REVISED

Based On
FTS-03 (Code-A & B)

Regd. Office :Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-02
PHYSICS

Q.15 (Code-A) (Buoyancy)

1. An wooden sphere is at rest at the bottom of a lake.
When it is released then it will (neglect viscosity)
(1) Accelerates up with constant acceleration (3)

(2) Accelerates up with increasing acceleration

(3) Accelerates up with decreasing acceleration
(4) Come up with constant velocity
2. In question (1), if viscosity is not neglected, then
(1) Sphere will move up with constant
acceleration (4)

(2) Sphere will move up with constant velocity

(3) Sphere will move up with variable acceleration
and finally it may attain a terminal speed Q.19 (Code-A) (Surface energy)
(4) Sphere will remain at rest 1. Choose the incorrect statements
3. In question (1), by taking viscosity into account, the (1) Soap bubble have two air-liquid interfaces
plot of velocity-time graph will be best represented (2) Liquid drop have one air-liquid interfaces
by (3) Air cavity inside liquid have one air-liquid
interfaces
(4) Air cavity inside liquid have two air-liquid
interfaces
(1) 2. The radius of a soap bubble is R. The surface
tension of the soap solution is T. The surface
energy of the soap bubble is
(1) 4R2T (2) 8R2T
(3) 2R2T (4) 16R2T
3. In question (2), if the radius of soap bubble is

(2) increased to 3R then energy required is (consider

no loss anywhere)
(1) 64R2T (2) 9R2T
(3) 32R2T (4) 72R2T

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CSS-02 Physics

Q.27 (Code-A) (Capillary Rise) The gravitational potential energy of the particle at
1. Water rises upto height h in a capillary of height 2h. If the centre will be (R is the radius of planet)
capillary setup is released to fall freely under –GMm –GMm
gravity. Then height of water in capillary becomes (1) (2)
2R R
(1) 2h (2) h
–3 GMm –3GMm
(3) Zero (4) Water will spill out (3) (4)
2 R R
2. In a vertical capillary of height 3h, water rises upto Q.7 (Code-A) (Earth Satellite)
height h. If the capillary is tilted at 30° with
horizontal, then height upto which water will rise 1. An astronaut of mass m is inside the earth satellite.
becomes The pseudo force on the astronaut in the frame of
the satellite will be (consider satellite is near to
(1) 3h (2) 2h earth surface)
3h mg
(3) h (4) (1) mg (2)
2 2
3. In a vertical capillary of height h, water rises upto (3) 2mg (4) Zero
complete height h. If the capillary is tilted at 30°
with horizontal then the height upto which water 2. Consider the correct statements for an astronaut,
will rise becomes inside an earth satellite
(a) He is falling freely
h
(1) h (2) (b) No external force is acting on him
2
h (c) No reaction is exerted by floor of the satellite
2h
(3) (4) (1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
3 4
4. In Q. (3), the length of water column inside the (3) (a) only (4) (a) and (c)
capillary becomes Q.11 (Code-A) (Earth Satellite)
h 1. A satellite is seen after each x hours over the
(1) h (2) equator at a place on the earth when its sense of
2
rotation is opposite to the earth. If angular velocity
h 3h 
(3) (4) of satellite is rad/h, then value of x will be
2 2 6
Q.2 (Code-A) (Gravitational Potential Energy) (1) 6 (2) 4
1. A particle starts from rest at large distance from a (3) 8 (4) 12
planet, reaches the planet only under gravitational 2. A satellite is moving over equator of the earth with
attraction, and passes through a smooth tunnel 
through its centre. The correct statement about the angular velocity rad/h. If its sense of rotation is
particle will be 8
same as that of the earth. Then the time interval
(1) The total energy of the particle will be zero at after which the satellite is seen at the same place
large distance will be
(2) The gravitational potential energy of the (1) 24 h (2) 12 h
particle at the centre will be 3/2 times to that of
at the surface of the planet (3) 48 h (4) 6 h
(3) The gravitational potential energy of the 3. A satellite is seen after each 36 h over the equator
particle at the centre of the plant will be zero at a place on the earth when its sense of rotation
is same to earth surface. The time interval after
(4) Both (1) and (2) which it can be seen at some place when the
2. The escape velocity of a body from the surface of sense of rotation of earth and satellite is opposite
a planet is ve. A particle starts from rest at large (1) 12 hours (2) 9 hours
distance from the planet, reaches the planet only
under gravitational attraction, and passes through (3) 6 hours (4) 24 hours
a smooth tunnel through its centre. Its speed at the Q.21 (Code-A) (Surface Tension)
surface of the planet will be 1. A long capillary tube of radius 1 mm open at both
ve ends is filled with water and placed vertically. What
(1) 1.5 v e (2) will be the height of the column of water left in
2
capillary? The thickness of the capillary walls is
(3) ve (4) Zero negligible. Surface tension of water is 70 dyne/cm
3. A particle of mass m starts from rest at large (1) 2.5 cm (2) 2.8 cm
distance from the planet of mass M, reaches the
(3) 3.0 cm (4) 3.2 cm
planet only under gravitational attraction and
passes through smooth tunnel through its centre.

