NEET - 2021 Class Test: 3 MR 3 2 5 MR 7 2

NEET - 2021 AIIMS
Foundation _ 10.05.2019
Batch _ IV+V _17.01.2020 Class Test
06. Three rings each of mass M and radius R are
01. The angular velocity of a wheel increases from
arranged as shown in the figure. The moment
100 rps to 300 rps in 10 seconds. The number of
of inertia of the system about YY” will be
revolutions made during that time is
(1) 600 (2) 1500 (3) 1000 (4) 2000 (1) 3 MR 2 Y
02. A torque of 50Nm acting on a wheel at rest 3
(2) MR 2
rotates it through 200 radian in 5 sec. Calculate 2
the angular acceleration produced (3) 5 MR 2
2 2
(1) 8 rad sec (2) 4 rad sec
7 Y’
2 2 (4) MR 2
(3) 16 rad sec (4) 12 rad sec 2
07. Two spheres each of mass M and radius R/2 are
03. Five particles of mass 2kg are attached to the
connected with a massless rod of length 2R as
rim of a circular disc of radius 0.1m & negligible shown in the figure.What will be the moment of
mass. Moment of inertia of the system about the inertia of the system about an axis passing
axis passing through the centre of the disc and through the centre of one of the spheres and
perpendicular to its plane is perpendicular to the rod
(1) 1kg  m 2 (2) 0.1kg  m 2 21 M M

(1) MR 2
5 R/2 R/2
(3) 2kg  m 2 (4) 0.2kg  m 2
2
04. Four thin rods of same mass M and same length (2) MR 2
5 2R
l , form a square as shown in figure. Moment of
inertia of this system about an axis through 5 5
(3) MR 2 (4) MR 2
centre O and perpendicular to its plane is 2 21
4 2 08. ABC is a triangular plate of uniform thickness.
(1) Ml l
3 The sides are in the ratio shown in the figure.
I AB , I BC , I CA are the moments of inertia of the
Ml 2 l l plane about AB, BC, CA respectively. Which one
(2) O
3 of the following relations is correct
A
Ml 2 2 2 (1) I CA is maximum
(3) (4) Ml l
6 3
(2) I AB  I BC 4 5
05. From a uniform wire, two circular loops are made
(i) P of radius r and (ii) Q of radius nr. If the (3) I BC  I AB
moment of inertia of Q about an axis passing B 3 C
through its centre and perpendicular to its plane (4) I AB  I BC  I CA
is 8 times that of P about a similar axis, the value
of n is (diameter of the wire is very much
smaller than r or nr)
(1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 2
New Nagratoli, Near Women’s College Science Block, Ranchi Cont : 7360012022 1
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09. For the given uniform square lamina ABCD, 09. Two discs are rotating about their axes, normal
whose centre is O to the discs and passing through the centres of
A E the discs. Disc D1 has 2 kg mass and 0.2 m
(1) 21AC  I EF B
radius and initial angular velocity of 50 rads 1 .
Discs D2 has 4 kg mass, 0.1m radius and
(2) I AD  3I EF O initial angular velocity of 200 rad s 1 . The two
discs are brought in contact face to face, with
(3) I AC  I EF (4) I AC  2I EF D F C their axes of rotation coincident. The final
angular velocity (inrads 1 ) of the system is
06. A wheel having moment of inertia 2kg  m 2
(1) 60 (2) 100
about its vertical axis, rotates at the rate of 60
rpm about this axis. The torque which can stop (3) 120 (4) 40
the wheel’s rotation in one minute would be 10. A sphere of mass 0.5 kg and diameter 1m rolls
2  without sliding with a constant velocity of
(1) N m (2) N m
15 12 5 m /s , calculate what is the ratio of the
rotational K.E. to the total kinetic energy of the
  sphere
(3) N m (4) N m
15 18
7 5 2 1
07. The total torque about pivot A provided by the (1) (2) (3) (4)
10 7 7 2
forces shown in the figure, for L  3.0 m, is
11. A metre stick is held vertically with one end on
the floor and is then allowed to fall. If the end
touching the floor is not allowed to slip, the other
end will hit the ground with a veloctiy of
(g  9.8 m /s 2 )
(1) 3.2 m /s
(1) 210 Nm (2) 140 Nm (2) 5.4 m /s `
(3) 95 Nm (4) 75 Nm (3) 7.6 m /s

08. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is (4) 9.2 m /s
rotating about its axis with a constant angular
velocity  . Four objects each of mass m, are kept 12. a solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls
gently to the opposite ends of two perpendicular without slipping down an inclined plane of length
diameters of the ring. The angular velocity of L and height h. What is the speed of its centre of
the ring will be mass when the cylinder reaches its bottom
M (M  4m ) 3 4
(1) (2) (1) gh (2) gh
M  4m M 4 3
(M  4m ) M (3) 4 gh (4) 2gh

(3) (4)
M  4m 4m
13. An inclined plane makes an angle of 300 with
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the horizontal. A solid sphere rolling down this 10gh 6gh
inclined plane from rest without slipping has a (1) (2)
7 5
linear acceleration equal to
g 2g 5g 5g 4gh
(1) (2) (3) (4) (3) (4) 2gh
3 3 7 14 5
14. A solid sphere is rolling on a frictionless surface, 18. A wheel of bicycle is rolling without slipping on
shown in figure with a transational velocity a level road. The velocity of the centre of mass
m /s . If sphere climbs up to height h then value is vCM then true statement is
of  should be
A
10
(1)  gh
7 CM vCM
h
(2)  2gh B

