5 6168205376501055851 PDF

20/03/2020 CODE-A
Aakash
Medicall II TOEEI Foundations
(Divisms 01 Azkash Snices Limited)
Regd. omce•. Aakash Tower, 8. Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph. 011-47623456
MM : 720 TEST SERIES for NEN2020 Time 3.00

: Hrs.
Test
Topics covered :
Physics Physical World, Units & Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line, Motion in a Plane
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom
Botany The Living World, Biological Classification, Plant Kingdom

Zoology : Animal Kingdom
Instructions :
Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.
PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer : 3. If eo is permittivity of free space and go is
1. If B and C are three physical quantities such

A, magnetic permeability of free space then the
that A and B are of same dimensions while C has 1
different dimensions, then which of the following dimensional formula of is
may be meaningful
(C -2B) (1) [MLEI]

(2)
(2) [MOLT-II
(3) (4) (3) [MLT-2]

(B+C) c
(4) [MOLT-21
2. Time period of a simple pendulum recorded in
three experiments are 1.9 s, 2.0 s and 2.1 s, then 4. A particle moving on a straight line has initial
velocity 2.03 m/s, accelerating uniformly with

(1) Mean absolute error is 0.01
1.0 m/s2 after 0.3 s will have velocity (in m/s)
(2) Relative error is 0.05
(upto correct significant figures)
(3) Percentage error is 0.5% (1) 2.3 (2) 2.0
(4) Percentage error is 0.05% (3) 2.06 (4) 2.1
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Test-I (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020
5. A physical quantity X is related to four quantities 11. A particle is moving along x-axis such that its
a2ß3
position (x) varies with time(t) as, x = (t sint) m
c, p, Y and p as X= 3 then average acceleration of the particle from
—sis
2
The percentage errors in measurement of
1
a, p, p and Y are —%, —%, 2% and (1) m/s2 (2) — m/s2
3
respectively then percentage error in Xis
(1) 1.5%
(3) m/s2 (4) — m/s2
(2) 2.5% 12. The velocity time graph of a particle moving on a

(3) 3.5% straight line is as shown in figure.
v (m/s)
6. If power of a force varies with displacement x and
time t as where a and b are

b—2t' iti
dimensional constants, then the dimensional

formula of [abl is
The corresponding displacement time graph will
(1) [MLOT-I] (2) [ML2T-3] be
(3) [MLOT-3] (4) [MOLT-I]

7. If force (F), acceleration (a) and time (t) are
considered to be fundamental quantities, then the
dimensional formula of surface tension is
(l) [Fat] (2) [Fa-lt-l]
(3) [Fa-1t-2] (4) [Fa-lt2]
8. If each division on the main scale is 1 mm, which

of the following vernier scales gives vernier
constant equal to 0.05 mm? (2)
(1) 9 mm divided into 10 divisions

9. If dimensional formula of a physical quantity IS (3) t
[MBLbTC], then the physical quantity is
(1) Torque, if a= 1, b 22 and c = —1

(2) Surface tension, if a = 1, b= 1 and c = —2
(3) Impulse, if a= 1, b= 1 and c = —1
(4) Radial acceleration, if a= 0, b= 1 and c= 1
(4)
10. Which of the following is more precise
instrument?
(1) Meter scale having smallest division 1 mm 13. A police jeep wants to chase a thiefs car which is
(2) Vemier which 20 vernier scale
callipers in moving with speed 40 m/s on a straight track. If
division coinciding with 19 main scale division the separation between the jeep and car is 400 m
(3) Screw gauge with 0.5 mm smallest division
then speed of jeep required to catch the car in
on linear scale and 50 divisions on circular

20 s is
scale (1) 40 m/s (2) 60 mis
(4) Vemier callipers with least count 0.02 mm (3) 80 m/s (4) 120 mis
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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-I (Code-A)
14. Who among the following scientist was awarded 19. A particle moves a distance x in time t according
Nobel prize for his work on photoelectric effect? 1
to the equation x= The acceleration of
(1) Sir Isaac Newton (2) Albert Einstein
(3) de-Broglie (4) Neil Bohr the particle is proportional to

2 5
15. The acceleration-time (a-t) graph of a particle
moving along a straight line is as shown in figure. (1) (velocity)ä (2) (velocity)i
Ifthe initial velocity of the particle is 5 m/s then
1 5
the velocity at the end of 7 s is
(3) (distance)ä (4) (distance)ä
a (m/s2)
20. A ball is dropped from a high tower at t = O. After
10 s another ball is thrown in downward direction

2 2 3 6 7 from the same point with speed v. If these two
1 4 5 balls meet at t 15 s. Then the value of v is
-2 (take g = 10 Ws2)
(1) 50 m/s
(1) 5m/s (2) 100
(3) 200 m/s
(3) 8 m/s (4) 225
(4) 10 m/s 21. A particle starts from origin at t = O with velocity
16. A vehicle travels one fourth of total distance with 6j m/s. in xy plane with constant acceleration
speed VI and remaining part with speed then
ä = (27 - 2)) m/s2 Then the . position coordinates
its average speed in the total joumey is
of the particle (in m) when velocity of the particle
3VIV2 becomes parallel to x-axis is

(2)
2
4VIV2 4VIV2
(3) (4)
3V1 +V2
17. An elevator of cabin height 1.2 m starts
ascending with acceleration 2 m/s2. One second 22. Speed of a projectile at the point of projection is
after the start a loose bolt starts falling from the times the speed at its maximum height the
ceiling. The time after which bolt will hit the floor angle of projection of the projectile is
of elevator is (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 300
1
(2) 450
(2)
5
(3) 600
1
(4) (4) tan-I(ü)
23. A particle moves so that its position vector is
18. The displacement time graph of a particle moving
given by F =Asinoti +Bcosotj, where A and B
on a straight line is as shown. The section of the
graph which corresponds to positive acceleration are positive constants which of the following is
is
Velocity and acceleration both are

perpendicular to F
(2) Velocity is perpendicular to F and

acceleration is directed towards origin
(3) Velocity is parallel to F and acceleration is
parallel to F if =B A
(4) Velocity is perpendicular to F for A = B, and
acceleration is opposite to i for any value of
(3) BC (4) DE A and B
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24. A particle is moving such that its position 30. For a man walking with speed 3..Æ km/h rain
co-ordinates are varying with time as shown appears to fall vertically downward. When he
below
starts running with 5T2 kmm rain appears to fall
S. No. Position (x, y) in m Time (s) on him at an angle of 450 with vertical. The speed
of rain w.r.t. ground (in km/h) is
0
2
(2) 2Uö
(iii)
6
The average velocity of the particle from t = 0 s

to t =6 s is (4) 2Ui
31. Two boys A and B separated by a straight
initially
(1) (47+3)) m/s (2) —i + j m/s
3 line distance a on the ground.If A and B both
start running simultaneously with same speed as

(3) (j + j) m/s (4) (37+4)) m/s shown in figure. The distance of their closest
approach will be
25. The angle of projection of a projectile for which
range is double the maximum height, will be a
600
(1) tan-1(2) (2) 0 = tan-1(4)
1
(3) 0=450 (4) tan-I a
2 2
26. Water jet comes out from a point O on the
ground at a speed v at angle 450 with horizontal (3)
as shown. The speed v of jet so that it can wet 2
the man upto his head will be (g = 10 m/s2) 32. Consider three vectors Ä. É and C which add up
,
to give zero vector. Then which of the following is
false?
(1) lÄxäI=Iäxöl
450 21m (2) (Äxä)xö lies in the Plane of Ä, Band ö
(1) 10 (2) m/s (3) if ÄLÉ

10 (4) for any angle between Ä and
(3) (4) 100 m/s
33. The position of a particle is varying w.r.t. time as
27. A particle moves with velocity v in xy plane as F= — 1B + bt2j where a and b are constants,
V = c(xy2; + yx2j) m/s. Then the general F is in m, and t is in second. The time after
equation of its path will be which acceleration becomes normal to the

velocity is
(1) y=x+ constant (2) y = x2 + constant
2
(3) ya = x2 + constant (4) ya = x3 + constant
(2)
28. Which of the following set of magnitude of
vectors cannot give zero resultant? 2 2
a a
(2) 25, 5, 15 (3) (4)
(3) 10, 5, 8 (4) 15, 8, 20

34. A particle starts from rest on a circle of radius
29. A man width 400
crosses a flowing at
river of m 25
40 m/s in minimum time. If velocity of man in still m with uniformly increasing speed. If it
water is 50 m/s then the displacement of man

completes 5 revolutions after 5 s of motion then
while he reaches the opposite bank of the river is
tangential acceleration will be
(1) 80 m (1) 5 m/s2 (2) 10 m/s2
(4) 10077 m (3) 15 m/s2 (4) 20 m/s2
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35. In the figure given below the maximum height of

40. If diagonals of a parallelogram are Ai—Aj) and
the projectile will be
(i + j) then area of the parallelogram will be
,
(1) 0.5 unit (2) 1 unit
(3) 2 unit (4) 4 unit
41. A system of units has 10 kg, 10 cm and 10 s as

12m the units of mass, length and time respectively.
450 Then the value of 10 N in this system will be
x
18m (1) 1000 units
(1) 13.5m (2) 15.5 m (2) 1 units
(3) 18m (3) 10 units

36. A particle is moving on a circle of radius 2 m. Its (4) 100 units
speed (v) varies with time t as v = ae, where a is
a constant. The ratio of radial acceleration to
42. A car moving along x-axis with speed 72 km/h is
brought to rest travelling a distance of 20 m. If

tangential acceleration of the particle at t = 2 s is
retardation is uniform then time taken (in s) in
stopping this car is
37. A ball is dropped from a long tower. One second

after its fall air provides horizontal acceleration of
43. If resultant of two unit vectors a and is in
4g m/s2 . Total displacement covered by the ball
magnitude, then the magnitude of difference of
3
these unit vectors is
after 4 s of its fall will be (take g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 133.3m (2) 100 m (1) Zero
(3) 227.8 m (4) 150 m

38. A particle on y-axis starts from rest along a 44. A body is moving with 20 m/s towards east. After
straight line y = 3 with constant acceleration 5 s its becomes 30 m/s towards north
velocity
2Jä m/s2 Angle made by

. position vector of the and continues. Then ratio of magnitude of
average velocity between (O to 10 s) and average
particle with positive x-axis after one second of
acceleration between (O to 10 s) is
its motion is
(1) 300 (2) 450

2
(3) 600 (4) 900
39. A man standing at a point a flood affected in
(4) 5UfS
area, is waiting for a food packet to be dropped 45. Two quantities are measured as A 1.0 m ± 0.2 m
from a plane. If the plane is flying at an altitude of and B = 2.0 m ± 0.2 m. The correct value of
2 km with speed 360 km/h, then at what angle of should be reported as
sight (with the packet
respect to horizontal)
should be dropped so as to reach safely in hands 1.4 m ± 0.2 m
of the man? (take g = 10 m/s2) (2) 1.4 m ± 0.1 m
(1) 300 (2) 450 (3) 1.41 m ±O.15m

(3) tan-I (2) (4) 600 (4) 1.4 m ± 0.4 m
CHEMISTRY
46. Total number of degenerate orbitals in the 2nd
shell of Li2+ ion is
48. Normality of 0.1 M H3P03 is
(1) 0.2 N (2) 0.1 N

47. Angular nodes present in 4s and 2p orbitals
respectively are
(3) 0.3 N (4) 0.15 N
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49. The molality of aq. solution of urea in which mole 58. The ratio of the radius of second orbit of He + to
fraction of urea is 0.1, is
the first orbit of Be3+ ions is
(1) 6.17m (2) 5.24 m

(3) 6.98 m (4) 5.78 m
50. The angular moment of electron in d-orbital is
59. 50 ml of 1 N NaOH is mixed with 150 ml of 2 N
h Ca(OH)2. The molarity of OH - ions in the resulting
(1) Zero (2)
solution will be [Consider complete dissociation of
NaOH and
h
(3) (4)
27t (1) 2.5 M (2) 1.75 M
51. The number of atoms present in 0.48 g of 03 is
(3) 1.25 M (4) 1.50 M
(NA = 6.022 X 1023) 60. Which of the following possess highest mass?
(1) 22.4 L at STP
(1) 18 x 1023 (2) 1.8 x 1023
(3) 18 1024 (4) 1.8 x 1022
52. Which of the following method of expressing (3) 0.3 mole of H2

concentration is dependent on temperature?
(4) 1.204 x 1024 molecules of H2
(1) Molality
61. For a microscopic particle of mass m, Ax = 2Av.
(2) Mole fraction
The uncertainty in the velocity of particle will be
h
(4) Molarity (2)
21tm 2 Itm
53. Maximum possible number of spectral lines
obtained in Lyman series when an electron In H 1 h
atom sample de-excites from third excited state (3) (4)
2 21tm 2m It
to ground state is
62. Volume of 0.2 M NaOH required to make 3 L of
0.1 M NaOH solution is
(2) 2.5 L
54. The wavelength associated with a 0.1 kg moving
(3) 1.5 L
object is 6.62 x 10 m. The speed of the moving
object is (h = 6.62 x 10-34 Js) 63. x gram of metal gives y g of metal oxide on
complete combustion. The equivalent weight of
(1) 10 ms (2) 100 ms metal is
(3) 1 ms I (4) 0.1 ms I

8x 8(y — x)
The quantum numbers (2)
55. correct set of (n, t, m) for x
valence electron of zinc (Z = 30) is
x Y¯x
(3) (4)
8(y — x)
e
64. Among the following ratio is minimum for
m
56. The number of significant figures in 50 pens is (1) Electron
(1) Infinite
(2) Proton
(3) Zero
(3) a-particle
57. The equivalent mass of KCI.MgC12.6H20 is
(M = Molar mass of salt) (4) Neutron

65. Among the following which has maximum number
of molecules?
6
(1) 49 g of H3P04 (2) 45 g 6 12 O 6
ofCH
(3) (4) (3) 28 g N2 (4) 36 g H20
2 3
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66. An organic compound contain C, H and O gave 74. Bohr theory is applicable to
the following analysis C = 40%, O = 53.33%. Its
(2) Be2+
molecular formula may be
(4) 1-1+
(1) C2H402 (2) C2H40
75. In H-atom spectrum, the wavelength of radiation
(3) C2H60 (4) C2H602 emitted when electron falls from third excited
67. The number of moles of nitrogen in one litre of air state to ground state is (RH = Rydberg constant)
containing 79% nitrogen by volume, under
16 3
standard conditions is (2)
15 RH
—3
(2) 9 15
2.24 2.24 (3) (4)
16
(3) (4) 76. The number of photons emitted in one second by

0.224 224
a 10 watt bulb, which emits monochromatic light
68. An element, X has the following isotopic of wavelength 662 nm, is
composition, : 80% and : 20%. The
weighted average atomic mass of the naturally (h = 6.62 x 10-34Js)
occurring element X is closest to
(1) 6.28 x 1018 (2) 3.33 x 1019
(1) 100.9 (2) 100.4
(3) 5.21 x 1018 (4) 7.25 x 1017
(3) 101.2 (4) 101.8 77. Select the correct statement regarding
69. Volume of C02 obtained at STP by the complete photoelectric effect
decomposition of 10 g of lime stone (90% pure) is (1) Number of ejected electrons are independent
nearly of intensity of light
(1) 1.7 litre (2) Kinetic energy of electrons are independent
(2) 3.8 litre of intensity of light
(3) 2 litre
(3) Kinetic energy of electrons are independent
of frequency of light
(4) 2.6 litre
(4) Number of ejected electrons depends on the
70. Select the isosteres pair among the following frequency of light
(1) 02, 03 (2) CO, N2 78. A steel vessel containing 10 g H2 and 64 g 02
(3) C02, 03
was exploded. The maximum moles of H20
produced in the reaction is
71. The number of revolution of electrons per second
in nth orbit of H-atom is (k = constant)
k
(1) 3 79. If vapour density of a gas is 44 then the volume
n n
occupied by the 0.88 g of gas at STP is
k k
(3) (4) (1) 2240 ml
2 4
n n
(2) 112 ml
72. The maximum wavelength among the following is
(3) 224 ml
of
(4) 1120 ml
(1) X-rays (2) Y-rays
80. Number of maximum possible electron(s) in Zn
(4) Radio waves for which n + t =4, is
73. The phenomenon which justify the wave nature of

light is/are
(4) 12
(1) Diffraction 81. Ifthe kinetic energy of an electron in nth shell of
(2) Photoelectric effect H-atom is 3.4 eV then n is
(3)
(4) Both (1) and (3)
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1 86. Which of the following is a possible arrangement

82. g is known as of electrons in an atom?
6.022 x 1023
1
(1) 1 amu 1=3,
2
(2) 1 avogram
1
(3) 1 dalton (2)
2
(4) All of these
1
(3) n 1=4, -2,
83. The mole fraction of solute in aqueous solution 2
containing 42.5% (w/w) NaN03 is
1
(1) 0.251 (4)

2
(2) 0.053 87. The energy absorbed by each molecule of B2 is
(3) 0.215 2.2 x 10-18 J and bond energy per molecule of B2
is 2 x 10-18 J. The kinetic energy of the molecule
(4) 0.135
per atom will be
84. If threshold energy of a metal is 1.5 eV and
(1) 1 x 10-18 J (2) 2 x 10-19 J
energy of incident photon an metal is 3 eV then
stopping potential for the metal is (3) 2 x 10-20 J (4) 1 x 10-19 J
(1) 1.5V 88. The percentage loss of mass by Na2S04•10H20

(2) 2.5 v to become anhydrous is
(3) 3.5 v (1) 72.5% (2) 45.2%
(4) 0.5 V (3) 55.9% (4) 65.2%
85. The ratio of masses of two particles is 1 : 2 and

89. The number of standing waves in 3rd shell of
H-atom is
ratio of their kinetic energies is 9 : 2. The ratio of
their de-Broglie wavelengths is (2) 32
3
(4) 33
5
90. A gaseous mixture contains H2 and C02 gases in
2 the ratio of 1 •
11 (w/w). The ratio of number of
(2)
3 atoms of H2 to C02 in the mixture is
5 4 2
2 3 5
1 1 2
(4) (3) (4)
3 3 7
BOTANY
91. Identify the wrong statement for flora. 92. Key is an important taxonomic aid used for A
(1) It gives the information about plants of plants and animals based on B in a pair
(2) It gives the actual account of habitat and known as C

distribution of various plants of given area
A-Naming, B-Keys, C-CoupIet
(3) It is an index to the plant species of a specific
(2) A-Identification, B-Contrasting characters,
area
C-Couplet
(4) It also includes information of distribution
(3) A-Classification, B-Similarities, C-Keys
pattern of animal species along with plants of
an area (4) A-Taxonomy, B-Dissimilarities, C-Lead
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93. Select the odd one out w.r.t. zoological parks 101. Find the mismatched pair.
(1) Wild animals are kept in zoos. (1) Acetobacteria — Vinegar production
aceti
(2) These are in-situ consenætion strategies of
animals (2) Bacillus vulgaris — Ammonification
(3) Animals are kept in protective environment (3) Nitmsomonas — N2 fixation
under human care
(4) Lactobacillus — Curd production
(4) National Zoological Park is located in Delhi
102. Branched chain lipids in cell membrane is a
94. The specific epithet in Panthera leo and Pisum feature of
sativum respectively, are
(1) Archaebacteria
(1) leo and Pisum
(2) Eubacteria
(2) Panthera and sativum
(3) Diatoms
(3) leo and sativum
(4) Cyanobacteria
(4) Panthera and Pisum
103. Bacteria commonly reproduce asexually by
95. The basics to taxonomy does not include
(1) Conjugation
(1) Characterisation
(2) Binary fission
(2) Identification
(3) Budding
(3) Nomenclature
(4) Conidia formation
(4) Evolutionary relationship
104. Fungi differ from bacteria in having
96. True regeneration is seen in
(1) 70 S ribosomes
(1) All fungi and algae
(2) Chitinous cell wall
(2) Planaria
(3) Plasma membrane
(3) Amoeba
(4) Asexual reproduction
(4) Bacteria
105. Euglena does not
97. In kingdom classification, R.H. Whittaker
five
proposed a new kingdom as (1) Have chlorophyll a
(1) Plantae (2) Protista (2) Reproduce asexually

(3) Monera (4) Fungi (3) Have cell wall
98. R.H. Whittaker classified the organisms into five (4) Show heterotrophic mode of nutrition
kingdoms on basis the following criterias, except 106. The parasitic fungus found on mustard leaves is
(1) Cell structure

(1) Phytophthora (2) Albugo candida
(2) Thallus organisation and mode of nutrition
(3) Alternaria (4) Puccinia
(3) 16 S rRNA sequences 107. Choose the correct option having names of all
(4) Phylogeny sac fungi

99. In six kingdom which kingdom was
classification, (1) Neurospora, Claviceps, Morels
further divided into two kingdoms
(2) Agaricus, Morels, Truffles
(1) Monera
(3) Claviceps, Penicillium, Puccinia
(2) Plantae
(4) Afternaria, Penicillium, Morels
(3) Fungi
108. Find the odd one out w.r.t. lichens
(4) Animalia
They are composed of phycobiont and
100. Which of the following is not a free living nitrogen
mycobiont
fixing bacteria
(2) The autotrophic component of lichens
Azotobacter prepare food for heterotrophic component
(2) Clostridium (3) They are pioneer colonisers of barren rocks
(3) Rhizobium (4) Lichens can grow easily in S02 polluted

areas
(4) Klebsiella
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109. Which one is incorrectly matched. 117. Membrane bound organelles are present in
(1) Ascomycetes — Penicillium (1) Saccharomyces

(2) Basidiomycetes — Agaricus (2) Streptococcus
(3) Zygomycetes — Albugo candida (3) Bacillus
(4) Oomycetes — Phytophthora (4) Clostridium
110. Which one is not a feature of fungi imperfecti. 118. Which of the following is not related to 'prions'?
(1) Mycelium branched or septate (1) Kuru disease
(2) Asexual reproduction by conidia (2) CFJ disease
(3) Oospores are sexual spores

(3) BSE or Mad Cow disease
(4) Cholera
(4) Fruiting bodies are absent
119. Which is true about cyanobacteria?
1 11. Endomycorrhiza
(1) Perform oxygenic photosynthesis and cell
(1) Forms, Hartig net in cortex of roots
wall is composed of chitin
(2) Is mainly formed by oomycetes
(2) Perform non-oxygenic photosynthesis and
(3) Are also called Vesicular Arbuscular cell wall is composed of cellulose
Mycorrhiza (3) Perform oxygenic photosynthesis along with
(4) Is found in Pinus roots nitrogenase activity in heterocyst
112. Chief producers in the oceans are (4) Perform non-oxygenic photosynthesis but
have heterocyst
(1) Dinoflagellates
120. Find the odd one out w.r.t. chlorophyceae
(2) Euglenoids
(1) Storage bodies are called pyrenoids
(3) Cyanobacteria
(2) Pyrenoid are composed of protein and starch
(4) Diatoms
(3) Ectocarpus, Dictyota and Fucus are
113. Sexual spores are produced exogenously in members of this class
(1) Alternaria and Trichoderma (4) Chlorophyll a, b and carotene are pigments
(2) Puccinia and Ustilago found in chlorophyceae
(3) Penicillium and Aspergillus 121. Which of the given is a feature of

Phaeophyceae'?
(4) Neurospora and Phytophthora
(1) Cell wall is composed of cellulose, pectin and
114. Find the statement wrong for both virus and polysulphated esters
viroids
(2) Floridean starch is stored food
(1) Both are non-infectious
(3) They have carrageen and agar in cell wall
(2) Both have genetic material
(4) Produce flagellatd spores and gametes
(3) Both are obligate parasites
122. Hydrocolloids of red algae
(4) Both are smaller than bacteria
(a) Are water holding substances
115. Early blight of potato is caused by (b) Also includes agar
(1) Ustilago (c) Are produced by Gelidium and Gracilaria
(2) Alternaria Which of the above statements are true?
(3) Albugo (1) All (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (b) only
(4) Phytophthora (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a) and (c) only
116. Cellulose and chitin respectively are major 123. Classification system given by Linnaeus and
components of cell wall of Hutchinson respectively are
Algae and blue-green algae Natural and artificial
(2) Algae and diatoms (2) Artificial and natural
(3) Algae and fungi (3) Artificial and phylogenetic

(4) Fungi and algae (4) Phylogenetic and artificial
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124. Find the correctly matched pair. 130. After double fertilization in angiosperms
(1) Chlorophyceae — Asexually reproduce by (1) Fertilized ovules develops into embryos
zoospores
(2) Synergid and antipodal cells degenerate
(2) Phaeophyceae — Show post fertilizational
(3) Zygote develop into seeds
development
— Antherozoids are (4) Synergids cells remain suspended in
(3) Rhodophyceae
antipodal cells
flagellated male
gametes 131. Find the odd one out w.r.t. alternation of
— Characteristic colour generations.

(4) Phaeophyceae is
due to phycoerythrin In haplontic life cycle, gametophyte is
125. Find the odd one out dominant stage
(2) In diplontic life cycle, sporophyte is dominant

(1) Chara
stage
(2) Nostoc
(3) In haplo-diplontic life cycle both sporophyte
(3) Ulothrix and gametophyte stages are absent
(4) Spirogyra (4) In haplo-diplontic life cycle both sporophyte

and gametophyte stages are equally
126. Which of the following statements is wrong w.r.t.
dominant
bryophytes?
132. Zygotic meiosis
(1) They are found in damp, shady and humid
localities (1) Is found in all algae
(2) They are called amphibians of plant kingdom (2) Occur in all pteridophytes and angiosperms
(3) Gametophyte is diploid and dominant plant (3) Is seen in green algae
body
(4) Occur in all gymnosperms and angiosperms
(4) Bryophytes are homosporous
133. Find the mismatched pair w.r.t. plants
127. Mosses
(1) Bryophyta— Embryophytes
(1) Have less developed sporophyte than liver
worts (2) Pteridophyta—First tracheophytes
(2) Exhibit green

creeping, and branched (3) Gymnosperms—Naked seeded plants
filamentous stage called protonema, which is (4) Angiosperms— Archegoniate spermatophyte

their juvenile phase
134. Read the following statements.
(3) Show diplontic life cycle
A. In angiosperms seeds are formed inside fruit
(4) May asexually reproduce by gammae and the sporophylls are organised into
flowers.
128. Which bryophyte has been employed by gardners
to keep the seedlings moist? B. Smallest angiosperm is Wolfia
(1) Sphagnum Both the statements are correct
(2) Marchantia (2) Both the statements are wrong
(3) Polytrichum (3) Only statement A is correct

(4) Funaria (4) Only Statement B is correct
129. Coralloid roots are found in 135. Find the incorrect statement w.r.t. angiosperms.
pin US A flower is the modified shoot
(2) Sequoia (2) PEN is triploid
(3) Cycas (3) A pistil has stigma, style and ovary

(4) All gymnosperms formed inside megasporangia
(4) Pollen grain is
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Test-I (Code4) Test Sere NEET-2020
ZOOLOGY
136. The figure Bh0WS four animals (a), (b), (c) and 139. The adult animal which exhibits syrnrreby
(d). Select the correct option w.r.t. e common is
characteristic of two of these animals.

(2) Lolip
(3) Aedes (4) Phere#ma
140. A new animal was discovered and bP014hf fo
(a) (b) lab for scientific obeelvation ard at..)dy. The
following characteristic feabxea we-e
documented about it.
(i) The adulb were

(ii) A lot of differenæ was
(c) (d) letvae end
(iii) Tie tails were absent in the eduttl the
larvae had.
(iv) Adults could live both on lend and

(1) (a) and (d) heve cnidoblast for self defense
The orgenism most likely belongs to
(2) (c) and (d) have e true coelom
(1) Arthropode (2) Pisces
(3) (e) and (d) respire meinly through gills
(3) Protochordate (4) A.rn*lbk
(4) (b) and (c) show redlBI symmeby 141. Select he anlmal that 18 characte&-ed by crop
137. Choose the opt.lon In whl&), the genus neme. and glzzard In dlgegttve BYBtem.
two characters end class are not correctly (1) Tapeworm
(2) Spongæ
Clan (3) Cockroach
mout (4) Humans
op«aalum 142. of the following animals Is a hoerøatæ•rn7
(2)
•b"lt ChmdrWfftyæ
•n aepanh cun (1) Struthlo
wit)
(4) 9m*num nunt (2) Ne'e
(3) Seccoglossus
138. Match the followlng genera In column I with thelr
(4) Vlpem russelll
respecttve phylum In column II.
143. Select he fiylng memmgl-

Column I Column II
(1) Mecmpus
CucumeHa (l) PleWheImInthes
(2) Rempus
b. MeendHne (II) Mollusca
(3) Baleenoptera
c. Cheetopleum (Ill)
(4) OmfthohyrWJus
Taenle (Iv) Echlnodermeta 144. Choose he Incormct Btatement-
Select the corr•ct optlon. (1) A.ll mammalB are not vtvlparous
a(l), b(ll), o(lll), d(lv) (2) A.ll cyclostomes possess laws "ne.
(3) Reptlles generally have a tlree chambered

(2) a(ll). b(lll). cov). d(l)
heart
(3) e(tv). 41), d(l)
(4) Not ell fishes have gllls by en
(4) e(lll). b(lv). 0(1), d(ll)
operculum
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145. Which one of the following characteristic features 152. How many animals in the given box have open
is shared by reptiles and amphibians? circulatory system?
(1) A tympanum represents the ear Octopus, Salamandra, Spider, Crab, Chelone
(2) Fertilization is mainly intemal
(3) Development is indirect
(4) Skin is moist without scales

153. Among the following which organism is an
146. Choose the incorrect statement.
enterocoelomate with bilateral symmetry?
(1) Petromyzon has an ammocoete larvae
(1) Grass-hopper (2) Octopus
(2) Vertebrates possess notochord during the
(3) Sea horse (4) Loligo
embryonic period.
(3) All vertebrates are chordates 154. Choose the animal that shows direct
development during the life cycle.

