect the side QR.
(1) 3 (2) 5
P
(3) 11 (4) 17
59. When the natural numbers 1, 2, 3, …… 500 are
written, then the digit 3 appears x times. The value
of x is
(1) 300 (2) 200
R T S Q
Which one of the following relation is true? (3) 310 (4) 190
(1) PT2 = 2PR2 + 5PS2 (2) 8PT2 = 3PR2 + 5PS2 60. The circumcentre of a triangle is determined by the
concurrence of
(3) 8PT2 = 5PR2 + 3PS2 (4) 8PT2 = 5PR2 + PS2
(1) Altitudes
57. The number of zeroes at the end of the product
18  12  15  40  25  16  55  105 is (2) Medians
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) Perpendicular-bisectors
(3) 5 (4) 6 (4) Angle-bisectors
Part – II
SECTION - A : MENTAL ABILITY
61. Choose the group of letters which is different from 63. Find the missing number.
the others.
(1) VAF (2) MRW 30 65 25
(3) GKP (4) FKP 28 79 36

62. If in a certain code FRUIT is written as IOXFW, then 32 ? 24
MANGO will be written as
(1) 28
(1) PDQJR
(2) PWQDR (2) 23
(3) PWQGL (3) 43
(4) PXQDR (4) 48
7
Directions (Q.64 & Q.65) : 66. Pointing to a girl in the photograph, Deepinder said,
“Her mother's brother is the only son of my mother's
In each of the following questions, a square transparent father, who has only two children”. The girl's mother
paper with a pattern is shown. If the paper is folded along is Deepinder's
the dotted lines, which of the given alternatives would it
(1) Mother (2) Sister
form?
(3) Aunt (4) Grandmother
64. Transparent paper
Directions (Q.67 to Q.69) : Study the information given
below carefully and answer the questions that follow:
P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X are nine houses. R is 2 km
east of Q. P is 1 km north of Q and W is 2 km south of
P. V is 1 km west of W while S is 3 km east of V and
F U is 2 km north of V. X is situated just in middle of Q and
R while T is just in middle of W and S.
67. Distance between T and V is
F (1) 1 km (2) 1.5 km
(1) (2)
(3) 2 km (4) 5 km
68. Distance between T and X is
(1) 1 km (2) 2 km
F
(3) 3 km (4) 4 km
(3) (4)
69. Distance between P and U is
(1) 1 km (2) 1.41 km
65. Transparent paper (3) 2 km (4) 3 km

70. In a certain code NATURE is coded as MASUQE.
How is FAMINE coded in that code language?
(1) FBMJND (2) FZMHND
(3) GANIOE (4) EALIME
71. How many parallelograms are there in the figure given
below?
(1) (2)
(3) (4) (1) 14 (2) 15

(3) 16 (4) 18
8
72. Five boys took part in a race. Raj finished before 76. Number of cubes in the given figure is
Mohit but behind Gaurav. Ashish finished before
Sachin but behind Mohit. Who won the race?
(1) Raj (2) Gaurav
(3) Mohit (4) Ashish
73. Mohit said to Bipul, “That boy playing football is

younger of two brothers of the daughter of my (1) 15 (2) 18
father's wife”. How is the boy playing football related
(3) 14 (4) 21
to Mohit?
Direction (Q.77 & Q.78): In the following questions,
(1) Nephew
which alternative is the correct mirror image of the given
(2) Brother figure?
(3) Uncle
(4) Father 77.

74. Which of the following alternatives will come next in
the series?
ZQA, XMC, VIE, TEG, ?

(1) (2)
(1) RAI (2) SAG
(3) RAG (4) RAJ
75. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below

in the question figure. From the given alternatives, (3) (4)
indicate how it will appear when opened?
78.
A B C
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
9
79. Choose the correct alternative that completes the 83. A block is painted pink, yellow, red, black, orange
given pattern. and blue on its six faces as shown below. Which
colour will be opposite to red?
? Pink Pink
Yellow
Black
Orange Red
(1) (2) (A) (B)
Blue Blue
Yellow
Black
Red Orange
(3) (4)
(C) (D)
80. A shopkeeper uses a code OLISPAH = ` 28/-, (1) Orange (2) Black
where O = ` 1/-, L = ` 2/-, I = ` 3/- and so on.
Bearing this code scheme in mind, what price does (3) Yellow (4) Pink
the code SOAP denote? 84. In a row of girls if Sheetal, who is 10th from left and
Hina, who is 9th from right, exchange their seats,
(1) ` 120 (2) ` 18 then Sheetal becomes 15th from the left. How many
girls are there in the row?
(3) ` 16 (4) ` 61
(1) 16 (2) 19
(3) 23 (4) 25
AM, DO, GQ, _____, MU
85. Choose the correct alternative that completes the
(1) RQ (2) LP given pattern.
(3) JQ (4) JS
82. In a certain language, DELHI is coded as FGNJK,

how is BHOPAL coded in that language?
(1) CJQTCF
(1) (2)
(2) CJQPCF
(3) DJQRCN
(3) (4)
(4) DIJQCN
10
86. Choose the odd one out. Directions (Q.90 to Q.92): Study the following diagram
and then answer the questions that follow.
(1) (2)
Musicians
4
(3) (4) Dancers
6 1
2
Directions (Q.87 & Q.88) 7 9
In each of the following questions, there is a relationship
8
between the two terms (letter groups/numbers) on the left Actors
of the sign (: :). The same relationship exists between the
two terms on the right of the sign (: :) of which one is
missing. Find the missing term from the given alternatives.
87. NAME : KXJB : : ? : PURE 90. Which number indicates Actors who are dancers as
well as musicians?
(1) MROB (2) SUXH
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) SXUH (4) MORB
(3) 6 (4) 9
88. 3 : 25 : : 5 : ?
(1) 16 (2) 36 91. Which number indicates Dancers who are musicians
but not actors?
(3) 49 (4) 64
(1) 1 (2) 2
89. In the following question, two statements are
followed by two conclusions numbered (i) and (ii). (3) 3 (4) 6
Assuming the two statements to be true, which of
the conclusions logically follow? 92. Which number indicates Musicians who are neither
dancers nor actors?
Statements : All the windows are doors.
No door is a wall. (1) 1 (2) 4
Conclusions : (i) Some windows are walls. (3) 7 (4) 9

(ii) No wall is a window. 93. Ram is ranked 5th from top and 24th from bottom in
(1) Only conclusion (i) follows his class, then the number of students in his class
are
(2) Only conclusion (ii) follows
(3) Neither conclusion (i) nor (ii) follow (1) 29 (2) 28
(4) Both conclusions follow (3) 30 (4) 27
11
94. Five persons P, Q, R, S, T are sitting in a row facing 98. How many rectangles are there in the following
you such that S is on the left of R and Q is on the figure?
right of T. P is on the right of R and Q is on the left
of S. If T occupies the corner position, then who is
sitting in the centre?
(1) P (2) Q
(3) R (4) S
Directions (Q.95 & Q.96): Six persons are sitting in a (1) 15 (2) 16
circle. A is second to the right of C. B is sitting third to (3) 17 (4) 18
the left of E and D is sitting between E and A. Sixth
person is F. 99. The following figure has ________ triangles.
Based on the above given information answer these

questions.
95. Who is facing C?

(1) F
(1) 16 (2) 18
(2) E (3) 19 (4) 21
(3) B 100. In this question, three statements are followed by
(4) D three conclusions numbered (i), (ii) and (iii). Read
the conclusions and decide which follow logically
96. Who is sitting second to the left of B? from the three given statements, disregarding
(1) F commonly known facts.
(2) D Statements : Some motors are cars.

Some cars are forests.
(3) C
Some forests are trees.
(4) A
Conclusions : (i) Some motors are forests.
97. If  means +, – means ,  means  and +means –,
then 15 – 8  6  12 + 4 = (ii) Some cars are motors.
(1) 28 (iii) Some trees are motors.
(2) 20 (1) Only (i) follows
(3) 24 (2) Only (ii) follows
(3) Only (iii) follows
(4) 1 8
7 (4) Both (i) and (ii) follow
12
SECTION - B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

101. In terms of area, which is the smallest state in India? 107. Who elects the President of India?
(1) Goa (2) Sikkim (1) An electoral college consisting of the elected
(3) Nagaland (4) Tripura members of both houses of parliament
102. Which luxury train travels through Maharashtra and (2) An electoral college consisting of the elected
includes Goa in its journey? members of Lok Sabha and the elected
members of all the state legislative assemblies
(1) Palace on Wheels
(3) The people of India
(2) Heritage on Wheels
(4) An electoral college consisting of the elected
(3) The Deccan Odyssey
members of both the houses of parliament and
(4) Golden Chariot the elected members of all the state legislative
assemblies
103. Charminar is at
108. Aurora Borealis is
(1) Lucknow (2) Agra
(3) Hyderabad (4) Patna (1) A small island in the Atlantic Ocean
104. Tulsidas flourished during the reign of (2) A constellation of seven stars
(1) Babar (2) Akbar (3) The name of a warm ocean current
(3) Shahjahan (4) Humayun (4) A phenomenon of light display in the Northern
hemisphere
105. "Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it", was
proclaimed by 109. Which of the following river flows between Vindhyas
(1) M.G. Ranade and Satpura ranges?
(2) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (1) Narmada (2) Tapti
(3) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (3) Mahanadi (4) Godavari

(4) Lala Lajpat Rai 110. The birthday of which of the following is observed as
106. Hiuen Tsang visited India during the reign of Teacher's day?
(1) Chandragupta Maurya (1) Aurobindo Ghosh
(2) Chandragupta Vikramaditya (2) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(3) Samudragupta (3) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

(4) Harshavardhana (4) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
13
111. Palk strait separates 116. Fathometer is used to measure
(1) India and Pakistan (1) The intensity of earthquakes
(2) India and Myanmar (2) The amount of rainfall

(3) The depth of the ocean
(3) India and Sri Lanka
(4) The intensity of sound
(4) India and Nepal
117. In India, the Yarlung Zangbo river is known as
112. Saina Nehwal is associated with
(1) Ganga (2) Indus
(1) Chess (2) Badminton
(3) Brahmaputra (4) Mahanadi
(3) Lawn Tennis (4) Football 118. Number of spokes in the wheel of the Indian flag is
113. The highest waterfall of the world is (1) 25 (2) 22
(1) Niagara falls (2) Victoria falls (3) 20 (4) 24
(3) Angel falls (4) Tangala falls 119. The first recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna
Award was
114. Indian National Congress was formed in the year
(1) Kapil Dev
(1) 1880 (2) 1885
(2) Limba Ram
(3) 1931 (4) 1911
(3) Vishwanathan Anand
115. Khalsa was created by Guru Gobind Singh in 1699 (4) Leander Paes
at
120. In banking terms, ATM stands for
(1) Bangla Sahib
(1) Any time money
(2) Anandpur Sahib
(2) Automatic transfer of money
(3) Patna Sahib (3) All time money
(4) Paonta Sahib (4) Automated teller machine

14
Sample Paper (VII Studying) Aakash National Young Talent Search Exam 2014

(For VII Studying)
SECTION-A : SCIENCE
1. Heat rays from the sun reach us by means of 6. A simple pendulum completes 20 oscillations in
10 s. The time period of one oscillation is about
(1) Conduction (2) Convection
(1) 0.5 s (2) 0.75 s
(3) Radiation (4) Insulation
2. Buildings made of hollow bricks are not affected (3) 1.8 s (4) 1.3 s
much by heat and cold outside because, the hollow
7. The distance-time graph of three cars A, B and C
bricks
are as shown below.
(1) Are quite thick
(2) Have trapped layers of air, which is a poor C B
Distance
conductor of heat
A
(3) Are painted light so as to reflect the heat
(4) Absorb or radiate appropriate amount of heat
3. If the average speed of an object is the same as its Time
actual speed, then it must be travelling
Then
(1) Along a straight line (2) Along a curved path
(1) Car B is not moving
(3) With constant speed (4) With variable speed
4. Shyam takes 15 minutes to reach his school. If he (2) Car C moves faster than car B
walks at a constant speed of 7 km/h, then how far (3) Car A moves faster than car C
is his school?
(4) Car B moves faster than car C
(1) 1.75 km (2) 2.5 km
(3) 1.5 km (4) 3 km 8. Which of the following are used as safety devices in
electric circuits?
5. Land breeze blows
(1) CFL, filament
(1) From the sea towards the land during night
(2) Cell, switch
(2) From the land towards the sea during day
(3) Electric fuse, MCB
(3) From the sea towards the land during day
(4) From the land towards the sea during night (4) CFL, switch
1
Aakash National Young Talent Search Exam 2014 Sample Paper (VII Studying)
9. Choose the circuit diagram that shows all the 12. Match the following :
connections correctly, to make the bulb glow. Column-I Column-II
a. Calamine (i) Magnesium hydroxide
b. Milk of magnesia (ii) Calcium oxide
c. Quick lime (iii) Calcium hydroxide
(1) (2)
d. Slaked lime (iv) Zinc carbonate
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
13. Which of the following oxides does not form acid
when dissolved in water?
(3) (4)
(1) Carbon dioxide (2) Calcium oxide
(3) Sulphur dioxide (4) Nitrogen dioxide
10. A boy dips his hand in water kept at three different 14. Which of the following processes is not a chemical
temperatures as given. change?
(1) Rusting (2) Crystallization
(3) Digestion (4) Neutralisation
25°C 10°C 45°C 15. Consider the steps involved in the given process :
Step-I. A magnesium ribbon is burnt in air.
A B C
Step-II. Formed residue is dissolved in water.
He will feel the water kept in beaker Now, choose the correct option.
(1) B warm had he dipped his hand first in beaker A (1) Step-I is physical change and Step-II is chemical
change
(2) A warm had he dipped his hand first in beaker C
(2) Step-II is physical change and Step-I is chemical
(3) A warm had he dipped his hand first in beaker B change
(3) Both the steps are physical changes
(4) B warm had he dipped his hand first in beaker C
(4) Both the steps are chemical changes
11. When an iron nail is placed in copper sulphate
16. Phenolphthalein indicator, in the basic solution
solution, the colour of the solution turns becomes
(1) Blue to green (1) Colourless (2) Pink
(2) Green to blue (3) Red (4) Blue
17. The colour of litmus in distilled water is
(3) Blue to white
(1) Red (2) Blue
(4) White to green
(3) Purple (4) Yellow
2
18. When carbon dioxide gas is passed in lime water it 26. Refer the diagram and identify the part which
turns milky due to the formation of temporarily stores urine.
(1) Calcium carbonate (2) Calcium
A
(3) Calcium oxide (4) Oxygen
19. Generally neutralisation reaction does not result in
(1) The formation of a salt B
(2) The formation of water

C
(3) The evolution of heat
D
(4) The absorption of heat
20. Which of the following processes involves a chemical (1) A (2) B
change? (3) C (4) D
(1) Boiling (2) Burning 27. The breakdown of starch starts from which of the
(3) Melting (4) Freezing following parts of our alimentary canal?
21. Rumen is a part of the (1) Large intestine (2) Small intestine
(1) Stomach (2) Oesophagus (3) Stomach (4) Mouth
(3) Small intestine (4) Large intestine 28. Amoeba captures food with the help of
22. Which of the following is an insectivorous plant? (1) Villi (2) Pseudopodia
(1) Pitcher plant (2) Cuscuta (3) Food vacuole (4) Cud
(3) Bryophyllum (4) Fern 29. Which of the following is the respiratory organ of
Presence of oxygen earthworm?
23. Glucose 
 A + B + Energy
Identify A and B. (1) Skin (2) Lungs
(1) A – Oxygen, B – Water (3) Gills (4) Tracheae
(2) A – Water, B – Alcohol 30. Statement-1: The leaves of plants have tiny pores
on it called stomata.
(3) A – Alcohol, B – Carbon dioxide
Statement-2 : Stomata help in the exchange of
(4) A – Water, B – Carbon dioxide oxygen and carbon dioxide.
24. Haemoglobin is present in
(1) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is
(1) Red blood cells (2) White blood cells incorrect
(3) Plasma (4) Platelets (2) Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is
correct
25. Green pigment essential for photosynthesis is
(1) Starch (2) Chlorophyll (3) Both the statements are correct
(3) Protein (4) Chloroplast (4) Both the statements are incorrect
3
7 37. Out of the following statements, how many
31. One angle is times another angle. If the two statements are true?
2
angles are complementary, then their measures are a. An exterior angle of a triangle is greater than
each of its interior opposite angles
(1) 49° and 41° (2) 40° and 140° b. A triangle can have atmost 2 obtuse angles
(3) 20° and 70° (4) 135° and 45°
c. Every equilateral triangle is an isosceles triangle
32. Which of the following statements is false? (1) 3 (2) 2
(1) Every integer is a rational number (3) 0 (4) 1
(2) Every natural number is an integer 38. Which of the following rational numbers is in the
standard form?
(3) Every natural number is a whole number
1 11
(4) Every rational number is a fraction (1) (2)
2 209
33. Shyam is four times as old as Ram. After 7 years, 19
255
Shyam’s age will be thrice of Ram. Shyam's present (3) (4)
17 344
age is
39. In the given figure, if AD || BC and CG is a straight
line, then the value of x is
34. Of the three angles of a triangle, if one is thrice the
smallest and the another is six times the smallest, D C
then the measure of the largest angle is
(1) 108° (2) 54° 130°
A B
(3) 18° (4) 96° x
85°
1
35. 14 % of 18 is E F G
2
(1) 2.16 (2) 2.61
(3) 2.53 (4) 2.41 (1) 55° (2) 35°
4 7 (3) 25° (4) 45°
36. Product of fractions and is
9 11 40. Which of the following is the greatest?
47 47 56 0.560
(1) (2)
9  11 9  11 (1)
0.040
(2)
40
47 47
(3) (4) 5.6 5.6
9  11 9  11 (3) (4)
0.040 40
4
41. If 5(x – 2) – 2(2x – 7) = 10, then the value of x is 48. If (– 43) × 109 = a + (– 487), then the value of a is
(1) 34 (2) 6 (1) – 4100
(3) 4 (4) –14 (2) – 4200
42. In an examination, 96% of the candidates passed (3) – 4300
and 128 failed. Number of candidates who appeared
for the examination is (4) – 4400
(1) 3600 (2) 3200 1
49. Which of the following numbers lie between and
(3) 2800 (4) 4000 5
1
43. If two angles of a triangle are 90º and 45º, then the ?
2
triangle is
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.5
(1) Equilateral
(2) Obtuse angled (3) 0.32 (4) 0.04
(3) Scalene 50. If Lata’s salary is 20% more than Aasha’s salary,
then Aasha’s salary is less than Lata’s salary by
(4) Isosceles right angled
2 2
44. The number that must be subtracted from  to get (1) 16 % (2) 20%
5 3
4
is
7 1
(3) 25% (4) 16 %
34 6 3
(1)  (2) 
35 35 51. In the given figure, if l, m and n are straight lines,
then the value of ‘x’ is
34 6
(3) (4)
35 35 m
45. Which of the following is the solution of the equation
0.03y + 0.04 = 0.028y + 1.016?
n
(1) 38 (2) 488
l 75° O
(3) 528 (4) 268 20°
46. If two sides of a triangle are 20 cm and 10 cm, then x
the length of the third side cannot be
(1) 19 cm (2) 18 cm
(3) 17 cm (4) 10 cm
47. If 20% of x = 30% of y, then x : (x – y) is
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 3 : 1 (1) 90° (2) 105°
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 2 (3) 95° (4) 85°
5
52. Which of the following equations cannot be solved in
⎧⎛ 35 2 ⎞ ⎛ 2 3 ⎞ ⎛ 4 24 ⎞ ⎫
integers? 56. If x  ⎨⎜  ⎟ ⎜  ⎟  ⎜  2 ⎟⎠ ⎬ , then the
(1) 2x + 3 = 9 ⎩⎝ 7 5 ⎠ ⎝ 9 8 ⎠ ⎝ 8 ⎭
(2) 3(x – 5) + 7 = 14 reciprocal of x is
(3) (7x + 5) + (x + 9) = 46 12 95
(1) (2)
(4) 7x + 5 = 40 95 12
53. The percent that represents the shaded region in the
47 12
given figure is (3)  (4) 
12 47
57. Which of the following is true?
3 3
(1) of 7 is same as  7
5 5
(2) –1 is the only number which is its own

reciprocal
(1) 20% (2) 30%
(3) The reciprocal of a proper fraction is an improper
(3) 25% (4) 35%
fraction
30 ⎛ 1 1 1 ⎞
54.  ⎜   ⎟ is equal to
31 ⎝ 2 3 5 ⎠ 1 1
(4) The reciprocal of is 
2 2 2
1 ⎛ 30 ⎞
(1) (2) ⎜ ⎟
2 ⎝ 31 ⎠ 58. Which of the following pair of angles are
supplementary?
1
(3) (4) 1
30 (1) 58° and 32°
55. In the given figure, if m || n and l is a transversal, (2) 67° and 113°
then x + y is equal to
(3) 64° and 36°
l (4) 36° and 140°
m 59. If the length of a rectangle is 24 cm and the diagonal
x
x is 25 cm long, then its perimeter is
y (1) 112 cm (2) 146 cm
n y
(3) 98 cm (4) 62 cm
60. 0.32 mm = ______ km
(1) 0.0000032 (2) 0.000032
(1) 180° (2) 90°
(3) 135° (4) 150° (3) 0.00000032 (4) 0.00032
6

61. Find the missing number. 66. Find the required number in the following series.
10 5 2 2, 3, 6, 11, 18, ?, 38
(1) 29 (2) 27
42 3 14
(3) 23 (4) 28
54 18 ?
67. Find the mirror image of
(1) 10 (2) 3
(3) 5 (4) 13
62. Find the missing number.
4 19 ?
9 39
(1) 68 (2) 97
(1) (2)
(3) 76 (4) 79
Directions for Qs. 63 & 64 : If 'p' means '×', 'q' means
'–', 'r' means '+', 's' means '÷' then find the values of the
following expressions.
63. 16 s 64 q 2 p 5 r 10 (3) (4)
3
(1) 8 (2) 68. Find the mirror image of
4
(3) 32 (4) 0.25 PQRSTU
64. 120 s 3 r 25 p 3 q 70
(1) (2)
(1) 1020 (2) 75
(3) (4)
(3) 45 (4) 40
Directions for Qs. 69 to 71 : A lies to the north of B as
65. Find the number of squares in the figure given below. well as C. D is to the south of B but north of C. E is to
the west of B and F is to the north-east of C and to the
east of A. Note : A, B, C, D, E and F are six places
respectively.
69. D lies to the north of
(1) 15 (2) 14 (1) B (2) F
(3) 13 (4) 16 (3) E (4) C
7
70. F lies to the north-east of 77. Ram started travelling in north, he then took a right
turn and travelled the whole day. At the end of the
(1) E (2) B
day he took a left turn and moved fast to reach his
(3) D (4) All of these home. In which direction did he move finally to reach
home?
71. E lies to the ? of A.
(1) Northeast (2) North
(1) South-east (2) South-west
(3) Northwest (4) South
(3) North-west (4) West 78. In a conference, seven people shake hands with
72. Find the missing number in the following series each other once. How many handshakes will there
be altogether?
2, 5, 11, 20, 32, ?
(1) 14 (2) 20
(1) 49 (2) 47
(3) 21 (4) 25
(3) 42 (4) 51 79. Find the water-image of
73.
Find the number of triangles in the above given figure.

