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TOPIC : Elasticity, Viscosity, Circular motion,Work Power Energy / COM and Collision, Transistor,
Logic gates, SHM

1. A 900 kg elevator hangs by a steel cable for 3. A ball falling in a lake of depth 200 m shows
which the allowable stress is 1.15 × 108 N/m2. 0.1% decrease in its volume at the bottom.
What is the minimum diameter required if the What is the bulk modulus of the material of the
elevator accelerates upward at 1.5 m/s 2 ? ball ?
Take g = 10 m/s2
(g = 9.8 m/s2)
6  102 (1) 19.6 × 108 N/m2
(1) m
5
(2) 19.6 × 10–10 N/m2

6  102 (3) 19.6 × 1010 N/m2

(2) m
10 (4) 19.6 × 10–8 N/m2

3  102 4. The potential energy U between two molecules

(3) m as a function of the distance X between them
10
has been shown in the figure. The two
3  102 molecules are :-
(4) m
5
U
2. The two wires shown in figure are made of the
same material which has a breaking stress of
0 X
8 × 108 N/m2. The area of the cross-section of
the upper wire is 0.006 cm 2 and that of the
lower wire is 0.003 cm2. The mass m1 = 10 kg, A B C
m 2 = 20 kg and the hanger is light. The
maximum load that can be put on the hanger (1) Attracted when x lies between A and B and
without breaking a wire is :- g = 10 m/s2 are repelled when X lies between B and C
(2) Attracted when x lies between B and C and
are repelled when X lies between A and B
(3) Attracted when they reach B
m2
(4) Repelled when they reach B
5. When a force is applied on a wire of uniform
m1
cross-sectional area 3 × 10–6 m 2 and length
4 m, the increase in length is 1 mm. Energy
stored in it will be (Y = 2 × 1011 N/m2) :-
(1) 14 kg (1) 6250 J
(2) 1.4 kg (2) 0.177 J
(3) 1.2 kg (3) 0.075 J
(4) 12 kg (4) 0.150 J
6. A spherical ball of mass 4 m, density  and
9. A particle moves along a circle of radius ( )m
radius r is attached to a pulley-mass system as 
with constant tangential acceleration. If the velocity
shown in figure. The ball is released in a liquid
of the particle is 80 m/s at the end of the second
of coefficient of viscosity  and density
revolution after motion has begun, the tangential
  acceleration is :–
    . If the length of the liquid column is
 2 (1) 40 m/s2 (2) 640  m/s2
sufficiently long, the terminal velocity attained
by the ball is given by (assume all pulleys to (3) 160  m/s2 (4) 40  m/s2
be massless and string as massless and 10. A ring rotates about z axis as shown in figure. The
inextensible) :- plane of rotation is xy. At a certain instant the
acceleration of a particle P (shown in figure) on
the ring is    . Find the angular

acceleration of the ring at that instant. Radius of

the ring is 2 m :-
m m

4m
2 r (2  )g
2
2 r 2 (  2)g (1) 2kˆ rad/s 2 (2) 3kˆ rad/s 2
(1) (2)
9  9  (3) 2kˆ rad/s 2 (4) 3kˆ rad/s 2
2 r (  4)g
2
2 r (  3)g
2
11. A particle moves along a circle with velocity V = Kt,
(3) (4)
9  9  where K = 0.5 m/s2. Find the total acc. of the
7. A man is rowing a boat of mass m with a
constant velocity 'v0' in a river the contact area 1
particle at the moment when it covered th of
of boat is 'A' and coefficient of viscosity is . 10
The depth of river is 'D'. Assume that velocity the circle after begining of motion :-
gradient is constant. The force required to row (1) 1 m/s2 (2) 0.8 m/s2
the boat is :- (3) 1.2 m/s2 (4) None of these
12. A particle released from rest at height of 30 m
Av 0 2Av0 Av 0 3Av 0
(1) (2) (3) (4) as shown in figure. A observes is standing at
2D D D 2D
a distance of 10 m as shown. Find angular
8. A metal ball B1 (density 3.2 gm/cm3) is dropped in velocity of particle relative to observer at time
water while another metal ball B2 (density 6 gm/ cm3) t = 2 sec :- (g = 10 m/s2)
is dropped in a liquid of density 1.6 g cm–3. u=0
If both the balls have the same diameter and t=0
attain the same terminal velocity, the ratio of
coefficient of viscosity of water to that of the
Rest 30m
liquid is (and density of water is 1 gm/cm3) :-
(1) 2.0
10m
(2) 0.5
(3) 4.0 Observer
(1) 2 rad/s (2) 3 rad/s
(4) Indeterminate due to insufficient data
(3) 1 rad/s (4) 4 rad/s
13. the potential energy of a 1-kg particle free to 17. A man displaces a block by 5 m on a rough
move along the x-axis is given by :- surface (µ = 1/2) by applying a force 50 N
 x4 x2  acting at 37o to the horizontal. The work done
U(x)   –  J
 4 2  by the applied force is :-
The total mechanical energy of the particle is (1) 200 J (2) 100 J (3) 150 J (4) 50 J
2 J. Then the maximum speed (in m/s) is 18. A cubical block of ice of mass m and edge L
(1) 2 (2) 1 / 2 (3) 2 (4) 3 / 2 is placed in large tray of mass M. If the ice
14. A particle is placed at the origin and a force melts, by what distance the center of mass of
F = kx is acting on it (where k is a positive (ice + tray) system descend ?
constant). If U(0) = 0, the graph of U(x) versus ice
x will be (where U is the potential energy L
function) :- mL mL
(1) (2)
U(x) U(x) (m  M) 2(m  M)
mL ML
(3) (4)
(1) x (2) x M m
19. m L
O

