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9. Please do not fold the Answer Sheet and do not make any stray marks on it.
10. The candidate will not do any rough work on the Answer Sheet.
11. CHANGING AN ANSWER IS NOT ALLOWED.
12. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited
Ensure that your OMR Answer Sheet has been signed by the Invigilator and the candidate himself/ herself.
OMR
d2 y d2 y
1. If y = e–2x, then find 1. y = e–2x
dx 2 dx 2
e 2x e 2x
(1) 4e–2x (2) (1) 4e–2x (2)
4 4
(3) –4e–2x (4) e–2x (3) –4e–2x (4) e–2x
2. A ball of mass 500 gm, initially at rest, is acted 2.
upon by an impulsive force as shown
F (KN) F (KN)
N
4 4
t (ms) 20 20
t (ms)
maximum velocity gained by ball is equal to :-
:-
3.
E
(1) 20 m/s
(3) 60 m/s
(2) 40 m/s
(4) 80 m/s
A ball of mass 1 kg bounces against the ground
as shown in figure. The approaching velocity
is 25 m/s and the velocity after hitting the
3.
(1) 20 m/s
(3) 60 m/s
(2) 40 m/s
(4) 80 m/s
1
25 m/s
LL
25
ground is m / s. The impulse exerted on the 25
3 m/s :-
3
ball is :-
y
y
1kg
1kg 25 m/s
25 m/s 25m/s
25m/s 3
3
A
60° 30° x
60° 30° x
(1) 7.8 N–s (2) 27.68 N–s (1) 7.8 N–s (2) 27.68 N–s
(3) 28.87 N–s (4) 62 N–s (3) 28.87 N–s (4) 62 N–s
4. Two liquids A and B are at 32°C and 24°C. When 4. 32°C 24°C
A B
mixed in equal masses the temperature of the
28°C
mixture is found to be 28°C. Their specific heats
are in the ratio of :
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 2 : 3
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 2 : 3
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 4 : 3 (3) 1 : 1 (4) 4 : 3
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5. A particle is executing SHM with time period T. 5.
T
Starting from mean position, time taken by it to 5
5 8
complete
8
oscillations, is :-
:-
T T 5T 7T T T 5T 7T
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
12 6 12 12 12 6 12 12
(1) 0 (2) rad (3) rad (4) rad (1) 0 (2) rad (3) rad (4) rad
3 2 3 2
7. Two blocks of masses of 40 kg and 30 kg are 7. 30
40
connected by a weightless string passing over a
frictionless pulley as shown in the figure.
N
(Pulley remains at rest)
8.
E
The acceleration of the system would be
(1) 0.7 ms–2
(3) 0.6 ms–2
(2) 0.8 ms–2
(4) 0.5 ms–2
A ball of mass 0.1 kg coming with speed 30 m/s 8.
(1) 0.7 ms–2
(3) 0.6 ms–2
0.1 kg
?
(2) 0.8 ms–2
(4) 0.5 ms–2
30 m/s
LL
strikes with a bat and returns in opposite 40 m/s
direction with speed 40 m/s, then the impulse
exerted on the ball is : (Taking final velocity as
positive)
(1) 7 N–s (2) 1 N–s (1) 7 N–s (2) 1 N–s
(3) 3 N–s (4) 4 N–s (3) 3 N–s (4) 4 N–s
9. If pressure of CO2 (real gas) in a container is given 9. CO 2
RT a RT a
by P = ; then mass of the gas in P= ;
2V b 4V2 2V b 4V2
A
container is :
(1) 11 g (2) 22 g (3) 33 g (4) 44 g (1) 11 g (2) 22 g (3) 33 g (4) 44 g
10. Two satellites S and S' revolve around the earth 10.
S S' 3R
6R
at distances 3R and 6R from the centre of the earth.
Their periods of revolution will be in the ratio :-
:-
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 (1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 1.5
(4) 1 : 20.67 (3) 1 : 21.5 (4) 1 : 20.67
11. Given that v is speed, r is the radius and g is the 11. v r
g
acceleration due to gravity. Which of the
following is dimensionless.
v2 v2 r v2 g v2 v2 r v2 g
(1) (2) (3) 2
(4) v rg (1) (2) (3) (4) v2rg
rg g r rg g r
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12. Which of the following is a self adjusting force? 12.
?
(1) Static friction (2) Rolling friction (1)
(2)
(3) Sliding friction (4) Dynamic friction (3) (4)
13. Two bodies having same mass 20 kg are moving 13.
20 kg
in opposite directions, one with a velocity of 10 m/s
5 m/s
10 m/s and the other with 5 m/s. If they collide
and move as one body, the velocity of the
combination is :-
:-
(1) 2.5 m/s (2) 5 m/s (1) 2.5 m/s (2) 5 m/s
(3) 7.5 m/s (4) 15 m/s (3) 7.5 m/s (4) 15 m/s
14. If the mean free path of atoms is doubled, then 14.
the pressure of gas will become :
P P P P P P
(1) (2) (3) (4) P (1) (2) (3) (4) P
N
4 2 8 4 2 8
15. The earth's radius is R and acceleration due to 15.
R
gravity at its surface is g. If a body of mass m is
g m
sent to a height of R/4 from the earth's surface, R/4
the potential energy increases by :-
:-
R R R R
16.