(1) 11 (2) 13
(1) (2)
(3) 9 (4) 10
74. If 53 = 15 and 43 = 12, then 63 = ?
(1) 10 (2) 50
(3) (4)
(3) 35 (4) 18
75. If 3 = 9 and 10 = 100, then 15 = ? 80. Find the missing figure in the following series.
(1) 150 (2) 225
T T
?
(3) 200 (4) 275 T T
76. A, D, G, I, K, N, Q, S, 'a', 'b'. T
(1) (2)
Find 'a' and 'b' in the above given letter series. T
(1) 'U' and 'W' (2) 'U' and 'X' T T
(3) (4)
(3) 'V' and 'X' (4) 'V' and 'Y'

8
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075 Ph.: 011-47623456

Talent
(For VII Studying)
Sample Paper
ANSWERS
1. (3) 17. (3) 33. (4) 49. (3) 65. (2)
2. (2) 18. (1) 34. (1) 50. (1) 66. (2)
3. (3) 19. (4) 35. (2) 51. (4) 67. (2)
4. (1) 20. (2) 36. (4) 52. (2) 68. (3)
5. (4) 21. (1) 37. (2) 53. (3) 69. (4)
54. (4)
6. (1) 22. (1) 38. (4) 70. (4)
55. (2)
7. (2) 23. (4) 39. (4) 71. (2)
56. (1)
8. (3) 24. (1) 40. (1) 72. (2)
57. (3)
9. (2) 25. (2) 41. (2) 73. (1)
58. (2)
10. (3) 26. (3) 42. (2) 74. (4)
59. (4)
11. (1) 27. (4) 43. (4) 75. (2)
60. (3)
12. (1) 28. (2) 44. (1) 76. (2)
61. (2)
13. (2) 29. (1) 45. (2) 77. (2)
62. (4)
14. (2) 30. (3) 46. (4) 78. (3)
63. (4)
15. (4) 31. (3) 47. (2) 79. (2)
64. (3)
16. (2) 32. (4) 48. (2) 80. (4)
Sample Paper (VIII Studying) Aakash National Young Talent Search Exam 2014

(For VIII Studying)
SECTION-A : SCIENCE
1. Which of the following is an example of contact 5. A body is acted upon by two forces F1 = 6 N and
force? F2 = 4 N. If net force acting on body is 10 N, then
which of the following is true?
(1) Magnetic force (2) Muscular force
(1) F1 and F2 are in the same direction
(3) Electrostatic force (4) Gravitational force
(2) F1 and F2 are in the opposite directions
2. What is the value of angle x in the figure given below?
(3) F1 and F2 are perpendicular to each other
Light ray (4) F1 and F2 are inclined at an angle of 60°
30°
6. Which of the following instruments is used in
Plane x Plane submarines to keep watch on enemies?
mirror-3 mirror-1
(1) Kaleidoscope (2) Electroscope
Plane mirror-2 (3) Periscope (4) Hydrometer
(1) 60° (2) 120° 7. A boy running towards a plane mirror sees that his
image is approaching him at speed V. The speed of
(3) 90° (4) 30° the boy is
3. Two charged bodies of masses m1 and m2 are placed V
close to each other. The forces acting between the (1) V (2)
2
two bodies are
V V
(1) Gravitational force and electrostatic force (3) (4)
4 3
(2) Gravitational force and magnetic force 8. The beaker shown below contains some liquid.
Which of the following is true about the liquid
(3) Electrostatic force and magnetic force pressure at various indicated points ?
(4) Magnetic force and frictional force
A
4. We do not see our image in a cardboard because of
(1) Absorption of light by cardboard B
(2) Deflection of light by cardboard C D

(3) Diffused reflection by cardboard
(4) Failure of laws of reflection in case of irregular (1) PC > PA = PB > PD (2) PC = PD > PB > PA
surfaces (3) PA > PB > PC = PD (4) PA = PB = PC = PD
1
Aakash National Young Talent Search Exam 2014 Sample Paper (VIII Studying)
9. A perpendicular force of 600 N acts on a circular 15. The correct order of increasing reactivities of zinc,
surface of radius 1.4 m. The surface will just break iron and copper is
if an additional perpendicular force of 16 N is applied
(1) Iron < Copper < Zinc
on it. The maximum pressure that the surface can
withstand is (2) Copper < Iron < Zinc
(1) 50 Pa (2) 100 Pa (3) Zinc < Iron < Copper
(3) 175 Pa (4) 200 Pa (4) Copper < Zinc < Iron
16. Which of the following is not responsible for the
10. At high altitudes, some people suffer from nose
formation of acid rain?
bleeding because atmospheric pressure there is
(1) Oxide of sulphur (2) Oxide of calcium
(1) Greater than the pressure inside their bodies
(3) Oxide of nitrogen (4) Oxide of carbon
(2) Smaller than the pressure inside their bodies
17. Which of the following is a metal-pair that can be cut
(3) Equal to the pressure inside their bodies with a knife?
(4) Zero (1) Sodium and Carbon
11. Black gold is (2) Lead and Phosphorus

(3) Sodium and Potassium
(1) Coal (2) Charcoal
(4) Phosphorus and Carbon
(3) Bitumen (4) Petroleum
18. Which of the following is a chemical property of a
12. Which of the following substances is not obtained metal?
during refining of petroleum?
(1) Ductility (2) Combustibility
(1) Coke (2) Kerosene
(3) Malleability (4) Lustre
(3) Lubricating oil (4) Diesel
19. The slow process of conversion of dead vegetation
13. A highly reactive element, which is stored in water into coal is called
is
(1) Carbon processing (2) Carbonisation
(1) Sodium (2) Potassium (3) Coal refining (4) Coal conservation
(3) Carbon (4) Phosphorus 20. The constituent of petroleum used for road surfacing is
14. Hydrogen gas is evolved during the reaction between (1) Bitumen (2) Coal tar
(1) Copper and dilute hydrochloric acid (3) Charcoal (4) Paraffin
21. All of the following are used to remove unwanted
(2) Magnesium and oxygen
plants from the field, except
(3) Aluminium and sodium hydroxide (1) Seed drill (2) Combine
(4) Sulphur and dilute hydrochloric acid (3) 2, 4-D (4) Khurpi
2
26. Select the crops that are grown during winter season
22. Disease Carrier Causative Agent from the following.
Malaria A B a. Mustard b. Maize
C Aedes Virus c. Soyabean d. Wheat

Mosquito
e. Cotton
Identify A, B and C. (1) a & d (2) Only b
(1) A-Anopheles mosquito, B-Protozoan, C-Dengue (3) a, b & d (4) a, b, c & e
(2) A-Culex mosquito, B-Virus, C-Polio
27. For cloning Dolly enucleated egg cell was obtained
(3) A-Ascaris, B-Bacterium, C-Ringworm from
(4) A-Anopheles mosquito, B-Bacterium, C-Dengue (1) Holstein Friesian
(2) Finn Dorsett sheep
23. Hen, Frog, Human, Silkmoth, Starfish
(3) Scottish blackface ewe
How many of the above organism(s) is/are oviparous
and undergo internal fertilisation? (4) Apis cerana indica
(1) Four (2) Two 28. The vaccine for small pox was discovered by
(3) One (4) Three (1) Gregor Mendel

24. An organism 'P' is used for the commercial (2) Louis Pasteur
preparation of wine by the process of 'Q'. The 'P'
reproduces by (3) Alexander Fleming
(1) Budding (2) Fission (4) Edward Jenner
(3) Sporulation (4) Vegetative propagation 29. In humans, the fusion of sperm and ovum takes
place in the
25. Refer the diagram and identify the part which is
responsible for the movement of sperm. (1) Ovary (2) Oviduct
(3) Uterus (4) Vagina
A
B 30. Statement-1 : A fertiliser is an organic salt.
C Statement-2 : Manure provides a lot of humus to the

soil.
D (1) Both the statements are true
(1) C (2) D (3) Statement-1 is true and Statement-2 is false
(3) B (4) A (4) Statement-1 is false and Statement-2 is true
3
31. Which of the following is a perfect cube? 39. If the lengths of perpendicular and base of a right
triangle are 13 cm and 15 cm respectively, then the
(1) 316 (2) 729
length of its hypotenuse is
(3) 243 (4) 121
(1) 294 cm (2) 194 cm
32. If 17% of P is equal to 102, then the value of P is
(1) 634 (2) 520 (3) 394 cm (4) 405 cm
(3) 600 (4) 558 5 7 4 a
⎛ 2 ⎞ ⎛ 2 ⎞ ⎛ 2 ⎞
33. The area of a rectangle whose dimensions are 4x and 40. If ⎜ ⎟  ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ , then the value of a
⎝ 5 ⎠ ⎝ 5 ⎠ ⎝ 5 ⎠
3y is is
(1) 4x + 3y (2) 12xy2 (1) 2 (2) –6
(3) 3x × 4y (4) 8x + 6y
(3) –8 (4) 8
34. The square of a number can never end with
41. The angles of a hexagon are in the ratio
(1) 1 (2) 4 1 : 2 : 3 : 5 : 6 : 7. Measure of the largest angle is
(3) 5 (4) 2 (1) 105º (2) 240º
35. The sum of all the exterior angles of a pentagon is (3) 210º (4) 315º
(1) 180º (2) 360º
42. Which of the following is a monomial?
(3) 240º (4) 540º
(1) 2x + 3x2 (2) 4x2 + 3x – 1
36. 2.567 × 104 can be written in the usual form as
(3) 3x + 5 (4) 2x2 – 3x2
(1) 2567 (2) 0.0002567
43. The expression (x – 2)(x – 3) can be simplified as
(3) 256.7 (4) 25670
(1) x2 + 5x – 6 (2) x2 + 5x + 6
37. The value of the expression 2x2 + 3x – 5 at x = –1
is (3) x2 – 5x + 6 (4) x2 – 5x – 6
(1) –6 (2) –10 3
44. The value of 1331.3 512 is
(3) 6 (4) 0
(1) 77 (2) 88
1
38. The cube of 1 is (3) 44 (4) 66
5
9 2
45. The value of ⎡⎢13  ⎤⎥  ⎡⎢13  ⎤⎥ is
2 9
8 126
(1) (2) ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦
125 125
(1) 0 (2) 1336
316 216
(3) (4)
125 125 (3) 1 (4) 1318
4
46. If Deepika ate 3 oranges out of 12 oranges kept in 54. If the adjacent angles of a parallelogram are in the
a basket, then the percentage of oranges she ate is ratio 2 : 7, then the smaller of the two angles is of
measure
(1) 25% (2) 15%
(1) 50º (2) 60º
(3) 30% (4) 33%
(3) 20º (4) 40º
47. The square root of 10 upto 2 places of decimal is a
55. If (5)a  625, where a is any integer, then the
(1) 3.17 (2) 3.16 value of a is
(3) 3.14 (4) 3.18 (1) 1 (2) 3
48. The perimeter of a rhombus whose diagonals are of (3) 4 (4) 2
lengths 10 cm and 24 cm is 56. If x  123.21 , then the value of x is
(1) 34 cm (2) 48 cm (1) 11.0 (2) 11.1
(3) 36 cm (4) 52 cm (3) 12.1 (4) 111.1
57. In the given figure, ABCD is a square. The value of z is
49. The value of
D C
(12345678  14236789)2  (12345678  14236789)2 z
12345678 14236789
is 76º
(1) 2 (2) 16
(3) 4 (4) 8 A B
50. The cube root of 1.728 a3b9 is (1) 121º (2) 123º
(1) 1.4 a3b (2) 1.2a3b (3) 125º (4) 127º

58. The sum of the expressions 5x 2 y + y 2 z and
(3) 1.2ab3 (4) 1.4ab3 3yx2 – 2zy2 is equal to
51. If 32x – 1 = 81, then the value of x is (1) 2y2z + 8x2y (2) 2x2y – y2z
2 2
(3) 8x y – y z (4) 8x2y + y2z
(1) 2.5 (2) 3.5
(3) 1.5 (4) 2 59. If Kishan's salary is 10% less than Baldev's salary,
then by what percentage is Baldev's salary more
52. In an examination, a student requires 50% marks to than Kishan's salary?
pass. If Ranbir scores 87 marks and the maximum
1
marks of that examination is 200, then he fails by (1) 11 % (2) 10%
9
(1) 23 marks (2) 5 marks
2 3
(3) 10 marks (4) 13 marks (3) 11 % (4) 11 %
9 4
60. The sum of the digits of the smallest number by
53. The value of 4082  188  64 is which 6144 is to be divided, so that the quotient
becomes a perfect cube is
(1) 66 (2) 54 (1) 6 (2) 3
(3) 46 (4) 64 (3) 7 (4) 5
5

61. Find the missing term to complete the sequence. 66. If C & E and F & A interchange their places then A
1, 4, 9, 16, ?, 36 is ? to the left of F.
(1) 35 (2) 20 (1) Second (2) Fourth
(3) 25 (4) 31 (3) Third (4) Fifth
62. XMLR : ZOPV :: CRLQ : ? 67. How many persons were sitting between F and A?
(If viewed clockwise from F to A)
(1) ETPU (2) EUPU
(1) Four (2) Two
(3) FTUP (4) ETPV
(3) One (4) Three
63. Complete the following series 68. Find the odd one out.
6, 10, 17, 27, 40, ? (1) Pen Drive (2) Computer
(1) 49 (2) 56 (3) Mobile (4) TV
(3) 58 (4) 52 69. Find the odd one out.
64. 5 : 50, 12 : 288, 9 : 162, 7 : ? (1) Indore (2) Delhi
(1) 98 (2) 81 (3) Jaisalmer (4) Kanpur
(3) 126 (4) 128 Directions for Q.70 to Q.72 : A series is given in the
sequence of :
Direction for Qs. 65 to 67 : In a meeting 6 persons are
sitting around a circular table facing the centre in the 12234345645678abcde
sequence of BDAEFC in clockwise direction. 70. The value of ‘b’ is
Based on the above given information, answer the (1) 6 (2) 5
following questions.
(3) 8 (4) 9
65. If F and B interchange their places then B is sitting
71. The value of ‘d’ is
? to the right of D.
(1) 6 (2) 7
(1) Fourth (3) 8 (4) 9
(2) Third 72. Find the value in the sequence of ‘cadeb’
(3) Fifth (1) 78965 (2) 75869
(4) Second (3) 78596 (4) 75896
6
Directions for Q.73 & Q.74 : See the below given figure 78. Find the figure which is embedded in the question
carefully and answer the questions based on it. figure.
73. How many quadrilaterals are there in the figure? (1) (2)
(1) 6 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 7
74. How many triangles are there in the figure? (3) (4)
(1) 16 (2) 14
(3) 15 (4) 13 79. A waiter’s salary consists of his basic pay and tips.
4
75. Find the odd one out. During one month, his tips were of his basic pay.
5
(1) 2916 (2) 529 What fraction of his income comes from tips?
(3) 1024 (4) 785 4 5
(1) (2)
76. If “DELIBERATE” is coded as “fgnkdgtcvg” then 9 9
“KNOWLEDGE” is coded as
4 5
(1) “mpqyngfig” (2) “mpqzohfig” (3) (4)
7 4
(3) “npqzogfih” (4) “mprxngfgg”
77.
80. : ?
?
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)

7
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075 Ph.: 011-47623456

Talent
(For VIII Studying)
Sample Paper
ANSWERS
1. (2) 17. (3) 33. (3) 49. (3) 65. (2)
2. (2) 18. (2) 34. (4) 50. (3) 66. (1)
3. (1) 19. (2) 35. (2) 51. (1) 67. (4)
4. (3) 20. (1) 36. (4) 52. (4) 68. (1)
5. (1) 21. (2) 37. (1) 53. (4) 69. (2)
6. (3) 22. (1) 38. (4) 54. (4) 70. (1)
7. (2) 23. (2) 39. (3) 55. (4) 71. (3)
8. (2) 24. (1) 40. (3) 56. (2) 72. (4)
9. (2) 25. (2) 41. (3) 57. (1) 73. (4)
10. (2) 26. (1) 42. (4) 58. (3) 74. (2)
11. (4) 27. (3) 43. (3) 59. (1) 75. (4)
12. (1) 28. (4) 44. (2) 60. (2) 76. (1)
13. (4) 29. (2) 45. (3) 61. (3) 77. (3)
14. (3) 30. (4) 46. (1) 62. (1) 78. (4)
15. (2) 31. (2) 47. (2) 63. (2) 79. (1)
16. (2) 32. (3) 64. (1) 80. (4)
48. (4)
Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam-2014

SECTION-A : SCIENCE
1. The distance(S)-time(t) graph of an object of mass 5. If the current flowing through the electric circuit shown
2 kg moving along a straight line is as shown below. below is 1.6 A, then the reading of the voltmeter is
The net work done on the object in the first four
seconds is V
2
8m
9.6 V
S
(1) 3.2 V (2) 4.8 V
4s (3) 8 V (4) 6.4 V
t
(1) 16 J (2) Zero 6. If a light ray passes through a rectangular glass slab
as shown below, then
(3) 32 J (4) 8 J
2. A man crosses a 90 m long straight track with a 75°

uniform acceleration in 6 s. If his initial velocity is
3 m/s, then he leaves the track with velocity 60°
(1) 30 m/s (2) 27 m/s
i
(3) 18 m/s (4) 9 m/s
3. Which of the following is not a unit of power?
(1) VA (2) Js–1 sin75

(1) sin i 
3
(3) kW (4) Wh
4. A passenger, sitting inside a train, is facing in the (2) sin i  3 (sin75)

direction of motion of the train. He tosses a coin that
falls ahead of him. It means that the train is sin30
(3) sin i 
(1) In uniform motion (2) Slowing down 3
(3) Speeding up (4) Taking a turn (4) sin i  3 sin30
1
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014 Sample Paper
7. In the circuit shown below, if the battery does 11. Which of the following reactions involves both
3240 J of work in 5 s, then the value of resistance R is neutralisation and precipitation?
R (1) Ca(OH)2 + CO2  CaCO3 + H2O
(2) NaOH + HCl  NaCl + H2O
(3) BaCl2 + Na2SO4  BaSO4 + 2NaCl
6
(4) Pb(NO3)2 + 2KI  PbI2 + 2KNO3
36 V 12. Baking powder is

(1) A compound of sodium hydrogencarbonate and
(1) 4  (2) 10  lime
(3) 3  (4) 2  (2) A mixture of baking soda and quick lime
8. Locate the position of image formed by a concave
mirror for an object placed between its principal (3) A compound of baking soda and mild edible acid
focus and centre of curvature. (4) A mixture of sodium bicarbonate and mild edible
(1) At centre of curvature acid
(2) Between infinity and centre of curvature 13. Which of the following substances cannot be used
(3) Between pole and focus to neutralise an acid extract?
(4) Behind the mirror (1) Suspension of milk of magnesia
9. Velocity(v)-time(t) graph of an object undergoing (2) Baking powder solution
uniform motion is
(3) Dock leaf extract
v v
(4) Nettle leaf extract
14. Average atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5. It occurs
(1) (2) in atmosphere in two isotopic forms 17Cl 35 and
t t 37
17 Cl . The percentage abundances of these
v v isotopes are respectively
(1) 80% and 20% (2) 75% and 25%
(3) (4) (3) 70% and 30% (4) 60% and 40%
t t 15. An element ‘E’ contains 19 protons and 20 neutrons.
10. In the given figure, value of I2 will be The ion formed by E, during the formation a stable
4 I2 compound, is
2
(1) E2+ (2) E+
I
4 (3) E– (4) E2–
16. A mixture contains 0.2 g of oxygen gas and 0.4 g of
8V carbon dioxide gas. The ratio of oxygen atoms present
in oxygen gas to that in carbon dioxide gas is
(1) 1 A (2) 3 A (1) 3 : 16 (2) 11 : 8
(3) 4 A (4) 2 A (3) 3 : 4 (4) 11 : 16
2
17. The total number of oxygen atoms present in one
molecule of sodium sulphate is 21. C6H12O6 
A
 Pyruvate  B
in presence of O

(3-carbon compound) 2
(1) 4
6CO2 + 6H2O + 36 or 38 ATP.
(2) 3
The reaction A and B occur in
(3) 4.81  1022
(1) A - Cytoplasm and B - Chloroplast
(4) 1.20  1022
(2) A - Cytoplasm and B - Mitochondria
18. On heating the crystals of ferrous sulphate strongly
(3) A - Mitochondria and B - Chloroplast
two gases X and Y are evolved. The nature of X and
Y is (4) A - Ribosome and B - Cytoplasm
(1) Acidic (2) Basic 22. Select the incorrect statement.
(3) Neutral (4) Amphoteric (1) Urine is produced in kidneys
19. Read the following statements carefully : (2) Nephron is the basic filtration unit of kidneys
Statement-1: The main component of bio-gas has (3) Kidneys are located in the pelvic region
six single bonds in its one molecule. (4) Urinary bladder is under the nervous control
Statement-2: Boiling point of propane is higher than 23. The part of the brain which maintains balance of the
that of ethane. body is
Now, mark the correct option. (1) Cerebrum
(1) Both the statements are correct (2) Cerebellum
(2) Both the statements are incorrect (3) Medulla
(3) Only statement-1 is correct (4) Pons
(4) Only statement-2 is correct 24. Bile juice responsible for emulsification of fats is
20. Match the following : stored in
Functional Group Formula (1) Gall bladder
HO (2) Small intestine
i. Alcohol (a) C=O
(3) Liver
ii Aldehyde (b) C=O (4) Stomach
H 25. Radhika removed her hand abruptly after touching a
iii. Ketone (c) C=O
hot object. The message to remove her hand was
iv. Carboxylic acid (d) –OH given by the
(1) i-(b), ii-(a), iii-(c), iv-(d) (1) Vertebral column
(2) i-(c), ii-(a), iii-(b), iv-(d) (2) Spinal cord
(3) i-(d), ii-(b), iii-(c), iv-(a) (3) Brain
(4) i-(d), ii-(c), iii-(b), iv-(a) (4) Cranium
3
26. A pigment essential for photosynthesis is present in 29. In the given diagram, which of the following parts
the labelled as A, B, C and D is responsible for carrying
(1) Vacuole messages towards the cell body?
(2) Leucoplast A
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Chloroplast
27. In humans, growth hormone is secreted by B C
(1) Pituitary gland
D
(2) Adrenal gland (1) A (2) B
(3) Thyroid gland (3) C (4) D
(4) Pancreas 30. Statement 1 : Carbon dioxide in humans is
28. In an experiment related to photosynthesis a student transported in dissolved form.
added iodine to the leaf in order to test the presence of Statement 2 : In humans, haemoglobin is present
in blood plasma.
(1) Sucrose
(1) Both the statements are true
(2) Glucose
(3) Starch
(3) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
(4) Fructose (4) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true
31. If x – 2 is a factor of the polynomial 2x3 – 2x + k, 34. In the given figure, if ABC  PQR , then the
then the value of k is
measure of ATP is
(1) 12 (2) 2
A P
(3) –12 (4) 8
32. The expression (2x + 3y)3 – 18xy(2x + 3y) is equal to T
(1) 2x + 3y (2) 4x2 + 9y2
130° 140°
(3) 8x3 + 27y3 (4) 0
B Q C R
33. If ,  and  are the zeroes of the polynomial
2x3 + 3x2 – 4x + 2, then the value of 2 + 2 (1) 50°
+ 2 is (2) 40°
3 (3) 90°
(1) (2) 4
2
(4) 145°
(3) 2 (4) 1
4
35. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. If 41. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle.
AP = a units, then the length of PB is AOC + 2ABC is
P
45° O
A B
O C
A
B
a a (1) 360° (2) 180°
(1) units (2) units
2 4
(3) 90° (4) 270°
2a
(3) units (4) a units 42. The value of k for which the quadratic equation
3
kx2 + 6x + 1 = 0 has equal roots is
36. If 3x + 3x – 1 = 36, then the value of x is
(1) 3 (2) 2 (1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 1 (4) 4 (3) 9 (4) 4
1 43. If f(x) = a0 + a1x + a2x2

