FIITJEE – Phase Test (JEE-Advanced)

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

QP Code: PAPER - 2
BATCH – 923A, 923, 023, 2123 A Lot (RW)-Ph-I

Pattern - CPT-1

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 183

 Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
 You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.

INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.

A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
4. All the section can be filled in PART-A of OMR.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet

1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on
OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for each
character of your Enrolment No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the
designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For Only One Part.

(i) Part-A (01-07) – Contains seven (07) multiple choice questions which have One or More correct answer.
Full Marks: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct options(s) is (are) darkened.
Partial Marks: +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO
incorrect option is darkened.
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks: 1 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three
will result in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B)
will result in 1 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.
(ii) Part-A (08-14) – Contains seven (07) multiple choice questions which have ONLY ONE CORRECT answer
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and -1 marks for wrong answer.

(iii) Part-A (15-18) - This section contains Two paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are Two multiple
choice questions. Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for the correct answer
and -1 marks for wrong answer.

Name of the Candidate :____________________________________________

Batch :____________________ Date of Examination :___________________

Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________

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website: www.fiitjee.com.
923A, 923, 023, 2123 A Lot (RW)-Ph-I-Paper-2-PCM(000000.1)-2

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– II :: P
PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
PART – A: (Multi Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

1. A block of mass 5 kg is placed on a rough horizontal plane. The

100 N
coefficient of static and kinetic friction between the block and 0
30
surface is 0.5 and 0.3 respectively. A force of 100 N is applied at
0
an angle of 30 from the horizontal as shown in the figure. Choose 5 kg
2
the correct option(s). [g = 10 m/s ]

(A) acceleration of block is 10 3 m/s2 (B) Normal reaction on block is zero

2
(C) normal reaction on block is 50 N (D) acceleration of block is 20 m/s

2. Four identical blocks each of mass m are kept on a horizontal

frictionless plane in contact with adjacent blocks as shown in figure. F A B C D
A force F is applied on the system

F F
(A) acceleration of each block is (B) net force on the block C is
4m 4
3F F
(C) net force on the block A is (D) force by the block C on the D is
4 8
3. A block of mass m is placed on inclined smooth surface of wedge of
mass M as shown. Wedge is accelerating horizontally with an
m
acceleration a such that block is relatively at rest on the inclined surface. a
(A) the value of a is g cot . M
(B) the value of a is g tan .  surface
(C) normal force on the wedge due to surface is (m + M)g.
(D) normal force on the surface due to wedge is Mg.

4. In the given figure pulleys are massless and frictionless F

and strings are light and inextensible. A force is applied on
pulley A vertically upward. At any time acceleration of 5 kg
is a1 (upward) and 10 kg is a2 (upward) then ( g = 10 m/s2) A
(A) a1 = 0, a2 = 0 if F = 100 N
(B) a1 = 5 m/s2 and a2 = 0 if F = 300 N
(C) a1 = 15 m/s2 , a2 = 2.5 m/s2 if F = 500 N
(D) acceleration of the masses is independent of F
a1 B a2

5kg 10kg

5. An object follows a circular path. The following quantities may remain constant during the motion
(A) speed (B) velocity
(C) acceleration (D) magnitude of acceleration

6. A rocket is fired vertically up from the ground with a resultant acceleration of 10 m/s2 upward. The fuel
is finished in 1 minute and it continuous to move up (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) the maximum height reached by rocket from ground is 18 km.
(B) the maximum height reached by rocket from ground is 36 km.
(C) the time from initial in which rocket again at ground is 240 s.
(D) the time from initial in which rocket again at ground is (120+60 2 )s.

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7. A train starts from rest at S = 0 and is subjected to a(m/s)2

acceleration as shown
6

S(m)
30
(A) Change in velocity at the end of 10 m displacement is 50 m/s.
(B) Velocity of the train for S = 10 m is 10 m/s.
(C) The maximum velocity attained by train is not greater than 14 m/s
(D) The maximum velocity of the train is between 15 m/s and 16 m/s.

PART – A: (Single Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

8. Three equal weights A, B and C of mass 2 kg each are hanging on a string

passing over a fixed frictionless pulley as shown in the figure. The tension in the
string connecting weights B and C is
(A) zero (B) 13 N
(C) 3.3 N (D) 19.6 N
A B

9. An iron sphere weighs 10 N and rests in a V shaped trough whose sides form A B
an angle 60 . The net force exerted by the walls on the sphere in case as
shown in figure is
(A) 0 N (B) 10 N
60
10
(C) N (D) 5 N
3

10. Two trains are each 50 m long moving parallel towards each other at speeds 10 m/s and 15 m/s
respectively. After how much time they will pass each other?
2
(A) 5 sec (B) 4 sec
3
(C) 2sec (D) 6 sec

11. The position of a particle as a function of time is r  4 sin 2t iˆ  4 cos 2 t ˆj (where t is time in
second). Path of this particle will be
(A) an ellipse (B) a hyperbola
(C) a circle (D) any other curved path.