E
(1) mg
(3) mg
R
3
5
(2) mg
(4) 3mg
4
R
16
The mass and volume of a body are found to be
(5.000.05)kg and (1.00 0.05)m3 respectively.
16.
(1) mg
(3) mg
3
R
5
(2) mg
(4) 3mg
4
R
16
(5.000.05)kg
(1.00 0.05)m3
LL
Then the maximum possible percentage error in
its density is :- (1) 6% (2) 3%
(1) 6% (2) 3% (3) 10% (4) 5% (3) 10% (4) 5%
17. A body of mass 10 kg is acted upon by two 17. 10 kg
6 N 8 N
perpendicular forces, 6 N and 8 N. The resultant
acceleration of the body is
?
3
(1) 1 ms–2 at an angle of tan–1 w.r.t. 8 N force 3
4 (1) 8 N tan–1
1 ms–2
4
A
3
(2) 0.2 ms–2 at an angle of tan–1 w.r.t. 8 N 3
4 (2) 8 N tan –1
4
force –2
0.2 ms
4
(3) 1 ms–2 at an angle of tan–1 w.r.t. 8 N force 4
3 (3) 8 N tan–1
1 ms–2
3
4
(4) 0.2 ms–2 at an angle of tan–1 w.r.t. 8 N 4
3 (4) 8 N tan–1
0.2 ms–2
3
force
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18. Four solid spheres of diameter 2a and mass M are 18. 2a
M
placed with their centres on the four corners of b
a square of side b. Then the moment of inertia of
the system about an axis along one of the sides
of the square is:
4 8 4 8
(1) Ma2 + 2Mb2 (2) Ma2 + 2Mb2 (1) Ma2 + 2Mb2 (2) Ma2 + 2Mb2
5 5 5 5
8 4 8 4
(3) Ma2 (4) Ma2 + 4Mb2 (3) Ma2 Ma2 + 4Mb2
(4)
5 5 5 5
19. The diameter of rain-drop is 0.02 cm. If surface 19. 0.02 cm
tension of water be 72 × 10–3 newton per metre,
72 × 10–3 newton per metre
then the pressure difference of external and
:-
internal surfaces of the drop will be :-
(1) 1.44 × 104 dyne – cm–2
N
(1) 1.44 × 104 dyne – cm–2
(2) 1.44 × 104 newton – m–2 (2) 1.44 × 104 newton – m–2
(3) 1.44 × 103 dyne – cm–2 (3) 1.44 × 103 dyne – cm–2
(4) 1.44 × 105 newton – m–2 (4) 1.44 × 105 newton – m–2
20. The escape velocity of a body from the earth is 20.
u
u. What is the escape velocity from a planet whose
21.
E
mass and radius are twice those of the earth ?
(1) 2u (2) u (3) 4u (4) 16u
The v-t graph of particle moving along a straight
line is shown. The rate of acceleration and
deceleration is constant and 5 m/s2. If avrage
21.
(1) 2u
?
(2) u (3) 4u
5 m/s
2
(4) 16u
v-t
20 m/s
LL
velocity during motion is 20 m/s then what will
be maximum velocity of particls :- v(m/s)
v(m/s)
t 20 time(sec)
t 20 time(sec)
(1) 20 m/s (2) 25 m/s (1) 20 m/s (2) 25 m/s
A
30º 30º
B B
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23. Two rods OA and OB of equal length and mass 23.
OA OB
are lying on XY-plane as shown in figure. Let Ix, XY
Ix, Iy Iz , x, y
z-
Iy and Iz be the moments of inertia of both the rods
:-
about x, y and z-axis respectively. Then :-
y
y A B
A B
45º 45º
45º 45º x
x O
O
N
material of double radius and 6 m length will 6 m
require breaking weight :-
:-
(1) 80 kg-wt (2) 240 kg-wt (1) 80 kg-wt (2) 240 kg-wt
(3) 200 kg-wt (4) 160 kg-wt (3) 200 kg-wt (4) 160 kg-wt
25. The amplitude of a wave disturbance propagating 25.
y-
in the positive Y-direction is given by :- :-
y
E 1
1 x 2 at t = 0 and
y
1
[1 (x 1)2 ]
at t = 2 sec.
Where, x and y are in m. If the shape of the wave
disturbance does not change during the
propagation, what is the velocity of the wave?
t = 0 y
x
1
1 x 2
t = 2 sec y
1
[1 (x 1)2 ]
y
?
LL
(1) 1 m/sec (2) 5.5 m/sec (1) 1 m/sec (2) 5.5 m/sec
(3) 0.5 m/sec (4) 2 m/sec (3) 0.5 m/sec (4) 2 m/sec
26. A body is falling from a height of 100 m. the time 26. 100 m
50 m
taken for first 50 m is t1 and remaining 50 m is 50 m t2
t1
t2 then find ratio of t1 and t2. :- t1 t2
:-
1 1
(1) 2 1 (2) 1 (1) 2 1 (2) 1
2 2
1 1
(4) 1 –
A
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29. Under a constant pressure head, the rate of flow 29.