(3) 2gh (1) the velocity of point A is 2vCM and velocity of
point B is zero
(4) 10/7 gh
(2) the velocity of point A is zero and velocity of
15. A small object of uniform density rolls up curved point B is 2vCM
surface with an initial velocity v. It reaches up
3 2 (3) the velocity of point A is 2vCM and velocity of
to a maximum height of 4g with respect to the point B is vCM
initial position. The object is
(4) the velocities of both A and B is vCM
(1) Ring
19. An automobile engine develops 100 kW when
(2) Solid sphere
rotating at a speed of 1800 rpm . The torque
(3) Hollow sphere 
delivered by the engine is
(4) Disc
16. The ratio of the time taken by a solid sphere 102 104
(1) Nm (2) Nm
and that taken by a disc of the same mass and 6 6
radius to roll down a rough inclined plane from
rest, from the same height is 106 108
(3) Nm (4) Nm
(1) 15 :14 (2) 6 6
15 : 14
20. A uniform disc of mass M and radius R, is resting
(3) 14 :15 (4) 14 : 15 on a table on its rim. The coefficient of friction
17. The speed of a uniform spherical shell after between disc and table is  . Now the disc is
rolling down an inclined plane of vertical height pulled with a force F as shown in the figure. What
h from rest, is is the maximum value of F for which the disc
rolls without slipping ?
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(1) Mg be imparted to the lower end mass, so that

the rod may just take up the horizontal
F
(2) 2Mg position ?
(3) 3Mg (4) 4Mg

21. Three bodies, a ring a solid cylinder and a solid
sphere roll down the same inclined plane without
slipping. They start from rest. The radii of the
bodies are identical. Which of the bodies reaches
the ground with the maximum velocity ?
(1) Ring
(2) Solid cylinder (1) 6g /5 (2) g /5
(3) Solid sphere
(3) 12 g / 5 (4) 2g /5
(4) All reach the ground with same velocity
25. Four particle of masses m, 2m, 3m and 4m are
22. Two particles whose masses are 10 kg and arranged at the corners of a parallelogram with
 each side equal to a and one of the angle between
30kg and their position vectors are i + j + k
two adjacent sides is 600 . The parallelogram lies

and – i – j – k respectively would have the in the x-y plane with mass m at the origin and
centre of mass at - 4m on the x-axis. The centre of mass of the
arrangement will be located at
(î  ˆj  k̂ ) ( i  j  k )
(1) – (2)  3  
2 2 3 
(1)  2 a ,0.95a  (2)  0.95a, 4 a 
( i  j  k ) ( i  j  k )
   
(3) – (4)
4 4  3a a   a 3a 
23. A neutron travelling with a velocity v and K.E. (3)  ,  (4)  , 
 4 2 2 4 
E. collides perfectly elastically head on with
the nucleus of an atom of mass number A at 26. Three identical spheres, each of mass 1 kg are
rest. The fraction of total energy retained by kept as shown in figure, touching each other,
neutron is- wiht their centres on a straight line. If their
centres are maked P, Q, R respectively, the
FG A  1IJ 2
FG A  1IJ 2 distance of centre of mass of the system from P
(1)
H A  1K (2)
H A  1K is
y
FG A  1IJ 2
FG A  1IJ 2
(3)
H AK (4)
H AK
P Q R
24. A light rod of length L is pivoted at the upper x
end. Two masses (each m), are attached to
the rod, one at the middle and the other at
the free end. What horizontal velocity must
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PQ  PR  QR PQ  PR 1
(1) (2) (3) 2(m1  m2 )gt0 (4) (m1  m 2 )gt 0
3 3 2
30. Two identical blocks A and B, each of mass ,m,
PQ  QR PR  QR
(3) (4) resting on smooth floor are connected by a light
3 3 spring of natural length L and spring constant
27. A small disc of radius 2cm is cut from a disc of K, with the spring at its natural length. A third
identical block ‘C’ (mass m) moving with a speed
radius 6cm . If the distance between their  along the line joining A and B collides
centres is 3.2cm , what is the shift in the centre elastically with A. The maximum compression
in the spring is
of mass of the disc
(1) 0.4cm (2) 2.4cm (3) 1.8cm (4) 1.2cm m  m m
(1)  (2) m (3) (4)
2k 2k k 2k
28. A ball of mass 0.2kg rests on a vertical post of
31. Three objects A,B and C are kept in a straight
height 5m . A bullet of mass 0.01 kg, travelling line on a frictionless horizontal surface. These
with a velocity V m/s in a horizontal direction, have masses m, 2m and m, respectively. The
hits the centre of the ball. After the collision, object A moves towards B with a speed 9m/s and
the ball and bullet travel independently. The ball makes an elastic collision with it. Thereafter, B
hits the ground at a distance of 20m and the makes completely inelastic collision with C. All
motions occur on the same straight line. Find
bullet at a distance of 100m from the foot of the the final speed (in m/s) of the object C.
post. The initial velocity V of the bullet is
m 2m m
A B C
(1) 3 m /s (2) 4 m /s (3) 5 m /s (4) 1m /s
(1) 250 m /s V m/s
32. Block A and B are resting on a smooth horizontal
(2) 250 2 m /s surface given equal speeds of 2 ms 1 in opposite
(3) 400 m /s sense a shown in the figure
0 20 100
(4) 500 m /s
2 ms–1 2 ms–1
29. Two particles of masses m1 and m2 in projetile 4kg 4kg
 
motion have velocities 1 and 2 respectively at origin (4.5m, 0)
time t  0 . They collide at time t 0 . Their
  At t=0, the position of block shown, then the
velocities become 1 ’ and 2 ’ at time 2t0 . while coordinates of centre of mass t = 3s will be
sti ll movin g in air. Th e value of (1) (1, 0) (2) (3, 0)
   