+ a3x3 + ... + a10x10, where
37. If p  q  , where p and q are positive a 0 , a 1 , .... a 10 are constants, then the sum of
p q
coefficients of terms having even powers of x can be
rational numbers, then q − p2 is expressed as
(1) Equal to 1 (2) Not real f (2)  f ( 2) f (2)  f ( 2)
(1) (2)
(3) Equal to –1 (4) Equal to 0 2 2
38. The dimensions of the base of a cuboid are f (1)  f ( 1) f (1)  f ( 1)
40 cm × 20 cm. If its volume is 4,000 cm3, then its (3) (4)
2 2
height is
44. A train takes 2 hours less for a journey of 600 km,
(1) 8 cm (2) 7 cm if its speed is increased by 10 km/hr from its
(3) 5 cm (4) 6 cm original speed. The original speed of the train is
39. ABC is an equilateral triangle. If P and Q are the (1) 65 km/hr (2) 60 km/hr
midpoints of AB and AC respectively and
PQ = 3 cm, then the value of PA + AQ is (3) 55 km/hr (4) 50 km/hr
(1) 3 cm (2) 6 cm 45. A rectangular piece of paper of dimensions
(3) 9 cm (4) 12 cm 88 cm × 28 cm is folded without overlapping to
make a cylinder of height 28 cm. The volume of the
40. Which of the following equations has two distinct cylinder is
real roots?
(1) x2 + 5x + 7 = 0 (2) 3x2 – 2x + 4 = 0 (1) 1456 cm3 (2) 4277 cm3
(3) 2x2 + 6x – 5 = 0 (4) x2 + 4x + 5 = 0 (3) 1746 cm3 (4) 5488 cm3
5
46. If (7  4 3)x  (7  4 3)x  14 , where x < 0, then 52. If PQRS is a quadrilateral and PR is one of its
diagonals, then which of the following is always true?
1
x5  is equal to
x5 (1) PQ + QR + RS + SP > 3PR
1 (2) PQ + QR + RS + SP < 2PR

(1)  (2) –2
2 (3) PQ + QR + RS + SP > 2PR
1 (4) PQ + QR + RS + SP = 2PR
(3) (4) 2
2
53. The number of solutions of the equation 2x + 3y = 5
47. If an angle of a parallelogram is three-seventh of its is
adjacent angle, then the measures of angles of the
parallelogram are (1) One (2) Two
(1) 126°, 54°, 126°, 54° (3) Zero (4) Infinitely many
(2) 48°, 132°, 48°, 132° 54. If the base and height of a triangle are increased by
1 unit each, then the area of the triangle is increased
(3) 62°, 118°, 62°, 118° by 9 sq. units. Also, if base of the triangle is
(4) 58°, 122°, 58°, 122° reduced by 2 units and the height remains the
same, then the area of the triangle is reduced by 12
452 sq. units. The base of the triangle is of length
48. If 0.P 56  , where P is any integer between
990 (1) 5 units (2) 6 units
0 and 9, then the value of PP is
(3) 12 units (4) 8 units
(1) 16 (2) 64
55. A field is 1700 cm long and 11 m broad. A
(3) 27 (4) 256 rectangular pit of dimensions 6 m × 3.5 m × 1 m is
dug anywhere in this field and dug out soil is spread
49. Two cubes of edge 4 cm each are joined end to evenly over the remaining part of the field. The
end. The surface area of the resulting figure is approximate rise in the level of the rest of the field
(1) 160 cm2 (2) 96 cm2 is
(3) 140 cm2 (4) 192 cm2 (1) 11.23 cm (2) 12.65 cm
50. In ABC, I is the incentre. If BIC : CIA : AIB (3) 9.57 cm (4) 10.1 cm
= 5 : 6 : 7, then the value of A : B : C is 56. The non-negative real root of the quadratic equation
(1) 3 : 1 : 5 (2) 1 : 3 : 5 2x2 – x – 21 = 0 is
(3) 5 : 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 5 : 3 3 7
(1) (2)
51. If 7x + 5y = 12 = 5x + 7y, then x2y + xy2 is equal to 2 2
(1) 12 (2) 24 5
(3) (4) 3
(3) 2 (4) 0 2
6
57. In the given figure, OBC is equilateral. If AB is the 59. In the given figure, the value of p is
longest chord of the circle and D is the mid-point of
AC, then the ratio of side OA to AD is B
A °
+ 60
A 2p
D
135°
O
C
76° 65°
B D C
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 2 : 3 (1) 14° (2) 12°
(3) 3 : 3 (4) 4 : 3 (3) 16° (4) 18°
58. If P is any point inside a ABC and s is the semi- 60. The figure formed by joining the mid-points of sides
perimeter of ABC, then which of the following is of a rhombus, taken in order, must be a
always true?
(1) PA + PB + PC < s (2) PA + PB + PC > 2s (1) Rectangle (2) Kite
(3) PA + PB + PC < 2s (4) PA + PB + PC > s (3) Rhombus (4) Square
Directions for Q.61 & Q.62 : If '24 – 4' means 6, C

'18 ÷ 2' means 20, '16 × 12' means 4, '2 + 4' means 8, D E
then find the solution of the following questions. Place Place
A B
61. 9  18 – 2 × 4 + 3
(1) 6 (2) 5 G
H F
(3) 7 (4) 13
(1) Four (2) Eight
62. 2000 – 200  20 × 2 + 15
(3) Twelve (4) Six
(1) 203 (2) 78
64. If 'R' weighs half as much as 'S', 'S' weighs one
(3) 1 (4) 0 fourth of 'J' and 'R' weighs thrice as much as 'M', then
63. What are the maximum number of ways or paths in which of the following weighs the least?
which you can go from place 'A' to place 'B', provided (1) M (2) R
you can cross any junction only once in each
journey? [C, D, E, F, G, H are junction points] (3) S (4) J
7
Directions for Q.65 & Q.66 : The first and second pair Directions for Q.67 & Q.68 : In each of the following
of figures bear a certain relationship among them. Find questions, choose the figure which will represent the best
the missing one. relationship among the three classes.
(1) (2)
?
65.
(3) (4)
(1) (2) 67. School, Classroom, Blackboard

68. Tea, Coffee, Beverages
69. Complete the figure pattern given below.
(3) (4)
?
(1) (2)
?
66. (3) (4)
Directions for Q.70 & Q.71 : At first, I interchanged the

1st and 7th letter in the word "NONSENSIBILITY" from the
beginning and then removed 2nd, 4th and the last letter to
form a new word, which might not be meaningful.
(1) (2) 70. Find the seventh letter from the last in the new word.
(1) N (2) E
(3) I (4) S
71. Which letter is fourth to the right of tenth letter from
the right end in the new word?
(3) (4) (1) E (2) N
(3) B (4) I
8
72. Out of all the given numbers as shown below choose 75. Choose the correct alternative which is different from
the odd one out. the others.
(1) Sofa (2) Table
576
(3) Furniture (4) Chair
25
1 76. Pointing to a girl in the photograph, Deepinder said,
81 “Her mother's brother is the only son of my mother's
64
200 36 father, who has only two children”. The girl's mother
441 144 is Deepinder's
169 (1) Mother (2) Sister
16
(3) Aunt (4) Grandmother
100
77. Which of the following alternatives will come next in
the series?
ZQA, XMC, VIE, TEG, ?
(1) 441 (2) 25 (1) RAI (2) SAG
(3) RAG (4) RAJ
(3) 200 (4) 576
78. Choose the correct alternative that completes the
73. In this question, select an option figure that can be given pattern.
formed by involving all the figures (with any
orientation) given in the box marked (A).
?
(1) (2)
(A)
(3) (4)
(1) (2) 79. A shopkeeper uses a code OLISPAH = ` 28/-,

where O = ` 1/-, L = ` 2/-, I = ` 3/- and so on.
Bearing this code scheme in mind, what price does
the code SOAP denote?
(1) ` 120 (2) ` 18
(3) (4)
(3) ` 16 (4) ` 61
80. How many triangles are there in the following figure?
74. 3 : 4 : : 24 : 32 : : 10 : ?
(1) 12
(1) 14.5 (2) 12.5
(2) 11
1 2 (3) 10
(3) 13 (4) 13
3 3 (4) 9
9
Directions for Q.81 to Q.83 : Study the information given Maximum marks that can be obtained in 'Maths' and
below carefully and answer the questions that follow: 'English' are 150. Maximum marks in subjects- Science,
P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X are nine houses. R is SST and Hindi are 120, 100 and 80 respectively.
2 km east of Q. P is 1 km north of Q and W is 2 km south
85. In how many subjects did Monica obtain 60% or
of P. V is 1 km west of W while S is 3 km east of V and U is
above marks?
2 km north of V. X is situated just in middle of Q and R
while T is just in middle of W and S. (1) One (2) Two
81. Distance between T and V is (3) Three (4) Four
(1) 1 km (2) 1.5 km
86. What is the percentage of marks obtained by Tara
(3) 2 km (4) 5 km overall?
82. Distance between T and X is (1) 66.8 (2) 72
(1) 1 km (2) 2 km
(3) 64.6 (4) 70
(3) 3 km (4) 4 km
87. How many students obtained more than 60% marks
83. Distance between P and U is both in Maths as well as Science?
(1) 1 km (2) 1.41 km
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) 2 km (4) 3 km
(3) One (4) Four
84. Find the missing number in the given matrix :
88. What was the aggregate of marks obtained by
6 2 3 Shikha in all the subjects?
45 9 5 (1) 470 (2) 558
110 10 ? (3) 485 (4) None of these
(1) 16 (2) 11 89. Find the odd one out from the given alternatives.
(3) 21 (4) 19
Directions for Q.No. 85 to 88 : Marks obtained by seven
students in respective subjects are given below: (1) (2)
Subjects
Student
Maths Science SST English Hindi
Ramesh 68 100 88 100 60
Suresh 75 92 35 120 60
(3) (4)
Monica 92 78 56 82 52
Adarsh 120 82 42 130 72
90. Lion : Pride :: Ship : ?
Tara 90 78 90 80 50
Amrit 100 72 85 100 75 (1) Dock (2) Troop
Shikha 135 90 90 120 50 (3) Fleet (4) School

10
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam-2014

Talent
Sample Paper
ANSWERS
1. (2) 19. (4) 37. (2) 55. (2) 73. (3)
2. (2) 20. (4) 38. (3) 56. (2) 74. (3)
3. (4) 21. (2) 39. (2) 57. (2) 75. (3)
4. (2) 22. (3) 40. (3) 58. (4) 76. (1)
5. (4) 23. (2) 41. (1) 59. (2) 77. (1)
6. (1) 24. (1) 42. (3) 60. (1) 78. (1)
7. (3) 25. (2) 43. (4) 61. (1) 79. (3)
8. (2) 26. (4) 44. (4) 62. (4) 80. (4)
9. (1) 27. (1) 45. (4) 63. (2) 81. (3)
10. (1) 28. (3) 46. (2) 64. (1) 82. (1)
11. (1) 29. (1) 47. (1) 65. (1) 83. (1)
12. (4) 30. (3) 48. (4) 66. (3) 84. (2)
13. (4) 31. (3) 49. (1) 67. (1) 85. (3)
14. (2) 32. (3) 50. (2) 68. (3) 86. (3)
15. (2) 33. (1) 51. (3) 69. (3) 87. (2)
16. (4) 34. (3) 52. (3) 70. (1) 88. (3)
17. (1) 35. (4) 53. (4) 71. (4) 89. (4)
18. (1) 36. (1) 54. (1) 72. (3) 90. (3)
Sample Paper (VII Studying) Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Junior)
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Junior)

(For VII Studying)
(The questions given in sample paper are indicative of the level and
pattern of questions that will be asked in ANTHE-2015)
SECTION-A : SCIENCE
1. How many times do the pulse of a normal healthy 4. In order to place two given cells in the battery
human adult at rest, beat in 20 seconds? compartment of a torch, the connections are made
by connecting the shown points in the order
(1) 12 times (2) 24 times
A + –
(3) 36 times (4) 72 times B
2. The odometer of a car reads the following distances

at the given instants. The ratio of average speed of
the car in the first and the second intervals is Q S
– –
P cell R cell
Time Odometer reading + +
(1) A - (Q - P) - (S - R) - B
9 : 45 AM 4404 km
(2) A - (P - Q) - (R - S) - B
10 : 15 AM 4449 km (3) A - (P - Q) - (S - R) - B
10 : 30 AM 4469 km (4) A - (Q - P) - (R - S) - B
5. The gas present in the atmosphere which protects us
(1) 9 : 8 (2) 8 : 9
from the harmful ultraviolet radiations coming from the
(3) 9 : 2 (4) 2 : 1 sun is
(1) Oxygen (2) Ozone
3. The bob of a simple pendulum takes a total time of
1.5 s to go from B to A and then from A to O as (3) Carbon dioxide (4) Nitrogen
shown. How long will it take to complete 6. Which of the following substances can be added to
20 oscillations? the soil to reduce its basic nature?
(1) Quick lime (2) Organic matter
(3) Slaked lime (4) Magnesium hydroxide
7. Which of the following conditions are essential for
rusting?
(i) Presence of air
A B
O (ii) Presence of moisture
(iii) Presence of sunlight
(1) 15 s (2) 20 s Mark the correct option.
(1) (i) & (ii) (2) (ii) & (iii)
(3) 30 s (4) 40 s
(3) (i), (ii) & (iii) (4) (i) & (iii)
1
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Junior) Sample Paper (VII Studying)
8. Which of the following processes do not show 10. Breakdown of glucose in the absence of oxygen
neutralization? leads to the formation of
(i) Intake of milk of magnesia during indigestion (1) Alcohol and carbon dioxide
(ii) Rubbing calamine solution on skin to get relief
from ant bite (2) Lime and water
(iii) Addition of turmeric in soap solution (3) Carbon dioxide and water
(iv) Dissolving lime in water (4) Water and alcohol
(1) Both (i) & (ii) (2) Both (ii) & (iii)
11. The fleshy muscular organ attached at the back of
(3) Both (iii) & (iv) (4) Both (i) & (iv) the floor of buccal cavity is
9. Match the following and choose an appropriate
(1) Tongue (2) Small intestine
option.
Column-I Column-II (3) Liver (4) Oesophagus
a. Cuscuta (i) Insectivorous plant 12. While playing, Ram injured his knee and it started
b. Pitcher plant (ii) Symbiotic relationship bleeding. But after sometime, the cut was plugged
by a dark red clot and bleeding was stopped. This
c. Mushroom (iii) Parasitic plant
occurred due to
d. Lichen (iv) Saprotrophic
(1) Red blood cells (2) Platelets
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (3) White blood cells (4) Plasma
13. In the given figure, BC is 1
15. The number that should be added to 2 to get
A 9
5
4 is
36
16 cm 20 cm
1 225
(1) 2 (2)
36 36
73 1
B C (3)  (4) 1
36 36
(1) 12 cm (2) 4 41 cm xy
16. If x is the reciprocal of y, then is equal to
xy
(3) 18 cm (4) 2 41 cm 1 y 1 y 2
(1) 2 (2)
14. Which of the following is not true? 1 y 1 y
(1) 5 : 25 = 20% (2) 0.27% = 0.0027 1 y 2 1 y
(3) (4)
(3) 7.4% = 37 : 50 (4) 18 : 72 = 25% 1 y 2 1 y
2
17. Which of the following equations represents the 19. In the given figure, if BC || DE, then the value of y is
statement, “Three subtracted from two-fifths of p is B C
three”?
A 107°
2
(1) 3  p  3 y
5
2 100°
(2) 3 p  3 E
5 D F
2 (1) 107° (2) 27°
(3) p3  3
5 (3) 100° (4) 73°
2 2
(4)  3p  3 20. Which of the following is not equivalent to ?
5 5
18. After 35 years, Rohan will be 8 times as old as he 12 34
is now. The present age of Rohan is (1) (2)
30 85
(1) 5 years (2) 7 years 54 62
(3) (4)
(3) 4 years (4) 8 years 135 165
21. In the figure given below, box ‘a’ has 2 coins, box ‘b’ 23. Find the water image of PQRST
has 3 coins, box ‘c’ has 5 coins, box ‘d’ has 7 coins
box ‘e’ has 11 coins and so on. How many coins (1) (2)
will be in box ‘i’? (3) (4)
a b c 24. Find the missing character.
d e f
g h i 3 12 ?
(1) 21 (2) 27
D M U
(3) 23 (4) 29
22. In the given figure, the maximum number of triangles (1) 21 (2) 22
is
(3) 20 (4) 19
(1) 9
25. If 5 = 23 and 9 = 79, then 12 = ?
(2) 6
(3) 8 (1) 145 (2) 142
(4) 10 (3) 144 (4) 146
3
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Junior) Sample Paper (VIII Studying)

(For VIII Studying)
SECTION-A : SCIENCE
1. The base areas of the 6 kg and the 4 kg blocks in 4. The type of force which will never be zero between
the given figures are in the ratio 4 : 1. The pressure two separate masses is
exerted on the ground in case A is
(1) Electrostatic force (2) Frictional force
4 kg 6 kg (3) Magnetic force (4) Gravitational force
6 kg 4 kg 5. C + BSO4  CSO4 + B
A + BSO4  No reaction
Case A Case B CSO4 + A  No reaction
(1) Four times of that in case B
The correct order of decreasing reactivity of A, B and
(2) Twice of that in case B C is
(3) One fourth of that in case B (1) A > B > C (2) C > B > A
(4) Same as that in case B (3) C > A > B (4) B > A > C
2. A light ray is incident on the plane mirror 1, as 6. Which among the following gases burns with a
shown. The value of  is characteristic ‘pop’ sound?

(1) Nitrogen gas (2) Oxygen gas
30°
Mirror 1
(3) Chlorine gas (4) Hydrogen gas
Mirror 3 7. Which property of aluminium makes it useful to form

aluminium foils?
(1) Malleability (2) Ductility
60°
(3) Sonority (4) Conductivity
Mirror 2 8. A black coloured liquid X having an unpleasant smell
(1) 60° (2) 90° is obtained during coal processing. X is used in the
(3) 45° (4) 120° preparation of a substance Y, which is used to repel
moths. X and Y respectively are
3. Two plane mirrors are inclined at right angle to each
other. The number of images formed for an object (1) Petrol, Bitumen
kept between the mirrors is (2) Coal tar, Naphthalene
(1) Three (2) Two (3) Kerosene, Paraffin wax
(3) Infinite (4) Four (4) Diesel, Bitumen
4
Sample Paper (VIII Studying) Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Junior)
9. Which of the following microorganisms is used for 12. Which of the following labelled parts in the given
production of curd? diagram produces the male gametes?
(1) Spirogyra (2) Yeast
(3) Penicillium (4) Lactobacillus
10. Identify the agricultural process on the basis of the S
given information.
(i) It helps in turning and loosening of soil.
P
(ii) It helps in proper mixing of manure.
(1) Harvesting (2) Weeding
(3) Tilling (4) Sowing Q
11. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are two gametes which fuse to form a
single celled structure ‘Z’. ‘X’ is motile whereas ‘Y’
is immotile. ‘X’, ‘Y’, ‘Z’ respectively are R
(1) Sperm, embryo, ovum

(2) Ovum, sperm, zygote
(1) Q (2) P
(3) Sperm, ovum, zygote
(4) Sperm, ovum, foetus (3) R (4) S
13. If 20% of x = 30% of y + 40% of z, then 15. The sum of 3.6 × 104 and 3.6 × 10–4 is
(1) 7.2 (2) 36000.00036
4 y  3z 2 x  4z
(1) x  (2) y  0
2 3 (3) 3.6 × 10 (4) 3600.0036
16. In the given figure, if ABCD is a square, then the
2x  3y 4 x  3y
(3) z  (4) z  sum of x and y is
4 2
A R B
2 2 2
( a  b )( a ab  b ) ( a  b c ) 30°
128 x .x x
14. If x  2 2 2
, then
( a  b )( a  ab  b ) ( a b c )
x .x S
P
(1) b2 + 4a (c – a) = 128 y
(2) b3 + a (c – a) = 32 60°
D Q C
(3) b3 + 2a (b – c) = 64
(1) 150° (2) 180°
(4) b2 + 8a (c – a) = 16 (3) 270° (4) 210°
5
17. The cube of 2.1 a2 b3 c5 is 19. In a parallelogram ABCD, if DO and CO are the
2 5 2 5 bisectors of ADC and BCD respectively, then
(1) 92.61 a 3 b c 3 (2) 9.261 a 3 b c 3 reflex DOC is equal to
(3) 9.261 a6 b9 c15 (4) 92.61 a6 b9 c15 (1) 270° (2) 200°
1 (3) 210° (4) 205°
18. Out of 300 marks, Reena scored th of it. If she had
6
scored ‘x’ more marks, then she would have scored
2 20. Cube of 3
[2(10)2  8  2] is
th of the total marks. The value of x is
5
(1) 36 (2) 216
(1) 30 (2) 70
(3) 90 (4) 50 (3) 256 (4) 6
21. 100 students of a class are picked randomly and 23. 325 : 16 :: 713 : 10 :: 526 : ?
instructed to make a human chain such that every
(1) 4 (2) 8
prime number position and perfect square positions
are occupied by girls only and the rest are occupied (3) 20 (4) 22
by boys only. The ratio of the girls in the first 50
students to that of the number of girls in the next 50 24. Complete the figure pattern.
students is
(1) 21 : 13 (2) 22 : 13
(3) 23 : 14 (4) 3 : 2
22. In the given question, the first and the second pair
of figures bear a certain relationship. Find the
missing one.
(1) (2)
:: ?
(3) (4)
(1) (2) 25. If in a clock the numbers 1 to 12 are replaced with

alphabets L, M, N, .... W, then at 4:20 pm, the hour
hand will lie between
(1) P and Q (2) O and N
(3) (4)
(3) P and O (4) Q and R
6
Sample Paper (IX Studying) Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Junior)