V
of liquid through a capillary tube is V. If the length
of the capillary is doubled and the diameter of the
:-
bore is halved, the rate of flow would become :- (1) V/4 (2) 16V
(1) V/4 (2) 16V (3) V/8 (4) V/32 (3) V/8 (4) V/32
30. Decibel is the unit of :- 30. Decibel :-
(1) intensity of light (1)
(2) X-ray radiation capacity (2) X-
(3) sound loudness (3)
(4) energy of radiation (4)
31. Horizontal Range and maximum height for a 31.
12 m
projectile are resepectively 12 m and 4 m. velocity 4 m :-
of projection is : -
1 g g 1 g
1 g g 1 g (1) 3 g (3) 5
N
(1) 3 g (2) (3) 5 (4) (2) (4)
3 2 2 5 2 2 3 2 2 5 2
2
32. A roller coaster is designed such that riders 32. 20 m
experiences "weightlessness" as they go round the
top of a hill whose radius of curvature is 20 m.
The speed of the car at the top of the hill is
E
between. (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 16 m/s and 17 m/s
(2) 13 m/s and 14 m/s
(3) 14 m/s and 15 m/s
(g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 16 m/s
17 m/s
(2) 13 m/s
(3) 14 m/s
14 m/s
15 m/s
LL
(4) 15 m/s and 16 m/s (4) 15 m/s
16 m/s
33. A constant torque acting on a uniform circular 33.
wheel changes its angular momentum from A 0 to A0 4A0 4 sec.
4A0 in 4 seconds. The magnitude of this torque
:-
is :-
(1) 3A0/4 (2) A0 (3) 4A0 (4) 12A0 (1) 3A0/4 (2) A0 (3) 4A0 (4) 12A0
34. A sample of metal weighs 210 gm in air, 180 gm 34.
210 gm,
in water and 120 gm in liquid. Then relative 180 gm
120 gm
density (RD) of :-
:-
(1)
3 (2)
7
A
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37. A gramophone record is revolving with an angular 37.
velocity . A coin is placed at a distance r from the
r
centre of the record. The static coefficient of friction
is µ. The coin will revolve with the record if :-
µ
:-
g g
(1) r (2) r g 2 (1) r (2) r g 2
2 2
2 g 2 g
(3) r < (4) r (3) r < (4) r
g 2 g 2
38. Four curves A, B, C and D are drawn as shown 38.
A, B, C
for a given amount of gas. The curves which D
represent adiabatic and isothermal change
respectively are :
P
P
N
C
C
B
B
D
D
A
A V
V
39.
E
(1) C and D
(3) A and B
(2) D and C
(4) B and A
Water is flowing through a tube of non-uniform
cross-section. Ratio of the radius at entry and exit
end of the pipe is 3 : 2. Then the ratio of velocities
39.
(1) C D
(3) A B
(2) D C
(4) B A
3 : 2
LL
at entry and exit of liquid is :-
:-
(1) 4 : 9 (2) 9 : 4 (3) 8 : 27 (4) 1 : 1 (1) 4 : 9 (2) 9 : 4 (3) 8 : 27 (4) 1 : 1
40. Two sources of sound placed close to each other, 40.
are emitting progressive waves given by
y1 = 4 sin 600t and y2 = 5sin 608t. An observer y1 = 4 sin 600t
y2 = 5sin 608t
located near these two sources of sound will hear:-
:-
(1) 8 beats per second with maximum and (1) 8
minimum intensity ratio 81 : 1
81 : 1
(2) 4 beats per second with maximum and (2) 4
minimum intensity ratio 81 : 1 81 : 1
A
(3) 4 beats per second with maximum and (3) 4
minimum intensity ratio 25 : 16
25 : 16
(4) 8 beats per second with maximum and (4) 8
minimum intensity ratio 25 : 16 25 : 16
41. Displacement of a body is given by 4S = M +2Nt4 41.
4S = M +2Nt4
where M and N are constants. velocity at the end
M N 1
of 1 second from start is :- :-
M 2N M 2N
(1) 2N (2) (1) 2N (2)
4 4
(3) 2(M + N) (4) N (3) 2(M + N) (4) N
Key
Filling
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42. The mass per unit length of a non-uniform rod of 42. L
