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TOPIC
Physics : Electrostatics, Current electricity, Thermal effects of current, Chemical effects of current; Magnetic effects of
current; Chemistry : Solid state, Solutions, Electrochemistry, Chemcial Kinetics, Surface Chemistry, Nuclear Chemistry; Botany
: Reproduction in Flowering plants, Genetic basis of inheritance, Chromosomal basis of inheritance; Zoology : Human
Reproduction, Reproductive Health

PHYSICS

1. A wire of resistance 1  is stretched to double it’ss 5. There is a current of 4.8 ampere in a conductor. The
length. The resistance of the wire becomes number of electrons that cross any section normal to
the direction of flow per second, is
1 (1) 1019 (2) 2 × 1019
(1) 1  (2)  19
4 (3) 3 × 10 (4) 7.68 × 1020
6. In an experiment to measure the internal resistance
(3) 2  (4) 4 
of a cell by a potentiometer, it is found that the balance
2. Which of the following has the maximum resistance? point is at a length of 2m , when the cell is shunted by
(1) Voltmeter (2) Milivoltmeter a 5  resistance and at a length of 3 m when the cell
(3) Ammeter (4) Milliammeter is shunted by a 10  resistance. The internal
3. If the length of a potentiometer wire is increased, the resistance of the cell is then
accuracy in the determination of null point
(1) 1.5  (2) 10 
(1) Increases
(3) 15  (4) 1 
(2) Decreases 7. Two identical cells connected in series send 10 amp
(3) Remains unchanged current through a 5  resistor. When they are
(4) Sometimes increases and sometimes decreases connected in parallel, they send 8 amp current through
4. A wire of resistance R is cut into n equal parts. These the same resistance. What is the internal resistance
parts are then connected in parallel. The equivalent of each cell ?
resistance of the combination will be (1) Zero (2) 2.5 
(1) nR (2) R/n (3) 10  (4) 1.0 
8. Two cells of e.m.fs. E1 and E2 and internal resistances
R
(3) n/R (4) 2 r1 and r2 are connected in parallel. Then the e.m.f.
n and internal resistance of the equivalent source is

–1–
 r1r2 13. A Parallel plate capacitor is made by stacking n equally
(1) E1 + E2 and (2) E1 – E2 and r1 + r2 spaced plates connected alternately. If the capacitance
r1  r2
between any two adjacent plates is C then the
E1r2  E 2 r1 r1r2 resultant capacitance is
(3) and
r1  r2 r1  r2 (1) C (2) n C
(3) (n–1)C (4) (n+1)C
E1r2  E 2 r1
(4)
r1  r2 and r1 + r2 14. A number of condensers, each of capacitance 1µF
and each one of which gets punctured if a potential
9. A cell supplies a current I1 through a resistor of difference just exceeding 500 volts is applied, are
resistance R1 and a current I2 through a resistor of provided. Then an arrangement suitable for giving a
resistance R2, then internal resistance of the cell is capacitor of capacitance 2µF across which 3000 volts
(1) R1 – R2 (2) R1 + R2 may be applied requires at least
I1R 2  I1R 1 I 2 R 2 – I1R1 (1) 6 component capacitors
(3) (4)
I1  I 2 I1 – I 2 (2) 12 component capacitors
10. If R1,0 are R2,0 are resistances of two conductors at
(3) 72 component capacitors
0°C and their temperature co-efficient of resistance
are 1 and  2 respectively.. When two conductors are (4) 2 component capacitors
connected is series and  is temperature co-efficient 15. A 1µF capacitor and a 2µF capacitor are connected
of equivalent resistance then  is given by in parallel across a 12 volts line. The charged
capacitors are then disconnected from the line and
R1,0  R 2,0 R 1,0 1  R 2,0  2 from each other. These two capacitors are now
(1) (2) R 1,0  R 2,0 connected to each other in parallel with terminals of
1   2
unlike signs together. The charges on the capacitors
1 2 will now be
(3)    (4) +18 volt
1 2 (1) 18 µC each (2) 4 µC and 8 µC
11. A single square conducting plate is given a +ve charge (3) 8 µC and 4 µC (4) 8 µC and 8 µC
(q). An identical uncharged plate is brought near this
16. A condenser of capacitance 1 µF has been charged
plate. The capacity of the system
to 100 volts. It is now discharged through a resistance.
(1) Increases The heat produced in the wire is
(2) Decreases
(1) 400 J (2) 0.02 J
(3) Remains same
(4) Can’t say (3) 5 mJ (4) 0.08 J
12. A parallel plate capacitor is charged with potential 17. The two parallel plates of a condenser have been
difference V. The charge stored in the capacitor is q, connected to a battery of 300 volts and the charge
now battery is disconnected and another identical collected at each plate is 1 µC. The energy supplied
capacitor is connected across it. Its potential energy by the battery is
becomes
(1) 6 × 10–4 J (2) 0.3 mJ
1 –4
(3) 1.5 × 10 J (4) 4.5 × 10–4 J
(1) qv
2
18. In a charged capacitor, the energy resides in
1
(2) qv (1) The positive charge
4
(2) Both the positive and negative charges
1
(3) qv (3) The field between the plates
8
(4) qv (4) Around the edge of the capacitor plates