(For IX Studying)
SECTION-A : SCIENCE
1. Which of the following measures the distance 5. The compressibility of Z is less than that of Y and
travelled by a uniformly accelerated body in time t? higher than that of X. If X, Y and Z are the different
[Symbols have their usual meaning] states of the same substance, then the kinetic
⎛v u ⎞ energy in the increasing order will be
(v  u )t
(1) (2) ⎜ ⎟t
a ⎝ 2 ⎠ (1) Y > Z > X (2) Z < Y < X
2v (3) Y < Z < X (4) X < Z < Y
(3) 2 (4) 2(v 2  u 2 ) t
a 6. If one third of 100 g of 27% aqueous sugar solution
2. Which of the following graphs corresponds to is taken in a beaker and 10 g of sugar is added to
uniformly accelerated motion? (Symbols have their it, the concentration of the resulting solution will be
usual meaning) (1) 48.34% (2) 44.38%
s v
(3) 34.84% (4) 43.84%
7. Which of the following has the highest number of
(1) (2) moles?
t t (1) 46 g of H2O (2) 83 g of O2
s v
(3) 18 g of H2 (4) 112 g of N2
'X'
(3) (4) 8.
Dry ice
carbon dioxide gas
t t The process ‘X’ is
3. A body starts from rest with a uniform acceleration
(1) Sublimation (2) Fusion
of 1 m/s2. The average velocity in the interval of
t = 3 s to t = 5 s is (3) Evaporation (4) Boiling
(1) 4 m/s (2) 1 m/s 9. Which of the following are common to both animal
(3) 0.4 m/s (4) 4 cm/s cells and plant cells?
4. Which of the following is true for the values of G and (i) Cell wall (ii) Cell membrane
g on the surface of moon and earth?
(iii) Ribosome (iv) Chloroplast
(1) G remains the same but g changes
(v) Mitochondria
(2) g remains the same but G changes
(3) Both G and g remain same (1) (i), (iii) & (iv) (2) (iii), (iv) & (v)
(4) Both G and g changes (3) (i), (ii) & (iii) (4) (ii), (iii) & (v)
7
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Junior) Sample Paper (IX Studying)
10. The non-living element of the complex permanent 12.
tissue in higher plants that transports food is
(1) Vessels (2) Xylem fibre A
(3) Phloem parenchyma (4) Phloem fibre
11. Which of the following groups of organisms possess
the following features?
a. Cold blooded
b. Scales on body
c. Breathe through lungs
(1) Sparrow, white stork, pigeon and ostrich
In the diagram, the function of the part labelled as ‘A’
(2) Dog fish, lion fish, angler fish and mandarin fish
is to help in
(3) Toad, salamander, tree frog and common frog (1) Digestion of food (2) Locomotion
(4) Flying lizard, cobra, turtle and chameleon (3) Respiration (4) Excretion
1 1
13. If n is a natural number, then which of the following 
15. If x  3 3  3 3, then 3x3 – 9x equal to
is not always divisible by 2?
1 1

(1) n2 –n (2) n3 –n (1) 9 (2) 3 3  3 3
(3) n2 – 1 (4) n3 – n2 (3) 10 (4) 0

4 4
14. In the given figure, if AB = BD and BC = BE, then ⎛x⎞ ⎛y⎞
16. If ⎜ ⎟  ⎜ ⎟  47, where x and y are positive real
A ⎝y⎠ ⎝x⎠
x y
numbers, then  is equal to
y x
B (1) 5 (2) 3 3
C D
2
(3) 3 (4) 4 5
5
17. If x  0.1234 , y  0.1234 and z  0.1234 , then
E
which of the following is correct?
(1) ABC  EBD (2) ABC  BED
(1) x > y > z (2) y < z
(3) ACB  DEB (4) ACB  EDB (3) z > x (4) x > z > y
8
1 1 1 20. In the given figure, if ABCD is a parallelogram of area

18. If    0 , where a, b and c are non-zero real
a b c 16 cm2, then the length of EC is
a2  b2  c 2  ab  bc  ca
numbers, then is equal to
(a  b  c )2
A E B
(1) 2 (2) –2
(3) 1 (4) –1
F
19. ABCD is a rectangle having length (x + 1) and
breadth (x – 1). If P, Q, R and S are the mid-points m
4c
of sides AB, BC, CD and DA respectively, then the D C
perimeter of quadrilateral PQRS is
4 x ( x 2  1) 4x 2  1 (1) 4 cm (2) 2 2 cm
(1) (2)
x 2
(3) 2 4 x 2  1 (4) 2 2( x 2  1) (3) 4 2 cm (4) 8 cm

21. Choose the correct alternative to complete the figure 23. A dice numbered 1 to 6 is thrown two times and its
matrix. two different outcomes are given below. Find the
number on the face opposite to ‘2’.
5 6
3 2
6 4
?
(1) 5 (2) 3
(3) 1 (4) 6
(1) (2)
24. Which of the options, when put in the blanks, will
give the correct result?
20 ___10___12___6 =___
(3) (4)
(1) +, –, ÷, 28 (2) –, +, ×, 18
22. Find the missing number. (3) +, –, ÷, 3 (4) –, +, ÷, 18
25. In a row of girls, A is 13th from the left end and B is
7 15 ? 6th from the right end. If they interchange their
3 21 25 3 12 10
positions, B becomes 24th from the right end. How
9 5 15 many girls are there in the row?
(1) 8 (2) 6 (1) 24 (2) 36
(3) 10 (4) 12 (3) 29 (4) 40

Note : Answer key of Sample Paper is available at

www.aakash.ac.in & www.anthe.in
9
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456

(For VII, VIII & IX Studying)
ANSWERS
Class VII Studying Class VIII Studying Class IX Studying
1. (2) 1. (3) 1. (2)
2. (1) 2. (4) 2. (2)
3. (4) 3. (1) 3. (1)
4. (2) 4. (4) 4. (1)
5. (2) 5. (2) 5. (4)
6. (2) 6. (4) 6. (4)
7. (1) 7. (1) 7. (3)
8. (3) 8. (2) 8. (1)
9. (4) 9. (4) 9. (4)
10. (1) 10. (3) 10. (4)
11. (1) 11. (3) 11. (4)
12. (2) 12. (3) 12. (2)
13. (1) 13. (3) 13. (3)
14. (3) 14. (3) 14. (3)
15. (1) 15. (2) 15. (3)
16. (3) 16. (4) 16. (1)
17. (3) 17. (3) 17. (1)
18. (1) 18. (2) 18. (3)
19. (2) 19. (1) 19. (4)
20. (4) 20. (2) 20. (1)
21. (3) 21. (2) 21. (2)
22. (4) 22. (3) 22. (1)
23. (1) 23. (4) 23. (1)
24. (3) 24. (3) 24. (1)
25. (2) 25. (3) 25. (2)
Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Senior)
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Senior)

Time : 2 Hours Sample Paper MM : 360
SECTION-A : SCIENCE
1. Four bulbs, each of rating (100 W, 220 V) and 4. A rectangular glass slab having refractive index 3 ,
connected in parallel across a voltage supply of
is silvered at one surface as shown in the figure. If
220 V, are operated for five hours daily. If all the bulbs
the angle of refraction of the light ray at the interface
are replaced by LEDs of rating (8 W, 220 V), how
AB is 30°, then the measure of angle x will be
many units of electrical energy will be saved every
month (30 days)?
Light ray
(1) 55.2 units
AIR A
(2) 60 units
x
(3) 4.8 units 30°
(4) 32 units B
2. In the circuit given below, the potential difference Silvered
across the arm PQ will be
(1) 45° (2) 30°
P Q (3) 60° (4) 90°
6
5. The effective focal length of two lenses in contact with
6 each other, having focal lengths f1 and f2, is given by
5 f1  f2
(1) f1 + f2 (2) f1f2
24 V
f1f2 f1
(1) 4.5 V (2) 12 V (3) f  f (4) f
1 2 2
(3) 24 V (4) 9 V
6. Same net force is applied on two different objects of
3. A real object is kept at a distance of 2f, first in front masses m and 3m. If x and y are the magnitudes of
of a convex lens and then in front of a concave x
mirror, each having focal length f. The ratio of their acceleration respectively, then the ratio y will
magnifications produced by them will be be
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : –1 (1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 1
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 2 : –1
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 9 : 1
1
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Senior) Sample Paper
7. Match the following and choose the appropriate 9. A pistol of mass 2 kg fires a bullet of mass 50 g.
option. (Symbols have their usual meanings) 1
The bullet strikes a stationary block of mass kg.
Column (A) Column (B) 2
If the block, with the bullet embedded in it, moves
a. v (i) Particle undergoing with a velocity of 4 m/s, the recoil velocity of the
uniform positive pistol will be (Ignore friction and air resistance)
acceleration (1) –1.10 m/s (2) –0.5 m/s
(3) –0.55 m/s (4) –1 m/s
t 10. A girl of mass 40 kg takes a staircase of 15 steps,
each of height 20 cm. If she utilizes a power of
80 W to climb the staircase, the time taken by her
b. v (ii) Particle is at rest
is [Take g = 10 m/s2]
(1) Half a minute (2) 40 s
(3) 45 s (4) 15 s
11. Two copper wires A and B have their cross sectional
t
areas in the ratio 1 : 2 and lengths in the ratio 2 : 1
s respectively. The ratio of the resistivities of A and B
c. (iii) Particle undergoing
will be
constant retardation
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 8 : 1
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
t 12. If ratios of masses and velocities of two bodies are

2 : 3 and 4 : 5 respectively, then the ratio of
magnitude of their momenta is
d. v (iv) Particle moving with (1) 15 : 8 (2) 8 : 15
uniform velocity
(3) 5 : 6 (4) 6 : 5
13. As shown in the figure, a 4 kg ball initially moving
with horizontal velocity v strikes the wall and
t rebounds with 75% of its initial speed. It then
undergoes head on collision with the 6 kg ball and
sticks to it. If both start moving with common speed
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
of 6 m/s, then the value of v is
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
Wall
8. A boy runs on a circular track of radius 20 m and 6 kg
stops after covering one sixth of the track. The Smooth (At rest) 4 kg
v
magnitude of his displacement will be surface
(1) 20 m (2) 20 m
20 (1) 20 m/s (2) 15 m/s
(3) 40 m (4) m
3 (3) 60 m/s (4) 12 m/s
2
14. Choose the pair of quantities having same unit. 20. On thermal decomposition of CaCO3, a gas ‘X’ is
(1) Power and energy obtained. The aqueous solution of X
(1) Turns red litmus blue
(2) Current and potential difference
(2) Does not change the colour of phenolphthalein
(3) Work and energy
(3) Gives red colour with turmeric
(4) Magnification and power
(4) Gives blue colour with methyl orange
15. When a ball is thrown vertically upwards, then at the
21. aMnO2 + bHCl  cMnCl2 + dH2O + eCl2
highest point
pC2H5OH + qO2  rCO2 + sH2O
(1) Acceleration is zero but velocity is non-zero
a, c, q and r in the above chemical equations
(2) Acceleration is non-zero but velocity is zero respectively are
(3) Both acceleration and velocity are zero (1) 2, 4, 2 and 1 (2) 1, 1, 3 and 2
(4) Both acceleration and velocity are non-zero (3) 4, 2, 2 and 1 (4) 2, 1, 4 and 2
16. A colourless and odourless gas P is evolved during 22. The number of moles of ammonia that have the
thermal decomposition of lead nitrate. P reacts with same mass as that of 3 moles of carbon dioxide is
the main component of biogas to form compounds Q (1) 0.19 mol (2) 2.58 mol
and R. P, Q and R respectively are (3) 9.04 mol (4) 7.76 mol
(1) N2O, O2 and H2O (2) CO2, O2 and Cl2 23. Two elements ‘A’ and ‘B’ have same number of
(3) O2, CO2 and H2O (4) O2, CO2 and H2 electrons in their valence shells. The number of
electrons present in the second last shell of atom ‘A’
17. The number of C – H bonds present in propanol is
is two times the number of electrons present in the
(1) 8 (2) 9 second shell of atom ‘B’. A and B respectively are
(3) 10 (4) 7 (1) Aluminium and phosphorus
18. Identify which of the following statements is/are true (2) Magnesium and calcium
and choose the appropriate option. (3) Silicon and carbon
(i) Unsaturated hydrocarbons generally burn with a (4) Oxygen and sulphur
sooty flame. 24. Match the following and choose the correct option.
(ii) The possible structural isomers for butane are Element Valency
three.
a. C (i) 3
(1) Both (i) & (ii) are correct b. B (ii) 4
(2) Both (i) & (ii) are incorrect c. K (iii) 2
(3) Only (i) is correct d. Mg (iv) 1
(4) Only (ii) is correct (1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
19. Which of the following gases is evolved at cathode (3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
during the electrolysis of brine? 25. Mass of 48.176 × 1023 molecules of CH4 will be
(1) Cl2 (2) O2 (1) 68 g (2) 92 g
(3) H2 (4) NO2 (3) 128 g (4) 188 g
3
26. Dehydration of ethanol results in the formation of a 32. In humans, the centre associated with hunger is
compound ‘X’ along with water. Hydrogenation of ‘X’ present in the
forms another compound ‘Y’. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively (1) Fore brain (2) Hind brain
are (3) Mid brain (4) Spinal cord
(1) Ethanoic acid and methane 33. In humans, ________ provides a surface where
(2) Ethene and ethane exchange of gases can take place.
(3) Ethanol and ethane (1) Neuron (2) Villi
(4) Ethane and methane (3) Nephron (4) Alveolus
27. Which of the following contains the maximum 34. Statement-1 : Carbon dioxide is insoluble in water.
number of atoms? Statement-2 : Haemoglobin has a high affinity for
(1) 48 g of helium oxygen.
(2) 3.011 × 1021 molecules of ammonia (1) Both the statements are true
(3) 48 molecules of methane (2) Both the statements are false
(4) 3 mol of oxygen (3) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false and statement-2 is true
28. Which of the following pairs of elements have same
Lack of
number of valence electrons? In cytoplasm oxygen
35. Glucose Pyruvate (in our muscle P + Energy
(1) Sodium and magnesium (6-Carbon cells) (3-Carbon
molecule) molecule)
(2) Carbon and nitrogen
The accumulation of ‘P’ in humans leads to
(3) Oxygen and sulphur
(1) Dwarfism (2) Muscle cramps
(4) Potassium and calcium
(3) Diabetes (4) Hepatitis A
29. On thermal decomposition of baking soda, salt ‘X’ is
36. Which of the following is not a part of excretory
obtained. The aqueous solution of ‘X’ will be
system in human beings?
(1) Acidic (2) Basic (1) Kidney (2) Ureter
(3) Amphoteric (4) Neutral (3) Vas deferens (4) Urethra
30. Compound A on reacting with baking soda produces 37. In which of the following test tubes digestion of
a colourless gas C, which when passed through lime protein would not take place?
water forms a solution D. On further passing the gas
C through D, another solution E is formed. Identify
the nature of A and the colour of the solution E. Pepsin Pepsin Trypsin Trypsin
(1) Acidic, blue (2) Basic, red + + + +
(3) Basic, yellow (4) Acidic, colourless HCl Alkali Alkali HCl
31. The green coloured pigment present in chloroplast + + + +
helps in
Protein Protein Protein Protein
(1) Absorption of phosphorus from the soil
(2) Absorption of light energy
P Q R S
(3) Removal of excess water through lenticels (1) P and R (2) P and S
(4) Exchange of respiratory gases (3) Q and S (4) R and Q
4
38. In which part of the alimentary canal digestion of 42. Rings of cartilage are present in the throat to
starch begins?
(1) Absorb more oxygen from the air
(1) Stomach (2) Filter the inhaled air
(2) Large intestine (3) Prevent the air passage from collapsing
(3) Liver (4) Produce more energy
(4) Buccal cavity 43. Trypsin (Trypsinogen) is secreted from
39. The endocrine gland ‘A’ is located at the top of a (1) Pancreas
human excretory organ ‘B’. Identify the organ ‘B’ and
(2) Stomach
the hormone secreted by ‘A’
(3) Small intestine
Hormone secreted (4) Liver
Organ 'B'
by endocrine gland 'A'
44. Which of the following is the first step of
(1) Ureter Adrenaline photosynthesis?
(2) Kidneys Thyroxine (1) Splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and
oxygen
(3) Kidneys Adrenaline
(2) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
(4) Urethra Thyroxine molecules
(3) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates
'P' neuron
40. Receptor (4) Conversion of light energy into chemical energy
Spinal cord 45. The structure illustrated below is responsible for

'Q' neuron Guard cells
Effector
Identify ‘P’.
(1) Motor neuron (2) Relay neuron
Stomatal pore
(3) Sensory neuron (4) Interneuron
Chloroplast
41. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are the two endocrine glands located in
the brain. ‘X’ releases a hormone ‘Z’ which regulates
growth in humans. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are
(1) X – Hypothalamus and Y – Pituitary gland (i) Gaseous exchange (ii) Transpiration
(2) X – Thyroid gland and Y – Pineal gland (iii) Storage of food (iv) Transport of food
(3) X – Pituitary gland and Y – Pineal gland (1) (ii) and (iv) only (2) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(4) X – Pituitary gland and Y – Thyroid gland (3) (i) and (ii) only (4) (i), (ii) and (iv)
5
46. If ,  and  are the zeroes of a cubic polynomial AQ 1

ax3 + cx + d, then (1 + ) +  +  is equal to 50. In the given figure, PRCB is a square. If 
AC 3
and BC = 6 cm, then the length of AP is
2c 2d
(1)
a
(2)
a A
d c
(3) (4) Q
a a P R
47. In the given figure, area of quadrilateral ABCD is
H 1 cm A 1 cm
E
B C
1 cm 1 cm (1) 2 cm (2) 1 cm
(3) 4 cm (4) 3 cm
D B 51. An English word consists of 9 alphabets. The sum
of twice the number of vowels and three times the
1 cm 1 cm number of consonants present in the word is equal
to four more than four times the total number of
vowels in the English alphabets. The product of the
O 1 cm C 1 cm P number of vowels and consonants present in the
word is
1
(1) 2 cm2 (2) cm2 (1) 9 (2) 20
2
(3) 18 (4) 14
1 1
(3) cm2 (4) cm2 52. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. If
4 8
x + y = 180°, then the value of z is
48. If y2 + 7y + 5p = 0, then the integral value of p for
which the given equation does not have real roots can
be
(1) 1 (2) 2 O C
y x
(3) 3 (4) –1
z
a a
A B
49. If (2 )  16 , then the value of a is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 120° (2) 30°

(3) 4 (4) 16 (3) 60° (4) 90°
6
53. The ratio of the radius of the base of a cylinder to 59. In the given figure, AB = AC. If P, Q, T and H are
its height is 7 : 6. If the volume of the cylinder is the midpoints of AB, AC, BR and CR respectively,
294 cm3, then its base diameter is then TH can be equal to
(1) 1 cm (2) 14 cm A
(3) 7 cm (4) 12 cm
60°
54. If the product of HCF and LCM of two natural
numbers is 378000, then which of the following can P Q
be their HCF? R
(1) 66 (2) 130 T H

(3) 34 (4) 20 B C
55. In the given figure, the length of AD is AB AC

(1) (2)
4 3
A
(3) AP (4) PC
26 cm D 60. If p(x) = ax3+ bx2
+ cx + d is a polynomial and
a + b + c + d = 0, then which of the following must
8 cm be a factor of p(x)?
C (1) x + 1 (2) x – 1
24 cm B
(3) x2 –1 (4) x
(1) 6 cm (2) 7 cm
61. If PQRS is a rhombus, P Q and O is the point
(3) 4 cm (4) 5 cm of intersection of its diagonals, then which of the
following is always false?
56. 2  3 can be expressed as (1) PR  QS (2) PO = RO
PR
1 1 (3) PSO = RSO (4) QO =
(1) 2  (2) 3  2
3 2
62. In the given figure, QP || BC and PR || CD. If
1 3 3 1 AQ = 3 cm, QB = 2 cm and RD = 5 cm, then the
(3) (4) length of AR is
2 2
A
57. If the side x of a cube becomes 11 times of itself,
then its volume increases by
(1) 1330x3 (2) 1331x3 Q R
(3) 1321x3 (4) 1320x3
P
B D
58. If 5 is a root of the equation 2x2 – 6x – 5a = 0, then
the value of a2 – 2a is
C
(1) 24 (2) 12 (1) 7 cm (2) 7.5 cm
(3) 14 (4) 8 (3) 6 cm (4) 6.5 cm
7
63. For the given system of equations 3x – 4y = 5 and 68. A rectangular tank, 50 cm long and 30 cm wide,
5x + by = c to be inconsistent, one pair of values of contains water upto a height of 9 cm. A box of
b and c can be dimensions 25 cm × 25 cm × 20 cm is now placed
in the tank so that its square face rests on the
20 25 bottom of the tank. The quantity of water (in L) that
(1) b   and c  must be poured into the tank in order to just cover
3 3
the box is
(2) b = – 6.4 and c = – 20
(1) 0.4 (2) 16.5
(3) b = 6.4 and c = 19
(3) 12.5 (4) 4
20 69. In the given figure, ABCD is a square of area

(4) b   and c = –19 16 cm2. If O is the centre of the circle, then the
3
length of OP is
64. If three numbers are consecutive positive integers
and five times the square of the largest number is D C
greater than two times the sum of the squares of
the other two numbers by 75, then the sum of the
smallest and the largest of these numbers is
O
(1) 12 (2) 9
(3) 8 (4) 10
P
A B
3 pq
65. If  1 and  1 , then 2p is equal to
pq 8 8
(1) 4 cm (2) cm
11
13 (3) 2 cm (4) 3 cm
(1) (2) 11
7
 QR
70. In the given figure, if PQ  RP and O is the
(3) 10 (4) 7
centre of the circle, then the value of x is
66. Which of the following numbers will completely divide P
261 + 262 + 263 + 264?
(1) 100 (2) 10
(3) 27 (4) 17
O x
67. The sum of all the zeroes of the polynomial
(y + 2)(y – 3)(y2 – 1) is Q R
(1) 0 (2) –1
(1) 30° (2) 60°
(3) 1 (4) 6 (3) 45° (4) 15°
8

71. Choose the option from given alternatives that best 75. 42 : 16 :: 32 : 9 :: 25 : ?
fits the empty space. (1) 42 (2) 32
(3) 52 (4) 25
76. If rank of a student from last is 17th and 15th from
beginning, then how many students are there?
(1) 31 (2) 32
(3) 33 (4) 17
77. Which digit will be the next in the given sequence?
3145955?
(1) 4 (2) 5
(1) (2) (3) 1 (4) 9
Directions (Q.78) : In a certain language, ‘45’ is coded
as 3, ‘35’ is coded as 5, ‘6’ is coded as 2.
78. ‘34’ will be coded as
(3) (4) (1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 7 (4) 2
72. In a party, there are 15 members. Each shakes hand 79. Choose the alternative which is different from the
with one another. Total numbers of the handshakes others.
is (1) Einstein (2) Niels Bohr
(1) 120 (2) 105 (3) CV Raman (4) Wright Brothers
(3) 90 (4) 15 Directions (Q.80) : Any number from 0-9 can be
displayed digitally using seven-segments on an LED
73. If x3 – y3 = (x – y) (x2 + y2 – xy) and x3 + y3 = (x + display as shown below.
y)(x2 + y2 + xy), then (23 + 33)  (33 – 23) p
95 35 u q
(1) (2) v
7 19
t r
19 s
(3) (4) 125
35 80. Due to poor power supply, any two segments are not
working. Which of the following numbers can be
74. Find the odd one out.
displayed properly?
(1) (16, 30, 34) (2) (11, 40, 41) (1) 8 (2) 9
(3) (20, 21, 29) (4) (11, 60, 61) (3) 6 (4) 4
9
81. Choose the odd one out. Directions (Q.84 & Q.85) : Read the following information
carefully and answer the questions.
Five members of a family are sitting on a dining table. L
(1) (2) is the mother of M. M is the sister of N, who is the son
of O. P is the only daughter-in-law of L.
84. How is P related to M?
(1) Sister
(3) (4) (2) Daughter
(3) Sister-in-law
Directions (Q.82) : The first and the second pair of (4) Daughter-in-law
figures bear a certain relationship among them. Find the 85. O is M's _______ ?
missing one.
(1) Brother (2) Sister
+ +
(3) Father (4) Uncle
–
82. :: ? 86. Find the figure from the alternatives that completes
# # the given series.