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CSS-02 Physics

2. In a surface tension experiment with a capillary 3. A wire of length L and cross-sectional area A is
tube of length 120 cm, water rises upto 20 cm. If made of a material of Young’s modulus Y. On
the same experiment is repeated in artificial stretching length of wire by l, the elastic energy
satellite which is revolving around the earth, Height stored per unit volume is
upto which water will rise in capillary tube?
FA Fl
(1) 20 cm (1) (2)
2L 2AL
(2) 40 cm
Fl FL
(3) 100 cm (3) (4)
AL Al
(4) Full length of capillary tube 4. Calculate the work done in stretching a uniform
3. In a surface tension experiment with a capillary metal wire of cross-section 10–6 m2 and length 2 m
tube water rises upto height h. Choose correct through 2 mm. The Young’s modulus for the wire
statement form the following options? is 3×1011 Nm–2
(1) In a lift moving upward with acceleration, (1) 0.3 J (2) 0.6 J
height is less than h. (3) 1.2 J (4) 0 J
(2) In a lift moving downward with acceleration, Q.45 (Code-B) (Surface Tension)
height is more than h.
1. A liquid drop of radius R split into 27 small drops of
(3) On the surface of moon with acceleration ( g), equal radius. If the surface tension of the liquid is
the height is more than h T, then change in surface energy is
(4) All are correct (1) 4R2T (2) 8R2T
Q.44 (Code-B) (Elastic Potential Energy) (3) 16R2T (4) 27R2T
1. A wire of natural length L and cross sectional area 2. Calculate the work done against surface tension in
A is made of a material of Young’s modulus Y. If blowing a soap bubble from a radius of 20 cm to
the wire is stretched by an amount x, the energy 40 cm, if the surface tension of soap solution is
stored in wire is 25×10–3 Nm–1.
YAx 2 YAx 2 (1) 37.5 mJ (2) 75 mJ
(1) (2)
L 2L (3) 50 mJ (4) 150 mJ
2 2
2YAx YAx 3. Consider a soap film on a square frame of wire of area
(3) (4)
L L2 5×5 cm2. If the area of soap film is increased to 6×6 cm2.
The work done in the process will be (The surface
2. The work done in stretching a wire by 4 mm is W. tension of the soap film is 4×10–2 Nm–1)
Then the work done to stretch another wire of
same material but with twice the radius of cross- (1) 22×10–6 J
section upto same length 4 mm is (2) 44×10–6 J
W (3) 88×10–6 J
(1) W (2)
4 (4) 172×10–6 J
(3) 2 W (4) 4 W

❑ ❑ ❑

(3)
 Based On
FTS-4 (Code-A & B)

Regd. Office :Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-02
PHYSICS
Q.36 (Code-A) (Law of equipartition) (1) Zero (2) 200 J
1. The average translational kinetic energy of an ideal (3) 840 J (4) 1080 J
gas molecule can be determined by knowing Q.15 (Code-B) (Mean Free path)
(1) The pressure of gas only 1. The mean free path of molecules of a gas of radius
(2) The temperature of gas only r is inversely proportional to
(3) The number of molecules in a gas (1) r (2) r
(4) The volume of gas only (3) r2 (4) r3
2. The translational kinetic energy of one gram mole 2. The mean free path of O 2 gas molecules in a
of an ideal gas at standard temperature and container is . If the temperature of the gas is
pressure is (R = 8.31 J/mol-K) doubled, then the new mean free path of O2 gas is
(1) 0.56 × 104 J (2) 1.3 × 102 J (Pressure is constant)
(3) 2.7 × 102 J (4) 3.4 × 103 J

3. Average energy per degree of freedom of an ideal (1)  (2)
2
gas molecules is 
(3) 2  (4)
1 4
(1) kT (2) kT
2 3. If the mean free path of molecules is tripled, then
3 3 the pressure of gas will become (Temperature is
(3) kT (4) RT
2 2
constant)
Q.2 (Code-B) (Heat, Internal Energy and Work)
P P
1. The change in internal energy of a (1) (2)
3 9
thermodynamical system which has absorbed (3) P (4) 3 P
20000 J of heat and does 8400 J of work, is Q.20 (Code-A) (Some System Executing SHM)
(1) 18000 J (2) 20000 J 1. A 2 kg block moving with speed of 5 m/s, strikes a
(3) 11600 J (4) Zero light spring attached to another 3 kg block (initially
2. In a given process dW = 0, dQ < 0, then for an ideal at rest) on smooth horizontal surface. What is
gas maximum compression of the spring?
(1) Pressure increases
(2) Pressure decreases
(3) Volume increases (1) 25 cm (2) 39 cm
(4) Temperature increases (3) 45 cm (4) 6 cm
3. The heat required to expand an ideal gas 2. A 3 kg block moving with speed of 4 m/s towards
isothermally is 200 cal. What is the work done in a spring mass system strikes the spring of spring
given process? constant 200 N/m. The mass attached to spring is

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CSS-02 Physics

6 kg. Whole system is on smooth horizontal Q.30 (Code-A) (Oscillation due to Spring)
surface. For how long moving block remains in 1. When a mass m is hung from a light spring at lower
contact with the spring. end and slowly let go the extension produced in
spring is x. If the mass is put to oscillations along
vertical direction the period of oscillation will be
(1) 0.314 s (2) 0.628 s
(3) 1.24 s (4) 0.5 s
3. A block of mass 5 kg moving with initial velocity of
10 m/s towards a stationary spring of spring
constant 180 N/m attached to wall as shown in
figure. There is no friction, for how long block will x g
(1) T = 3 (2) T = 2
2mg 2mx
remain in contact with the spring.
x x
(3) T = 2 (4) T = 2
2mg g

(1) 0.89 s (2) 0.52 s 2. When a mass m is hung to lower end of vertically
(3) 1.05 s (4) 0.26 s attached spring (light in weight) and mass is
Q.21 (Code-A) (Spring mass executing SHM) allowed to move down slowly an extension of y is
1. The springs in figure A and B are made from same produced in spring. Now the mass m is replaced
material and identical in shape but length of each by mass M and allowed to oscillate, the frequency
spring in B is half of that of A. The ratio of of oscillations will be
frequencies of oscillation of A to B is 1 mg 1 Mg
(1) (2)
2 My 2 my

1 g 1 (m + M )g
(3) (4)
2 y 2 ( m )y

3. A mass M is hung from a lower end of a light spring

(1) 2 :1 (2) 2 : 1 attached to ceiling. If the mass is allowed to fall,
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 4 :1 from normal length of spring, the maximum
2. A mass attached to a spring has time period of T. extension in spring, is x0. Now this mass is set for
Now this spring is cut into two parts in ratio of 1 : 3 oscillations in vertical direction, the period of
and the same mass of is attached to shorter spring. oscillation will be
The new period of oscillations will be
x0 x0
(1) T = 2 (2) T = 2
g 2g
(1) 4 T (2) 2 T
2x0 x0
T (3) T = 2 (4) T = 2
(3) T (4) g 4g
2
Q.20 (Code-B) (Simple pendulum)
3. The springs are attached to a mass m in both the
1. The bob of a simple pendulum is hollow and its
arrangement shown. The ratio of time period of
time period is T. If it is filled with water then time
oscillation in arrangement 1 to 2
period will be
(1) More than T
(2) Less than T
(3) Equal to T
(4) Zero
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2

