CSS-01 Physics

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CSS-01
PHYSICS
Q.2 (Units and Measurement) Q.23 (Motion in a plane)
1. Which of the following set cannot be taken 1. In two dimensional motion, acceleration is
as fundamental quantities in any system of uniform then which of the following is
units. necessarily true?
(1) Length, mass, velocity (1) The speed of the particle may be
(2) Length, time, momentum constant
(3) Mass time, acceleration (2) The particle may be undergoing circular
motion
(4) Mass, Acceleration, Force
(3) The speed of the particle may increase
2. If energy (E), velocity(v) and time (T) are
for a given time internal
taken as fundamental quantities then the
dimensional formula of momentum will be (4) The speed of the particle must increase
continuously
(1) [Ev–1T]
(2) [EvT] 2. In two dimensional motion of a particle,
equal distance is covered in equal time
(3) [Ev–1T°] interval, then which of the following is
(4) [E2v–1T°] correct.
3. If the unit of energy is 1 kilo joule, the length (1) The acceleration of the particle is
is 1 km and time is 100 second, then the unit necessarily zero
of mass will be
(2) The acceleration of the particle must be
1 uniform
(1) kg (2) 10 kg
10 (3) The acceleration of the particle may be
non uniform
1
(3) 1000 kg (4) kg
100 (4) The acceleration of the particle must be
perpendicular to the velocity
4. If the unit of length is quadrupled and the
unit of velocity and force are doubled then 3. The initial velocity of a particle is
which of the following is correct change in perpendicular to uniform acceleration. The
the other units? particle fallows

(1) Unit of energy is doubled (1) A straight line path

(2) Unit of momentum is doubled (2) A parabolic path

(3) Unit of mass is doubled (3) A circular path

(4) Unit of time is halved (4) An elliptical path

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CSS-01 Physics

4. A particle is moving with an acceleration (2) Non-uniform circular motion with

( )
a = 2iˆ – 4 jˆ m/s2. If initial velocity of increasing speed

u = ( iˆ – 2 ˆj )
(3) Non-uniform circular motion with
particle m/s, then the particle decreasing speed
follows (4) Non-uniform circular motion with
(1) A straight line path uniform acceleration
(2) A parabolic path Q.5. (Unit Conversion)
(3) A circular path 1. If acceleration due to gravity is 10 ms–2 and
(4) An elliptical path units of length and time are changed in
kilometer and hour respectively, the
Q.30 Motion in plane
numerical value of acceleration is
1. The position vector of a particle is given by
(1) 76,000 (2) 129600
r = 2sin ( t ) iˆ + 2cos ( t ) jˆ . Where r is in
(3) 35, 460 (4) 72136
metre and t is in second. Select the incorrect
option 2. In a new system of units called star unit 1
(1) The acceleration of the particle is non second = 1 minute, 1 m = 1 km, 1 kg = 10
uniform kg. What will value of 1 J of energy in the
(2) The acceleration of the particle is new system.
perpendicular to the plane of motion (1) 3.6 × 10–4 (2) 2.7 × 10–3
(3) Particle must be undergoing uniform (3) 4.8 × 10–4 (4) 3.4 × 10–4
circular motion
3. If the unit of force were kilo newton, that of
(4) The speed of the particle is 2 m/s
time millisecond and that of power kilowatt,
2. A particle is undergoing uniform circular the units of mass and length are
motion. If the velocity vector at any instant
( )
is given by v = 2iˆ – 3 jˆ + 4kˆ m/s, then the
(1) 1 kg, 10–2 m (2) 10 kg, 10–3 m
(3) 4 kg, 10–3 m (4) 1 kg, 10–3 m
acceleration of the particle at the same
instant may be 4. When one meter, one Kg and minute are

( )
(1) iˆ + jˆ + kˆ m/s2 ( )
(2) iˆ – ˆj + 2kˆ m/s2
taken as fundamental units, magnitude of
force is 36 units. What is value of this force
(3) ( iˆ + 2 jˆ – kˆ ) m/s2 (4) ( iˆ + 2 jˆ + kˆ ) m/s 2 in cgs units.
(1) 103 dyne (2) 10– 4 dyne
3. A particle is moving in X-Y plane. Its position
vector is given by r = 2tiˆ + 3t – 6t 2 jˆ , ( ) (3) 102 dyne (4) 105 dyne
5. If the unit of force is 1 KN, unit of length 1
where t is time. The path followed by the
particle is km and unit of time is 100 s, what will be unit
of mass?
(1) Straight Line
(2) Parabolic (1) 103 kg (2) 10 4 kg

(3) Circular (3) 102 kg (4) 10 kg

(4) Elliptical Q.12. (Dimensional Formula)
4. A particle is moving along the circular path. 1. The dimensions of angular momentum is
the velocity at any instant is given by same as that of
( )
v = 2iˆ – 2 3 ˆj m/s and the acceleration at (1) Gravitational constant
the same instant is given as a = – ˆj . The (2) Force constant
particle is undergoing (3) Plank constant
(1) Uniform circular motion (4) Rydberg constant