?

(1) (2)
–
–
–
–
(1) (2)
(3) (4) 

83. If ‘cellphones’ and ‘TV’ are represented by two small

circles and ‘coloured’ is represented by a big circle, (3) (4)
then which figure best represents the logical
relationship between the three entities? 87. How many minimum number of line segments are
required to make the figure given below?
(1) (2)
(3) (4) (1) 13 (2) 12

(3) 11 (4) 10
10
88. From the letters given below, which one, when turned 89. By what percentage, the number of students
upside down and then reflected in a mirror, will specialising in Maths is more than that in Science?
represent the same letter?
(1) 200% (2) 300%
(1) L (2) B
(3) 400% (4) 350%
(3) C (4) N
90. The difference of the students specializing in Hindi
Directions (Q.89 & Q.90) : Study the following pie-chart and Maths is
to answer the questions.
1
(1) of Spanish
Hindi 7
(260)
2
English (2) of English
(111) Spanish 3
e (449)
en c
Sci 0) 5
(7 Maths (3) of Science
(210) 7
(4) Less than that of Spanish but more than that of
Number of students specializing in a specific subject English


11
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Sample Paper
ANSWERS
1. (1) 19. (3) 37. (3) 55. (1) 73. (1)
2. (4) 20. (2) 38. (4) 56. (4) 74. (2)
3. (1) 21. (2) 39. (3) 57. (1) 75. (2)
4. (3) 22. (4) 40. (3) 58. (4) 76. (1)
5. (3) 23. (3) 41. (3) 59. (3) 77. (3)
6. (3) 24. (3) 42. (3) 60. (2) 78. (4)
7. (2) 25. (3) 43. (1) 61. (4) 79. (4)
8. (2) 26. (2) 44. (2) 62. (2) 80. (4)
9. (1) 27. (1) 45. (3) 63. (4) 81. (4)
10. (4) 28. (3) 46. (3) 64. (3) 82. (1)
11. (4) 29. (2) 47. (1) 65. (2) 83. (2)
12. (2) 30. (4) 48. (3) 66. (2) 84. (3)
13. (1) 31. (2) 49. (3) 67. (3) 85. (3)
14. (3) 32. (1) 50. (4) 68. (4) 86. (4)
15. (2) 33. (4) 51. (3) 69. (3) 87. (4)
16. (3) 34. (4) 52. (2) 70. (1) 88. (4)
17. (4) 35. (2) 53. (2) 71. (4) 89. (1)
18. (3) 36. (3) 54. (4) 72. (2) 90. (3)

(For VII Studying)
SECTION-A : SCIENCE
1. A man puts his hand in water at 30 °C for a while. 4. A stopwatch records the successive positions
He will feel colder if he puts the same hand in another [B → C → B → A and so on] of the motion of a
vessel containing water at simple pendulum. The readings in seconds of the
stopwatch with the corresponding position of the bob
(1) 20 °C (2) 30 °C
is as shown in the table.
(3) 35 °C (4) 40 °C
2. The odometer of a car reads the following distances
at the given instants. The ratio of average speed of
the car in the first and the second intervals is
Time Odometer reading A C

B
9 : 45 AM 4404 km
10 : 15 AM 4449 km Position of bob
20 B
10 : 30 AM 4469 km
24 C
(1) 9 : 8 (2) 8 : 9 28 B
(3) 9 : 2 (4) 2 : 1 The time taken to complete two oscillations is
3. The bulb connected across which of the following (1) 4 s (2) 8 s

terminals will not glow?
(3) 16 s (4) 32 s
1 2 3 4
5. Identify the product 'P' in the following reaction :
A B C D
5 6 7 8 (1) Carbon dioxide
[Given all cells are identical] (2) Mixture of oxygen and carbon dioxide
(1) 1 and 3 (2) 1 and 6 (3) Oxygen
(3) 2 and 8 (4) 1 and 8 (4) Mixture of nitrogen and carbon dioxide
1
6. A gas 'X' is evolved when baking soda is added to 9. Match the following and choose an appropriate option.
vinegar. When 'X' is passed through lime water, the
Column-I Column-II
colour of the solution turns milky due to the formation
of a new substance 'Y'. 'X' and 'Y' respectively are a. Cuscuta (i) Insectivorous plant
(1) Carbon dioxide and calcium carbonate b. Pitcher plant (ii) Symbiotic relationship
(2) Hydrogen and calcium oxide c. Mushroom (iii) Parasitic plant
(3) Carbon dioxide and calcium oxide
d. Lichen (iv) Saprotrophic
(4) Hydrogen and calcium carbonate
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
7. Which of the following conditions are essential for
(2) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
rusting?
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(i) Presence of air
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(ii) Presence of moisture
10. In buffaloes, cellulose of grass is digested in a sac
(iii) Presence of sunlight
like structure called 'X' with the help of a certain
Mark the correct option. bacteria. 'X' is located between
(1) (i) & (ii) (2) (ii) & (iii) (1) Oesophagus and rumen
(3) (i), (ii) & (iii) (4) (i) & (iii) (2) Small intestine and large intestine
8. Consider the given Venn diagram. (3) Rumen and small intestine
(4) Stomach and small intestine
11. In cockroaches, exchange of gases occurs through
Substances (1) Gills

obtained A Acids
from fruits (2) Tracheae
(3) Spiracles
(4) Skin
On the basis of given Venn diagram, substance 'A' 12. Which of the following organs is not a part of human
cannot be respiratory system?
(1) Ascorbic acid (1) Trachea
(2) Citric acid (2) Lung
(3) Tartaric acid (3) Oesophagus
(4) Hydrochloric acid (4) Nasal passage
2
13. In the given figure, the value of x is 18. After 35 years, Rohan will be 8 times as old as he is
now. The present age of Rohan is
(1) 5 years
(2) 7 years
(3) 4 years
(4) 8 years
(1) 45° (2) θ 19. In the given figure, if COD is a straight line, OM is
the bisector of ∠COB and AB || PQ, then a – b is
(3) 90° – θ (4) 90° equal to
14. Which of the following is not true?
A
(1) 5 : 25 = 20% P
C
(2) 0.27% = 0.0027 45°
(3) 7.4% = 37 : 50
O M
(4) 18 : 72 = 25% a
b
15. –42 × 3 × (–5) × (–7) is equal to
(1) (–3) × (15) × (–294) D B Q
(2) (–15) × 294
(1) 22.5°
(3) (–3) × (–5) × 7 × 42
(2) 45°
(4) (–3) × 35 × 42 × 3
(3) 135°
16. The median of set of numbers : 13, 19, 8, 5, 14 is
(4) 67.5°
(1) 8 (2) 5
20. The largest of the following is
(3) 13 (4) 14
(1) 0.0001 + 0.01
1 x −1
17. If x − = , then the value of x is
3 3 1 1
(2) −
(1) –1 100 1000
(2) 1 (3) (0.1)2

(3) 3
1
(4) ÷ 0.001
(4) 0 10
3

21. A tourist reached New Delhi railway station and hired 23. Find the water image of PQRST.
a taxi. From the railway station, the taxi driver took
the tourist towards north for 1 km after which the taxi (1) (2)
turned by 270° clockwise at a round about and moved (3) (4)
by 3 km to reach a T-point. The taxi then took a left 24. Find the missing number.
turn and travelled further by 2 km to reach the
destination. The direction, in which the destination 5 5
lies with respect to the railway station, is
5 4 6 10 5 5
(1) North-West (2) South-East
(3) North-East (4) South-West 4 5
22. In the following figure, how many triangles are 3 3

possible?
4 3 6 2 ? 2
2 3
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
25. If 5 = 23 and 9 = 79, then 12 = ?
(1) 14 (2) 18 (1) 145 (2) 142
(3) 19 (4) 20 (3) 144 (4) 146

4

(For VIII Studying)
SECTION-A : SCIENCE
1. The base areas of the 6 kg and the 4 kg blocks in 3. Which of the following is the good conductor of
the given figures are in the ratio 4 : 1. The pressure electricity?
exerted on the ground in case A is
(1) Wood (2) Plastic
(3) Distilled water (4) Sea water
4. A pendulum oscillates y times in x seconds. Its time
period and frequency respectively are
(1) Four times of that in case B x x x y

(1) s, Hz (2) s, Hz
y y y x
(2) Twice of that in case B
(3) One fourth of that in case B
y x 1
(3) s, Hz (4) xy s, Hz
(4) Same as that in case B x y xy
2. A bottle is designed in a way as shown in figure. Three
5. C + BSO4 → CSO4 + B
identical balloons are fixed on the three glass tubes
of same cross-sectional area. When the bottle is A + BSO4 → No reaction
completely filled with water, the amount of the bulge
of the balloons will be in order CSO4 + A → No reaction
The correct order of decreasing reactivity of A, B and
C is
(1) A > B > C (2) C > B > A
C (3) C > A > B (4) B > A > C
B
6. Which of the following is not a cause of the formation
A
of a green coloured coating over the surface of copper
metal?
(1) A < B < C (2) A > B > C (1) Sulphur dioxide (2) Moisture
(3) A = C > B (4) A = B = C (3) Carbon dioxide (4) Oxygen
5
7. ‘A’ and ‘B’ are the two different varieties of plastics. 9. A method of preservation in which the milk is heated
‘A’ is used for manufacturing toys, combs etc. and to about 70 °C for 15 to 30 seconds and cooled
‘B’ is used for making electrical switches. Plastic ‘A’ suddenly is called
and ‘B’ respectively are
(1) Nitrogen fixation (2) Pasteurisation
(1) PVC, bakelite (3) Fertilisation (4) Fermentation
(2) Polythene, melamine 10. Identify the agricultural process on the basis of the
(3) Bakelite, melamine given information.
(4) PVC, melamine (i) It helps in turning and loosening of soil.
8. Match the following. (ii) It helps in proper mixing of manure.

(1) Harvesting (2) Weeding
Column-I Column-II
(3) Tilling (4) Sowing
a. Rayon (i) Natural fibre
11. Identify the scientist who coined the term ‘cell’.
b. Nylon (ii) Coal, water and air
(1) Robert Koch (2) Robert Hooke
c. Acrylic (iii) Artificial silk
(3) Edward Jenner (4) Louis Pasteur
d. Cotton (iv) Artificial wool 12. Which of the following shows the least biodiversity?
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (1) Biosphere reserve (2) Wildlife sanctuary
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (3) Huge crop field (4) National park
13. Which of the following is greatest? 15. A bag has 5 blue balls and 3 white balls. A ball is
23 drawn from the bag without looking into the bag. The
(1) % (2) 0.6% probability of getting a white ball is
36
3 3
(3) 7 % (4) 13 % 1
8 4 (1)
8
{( x ) }
c
a
14. If x ( 3a )
bc
b
= (a, b, c ≠ 0), then the value of
1
(2)
3a bc –1 3
is
bc
3
3bc (3)
5
(1) (2) 3
3
1 3
(3) bc (4) 31– bc (4)
8
3
6
16. In the given figure, AECD is a parallelogram and

1
∠DAB + ∠DCB = 180°. The measure of ∠AEC is 18. Out of 300 marks, Reena scored th of it. If she had
6
equal to
scored x more marks, then she would have scored
B
2
th of the total marks. The value of x is
30° 5
A E
(1) 30 (2) 70
(3) 90 (4) 50
10° 19. In a parallelogram ABCD, if DO and CO are the
bisectors of ∠ADC and ∠BCD respectively, then
D C reflex ∠DOC is equal to
(1) 105° (2) 40°
(1) 270° (2) 200°
(3) 110° (4) 100°
(3) 210° (4) 205°
17. The cube of 2.1 a2 b3 c5 is
20. Which of the following numbers is a palindromic
2 5 2 5 number as well as a perfect square?
(1) 92.61 a 3 b c 3 (2) 9.261 a 3 b c 3
(1) 98789 (2) 56765
6 9 15 6 9 15
(3) 9.261 a b c (4) 92.61 a b c (3) 123454321 (4) 17161

21. 100 students of a class are picked randomly and 22. Select a suitable figure from the answer figures that
would replace the question mark (?).
instructed to make a human chain such that every
prime number position and perfect square positions
are occupied by girls only and the rest are occupied
by boys only. The ratio of the girls in the first 50
?
students to that of the number of girls in the next 50
students is
(1) (2)
(1) 21 : 13
(2) 22 : 13
(3) 23 : 14
(3) (4)
(4) 3 : 2
7
23. 325 : 16 :: 713 : 10 :: 526 : ?
(1) 4
(2) 8
(1) (2)
(3) 20
(4) 22
24. Which of the given options cannot be formed by using

the following parts of the figure?
(3) (4)
(B)
(A) 25. Choose the odd one out from the following.
Baby elephant, Calf, Puppy, Duckling
(C)
(1) Baby elephant (2) Calf
(D)
(3) Puppy (4) Duckling

8

(For IX Studying)
SECTION-A : SCIENCE
1. Which of the following measures the distance travelled 2h h
by a uniformly accelerated body in time t? [Symbols (1) (2)
g 2g
have their usual meaning]
(v − u )t ⎛v +u ⎞ h mh
(1) (2) ⎜ ⎟t (3) 2 (4)
a ⎝ 2 ⎠ g g
2v 5. The compressibility of Z is less than that of Y and
(3) 2 (4) 2(v 2 − u 2 ) t higher than that of X. If X, Y and Z are the different
a
states of the same substance, then the kinetic energy
2. The displacement-time graph of a uniformly
in the increasing order will be
accelerating body of mass 2 kg, initially at rest, is
shown below. (1) Y > X > Z (2) Z < Y < X
(3) Y < Z < X (4) X < Z < Y
Displacement (m)
6. On adding 'x' g of the solute to 100 g aqueous

50 solution, the concentration in terms of mass by mass
percentage changes from 50% to 60%. Amount of
solute 'x' is
(1) 20 g (2) 10 g
0
10 (3) 35 g (4) 25 g
Time (s)
7. A, B and C represent the three states of matter.
The magnitude of force acting on the body is
(1) 0.5 N (2) 1 N A B C
(3) 2 N (4) 4 N
3. A bullet of mass 50 g is fired horizontally with a speed
of 540 km/h from a gun of mass 5 kg. The recoil
speed of the gun is
(1) 5.4 m/s (2) 1.5 m/s The state that will show maximum interparticle forces
(3) 1.5 km/h (4) 5400 km/h of attraction and the one that will show maximum
diffusion respectively are
4. A ball of mass m is dropped from height h. The time
taken by the ball to reach the ground is [Take g as (1) B and A (2) B and C
acceleration due to gravity] (3) A and B (4) A and C
9
8. The final step involved in a water purification system is

(1) Loading (2) Filtration
(3) Chlorination (4) Sedimentation Hypertonic
solution
9. Which of the following are common to both animal
cells and plant cells? (1)
(i) Cell wall The cell would swell
and become turgid
(ii) Cell membrane
(iii) Ribosome
(iv) Chloroplast
(v) Mitochondria Hypertonic
solution
(1) (i), (iii) & (iv) (2) (iii), (iv) & (v)
(3) (i), (ii) & (iii) (4) (ii), (iii) & (v) (2)
10. Identify the plant tissue depicted below. The cell would be
plasmolysed
Hypertonic
solution
(3)
(1) Collenchyma (2) Parenchyma
(3) Sclerenchyma (4) Chlorenchyma The cell would shrink
11.
Hypertonic
solution
(4)
Beaker containing
Plant cell
Hypertonic solution The cell would burst
The plant cell was introduced into the beaker
containing hypertonic solution. 12. 'X' and 'Y' are the two types of connective tissues. 'X'
contains Haversian canal and 'Y' contains
chondrocytes and hyaline matrix. 'X' and 'Y'
Hypertonic respectively are
solution
? (1) Bone and cartilage
After 3 hours
(2) Bone and adipose tissue
Plant cell
What will happen to the plant cell after 3 hours in the (3) Cartilage and bone
above given situation? (4) Areolar tissue and cartilage
10
13. If n is a natural number, then which of the following
17. If x = 0.1234 , y = 0.1234 and z = 0.1234 , then
is not always divisible by 2?
which of the following is correct?
(1) n2 – n (2) n3 – n
(1) x > y > z
(3) n2 – 1 (4) n3 – n2
(2) y < z
14. In the given figure, ABCD is a rectangle. If
ΔABF ≅ ΔDCE, then the measure of ∠AGD is equal (3) z > x
to
(4) x > z > y
A D 1 1 1
18. If + + = 0 , where a, b and c are non-zero real
45° a b c
G a2 + b2 + c 2 − ab − bc − ca
numbers, then is equal to
(a + b + c )2
B C
E F (1) 2 (2) –2
(1) 45° (2) 75° (3) 1 (4) –1
(3) 80° (4) 90° 19. If the lengths of the sides of a triangle are in the ratio
6 : 11 : 15 and its perimeter is 96 cm, then the height
15. The greatest prime factor of 48 – 38 is
corresponding to the longest side is
(1) 7 (2) 13
(1) 8 cm (2) 4 2 cm
(3) 337 (4) 5
16. In the given figure, if ΔDAC ≅ ΔEBC, ∠CDA = 35° (3) 16 2 cm (4) 8 2 cm
and ∠EBC = 43°, then the measure of ∠BCD is
20. In the given figure, ED is a straight line such that
E D ∠ABE = 139° and ∠ACD = 156°. The measure of
∠BAC is
A
139° 156°
A B
C E B C D
(1) 78° (2) 35° (1) 110° (2) 120°
(3) 102° (4) 43° (3) 115° (4) 105°
11

21. 22. Find the missing number.
13 2 5
8 7
? 9
3 8
1 2 9
? (1) 5
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
23. An engineer wife called her scientist husband saying
(1) that she has forgotten the ATM password. The
scientist replied, "Add your year of birth to the
smallest 4-digit perfect square number". If the
engineer was born in 1988, then "****" stands for
(2) ****
1 2 3
4 5 6
7 8 9
(3)
0
Cancel
(1) 3010
(2) 3013
(4)
(3) 3012
(4) 3011
12
24. Choose the correct figure from options which
contains following figure as its part.
(3) (4)
25. In a row of girls, A is 13th from the left end and B is

6th from the right end. If they interchange their
positions, B becomes 24th from the right end. How
many girls are there in the row?
(1) (2) (1) 24 (2) 36
(3) 29 (4) 40


13
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456

(For VII, VIII & IX Studying)
ANSWERS
Class VII Studying Class VIII Studying Class IX Studying
1. (1) 1. (3) 1. (2)
2. (1) 2. (2) 2. (3)
3. (2) 3. (4) 3. (2)
4. (4) 4. (2) 4. (1)
5. (3) 5. (2) 5. (4)
6. (1) 6. (1) 6. (4)
7. (1) 7. (1) 7. (4)
8. (4) 8. (3) 8. (3)
9. (4) 9. (2) 9. (4)
10. (2) 10. (3) 10. (1)
11. (2) 11. (2) 11. (2)
12. (3) 12. (3) 12. (1)
13. (3) 13. (4) 13. (3)
14. (3) 14. (4) 14. (4)
15. (2) 15. (4) 15. (3)
16. (3) 16. (4) 16. (1)
17. (4) 17. (3) 17. (1)
18. (1) 18. (2) 18. (3)
19. (4) 19. (1) 19. (4)
20. (4) 20. (3) 20. (3)
21. (3) 21. (2) 21. (4)
22. (4) 22. (1) 22. (3)
23. (1) 23. (4) 23. (3)
24. (2) 24. (4) 24. (4)
25. (2) 25. (4) 25. (2)