(3) 3 : 2 2 (4) 3: 2

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CSS-02 Physics

2. A simple pendulum is a small hollow sphere 3. The total mechanical oscillating energy of a spring
containing mercury suspended by means of a wire. mass system in simple hormonic motion is
If little mercury is drained off, the period of the independent of
pendulum will (1) Amplitude (2) Spring constant
(1) Increase (2) Decrease (3) Mass (4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Remans unchanged (4) Becomes erratic Q.28 (Code-B) (Physical pendulum)
3. If iron sphere in a simple pendulum is replaced by 1. The time period of a physical pendulum is given by
a wooden sphere of same mass, time period the expression (symbols have their usual meaning
(1) Increases (2) Decreases I d
(1) 2 (2) 2
(3) Remains same (4) None of the above mgd mgI
Q.25 (Code-B) (Energy Conservation in SHM)
I d
(3) 2 (4) 2
1. Average energy in one time period of a simple mg mg
hormonic oscillator whose amplitude is A, angular
2. A uniform thin rod of mass m and length l is pivoted
velocity  and mass m is at its one end as shown in figure. The frequency of
1 1 oscillation of rod for small displacement will be
(1) m2 A2 (2) m2 A2
4 2
(3) m2 A2 (4) Zero
2. A spring mass system performs SHM. If the mass
is doubled and amplitude is halved, then total
energy of S.H.M will becomes
(1) Remains same
1 3l 1 3g
1 (1) (2)
(2) times of intial value 2 2g 2 2l
2
(3) 2 times of intial value 1 g 1 l
(3) (4)
1 2 l 2 g
(4) times of intial value
4

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CSS-02 Physics

Based on
FTS-03 (Code-A & B)

Regd. Office :Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-02 (PHYSICS)
Answers Key

Q.15 (Code-A) (Buoyancy) Q.7 (Code-A) (Earth Satellite)

1. (1) 1. (1)
2. (3) 2. (4)
3. (2) Q.11 (Code-A) (Earth Satellite)
Q.19 (Code-A) (Surface energy) 1. (3)
1. (4) 2. (3)
2. (2) 3. (2)
3. (1) Q.21 (Code-A) (Surface Tension)

Q.27 (Code-A) (Capillary Rise) 1. (2)

1. (1) 2. (4)
3. (4)
2. (3)
Q.44 (Code-B) (Elastic Potential Energy )
3. (2)
1. (2)
4. (1)
2. (4)
Q.2 (Code-A) (Gravitational Potential Energy) 3. (2)
1. (4) 4. (1)
2. (3) Q.45 (Code-B) (Surface Tension)
3. (3) 1. (2)
2. (2)
3. (3)

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CSS-02 Physics

Based on
FTS-04 (Code-A & B)

Regd. Office :Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-02 (Physics)
Answers Key

Q.36 (Code-A) (Law of equipartition) Q.30 (Code-A) (Oscillation due to Spring)

1. (2) 1. (4)
2. (4) 2. (1)
3. (2) 3. (2)
Q.2 (Code-B) (Heat, Internal Energy and Work) Q.20 (Code-B) (Simple pendulum)
1. (3) 1. (3)
2. (2) 2. (1)
3. (3) 3. (1)
Q.15 (Code-B) (Mean Free path) Q.25 (Code-B) (Energy Conservation in SHM)
1. (3) 1. (2)
2. (3) 2. (4)
3. (1) 3. (3)
Q.20 (Code-A) (Some System Executing) Q.28 (Code-B) (Physical pendulum)
1. (2) 1. (1)
2. (1) 2. (2)
3. (2)
Q.21 (Code-A) (Spring (time period) executing SHM)
1. (1)
2. (4)
3. (3)

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 Based on
FTS-3 (A+B)

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-02
CHEMISTRY

Q.51 (Code-A) (Gibbs Energy & Equilibrium 3. Maximum mean single bond enthalpy at 298 K
Constant) is of

1. At temperature TK, PCl5 is 50% dissociated at (1) H–H

an equilibrium pressure of 2 atm. The value of (2) N–N
Kp for the dissociation is
(3) O–O
2 5
(1) atm (2) atm (4) Si–Si
3 2
4. Minimum mean multiple bond enthalpy at 298 K
3 5 is of
(3) atm (4) atm
5 3
(1) N =N (2) C = N
2. The Gibb’s energy change at 127°C for, (3) C=C (4) C=O
PCl5  PCl3 + Cl2 having Kp = 2 atm is given
Q.78 (Code-A) (Common ion effect)
by
(1) – 400 R ln 2 1. Common ion effect will observed in aqueous
solution of
(2) – 2.303 × 400 × R ln 2
(1) HNO3 + HCl (2) NaCl + KCl
(3) – 127 R ln 2
(3) NaCl + NaOH (4) NaOH + NH4OH
(4) – 400 log 2
2. Among the following which pair will show
3. For the reaction. A(s)  B(g) + 2C(g), if at common Ion effect?
equilibrium total pressure is 3 atm, then Kp for (1) NaCN + KCN
the reaction is (2) NaCl + HCl
(1) 3 atm3 (2) 4 atm3 (3) H2SO4 + Na2SO4
(3) 6 atm3 (4) 27 atm3 (4) CH3COOH + CH3COONa
3. The acetate Ion concentration in a solution
4. If for a reversible reaction at 27°C Kp = 1, then
having 10–3 M CH3COOH and 0.1 M HCl, is
G° of the reaction is
(Ka of CH3COOH = 1.8 × 10–5)
(1) – 2.303 × R × 300 (2) – 300 R
(1) 1.8 × 10–7 M (2) 1.8 × 10–7 M
(3) Zero (4) – 2.303 R
(3) 1.8 × 10–5 M (4) 1.8 × 10–6 M
Q.61. (Code-A) (Bond Enthalpy)
Q.60.(Code-B) (Enthalpy of atomisation and
1. Among the following maximum bond enthalpy is Enthalpy of sublimation)
of
1. For the given reactions, CH4(g) → C(g) + 4H(g),
(1) F2 (2) Cl2 aH° = 1664 kJ mol–1
(3) Br2 (4) I2 The value of C–H H° is
2. Minimum bond enthalpy at 298 K is of (1) 832 kJ mol–1
(1) H–F (2) H–Cl (2) 416 kJ mol–1