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19. A parallel plate capacitor is charged and then 25. In a region of space the electric field is given by
isolated. What is the effect of increasing the plate 
E  8iˆ  4 ˆj  3kˆ . The electric flux through a surface
separation?
of area of 100 units in x–y plane is
Charge Potential Capacitance (1) 800 unit
(1) Constant Constant Decreases (2) 300 units
(3) 400 units
(2) Increases Increases Decreases
(4) 1500 units
(3) Constant Constant Increases
26. The insulation property of air breaks down at
(4) Constant Increases Decreases
E = 3 × 106 volts per metre. The maximum charge
20. The plates of a parallel plate air capacitor are 3 cm that can be given to a sphere of radius 3 metres is
apart. A slab of dielectric constant 5 and thickness 2 approximately
cm is placed between the plates with its faces parallel
(1) 2 × 10–2 C (2) 3 × 10–3 C
to them and the distance between the plates is altered
so as to keep the capacitance of the new capacitor (3) 3 × 10–4 C (4) 2 × 10–5 C
unchanged. The new separation between the plates is 27. An electron is released at a distance x from the centre
(1) 2.2 cm (2) 4.6 cm of a positively charged ring of radius ‘a’ along its
(3) 3.0 cm (4) 3.2 cm axis. The electron will execute SHM if
21. Force acting upon a charged particle kept between (1) x > > a
the plates of a charged condenser is F. If one of the (2) x < < a
plates of the condenser is removed, force acting on (3) x = 1
the same particle will become
(4) x  
(1) 0 (2) F / 2
28. n number of identical spherical droplets, each having
(3) F (4) 2 F surface charge density  coalesce to form a bigger
22. Two identical small balls having charges q1 = +1 mC drop of surface charge density
and q2 = –0.33 mC are brought in contact and then
moved apart to a distance r = 20 cm. Find the force (1) ( n)1/ 3 
of their interaction is
(2) n 
(1) 50 kN
(3) ( n) 2 / 3 
(2) 25 kN
(3) 20 kN (4) ( n)5 / 3 
(4) 10 kN 29. A charged particle moves with a speed v in a
circular path of radius R around a long uniformly
23. The electric potential V at any point x y z (all in
charged conductor under the effect of its electric
metres) in space is given by V = 4x2 volt. The electric
field then
field at the point (1m, 0, 2m) in volt/metre is
(1) v  R
(1) 8 along negative x-axis
(2) 8 along positive x-axis 1
(2) v 
(3) 16 along negative x-axis R
(4) 16 along positive z-axis 1
(3) v 
 R
24. A dipole of electric dipole moment p is placed in a
 (4) v  R 0
uniform electric field of strength E . If  is the angle
  30. A charge Q coulomb is placed on a solid piece of
between positive directions of p and E , the potential metal of irregular shape. The charge will distribute
energy of the electric dipole is maximum when  is itself so that
 (1) Surface charge density is same everywhere
(1) Zero (2) (2) Potential is same every where
2
(3) Both (1) & (2)

(3)  (4) (4) None of these
4

–3–
31. The temperature of a metal wire rises when an electric 37. A and B are two points on a uniform ring of resistance
current passes through it because R. The ACB   , Where C is the centre of the
(1) Collision of metal atoms with each other releases ring. The equivalent resistance between A and B is
heat energy
R   
(2) Collision of conduction electrons with each other (1)  2 –    (2) R  1 – 
releases heat energy 4 2  2 
(3) When the conduction electrons fall from higher
energy level to lower energy level heat energy is  2 – 
(3) R (4) R
released 2 4
(4) Collision of conduction electrons with the atoms 38. An electric bulb rated for 500 watts at 100 volts is
of metal give them energy which appears as heat used in a circuit having a 200-volt supply. The
32. If R1 and R2 are respectively the filament resistance resistance R that must be put in series with the bulb,
of a 200 watt bulb and a 100 watt bulb designed to so that the bulb draws 500 watts is
operate on the same voltage (1) 10  (2) 20 
(1) R1 is two times R2 (2) R2 is two times R1
(3) 50  (4) 100 
(3) R2 is four times R1 (4) R1 is four times R2
39. A wire is placed parallel to the lines of force in a
33. In an experiment to measure the internal resistance
magnetic field and a current flows in the wire. Then
of a cell by a potentiometer, it is found that the balance
point is at a length of 2 m, when the cell is shunted by (1) The wire will experience a force in the direction
a 5  resistance and at a length of 3 m when the cell of the magnetic field
is shunted by a 10  resistance. The internal (2) The wire will not experience any force at all
resistance of the cell is then (3) The wire will experience a force at all
(1) 1.5  (2) 10  (4) It experiences a force in a direction perpendicular
(3) 15  (4) 1  to the lines of force
34. Two cells, each of e.m.f. E and internal resistance r, 40. A coil of one turn is made of a wire of certain length
are connected in parallel across a resistor R. The and then from the same length a coil of two turns is
power delivered to the resistor is a maximum if R is made. If the same current is passed in both the cases,
equal to then the ratio of the magnetic induction at their centres
will be
r (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 4
(1) (2) r
2 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 2
(3) 2 r (4) 0 41. If the angular momentum of an electron revolving in
35. Resistance of 1, 2, and 3 ohms are connected in the a circular orbit is L, then its magnetic moment is
form of a triangle. If a 1.5 volt cell of negligible internal (1) eLm (2) eL/m
resistance is connected across 3 ohms resistance, the (3) eL/2m (4) Zero
current flowing through this resistance will be
42. Equal currents i = 1A are flowing through the wires
(1) 0.25 A (2) 0.50 A parallel to y-axis located at x =+ 1m, x = +2m, x=+4m
(3) 1.00 A (4) 1.50 A etc. But in opposite directions as shown. The magnetic
field at origin (In Tesla) would be
36. A resistor R1 dissipates power P when connected to
y
a d.c. source. If a resistor R2 is put in series with R1,
then power dissipated by R1 i i i
(1) Decreases
x
(2) Increases 1 2 4
(3) Remains the same
(4) Any of the above depending upon the relative (1) –1.5 × 10–7 k̂ (2) 1.5 × 10–7 k̂
values of R1 and R2
(3) 2.67 × 10–7 k̂ (4) –2.67 × 10–7 k̂