Time : 2 Hours Sample Paper MM : 360
SECTION-A : SCIENCE
1. Four bulbs, each of rating (100 W, 220 V) and
connected in parallel across a voltage supply of
220 V, are operated for five hours daily. If all the bulbs
are replaced by LEDs of rating (8 W, 220 V), how A
many units of electrical energy will be saved every d
month (30 days)?
(1) 55.2 units
d dm
(2) 60 units (1) (2)
t Mt
(3) 4.8 units
tM dM
(4) 32 units (3) (4)
md mt
4. For the shown displacement-time graph, the average
velocity of the body in 10 seconds is
V
2
Displacement (m)
2.
I = 11 A 4
A
6 20
0 3 6 10
Time (s)
(1) 20 m/s (2) 13 m/s
In the circuit diagram shown above, the readings of
35
voltmeter and ammeter respectively are (3) m/s (4) Zero
3
(1) 6 V, 3 A (2) 3 V, 6 A 5. Magnetic field pattern in a region is as shown below.
The needle of a magnetic compass will be deflected
(3) 12 V, 3 A (4) 12 V, 12 A most when placed at point
3. In the following figure, a person of mass m is
A
standing on a stationary trolley of mass M on a
D
smooth horizontal surface. The distance between the
front end of the trolley and point A is d. The C
horizontal speed with which the person should jump B
off the trolley, such that its front end just passes (1) A (2) B
through point A in time t, is (3) C (4) D
1
6. Same net force is applied on two different objects of 10. A girl of mass 40 kg takes a staircase of 15 steps,
masses m and 3m. If x and y are the magnitudes of each of height 20 cm. If she utilizes a power of
x 80 W to climb the staircase, the time taken by her
their acceleration respectively, then the ratio will is [Take g = 10 m/s2]
y
be (1) Half a minute (2) 40 s
(3) 45 s (4) 15 s
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 1
11. Two copper wires A and B have their cross-sectional
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 9 : 1 areas in the ratio 1 : 2 and lengths in the ratio 2 : 1
7. An object of mass 2 kg is dropped from a certain respectively. The ratio of the resistivities of A and B
height. On rebounding from the ground, it rises will be
2 (1) 1 : 4 (2) 8 : 1
vertically till th of its initial height. The ratio of
5 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
magnitude of momentum of the object just before 12. A positively charged particle going eastwards enters
and after striking the ground is a region of uniform and perpendicular magnetic field.
If the particle is deflected vertically upwards, the
(1) 2: 5 (2) 5: 2 direction of magnetic field is
(1) Southwards (2) Northwards
(3) 3: 5 (4) 5: 3
(3) Due west (4) Vertically downwards
8. A boy runs on a circular track of radius 20 m and
13. The magnetic field inside an ideal solenoid carrying
stops after covering one sixth of the track. The
constant non-zero current is
magnitude of his displacement will be
(1) Radial
(1) 20 m (2) 20 m
(2) Non-uniform
20
(3) 40 m (4) m (3) Uniform
3
(4) Zero
9. A gun recoils when a bullet is fired from it. Which of
14. Choose the pair of quantities having same unit.
the following is/are true w.r.t. this statement?
(1) Power and energy
(a) This phenomenon can be explained on the basis
of Newton's third law of motion. (2) Current and potential difference
(b) The magnitude of momentum of gun is greater (3) Work and energy
than that of bullet. (4) Work and power
(c) The magnitude of momentum of bullet is greater 15. When a ball is thrown vertically upwards, then at the
than that of gun. highest point
(d) The magnitude of momentum of bullet and that (1) Acceleration is zero but velocity is non-zero
of gun are equal. (2) Acceleration is non-zero but velocity is zero
(1) (a) & (d) (2) (a) & (b) (3) Both acceleration and velocity are zero
(3) (a) & (c) (4) Only (b) (4) Both acceleration and velocity are non-zero
2
16. A colourless and odourless gas P is evolved during 'X' can be identified as
thermal decomposition of lead nitrate. P reacts with (1) Oxalic acid (2) Acetic acid
natural gas to form compounds Q and R. P, Q and
R respectively are (3) Sulphuric acid (4) Nitric acid
(1) N2O, O2 and H2O (2) CO2, O2 and Cl2 21. aMnO2 + bHCl  cMnCl2 + dH2O + eCl2
pC2H5OH + qO2  rCO2 + sH2O
(3) O2, CO2 and H2O (4) O2, CO2 and H2
a, c, q and r in the above chemical equations
17. The process that does not involve oxidation is
respectively are
(1) Rancidity (2) Corrosion (1) 2, 4, 2 and 1 (2) 1, 1, 3 and 2
(3) Combustion (4) Neutralisation (3) 4, 2, 2 and 1 (4) 2, 1, 4 and 2
18. Consider the given table 22. The number of moles of ammonia that have the
same mass as that of 3 moles of carbon dioxide is
Elements Number of Number of
Protons Neutrons (1) 0.19 mol (2) 2.58 mol
(3) 9.04 mol (4) 7.76 mol
Carbon A 8
23. Which of the following is an incorrect statement with
X B 7 respect to Rutherford's atomic model?
Y 8 8 (1) There is a positively charged centre in an atom
Z C 9 called nucleus
If carbon and element X are isobars while Y and Z (2) Electrons revolve around the nucleus in circular
are isotopes, then A, B, X and Z respectively paths
represent (3) While revolving in discrete orbits the electrons do
(1) 6, 7, oxygen and fluorine not radiate energy
(2) 6, 6, nitrogen and fluorine (4) The size of nucleus is very small as compared
to the size of the atom
(3) 6, 7, nitrogen and oxygen
24. Match the following and choose the correct option.
(4) 7, 7, oxygen and nitrogen
Chemical Reaction Type
19. Which of the following gases is evolved at cathode
during the electrolysis of brine? (i) Slaking of lime (a) Endothermic
(1) Cl2 (2) O2 (ii) Respiration (b) Combination
(3) H2 (4) NO2 (iii) Neutralisation (c) Exothermic
20. Consider the given Venn diagram : (iv) Decomposition of
limestone
(1) (i) b,c; (ii) c; (iii) c,a; (iv) a,b
Constituents
Constituents X of the (2) (i) c; (ii) b; (iii) b,c; (iv) a
of acid rain atmosphere
of venus (3) (i) a,b; (ii) b,c; (iii) c; (iv) b
(4) (i) b,c; (ii) c; (iii) c; (iv) a
3
25. Read the following statements carefully. 29. On thermal decomposition of baking soda, salt ‘X’ is
obtained. The aqueous solution of ‘X’ will be
Statement-1 : One mole of carbon weighs 12 g.
(1) Acidic
Statement-2 : 0.5 moles of nitrogen gas contains
(2) Basic
3.011 × 1023 atoms of nitrogen.
(3) Amphoteric
Now, choose the correct option.
(4) Neutral
(1) Both the statements are correct
30. Compound A on reacting with baking soda produces
(2) Both the statements are incorrect a colourless gas C, which when passed through lime
water forms a solution D. On further passing the gas
(3) Only statement-1 is correct C through D, another solution E is formed. Identify
(4) Only statement-2 is correct the nature of A and the colour of the solution E.
(1) Acidic, blue (2) Basic, red
26. Which of the given metals liberate hydrogen gas on
reaction with both acids and bases? (3) Basic, yellow (4) Acidic, colourless
(1) Sodium 31. The green coloured pigment present in chloroplast

helps in
(2) Potassium
(3) Magnesium (2) Absorption of light energy
(4) Zinc (3) Removal of excess water through lenticels
27. Which of the following contains the maximum (4) Exchange of respiratory gases
number of atoms? 32. Select incorrect statement(s) regarding the given
(1) 48 g of helium diagram of human brain.
(2) 3.011 × 1021 molecules of ammonia P
(3) 48 molecules of methane
(4) 3 mol of oxygen
28. Carbon cannot be used to reduce the oxides of
sodium and magnesium to their respective metals
because Q
(1) Sodium and magnesium have high affinity for R
carbon than oxygen S
(2) Sodium and magnesium have high affinity for (i) P is responsible for precision of voluntary
oxygen than carbon actions.
(3) Sodium and magnesium are least active metals (ii) Centre associated with hunger is a part of P.
(4) Sodium and magnesium catch fire on exposure (iii) Involuntary actions like salivation and vomiting
to air are controlled by R.
4
(iv) Q helps in maintaining posture and balance of 36. In the following diagram, which labellings are
the body. correct?
(v) Reflex actions are controlled by S. (iv) Bowman's

capsule
(v) Glomerulus (iii) Tubular part
(1) Only (i)
of nephron
(2) (i), (iii) & (v)
(3) (ii) & (iii)

(i) Renal artery
(4) (iii), (iv) & (v)
(vi) Branch of
33. In humans, ________ provides a surface where renal artery
exchange of gases can take place. (ii) Collecting
duct
(1) Neuron
(2) Villi
(3) Nephron
(4) Alveolus
(1) (i), (ii) & (iv) (2) (ii), (v) & (vi)
34. Statement-1 : Carbon dioxide is insoluble in water.
(3) (iv), (v) & (vi) (4) (i), (ii) & (iii)
Statement-2 : Haemoglobin has a high affinity for
oxygen. 37. Which of the following sets of words should be used
(1) Both the statements are true to replace the underlined terms (wherever necessary)
to make the given statements correct?
(i) The saliva contains salivary amylase that breaks
(3) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false
down complex molecules of proteins.
(4) Statement-1 is false and statement-2 is true
(ii) Undigested food material is removed from the
35. (i) (ii) body through anus.
Glucose Pyruvate Lactic acid + energy
(iii) The hydrochloric acid creates an acidic medium
The given reactions take place, respectively, in which facilitates the action of the enzyme
(1) (i) Chloroplast (ii) Subsidiary cells trypsin.
(iv) The walls of large intestine contain glands which

(2) (i) Mitochondria (ii) Chloroplast
secrete intestinal juice.
(3) (i) Cytoplasm (ii) Chloroplast
(v) Bile pigments break down large fat globules into
(4) (i) Cytoplasm (ii) Muscle cells small globules.
5
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) 42. Rings of cartilage are present in the throat to
(1) Fats Anus Trypsin Small Juice (1) Absorb more oxygen from the air
(2) Sugar Rectum Pepsin Small Pigments (2) Filter the inhaled air
(3) Starch Anus Pepsin Small Salts (3) Prevent the air passage from collapsing
(4) Proteins Rectum Trypsin Large Juice (4) Produce more energy
38. In which part of the alimentary canal digestion of 43. While explaining the role of various plant hormones
starch begins? practically, a teacher observed many wilted leaves on
a tree in the garden. Which of the following
(1) Stomach (2) Large intestine
hormones is/are responsible for this?
(3) Liver (4) Buccal cavity
(1) Auxins
39. The artificial kidney removes nitrogenous waste
products from blood through the process of (2) Cytokinins
(1) Dialysis (3) Abscisic acid
(2) Active transport
(4) Gibberellins
(3) Absorption
44. Which of the following is the first step of
(4) Imbibition photosynthesis?
40. After an accident, Ram lost his memory, intelligence
(1) Splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and
and ability to think and reason out. It also affected
oxygen
his ability to hear and see. Which part of the central
nervous system was most likely affected in the (2) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
accident? molecules
(1) Spinal cord (3) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates
(2) Forebrain (4) Conversion of light energy into chemical energy
(3) Midbrain
45. Statement-1 : The opening and closing of the
(4) Hindbrain stomatal pore is the function of guard cells.
41. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are the two endocrine glands located in Statement-2 : The stomatal pore closes, if the guard
the brain. ‘X’ releases a hormone ‘Z’ which regulates cells swell.
growth in humans. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are
(1) Only statement-1 is correct
(1) X – Hypothalamus and Y – Pituitary gland
(2) X – Thyroid gland and Y – Pineal gland (2) Only statement-2 is correct
(3) X – Pituitary gland and Y – Pineal gland (3) Both the statements are correct
(4) X – Pituitary gland and Y – Thyroid gland (4) Both the statements are incorrect
6
46. If ,  and  are the zeroes of a cubic polynomial 50. In the given figure, if A and B are the mid-points of
ax3 + cx + d, then (1 + ) +  +  is equal to the sides PR and QR respectively of PQR and
ACR = BCR, then PQR is always a/an
2c 2d
(1) (2) P
a a
d c A
(3) (4)
a a
47. In the given figure, PQRS is a trapezium such that C R
PQ || SR. The ratio PR : QS is always equal to
B
P Q
Q
O (1) Scalene triangle
(2) Isosceles triangle
R
S (3) Equilateral triangle
(1) PQ : SR
(4) Right angled triangle
(2) PO – OR : QO – OS
51. An English word consists of 9 alphabets. The sum
(3) PO + OR : QO – OS of twice the number of vowels and three times the
number of consonants present in the word is equal
(4) PO2 : OQ2 to four more than four times the total number of
vowels in the English alphabets. The product of the
1  sin   cos2  number of vowels and consonants present in the
48. If 0º <  < 90º, then is always equal
cos (1  sin ) word is
to (1) 9 (2) 20
(1) –tan  (2) cot  (3) 18 (4) 14
(3) tan  (4) –cot  52. In a convex quadrilateral PQRS, SPR = 80°,
QPR = 40°, SQR = 40° and PR = PS. If
a a
49. If (2 )  16 , then the value of a is diagonals PR and QS intersect at O, then the
measure of POQ is
(1) 1
(1) 90°
(2) 2
(2) 100°
(3) 4 (3) 110°
(4) 16 (4) 120°
7
53. The ratio of the radius of the base of a cylinder to
cot   cos  2 3
its height is 7 : 6. If the volume of the cylinder is 58. If  and 0 <  < 90°, then the
294 cm3, then its base diameter is cot   cos  2 3
value of  is
(1) 1 cm (2) 14 cm
(1) 0° (2) 60°
(3) 7 cm (4) 12 cm
(3) 30° (4) 45°
54. If the product of HCF and LCM of two natural
numbers is 378000, then which of the following can 59. In the given figure, 1 = 2 = 3. If AD = 5 cm,
be their HCF? DC = 4 cm and the perimeter of BEC is 13 cm,
(1) 66 (2) 130 then the length of BE is
A
(3) 34 (4) 20
3
55. In the given figure, MNP is a right triangle such that D
N = 90°. MO2 – NO2 is always equal to E
M
1 2
B C
(1) 4.1 cm
(2) 2 cm
(3) 3.5 cm
N O P (4) 5 cm
1 1 60. If p(x) = ax3 + bx2 + cx + d is a polynomial and
(1) (MP 2  NP 2 ) (2) (MP 2  NP 2 ) a + b + c + d = 0, then which of the following must
4 2
be a factor of p(x)?
(3) 2(MP 2 – NP 2 ) (4) MP 2 – NP 2
(1) x + 1 (2) x – 1
56. 2  3 can be expressed as (3) x2 –1 (4) x

61. HOPE is a parallelogram as shown in the given
1 1 figure. The value of y is
(1) 2  (2) 3 
3 2
H x O
y 2x
1 3 3 1 3x
(3) (4)
2 2
57. If the side x of a cube becomes 11 times of itself,
then its volume increases by 42°
E P
(1) 1330x3 (2) 1331x3
(1) 21° (2) 14°
(3) 1321x3 (4) 1320x3 (3) 35° (4) 27°
8
62. If sin(A + B) = sinAcosB + cosAsinB, then the value 67. If a, b, c and d are natural numbers such that
of (sin1°cos29° + cos1°sin29°) is a2 + b2 = 41 and c2 + d 2 = 25, then the polynomial
whose zeroes are (a + b) and (c + d) can be
1 1
(1) (2) (1) x2 – 9x + 12 (2) x2 – 16x + 63
4 2
(3) x2 – 2x + 14 (4) x2 – 7x + 9
1
(3) (4) 1
2 68. A rectangular tank, 50 cm long and 30 cm wide,
contains water upto a height of 9 cm. A box of
63. For the given system of equations 3x – 4y = 5 and
dimensions 25 cm × 25 cm × 20 cm is now placed
5x + by = c to be inconsistent, one pair of values of
in the tank so that its square face rests on the
b and c can be
bottom of the tank. The quantity of water (in L) that
20 25 must be poured into the tank in order to just cover
(1) b   and c  the box is
3 3
(2) b = – 6.4 and c = – 20 (1) 0.4
(3) b = 6.4 and c = 19 (2) 16.5

20 (3) 12.5
(4) b   and c = –19
3
(4) 4
64. Let p, q, r and l, m, n be the lengths of the sides
of the two triangles such that p2 + q2 + r2 = 117, 69. In the given circle with centre O, RL  MQ. The
l 2 + m2 + n2 = 117 and lp + mq + nr = 117. The difference of the measures of QAT and LTM is
two triangles can always be proved congruent by
which of the following congruence criterion?
M R
(1) ASA (2) SAS P
25°
A
(3) RHS (4) SSS T
O
65. If (–5, –5) is the solution of the system of equations Q
3x + 4y + 2p – q = 0 and 4x + 3y + q – 3r = 0, L
then r is always equal to
(1) 30° (2) 70°
1 2
(1) (q  p ) (2) (q  p ) (3) 20° (4) 50°
3 3
1 3 70. If 2 sin   2 cos   1  0 and  is an acute
(3) (3q  2 p ) (4) (2q  p )
2 2 angle, then the value of cosec is
66. Which of the following numbers will completely divide
(1) 2( 2  1) (2) 2( 3  1)
261 + 262 + 263 + 264?
(1) 100 (2) 10 2 1 ( 3  1)
(3) (4)
(3) 27 (4) 17 2 2
9

71. If FINE is coded as IFFI, TASTE is coded as Directions (Q.78) : In a certain language, ‘45’ is coded
AETTE, then the code for TEACHER is as 3, ‘35’ is coded as 5, ‘6’ is coded as 2.
(1) EHAREER (2) EHERERR 78. ‘34’ will be coded as
(3) EHEREER (4) EHERRER (1) 4 (2) 3
72. In a party, there are 15 members. Each shakes hand (3) 7 (4) 2
with one another. Total numbers of the handshakes
is 79. Choose the alternative which is different from the
others.
(1) 120 (2) 105
(1) Einstein (2) Niels Bohr
(3) 90 (4) 15
(3) CV Raman (4) Wright brothers
73. If x3 – y3 = (x – y) (x2 + y2 – xy) and x3 + y3 = (x +
y)(x2 + y2 + xy), then (23 + 33)  (33 – 23) 80. A digital display unit has 7 parts as shown.
T
95 35
(1) (2) L1 R1
7 19
L2 M R2
19 B
(3) (4) 125
35 In a digital clock, there are hour display units
74. Choose the odd one out from the following: (H1, H2) and minute display units (M1, M2).
Mobile, iPhone, Laptop, LED, TV
(1) Mobile (2) Laptop
(3) LED (4) iPhone H1 H2 M1 M2
75. 55 : 1 :: 42 : 8 :: 62 : 27 :: 93 : ? In a faulty digital clock, following parts and units are
not functioning properly:
(1) 16 (2) 27
(3) 49 (4) 81 Display Units Part(s) of display unit, which
are not functioning properly
76. If rank of a student from last is 17th and 15th from
beginning, then how many students are there? H1 L1, L2
(1) 31 (2) 32 H2 T
(3) 33 (4) 17
M1 B
M2 M
11 17 23 31
, , , ,?
19 29 37 43 Which of the following timing cannot be displayed
37 properly by the above digital clock due to faulty parts
41
(1) (2) of display units?
47 53
(1) 11:10 hrs (2) 11:41 hrs
41 37
(3) (4) (3) 14:10 hrs (4) 14:01 hrs
53 47
10
81. Consider following four different dice (not necessarily
standard dice). Choose the odd one out.
83. ?
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
Directions (Q.84 & Q.85) : Read the following information
carefully and answer the questions.
82. In the given question, the pair of figures bears a
certain relationship. Choose the option that exhibits Five members of a family are sitting on a dining table.
the same relationship. L is the mother of M. M is the sister of N, who is the son
of O. P is the only daughter-in-law of L.
? 84. How is P related to M?

(1) Sister
(2) Daughter
(3) Sister-in-law
(1) (4) Daughter-in-law
85. O is M's _______ .
(1) Brother (2) Sister
(2) (3) Father (4) Uncle
86. ?
(3)
(1) (2)
(4)
(3) (4)
11
87. In the following figure, how many triangles are possible? Directions (Q.89 and Q.90): Read the given information
carefully and answer the following questions.
In a report published, the sources of energy used in India
for the production of electricity in year 2012 are shown
below :
Sources of Number of Electrical

Energy units in Tera Watt Hour
(1) 32 (2) 30
Coal 708.3
(3) 28 (4) 24
88. If the following image is rotated by 180° Gas 115.4
anticlockwise,
Nuclear 26.7
Hydro 143.8
Renewable 58.6
Imports 4.6
then new image will be
89. If Hydro is also considered as a renewable form of
energy resource, then what will be the new
percentage of non-renewable form from which
(1) electrical energy is produced?
(1) 19.1 (2) 80.9
(3) 89.1 (4) 89.9
90. If government decides to reduce the contribution of
(2)
polluting sources of energy (Coal, Gas and Nuclear)
by 20% keeping the total production of electricity
same and also makes the import contribution NIL by
increasing the required contribution of non-polluting
sources of energy, then the approximate percentage
(3) contribution by non-polluting sources will be
(1) 26
(2) 32
(4) (3) 36
(4) 40


12
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Sample Paper
ANSWERS
1. (1) 19. (3) 37. (3) 55. (4) 73. (1)
2. (3) 20. (3) 38. (4) 56. (4) 74. (3)
3. (4) 21. (2) 39. (1) 57. (1) 75. (2)
4. (4) 22. (4) 40. (2) 58. (2) 76. (1)
5. (2) 23. (3) 41. (3) 59. (3) 77. (3)
6. (3) 24. (4) 42. (3) 60. (2) 78. (4)
7. (2) 25. (3) 43. (3) 61. (3) 79. (4)
8. (2) 26. (4) 44. (2) 62. (2) 80. (4)
9. (1) 27. (1) 45. (1) 63. (4) 81. (4)
10. (4) 28. (2) 46. (3) 64. (4) 82. (2)
11. (4) 29. (2) 47. (2) 65. (2) 83. (3)
12. (2) 30. (4) 48. (3) 66. (2) 84. (3)
13. (3) 31. (2) 49. (3) 67. (2) 85. (3)
14. (3) 32. (2) 50. (2) 68. (4) 86. (4)
15. (2) 33. (4) 51. (3) 69. (4) 87. (3)
16. (3) 34. (4) 52. (3) 70. (2) 88. (2)
17. (4) 35. (4) 53. (2) 71. (3) 89. (2)
18. (3) 36. (4) 54. (4) 72. (2) 90. (3)
Sample Paper (VIII Studying) Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2017
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2017

(For VIII Studying)
SECTION-A : SCIENCE
1. Choose the incorrect statement
(1) Friction can be reduced by converting sliding
friction into rolling friction
(2) Friction does not depend on how hard the two B2
surfaces are pressed against each other
(3) Walking is possible due to friction B2
(4) When the objects move in liquids, they lose B1 B1
energy because of fluid friction Figure (iii)
2. When electricity is passed through water, bubbles of
Figure (iv)
oxygen and hydrogen are respectively released at
electrodes connected to _____ and _______ terminals
of a cell.
(1) Maximum in figure (i) only
(1) Negative, positive
(2) Maximum in figure (ii) only
(2) Positive, negative
(3) Positive, positive (3) Minimum in figure (iv) only
(4) Negative, negative (4) Equal in the figures (i), (ii) and (iii)
3. Two identical cuboidal shaped bricks, B1 and B2, are 4. An object oscillates 3600 times in 1 minute. The
arranged on the horizontal floor as shown in the frequency of its oscillation is
following figures. The pressure exerted on the floor
(1) 60 Hz
will be
(2) 3600 Hz
1
B2 B2 (3) Hz
60
B1
B1
Figure (ii) 1
Figure (i) (4) Hz
3600
1
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2017 Sample Paper (VIII Studying)
5. The terminals A and B of a copper wire are inserted 7. Which of the following sets contains only natural
into a piece of potato connected to a battery as fibres?
shown below. The region of the potato around wire
connected to positive terminal of the battery (1) Cotton, nylon, wool, silk
(2) Cotton, jute, silk, wool
(3) Cotton, rayon, silk, wool
(4) Wool, silk, rayon, nylon
8. Which of the following materials is the best for making

dress/apron that can be used while working in the
kitchen or in the laboratory?
A B
(1) Polyster
Potato
(2) Acrylic
(1) Becomes reddish blue (3) Nylon

(2) Becomes greenish blue (4) Cotton
(3) Shows no change of colour
9. Consider the given figure
(4) Becomes black in colour
6. Consider the following figure
Cell
A B C D
Glowing
bulb
Electric wire
Magnesium Charcoal Sulphur Aluminium

Material 'X'
ribbon powder powder foil
With the help of a dropper, a few drops of dilute Material 'X' cannot be
hydrochloric acid were added to each of the given test
tubes and warmed gently. Which of the given samples (1) Graphite rod
does not produce pop sound on bringing a burning
(2) Iron nail
matchstick near the mouth of each of the test tubes?
(1) Only B (2) A, B & C (3) Copper wire
(3) C & D (4) B & C (4) Coal piece
2
10. X is a thermosetting plastic which is commonly used 14. Match the following columns and select the correct
for making floor tiles and kitchenwares. Plastic X is option.
(1) Teflon Column-I Column-II
(2) PET a. Rust of wheat (i) Virus
(3) PVC b. Measles (ii) Protozoa
(4) Melamine c. Citrus canker (iii) Fungi
11. Namita visited a very large area. Her father told that d. Malaria (iv) Bacteria
it is a protected area meant for conservation of wild
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
life, plant and animal resources. She also saw some
tribal people living there. This area is a (3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
(1) National park 15. Which of the given microorganisms belong(s) to

group fungi?
(2) Sanctuary
(3) Forest
(4) Biosphere reserve
12. Statement-1 : 2, 4-D is used to kill the weeds
without damaging the crops. a. b.
Statement-2 : The process of separating the grain
seeds from the chaff is known as harvesting.
(2) Both the statements are correct
c. d.
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
13. Identify the cell structure based on the given
information.
- It is generally spherical and located in the
centre of the cell.
- It acts as controlling centre of the activities of
the cell.
e. f.
(1) Nucleus
(2) Ribosome
(3) Mitochondria (1) a, b and f (2) c and d
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum (3) c only (4) d and e
3
x 7 x 7 20. If the difference between the smallest five-digit