(3) H–Br (4) H–I (3) 212 kJ mol–1

(4) 112 kJ mol–1

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CSS-02 Chemistry

2. Enthalpy of atomization and bond dissociation (1) N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g)

enthalpy are same for
(1) Cl2(g) (2) Na(s) (2) CaCO3(s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g)

(3) C2H6(g) (4) Br2(l) (3) Ni(s) + 4CO(g)  Ni(CO)4 (g)

3. Given that
(4) H2(g) + I2(g)  2HI(g)
X(s)→ X(l); H = a
2. The equilibrium constant KC for the following
X(l) → X(g); H = b
reaction will be
The enthalpy of sublimation of X will be
CuO(s) + CO(g)  Cu(s) + CO2(g)
(1) a – b (2) a + b
(3) – (a + b) (4) – b
(1)
CO2  (2)
Cu
Q.79. (Code-B) (Ionization constants of weak CO CO 
acids)
(3)
CO2  (4)
Cu
A weak acid, HA has a Ka of 1.00 × 10–5. If 0.1
1.
mole of this acid is dissolved in one litre of water,
CuO CuO
the degree of ionisation for the acid is 3. For which of the following equilibrium unit of KP
(1) 0.02 (2) 0.01 is bar at equilibrium?
(3) 0.1 (4) 0.05 (1) N2O4(g)  2NO2(g)
2. The H+ ion concentration in 0.1 M CH3COOH 1
solution is (given Ka = 2 × 10–5] (2) CO(g) + O2 (g)  CO2(g)
2
(1) 1.7 × 10–6 (2) 1.5 × 10–4
1
(3) 1.4 × 10–4 (4) 1.4 × 10–3 (3) SO3(g) SO2(g) + O2 ( g)
2
3. A 0.2 molar solution of weak acid is 0.1%
ionised, its ionisation constant is (4) NH4HS(s)  NH3(g) + H2S(g)

(1) 2 × 10–7 (2) 1.25 × 10–6 4. For the reaction

(3) 2.1 × 10–8 (4) 1 × 10–8 1 3
NH3(g) N2 (g) + H2 (g),
4. If pKa of weak acid is 5.4 and its concentration 2 2
is 0.5 M, then pH of the solution is Kp is equal to
(1) 3.99 (2) 2.85 (1) Kc (2) Kc RT
(3) 2 (4) 5 1

Q.64 (Equilibrium Constant) (3) kc (RT)–1 (4) K c (RT)2

1. For which of the following equilibrium unit of Kc
is molL–1?

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 FTS-04
Code-(A + B)

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-02
CHEMISTRY

Q.89 (Code-B) (Physical properties of alkali 3. Which compound does not evolve NO2 gas on
metals) heating?
1. Correct order of density of given alkali metals is (1) Mg(NO3)2
(1) Rb > K > Na (2) Na > K > Rb (2) LiNO3
(3) Rb > Na > K (4) K > Rb > Na (3) NaNO3
2. Correct order of standard reduction potential (4) Sr(NO3)2
(M+/M) for given alkali metals is
4. Which among the following hydrates suffer
(1) K > Na > Li hydrolysis on heating?
(2) Na > K > Li (1) MgCl2 · 8H2O
(3) Li > Na > K (2) CaCl2 · 6H2O
(4) K > Li > Na
(3) SrCl2 · 6H2O
3. Caesium gives which colour to the flame test?
(4) BaCl2 · 2H2O
(1) Yellow (2) Violet
Q.58. (Code-B)(Physical properties of hydrogen)
(3) Crimson red (4) Blue
1. Consider the following statements
4. Which among the following is hydrated most in
aqueous medium? (a) Deuterium is also known as heavy
+ +
hydrogen
(1) Rb (2) K
+ +
(b) Deuterium and tritium are radioactive
(3) Na (4) Li
(c) Melting point of deuterium is greater than
Q.72. (Code-B) (Salts of alkali and alkaline earth protium
metals)
The correct statement(s) is/are
1. Which salt does not form hydrate?
(1) (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(1) MgCl2 (2) NaCl
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) LiCl (4) CaCl2
2. Percentage abundance of para hydrogen at
2. Consider the following statements
absolute zero temperature is about
(a) LiCl and MgCl2 are soluble in ethanol
(1) 100% (2) 50%
(b) Magnesium does not form solid
hydrogencarbonate (3) 75% (4) 25%

(c) LiCl is deliquescent but MgCl2 is not 3. Number of neutrons present in tritium and
protium respectively are
The correct statements are
(1) 1 and 1
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (c) only (2) 2 and 1

(3) (a) and (c) only (3) 1 and Zero

(4) (a), (b) and (c) (4) 2 and Zero

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CSS-02 Chemistry

4. Consider the following statements about ortho Q.81. (Chemical properties of group 14 elements)
and para hydrogens
1. The element which does not show catenation
(a) If the spins of nuclei of two H-atoms of H2 property is
molecule are in the same direction, the
(1) C (2) Si
dihydrogen is called ortho hydrogen
(b) Thermal conductivity of ortho hydrogen is (3) Pb (4) Sn
greater than para hydrogen 2. The element of group 14 which forms the most
(c) At ordinary temperature dihydrogen acidic dioxide is
contains 75% ortho hydrogen (1) C (2) Si
The incorrect statement (s) is/are
(3) Ge (4) Sn
(1) (b) only
3. Ionic compound(s) among the following is/are
(2) (c) only
(1) CCl4 (2) SnF4
(3) (a) and (b) only
(3) PbF4 (4) Both (2) and (3)
(4) (b) and (c) only
4. Incorrect statement among the following is
Q.75 (Code-A) (Characteristics of compounds of
alkaline earth metals) (1) SnO is an amphoteric oxide
1. Most basic hydroxide among the following is (2) Sn in +2 oxidation state is a strong oxidising
(1) Mg(OH)2 (2) Ca(OH)2 agent