(4) All chordates are vertebrates
(1) Phetetima (2) Echinus
147. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option. (3) Saccoglossus (4) Dentalium
Statement A : Subphyla Urochordata and 155. An important characteristic feature that is shared
Cephalochordata are often referred to as between Balanoglossus and Pteropus is
protochordates. (1) Presence of air sacs

Statement B : Ascidia is a urochordata.
(2) Sexes are separate
(1) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Dorsal solid nerve cord
(2) Statement A is incorrect
(4) Presence of notochord
(3) Both statements are correct
156. Musca domestica belongs to the order
(4) Statement B is incorrect
(1) Arthropoda (2) Insecta
148. Chordates are not
(3) Muscidae (4) Diptera
(1) Schizocoelomates
157. Which one of the following is a feature of
(2) Triploblastic
butterfly?
(3) Bilaterally symmetrical
(1) Organ level of body organisation
(4) Possessing organ-system level of
(2) Body consists of head, thorax and abdomen
organisation
149. Choose the odd one w.r.t. super class (3) Belongs to second largest phylum
Tetrapoda. (4) Body is covered by a calcareous exoskeleton
(1) Mammals (2) Osteichthyes 158. Alternation of generation between asexual and
(3) Aves (4) Reptilia sexual phases of an organism is termed
150. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. (1) Metagenesis (2) Metastasis
Osteichthyes.
(3) Metamorphosis (4) Morphogenesis
(1) Notochord is persistent throughout life
159. How many of the features listed below are
(2) Mouth is located ventrally correct w.r.t. phylum porifera?
(3) Teeth are modified placoid scales which are (i) Internal cavities are lined with food filtering
backwardly directed flagellated cells
(4) Air bladder is present which regulates
(ii) Body is made up of meshwork of cells
buoyancy
(iii) Mostly asymmetrical
151. Select the largest animal without any
endoskeleton or exoskeleton. (iv) Water vascular system
(1) Aurelia (2) Myxine (1) None (2) One

(3) Cucumaria (4) sword fish (3) Two (4) Three
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160. A viviparous endoparasite of the human body is 169. Choose the odd one w.r.t. presence of ventral
Round worm solid central nervous system.

(1) Hookworm (2)
worm (1) Doliolum

(3) Trichina (4) Tape worm
161. Members of phylum A and B are (2) Scorpion
exclusively marine. A and B respectively are (3) Spider
(1) Porifera and Coelenterata (4) Periplaneta
170. Which of the following characteristics is present

(2) Ctenophora and Hemichordata
in phylum Aschelminthes?
(3) Aschelminthes and Porifera
(1) Monoecious
(4) Platyhelminthes and Coelenterata
(2) Parapodia
162. An organism that does not show the presence of
cell wall is
(3) Pseudocoelom
(4) Metamerism
(1) Sea pen (2) E.coli
171. All of the following are correctly matched, except
(3) Pseudomonas (4) Thermus aquaticus
(1) Bombyx mori Sericulture
163. Which of the following represents genus of 'Cat'?
(2) Apis indica Apiculture
(1) Equus (2) Felis
(3) Pinctada Pearl culture
(3) Canis (4) Rattus
(4) Laccifer lacca Vermiculture
164. Select the incorrect feature w.r.t. ctenophores.
172. Which one is not a feature of Adamsia?
(1) Tissue level of body organisation
(1) Metagenesis
(2) Fertilization is external
(2) Gastrovascular cavity
(3) Ciliated comb plates primarily help in feeding
(3) Diploblastic
(4) Digestion is both extracellular and
(4) Cnidoblast
intracellular
173. Select the incorrect statement.
165. The group of animals which belong to the same
Schizocoelom first originated in phylum
phylum are
Annelida.
(1) Tape worm, Pinworm, Hookworm
(2) Blastopore is the pore of blastocoel
(2) Sea anemone, Sea hare, Sea cucumber
(3) Solenocytes are the main excretory
(3) Star fish, Flying fish, Saw fish structures in platyhelminthes
(4) Cuttle fish, Devil fish, Sea hare (4) The embryonated egg of Ascaris represents
166. A member of the largest phylum of animal an egg with a juvenile.
kingdom is 174. Given below are four matches of animals and

their respiratory organs.
(1) Lepisma (2) Exocoetus
A. Herdmania Book lungs
(3) sepia (4) Tetradon
B. Delphinus Lungs
167. Members phylum have a single opening
of which
to the outside that serves both as mouth and C. Anopheles Tracheal tubes
anus D. Limulus Book gills
(1) Mollusca (2) Platyhelminthes The correct matches are
(3) Echinodermata (4) Annelida C and D only

168. Which of the following animals is diploblastic? (2) A and B
(1) Lancelet (2) Magur (3) B, C and D
(3) Liver fluke (4) Sea walnut (4) A and D only
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175. A larvicidal fish which helps control malaria is 179. Select the flightless bird.
(1) Silverfish (2) Gambusia (1) Neophron

(3) Cuttlefish (4) Flyingfish
(2) Aptenodytes
176. Select the correct statement w.r.t aves.
(3) Psittacula
(1) The forelimbs generally have scales
(2) Respiration is carried out mainly by air sacs (4) Columba
(3) Development is indirect 180. Select the organism which has the following
(4) Endoskeleton is fully ossified characteristics.
177. The lanta of which animal undergoes (i) The male bears a brood pouch where female
metamorphosis in fresh water and then retums to
lays egg.
the ocean
Tail is prehensile
(1) Petromyzon (2) Branchiostoma
(3) Ascidia (4) Salpa (iii) Presence of long snout
178. Choose the incorrect feature w.r.t. (iv) Bony endoskeleton

hemichordates.
Hippocampus
(1) Presence of stomochord
(2) Catla
(2) Worm like marine animal
(3) Scoliodon
(3) Presence of proboscis gland
(4) Body is metamerically segmented (4) Pristis
a a a
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20/03/2020 CODE-A
Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8,Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456
MM : 720 TEST SERIES for NEET-2020 Time : 3.00 Hrs.
Test - 1
Answer Key
1. (4) 37. (2) 73. (4) 109. (3) 145. (1)

2. (2) 38. (3) 74. (3) 110. (3) 146. (4)
3. (2) 39. (2) 75. (1) 111. (3) 147. (3)
4. (1) 40. (2) 76. (2) 112. (4) 148. (1)
5. (3) 41. (1) 77. (2) 113. (2) 149. (2)
6. (1) 42. (2) 78. (3) 114. (1) 150. (4)
7. (3) 43. (2) 79. (3) 115. (2) 151. (1)
8. (2) 44. (3) 80. (3) 116. (3) 152. (2)
9. (3) 45. (1) 81. (1) 117. (1) 153. (3)
10. (3) 46. (2) 82. (4) 118. (4) 154. (1)
11. (2) 47. (3) 83. (4) 119. (3) 155. (2)
12. (1) 48. (1) 84. (1) 120. (3) 156. (4)
13. (2) 49. (1) 85. (2) 121. (4) 157. (2)
14. (2) 50. (3) 86. (3) 122. (1) 158. (1)
15. (3) 51. (4) 87. (4) 123. (3) 159. (4)
16. (3) 52. (4) 88. (3) 124. (1) 160. (3)
17. (1) 53. (1) 89. (1) 125. (2) 161. (2)
18. (4) 54. (3) 90. (1) 126. (3) 162. (1)
19. (2) 55. (3) 91. (4) 127. (2) 163. (2)
20. (3) 56. (1) 92. (2) 128. (1) 164. (3)
21. (1) 57. (4) 93. (2) 129. (3) 165. (4)
22. (2) 58. (4) 94. (3) 130. (2) 166. (1)
23. (4) 59. (2) 95. (4) 131. (3) 167. (2)
24. (2) 60. (2) 96. (2) 132. (3) 168. (4)
25. (1) 61. (3) 97. (4) 133. (4) 169. (1)
26. (1) 62. (3) 98. (3) 134. (1) 170. (3)
27. (3) 63. (1) 99. (1) 135. (4) 171. (4)
28. (2) 64. (4) 100. (3) 136. (2) 172. (1)
29. (3) 65. (4) 101. (3) 137. (4) 173. (2)
30. (3) 66. (1) 102. (1) 138. (3) 174. (3)
31. (1) 67. (1) 103. (2) 139. (1) 175. (2)
32. (3) 68. (2) 104. (2) 140. (4) 176. (4)
33. (4) 69. (3) 105. (3) 141. (3) 177. (1)
34. (4) 70. (2) 106. (2) 142. (1) 178. (4)
35. (1) 71. (2) 107. (1) 143. (2) 179. (2)
36. (3) 72. (4) 108. (4) 144. (2) 180. (1)
(1) @AakashDelhi02
20/03/2020 CODE-A
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8,Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456
MM : 720 TEST SERIES for NEET-2020 Time : 3:00 Hrs.
Test - 1
Hints and Solutions
PHYSICS
1. Answer (4) 5. Answer (3)

Quantities with same dimensions can be added ∆X ∆α ∆β
or subtracted. × 100 =2× × 100 + 3 × 100
X α β
2. Answer (2)
1.9 + 2.0 + 2.1 1 ∆ρ 3 ∆γ
+ × 100 + × 100
am = =2 2 ρ 2 γ
3
∆a1 = |1.9 – 2| = 0.1 1 1 1 3 1
=2× + 3× + ×2 + ×
∆a2 = |2.0 – 2.0| = 0.0 2 3 2 2 3
∆a3 = |2.1 – 2.0| = 0.1 1
= 1% + 1% + 1% + % = 3.5%
0.1 + 0.0 + 0.1 0.2 1 2
∆am = = = = 0.07 = 0.1
3 3 15 6. Answer (1)
∆am 0.1
== = 0.05 [b] = [t] = [T]
am 2
[P ][b − 2t ]
∆am = [a ]
%error = × 100 = 0.05 × 100 = 5% [x2 ]
am
[ML2 T −3 ][T]
3. Answer (2) ⇒ = [a ]
[L2 ]
1
Using dimensional analysis represents
µ0 ε0 ⇒ [ML0 T −2 ] = [a]
speed of light.
∴
= [ab] [ML0 T −2 ] × [T]
 2 
∴ = = [M0 LT −1]
 [speed]
µ ε = [ML0 T −1]
 0 0
v = u + at Force
Surface tension S =
= 2.03 + 1.0 × 0.3 length
= 2.03 + 0.3
[F ]
= 2.33 =
[S ] = [Fa −1t −2 ]
[a × t 2 ]
Upto correct significant figure 2.3 m/s.
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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

 1 MSD – 1 VSD = LC Separation = 400 m
Time = 20 s
⇒ 1 mm – 1 VSD = 0.05 mm
=
Vrel Vjeep − Vcar
⇒ 1 VSD = (1 – 0.05) = 0.95
= v – 40
19
= mm 400
20 ∴ (v − 40) = = 20
20
∴ 19 mm if divided into 20 divisions then v = 60 m/s
19
1VSD = mm 14. Answer (2)
20 15. Answer (3)
∫ adt =∫ dv =∆v =v f − v i
9. Answer (3)
[Torque] = [Force] × [distance] = [MLT–2] [L]
= ML2T–2 ∫ adt is area under a v-t graph
⇒ 3
= vf − vi
[Force] [MLT −2 ]
=
[surface tension] = = [ML0 T −2 ] ⇒ v f =3 + v i =3 + 5 = 8 m/s
[length] [L]
16. Answer (3)
[Impulse] = [Force × time] = [MLT–2] × T
total distance
= [MLT–1] v av =
total time
[Radial acceleration] = [acceleration] = [M0LT–2]
S 4v1v 2
10. Answer (3) = =
S 3S v 2 + 3v1
+
0.5 4v1 4v 2
Least count of screw gauge is = 0.01 mm
50 17. Answer (1)
Which is smallest and hence most precise Acceleration of bolt with respect to elevator when
among all. bolt starts falling is
11. Answer (2) aBE= 10 − ( −2)= 12 m/s2 downward
x = t sint Initial relative velocity = 0
v = tcost + sint Displacement travelled by bolt with respect to
elevator is SBE = 1.2 m
v(0) = 0 + 0 = 0 m/s
1
 π × aBE × t 2 =
SBE
v  t= = 0 + 1 2
 2
 2 × 1.2 1
| ∆v | 1 2 =t = s
∴ aav= = = m/s2 12 5
∆t π π
2 18. Answer (4)
Displacement time graph is upward parabola for
12. Answer (1) positive acceleration.
For constant velocity, velocity-time graph is a 19. Answer (2)
horizontal line along time axis and displacement- 1
−
time graph is a straight line while for uniform x= (t + 1) 2
acceleration displacement time graph is parabolic −3
in nature. 1
v=
− (t + 1) 2
From 0 to t1 → Velocity is constant hence S – t 2
−5 5 3
graph is a straight line 3 3 − ×
a=
+ (t + 1) =
2 (t + 1) 2 3
t1 to t2 → Acceleration is positive hence 4 4
3 5 5
displacement time graph is upward parabola. 3 − × 3
= (t + 1) 2 3 = v 3
t2 to t3 → Same as t1 to t2 4 2
(3)
@AakashDelhi02
Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020

1 1  x
× 10 × 152 =v × 5 + × 10 × 25 y= x tan θ  1 − 
2 2  R
⇒ 225 = v + 25 R  R 
⇒ =
H tan θ  1 − 
⇒ v = 200 m/s 2  2R 
21. Answer (1) 4H

⇒ = tan θ
 R
u = 6 j m/s
⇒ tanθ = 2

v (t ) = 6 j + (2i − 2 j )t ⇒ θ =tan−1(2)
=(6 − 2t ) j + 2ti 26. Answer (1)
If velocity is parallel to x-axis, vy = 0 gx 2
=y x tan θ −
When v y = 0 ⇒ 6 − 2t = 0 2u 2 cos2 θ
Putting the values of x = 4 m, y = 2.4 m, θ = 45°
t=3s
We get,
1 1
∴ x= × 2 × 32 y=6×3– × 2×9 10 × 16
2 2 2.4 = 4 × 1 −
1
=9 = 18 – 9 = 9 2×v2 ×
2
160
= 4 − 2.4
22. Answer (2) v2
=v 2v cos θ 160
⇒ =
v2 = 100
1 1.6
cos θ =
2 v = 10 m/s
27. Answer (3)
θ= 45°
dy
23. Answer (4) = cyx 2
dt

r A sin ωti + B cos ωt j
 = dx
= cxy 2

v = Aω cos ωti − Bω sin ωt j
dt
 dy yx 2 x
a =− Aω2 sin ωti − Bω2 cos ωt j = =
dx xy 2 y
= −ω2 ( A sin ωt i + B cos ωt j ) ⇒ ydy = xdx

 y 2 x2
= −ω2r ⇒ = + constant
 2 2
For A = B, v = Aω cos ωti − Aω sin ωt j ⇒ y2 = x2 + constant
 
Hence r ⋅ v =0 28. Answer (2)
  Sum of magnitude of any two vectors should be
⇒ r is perpendicular to v
greater than or equal to third vector.
24. Answer (2)
29. Answer (3)

 ∆r (8 − 2) j + 8i
v=
av = t=
w 400
= = 8s
∆t 6 min
v mr 50
8i + 6 j
= Drift x = 40 × 8 = 320 m
6
∴=
S x2 + w 2
4 
=  i + j 
3  = 3202 + 4002 = 80 41 m
@AakashDelhi02
(4)

30. Answer (3) a 2ai + 2b j
=

=
Let Vr ( ai + b j ) km/h for first condition  
a=⋅ v 4a 2 (t − 1) + 4b=
2
t 0

Vrm = ( ai + b j ) − 3 2 i .
⇒ (a + b )t =
2 2
a2
If appears vertically downward
a2
Then, ( a − 3 2 ) = 0 ⇒ a = 3 2 …(i) t=
a2 + b2

For second condition, Vrm = ( ai + b j ) − 5 2 i 34. Answer (4)
This appears at 45° with vertical 1
s= × at 2
2
⇒ a−5 2 =
b
  25   1
⇒ 3 2 −5 2 =
b ⇒ b=
−2 2 5 2π    =a × 25
  π  2

∴=
vr (3 2 i − 2 2 j ) km/h a = 20 m/s2
 35. Answer (1)
∴ vr= (3 2 ) + (2 2 ) =
2 2
18 + 8= 26 km/h
Equation of trajectory of the projectile is
31. Answer (1)  x
y= x tan θ  1 − 
 R
Putting the values of x, y and θ we get
 18 
=
12 18  1 − 
 R
2 18
⇒ 1− =
3 R
S = distance of closest approach ⇒ R = 54 m
= asin30° At θ = 45°
a  4H = Rtanθ
=
2
R 54
32. Answer (3) H= ×1 = = 13.5 m
4 4
   
(i) ( A + B + C ) × B =
0 36. Answer (3)
       
⇒ ( A × B ) = (B × C ) ⇒ A × B = B × C  v = αt2
 
(ii) Since ( A × B ) is perpendicular to the plane
at = 2αt
   at t = 2 s
containing A, B and C vectors which
  
means ( A × B ) is perpendicular to C .
at = 4α
  
Therefore, ( A × B ) × C will be lying in the =
v 2 α 2t 4
=
   ar
plane of A , B and C. r 2
   = 8α
2
(iii) Since A × B is perpendicular to C therefore,
  
( A × B) ⋅C = 0 ∴
ar 8α 2
= = 2α
   at 4α
(iv) From (iii) ( A × B ) ⋅ C = 0 always.
37. Answer (2)
33. Answer (4)
 Vertical displacement after 4 s
r = a(t − 1)2 i + bt 2 j
1
 h = × 10 × 16 =80 m
v = 2a(t − 1)i + 2bt j 2
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 
horizontal displacement in 3 s d1 × d 2 = ( i − j ) × ( i + j )
1 4 × 10
x= × × 32 = 60 m = k + k = 2k
2 3
1 
∴ Total displacement ∴ area 2k = 1 unit
2
= 802 + 602 = 100 m 41. Answer (1)
38. Answer (3) n1u1 = n2u2
10 M1 L1 T1−2  = n2 M2 L 2 T2−2 
−2
 1kg   100 cm   1s 
⇒ n2 =
10 ×  × × 
 10 kg   10 cm   10 s 
1
= 10 × × 10 × 102 = 1000
10
42. Answer (2)
5
1
x =× 2 3 × 12 = 3 v= × 72 = 20 m/s
2 18
y=3 V2 400
Retardation=
a = = 10 m/s2
2 s 2 × 20
∴ Co-ordinate of particle is ( 3, 3 )
20 − 0
3 =t = 2s
∴ tan=
θ = 3 10
3 43. Answer (2)
θ = 60°
 a2 + b 2 + 2ab cos θ = 3
39. Answer (2)
θ
2cos = 3
2
θ 3
cos =
2 2
θ = 60°
∴ a − b = a 2 + b 2 − 2ab cos θ
1
= 1+ 1− 2 × = 1
MP ′ = 2000 m 2
5
u = 360 km/h = 360 × =
100 m/s 44. Answer (3)
18 
 ∆S
Time taken by packet to reach in the hands of Vav =
∆t
2h 2 × 2000
man =
is t = = 20 s 
g 10 ∆S= (20 × 5)2 + (30 × 5)2
⇒ PP ′ = u × t = 100 × 20 = 2000 m
= 1002 + (150)2 = 50 13
 P ′M  
∴ Angle of sight θ =tan−1   50 13
 PP ′  =
Vav = 5 13
10
θ= 45° 
 ∆V 10 13
=
aav = = 1 13
40. Answer (2) ∆t 10

1   Vav 5 13
Area = d1 × d 2 ∴=  = 5
2 aav 13
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45. Answer (1) ∆Y 1  ∆A ∆B 

= +
Let =
Y =
AB =
2 1.414 m Y 2  A B 
1  0.2 0.2 
⇒ =
∆Y + ×=
1.4 0.21
2  1.0 2.0 
Rounding off to two significant digit
Y = 1.4 m So, result should be 1.4 m ± 0.2 m
CHEMISTRY
2 2
No. of degenerate orbitals = n = 2 = 4 n2
rn = 0.53
47. Answer (3) Z
No. of angular nodes =   22 
 
48. Answer (1) (r2 ) +  2  8
= =
He
N = M × n-factor = 0.1 × 2 = 0.2 N (r1 ) 3+  12  1

Be
 
49. Answer (1) 4
0.1× 1000 59. Answer (2)
Molality(m) = = 6.17 m
0.9 × 18 N1V1 + N2V2 = N3V3
50. Answer (3) 1 × 50 + 2 × 150 = N3 × 200
Orbital angular momentum N3 = 1.75 N
h 60. Answer (2)
= ( + 1)
2π • 22.4 L H2 at STP = 1 mole H2 = 2 g
51. Answer (4) • 0.3 mole H2 = 0.3 × 2 = 0.6 g
No. of atoms 24
• 1.204 × 10 molecules of H2 = 2 mole H2 = 4 g
0.48
= × 3 × 6.022 × 1023 = 1.8 × 1022 61. Answer (3)
48
h
52. Answer (4) ∆x × ∆p ≥
4π
Molarity depends on volume of solution. h
2∆v × m × ∆v ≥
53. Answer (1) 4π
54. Answer (3) 1 h
∆v ≥
h h 2 2πm
=
λ ⇒=
v
mv mλ 62. Answer (3)
−34
6.62 × 10 M1V1 = M2V2
=v = 1 m/s
0.1× 6.62 × 10−33 0.2 × V1 = 0.1 × 3 ⇒ V1 =
1.5 L
10 2
Zn = [Ar] 3d 4s g eq. of metal = g eq. of oxygen
For last electron n = 4,  = 0, m = 0 x y−x 8x
= ⇒ EM=
56. Answer (1) EM 8 y−x
Molar mass M e
Equivalent mass = = For neutron,   = Zero
n − factor 3 m
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• 49 g H3PO4= 0.5 mole = 0.5 NA molecules Energy
Power =
• 45 g C6H12O6 = 0.25 mole = 0.25 NA molecules Time
• 28 g N2 = 1 mole = NA molecules hc
x×
λ ⇒ 10 λ
• 36 g H2O = 2 mole = 2 NA molecules =
10 = x
1 hc
66. Answer (1)
10 × 662 × 10−9
C2H4O2 : % of C =
24
× 100 = = = 3.33 × 1019
60
40% 6.62 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
32 77. Answer (2)
% of O = × 100 =
53.33%
60 78. Answer (3)
67. Answer (1) 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
1× 79 t = 0, 5 mol 2 mol 0
Volume of N2 = lit
100
Final, 1 mol 0 4 mol
 79  79. Answer (3)
 100 
N2  =  79
Mole of= × 10−3 M.W = 2 × VD = 2 × 44 = 88 g/mol
22.4 2.24
At STP, 88 g of gas will have 22400 ml
68. Answer (2)
Average atomic mass So, 0.88 g of gas will have = 224 ml
100 × 80 + 102 × 20 80. Answer (3)

= = 100.4 81. Answer (1)
100
69. Answer (3) 13.6Z2
KE = eV
∆ n2
CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
82. Answer (4)
Volume of CO2 at STP
83. Answer (4)
10 90
= × × 22.4  2 lit 42.5
100 100 0.5
=
Xsolute = 85 = 0.135
70. Answer (2) 42.5 57.5 0.5 + 3.19
Isosters species have same number of atoms and +
85 18
same number of total electrons.
84. Answer (1)
71. Answer (2)
hν = hν0 + KE
v
Number of revolution per second ∝
r 3 = 1.5 + eVs
z 85. Answer (2)
n z2
∝  2 ∝ 3
h
λ=
n  n 2m KE
 
 z 
λ1 m2KE2 2 2 2
72. Answer (4) ∴ = = × =
λ2 m1KE1 1 9 3
λ : Radiowaves > IR > X-rays > γ -rays
86. Answer (3)
73. Answer (4)
hν
75. Answer (1) B2  → 2B
1  1 1 1 1  Energy absorbed = BE + 2x
= RHZ2  2 − 2  = RH × 12 ×  2 − 2 
λ   1 4 
 n1 n2  2.2 × 10−18 − 2 × 10−18
x=
16 2
λ=
15 RH = 0.1 × 10–18 = 10–19 J
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Na2SO4.10 H2O → Na2SO4 + 10 H2O atoms of H2 2 × nH
= 2
332 g 10 × 18 g atoms of CO2 3 × nCO

2
10 × 18
% loss of mass = × 100 =
55.9% 2 w H2 44 44 1 4
322 = × × = × = .
3 2 w CO 3 11 3
89. Answer (1) 2
BOTANY
Flora provides information about plants only. Fungi imperfecti i.e. Deuteromycetes do not show
92. Answer (2) sexual reproduction.
111. Answer (3)
93. Answer (2)
Ectomycorrhiza is found in Pinus roots.
Zoological parks are ex-situ conservation
strategies of animals. 112. Answer (4)
Specific epithet begins with small letter. Sexual spores are basidiospores in
basidiomycetes.
95. Answer (4)
114. Answer (1)
Taxonomy along with phylogeny is considered
systematics. Both viruses and viroids cause infection.
Planaria shows true regeneration. 116. Answer (3)
98. Answer (3) Saccharomyces is a eukaryotic organism.
16S rRNA sequences were used by Carl Woose 118. Answer (4)
to classify organisms into 3 domains. Cholera is a bacterial disease.
100. Answer (3) Cyanobacteria can fix N2.
Rhizobium is a symbiotic N2 fixer. 120. Answer (3)
101. Answer (3) Ectocarpus, Dictyota and Fucus are members of
phaeophyceae.
Nitrosomonas is a nitrifying bacteria.
121. Answer (4)
102. Answer (1)
Cell wall of Phaeophyceae do not contain pectin
103. Answer (2)
and sulphated esters.
104. Answer (2)
122. Answer (1)
Fungi have chitinuous cell wall.
123. Answer (3)
105. Answer (3)
Hutchinson – Proposed phylogenetic system of
106. Answer (2) classification.
107. Answer (1) 124. Answer (1)
108. Answer (4) 125. Answer (2)
Lichens cannot grow in SO2 polluted areas. Nostoc is a cyanobacterium.
109. Answer (3) 126. Answer (3)
Albugo candida – Member of Oomycetes. Gametophyte of bryophytes is haploid.
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127. Answer (2) 131. Answer (3)

Protonema is juvenile phase of mosses. In haplo-diplontic life cycle both sporophyte and
gametophyte stages are present.
128. Answer (1) 132. Answer (3)
Sphagnum is also called cotton moss. Haploid algae show zygotic meiosis.
133. Answer (4)
129. Answer (3)
Angiosperms lack archegonia.
130. Answer (2) 134. Answer (1)
Synergid and antipodal cells degenerate after 135. Answer (4)
fertilization in angiosperms. Pollen grains are formed inside microsporangia.
ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (2) 145. Answer (1)
a, b, c and d are respectively liver fluke, Amphibians show indirect development while
Adamsia, Pila and Locust. Pila and locust have a reptiles show direct development. Skin of
true coelom. Liver fluke, Pila and Locust show amphibians is moist without scales. Amphibians
bilateral symmetry. Locust respire through show external fertilization (exception-european
tracheal system. Radial symmetry and salamander).
cnidoblasts are shown by Adamsia. 146. Answer (4)
137. Answer (4) Post anal tail is absent in nonchordates.
Ichthyophis is a limbless amphibian. Tympanum 147. Answer (3)
is absent in Ichthyophis. 148. Answer (1)
138. Answer (3) Enterocoelom is present in members of phylum
echinodermates to chordates.
Phylum Animal
149. Answer (2)
Coelenterata Meandrina Class Amphibia, Reptilia, Aves and Mammals are
Platyhelminthes Taenia included in super class Tetrapoda.
Mollusca Chaetopleura 150. Answer (4)
Features given in other options are of
Echinodermata Cucumaria
chondrichthyes.
139. Answer (1) 151. Answer (1)
Loligo, Aedes and Pheretima are bilaterally Aurelia i.e. jelly fish is a coelenterate.
symmetrical. 152. Answer (2)
140. Answer (4) In arthropods open circulatory system is present
The larvae of amphibians exhibit metamorphosis e.g. spider and crab.
which is absent in organisms belonging to pisces 153. Answer (3)
and protochordata. Sea horse is an enterocoelomate with bilateral
141. Answer (3) symmetry.
154. Answer (1)
Birds and arthropods are characterized by a crop
and gizzard in their digestive system. Larval stage is absent in earthworm i.e.
Pheretima.
142. Answer (1)
155. Answer (2)
Aves and mammals are homeotherms. Balanoglossus belongs to hemichordates while
143. Answer (2) pteropus belongs to Mammalia.
Pteropus is flying fox. 156. Answer (4)
Musca domestica i.e. housefly belongs to
144. Answer (2)
phylum-Arthropoda; class-Insecta, family-
All cyclostomes are included in Division Agnatha. Muscidae
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157. Answer (2) 169. Answer (1)

In butterfly, organ system level of body In non-chordates ventral solid central nervous
organisation is present. It belongs to the largest system is present. Doliolum is a urochordate.
phylum and body is covered by a chitinous
170. Answer (3)
exoskeleton.
Parapodia and metamerism are features of
158. Answer (1)
phylum Annelida.
Metastasis is spread of cancerous cells to distant
171. Answer (4)
sites in the body.
In lac culture Laccifer lacca is used. Vermiculture
159. Answer (4)
is related to Pheretima.
In poriferans water canal system is present.
172. Answer (1)
160. Answer (3)
Metagenesis is found in Obelia.
Trichinalla spiralis is also known as ‘pork worm’.
173. Answer (2)
161. Answer (2)
Blastopore is the pore of archenteron.
Members of phylum Ctenophora, Hemichordata
174. Answer (3)
and Echinodermata are exclusively marine.
Herdmania respires through paired pharyngeal
162. Answer (1)
gill slits.
Cell wall is not present in animals.
175. Answer (2)
163. Answer (2)
Gambusia fish (Larvivorous) was introduced into
Cat-Felis domestica. several tropical regions to control malaria.
Dog-Canis familiaris 176. Answer (4)
164. Answer (3) In aves the hindlimbs generally have scales.
Respiration is by lungs, air sacs connected to
In Ctenophores, ciliated comb plates help in
lungs are avascular and supplement respiration.
locomotion.
Development is direct.
165. Answer (4)
177. Answer (1)
Cuttle fish, Devil fish and Sea hare belong to
Petromyzon shows anadromous migration.
phylum Mollusca.
178. Answer (4)
166. Answer (1)
Body of hemichordates is cylindrical in shape and
Tetradon is puffer fish, Exocoetus is flying fish.
is divisible into three distinct regions or parts –
Lepisma or silver fish is an arthropodan.
proboscis, middle collar and a long posterior
167. Answer (2) trunk. They possess an unsegmented body.
Digestive tract is incomplete in platyhelminthes, 179. Answer (2)
while it is absent in tapeworms.
Struthio, Aptenodytes, etc. are flightless birds.
168. Answer (4)
180. Answer (1)
Ctenophores, commonly known as sea walnuts
or comb jellies are diploblastic organisms. Hippocampus (Sea horse) is an osteichthyes.
  