|(m11 ' m22 )  (m11  m22 )| is (3) (5, 0) (4) (2.25, 0)
(1) Zero (2) (m1  m2 )gt0
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33. Two particles of equal mass have coordinates
(2m, 4m, 6m) and (6m, 2m, 8m). Of these one (1) 7.5 cm
particle has a velocity v1  (2i)ms1 and another (2) 5 cm
particles has velocity v 2  (2j)ms1 at time t =0. (3) 2.5 cm
The coordinate of their centre of mass at time t (4) 1.25 cm
= 1s will be 37. Two blocks of mass m and 2m are kept on a
(1) (4m, 4m, 7m) (2) (5m, 4m, 7m) smooth horizontal surface. They are connected
by an ideal spring of force constant k. Initially
(3) (2m, 4m, 6m) (4) (4m, 5m, 4m) the spring is unstretched. A constant force is
34. The two diagrams show the situations before and applied to the heavier block in the direction
after a collision between two spheres A and B of shown in figure. Suppose at time t displacement
equal radii moving along the same straight line of smaller block is x, then displacement of the
on a smooth horizontal surface. The coefficient heavier block at this moment would be
of restitution e is
m 2m F
Before collision After collision
A B A B
x Ft 2 x
(1) (2) 
2 6m 3
8 ms–1 2 ms–1 2 ms–1 5 ms–1
x Ft 2 x
1 1 2 3 (3) (4) 
(1) (2) (3) (4) 3 4m 2
3 2 3 4
38. A particle mass m moves from rest under the
35. In a one dimensional collision between two action of a constant force F which acts for two
identical particle A and B, B is stationary and A seconds. The maximum power attained is
has momentum  before impact. During impact
B given an impulse J to A. Then, coefficient of F2
(1) 2Fm (2)
restitution between the two is m
2J 2J 2F 2F 2
(1) 1 (2) 1 (3) (4)
  m m
39. Three particles of masses 0.5 kg, 1.5 kg are
J J
(3) 1 (4) 1 placed at the three corners of a right angle
  triangle of sides 3,4, 5cm as shown in adjoining
36. A mass of 10 g moving horizontally with a velocity figure. What would be coordinate (x, y) of the
centre of mass of system ?
of 100cms 1 strikes a pendulum bob of mass 10g.
Length of string is 50 cm. The two masses stick
together. The maximum height reached by the
system now is (Take, g  10 ms 1 )
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43. Three objects A,B and C are kept in a straight
1.5 kg line on a frictionless horizontal surface. These
have masses m, 2m and m, respectively. The
object A moves towards B with a speed 9m/s and
makes an elastic collision with it. Thereafter, B
5 cm makes completely inelastic collision with C. All
3 cm motions occur on the same straight line. Find
the final speed (in m/s) of the object C.
0.5 kg m 2m m
4 cm 1 kg A B C
(1) 3 m /s (2) 4 m /s (3) 5 m /s (4) 1m /s
(1) (1.3, 1.5) (2) (2.3, 1.5) 44. A particle of mass m moving with a velocity u
makes an elastic one dimensional collison with
(3) (1.3, 2.5) (4) (2.3, 2.5)
a stationary particle of mass m establishing a
40. If two bodies are moving towards each other and contact with it for extremely small time T. Their
join, then centre of mass
force of contact increases from zero to F0 linearly
(1) moves in time T/4, remains constant for a further time
(2) remains stationary T/2 and decreases linearly from F0 to zero in
(3) moves away from bodies further time T/4 as shown. The magnitude
(4) none of the above possessed by F0 is
41. Consider the following two statements :
mu
(A) Linear momentum of the system remains (1) F
constant T
F0
(B) Centre of mass of the system remains at rest. 2mu
(2)
(1) A implies B and B implies A. T
(2) A does not imply B and B does not imply A. t
4mu 3mu O T/4 23T/4 T
(3) A implies B but B does not imply A. (3) (4)
3T 4T
(4) B implies A but A does not imply B.
45. Four rods AB, BC, CD and DA have mass m, 2m,
42. A body falling vertically downwards under gravity 3m, and 4m respectively. The centre of mass of
breaks in two parts of unequal masses. The all the four rods
centre of mass of the two parts taken together
(1) lie in region 1
shifts horizontally towards
(2) lie in region 2
(1) heavier piece
(3) lie in region 3
(2) lighter piece
(4) lie at O
(3) Does not shift horizontally
(4) depends on the vertical velocity at the time
of breaking.
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46. If K1 and K 2 are equilibrium constants for reaction 51. For the synthesis of ammonia Kc is 1.2 at 3750 C ,
(i) and (ii) respectively for 
N2 (g)  3H2 (g)  2NH3 (g)

N2  O2  2NO .........(i) What is Kp at this temperature
(1) 4.1  108 (2) 4.2  104
1 1

N2  O2  NO .......(ii)
2 2 (3) 1.3  103 (4) 3.4  103
Then 52. In an experiment carried out at 1377 K, HI was
found to be 25% dissociated. The Kc for the dis-
(1) K1  K 2 (2) K 2  K1 sociation
1 
2HI(g)  H2 (g)  I2 (g) is
(3) K1  2K 2 (4) K1  K2
2
9
47. For which reaction, K p is less than K C (1) (2) 9
4

(1) N2O4  2NO2 1 1
(3) (4)
9 36

(2) 2HI  H 2  I2 53. In a closed system

(3) 2SO2  O2  2SO3 
A (s )  2B(g )  3C(g ) .
 If the partial pressure of C is doubled at equilib-
(4) N2  O2  2NO
rium, then partial pressure of B will be
48. 2 moles of PCl5 were heated in a closed vessel (1) Two times the original value
(2) One half of its original vlaue
of 2 Litre capacity. At equilibrium 40% of PCl5
1
dissociated into PCl3 and Cl2 . The value of equi- (3) times the original value
2 2
librium constant is
(1) 0.267 (2) 0.53 (4) 2 2 times the original value
(3) 2.63 (4) 5.3 54. For reaction at 270 C , G  12.7 kJ when the
49. 
For the reaction CO(g )  Cl 2(g )  COCl2(g ) then reaction quotient   10 . What is the value of
Kp/Kc is equal to G0 for the reaction ?
1 (1) 12.1kJ (2) 7.0 kJ
(1) (2) 1.0
RT (3) 18.4 kJ (4) 37.5 kJ
(3) RT (4) RT 55. Phosphorus pentachloride dissociates as follows
50. Which statement characteries a chemical sys- in a closed reaction vessel.
tem at equilibrium 
PCl5(g )  PCl3(g )  Cl 2(g )
(P) The rate of the forward reaction is equal to
the rate of the reverse reaction If total pressure at equilibrium of the reaction
(Q) The concentration of the reactants and prod- mixture is, P and degree ofdissociation of PCl5
ucts are equal
is x. The partial pressure of PCl3 will be
(1) P only (2) Q only
(3) Both P and Q (4) Neither P nor Q
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 x   2x  60. The degree of dissociation of PCl5(g ) obeying the
(1)  P (2)  P
 x 1 1  x  
equilibrium PCl5  PCl3  Cl2 is approxi-
 x   x  mately related to the pressure at equilibrium by
(3)   P (4)  P
 x  1 1  x  (Given x < 1)
56. Introduction of inert gas (at the same tempera- 1
ture) will affect the equilibrium if. (1) x  P (2) x 
P
(1) Volume is constant and ng  0
1 1
(2) Pressure is constant and ng  0 (3) x  (4) x 
P2 P
(3) Volume is constant and ng  0 61. Solution of 0.1N NH4OH and 0.1 NH4Cl has pH
(4) Pressure is constant and ng  0 9.25. The find out PK b of NH4OH
57. For the equilibrium system (1) 9.25 (2) 4.75