(3) Sr(OH)2 (4) Ba(OH)2 (3) The hybridization of Sn in [Sn(OH)6]2– is

sp3d2
2. Covalent compound among the following is
(4) CCl4 does not undergo hydrolysis
(1) BeCl2 (2) MgCl2
(3) CaCl2 (4) SrCl2 Q.48 (Code-B) (Silicates)

3. Correct order of solubility of the following 1. Which of the following is not a natural silicate?
alkaline earth metal sulphates is (1) Feldspar (2) Zeolite
(1) BaSO4 > SrSO4 > CaSO4
(3) Asbestos (4) Cement
(2) CaSO4 > SrSO4 > BaSO4
2. The anion present in pyrosilicate is
(3) SrSO4 > BaSO4 > CaSO4
(1) SiO 32– (2) Si2 O 76–
(4) CaSO4 > BaSO4 > SrSO4
42. An alkaline earth metal chloride forms MCl2 · (3) Si3 O 4–
4 (4) Si2 O 52–
8H2O. The metal M is most likely to be
3. In cyclic silicates, the total number of oxygen
(1) Ca (2) Sr atom(s) shared per SiO 4– 4 tetrahedron is
(3) Mg (4) Ba
(1) 1 (2) 2
5. Which of the following compounds is thermally
most stable? (3) 3 (4) 4

(1) BaCO3 (2) SrCO3

(3) CaCO3 (4) MgCO3

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Chemistry
ANSWERS

Q.60. (Enthalpy of atomisation and Enthalpy of

Q.51 (Code-A) (Gibbs Energy & Equilibrium
Constant) sublimation)
1. (2)
1. (1)
2. (1)
2. (1)
3. (2) 3. (2)
Q.79. (Ionization constants of weak acids)
4. (3)
1. (2)
Q.61. (Code-A) (Bond Enthalpy)
2. (4)
1. (2)
3. (1)
2. (4)
4. (2)
3. (1)
Q.64 (Equilibrium Constant)
4. (1)
1. (2)
Q.78 (Code-A) (Common ion effect)
2. (1)
1. (4)
3. (1)
2. (4)
4. (2)
3. (2)

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CHEMISTRY
ANSWERS

Q.89 (Code-B) (Physical properties of alkali metals) Q.75 (Code-B) (Characteristics of compounds of
alkaline earth metals)
1. (3)
2. (2) 1. (4)

3. (4) 2. (1)

4. (4) 3. (2)

Q.72. (Code-B) (Salts of alkali and alkaline earth 4. (3)

metals) 5. (1)
1. (2)
Q.81. (Chemical properties of group 14 elements)
2. (1)
1. (3)
3. (3)
2. (1)
4. (1)
3. (4)
Q.58. (Code-B) (Physical properties of hydrogen)
4. (2)
1. (3)
2. (1) Q.48 (Code-B) (Silicates)

3. (4) 1. (4)
4. (1) 2. (2)
3. (2)

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Q.109 (Code-B) [Cell: The unit of Life – 4. In acrocentric chromosomes

Endomembrane System] (1) The centromere is present near the tip of
1. Which of the given part of Golgi apparatus one of its arms
arises from periphery of cisternae due to
(2) p and q arms are clearly visible
fenestrations?
(3) There is no p arm
(1) Cisternae (2) Tubule
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) Vesicles (4) Golgian Vacuoles
Q.97 (Code-B) (Cell: The unit of Life- AN overview
2. Which part of Golgi apparatus may functions as
lysosome? of Cell)
(1) Cisternae (2) Tubules 1. All of the following are the layers in bacteria that
constitute their cell envelope, except
(3) Golgian Vacuoles (4) Vesicles
(1) Plasma Membrane (2) Mesosome
3. Which of the given part of Golgi apparatus are
pinched off from the tubules? (3) Glycocalyx (4) Cell wall
(1) Cisternae (2) Tubules 2. Which of the following statements is true w.r.t.
(3) Golgian Vacuoles (4) Vesicles Gram positive bacteria?
Q.102 (Code-B) (Cell: The unit of Life – Eukaryotic (1) They lack outer membrane
Cell) (2) Cell wall is thinner than that of Gram
1. Which of the following chromosomes has both negative bacteria
equal arms and hence there is no p and q arm? (3) Teichoic acid is absent in cell wall
(1) Metacentric chromosome (4) They do not retain the Gram stain when
(2) Sub-metacentric chromosome washed with alcohol
(3) Acrocentric chromosome 3. Which component of bacterial cell retains Gram
(4) Telocentric chromosome stain even after washing with alcohol?
2. In which of the following chromosomes the (1) Cell membrane
centromere is present at terminal position and (2) Outermost layer of cell envelope, i.e
hence only one arm is appeared?
capsule
(1) Metacentric chromosome
(3) Cytoplasm (4) Thick cell wall
(2) Sub-metacentric chromosome
4. The outermost layer of cell envelope in Gram
(3) Acrocentric chromosome positive bacteria is composed of
(4) Telocentric chromosome (1) Phospholipid
3. In which of the following chromosomes the (2) Polypeptide and lipid
centromere is present slightly away from
chromosome and hence p and q arms are (3) Peptidoglycan
clearly visible? (4) Lipopolysaccharide
(1) Metacentric chromosome Q.129 (Code-A) (Cell Cycle and Division:
(2) Sub-metacentric chromosome Interphase)
(3) Acrocentric chromosome 1. Interphase comprise of all phases, except
(4) Telocentric chromosome (1) G1 phase (2) G2 phase
(3) S phase (4) M phase