0
U(x) U(x)
2m

(3) x (4) x µ = 1.0

The ball is released when the string is horizontal.
The collision between the ball and the block is
head-on elastic. The velocities of the ball and
15. Water falling from a 50 m high fall is to be used the block immediately after collision :-
for generating electric energy. If 1.8 × 105 of 2 1 1 2
(1) 2gL, 2gL (2) – 2gL, 2gL
water falls per hour and half the gravitational 3 3 3 3
potential energy can be converted into electric 2 1 2 1
(3) 2gL, – 2gL (4) – 2gL, – 2gL
energy, how many 100 W lamps can be lit :- 3 3 3 3
(1) 75 (2) 100 (3) 125 (4) 150 20. A body of mass m 1 moving with a velocity
3 m/s collides with another body at rest of mass
16. One end of a spring of natural length h and
m2. After collision the velocities of the two
spring constant k is fixed at the ground and the
bodies are 2 m/s and 5 m/s, respectively, along the
other is fitted with a smooth ring of mass m
which is allowed to slide on a horizontal rod direction of motion of m1. The ratio m1/m2 is :-
fixed at a height h (see the figure). Initially, the 5 1 12
(1) (2) 5 (3) (4)
spring makes an angle of 37o with the vertical 12 5 5
when the system is released from rest. The speed 21. v0 v0
of the ring when the spring becomes vertical :- 2k k
m 2m

h Smooth
37o
If blockes collide elastically head-on, the ratio
of maximum compression of the left spring
h k h k h k h k and the right spring will be :-
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) 3 : 5 (2) 2 : 3 (3) 5 : 4 (4) 5 : 2
2 m 4 m 2 2m 4 2m
22. A hemisphere and a solid cone have a common 27. The figure shows two NAND gates followed
base. The center of mass of common structure by a NOR gate. The system is equivalent to the
coincides with the common base. If R is the following logic gate :-
radius of hemisphere and h is the height of the
cone, then h/R will be :- A X
1 1
(1) 3 (2) 3 (3) (4) Z
3 3 B
23. Consider the situation as shown in the diagram.
The bullet penetrates : C Y

(1) OR (2) AND

L
(3) NAND (4) None of these
v0
28. What will be the input A and B for the Boolean
m expression A B . A.B = 1 ?
M
the block and emerges with speed v 0/3. If
(1) 0,0 (2) 0,1
after collision, the string becomes horizontal, v0
(3) 1,0 (4) 1,1
will be :-
29. Two equal masses are suspended separately by
m 2m
(1) 2gL (2) 2gL two springs of constant K 1 and K 2 . If their
M 3M
3M M oscillations satisfy the condition that their
(3) 2gL (4) 2gL maximum velocities are equal, then the ratio
2m m
24. A shell of mass m moving with velocity v of the amplitudes of the oscillations of the
suddenly breaks into 2 pieces. The part having masses respectively is :-
mass m/4 remains stationary. The velocity of
K1 K2 K1 K2
the other shell will be :- (1) K (2) K (3) (4)
K2 K1
3 4 2 1
(1) v (2) 2v (3) v (4) v 30. A man weighing 60 kgf stands on the
4 3
25. In a common emitter amplifier, using output horizontal platform of a spring balance. The
resistance of 5000 ohm and input resistance of platform starts executing simple harmonic
2000 ohm, if the peak value of input signal 2
voltage is 10 m V and  = 50, then the peak motion of amplitude 0.1 m and frequency Hz.
value of output voltage is :- Which of the following statements is correct ?
(1) 5 × 10–6 volt (2) 2.5 × 10–4
(3) 1.25 volt (4) 125 volt
26. In the following circuit, a voltmeter V is
connected across a lamp L. What change would
occur in voltmeter reading if the resistance R
is reduced in value ?
L (1) The spring balance reads the weight of man
V as 60 kgf
VC (2) The spring balance reading fluctuates
V between 60 kgf and 70 kgf
R (3) The spring balance reading fluctuates
+ – between 50 kgf and 60 kgf
VBB (4) The spring balance reading fluctuates
(1) Increases (2) Decreases between 50 kgf and 70 kgf
(3) Remains same (4) None of these
31. In the figure shown a block of mass m is 34. Magnetic field at point P in given dig. is :-
attached at ends of two springs. The other ends
of the spring are fixed. The mass m is released i i
in the vertical plane when the spring are relaxed. r
The velocity of the block is maximum, when :- 30° P

2r
k1
0i 2 3 i 2 3
(1) 4r 1 (2) 0
1
2 4r 2
m
0i 3
k2 (3) 4r 2 1 (4) None

35. In the given dig. wire A and B are long current

(1) k1 is compressed and k2 is elongated carrying wires, arranged parallel and
(2) k1 is elongated and k2 is compressed perpendicular to the plane of the paper. Current
in wire A is 6 amp and magnetic field at point
(3) k1 and k 2 both are compressed
Q is zero then field at point P is - (in tesla)
(4) k1 and k 2 both are elongated
32. The period of a simple pendulum, whose bob A
is a hollow metallic sphere, is T. The period is 6A
6m
T1 when the bob is filled with sand, T2 when it P
10m
is filed with mercury and T3 when it is half filled
8m
with mercury. Which of the following is true ?
B
5m
Q
T T1 T2 T3
. .
................ .
..
.
........
i
Hollow Sand Mercury (1)
0
17 (2)
0
5
4 4
(1) T = T1 = T2 > T3
(3)
0
17 (4)
0
5
(2) T1 = T2 = T3 > T 8 8
(3) T > T3 > T1 = T2 36. A current carrying wire is bent to form a coil
(4) T = T1 = T2 < T3 of four turns, then the magnetic field at the
centre is B. Now a coil of same radius is formed
33. A simple pendulum of length 1 m is allowed
by a wire of the length double of the initial wire
to oscillate with amplitude 2º. It collides
then new magnetic field at the centre of this coil
elastically with a wall inclined at 1º to the
is :-
vertical. Its time period will be ( use g = 2) :-
(1) 2B (2) 4B (3) 8B (4) None
37. Two long current carrying conductors are
having same current i, placed perpendicular to
1º 2º each other, then magnetic fields produced by
these wires :-
(1) May cancel each other
(2) May be in same direction
(1) 2/3 sec (2) 4/3 sec (3) May be perpendicular to each other
(3) 2 sec (4) 3/2 sec (4) All of the above
38. A semicircular wire of radius 'R', carrying 42. A charge q of mass m projected from the centre
current I is placed in a magnetic field as shown and perpendicular to the axis of long solenoid
in figure. On left side of XX' field is B0 and on of turn density 'n' which carries 'i' current then
right side of XX' field is 2B0. The magentic rotational frequency of charge for the uniform
force experienced by wire is :- circular motion :-
X' 2 m m nqi nqi
B0 2B0 (1) (2) (3) 0
(4) 0