–4–
43. AB is a section of straight wire carrying a current I.
P is a points at a distance d from AB. The magnetic
B
field at P due to AB has magnitude
(1)
B
a r


B
P
d (2)
a r
I 
B
A
(3)
0 I
(1)  cos 1  cos 2  a
4d r
0 I
(2)  cos 1 – cos 2 
4d B
0 I (4)
(3)  sin 1  sin 2 
4d a r
0 I 48. Work done by a magnetic field, on a moving charge is
(4)  sin 1 – sin 2   
4d (1) Zero because F acts parallel to 
 
44. A long hollow copper tube of inner radius R carries a (2) Positive because F acts perpendicular to 
current I. The magnetic field B inside the tube is
 
(3) Zero because F acts perpendicular to 
 
0 I 0 I (4) Negative because F acts parallel to 
(1) (2)
2R 4R 49. A wire AB carrying current I1 is placed near another
0 I wire CD carrying current I2. If free to move, wire
(3) (4) Zero
2R AB will have
45. An electron moving in a circular orbit of radius r makes D
n rotations per second. The magnetic field produced
at the centre has magnitude
(1) Zero I1
A B
 0 ne
(2)
2r I2
 0 ne
(3) C
2r (1) Rotational motion only
0 n 2 e (2) Translational motion only
(4)
2r (3) Rotational as well as translational motion
46. A coaxial cable consists of a thin inner conductor fixed (4) Neither rotational nor translational motion
along the axis of a hollow outer conductor. The two
conductors carry equal currents in opposite direction. 50. Two particles each of the mass m and charge q are
Let B1 and B2 be the magnetic fields in the regions between attached to the two ends of a light rod of length 2R.
the conductors, and outside the conductor, respectively. The rod is rotated at constant angular speed about a
perpendicular axis passing through its centre. The ratio
(1) B1  0, B2  0 (2) B1 = 0, B2 = 0 of the magnitudes of the magnetic moment of the
(3) B1  0, B2 = 0 (4) B1 = 0, B2  0 system and its angular momentum about the centre
47. The magnetic field due to a straight conductor of of the rod is
uniform cross-section of radius a and carrying a (1) (q/2m) (2) (q/m)
steady current is represented by (3) (2q/m) (4) (q/  m)

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 CHEMISTRY

51. What mass of glucose in 100 g water can decrease 60. Solution which shows –ve deviation from Raoult’s law is
vapour pressure by 25% ? (1) Acetone + aniline (2) Acetic acid + pyridine
(1) 500g (2) 250g (3) Water + methanol (4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) 333.33g (4) 750g 61. Which one of the following statements is false?
M (1) The correct order of osmotic pressure for
52. Abnormal molar mass of an electrolyte is , it 0.01 M aqueous solution of each compound is
1  3
may be of type BaCl 2 > KCl > CH3COOH > Sucrose
(1) AB (2) AB2 (2) The osmotic pressure (  ) of a solution is given
(3) AB3 (4) AB4 by the equation  =MRT, where M is the molarity
53. Mole fraction of ethanol in its aqueous solution is 0.25, of the solution
the percentage by weight of it is (3) Raoult’s law states that the vapour pressure of a
(1) 54% (2) 46% component over a solution is porportional to its
(3) 25% (4) 75% mole fraction
54. Which of the following solid can show Frenkel defect? (4) Two sucrose solutions of same molality prepared
in different solvents will have the same freezing
(1) AgCl (2) AgBr
point depression
(3) ZnS (4) All of these
62. Which of the following is an example of molecular
55. Which of the following is not an ideal solution solid?
(1) Benzene and toluene (1) SiO2 (2) BaSO4
(2) Ethylene dibromide and ethylene dichloride (3) CCl4 (4) All of these
(3) CCl4 and SiCl4 63. Which of the following has more percentage of void?
(4) CCl4 and toluene (1) Simple cubic (2) Face centred cubic
56. Mole fraction of the component A in vapour phase is (3) Body centred cubic
x1 and the mole fraction of component A in liquid (4) % of voids are equal for fcc and bcc
mixture is x2; then ( p0A = vapour pressure of pure A; 64. In hexagonal close packing the pattern obtained is
(1) ABCABC........ (2) AABBAA........
p0B = vapour pressure of pure B), the total vapour
(3) ABABAB........ (4) AABAAB........
pressure of liquid mixture is: 65. r is the radius of tetrahedral void and R is the radius
0 x2 0 x1 of atom, which of the following is a correct relation
(1) pA x (2) pA x (1) r = 0.414 R (2) r = 0.225 R
1 2

0 x1 0 x2 0.225 0.414
(3) pB x (4) pB x (3) r  R (4) r  R
2 1
0.414 0.225
57. The vapour pressure of pure benzene at 88°C is 957 66. Tetragonal crystal system has the following unit cell
mm and that of toluene at the same temperature is dimensions
379.5 mm. Calculate the composition of benzene- (1) a = b = c and       90
toluene mixture boiling at 88°C: (2) a  b  c and       90
(1) xbenzene = 0.66; xtoluene = 0.34 (3) a  b  c and       90
(2) xbenzene = 0.34; xtoluene = 0.66 (4) a  b  c and     90,   120
(3) xbenzene = xtoluene = 0.5 67. In which of the following crystals alternate tetrahedral
(4) xbenzene = 0.75; xtoluene = 0.25 voids are occupied?
58. 6 g urea is dissolved in 90 g water is 373 K. The (1) NaCl (2) ZnS
vapour pressure of the solution is: (3) CaF2 (4) Na 2O
(1) 745 mm (2) 735 mm 68. The osmotic pressure of which solution is maximum
(3) 755 mm (4) 725 mm (consider that deci-molar solution of each 90%
59. Hg2Cl2 80% ionises into its aqueous solution, the van’t dissociated)
Hoff factor is (1) Aluminium sulphate (2) Barium chloride
(1) 1.6 (2) 2.6 (3) Sodium sulphate
(3) 3.6 (4) 4.6 (4) A mixture of equal volumes of (2) and (3)

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69. Mist is the solution, in which solvent is where as on the completion of reaction it is 50 litres,
(1) Gas (2) Solid rate constant is
(3) Liquid (4) Both (2) and (3)
2.303 2.303
70. Potassium has a bcc structure with nearest neighbour (1) log 5min 1 (2) log1.25min 1
distance 4.52 Å. Its atomic weight is 39. Its density 10 10
(in kg m–3) will be 2.303 2.303
(1) 454 (2) 804 (3) log 2 min 1 (4) log 4 min 1
10 10
(3) 852 (4) 908
71. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) incorrect 77. In auto catalytic reaction
(1) The coordination number of each type of ion in (1) One of the product acts as catalyst
CsCl crystal is 8 (2) One of the reactant acts as catalyst
(2) A metal that crystallizes in bcc structure has a (3) A catalyst is added to the reaction and it is used
coordination number of 12 always during process
(3) A unit cell of an ionic crystal shares some of its (4) A catalyst is added to the reaction and it remains
ions with other unit cells unused
(4) The length of the unit cell in NaCl is 552 pm 78. The ratio of rate constants at 370 K and at 360 K
( rNa  =95 pm; rCl =181 pm) would be maximum for
72. For the following radioactive disintegration reaction (1) A  B  C; Ea = 40 kJ
M
Z  4 BM 8  2 2 He 4 . Starting with 1 mole of (2) D  E  F; Ea = 160 kJ
ZA
A, volume of He gas collected at NTP after two half (3) G  H  I; Ea = 80 kJ
life is (4) J  K  L; Ea = 90 kJ
(1) 22.4 litres (2) 44.8 litres
(3) 33.6 litres (4) 89.6 litres 79. Three electrolytic cells containing AgNO3, CuSO4 and
73. For a first order reaction, if we plot a graph of log (a– FeCl3 are connected in series. If on passing current
x) Vs. t, the slope will be 7.5g of Fe were deposited on cathode, mass of Cu
(1) k (2) 0.693 k deposited were
[At. mass of Cu=63.5, Ag = 108, Fe = 56]
k 0.693 (1) 43.2 g (2) 12.8 g
(3) (4)
2.303 k (3) 7.47 g (4) 9.63 g
74. For a given reaction 80. One litre of 1M CuSO4 solution is electrolysed by
Zn  2H   Zn 2  H 2 , half life at pH 4 is 10 passing 2F charge, the molarity of solution after
minutes and at pH 5 it is 100 minutes, the rate law is electrolysis is
(given for both times half life are independent of initial (1) M/2 (2) M
concentration of Zn) (3) 2M (4) 0
(1) K[Zn]2[H+]2 (2) K[Zn][H+]2 81. Calculate the cell constant of a decinormal solution
+
(3) K[Zn][H ] (4) K[Zn]2[H+]3 of KCl, if the specific conductance is 0.0112 ohm–1
75. For an exothermic reaction enthalpy change is 10 kJ cm–1. The resistance of the cell containing solution
mol–1 and activation energy of forward reaction is 50 was found to be 56 ohm (in cm–1)
kJ mol–1, activation energy for backward reaction will (1) 1.63 (2) 0.63
be 1.12
(1) –60 kJ mol–1 (2) 50 kJ mol–1 (3) 9.63 (4)
(3) –50 kJ mol –1
(4) 60 kJ mol–1 56
82. The emf of the following concentration cell at 298 K
76. For the reaction
is
N2Cl Cl
Ag(s) | AgNO3(0.01 M) || AgNO3 (0.01M) | Ag(s)
Cu


+ N2(g)  (1) 0.0414 (2) –0.0414
(3) 0 (4) 0.0295
N2Cl 83. Calculate the mass of copper that will be deposited
at cathode in electrolysis of 0.2 M solution of copper
half life is independent of concentration of , sulphate if the same quantity of electricity liberated
2.24 L of H2 from 0.1 M aqueous H2SO4 passed (At.
after 10 minutes the volume of N2 gas is 10 litres mass of Cu = 63.5)

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 (1) 1.59g (2) 3.18g 92. Average life of a radioactive disintegration is given
(3) 6.35g (4) 12.70g by
84. From the following facts: t t
(1) 0.693 (2) 2.303
(i) 2X   Y2  2Y   X 2 2 2
(3) 1.44 t1/2 (4) 3.32 t1/2

(ii) 2W  Y2  No reaction 93. Total life span of a radioactive element is
(1) 2 × t1/2 (2) 2 × avg life
(iii) 2Z  X 2  2X   Z2 , which of the following
(3) 2 × t3/4 (4) 
is true?
94. A radioactive nuclide emits  -rays due to:
(1) E W2 / W   E Y2 / Y   E X2 / X   E Z2 / Z (1) K electron capture
(2) Nuclear transition from higher to lower energy
(2) E W2 / W   E Y2 / Y   E Z2 / Z  E X2 / X state
(3) Presence of greater number of neutrons than
(3) E W2 / W   E Z2 / Z   E Y2 / Y  E X2 / X protons
(4) Presence of greater number of protons than
(4) E W2 / W   E X 2 / X   E Y2 / Y   E Z2 / Z
neutrons
85. Which of the following electrolytes will have 95. Which of the following elements is an isodiapher
maximum coagulating power for arsenous sulphide 235 ?
of 92 U
sol?
(1) NaCl (2) CaCl2 (1) 209 (2) 212
83 Bi 82 Pb
(3) MgSO4 (4) AlCl3
(3) 231 (4) 231
86. Smoke is an example of 90 Th 91 Pa
223
(1) Gas dispersed in liquid 96. 87Fr belongs to
(2) Gas dispersed in solid (1) Thorium series
(3) Solid dispersed in gas (2) Actinium series
(4) Solid dispersed in solid (3) Uranium series
87. Which of the following is a hydrophobic sols? (4) Neptunium series
(1) Protein sol 97. A freshly prepared radio medicine has half life 2 hours.
(2) Starch sol Its activity is 64 times the permissible safe value. The
(3) Gum sol minimum time after which it would be possible to treat
(4) Fe(OH)3 sol the patients with the medicine:
88. Difference between colloids and crystalloids is of (1) 3 hrs (2) 9 hrs
(1) Charge (2) Particle size (3) 24 hrs (4) 12 hrs
(3) Shape of the particle (4) Solubility 98. Neutrons are more effective projectiles than protons
because they:
89. The emulsifying agent in milk is
(1) Are attracted by nuclei
(1) Casein (2) Lactic acid
(2) Are not repelled by nuclei
(3) Lactose (4) Citric acid
(3) Travel with high speed
90. According to Langmuir adsorption isotherm, the
amount of gas adsorbed at very high pressures (4) None of these
(1) Reaches a constant limiting value 99. In the Thorium series, 90Th232 loses total of 6  -
(2) Goes on increasing with pressure particles and 4  -particles in ten stages. The final
(3) Goes in decreasing with pressure isotope produced in the series is
(4) Increases first and decreases later with pressure (1) 82Pb209 (2) 83Bi209
91. After  -emission, the daughter nuclide formed is ........ (3) 82Pb208 (4) 82Pb206
of parent nuclide 100. In the radioactive decay 92X232  89Y220, how many
(1) Isotope  and  -particles are ejected from X to form Y
(2) Isobar (1) 3  and 3  (2) 5  and 3 
(3) Isotone
(3) 3  and 5  (4) 5  and 5 
(4) Nuclear isomer

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 BOTANY

101. What is the types of genotypes produced by plant 111. Fairchild mule is a good example of :
having genotype AaBbCc is selfcrossed ? (1) Allopolyploidy (2) Double trisomy
(1) 8 (2) 27 (3) Autopolyploidy (4) Double monosomy
(3) 64 (4) 16 112. Select incorrect one :
102. What are the chromosome number on which the seven Disease Enzyme
characters studied by mendel located ?
(1) Tay-sach’s disease Hexosaminidase
(1) 1, 3, 5, 7 (2) 1, 4, 5, 7
(2) Gaucher’s disease Glucocerebrosidase
(3) 1, 2, 5, 7 (4) 1 4, 5, 2
(3) Alkaptonuria Phenylalanine hydroxylase
103. Frequency of allele a is 0.4. What is the number of
dominant homozygous individuals in population of 200 (4) Albinism Tyrosinase
individuals 113. The height of a plant is under the control of quantitative
(1) 72 (2) 120 inheritance. The genotype of a plant AABBCC has
50 cm height and the height of plant aabbcc is 20 cm.
(3) 32 (4) 80
What will be the height of the plant with genotype
104. A child with AB blood group born of a mother of the AabbCc ?
genotype IBIB cannot have a father of the genotype?
(1) 35 cm (2) 45 cm
(1) AA (2) AO
(3) 30 cm (4) 15 cm
(3) AB (4) BB
114. Two normally pigmented parents have an albino child.
105. Female homogameity is observed in :
Their second child is normally pigmented. What is
(1) Human (2) Drosophila the probability that their 5th child is an albino ?
(3) Grasshopper (4) All of these
1 1
106. The bands of a polytene chromosome represent : (1) (2)
2 4
(1) Centromeres (2) Chromomeres
(3) Interchromomeres (4) Bundles of histone 1
(3) (4) 1
107. If the sequences of the genes in the chromosome is 8
ABCDEF, a change which results is new sequence 115. Nitrous acid acts as
ABCFED will be called (1) Oncogenes
(1) Duplication (2) Inversion
(2) Alkylating agent
(3) Deletion (4) Translocation
(3) Deaminating agent
108. Which is incorrect about lampbrush chromosome ?
(4) Chelating agent
(1) It is also called diplotene chromosome
116. Which one of the following individuals cannot produce
(2) It was described by Ruckert
16 different gametes ?
(3) It is shorter than polytene chromosome
(1) AaBbCcDDEeFf (2) AaBbccDDEeFf
(4) It can be seen in meiotic prophase
(3) AaBbccDd (4) Both (1) and (3)
109. According to Lyon hypothesis, one of the two X-
Chromosomes in each female somatic cell is known 117. Interference is
as : (1) Decrease in frequency of crossing over
(1) Barr body (2) Karyotypic body (2) Chiasma at one point disfavour formation of
(3) Phenotypic body (4) Genotypic body chiasma at second point
110. A karyotype is asymmetric if it was : (3) Both correct (4) None of these
(1) Fewer metacentric chromosomes 118. Chromosome banding technique used to stain sulphur
(2) All metacentric chromosomes deficient regions, is
(3) Large number of metacentric chromosomes (1) C-banding (2) Q-banding
(4) Gradual change from smallest to largest (3) R-banding (4) G-banding
chromosomes

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119. A patient suffering from Phenylketonuria will be 128. Crassinucellate ovule shows
(1) Homozygous recessive (1) Absence of nucellus
(2) Homozygous dominant (2) Partially developed nucellus
(3) Heterozygous (3) ill developed nucellus
(4) Hemizygous
(4) well developed nucellus
120. A dominant lethal gene such as that of Huntington
129. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
‘schorea can survive in a population because of
(1) Heterozygote (2) Delayed lethality (1) Pollen sac - Microsporangium
(3) Heterosis (4) Inbreeding depression (2) Ovule - Megasporangium
121. An individual with cd genes was crossed with wild (3) Ovary - Sorus
type ++. On the test crossing F1, the progeny was (4) Embryo-sac - Female gametophyte
+c105, +d115, cd880 and ++990. The distance between
cd genes is 130. Sporopollenin, the chemical present in exine is a
(1) 11 map units (2) 5.5 map units (1) CaCO3
(3) 44 map units (4) 88 map units (2) Carbohydrate
122. During an inversion when inverted region does not (3) Lipid
involve centromere, this type of inversion is called as (4) Protein
(1) Pararcentric (2) Pericentric 131. When the gametophyte is not formed from spores
(3) Acentric (4) Extracentric but by any other part of sporophyte, it is known as
123. The high yielding rice variety ‘Reimei’ was produced (1) Polyspory
by mutation by using
(2) Budding
(1)  -radiations (2)  -radiations
(3) Diplospory
(3)  -radiations (4) Chemical mutagenes (4) Apospory
124. Cri-du-chat syndrome is due to
(1) Duplication of short arm of chromosome number 132.
5
The above arrangement of pollen tetrad is
(2) Deletionof short arm of chromosome number 5
(1) Isobilateral
(3) Deletion of long arm of chromosome number 5
(2) T-shaped
(4) Translocation of short arm of chromosome
(3) Decussate
number 5
(4) Tetrahedral
125. Number of DNA coils of a nucleosome is
133. If number of chromosomes in leaf cells = 24, what is
3 1 the number in integuments ?
(1) 2 (2) 2
4 4 (1) 12 (2) 24
(3) 36 (4) 18
3 1
(3) 1 (4) 1 134. The female gametophyte of a typical dicot at the time
4 4
of fertilization is
126. Nemec is phenomenon is related to the discovery of
(1) 8-celled (2) 6-celled
(1) Numerous spores in the tretrad
(3) 7-celled (4) 4-celled
(2) Pollen like embryo-sac
135. Circinotropous ovule is found in
(3) Embryo-sac like pollen grains
(1) Papaver (2) Opuntia
(4) Many embryos in a seed
(3) Ranunculus (4) Raphanus
127. The term xenia signifies the effects of male gametes
on the characters of 136. Crassinucellate ovule shows
(1) Absence of nucellus
(1) Embryo (2) Endosperm
(2) Well developed nucellus
(3) Stigma (4) Seed-coat

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 (3) Partially developed nucellus (1) 100 (2) 200
(4) Ill developed nucellus (3) 300 (4) 250
137. A totipotent cell 144. The most resistant biological material among the
(1) Is an undifferentiated cell capable of developing following is
into an organ (1) Lignocellulose
(2) Is an undifferentiated cell which can develop into
(2) Lignin
a complete plant
(3) Hemicellulose
(3) Lacks the capability to differentiate into an organ
(4) Sporopollenin
(4) Is an undifferentiated cell which develops further
into a complete embryo 145. Pollen tube at the time of entering embryosac has
138. When pollen of a flower is transferred to the stigma (1) 2 male gametes
of another flower of the same plants, the type of (2) 3 male gametes
pollination is said to be
(3) 1 male gamete
(1) Geitonogamy
(4) 4 male gametes
(2) Allogamy
146. When the hilum, chalaza and micropyle of the ovule
(3) Xenogamy lie in the same longitudinal axis, it is called
(4) Antogamy (1) Anatropous ovule
139. To avoid self-pollination, the pollen grains of same (2) Amphitropous ovule
flowers have no fertilising effect on the stigma of the
(3) Campylotropous ovule
same flower. Such condition is called
(4) Orthotropous ovule
(1) Herkogamy
147. Archesporium in an ovule is
(2) Dichogamy
(1) Single celled and hypodermal in origin
(3) Dicliny
(2) Single celled and lies at the centre of ovule
(4) Self sterility
(3) Single celled and epidermal in origin
140. A typical example for hydrophily is
(4) Multi celled and hypodermal in origin
(1) Nelumbium
148. A polygonum type of embryo sac is
(2) Vallisneria
(1) Monosporic, 4-nucleate
(3) Nymphaea
(2) Tetrasporic, 16-nucleate
(4) Ranunculus
(3) Monosporic, 8-nucleate
141. Pollination by the agency of ants is called
(4) Bisporic, 8-nucleate
(1) Cheiropterophily
149. If an endosperm of an angiosperm has 24
(2) Entomophily
chromosomes, what would be the number of
(3) Ornithophily chromosomes in the megaspore mother cell of the
(4) Myrmecophily same plant?
142. Emasculation is the process of (1) 32 (2) 24
(1) Removal of stamens of a flower of a plant to (3) 16 (4) 8
prevent self pollination 150. Aleurone layer is present in
(2) An artificial method of pollination (1) Peripheral part of scutellem
(3) Pollination between flowers of different plants (2) Peripheral part of coleoptile
(4) Removal of stigma from a flower (3) Cotyledons
143. How many pollen mother cells will produce 1000 pollen (4) Peripheral part of endosperm
grains?

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 ZOOLOGY

151. The major part of the semen is the secretion of 161. Which of the following is an explanation for the
(1) Cowper’s gland (2) Perennial gland periodicity of reproductive cycles in animals ?
(3) Prostate gland (4) Seminal vesicle (1) Reproduction may correspond with periods of
152. Follicular atresia is increased food supply, during which energy can
(1) Formation of corpus luteum be invested in gamete formation
(2) Degeneration of folliciles till puberty (2) Seasonal cycles may allow offspring to be
(3) Formation of Graffian follicle produced during favorable environmental
(4) Increase in number of follicles conditions when chances of survival are highest
(3) Hormonal control of reproduction may be tied to
153. Polar body is produced during the formation of
biological clocks and seasonal cues
(1) Primary oocyte
(4) All of these may contribute to periodic
(2) Secondary oocyte
reproductive activity
(3) Spermatids
162. Which of the following is incorrectly paired with its
(4) Spermatids any Spermatocytes function ?
154. The probable number of polar bodies during oogenesis is (1) Seminiferous tubules : Add fluid containing
(1) Always 3 (2) Always 2 mucus, fructose, and
(3) Always 1 (4) May be 2 or 3 prostaglandins to
155. E Jaculatory duct do not contain the secretion of semen
(1) Vas deferens (2) Seminal vesicle (2) Scrotum : Encases testes and
(3) Prostate gland (4) All of these suspends them below
156. Middle piece of a mammalian sperm contains: abdominal cavity
(1) Centriole only (3) Epididymis : Tubules in which
(2) Nucleus and mitochondria sperm gain motility
(3) Centriole and mictochondria (4) Prostate gland : Adds fluid to semen
(4) Mitochondria only 163. The function of the corpus luteum is to
157. Trophoblast of the blastocyst gets differentiated into (1) Nourish and protect the egg cell
(1) Allantois (2) Chorion (2) Produce progesterone and estrogens
(3) Amnion (4) Embryo (3) Produceestrogensand disintegratefollowing ovulation
(4) M aintain pregnancy by production of human
158. In vasectomized person
chorionic gonadotropin
(1) Semen is not produced
164. Which of the following hormone is incorrectly paired
(2) Semen is without sperms
with its function?
(3) Vas deferens is removed
(1) Androgens : Responsible for primary and
(4) Vas efferens is cut secondary mal e sex
159. Umbilical cord has characteristics
(1) Two arteries carrying blood to placenta and one (2) Oxytocin : Stimulates uterine contractions
vein returning blood to foetus during parturition
(2) One artery carrying blood to placenta and two (3) L H : Sti mul ates producti on of
veins returning blood to foetus androgens by leydig cells of
(3) Two arteries brining blood to foetus and one vein testes
carrying blood to placenta (4) Prolactin : Stimulates breast development
(4) One artery bringing blood to foetus and two veins at puberty
carrying blood to placenta 165. Examples of birth control methods that prevent release
160. In Lacerta saxicola & Turkey Birds of gametes from the gonads are
(1) The females develop parthenogenetically but (1) Sterilization and chemical contraception
males develop from fertilized eggs (2) Birth control pills
(2) The males develop parthenogenetically but (3) Condoms and diaphragms
females develop from fertilized eggs (4) Abstinence and chemical contraception
(3) The type of parthenogenesis is Arrhenotoky 166. In the birth process, which of the following is/are
(4) The type of parthenogenesis is Thelytoky involved in triggering and maintaining labor ?

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 (1) HCG produced by the fetus (1) FSH (2) Progesterone
(2) Oxytocin produced by mother, and prostaglandins (3) LH (4) Both FSH and LH
produced by placenta 175. If the labour pains are less, the doctors will inject,
(3) A drop in progesterone caused by the which of the following hormone to induce delivery ?
disintegration of the corpus luteum (1) LH, estrogen (2) Pitocin
(4) Prolactin produced by fetus and mother (3) Progesterone (4) FSH
167. Which of the following are the stem cells that give 176. During pregnancy there is lack of menstruation, due to
rise to sperm ? (1) Stress
(1) Spermatogonia (2) Spermatozoa (2) Poor health of the mother
(3) Sertoli cells (4) Spermatocytes (3) High levels of progesterone
168. The testicles of male mammals are suspended in the (4) Low levels of human chorionic gonadotropin
scrotum because hormone
(1) It is easier for the body to expel sperms during 177. The decidua which takes part in the formation of
ejaculation maternal portion of placenta is
(2) The optimum temperature for sperm production (1) Decidua basalis (2) Decidua capsularis
is less than the normal core body temperature of (3) Decidua parietalis (4) Both (1) and (2)
the organism 178. How many eggs would have been released from
(3) There is not enough space in the pelvic region ovaries if the mother gave birth to two identical twins
for the testicles to be housed internally and if the two twins born were fraternal ?
(4) The optimum temperature for sperm production (1) 1 and 1 (2) 2 and 1
is higher than the normal core body temperature (3) 1 and 2 (4) 2 and 2
of the organism 179. Which one is the correct path of the movement of
169. The male sex accessory ducts include all, except sperms?
(1) Rete testis, vasa efferentia (1) Seminiferous tubules  tubuli recti  rete testis
(2) Epididymis  vasa efferentia  epididymis
(3) Seminiferous tubules (2) Seminiferous tubules  rete testis  tubuli recti
(4) Vas deferens  vasa efferentia  corpus epididymis
170. During cleavage there is (3) Seminiferous tubules  rete testis  vasa
(1) Significant increase in mass of protoplasm efferentia  tubuli recti  epididymis  vas
(2) Insignificant increase in DNA content
deferens
(3) Significant increase in the DNA content of the
(4) Seminiferous tubules  vasa efferentia  rete
embryo
testis  caput epididymis  tubuli recti
(4) Insignificant increase in DNA content and
180. Which of the following is correct regarding the part
protoplasm
of the sperm and its function ?
171. How many spermatozoa and ova are produced from
(1) Acrosome : Sperm lysins
100 secondary spermatocytes and 100 secondary
oocytes respectively? (2) Proximal centriole : Formation of flagella in
tail
(1) 100, 50 (2) 200, 100
(3) Distal centriole : First cleavage division
(3) 400, 100 (4) 400, 200
of fertilized ovum
172. Which of the following are called as sustentacular
(4) Tail : Swiming at the rate of
cells in the testis ?
1.5 to 3 mm per hour
(1) Interstitial cells (2) Sertoli cells
181. Penile uretha passes through
(3) Spermatogonia (4) Germinal cells
(1) Corpora cavernosa (2) Corpus spongiosum
173. Follicular atresia is responsible for
(3) Urethral meatus (4) Ejaculatory duct
(1) Continuous production of sperms
182. Which of the following contraceptive method is
(2) Proliferation of secretory follicles of prostate gland
exclusively for males
(3) Limiting the production of ova over the fertile period
(1) Condoms (2) Vasectomy
(4) Development of luteal follicle from ovulated
(3) Tubectomy (4) IUCDs
Graafian follicle
183. “Saheli” pill contains a nonsteroidal preparation called
174. If a woman wishes to postpone the menstrual bleeding
(1) Centchroman
for a few days to participate in some competitive
sports she should be given ......... (2) Mifepristone

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 (3) Nanoxynol-9 193. Which of the following is not a type of assisted
(4) Medroxyprogesterone acetate reproductive technology
184. Which of the following is not a natural method of (1) GIFT (2) MTP
contraception (3) ICSI (4) ZIFT
(1) Coitus interruptus (2) Rhythm method 194. Which of the following is an emergency method of
(3) Diaphragm contraception
(4) Lactational ammenorrhoea method (1) Minipill (2) Morning after pill
185. Several mechanisms are responsible for contraceptive (3) Combined oral pill (4) Depot injection
effect of an IUCD. Which of the following is incorrect 195. Copper-T basically prevents
(1) Presence of a foreign body in uterine cavity (1) Ovulation (2) Fertilization
renders sperm migration difficult
(3) Parturition (4) Implantation
(2) It causes leucocytic infiltration in endometrium
196. Which of the following is true for subdermal implants
& macrophages engulf the fertilized egg if it
like ‘Norplant’
enters endometrial tissue
(1) It reduces frequent visits to clinics
(3) Constant release of copper ions brings about
enzymatic changes in endometrium and makes it (2) It ensures an even release of hormone
unfavourable for implantation (3) It is non biodegradable and need removal at the
(4) It causes supression of ovulation end of its use
186. MTP law in India specifies (4) All of these
(1) The grounds on which pregnancy may be 197. Several mechanisms are responsible for contraceptive
termrinated effect of an IUCD. Which of the following is incorrect
(2) The persons who are permitted to perform this (1) Presence of a foreign body in uterine cavity
procedure renders sperm migration difficult
(3) The place where such terminations can be (2) It causes leucocytic infiltration in endometrium
performed & macrophages engulf the fertilized egg if it
(4) All of these enters endometrial tissue
187. Which of the following structure is absent in adult (3) Constant release of copper ions brings about
reproductive system of male? enzymatic changes in endometrium and makes it
(1) Mesorchium (2) Dartos muscle unfavourable for implantation
(3) Cremaster muscle (4) Gland of Tyson (4) It causes supression of ovulation
188. The part of endometrium which forms the placenta is 198. Which of the following is false for vasectomy
(1) Decidua capsularis (2) Decidua basalis (1) Spermatogenesis continues in testis
(3) Dicidua parietalis (4) Myometrium busalis (2) It prevents transmission of HIV & STD
189. Acrosome reaction in sperm is triggered by: infections
(1) Capaciation (2) Release of lysin (3) Libido (sex desire) is not effected
(3) Influx of Na+ (4) Release of fertilizin (4) Testosterone level is not effected
190. MTP is considered safe for the first ......... weeks of 199. MTP law in India specifies
pregnancy (1) The grounds on which pregnancy may be
(1) 10 (2) 15 termrinated
(3) 8 (4) 12 (2) The persons who are permitted to perform this
191. Which of the following statement is /are true procedure
(1) For a very long time, human population remained (3) The place where such terminations can be
in lag phase, having very slow growth performed
(2) At present world human population is growing at (4) All of these
a rate of 2% year and it doubles every 35 years
200. In vitro fertilization can be used
(3) Sex ratio is defined as number of females per
(1) To acquire zygotes with desired genetic
thousand males
characteristics for experimental purpose
(4) All of these
(2) To increase the population of rare and endangered
192. Which of the following is not an IUCD
species & expensive animal breeds
(1) Lippe’s loop (2) Progestasert
(3) To study early embryonic development
(3) Multiload 375 (4) Norplant
(4) All of these

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