CO(g )  2H2(g )  (3) 3.75 (4) 8.25
 CH3OH(  ) what is K c ?
62. Which one of the following is basic buffer solu-
CH3OH CH3OH tion ?
(1) K C  2 CO H (2) K C  2 (1) CH3COOH + CH3COONa
  2  CO H2 
(2) CH3COOH  NH4Cl
1 1
(3) K C  2 CO  H  (4) K C  CO H 2 (3) NH4OH  NH4Cl
2   2 
58. For the following reaction, formation of the (4) CH3COONa  NH4OH
product is favoured by 63. In the reaction I2  I  I3 . The lewis base is

A 2(g )  4B2(g )  2AB4(g ) H  0 (1) I2 (2) I
(1) Low temperature and high pressure
(2) High temperature and low pressure (3) I3 (4) None of these
(3) Low temperature and low pressure 64. pH value of HCl and NaOH solution each of
(4) High temperature and high pressure N
strength will be the respectively
59. At temperature T, a compound AB 2(g ) dissociates 100
according to the reaction (1) 12 and 2 (2) 2 and 12
(3) 2 and 2 (4) 2 and 10

2AB2(g )  2AB(g )  B2(g )
65. The pH value of decinormal solution of NH4OH
With a degree of dissociation, x, which is small
which is 20% ionised is
compare with unity. Deduce the expression for
(1) 12.95 (2) 12.30
K p in terms of x and the total pressure P (3) 14.70 (4) 13.30
Px 3 66. BF3 is an acid according to
Px 2
(1) (2) (1) Arrehenius concept
2 3
(2) Bronsted-Lowry concept
Px 3 Px 2 (3) Lewis concept
(3) (4) (4) Ostwald
3 2
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_ I _17.01.2020 Class Test
67. The increasing order of basic strength of 77. Which of the following is most stable ?
2 
Cl CO3 , CH3COO , OH , F  is
(1) Cl   F   CH3COO  CO32  OH  (1) (2)
(2) Cl   F   CO23  CH3COO  OH
(3) CH3COO  Cl   F   CO32  OH
(4) None of these
68. The pH of the solution obtained mixing 10ml of (3) (4)
101 N HCl and 10ml of 101 N NaOH is Ph Ph
(1) 8 (2) 2
(3) 7 (4) None of these 78. Which of the following resonating structures of
69. Conjugate base of hydrazoic acid is 1 – methoxy – 1, 3 – butadiene is least stable ?
+
(1) HN2 (2) N 3 (1) CH2  CH  CH  CH  O  CH3
..
(3) N3  (4) N 2 .. +
(2) CH2  CH  CH  CH  O  CH3
70. 6
10 M HCl is diluted to 100 times, its pH is ..
(1) 6.0 (2) 8.0 .. + ..
(3) CH2  CH  CH  CH  O  CH3
(3) 6.95 (4) 9.5 ..
71. pH for the solution of salt undergoing anionic
.. + ..
hydrolysis (say CH3COONa) is given by (4) CH2  CH  CH  CH  O  CH3
..
1 79. In which case, resonance is not possible ?
(1) pH  PK w  PK a  log C
2 
(1) C 6H5  CH CH3 (2) CH3  CH  CH  O
1
(2) pH  PK w  PK a  log C 
2 (3) CH2  CH  NH3
1
(3) pH  PK w  PK b  log C  
(4) CH3  CH  CH  CH CH3
2
(4) None of these 80. Which of the following has highest inductive
72. The solubility of AgCl will be minimum in effect ?
(1) – CH3 (2) – CH2 – CH3
(1) 0.001 M Ag NO3 (2) 0.01 M NaCl (3) –CH(CH3)2 (4) (CH3)3C –
(3) 0.01M CaCl2 (4) Pure water 81. Which of the following do not characterize ionic
compounds ?
73. The solubility of A 2 X 3 is S mol L1 . Its solubility
(1) These compounds usually exist in solid state
prode is (2) These posses high melting & boiling points
(1) 6S4 (2) 64 S4 (3) These are insoluble in solvent with high
5
(3) 36 S (4) 108 S5 dielectric constant
74. Number of OH in 1 ml solution of pH  13 is (4) These are good conductors of electricity an
(1) 1  1013 (2) 6  107 aq. state.
82. The compound with maximum lattice energy is
(3) 6  10 13 (4) 6  1019
–
75. The solution of NH4Cl i s (1) NaF (2) NaCl
(1) Acidic (2) Alkaline (3) AlF3 (4) MgF2
(3) Neural (4) Coloured 83. Which of the following is not an odd electron
76. Which of the following are aromatic in nature ? molecule ?
+ (1) NO (2) NO2
(a) (b) (3) O2 (4) None of these