0 nqi 0 nqi m 2 m
I 43. A paramagnetic material is kept in a magnetic
R field. The field is increased till the
magnetization becomes constant. If the
O
temperature is now decreased, the
X
magnetization :-
(1) 3B0IR (2) 2B0IR (1) Will increase
(2) Decrease
(3) 10 B0IR 5 B0IR (4)
(3) Remain same
39. A wire loop carrying current I is placed in the (4) May increase or decrease
x-y plane. Magnetic induction at P is :- 44. PQRS is a square loop made of uniform
y conducting wire. If the current enters the loop
at P and leaves at S, then the magnetic field will
be :-
I P x
120°

a Q R

0 I  3 1  0 I   1 
(1) 2a    3   (2) 2a    P S
   3 3

0 I  1 3 0 I  3 1 
   (4) 2a    3  
(3) a  3  
40. When a charge particle moves in magnetic field
then which statement is incorrect :-
(1) Magnetic force on charge is always
perpendicular to its direction of motion
(2) Speed of charge is always constant
(3) Momentum of charge is always constant
(4) Work done by the field on charge is always
zero
41. A thin circular wire carrying a current I has a
magnetic moment M. The shape of the wire is
changed to a square and it carries the same
current. It will have a magnetic moment :-
4
(1) M (2)
(1) Maximum at the centre of the loop
  (2) Zero at the centre of loop
(3) Zero at all points inside the loop
(4) Zero at all points outside of the loop
45. Two concentric circular coils X and Y of radii
16 cm and 10 cm, respectively, lie in the same
vertical plane containing the north to south
direction. Coil X has 20 turns and carries a
current of 16 A ; coil Y has 25 turns and carries
a current of 18A. The sense of the current in
X is anticlockwise, and clockwise in Y, for an
observer looking at the coils facing west. Give
the magnitude and direction of the net magnetic
field due to the coils at their centre :-
(1) 5 × 10–4 T toward west
2 M (2) 10–4 T towards west

4 (3) 5 × 10–3 T toward south

(3) M (4) M (4) 5 × 10–4 T east
4
TOPIC : Electrochemistry, Solid state, Mole concept and Redox
46. The emf of the cell, 50. Given an alloy of Cu, Ag and Au in which Cu
atoms constitute the ccp arrangement. If the
Ni|Ni2+(1.0 M)||Ag+(1.0 M)|Ag
hypothetical formula of the alloy is Cu4 Ag3Au.
(Eº of Ni2+ | Ni = –0.25 volt, Eº for What are the probable locations of Ag & Au
Ag+| Ag = 0.80 volt) atoms.

(1) 0.55 volt (1) Ag – all THV, Au – all OHV

(2) –1.05 volt 3 1

(2) Ag – th THV, Au – th OHV
(3) +1.05 8 4

(4) –0.55 volt 1

1
(3) Ag – OHV, Au – THV
47. Reactivity of metals increases as 2 2
electropositivity increases, what will happen if
(4) Ag – All OHV, Au = All THV
a copper spoon is used to stir a solution of
aluminium nitrate? 51. The conductivity of a saturated solution of
BaSO 4 is 3.06 × 10 –6 ohm –1 cm –1 and its
(1) The spoon will get coated with aluminium
equivalent conductance is 1.53 ohm–1cm2eq–1.
(2) An alloy of aluminium and coper is formed The ksp for BaSO4 will be :-

(3) The solution becomes blue (1) 4 × 10–12

(4) There is no reaction. (2) 2.5 × 10–13
48. Resistance of decimolar solution is 50 ohm. If (3) 25 × 10–9
electrodes of surface area 0.0004 m2 each are
(4) 10–6
placed at a distance of 0.02 m then conductivity
of solution is :- 52. The EMF of a concentration cell consisting of

(1) 1 S cm–1 M
two zinc electrodes, one dipping into
4
(2) 0.01 S cm–1
M
(3) 0.001 S cm–1 solution of zinc sulphate & other into
16
(4) 10 S cm–1 solution of the same salt at 25ºC is :-
49. AgCl is crystallized from molten AgCl (1) 0.0125 V
containing a little CdCl2, the solid obtained will
have:- (2) 0.0250 V

(1) Cationic vacancies equal to number of Cd2+ (3) 0.0178 V

ions incorporated. (4) 0.0356 V
(2) Cation vacancies equal to double the no. 53. The charge required for the reaction of 1 mole
of Cd2+ ions Cr2O72– to Cr3+ in acidic medium is :-
(3) Anionic vacancies (1) 3 F (2) 6 F
(4) Neither cationic nor anionic vacancies. (3) 12 F (4) 2 F
54. Standard electrode potential of three metals x, 60. Standard electrode potential of some half cell
y and z are –3.0 V, + 0.5 V, –1.2 Vrespectively. reactions are given below:-
The reducing power of these metals will be :-
(i) Sn4+ + 2e   Sn2+, Eº = +0.15 V
(1) y > z > x
(ii) 2Hg2+ + 2e   Hg22+, Eº = +0.92 V
(2) x > y > z
(iii) PbO2+4H++ 2e   Pb2++2H2O, Eº=+1.45 V
(3) x > z > y
Which of the following statement is correct
(4) z > x > y
according to electrode ?
55. A FCC crystal of O2– (oxide) ion has Mn+ ions
in all OHV, then value of n is :- (1) Pb2+ is more powerful reducing agent than
Sn2+.
(1) 4 (2) 1
(2) Sn4+ is more powerful oxidising agent than
(3) 2 (4) 3
Pb4+.
56. Fraction of empty space in ABAB type
arrangement in 3D close packing :- (3) Sn2+ is more powerful reducing agent than
Hg 22+
(1) 0.74 (2) 0.32
(4) Hg2+ is more powerful oxidising agent than
(3) 0.26 (4) 0.68
Pb4+.
57. Given standard electrode potentials :-
61. BaO has rock-salt type structure. When
Fe3+ + 3e  Fe; Eº = –0.036 volt subjected to high pressure, the ratio of the
Fe2+ + 2e  Fe; Eº = –0.440 volt coordination of Ba 2+ ion to O2– changes to :-