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@AakashDelhi02
24/03/2020 CODE-A
Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456
Test - 2
Topics covered :
Physics : Laws of motion, Work, Energy and Power
Chemistry : Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure,
States of Matter: Gases and Liquids
Botany : Morphology of Flowering Plants, Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Zoology : Structural Organization in Animal, Biomolecules
Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.
PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer : 2. In which of the following cases, would the weight
1. A cubical block A of mass 10 kg and a block B of of a body as recorded by a physical beam
mass 2 kg are connected via string-pulley system balance be greater than the true weight of the
body?
as shown in the figure. If one end of the string is
pulled with a force 20 N as shown, then the (1) In an elevator accelerating upwards
acceleration of wedge will be (All surfaces are (2) In an elevator accelerating downwards
smooth. Pulley and strings are ideal) (3) In an elevator moving up with constant speed
(4) None of the above
3. Consider a hypothetical situation, where
electromagnetic interactions between the
charges do not exist. In such a situation, which of
the following would not be possible?
(1) 4 m/s2
(1) Sitting on a chair
(2) 2 m/s2
(2) Holding a pen
(3) 1 m/s2
(3) Climbing stairs
2
(4) 8 m/s (4) All of the above
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Test-2 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020
4. A block of mass m is suspended through a 9. A ball of mass 2 kg, initially moving with a
vertical spring of spring constant k as shown in velocity (2iˆ  ˆj ) m/s collides with a ball of mass
the figure. If the block is pulled down by a
4 kg, initially at rest. If, after the collision, the
mg
distance from equilibrium position and lighter ball comes to rest, then the velocity of the
4k
released, then the initial acceleration of the block heavier ball after the collision is
will be  ˆj 
(1)  iˆ   m/s
 
2

(2) (iˆ  jˆ) m/s
(3) (2iˆ  ˆj ) m/s
(4) (iˆ  2 jˆ) m/s

(1) g/3 (2) g/4
(3) g/5 (4) g 10. A force F(t) = (6 – 8t) N varying with time (t) acts
5. A bullet of mass 40 g is fired from a gun with on a particle moving along x-axis. The magnitude
initial velocity of 40 m/s. If the mass of the gun is of impulse imparted to the particle from t = 0 to
3 kg, then the recoil velocity of the gun just after t = 10 s is
fire will be (1) 300 N-s (2) 340 N-s
(1) 3.6 m/s (2) 1.87 m/s (3) 210 N-s (4) 120 N-s
(3) 0.53 m/s (4) 1 m/s 11. Two blocks A and B of masses 2m and 4m
6. A spring of spring constant k is cut into three respectively are connected to each other by an
parts of lengths in ratio 1 : 2 : 1. The algebraic ideal spring. The whole system is suspended
addition of spring constants of these springs will
with the help of an inextensible string as shown
be
in the figure. If the system is initially in
(1) k (2) 10k equilibrium, then the acceleration of A just after
(3) 8k (4) 6k cutting the string, is
7. The tension in the string as shown in the figure is
[g = 10 m/s2] (All surfaces are smooth)
g
(1) (2) 2g
(1) 23.3 N (2) 50 N 2
(3) 30 N (4) 46.67 N (3) g (4) Zero
8. A block of mass 2 kg is placed on the top of a 12. The linear momentum (P) versus time (t) graph
block of mass 4 kg as shown in the figure. The for a particle is as shown in the figure. The
coefficient of friction between the blocks is particle will be in equilibrium at time (t) equal to
0.2, while the ground is smooth. The acceleration
of 2 kg block, with respect to ground is
(1) t1 (2) t2
(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 8 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2 (4) 2 m/s2 (3) t3 (4) Both (2) and (3)
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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-2 (Code-A)
13. Which of the following potential energy curves 17. An engine lifts 90 tonne of coal per hour from a
can possible describe the elastic collision mine whose depth is 200 m. The power of the
between two billiard balls (r is distance between engine is (g = 9.8 m/s2)
centre of balls and R is radius of balls). (1) 176.4 kW (2) 22 kW
(3) 89 kW (4) 49 kW
18. A block of mass m is suspended by a light string
(1) (2) from an elevator. The elevator starts accelerating
downward from rest with uniform acceleration a.
The work done by tension in the string on the
block during first t second is (a < g)
(3) (4)
14. A particle is displaced from (1m, 2m) to (2m, 4m).

If work done by force F  2iˆ   jˆ is zero for this
m
displacement, then  is equal to (1) (a  g ) at 2 (2) m(a  g) at 2
2
(1) –1 (2) 1 m
(3) (g  a) at 2 (4) m(g  a) at 2
(3) 2 (4) –2 2
19. The potential energy stored in a spring with
15. A force (2iˆ  4 jˆ) N acts on a block of mass 4 kg compression x is U. The potential energy in the
as shown in the figure. The frictional force acting same spring when it has an extension of 2x is
on the block is (g = 10 m/s2) (1) U (2) 4U
(3) 3U (4) 10U
20. From the top of a tower of height h, a particle is
thrown with a speed v. The speed with which the
particle strikes the ground is
(1) Maximum if projected at an angle of 45° with
horizontal
(1) 3 N (2) 4 N (2) Maximum if projected at an angle of 60° with
horizontal
(3) 1 N (4) 2 N
(3) Maximum if projected vertically downwards
16. A bob of pendulum is released from a horizontal
(4) Same for all angles of projections
position A as shows in the figure. If the length of
21. When a ball collides head-on with a massive
the pendulum is 4 m, what is the speed with
wall, it loses one-fourth of its kinetic energy. The
which the bob arrives at lowermost point B, given
coefficient of restitution is
that 95% of its initial energy is dissipated against
1 1
air resistance. (1) (2)
2 4
1 3
(3) (4)
2 2
22. Consider a motion of particle with mechanical
energy E. If U denotes potential energy, K denote
kinetic energy and E denotes mechanical energy
then which of the following is not possible?
(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s
(1) U < E (2) U > E
(3) 3 m/s (4) 4 m/s
(3) K > E (4) K < E
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23. Consider the following two statements. 28. A particle is dropped from a height. Taking g to
(a) Every force encountered in mechanics has be constant everywhere, the variation of net
an associated potential energy. mechanical energy of the particle as a function of
time before striking the ground is best
(b) Kinetic energy conservation in elastic
represented by (Neglect air resistance)
collision is valid at every instant during the
collision.
The correct statement(s) are (1) (2)
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only
(3) (a) and (b) both (4) Neither (a) nor (b)
24. The approximate energy required to turn a page
of an Aakash study package is 10–3 J. The (3) (4)
energy in electron-volt is
9 –22
(1) 1.88 × 10 eV (2) 1.6 × 10 eV
29. Two blocks of masses 3 kg and 4 kg respectively
16 15
(3) 3.46 × 10 eV (4) 6.25 × 10 eV are placed on a smooth horizontal surface. They
25. Graph between potential energy versus are connected by a light spring of force constant
deformation in a spring is a k = 200 N/m. Initially the spring is unstretched.
The indicated velocities are imparted to the
(1) Parabola (2) Circle
blocks. Find the maximum extension in the
(3) Straight line (4) Hyperbolic spring.
26. A small block of mass m is placed inside a
smooth hollow sphere of radius R at lowest
position. Initially system was at rest as shown in
the figure. Now the sphere is given a constant (1) 30 cm (2) 20 cm
horizontal acceleration g by an external agent. (3) 10 cm (4) 5 cm
The maximum angular displacement of block with 30. Consider the following two statements.
vertical, w.r.t. sphere is (a) Linear momentum of the system is zero.
(b) Kinetic energy of the system is zero.
Choose the correct statement.
(1) (a) implies (b) and (b) implies (a)
(2) (a) does not imply (b) and (b) does not
imply (a)
(3) (a) implies (b) and (b) does not imply (a)
(1) 60° (2) 30°
(4) (b) implies (a) and (a) does not imply (b)
(3) 45° (4) 90°
31. A particle is dropped from a height 100 m. If the
27. A rigid body of mass 4 kg is under the influence
coefficient of restitution of collision of the particle
of a force such that its displacement at any time t
1
t2 with the ground is , then the maximum height
(in second) is s  metre. The work done by 2
2 attained by the particle after three collisions with
the force in first two seconds will be the ground is
(1) 4 J (2) 6 J (1) 15.625 m (2) 31.25 m
(3) 8 J (4) 10 J (3) 1.5625 m (4) 3.125 m
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32. A small block of mass 4 kg is placed in (1) 15 kg (2) 30 kg

equilibrium inside a rough bowl which is
(3) 60 kg (4) Zero
paraboloid in shape as shown in the figure. The
height of mass from the ground is 1.8 m. The net 37. Two masses A and B are suspended vertically
contact force by the bowl on the mass has a with help of two strings. The ratio of tension in
magnitude (g = 10 m/s2) strings is  . If the whole apparatus is taken in an
elevator accelerating upwards, then this ratio
(1) 20 N (1) Increases (2) Decreases

(2) 40 N (3) Remains same (4) None of these
(3) 80 N 38. Two small balls A and B, of mass 2 kg and 4 kg
(4) Insufficient information are moving with velocity (2iˆ  4 jˆ)m/s and
33. Consider the system of blocks as shown in the
figure. The acceleration of 4 kg block, when the (2iˆ) m/s respectively. After the balls collide, the
2 kg block has an acceleration 4 m/s2 is velocity of ball A is (2iˆ  jˆ) m/s, then the velocity
of ball B will be
(1) 3 m/s2 (2) 4 m/s2 (1) (2iˆ  2 jˆ) m/s (2) (2iˆ  1.5 jˆ) m/s
(3) 1 m/s2 (4) 2 m/s2
(3) (iˆ  jˆ) m/s (4) (iˆ  2 ˆj ) m/s
34. A man standing on a rough horizontal disc
rotating with constant angular velocity of 39. A horizontal force of 20 N is necessary to just
10 rad/s. The distance from the centre of disc hold a block stationary against a wall. The
where he should stand so he does not slip on the coefficient of friction between the block and the
disc is (coefficient of friction between disc and
wall is 0.4. The weight of the block is
man feet is 0.4)
(1) R  0.04m (2) R  0.02m
(3) R  0.04m (4) R  0.02m
35. A railway carriage is moving on a horizontal track
with an acceleration a. A passenger sitting in the
carriage drops a stone. The acceleration of (1) 8 N (2) 16 N
stone, relative to the railway platform
(3) 4 N (4) 10 N
(1) a (2) g
40. The position-time graph of a body of mass
(3) a2  g2 (4) Zero 12 kg is given in the figure. What is the impulse
36. Two masses of 15 kg each are suspended on the body at t = 4 second.
through two strings tied to a spring balance after
passing over frictionless pulleys. The reading of
the balance will be
(1) 34 kg m/s (2) 28 kg m/s

(3) 12 kg m/s (4) 25 kg m/s
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41. In the arrangement shown in the figure, all strings (1) 30 J (2) 15 J
and pulleys are ideal and surface are smooth. (3) 25 J (4) 20 J
The acceleration of the block is
44. A block of mass 4 kg falls on a spring from a
height of 15 cm. If the spring constant of spring is
2000 N/m, then maximum compression in spring
is
(1) 10 m/s2 (2) 20 m/s2

(3) 40 m/s2 (4) 5 m/s2
42. A uniform thick rope of length 10 m is kept on a
frictionless surface and a force of 10 N is applied
to one of its end. The tension in the rope at a
distance 1 m from this end will be
(1) 1 N (2) 5 N (1) 14 cm (2) 18.2 cm
(3) 9 N (4) 10 N (3) 12.6 cm (4) 10 cm
43. The relationship between the force F and position 45. A small bob of mass m is attached to one end of
X of a body is as shown in figure. The work done a light rigid rod, of length l, whose other end is
in displacing the body from X = 0 to X = 6 m is hinged so that it can rotate in vertical plane. The
minimum horizontal speed that must be imparted
to the bob (when the bob is vertically suspended)
such that the bob just completes circular path is
(1) 5gl (2) 4gl
(3) 2gl (4) 6gl
CHEMISTRY
46. According to modern periodic law, the physical 51. Minimum ionic radii among the following is of
and chemical properties of the element are (1) K
+
(2) Al
3+
periodic function of 2– 2–
(3) O (4) S
(1) Atomic number
52. Correct order of decreasing negative electron
(2) Atomic mass
gain enthalpy is
(3) Mass number
(1) S > Se > Te > O (2) S > O > Se > Te
(4) Number of neutrons
(3) O > S > Se > Te (4) Te > S > Se > O
47. Atomic number of element Uns is
53. Electronegativity value of Cl on Pauling scale is
(1) 115 (2) 106 similar to
(3) 107 (4) 119 (1) C (2) N
48. In which period, Lanthanoid series is present? (3) O (4) S
(1) 3 (2) 4 54. Neutral oxide among the following is
(3) 5 (4) 6 (1) CO (2) NO
49. General electronic configuration of d-block (3) N2O (4) All of these
elements is
55. Correct order of ionisation enthalpies is
(1) nd1–10 ns0–2 (2) (n – 1) d1–10 ns0–2
(1) Li < Be < B < C (2) Li < B < Be < C
(3) nd1–10 (n – 1) s2 (4) nd1–10 (n – 1) s1–2 (3) Li < C < B < Be (4) Be < Li < B < C
50. Maximum atomic radius among the following is of 56. Which one of the following is a metalloid?
(1) Be (2) Mg (1) As (2) Ge
(3) B (4) Al (3) Te (4) All of these
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57. The hybridisation of Cl in ClF3 is 67. Select the incorrect statement regarding
(1) sp3d (2) sp3d2 molecular orbital theory.
(1) The number of molecular orbitals formed is
(3) sp3 (4) dsp2
equal to the number of atomic orbitals
58. Formal charge on N in is combining
(1) Zero (2) –1 (2) The bonding molecular orbital has lower
energy than corresponding antibonding
(3) +1 (4) +3 molecular orbital
59. Which among the given molecules does not (3) Molecular orbitals follow Hund’s rule
contain a central atom with expanded octet? (4) Molecular orbitals do not follow Aufbau rule
(1) PF5 (2) SF6 68. Which of the following molecular orbitals does not
contain nodal plane?
(3) H2SO4 (4) NH3
(1)  1s (2) *1s
60. Ease of electrovalent bond formation increases
(3)  * 2px (4)  * 2pz
with
(1) High ionisation enthalpy 69. Which of the following species contains only
 bond?
(2) Low negative electron gain enthalpy
(1) H2 (2) C2
(3) High ionisation and negative electron gain
(3) N2 (4) O2
enthalpy
70. Paramagnetic species among the following is
(4) Low ionisation and high negative electron
gain enthalpy (1) N2 (2) N2
61. Which among the given pairs does not have (3) O2 (4) All of these
identical bond order? 71. Which of the following molecules does not exist?
(1) O22 and F2 (2) CO and NO (1) He2 (2) H2
+
(3) Be2 (4) Both (1) and (3)
(3) N2 and CO (4) N2 and NO
72. Total number of electrons present in antibonding
62. Polar molecule among the following is molecular orbitals in N2 are
(1) BF3 (2) CO2 (1) 2 (2) 4
(3) BeF2 (4) H2O (3) 6 (4) 8
73. Strongest H-bonding takes place in
63. Shape of SF4 molecule is
(1) HF (2) H2O
(1) See saw (2) Tetrahedral
(3) NH3 (4) CH3OH
(3) Square planar (4) Octahedral
74. For linear shape, central atom must have
64. Zero overlap takes place between which of the (1) Two bond pairs only
following, if x-axis is the inter-nuclear axis?
(2) Two bond pairs and two lone pairs
(1) 1s and 2s (2) 2px and 2s (3) Two bond pairs and three lone pairs
(3) 2px and 2py (4) 2px and 1s (4) Both (1) and (3)
* 75. Minimum bond length is in
65. In the given compound CH3  CH  C  CH2 ,
(1) O2 (2) O2
hybridisation of the marked carbon atom is
(1) sp (2) sp2 (3) O2 (4) O22
(3) sp3 (4) dsp2 76. In London force, the interaction energy is
inversely proportional to the (r = distance
66. Number of 90° angle(s) in PCl5 is between two particles)
(1) Zero (2) 3 (1) r (2) r2
(3) 5 (4) 6 (3) r3 (4) r6
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77. Which of the following is not a characteristic of 83. van der Waal’s equation for 1 mol gas at low
pressure is
gaseous state?
 a 
(1) Gases are highly compressible (1) P   V  RT
 V2 
(2) Gases exert pressure in all directions equally (2) P(V – b) = RT
(3) Gases cannot mix evenly and completely in  1
(3) P   (V  b)  RT
all proportions without any mechanical aid  V2 
(4) The volume and shape of gases are not fixed (4) PV = RT
78. Select the incorrect graph regarding Boyle’s law 84. If compressibility factor for a real gas at STP is 2
then the volume occupied by 1 mole of real gas is
(1) 11.2 L (2) 22.4 L
(1) (2) (3) 44.8 L (4) 2.24 L
85. Select the incorrect statement regarding kinetic
theory of gases
(3) (4) (1) There is no interparticle force of attraction
(2) Particles of a gas are always in constant and
random motion
79. If volumes of a gas at 0°C and t°C respectively (3) Different particles of the gas, have different
are V0 and Vt then select the correct relation speeds
V0 (4) Collision of gas molecules are inelastic
(1) Vt 
273.15 86. Unit of van der Waal constant ‘a’ is
V t atm L2 atmmol2
(2) Vt  0 (1) (2)
273.15 mol2 L2
 t  atm2 mol
(3) V0  Vt 1  (3) (4)
atmmol
 273.15  L2 L2
 t 
(4) Vt  V0 1 87. Maximum critical temperature among the
 273.15  following is of
80. Equal masses of O2 and SO2 are mixed in an (1) H2 (2) He
empty container at 25°C. If total pressure of the (3) N2 (4) NH3

container is 9 atm then the partial pressure of O 2 88. Different gases at same temperature must have
gas is (1) Same volume
(2) Same mass
(1) 1 atm (2) 3 atm
(3) Same pressure
(3) 4.5 atm (4) 6 atm
(4) Same average kinetic energy
81. Mass of 11.2 L CH4 gas at S.T.P. is
89. Maximum density of CO2 gas is at
(1) 4 g (2) 8 g (1) 300 K and 2 atm
(3) 16 g (4) 32 g (2) 300 K and 1 atm
82. Real gas behaves as ideal gas at (3) 300 K and 4 atm
(4) 200 K and 4 atm
(1) Low temperature and high pressure
90. Under identical conditions rate of diffusion of CH4
(2) Low temperature and low pressure
is twice the rate of diffusion of
(3) High temperature and low pressure (1) O2 (2) O3
(4) High temperature and high pressure (3) SO2 (4) SO3
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BOTANY
91. Radial and bilateral symmetry is found 99. Find the odd one out w.r.t. androecium.
respectively in flowers of (1) Androecium is outermost whorl of the flower
(1) Pea and tomato (2) Sem and chilli and it is a male reproductive system
(3) Chilli and pea (4) Bean and Pea (2) Stamen consists of a filament and anther
92. Inferior ovary is found in (3) A sterile stamen is called staminode
(1) Cucumber and ray florets of sunflower (4) When stamens are free then they are called
polyandrous
(2) Brinjal and peach
100. Pneumatophores in Rhizophora are
(3) Mustard and brinjal (1) Modified stem and helpful in respiration
(4) China rose and rose (2) Modified root and helpful in photosynthesis
93. Prop roots found in banyan trees (3) Modified root and helpful in respiration
(1) Are responsible for photosynthesis (4) Modified leaves and perform respiration
(2) Provide mechanical support 101. Aggregate fruits are found in
(3) Enter the soil obliquely for storage of food (1) Cucumber (2) Strawberry
(4) Are modified for respiration (3) Guava (4) Sunflower
94. Region of meristematic activity in root 102. Fruits which develop from entire inflorescence
are called
(1) Is also called zone of maturation
(1) Aggregate fruits (2) Composite fruits
(2) Is found few millimetres above the root cap
(3) Multiple fruits (4) Both (2) and (3)
(3) Is the part of root cap and protects the tender
103. Aleurone layer in monocotyledonous seeds is
apex
(1) Triploid and is part of scutellum
(4) Contains root hair and thus help in absorption
of water (2) Diploid and is part of endosperm
95. Modified stem, bulb is found in all, except (3) Diploid and proteinaceous
(4) Triploid and is part of endosperm
(1) Onion (2) Lily
104. Micropyle of dicot seed
(3) Zaminkand (4) Garlic
(1) Develops from integuments and forms the
96. Stem tendrils seed coat
(a) Are long, thin thread like structures (2) Consists of embryonal axis and two
(b) Provide support to weak and tender stem cotyledons
(c) Are found in Pistia and Eichhornia (3) Formed as the result of double fertilization
Correct statements are (4) Found above the hilum as a small pore
(1) (a), (b) and (c) 105. Find the incorrect match.
(2) (a) and (c) (1) Runner – Grass
(2) Food storing fleshy leaves – Onion
(3) (a) and (b)
(3) Stolon – Water hyacinth
(4) (b) and (c)
(4) Tuber – Potato
97. Phyllode of Australian Acacia is
106. In Primrose
(1) Modified stem (2) Modified leaflet
(1) Ovules are borne on central axis and septa
(3) Modified petiole (4) Modified root are absent in the ovary
98. In insectivorous plant such as Nepenthes (2) Ovary is one-chambered but false septum is
(1) Leaves modified for storage of food present
(2) Lamina of leaves modified into pitcher (3) Placenta is present in axial position and
ovules are attached to it
(3) Stem is modified to trap insects
(4) Placenta forms a ridge along the ventral
(4) Petiole of leaves modified into pitcher suture of ovary
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107. Find the odd one out about epipetalous stamen 114. Which of the following is wrong statement?
(1) In this condition stamen is attached to petal (1) Hypodermis of dicot stem is made up of
(2) Stamen is attached to tepals collenchymatous cells
(3) This condition is present in chilli (2) General cortex is parenchymatous in both
stem and roots
(4) Potato and tomato also have epipetalous
androecium (3) Hypodermis of monocot stem is made up of
108. Find the incorrect match w.r.t. symmetry of collenchymatous cells
flower. (4) Endodermis is located around the pericycle
Symmetry Example and composed of compactly arranged cells
(1) Actinomorphic Mustard 115. Pericycle is not seen in

(2) Zygomorphic Cassia (1) Monocot stems and dicot stems
(3) Asymmetric Canna (2) Monocot roots and dicot roots
(4) Actinomorphic Bean (3) Monocot stems only
109. Read the statements and select the correct
(4) Dicot stems only
option.
116. When protoxylem is formed towards centre and
(A) Pericarp is the fruit wall and can be
metaxylem towards the periphery, then this
differentiated into endocarp, mesocarp and
condition is called
epicarp.
(B) Nucellus remains persistent in the seeds of (1) Endarch or centripetal
black pepper and is called perisperm. (2) Exarch or centrifugal
(1) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect (3) Exarch or centripetal
(2) Only (A) is correct
(4) Endarch or centrifugal
(3) Only (B) is correct
117. Which of the following is not true about
(4) Both (A) and (B) are correct isobilateral leaf?
110. The largest posterior petal in pea flowers is called
(1) Stomata present on both surfaces are equal
(1) Standard (2) Wings in numbers
(3) Keel (4) Stipule (2) Lower epidermis contain bulliform cells which
111. Find the correct match. helps in rolling of leaves
Plant Type of fruit (3) Mesophyll is not differentiated into the
(1) Litchi Drupe palisade and spongy parenchyma
(2) Apple Pome (4) Each vascular bundle is surrounded by a
(3) Pear Berry layer of thin walled cells called bundle sheath
(4) Tomato Pepo 118. Dicot leaf

112. Find the odd one out w.r.t. intercalary meristem. (1) Contains bulliform cells
(1) It is intercalated between meristematic (2) Usually has parallel venation
tissues
(3) Has middle prominent vein called midrib
(2) They are separated from the apex of organ
by mature tissues (4) Has conjoint and open vascular bundle
(3) They add to the length of plants or its organs 119. Secondary growth does not occur in
(4) They are also found in grasses to regenerate (1) Roots of dicot
the parts removed by grazing herbivores
(2) Stem of dicot
113. Simple permanent tissue does not include
(3) Stem and roots of gymnosperms
(1) Parenchyma (2) Xylem vessels
(3) Chlorenchyma (4) Sclerenchyma (4) Monocot stems and roots
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120. A , B and C are lateral meristems that 125. Find the odd one out w.r.t. lenticel
participate in secondary growth of dicots. (1) Small portion of periderm produced due to
(1) A = Intrafascicular cambium activity of phellogen
B = Interfascicular cambium (2) Formed as a result of primary growth of plant
C = Intercalary meristem (3) Lens-shaped opening present on the bark
(2) A = Apical bud (4) Occurred in most woody trees and permit the
exchange of gases
B = Lateral bud
126. Cork cambium is
C = Cork cambium
(1) A meristematic tissue arises as a result of
(3) A = Primary phloem
division of pith cells
B = Primary xylem
(2) Formed from pericycle cells and gives rise to
C = Secondary xylem periderm
(4) A = Intrafascicular cambium (3) More active in monocot stem than dicot stem
B = Interfascicular cambium (4) Collenchymatous tissue responsible for
C = Cork cambium protection
121. Interfascicular cambium in stem is formed from 127. Dumb-bell shaped and bean-shaped guard cells
(1) Dedifferentiation of medullary rays respectively are found in
(2) Pericycle cells (1) Tomato and grasses (2) Grasses and potato
(3) Endodermis cells (3) Tomato and maize (4) Tomato and potato
(4) Hypodermal cortex cells 128. All are true for trichomes, except
122. All given features are of early woods, except (1) They may be branched or unbranched
(1) Lighter in colour (2) They may be soft or stiff
(2) Lower density (3) They help in transpiration as well as

respiration
(3) Fewer xylary elements
(4) They are epidermal hair of stem
(4) Formed in spring season
129. Find the incorrectly matched pair.
123. Heartwood in dicot stems is
Organ Character
(1) Hard, durable and sensitive to microbial
attacks (1) Dicot stem – Radial vascular bundles
(2) Non-functional due to deposition of tannis, (2) Monocot root – Polyarch xylem
oils, resins and aromatic substances (3) Monocot stem – Endodermis absent
(3) Found in outer regions of stems (4) Dicot root – Exarch xylem
(4) Lighter in colour due to absence of organic 130. Outermost layer of monocot root is
compounds
(1) Cuticularized and called epidermis
124. During secondary growth, vascular cambium in
(2) Non-cuticularized and called endodermis
dicot stem is
(3) Non-cuticularized and called epiblema
(1) More active on the inner side forming more
amount of secondary xylem (4) Non-cuticularized and called pericycle
(2) More active on outer side forming more 131. Collenchyma differ from sclerenchyma as former
primary phloem outer side (1) Is complex tissue
(3) More active on inner side forming more (2) Is living
primary xylem inner side
(3) Is thick walled
(4) More active on outer side forming primary
(4) Provides mechanical support
xylem inner side
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132. Sclereids are commonly found in 134. Sieve cells