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FTS-3 Botany

2. The interphase lasts A of the duration of cell 2. The inner membrane forms a number of
cycle. infoldings called the
A here is (1) Cristae (2) Matrix
(1) More than 95 % (2) Less than 5 % (3) Perimitochondrial space
(3) For 50 % (4) For 10 % (4) Elementary particles
3. If a living cell divides in every 24 hours, then 3. The outer membrane of mitochondria contains
what will be the approximate duration of M (1) 60 % protein and 40 % lipids
phase in it? (2) 80 % protein and 20 % lipids
(1) 23 hours (2) 1 hour (3) 40 % protein and 60 % lipids
(3) 12 hours (4) 22 hours (4) 20 % protein and 80% lipids
4. Read the statements and select the correct 4. The inner membrane of mitochondria contains
option.
(1) 40 % protein and 60 % lipids
A - The interphase lasts more than 95 % of the
(2) 60 % protein and 40 % lipids
duration of cell cycle.
(3) 20 % protein and 80 % lipids
B - Interphase comprises of G1, S and G2
(4) 80 % protein and 20 % lipids
phases.
5. Choose the correct statement w.r.t.
(1) Both A and B are correct
mitochondrial membranes.
(2) Both A and B are incorrect
(1) Outer membrane is more permeable than
(3) Only A is correct
inner one
(4) Only B is correct
(2) Inner membrane is more permeable than
Q.134 (Code-B) (Cell: The unit of Life – Eukaryotic outer one
Cells - Mitochondria)
(3) The space between the two membrane is
1. Mitochondria are surrounded by outer and inner called matrix
membrane. The outer membrane is
(4) ATP synthesis occurs in the outer
(1) Smooth and discontinuous limiting membrane
boundary
(2) Smooth and continuous limiting boundary
(3) Infolded and forms cristae
(4) Infolded and forms matrix

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Q.94 (Code-A) [Transport in Plants: Plant-water 1. Some of the nitrogen travels as

Relations-Water Potential] (1) Inorganic ions
1. Water potential of pure water at room (2) Organic forms such as amino acids
temperature and pressure is
(3) Bounded with phosphates
(1) Equal to cytoplasm of a cell
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(2) Is highest
2. Much of nitrogen is carried in the organic form
(3) Is less than zero as amino acids but some organic nitrogen is
(4) Is lowest travelled through
2. Read the statements and select the correct (1) Phloem (2) Xylem
option. (3) Root hair only (4) Endodermis only
A. - Water moves from region of high water 3. Which of the following is not translocated
potential to low water potential. through phloem?
B. - Flaccid cell has lower water potential as (1) Organic nitrogen in the form of amino acids
compared to pure water.
(2) Sugars
(1) Both A and B are correct
(3) Hormones
(2) Both A and B are incorrect
(4) Water and minerals
(3) Only A is correct
4. Mineral elements are translocated through
(4) Only B is correct xylem in
3. If a flaccid cell is placed in a solution having (1) Both inorganic and organic form
water potential lesser than it, then
(2) Only inorganic form
(1) Cell will burst due to endosmosis
(3) Only organic form
(2) Exosmosis will occur
(4) Only as charged ions
(3) It will show deplasmolysis
Q.103 (Code-B) (Transport in Plants: Uptake of
(4) Will show no effect on size and volume mineral ions)
4. At room temperature and pressure as compare 1. Ions are absorbed from the soil by passive
to pure water a flaccid cell
transport. It occurs through
(1) Has lower water potential
(1) Specific proteins that utilizes ATP
(2) Has higher solute potential
(2) Mass flow system
(3) Has lower solute potential
(3) Diffusion (4) Both (2) & (3)
(4) Both (1) and (3)
2. Ions are absorbed from the soil by active
5. Endosmosis occur when transport, It occurs through
(1) A turgid cell is put into concentrated sugar (a) Specific proteins of root hair cells.
solution
(b) ATP driven pumps
(2) A flaccid cell put into pure water
(c) Simple diffusion
(3) A turgid cell put into isotonic solution
(1) Both (a) & (b) are true
(4) A flaccid cell put into hypertonic solution
(2) Only (b) is true
Q.102 (Code-A) (Transport in Plants: Uptake and
(3) Both (b) & (c) are true
Transport of mineral nutrients)
(4) Only (a) is true

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FTS-4 Botany

3. Presence of specific proteins actively pump ions (3) Completely permeable membrane
from the soil into cytoplasm of which of given (4) Cellulosic membrane
cells of root hair? Q.91 (Code-B) (Transport in Plants: Diffusion)
(1) Xylem vessels (2) Epidermal cells 1. The movement by diffusion is
(3) Cortical cell (4) Endodermal cell (1) Passive process (2) Active process
Q.92 (Code-B) (Transport in Plants: Plant-Water (3) A very fast process
Relation)
(4) A slow and active process
1. In plants, the bilayer of cell membrane is mainly
2. Gaseous movement in plants is solely by
made up of
(1) Facilitated diffusion
(1) Polysaccharides (2) Phospholipids
(2) Simple diffusion
(3) Polypeptides (4) Glycoproteins
(3) Active transport
2. Read the following statements and choose the
(4) ATP driven process
option which is true for them.
3. Choose correct statement w.r.t. transport
Statement-1: Polar molecules cannot pass
mechanism.
through lipid bilayer of plasma membrane
by self. (1) Simple diffusion is highly selective
Statement-2: Polar molecules require carrier (2) Facilitated diffusion is uphill transport
proteins to facilitate their transport across (3) Simple diffusion is downhill transport
the membrane. (4) Active transport does not require membrane
(1) Both the statements are correct protein
(2) Both statements are incorrect 4. Diffusion rates are not affected by
(3) Only statement-1 is correct (1) Temperature (2) Pressure
(4) Only statement-2 is correct (3) Concentration gradient
3. The movement of water by diffusion through (4) Inhibitors
plasma membrane is called 5. In diffusion
(1) Active transport (2) Imbibition (1) Living system is required
(3) Absorption (4) Osmosis (2) Molecules move in a random fashion
4. The membrane that permits the movement of (3) Molecules move even through impermeable
solvent molecules only, e.g. water, is called membrane
(1) Impermeable membrane (4) Presence of aquaporins is must
(2) Semipermeable membrane

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Answer Key

Q.109 (Cell: The unit of Life – Endomembrane Q.129 (Cell Cycle and Division: Interphase)
System) 1. (4)
1. (2) 2. (1)
2. (3) 3. (2)
3. (4) 4. (1)
Q.102 (Cell: The unit of Life – Eukaryotic Cell) Q.134 (Cell: The unit of Life – Eukaryotic Cells
1. (1) - Mitochondria)
2. (4) 1. (2)
3. (2) 2. (1)
4. (4) 3. (1)
Q.97 (Cell: The unit of Life- AN overview of Cell) 4. (4)
1. (2) 5. (2)
2. (1)
3. (4)
4. (3)