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CSS-01 Physics

2. Dimensions of moment of momentum is (3) Displacement positive, acceleration

same as that of positive and velocity negative
(1) Work (4) Displacement positive, velocity positive
and acceleration negative
(2) Mechanical energy
3. From top of a tower a stone is fired vertically
(3) Impulse
upwards. Taking upward direction as
(4) Both (1) and (2) positive, when stone is ascending, which of
3. A physical quantity b = g where  is the following statement is correct.
wavelength and g is acceleration due to (1) Velocity positive, acceleration positive
gravity the dimension of b are same as that (2) Velocity negative, acceleration positive
of given below. (3) Velocity positive, acceleration negative
(4) Displacement positive, acceleration
(1) Acceleration
positive
(2) Force 4. From a multistorey building a lift is coming
(3) Momentum down and retarding. Taking ground as origin
(4) Relative velocity and upward direction as positive. Then the
4. The dimensions of modulus of rigidity is correct option is
same as that of (1) Position vector positive , velocity
(1) Young’s modulus positive
(2) Specific gravity (2) Position vector positive, acceleration
(3) Strain negative
(4) Specific heat (3) Velocity negative, acceleration negative
5. The dimensions of Boltzmann’s constant are (4) Position vector positive, acceleration
same as that of positive
(1) Pressure density 5. A stone was projected upwards from ground
(2) Planck’s constant but at some instant of time, it is returning
(3) Stefan’s constant back. Taking ground as origin and upwards
(4) Entropy direction as positive, at that instant, the
Q.14. (Direction of Kinematic Vectors) correct option is
1. A car moving towards west and is (1) Displacement negative, velocity
accelerating. Its speed increases every negative, acceleration positive
(2) Position vector negative, velocity
moment then taking east as positive x-axis,
positive, acceleration negative
which of the followings is a correct option
(3) Position vector positive, velocity and
(1) Displacement positive, acceleration acceleration positive
positive, velocity negative (4) Position vector positive, velocity
(2) Displacement negative, velocity negative, acceleration negative
positive, acceleration positive Q.39. (Collision in air)
(3) Displacement negative, velocity
1. A projectile is fired aiming a ball at point A at
negative, acceleration negative
angle of q = 37° with horizontal from point O.
(4) Displacement negative, velocity
negative, acceleration positive simultaneously ball is released and both hits
2. A lift is moving upwards and is going to stop. ground at same instant. What is initial speed
Taking ground as origin and upwards of projectile
direction as positive. Which of the following
option is correct.
(1) Displacement negative, velocity positive
and acceleration zero.
(2) Displacement negative, velocity
negative and acceleration negative (1) 20 ms–1 (2) 25 ms–1
(3) 30 ms–1 (4) 35 ms–1

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CSS-01 Physics

2. A plane is flying horizontally 300 m above Q.21. (Stopping Distance)

ground. When it crosses a target on ground, 1. A car is moving with a constant speed u.
an anti aircraft shot is released at angle 60° The driver of car sees the red light at the
to horizontal with speed of 900 ms–1 from intersection. If the reaction time of driver is
target point. If shot hits the plane, what is t0, then distance travelled by the car before
horizontal uniform speed of the plane. the driver applies the brakes to produce a
(1) 300 ms–1 (2) 600 ms–1 constant retardation α, will be
(3) 450 ms–1 (4) 900 ms–1 ut0
3. Two projectiles A and B are thrown (1) ut0 (2)
2
simultaneously at speed 60 ms–1 and 90 ms– 2
1 respectively as shown in figure. u u2
(3) (4)
If collision occurs in mid air. Then angle  is 2 
equal to 2. In above question, the total distance
travelled by the car before stopping, after
seeing the red light, will be
u2 u2
(1) (2) ut0 +
2 
u2
(3) ut0 + (4) ut0
2
3. In question(1), the plot which describes the
motion is
(1) cos–1   (2) cos–1  
8 5
 15   17 
(1)
(3) sin –1  (4) cos –1 
5 15
 17   17 
4. From top and bottom of a building of height
100 meter, two balls are fired. From top it is
fired horizontally at 20 ms–1 and from bottom
at 40 ms–1 at 60° to horizontal. At what
height above the ground collision will occur.
(g = 10 ms–2) (2)
(1) 58.4 m (2) 41.6 m
(3) 50.0 m (4) 78.4 m
5. Two objects are fired from bottom and top of
a tower simultaneously with speed of 40 ms–
1 and 30 ms–1 as shown. The one from

ground is fired at 60° horizontal. At what

angle is second object from top fired if they
collide in air. (3)

(4)
(1)  = tan–1 ( 2 / 3)
(2)  = cos–1 (1/ 3)
(3)  = cos–1 ( 2 / 3)
(4)  = tan–1 (1/ 3)

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CSS-01 Physics

4. A car is moving with speed 36 km/h. The

driver sees a red light at the intersection and
he applied the brakes to stop the car. If
before application of brakes, the car moves (4)
5 m, then reaction time of the driver is
(1) 1 s (2) 1.5 s
(3) 2 s (4) 0.5 s
Q.32 (Motion under gravity)
3. A particle is projected horizontally with
1. A ball is thrown horizontally with velocity u,
from the top of the tower of height h. The velocity gh from top of a building of height
velocity of ball at a height h1 from the ground h
h. The velocity of the particle at height
is 4
will be
(1) 2gh1 (2) u 2 + 2gh1
(1) 2gh (2) 2.5gh
(3) u 2 + 2g ( h – h1 ) (4) 2g ( h – h1 )

2. A particle is allowed to fall from rest from (3) 5gh (4) 3gh
height h. Choose the correct plot for velocity
4. A ball is projected horizontally from top of a
time graph
tower as shown in figure. The velocity of
particle when it is at height 15 m above the
ground will be

(1)

(1) 4 m/s (2) 306 m/s

(2) (3) 11 m/s (4) 12 m/s

Q.44 (Relative velocity in 2 - D)

1. A flag is mounted on the top of a car at rest.

Choose the correct statement.