(1) Young stem of monocot and dicot (1) Possess a peripheral cytoplasm and present
in angiosperms
(2) Seed coat of peas and beans
(2) Posses sieve plates and present in
(3) Meristematic tissue of monocot plant angiosperms
(4) Fruit wall of grapes (3) Are not arranged distinctly in linear rows and
present in gymnosperms
133. All are true about vessels, except
(4) Are food conducting elements of bryophytes,
(1) Each vessel member has lignified cell wall pteridophytes and gymnosperms
and large central cavity 135. Phloem fibres has all characteristics, except
(2) They are devoid of protoplasm and are dead (1) Sclerenchymatous
(3) Vessel is a long single cell and has tapered (2) Elongated fibres and do not have branches
ends (3) Provide mechanical support to the plant
(4) They are exclusively present in angiosperms (4) Has protoplasm at maturity
ZOOLOGY
136. The cells of areolar tissue that secrete fibres and 141. Read the following statements.
matrix are
A. Ligaments consist of dense regular
(1) Fibroblasts (2) Histiocytes connective tissue that connects skeletal
(3) Chondroblasts (4) Mast cells muscle to bone.
137. Cells of ciliated epithelium can be B. Adipose tissue is the most abundant loose
(1) Squamous and cuboidal connective tissue in human body.
(2) Squamous and columnar Choose the correct option.
(3) Cuboidal and columnar (1) Only statement A is correct
(4) Squamous and possess microvilli (2) Only statement B is correct
138. Epithelium consisting of single thin layer of
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
flattened cells with irregular boundaries can be
found in (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(1) Pharynx 142. Read the features given in the box.
(2) Inner surface of bronchi
Branched, Striated, Involuntary, Fusiform,
(3) Air sacs of human lungs Cylindrical, Uninucleated, Intercalated
(4) Inner surface of trachea disc, Structural syncytium
139. The type of junctions that facilitate adjacent
neurons to communicate with each other, in an How many of the above are characteristics of
cardiac muscle fibres?
electrical synapse are
(1) Tight junctions (1) 3 (2) 5
(2) Adhering junctions (3) 6 (4) 7
(3) Gap junctions 143. The part of neuron that carries messages away
(4) Desmosomes from cyton always lacks
140. The matrix of all the following connective tissues (1) Neurilemma (2) Axolemma
is fibrous except (3) Nissl’s granules (4) Myelin sheath
(1) Blood
144. Bone ash lacks all the following except
(2) Cartilage
(1) Collagen fibres (2) Osteocytes
(3) Adipose tissue
(3) Bone marrow (4) Mineral matter
(4) Areolar tissue
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145. A section of a human tissue was stained and In the given figure A, B and C represent
studied under the microscope. Upon observation, respectively
numerous yellow elastic fibres were found (1) Transition state, activation energy with
scattered between chondrocytes in lacunae but enzyme, activation energy without enzyme
lamellae were absent. Few white fibres were also
present. This tissue could have been taken from (2) Transition state, activation energy without
enzyme, activation energy with enzyme
(1) Intervertebral disc (2) Tracheal wall
(3) Activation energy with enzyme, activation
(3) Articular cartilage (4) Pinna of ear
energy without enzyme, transition state
146. Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium is present in
(4) Activation energy with enzyme, transition
(1) Gastric mucosa (2) Trachea state, activation energy without enzyme
(3) Fallopian tube (4) PCT of nephron 153. Enzymes that catalyse the linking together of
147. Match column A and column B and choose the two compounds by expenditure of energy are
correct option.
(1) Lyases (2) Ligases
Column A Column B
(3) Hydrolases (4) Transferases
a. Lectin (i) Morphine
154. All the given statements are true in light of
b. Alkaloids (ii) Abrin dynamic state of body constituents except
c. Toxin (iii) Vinblastin (1) All the biomolecules present in the body have
d. Drugs (iv) Concanavalin A a turnover rate
(v) Ricin (2) Metabolic pathways may be linear or circular
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(v), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (3) All metabolic reactions are catalysed
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(v), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(v), c(ii), d(i) reactions
148. Which of the following will not be present in acid (4) Flow of metabolites is random and
insoluble fraction? directionless in these metabolic pathways
(1) Fructose (2) Collagen 155. Triglycerides contain
(3) RNA (4) Starch (1) Three glycerols esterified with three fatty
149. The energy currency of cell is a acids
(1) Nucleic acid (2) Nucleotide (2) Three glycerols esterified with one fatty acids
(3) Nucleoside (4) Nuclease (3) One glycerol esterified with three fatty acids
150. The blood concentration of glucose in a normal (4) One glycerol esterified with one fatty acid
healthy individual is 156. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. essential
(1) 4.5 – 5.0 nM (2) 5.5 – 6.0 nM amino acids
(3) 4.5 – 5.0 mM (4) 5.5 – 9.0 mM (1) They are substituted methanes
151. An incorrect feature of Watson and Crick’s (2) They are not synthesised by our body
B-DNA model is (3) They join to form a homopolymeric structure
(1) Rise per base pair is 3.4 Å (4) Dietary proteins are their source for the body
(2) Pitch of helix is 34 Å 157. The biomolecule present in least quantity, among
following, in a living cell are
(3) Strand turns 34° at each step of ascent
(1) Proteins (2) Lipids
(4) Rise per base pair is 0.34 nm
(3) Carbohydrates (4) Nucleic acids
152. Study the following figure.
158. Choose the odd one w.r.t. polymeric compounds.
(1) Collagen (2) Cellulose
(3) Chitin (4) Cholesterol
159. Palmitic acid is a/an ___ fatty acid with ___
carbon atoms.
The option that fills the blanks correctly
respectively is
(1) Unsaturated, 16 (2) Saturated, 18
(3) Unsaturated, 18 (4) Saturated, 16
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160. The dry weight of a living tissue includes the 166. Read the following statements.
weight of all except A. Inorganic catalysts are similar to enzymes in
(1) Stored starch being specific for a reaction.
(2) Stored glycogen B. Inorganic catalysts are always more efficient
than enzymes as they can work at high
(3) Water molecules temperatures and have faster reaction rates.
(4) Proteins Choose the correct option.
161. In primary structure of protein, the first amino acid (1) Only statement A is correct
is called
(2) Only statement A is incorrect
(1) N-terminal amino acid
(2) C-terminal amino acid (4) Both statements are incorrect
(3) S-terminal amino acid 167. Read the following statements w.r.t. Lecithin
(4) H-terminal amino acid (a) It is a phospholipid
162. A common feature of peptide and glycosidic bond (b) It is found in cell membranes
is that they (c) It reduces surface tension in lung alveoli
(1) Connect carbohydrate moieties (d) It is a completely hydrophobic compound at
(2) Are formed by dehydration its both ends
(3) Are present in chitin Choose the option with correct statements.
(1) (a) and (d) only (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) Connect amino acids
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c)
163. Which of the following happens if zinc is removed
from carboxypeptidase? 168. A basic amino acid among the following is
(1) Valine (2) Methionine
(1) Its catalytic activity is lost
(3) Lysine (4) Tryptophan
(2) Its catalytic efficiency increases
169. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. catalytic
(3) It gets denatured action of enzyme
(4) No effect on the activity of enzyme (1) The first step is binding of substrate to active
164. The formation of active site in an enzyme for the site of enzyme
binding of substrate takes place when the protein (2) The substrate always binds irreversibly with
attains the enzyme and prevents the latter from
breaking down its bonds
(1) Primary structure
(3) The binding of substrate with enzyme leads
(2)  helical structure to the formation of transient enzyme
(3) - pleated structure substrate complex
(4) After the product is formed, the free enzyme
(4) Tertiary structure
can bind to another molecule of substrate
165. The given structure represents a nitrogenous
170. The presence of a competitive inhibitor
base
(1) Increases Km of enzyme for a given substrate
(2) Decreases Km of enzyme for a given
substrate
(3) Increases the maximum velocity of the
reaction
An incorrect statement w.r.t. the above is (4) Decreases the maximum velocity of the
reaction
(1) It is heterocyclic and dicyclic purine
171. Which of the following is not a tyrosine
(2) It is present in DNA and RNA derivative?
(3) It is present in guanosine (1) Epinephrine (2) Thyroxine
(4) It is a component of adenylic acid (3) Melanin (4) Melatonin
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172. Choose the odd one w.r.t. storage 176. Enzymes which catalyse a reaction mainly by the
polysaccharides transfer of electrons are grouped under category
(1) Glycogen named
(1) Hydrolases (2) Oxidoreductases
(2) Starch
(3) Lyases (4) Ligases
(3) Chitin
177. Competitive inhibitors are often used in the
(4) Inulin control of bacterial pathogens because
173. Read the following statements. (1) They can bind covalently with the active site
A. In an exothermic reaction, the energy level of of crucial metabolic enzymes
product is lower than that of substrate. (2) They speed up the metabolic reactions of
B. The difference in the average energy content bacteria due to which it runs out of energy
of product from that of the transition state is and dies.
called activation energy. (3) They compete with the substrates of vital
Choose the correct option. enzymes and inhibit the reaction
(1) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect (4) They do not compete with the substrate but
bind to another site of the same enzyme
(2) Statement B is correct but A is incorrect
178. Association of co-enzyme with apoenzyme is
(3) Both statements are incorrect usually
(4) Both statements are correct (1) Permanent and loose
174. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. proteins (2) Transient and tight
(1) The alpha helix is always left handed (3) Transient and loose
(2) The tertiary structure is necessary for many (4) Permanent and tight
biological activities of proteins 179. The most abundant protein in the animal world is
(3) The quaternary structure is exhibited by (1) Collagen (2) Albumin
proteins with more than one polypeptide (3) RuBisCO (4) Haemoglobin
(4) The primary structure provides the positional 180. Select the incorrect statement.
information of protein
(1) There are mainly 20 types of amino acids that
175. Cellulose is help form proteins
(1) A heteropolymer (2) Enzymes enhance the rate of reaction
(2) Source of food in potato (3) Ribozymes are nucleic acids with catalytic
power
(3) Highly helical in structure
(4) All biomicromolecules are strictly polymeric
(4) A - D glucan


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1. (1) 37. (3) 73. (1) 109. (4) 145. (4)

2. (4) 38. (2) 74. (4) 110. (1) 146 (4)
3. (4) 39. (1) 75. (3) 111. (2) 147. (2)
4. (2) 40. (4) 76. (4) 112. (1) 148. (1)
5. (3) 41. (1) 77. (3) 113. (2) 149. (2)
6. (2) 42. (3) 78. (4) 114. (3) 150. (3)
7. (4) 43. (4) 79. (4) 115. (3) 151. (3)
8. (4) 44. (4) 80. (4) 116. (4) 152. (1)
9. (1) 45. (2) 81. (2) 117. (2) 153. (2)
10. (2) 46. (1) 82. (3) 118. (3) 154. (4)
11. (4) 47. (3) 83. (1) 119. (4) 155. (3)
12. (4) 48. (4) 84. (3) 120. (4) 156. (3)
13. (1) 49. (2) 85. (4) 121. (1) 157. (2)
14. (1) 50. (2) 86. (1) 122. (3) 158. (4)
15. (4) 51. (2) 87. (4) 123. (2) 159. (4)
16. (2) 52. (1) 88. (4) 124. (1) 160. (3)
17. (4) 53. (2) 89. (4) 125. (2) 161. (1)
18. (1) 54. (4) 90. (3) 126. (2) 162. (2)
19. (2) 55. (2) 91. (3) 127. (2) 163. (1)
20. (4) 56. (4) 92. (1) 128. (3) 164. (4)
21. (4) 57. (1) 93. (2) 129. (1) 165. (3)
22. (2) 58. (3) 94. (2) 130. (3) 166. (4)
23. (4) 59. (4) 95. (3) 131. (2) 167. (4)
24. (4) 60. (4) 96. (3) 132. (2) 168. (3)
25. (1) 61. (2) 97. (3) 133. (3) 169. (2)
26. (4) 62. (4) 98. (2) 134. (3) 170. (1)
27. (3) 63. (1) 99. (1) 135. (4) 171. (4)
28. (4) 64. (3) 100. (3) 136. (1) 172. (3)
29. (1) 65. (1) 101. (2) 137. (3) 173. (1)
30. (4) 66. (4) 102. (4) 138. (3) 174. (1)
31. (3) 67. (4) 103. (4) 139. (3) 175. (4)
32. (2) 68. (1) 104. (4) 140. (1) 176. (2)
33. (3) 69. (2) 105. (3) 141. (4) 177. (3)
34. (3) 70. (4) 106. (1) 142. (3) 178. (3)
35. (2) 71. (4) 107. (2) 143. (3) 179. (1)
36. (1) 72. (2) 108. (4) 144. (4) 180. (4)
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1. Answer (1) 1. mÙkj (1)
20 + 20 20 + 20
a= = 4 m/s2 a= = 4 m/s2
10 10
Apparent weight in beam balance would not che rqyk esa vkHkklh Hkkj ifjofrZr ugha gksxkA
change.
3. Answer (4)
3. mÙkj (4)
The source of normal force is electromagnetic in çd`fÙk esa lkekU; cy dk L=ksr fo|qrpqEcdh; gSA
nature. 4. mÙkj (2)
4. Answer (2)
 mg mg 
k + − mg
 mg mg 
k + − mg  k 4k  g
4k  a= =
a= 
k g
= m 4
m 4
5. mÙkj (3)
5. Answer (3)
m1v1 = m2v 2
m1v1 = m2v 2
(40  10−3 )  40 = 3  v 2 (40  10−3 )  40 = 3  v 2
1600  10−3 1.6 1600  10−3 1.6

v2 = = = 0.53 m/s v2 = = = 0.53 m/s
3 3 3 3
k k
ki = ni ki = ni
ni ni
4k 4k
 k1 =  k1 =
1 1
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Test Series for NEET -2020 Test-2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
4k 4k
k2 = k2 =
2 2
4k
k3 =
4k k3 =
1 1
k1 + k2 + k3 = 10 k
k1 + k2 + k3 = 10 k
10g sin(37°) – T = 10a … (i) 10gsin(37°) – T = 10a … (i)

T – 5gsin(53°) = 5a … (ii)
T – 5g sin(53°) = 5a … (ii)
Eq. (i) – 2 × eq. (ii)
leh. (i) – 2 × leh. (ii)
 10g sin(37°) – T – 2T + 10gsin(53°) = 0  10gsin(37°) – T – 2T + 10gsin(53°) = 0
 3T = 10gsin(37°) + 10gsin(53°)
 3T = 10g sin(37°) + 10gsin(53°)
3 4
3 4 3T = 100  + 100 
3T = 100  + 100  5 5
5 5
700
700 T= = 46.67 N
T= = 46.67 N 15
15
8. mÙkj (4)
8. Answer (4)
mHk;fu"B Roj.k (;fn ekU; gS)
Common acceleration (if applicable)
24
24 = ac = = 4 m/s2
= ac = = 4 m/s2 2+4
2+4
2 kg xqVds dks 4 m/s2 Roj.k çnku djus ds fy,
Friction required to provide 4 m/s2 acceleration to
2 kg block = 2 × 4 = 8 N vko';d ?k"kZ.k = 2 × 4 = 8 N
Limiting value of friction ?k"kZ.k dk lhekar eku
=  (2g) = 0.2 × 2 × 10 = 4 N =  (2g) = 0.2 × 2 × 10 = 4 N
 Slipping would occur  fQlyu gksxh

Friction acting on 2 kg block = 4 N 2 kg xqVds ij dk;Zjr ?k"kZ.k =4N
4 4
Acceleration = = 2 m/s2 Roj.k = = 2 m/s2
2 2
Conservation of linear momentum js[kh; laox
s laj{k.k
2(2iˆ + jˆ) + 4(0) = 2(0) + 4v 2(2iˆ + jˆ) + 4(0) = 2(0) + 4v
 ˆj   ˆj 
v =  iˆ +  m/s v =  iˆ +  m/s
 2  2
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10. Answer (2) 10. mÙkj (2)

10 10 10 10
I= 0 Fdt = 0 (6 − 8t )dt I= 0 Fdt = 0 (6 − 8t )dt
10 10
6t − 4t 2 = 60 − 400 = 340 N-s 6t − 4t 2 = 60 − 400 = 340 N-s
0 0
11. Answer (4) 11. mÙkj (4)

The forces on A remain unchanged just after jLlh dks dkVus ds Bhd ckn A ij cy vifjofrZr
cutting the string. Thus acceleration of block
jgsxkA blfy, jLlh dks dkVus ds Bhd ckn xqVds
A immediately after cutting the string would be
zero. A dk Roj.k 'kwU; gksxkA
12. Answer (4) 12. mÙkj (4)

Particle is in equilibrium when force acts on it, is d.k lkE; esa gS] tc bl ij dk;Zjr cy 'kwU; gSA
zero.
laox
s -le; vkjs[k dh <ky = cy
Slope of momentum-time graph = force
blfy, cy = 0, tc laosx-le; vkjs[k dh <ky
Hence, force = 0, when slope of momentum-time
'kwU; gSA
graph is zero.
13. Answer (1)
13. mÙkj (1)
14. Answer (1) 14. mÙkj (1)
F  d = 0  (2iˆ + jˆ)  (iˆ + 2 jˆ) = 0 F  d = 0  (2iˆ + jˆ)  (iˆ + 2 jˆ) = 0
2 + 2 = 0 2 + 2 = 0
 = −1  = −1
15. Answer (4) 15. mÙkj (4)

4g – 4 = N 4g – 4 = N
 N = 36 N  N = 36 N
fpull = 2 N ff[kpkao = 2 N
flimiting =  N = 0.1 36 = 3.6 N flhekar =  N = 0.1 36 = 3.6 N
Since flimiting  fpull pwfa d flhekra  f[khpako
f=2N
f=2N
16. Answer (2) 16. mÙkj (2)
5 1
5 1
 mg(4) = mv 2  mg(4) = mv 2
100 2 100 2
5  10  4 1 2 5  10  4 1 2
= v = v
100 2 100 2
v = 2 m/s v = 2 m/s
17. Answer (4) 17. mÙkj (4)

m = 90  103 kg m = 90  103 kg
mgh 90  103  9.8  200 mgh 90  103  9.8  200

f = = = 49 kW f = = = 49 kW
4 60  60 4 60  60
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18. Answer (1) 18. mÙkj (1)

T = m(g – a) T = m(g – a)
1  1 
W = T .d cos180 = −m(g − a )  at 2  W = T .d cos180 = −m(g − a )  at 2 
2  2 
m m
= (a − g ) (a)t 2 = (a − g ) (a)t 2
2 2
19. Answer (2) 19. mÙkj (2)
1 1
k ( x )2 = U k ( x )2 = U
2 2
1 1
k (2x )2 = 4U k (2x )2 = 4U
2 2
20. Answer (4) 20. mÙkj (4)
Conservation of mechanical energy. ;kaf=d ÅtkZ laj{k.k
21. Answer (4) 21. mÙkj (4)
3 3
kf = k kf = k
4 i 4 i
3 3
 vf = v  vf = v
2 i 2 i
3
3  e=
 e= 2
2
22. Answer (2)
22. mÙkj (2)
As K  0
pwfa d K  0
And U + K = E
rFkk U + K = E
 U E
 U E
23. Answer (4)
23. mÙkj (4)
Potential energy is defined only for conservative fLFkfrt ÅtkZ dsoy laj{kh cyksa ds fy, ifjHkkf"kr
forces. During elastic collision, kinetic energy is gSA çR;kLFk VDdj ds nkSjku] xfrt ÅtkZ fLFkfrt
converted to potential energy. ÅtkZ esa :ikUrfjr gksrh gSA
24. Answer (4) 24. mÙkj (4)
E( j ) 10−3 E( j ) 10−3
E(ev ) = = −19
= 6.25  1015 eV E(ev ) = = = 6.25  1015 eV
e 1.6  10 e 1.6  10 −19
25. Answer (1) 25. mÙkj (1)
1 2 1 2
U= kx U= kx
2 2
26. Answer (4) 26. mÙkj (4)
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mgR sin  − mgR(1− cos ) = 0 mgR sin  − mgR(1− cos ) = 0
sin  − 1 + cos  = 0 sin  − 1 + cos  = 0
 sin  + cos  = 1  sin  + cos  = 1
 Either  = 90 or 0  ;k rks  = 90 ;k 0
27. Answer (3) 27. mÙkj (3)

W = KE W = KE
2
 d (t 2 / 2) 
2
1 1  d (t 2 / 2) 
1 1
KE = mv 2 =  4   KE = mv 2 =  4   
 2 2
2 2  dt   dt 
KE = 2  t 2 KE = 2  t 2
t = 2 ij, KE = 2 × 2 = 8 J
2
2
At t = 2, KE = 2 × 2 = 8 J
W=8J
W=8J
28. Answer (4)
28. mÙkj (4)
Mechanical energy would remain constant. ;kaf=d ÅtkZ fu;r jgsxhA
29. Answer (1) 29. mÙkj (1)
1 2 1 1 2 1
kx =  vrel
2 kx =  vrel
2
2 2 2 2
1 1 63  1 1 63 
(200) ( x 2 ) =  (3)2  x = 0.3 m (200) ( x 2 ) =  (3)2  x = 0.3 m
2 2  6 + 3  2 2  6 + 3 
30. Answer (4) 30. mÙkj (4)

If K = 0 then Pnet = 0 ;fn K = 0 rc PuVs = 0
But if Pnet = constant does not imply K = 0 ysfdu ;fn PusV = fu;r dk vk'k; K = 0 ugha gS
31. Answer (3) 31. mÙkj (3)
100 100
H  = e6  H = = 1.5625 m H  = e6  H = = 1.5625 m
26 26
32. Answer (2) 32. mÙkj (2)
Net contact force = mg usV lEidZ cy = mg
33. Answer (3) 33. mÙkj (3)
Let spring force be F ekuk fLçax cy F gS
12 – F = 2 × 4 12 – F = 2 × 4
 F=4N  F=4N
F = 4a  a = 1 m/s
2
F = 4a  a = 1 m/s
2
34. Answer (3) 34. mÙkj (3)

 (R )  g
2
2 (R )  g
g g
R R
2 2
0.4  10 0.4  10
R R
10  10 10  10
R  0.04 m R  0.04 m
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35. Answer (2) 35. mÙkj (2)

In free fall, acceleration is g. eqDr :i ls fxjus ij Roj.k g gSA
36. Answer (1) 36. mÙkj (1)
kx = mg = 15 g N  15 kg kx = mg = 15 g N  15 kg
37. Answer (3) 37. mÙkj (3)
T1 (mA + mB )g (mA + mB ) (g + a0 ) T1 (mA + mB )g (mA + mB ) (g + a0 )
= = = =
T2 mB (g ) mB (g + a0 ) T2 mB (g ) mB (g + a0 )
= constant = fu;r
38. Answer (2) 38. mÙkj (2)
Linear momentum conservation js[kh; laox
s laj{k.k
m1u1 + m2u2 = m1v1 + m2v2
m1u1 + m2u2 = m1v1 + m2v2
2(2iˆ + 4 jˆ) + 4(2iˆ) = 2(2iˆ + jˆ) + 4v 2(2iˆ + 4 jˆ) + 4(2iˆ) = 2(2iˆ + jˆ) + 4v
4iˆ + 8 jˆ + 8iˆ = 4iˆ + 2 jˆ + 4v 4iˆ + 8 jˆ + 8iˆ = 4iˆ + 2 jˆ + 4v
8iˆ + 6 jˆ 8iˆ + 6 jˆ
=v =v
4 4
 ˆ 3   ˆ 3 
 2i + 2 jˆ  = v  2i + 2 jˆ  = v
   
39. Answer (1) 39. mÙkj (1)
20 = mg  mg = 0.4  20 = 8 N 20 = mg  mg = 0.4  20 = 8 N
40. Answer (4) 40. mÙkj (4)
3 3
v f = tan37 = v f = tan37 =
4 4
4 4
v i = − tan53 = − v i = − tan53 = −
3 3
3  4  9 + 16 25 3  4 9 + 16 25
v = − −  = v = − −  =
4  3  12 12 4  3  12 12
25 25
p = mv = 12  = 25 kg m/s p = mv = 12  = 25 kg m/s
12 12
41. Answer (1) 41. mÙkj (1)
(F / 2) 20 (F / 2) 20
a= = = 10 m/s2 a= = = 10 m/s2
m 2 m 2
42. Answer (3) 42. mÙkj (3)
F 10 F 10
T= (l − x ) = (10 − 1) = 9 N T= (l − x ) = (10 − 1) = 9 N
l 10 l 10
43. Answer (4) 43. mÙkj (4)
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44. Answer (4) 44. mÙkj (4)

1 2 1 2
mg(h + x ) = Kx mg(h + x ) = Kx
2 2
45. Answer (2) 45. mÙkj (2)
For a bob suspended by a light rod gYdh NM+ }kjk yVdk;s x;s xksyd ds fy,
vmin = 4gl vmin = 4gl
46. Answer (1) 46. mÙkj (1)

Modern periodic table is based on atomic number vk/kqfud vkorZ lkj.kh æO;eku la[;k ds ctk,
rather than mass number. ijek.kq Øekad ij vk/kkfjr gSA
47. Answer (3) 47. mÙkj (3)
Uns → Unnilseptium → 107 Uns → vufuylsfIV;e → 107
48. Answer (4) 48. mÙkj (4)
In lanthanoid series, filling of 4f orbitals takes ySUFksukW;M Js.kh esa ySUFksue ds ckn 4f d{kd Hkjs tkrs
place after Lanthanum (6th period). gSa (6th vkorZ)A
49. Answer (2) 49. mÙkj (2)
Generally, ns orbital is filled with electrons before lkekU;r% (n – 1)d d{kdksa esa bysDVªkWu Hkjus ds iwoZ
(n – 1)d orbitals. ns d{kd Hkjs tkrs gSaA
50. Answer (2) 50. mÙkj (2)
Order of size B < Be < Al < Mg vkdkj dk Øe B < Be < Al < Mg
2nd period 3rd period 2nd vkorZ 3rd vkorZ
51. Answer (2) 51. mÙkj (2)

Al3+ has only 10 electrons against 13 protons so Al3+ esa 13 çksVkWuksa ds fo:) dsoy 10 bysDVªkWu gksrs
maximum nuclear charge and minimum ionic radii. gSa] vr% ukfHkdh; vkos'k vf/kdre rFkk vk;fud
52. Answer (1)
f=T;k U;wure gksrh gSA
Element : O S Se Te
52. mÙkj (1)
rRo : O S Se Te
egH : –141 –200 –195 –190
(kJ mol−1)
egH : –141 –200 –195 –190
(kJ mol−1)
53. Answer (2)
53. mÙkj (2)
Electronegativity values for both Cl and N are 3.0.
Cl rFkk N nksuksa ds fy, fo|qr_.krk ds eku 3.0 gSA
54. Answer (4) 54. mÙkj (4)
CO, NO and N2O all are neutral oxides. CO, NO rFkk N2O lHkh mnklhu vkWDlkbM gSa
55. Answer (2) 55. mÙkj (2)
Ionisation enthalpy of Be is greater than B Be dh vk;uu ,UFkSYih B dh vk;uu ,UFkSYih ls
because penetration of a 2s-electron to the vf/kd gksrh gS D;ksafd ukfHkd ij 2s-bysDVªkWu dk
nucleus is more than 2p-electron. Hksnu 2p-bysDVªkWu dh vis{kk vf/kd gksrk gSA
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56. Answer (4) 56. mÙkj (4)

All of the given species are metalloids. These are
usually found in middle of the group.
nh x;h lHkh Lih'kht mi/kkrq,a gSaA ;s lkekU;r% oxZ
ds eè; esa ik;h tkrh gSaA
57. Answer (1)
57. mÙkj (1)
Chlorine has 3 bond pairs and 2 lone pairs of

electrons.
Dyksjhu esa 3 ca/k ;qXe rFkk 2 ,dkdh bysDVªkWu ;qXe
gksrs gSaA
 Hybridisation of Cl = sp3d
 Cl dk ladj.k = sp3d
58. Answer (3)
58. mÙkj (3)
Formal charge of N = 5 – 1 – 3 = +1
N dk vkSipkfjd vkos'k = 5 – 1 – 3 = +1
59. Answer (4)
59. mÙkj (4)
60. Answer (4)

60. mÙkj (4)
Ease of electrovalent bond formation requires
fo|qrla;ksth ca/k ds fuekZ.k dh lqxerk ds fy,
ease in formation of cation as well as anion.
/kuk;u o _.kk;u nksuksa ds fuekZ.k dh lqxerk
61. Answer (2)
vko';d gSA
Bond order of CO is 3 while bond order of NO is
2.5.
61. mÙkj (2)
CO dk ca/k Øe 3 tcfd NO dk ca/k Øe 2.5 gSA
62. Answer (4)
62. mÙkj (4)
63. Answer (1)

63. mÙkj (1)
SF4 has four bond pairs and one lone pair.
SF4 esa pkj ca/k ;qXe rFkk ,d ,dkdh ;qXe gksrk gSA
64. Answer (3) 64. mÙkj (3)
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65. Answer (1) 65. mÙkj (1)