length L varies as m = x where is constant. The m = x
centre of mass of the rod will be at if rod is placed
x-
along +ve x-axis with one end at origin :-
2L 3L L 4L 2L 3L L 4L
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
3 2 2 3 3 2 2 3
43. Cyclic process ABCA is shown in V-T diagram. 43.
ABCA V-T
Process on the P-V diagram is : P-V
V V
C B C B
N
A A
T T
P P P P
C B C B
(3)
EP
A
A B
B
V
(4)
P
A
A
C
V
(3)
P
A
A
B
B
V
(4)
P
A
A
C
V
LL
C C B C C B
V V V
V
44. The period of a simple pendulum, whose bob is 44.
a hollow metallic sphere, is T. The period is T1
T
when the bob is filled with sand, T2 when it is filled
T1
with mercury and T3 when it is half filled with T2 T3
T T1 T2 T3 T T1 T2 T3
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ALL INDIA OPEN TEST /NURTURE/Pre-Medical /NEET-UG
46. Correct structure of 46. 2-
-3-
-2-
:-
2-chloro-3-ethylbut-2-enedial is :-
O O
O O Cl Cl
Cl Cl H H
H H
(1) H (2) OH
(1) H (2) OH
O O
O O
O O O O
Cl Cl
H H H H
(3) H (4) H (3) H (4) H
O Cl O O Cl O
N
47. 47. :-
Peroxide Peroxide
(3)
E Cl (4)
Cl
(3)
Cl (4)
Cl
LL
48. Increasing order of electron gain enthalpy is: 48. :
(1) N < O < Cl < Al (1) N < O < Cl < Al
(2) O < N < Al < Cl (2) O < N < Al < Cl
(3) N < Al < O < Cl (3) N < Al < O < Cl
(4) Cl < N < O < Al (4) Cl < N < O < Al
49. C60 contains : 49.
C60 :
(1) 20 pentagons and 12 hexagons
(1) 20
12
(2) 12 pentagons and 20 hexagons
(2) 12
20
(3) 30
30
A
Br Br
(1) Br (2) (1) Br (2)
N
Br Br
(3) Br (4) (3) Br (4)
53. Which one is linear but not having 180° bond 53.
180°
angle :-
:-
(1) C2H 2 (2) HCN (1) C2H 2 (2) HCN
54.
E
(3) IC
propyne on hydrolysis :
(1) CaC2
(4) CS 2
Which of the following carbides will give
(2) Be2 C
54.
(3) IC
(1) CaC2
:
(4) CS 2
(2) Be2 C
LL
(3) Al4 C3 (4) Mg2C 3 (3) Al4 C3 (4) Mg2C 3
55. ‘A’ sample of [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ]SO 4 contains 55. [Cu(NH3)4]SO4
2.4 × 1024
2.4 × 1024 ammonia molecules. The moles of
[Cu(NH3)4]SO4
[Cu(NH3)4]SO4 in given sample will be–
(1) 6 × 1023 (2) 4
(1) 6 × 1023 (2) 4
(3) 3 (4) 1
(3) 3 (4) 1
56. How many alkene form by C 5H10 (including 56. C5H10
(
stereo isomers) :- ) :-
(1) 3 (2) 4 (1) 3 (2) 4
A
O O
–
NH2NH2 / OH
–
NH2NH 2 / OH
57. cyclohexane 57.
glycol
:-
Reaction is called :-
(1) Clemmensen's Reduction
(1)
N
61. Which of the following compound is z but not 61. z
:-
cis :-
H H H F
H H H F C=C C=C
(1) (2)
(1) C=C (2) C=C D CH3 D H
D CH3 D H
(3)
E Cl
F
C=C
F
Cl
Red P
(4)
Cl
Br
C=C
F
Cl
(3)
Cl
F
C=C
F
Cl
Red P
(4)
Cl
Br
C=C
F
Cl
LL
A OH A
OH HI HI
62. 62.
O Electrolysis O
B B
NaOH NaOH
(3) Chain isomer (4) Position isomer (3) (4)
A
63. Which of following molecule '2' unpaired e– 63. '2' e–
'2'
with '2' value of bond order :-
:-
(1) B2 (2) N2 (1) B2 (2) N2
(3) O2–2
(4) O2 (3) O2–2 (4) O2
64. In Cu (Atomic no. – 29) :– 64. Cu (– 29)
:–
(1) 13 electrons have spin in one direction and
(1) 13
16
16 electrons in other direction.
(2) 14 electrons have spin in one direction and (2) 14 15
15 electrons in other direction.
(3) One electron can have spin only in (3)
clockwise direction.
(4) None of above is correct. (4)
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65. Number of mole of 1 m3 gas at NTP are :- 65. 1 m3 NTP
:-
(1) 44.6 (2) 40.6 (1) 44.6 (2) 40.6
(3) 42.6 (4) 48.6 (3) 42.6 (4) 48.6
66. Maximum pka for :- 66.
pka
:-
OH OH
OH OH
NO2 NO2
(1) (2) (1) (2)
NO2 NO2
OH OH
OH OH
N
C CH + C CH +
KMnO4/H Br2 KMnO4/H Br2
67.
A B 67. A B
FeBr3 FeBr3
B is :- B :-
(1)
E COOH
Br
(2)
COOH
Br
(1)
COOH
Br
(2)
COOH
Br
LL
CCH CCH
COOH COOH
–1
(3) ClO3 (4) XeF 2 (3) ClO3–1 (4) XeF 2
69. The total value of magnetic quantum number 69. n = 4
for n = 4 :-
(1) 9 (2) 16 (1) 9 (2) 16
(3) 12 (4) None of these (3) 12 (4)
70. The enthalpy change for transition of liquid 70.
water to steam is 3.73 KJ mol–1 at 373 K. Find 3.73 KJ mol–1 373 K S
S in J/mol K :- J/mol K
:-
(1) 100 J/mol K (2) 10 J/mol K (1) 100 J/mol K (2) 10 J/mol K
(3) 1000 J/mol K (4) None (3) 1000 J/mol K (4)
N
(3) sp3 (4) sp3d, T-
(3) sp3, pyramidal (4) sp3d, T-shape
74. Choose the pair of species in which O.N. of 74. N
nitrogen is same :- :-
(1) NO2–, N2O3 (2) NO3–, NO2 (1) NO2–, N2O3 (2) NO3–, NO2
(3) NO, N2O5 (4) None (3) NO, N2O5 (4)
75.
E
At 27°C, 1 mole of an ideal gas expand
in reversible and isothermally from 2 atm to 1
atm then H will be :-
(1) 1.73 KJ
(3) –1.73 KJ
(2) Zero
(4) 3.46 KJ
75.
(1) 1.73 KJ
(3) –1.73 KJ
300 K
2 atm 1 atm H :-
(2) Zero
(4) 3.46 KJ
LL
76. Which of the following nitrogen accept proton 76.
most easily :-
:-
a NH2 a NH2
N–H N–H
N c c
N
b b
(1) a (2) a and b equal (1) a (2) a
b
A
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79. If compressibility factor is greater then unity 79.
:-
then:- (1) Vm = 22.4 L (at NTP)
(1) Vm = 22.4 L (at NTP) (2) Vm > 22.4 L (at NTP)
(2) Vm > 22.4 L (at NTP)
(3) Vm < 22.4 L (at NTP)
(3) Vm < 22.4 L (at NTP)
(4) Vm = 11.2 L (at NTP) (4) Vm = 11.2 L (at NTP)
80. Choose the weakest and strongest acid :- 80.
:-
HA 1 (pK a = 1.2), HA 2 (pk a =4.2), HA 3 HA 1 (pK a = 1.2), HA 2 (pk a =4.2), HA 3
(pKa =6.8), HA4(pKa = 2.8) (pKa =6.8), HA4(pKa = 2.8)
(1) HA3, HA1 (1) HA3, HA1
(2) HA2,HA1 (2) HA2,HA1
(3) HA3, HA2 (3) HA3, HA2
(4) HA2, HA4 (4) HA2, HA4
N
NH E
NH E
81. Product, 81.
,
:-
O O
Product is :-
NH
(1)
E E
NH
NH
O
(1)
(2)
E
NH
O
O
LL
(2) O
E
E
NH
NH (3) O E
(3) O E
E E
NH NH
(4) O (4) O
A
82. Which of the following ion has the largest 82.
?
radius?
(1) Cl– (2) S2– (3) Na+ (4) F– (1) Cl– (2) S2– (3) Na+ (4) F–
83. Which one is softest metal :- 83.
:-
(1) Li (2) Na (1) Li (2) Na
(3) K (4) Be (3) K (4) Be
84. MnOΘ4 Br Θ H 2O
MnO2 BrO3Θ OH Θ 84. MnO2 BrOΘ3 OH Θ
MnOΘ4 Br Θ H 2O
In balanced reaction the coefficients of MnOΘ4 , BrOΘ3 OH
Θ
Θ
MnOΘ4 , BrOΘ3 and OH are respectively :- :-
(1) 1, 1, 2 (2) 2, 1, 4 (1) 1, 1, 2 (2) 2, 1, 4
(3) 2, 1, 2 (4) 1, 2, 2 (3) 2, 1, 2 (4) 1, 2, 2
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85. The ratio of dissociation constant of two weak 85.
HA
HB
acids HA and HB is 4. At what molar 4
concentration ratio, the two acids will have
pH
:-
same pH in separates solutions :-
(1) 2 (2) 0.5
(1) 2 (2) 0.5
(3) 4 (4) 0.25 (3) 4 (4) 0.25
86. Minimum dipole moment present in :- 86.
:-
Cl Cl Cl Cl
(1) (2) (1) (2)
Cl Cl Cl Cl
(3) (4) (3) (4)
N
87. The set representing the correct order of first 87.
ionization enthalpy is :
:
(1) K > Na > Li (2) Be > Mg > Ca (1) K > Na > Li (2) Be > Mg > Ca
(3) B > C > N (4) Ge > Si > C (3) B > C > N (4) Ge > Si > C
88. Select the incorrect statement :- 88.
:-
(1) Boric acid show intermolecular H-bond (1)
H-
E
(2) Boric acid is weak lewis acid
2
(3) In borax two boron atom sp Hybridised
and next two boron atom sp3 hybridised
(4) Boric acid is a monoprotic acid
(2)
(3)
sp2
sp3
(4)
LL
89. For the reaction 89.
SnO2(s) + 2H2(g) 2H2O(g) + Sn(l) SnO2(s) + 2H2(g) 2H2O(g) + Sn(l)
90. 0.1M CH3COOH is titrated against 0.1M NaOH. 90. 0.1M CH3COOH 0.1M NaOH
What would be the difference in pH between
1/4
3/4
1/4 and 3/4 stages of neutralisation of acid :- pH
:-
3 1 3 1
(1) 2 log (2) 2 log (1) 2 log (2) 2 log
4 4 4 4
8 8
(3) log (4) 2log 3 (3) log (4) 2log 3
3 3
N
given diagrame?