The standard electrode potential Eº for (1) 4 : 8 (2) 8 : 4

Fe 3+
+ e  Fe
 2+
(3) 8 : 8 (4) 4 : 4
(1) –0.476 volt
62. A certain sample of cuprus sulphide is found
(2) –0.440 volt to have composition Cu 1.8 S, because of
(3) 0.440 volt presence of some Cu2+ ions is the lattice. What
is the mole % of Cu2+ in crystal.
(4) 0.772 volt
(1) 99.8 % (2) 11.11 %
58. The EMF of the cell;
Cr|Cr3+(0.1 M)|| Fe2+ (0.01 M)| Fe (3) 88.88 % (4) None of these

(Given EoCr3 |Cr  –0.75V, EoFe2 |Fe  0.45V ) 63. In a cell that utilizes the reaction

(1) 0.30 V (2) 0.36 V Zn(s) + 2H+(aq)  Zn2+(aq) + H2(g)

(3) 0.26 V (4) 0.22 V Addition of H2SO4 to cathode compartment
59. Same quantity of current is passed through will :-
molten NaCl and molten Al2O3. If 2.3 g of Na (1) Lower the E and shift equilibrium to left.
was deposited in one cell, the mass of al
deposited in other cell s :- (2) Lower the E and shift equilibrium to the right.

(1) 1.8 gm (2) 0.9 gm (3) Increase the E and shift equilibrium to the right.
(3) 2.7 gm (4) 3.6 gm (4) Increase the E and the equilibrium to the left.
64. The E M3 |M2 values for Cr, Mn, Fe and Co are 71. A gaseous alkane is exploded with oxygen. The
o

–0.41, +1.57, + 0.77 and +1.97 respectively. volume of O2 for complete combustion to CO2
For which one of these metals, the change in and CO2 formed is in the ratio of 7 : 4. Deduce
oxidation state from +2 to +3 is easiest:- molecular formula of alkane.
(1) Cr (2) Mn (1) C2H6 (2) CH4
(3) Fe (4) Co (3) C3H8 (4) None
65. Element X reacts with oxygen to produce a pure 72. Mole fraction of I2 in C6H6 is 0.2. The molality
sample of X2O3. In an experiment it is found that of I2 in C6H6 is :-
1.00 g of X produces 1.16 g of X2O3. Calculate the
(1) 3.2 (2) 6.40
atomic weight of X.
(3) 1.6 (4) 2.30
Given : Atomic weight of oxygen, 16.0 g mol–1 :-
(1) 67 (2) 100.2 73. Number of moles of NH 3 formed when
(3) 125 (4) 150 0.535 g of NH4Cl is completely decomposed by
66. The amount of zinc required to produce 224 mL NaOH, is :-
of H2 at STP on treatment with dil. H2SO4 will NH4Cl + NaOH NH3 + NaCl + H2O
be :- (1) 0.01 mol (2) 5.35 mol
(1) 0.65 g (2) 6.5 g
(3) 1.7 g (4) 0.17 mol
(3) 65 g (4) 0.065 g
67. The hourly energy requirement of an astronout can 74. 25.4 g of iodine and 14.2 g of chlorine are made
be satisfied by the energy released when 34 g of to react completely to yield a mixture of ICland
sucrose is burnt in his body. How many g of ICl3. Calculate the ratio of moles of ICl and ICl3.
oxygen would be needed to be carried in space (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
capsule to meet his requirement for one day? (3) 1 : 3 (4) 2 : 3
(1) 916.2 g (2) 91.62 g
75. The reaction between aluminium metal and dilute
(3) 8.162 g (4) 9.162 g
hydrochloric acid produces H2(g) and Al3+ ions. The
68. A compound has molecular formula X4O6. If 10g
molar ratio of aluminium used to hydrogen
of X4O6 has 5.72 g X, atomic mass of X is :-
produced is :-
(1) 32 amu (2) 37 amu
(3) 42 amu (4) 98 amu (1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
69. In the reaction, (3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 2
4 NH3(g) + 5O2(g)  4NO(g) + 6H2O(l), 76. 1.82 g of a metal required 32.5 mL of
When 1 mole of ammonia and 1 mole of O2 are 1N HCl to dissolve it what is the equivalent
made to react to completion :- weight of metal ?
(1) 1.0 mole of H2O is produced (1) 54 (2) 56
(2) 10 mole of NO will be produced (3) 28 (4) 86
(3) All the oxygen will be consumed
77. 0.84 g of metal carbonate reacts with 40 ml of
(4) All the ammonia will be consumed.
N
70. The chloride of a metal contains 71% chlorine by H 2SO4 the equivalent mass of metal carbonate
2
weight and the vapour density of it is 50. The
atomic weight of the metal will be :- is :-
(1) 29 (2) 58 (1) 84 (2) 64
(3) 35.5 (4) 71 (3) 42 (4) 38
78. Density of water at room temperature is 1g/mL. 85. In isolated condition C—C bond length of
How many molecules are there in a drop of water. C2H4 is x, than the bond length of C—C bond
If its volume is 0.05 mL. of C2H4 in Zeise's salt is :-
(1) 1.67 × 1021 (1) Greater than x
(2) 16.7 × 10 21
(2) Less than x
(3) 6.023 × 10 23
(3) Equal to x
(4) 1.67 × 10 23
(4) None of these
79. Find Incorrect statement :- 86. In the complex [Pt (O2) (en)2 (Br)]2+, nature of
(1) Denaturation of protein disrupts primary and (O2) is :-
secondary structure (1) Oxide ion
(2) Denaturation of protein disrupts secondary and
(2) Peroxide ion
tertiary structure
(3) Superoxide ion
(3) Secondary structure of protein consists -helix
and Beta pleated sheets (4) Oxygen molecule

