Yakeen NEET 5.

0 (2024)
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PRACTICE TEST - 04

DURATION ::200
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 17/12/2023 M. MARKS : 720

Topics Covered
Physics : Friction (Complete Chapter), Circular motion (Complete Chapter), Work, Power & Energy (Complete
Chapter), Motion of System of Particle and COM (Complete Chapter)
Chemistry : Redox Reactions and Volumetric analysis (Full Chapter), Electrochemistry (Full Chapter)
Biology : (Botany) : Biological Classifications : Introduction, Classification : 5 Kingdom Classification, Kingdom :
Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae
(Zoology) : Locomotion and Movement (Full Chapter)

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 min. duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There are four Section in the Question Paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section IV (Zoology) and having 50 Questions in each Subject and each
subject is divided in two Section, Section A consisting 35 questions (all questions all compulsory) and
Section B consisting 15 Questions (Any 10 questions are compulsory).
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
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any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
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[1]
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION-A 5. Which one of the following statements is
1. The value of frictional force on block in the given incorrect?
diagram is (Take g = 10 m/s2) (1) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding
friction.
(2) Limiting value of static friction is directly
proportional to normal reaction.
(1) 4 N (2) 5 N (3) Coefficient of sliding friction has dimensions
(3) 6 N (4) 9 N of length.
(4) Frictional force opposes the relative motion.
2. If the coefficient of friction between the block of
mass 5 kg and wall is 0.5, then minimum force F 6. A system consists of three masses m1, m2 and m3
connected by a string passing over a pulley P. The
required to hold the block with the wall is
mass m1 hangs freely and m2 and m3 are on a rough
(g = 10 m/s2)
horizontal table (The coefficient of friction = µ).
The pulley is frictionless and of negligible mass.
The downward acceleration of mass m1 is:
(Assume m1 = m2 = m3 = m)

`
(1) 10 N (2) 100 N
(3) 40 N (4) 50 N
g (1 − g) 2 g
(1) (2)
9 3
3. The maximum speed of car with which it can go
g (1 − 2) g (1 − 2)
around a level road of radius 10 m is (coefficient (3) (4)
3 2
of friction between the road and tyre is 0.5)
(g = 9.8 m/s2) 7. Four bodies of masses 2, 3, 5 and 8 kg are placed
(1) 19 m/s at the four corners of a square of side 2 m. The
positions of CM will be:
(2) 29 m/s
(3) 39 m/s
(4) 49 m/s

4. A block of mass m is kept on a plank. The

coefficient of friction between the plank and the  8 13   7 11 
(1)  ,  (2)  , 
block is 1. The plank is slowly raised from one end 9 9  9 9 
so that it makes angle  with horizontal. The force  11 13   11 8 
(3)  ,  (4)  , 
of friction acting on the plank when =30° is 9 9  9 9

8. A cricket bat is cut at the location of its centre of

mass as shown. Then:-

Mg
(1)
2
Mg (1) The two pieces will have the same mass
(2)
2 (2) The bottom piece will have larger mass
3Mg (3) The handle piece will have larger mass
(3)
2 (4) Mass of handle piece is double the mass of
(4) Mg bottom piece

[2]
9. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth wedge of 15. A string of mass ‘m’ and length ‘l’ rests over a
inclination . The whole system is accelerated friction less table with 1/4th of its length hanging
horizontally, so that the block does not slip on the from a side. The work done in bringing the
wedge. The force exerted by the wedge on the hanging part back on the table is:
block (g is acceleration due to gravity) will be (1) mgl/4 (2) mgl/32
(1) mg cos  (2) mg sin  (3) mgl/16 (4) none of these
(3) mg (4) mg/cos 
16. A cord is used to lower vertically a block of mass
10. Two blocks of masses 2 kg and 4 kg are connected M by a distance d with constant downward
by a massless string which is just taut. Now two acceleration g/4. Work done by the cord on the
forces 3 N and 14 N are applied on blocks. The block is
tension in the string is d d
(1) Mg (2) 3Mg
4 4
d
(3) −3Mg (4) Mgd
4
(1) 24.3 N (2) 20 N
(3) 6 N (4) Zero 17. If the linear momentum is increased by 50%, the
kinetic energy will increase by
11. A body constrained to move in the y-direction is (1) 50% (2) 100%
subjected to a force F =(2iˆ +15 ˆj +6kˆ)N. The (3) 125% (4) 25%

work done by this force, in moving the body

18. In which case does the potential energy decrease
through a distance of 10 m along y-axis is:
(1) On compressing a spring
(1) 100 J (2) 150 J
(2) On stretching a spring
(3) 120 J (4) 200 J
(3) On moving a body against gravitational force
(4) In free fall of body
12. The figure given below shows the force F versus
displacement x graph. The net work done by the
19. A frictionless track ABCDE ends in a circular loop
force when an object is displaced from x = 0 to
x = 16 m is of radius R. A body slides down the track from
point A which is at a height h = 5 cm. Maximum
value of R for the body to successfully complete
the loop is
A D