E
(1) Main component within plant organ
(2) Dead mechanical tissue
(3) Living mechanical tissue
(4) Conducting tissue in bryophytes
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
LL
95. In chloroplast, chlorophyll is present in :- 95.
:-
(1) Outer membrane (2) Inner membrane (1) (2)
(3) Thylakoids (4) Stroma (3)
(4)
96. The most common substrate of respiration is :- 96.
:-
(1) Fats (2) Protein (1) (2)
(3) Amino acid (4) Carbohydrate (3) (4)
97. End product of fermentation are :- 97.
:-
(1) C2H5OH & O2 (1) C2H5OH & O2
A
N
(3) Euglenoid (4) Dinoflagellate (3) (4)
102. Cell that are found only in phylum porifera :- 102.
:-
(1) Choanocyte (2) Lasso cell (1) (2)
(3) Chondrocyte (4) Solenocyte (3)
(4)
103. Which of the following is largest WBC? 103.
WBC
(1) Lymphocyte (2) Neutrophil (1)
(2)
104.
E
(3) Monocyte (4) Plasma cell
If sap wood is remove from stem then which of
following function is mostly affected?
(1) secondary growth (2) support
(3) gaseous exchange (4) conduction
104.
(3)
(1)
(3)
(2)
(4)
(4)
LL
105. Hetrophagosomes are :- 105. :-
(1) Primary lysosome (1)
(2) Secondary lysosome (2)
(3) Tertiary lysosome (3)
(4) Autophagic vacuole (4)
106. Anaerobic respiration takes place in :- 106.
(1) Cytoplasm (2) Mitochondria (1) (2)
(3) Chloroplast (4) Mitochondria matrix (3)
(4)
107. One gram mole of glucose on complete oxidation 107.
1 CO 2 H 2O
A
N
(3) Trygon (4) Torpedo
113. Which of the following tissue has limited role in 113.
absorption and secretion.
(1) Simple columner (2) Simple squamous (1) (2)
(3) Compound epithelium (4) Simple cuboidal (3) (4)
114. Select the correct option for Bulliform cells or 114.
E
motor cells?
(1) Increase the rate of photosynthesis
(2) Xerophytic adaptation
(3) Mechanical support
(4) Help in vegetative propagation
(1)
(2)
(3)
?
(4)
LL
115. Centromere is required for :- 115.
:-
(1) Replication of DNA (1) DNA
(2) Chromosome sagregation
(2)
(3) Poleward movement of chromosome
(3)
(4) Cytoplasmic cleavage (4)
116. The number of ATP molecule produced during 116.
ATP
aerobic and anaerobic respiration are respectively:-
(1) 2 and 38 (2) 36 and 2 (1) 2 38 (2) 36 2
(3) 2 (4) 36
A
N
(1) Anthers (2) Stamens (1) (2)
(3) Microsporophylls (4) Megasporophylls (3)
(4)
122. Which one of the following feature is not present 122.
in the phylum arthropoda?
(1) Metameric segmentation (1)
E
(2) Parapodia
(3) Jointed appendages
(4) Chitinous exoskeleton
123. Which cell is called "bone forming cell"? 123.
(2)
(4)
(3)
"Bone forming cell"
LL
(1) Osteoblast (2) Leukocyte (1) (2)
(3) Osteocyte (4) Chondroblast (3) (4)
124. How many meristem in the list given below are 124.
primary meristem? ?
apical meristem, intercalary meristem, marginal ,
,
,
meristem, inter-fascicular cambium, intra-fascicular , , ,
cambium, vascular cambium, cork cambium
(1) Five (2) Four (1) (2)
(3) (4)
A
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ALL INDIA OPEN TEST /NURTURE/Pre-Medical /NEET-UG
128. Which one of the following statements is true 128.
regarding digestion and absorption of food in human?
?
(1) About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by (1) 60%
salivary amylase in our mouth
(2) Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the (2)
proenzyme pepsinogen
(3) Dipeptides are products of action of trypsin
(3)
on proteins, peptons and proteoses
(4) Bile doesn't contains digestive enzymes
(4)
129. Which points are not correct about angiotensin-II? 129.
-II
(A) Decreases the glomerular blood pressure
(A)
(B)
N
(B) Activates the adrenal cortex to release
aldosterone
(C) Powerful vasconstrictor (C)
(D) Decreases the GFR (D) GFR
(E) Activates the J.G. cells to release renin
(E) J.G. cells
E
(1) A, B, C
(3) C, D, E
(2) A, D, E
(4) B, C, E
130. In the below given diagrams name the part shown
by "a" :-
(1) A, B, C
(3) C, D, E
130.