(4) Insulin is an example of globular protein 87. White phosphorus reacts with caustic soda. The
products are PH3 and NaH2PO2. This reaction is
80. Which of the following does not match ?
an example of :-
(1) Protein - Biuret test
(1) Oxidation
(2) Carbohydrates - molisch test
(2) Reduction
(3) Glucose - DNP test
(3) Neutralization
(4) Starch - Iodine test
81. Which of the following does not show (4) Disproportionation
mutarotation ? 88. The stability of dihalides of Si, Ge, Sn, and Pb
(1) Maltose (2) Glucose increases steadily in the sequence :-
(3) Sucrose (4) Fructose (1) PbX2 < SnX2 < GeX2 < SiX2
82. The polymer having amide linkage is :- (2) GeX2 < SiX2 < SnX2 < PbX2
(1) Teflon (2) Terylene (3) SiX2 < GeX2 < PbX2 < SnX2
(3) Nylon-6, 6 (4) Bakelite (4) SiX2 < GeX2 < SnX2 < PbX2
83. Which polymer is prepared by chain growth 89. K2Cr2O7 reacts with NH4Cl in the presence of
polymerisation method ? H2SO4. The product formed is :-
(1) Dacron (1) Chromyl chlorate with green vapor
(2) Nylon-6 (2) Chromous chloride with white vapor
(3) Polyacrylonitrile (3) Chromous chloride with blue vapor
(4) Nylon-6,6
(4) Chromyl chloride with deep red color
84. Which of the following is incorrectly
90. The compound of vanadium has magnetic moment
matched ?
of 1.73 BM. The vanadium chloride has the
(1) Nylon-6 : Caprolactum
formula :-
(2) Natural rubber : Neoprene
(3) Bakelite : Thermoplastic polymer (1) VCl2 (2) VCl3
(4) BUNA-N : Copolymer (3) VCl4 (4) VCl5
TOPIC : Plant diversity and morphology of flowering plants, Digestive system, Animal kingdom (upto Hemichordata)

91. Match the following columns of terms and their 96. Which of the following is incorrectly paired ?
corresponding correct explaination ? (1) Offset – In Eichhornia having tuft of leaf
and rosette of root
(i) T ap root (a) S torage of (2) Tuber – Eyes are present
food w ithout
any definite (3) Rhizome – Fleshy stem grows horizontaly as
shape in turmeric
(ii) C onical (b) F ood storing (4) Bulb – Fleshy leaves store food
root regions are
separted by
97. Main stem and stem modified for reproduction in
non storing banana plant is ?
regions (1) Rhizome and runner respectively
(iii) T uberous (c) N arrow base (2) Corn and stolon respectively
root and tapering
apex (3) Rhizome and sucker respectively
(4) Corn and sucker respectively
(iv) M onilifor- (d) B road near
m root base and 98. Which of the following is a wrong statement ?
tapering apex (1) In all the examples of leaf pitcher the whole
leaf modifed to pitcher.
(1) (i)-c, (ii)-b, (iii)-a, (iv)-d
(2) Along with stem modification, Opuntia have
(2) (i)-d, (ii)-a, (iii)-c, (iv)-b
leaf spine.
(3) (i)-d, (ii)-c, (iii)-a, (iv)-b
(3) Pinnately compound leaf do have rachis as in
(4) (i)-c, (ii)-d, (iii)-a, (iv)-b
Neem.
92. How many of the followings have negatively
(4) In peas leaf modifed to tendril
geotrophic root, as modification of root ?
99. In which of the following plants leaves posses
Rhizophora, Asparagus, Ipecac, Heritiera, Pea,
many principal veins and a network of veinlets
Bryophyllum, Cycas
(1) Zizyphus and grass
(1) Two (2) One
(3) Five (4) Three (2) Tejpat and cotton
93. Which of the following root modification provide (3) Castor and fan palm
support to main stem in maize and sugarcane ? (4) Chinarose and canna
(1) Prop root (2) Stilt root 100. Maximum number of leaves per node can be
(3) Foliar root (4) Annulated root observed in :-
94. Lenticels present on pneumatophore usually ? (1) Mustard (2) Guava
(1) Uptakes CO2 and releases O2 (3) Alstonia (4) Ocimum
(2) Uptakes both CO2 and O2 101. How many of the followings have organs for
(3) Uptakes O2 and releases CO2 perennation ?
(4) Uptakes water as then present in halophyte Potato, Onion, Ginger, Turmeric, Garlic, Banana,
95. Which of the following modification of stem is for Colocasia, Zamikand
storage of food and meant for vegetative (1) Eight (2) Seven
reproduction ? (3) Six (4) Two
(1) Stem thorn in Citrus 102. In which of the following plant a leaf blade is
(2) Bulbil in Agave incised upto petiole dividing it to many leaflets ?
(3) Bulbil in Potemogetone (1) Neem (2) Silk cotton
(4) Phylloclade in Ruscus (3) Pea (4) Cat's nail
103. Which of the following statement is not true for 107. Arrange the following events in a correct
bryophytes ? sequence in the life cycle of fern :-
(1) They exhibits dependent alteration of generation (I) Fertilization (II) Liberation of spores
(2) In all the bryophytes sporophyte is completely (III) Prothallus (IV) Embryo
dependent on gametophyte (1) II, III, I, IV (2) II, III, IV, I
(3) I, II, III, IV (4) I, IV, III, II
(3) Some of the bryophytes have elators for spore
108. How many of the followings are false mosses ?
dispersal
Funaria, Lycopodium, Polytrichum, Selaginella,
(4) They are the first embryophytes
Pteris, Pteridium
104. Which of the following statement is incorrect
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Two (4) Six
about Gymnosperm ?
109. Correctly match the following columns and select
(1) Pollination takes place by air in gymnosperms.
the suitable option :-
(2) They are heterosporous
(3) Before and after fertilization, ovules are not Group Pigment Stored food
enclosed by any ovary wall and remain exposed. (i) Green (a) Chlorophyll-a,d (p) Laminarin
(4) All Gymnosperm are dioecious without any algae
exception. (ii) Brown (b) Chlorophyll-a,b (q) Cyanophycean
algae starch
105. (iii) Red algae (c) Chlorophyll-a,c (r) Starch
(iv) Blue green (d) Chlorophyll-a (s) Floridean
algae strach
(1) (i)-b-r, (ii)-c-s, (iii)-a-p, (iv)-d-q
(2) (i)-d-q, (ii)-a-s, (iii)-c-p, (iv)-b-r
(3) (i)-b-r, (ii)-c-p, (iii)-a-s, (iv)-d-q
(4) (i)-d-q, (ii)-a-s, (iii)-c-r, (iv)-b-p
110. Correct identify A, B and C in the given figure of
Sphagnum (moss)