84. Select the incorrect statement
+ (1) In dsp2 hydridization d x 2  y2 participates
(2) In sp3d2 hybridization d x 2  y2 & d z 2 participate
(c) (d) (3) In sp3d hybridization d z 2 participates
(4) None of these
(1) Only b (2) a & b
(3) c & d (4) a, b, c, d
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85. Select the correct statement about ClO3 & SO23 with ribbon shaped
(1) Both are isostructural but not isoelectronic chloroplast
(2) Both are isoelectronic but not isostructural D. Colonial coenobial (iv) Chlamydomonas
(3) Both are neither isoelectronic nor isostructural algae
(4) Both are isoelectronic & isostructural (1) A = (iii), B = (iv), C = (ii), D = (i)
86. Which of the following statements is incorrect ? (2) A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (iv)
(1) XeO2F2 & SF4 have see – saw shape (3) A = (iv), B = (i), C = (ii), D = (iii)
(2) Among IF7 & PCl5,PCl5 has lesser number of (4) A = (iv), B = (i), C = (iii), D = (ii)
93. Match the column :
atoms in XY plane
Column – I Column – II
(3) SF4 is planar molecule A. Carrageen (i) Brown algae
(4) O atom in H2O is sp3 hybridized B. Algin (ii) Red algae
87. Which of the following is a wrong order w.r.t. the C. Agar – agar (iii) Gelidium
property mentioned against each ? (iv) Gracilaria
(1) O22  O2  O2 (magnetic moment) (1) A = (ii), B = (iii, iv), C = (iv)
(2) A = (i), B = (ii, iii), C = (iv)
(2) NO  NO  NO (Bond length) (3) A = (ii), B = (i), C = (iii, iv)
(4) A = (i, ii), B = (iii), C = (iv)
(3) H2 > H2  He2 (bond energy) 94. Read the following statements :
(4) NO2  NO2  NO2 (bond length) (i) Agar – Agar is used to grow micoboes and in
the preparation of ice – creams and jellies
88. Arrange the following in decreasing order of bond (ii) Chlorella and Spirulina are unicellular algae,
angles of X–C–X rich in pro tein s an d are used as fo od
COF2,COCl2, COBr2, COI2 supplements by space travellers
(1) COF2 > COCl2 > COBr2 > COI2 (iii) Porphyra, Laminaria and Sargassum are
(2) COI2 > COBr2> COCl2 >COF2 poisonous
(3) COF2 = COCl2 > COBr2 > COI2 (iv) Algae are photosynthetic
(4) None of these (v) Spirogyra is a filamentous fungi
89. Which of the following paris is iso – structural ? How many of the above statements are incorrect ?
(1) Five (2) Three
(1) NO2 & CO2 (2) HCN & SnCl2 (3) Four (4) Two
(3) SO3 & CH4 (4) None of these 95. Pyrenoids :
90. In which of the following molecule Dipole (1) Are located in the chloroplasts of most of the
moment (Observed) is found to be greater than members of chlorophyceae
Dipole moment (theoretical) ? (2) Contain protein besides starch
(3) Both (1) and (2)
Cl CH3 (4) Are lipid bodies
Cl CH3 96. Green algae usually have :
(1) (2) (1) A rigid cell wall made of an inner layer of
cellulose and an outer layer of pectose
(2) Chlorophyll – a and chlorophyll – d
(3) Cell – wall made of murein
NO2 O-H O (4) All are correct
97. The giant brown algae usually have their plant
NO2 N
(3) (4) O body differentiated into :
(1) Holdfast – For attachment to substratum
(2) Stipe – i.e., stalk
91. Which of the following represents tracheophytes (3) Frond – i.e., leaf like photosynthetic organ
(i.e., vascular plants) ? (4) All of the above
98. Identify the brown algae given below labelled as
(1) Bryophytes, pteridophytes and angiosperms A, B and C :
(2) Algae, bryophytes and pteridophytes
(3) Pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms
(4) Algae, fungi and bryophates
92. Match the coloumn w.r.t. green algae :
Column – I Column – II
A. Unicellular algae (i) Ulothrix
B. Filamentous algae (ii) Spirogyra
with collar shaped
chloroplast
C. Filamentous algae (iii) Volvox
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(1) A = Fucus, B = Dictyota, C = Laminaria 104. Select the correct incorporation sequence of one
(2) A = Dictyota, B = Laminaria, C = Fucus structure within the other in a gymnosperm :
(3) A = Laminaria, B = Dictyota, C = Funcus (1) Spores  Sporophylls  Strobilus  Sporangia
(4) A = Laminaria, B = Fucus, C = Dictyota (2)Sporangia  Spores  Sporophylls  Strobilus
99. Gemma : (3) Sporangia  Strobilus  Sporophylls  Spores
(1) Is an asexual bud, green and multicullar
(4) Spores  Sporangia  Sporophylls 
(2) Develops in small receptacles called gemma cup
(3) Get detached from the parent body and Strobilus
germinate to form new individuals 105. Match the columns :
(4) All are correct Column – I Column – II
100. Which of the following is correct for bryophytes ? A. cedar wood oil (i) Pinus gerardiana
(1) Their plant body is more differentiated than B. Ephedrine (ii) Cycas revoluta
algae C. Chilgoza (iii) Juniperus
(2) They may possess root – like leaf – like or D. Sago (iv) Ephedra
stem – like stryctures (1) A= (iii), B =(iv), C = (i), D = (ii)
(3) They lack gamete formation (2) A= (iii), B =(ii), C = (i), D = (iv)
(4) More than one option is correct (3) A= (iv), B =(i), C = (ii), D = (iii)
101. Which of the following is not incorrect ? (4) A= (iv), B =(ii), C = (i), D = (iii)
(1) Species of Funaria provide peat 106. Identity the life cycle pattern :
(2) Mosses alongwith lichens are the first
organism to colonise rocks and hence, are of
great ecological importance Zygote
(3) Bryophyte are more evolved than pteridophytes (2n) Meiosis
Sy
(4) Bryophytes in general are to great economic ng
importance a m
y
102. Identify the pteridophyte and the structure Spores
marked O (n)
A
Gametogenesis B
O CH2––O––C––R
B
R2––C––O––CH O
OH
Gametophyte
(n)
fig
(1) Haplo – diplontic
(2) Haplontic
(3) Diplontic
(4) Diplo-haplontic
107. The life cycle pattern shown below is seen in
which group of plants ?
(1) Sel agin ella, A = fl oati ng l eave s, B = Sporophyte