Carbon atom is sp hybridised as it is forming
dkcZu ijek.kq sp ladfjr gS D;ksfa d ;g 2 rFkk 2
2 and 2 bonds.
ca/k cukrk gSA
66. Answer (4)
66. mÙkj (4)
Shape of PCl5 is trigonal bipyramidal which
PCl5 dh vkd`fr f=dks.kh; f}fijSfeMh; gS ftlesa 90°
contains six 90° Cl – P – Cl bonds.
ds N% Cl – P – Cl ca/k gSaA
67. Answer (4)
67. mÙkj (4)
Molecular orbitals are filled in accordance with
Aufbau, Pauli exclusion and Hund’s rule.
vk.kfod d{kd vkW¶ckÅ] ikmyh dk viotZu rFkk
gq.M ds fu;e ds vuqlkj Hkjs tkrs gSaA
68. Answer (1)
68. mÙkj (1)
69. Answer (2)
69. mÙkj (2)
In C2 molecule both the bonds are  bonds.
C2 v.kq esa nksuksa ca/k  ca/k gksrs gSaA

( 2px ) 
2

C2 : (1s)2 (* 1s)2 (2s)2 (* 2s)2  
( 2px ) 
2

2 C2 : (1s)2 (* 1s)2 (2s)2 (* 2s)2 
( 2py )  2
 ( 2p ) 
 y 
70. Answer (4) 70. mÙkj (4)
• N2+ and N2− contain odd electrons hence • N2+ rFkk N2− esa fo"ke bysDVªkWu gSa] vr% ;s
paramagnetic. vuqpqEcdh; gSaA
• O2 contains two unpaired electrons hence O2 esa nks v;qfXer bysDVªkWu gSa] vr% ;g
paramagnetic. vuqpqEcdh; gSA
71. Answer (4) 71. mÙkj (4)
Bond order of He2 and Be2 is zero. He2 rFkk Be2 dk ca/k Øe 'kwU; gSA
NB − NA NB − NA
B.O. = B.O. =
2 2
72. Answer (2) 72. mÙkj (2)
2p2 2p2
  x
1s  * 1s 2s  * 2s 
2 2 2 2 x
2p2z 1s  * 1s 2s  * 2s 
2 2 2 2
2p2z
 2p 2
2p y
2
y
No. of e– in antibonding molecular orbitals = 4. çfrvkca/kh vk.kfod d{kdksa esa bysDVªkWu dh la[;k = 4.
73. Answer (1)
73. mÙkj (1)
HF esa H-vkca/k dh lkeF;Z vf/kd gksrh gS D;ksafd F
Strength of H-bonding is more in HF due to highly
electronegative F. vR;Ur fo|qr_.kh gSA
74. Answer (4) 74. mÙkj (4)
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75. Answer (3) 75. mÙkj (3)

Greater is the bond order lesser is the bond ca/k Øe vf/kd gksus ij ca/k yackbZ de gksrh gSA
length.
76. mÙkj (4)
76. Answer (4)
yaMu cy nqcZyre vUrjk.kfod cy gksrk gSA
London force is weakest intermolecular force.
1
1 ikjLifjd fØ;k ÅtkZ 
Interaction energy  6 r6
r
77. mÙkj (3)
77. Answer (3)
xSlsa ,dleku :i ls fefJr gksrh gSaA
Gases mix uniformly.
78. mÙkj (4)
78. Answer (4)
ckW;y ds fu;e ds vuqlkj PV = k.
According to Boyle’s law PV = k.
79. mÙkj (4)
79. Answer (4)
V1 V2
V1 V2 =
= T1 T2
T1 T2
V0 Vt
V0 Vt =
= 273.15 273.15 + t
273.15 273.15 + t
80. mÙkj (4)
80. Answer (4)
ekuk O2 rFkk SO2 çR;sd ds wg dks ijLij feyk;k
Suppose wg of O2 and SO2 each mixed together.
tkrk gSA
w w
nO 32 nO
xO = = 2 32 2
w w =3
2
xO = =
w w =3
2
2 nO + nSO + nO + nSO +
2
2 2
32 64 2 2
32 64
2 2
PO = PT  xO = 9  = 6 atm PO = PT  xO = 9  = 6 atm
2 2 3 2 2 3
81. Answer (2) 81. mÙkj (2)
1 1
11.2 L gas at STP = mol CH4 = 8g CH4 STP ij 11.2 L xSl = mol CH4 = 8g CH4
2 2
82. Answer (3) 82. mÙkj (3)
At high temperature and low pressure, real gas mPp rki o fuEu nkc ij okLrfod xSl] vkn'kZ xSl
behaves as ideal gas. dh rjg O;ogkj djrh gSA
83. Answer (1) 83. mÙkj (1)
At low pressure V − b  V fuEu nkc ij V − b  V
84. Answer (3) 84. mÙkj (3)
Vreal V
Z= Z = okLrfod
Videal Vvkn'kZ
Vreal V
2=  Vreal = 44.8 L 2= okLrfod  V = 44.8 L
22.4 22.4 okLrfod
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85. Answer (4) 85. mÙkj (4)

Collisions of gas molecules are perfectly elastic. xSl v.kqvksa dh VDdj iw.kZr% çR;kLFk gksrh gSA
86. Answer (1) 86. mÙkj (1)
an2 an2
Pcorrection = P +
V2 P =P+
la'kks/ku V2
87. Answer (4)
87. mÙkj (4)
Gas H2 He N2 NH3
xSl H2 He N2 NH3
Tc 33.2 K 5.3 K 126 K 405.5 K
Tc 33.2 K 5.3 K 126 K 405.5 K
88. Answer (4)
88. mÙkj (4)
3
(KE)avg = RT
(KE)vklSr
3
= RT
2
2
Average kinetic energy depends only upon
temperature.
vkSlr xfrt ÅtkZ dsoy rki ij fuHkZj djrh gSA
89. Answer (4) 89. mÙkj (4)
PM
d=
PM d=
RT RT
90. Answer (3) 90. mÙkj (3)

rCH rCH M
4
=
M 4
=
rX 16 rX 16
91. Answer (3) 91. mÙkj (3)

92. mÙkj (1)
92. Answer (1)
93. mÙkj (2)
93. Answer (2)
cjxn ds o`{k esa çksi ewy ;kaf=d lgkjk çnku djus
In banyan tree, prop roots arise from the branches ds fy, rus ds 'kk[kkvksa ls mRiUu gksrh gSA
of stem for providing mechanical support.
94. mÙkj (2)
94. Answer (2)
95. mÙkj (3)
95. Answer (3) tehdan ,d ?kudan gSA
Zaminkand is a corm. 96. mÙkj (3)
96. Answer (3) 97. mÙkj (3)
97. Answer (3) 98. mÙkj (2)

usiSfUFkt dhVksa dks idM+us ds fy, fipj esa :ikarfjr
98. Answer (2)
gksrs gS rFkk buds ikpu }kjk iks"kdrRo çkIr djrs
Nepenthes modified into pitcher to trap the insects gSaA
and obtain nutrients by digesting them.
99. mÙkj (1)
99. Answer (1)
iq"i dk lcls ckgjh pØd ckg~; nyiqat dgykrk
Outermost whorl of flower is called calyx. gSA
100. Answer (3) 100. mÙkj (3)
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101. Answer (2) 101. mÙkj (2)

102. Answer (4) 102. mÙkj (4)
103. Answer (4) 103. mÙkj (4)
Endosperm in angiosperm is triploid and aleurone vko`rchth esa Hkwz.kiks"k f=xqf.kr gksrk gS rFkk ,sY;wjkWu
layer is the part of it. ijr bldk ,d Hkkx gksrk gSA
104. Answer (4) 104. mÙkj (4)
105. Answer (3) 105. mÙkj (3)
Water hyacinth has offset. tydqaHkh esa HkwLrkfjdk gksrh gSA
106. Answer (1) 106. mÙkj (1)
107. Answer (2) 107. mÙkj (2)
When stamen attached to tepals, condition is tc iqadslj ifjny (Vsiy) ls tqM+k gksrk gS rks ;g
called epiphyllous stamens. ifjfLFkfr ifjnyyXu iqadslj dgykrk gSA
108. Answer (4) 108. mÙkj (4)
Bean - Zygomorphic lse - ,dO;kllefer
109. Answer (4) 109. mÙkj (4)
110. Answer (1) 110. mÙkj (1)
111. Answer (2) 111. mÙkj (2)
Litchi – Nut fyph – uV
Apple – Pome lsc – ikse
Pear – Pome uk'kikrh – ikse
Tomato – Berry VekVj – csjh
112. Answer (1) 112. mÙkj (1)
Intercalary meristem is intercalated between varosZ'kh foHkT;ksrd ifjiDo Årdksa ds chp varosZ'kh
mature tissues. gksrk gSA
113. Answer (2) 113. mÙkj (2)
Xylem is a complex permanent tissue tkbye ,d tfVy LFkk;h Ård gSA
114. Answer (3) 114. mÙkj (3)
Hypodermis of monocot stem is sclerenchymatous ,dchti=h rus dk v/k'peZ n`<+krs dh; çd`fr dk
in nature. gksrk gSA
115. Answer (3) 115. mÙkj (3)
116. Answer (4) 116. mÙkj (4)
117. Answer (2) 117. mÙkj (2)
Upper epidermis contains bulliform cells. Åijh ckg~;Ropk esa cqyhQkeZ dksf'kdk,¡ gksrh gSA
118. Answer (3) 118. mÙkj (3)
119. Answer (4) 119. mÙkj (4)
Monocot stems and roots do not show secondary ,dchti=h rus rFkk ewy lkekU;r% f}rh;d o`f)
growth usually. ugha n'kkZrs gSaA
120. Answer (4) 120. mÙkj (4)
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121. Answer (1) 121. mÙkj (1)

122. Answer (3) 122. mÙkj (3)
Early wood contains larger number of xylary vxznk: esa tkbyjh rRoksa dh la[;k vf/kd gksrh gS
elements.
123. mÙkj (2)
123. Answer (2)
124. mÙkj (1)
124. Answer (1) 125. mÙkj (2)
125. Answer (2) okrja/kz dk fuekZ.k ckg~;Ropk ds QVus ds dkj.k gksrk
Lenticel is formed as a result of epidermis gSA
rupturing.
126. mÙkj (2)
126. Answer (2)
dkx ,/kk ,d ik'ohZ; foHkT;ksrd gSA
Cork cambium is a lateral meristem.
127. mÙkj (2)
127. Answer (2)
128. mÙkj (3)
128. Answer (3) ewyh;Ropk ok"iksRltZu dks jksdrh gSA
Trichomes prevent transpiration. 129. mÙkj (1)
129. Answer (1) ewyksa esa laogu iwy vjh; gksrs gS u fd rus esAa
In roots, vascular bundles are radial not in stem. 130. mÙkj (3)
130. Answer (3) 131. mÙkj (2)
131. Answer (2) 132. mÙkj (2)
132. Answer (2) 133. mÙkj (3)
133. Answer (3) okfgdk yach uyh tSlh lajpuk gS tks vusd
Vessel is long tube like structure made up of many dks'kdkvksa dh cuh gksrh gS rFkk okfgfudk ds fljs
cells. Tracheids have tapering ends. irys gksrs gSaA
134. Answer (3) 134. mÙkj (3)
135. Answer (4) 135. mÙkj (4)
Phloem fibres are dead cells, devoid of protoplasm. ¶yks,e rarq çksVksIykTe jfgr e`r dksf'kdk,¡ gSaA
136. Answer (1) 136. mÙkj (1)

Fibroblasts secrete fibres made up of either js”kdksjd dksystu ;k bykfLVu izksVhu ls cus rarq
collagen or elastin protein. L=kfor djrs gSaA
137. Answer (3) 137. mÙkj (3)
The function of cilia is to move particles or mucus i{ekHk dk dk;Z d.kksa ;k E;wdl dks midyk ds Åij
in a specific direction over the epithelium. ,d fof”k’V fn”kk esa lapkfyr djuk gSA
138. Answer (3) 138. mÙkj (3)
Simple squamous epithelium is involved in ljy “kYdh midyk “olu f>Yyh esa xSlksa ds fy,
functions like forming a diffusion boundary for folj.k lhek fufeZr djus tSls dk;ksZa esa lfEefyr
gases in respiratory membrane. jgrh gSA
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139. Answer (3) 139. mÙkj (3)

Gap junctions facilitate the cells to communicate varjkyh laf/k;k¡ layXu dksf”kdkvksa ds dksf”kdknzO;
with each other by connecting cytoplasm of dks tksM+dj dksf”kdkvksa dks vkil esa lapkj djus gsrq
adjoining cells.
lqxe cukrh gSA
140. Answer (1)
140. mÙkj (1)
The matrix of blood is fibreless.
jDr dh vk/kk=h rarqjfgr gksrh gSA
141. Answer (4)
141. mÙkj (4)
Ligaments connect bone to bone. Areolar tissue is
Luk;q vfLFk dks vfLFk ls tksM+rs gSA ,fjvksyj Ård
the most abundant loose connective tissue.
lcls izpqj <hyk la;ksth Ård gSA
142. Answer (3)
142. mÙkj (3)
Cardiac muscle fibres are exclusively present in
heart and are branched, striated, involuntary, ân; is”kh rarq dsoy ân; esa mifLFkr gksrs gSa rFkk ;s
uninucleated and cylindrical in shape. They “kkf[kr] jsf[kr] vuSfPNd ,ddsUnzdh; vkSj csyukdkj
possess intercalated discs which function as gksrs gSA buesa varfoZ’V fMLd gksrh gS tks ladqpu
boosters of contraction wave. Smooth muscle rjax ds izo/kZdksa ds :Ik esa dk;Z djrh gSaA fpdus
fibres are fusiform in appearance and skeletal is”kh rarq fn[kkoV esa rdqZ:ih gksrs gS rFkk dadkyh;
muscle fibres are in structural syncytium.
is”kh rarq lajpukRed ladks”k ¼cgqdsna zd½ esa gksrs gSaA
143. Answer (3)
143. mÙkj (3)
Nissl’s granules are irregular masses of ribosomes
and RER and are present in cyton and dendrites.
fulsy df.kdk,¡ jkbckslkse vkSj RER ds vfu;fer
lewg gS tks lkbVkWu vkSj nqezk{; esa mifLFkr gksrs gSaA
144. Answer (4)
144. mÙkj (4)
Dried and burnt bone has been subjected to high
temperature due to which the living structures are “kq’d vkSj rIr vfLFk mPp rki ij j[kh tkrh gS
damaged. ftlds dkj.k thfor lajpuk,¡ u’V gks tkrh gSA
145. Answer (4) 145. mÙkj (4)
Elastic cartilage constitutes pinna of ear, epiglottis Ykphyh mikfLFk d.kZiYyo] daBPNn ,oa ;wLVsdh;u
and eustachian tube. Its matrix is considerably ufydk fufeZr djrh gSA bldh vk/kk=h fo”ks’k #i ls
pliable. vkuE; gksrh gSA
146 Answer (4) 146 mÙkj (4)
PCT possesses microvilli which facilitate PCT esa lw{ekadqj gksrs gSa tks blds ekè;e ls mi;ksxh
reabsorption of useful substances through it.
inkFkksZa ds iqujko”kks’k.k dks lqxe cukrs gSA
147. Answer (2)
147. mÙkj (2)
Abrin and ricin are toxic substances.
,fczu vkSj jkbflu fo’kkDr inkFkZ gSA
148. Answer (1)
148. mÙkj (1)
Micromolecules like amino acids, simple sugars
and nucleotides are present in acid soluble
lw{ev.kq tSls vehuks vEy] ljy “kdZjk vkSj
fraction. U;wfDy;ksVkbM vEy foys; Hkkx esa mifLFkr gksrs gSA
149. Answer (2) 149. mÙkj (2)
Energy currency of a cell is ATP which is fdlh dksf”kdk dh ÅtkZ eqnzk ATP gS tks I;wjhu
composed of a purine (adenine), a pentose sugar ¼,Mhuhu½] isUVkst “kdZjk ¼jkbckst½ vkSj rhu QkWLQsV
(ribose) and three phosphates. ls curh gSA
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150. Answer (3) 150. mÙkj (3)

When glucose concentration increases more than tc Xywdkst lkUnzrk 180 ml/dl (nsgyh eku) ls vf/kd
180 ml/dl (threshold value), it starts appearing in c<+rh gS rks ;g ew= esa fn[kkbZ nsus yxrh gS rFkk ;g
urine and condition is called glycosuria. fLFkfr Xykbdkslwfj;k dgykrh gSA
151. Answer (3) 151. mÙkj (3)
The B-DNA helix turns 36° at each step of ascent. B-DNA gSfyDl mBku ds izR;sd pj.k ij 36° ?kwerk
gSA
152. Answer (1)
152. mÙkj (1)
Enzymes bring down the activation energy ,atkbe fdlh vfHkfØ;k ds fy, vko”;d lfØ;.k
required by a reaction.
ÅtkZ dks de djrs gSA
153. Answer (2) 153. mÙkj (2)
Ligases catalyse the joining of C–O, C–S, C–N ykbxstst C–O, C–S, C–N bR;kfn ca/kksa ds tqM+us dks
etc. bonds. izsfjr djrs gSA
154. Answer (4) 154. mÙkj (4)
Flow of metabolites through metabolic pathway mikip;h iFkØe ds ekè;e ls mikip;tksa ds izokg
has a definite rate and direction. esa fuf”pr nj vkSj fn”kk gksrh gSA
155. Answer (3) 155. mÙkj (3)
Glycerol is trihydroxypropane. In fats, glycerol is

fXyljkWy VªkbgkbMªkDs lhizkis su gSA olk esa] fXyljkWy
found esterified with fatty acids. They can be ;g olh; vEyksa ds lkFk ,LVjhd`r #i esa ik;k tkrk
monoglycerides, diglycerides and triglycerides. gSA ;s eksuksfXyljkbWM] MkbfXyljkbM vkSj
VªkbfXyljkbWM gks ldrs gSA
156. Answer (3)
156. mÙkj (3)
Proteins are heteropolymers.
izkVs hu fo’ke cgqyd gksrs gSaA
157. Answer (2) 157. mÙkj (2)
Lipids make up about 2 percent of total cellular fyfiM dqy dksf”kdh; lewg dk yxHkx 2 izfr”kr
mass. cukrs gSA
158. Answer (4) 158. mÙkj (4)
Cholesterol is a derived lipid and lipids are not dksysLVªkWy ,d O;qRiUu fyfiM gS vkSj fyfiM cgqydh
polymeric structures. lajpuk,¡ ugha gSA
159. Answer (4) 159. mÙkj (4)
Palmitic acid is a saturated fatty acid that contains

ikWehfVd vEy ,d larÌr olh; vEy gS ftlesa
16 carbon atoms including the carboxyl carbon. dkcksZfDly dkcZu lfgr 16 dkcZu v.kq gksrs gSA
Oleic acid is 18 C unsaturated fatty acid. vkWfyd vEy 18 dkcZu;qDr vlarÌr olh; vEy gSA
160. mÙkj (3)
160. Answer (3)
“kq’d Hkkj rc izkIr gksrk gS tc Ård dk lEiw.kZ
Dry weight is obtained when all the water of the
tissue has evaporated.
ty okf’ir gks tkrk gSA
161. mÙkj (1)
161. Answer (1)
vafre vehuks vEy dks C-varLFk vehuks vEy dgk
The last amino acid is called C-terminal amino tkrk gSA
acid.
162. mÙkj (2)
162. Answer (2) isIVkbM ca/k rc fufeZr gksrk gS tc ,d vehuks vEy
Peptide bond is formed when carboxyl group of dk dkcksZfDly lewg vxys vehuksa vEy ds vehuksa
one amino acid reacts with amino group of next lewg ls fØ;k djrk gS ,oa ty v/kkZa”k dk fu’dklu
amino acid with the elimination of a water moiety. gksrk gSA XykbdksflfMd ca/k futZyhdj.k }kjk Hkh
Glycosidic bond is also formed by dehydration. fufeZr gksrk gSA
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163. Answer (1) 163. mÙkj (1)

Cofactors play crucial role in the catalytic activity Lkgdkjd ,atkbeksa dh mRizsjdh lfØ;rk esa egRoiw.kZ
of enzymes which is lost in removal of cofactor. Hkwfedk fuHkkrs gSa tks lgdkjd ds fu’dklu esa yqIr
164. Answer (4)
gks tkrk gSA
164. mÙkj (4)
When the protein chain folds upon itself, it cris
tc izkVs hu Jà[kyk Lo;a ds Åij ls dqaMfyr gksrh gS
crosses itself, hence many crevices called ‘active
site’ are formed.
,oa Jà[kyk Lo;a vkM+h&frjNh fLFkr gksrh gS rks
^lfØ; LFky* uked dbZ njkjsa cu tkrh gSA
165. Answer (3) 165. mÙkj (3)
The given diagram is of adenine which joins with fn;k x;k vkjs[k ,Mhfuu dk gS tks jkbckst “kdZjk
ribose sugar and phosphate to form adenylic acid. vkSj QkWLQsV ds lkFk tqM+dj ,Mhuk;wfyd vEy
Guanosine contains guanine. cukrk gSA Xokukslhu esa Xokuhu gksrh gSA
166. Answer (4) 166. mÙkj (4)
Inorganic catalysts are non specific and can vdkcZfud mRizsjd vfof”k’V gksrs gSa rFkk vf/kdka”k
catalyse number of reactions and they are less vfHkfØ;kvksa dks mRizsfjr dj ldrs gSa rFkk ;s
efficient than enzymes as enzymes have typically ,atkbeksa ls de izHkko”kkyh gksrs gS D;ksafd ,atkbeksa esa
faster reaction rates. vkSlru vfHkfØ;k nj rhozrj gksrh gSA
167. Answer (4) 167. mÙkj (4)
Lecithin contains both hydrophilic as well as

yslhfFku esa tuLusgh vkSj tyfojks/kh nksuksa fljs gksrs
hydrophobic ends. gSaA
168. mÙkj (3)
168. Answer (3)
ykblhu vkSj vkftZuhu {kkjh; vehuks vEy gSaA osyhu
Lysine and arginine are basic amino acids. Valine mnklhu gSA
is neutral.
esfFkvksfuu lYQj ;qDr vehuks vEy gSA fVªIVksQsu
Methionine is sulphur containing amino acid. ,d ,sjkseSfVd vehuks vEy gSA
Tryptophan is an aromatic amino acid. 169. mÙkj (2)
169. Answer (2) fØ;k/kkj dk ca/ku mRØe.kh; gksrk gS rFkk ;g
The binding of the substrate is reversible and it ,atkbe dks bldk vkdkj ifjofrZr djus gsrq izsfjr
induces the enzyme to alter its shape, fitting more djrk gS rkfd ;g fØ;k/kkj ds pkjksa vksj vf/kd
tightly around the substrate. n`<+rk ls fu;ksftr gks ldsA
170. mÙkj (1)
170. Answer (1)
,d izfrLi/kkZRed laned fn;s x, fØ;k/kkj ds fy,
A competitive inhibitor increases the apparent Km
vkHkklh Km dks c<+krk gS ftldk vFkZ gS fd
for a given substrate which means that in
presence of a competitive inhibitor more substrate
izfrLi/kkZRed laned dh mifLFkfr esa ½ Vmax izkIr
is needed to achieve ½ Vmax.
djus ds fy, vf/kd fØ;k/kkj dh vko”;drk gksrh
gSA
171. Answer (4)
171. mÙkj (4)
Melatonin is derived from tryptophan. esyVs ksfuu fVªIVksQsu ls O;qRiUu gksrk gSA
172. Answer (3) 172. mÙkj (3)
Chitin is a homopolymer of N-acetyl glucosamine dkbfVu N-,flVkby Xywdkslkehu dk lecgqyd gS
and is a structural polysaccharide. Glycogen and rFkk lajpukRed ikWyhlSdsjkbM gSA Xykbdkstu vkSj
starch are glucans while inulin is a fructan. LVkpZ Xywdu gS tcfd buqfyu ,d ÝqDVsu gSA
173. Answer (1) 173. mÙkj (1)
Activation energy is the energy difference between lfØ;.k ÅtkZ] laØe.k voLFkk vkSj fØ;k/kkj ds eè;
transition state and substrate. ÅtkZ dk vUrj gSA
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@AakashDelhi02
174. Answer (1) mÙkj (1)

174.
Proteins are composed of L-amino acids and the izkVs hu L-vehuks vEyksa ls cus gksrs gSa rFkk vYQk
alpha helix is a right handed helix. gSfyDl ,d nf{k.kkorZ gSfyDl gSA
175. Answer (4) 175. mÙkj (4)
Cellulose is a homopolymer of - D glucose. It is lsY;wykst - D Xywdkst dk lecgqyd gSA ;g dkxt
the source of paper and cotton and does not
vkSj dkWVu dk L=ksr gS rFkk blesa tfVy
contain complex helices. Potato has starch as
source of food. ¼dkWEiysDl½ gSfyDl ugha gksrs gSaA vkyw esa Hkkstu ds
L=ksr ds :Ik esa LVkpZ gksrk gSA
176. Answer (2)
176. mÙkj (2)
Oxidoreductases catalyse oxidoreduction between
two substrates. vkWDlhMksfjMDVst nks fØ;k/kkjksa ds eè;
177. Answer (3) vkWDlhMksfjMDlu dks izsfjr djrk gSA
Competitive inhibitors kill bacteria by binding with 177. mÙkj (3)
the active site of crucial metabolic enzymes. e.g. izfrLi/kkZRed laned egRoiw.kZ mikip;h ,atkbeksa ds
sulpha drugs compete with PABA, hence folic acid lfØ; LFky ds lkFk ca/kdj thok.kq dks ekjrs gSA
synthesis does not take place.
tSls&lYQk MªXl PABA ds lkFk izfrLi/kkZ djrh gS
178. Answer (3) vr% QkWfyd vEy dk la”ys’k.k ugha gksrk gSA
The association of coenzymes with apoenzymes 178. mÙkj (3)
is usually transient, and occurs during the course
of catalysis. ,iks,atkbe ds lkFk lg,atkbeksa dk la;kstu
179. Answer (1)
lkekU;r% vLFkk;h gksrk gS rFkk ,slk mRizsj.k dh
vof/k ds nkSjku gksrk gSA
Collagen is the most abundant protein in animal
world and RuBisCO is the most abundant protein 179. mÙkj (1)
in the whole of biosphere. dksystu izk.kh txr eas lcls izpqj izkVs hu gS rFkk
180. Answer (4) #fcLdks laiw.kZ tSoe.My esa lcls izpqj izkVs hu gSA
Biomacromolecules are polymeric. 180. mÙkj (4)
Micromolecules polymerise to form tSoo`gn~ v.kq cgqyd gksrs gSaA lw{ev.kq cgqyhd`r
macromolecules. gksdj o`gnv.kq cukrs gSaA
❑ ❑ ❑
@AakashDelhi02
(18)
27/03/2020 CODE-A
Test - 3
Topics covered :
Physics : d.kksa dk fudk; rFkk ?kw.kZu xfr] xq:Rokd"kZ.k
Chemistry : Å"ekxfrdh] lkE;koLFkk
Botany : dksf'kdk: thou dh bdkbZ] dksf'kdk pØ o dksf'kdk foHkktu, ikniksa esa ifjogu
Zoology : ikpu ,oa vo'kks"k.k] 'olu vkSj xSlksa dk fofue;
funsZ'k :
(i) mi;qDr xksys dks Hkjus ds fy, dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy isu dk ç;ksx djsaA
(ii) fpUg xgjs gksus pkfg, rFkk xksys dks iw.kZr% Hkjk tkuk pkfg,A
(iii) çR;sd çfof"V ds fy, dsoy ,d xksyk HkjsaA
(iv) xksys dks dsoy fn, x, LFkku esa gh HkjsaA
(v) mÙkj iqfLrdk ij jQ dk;Z fcYdqy ugha djuk pkfg, rFkk mÙkj iqfLrdk ij 'osr&nzo ;k vU; fdlh feVkus okys
inkFkZ dk ç;ksx u djsaA
(vi) çR;sd ç'u ds 4 vad gSaA çR;sd xyr mÙkj ds fy, dqy çkIrkadksa esa ls ,d vad ?kVk fn;k tk,xkA
PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer : lgh mÙkj dk p;u dhft, :