h 2R C
(1) 84 J (2) 24 J
E
(3) 48 J (4) 100 J
B
15
13. A body of mass 1 kg is moving with velocity of (1) 5 cm (2) cm
4
(3iˆ + 4 ˆj) m/s . The kinetic energy possessed by it 10
(3) cm (4) 2 cm
will be 3
(1) 125 J (2) 25 J
(3) 10.8 J (4) 12.5 J 20. A 4 kg mass and a 1 kg mass are moving with
equal kinetic energies. The ratio of the magnitudes
14. The power required by engine of car of mass of their linear momenta is
1000 kg to accelerate it from rest to a speed of (1) 1 : 2
72 km/h in 20 s is (2) 1 : 1
(1) 10 kW (2) 1 kW (3) 2 : 1
(3) 100 kW (4) 1000 kW (4) 4 : 1
[3]
21. If the momentum of a body increases by 0.01%, its 27. Mass is non-uniformly distributed over the rod of
kinetic energy will increase by length ‘’. Its linear mass density varies linearly
(1) 0.01% with length as  = kx. The position of centre of
(2) 0.02% mass is given by-
(3) 0.04% 2
(1) (2)
(4) 0.08% 5 2
3 2
22. A weight lifter lifts 300 kg from the ground to a (3) (4)
4 3
height of 2 meter in 3 second. The average power
generated by him is 28. Two bodies of masses 2 kg and 4 kg are moving
(1) 5880 watt with velocities 2 m/s and 10 m/s respectively along
(2) 4410 watt same direction. Then the velocity of their centre of
(3) 2205 watt mass will be
(4) 1960 watt (1) 8.1 m/s (2) 7.3 m/s
(3) 6.4 m/s (4) 5.3 m/s

23. A body is released from position A as shown in
figure. The speed of body at position B is
29. The centre of mass of a body
(1) lies always outside the body
(2) may lie within, outside on the surface of the
body
(3) lies always inside the body
(4) lies always on the surface of the body

30. The velocities of three particles of masses 20 gm,

30 gm and 50 gm are 10iˆ, 10 ˆj and 10kˆ (in m/s)
(1) 10 m/s (2) 10 2 m/s
respectively. The velocity (in m/s) of the centre of
(3) 20 m/s (4) 20 2 m/s mass of the three particles is
(1) 2iˆ + 3 ˆj + 5kˆ
24. What average horsepower is developed by an (2) 10(iˆ + ˆj + kˆ)
80 kg man while climbing in 10 s a flight of stairs
(3) 20iˆ + 30 ˆj + 5kˆ
that rises 6 m vertically
(1) 0.63 HP (4) 2iˆ + 30 ˆj + 50kˆ
(2) 1.26 HP
(3) 1.8 HP 31. The coefficient of friction  and the angle of
(4) 2.1 HP friction  are related as-
(1) sin  =  (2) sin  = 

25. A force of 2iˆ + 3 ˆj + 4kˆ N acts on a body for (3) tan  =  (4) tan  =
2
4 second, produces a displacement of
(3iˆ + 4 ˆj + 5kˆ)m. The power used is- 32. Three masses 2 kg, 3 kg and 4 kg are lying at the
(1) 9.5 W (2) 7.5 W corners of an equilateral triangle of side . The
(3) 6.5 W (4) 4.5 W (X) coordinate of center of mass is-
Y
26. An engine pump is used to pump a liquid of 4 kg
density  continuously through a pipe of cross-
 
sectional area A. If the speed of flow of the liquid
in the pipe is v, then the rate at which kinetic X
2 kg  3 kg
energy is being imparted to the liquid is
7 5
1 1 (1) (2)
(1) Av3 (2) Av 2 12 9
2 2
7 2 5
1 (3) (4)
(3) Av (4) Av 9 9
2
[4]
33. The potential energy of a particle varies 39. Two discs of same moment of inertia (I) are
with position x according to the relation rotating about their central axis passing through
U(x) = 2x4 – 27x the point x = 3/2 is point of: centre and perpendicular to the plane of disc with
(1) unstable equilibrium angular velocities ω1 and ω2 in opposite direction.
(2) neutral equilibrium They are brought into contact face to face
(3) stable equilibrium coinciding the axis of rotation. The loss of energy
(4) none of these during the process is:
1
I ( 1 − 2 )
2
(1)
34. Two bodies A and B initially at rest move towards 2
each other under their mutual force of attraction. 1
I ( 1 + 2 )
2
(2)
At an instant when speed of A is v0 and that of B is 2
2v0, the velocity of centre of mass of the system is: 1
I ( 1 + 2 )
2
(3)
(1) v0 (2) 3v0 4
(3) 2v0 (4) Zero 1
I ( 1 − 2 )
2
(4)
4
35. Two cylinders, one of which is hollow and other
solid, have same mass and same moment of inertia 40. Two masses m1 and m2 are attached to the ends of
about their respective geometrical axis. The ratio a light rod of length l. The moment of inertia of the
of their radii is: system about an axis perpendicular to the rod and
(1) 1: 2 passing through the centre of mass is:
(2) 1: 3 (m1 = m and m2 = 2m)

(3) 3: 3 2ml 2 ml 2
(1) (2)
3 3
(4) 1 : 2
2 4ml 2
(3) ml (4)
SECTION-B 3
36. Two masses 6 kg and 4 kg are connected by an 41. A uniform rod PQ hinged at P is kept horizontal
ideal string passing over a smooth pulley fixed at by the help of string as shown in the figure.
the ceiling. The magnitude of acceleration of the
centre of mass is: (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 4 m/s2
(2) 0.4 m/s2
(3) 2 m/s2 Just after cutting the string BQ, the initial angular
(4) 0.2 m/s2 acceleration of the rod is
(1) g/3L (2) 3g/2L
37. The angular momentum of a body is given by (3) 2g/3L (4) g/L
L = (4t2 + 2t + 7)kgm2s–1. The net torque acting on
the body at t = 2s is:
42. A particle of mass 2 kg moving with speed 4 m/s,
(1) 18 Nm collides perfect inelastically with another particle
(2) 10 Nm of mass 4 kg at rest. The loss of kinetic energy of
(3) 16 Nm system in the collision is:
(4) 8 Nm
32
(1) J
5
38. The angular velocity ω of a particle varies with
time t as ω = (10t2 + 15)rad/s. The angular 32
(2) J
3
acceleration of the particle at t = 1s is:
(1) 10 rad/s2 16
(3) J
(2) 20 rad/s2 5
(3) 5 rad/s2 16
(4) J
(4) Zero 3

[5]
43. A hollow sphere rolling down an inclined plane of
25
vertical height m from rest without slipping.
3 force.
The speed of sphere at the bottom of inclined plane
is:
(1) 10 m/s (2) 30 m/s
(3) 5 m/s (4) 6 m/s
44. The angular acceleration of flywheel having
moment of inertia 100 kg m2, when a torque of
10 Nm is applied on the flywheel is:
(1) 10 rad/s2
(2) π rad/s2
(3) 0.1 rad/s2
(4) 0.1 π rad/s2
45. Instantaneous power of a body rotating with
angular velocity 20 rad/s, when an external torque
of 10 Nm is applied on it in direction of angular
velocity is:
(1) 100 W (2) 300 W
(3) 200 W (4) 50 W
46. Assertion (R): In circular motion, the centripetal
and centrifugal force acting in opposite direction
balance each other.
Reason (R): Centripetal force acts towards the
centre of circle.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
of Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.
47. Assertion (A): If both the speed of a body and
radius of its circular path are doubled, then
centripetal force also gets doubled.
Reason (R): Centripetal force is directly
proportional to both speed of a body and radius of
circular path.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
of Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.
48. Assertion (A): The change in kinetic energy of a
particle is equal to the work done on it by the net
Reason (R):Change in kinetic energy of particle is
equal to the work done only in case of a system of
one particle.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
of Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is
false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is
true.
49. Assertion (A): A spring has potential energy, both
when it is compressed or stretched.
Reason (R): In compressing or stretching, work is
done on the spring against the restoring force.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
of Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is
false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is
true.
50. Assertion (A): According to law of conservation
of mechanical energy change in potential energy is
equal and opposite to the change in kinetic energy.
Reason (R): Mechanical energy is not a conserved
quantity.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
of Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is
true.
[6]
 SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION-A 57. Consider the reaction,
51. The oxidation number of Oxygen in Na2O2 is :
Zn + Cu2+ → Zn2+ + Cu
(1) + 1
With reference to the above, which one of the
(2) + 2
following is the correct statement ?
(3) – 2
(1) Zn is reduced to Zn2+
(4) – 1
(2) Zn is oxidised to Zn2+
(3) Zn2+ is oxidised to Zn
52. One of the following has both positive and
(4) Cu2+ is oxidised to Cu.
negative oxidation states
(1) F
(2) Cl 58. Which reaction does not represent auto redox or
(3) He disproportionation reaction :
(4) Na (1) Cl2 + OH– → Cl– + ClO3– + H2
(2) 2H2O2 → H2O + O2
53. The oxidation number of Phosphorus in Mg2P2O7
is : (3) 2Cu+ → Cu2+ + Cu
(1) + 3 (4) (NH4)2Cr2O7 → N2 + Cr2O3 + 4H2O
(2) + 2
(3) + 5 59. Which of the following behaves as both
(4) – 3
oxidising and reducing agents ?
(1) H2SO4
54. Which of the following is a redox reaction?
(2) SO2
(1) NaCl + KNO3 → NaNO3 + KCl (3) H2S
(2) CaC2O4 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2C2O4 (4) HNO3