A
Observe the above diagrams of Funaria (moss) C

and Equisetum (horse tail) plants belonging to

bryophyta and pteridophyta respectively. Identify
the structure 'a' and 'b' from the Funaria and 'c'
B
from the Equisetum :-
(1) a-Strobillus, b-Gametophyte, c-Sporophyte
(2) a-Gametophyte, b-Strobillus, c-Sporophyte
(3) a-Gametophyte, b-Sporophyte, c-Strobillus
(4)a-Sporophyte, b-Gametophyte,c-Strobillus A B C
106. Which of the following pair is an example of (1) Antheridial Archegonial Branches
heterosporous pteridophyte ? Branch Branch

(1) Psilotum and Adiantum (2) Archegonial Antheridiophore Antheridia

Branch
(2) Salvinia and Selaginella
(3) Antheridia Archegonia Vegetative
(3) Lycopodium and Dryopteris Branch
(4) Lycopodium and Adiantum (4) Archegonium Stem like Leaf like
111. Which of the following is microphyllous 115. Study the following statements. Which of them are
pteridophyte ? correct ?
(a) Gametophyte is not produced in pteridophyta.
(i) Selaginella (ii) Lycopodium
(b) In gymnosperms male and female gametophyte
(iii) Dryopteris (iv) Pteris do not have independent free living existence.
(1) (i) & (ii) (2) (i), (ii) & (iii) (c) Coralloid roots are produced in Pinus and
(3) (iii), (iv) (4) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv) mycorrhizal roots are found in Cycas.
(d) Unbranched stem occurs in Cycas while the
112. Which of the following group of plants, show
stem of Pinus and Cedrus is branched.
dependent and very reduced alternation of (1) Only b & d (2) Only c & d
generation having gametophyte dependent on (3) Only a, c & d (4) All a, b, c & d
sporophyte :- 116. Which of the followings is incorrectly matched pair
(1) Bryophyta (2) Pteridophyta of source and product ?
(3) Gymnosperm (4) Thallophyta (1) Gracillaria & Geladium – Agar-agar
(2) Chondrus – Carrageen
113. Prothallus in pteridophyte is -
(3) Chlorella – Chlorellin
(1) Nonvascular, haploid, multicellular, small mostly
(4) Polysiphonia – Algenates
photosynthetic thalloid body 117. Which of the followings are incorrect statements
(2) Vascular, diploid, Multicellular sporophyte about reproduction in non embryo forming
members of plantae ?
(3) 2n, free-living gametophyte generation
(1) These are unicellular, colonial or multicellular
(4) A thallus/plant body in some primitive pteridophytes (2) They usually have unicellular, simple non
114. Study the given statements carefully and give the jacketed gametangia
answer :- (3) Embryo does not form but some of the
members show complex post fertilization
(A) Both Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae are
development
primarily found in marine habitats. (4) Some of the members have haploid rhizoids
(B) Gemmae are green and multicellular buds, for effective absorption of water and minerals
118. Which of the followings is/are defining features
produced on ventral surface of thallus for
of living beings ?
sexual reproduction in some bryophytes (a) Intrinsic growth (b) Reproduction
(C) In green algae, bryophytes, pteridophytes, (c) Growth (d) Metabolism
(e) Self consciousness (f) Consciousness
gymnosperms and angiosperms both
(1) a, c, d & f (2) b & c only
chlorophyll a and b are present. (3) a, d & f (4) b, c & e
(D) In higher gymnosperms pollen tube is formed 119. How many of the following pairs are not matched
to carry male gamete. correctly ?
(a) Paramoecium – slipper animalcule
Which of the following options is most correct
(b) Ophiura - sea cucumber
from the following ? (c) Balanoglossus - Tongue worm
(1) A,B - correct & C,D - incorrect (d) Fasciola hepatica – sheep blood fluke
(e) Dracunculus – hookworm
(2) C,D - correct & A,B - correct
(f) Pontobdella – skate sucker
(3) A,C,D - correct & B - incorrect (g) Unio - Apple snail
(4) A,B,C - correct & D - incorrect (1) Three (2) Four (3) Two (4) Five
120. Read the following statements (A–D) :- 124. Bioluminescence, the property of living
(A) Body is divided into three parts anterior collar, organism to emit light, is well marked in :-
middle proboscis and posterior long trunk (1) Ctenophores (2) Cnidarians
(B) Connecting link between non-chordata and (3) Molluscs (4) Hemichordates
chordata 125. If number of walking legs in an arachnid is 'n', then
(C) Heart is situated dorsally number of walking legs in palamnaeus, periplaneta
(D) Marine enterocoelomate animals and devil fish respectively will be :-
How many of the above statements are not correct (1) n–2, n–4, n–2 (2) n, n–2, n
for the phylum hemichordata ? (3) n+2, n–2, n (4) n, n–2, n+2
(1) Four (2) Two (3) One (4) Three
126.
121. How many of the following statements are correct
for class oligochaeta of the phylum annelida ?
(a) Clitellum is present permanently
(b) Animals are unisexual and gonads are formed
only during breeding season.
(c) Development is indirect with trochophore
larva.
(d) Mainly parapodia helps in locomotion that bears
limited setae. Choose the locomotory structures of the phylum
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One to which the given animal belongs :-
122. Choose the possible correct option for A, C, and (1) Comb plates (flagellated)
B respectively. (2) Ventral muscular foot
(3) Tube feet
(4) Comb plates (ciliated)
127.
(A) Includes
non-spinous and (C) Digestive
non-pedicellariated system is completely
echinodermate absent because they
absorb nutrients
(B) Includes from host directly
bisexual annelids through their
which are body surface The given diagram represents which one of the
sanguivorous following symmetry ?
(1) Bilateral (2) Radial
(3) Biradial (4) Asymmetry
128. The term 'pseudocoelomate' refers to :-
(1) Without body cavity
(1) Crinoidea, Hirudinea, Cestoda
(2) With false coelom
(2) Crinoidea, Hirudinea, Trematoda
(3) With true coelom
(3) Holothuroidea, Cestoda, Hirudinea (4) No relation with body cavity
(4) Crinoidea, Cestoda, Hirudinea, 129. Metagenesis in coelenterates is best explained by
123. Choose the correct option :- which one of the following line diagram ?
(1) Polyp   medusa
Circulatory Respiratory Sexually
 