(1) The flag will never flutter

(2) The flag will flutter in direction of wind

(if blowing)
(3)
(3) If car will move, then flag will flutter in
direction of car.

(4) If car is moving , then flag will flutter in

direction opposite to motion of car even
if wind is blowing in any direction.

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CSS-01 Physics

2. A flag is mounted on the top of a car which (1) 30° (2) 60°
is moving in east direction. Wind is blowing
(3) 45° (4) 53°
in north direction the direction in which flag
will flutter is (Consider speed of car and 4. A flag is mounted on a car which is moving
wind are same) with velocity ( 2iˆ + 2 jˆ ) m/s. Wind is also
(1) North - East (2) North - West flowing with velocity ( 2iˆ ) m/s. The direction
(3) West (4) North in which flag will flutter, will be.( Consider
3. A boy is standing on a road & he feels that East in positive x-direction and North in
rain is hitting him with a speed of 5 m/s positive y-direction)
vertically downwards. If he starts running on (1) East (2) West
the road with speed of 5 m/s then at what
angle he has to kept his umbrella so that he (3) North (4) South
should not get drenched?

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-01
PHYSICS
Q.2 (Units and measurement) Q.14. (Direction of Kinematic Vectors)
1. (4) 1. (3)
2. (3) 2. (4)
3. (2) 3. (3)
4. (3) 4. (4)
Q.23 (Motion in a plane) 5. (4)
1. (3) Q.39. (Collision in air)
2. (4) 1. (2)
3. (2) 2. (3)
4. (1) 3. (1)
Q.30 (Motion in a plane) 4. (1)
1. (2) 5. (3)
2. (4) Q.21 (Stopping Distance)
3. (2) 1. (1)
4. (2) 2. (3)
Q.5. (Unit Conversion) 3. (2)
1. (2) 4. (4)
2. (1) Q.32 (Motion under gravity)
3. (4) 1. (3)
4. (1) 2. (3)
5. (2) 3. (2)
Q.12. (Dimensional Formula) 4. (3)
1. (3) Q.44 (Relative velocity in 2 - D)
2. (4) 1. (2)
3. (4) 2. (2)
4. (1) 3. (3)
5. (4) 4. (4)

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-01
CHEMISTRY
Q.57. (H-Bonding) (1) NH3 (2) HF
1. Which phenomenon is responsible for the higher (3) H2O (4) CH3OCH3
stability of Gauche form of ethylene glycol? Q.75. (Valence shell electron pair repulsion theory)

(1) Covalent bonding (2) Hydrogen bonding 1. Number of bonding pairs (X) and lone pairs (Y)

(3) Torsional strain (4) Free rotation around the central atom in the I3– ion are

2. Intramolecular hydrogen bond(s) is/are observed (1) X = 2, Y = 2 (2) X = 2, Y = 3

in (3) X = 3, Y = 2 (4) X = 4, Y = 3
2. Number of lone pairs around phosphorous in PCl5,
PCl+4 , and PCl6– are respectively
(1) (2) (1) 1, 2 and 3 (2) 0, 2 and 3
(3) 0, 1 and 2 (4) 0, 0 and 0
3. Which of the following structures of molecule is
expected to have three bond pairs and one lone
(3) (4) All of these
pair of electrons around central atom?
(1) Trigonal planar (2) Tetrahedral
3. Find out the incorrect statement about water
(3) T-shape (4) Pyramidal
(1) Water is oxidized to oxygen during
4. Which of the following molecules possess 3 bond
photosynthesis
pairs and 2 lone pairs of electrons in the valence
(2) Extensive intramolecular hydrogen bonding is
shell of central atom?
observed in condensed phase of water (1) BF3 (2) PCl3
(3) Ice formed by heavy water sinks in normal (3) ClF3 (4) XeO3
water 5. –
In NO ion, the number of bond pairs of electrons
3

(4) Maximum number of hydrogen bonds formed around nitrogen atom are
by a water molecule is four (1) 4 (2) 3
4. Pick the phenomena in which hydrogen bonds play (3) 2 (4) 1
a key role Q.91. (Ionic, covalent and coordinate bonds)
(a) Ice floats over water 1. Both ionic and covalent bonds are present in
(b) Dimerisation of acetic acid in organic solvents (1) NaBr (2) Ba(CN)2
(3) PCl3 (4) H2O
(c) Ionic compounds are soluble in water
2. Which of the following compounds possess ionic,
(d) Formic acid is more acidic than acetic acid
covalent and coordinate bonds in their structures?
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (b)
(I) K4[Fe(CN)6] (II) CO2
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
(III) Rb2SO4
5. Which of the following shows highest boiling point (1) (I) and (II) (2) (I), (II) and (III)
due to extensive hydrogen bonding? (3) (I) and (III) (4) (II) and (III)

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CSS-01 Chemistry

3. Type(s) of bonds present in [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 is/are 5. The ratio of the potential energy associated with
(1) Ionic (2) Covalent the second orbit of H-atom to that of fourth orbit of
(3) Coordinate (4) All of these Be3+ ion is
4. Which of the following pair of compounds contain (1) 3 : 2 (2) 1 : 3
ionic, covalent and coordinate bonds in their (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
molecular structures? Q.83 (Mole concept)
(1) NaCN and NaNC (2) NaNC and NH4Cl
(3) NaOH and NaCl (4) NH4Cl and NaCN 1. 84 g of N2 (g) reacts with 22 g of H2 (g) to produce
NH3 (g). Amount of NH3 (g) formed is
5. Species present in CsI3 are
(1) Cs+ and I– (2) Cs+ and I3– (1) 115 g (2) 96 g
(3) 102 g (4) 90 g
(3) Cs+, I– and I2 (4) Cs3+ and I–
2. Volume of CO2 obtained at STP by the complete
Q.66. [Quantum Number] decomposition of 25 g of CaCO3 is
1. Maximum number of electron(s) present in a d- (1) 11.2 L (2) 22.4 L
orbital is
(3) 5.6 L (4) 9.2 L
(1) 2 (2) 10 3. A solution containing 0.2 mol of Ba(NO3)2 is mixed
(3) 5 (4) 1 with 0.2 mol of Na2SO4, the maximum number of
mol of precipitate formed is
2. Number of electrons present in d-orbitals in Zn
atom in its ground state with clockwise spin is (1) 0.2 (2) 0.1
(3) 0.05 (4) 0.4
(1) 10 (2) 2
4. Volume of O2 needed at STP to completely burn
(3) 5 (4) Zero 2L of butane gas (C4H10) measured under the
3. Maximum number of electron accommodated in 4f same condition is
subshell is (1) 26 L (2) 2 L
(1) 7 (2) 10 (3) 6.5 L (4) 13 L
(3) 2 (4) 14 5. If 8 g of Mg is burnt with 8 g of O2 in a closed
vessel, then the mass of MgO formed is
4. Maximum number of electron(s) present in an
(1) 16.9 g (2) 13.3 g
atom with quantum number n = 4, l = 1, m = –1,
1 (3) 24.2 g (4) 8 g
s = + is
2 Q.77. (Quantum Numbers)
(1) 1 (2) 2 1. The orbital angular momentum of an electron in ‘p’-
orbital is
(3) 6 (4) 4
(1) 2 (2)
5. Maximum number of degenerate orbitals present
in 5f subshell is (3) 3 (4) 2
(1) 1 (2) 2 2. Maximum number of electrons for quantum
numbers n = 3 and l = 2, in an atom is
(3) 5 (4) 7
(1) 14 (2) 18
Q.78 (Bohr’s Model of atom)
(3) 10 (4) 6
1. Total energy of electron in the third orbit of H-atom
is 3. Shape of an orbital is given by
(1) –3.6 eV (2) –1.5 eV (1) Magnetic quantum number

(3) –13.6 eV (4) –54.4 eV (2) Spin quantum number

(3) Azimuthal quantum number
2. Total energy of an electron in the first order of He+
ion is (4) Principal quantum number
(1) –54.4 eV (2) –13.6 eV 4. Total number of degenerated orbitals in second
shell of H-atom is
(3) –27.2 eV (4) –3.6 eV
(1) 3 (2) 4
3. The ratio of the energy associated with the second
(3) 6 (4) 8
and fourth orbit of Li2+ ion is
5. The possible value(s) of magnetic
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 4
quantum numbers for 2s-orbital is/are
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 4 : 1 (1) – 1, 0, + 1
4. Potential energy of the electron in the third orbit of (2) – 2, – 1, 0, + 1, + 2
He+ ion is
(3) – 3, –2, 0, + 1, +2, +3
(1) –13.6 eV (2) –12 eV
(4) Zero
(3) –3.3 eV (4) –6.1 eV

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CSS-01 Chemistry

Q.87. (Bond Length) (3) N2–

1. The correct order of decreasing bond lengths of (4) All have same bond energy
C=C, C  C and C–C is
Q.88. (Geometry of molecules)
(1) C – C > C  C > C = C
1. In CH4, the maximum number of atom(s)
(2) C – C > C = C > C  C in a plane is
(3) C  C > C = C > C – C (1) 3 (2) 2
(4) C  C > C – C > C = C (3) 4 (4) 1
2. Which molecule has the largest bond length of C–O 2. In BF3, the maximum number of atom(s) in a plane
bond? is
(1) CO2 (1) 3 (2) 2
(2) CO (3) 4 (4) 1
2–
(3) CO 3
3. Which of the molecules has/have plane triangular
geometry?
(4) All have same bond length
(1) BCl3
3. The correct order of bond lengths in the given
molecule is (2) ClF3

(1) F2 > H2 > Cl2 > Br2 (2) Br2 > H2 > Cl2 > F2 (3) NO 3-
(3) Br2 > Cl2 > F2 > H2 (4) H2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2 (4) Both (1) and (3)
4. The molecule in which all bond lengths are equal, 4. Which of the molecules is planar?
is
(1) B2H6 (2) Be2H4
(1) ClF3 (2) PCl5
(3) Al2Cl6 (4) (BeCl2)n
(3) BF3 (4) SF4
5. In PCl5, the maximum number of atoms in a plane
5. Which of the following has minimum bond length? is
(1) N2 (1) 5 (2) 6
+
(2) N 2
(3) 3 (4) 4

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-01 (CHEMISTRY)
Answers Key

Q.57. (H-Bonding) 3. (4)

1. (2) 4. (2)
2. (4) 5. (4)

3. (2) Q.83 (Mole concept)

1. (3)
4. (2)
2. (3)
5. (3)
3. (1)
Q.75. (Valence shell electron pair repulsion theory)
4. (4)
1. (2)
5. (2)
2. (4) Q.77. (Quantum Number)
3. (4) 1. (1)
4. (3) 2. (3)
5. (1) 3. (3)
Q.91. (Ionic covalent and coordinate bonds) 4. (2)
1. (2) 5. (4)
2. (3) Q.87. (Bond Length)
3. (4) 1. (2)
4. (2) 2. (3)
5. (2) 3. (3)

Q.66 [Quantum Number] 4. (3)

5. (1)
1. (1)
Q.88. (Geometry of molecules)
2. (3)
1. (1)
3. (4)
2. (3)
4. (1)
3. (4)
5. (4)
4. (2)
Q.78 (Bohr’s Model of atom)
1. (2) 5. (4)
2. (1)

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-01
BOTANY
Q.119 (Cell Cycle & Cell Division: Check Points) Q.129 (Cell Cycle & Cell Division: Mitosis)
1. Condensation of chromatin starts in 1. Formula used to calculate number of generations
(1) Metaphase (2) Anaphase (n) of mitosis required for producing x cells is
(3) Prophase (4) Telophase (1) n - 1 (2) 2n
2. During the cell division, if a cell has stopped its (3) n x 2 (4) n + 1
DNA replication then which check point is pre- 2. Number of mitotic divisions required to produce 32
dominantly activated? cells from single cell is
(1) M G0 (2) G1 S (1) 4 (2) 31
(3) S G2 (4) G2 M (3) 8 (4) 2
3. Which of the following is major check point? 3. Formula to calculate number of mitotic divisions
(1) M G0 required for formation of n number of cells is
(2) Mitotic spindle check point (1) 2n (2) n - 1
(3) G2 M (4) G1 S (3) n + 1 (4) 2n + 1
4. Duplication of organelles is completed in 4. How many generations are required to produce 32
(1) S phase (2) G1 phase cells from single cell?
(3) G2 phase (4) M phase (1) 4 (2) 5
Q.123 (Cell Cycle & Cell Division: Meiosis) (3) 6 (4) 3
1. Arrange the following in correct sequence w.r.t 5. How many mitotic divisions as well as generations
sub-stage of karyokinesis and select the option respectively are required to produce 16 cells from
accordingly.
a. Prophase b. Anaphase single cell?
c. Metaphase d. Telophase (1) 4 , 15 (2) 15 , 4
(3) 5 , 16 (4) 16 , 5
(1) a, b, c, d (2) b, c, a, d
Q.134 (The Living World: Taxonomic categories)
(3) a, c, b, d (4) d, c, b, a
2. Mitotic spindle disappears during 1. Wheat and brinjal are placed in the division
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase (1) Dicotyledonae
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase (2) Monocotyledonae
3. Migration of daughter chromosomes towards poles (3) Angiospermae
can be seen during (4) Sapindales
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase 2. Wheat belongs to the class
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase (1) Angiospermae
4. Beginning of centrioles movement towards (2) Monocotyledonae
opposite poles is seen in (3) Dicotyledonae
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase (4) Poales
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase 3. Brinjal and potato belongs to the division
5. Microtubules of spindle fibre attach to kinetochore (1) Solanaceae
during (2) Poaceae
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase (3) Dicotyledonae
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase (4) Angiospermae

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4. Wheat and brinjal belong to the families 3. Which of the following structures is found only in
prokaryotes?
(1) Poaceae and Solanaceae
(1) Gas vacuole (2) 70S ribosome
(2) Fabaceae and Liliaceae
(3) Circular DNA (4) Polyribosome
(3) Solanaceae and Brassicaceae
4. Blue-green algae are different from green algae as
(4) Asteraceae and Cruciferae
the former
5. The genus to which wheat and brinjal are placed (1) Lack chlorophyll (2) Are non-filamentous
are
(3) Are prokaryotes
(1) Mangifera and Solanum
(4) Do not perform photosynthesis
(2) Triticum and Solanum
5. The structure that provides buoyancy to
(3) Petunia and Trifolium prokaryotes is
(4) Oryza and Triticum (1) Cytosol (2) Gas vacuole
Q.100 (Cell the Unit of Life: An Overview of Cell) (3) Vacuolated cell wall
1. Plasmids are (4) Hollow pili and fimbriae
(1) A segment of bacterial genomic DNA Q.128 (Cell Cycle & Cell Division: Meiosis)
(2) Small circular DNA outside genomic DNA, in 1. Meiosis is defined as
many bacteria
(1) The equational division in which the number of
(3) DNA segments that form nucleoid
chromosomes remain the same in daughter
(4) Not involved in the expression of any
phenotypic character cells as compared to parent cell
2. Which structure in bacteria prevents them from (2) The reductional division in which the number
bursting and collapsing?
of chromosomes is reduced to half in daughter
(1) Cell wall (2) Slime layer
cells as compared to parent cell
(3) Glycocalyx (4) Plasma membrane
3. Read the following statements and choose the (3) The special type of cell division in which the
option which is true for them. size of nucleus is reduced to half in next
Statement – 1: Bacterial plasma membrane is
generation
structurally similar to that of eukaryotes.
Statement – 2: Plasma membrane has (4) The method of asexual reproduction which
phospholipid bilayer. occurs in bacteria, protozoans , diseased cells
(1) Both the statements are correct
etc
(2) Both the statements are incorrect
2. Telophase - I is characterized by all, except
(3) Only statement-1 is correct
(4) Only statement-2 is correct (1) Nuclear membrane reappears
4. In bacteria genes which produce resistance to (2) nucleolus reappears
antibiotics, remain present on
(3) Chromosomes undergo condensation
(1) Ribosome (2) Mesosome
(4) Dyad of cells appear
(3) Circular RNA (4) Plasmid
5. Which structure in bacteria allows them to hide 3. Chromosomes align themselves at the equator in
from host’s immune system? the
(1) Slime layer (2) Capsule (1) Metaphase II (2) Anaphase II
(3) Hook (4) Fimbriae (3) Telophase II (4) Interkinesis
Q.104 (Cell the Unit of Life: An Overview of Cell) 4. The pollen mother cell contains 34 chromosomes,
1. Which one of the following are membraneless then what will be the number of bivalent in
structure? prophase-I of meiosis?
(1) Contractile vacuoles (1) 34 (2) 17
(2) Gas vacuoles (3) 68 (4) 51
(3) Autophagic vacuoles
5. After meiosis, a diploid cell gives rise to
(4) Food vacuoles
2. Contractile vacuoles are found in all of the (1) Two haploid daughter cells
following organisms, except (2) Four diploid daughter cells
(1) Euglena (2) Paramoecium (3) Four haploid daughter cells
(3) Blue-green algae (4) Amoeba (4) Eight triploid cells

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Q.106 (Cell : The unit of Life: Eukaryotic cell) 2. Nuclear membrane disappears and identity of
1. Plant cells differ from animal cells as the former discrete nucleus is lost in
(1) Anaphase
(1) Have cell wall
(2) Prophase
(2) Have centrosomes in most of the cells
(3) Telophase
(3) Have well developed nucleus
(4) Metaphase
(4) Are devoid of chloroplasts
3. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t anaphase of
2. Choose the incorrect statement. mitosis
(1) Animal cells are generally small in size (1) Chromatids separate in this phase
(2) Fungal cells have simpler units of Golgi (2) Separated chromatids are now referred to
apparatus, called dictyosomes chromosomes
(3) Large central sap vacuole is present in most of (3) Nucleus is clearly visible
the animal cell (4) Centromere splitting occurs in this phase
(4) The cell membrane of human RBC has 52% 4. Nuclear membrane reappear in
protein & 40% lipids (1) Telophase
(2) Metaphase
3. Select the correct match.
(3) Prophase
(1) Rough endoplasmic - 70S ribosomes
(4) Anaphase
reticulum
Q.132 (The Living World: What is Living?)
(2) Lysosomes - Hydrolases
1. Metabolism occurs in all of the following except
(3) Mitochondria - Single circular
(1) Bacterial cell
single stranded (2) Archaebacteriae cell
DNA (3) Yeast cell
(4) Leucoplasts - Photosynthesis (4) Virus outside the cell
4. Which of the following statements is wrong for 2. Which of the following is a characteristic of human
centriole? beings only?
(1) Transverse section gives a cartwheel (1) Metabolism (2) Consciousness
appearance
(3) Self-consciousness (4) Growth
(2) It helps in the formation of basal body
3. Which of the following organisms cannot
(3) Spindle fibres are formed with the help of
reproduce?
centriole during cell division
(1) Mules (2) Worker honey bees
(4) Centriole shows 9+2 arrangement of
(3) Bacteria (4) Both (1) and (2)
microtubules
4. All the living beings
5. Find odd one w.r.t an overview of eukaryotic cell (1) Have exactly same genetic material
(1) Membrane bound nucleus (2) Are linked together as they share common
(2) Membraneless nucleoid genetic material at some extent
(3) Membrane bound cell organelles (3) Are not linked at all
(4) Cytoskeletal structure (4) Contain exactly same DNA and RNA
Q.125 (Cell Cycle and Cell Division: Mitosis) 5. Which of the following is not a defining property of
1. In which of the following phase chromatids all living beings?
separate and are said chromosomes now? (1) Cellular structure (2) Metabolism
(1) Anaphase (2) Metaphase (3) Consciousness (4) Self-consciousness
(3) Telophase (4) Prophase