Submerged leaves Zygote (2n)
(2) Equisetum, A = Submerged leaves, B = floating (2n)
leaves
(3) Salvinia, A = Submerged leaves, B = floating A
Syn
leaves gam
y
(4) Salvinia, A = floating leaves, B = submerged leaves Meiosis
103. The spread of living bryophytes and pteridophytes is
restricted to moist, damp and shady places as : Gametogenesis
B Spores
(1 ) They require water for fertilization and (n)
gametophyte required cool, damp and shady places
(2) They lack motile gametes Gametophyte
(3) They are weak plants (n)
(4) They lack vascular bundles
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(1) In algae only 115. Recognise the figure and find out the correct
(2) In bryophytes and pteridophytes matching.
(3) In gymnosperms only
(4) In algae and gymnosperms
108. Identify the life cycle pattern : Outer
side ATP
Sporophyte
(2n) 2H+
a b
d
ADP Pi
c
A (1) a – F1, b – F0,c– intermembrane space, d –
Zygote (2n) outer mitochondrial membrane
Gametogenesis
(2) a – F0, b – F1, c – intermembrane space, d –
B
inner mitochondrial membrane
(3) a – F 1 , b – F 0 ,c – matrix, d – inn er
(n)
mitochondrial membrane
Gametophyte
(4) a – F0, b – F1,c– matrix, d – inner mitochondrial
membrane
(1) Diplontic (2) Haplontic 116. In electron transport system (ETS) which of the
(3) Diplo – haplontic (4) Haplo – diplontic following cytochromes reacts with oxygen
109. Protonema is : (1) Cyt a3 (2) Cyt b
(1) Haploid and is found in mosses (3) Cyt b3 (4) Cyt c
(2) Diploid and is found in liverworts 117. Succinate + FAD forms
(3) Diploid and is found in pteridophytes (1) Fumarate + FADH2
(4) Haploid and is found in pteridophytes (2) Malate + NADH2
110. How many charachters in the box are related to (3) Isocitrate + NADH2
mosses ? (4) Citrate + Water
Diploid antherozoid mother cells, Protonema, 118. Succinate is oxidised to fumarate in Kreb’s cycle
Rhizoisa, Vasular sporophyte, Haploid spore by
mother cells, Fragmetation, Non – photosynthetic (1) Removal of hydrogen (2) Loss of electrons
sporophyte, Avascular gametophyte, Diploid (3) Addtion of oxygen (4) Removal of oxygen
prothallus 119. Recognise the figure and find out the correct
(1) Eight (2) Four matching
(3) Six (4) Five
111. Largest gymnosperms is :
(1) Zamia (2) Sequoia Carbohydrates
Fats Proteins
(3) Cedrus (4) Ginkgo
Simple sugars
a b Amino acids
e.g.Glucose
112. Glycolysis is a part of
Glucose - 6 – phosphate
(1) Only anaerobic respiration
(2) Kreb’s cycle Fructose 1, 6 – biphosphate
(3) Only aerobic respiration
c Glyceraldehyde 3 – phosphate
(4) Both aerobic and anerobic respiration
113. Which product of glycolysis is consumed in
d
alcoholic fermentation ?
(1) NADH + H+ (2) ATP c
(3) ATP and NADH + H+ (4) CO2
114. The first member of the TCA cycle is H2O Kreb's
cycle CO2
(1) Acetyl CoA (2) Citric acid
(3) OAA (4) Pyruvic acid
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(1) c – DHAP, d – acetyl CoA, e – pyruvic acid, b –
fatty acid, a – glycerol (1) (2)
(2) d – DHAP, e – acetyl CoA, c – pyruvic acid, a –
fatty acid, b – glycerol
(3) c – DHAP, e – acetyl CoA, d – pyruvic acid, a –
fatty acid, b – glycerol (3) (4)
(4) c – DHAP, d – acetyl CoA, e – pyruvic acid, a –
fatty acid, b – glycerol 125. The orientation of cellulose microfibirls in the
120. When malic acid is respiratory substrate, the cell wall of guard cell is
amount of CO2 released is (1) Longitudinal (2) Radial
(1) More than O2 consumed (3) Oblique (4) Tangential
126. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. girdling
(2) Less than O2 released
experiment.
(3) Equal to O2consumed (1) It is an experimental demonstration of
(4) CO2 is not released translocation of food by phloem in one direction
121. Assertion : In living organisms, respiratory (2) Swelling ob bark above the girdled part is due
substates are often more than one. to accumulation of nutrients
Reason : Pure proteins or fats are never used as (3) In this experiment, upward movement of
respiratory substrates water is not affected initially
Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark (4) In a girdled plant, shoot dies first than the
the correct option in question root
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the 127. Read the following statements and identify the
reacon is the correct explanation of the assertion incorrect difference between transpiration pull
and root pressure.
(2)If both assertion and reason are true but reson
Transpiration pull Root pressure
is not the correct explanation of the assertion (1) Acts as manin driving It estabilishes chain
(3) If assertion is ture but reason is false force for translocation of water molecules
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. of water in tall trees in xylem of tall trees
122. From mesophyll cells, sucrose moves into (2) It magnitude is Its magnitude is
companion cells and then into the sieve tube maximum during day maximum during
cells by time early morning and
(1) Transpiration night
(2) Simple diffusion (3) It generates a strong It is a negative
(3) Passive transport positive water hydrostatic pressure
(4) Active transport potential in xylem developed xylem
(4) It is manifestation It generates from
123. When root pressure is high, some herbaceous
of passive water active water
plants lose small quantity of excess water in the absorotion absorption
form the drops from the margins or tips of leaves. 128. Choose the correct option w.r.t. following diagram.
This phenomenon is called
(1) Imbibition (2) Guttation
(3) Osmosis (4) Diffusion
124. A hypothetical arrangement of four plant cells
A, B, C and D is given below. Find the correct
sequence of movement of water among these
cells.
(1) A – Transport lipid