(3) Mg(OH)2 + 2NH4Cl → MgCl2 + 2NH4OH

60. When KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent and
(4) Zn + 2AgCN → 2Ag + Zn(CN)2 ultimately forms MnO42–, MnO2, Mn2O3 and
Mn2+, then the number of electrons transferred in
55. A reducing agent is a substance :
each case is :
(1) in which an element undergoes increase in
(1) 4, 3, 1, 5
oxidation number.
(2) 1, 5, 3, 7
(2) in which an element undergoes decrease in
(3) 1, 3, 4, 5
oxidation number.
(4) 3, 5, 7, 1
(3) which gains electron(s)
(4) which shares electron(s) 61. When N2 is converted into NH3, the equivalent
weight of nitrogen will be :
56. Consider the following reaction:
(1) 1.67
3Br2 + 6CO32 – + 3H2O → 5Br – + BrO3– + (2) 2.67
6HCO3– (3) 3.67
Which of the following statements is true (4) 4.67
regarding this reaction:
(1) Bromine is oxidized and the carbonate 62. If molecular weight of KMnO4 is 'M', then its
radical is reduced. equivalent weight in acidic medium would be :
(2) Bromine is reduced and the carbonate (1) M
radical is oxidized. (2) M/2
(3) Bromine is neither reduced nor oxidized. (3) M/5
(4) Bromine is both reduced and oxidized. (4) M/4
[7]
63. The equivalent weight of phosphoric acid 70. For the redox reaction MnO4– + C2O42– + H+
(H3PO4) in the reaction : → Mn2+ + CO2 + H2O,
NaOH + H3PO4 → NaH2PO4 + H2O the correct stoichiometric coefficients of MnO4–,
(1) 59 C2O42– and H+ are respectively:
(2) 49 (1) 2, 5, 16 (2) 16, 5, 2
(3) 25 (3) 5, 16, 2 (4) 2, 16, 5
(4) 98
71. When SO2 is passed through an acidified solution
64. When HNO3 is converted into NH3, the of potassium dichromate, the oxidation state of S
equivalent weight of HNO3 will be : changes from:
(1) M/2 (2) M/1 (1) + 4 to 0
(3) M/6 (4) M/8 (2) + 4 to +2
(M = molecular weight of HNO3) (3) + 4 to +6
(4) + 6 to +4
65. How many millilitres of 0.1N H2SO4 solution
will be required for complete reaction with a 72. Oxidation state of nitrogen is correctly given for
solution containing 0.125g of pure Na2CO3 : Compound Oxidation state
(1) 23.6 mL (2) 25.6 mL (1) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 0
(3) 26.3 mL (4) 32.6 mL (2) NH2OH +1
(3) (N2H5)2SO4 +2
66. The number of moles of KMnO4 reduced by one (4) Mg3N2 –3
mole of KI in alkaline medium is
(1) one 73. A metal ion M3+ loses 3 electrons, its oxidation
(2) two number will be
(3) five (1) +3
(4) one fifith (2) +6
(3) 0
67. If equal volumes of 0.1 M KMnO4 and 0.1 M (4) –3
K2Cr2O7 solutions are allowed to oxidise Fe2+ to
Fe3+ in acidic medium, then Fe2+ oxidised will be: 74. The number of electrons required to balance the
(1) more by KMnO4 following equation,
(2) more by K2Cr2O7 NO3– + 4H+ + e– → 2H2O + NO is
(3) equal in both cases (1) 5 (2) 4
(4) cannot be determined (3) 3 (4) 2

68. The oxidation number of Cr in CrO5 is: Directions: Each of these questions contains an
(1) 2 Assertion followed by reason. Read them carefully and
(2) 6 answer the question on the basis of following options.
(3) 10 You have to select the one that best describes the two
(4) 5 statements.

75. Assertion : A substance which gets reduced can

69. The number of moles of oxalate ions oxidized by
act as an oxidising agent.
one mole of MnO4– ion in acidic medium is :
Reason : In the reaction, 3ClO–→ClO3– + 2Cl–,
5 Cl atom is oxidised as well as reduced.
(1)
2 (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
2 reason is the correct explanation of
(2)
5 assertion.
3 (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(3) reason is not the correct explanation of
5
assertion.
5
(4) (3) If Assertion is true but reason is false.
3 (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
[8]
76. Assertion : F2 does not undergo disproportionation 82. Given :
reactions. Eº(Cu2+|Cu) = 0.337 V and Eº(Sn2+|Sn) = –0.136 V.
Reason : Fluorine is highly electronegative Which of the following statements is correct?
shows only 0 and –1 oxidation states. (1) Cu2+ ions can be reduced by H2(g)
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and (2) Cu can be oxidized by H+
reason is the correct explanation of (3) Sn2+ ions can be reduced by H2(g)
assertion. (4) Cu can reduce Sn
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of 83. E0 for F2 + 2e – → 2F– is 2.8 V,
assertion. 1
(3) If Assertion is true but reason is false. E0 for F2 + e– → F– is
2
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. (1) 2.8 V (2) 1.4 V
(3) – 2.8 V (4) – 1.4 V
77. In a galvanic cell
(1) chemical reaction produces electrical energy
84. The standard oxidation potentials, for the given
(2) electrical energy produces chemical reaction
half reactions is as:
(3) reduction occurs at anode
(4) oxidation occurs at cathode Fe → Fe2+ + 2e– ; E0 = + 0.41 V
then standard electrode potiontial for the reaction
78. The equation representing the process by which 2Fe2+ + 4e– → 2Fe will be
standard reduction potential of zinc can be (1) +0.41 (2) + 0.82
defined is : (3) – 0.41 (4) – 0.82
(1) Zn2+(s) + 2e– → Zn(s)
85. What is the electrode potential (in V) of the
(2) Zn(g) → Zn (g) + 2e–
2+
following electrode at 25ºC?
(3) Zn2+(g) + 2e– → Zn(s) Ni2+ (0.1 M) | Ni(s)
(4) Zn2+(aq.) + 2e– → Zn(s) (Standard reaction potential of
2.303 RT
Ni2+ | Ni is – 0.25 V, = 0.06)
79. A correct electrochemical series can be obtained F
from K, Ca, Na, AI, Mg, Zn, Fe, Pb, H, Cu, Hg, (1) – 0.28 V (2) – 0.34 V
Au, by interchanging: (3) – 0.82 V (4) – 0.22 V
(1) AI and Mg
SECTION-B
(2) Zn and Fe
(3) Zn and Pb 86. Find the emf of the Given, Eº Pb2+ / Pb = – 0.12
(4) Pb and H V ; Eº Zn2+ / Zn = – 0.76V.
cell Zn/Zn2+ (0.1 M) || Pb2+ (1 M) | Pb.
80. The Eº M3+/M2+ values for Cr, Mn, Fe and Co are (1) – 0.637 (2) + 0.637
(3) > 0.637 (4) + 0.889
– 0.41, + 1.57, + 0.77 and +1.97 V respectively.
For which one of these metals the change in 87. By how much will the potential of half cell Cu2+
oxidation state from +2 to +3 is easiest? / Cu change if the solution is diluted to 100 times
(1) Co (2) Mn at 298 K
(3) Fe (4) Cr (1) Increases by 59 mV
(2) Decreases by 59 mV
81. Standard reduction electrode potentials of three (3) Increases by 29.5 mV
metals A, B and C are +0.5 V, – 3.0 V and – 1.2 (4) Decreases by 29.5 mV
V respecitvely. The reducing power of these 88. By the electrolysis of aqueous solution of CuSO4,
metals are : the products obtained at both the electrodes are
(1) B > C > A (1) O2 at anode and H2 at cathode
(2) A > B > C (2) H2 at anode and Cu at cathode
(3) C > B > A (3) O2 at anode and Cu at cathode
(4) A > C > B (4) H2S2O8 at anode and O2 at cathode
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89. During the electrolysis of fused NaCl, the 95. The weight ratio of AI and Ag deposited using
reaction that occurs at the anode is : the same quantity of current is:
(1) Chloride ions are oxidized (1) 9 : 108
(2) Chloride ions are reduced (2) 2 : 12
(3) Sodium ions are oxidized (3) 108 : 9
(4) Sodium ions are reduced (4) 3 : 8