12. A particle slides on a frictionless elevated A

curved track from a point A which terminates in
a straight horizontal section ending at C as 1.0m
C
shown. If the particle looses the contact with 0.5m
the track at C, the particle will hit the ground
from C at a horizontal distance of B
(A) 0.5 m (B) 0.8 m
(C) 1.0 m (D) 1.2 m

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13. Force (F) acting on a particle is varying with its position (x) F(N)
as shown in F – x curve. The work done in displacing the
particle from x = 2 to 5 m is 20
(A) 10 J (B) 20 J
(C) 60 J (D) 100 J 10
0 x(m)
1 2 3 4 5
–10
–20

14. A particle is projected from point A with projection speed, u  20 m/s at u B

an angle of projection,   30º as shown in the figure. It strikes an
inclined plane at point B one second later. The separation AB is (g = 10 
m/s2) A
(A) 4 13 m (B) 5 13 m
(C) 4 10 m (D) 5 10 m

PART – A: (Paragraph Type)

This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each of these questions has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 15 to 16

Using the concept of relative motion, answer the following question. Velocity of y
the river with respect to ground is given by ‘V0’. Width of the river is ‘d’. A
swimmer swims (with respect to water) perpendicular to the current with
acceleration a = 2t (where t is time) starting from rest form the origin O at t = 0. d V0

O x

15. The time of crossing the river is

(A) (d)1/3 (B) (2d)1/3
(C) (3d)1/3 (D) Information is insufficient

16. The drift of the swimmer is

(A) V0(d)1/3 (B) V0(2d)1/3
(C) V0(3d)1/3 (D) None of these

Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 18

7
A person trying to loose weight, lifts a 10 kg mass 0.5 m, 1000 times daily. Fat supplies 4 10 J of energy
per kilogram which is converted into potential energy to raise the weight with 20 % efficiency rate. The
2
potential energy lost each time the person lowers the mass is dissipated. (g = 10 m/s )

17. How much work does person do against the gravitational force daily?
(A) 25 kJ (B) 50 kJ
(C) 10 kJ (D) 75 kJ

18. How much fat will the dieter use up in 10 days?

(A) 6.25  10–2 kg (B) 12.5  10–2 kg
–2
(C) 25  10 kg (D) 3.125  10–2 kg

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SECTION – II : CHEMISTRY
PART – A: (Multi Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

1. Which of the following is/are redox reaction(s)?

(A) BaO2  H2 SO4  BaSO 4  H2 O2 (B) 2BaO  O2  2BaO2
(C) 2KClO3  2KCl  3O2 (D) SO2  2H2 S  2H2 O  3S

2. Select incorrect statement(s)

(A) At very low pressure real gases show minimum deviation from ideal behaviour.
(B) The compressibility factor for an ideal gas is zero.
(C) At Boyle temperature real gas behave as ideal gas in high pressure region.
(D) Real gas show maximum deviation at high pressure and low temperature.

3. Which of the following are correct statements?

(A) Vander Waal’s constant ‘a’ is a measure of attraction force.
(B) Vander Waal’s constant ‘b’ is also called co-volume or excluded volume.
(C) b is expressed in L mol1
(D) b is one-third of critical volume

4. 10 volume strength of H2O2 is equivalent to

(A) 0.89 M (B) 3% H2 O2 (w / v)
(C) 30. 36 g/lt (D) 1.786 N

5. The orbital which have lobe along the axis is/are

(A) dz2 (B) dxz
(C) dx2  y2 (D) dxy

6. Out of the following species the molecules having tetrahedral structure are
(A) NH4 (B) BF4
(C) XeF4 (D) CCl4

7. If a gas expands at constant temperature, then choose the correct statement

(A) the pressure decreases
(B) the kinetic energy of the molecules remains the same
(C) the kinetic energy of the molecules decrease
(D) the number of molecules of the gas increase

Part – A: (Single Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

8. Nascent hydrogen is prepared by

(A) Na and C2H5 OH (B) Al and NaOH
(C) Zn and dil. H2 SO4 (D) All of these

9. The mass of a particle is 10 –10 g and its radius is 2  10 –4 cm . If its velocity is 10 6 cm sec 1 with
0.0001% uncertainty in measurement, the uncertainty in its position is
(A) 5.2  10 –8 m (B) 5.2  10 –7 m
(C) 5.2  10 –6 m (D) 5.2  10 –9 m

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10. sp3 hybridisation is in


(A) AlH4 (B) CH3
(C) ClO 4 (D) All

11. H-atom is exposed to electromagnetic radiation of   1025.6 Å and excited atom gives out induced
radiations. What is the minimum wavelength of these induced radiations ?
(A) 102.6 nm (B) 12.09 nm
(C) 121.6 nm (D) 810.8 nm

12. Total number of lone pairs in ClF3 is

(A) 2 (B) 8
(C) 4 (D) 11

o
13. The number of 90 bond angles in SF4 molecules is/are:
(A) Zero (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3

14. Which of the following are iso electronic and iso-structural?

NO3 – , CO3 2 – , ClO3 – , SO3
(A) ClO3 – , CO3 2– (B) SO3 , NO3 –
(C) NO3 – , CO3 2– (D) CO3 2– , SO3

PART – A: (Paragraph Type)

This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each of these questions has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 15 to 16

There are set of 4 quantum numbers:

1. Principal quantum number is denoted by n. The values of n ranges from 1 to n. It gives information about
the size and energy level of major energy shells.
For one electron species, the mathematical expression of energy is
2  2 me4 z 2
En 
n2 h2
For multielectron atoms, it determines only the probable energy of the electron.

2. Azimuthal or angular quantum number is denoted by . Its values ranges from 0 to (n – 1) for
s, p, d, f sub-shells respectively. It gives information about shape, energy level of sub-shell and orbital
 h  h 
angular momentum of the electron is  (  1)  , and   
 2   2 

3. Magnetic quantum number is denoted by m. The values of m ranges from   to . It gives information
about possible number of orientations of sub-shells.

1 1
4. Spin quantum number is denoted by s. The values of s are and  .
2 2

15. Which of the following sets of quantum number is not allowed?

(A) n  3,   1, m  2 (B) n  3,   1, m  1
(C) n  3,   0, m  0 (D) n  3,   2, m  2

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16. For an electron in f sub-shell, the orbital angular momentum is

(A) 2  (B) 3 
(C) 12  (D) 2 

Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 18

Dissolved oxygen in water is determined by using a redox reaction.

To the given sample of water containing dissolved oxygen, alkaline solution of Mn+2 and aqueous KI solution
will be added. The iodine so liberated will be titrated with standard solution of hypo (Na2S2O3).

Following equations describe the procedure:

I. 2Mn2   aq.  4OH  aq.  O2  g 
 2MnO2  s   2H2O   
II.  Mn2  aq.  I2  aq.  2H2O   
MnO2  s   2I  aq.  4OH  aq. 
III. 2S2O32   aq.  I2  aq.  S4O62  aq.  2I  aq.

2
17. How many moles of S2O3 reacts with each mole of I2?
(A) 0.5 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 4

18. n-Factor for the equivalent weight of MnO2 and I2 in 2nd and 3rd reactions are respectively
(A) 2, 1 (B) 2, 2
(C) 1, 2 (D) none

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923A, 923, 023, 2123 A Lot (RW)-Ph-I-Paper-2-PCM(000000.1)-8

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– IIIIII :: M
MAAT
THHE
EMMA
ATTIIC
CSS
PART – A: (Multi Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

| x | 1
1. If  0,x  R, x  2, then x belongs to
| x | 2
(A) (–, –2) (B) [–1, 1]
(C) (2, ) (D) (1, 2)

2. For a positive integer n, let

   
  2 
 
fn      tan    . 1  sec  1  sec  2   1  sec  4  ......... 1  sec 2n   . Then
 
     
(A) f2    1 (B) f3    1
 16   32 
     
(C) f4    1 (D) f5   1
 64   128 

27 21    
3. If ,  be such that       3 and cos   cos   , sin   sin   , then cos   is
65 65  2 
6 3
(A) (B)
65 130
(C) less than 0 (D) greater than -1

4. sin   sin   a and cos  + cos  = b, then

(   ) 1 2 (   ) 1 2
(A) cos  a  b2 (B) cos  a  b2
2 2 2 2
 4  a2  b2 a2  b2  2
(C) tan  (D) cos(  ) 
2 a2  b2 2

5. The equation of two equal sides of an isosceles triangle are 7x – y + 3 = 0 and x + y – 3 = 0 and the
third side passes through the point (1, –10). The equation of the third side is
(A) x – 3y – 31 = 0 (B) 3x + y – 7 = 0
(C) 3x + y + 7 = 0 (D) 3x – y + 7

6. The equation of straight line through the point (4, 5) and equally inclined to the lines 3x = 4y + 7 and
5y = 12x + 6
(A) 7x + 9y – 73 = 0 (B) 9x + 7y – 73 = 0
(C) 9x – 7y – 1 = 0 (D) 7x – 9y – 1 = 0

7. An equation of a circle which touches the y-axis at (0, 2) and cuts off an intercept 3 from the x-axis is
(A) x 2  y2  4x  5y  4  0 (B) x 2  y2  5x  4y  4  0
(C) x 2  y2  5x  4y  4  0 (D) x 2  y2  5x  4y  4  0

PART – A: (Single Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

8. If 2 < x < 3, then

(A) |x – 3| < |x – 2| (B) (x – 3) > (x – 2)
x3
(C) (x – 3) (x – 2) < 0 (D) >0
x2

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a b c
9. If 2  , where a, b, c > 0, then family of lines ax  by  c  0 passes through the
bc c b
fixed point, given by
(A) (1, 1) (B) (1, 2)
(C) (1, 2) (D) (1, 1)

10. If A (3, 3), B (4, 3) and C (3, 4) be the vertices of a triangle, then the distance between it’s orthocentre
and circumcentre is
1
(A) 2 (B)
2
(C) 2 2 (D) none of these
0 0
11. The value of tan 75 – cot 75 is equal to
(A) 1 + 2 3 (B) 2 + 3
(C) 2 – 3 (D) 2 3

12. A light ray coming along the line 3x + 4y = 5 gets reflected from the line ax + by = 1 and goes along
the line 5x  12y = 10, then
64 112 14 8
(A) a  ,b  (B) a  ,b 
115 15 15 115
64 8 64 14
(C) a  ,b  (D) a  ,b 
115 115 15 15

13. The distance of the point (3, 5) from the line 2x + 3y – 14 = 0 measured parallel to the line x – 2y = 1
is
7 7
(A) (B)
5 13
(C) 5 (D) 13

14. The equation of the circle whose two diameters are the lines x + y = 4 and x – y = 2 and which passes
through (4, 6) is
(A) x 2  y2  6x  2y  16  0 (B) x 2  y2  6x  2y  15
(C) x 2  y 2  0 (D) 5(x 2  y 2 )  4x  16

PART – A: (Paragraph Type)

This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each of these questions has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 15 and 16

A circle C whose radius is 1 unit, touches the x-axis at point A. The centre Q of C lies in first quadrant. The
tangent from origin O to the circle touches it at T and a point P lies on it such that OAP is a right angled
triangle at A and its perimeter is 8 units.

15. The length of QP is

1 4
(A) (B)
2 3
5
(C) (D) none of these
3

16. Equation of circle C is

(A) {x  (4  3 )} 2  (y  1)2  1 (B) {x  ( 3  2)}2  (y  1)2  1
(C) (x  3 )2  (y  2)2  1 (D) none of these
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Paragraph for Questions Nos. 17 and 18

A triangle ABC is given, where vertex A is (1, 1) and the orthocentre is (2, 4). Also sides AB and BC are
member of the family of lines ax + by + c = 0, where a, b, c are in A.P.

17. The vertex B is

(A) (2, 1) (B) (1, –2)
(C) (–1, 2) (D) (1, 2)

18. The vertex C is

(A) (4, 16) (B) (17, –4)
(C) (4, –17) (D) (–17, 4)

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 923A, 923, 023, 2123 A Lot (RW)-Ph-I-Paper-2-PCM(000000.1)-11

FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
CPT–1 PHASE-I CODE: 000000.1 PAPER–2

ANSWERS
PHYSICS (SECTION–I)
1. A, B 2. A, B 3. B, C 4. A, B, C
5. A, D 6. B, D 7. B, C 8. B
9. B 10. B 11. C 12. C
13. A 14. B 15. C 16. C
17. B 18. A

CHEMISTRY (SECTION–II)
1. B, C, D 2. B, C 3. A, B, C, D 4. A, B, C, D
5. A, C 6. A, B, D 7. A, B 8. D
9. A 10. D 11. A 12. D
13. A 14. C 15. A 16. C
17. C 18. B

MATHEMATICS (SECTION–III)
1. A, B, C 2. A, B, C, D 3. C, D 4. A, C, D
5. A, C 6. A, C 7. B, C 8. C
9. D 10. B 11. D 12. C
13. C 14. A 15. C 16. D
17. B 18. D

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website: www.fiitjee.com.