B – Lipoidal substance
(2) A – Transmembrane protein
B – Hydrophobic molecule
(3) A – Transport protein
B – Substance with hydrophilic moiety
(4) A – Special protein
B – Porin
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129. Choose the correct option w.r.t. transport of 139. Which one of the following is a possibility for
substances.
most of us in regard to breathing, by making a
A. Sucrose B. Minerals
C. Water D. Hormones conscious effort ?
(1) A + B  Multidirectional in xylem (1) One can consciously breathe in and breathe
(2) C + D  Bidirectional in xylem out by moving the diaphragm alone, without
(3) A + C  Unidirectional in phloem moving the ribs at all
(4) B + C  Unidirectional in xylem (2) The lungs can be made fully empty by
130. How many are associated with apoplastic forcefully breathing out all air from them
movement of water ? (3) One can breathe out air totally without oxygen
Through cell wall, Independent of gradient, (4) One can breathe out air through eustachian
Through mass flow, Slow process, Through
intercellular spaces tubes by closing both the nose and the mouth
(1) Four (2) Three 140. Which two of the following changes (a–d) usually
(3) Two (4) Five tend to occur in the plain dwellers when they
131. The physical properties of water like cohesion, move to high altitudes (3,500 m or more) ?
adhesion and surface tension give water (a) Increase in red blood cell size
(1) Low capillarity and low tensile strength (b) Increase in red blood cell production
(2) High capillarity and low tensile strength (c) Increased breathing rate
(3) High capillarity and high tensile strength (d) Increase in thrombocyte count
(4) Low capillarity and high tensile strength Changes occurring are :-
132. ______ Seeds cannot germinate and establish (1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
withour the presence of mycorrhizae.
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (d)
(1) Oryza (2) Cycas
(3) Pinus (4) Triticum 141. The figure given below shows a small part of
133. Uptake of most of the minerals by root is human lung where exchange of gases takes
(1) Passive, involving specific proteins place. In which one of the options given below,
(2) Active, ATP dependent the one part A, B, C or D is correctly identified
(3) Symplastic, Passive along with its function ?
(4) Active, apoplastic
134. Stomata movement is not affected by :
(1) Temperature (2) Light
(3) O2 concentration
(3) CO2 concentration
135. For a plasmolysed cell which equation is correct :
(1) DPD = OP +TP (2) DPD = – TP
(3) DPD = OP (4) DPD = OP – TP
136. Listed below are four respiratory capacities (a -
d) and four jumbled respiratory volumes of a
normal human adult
Respiratory capacities Respiratory volumes (1) B : Red blood cell - transport of CO2 mainly
(a) Residual volume 2500 mL (2) C : Arterial capillary - passes oxygen to tissues
(b) Vital capacity 3500 mL (3) A : alveolar cavity - main site of exchange of
(c) Inspiratory reserve 1200 mL respiratory gases
volume (4) D : Capillary wall - exchange of O2 and CO2
(d) Inspiratory capacity 4500 mL takes place here
Which one of the following is the correct 142. A center that moderates the functions of the
matching of two capacities and volumes? respiratory rhythm center is located in :-
(1) a- 4500 mL, b- 3500 mL (1) Dorsal medulla oblongata
(2) b- 2500 mL, c- 4500 mL (2) Ventral medulla oblongata
(3) c- 1200 mL, d- 2500 mL (3) Ponsvarolii
(4) d- 3500 mL, a- 1200 mL (4) Pre central gyrus of the cerebrum
137. Respiratory rhythm Centre is present in the :- 143. Premature infants may develop respiratory
(1) forebrain (2) midbrain distress and can land up in respiratory failure
(3) Hindbrain (4) Diencephalon sometimes needing an intensive care for such
138. Which one of the following statement is NOT infants. This may be due to :-
correct regarding trachea ? (1) the sudden ch ange from the uterine
(1) It usually lies posterior to the muscular esophagus. environment to the air
(2) It splits into the right and left bronchi to (2) the incomplete development of the lung surface
supply air to the lungs (3) inadequate production of surfactant
(3) Opening to the trachea is covered by epiglottis. (4) mutations in the genes involved in lung
(4) Tracheal rings are C-shaped formation
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144. How many of the following invertebrates 157. The organ of Corti is a structure present in :
exchange O2 with CO2 by simple diffusion ? (1) external ear (2) middle ear
(Sponges, Coelenterates, flatworms, Annelida, (3) semi – circular canal (4) cochlea
Arthropoda, Mollusca, Pisces,) 158. A diagram showing axon terminal and synapse
(1) 6 (2) 5 is given.Identify correctly at least two of A – D.
(3) 4 (4) 3
145. Which of the following is true about pleural
membranes except ?
(1) outer pleural membrane is in close contact
with the thoracic lining
(2) inner pleural membrane is in contact with
the lung surface
(3) pleural fluid is present between them
(4) It increases friction on the lung surface
146. A difficulty in breathing causing wheezing due (1) A – Receptor; C-Synaptic vesicles
to inflammation of bronchi & bronchioles are (2) B – Synaptic connection; D – K+
symptoms of (3) A – Neurotransmitter; B – Synaptic cleft
(1) Emphysema (2) Asthma (4) C – Neurotransmitter; D – Ca++
(3) Cystic fibrosis (4) Fibrosis 159. Stimulation of a muscle fibre by a motor neuron
147. A chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are occurs at :
damaged and respiratory surface is decreased (1) the neuromuscular junction
is :- (2) the transverse tubules
(1) Emphysema (2) Asthma (3) the myofibril
(3) Pneumonia (4) Asbestosis (4) the sacroplasmic reticulum
148. Receptor associated with aortic arch and carotid 160. Which of the following regions of the brain is
artery recognise change in :- incorrectly paired with its function ?
(1) CO2 & H+ (2) H+ & O2 (1) Cerebrum – Calculation and contemplation
(3) O2 & CO2 (4) O2 & BPG (2) Medulla oblongata – Homeostatic control
149. Ho w much amo un t o f O 2 is carri ed by (3) Cerebellum – Language comprehension
haemoglobin as carbamino - haemoglobin? (4) Corpus callosum – Communication between
(1) 70% (2) 7% the left and right cerebral cortices
(3) 20 to 25% (4) 3% 161. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present
150. How much amount of O2 is delivered by every on :
100ml of oxygenated blood? (1) pre – synaptic membrane
(1) 10 ml (2) 5 ml (2) tips of axons
(3) 15 ml (4) 20 ml (3) post – synaptic membrane
151. About 97% of O2 is transported by :- (4) membrane of synaptic vesicles
(1) RBCs (2) WBCs 162. Nissl’s bodies are mainly composed of :
(3) Platelets (4) Neutrophils (1) Nucleic acid and SER
152. The maximum volume of air a person can (2) DNA and RNA
breathe in after a forced expiration is equal to (3) Proteins and lipids
the sum of :- (4) free ribosomes and RER
(1) RV + ERV + TV + IRV 163. Restoration of resting potential of the membrane
(2) Vital capacity + residual volume at the site of excitation is achieved by :
(3) ERV + TV + IRV (1) diffusion of K+ outside the membrane
(4) ERV + RV (2) diffusion of Na+ outside the membrane
153. Volume of air remain in the lungs even after a (3) diffusion of K+ inside the membrane
forcible expiration is (4) diffusion of Na+ inside the membrane
(1) TV (2) RV 164. Association area perform which of the following
(3) ERV (4) IRV function ?
154. Additional volume of air, a person can expire by (I) Intersensory association
a forcible expiration is :- (II) Communication
(1) ERV (2) IRV (III) Memory
(3) TV (4) VC (1) Only (I) (2) Only (II)
155. In case of insects, exchange of gases occurs through:- (3) (I) and (III) (4) (I), (II) and (III)
(1) Malpighian tubules (2) Tracheal system 165. Which part of brain contains several group of
(3) Coxal gland (4) Book lungs
neurosecretory cells, which secrete hormones ?
156. Mark the vitamin present in rhodopsin :
(1) Cerebrum (2) Cerebellum
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B
(3) Hypothalamus (4) Medulla
(3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin D
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166. Urge for eating and drinking controlled by : Which of the following option is correctly
(1) thalamus (2) cerebrum representing A to D ?
(3) amygdala (4) hypothalamus
167. Limbic system perform which of the following
functions ?
(1) Excitement (2) Pleasure
(3) Fear (4) All of these
168. Cerebrum is part of :-
(1) Mesencephalon (2) Metencephalon
(3) Prosencephalon (4) Myelencephalon
169. Homeostasis is maintained by :-
(1) Cerebellum (2) Cerebrum (1) A – Temporal bo ne, B – Incu s, C –
(3) Diencephalon (4) Medulla oblongata Semicircular canal, D – Pinna
170. Which is odd one ? (2) A – Temporal bone, B – Stapes, C – Cochlea,
(1) Arachnoid (2) Duramatter D – Tympanic membrane
(3) Piamater (4) Medulla oblongate (3) A – Parietal bone, B – Stapes, C – Vestibule, D
171. How many statements are correct regarding – Eardrum
hypothalamus ? (4) A – Parietal bone, B – Malleus, C – Vestibule,
(A) It controls urge of eating and drinking D – Eustachian tube
(B) It does not contribute in thermoregulation 177. Match the following columns :
(C) Lies at the base of thalamus Column – I Column – II
(D) It contains group of neurosecretory cells (A) Sacral nerves (i) 1 pair
(E) It regulates function of pituitary gland (B) Thoracic nerves (ii) 8 pairs
(1) 2 (2) 3 (C) Coccygeal nerves (iii) 7 pairs
(3) 4 (4) 5 (D) Cervical nerves (iv) 12 pairs
172. In the diagram of the lateral view of the human (v) 5 pairs
brain, parts are indicated by alphabets. Choose Codes :
the answer in which these alphabets have been A B C D
correctly matched with the part which they (1) iv i iii ii
indicate. (2) v iii i ii
(3) iii iv ii i
(4) v iv i ii
178. Medulla controls :
(1) respiration (2) gastric secretions
(3) cardiovascular reflexes
(4) all of the above
(1) A – Temporal lobe, B – Parietal lobe, C –