(2) A, D, E
"a"
(4) B, C, E
LL
a
a
A
(3) I and IV (4) II, III and IV (3) I IV (4) II, III IV
133. Matrix of bone is :- 133.
(1) Pliable (2) Non-pliable (1) Pliable (2) Non-pliable
(3) Resist comression (4) 1 and 3 (3) Resist comression (4) 1 3
N
134. Select the correct option for a plant group which 134.
have modified adventitious roots?
?
(1) Grass, Wheat, Mustard (1)
,
,
(2) Carrot, Grass, Mustard (2) ,
,
(3)
, ,
E
(3) Grass, Banyan, Monstera
(4) Banyan, Maize, Mustard
135. Read the following statements. Find out how
many statements are correct :-
(A) The main arena of various types of activities
(4) ,
:-
(A)
,
135.
LL
of a cell is cytoplasm
(B) Lysosome is called suicidal bags of cell (B)
(C) Cell wall is dead and permeable
(C)
(D) Cell membrane is selectively impermiable
(D)
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
136. The energy produced during respiration is stores in:- 136.
:-
(1) Pyruvic acid (2) CO2
(1) (2) CO2
A
N
Reason for these change/movement are :-
(1) Contraction of diaphragm and relaxation of (1)
EICM
EICM
(2) EICM
(2) Relaxation of diaphragm and contration of EICM
E
(3) Contraction of diaphragm & EICM both
(3)
EICM
(4) Relaxation of diaphragm & EICM both (4) EICM
139. Conditional reabsorption of Naand water takes 139. Na
place in :-
:-
(1) PCT (2) DCT (1) PCT (2) DCT
LL
(3) Henle's loop (4) Bowman's capsule
(3)
(4)
140. Find out the correct match between column-I and 140.
I II
II.
:-
A B C D E A B C D E
(1) (i) (iv) (v) (iii) (ii) (1) (i) (iv) (v) (iii) (ii)
(2) (v) (vi) (iii) (ii) (vii) (2) (v) (vi) (iii) (ii) (vii)
(3) (v) (i) (iii) (ii) (vii) (3) (v) (i) (iii) (ii) (vii)
(4) (v) (vi) (iii) (i) (vii) (4) (v) (vi) (iii) (i) (vii)
N
B Aedes ii Honey bee B ii
C Lac insect iii Laccifer C iii
D Silkworm iv Bombyx D iv
A B C D
(1)
(2)
(3)
E A
ii
ii
i
B
i
ii
i
C
iii
iii
iv
D
iv
iv
iii
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
ii
i
ii
iv
i
ii
i
iii
iii
iii
iv
i
iv
iv
iii
ii
LL
(4) iv iii i ii
B B
N
D D
(1) A–Head, B–LMM, C–GTP binding site D–HMM (1) A– , B–LMM, C–GTP D–HMM
(2) A–Head, B–Cross arm, C–Ca+2 binding site, (2) A– , B– +2
C–Ca binding site,
D–LMM D–LMM
(3) A–Actin binding site, B–Cross arm, (3) A– B–
C–ATP binding site, D–LMM C–ATP D–LMM
E
(4) A–Myosin binding site, B–Cross arm,
C–ATP binding site, D–LMM
150. How many function in which cerebrum is
involved? processing of vision, hearing , balance,
speech, memory, intelligence, emotion, peristalsis:-
(4) A–
C–ATP
, B–
, D–LMM
,
150.
:-
LL
(1) Six (2) Four (3) Three (4) Five (1) (2) (3) (4)
151. Which of the following options correctly 151.
identifies the plant shown in figure and the group
it belongs to :
A
(1)
(1) Selaginella Pteridophyte (2)
(2) Sphagnum Moss
(3)
(3) Sphagnum Liverwort
(4) Funaria Moss
(4)
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152. Birds and mammals share one of the following
152.
characteristics as a common feature.
(1) Pigmented skin
(1)
(2) Pneumatic bone
(2)
(3) Viviparity (3)
(4) Warm blooded body (4)
153. Main excretory organ of periplanata is :- 153.
(1) Malpighian tubule (2) Keber's organ (1) (2)
(3) Nephridia (4) Antennary gland (3) (4)
154. Which one of the following options gives the 154. (six)
correct catergorisation of six plants according to
(a, b, c)
the type of Aestivation (a, b, c). they gives out
N
Valvate Twisted Imbricate
(a) (b) (c) (a) (b) (c)
(1)
(1) Mustard, Cotton, Cassia,
China rose Onion Gulmohur
(2) Cassia, Gulmohur, Chinarose, (2)
(3)
(4)
E Mustard
Mustard,
China rose
Mustard,
Onion
Onion
Cotton,
Cassia
Cotton,
Chinarose
Cotton
Onion,
Gulmohur
Cassia,
Gulmohur
(3)
(4)
LL
155. Hexacosyl palmitate is a chemical name of :- 155.
:-
(1) Ear wax (2) Carnauba wax (1)
(2)
(3) Bees wax (4) Spermaceti wax
(3)
(4)
156. Which of the following is the key intermediate 156.
compound linking glycolysis to kereb's cycle :-
(1) Malic acid (2) Pyruvic acid (1)
(2)
(3) Acetyl CoA (4) ATP (3) CoA (4) ATP
157.