90. An acidic solution of copper (II) sulphate 96. The units of conductivity are
containing some contaminations of zinc and iron (1) ohm–1
(II) ions was electrolysed till all the copper is (2) ohm–1 cm–1
deposited. If electrolysis is further continued for (3) ohm–2 cm2 equiv–1
sometime, the product liberated at cathode is (4) ohm–1 cm2
(1) Fe
(2) Zn 97. Which of the following solutions of NaCl will
(3) H2 have the highest specific condutance ?
(4) Alloy of Zn and Fe. (1) 0.001 N
(2) 0.1 N
91. Faraday's law of electrolysis fails when : (3) 0.01 N

(1) Temperature is increased (4) 1.0 N

(2) Inert electrodes are used

(3) A mixture of electrolytes is used 98. At 18ºC, the equivalent conductance of H+ and
CH3COO– at infinite dilution are 315 and 35
(4) None of these
mho cm2 eq–1 respectively. The equivalent
92. How many faradays are required to reduce one conductivity of CH3COOH at infinite dilutoin is
mol of MnO4¯ to Mn2+ - ......mho cm2 eq–1
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 350
(3) 3 (4) 5 (2) 280
(3) 30
93. The amount of electricity that can deposit 108 g. (4) 315
of silver from silver nitrate solution is :
(1) 1 ampere 99. The equivalent conductivity of 0.1 N CH3COOH

(2) 1 coulomb at 25°C is 80 and at infinite dilution 400 ohm-1

(3) 1 Faraday The degree of dissociation of CH3COOH is :

(1) 1
(4) 2 ampere
(2) 0.2
(3) 0.1
94. An electrolysis of a oxytungsten complex ion
(4) 0.5
using 1.10 A for 40 min produces 0.838 g of
tungsten. What is the charge of tungsten in the
100. The specific conductance of a 0.01 M solution of
material ?
KCl is 0.0014 ohm–1 cm–1 at 25°C. its equivalent
(Atomic weight : W = 184)
conductance (cm2 ohm–1 equiv–1) is :
(1) 6
(1) 140
(2) 2
(2) 14
(3) 4
(3) 1.4
(4) 1
(4) 0.14
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 SECTION-III (BOTANY)
SECTION-A 108. Penicillium belong to the class;
(1) basidiomycetes. (2) ascomycetes.
101. Dikaryon formation is the characteristic feature of;
(3) phycomycetes. (4) deuteromycetes.
(1) ascomycetes and basidiomycetes.
(2) phycomycetes and basidiomycetes.
109. Select the correct statement w.r.t characteristic
(3) ascomycetes and phycomycetes
features of the kingdom.
(4) phycomycetes and zygomycetes.
(1) In animalia, the mode of nutrition is
autotrophic.
102. Which of the following are found in extreme
(2) In monera, the nuclear membrane is present.
saline conditions?
(3) In protista, the cell type is prokaryotic.
(1) Archaebacteria (2) Eubacteria
(4) In plantae, the cell wall is present.
(3) Cyanobacteria (4) Mycobacteria
110. Which of the following pair come under the group
103. Fungus responsible for causing smut disease chrysophytes?
belongs to the class; (1) Diatoms and Euglena
(1) phycomycetes. (2) ascomycetes. (2) Euglena and Trypanosoma
(3) basidiomycetes. (4) deutromycetes. (3) Diatoms and desmids
(4) Gonyaulax and desmids
104. Chief producers in the oceans are;
111. State true (T) or false (F) for the given statements
(1) multicelluar. (2) eukaryotic. .
and select the correct option.
(3) uniflagellated. (4) biflagellated.
A. Heterotrophic bacteria are helpful in fixing
nitrogen in legume roots.
105. Which of the following statement is correct for
B. Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria oxidise
both blue-green algae and bacteria ?
mainly organic substances.
(1) Both show anaerobic respiration.
C. Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission
(2) Both have chlorophyll pigment.
A B C
(3) Both are devoid of true nucleus.
(1) T F T
(4) Both have membrane bound cell organelles (2) F T F
(3) F T T
106. Which of the following statement is correct (4) F F T
regarding mycoplasma ?
(i) Mycoplasma has no cell wall. 112. Which among the following is not a prokaryote?
(ii) Mycoplasma is the smallest living organism (1) Mycobacterium (2) Saccharomyces
known (3) Oscillatoria (4) Nostoc
(iii) Mycoplasma cannot survive without O2.
113. After karyogamy meiosis, produces spores
(iv) Mycoplasma are pathogenic in animals and
exogenously in;
plants.
(1) Saccharomyces (2) Neurospora
(1) Only (iii)
(3) Alternaria (4) Agaricus
(2) (i), (iii) & (iv)
(3) (i), (ii)& (iv) 114. "Once the sexual stage of members of
(4) All of these deuteromycetes were discovered, they were often
moved to X and Y." Identify X and Y.
107. Bladderwort and Venus fly trap are examples of; X Y
(1) insectivorous plants. (1) monera protista
(2) parasitic plants. (2) basidiomycetes phycomycetes
(3) N2 fixing plants. (3) ascomycetes basidiomycetes
(4) aquatic plants. (4) phycomycetes archaebacteria
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115. Fungi are filamentous with the exception of "X" 124. Select the correct option for A, B and C.
which is unicellular. Identify X. Class Sexual Asexual Fruiting
(1) Yeast (2) Albugo Spores Spores body
Phycomycetes Present Aplanospore A
(3) Mucor (4) Lichen
Deuteromycetes Absent B Absent
116. Which among the following is not asexual spore? Basidiomycetes C Absent Basidiocarp
(1) Zoospore A B C
(2) Conidia (1) Absent Zoospores Conidia
(3) Sporoangiospore (2) Absent Conidia Present
(4) Ascospore (3) Present Absent Always absent
(4) Present Conidia Conidia
117. Slime moulds are;
(1) the members of deuteromycetes. 125. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct
(2) saprophytic protist. option.
(3) included in kingdom monera. List-I List-II
(4) photosynthetic organism. (I) Rhizopus (A) Sac-fungus
(II) Penicillium (B) Basidiomycetes
118. How many plants given in the box is/are partially (III) Puffball (C) Imperfect fungi
heterotrophic? (IV) Colletotrichum (D) Bread mould
Bladderwort, Venus flytrap, Wheat, Mustard, Cuscuta
I II III IV
(1) 2 (2) 3
(1) C D A B
(3) 5 (4) 1
(2) D B C A
(3) B A D C
119. Citrus canker is a;
(4) D A B C
(1) viral disease (2) bacterial disease
(3) fungal disease (4) protozoan disease
126. Under favourable conditions, slime moulds form;
(1) plasmodium.
120. Specialised cells called heterocysts are present in;
(2) conidia.
(1) dinoflagellates. (2) chrysophytes.
(3) fruiting bodies.
(3) archaebacteria. (4) cyanobacteria.
(4) zygote.

121. Which of the following is extensively used in

127. Which kingdom is divided into two domains while
biochemical and genetic work?
proposing three domain system of classification?
(1) Aspergillus (2) Claviceps
(1) Monera
(3) Neurospora (4) Both (2) and (3)
(2) Plantae
(3) Fungi
122. All of the given features are common between the
(4) Animalia
members of ascomycetes and deuteromycetes,
except;
128. Majority of bacteria are;
(1) septate and branched mycelium.
(1) photoautotrophic.
(2) formation of conidia.
(2) chemoautotrophic.
(3) can be decomposers.
(3) heterotrophic.
(4) production of sexual spores.
(4) halophiles.

123. The main basis of classification of phylum

129. The mycelium of phycomycetes is;
protozoa is;
(1) coenocytic and uninucleate.
(1) size.
(2) aseptate and multinucleate.
(2) shape.
(3) septate and branched.
(3) locomotory organelles.
(4) dikaryotic.
(4) number of nuclei.
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130. Diatoms do not readily decay due to; SECTION-B
(1) siliceous wall. 136. Body organisation is only tissue level or organ.
(2) mucilagenous sheath. level in Kingdom;
(3) water proof cell wall. (1) Monera (2) Plantae
(4) non living cells. (3) Fungi (4) Protista

131. In fungi, dikaryotic stage is the product of; 137. Members of Kingdom Fungi differ from Kingdom
(1) plasmogamy followed by karyogamy. Plantae as they have ;
(2) karyogamy only. (1) eukaryotic cell type .
(2) chitinous cell wall.
(3) meiosis.
(3) autotrophic mode of nutrition.
(4) plasmogamy only.
(4) nuclear membrane.

132. Select the incorrect option w.r.t bacteria.

138 Two kingdom classification given by Linnaeus
(1) They live in extreme habitats such as hot
placed bacteria in Kingdom Plantae because;
springs, deserts, snow and deep oceans.
(1) they are photosynthetic.
(2) They are the most abundant micro-
(2) they show locomotion.
organisms.
(3) they have cell wall.
(3) They can live as parasite. (4) they have 70S ribosomes.
(4) Majority of bacteria synthesise their own food.
139. Thread like filaments of fungi are known as;
133. Statement I: A heterotrophic bacterium is helpful (1) conidia (2) mycorrhiza.
in making curd. (3) sporangium. (4) hyphae.
Statement II: Chemosynthetic bacteria play a
great role in recycling nutrients like nitrogen, 140. Spores of slime moulds possess A and they are
phosphorous and sulphur. dispersed by B. Identify A and B are
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. respectively.
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is A B
incorrect. (1) true wall water currents
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is (2) non cellulosic wall water currents
correct. (3) true wall air currents
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect. (4) non cellulosic wall air currents