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

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ANSWERS

Q.119 (Cell Cycle & Cell Division: Check Points) Q.104 (Cell the Unit of Life: An Overview of Cell)
1. (3) 1. (2)
2. (2) 2 (3)
3. (4) 3 (1)
4. (3) 4 (3)
Q.123 (Cell Cycle & Division: Meiosis) 5 (2)
1. (3) Q.128 (Cell Cycle & Cell Division: Meiosis)
2. (4) 1. (2)
3. (3) 2. (3)
4. (1) 3. (1)
5. (2) 4. (2)
Q.129 (Cell Cycle & Cell Division: Mitosis) 5. (3)
1. (2) Q.106 (Cell: The unit of Life: Eukaryotic cell)
2. (2) 1. (1)
3. (2) 2. (3)
4. (2) 3. (2)
5. (2) 4. (4)
Q.134 (The Living World: Taxonomic categories) 5. (2)
1. (3) Q.125 (Cell Cycle and Cell Division: Mitosis)
2. (2) 1. (1)
3. (4) 2. (2)
4. (1) 3. (3)
5. (2) 4. (1)
Q.100 (Cell the Unit of Life: An Overview of Cell) Q.132 (The Living World: What is Living?)
1. (2) 1. (4)
2. (1) 2. (3)
3. (1) 3. (4)
4. (4) 4. (2)
5. (2) 5. (4)

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Q.143. [Digestion of food] 5. In dense regular connective tissue

1. Milk sugar is (1) Collagen fibres are present in rows between
(1) Lactose (2) Sucrose many parallel bundles of fibres

(3) Maltose (4) Cassein (2) Fibroblasts and fibres are oriented differently
(3) Cells and fibres are loosely arranged in a semi-
2. Maximum digestion and absorption of nutrients
fluid matrix
occurs in
(4) Intercellular material is solid and pliable
(1) Stomach (2) Small intestine
Q.165 Energy providing nutrients
(3) Large intestine (4) Mouth
1. Physiologic values of carbohydrate, protein, and
3. Lactase enzyme is present in which of the
fat, in kcal/g, are respectively
following digestive juice?
(1) 4, 4, 9 (2) 4.1, 5.65, 9.45
(1) Succus entericus (2) Saliva
(3) 4, 5, 9 (4) 4.1, 5, 9
(3) Pancreatic juice (4) Gastric juice
2. Gross calorific value of fat in kcal/g is
4. Final products of digestion are mainly formed in the
(1) 4 (2) 9.45
(1) Small intestine (2) Large intestine
(3) 9 (4) 5.65
(3) Stomach (4) Mouth
3. All are energy providing nutrients except
5. Milk protein is
(1) Carbohydrate (2) Protein
(1) Cassein (2) Lactose
(3) Fat (4) H2O
(3) Sucrose (4) Galactose
4. Which of the following component of food provides
Q.153 (Connective tissue) energy?
1. Fibres are absent in (1) Water (2) Minerals
(1) Blood (2) Cartilage (3) Vitamins (4) Fat
(3) Areolar tissue (4) Adipose tissue 5. Which of the following food substance is usually
2. Matrix of all of the following connective tissues is not considered in calculating calorie intake?
secreted by the cells present in matrix except (1) Rice (2) Butter
(1) Loose connective tissue (3) Pulses (4) Salad
(2) Dense connective tissue Q.146 (Nucleic acid)
(3) Fluid connective tissue 1. In a BDNA, the amount of purine is always
(4) Skeletal connective tissue ___X___ the amount of pyrimidine.
3. Tendon is Choose the option that correctly fills the blank X
(1) Dense irregular connective tissue (1) Equal to (2) Less than
(2) Dense regular connective tissue (3) More than (4) Two times of
(3) Loose connective tissue 2. If the total amount of guanine in eukaryotic cell’s
DNA is about 30% then total amount of adenine
(4) White fibrous cartilage will be
4. Select the property of collagen fibres (1) 20% (2) 30%
(1) Occur singly (2) Branched (3) 50% (4) 40%
(3) Occur in bundles (4) Yellow in colour
3. If in BDNA the total amount of pyrimidine and Q.170 (Connective tissue)
thymine contents are 50% & 30% respectively then 1. Which of the following is incorrect for matrix of
calculate the total purine contents human cartilage?
(1) 30% (2) 20% (1) Solid
(3) 40% (4) 50% (2) Pliable
4. The total amount of adenine in DNA of an (3) Resist compression
organism is always equal to the total amount of (4) Rich is calcium salts and collagen fibres
(1) Guanine 2. Choose the incorrect statement for cartilage
(2) Thymine (1) Present in internal ear of human
(3) Cyctosine (2) Chondrocytes are enclosed in small cavities
(4) Both guanine & thymine within the matrix secreted by them
5. In the DNA of eukaryotic cells the sum total of (3) It is considered as specialised connective
adeninine and guanine is always equal to tissue
(1) Total contents of pyrimidine (4) Present in limbs and hands in adults
(2) Sum total of adenine and uracil 3. Which of the following specialised connective
tissue forms supportive skeletal structures in the
(3) Sum total of adenine and thymine tip of nose and outer ear joints?
(4) Sum total of thymine & uracil (1) Bone (2) Cartilage
Q.166 (Digestive system) (3) Blood (4) Lymph
1. Bile helps in ___X___ of fats and also activates the 4. The connective tissue which interacts with skeletal
pancreatic ___Y___ enzyme. muscles attached with them to bring about
Choose the option that correctly fill the blanks X movements in body and body parts is
and Y. (1) Dense irregular (2) Bone
(1) Hydrolysis, amylase (3) Cartilage (4) Areolar
(2) Emulsification, lipase 5. __A___ have a hard and non-pliable ground
substance rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres.
(3) Hydrolysis, amylase
Choose the option to fill, the blank A correctly
(4) Emulsification, nucleases (1) Bone (2) Cartilage
2. Which of the following hormone acts on the (3) Ligament (4) Tendon
exocrine pancreas and stimulates secretion of
water and bicarbonate ions? Q.175 (Types of tissue)
1. Select a non-vascular tissue/structure among the
(1) Secretin (2) CCK
following
(3) GIP (4) Gastrin
(1) Columnar epithelium in ducts of glands
3. Read the following statements and choose the (2) Areolar connective tissue
correct answer
(3) Dense regular connective tissue
A : Lysozyme, present in saliva acts as an
antibacterial agent that prevents infections. (4) Tendon
B : About 30 per cent of starch is hydrolysed in 2. Which of the following cells of connective tissue
buccal cavity by the enzyme salivary amylase, secrete fibres and matrix?
present in saliva. (1) Mast cells (2) Fibroblasts
(1) Both statements are incorrect (3) Macrophages (4) Adipocytes
(2) Both statements are correct 3. Identify the tissue which are present in wall of
blood vessels and is responsible for change in
(3) Only statement A is correct diameter of their lumen
(4) Only statement B is correct (1) Muscular tissue
4. Rennin is a proteolytic enzyme which is found in (2) Epithelial tissue
(1) Gastric juice of adults (3) Dense irregular connective tissue
(2) Gastric juice of infants (4) Dense regular connective tissue
(3) Saliva of infants 4. In all connective tissues except ___X___, the cells
(4) Saliva of adults secrete fibres of structural proteins collagen or
elastin.
5. Bruner’s glands are present in
Select the correct option to fill the blank X
(1) Mucosa of duodenum
(1) Bone
(2) Sub-mucosa of duodenum (2) Blood
(3) Mucosa of stomach (3) Cartilage
(4) Mucosa of jejunum (4) Loose connective tissue
5. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. connective tissue 3. Ligament connects bone to
(1) Tendon (1) Bone (2) Muscle
(2) Ligament (3) Tendon (4) Skin
(3) Blood 4. Which of the following muscle fibres are branched?
(4) Glandular epithelium (1) Skeletal (2) Smooth
Q.161 (Biomolecules) (3) Straited voluntary (4) Cardiac
1. Which of the following is most abundant protein in 5. Which of the following feature is not associated
animal world? with mammalian bones?
(1) Collagen (2) Elastin (1) Presence of Haversian system
(3) RuBisCO (4) Albumin (2) Presence of lacunae
2. Middle lamella in cell wall of plants is formed by (3) Presence of connective tissue fibres
calcium & magnesium pectate, is digested by (4) Absence of inorganic salts
enzyme
Q.180 (Disorders of digestive system)
(1) Pectinase (2) Trypsin
1. Constipation is caused due to
(3) Pepsin (4) Peptidase
(1) More breakdown of RBCs
3. Select the unbranched homopolymer of glucose
(2) Excess uptake of water
(1) Glycogen (2) Starch
(3) Uptake of food less in calories
(3) Cellulose (4) Collagen
(4) Excessive consumption of junk foods which
4. Which of the following biomolecules is branched are less in dietary fibres
polymer of glucose?
2. Protein energy malnutrition which usually occurs in
(1) Cellulose (2) Glycogen infants below one year of age due to uptake of food
(3) Inulin (4) Pectinase less in both proteins and calories is called
5. All of the following biomolecules are carbohydrates (1) Kwashiorkar (2) Marasmus
except (3) Jaundice (4) Constipation
(1) Cellulose (2) Glycogen 3. Jaundice is a disease in which liver is affected and
(3) Starch (4) Collagen is characterised by
Q.174 (Structural organization in animals-animal (1) Yellow coloration of skin and eyes
tissues) (2) Constipation
1. Urinary bladder and ureters are internally lined by (3) Marasmus
(1) Squamous epithelium (4) Intestinal perforation
(2) Transitional epithelium 4. Inflammation of appendix is called
(3) Cuboidal epithelium (1) Appendicitis (2) Gastritis
(4) Columnar epithelium (3) Hepatitis (4) Jaundice
2. The connective tissue which connects muscle to 5. Which of the following features is not associated
bone is with constipation?
(1) Ligament (1) Excessive consumption of junk food
(2) Loose connective tissue (2) Absence of dietary fibres in food
(3) Tendon (3) Irregular bowel movements
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue (4) Frequent vomiting and acidosis

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ANSWERS

Q.143 Q.170
1. (1) 1. (4)
2. (2) 2. (1)
3. (1) 3. (2)
4. (1) 4. (2)
5. (1) 5. (1)
Q.153 Q.175
1. (1) 1. (1)
2. (3) 2. (2)
3. (2) 3. (1)
4. (3) 4. (2)
5. (1) 5. (4)
Q.165 Q.161
1. (1) 1. (1)
2. (2) 2. (1)
3. (4) 3. (3)
4. (4) 4. (2)
5. (4) 5. (4)
Q.146 Q.174
1. (1) 1. (2)
2. (1) 2. (3)
3. (4) 3. (1)
4. (2) 4. (4)
5. (1) 5. (4)
Q.166 Q.180
1. (2) 1. (4)
2. (1) 2. (2)
3. (2) 3. (1)
4. (2) 4. (1)
5. (2) 5. (4)