16. The solution of the equation   0 is
8 6 perfect cube and the greatest four-digit perfect cube
given by is a, then (a – 56) can be a cube of
(1) –0.5 (2) 0 (1) 15
(3) 0.5 (4) –1 (2) 13
17. Out of 253, 257, 11000, 225, 1100 and 256; how (3) 14
many are perfect square numbers?
(4) 11
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 1 (4) 4 21. In a right angled isosceles triangle, if its sides are
increased by 75%, then the percentage change in
18. In the given figure, AED is an isosceles triangle with its area is
AE = AD. ABCD is a parallelogram and EGF is a
line segment. If DCF = 65° and EFB = 100°, then (1) 306.25%
the number of diagonals of a regular polygon having (2) 103.125%
its each exterior angle equal to the measure of
AEG, is (3) 206.25%
A B (4) 105.125%
22. If the distance of Uranus from Sun is 2870000000 km,
F then this distance in scientific notation is written as
(1) 2.87 × 1012 cm
G
(2) 2.87 × 1014 cm
E D C (3) 2.87 × 1011 cm

(4) 2.87 × 1015 cm
(1) 32 (2) 65
23. If xxyyzz = xyyzzx = xzyxzy such that x, y and z
(3) 44 (4) 54
are positive integers greater than 1, then which of
19. A bag has 4 red balls and x blue balls. If a ball is the following cannot be true for any of the possible
drawn from the bag without looking into it and the value of x, y and z?
1 (1) xyz = 27
probability of getting a blue ball is , then the value
2
of x is (2) xyz = 1728
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) x + y + z = 32
(3) 8 (4) 12 (4) x + y + z = 12
4
24. In the given figure, if SA and RA are the bisectors of (1) 120° (2) 30°
PSR and QRS respectively, then the measure of (3) 80° (4) 60°
SAR equals
25. If a, b, c form a Pythagorean triplet such that
P Q
50° 70° a  1225 and a = 3b – 1, then the value of c is
A equal to
(1) 40 (2) 32
S R (3) 38 (4) 37

26. If in the word ‘AMPLENESSES’ all the vowels at
even places are replaced by 1, all consonants at
even places are replaced by 2, vowels at odd
places are replaced by 3 and all consonants at odd (1) (2)
places are replaced by 4, then the sum of all digits
of the number obtained by replacing the letters in
given word is
(1) 31
(2) 33
(3) 34 (3) (4)
(4) 30
27. The next term of the following series is
5, 7, 10, 26, 17, 63, 26, ? 29. 321 : 9 :: 512 : 15 :: 841 : 40 :: 751 : ?
(1) 126 (1) 24 (2) 42
(2) 215 (3) 12 (4) 35
(3) 124
30. In his dream Ram saw that Sun was rising from the
(4) 217 west and he was standing on the ground facing the
28. In which figure, following figure is embedded? sun. If in the same dream Ram also saw that his
brother Laxman was standing left of him such that
Laxman was facing him, then in the same dream
the shadow of Laxman was lying
(1) Behind Ram (2) In front of Ram
(3) Behind Laxman (4) Left of Laxman

5
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2017 Sample Paper (IX Studying)

(For IX Studying)
SECTION-A : SCIENCE
1. In the following velocity-time graph of an object (3) Acceleration of A is always equal to acceleration
of B in magnitude
B D E
(4) Rate of change of momentum of A is greater
Velocity
than rate of change of momentum of B in

A C magnitude
3. The given velocity-time graph depicts the motion of
O
Time an object moving in a straight line. If total distance
(1) The acceleration is positive in part AB and in covered by object is 120 m, then the time duration
part CD only for which the object has undergone retardation is
(2) The acceleration is positive in part CD and in
Velocity (m/s)
part DE only
15
(3) The acceleration is positive in part BC and in
part DE only
(4) The acceleration is positive in part AB, in part O 4
CD and in part DE Time (s)
2. Two balls, A and B are moving towards each other (1) 4 s
with some constant velocities on a smooth horizontal
floor as shown. If they have different masses, then (2) 12 s
during collision (3) 8 s
(4) 10 s
Ball Ball 4. An object is dropped from a height of 80 m. It will
A B remain in air for time [Take g = 10 m/s2]
(1) 4 s
(1) Rate of change of momentum of A is equal to
(2) 8 s
rate of change of momentum of B in magnitude
(3) 10 s
(2) Change of momentum of A is greater than the
change of momentum of B in magnitude (4) 12 s
6
Sample Paper (IX Studying) Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2017
5. An object starts moving from rest on a straight line 10. The mixture of chalk in water possesses all the
path with uniform acceleration and covers a distance following properties, except
of 100 m in first 10 s. The distance it covers in next
(1) Their particles can be seen by naked eyes
5 s is
(2) It can be separated by filtration
(1) 300 m (2) 125 m
(3) It is stable
(3) 225 m (4) 25 m
6. Which of the following states of matter has the least (4) It is heterogeneous
interparticle spaces? 11. Select the correct option for plant tissues I, II and III
w.r.t. the characteristics given below.
(1) Solid
(2) Liquid
Thin cell wall.
(3) Gas Tissue-I
Large intercellular spaces.
(4) Plasma
7. It is easy to compress a sponge because Flexibility in plants.
(i) It has minute holes in which air is trapped.
Tissue-II Irregular thickenings at the
corners of cell wall.
(ii) Its particles are loosely packed.
(iii) Its particles have weak inter-particle forces of Cell wall is thickened with
attraction. Tissue-III lignin.
(1) Only (iii) Presence of pits.
(2) Only (ii)
(3) (ii) & (iii) Tissue-I Tissue-II Tissue-III
(4) Only (i)
(1) Collenchyma Parenchyma Sclerenchyma
8. Which of the following will not exhibit light scattering
(2) Sclerenchyma Collenchyma Parenchyma
phenomenon?
(3) Parenchyma Collenchyma Sclerenchyma
(1) Jelly
(4) Parenchyma Sclerenchyma Collenchyma
(2) Cloud
(3) Distilled water (i)
12. help to keep the cell clean by digesting any
(4) Foam (ii)
foreign material and chlorophyll containing
9. The best method used to separate two immiscible help in photosynthesis. Here, (i) and (ii) respectively
liquids from their mixture having boiling points 293 K are
and 313 K is
(1) Lysosomes and plastids
(1) Filtration
(2) Using separating funnel (2) Mitochondria and lysosomes
(3) Distillation (3) Golgi apparatus and vacuoles

(4) Fractional distillation (4) Mitochondria and plastids
7
13. Identify the tissue depicted below. 14. Which of the following characteristics are common
to both bacterial cells and animal cells?
a. They have an outer rigid wall called cell wall.
Fibroblast
b. Ribosomes are present.
c. Nuclear region is well-defined and surrounded by
nuclear membrane.
Plasma cell
d. They are surrounded by plasma membrane.
Reticular fibre e. Nuclear region is called nucleoid.
Mast cell
(1) a, b and e (2) b and d only
(1) Adipose connective tissue (3) b, d and e (4) a, c and e
(2) Areolar connective tissue 15. The type of epithelial tissue which forms the ducts
of salivary glands is
(3) Blood
(1) Cuboidal (2) Columnar
(4) Hyaline cartilage (3) Squamous (4) Ciliated
16. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2 : 6 : 7. The 18. Which of the following is not a factor of
complement of the smallest angle of the triangle is x4 – 4abx2 – (a2 – b2)2?
(1) 66° (1) x – (a + b)
(2) 24° (2) x + (a + b)
(3) 156° (3) x 2 + (a + b)2
(4) 78° (4) x 2 + (a – b)2
17. If the area of an isosceles right angled triangle is 19. The value of x which satisfies the equation
32 cm2, then the length of its longest altitude is 1
⎛ 4 7112/ x ⎞
3
equal to (343) ⎜ ⎟ is
⎜ 9 45/ x ⎟
(1) 12 cm ⎝ 49 ⎠
1
(2) 16 cm (1) 3 (2)
3
(3) 8 cm
1
(3) 2 (4)
(4) 4 cm 2
8
20. In ABC, E and D are two points lying on AB and 23. In the given figure, ABCD is a rhombus. If E and F
AC respectively such that CE and BD intersect each lie on AD and CD respectively such that ED = FC
other at O. If AEC  CDB, then ABC will always AF
be a/an and = 1, then the sum of measures of BED
BE
(1) Obtuse-angled triangle and AFD equals
(2) Scalene triangle A B
(3) Isosceles right-angled triangle
(4) Equilateral triangle E

21. The expression (a2 + 4b2 + 4ab + 6a + 12b + 9)
D C
equals F
(1) (a + 4b + 3)(a + b + 3) (1) 90°
(2) (a + b + 3)(a + 2b + 1) (2) 180°

(3) (a + 3b + 1)(a + 3b + 9)
(3) 270°
(4) (a + 2b + 3)(a + 2b + 3)
(4) 150°
22. In the given figure, a || b and c, d, e are
transversals. If MPN = OPN and 3OMP = 24. Which of the following is not a factor of the
POM, then the value of (2y + x – z) is polynomial (x 2 + 7x + 9)2 – 9?
d e
c (1) x + 1
M
z (2) x + 3
a N
y P (3) x + 5
x (4) x + 6
b 35° Q
O 25. A triangle must have
(1) Exactly two acute angles

(1) 360°
(2) 290° (2) At least two acute angles
(3) 260° (3) Exactly three acute angles
(4) 310° (4) At most one acute angle
9
26. The figure which replaces the ? is 28. The three positions of a dice (not a standard dice)
are given below.
2 5 6
4 1 4 2 5 2
The number opposite to the number 2 is

?
(1) 1 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 3
29.
(1) (2)
12 10 20 10 15 25
5 8 10 14 18 10
9 6 ?
(3) (4)
(1) 11
27. Four teams A, B, C and D participated in a
tournament of kabaddi. Each team played two (2) 14
matches to each other team. D was defeated by C (3) 12
two times while C was defeated by A two times.
B won one match each from A, C and D. D defeated (4) 15
A for once. D win only 2 matches in the whole
tournament. Who was the winner of tournament? 30. 124 : 64 : : 123 : 27 : : 126 : 216 : : 122 : ?
(1) A (2) B (1) 16 (2) 343

(3) D (4) C (3) 8 (4) 4

10
Sample Paper (X Studying) Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2017

(For X Studying)
SECTION-A : SCIENCE
1. Find the net current I flowing in the branch CD in the R
circuit diagram shown below.
V
I 6 (3)
3 C D
6
A B
R
6
E 3
V
(4)
12 V
(1) 3 A (2) 1 A
3. From a dam, water is pouring down at the rate of
1 150 kg/s, on the blades of a turbine. If a ball
(3) 2 A (4) 1 A
2 dropped from the same dam takes 2 5 s to hit the
2. Choose the circuit diagram which correctly depicts turbine, then the power delivered to the turbine is
the direction of flow of electric current and magnetic approximately equal to (Take g = 10 m/s2)
field lines produced by the wire in a horizontal plane.
(1) 15 W
R (2) 150 kW
(3) 125 kW
V
(1) (4) 15.5 kW
4. While overloading, the fuse melts to protect the
circuit because of
R
(1) Joule's law of heating
V (2) Ohm's law

(2) (3) Faraday's law
(4) Kepler's law of heating
11
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2017 Sample Paper (X Studying)
5. Time taken by the sunlight to pass through a (1) i(b,c); ii(c); iii(c,a); iv(a,b)
window of thickness 4 mm whose refractive index is
(2) i(c); ii(b); iii(b,c); iv(a)
1.5, is [Assuming sunlight falls perpendicularly on
the window] (3) i(a,b); ii(b,c); iii(c); iv(b)
(1) 2  10–11 s (2) 2  1011 s (4) i(b,c); ii(c); iii(c); iv(a)
(3) 2  108 s (4) 2  10–8 s 9. Which of the following reactions is responsible for
6. Consider the given table the shiny finish of the walls after three to four days
of white washing?
Elements Number of Number of
Protons Neutrons (1) CaO  s  H2 O l  Ca(OH)2  aq
Carbon A 8
X B 7 (2) Ca  OH2  aq  Cl2  g  CaOCl2  s  H2O l
Y 8 8
(3) Ca  OH2  aq  CO2  g  CaCO3  s  H2O l
Z C 9
If carbon and element X are isobars while Y and Z (4) NaHCO3  s  HCl l  NaCl  s  H2O l  CO2  g
are isotopes, then A, B, X and Z respectively
represent 10. Consider the given chemical equations
(1) 6, 7, oxygen and fluorine (i) PSO4 + Q  QSO4 + P
(2) 6, 6, nitrogen and fluorine (ii) RSO4 + P  PSO4 + R
(3) 6, 7, nitrogen and oxygen (iii) QSO4 + S  SSO4 + Q
(4) 7, 7, oxygen and nitrogen (iv) RSO4 + T  No reaction
7. The number of moles of ammonia that have the
The least reactive and the most reactive metals
same mass as that of 3 moles of carbon dioxide is
respectively are
(1) 0.19 mol
(1) Q and T
(2) 2.58 mol
(2) T and S
(3) 9.04 mol
(3) S and T
(4) 7.76 mol
8. Match the following and choose the correct option. (4) Q and P
Chemical Reaction Type 11. The green coloured pigment present in chloroplast
helps in
i. Slaking of lime (a) Endothermic
ii. Respiration (b) Combination
(2) Absorption of light energy
iii. Neutralisation (c) Exothermic
(3) Removal of excess water through lenticels
iv. Decomposition of
limestone (4) Exchange of respiratory gases
12
12. In the following diagram, which labellings are (3) X – Pituitary gland and Y – Pineal gland
correct? (4) X – Pituitary gland and Y – Thyroid gland
(iv) Bowman's capsule
14. Statement I : Reflex action shows quick response
(v) Glomerulus (iii) Tubular part than the thinking process of brain.
of nephron
Statement II : Dendrites of relay neuron are always
towards the nerve endings of motor
neuron.
(i) Renal artery (1) Both the statements are correct
(vi) Branch of (2) Both the statements are incorrect
renal artery (3) Only statement I is incorrect
(ii) Collecting
duct (4) Only statement II is incorrect
15. Match the following columns and select the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
a. Gibberellin (i) Growth of stem
(1) (i), (ii) & (iv) (2) (ii), (v) & (vi) b. Cytokinin (ii) Phototropic movement
(3) (iv), (v) & (vi) (4) (i), (ii) & (iii) c. Auxin (iii) Inhibits growth
d. Abscisic acid (iv) Promotes cell division
13. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are the two endocrine glands located in
the brain. ‘X’ releases a hormone ‘Z’ which regulates (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
growth in humans. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(1) X – Hypothalamus and Y – Pituitary gland (3) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(2) X – Thyroid gland and Y – Pineal gland (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
16. If a – b = 3 and b – c = 5, then the value of 17. If the product of HCF and LCM of two natural
a2 + b2 + c2 – ab – bc – ca is numbers is 378000, then which of the following can
be their HCF?
(1) 34
(1) 66
(2) 68 (2) 130
(3) 49 (3) 34
(4) 98 (4) 20
13
22. In the given figure, if ABCD is a rhombus, diagonals

cot   cos  2 3
18. If  and 0 <  < 90°, then the AC and BD intersect at O and E is a point lying on
cot   cos  2 3 the circle with centre O, then the sum of the
value of  is measures of BAE and EDC is equal to
(1) 0°
B A
(2) 60°
(3) 30° E O
(4) 45°
19. If the pair of linear equations 5x + (k – 4)y – 20 = 0 C D
and 3x + (k + 7)y – 12 = 0 has infinitely many
(1) 180° (2) 60°
solutions, then k is a
(3) 90° (4) 45°
(1) Positive integer
23. One of the roots of quadratic equation
(2) Negative integer
2x2 + x – 300 = 0 is
(3) Positive rational number
(1) 16 (2) 18
(4) Negative rational number
(3) 15 (4) 12
20. HOPE is a parallelogram as shown in the given
figure. The value of y is 24. In the given figure, MNP is a right triangle such that
N = 90°. MO2 – NO2 is always equal to
H x O M
y 2x
3x
42°
E P
N O P
(1) 21° (2) 14°
(3) 35° (4) 27° 1 1
(1) (MP 2  NP 2 ) (2) (MP 2  NP 2 )
21. The ratio of the radius of the base of a cylinder to 4 2
its height is 7 : 6. If the volume of the cylinder is (3) 2(MP 2 – NP 2 ) (4) MP 2 – NP 2
294 cm3, then its base diameter is
25. If a, b, c and d are natural numbers such that
(1) 1 cm a2 + b2 = 41 and c2 + d 2 = 25, then the polynomial
(2) 14 cm whose zeroes are (a + b) and (c + d) can be
(3) 7 cm (1) x2 – 9x + 12 (2) x2 – 16x + 63
(4) 12 cm (3) x2 – 2x + 14 (4) x2 – 7x + 9
14
26. If FINE is coded as IFFI, TASTE is coded as

AETTE, then the code for TEACHER is
(1) EHAREER (2) EHERERR (1) (2)
(3) EHEREER (4) EHERRER
11 17 23 31 (3) (4)
, , , ,?
19 29 37 43
41 37 29. Choose the odd one, out of the following options.

(1) (2) (1) Shanghai
47 53
(2) New Delhi
41 37
(3) (4) (3) Canberra
53 47
(4) Paris
28. If the following image is rotated by 180°
30. The numbers on the both side of ':' have a relation
anticlockwise, then new image will be
between them. If pair of numbers on both side of '::'
follow the same relation, then the number which
replace the ? is
354 : 4 :: 852 : 11 :: 794 : 12 :: 951 : ?
(1) 15 (2) 13
(3) 12 (4) 10


15
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456

(For VIII, IX & X Studying)
ANSWERS
Class VIII Studying Class IX Studying Class X Studying
1. (2) 1. (4) 1. (2)
2. (2) 2. (1) 2. (3)
3. (4) 3. (3) 3. (2)
4. (1) 4. (1) 4. (1)
5. (2) 5. (2) 5. (1)
6. (4) 6. (1) 6. (3)
7. (2) 7. (4) 7. (4)
8. (4) 8. (3) 8. (4)
9. (4) 9. (2) 9. (3)
10. (4) 10. (3) 10. (2)
11. (4) 11. (3) 11. (2)
12. (1) 12. (1) 12. (4)
13. (1) 13. (2) 13. (3)
14. (2) 14. (2) 14. (4)
15. (2) 15. (1) 15. (3)
16. (4) 16. (1) 16. (3)
17. (1) 17. (3) 17. (4)
18. (4) 18. (3) 18. (2)
19. (2) 19. (3) 19. (4)
20. (4) 20. (4) 20. (3)
21. (3) 21. (4) 21. (2)
22. (2) 22. (2) 22. (4)
23. (3) 23. (2) 23. (4)
24. (4) 24. (3) 24. (4)
25. (4) 25. (2) 25. (2)
26. (4) 26. (3) 26. (3)
27. (3) 27. (1) 27. (3)
28. (4) 28. (4) 28. (2)
29. (2) 29. (3) 29. (1)
30. (1) 30. (3) 30. (2)

(For VIII Studying)
SECTION-A : SCIENCE
1. The element which is mainly electroplated on car 4. The force which is only attractive in nature is
parts, bath taps, bicycle's handlebars etc., to give (1) Gravitational force
shiny appearance is (2) Electrostatic force
(1) Zinc (2) Aluminium (3) Magnetic force
(3) Chromium (4) Copper (4) Both electrostatic and magnetic force
2. In the figure given below, an ideal pendulum oscillates 5. Read statement-1 and statement-2 and choose the
in vacuum between two extreme positions A and B. correct option.
If it goes from position A to position B and then Statement-1 : In some situations, friction facilitates
returns from position B to mean position C in 3 s, the motion and in some situations, it opposes the
then it will complete 3.5 oscillations in motion.
Statement-2 : Friction force always opposes the
relative motion between two surfaces in contact.
Choose the correct option.
A B (1) Only statement-1 is correct
C (3) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are correct
(1) 14 s (2) 4 s
(4) Neither statement-1 nor statement-2 is correct
(3) 1.14 s (4) 2 s
6. Which of the following is made up of a large number
3. Water is filled upto same height in two identical of ester units?
closed containers A and B. Container A has vacuum
(1) Teflon (2) PVC
over the water while container B has air over the
water. At the same depth of both the containers (3) Bakelite (4) Polyester
there is an opening on which identical balloons A 7. Consider the following :
and B are attached as shown in the figure given Fibre A - Rayon
below. Then Fibre B - Natural fibre which is a polymer of glucose
Fibre C - First fully synthetic fibre
Vacuum Air Identify A, B and C and choose the correct option.
Strongest Least Fibre known
fibre disastrous as artificial
fibre on silk
Balloon A Balloon B catching fire
Container-A Container-B
(1) A B C
(1) Balloon-A will bulge more than balloon-B
(2) B C A
(2) Balloon-B will bulge more than balloon-A
(3) C B A
(3) Both the balloons will bulge equally
(4) None of the balloons will bulge (4) C A B
1
8. In which of the following liquids phosphorus is Which of the following is the correct reason for the
generally stored ? increase in the yield of maize grown in
(1) Alcohol (2) Sugar solution June-September 2015?
(3) Water (4) Kerosene (1) Gram grown in October-March, 2014-15 utilizes
all the nutrients present in the soil
9. Which of the following elements is non-ductile?
(1) Silver (2) Gold (2) Maize grown in June-September, 2014 leaves
most of the nutrients for the growth of maize in
(3) Carbon (4) Copper next year
10. Consider the following figure.
(3) Gram grown in October-March, 2014-15
replenishes the soil with nitrogen for better growth
of maize
CuSO4 HCl CuSO4 NaOH
(4) Gram grown in October-March, 2014-15 takes
Zn Zn Fe Al
Case-I Case-II Case-III Case-IV
the nutrients left by maize grown in
In which of the given cases a gas is released? June-September 2014 and transfers it to maize
grown in June-September 2015
(1) I and III (2) II and III
13. Regarding wildlife sanctuaries, which of the following
(3) I and II (4) II and IV
statements is/are incorrect?
11. A man took 375 ml of water in a beaker and
dissolved 2-3 teaspoons of sugar in it and also (I) They provide protection to wild animals.
added half a spoon of powder 'A' to this solution. He (II) Capturing of animals is permitted here.
kept the solution in a warm place. After 4-5 hours he
observed the smell of alcohol coming from that (III) They provide suitable living conditions to wild
solution. animals.
Here, powder 'A' added is of (IV) Here, animals live in artificial settings.
(1) Yeast (2) Lactobacillus (1) (II) and (IV) (2) (I) and (II)
(3) Paramecium (4) Amoeba (3) (IV) only (4) (II) and (III)
12. In the given bar graph, yields of different crops in 14. A farmer needs to spray 2,4-D in his crop field. This
successive years are shown. indicates that
160 (1) He wants to make his crop resistant to drought

140 (2) There are undesirable plants in his crop field
Crop yield (kg/acre)
120 (3) His crop requires more nitrogen

100 (4) His crop is suffering from bacterial and fungal
infections
80
Maize
15. Nucleolus is present in

Gram
60
Maize
Maize
(1) Cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells

40
(2) Nucleoid of prokaryotic cells
20
(3) Cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells
[Jun-Sept [Oct-Mar [Jun-Sept [Jun-Sept
2014] 2014-15] 2015] 2016] (4) Nucleus of eukaryotic cells
2
2 22. If x and y are the number of possibilities that A can

3
16. The rational number lies between and is assume such that the unit digit of A and A3 are
7 3
same and the unit digit of A2 and A3 are same
2 4 respectively, then the value of x – y is (where A is
(1) (2)
5 7 a single digit number)
3 2 (1) 4 (2) 2
(3) (4)
7 3 (3) 3 (4) 5
17. The square root of sum of the digits in the square of 23. In the given figure, AC and BD are the diagonals of
121 is kite ABCD with AB = AD while AG and ME are the
(1) 4 (2) 3 diagonals of rectangle AEGM. If AD = DG and BG
(3) 6 (4) 9 is a line segment, then x – y equals
18. What percent is 285 of the number 475? A E
(1) 150% (2) 90%

O
(3) 60% (4) 50%
42° x y
19. A dice is thrown once. The probability of getting the B M D G
square of the number appearing on the dice to be a
multiple of 9, is
1 2
(1) (2)
3 3
1 1 C
(3) (4)
2 6 (1) 21° (2) 48°
20. In the given figure, ABCD is a parallelogram, (3) 42° (4) 68°
ADE  50 and ACE  BED  90. The value 24. The following frequency distribution table shows the
of EAC  ABC  2DAC is weekly wages of 600 workers of a factory.
A B
Class - Interval Frequency
(Weekly wages in `) (Number of Workers)
500 - 525 48
O
525 - 550 52
550 - 575 55
D C E
575 - 600 96
(1) 20° (2) 10°
600 - 625 88
(3) 30° (4) 40°
625 - 650 85
5.6( x  3)
21. If  24 , then the value of (2x + 1) is 650 - 675 46
0.7
(1) 0 (2) 1 675 - 700 98
(3) 2 (4) 3 700 - 725 32
3
Which class interval of weekly wages has the 25. If a, b, c and d are four odd perfect cube numbers,
maximum number of workers? then which of the following is always a factor of
(1) 575 - 600  3 a  3 b 2  3 c  3 d  ?