134. Five kingdom classification system put 141. All of the following are included in Kingdom
Chlamydomonas, Chlorella, Paramoecium and Protista, except
(1) protozoans.
Amoeba together in Kingdom;
(2) chrysophytes.
(1) Monera.
(3) slime moulds.
(2) Animalia.
(4) blue green algae.
(3) Fungi.
(4) Protista.
142. Red tide causing organism;
(1) are only fresh water forms.
135. Multicellular eukaryotic heterotrophs are included
(2) form diatomaceous earth.
in how many kingdoms w.r.t. five kingdom
(3) have soap box like cell wall.
classification system? (4) are unicellular Gonyaulax.
(1) One
(2) Two 143. Unicellularity is a characteristic of;
(3) Three (1) cyanobacteria (2) monera
(4) Four (3) protista (4) All of these
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144. Which of the following is not edible fungi? 147 Select the incorrect set of features present in
(1) Yeast euglenoids
(2) Truffles I. Cell wall is absent
(3) Morels II. Has a pair of equal flagella.
(4) None of these III. Pigments identical to those present in higher
plants.
145. Who classified animals into two groups, on the IV. Strictly a photosynthetic protist.
basis of presence and absence of RBC? (1) I & III (2) I, II & III
(1) R.H. Whittaker (3) Only I (4) II & IV
(2) Aristotle
(3) Linnaeus 148. Which of the following often forms bloom in
(4) Leeuwenhoek polluted water bodies?
(1) Protozoans (2) Archaebacteria
146. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct (3) Slime moulds (4) Cyanobacteria
option.
List-I List-II 149. Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in
(I) Prokaryotic cell type (A) Methanogens having a different___and this feature is
(II) Cell wall with cellulose (B) Animalia responsible for their survival in extreme
(III) Organ system level of (C) Monera conditions
body organisation (1) cell wall structure
(IV) Presence in guts of (D) Plantae (2) nucleus structure
ruminant animals (3) mode of nutrition
I II III IV (4) cytoplasm composition
(1) C D B A
(2) D B C A 150. All fungi can be called as ;
(3) B A D C (1) heterotrophs
(4) D A B C (2) autotrophs
(3) saprophytes
(4) parasite

SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION-A 154. The source of Ca+2 for the muscle contraction is ;
151. Streaming of cytoplasm/cyclosis is seen in ; (1) tubule
(1) Amoeba (2) macrophages (2) sarcosome
(3) leucocytes (4) all of these (3) sarcolemma
(4) sarcoplasmic reticulum
152. Which of the following statements about the
skeletal muscles is correct? 155. The fascia surrounding a muscle is made up of ;
(1) They are striated muscles. (1) cartilage
(2) They are voluntary muscles. (2) collagenous connective tissue
(3) They are primarily involved in locomotory (3) adipose tissue
actions. (4) blood vessels
(4) All of these

153. Cardiac/heart muscles are; 156. Contractile fibrils of muscles are called ;
(1) striated and involuntary (1) neurofibrils
(2) not fatigued (2) collagen fibres
(3) branched (3) myofibrils
(4) all of these (4) yellow fibres

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157. Match List- I with List-II and find out correct 163. Which of the following is incorrect when a
option. skeletal muscle shorten during contraction?
List- I List- II (1) The I-band shortens
I Structural and functional A H-zone (2) The A-band shortens
unit of a myofibril (3) The H-zone disappear
II Protein of thin filament B Myosin (4) The sarcomeres shorten
III Protein of thick filament C Sarcomere
164. The compound or pigment acting as an oxygen
IV The central part of thick D Actin
store in skeletal muscles is ;
filament not overlapped
(1) myoglobin (2) haemoglobin
by thin filament
(3) myokinase or ATP (4) cytochrome
(1) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
(2) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D 165. Skeletal system consists of ;
(3) I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-D (1) only bones
(4) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A (2) only cartilage
(3) a framework of bones and a few cartilage
158. Light bands (thin filaments) contain actin protein (4) a framework of cartilage and a few bones
and are called ;
(1) A-bands or Isotropic band 166. A normal human being has how many ear ossicle
(2) A-bands or Anisotropic bands (1) 3 (2) 6
(3) I-bands or Isotropic bands (3) 9 (4) None of these
(4) I-bands or Anisotropic bands
167. Human cranium has small protuberance(s) at the
159. An individual sarcomere consist of; posterior end called ____(A)_____ and are
(1) a stack of actin fibres. __(B)__ in number.
(2) a stack of myosin units. Choose the option which fills the blank
(3) overlapping actin and myosin. correctly.
(4) overlapping myosin and membrane. (1) A-occipital condyle, B-6
(2) A-occipital condyle, B-2
160. Movements of our limbs, jaws, tongue requires; (3) A-occipital condyle, B-4
(1) ciliary movement (4) A-occipital condyle, B-3
(2) ameboid movement
(3) muscular movement 168. Cranial bones are ___ in number.
(4) flagellar movement (1) 8 (2) 12
(3) 32 (4) 44
161. How much % of body weight of an adult human
is contributed by muscle; 169. Which of the following vertebra in adult humans
(1) 20-30% are fused ones?
(2) 30-35% (1) Thoracic and lumber
(3) 40-50% (2) Thoracic and cervical
(4) 60-65% (3) Sacral and coccygeal
(4) Cervical and coccygeal
162. According to the sliding filament theory
contraction of a muscle fibre takes place by the; 170. Each typical rib is a thin flat bone connected
(1) sliding of the thin filament over thick ____ to the vertebral column and ___________
filament. to the sternum.
(2) sliding of the thick filament over thin (1) dorsally, ventrally
filament. (2) ventrally, dorsally
(3) both thick and thin filament not slide. (3) dorsally, dorsally
(4) none of these. (4) ventrally, ventrally
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171. Rib cage is formed by all except ; 179. Arthritis is ;
(1) thoracic vertebrae (1) inflammation of muscles.
(2) lumbar vertebrae (2) inflammation of bone.
(3) ribs (3) inflammation of joints.
(4) sternum (4) inflammation of tongue.

172. Hydra uses its tentacles for; 180. Myofibrils show alternate dark and light bands
(1) locomotion in;
(2) catching prey (1) cardiac muscles
(3) reproduction (2) smooth muscles
(4) both (1) and (2) (3) striped muscles
(4) both (1) and (3)
173. The ____ articulates with the head of the
humerus to form the shoulder joint. 181. Which of the following statements is false?
(1) acetabulum (1) Smooth muscles are found in urinary
(2) manubrium bladder, alimentary canal and genital tract
(3) occipital condyle (2) A striated muscle is syncytium
(4) glenoid cavity (multinucleate)
(3) The cytoplasm of striated muscle is called
174. Which one of the following is the longest bone in endoplasm
human? (4) The plasma membrane and ER of striated
(1) Radius muscles are called sarcolemma and
(2) Tibia sarcoplasmic reticulum respectively
(3) Femur
(4) Clavicle 182. Which of the following is not a part of axial
skeleton?
175. Acetabulum occurs in ; (1) skull
(1) cranium (2) pectoral girdle (2) sternum
(3) pelvic girdle (4) vertebrae (3) vertebral column
(4) humerus
176. Each coxal bone is formed by the fusion of 3
bones named as; 183. A complex protein _____ is distributed at regular
(1) ileum, sacrum and pubis intervals on the tropomyosin.
(2) ilium, ischium, pubis (1) Calmodulin
(3) ilium, ischium and clavicle (2) Actin
(4) coracoid, ischium and pubis (3) Troponin
(4) Acetylcholine
177. Gout is the inflammation of joints due to
accumulation of ; 184. Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle due
(1) urea crystal to genetic disorder is called;
(2) NH3 (1) myasthenia gravis
(3) uric acid crystal (2) tetany
(4) CaCO3 crystals (3) muscular dystrophy
(4) myopia
178. Myasthenia gravis is an ____ disorder affecting
185. Bone has a very hard matrix due to presence of;
neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue,
(1) NaCl
weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscles;
(2) Ca+2-salts
(1) communicable (2) autoimmune
(3) K+-salts
(3) respiratory (4) none of these
(4) Fe+-salts
[16]
 SECTION B 192. Match List I with List II to find the correct
option.
186. The region between the ends of the A-bands of 2- List-I List-II
adjoining sarcomeres is called ; I True ribs A 1st to 7th pair
(1) the Z-band II False ribs B 8th, 9th, 10th
(2) the H-zone III Floating ribs C 11th, 12th pair
(3) the T-tubule IV Skull D sutures
(4) the I-band
(1) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
(2) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
187. Motor end plate is a ;
(3) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D
(1) neuromuscular junction
(4) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D
(2) dendron of motor neuron
(3) plate of motor neuron
193. Which one of the following statements are
(4) gradient of proton motive force incorrect about human skeleton?
(A) Glenoid cavity is a depression in pelvic
188. Which one of the following is not included under girdle
ear ossicles? (B) The number of bones in the wrist is 8.
(1) Malleus (C) Methods of locomotion performed by
(2) Lacrimal animals never changes.
(3) Incus (D) Our vertebral column formed by 26 serially
(4) Stapes arranged units called vertebrae.
(1) Only A and B (2) Only B and C
(3) Only A and C (4) Only C and D
189. Statement I: First vertebra is atlas.
Statement II: Sarcomere decreases in size
194. In muscle contraction energy is provided by;
during muscle contraction.
(1) acetyl CoA
(1) Statement I and statement II both are (2) phosphogene
correct. (3) hydrolysis of ATP
(2) Statement I is correct, statement II is (4) glucose
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is 195. Assertion (A): White muscle fibres depends on
correct. anaerobic process for energy.
Reason (R): In white muscle fibres few amount
(4) Statement I and statement II both are
of sarcoplasmic reticulum present.
incorrect.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
190. H zone contains: Assertion (A).
(1) Myosin only (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
(2) F Troponin but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation
(3) Myosin + actin of Assertion (A).
(4) Actin only (3) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is
incorrect.
191. Visceral muscles do not exhibit any __A__ and (4) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are
incorrect.
are _B_ in appearance.
(1) A-muscular, B-stripped
196. Joint present between carpal and metacarpal of
(2) A-visceral, B-stripped
thumb;
(3) A-striation, B-smooth (1) knee joint (2) gliding joint
(4) None of these (3) saddle joint (4) all of these
[17]
197. Which joint is present between humerus and 199. Number of bones in human appendicular skeleton
pectoral girdle? is;
(1) Ball and socket joint (1) 80
(2) Saddle joint (2) 120
(3) Gliding joint (3) 126
(4) Fibrous joint (4) 206

198. Which of the following is present between the 200. The example of pivot joint is;
adjacent bones of vertebral column? (1) between humerus and acetabulam
(1) Cartilage (2) between occipital and atlas
(2) Areolar tissue (3) between atlas and axis
(3) Smooth muscle (4) between carpals or between tarsals.
(4) Intercalated discs.

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