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Answer Key

Q.94 (Transport in Plants: Plant-water Relations- 2. (1)

Water Potential) 3. (2)
1. (2) Q.92 (Transport in Plants: Plant-Water Relation)
2. (1) 1. (2)
3. (2) 2. (1)
4. (4) 3. (4)
5. (2) 4. (2)
Q.102 (Transport in Plants: Uptake and Transport Q.91 (Transport in Plants: Diffusion)
of mineral nutrients)
1. (1)
1. (1)
2. (2)
2. (2)
3. (3)
3. (4)
4. (4)
4. (1)
5. (2)
Q.103 (Transport in Plants: Uptake of mineral
ions)
1. (4)

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Q.169 (Code-B) Transport of oxygen 5. Deglutition centre is situated in
1. Read the statement and choose the correct (1) Hypothalamus (2) Midbrain
option. (3) Medulla ablongata (4) Cerebellum
Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver Q137 (Code B) Oesophagus
around ____ of O2 to the tissues under normal 1. Read the statement carefully and fills the blank (A)
physiological conditions. with correct option
(1) 4 ml (2) 5 ml The oesophagus and the trachea (windpipe) open
(3) 10 ml (4) 2 ml into the ___A___
2. How much per cent of O2 is transported by RBCs (1) Pharynx (2) Buccal cavity
in blood? (3) Duodenum (4) Mouth
(1) 3 per cent 2. Which of the following part of alimentary canal
(2) 97 per cent lies mainly in the thorax?
(3) 23 per cent (1) Buccal cavity (2) Pharynx
(4) 50 per cent (3) Oesophagus (4) Sigmoid colon
3. The amount of CO2 delivered by 100 ml of 3. Read the following statements
deoxygenated blood to the alveoli is Statement-I Pharynx does not lie in the thoracic
(1) 10 ml (2) 5 ml region.
(3) 4 ml (4) 23 ml Statement II: During swallowing, bolus is passed
4. O2 can bind with haemoglobin in a reversible from buccal cavity to pharynx and finally to
manner to form oesophagus which is mainly located in thorax.
(1) Carbamino-haemoglobin (1) Both statements are correct
(2) Carboxyhaemoglobin (2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) COHb (3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Oxyhaemoglobin (4) Only statement B is correct
Q.150 (Code-B) Digestion and absorption Q146. (Code A) Histology of Alimentary Canal
1. Masticated food particles in buccal cavity adhere 1. Read the following
by mucus into a (a) Mucus secreting goblet cells in intestine
(1) Bolus (2) Chyme (b) Mucus secreting mucus neck cells in mucosa
(3) Chyle (4) Saliva of stomach
2. The common passage for both food and air is (c) Mucus secreting Brunner’s gland in sub-
(1) Buccal cavity (2) Pharynx mucosa of intestine
(3) Oesophagus (4) Larynx How many of the above statements are correct
w.r.t mucus secreting cells/structure and their
3. Swallowing of food substances with the help of location in the human alimentary canal?
pharyngeal muscles and tongue is called
(1) One (2) Three
(1) Deglutition (2) Peristalsis
(3) Two (4) Zero
(3) Chewing (4) Mastication
2. All of the following are present in the mucosa of
4. Select the correct sequence of passage of food intestine, except
in alimentary canal
(1) Paneth cells (2) Peyer’s patches
(1) Pharynx → Buccal cavity → Oesophagus
(3) Brunner’s gland (4) Goblet cells
(2) Oesophagus → Buccal cavity → Pharynx
3. Choose the incorrect statement
(3) Buccal cavity → Oesophagus → Pharynx (1) Paneth cells secrete antibacterial lysozyme
(4) Buccal cavity → Pharynx → Oesophagus

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CSS-02(FTS-03_A&B) Zoology

(2) Brunner’s glands are sub-mucosal intestinal (1) Both statement A and B are correct
glands (2) Both statement A and B are incorrect
(3) Mucus secreting cells are only present in the (3) Only statement A is correct
mucosa of intestine as an exclusive feature (4) Only statement B is correct
(4) Peyer’s patches are present exclusively in
Q.169 (Code-A) Transport of gases: Transport of
mucosa of ileum
Oxygen
Q152. (Code-A) Digestive gland – liver 1. Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily
1. The structural and functional unit of liver is related to partial pressure of
(1) Nephron (2) Hepatocyte (1) Cabon dioxide (2) Carbon monoxide
(3) Hepatic globule (4) Alveoli (3) Oxygen (4) Nitrogen
2. The bile is secreted by 2. Factor which do not favours the formation of
(1) Hepatic cells (2) Nephrocytes oxyhaemoglobin is
(3) Hepatic ducts (4) Paneth cells (1) High pO2
3. Read the following given statements and choose (2) Low pCO2
the correct option (3) Lesser H+ concentration
Statement-A: Liver helps in carbohydrate (4) High temperature
metabolism. 3. Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver
Statement-B: Liver aids in metabolism of protein around ____ ml of oxygen to the tissues under
(1) Both statements are incorrect strenuous exercise
(2) Both statements are correct Fill the blank with a suitable option
(3) Only statement A is correct (1) 10 (2) 5
(4) Only statement B is correct (3) 15 (4) 30
4. The hepatic lobule is covered by 4. P50 value of haemoglobin in oxygen dissociation
(1) Thin epithelial tissue sheath, Glisson’s capsule curve is
(2) Thick epithelial tissue sheath, Glisson’s (1) Directly proportional to CO binding affinity with
capsule Hb
(3) Thick connective tissue sheath, Glisson’s (2) Directly proportional to O2 binding affinity with
capsule Hb
(4) Thin connective tissue sheath, Glisson’s (3) Inversely proportional to CO2 binding affinity
capsule with Hb
5. Read the following given statements and choose (4) Inversely proportional to O2 binding affinity
the correct option with Hb
Statement-A : Liver helps in erythropoiesis during 5. Under normal conditions, P50 value is achieved at
embryonic development. (1) 40 mmHg of pO2 (2) 25 mmHg of pO2
Statement-B : Liver is the largest gland of the (3) 45 mmHg of pO2 (4) 60 mmHg of pO2
body and weighs about 1.2 to 1.5 kg in an adult
human being.