A
Stimulates the movement of synaptic vescicles
filled with neurotransmitter (B) (B)
N
post synaptic membrane
A B C D A B C D
1 Axon Acetyl K+ channel Inhibitory ,Dtksu ,lhVkbydksyhuK + psuy laned
1
Terminale choline VfeZuy
2 Axon GABA Cl– channel ,Dtksu GABA Cl psuy
–
laned
E
Terminale
3 Ranvier's GABA Cl– channel
node
4 Axon
hillock
Acetyl Na+ channel
choline
Inhibitory
Inhibitory
Excitatory
2
4
VfeZuy
jsufo;j dk
uksM
,Dtksu
fgyksd
GABA Cl psuy
–
,lhVkbydksyhuNa+ psuy mÙ
laned
kstd
LL
161. The sporophytic phase in funaria is well developed 161.
and composed of :
(1) Capsule only (1)
(2) Spore Sac (2)
162. Body cavity is the cavity present between body 162.
wall and gut wall. In some animal body cavity is
not lined by mesoderm. Such animals are called
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ALL INDIA OPEN TEST /NURTURE/Pre-Medical /NEET-UG
163. 163.
a a
c c
b b
Identify a, b, c from above diagram a, b, c
(1) a = maxilla, b = labium, c = labrum (1) a =
, b = , c =
(2) a = mandible, b = maxilla, c = labrum , b =
(2) a = , c =
(3) a = mandible, b = labrum, c = maxilla , b =
(3) a =
, c =
(4) a = maxilla, b = labium, c = mandible , b = , c =
(4) a =
164. Zygomorphic polypetalous corolla is a character of. 164.
N
(1) Pea (2) Mustard
?
(1) (2)
(3) Sun-flower (4) Wheat
(3) (4)
165. A Riboside is :- :-
165.
(1) Ribose + Phosphate + Base (1)
+
+
E
(2) Ribose + Base
(3)+
(3) Starch
(3)
(4) Fructose (4)
168. Role of (A) in the regulation of respiratory rythm 168. (A)
is quite insignificant (A) is :-
(A)
(1) Pneumotaxic centre (1)
(2) H+ (2) H+
(3) CO2 (3) CO2
(4) O2 (4) O2
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ALL INDIA OPEN TEST /NURTURE/Pre-Medical /NEET-UG
169. During muscular contraction which of the 169.
following event does not occur ?
?
(a) H-zone disappears (a) H-
(b) I-band reduces (b) I-
(c) A-band widens (c) A-
(d) Z-lines come closer
(d) Z-
(1) a, b and c (2) a, c and d (1) a, b
c (2) a, c
d
(3) c and d (4) c only (3) c d (4) c
170. Find the correct match from the following table
170.
N
(iii) Ampulla Semi circuler Kinetic (iii)
canal balance
(i) and (iii)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
171.
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ALL INDIA OPEN TEST /NURTURE/Pre-Medical /NEET-UG
174. Identify the correct floral formula of petunia plant? 174.
?
N
(3) Aspartic acid
(4) Glutamic Acid
(4)
176. Each molecule FADH2 result in production of how 176.
FADH2
ATP
many ATP molecule during aerobic respiration ?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 6
E (4) 4
177. Which one of the following is /are example of anti
transpirants?
(1) PMA
(3) 6
177.
(1) PMA
table :-
LrEHk
-I LrEHk
-II LrEHk
-III
Column-I Column-II Column-III
(i) C1
(i) Atlas C1 Centrum absent
(ii) Humerus elbow joint Olecranon (ii)
fossa
(iii)
(iii) Ribs Bicephalic lumber vertebra
(iv) 5
(iv) Coccyx 5 fused vestigeal
vertebra structure
(1) Only i correct (2) i & ii correct (1) i (2) i ii
(3) ii & iii correct (4) all are correct (3) ii iii (4)
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ALL INDIA OPEN TEST /NURTURE/Pre-Medical /NEET-UG
180. Which of the following is correct w.r.t differences 180.
between rod cells and cone cells of our retina:-
:-
'kykdk 'kadq
Rod cells Cone cells
(1)
(1) Distribution More Evenly
concentrated distributed all
in centre of over retina
retina
(2) Visual acuity High low (2)
(3) Visual Iodopsin rhodopsin
(3)
pigment
(4) Over all Vision in color vision (4)
function poor light in bright light
N
Your moral duty is to prove that
is
E
LL
Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation
A
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ALL INDIA OPEN TEST /NURTURE/Pre-Medical /NEET-UG
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /
E N
LL
A
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