1. A hollow sphere of radius 0.5 m and mass 1. f=T;k 0.5 m rFkk æO;eku 10 kg dk ,d [kks[kyk
10 kg, rolls on a horizontal surface. Its centre of xksyk ,d {kSfrt lrg ij yq<+drk gSA blds
mass has speed 60 cm/s. Magnitude of work
æO;eku dsUæ dh pky 60 cm/s gSA bldks jksdus ds
required to stop it is
fy, vko';d dk;Z dk ifjek.k gS
(1) 3 J (1) 3J
(2) 5 J (2) 5J
(3) 1.8 J (3) 1.8 J
(4) 1.2 J
(4) 1.2 J
2. ,d Bksl xksyk blds lefefr v{k ds lkis{k eqDr
2. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its axis of f=foe esa Lora= :i ls ?kw.kZu dj jgk gSA xksys dh
symmetry in free space. The radius of sphere
f=T;k blds æO;eku dks leku j[krs gq, ?kVuk
starts decreasing keeping its mass same. Which
of the following option is correct?
çkjaHk djrh gSA fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk fodYi
lgh gS?
(1) Angular momentum will decrease
(1) dks.kh; laosx ?kVsxk
(2) Angular speed will increase
(2) dks.kh; pky c<sxh
(3) Rotational kinetic energy will increase (3) ?kw.kZu xfrt ÅtkZ c<sxh
(4) Both (2) and (3) (4) (2) rFkk (3) nksuksa
@AakashDelhi02
(1)
3. From a disc of radius R and mass M, a circular 3. f=T;k R rFkk æO;eku M dh ,d pdrh ls] dsUæ ls
R
hole of radius is removed from a distance 3R R
4 nwjh ls f=T;k dk ,d o`Ùkh; fNæ fu"dkflr
4 4
3R fd;k tkrk gSA pdrh ds 'ks"k Hkkx dk ry ds
from centre. The moment of inertia of
4 yEcor~ v{k rFkk ewy pdrh ds dsUæ ls xqtjus okys
remaining part of disc about an axis perpendicular
v{k ds lkis{k tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ gS
to plane and passing through centre of original
disc is 255
(1) MR 2
255 512
(1) MR 2
512 238
(2) MR 2
238 512
(2) MR 2
512 237
(3) MR 2
237 512
(3) MR 2
512
253
(4) MR 2
253 512
(4) MR 2
512
4. ,d fcUnq æO;eku m ,d jLlh ftldk ,d fljk
4. A point mass m moves in a circle of radius R with ,d fNæ ls xqtjrk gS] dh lgk;rk ls ,d fpduh
speed v on a smooth horizontal table, with the
{kSfrt est ij pky v ls f=T;k R ds o`Ùk esa xfr
help of a string whose other end passes through a
hole. By pulling the string, the radius of circle is 2R
djrk gSA jLlh dks [khapdj o`Ùk dh f=T;k dks
2R 3
reduced to . The final angular momentum of rd ?kVk;k tkrk gSA æO;eku dk vafre dks.kh;
3
mass is laosx gS
3 3
(1) mvR (1) mvR
2 2
2 2
(2) mvR (2) mvR
3 3
(3) mvR (3) mvR
1 1
(4) mvR (4) mvR
3 3
5. Three identical uniform spheres, each of mass M 5. æO;eku M rFkk f=T;k R okys rhu le:i xksyksa dks
and radius R, are placed as shown in figure. The
fp= esa n'kkZ, vuqlkj j[kk tkrk gSA v{k AB ds
moment of inertia of the system about the axis AB
is lkis{k fudk; dk tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ gS
46 36 46 36
(1) MR 2 (2) MR 2 (1) MR 2 (2) MR 2
5 5 5 5
19 17 19 17
(3) MR 2 (4) MR 2 (3) MR 2 (4) MR 2
5 5 5 5
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6. A man of mass 50 kg is in a gravity free space at a 6. æO;eku 50 kg dk ,d O;fDr Q'kZ ds Åij 20 m dh

height of 20 m above the floor. He throws a stone Å¡pkbZ ij xq:Ro eqDr f=foe esa gSA og mèokZ/kj ds
of 0.5 kg downwards with a speed of 36 km/h at
lkFk 60° ds dks.k ij 36 km/h dh pky ls 0.5 kg
an angle of 60° with vertical. When the stone
reaches the floor, the distance of man from the ds ,d iRFkj dks uhps dh vksj Qsadrk gSA tc iRFkj
floor is Q'kZ rd igq¡prk gS] rc Q'kZ ls O;fDr dh nwjh gS
(1) 20.2 m (2) 20.1 m (1) 20.2 m (2) 20.1 m

(3) 20.0 m (4) 19.9 m (3) 20.0 m (4) 19.9 m
7. The moment of inertia of a uniform triangular 7. le:i æO;eku ?kuRo ds ,d le:i f=Hkqtkdkj
lamina of uniform mass density will be (all three iVy dk tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ gksxk (lHkh rhuksa v{k iVy
axis lie in the plane of lamina) ds ry esa fLFkr gSa)
(1) Maximum about axis-1

(1) v{k-1 ds lkis{k vf/kdre
(4) Equal about all the three axis
(4) lHkh rhuksa v{k ds lkis{k leku
8. A solid sphere of mass 2 kg rolls down a fixed
inclined plane of height 7 m. The rotational kinetic 8. æO;eku 2 kg dk ,d Bksl xksyk Å¡pkbZ 7 m ds ,d
energy of sphere at bottom of plane is fLFkj vkur ry ds uhps yq<+drk gSA ry ds isans ij
(g = 10 m/s2)
xksys dh ?kw.kZu xfrt ÅtkZ gS (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 40 J
(1) 40 J
(2) 50 J
(2) 50 J
(3) 100 J
(3) 100 J
(4) 140 J (4) 140 J
9. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg is rolling on a
9. osx 5 m/s ls ,d {kSfrt lrg ij yq<+drs gq,
horizontal surface with a velocity 5 m/s collides
with a horizontal spring of force constant æO;eku 2 kg dk ,d Bksl csyu cy fu;rkad
300 N/m. The maximum compression produced in 300 N/m ds ,d {kSfrt fLçax ls Vdjkrk gSA fLçax esa
the spring is mRiUu vf/kdre laihM+u gS
(1) 0.2 m (2) 0.3 m (1) 0.2 m (2) 0.3 m
(3) 0.4 m (4) 0.5 m (3) 0.4 m (4) 0.5 m
(3) @AakashDelhi02
10. A torque of 10 N m is applied on a wheel having 10. 10 N m dk cyk?kw.kZ dks.kh; laosx 5 kg m2/s okys
angular momentum 5 kg m2/s. If torque is ,d ifg;s ij vkjksfir gSA ;fn cyk?kw.kZ ifg;s dh
supporting the motion of wheel, then angular
momentum of the wheel after 3 second is
xfr dks lgk;rk çnku djrk gS] rc 3 lsd.M ds
ckn ifg;s dk dks.kh; laosx gS
(1) 35 kg m2/s (2) 30 kg m2/s
(1) 35 kg m2/s (2) 30 kg m2/s
(3) 40 kg m2/s (4) 25 kg m2/s
(3) 40 kg m2/s (4) 25 kg m2/s
11. Two rings each of mass M and radius R, are
placed with common centre such that their planes
11. æO;eku M rFkk f=T;k R ds nks oy;ksa dks mHk;fu"B
are mutually perpendicular. The moment of inertia dsUæ ds lkFk bl çdkj j[kk tkrk gS fd buds ry
of the system about an axis through the centre ijLij yEcor~ gSaA fudk; dk dsUæ ls xqtjus okys
and perpendicular to plane of one of the ring is v{k rFkk ,d oy; ds ry ls yEcor~ v{k ds lkis{k
5 2
tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ gS
(1) MR 2 (2) MR
2 5 2
(1) MR 2 (2) MR
2
3 2
(3) MR 2 (4) 2MR
2 3 2
(3) MR 2 (4) 2MR
2
12. A particle of mass 2 kg is projected at an angle of
60° above the horizontal, with a speed 12. æO;eku 2 kg ds ,d d.k dks {kSfrt ds Åij 60° ds
20 m/s. The magnitude of angular momentum of dks.k ij pky 20 m/s ls ç{ksfir fd;k tkrk gSA tc
the particle about point of projection, when it is at d.k vf/kdre Å¡pkbZ ij gksrk gS] rc ç{ksi.k fcUnq ds
maximum height will be
lkis{k d.k ds dks.kh; laosx dk ifjek.k gksxk
(1) 300 kg m2/s (2) 120 3 kg m2/s (1) 300 kg m2/s (2) 120 3 kg m2/s
(3) 40 3 kg m2/s (4) 150 kg m2/s (3) 40 3 kg m2/s (4) 150 kg m2/s
13. Four similar particles of mass m are orbiting in a 13. æO;eku m ds pkj leku d.k vius xq:Rokd"k.kZ cy
circle of radius r in the same angular direction ds dkj.k leku dks.kh; fn'kk esa f=T;k r ds ,d o`Ùk
because of their gravitational attractive force. The
esa pDdj yxkrk gSA çR;sd d.k dk osx gS
velocity of each particle is
1 GM GM
1 GM GM (1) (1 + 2 2) (2) (1 + 2 2)
(1) (1 + 2 2) (2) (1 + 2 2) 2 r r
2 r r
GM  1 + 2 2  GM  1 + 4 2 
(3)   (4)  
GM  1 + 2 2  GM  1 + 4 2  r  2  r  2
(3)   (4)  
r  2  r  2 

(4) @AakashDelhi02
14. A point P lies on the axis of a fixed ring of 14. ,d fcUnq P dsUæ O ls nwjh R 3 ij æO;eku M
mass M and radius R at a distance R 3 from rFkk f=T;k R dh fLFkj oy; ds v{k ij fLFkr gSA
centre O. The particle starts from P and reach at
d.k oy; rFkk d.k ds eè; xq:Rokd"kZ.k ds çHkko esa
O under gravitational attraction between ring and
particle. The speed of particle at distance R from P ls xfr çkajHk djrk gS rFkk O rd igq¡prk gSA
centre is dsUæ ls nwjh R ij d.k dh pky gS
GM 2GM GM 2GM
(1) (2) (1) (2)
R R R R
GM GM GM GM
(3) ( 2 − 1) (4) ( 2 − 1) (3) ( 2 − 1) (4) ( 2 − 1)
2R R 2R R
15. Two small masses M1 and M2 are placed at 15. nks NksVs æO;ekuksa M1 rFkk M2 dks ,d nwljs ls d nwjh
distance d apart. The minimum speed with which ij j[kk x;k gSA nks æO;ekuksa ds eè; ,d eè;fcUnq
a particle of mass m projected from a point ls ç{ksfir æO;eku m ds ,d d.k dh U;wure pky
midway between the two masses, so as to escape D;k gksuh pkfg, rkfd iyk;u vuUr rd gks?
to infinity, is
2G(M1 + M2 ) G(M1 + M2 )
2G(M1 + M2 ) G(M1 + M2 ) (1) v = (2) v =
(1) v = (2) v = d d
d d
G(M1 + M2 ) 1 G(M1 + M2 )
(3) v = 2 (4) v =
G(M1 + M2 ) 1 G(M1 + M2 ) d 2 d
(3) v = 2 (4) v =
d 2 d 16. dsIyj dk f}rh; fu;e (vFkkZr~ {ks=Qy fu;e) fdl
16. Kepler’s second law (i.e. law of area) is based on ij vk/kkfjr gS?
(1) Law of conservation of area (1) {ks=Qy laj{k.k dk fu;e
(2) Law of conservation of momentum (2) laosx laj{k.k dk fu;e
(3) Law of conservation of angular momentum (3) dks.kh; laosx laj{k.k dk fu;e
(4) Law of conservation of energy (4) ÅtkZ laj{k.k dk fu;e
17. Kinetic energy of a satellite in an orbit depends on 17. ,d d{kk esa ,d mixzg dh xfrt ÅtkZ fdl ij
(1) Mass of satellite only fuHkZj djrh gS?
(2) Radius of orbit only (1) dsoy mixzg ds æO;eku ij
(3) Mass of central planet only (2) dsoy d{kk dh f=T;k ij
(4) All mass of satellite, mass of central body and (3) dsoy dsUæh; xzg ds æO;eku ij
radius of orbit
(4) mixzg ds æO;eku] dsUæh; oLrq ds æO;eku rFkk
18. The amount of work done in bringing three
d{kk dh f=T;k lHkh ij
particles each of mass 0.1 kg slowly from infinity,
to the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side 0.2 18. æO;eku 0.1 kg ds rhu d.kksa dks vuUr ls Hkqtk
m is 0.2 m ds leckgq f=Hkqt ds 'kh"kks± rd ykus esa fd,
(1) –1.0 × 10
–11
J (2) 1.0 × 10
–11
J x, dk;Z dh ek=k gS
–11 –11
(3) –2.0 × 10
–11
J (4) 2.0 × 10
–11
J (1) –1.0 × 10 J (2) 1.0 × 10 J
–11 –11
(3) –2.0 × 10 J (4) 2.0 × 10 J
19. Two particles of equal mass M go round a circle of
radius R under the action of their mutual 19. leku æO;eku M ds nks d.k vius vU;ksU;
gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle xq:Rokd"kZ.k dh fØ;k ds çHkko esa f=T;k R ds ,d
is o`Ùk ds pkjksa vksj tkrk gSA çR;sd d.k dh pky gS
GM GM GM GM
(1) (2) (1) (2)
R 2R R 2R
GM 1 GM GM 1 GM
(3) (4) (3) (4)
3R 2 R 3R 2 R
@AakashDelhi02
(5)
20. Consider a planet in solar system which has mass 20. lkSj-e.Mj esa ,d xzg ij fopkj dhft, ftldk
equal to that of the earth and average density
æO;eku i`Foh ds æO;eku ds leku gS rFkk vkSlr
twice that of the earth. If an object weighs w on
earth, then its weight on planet is ?kuRo i`Foh ds vkSlr ?kuRo ls nksxquk gSA ;fn ,d
oLrq dk i`Foh ij Hkkj w gS] rc xzg ij bldk Hkkj
(1) w (2) 2 w
gS
2/3 1/3
(3) (2) w (4) 2 w
(1) w (2) 2 w
21. If the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of 2/3 1/3
(3) (2) w (4) 2 w
earth is g, the speed with which a body hit the
earth surface, when released from a height equal
21. ;fn i`Foh dh lrg ij xq:Roh; Roj.k g gS] tc ,d
to radius of earth is oLrq dks i`Foh dh f=T;k ds cjkcj Å¡pkbZ ls NksM+k
tkrk gS] rc i`Foh dh lrg ls oLrq fdl pky ls
(1) gR (2) 2gR
Vdjk;sxh?
gR (1) gR (2) 2gR
(3) 2 gR (4)
2 gR
(3) 2 gR (4)
22. Three particles of masses 2M, m and 3M are 2
placed at points A, B and C respectively with 22. æO;eku 2M, m rFkk 3M ds rhu d.kksa dks Øe'k%
3 fcUnqvksa A, B rFkk C ij j[kk x;k gS rFkk
BC = AB. m is very small than 2M and at time
2 3
t = 0 they are all at rest. At subsequent times
BC = AB. m, 2M ls vR;f/kd NksVk gS rFkk le;
2
before any collision takes place t = 0 ij ;s lHkh fojkekoLFkk ij gSaA fdlh Hkh VDdj
ds gksus ls igys vuqorhZ le; ij
(1) m will remain at rest

(1) m fojkekoLFkk ij jgsxk
(2) m will move towards 2M
(2) m, 2M dh vksj xfr djsxk
(3) m will move towards 3M
(3) m, 3M dh vksj xfr djsxk
(4) m will have oscillatory motion
(4) m dh nksyuh xfr gksxh
23. If gravitational force between two masses varies
1
1 23. ;fn nks æO;ekuksa ds eè; xq:Roh; cy F ∝ ds
as F ∝ 3
. Then orbital speed of satellite varies r3
r vuqlkj ifjofrZr gksrk gSA rc mixzg dh d{kh; pky
with radius of orbit as d{kk dh f=T;k ds lkFk fdlds vuqlkj ifjofrZr
1 gksrh gS\
(1) v ∝ (2) v ∝ r 0
r 1
(1) v ∝ (2) v ∝ r 0
1 r
(3) v ∝ (4) v ∝ r 1
r2 (3) v ∝ (4) v ∝ r
24. A uniform spherical shell gradually expands r2
maintaining shape. Then gravitational potential at 24. ,d le:i xksyk viuh vkd`fr dks cuk;s j[krs gq,
centre will (mass remains constant) /khjs ls foLrkfjr djrk gSA rc dsUæ ij xq:Roh;
(1) Increases (2) Decreases
foHko (æO;eku fu;r jgrk gS)
(1) c<sxk (2) ?kVsxk
(3) Remains constant (4) Oscillates
(3) fu;r jgsxk (4) nksyu djsxk
25. A wheel starts from rest and rotates with a
constant angular acceleration of 2.0 rad/s2. The
25. ,d ifg;k fojke ls xfr djuk çkjEHk djrk gS rFkk
number of revolutions made by wheel in 10 s is 2.0 rad/s2 ds fu;r dks.kh; Roj.k ls ?kw.kZu djrk gSA
nearly 10 s esa ifg;s }kjk fd;s x;s ifjØe.kksa dh la[;k gS
(1) 10 (2) 12
(1) 10 (2) 12
(3) 16 (4) 20
(3) 16 (4) 20
(6) @AakashDelhi02
26. Two small kids weighing 8 kg and 12 kg, are trying 26. 8 kg o 12 kg Hkkj ds nks NksVs cPps] dsUæ ij vkyEc
to balance a seesaw of total length 3 m with the
fulcrum at centre. If one of the kid is sitting at one
okys 3 m dqy yEckbZ ds >wys dks larqfyr djus dh
end, the distance of other kid from fulcrum is dksf'k'k djrs gSA ;fn ,d cPpk ,d fljs ij cSBk
gqvk gS] rc vkyEc ls vU; cPps dh nwjh gS
(1) 1.5 m (2) 4/3 m
(3) 1.4 m (4) 1.0 m (1) 1.5 m (2) 4/3 m
(3) 1.4 m (4) 1.0 m
27. A uniform cylinder is released, from rest from top
of an inclined plane of inclination θ and length l. If 27. ,d le:i csyu dks vkufr θ o l yEckbZ ds vkur
cylinder rolls without slipping, the speed of ry ds 'kh"kksZ ls fojke ls NksM+k tkrk gSA ;fn csyu
cylinder at bottom of plane is fcuk fQlys yq<+drk gS] rc ry ds iSans ij csyu dh
4 2 pky gS
(1) gl sin θ (2) gl sin θ
3 3 4 2
(1) gl sin θ (2) gl sin θ
(3) gl sin θ (4) 2gl sin θ 3 3
(3) gl sin θ (4) 2gl sin θ
28. A cubical block of mass M and edge length l slides
down a rough inclined plane of inclination θ with a 28. M æO;eku o Hkqtk yEckbZ l dk ,d ?kukdkj xqVdk
uniform velocity. The torque of the normal force on ,dleku osx ls θ vkufr ds [kqjnjs vkur ry ij
the block about the centre of cube has a
uhps fQlyrk gSA ?ku ds dsUæ ds lkis{k xqVds ij
magnitude
vfHkyEc cy ds cyk?kw.kZ dk ifjek.k gS
1
(1) Zero (2) mgl cos θ 1
2 (1) 'kwU; (2) mgl cos θ
2
1
(3) mgl sin θ (4) mgl cos θ 1
2 (3) mgl sin θ (4) mgl cos θ
2
29. The linear mass density of a rod of length l, with
29. l yEckbZ dh NM+ dk gYdk fljk ewy fcUnq ij gS] NM
lighter end at origin is given λ= (2 + 3 x 2 ). The
dk js[kh; æO;eku ?kuRo λ= (2 + 3 x 2 ) gSA ewy
distance centre of mass of rod from origin is
fcUnw ls NM+ ds æO;eku dsUæ dh nwjh gS
l (4 + 3l 2 ) l (4 + 3l 2 )
(1) (2) l (4 + 3l 2 ) l (4 + 3l 2 )
(2 + l 2 ) 2(2 + l 2 ) (1) (2)
(2 + l 2 ) 2(2 + l 2 )
l (4 + 3l 2 ) l
(3) (4) l (4 + 3l 2 ) l
4(2 + l 2 ) 2 (3) (4)
4(2 + l 2 ) 2
30. A circular plate of diameter d is kept in contact
with a square plate of edge d as shown in figure.
30. d O;kl dh o`Ùkh; IysV dks fp= esa n'kkZ, vuqlkj d
The thickness and density of material are same Hkqtk dh oxkZdkj IysV ds lEidZ esa j[kk tkrk gSA
everywhere. The centre of mass of composite inkFkZ dh eksVkbZ rFkk ?kuRo lHkh txg leku gSA
system will be la;qDr fudk; dk æO;eku dsUæ gksxk
(1) Towards left of origin (1) ewyfcUnq ds cka;h vksj

(2) Towards right of origin (2) ewyfcUnw ds nka;h vksj
(3) At origin (3) ewyfcUnq ij
(4) Outside the two plates (4) nksuksa IysVksa ds ckgj dh vksj
(7) @AakashDelhi02
31. Consider a gravity free hall in which a tray of mass 31. ,d xq:Ro eqDr gkWy ij fopkj dhft, ftlesa m
M, carrying a cubical block of ice of mass m and æO;eku o Hkqtk L dh cQZ ds ?kukdkj xqVds xzg.k
edge L, is at rest in the middle. If ice melts by what
distance does the centre of mass of the tray and
fd, gq, M æO;eku dh ,d Vªs eè; esa fojke esa gSA
ice system descend? ;fn cQZ fi?kyrh gS] rc fdruh nwjh ls Vªs dk
æO;eku dsUæ rFkk cQZ fudk; uhps vkrs gS?
L
(1)
3 L
(1)
3
L
(2) L
4 (2)
4
L
(3) L
2 (3)
2
(4) Zero
(4) 'kwU;
32. The escape velocity from a spherical planet is
about v0 km/s. The escape velocity from a planet
32. ,d xksyh; xqg ls iyk;u osx dk eku yxHkx
v0 km/s gSA xzg nksxquh f=T;k o ekè; vkSlr ?kuRo
having twice the radius and half the mean density
okys xzg ls iyk;u osx gS
(1) v 0 2
(1) v 0 2
v0
(2) v0
2 (2)
2
(3) 2v 0 (3) 2v 0
(4) 4v 0 (4) 4v 0
33. The force between a hollow sphere of mass M and 33. dks'k ds vUnj M æO;eku ds [kks[kys xksys o fcUnq
point mass m inside the shell is æO;eku m ds eè; cy gS
(1) Attractive and constant (1) vkd"khZ rFkk fu;r

(2) Attractive and depends on the position of point (2) vkd"khZ rFkk dsUæ ds lkis{k fcUnw æO;eku dh
mass with respect to centre fLFkfr ij fuHkZj djrk gS
(3) Zero everywhere inside the shell (3) dks'k ds vUnj çR;sd txg 'kwU;
(4) Zero only at centre (4) dsoy dsUæ ij 'kwU;
(8) @AakashDelhi02
34. The correct variation in the value of acceleration 34. tc ge i`Foh dh lrg ls dsUæ dh vksj xfr djrs
due to gravity(g) with depth (d) as one moves
gS] rc xgjkbZ (d) ds lkFk xq:Roh; Roj.k (g) ds eku
towards the centre from surface of earth is
esa lgh ifjorZu gS
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
35. If the kinetic energy of a satellite moving around a

planet is doubled. Then it will
35. ;fn xzg ds ifjr% xfr'khy mixzg dh xfrt ÅtkZ
dks nksxquk fd;k tkrk gSA rc ;g
(1) Move in a circular orbit of smaller radius
(1) de f=T;k dh o`Ùkh; d{kk esa xfr djsxk
(2) Move in an orbit of elliptical shape
(2) nh?kZo`Ùkh; vkd`fr dh d{kk esa xfr djsxk
(3) Move in a circular orbit of greater radius
(3) vf/kd f=T;k dh o`Ùkh; d{kk esa xfr djsxk
(4) Escape from the gravitational pull of planet
(4) xzg ds xq:Roh; [khapko ls iyk;u djsxk
36. A body is projected vertically upward from the
surface of a planet of radius R, with a speed equal 36. ,d oLrq dks R f=T;k ds xzg dh lrg ls xzg ds
to half the escape speed for that planet. The fy, iy;u pky dh vk/kh pky ls mèokZ/kj Åij dh
maximum height from surface of earth attained by vksj ç{ksfir fd;k tkrk gSA i`Foh dh lrg ls oLrq
body is
}kjk çkIr vf/kdre Å¡pkbZ gS
R R R
(1) (2) R
2 3 (1) (2)
2 3
R R R R
(3) (4) (3) (4)
4 5 4 5
37. A uniform thin rod of mass M and length l is bent 37. M æO;eku o l yEckbZ dh le:i iryh NM+ dks R
to form a semicircle of radius R. The gravitational f=T;k ds v)Zo`Ùk ds :i esa eksM+k tkrk gSA o`Ùk ds
potential at the centre of circle is
dsUæ ij xq:Roh; foHko gS
πGM
(1) Zero (2) − πGM
l (1) 'kwU; (2) −
l
2πGM GM 2πGM GM
(3) − (4) − (3) − (4) −
l πl l πl
38. A body of mass 500 g is thrown upwards with a 38. 500 g æO;eku dh ,d oLrq dks 20 m/s ds osx ls
velocity 20 m/s and reaches back to surface of
Åij dh vksj Qsadk tkrk gS rFkk 20 s esa xzg dh
planet in 20 s. Then weight of body on planet is
lrg ij iqu% ykSVrh gSA rc xzg ij oLrq dk Hkkj gS
(1) 2 N
(1) 2 N
(2) 4 N
(2) 4 N
(3) 5 N (3) 5 N
(4) 1 N (4) 1 N
(9)@AakashDelhi02
39. A man of mass 50 kg is at one end of 6 m long 39. 50 kg æO;eku dk ,d O;fDr 'kkar ty esa fojke esa
boat of mass 100 kg rests in still water. The man fLFkr 100 kg æO;eku dh 6 m yEch uko ds ,d
moves to the centre of boat and sits there. The
centre of mass of the system will shift by
fljs ij gSA O;fDr uko ds dsUæ dh vksj xfr djrk
gS rFkk ogk¡ cSBrk gSA fudk; dk æO;eku dsUæ
(1) 0 m (2) 1 m
fdruk foLFkkfir gksxk?
(3) 5/3 m (4) 1.5 m
 (1) 0 m (2) 1 m
40. A force F= 2iˆ + β jˆ + 3kˆ is acting at a point having (3) 5/3 m (4) 1.5 m
 
position r = 8iˆ + 6 ˆj + 12kˆ . The value of β for 40. ,d cy F= 2iˆ + β jˆ + 3kˆ fLFkfr r = 8iˆ + 6 ˆj + 12kˆ
which angular momentum about origin is okys fcUnw ij dk;Zjr gSA β ds fdl eku ds fy,
conserved, is
ewyfcUnw ds lkis{k dks.kh; laosx lajf{kr gS?
1 3
(1) (2) 1 3
3 2 (1) (2)
3 2
(3) 1 (4) –1 (3) 1 (4) –1
41. The ratio of the acceleration of a disk of mass m 41. fcuk fQlys vkufr dks.k θ ij uhps yq<+dus rFkk
and radius R rolling down an incline of angle θ fcuk yq<+ds vkur ij uhps fQlyus ds fy, m
without slipping and slipping down the incline
æO;eku o R f=T;k dh pdrh ds Roj.k dk vuqikr
without rolling is
gS
1 3
(1) (2) 1 3
3 4 (1) (2)
3 4
2 2
(3) (4) 2 (3) (4) 2
3 3
42. A rope is wound around a solid cylinder of mass 3 42. ,d jLlh dks fp= esa n'kkZ, vuqlkj 3 kg æO;eku o
kg and radius 20 cm as shown in the figure. A 20 cm f=T;k ds Bksl csyu ds ifjr% ck¡/kk tkrk gSA
mass of 4 kg is suspended from the other end and
4 kg æO;eku dks ,d fljs ls yVdk;k tkrk gS rFkk
released. The linear acceleration of 4 kg mass is
NksM+k tkrk gSA 4 kg æO;eku dk js[kh; Roj.k gS
4g 5g 4g 5g
(1) (2) (1) (2)
11 11 11 11
6g 8g 6g 8g
(3) (4) (3) (4)
11 11 11 11
43. A person sitting firmly over a rotating chair has his 43. ,d ?kw.khZ dqlhZ ij n`f<+r cSBk ,d O;fDr viuh
arms stretched. If he fold his arms, his kinetic Hkqtkvksa dks rkfur fd, gq, gSA ;fn og Hkqtk,sa eksM+rk
energy about the axis of rotation gS] rc ?kw.kZu v{k ds lkis{k bldh xfrt ÅtkZ
(1) Increases (1) c<sxh
(2) Decreases (2) ?kVsxh
(3) Remain same (3) leku jgsxh
(4) May increase or decrease (4) cM+ ;k ?kV ldrh gS
(10)@AakashDelhi02
44. A satellite moving around the earth in a circular 44. ,d mixzg i`Foh ds pkjksa vksj r f=T;k dh o`Ùkh;
orbit of radius r with speed v, if suddenly loses
some of its energy. Then
d{kk esa v pky ls xfr'khy gS] ;fn vpkud viuh
dqN ÅtkZ [kks nsrk gS, rc
(1) r will increase and v will decrease
(1) r c<+sxk rFkk v ?kVsxk
(2) Both r and v will decrease
(2) r rFkk v nksuksa ?kVsaxs
(3) Both r and v will increase
(3) r rFkk v nksuksa c<sxsa
(4) r will decrease and v will increase
(4) r ?kVsxh rFkk v c<+sxh
45. The density of a planet is two times that of the
earth, and acceleration due to gravity at the 45. ,d xzg dk ?kuRo i`Foh ds ?kuRo dk nksxquk gS] rFkk
surface of planet is half that at the surface of xzg dh lrg ij xq:Roh; Roj.k i`Foh dh lrg ij
earth. If radius of earth is R, then the radius of xq:Roh; Roj.k dk vk/kk gSA ;fn i`Foh dh f=T;k R
planet would be gS] rc xzg dh f=T;k gksxh
R R
(1) (2) 2 R (1) (2) 2 R
2 2
R R
(3) (4) 4 R (3) (4) 4 R
4 4
CHEMISTRY
46. Which of the following is a path function? 46. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,d iFk Qyu gS\
(1) Internal energy (2) Enthalpy (1) vkarfjd ÅtkZ (2) ,UFkSYih
(3) Entropy (4) Heat (3) ,UVªkWih (4) Å"ek
47. For a reaction, 47. ,d vfHkfØ;k ds fy, ∆H = 25 kJ mol–1 rFkk
∆H = 25 kJ mol and ∆S = 75 JK mol .
–1 –1 –1
∆S = 75 JK–1 mol–1 gSA
The minimum temperature above which the fdl U;wure rki ij mijksDr vfHkfØ;k Lor%
reaction is spontaneous will be izofrZr gksxh\
(1) 200 K (2) 233.3 K (1) 200 K (2) 233.3 K
(3) 333.3 K (4) 400 K (3) 333.3 K (4) 400 K
48. If the equilibrium constant for the reaction 48. ;fn vfHkfØ;k H2 + I2  2HI ds fy, lkE; fu;rkad
H2 + I2  2HI is K, then the equilibrium constant 1 1
K gS, rks vfHkfØ;k HI  H2 + I2 ds fy, lkE;
1 1 2 2
for the reaction HI  H2 + I2 will be fu;rkad gksxk
2 2
1 1
(1) K2 (2) (1) K2 (2)
K K
1
1 (3) (4) K
(3) (4) K K2
K2
49. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl vfHkfØ;k ds fy, ∆H =∆U
49. For which of the following reaction, ∆H =∆U ?
gS\
(1) CaCO3 (s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(1) CaCO3 (s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(2) N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g) (2) N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g)
(3) 2HI(g)  I2(g) + H2 (g) (3) 2HI(g)  I2(g) + H2 (g)
(4) PCl5(g)  PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) (4) PCl5(g)  PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
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50. For the following processes 50. fuEufyf[kr izØe ds fy, ∆H (kJ/Mol) ds eku uhps
∆H (kJ/Mol) fn, x, gSa
A → B –x A → B –x
2B → C + D– y
2B → C+D –y
E+B → 3C –z
E+B → 3C –z
2A + 3B → 3D + E ds fy,, ∆H gksxk
For, 2A + 3B → 3D + E, ∆H will be
(1) 2z + x – 2y (2) z – 2x + 3y
(1) 2z + x – 2y (2) z – 2x + 3y
(3) – z + 2x – 2y (4) z – 2x – 3y
(3) – z + 2x – 2y (4) z – 2x – 3y
51. ;fn 10 eksy vkn'kZ xSl fuokZr esa izlkfjr gksrh gS]
51. If 10 moles of an ideal expands in vacuum, then
the work done will be rks fd;k x;k dk;Z gksxk
(1) Zero (2) 10 J (1) 'kwU; (2) 10 J
(3) 8 J (4) 12 J (3) 8 J (4) 12 J
52. If enthalpy of neutralisation of four acids A, B, C 52. ;fn pkj vEy A, B, C rFkk D dh mnklhuhdj.k
and D are – 50, – 20, – 53 and – 42 kJ eq–1, ,UFkSYih Øe'k% – 50, – 20, – 53 rFkk – 42 kJ eq–1 gS,
respectively when they are neutralised by a tc ;s ,d lkekU; {kkj }kjk mnklhuhd`r gksrs gSa]
common base then the strongest acid among the
rks fuEufyf[kr esa ls izcy vEy gS
following is
(1) A (2) B
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
(3) C (4) D
53. fuEufyf[kr izØeksa esa ls fdlesa ,UVªkWih c<+rh gS\
53. In which of the following processes, entropy
increases? (1) v.Ms dk mcyuk
(1) Boiling of egg (2) jcM+ dks [khapuk
(2) Stretching of rubber (3) ty dk fgeu
(3) Freezing of water (4) ty ok"i dk la?kuu
(4) Condensation of water vapour 54. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,d foLrh.kZ xq.k gS\
54. Which of the following is an extensive property?
(1) rki (2) vk;ru
(1) Temperature (2) Volume
(3) ?kuRo (4) nkc
(3) Density (4) Pressure
55. 10–8 M HCl foy;u dk pH gS
55. pH of 10–8 M HCl solution is
(1) 7 (2) 6.5
(1) 7 (2) 6.5
(3) 8 (4) 6.9
(3) 8 (4) 6.9
56. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,d yqbZl vEy ugha gS\
56. Which of the following is not a Lewis acid?
(1) AlCl3 (2) NH3
(1) AlCl3 (2) NH3
(3) B2H6 (4) BF3
(3) B2H6 (4) BF3
57. ,d foy;u ds pH eku esa 2 ls 4 rd o`f) dh tkrh
57. The pH of a solution is increased from 2 to 4, its
gS, rc bldh H+ lkanzrk
H+ concentration will
(1) esa 100 xquk deh gksrh gS
(1) Decreased by 100 times
(2) Increased by 100 times (2) esa 100 xquk o`f) gksrh gS
(3) Doubled (3) nksxquh gksrh gS
(4) Halved (4) vk/kh gksrh gS
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– –
58. The conjugate acid of HSO4 is 58. HSO4 dk la;qXeh vEy gS
(1) SO24− (2) SO3 (1) SO24− (2) SO3
(3) H2SO4 (4) H2SO3 (3) H2SO4 (4) H2SO3
59. Which of the following mixtures is not a buffer? 59. fuEufyf[kr feJ.kksa esa ls dkSulk ,d cQj feJ.k
(1) CH3COOH and CH3COONa
ugha gS\
(2) NH4OH and NH4Cl (1) CH3COOH rFkk CH3COONa
(3) NaCl and HCl (2) NH4OH rFkk NH4Cl
(4) H2CO3 and Na2CO3 (3) NaCl rFkk HCl
60. If Ka of HX is 1 × 10–4, then Kb of X– ion will be (4) H2CO3 rFkk Na2CO3
(1) 5 × 10–9 (2) 1 × 10–10 60. ;fn HX dk Ka 1 × 10–4 gS, rks X– vk;u dk Kb gksxk
(3) 1 × 10–4 (4) 2 × 10–5 (1) 5 × 10–9 (2) 1 × 10–10
61. For the reversible reaction (3) 1 × 10–4 (4) 2 × 10–5
PCl5(g) + heat  PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) 61. fuEufyf[kr mRØe.kh; vfHkfØ;k ds fy, lkE; vxz
The equilibrium will shift in the forward direction
fn'kk esa foLFkkfir gksxk
(1) By decreasing the temperature PCl5(g) + Å"ek  PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
(2) By increasing the pressure (1) rki esa deh djus ij

(3) By increasing the concentration of PCl5(g) (2) nkc esa o`f) djus ij
(4) By increasing the concentration of PCl3(g) (3) PCl5(g) dh lkanzrk esa o`f) djus ij
62. The salt which will have the highest pH in (4) PCl3(g) dh lkanzrk esa o`f) djus ij
aqueous solution is
62. tyh; foy;u esa fdl yo.k dk pH mPpre gksxk\
(1) NaCl (2) Na2SO4
(1) NaCl (2) Na2SO4
(3) NH4Cl (4) CH3COONa
(3) NH4Cl (4) CH3COONa
63. Which will undergo cationic hydrolysis?
63. fdlesa /kuk;uh tyvi?kVu gksxk\
(1) CH3COOK (2) NH4Cl
(1) CH3COOK (2) NH4Cl
(3) NaCl (4) NaCN
(3) NaCl (4) NaCN
64. If the heat of combustion of methane is
–x kJ/mol, then the heat released during the
64. ;fn esFksu dh ngu Å"ek –x kJ/mol gS, rks 40 g esFksu
combustion of 40 g of methane will be ds ngu ds nkSjku eqDr Å"ek gksxh
(1) 5x kJ (1) 5x kJ
(2) 2.5x kJ (2) 2.5x kJ
(3) x kJ (3) x kJ
(4) 2x kJ
(4) 2x kJ
65. Total heat capacity for adiabatic process is
65. :)ks"e izØe ds fy, dqy Å"ek /kkfjrk gS
(1) Zero (2) 1 (1) 'kwU; (2) 1
(3) Infinite (4) R (3) vuUr (4) R
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66. Work done in a reversible isothermal expansion is 66. mRØe.kh; lerkih; izlj.k esa fd;k x;k dk;Z gS
given by
Vf
V (1) – 2.303 nRT log
(1) – 2.303 nRT log f Vi
Vi
Pi
P (2) – 2.303 nRT log
(2) – 2.303 nRT log i Pf
Pf
Vf
V
(3) 2.303 nR log
(3) 2.303 nR log f Vi
Vi
(4) (1) o (2) nksuksa
(4) Both (1) and (2)
67. 21 g ,yqfefu;e ds rki dks 250 K ls 350 K rd
67. The amount of heat required to raise the
temperature of 21 g of aluminium from 250 K to
c<+kus ds fy, vko';d Å"ek dh ek=k gS
350 K is (Specific heat of aluminium is (,yqfefu;e dh fof'k"V Å"ek 0.9 J (°C)–1 g–1 gS)
0.9 J (°C)–1 g–1) (1) 1590 J (2) 2010 J
(1) 1590 J (2) 2010 J (3) 1890 J (4) 2400 J
(3) 1890 J (4) 2400 J 68. ,d xSl ds fy, γ 1.66 gS, rc xSl gksxh
68. For one of a gas, γ is equal to 1.66, the gas will
(1) ,dyijek.kqd (2) f}ijek.kqd
be
(1) Monoatomic (2) Diatomic
(3) f=ijek.kqd (4) prq"ijek.kqd
(3) Triatomic (4) Tetraatomic 69. Lor% izo`fÙk ds fy, vko';d ifjfLFkfr gS
69. Necessary condition for spontaneity is (1) ∆S 0
=
fudk;
(1) ∆Ssystem =
0 (2) ∆H 0
=
fudk;
(2) ∆Hsystem =
0 (3) ∆G =0
(3) ∆G =0 (4) ∆S dqy > 0
(4) ∆STotal > 0 70. fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;kvksa ij fopkj dhft,A

70. Consider the following reactions (i) C (xzsQkbV,s) + 2H2O (l) → CO2(g) +
(i) C (graphite, s) + 2H2O(l) → CO2(g) + 2H2(g); 2H2(g);
∆H° = –a kJ/mol ∆H° = –a kJ/mol
(ii) C (graphite, s) + O2 (g) → CO2(g); (ii) C (xzsQkbV, s) + O2 (g) → CO2(g);
∆H° = – b kJ/mol ∆H° = – b kJ/mol
(iii) CH4(g) + 2O2 (g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(l); (iii) CH4(g) + 2O2 (g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(l);
∆H° = – c kJ/mol ∆H° = – c kJ/mol
1 1
(iv) CO(g) + O2 (g) → CO2(g); (iv) CO(g) + O2 (g) → CO2(g);
2 2
∆H° = – d kJ/mol ∆H° = – d kJ/mol
∆fH° of CO2 (g) will be CO2 (g) dk ∆fH° gksxk
(1) – a kJ/mol (2) – b kJ/mol (1) – a kJ/mol (2) – b kJ/mol
(3) – c kJ/mol (4) – d kJ/mol (3) – c kJ/mol (4) – d kJ/mol
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71. If enthalpies of formation of CH4(g), CO2(g) and 71. 25°C rFkk 1 atm nkc ij CH4(g), CO2(g) rFkk
H2O(l) at 25°C and 1 atm pressure are –x, H2O(l) dh lEHkou ,UFkSYih Øe'k%–x, –y rFkk
–y and – z kJ/mol respectively, then enthalpy of
– z kJ/mol gS] rks CH4 (g) dh ngu ,UFkSYih gksxh
combustion of CH4 (g) will be
(1) x – y – z kJ/mol (2) x – y – 2z kJ/mol
(1) x – y – z kJ/mol (2) x – y – 2z kJ/mol
(3) z + x – y kJ/mol (4) z – 2x – y kJ/mol
(3) z + x – y kJ/mol (4) z – 2x – y kJ/mol
72. ;fn fu;r nkc ij fudk; dks 50 J Å"ek nh tkrh gS
72. The change in internal energy if 50 J of heat is
given to the system at constant pressure and rFkk fudk; }kjk 20 J dk;Z fd;k tkrk gS] rks
20 J of work is done by the system will be vkarfjd ÅtkZ esa ifjorZu gksxk
(1) – 30 J (2) 30 J (1) – 30 J (2) 30 J
(3) – 70 J (4) 70 J (3) – 70 J (4) 70 J
73. The thermodynamic process for which volume 73. fdl Å"ekxfrdh izØe ds fy, vk;ru fu;r jgrk
remains constant is gS\
(1) Isothermal process (2) Isobaric process (1) lerkih; izØe (2) lenkch izØe
(3) Adiabatic process (4) Isochoric process (3) #)ks"e izØe (4) levk;rfud
74. If the solubility of a salt A2B3 in its saturated
74. ;fn yo.k A2B3 ds larÌr foy;u dh foys;rk s mol
solution is s mol L–1, then its solubility product will
be L–1 gS, rks bldk foys;rk xq.kuQy gksxk
(1) 27 s3 (2) 54 s5 (1) 27 s3 (2) 54 s5
(3) 108 s5 (4) 27 s4 (3) 108 s5 (4) 27 s4
75. Which pair will show common ion effect? 75. dkSulk ;qXe lkekU; vk;u izHkko n'kkZ,xk\
(1) HCN + NaCN (2) HCl + NaCl (1) HCN + NaCN (2) HCl + NaCl
(3) NaOH + NaCl (4) H2SO4 + Na2SO4 (3) NaOH + NaCl (4) H2SO4 + Na2SO4
76. At temperature higher than 25°C, which of the 76. 25°C ls mPp rki ij 'kq) ty ds lanHkZ esa
following options is correct regarding pure water? fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk fodYi lgh gS\
(1) [H+] = [OH–], pH = 7 (1) [H+] = [OH–], pH = 7
(2) [H+] < [OH–], pH = 7 (2) [H+] < [OH–], pH = 7
(3) [H+] > [OH–], pH = 7 (3) [H+] > [OH–], pH = 7
(4) [H+] = [OH–], pH < 7 (4) [H+] = [OH–], pH < 7
77. If for a reaction, 2A(g) + B(g)  C(g) , KC is 77. ;fn vfHkfØ;k 2A(g) + B(g)  C(g) ds fy, KC
2 × 104. Then the Kp for the reaction at the same 2 × 104 gS] rks leku rki ij vfHkfØ;k ds fy, Kp
temperature will be gksxk
(1) 2 × 104(RT)2 (2) 2 × 104 RT (1) 2 × 104(RT)2 (2) 2 × 104 RT
2 × 104 2 × 104 2 × 104 2 × 104

(3) (4) (3) (4)
(RT)2 RT (RT)2 RT
78. Unit of molar entropy is 78. eksyj ,UVªkWih dh bdkbZ gS

(1) J K mol–1 (2) J K–1 mol–1 (1) J K mol–1 (2) J K–1 mol–1
(3) J mol–1 (4) J K–1 (3) J mol–1 (4) J K–1
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79. Enthalpy change for the reaction, 79. vfHkfØ;k 4O(g) → 2O2 (g) ds fy, ,UFkSYih ifjorZu
4O(g) → 2O2 (g) is –a kJ. The dissociation energy –a kJ gSA O-O cU/k dh fo;kstu ÅtkZ gS
of O-O bond is (1) –4a kJ (2) –a/2 kJ
(1) –4a kJ (2) –a/2 kJ (3) a/2 kJ (4) 2a kJ
(3) a/2 kJ (4) 2a kJ 80. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk H2O esa vR;f/kd foys;'khy
80. Which of the following is most soluble in H2O? gS\
(1) AgBr (Ksp = 5.0× 10–13)
(1) AgBr (Ksp = 5.0× 10–13)
(2) AgCl (Ksp = 1.8× 10–10)
(2) AgCl (Ksp = 1.8× 10–10)
(3) CuS (Ksp = 6.3 × 10–36)
(3) CuS (Ksp = 6.3 × 10–36)
(4) AgI (Ksp = 8.3 × 10–17)
(4) AgI (Ksp = 8.3 × 10 )
–17
81. ,lhfVd vEy rFkk lksfM;e ,lhVsV ds leku eksy
81. The pH of 1 L solution containing equal moles of ;qDr 1 L foy;u dk pH gS (,lhfVd vEy dk pKa =
acetic acid and sodium acetate is
4.74)
(pKa of acetic acid = 4.74)
(1) 9.47 (2) 4.74
(1) 9.47 (2) 4.74
(3) 5.82 (4) 6.91
(3) 5.82 (4) 6.91
82. 0.3 M HCl rFkk 0.1 M NaOH dks leku vk;ru esa
82. pH of a solution obtained by mixing equal feykus ij izkIr foy;u dk pH gS
volumes of 0.3 M HCl and 0.1 M NaOH is
(1) 1 (2) 1.5
(1) 1 (2) 1.5
(3) 2 (4) 2.5
(3) 2 (4) 2.5 83. 0.1 M CH3COOH ds fo;kstu dh dksfV gS
83. Degree of dissociation of 0.1 M CH3COOH is (Ka = 1 × 10-5)
(Ka = 1 × 10–5) (1) 0.01 (2) 0.02
(1) 0.01 (2) 0.02 (3) 0.025 (4) 0.05
(3) 0.025 (4) 0.05 84. 500 K rFkk lkE; ij ,d can ik= esa H2 dh lkaærk
84. At equilibrium, the concentrations of H2 = 1 × 10 M,
–2 = 1×10–2 M, N2 dh lkaærk = 4 × 10–1 M rFkk
N2 = 4 × 10–1 M and NH3 = 2 × 10–3 M in a sealed NH3 dh lkaærk = 2 × 10–3 M gSA fuEufyf[kr
vessel at 500 K. The value of Kc for the reaction vfHkfØ;k ds fy, Kc dk eku gksxk
N2(g) + 3H2  2NH3(g) will be N2(g) + 3H2  2NH3 (g)
(1) 0.01 (2) 100 (1) 0.01 (2) 100
(3) 0.1 (4) 10 (3) 0.1 (4) 10
85. Bomb calorimeter is used to calculate 85. ce dSyksjhehVj dk mi;ksx fdldh x.kuk ds fy,
(1) ∆U (2) ∆G fd;k tkrk gS\
(3) ∆H (4) ∆S (1) ∆U (2) ∆G
86. Which of the following is a correct statement (3) ∆H (4) ∆S

related to a closed system? 86. ,d cUn fudk; ls lEcfU/kr fuEufyf[kr esa ls
(1) Exchange of both energy and matter are dkSulk dFku lgh gS\
possible
(1) ÅtkZ rFkk nzO; nksuksa dk fofue; laHko gS
(2) Exchange of neither energy nor matter is
possible (2) u rks ÅtkZ u gh nzO; dk fofue; laHko gS
(3) Exchange of only energy is possible (3) dsoy ÅtkZ dk fofue; laHko gS
(4) Exchange of only matter is possible (4) dsoy nzO; dk fofue; laHko gS
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87. If the value of an equilibrium constant for a 87. ;fn ,d vfHkfØ;k ds fy, lkE; fu;rkad dk eku 2
reaction is 2 × 107, then at equilibrium the system × 107 gS, rks lkE; ij fudk; esa gksxk
will contain
(1) vf/kdka'k mRikn
(1) Mostly products
(2) vf/kdka'k vfHkdkjd
(2) Mostly reactants
(3) dsoy vfHkdkjd
(3) Only reactants
(4) Equal concentrations of reactants and (4) leku lkanzrk ds vfHkdkjd rFkk mRikn
products 88. 27°C ij ,d ;kSfxd ds xyu dh xqIr Å"ek
88. Latent heat of fusion of a compound is 3000 J/mol gS] rc ÅtkZ ifjorZu gksxk
3000 J/mol at 27°C. Entropy change will be
(1) 12 JK–1 mol–1 (2) 10 JK–1 mol–1
(1) 12 JK–1 mol–1 (2) 10 JK–1 mol–1
(3) 0.1 JK–1 mol–1 (4) 1.5 JK–1 mol–1
(3) 0.1 JK–1 mol–1 (4) 1.5 JK–1 mol–1
89. 25 °C ij nqcZy vEy o nqcZy {kkj ds tyh; foy;u
89. At 25°C, the pH of an aqueous solution of a weak
acid and a weak base is given by
dk pH gS
(1) pH = 7 + (pKa – pKb) (1) pH = 7 + (pKa – pKb)
1
(2) pH = 7 −
1
(pK a − pK b ) (2) pH = 7 − (pK a − pK b )
2 2
1
1
7 + ( pK a − pK b )
(3) pH = 7 + ( pK a − pK b )
(3) pH =
2 2
7 + ( pK b − pK a )
(4) pH =
7 + ( pK b − pK a )
(4) pH =
90. At 27°C, N2O4(g) dissociates 40% into NO2(g) the

90. 27°C ij N2O4(g) dk NO2(g) esa 40% fo;kstu gksrk
equilibrium vapour density of the mixture is gS feJ.k dk lkE; ok"i ?kuRo gS
(1) 32.85 (2) 40.26 (1) 32.85 (2) 40.26
(3) 46 (4) 72.41 (3) 46 (4) 72.41
BOTANY
91. The non membranous cell organelle common to 91. f>Yyh jfgr dkSulk dksf'kdkax çksdSfj;ksV~l o
both prokaryote and eukaryote is ;wdSfj;ksV~l nksuksa esa mHk;fu"V gksrk gS?
(1) Centriole (2) Nucleoid (1) rkjddsUæ (2) U;wfDy;kWM
(3) Ribosome (4) Nucleolus (3) jkbckslkse (4) dsfUæd
92. Prokaryotic cell cannot have 92. çksdSfj;ksfVd dksf'kdk esa ugha gks ldrk gS
(1) dsUædh; f>Yyh
(1) Nuclear membrane
(2) xq.klw=
(2) Chromosome
(3) dksf'kdk fHkfÙk
(3) Cell wall
(4) IykTek f>Yyh
(4) Plasma membrane 93. çksdSfj;ksfVd dksf'kdk ds fy, vlqesfyr dh igpku
93. Identify the incorrect match for prokaryotic cell. dhft,A
(1) Mesosome – Respiration (1) ehlkstkse – 'olu
(2) IykfTeM – thuksfed DNA
(2) Plasmid – Genomic DNA
(3) XykbdksdsfyDl – thokf.od dksf'kdk dks
(3) Glycocalyx – Protects bacterial cell
lqjf{kr j[krk gS
(4) Chromatophore – Photosynthetic pigment (4) ØksesVksQksj – çdk'kla'ysf"kr o.kZd
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94. A polysome contains

94. ,d ikWfytkse esa
(1) Many ribosomes and a single m-RNA
(1) vusd jkbckslkse o ,d ,dy m-RNA gksrk gS
(2) Single ribosome and many m-RNAs
(2) ,dy jkbckslkse o vusd m-RNAs gksrk gS
(3) Single ribosome and single m-RNA
(3) ,dy jkbckslkse o ,dy m-RNA gksrk gS
(4) Many ribosomes and many m-RNAs
(4) vusd jkbckslkse o vusd m-RNAs gksrk gS
95. All of the following features are true for lipids of
95. fdlds vfrfjDr fuEufyf[kr lHkh y{k.k IykTek
plasma membrane, except
f>Yyh ds fyfiM ds fy, lgh gksrs gSa?
(1) Tails are hydrophobic
(1) iqPN tyfojkxh gksrs gS
(2) Polar heads are towards the inner sides
(2) /kqzoh; f'k"kZ vkarfjd Hkkxksa dh vksj gksrs gS
(3) May consist of phosphoglycerides
(3) QkWLQksfXylsjkbM ls cus gks ldrs gS
(4) Major lipids are phospholipids
(4) QkWLQksfyfiM~l eq[; fyfiM~l gSa
96. The structure which form living component of dead 96. dkSu lh lajpuk e`r dksf'kdk ds thfor ?kVd dk
cell wall, is
fuekZ.k djrh gS?
(1) Plasmodesmata (2) Pits
(1) IykTeksMsLekVk (2) xrZ
(3) Middle lamella (4) Plasma membrane
(3) eè; iVfydk (4) IykTek f>Yyh
97. The component of endomembrane system which
97. çksVhu la'ys"k.k esa lfEefyr var%f>fYydk ra= dk
is involved in protein synthesis is also related with
?kVd ______ ls Hkh lacaf/kr gksrk gS
(1) Formation of precursor of enzymes of
(1) ykblkslkse ds ,atkbe ds ewyvUosf"kd ds fuekZ.k
lysosomes
(2) izksVhu dk Xykbdkstkbys”ku
(2) Glycosylation of proteins
(3) izksfV,t ds lgk;rk ls izksVhu ds [kaMu
(3) Breakdown of proteins with help of proteases
(4) dksf”kdk ds ijklj.kh lkanzrk ds j[kj[kko
(4) Maintenance of osmotic concentration of cell
98. lgh (T) ;k xyr (F) ds :Ik esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa
98. Mark the following statements as true (T) or false
(F) and select the correct option.
dks fpfUgr dhft, rFkk lgh fodYi dk p;u
dhft,A
A. Outer mitochondrial membrane is more
permeable than inner one. A. ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k dh ckg~; f>Yyh vkarfjd f>Yyh
dh rqyuk esa vf/kd ikjxE; gksrh gS
B. Inner membrane of mitochondria contains
ATP synthase enzyme. B. ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k dh vkarfjd f>Yyh esa ATP
C. Mitochondrial matrix contains enzymes of

flUFkst ,atkbe gksrk gS
Krebs cycle and 80S ribosomes. C. ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k dh vk/kk=h esa ØsCl pØ ds
A B C ,atkbe o 80S jkbckslkse gksrs gSa
A B C
(1) T T T
(1) T T T
(2) T F F
(2) T F F
(3) T T F (3) T T F
(4) F T F (4) F T F
99. The type of plastid which is not involved in 99. yod ¼IykfLVM½ dk dkSulk izdkj [kk| ds lap;u
storage of food, is esa lfEefyr ugha gksrk gS\
(1) Chloroplast (2) Amyloplast (1) DyksjksIykLV (2) ,ekbyksIykLV
(3) Chromoplast (4) Elaioplast (3) ØkseksIykLV (4) bfy;ksIykLV
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100. The smallest cell organelle is not found in/on 100. lcls NksVh dksf”kdkax fdl ij ugha ik, tkrs gSa\
(1) Plastids (2) Mitochondria
(1) IykfLVM ¼yod½ (2) ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k
(3) RER (4) Nucleolus (3) RER (4) dsfUnzd
101. Which of the given is true for cilia but false for 101. fn;k x;k dkSulk i{ekHk ds fy, lgh gS ijUrq
prokaryotic flagella?
izksdSfj;ksfVd d”kkHk ds fy, xyr gS\
(1) Help in locomotion (1) pyu esa lgk;d gksrk gS
(2) Made up of tubulin proteins (2) V~;wC;wfyu izksVhu dk cuk gksrk gS
(3) Is extension of cell wall (3) dksf”kdkfHkfÙk dk foLrkj.k gksrk gS
(4) Basal body is made up of proteinaceous rings (4) vk/kkjh dk; izksVhu;qDr oy;ksa dk cuk gksrk gS
102. A. Centrioles form spindle fibres during cell 102. A. rkjddsUnz dksf”kdk foHkktu ds nkSjku rdqZ rarqvksa
division. dk fuekZ.k djrk gS
B. Higher plant cells lack spindle fibres as they B. mPp ikni dksf”kdkvksa esa rdqZ rarqvksa dk vHkko
lack centrioles. gksrk gS D;ksafd buesa rkjddsUæksa dk vHkko gksrk
(1) Only A is true gS
(2) Only B is true (1) dsoy A lgh gS
(2) dsoy B lgh gS
(3) Both A and B are true
(3) A o B nksuksa lgh gSa
(4) Both A and B are false
(4) A o B nksuksa xyr gSa
103. Nucleolus
103. dsfUnzd
(a) Is non membrane bound structure
(a) f>Yyh jfgr lajpuk gS
(b) Is larger and more numerous in cells (b) dksf”kdk foHkktu ds varxZr dksf”kdkvksa esa cM+h o
undergoing cell division.
vf/kd la[;k esa gksrh gS
(c) Is the site of 70S ribosome assembly. (c) 70S jkbckslkse lewgu dk LFky gksrk gS
(1) Only (a) is true (1) dsoy (a) lgh gS
(2) Only (b) is true (2) dsoy (b) lgh gS
(3) Both (a) and (b) are true (3) (a) o (b) nksuksa lgh gSa
(4) All (a), (b) and (c) are true (4) (a), (b) o (c) lHkh lgh gSa
104. The chromosome having p and q arm 104. p o q Hkqtk okys xq.klw=
(1) Appear V-shaped during anaphase (1) Ik”pkoLFkk ds nkSjku V-vkdkjh gksrk gS
(2) mi&e/;dsUnzh xq.klw= gS
(2) Is sub-metacentric chromosome
(3) vaR;dsUnzh xq.klw= gS
(3) Is telocentric chromosome
(4) ds ,d fljs ij xq.klw=fcUnq gksrk gS
(4) Has centromere at its one end
105. thokf.od dksf”kdk dks fpifpik vfHky{k.k iznku
105. The structure which provides gummy or sticky djus okyh lajpuk
character to bacterial cell, is
(1) isIVkbMksXykbdsu dh cuh gksrh gS
(1) Made up of peptidoglycan
(2) dksf”kdk dh vkd`fr fu/kkZfjr djus ds fy,
(2) Responsible to determine the shape of the cell mÙkjnk;h gksrh gS
(3) Comprises of polysaccharides (3) ikWyhlSdsjkbM~l dh cuh gksrh gS
(4) Found in all bacterial cells (4) lHkh thokf.od dksf”kdkvksa esa ik;k tkrk gS
106. Identify single membrane bound cell organelle 106. buesa ls ,dy f>Yyhc) dksf”kdkax dh igpku
among these dhft,A
(1) Mitochondria (2) Centriole (1) ekbVksdkf.Mª;k (2) rkjddsUnz
(3) Plastid (4) Lysosome (3) yod ¼IykfLVM½ (4) ykblkslkse
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107. Gas vacuoles 107. xSl jl/kkuh