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Q.177 (Code-A) Axial skeleton 5. All of the following are a part of actin filament
1. Number of false ribs in an adult human is except
(1) Eight (2) Six (1) F-actin (2) Troponin
(3) Four (4) Two (3) G-actins (4) Meromyosin
2. How may pairs of true ribs are present in an adult Q.175 (Code-A) Tubular Reabsorption
human being? 1. 70-80% of electrolytes and water are reabsorbed
(1) Six pairs (2) Five pairs in
(3) Seven pairs (4) Two pairs (1) DCT (2) CD
3. Read the statement and choose the option that (3) PCT (4) Renal corpuscle
correctly fills the blank. 2. _____ of CO2 is removed by humans per minute.
The 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs do not articulate Fill the blank with a suitable option
directly with the sternum but join with the ____ rib (1) 20 ml (2) 200 ml
with the help of hyaline cartilage (3) 2000 ml (4) 2 ml
(1) 11th (2) 12th 3. How many of the following substance(s) is/are
(3) 1st (4) 7th eliminated by sebaceous gland?
4. Complete the analogy for the following a. Sterols
Floating ribs : 2 pairs :: Ear ossicles: b. Hydrocarbons
(1) Four pairs (2) Three pairs c. Waxes
(3) Two pairs (4) One pair Choose the correct option
5. Total number of cranial bones are (1) Zero (2) One
(1) 8 (2) 5 (3) Two (4) Three
(3) 6 (4) 12 4. Which of the following substance is reabsorbed in
Q.166 (Code-B) Structure of muscle the region of PCT?
1. Each skeletal muscle in our body is made up of (1) H+ (2) NH3
(3) HCO3 – (4) Albumin
muscle bundles, also known as
(1) Fascia (2) Myofilaments Q.150 (Code-B) Types of Movements
(3) Myofibrils (4) Fascicles 1. _____ movement helps in the swimming of
2. In a skeletal muscle fibre, light bands or I bands spermatozoa. Fill the blank with the correct option
contain (1) Muscular (2) Amoeboid
(1) Actin (2) Myosin (3) Ciliary (4) Flagellar
(3) Titin (4) Dystrophin 2. Macrophages and leucocytes in blood exhibit
3. Read the statement and choose the option that (1) Amoeboid movement
correctly fills the blank. (2) Ciliary movement
A characteristic feature of muscle fibre is the (3) Flagellar movement
presence of a large number of parallelly arranged
(4) Muscular movement
filaments in the sarcoplasm called_______.
3. Complete the analogy
(1) Fascia (2) Fascicle
Movement of jaws : Muscular movement ::
(3) Sarcolemma (4) Myofibrils
Movement of tongue :______
4. Each myosin filament is made up of monomeric
proteins called (1) Flagellar movement
(1) Troponin (2) Tropomyosin (2) Muscular movement
(3) Meromyosin (4) F-actin (3) Ciliary movement
(4) Amoeboid movement

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CSS-02(FTS-04_A&B) Zoology

4. Choose the incorrect option 5. Natural killer cells are spacialized

(1) Movement of fore limb : Muscular movement (1) Neutrophils (2) Basophils
(2) Movement of hind limb : Muscular movement (3) Lymphocytes (4) Monocytes
(3) Movement of cytoskeletal elements : Ciliary Q.158 (Code-B) Urine formation
movement 1. First step in urine formation is
(4) Movement of ovum through female (1) Urea synthesis
reproductive tract : Ciliary movement (2) Ultrafiltration
Q.151 (Code-A) Formed elements
(3) Selective reabsorption
1. Complete the analogy
(4) Tubular secretion
Phagocytosis in blood : Neutrophils :: 2. In normal physiological conditions, blood supplied
Phagocytosis in connective tissue : ____ to kidneys per minute is about
(1) Macrophages (2) Basophils
(1) 800-900 ml (2) 400-500 ml
(3) Natural killer cells (4) Lymphocytes (3) 1100-1200 ml (4) 1500-2000 ml
2. Macrophages are modified
3. Renal plasma flow per minute is about
(1) Neutrophils (2) Monocytes
(1) 800-900 ml (2) 400-500 ml
(3) Basophils (4) NK cells (3) 300-400 ml (4) 625-650 ml
3. Monocytes reach to connective tissue from blood
4. In a healthy adult human being, glomerular
capillaries through
filtration rate per minute is
(1) Diaphysis (2) Dialysis
(1) 125 ml (2) 200 ml
(3) Diapedesis (4) Diastole
(3) 180 L (4) 7.5 L
4. Which of the following are phagocytic cells present
5. Ratio of glomerular filtration rate to renal plasma
in human body?
flow is called filtration fraction which is equal to
(1) Only neutrophils (1) 1 : 3 (2) 2 : 5
(2) Only monocytes
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 5
(3) Both neutrophils and monocytes
(4) Neutrophils, monocytes and NK cells

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ANSWERS

Q.169 (B) Q146

1. (2) 1. (2)
2. (2) 2. (3)
3. (3) 3. (3)
4. (4) Q.152
Q.150 1. (3)
1. (1) 2. (1)
2. (2) 3. (2)
3. (1) 4. (4)
4. (4) 5. (1)
5. (3) Q.169 (A)
Q137. 1. (3)
1. (1) 2. (4)
2. (3) 3. (3)
3. (1) 4. (4)
5. (2)

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CSS-02(FTS-04_A&B) Zoology

Based on
FTS-04 Code A & B

Regd. Office :Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-02
ZOOLOGY

ANSWERS

Q.177 (B) Q.150 (B)

1. (2) 1. (4)
2. (3) 2. (1)
3. (4) 3. (2)
4. (2) 4. (3)
5. (1) Q.151 (A)
Q.166 (B) 1. (1)
1. (4) 2. (2)
2. (1) 3. (3)
3. (4) 4. (3)
4. (3) 5. (3)
5. (4) Q.158 (B)
Q.175 (A) 1. (2)
1. (3) 2. (3)
2. (2) 3. (4)
3. (4) 4. (1)
4. (3) 5. (4)

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