Phylum Segmentation Coelom
system system Asexually

(2) Medusa   polyp

(1) Annelida Present Absent Present Coelomate Asexually
 
Sexually
(2) Arthropoda Present Present Absent Coelomate

(3) Polyp   medusa

Sexually
(3) Annelida Present Present Present Coelomate
 
Sexually

(4) Arthropoda Present Absent Present Coelomate

(4) Medusa   polyp
Sexually
 
Asexually
130. How many of the following animals shows 136. Aurelia is a :-
organ/organ system level of body organisation (1) Polyp cnidarian
along with bilateral symmetry ? (2) Medusoid acnidarian
Pleurobrachia, fasciola, ancylostoma, hirudinaria, (3) Medusoid cnidarian
anopheles, adult cucumaria, balanoglossus (4) Polyp acnidarian
(1) Five (2) Four (3) Two (4) Three 137. Fertilisation in nereis and pheretima respectively
131. is :-
(1) Internal, external (2) External, internal
(3) External, external (4) Internal, internal
138. In sponges intracellular digestion takes place inside
the food vacuole of :-
(1) Scleroblast (2) Archaeocyte
(3) Spongioblast (4) Choanocyte
The above structure helps a cnidarian in which of 139. How many of the following structures are part of small
the following given activities ? intestine in the alimentary canal of human?
(A) Anchorage (B) Reproduction Duodenum, Oesophagus, stomach, Jejunum, Ilium,
(C) Defense(D) Capturing prey Caecum, Rectum, Pharynx :-
Option :- (1) Four (2) Three
(1) A, B C, D All (2) C, D only (3) Five (4) Two
(3) A, C, D only (4) A, D only 140. Various Anatomical regions of a human stomach
132. Spirally coiled univalved molluscs belongs to the are marked in the given figure. Read the following
class :- statements and choose the option which include
(1) Monoplacophora (2) Scaphopoda only the incorrect ones :-
(3) Pelecypoda (4) Gastropoda (C)
133. Infective stage of Taenia solium, Schistosoma (A)
and Fasciola hepatica for their respective (D)
primary hosts is :- (B)
(1) Cysticercus, cercaria, metacercaria
(2) Onchosphere, miracidium, miracidium (i) 'C' represents the fundic region of the stomach.
(3) Onchosphere, cercaria, metacercaria (ii) An involuntary sphincter known as pyloric
sphincter guards the opening of oesophagus
(4) Cysticercus, metacercaria, cercaria
134. into the stomach.
(iii) Food entering site A and exiting site B is
almost neutral and highly acidic respectively.
(iv) 'D' represent the Body of stomach where
trypsin act on proteins and break down it into
peptones and proteoses.
Options :-
(1) (ii) only (2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
The given animal belongs to which one of the (3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iii)
following phylum ? 141. Condition in which food is not properly digested
(1) Platyhelminthes leading to a feeling of fullness is :-
(2) Aschelminthes (1) Diarrhoea (2) Constipation
(3) Annelida (3) Indigestion (4) Anorexia
(4) Coelenterata 142. Formation of very small protein coated fat globules
135. Carrier of Leishmania Donovani is :- called the chylomicrons occur inside :-
(1) Tse-Tse fly (2) Culex mosquito (1) Duodenal lumen (2) Liver
(3) Aedes Aegypti (4) Sand fly (3) Lacteals (4) Enterocytes
143. Identify the duct labelled as 'x' in the given figure :- 148. Which of the following structure of human
alimentary canal is a small blind sac which hosts
some symbiotic micro-organisms
(1) Caecum (2) Ileum
(3) Stomach (4) Jejunum
149. Given below is the diagrammatic representation of
transverse section of human gut. Identify the layer
labelled as 'X' :-