(1) 6
(2) 625 - 650
(2) 8
(3) 650 - 675
(3) 3
(4) 675 - 700 (4) 9

26. One morning, Sachin starts moving from point A and
reaches at point B. From point B he takes a right
turn and walks towards point C. At point C he stops
and observes that his shadow is lying behind him. (1) (2)
The position of point A with respect to point B is
(1) North (2) South-west
(3) North-east (4) South
(3) (4)
27. 'Jharkhand' is related to 'Ranchi' in the same way as
'Gujarat' is related to
(1) Ahmedabad 29. The next term in the following series is
(2) Gandhinagar 1, 2, 5, 16, 65, 326, ?
(3) Vadodara (1) 1956 (2) 1957
(4) Surat (3) 1955 (4) 1987
28. The next figure in the following pattern is 30. Rachit saw a word 'GROCERY' written on a
signboard in rear-view mirror of his car. The image
that Rachit saw in the mirror was
(1) (2)
?
(3) (4)

4

(For IX Studying)
SECTION-A : SCIENCE
1. Two stones, having masses in the ratio of 3 : 2, are 4. If the displacement of a particle is equal to zero,
dropped from the heights in the ratio of 4 : 9. The then its distance
ratio of magnitudes of their linear momenta just
before reaching the ground is (neglect air resistance) (1) Must be equal to zero
(1) 4 : 9 (2) 2 : 3 (2) Can't be equal to zero
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 1 : 1
(3) Can be negative
2. Two point masses M and 3M are placed at a
distance L apart. Another point mass m is placed in (4) May or may not be equal to zero
between on the line joining them so that the net
5. Velocity-time graph of a block of mass 100 g sliding
gravitational force acting on it due to masses M and
on a horizontal concrete floor under the action of a
3M is zero. The magnitude of gravitational force
constant force of 5 N is shown below. The
acting due to mass M on mass m will be
magnitude of frictional force acting on the block due
 
2
GMm 1  3 to the floor is
(1)
L2
3GMm 80
(2) 2

L 1 3 
Velocity(m/s)
60
 
2
GMm 1– 3
(3)
L2 40
(4)
GMm 1– 3  20
2
L
3. Two persons just manage to push a block from left
O
to right direction along a horizontal level road with 2 4 6 8 Time (s)
uniform velocity. When the same block is pushed
by three persons in same direction a constant (1) 4 N (2) 5 N
acceleration of 0.2 ms–2 is produced in the block. If
(3) 3 N (4) Zero
the five persons push the block in same direction
together, then the magnitude of acceleration of the 6. The boiling point of a liquid X is 20°C more than that
block will be [Assume that each person applies the of water. Boiling point of X is
force equal in magnitude]
(1) 353 K (2) 373 K
(1) 0.4 ms–2 (2) 0.6 ms–2
(3) 0.8 ms–2 (4) 1 ms–2 (3) 393 K (4) 120 K
5
7. The physical state of matter that consists of super 10. Pehal and Ishaan were making 100 g sugar solutions
energetic and super excited particles in the form of with concentration by mass 20% and 50%
ionised gases is respectively. Pehal added 20 g of sugar in her
solution whereas Ishaan evaporated 20 g of water
(1) Solid from his solution. Now, the two solutions were mixed
(2) Liquid to form a final solution. The concentration by mass
of final solution is
(3) Plasma
(1) 28% (2) 45%
(4) Gas
(3) 40% (4) 60%
8. Consider the following diagram.
11. Select the incorrect statement regarding that
10 mL 10 mL 10 mL
organelle of animal cell which has its own DNA and
ribosomes.
(1) The energy required for various chemical activities

needed for life is released by it in the form of
ATP molecules
A B C D
In beaker A, a solution is made by dissolving 2-3 (2) Its outer membrane is deeply folded while the
inner membrane is very porous
crystals of potassium permanganate in 100 mL of
water. 10 mL of this solution is added in another (3) Its deeply folded membrane creates a large
beaker 'B' and the volume is made 100 mL by adding surface area for ATP-generating chemical
water. Same process is repeated again by taking reactions
10 mL of solution from beaker B to C and
(4) It is able to make some of its own proteins
subsequently from beaker C to D. The solution with
the least concentration is 12. Hard matrix of a particular type of connective tissue
is composed of calcium and phosphorus
(1) A (2) B
compounds. The cells embedded in this matrix are
(3) C (4) D
(1) Fibroblasts
9. Consider the following box
(2) Osteocytes
Fog, Mist, Sponge, Clouds, Pumice
(3) Chondrocytes
Total number of aerosols is (4) Mast cells
(1) Two 13. Four sugar solutions A, B, C and D of different sugar
concentrations were taken to perform an experiment
(2) Three at constant temperature to show the phenomenon of
(3) Four osmosis. After few hours, the changes in the level of
solutions observed are depicted by the given
(4) Five diagrams.
6
According to the observation, correct order of sugar
concentration of those solutions is
Semipermeable Semipermeable
B membrane B membrane C (1) A > C = B > D (2) A > D > B = C
D
(3) D > B = C > A (4) C = B > D > A
Level of solution D No change in the 14. The cells of which tissue differentiate to form different
dropped down level of solutions types of permanent tissue?
(1) Sclerenchyma tissue (2) Collenchyma tissue
(3) Parenchyma tissue (4) Meristematic tissue

Semipermeable Semipermeable
membrane membrane 15. Amongst them, who classify all living organisms into
C
A D five kingdoms?
D
(1) Ernst Haeckel (2) Robert Whittaker
Level of solution D Level of solution D
dropped down raised up (3) Carl Woese (4) Charles Darwin
16. If ab = bc = ab, then b + c always equals 19. If p and q are two distinct irrational numbers, then which
of the following is always an irrational number?
1 1 p
(1) (2) bc
bc 2 (1) (2) pq
q
(3) 1 (4) bc p 2q  qp
(3) (p + q)2 (4)
17. Which of the following is a factor of 2x4 + 1 + 3x2? pq
20. In the given figure, if r || s, p || q and u || t, then c
(1) 1 + 2x2 equals
(2) 4 + x2 p
q
(3) 2x2 – 1
c E b
(4) 3 + x2 r
I F
18. The graph of the equation 5x – 3y = 10 cuts the a
x-axis at the point H G s
⎛ 10 ⎞
(1) ⎜ 0,
⎝ 3 ⎟⎠
J N
(2) (–2, 0) M u
t
(3) (2, 0) (1) a – b (2) 2a + b
(4) (0, 0) (3) a + b (4) b – a
7
21. If 8a  64b  c  24 3 abc , where a, b, c  0, then 24. In the given figure, ABC  EDA. If X and Y are
which of the following can be true? points lying on AD and EG respectively such that
AX EY DX
(1) 2 3 a  4 3 b  3 c  0   1 . The value of is always
XC YG FY
(2) 2 3 a  4 3 b  3 c A
(3) a + b + c = 0
(4) a = b = c
X
22. In the given figure, if AB intersects CD at O, D
CB || AD || EF || GH, BH = AE and OH = OE, then
which of the following is not always correct? C
B F G
C B
Y
G H E
O (1) Greater than 1
E F (2) Equal to 1
A D (3) Less than 1
(1) BC = AD 3
(4) Equal to
(2) OC = OD 2
25. In the given ABC, E is a point on AD.
(3) GH = EF
If AEB, ADB and ACD are equal to 180° – k1,
(4) OB = OD 180° – k 2 and 180° – k 3 respectively, then
k1 : k2 : k3 equals
23. A tile is in the shape of a rhombus whose diagonals
are (x + 5) units and (x – 8) units. The number of
A
such tiles required to tile on the floor of area
(x2 + x – 20) sq. units is
 
2( x  6)
(1) E
( x  2)

x4 
(2)
x 2 B D C
2( x  4) (1) 1 : 2 : 3
(3)
( x  8) (2) 2 : 3 : 4
(3) 3 : 4 : 5
x 8
(4) (4) 1 : 3 : 5
x2
8

26. An insect moves in a field as shown in the following 28. The number which replaces '?' in the following pattern
diagram. If the insect starts moving towards east is
initially, then finally it is moving towards
M P
? 231
5
Finally moving
96 24
Initial point
(1) South-West (2) South-East K G
(3) North-West (4) North-East (1) 18 (2) 28

27. Which figure will replace '?' in the following figure
(3) 144 (4) 164
matrix?
29. A person threw a standard dice 3 times. He obtained
two distinct odd prime numbers in two throws and an
even number which is not a factor of 18 in the third
throw. The sum of all the numbers on the opposite
faces of numbers obtained in the three throws is
(1) 9 (2) 12
(3) 10 (4) 15
?
30. Mr. Smith has a bag A. Bag A has n numbers of
bag B. Each bag B has n numbers of bag C. Each
bag C has n numbers of one rupee coins in it. If one
bag B is removed from bag A, then the total number
of coins left in bag A is
(1) (2) (1) n(n – 1)(n + 1)
(2) n(n – 1)
(3) n2(n + 1)
(3) (4)
(4) n2(n – 1)

9

(For X Studying)
SECTION-A : SCIENCE
1. The power of engine of a car of mass 1200 kg is 2 2
25 kW. The minimum time required to reach a velocity (1)  (90 – i ) (2)  i
1 1
of 90 km/h by the car after starting from rest is
(1) 15 s (2) 25 s (3) i (4) 90° – i
(3) 60 s (4) 12 s 4. Choose the incorrect statement among the following.
2. The effective resistance in between the points A
and B in the circuit given below is (1) When a body is immersed fully or partially into
a fluid, it experiences an upward force that is
14  A B 5
equal to weight of the fluid displaced by it
9  48  (2) A stone is tied with a light spring balance using
10  20  15  a light string. As this stone is slowly lowered
into the water, the reading of the spring balance
8 6 decreases till it touches the bottom of the
(1) 23  (2) 32  container as shown in the figure given below
(3) 12  (4) 45 
3. In the arrangement given below, there are two Spring balance
rectangular glass slabs placed side by side as
shown. A ray of light is incident from air onto the
surface of glass slab-1 having refractive index 1 at
an angle of incidence i. Thereafter, it moves through Water
glass slab-2 of refractive index 2 and after emerging Stone
from the glass slab-2, it reflects from a smooth
horizontal plane mirror. The angle  which reflected (3) Lactometer is used to measure the purity of a
ray makes with the mirror is sample of milk
i Air (4) The density of the object can be measured in
1 kgcm–3
Glass Slab-1
5. A concave lens is required to correct
2 (1) Myopia (2) Presbyopia
Glass Slab-2
(3) Hypermetropia (4) Cataract
Air
6. Four moles of a compound 'X' weigh 176 g.
Compound 'X' is
 (1) CO (2) CH4
Plane Mirror (3) CO2 (4) NaCl
10
7. On the basis of given information, identify 'X'. 11. Select the correct option w.r.t. excretory parts that
Atomic Mass No. of No. of No. of Symbol
occur in pairs in human beings.
No. No. Electrons Protons Neutrons
(1) Ureter, urethra and urinary bladder
1 1 1 A B X
(2) Urinary bladder and urethra only
(1) H (2) Ne
(3) H+ (4) He2+ (3) Kidney and ureter
8. Addition of water to calcium oxide, is an example of (4) Urethra and kidney

both
(1) Combination and endothermic reaction 12. Match the following symptoms/conditions with their
associated endocrine glands labelled as A, B, C, D
(2) Combination and exothermic reaction
and E in the outline sketch of human being as given
(3) Decomposition and endothermic reaction below and select the correct option.
(4) Decomposition and exothermic reaction
9. Rajat and Ashima have got two different solutions A
A
and B respectively. The concentration of hydronium
ion is more in case of solution A. Solution B turns
pink in the presence of phenolphthalein while A turns B
the colour of pH paper orange. The pH of solutions
A and B can respectively be
(1) 7, 13 (2) 13, 14 C
(3) 2, 14 (4) 14, 13
D
10. 'X' and 'Y' are two metallic elements. 'Y' is more
E
reactive than 'X'. The reaction of 'Y' with iron oxide is
highly exothermic and is used to join railway tracks.
Y does not react with hot or cold water but reacts
with steam to form its oxide. 'X' reacts with sodium
(a) Increases heart rate.
hydroxide to produce a gas 'Z' which burns with pop
sound. 'X' is also a constituent of brass. Which of (b) Regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat
the following statements are not correct for 'X', 'Y' and
metabolism.
'Z'?
(i) 'Y' is aluminium and 'X' is copper. (c) High blood sugar level.
(ii) Oxides of 'X' and 'Y' are amphoteric. (d) Faster breathing rate.
(iii) 'Y' forms a compound with formula YCl3 with
chlorine. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) 'X' is used for galvanisation. (1) C B D C
(v) 'Z' is oxygen. (2) A E B D
(1) (i), (ii) & (iii) (2) (ii), (iii) & (iv) (3) D C E A
(3) (i) & (iv) (4) (i) & (v) (4) A B D A
11
13. Identify the odd one out from I, II and III separately 14. At higher altitudes, air becomes rarer and amount of
and select the correct option for those odd ones. oxygen per litre of air decreases.
Increase in all of the following would compensate this
I. Intestinal juice, Pancreatic juice, Saliva, Bile juice. decrease for performing normal biological functions of
II. Mucus, Pepsin, Trypsin, Lipase. our body, except
(1) The concentration of haemoglobin
III. Amino acid, Glycerol, Hydrochloric acid, Glucose. (2) The number of red blood cells
(1) Intestinal juice, Lipase, Glucose (3) The temperature of the body
(4) The rate of breathing
(2) Saliva, Trypsin, Amino acid 15. Which among the following organisms divide into many
daughter cells simultaneously by multiple fission?
(3) Bile juice, Pepsin, Amino acid
(1) Amoeba (2) Plasmodium
(4) Bile juice, Mucus, Hydrochloric acid (3) Hydra (4) Planaria
16. If a2 + b2 + c2 = 14, then ab + bc + ca is always 19. A cylindrical vessel open at the top has a base
greater than or equal to diameter 56 cm. If the total cost of painting the outer
(1) 0 (2) 14 curved surface of the vessel is ` 352 at the rate of
(3) –1 (4) –7 ` 0.2 per 100 cm2, then the height of the vessel is
17. In the given figure, if ABC is a triangle, D and E are (1) 15 m (2) 10 m
the points on BC such that ADC ~ AEB, then
(3) 6 m (4) 12 m
AD
is always equal to 20. Out of the given four quadrilaterals, in which of the
AE
A following, the diagonals always bisect each other at
right angles?
(1) Trapezium (2) Rhombus
(3) Rectangle (4) Kite
21. If the HCF and LCM of 48 and 56 are respectively
B D E C l
h and l, then the value of is
AB AC h
(1) (2)
CE AB (1) 40 (2) 42
AD CE (3) 36 (4) 44
(3) (4)
CE AD
22. The system of linear equations 5x + my = 10 and
1 1 1
18. The value of  … is 4x + ny = 8 have infinitely many solutions, where m
2 7 7  10 28  31 and n are positive integers. Then, the minimum
4  28 2  31 possible value of (m + n) is equal to
(1) (2)
3 3
(1) 9 (2) 5
28  4 31  2
(3) (4) (3) 6 (4) 10
3 3
12
23. The quadratic equation abx2 + acx + b(bx + c) = 0 25. The common difference of an arithmetic progression
has non-zero equal and rational roots. The values of
27
a and c respectively cannot be equal to (ab  0) in which a15  a6   , is (where an is the nth term
2
(1) 4 & 49 (2) 49 & 16
(3) 4 & 64 (4) 8 & 49 of the given AP)
⎡ tan30  sin60  cosec30 ⎤

4 3
24. The value of ⎢ is equal to (1) –2 (2)
⎣ sec 0  cot 60  cos30 ⎥⎦ 2
(1) 8 (2) 3 2 3
(3) (4) 3
(3) 4 (4) 16 2

26. If EXTRANEOUS  XEOENARTSU, then Taxpayer PAN Allotted
PERFECTION ? Status During FY
(1) EPITECFRNO (2) EPICTEFRNO 2013-14
(3) EPITCEFRNO (4) EIPTCEFRNO ASSOCIATION OF PERSONS 70,970

BODY OF INDIVIDUALS 4,306
27. Out of the following four options, three possess the
COMPANY 1,01,973
same property, while one is different from the others.
Choose the correct odd option. FIRM 2,43,789
GOVERNMENT 876
(1) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
HUF 70,196
(2) Narendra Modi ARTIFICIAL JURIDICAL PERSON 1,444
(3) Dr. Manmohan Singh LOCAL AUTHORITY 4,333
INDIVIDUAL 2,76,45,257
(4) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
TRUST 46,308
28. The value of ‘a’ in the following pattern is TOTAL PAN ALLOTTED 2,81,89452
4 8 12 29. In which category of taxpayer status, the number of

PAN allotted is fourth highest during FY 2013-14?
2 16 39 a
(1) FIRM
10 15 20
(2) TRUST
(1) 71 (2) 16 (3) HUF
(3) 25 (4) 61 (4) ASSOCIATION OF PERSONS
Directions : (Q.29 to Q.30) 30. The difference between the number of PAN allotted to
BODY OF INDIVIDUALS and LOCAL AUTHORITY is
Read the given table and answer the following questions.
In this table data about the PAN allotment during FY (1) 69526 (2) 66637
2013-14 is given. (3) 27 (4) 2862


13
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456

(For VIII, IX & X Studying)
ANSWERS
Class VIII Studying Class IX Studying Class X Studying
1. (3) 1. (4) 1. (1)
2. (1) 2. (1) 2. (2)
3. (2) 3. (2) 3. (4)
4. (1) 4. (4) 4. (2)
5. (3) 5. (1) 5. (1)
6. (4) 6. (3) 6. (3)
7. (3) 7. (3) 7. (1)
8. (3) 8. (4) 8. (2)
9. (3) 9. (2) 9. (3)
10. (4) 10. (2) 10. (4)
11. (1) 11. (2) 11. (3)
12. (3) 12. (2) 12. (1)
13. (1) 13. (4) 13. (4)
14. (2) 14. (4) 14. (3)
15. (4) 15. (2) 15. (2)
16. (2) 16. (4) 16. (4)
17. (1) 17. (1) 17. (2)
18. (3) 18. (3) 18. (4)
19. (1) 19. (4) 19. (2)
20. (2) 20. (3) 20. (2)
21. (2) 21. (1) 21. (2)
22. (2) 22. (4) 22. (1)
23. (2) 23. (3) 23. (4)
24. (4) 24. (2) 24. (4)
25. (2) 25. (2) 25. (2)
26. (4) 26. (1) 26. (3)
27. (2) 27. (4) 27. (4)
28. (4) 28. (3) 28. (1)
29. (2) 29. (1) 29. (4)
30. (4) 30. (4) 30. (3)

Aakash National Young Talent Search Exam 2014 Sample Paper

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Sample Paper (IX Studying) Aakash National Young Talent Search Exam 2014

Aakash National Young Talent Search Exam 2014

(3) 4 m (4) 5 m (4) Same force will accelerate them equally

(1) 8 s (2) 16 s (3) Towards the centre of gravity

(3) 24 s (4) 12 s (4) Leftwards

Space for Rough Work

11. A solution is prepared by addition of 10 g salt in d. Calcium (iv) 4

Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

2 36. If 22 x  256 , then the value of x is

(4) One pair of its opposite angles is equal 2 5

1 1 (1) 3(2a – 3b) (3b – 5c) (2a – 5c)

Space for Rough Work

43. The expression (1) P > R (2) P < R

can be factorised as 48. If ABC  PQR and A = 60º, then Q + R is

Space for Rough Work

(3) ( x  3)( x  2) (4) ( x  3)( x  2) (1) a3  b3  ab

Space for Rough Work

SECTION-C : MENTAL ABILITY

P T (1) 204 (2) 12

R U (3) 1 (4) 198

(1) (2) (1) Roshan (2) Zafar

Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

Aakash National Young T

1. (1) 17. (1) 33. (4) 49. (3) 65. (1)

4. A cuboid is painted in 6 colours – Green, Blue,

(1) 29 5. A sheet of paper is folded along the arrows and

Paper II : Science & Mathemat ics

(1) 121 (3) 2.22% loss (4) 2% gain

(2) 3267 144

TALENT HUNT EXAM

Time : 2 Hours MM : 480

A 4. _______ between the different layers of water in the

Space for Rough Work

(1) 10 Ωm (2) 2 Ωm (1) Magnesium (2) Zinc

(3) 4 Ωm (4) 5 Ωm (3) Potassium (4) Lead

(1) Anodising (2) Electrolytic refining (1) Haematite (2) Bauxite

(3) Galvanization (4) Corrosion (3) Cinnabar (4) Magnetite

Space for Rough Work

(1) Lignin (2) Suberin (4) Shrink due to endosmosis

Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

(1) 7 : 3 (2) 6 : 7 (3) 2 cosecA secA

(3) 6 : 49 (4) 36 : 7 (4) 2 + cosecA secA

Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

73. In the following number sequence, how many such

(1) 17 (2) 19 (1) 0 (2) 2

(3) 21 (4) 27 (3) 3 (4) 1

Space for Rough Work

(1) 14th (2) 24th

(3) 26th (4) 27th

74. Directions (Q.77 to Q.79) : The following questions are

(i) Rectangle represents males

(3) (4) (ii) Triangle represents engineers

(iii) Circle represents urban

(iv) Square represents doctors

77. Who among the following is a male engineer who is

(3) (4) (1) 13 (2) 11

Space for Rough Work