Cerebellum, D – Medulla oblongata, E – Frontal lobe
(2) A – Frontal lobe, B – Temporal lobe, C – Cerebellum,
D – Medulla oblongata, E – Occipital lobe
179.
(3) A – Temporal lobe, B – Parietal lobe, C –
Cerebellum, D – Medulla oblongata, E – Frontal lobe
(4) A – Frontal lobe, B – Temporal lobe, C – Cerebellum,
D – Medulla oblongata, E – Pariental lobe
173. The inner layer of eyelids which is also the Identify ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ in the diagram given above :
thinnest epidermis in animal body is : (1) A –Neurotransmitter, B –Schwann cell,
(1) sclera (2) Choroid C– Synaptic knob
(3) retina (4) Conjunctiva (2) A – Neurotransmitter, B – Synaptic knob,
174. The posterior part of retina, which is just opposite C – Schwann cell
to the lens is : (3) A –Nissl’s granules, B – Schwann cell,
(1) cornea (2) yellow spot C–Synaptic knob
(3) fovea centralis (4) both (2) and (3) (4) A – Nissl’s granules, B – Synaptic knob,
175. Organ of corti is found in : C – Schwann cell
(1) scala rotundus (2) scala media 180. Forebrain contains :
(3) scala vestibule (4) scala tympani (1) Olfactory lobes (2) thalamus
176. Given below is a diagrammatic view of ear.
(3) cerebrum (4) all of these
NEET - 2021 AIIMS

NEET - 2021 Class Test: 3 MR 3 2 5 MR 7 2

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(1) 1kg  m 2 (2) 0.1kg  m 2 21 M M

(1) 210 Nm (2) 140 Nm (2) 5.4 m /s `

(3) 95 Nm (4) 75 Nm (3) 7.6 m /s

(M  4m ) M (3) 4 gh (4) 2gh

(1) Mg be imparted to the lower end mass, so that

(3) 3Mg (4) 4Mg

(a) (b) (3) O2 (4) None of these

(1) Sel agin ella, A = fl oati ng l eave s, B = Sporophyte

(1) A – Transport lipid

(1) A – Temporal lobe, B – Parietal lobe, C –

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