'x'
(1) Left Hepatic duct
(2) Hepato-pancreatic duct
(3) Common bile duct 'X'
(4) Pancreatic duct (1) Circular muscle layer
144. How many of the following enzymes are (2) Mucosa
constituent of succus entericus ? (3) Sub-mucosa
Pepsinogen, Enteropeptidase, Nucleosidase, (4) Serosa
Invertase, maltase, Chymotrypsin, Ptyalin, 150. Pepsinogen  'X '
 Pepsin.
Carboxypeptidase, Aminopeptidase, Rennin, Identify 'x' :-
Pancreatic Amylase, Dipeptidase. (1) Intrinsic factor (2) Enterokinase
(1) Five (2) Four (3) Six (4) Three (3) HCl (4) KCl
145. Arrangement of teeth in each half of the upper 151. Di and monoglycerides 'A '
 fatty acids + glycerol.
and lower jaw in the order C, I, PM, M is Identify 'A' :-
represented by a dental formula which in an adult (1) Nuclease (2) Amylase
human is:- (3) Lipase (4) Protease
(where, I = Incisors, C = canine, M = Molars and 152. Pepsin works at an optimum pH of :-
PM = Premolars) (1) 1.8 (2) 4.8 (3) 6.8 (4) 7.4
153. Majority of mammals including human being forms
2123 2122 2132 1223 two sets of teeth during their life, a set of
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2123 2122 2132 1223 temporary milk or deciduous teeth replaced by a
146. Read the following statements (A – D) :- set of permanent or adult teeth. This type of
dentition is called :-
(A) The hepatic lobules are the structural and
(1) Diphyodont (2) Acrodont
functional units of liver containing renal cells
(3) Thecodont (4) Polyphyodont
arranged in the form of cords.
(B) Bile juice is stored and concentrated in a thin 154. How many of the following are correctly matched?
non-muscular sac called the gall bladder. Vitamin Deficiency disease
(C) The duct of gall bladder (cystic duct) along
with the hepatic duct from the liver forms the (i) B1 Beri-Beri
common bile duct. (ii) B3 Cheilosis
(D) Hepato pancreatic duct is guarded by a
sphincter called the sphincter of Boyden. (iii) B5 Burning feet syndrome
How many of the above statements are right ?
(iv) H Dermatitis
(1) Three (2) One (3) Four (4) Two
147. Burning feet syndrome occurs due to deficiency (v) E Muscular Dystrophy
of :- (vi) B12 Scurvy
(1) Niacin (2) Pyridoxine
(3) Pantothenic Acid (4) Riboflavin (1) Five (2) Three (3) Four (4) Two
155. Which one of the following is not a part of 164. Identify the dinosaurs A and B:
'portal triad' ?
(1) Branch of hepatic artery
(2) Branch of hepatic vein
(3) Branch of hepatic portal vein
(4) Branch of hepatic duct
156. Brunner's gland are found in :-
(1) Submucosa of duodenum
(2) Submucosa of Jejunum
(3) Submucosa of stomach
(4) Mucosa of duodenum
157. Darwin’s concept of evolution is:
(1) Special creation
(2) Inheritance of acquired characters (1) A-Tyrannosaurus, B-Stegosaurus
(3) Descent with modification (2) A-Triceratops, B-Stegosaurus
(4) Spontaneous generation (3) A-Tyrannosaurus, B-Brachiosaurus
158. Theory of cosmic panspermia believes in: (4) A-Triceratops, B-Tyrannosaurus
(1) Origin of life on planet other than earth 165. Which of the following organs show analogy?
(2) Origin of life from non living matter (1) Wings of bird and bat
(3) Origin of life by supernatural power (2) Flipper of whale and wing of bat
(4) Origin of life by pre-existing life (3) Wings of mosquito and bat
159. Swan-necked flask experiment was carried out (4) Hearts of vertebrates
by: 166. The different varieties of beaks in finches were
(1) Stanley Miller (2) Louis Pasteur observed by Darwin in:
(3) Francesco Redi (4) A. I. Oparin (1) South America (2) Australia
160. The first non-cellular form of life could have (3) Galapagos island (4) South Africa
originated around: 167. Which of the following is an atavistic structure in
(1) 20 billion years ago (2) 4.5 billion years ago human?
(3) 3 billion years ago (4) 2 billion years ago (1) Body hairs
161. Palaentological evidences are the evidences which (2) Nails
belong to: (3) Nictitating membrane
(1) Dead remains of past organisms (4) Extra nipples in females
(2) Vestigial organs found in human 168. The embryological support for evolution was
(3) Distribution of fauna and flora proposed by:
(4) Atavistic structures (1) Ernst Hackel (2) Ernst Mayr
162. Which characteristic pattern is not observed in (3) Stanley Miller (4) Charles Lyell
the phylogeny of horse? 169. According to Darwin fitness refers to:
(1) Reduction in number of toes (1) Physical fitness
(2) Increment in height (2) Reproductive fitness
(3) Development of high crown of teeth (3) Ecological fitness
(4) Reduction in size of brain (4) Economic fitness
163. Homology belongs to the organs which have: 170. According to Hugo deVries variations are:
(1) Same origin and different functions (1) Small and directional
(2) No functions in the body (2) Large and directional
(3) Different origin and different functions (3) Small and directionless
(4) Different origin and same functions (4) Large and directionless
171. The source of variations in a sexually 176. A pattern of evolution in which species of two
reproducing population is: completely different ancestry emerge in same
(1) Mutation habitats representing similar adaptations:
(2) Gene recombination (1) Divergent evolution
(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Gene flow
(3) Parallel evolution
(4) All of the above
(4) Adaptive radiation
172. According to Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium: 177. Identify the correct match from column I and
(1) Frequency of dominant allele in a population column II:
remains constant and equals to 1
Column I Column II
(2) Frequency of dominant and recessive alleles
(A) Origin of species I Malthus
remains constant and equals to 0
(3) Allele frequencies remain constant from (B) Origin of Life II Stebbins
generation to generation (C) Process of organic III Darwin
evolution
(4) The sum of all the allele frequencies in a
population equals to 1 (D) Principles of IV Oparin
173. During post industrialization period in England, populations
number of melanic moths:
(1) Increased due to more selection advantage Options:
over white moths in polluted area (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) Decreased due to less selection advantage over (2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
white moths in polluted area (3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) Become equal to the numbers of white moths (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) Frequency of appearance of melanic moths is 178. Modern human arose in:
not affected by pollution (1) East and central Asia
174. What isn’t true about evolution: (2) Africa
(3) Australia
(1) It is a stochastic process
(4) Europe
(2) It depends on chance events in nature
179. Identify the correct match for ancestors of human
(3) It depends on chance mutations in organisms and one of their feature:
(4) It is a directed process in the sense of (1) Ramapithecus – They lived around
determinism 2 million years ago
175. In a particular area, colour of rocks is dark and (2) Australopithecus – Hunted with stone but ate
the mice found in that area have different coat fruits
colour ranging from white to dark. Mice, in order (3) Homo erectus – Maximum cranial capacity
to protect themselves from predatory eagle, among all the human ancestors
camouflage with colour of rocks. Which type of (4) Homo habilis – Buried their deads
frequency curve is expected after natural selection 180. Some cave paintings by pre-historic humans can
in this case: be seen at:
(1) Directional (1) Bhimbetka caves
(2) Cyclic (2) Elephanta island caves
(3) Disruptive (3) Badami caves
(4) Stabilising (4) Ajanta and Ellora caves
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK