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Atomic No.: H=1, He=2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8, F=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Al = 13, Si = 14,
P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17, Ar =18, K=19, Ca=20,Cr=24, Mn=25, Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu=29, Zn=30,
As=33, Br = 35, Ag = 47, Si = 21, Sn = 50, Ti = 22,I = 53, Xe = 54, Ba = 56, Pb = 82, U = 92, V = 50.
Atomic masses: H =1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16, F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al=27,
Si=28, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59, Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5,
Zn = 65.4, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, Sn = 118.7, I = 127, Xe = 131, Ba = 137, Pb = 207, U = 238.
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JEE Main (Reshuffling Test)-PCM−2
P
PAAR
RTT -- II:: P
PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
(Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 30 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct
1. A string of linear mass density 0.8 kg/m is stretched to a tension 500 N. The mean power required to
maintain a travelling wave of amplitude of 10 mm and wavelength 0.5 m is
(A) 70 W (B) 85.3 W
(C) 98.7W (D) 110 W
3. The temperature at which the speed of sound wave in helium gas is same as that in hydrogen gas at
27C, is
(A) 504C (B) 45C
(C) 327C (D) 231C
Pressure P
M
4. An ideal gas is allowed to undergo three C B
processes separately.
Process I: a → b
Process II : a → c
Process III : a → d
b
These processes are plotted on the PV-
diagram shown in the figure. If the points
a
OABC form a square then temperature of
the gas decreases during.
c d
(A) All the three processes I, II and III
(B) the processes II and III only
(C) the process I and III only
(D) the process II only
A
O Volume (V)
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JEE Main (Reshuffling Test)-PCM−3
5. An ideal gas is enclosed in a cubical container. The container has a hole in its top face. During the
process of heating, at any instant the internal energy of the gas enclosed in the container is U,
(Neglect the thermal expansion of the container) then the value of U
(A) decreases continuously (B) remains constant
(C) Increases continuously (D) first decreases, then increases
6. A car starts from rest to cover a distance x. The coefficient of friction between the road and tyres is .
The minimum time in which the car can cover distance x is proportional to
1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8. Pluto moves around sun in an elliptical orbit of eccentricity 0.25. When Pluto moves from its aphelion
(farthest distance from sun) to its perihelion (minimum distance from sun), the work done by
gravitational force of sun is (take masses of Pluto and sun as m and M respectively and semi-major
axis of orbit as a)
15GMm
(A) zero (B)
8a
8GMm 4GMm
(C) (D)
15a 9a
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JEE Main (Reshuffling Test)-PCM−4
10. If vector a is a variable vector, whose magnitude is constant, then choose the statement which is
always true.
da da
(A) is perpendicular to a (B) is parallel to a
dt dt
da da
(C) is a constant vector (D) is a constant
dt dt
11. A string of length is fixed at both ends. It is vibrating in its third overtone. Maximum amplitude of the
particle on the string is A. The amplitude of the particle at a distance /3 from one end is
(A) A (B) 0
3A
(C) (D) A/2
2
P
12. The end A of a ladder AP of length 5 m, kept inclined to a vertical
wall is slipping over a horizontal surface with velocity of 2 m/s,
when A is at a distance of 3m from the wall. Velocity of centre of
mass at this moment is 2m/s
(A) 1.25 m/s (B) 0 m/s
(C) 1 m/s (D) 2 m/s O
A
3m
1 2
14. The binding energy of a particle of mass m with a planet, when it is on the planets surface, ismv0 .
2
A tunnel is dug along a diameter of the planet and the particle is dropped into it from the surface,
when the body reaches the centre of the planet, its speed is
v
(A) v0 (B) 0
2
v
(C) Zero (D) 0
2
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JEE Main (Reshuffling Test)-PCM−5
15. Find minimum value of the angle so that block of mass m does not F m
move on rough surface. The coefficient of static friction between the block
and surface is whatever may be the value of applied force F.
()Rou
ghSurface
1
(A) tan−1() (B) tan−1()
2
1
(C) cot−1() (D) cot −1()
2
16. An open organ pipe of length ‘L’ vibrates in second harmonic mode. The pressure variation is
maximum, (neglect end corrections)
L
(A) at the two ends (B) at a distance from either end inside the tube
4
(C) at the mid–point of the tube (D) none of these.
17. For a particle executing simple harmonic motion, the correct variation of acceleration a with
displacement x is given by
a a
(A) x (B) x
O O
a a
(C) x (D) x
O O
18. A projectile is projected in the earth’s gravitational with initial kinetic energy E. The horizontal range of
the projectile is R. If the mass of the projectile is 1 kg then the angle of projection of the projectile will
be equal to
gR gR
(A) sin−1 (B) 2sin−1
2E 2E
gR gR
(C) 0.5 sin−1 (D) 4 sin−1
2E 2E
19. Three rods of identical cross-sectional area are made from the same metal from the sides of an
isosceles right angled triangle ABC, right angled at B. The points A and B are maintained at
temperatures T and 2T respectively. In the steady state, the temperature of point C is T C. There is a
BD
point D on BA, whose temperature is same as TC. Then the ratio is
DA
(A) 1 (B) 2
1
(C) (D) 2
2
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JEE Main (Reshuffling Test)-PCM−6
20. A chain of mass 10 kg and length 10 m is resting on a rough horizontal surface ( = 0.2). A constant
force of 20 newton is applied at one end. The tension in the mid point of the chain is
(A) 20 N (B) 15 N
(C) 10 N (D) 5 N
22. A particle A is attached to a spring and the time period for small oscillations is observed to be T; when
an additional mass dm is added on, the time period becomes T + dT. The mass of particle A is
−1 −1
dT dT
2
dT dT
2
(A) dm 2 + (B) dm 2 + 2 +
T T
T T
−1
dT
(C) dm 2 (D) none of these
T
23. A small cube of mass m slides down a circular path of radius R cut into a m
larger block of mass M, as shown in the figure. M rests on a table, and both R
blocks move without friction. The blocks are initially at rest, and m starts from
M
the top of the path. The velocity v of the cube as it leaves the block is
2mgR
(A) (B) 2gR
M
2mgR 2MgR
(C) (D)
m+M m+M
24. A collision occurs between two identical balls each of mass m , moving with velocities u1 and u 2 ,
colliding head-on. The coefficient of restitution is 0.5. The energy lost in the collision is
1 1
(A) m(u1 + u2 ) 2 (B) m(u1 − u2 ) 2
4 4
3 1
(C) m(u1 − u2 ) 2 (D) m(u1 − u2 ) 2 .
16 16
Space for Rough Work
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JEE Main (Reshuffling Test)-PCM−7
25. A tunnel is made inside earth passing through center of earth. A particle is m
dropped from the surface of earth. Select the correct statement
(A) Kinetic energy of particle is maximum at center and its potential
energy is zero at center
(B) velocity of particle is proportional to x [where x is distance of particle from
center of earth
(C) Kinetic energy of particle is maximum when it reaches on the other side of
tunnel.
(D) kinetic energy of particle is maximum at center
26. The time period of a pendulum at temperature t1 ºC is T1 sec. Its time period at t2ºC is T2 sec. If coefficient of
linear expansion of material of pendulum is , then increase in time period is
(A) (t2 – t1) (B) (t2 – t1)/3
(C) T1(t2 – t1)/2 (D) none of these
27. A particle moving in the positive x-direction has initial velocity v0. The particle undergoes retardation kv 2, where v
is its instantaneous velocity. The velocity of the particle as a function of time is given by
2 v0
(A) v = v0/(1 + kv0t) (B) v=
1 + kt
v0 v0
v= v=
(C)
kt
(D)
(1 + k 2 v02 t )
28. A solid cylinder of mass m length l and area of cross section A is
placed as shown in the figure. If Young’s modulus is Y then strain
energy stored in the cylinder is L
2 2 2 2
m g l m g l
(A) (B)
3 AY 6 AY
m 2 g 2l m 2 g 2l
(C) (D) .
2 AY AY
29. A block of mass m slides down an inclined wedge of same m shown in the
figure. Friction is absent everywhere. Magnitude of acceleration of center of
mass of the block and wedge is m
m
gsin2
(A) zero (B)
(1 + sin )
gcos2 gsin
(C)
(D)
(1 + sin ) (1 + cos )
3
30. A particle moves on a rough horizontal ground with some initial velocity v 0 . If th of its K.E. is lost in
4
friction in time t0, the coefficient of friction between the particle and the ground is
v0 v0 3v 0 v0
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2gt 0 4gt 0 4gt 0 gt 0
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JEE Main (Reshuffling Test)-PCM−8
P
PAAR
RTT –– IIII :: C
CHHE
EMMIIS
STTR
RYY
(Single Correct Answer Type)
This part contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Which of the following order is correct for the property mentioned in brackets ?
(A) S2– > Cl– > K+ > Ca2+ (Ionisation energy) (B) C < N < F < O (2nd Ionisation energy)
(C) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl (Electronegativity) (D) Na+ > Li+ > Mg2+ > Be2+ > Al3+ (Ionic radius)
3. Which compound will liberate oxygen when reacts with ice cold water ?
(A) Na2O2 (B) KO2
(C) Na2O (D) Cs2O2
7. 1 mole of equimolar mixture of ferric oxalate and ferrous oxalate requires x mole of KMnO4 in acidic
medium for compete oxidation. x is :
(A) 0.5 mole (B) 0.9 mole
(C) 1.2 mole (D) 4.5 mole
8. If the wavelength of series limit of Lyman series for He + ion is x Å, then what will be the wavelength of
series limit of Balmer series for Li2+ ion ?
9x 16x
(A) Å (B) Å
4 9
5x 4x
(C) Å (D) Å
4 7
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JEE Main (Reshuffling Test)-PCM−9
PV
10. Consider the equation Z = . Which of the following statements is correct ?
RT
(A) When Z > 1, real gases are easier to compress than the ideal gas
(B) When Z = 1, real gases get compressed easily
(C) When Z > 1, real gases are difficult to compress
(D) When Z = 1, real gases are difficult to compress
5
11. When two mole of an ideal gas Cp,m = R heated from 300 K to 600 K at constant pressure, the
2
change in entropy of gas (S) is
3 3
(A) R ln 2 (B) − R ln 2
2 2
5
(C) 5R ln 2 (D) R ln 2
2
13. At a certain temperature the equilibrium constant Kc is 0.25 for the reaction
A2 (g) + B2 (g) C2 (g) + D2 (g)
If we take 1 mole of each of the four gases in a 10 litre container, what would be equilibrium
concentration of A2(g) ?
(A) 0.331 M (B) 0.033 M
(C) 0.133 M (D) 1.33 M
14. Given the following reaction at equilibrium, N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g). At constant pressure is
some inert gas added in to the system. Predict which of the following facts will be affected ?
(A) More NH3(g) is produced (B) Less NH3(g) is produced
(C) No affect on the equilibrium (D) Kp of the reaction is decreased
15. A3B2 is a sparingly soluble salt of molar mass M (g mol–1) and solubility x g litre–1. The ratio of the
molar concentration of B3– to the solubility product of the salt is
x5 1 M4
(A) 108 5 (B)
M 108 x 4
1 M4
(C) (D) None of these
54 x 4
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JEE Main (Reshuffling Test)-PCM−10
16. 0.1 M formic acid solution is titrated against 0.1 M NaOH solution. What would be the difference in pH
between 1/5 and 4/5 stages of neutralization of acid ?
(A) 2 log 3/4 (B) 2 log 1/5
(C) log 1/3 (D) 2 log 4
17. Which of the following statements for crystals having Schottky defect is not correct ?
(A) Schottky defect arises due to the absence of a cation and anion from the position which it is
expected to occupy
(B) Schottky defect are more common in ionic compounds with high co-ordination numbers
(C) The density of the crystals having Schottky defect is larger than that of the perfect crystal
(D) The crystal having Schottky defect is electrically neutral as a whole
18. The density of CaF2 (fluorite structure) is 3.18 g/cm3. The length of the side of the unit cell is
(A) 253 pm (B) 344 pm
(C) 546 pm (D) 273 pm
OH
OH
I II III IV
(A) I > II > III > IV (B) III > I > II > IV
(C) III > IV > II > I (D) I > III > IV > II
21. The number of optically active products obtained from the complete ozonolysis of the given
compound is
CH3 H
H3C CH CH C CH CH C CH CH CH3
H CH3
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 4
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JEE Main (Reshuffling Test)-PCM−11
(i) O NO2
H OH CH3
H3C CH3 CH3 CH3
(ii) O NO2
OH H CH3
H3C CH3 CH3 CH3
(iii) O NO2
H CH3 OH
(A) Mixture of (i) and (ii) (B) Only (i)
(C) Mixture of (iii) and (iii) (D) Only (iii)
24. A metal crystallises in b.c.c lattice. The percent fraction of edge length not covered by atom is
(A) 11.4% (B) 12.4 %
(C) 13.4 % (D) 14.4 %
CH3
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
is most correctly in the order
(A) II III I IV (B) II III = I IV
(C) III IV I II (D) IV III IV I
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JEE Main (Reshuffling Test)-PCM−12
+
28. ⎯⎯⎯⎯
H2 O,H
→X
(i) Hg( OAc )
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
( ii) NaBH4 → Y
( CH3 )3 C − CH = CH2
2
() 3i BH − THF
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
(ii) H2 O2 → Z
The correct statement from the above sequence is:
(A) X and Y are optically active where as Z is inactive
(B) Y and Z are optically active where as X is inactive
(C) X and Z are optically inactive where as Y is active
(D) Y and Z are optically inactive where as X is active
+
⎯⎯⎯
H3 O
→?
(A) (B)
OH
(C) (D)
Et
Et
30. If given reaction occurs then which of the following will be the major product?
+
⎯⎯⎯⎯
H /H2 O
→
(A) OH (B) OH
(C) (D)
OH OH
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JEE Main (Reshuffling Test)-PCM−13
P
PAAR
RTT –– IIIIII:: M
MAAT
THHE
EMMA
ATTIIC
CSS
(Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choice (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY one option is correct.
1. If a1, a2, a3 (a1 > 0) are in G. P. with common ratio r, then the value of r, for which the inequality
9a1 + 5a3 > 14a2 holds, can not lie in the interval
(A) [1, ) (B) [1, 9/5]
(C) [4/5, 1] (D) [5/ 9, 1]
n
r2 − r − 1
2. (r + 1)! is equal to
r =1
n −1
(A) (B)
(n + 1)! (n + 1)(n − 1)!
n
(C) −1 (D) none of these
(n + 1)!
n
a
n
C3
3. If the second term in the expansion 13 a + is 14 a5/2, then the value of is
−1 n
C2
a
(A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 12 (D) none of these
n C C C
4. If (1 + x)n = Cr xr , then 1 + C1 1 + C2 …… 1 + n is equal to
r =0 0 1 Cn−1
(n + 1)
n−1 n −1
n
(A) (B)
n − 1! n − 1!
( n + 1) (n + 1)
n n +1
(C) (D)
n! n!
6. If a circle of radius r is touching the lines x2 – 4xy + y2 = 0 in the first quadrant at points A and B, then
area of triangle OAB (O being the origin) is
3 3r 2 3r 2
(A) (B)
4 4
2
3r
(C) (D) r2
4
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JEE Main (Reshuffling Test)-PCM−14
7. A line has intercepts a and b on the coordinate axes. If keeping the origin fixed, the coordinate axes are rotated
through 90, the same line has intercepts p and q, then
(A) p = a, q = b (B) p = b, q = a
(C) p = –b, q = –a (D) p = b, q = –a
8. From a moving point P on x2 + y2 = 4 tangent PA and PB are drawn to x2 + y2 = a2 then the locus of
the circumcentre of triangle PAB is (|a| < 2)
(A) x2 + y2 = a2 + 4 (B) x2 + y2 = 4 – a2
2 2
(C) x + y = 1 (D) none of these
9. AB is a chord of the parabola y2 = 4ax with vertex A. BC is drawn perpendicular to AB meeting the
axis at C. The projection of BC on the axis of the parabola is
(A) a (B) 2a
(C) 4a (D) 8a
10. The coordinates of the point on the parabola y = x 2 + 7x +2, which is nearest to the straight line
y = 3x – 3 are
(A) (–2, –8) (B) (1, 10)
(C) (2, 20) (D) (–1, –4)
(3x − 4y + 7)2
11. The length of the major axis of the ellipse (5x − 10)2 + (5y + 15)2 = is
4
20
(A) 10 (B)
3
20
(C) (D) 4
7
13. Standard Deviation of a data is 7, when each observation is decreased by 7 then standard deviation
of new data is
(A) 0 (B) 14 (C) 7 (D) 49
14. If 120 triangles are formed by joining the vertices of a polygon, then the number of its sides is
(A) 8 (B) 12
(C) 10 (D) 14
15. The slope of the line which belongs to family of lines (1 + )x + ( – 1)y + 2(1 – ) = 0 and makes
shortest intercept on x2 = 4y – 4, is
1
(A) (B) 1
2
(C) 0 (D) 2
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JEE Main (Reshuffling Test)-PCM−15
1
16. The solution set of the inequality cos2 <
2
(A) : (8n + 1)
4
(8n + 3) , n I
4
(B) : (8n − 3)
4
(8n − 1) , n I
4
(C) : (4n + 1) (4n + 3) , n I
4 4 (D) none of these
17. Ten different letters of an alphabet are given. Words with five letters are formed from given letters.
The number of words which have atleast one letter repeated is
(A) 30240 (B) 66790
(C) 69760 (D) 99748
18. The number of ways of dividing 15 men and 15 women into 15 couples, each consisting of a man and
a woman is
(A) 1240 (B) 1840
(C) 1820 (D) none of these
20. If points corresponding to the complex numbers z1, z2, z3 and z4 are the vertices of a rhombus, taken
in order, then for a non-zero real number k
(A) z1 – z3 = i k( z2 – z4) (B) z1 – z2 = i k( z3 – z4)
(C) z1 + z3 = k( z2 + z4) (D) z1 + z2 = k( z3 + z4)
21. From a 60 meter height tower angles of depression of the top and bottom of a house are and
60 sin ( − )
respectively. If the height of the house is , then x is
x
(A) sin sin (B) cos cos
(C) sin cos (D) cos sin
22. If the sides of a triangle be x, y and x2 + xy + y2 , then the greatest angle is equal to
(A) 30 (B) 60
(C) 90 (D) none of these
23. Radius of the larger circle touching the coordinate axis and the line y + 2x + 1 = 0 is
− 5 +3 3+ 5
(A) (B)
4 4
1+ 5 5 −1
(C) (D)
4 4
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JEE Main (Reshuffling Test)-PCM−16
24. In a ABC if medians from B and C are perpendicular then minimum value of cotB + cotC is
3 2
(A) (B)
2 3
(C) 2 (D) 3
25. If graph of curve y = 16x2 + 8(a + 5)x – 7a – 5 is strictly above x–axis, then
(A) a > – 2 (B) a > –15
(C) –2 > a > –15 (D) 2 < a < 15
26. If (1 + x + x2)25 = a0 + a1x + a2x2 + ..... + a50 x50, then a0 + a2 + a4 + ..... + a50 is
(A) even (B) odd and of the form 3n
(C) odd and of the form (3n – 1) (D) odd and of the form (3n + 1)
27. If there exists a value of between 0 and that satisfies the equation sin4 − 2sin2 − 1 = 0, then
must be equal to
(A) (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) none of these
30. If a1, a2, a3, a4 are the real roots of the equation x4 + px3 + qx2 + px + q = 0, then
(1 + a )(1 + a )(1 + a )(1 + a )
2
1
2
2
2
3
2
4 equals
(A) 0 (B) q2 + p2
(C) q2 –p2 (D) 1
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JEE Main (Reshuffling Test)-PCM−17
PPA
ARRT
T -- IIIIII:: M
MAAT
THHE
EMMA
ATTIIC
CSS (SET-A)
1. B 2. B 3. A 4. C
5. B 6. A 7. D 8. C
9. C 10. A 11. B 12. A
13. C 14. C 15. C 16. C
17. C 18. D 19. B 20. A
21. D 22. D 23. B 24. B
25. C 26. A 27. D 28. A
29. C 30. D
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