(a) Are found in all aquatic eukaryotes.
(a)lHkh tyh; ;wdSfj;ksV~l esa ik;h tkrh gSa
(b) Are membraneless.
(b) f>Yyhjfgr gksrh gSa
(c) Provide buoyancy to the cell.
(c) dksf”kdk dks mRIykodrk iznku djrh gS
(1) Only (a) is true
(1) dsoy (a) lgh gSa
(2) (a) and (b) are true
(2) (a) o (b) lgh gSa
(3) (b) and (c) are true
(3) (b) o (c) lgh gSa
(4) (a) and (c) are true
(4) (a) o (c) lgh gSa
108. The ___ face of golgi complex gives rise to the
108. xkWYth lfEeJ dh ___ lrg lgk;d iqfVdkvksa dks
secretory vesicles.
mRiUu djrh gSA
(1) Convex (2) Cis
(1) mUurksnj (2) fll
(3) Maturing (4) Forming
(3) ifjiDo (4) fuekZ.kdkjh
109. Both matrix of mitochondria and stroma of
chloroplast contains 109. ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k dh vk/kk=h o gfjryod dh ihfBdk
nksuksa esa
(1) Linear dsDNA
(1) js[kh; dsDNA gksrk gS
(2) Enzymes of glucose synthesis
(2) Xywdkst la”ys’k.k dk ,atkbe gksrk gS
(3) Protein synthesis machinery
(3) izksVhu la”ys’k.k e”khujh gksrk gS
(4) Enzymes of TCA cycle
(4) TCA pØ dk ,atkbe gksrk gS
110. Endomembrane system does not include
110. var%f>fYydk ra= esa ugha gksrk gS
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(1) varnzZO;h tkfydk
(2) Golgi complex
(2) xkWYth lfEeJ
(3) Lysosome
(3) ykblkslkse
(4) Peroxisome
(4) ijkWDlhlkse
111. Select the wrongly matched pair.
111. vlqesfyr ;qXe dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Plasma – Selectively
(1) IykTek f>Yyh – Pk;ukRed :Ik ls
membrane permeable
ikjxE;
(2) Algal cell wall – Contain cellulose,
(2) “kSoky dh – esa lsY;wykst]
galactans and
manans dksf”kdkfHkfÙk XysDVsu o eSusu
gksrk gS
(3) Primary cell wall – Thin, elastic and
incapable of (3) izkFkfed dksf”kdk – iryh] yphyh o
extension fHkfÙk foLrkj.k esa v{ke
(4) Middle lamella – Amorphous (4) e/; iVfydk – fØLVyh; tksM+us
cementing layer okyh ijr
112. Who explained that “new cells are formed from 112. fdlus O;k[;k dh fd “ubZ dksf”kdk,a igys ls
pre-existing cells”? fo|eku dksf”kdkvksa ls curh gSa”?
(1) Schleiden (2) Virchow (1) “ykbMsu (2) fopksZ
(3) Schwann (4) R. Brown (3) “oku (4) vkj- czkmu
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113. Polytene chromosomes 113. ikWfyVhu xq.klw=

(1) Are diplotene bivalents
(1)fMIyksVhu ;qxyh gSa
(2) Show somatic pairing (2) dkf;d ;qXeu n”kkZrs gSa
(3) Are seen in all insects (3) lHkh dhVksa esa gksrs gSa
(4) Contain one chromonemata per chromosome (4) esa ,d ØkseksusekVk izfr xq.klw= esa gksrk gS
114. Activity of all of the given cell organelles can be 114. fdlds vfrfjDr fn, x, lHkh dksf”kdkaxksa dh
seen in a germinating fatty or oil containing seed, fØ;kfof/k] vadqj.k olk ;k rsy okys cht esa gks
except ldrk gS\
(1) Mitochondria (2) Glyoxysome (1) ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k (2) XykbvkWDlhlkse
(3) gfjryod (4) (1) o (3) nksuksa
(3) Chloroplast (4) Both (1) and (3)
115. fdl izkoLFkk esa dksf”kdk,¡ dsoy mikip;h :Ik ls
115. The phase in which cells are only metabolically
lfØ; gksrh gS ijUrq izpqj ek=k esa ugha gksrh gSa\
active but do not proliferate, is
(1) G2 izkoLFkk (2) varjkykoLFkk
(1) G2 phase (2) Interkinesis
(3) G0 izkoLFkk (4) G1 izkoLFkk
(3) G0 phase (4) G1 phase 116. ØkseSfVM~l dk foikVu fdl nkSjku gksrk gS\
116. Separation of chromatids are seen during (1) iwokZoLFkk (2) Ik”pkoLFkk
(1) Prophase (2) Anaphase (3) vaR;koLFkk (4) e/;koLFkk
(3) Telophase (4) Metaphase 117. v/kZlw=h foHkktu I ds ckn mRiUu gksus okyh iq=h
dksf”kdk,¡ v/kZlw=h foHkktu II ds ckn mRiUu gksus
117. Daughter cells produced after meiosis I are similar
to daughter cells produced after meiosis II, in
okyh iq=h dksf”kdkvksa ds leku gksrh gS
(1) xq.klw= la[;k esa
(1) Chromosome number
(2) DNA dh ek=k esa
(2) DNA content
(3) vkuqoaf”kd laiwjd esa
(3) Genetic compliment (4) izfr xq.klw= esa ØkseSfVM~l dh la[;k esa
(4) Chromatid number per chromosome 118. fdlds vfrfjDr ,d prq’d lHkh ls lEcfU/kr gksrk
118. A tetrad is related with all, except gS\
(1) LFkwyiV~V ¼iSdsVhu½ esa gksrk gS
(1) Seen is pachytene
(2) ,d ;qxyh prq’d ds :Ik esa gksrk gS
(2) A bivalent appear as tetrad
(3) esa 4 flLVj ØksesfVM~l gksrs gSa
(3) Contains 4 sister chromatids (4) v/kZlw=h II esa ugha gksrk gS
(4) Not seen in meiosis II 119. vf/kdka'k dksf'kdkax G1 çkoLFkk esa f}xqf.kr gksrk gS
119. Most cell organelles duplicate in G1 phase but ijUrq rkjddsUæ o ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k dk f}xq.ku fdl
duplication of centriole and mitochondria is seen nkSjku gksrk gS\
during (1) S çkoLFkk
(1) S phase (2) G2 çkoLFkk
(2) G2 phase (3) Øe'k% S rFkk G2 çkoLFkk
(3) S and G2 phase respectively (4) Øe'k% G2 rFkk S çkoLFkk

120. dk;TekVk dk mikarhHkou fdl nkSjku gksrk gS\
(4) G2 and S phase respectively
(1) f}iV~V (fMIyksVhu)
120. Terminalisation of chiasmata is seen during
(2) ikjxfrØe (Mk;dkbusfll)
(1) Diplotene (2) Diakinesis (3) ;qXeiV~V (tkbxksVhu)
(3) Zygotene (4) Pachytene (4) LFkwyiV~V (iSdsVhu)
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121. In plant cells, cytokinesis

121. ikni dksf'kdkvksa esa lkbVksdkbusfll foHkktu
(1) Occur by furrow formation
(1) [kk¡p fuekZ.k }kjk gksrk gS
(2) Occur by a cell plate
(2) dksf'kdkiV~Vh }kjk gksrk gS
(3) Occurs before karyokinesis
(3) dSfjxksdkbusfll ls igys gksrk gS
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(4) (1) o (3) nksuksa
122. In all of the given phases, each chromosomes
122. fdlds vfrfjDr fn, x, lHkh çkoLFkkvksa esa çR;sd
have two chromatids, except
xq.klw= esa nks ØkseSfV~l gksrs gSa?
(1) Metaphase I
(1) eè;koLFkk I
(2) Anaphase I
(2) i'pkoLFkk I
(3) Metaphase II
(3) eèokoLFkk II
(4) Anaphase II
(4) i'pkoLFkk II
123. Mark the wrongly matched pair.
123. vlqesfyr ;qXe dks fpfUgr dhft,A
(1) Interkinesis – DNA replication (1) varjkykoLFkk – DNA çfrd`rh;u
(2) G1 – Post mitotic gap (2) G1 – i'p lw=h varjdky

phase çkoLFkk
(3) Interphase – Covers > 95% of (3) varjkoLFkk – dksf'kdk pØ dh
total duration of dqy voLFkk dh
cell cycle 95% ls vf/kd
(4) Pachytene – Activity of (4) LFkwyiê (iSdsVhu) – fjdkWfEcust ,atkbe
recombinase dh fØ;kfof/k
enzyme
124. lqlkè; folj.k lfØ; ifjogu ls fHkUu gksrk gS
124. Facilitated diffusion differs from active transport as D;ksafd lqlkè; folj.k
the former
(1) ,d ÅèoZxkeh çfØ;k gS
(1) Is an uphill process
(2) çd`fr esa mPp :i ls p;ukRed gksrk gS
(2) Is highly selective in nature (3) esa ATP dh vko';drk ugha gksrh gS
(3) Does not require ATP (4) fof'k"V f>Yyh çksVhu dh vko';drk ugha gksrh
(4) Require special membrane proteins gS
125. Diffusion 125. folj.k
(1) Is a slow process (1) ,d ean çfØ;k gS
(2) Occurs from lower concentration to higher (2) fuEu lkaærk ls mPp lkaærk rd gksrk gS
concentration
(3) Bkslksa esa xSlksa dh rqyuksa esa vf/kd mHk;fu"B gksrk
(3) In solids is more common than gases gS
(4) Of one substance depends on another (4) ,d inkFkZ dk folj.k nwljs inkFkZ ij fuHkZj
substance djrk gS
126. Solute potential of a solution is 126. ,d foy;u dk foys; foHko
(1) Always negative (1) lnSo _.kkRed gksrk gS
(2) Zero (2) 'kwU; gksrk gS
(3) Positive (3) /kukRed gksrk gS
(4) Equal to ψ w of pure water (4) 'kq) ty ds ψ w ds cjkcj gksrk gS
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127. Withdrawal of protoplast of a plant cell from its 127. ijklj.kh fØ;k ds dkj.k ikni dksf'kdk ls ty dh
wall due to excessive loss of water from cell due
to osmotic action, is
vR;f/kd gkfu ds dkj.k bldh dksf'kdk fHkfÙk ls
thoæO; dk vyx gksuk D;k dgykrk gS\
(1) Plasmolysis
thoæO;dqapu
(1)
(2) Endosmosis
(2) var%ijklj.k
(3) Deplasmolysis
(3) thoæO;fodqapu
(4) Active transport
(4) lfØ; ifjogu
128. The correct expression for a flaccid cell is
128. <+hyh dksf'kdk ds fy, lgh vfHkO;Dru gS
(a) DPD = OP
(a) DPD = OP
(b) ψ s =0
(b) ψ s =0
(c) TP = Negative
(c) TP = _.kkRed
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(1) (a) rFkk (b) (2) (b) rFkk (c)
(3) (a) and (c) (4) All (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a) rFkk (c) (4) lHkh (a), (b) rFkk (c)
129. Absorption of water by hydrophilic substance
129. foy;u ds fuekZ.k ds fcuk tyjkxh inkFkZ }kjk ty
without forming a solution is called
dk vo'kks"k.k D;k dgykrk gS?
(1) Plasmolysis
(1) thoæO;dqapu
(2) Imbibition
(2) var%'kks"k.k
(3) Osmosis
(3) ijklj.k
(4) Deplasmolysis
(4) thoæO;fodqapu
130. Symplastic pathway of water movement involves
all, except 130. fdlds vfrfjDr ty dh xfr ds flIykfLVd iFkØe
esa lHkh lfEefyr gksrs gS?
(1) Cytoplasm
(1) dksf'kdæO;
(2) Plasmodesmata
(2) IykTeksMsLekVk
(3) Cell wall
(3) dksf'kdkfHkfÙk
(4) Vacuole
(4) jl/kkuh
131. A. Root pressure is related to re-establishment of
continuous chains of water molecules in xylem 131. A. ewynkc ok"iksRltZu }kjk mRiUu o`gr ruko ds
under enormous tension created by varxZr tkbye esa ty v.kqvksa dh lrr Ükà[kyk
transpiration. ds iqu%LFkkiu ls lacaf/kr gSA
B. Root pressure is responsible for guttation. B. ewy nkc fcUnqL=ko ds fy, mÙkjnk;h gksrk gSA
(1) Only A is true (1) dsoy A lgh gS
(2) Only B is true (2) dsoy B lgh gS
(3) Both A and B are true (3) A o B nksuksa lgh gSa
(4) Both A and B are false (4) A o B nksuksa xyr gS
132. Absorption of water by roots is maximum in 132. ewyksa }kjk ty dk vo'kks"k.k vf/kdre gksrk gS
(1) Soil with high salt concentration (1) mPp yo.k lkaærk okys e`nk esa
(2) Water logged soil (2) tykØkafr e`nk esa
(3) Soil with 0°C (3) 0°C okys e`nk esa
(4) Well watered and well aerated soil (4) ty;qDr o okru;qDr e`nk esa
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133. Complete the below given statement by choosing 133. A o B ds fy, lgh fodYi ds p;u }kjk uhps fn,
correct option for A and B.
x, dFku dks iw.kZ dhft,
“ A microfibrils are oriented B and make it
“ A lw{erarqd B vfHkfoU;Lr gksrs gS rFkk ja/kz ds
easier for the stoma to open.
[kqyus ds fy, bls vklku cukrk gS
A B
A B
(1) Pectin Longitudinally
isfDVu
(1) yacor :i ls
(2) Cellulose Radially
(2) lsY;wykst vjh; :i ls
(3) Pectin Radially (3) isfDVu vjh; :i ls
(4) Cellulose Longitudinally (4) lsY;wykst yacor :i ls
134. Choose the odd one for chief sink for mineral 134. [kfut rRoksa ds eq[; flad ds fy, fo"ke in dk
elements. p;u dhft,
(1) Meristematic cells (1) foHkT;ksRdh dksf'kdk
(2) Developing fruits (2) ifjo/kZu Qy
(3) th.kZ i.kZ
(3) Senescent leaves
(4) r:.k i.kZ
(4) Young leaves
135. ¶yks,e jl fdlds vfrfjDr eq[;r% vU; lHkh dk
135. Phloem sap mainly consists of all, except
cuk gksrk gS
(1) Sucrose (2) Water (1) lqØkst (2) ty
(3) Inorganic nitrogen (4) Hormones (3) vdkcZfud ukbVªkstu (4) gkeksZu
ZOOLOGY
136. Select the incorrect match w.r.t role of following 136. fuEufyf[kr tBjh; dksf'kdkvksa dh Hkwfedk ds lanHkZ
gastric cells. esa xyr feyku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) 'ys"ek xzhok – E;wdl L=for djrh
(1) Mucus neck – Secrete mucus
cells dksf'kdk,a gS
(2) eq[; dksf'kdk,a – isfIlukstsu L=for
(2) Chief cells – Secrete pepsinogen djrh gS
(3) Parietal cells – Secrete vitamin B12 (3) iSjkbVy – foVkfeu B12 L=for
dksf'kdk,a djrh gS
(4) Oxyntic cells – Secrete HCl
(4) vkWfDlfUVd – HCl L=for djrh gS
137. In which type of dentition, a set of deciduous teeth dksf'kdk,a
is replaced by a set of permanent teeth? 137. fdl çdkj ds nar foU;kl esa] nw/k ds nkarksa dk
(1) Heterodont (2) Thecodont leqPp; LFkk;h nkarksa ls çfrLFkkfir gks tkrk gS?
(3) Diphyodont (4) Monophyodont (1) fo"kenarh (2) xrZnarh
138. The enzyme that is not present in pancreatic juice (3) f}ckjnarh (4) ,dckjnarh
is 138. og ,atkbe tks vXuk'k;h jl esa mifLFkr ugha gksrk
(1) Lipase gS
(1) ykbist
(2) Enterokinase
(2) ,UVsjksdkbust
(3) Chymotrypsinogen
(3) dkbeksfVªfIlukstu
(4) Amylase
(4) ,ekbyst
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139. Select an incorrect statement. 139. xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,A

(1) Anxiety and eating spicy food together in an (1) ,d lkekU; ekuo esa ,dlkFk O;xzrk vkSj
otherwise normal human, may lead to elkysnkj Hkkstu xzg.k djus ls vip gksrk gS
indigestion
(2) va/kuky ,d NksVk va/k dks"k gS tks dqN lgthoh
(2) Caecum is a small blind sac which hosts some lw{ethoksa dks gksLV (iksf"kr) djrk gS
symbiotic micro-organisms
(3) fuxj.k ds nkSjku vfyftg~ok Hkkstu dks
(3) During swallowing, uvula prevents food from
'okluyh esa tkus ls jksdrh gS
entering trachea
(4) lDdl ,aVsfjdl vka=h; jl dks fn;k x;k uke
(4) Succus entericus is the name given to
intestinal juice
gSA
140. dkWye I dk dkWye II ls feyku dhft, vkSj lgh
140. Match column I with column II and choose the
correct option. fodYi dk p;u dhft,
dkWye I dkWye II
Column I Column II
a. ihfy;k (i) dkbyksekbØksu
a. Jaundice (i) Chylomicrons
b. okgd çksVhu (ii) jDr esa fcfy:fcu
b. Carrier (ii) Bilirubin increases c< tkrk gS
proteins in blood
c. olh; vEy (iii) lqxe ifjogu
c. Fatty acids (iii) Facilitated transport d. U;qfDyvkslkbMstst (iv) lDdl ,aVsfjdl
d. Nucleosidases (iv) Succus entericus (1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) 141. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdrus ,atkbe Xywdkst ds fuxZeu
(4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) gsrq vius fØ;k/kkjksa ij fØ;k djrs gS?
141. How many of the following enzymes act on their (a) lqØst (b) ykbist
substrates to release glucose? (c) MkbisIVhMstst (d) fVªfIlu
(a) Sucrase (b) Lipase (e) ySDVst
(c) Dipeptidases (d) Trypsin (1) nks (2) rhu
(e) Lactase (3) pkj (4) ik¡p
(1) Two (2) Three 142. Lru/kkfj;ksa ds ;d`r esa _____ dksf'kdk,a gksrh gS tks
(3) Four (4) Five Hk{kdk.kqd gksrh gSA fjDr LFkku dks lgh :i ls Hkjus
142. Mammalian liver contains ___ cells that are okys fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
phagocytic. Choose the option which fills the blank (1) jtrjath
correctly. (2) iSusFk
(1) Argentaffin (2) Paneth (3) tkbekstu (fd.otu)
(3) Zymogen (4) Kupffer (4) dqIQj
143. A salivary gland situated in the cheek region is 143. ykj xzafFk tks xky ds {ks= esa fLFkr gksrh gS
(1) Parotid gland (1) iSjksfVM (d.kZiwoZ) xzafFk
(2) Sub-mandibular gland (2) vofpcqdh; xzafFk
(3) Tonsil (3) Vkafly
(4) Sub-lingual gland (4) v/kksftâok xzafFk
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144. Tooth enamel is A in origin and is secreted by 144. nk¡r dk buSey mRifÙk eas A gksrk gS rFkk B
B . Here A and B respectively are }kjk L=for gksrk gSA ;gk¡ A o B Øe'k% gS
(1) Ectodermal, Ameloblasts (1) ,DVksMeZy, bySeydksjd (vehyksCykLV)
(2) Ectodermal, Odontoblasts (2) ,DVksMeZy, vksMksUVksCykLV
(3) Mesodermal, Osteoblasts (3) ehlksMeZy, vfLFkdksjd
(4) Mesodermal, Ameloblasts (4) ehlksMeZy, buSeydksjd (vehyksCykLV)
145. Read statements A and B and select the correct 145. A vkSj B dFkuksa dks if<+, vkSj lgh fodYi dk p;u
option. dhft,A
A. The saliva secreted by salivary glands A. ykj xzafFk;ksa }kjk L=for ykj nar {k; ds fo:)
provides protection against dental caries. j{kk çnku djrh gS
B. Glisson’s capsule is associated with pancreas B. Lru/kkfj;ksa esa fXylu laiqV vXuk'k; ls lacaf/kr
in mammals.
gksrk gSA
(1) Both statements A and B are correct (1) dFku A rFkk B nksuksa lgh gS
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect (2) dFku A rFkk B nksuksa xyr gS
(3) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect (3) dFku A lgh gS fdUrq B xyr gS
(4) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct (4) dFku A xyr gS fdUrq B lgh gS
146. Cystic duct is associated with 146. fiÙkk'k;h ufydk lacaf/kr gksrh gS
(1) Liver (1) ;d`r ls
(2) Pancreas (2) vXuk'k; ls
(3) Parotid gland (3) d.kZiwoZ xzafFk ls
(4) Gall bladder (4) fiÙkk'k; ls
147. How many of the given items in the box are 147. ckWDl esa fn, x, inksa esa ls fdrus ykj esa L=for
secreted in the saliva? gksrs gS?
+ + + +
Na , K , Amylase, Lysozyme, HCO3− ions Na , K , ,ekbyst] ykblkstkbe, HCO3− vk;u
(1) Three (2) Four rhu

(1) (2) pkj
(3) Five (4) Two (3) ik¡p (4) nks
148. Which layer of wall of gastrointestinal tract is 148. tBjka=h; iFk fHkfÙk dh dkSulh ijr :ikrafjr gksdj
modified to form gastric glands and crypts of tBjh; xzafFk;k¡ vkSj yhcjdqu-çxqfgdk fufeZr djrh
Lieberkuhn? gS?
(1) Mucosa (1) E;wdkslk
(2) Serosa (2) fljkslk
(3) Sub-mucosa (3) lc-E;wdkslk
(4) Muscularis (4) eLdqysfjl
149. An elongated and compound gland situated 149. ,d nhf?kZr vkSj la;qDr xzafFk tks ‘C’ vkdkj dh xzg.kh
between the limbs of the ‘C’ shaped duodenum is ds eè; mifLFkr gksrh gS
(1) Spleen (2) Pancreas (1) Iyhgk (2) vXuk'k;
(3) Adrenal gland (4) Thymus gland (3) ,Mªhuy xzafFk (4) Fkkbel xzafFk
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150. Which of the given statements is correct? 150. fn;s x;s dFkuksa esa ls dkSulk lgh gS?
(1) The chyme is acted on by the pancreatic juice, vXuk'k;h jl] fiÙk vkSj varr% lDdl ,sVsfjdl
(1)
bile and finally by the enzymes in the succus
esa mifLFkr ,atkbeksa }kjk dkbe ij fØ;k gksrh gS
entericus
(2) cM+h vkar esa olk] olh; vEy vkSj fXyljkWy esa
(2) Fats are converted to fatty acids and glycerol
in large intestine
ifjofrZr gks tkrh gS
(3) Dokf'kvksjdj lnSo çksVhu vkSj dSyksjh vYirk
(3) Kwashiorkor is produced by protein deficiency
always accompanied by calorie deficiency }kjk ,d lkFk mRiUu gksrk gS
(4) vf/kdka'k ikfpr vaR; mRikn o`gna= dh midyk
(4) Most of the digested end products are
absorbed into the body through the epithelial vkLrj ds ekè;e ls 'kjhj esa vo'kksf"kr gks tkrs
lining of the colon gS
151. Choose the mismatch w.r.t digestion and 151. varxzZfgr Hkkstu ds ikpu vkSj vo'kks"k.k ds lanHkZ esa
absorption of ingested food. vlqesfyr dk p;u dhft,
(1) Stomach – Absorption of (1) vkek'k; – ,YdksgkWy dk
alcohol vo'kks"k.k
(2) lfØ; ijfogu – vehuksa vEyksa dk
(2) Active transport – Absorption of amino
acids vo'kks"k.k
(3) lqxe ifjogu – Xywdkst dk vo'kks"k.k
(3) Faciliated – Absorption of
transport glucose (4) –
isfIlu MkbisIVkbM dks
isIVkWu esa :ikrafjr
(4) Pepsin – Converts dipeptides
to peptones djrk gS
152. fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;kvksa ij fopkj djsa vkSj A, B
152. Consider the following reactions and choose the
option which correctly identifies A, B and C.
rFkk C dh lgh ls igpku djus okys fodYi dk
p;u dhft,A
A
Di and Monoglycerides  → Fatty acids + A
glycerol
MkbZ rFkk eksuksfXyljkWbM~l  → olh; vEy +
fXyljkWy
B
Nucleic acids  → Nucleotides B
U;qfDyd vEy  → U;qfDyvksVkbM~l
C
Starch → Disaccharides LVkpZ C
 →MkblSdsjkbM~l
(1) A-Lipase, B-Nuclease, C- Amylase (1) A-ykbist, B-U;qfDy,st, C- ,ekbyst
(2) A-Lipase, B-Nucleotidase, C- Maltase (2) A-ykbist, B-U;wfDyvksVkbMst, C-ekYVst
(3) A-Lipase, B-Nucleosidase, C-Sucrase (3) A-ykbist, B-U;wfDyvkslkbMst, C-lqØst
(4) A-Amylase, B-Nuclease, C-Lactase (4) A-,ekbyst, B-U;qfDy,t, C-ySDVst
153. Which of the following enzyme is present only in 153. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,atkbe dsoy uotkr ds tBj
gastric juice of infants? jl esa mifLFkr gksrk gS?
(1) Lactase (1) ySDVst
(2) Sucrase (2) lqØst
(3) Trypsin (3) fVªfIlu
(4) Rennin (4) jsfUuu
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154. The undigested and unabsorbed substances from 154. NksVh vkar ls vikfpr vkSj vuvo'kksf"kr inkFkZ cM+h
small intestine are passed to the large intestine vk¡r esa fdlds ekè;e ls tkrs gS?
through
(1) vksgh dh vojksf/kuh
(1) Sphincter of Oddi (2) Ileo – caecal valve
(2) f=dka= dikV
(3) Sphincter of Boyden (4) Pyloric sphincter
(3) ckW;Msu dh vojksf/kuh
155. Select the incorrect match.
(4) tBjfuxZe vojksf/kuh
(1) Ciliated – Increase the 155. xyr feyku dk p;u dhft,A
epithelial cells absorptive surface (1) i{ekHkh midyk – vo'kks"kh lrg
area
dksf'kdk,¡ {ks=Qy dks c<+krh gS
(2) Bile pigments – Bilirubin and (2) fiÙk o.kZd – fcfy:fcu vkSj
biliverdin
fcfyohMZu
(3) Vermiform – Arises from (3) d`fe:i – va/kuky ls fudyrh
appendix caecum ifj'kksf"kdk gS
(4) Ileum – Highly coiled part of (4) {kqnka= – NksVh vk¡r dk
small intestine vfrdqaMfyr Hkkx
156. All of the following are functions of the buccal 156. fdlds vfrfjDr vU; lHkh eq[k xqgk ds dk;Z gS
cavity except (1) Hkkstu dks NksVs d.kksa ds :i esa pckuk
(1) Mastication of food into smaller particles (2) fuxyus dh fØ;k lqxe cukus gsrq pck, gq,
(2) Adhering the masticated food particles into a Hkkstu ds d.kksa dks cksyl esa fpidkuk
bolus to facilitate swallowing (3) dqN MªXl dks vo'kksf"kr djuk
(3) Absorption of certain drugs (4) yxHkx 30% çksVhu ikpu djuk vkSj varxzZfgr
(4) Carry out about 30% of protein digestiion and Hkkstu dks vo'kksf"kr djuk
absorptive function of ingested food 157. ikpd jlksa ds L=ko dk gkWeksZuy fu;a=.k] tBjh;
157. Hormonal control of the secretion of digestive vkSj vk¡= E;wdkslk }kjk mRikfnr LFkkuh; gkWeksZuksa
juices is carried out by the local hormones }kjk gksrk gSA
produced by the gastric and intestinal mucosa.
Select an incorrect match of hormone, its source gkWeksZu] blds L=ksr vkSj dk;Z ds xyr feyku dk
and action. p;u dhft,A
Hormone Source Action
gkWeksZu L=kksr fØ;k
(1) xSfLVªu vkek'k; tBj xzafFk;ksa dks
(1) Gastrin Stomach Stimulates the tBj jl L=for o
gastric glands to
secrete and release
eqDr djus ds fy,
gastric juice çsfjr djrk gS
(2) GIP vkek'k; vXuk'k;h jl esa ckbZ-
(2) GIP Stomach Release
bicarbonates in the
dkcksZusV eqDr djrk
pancreatic juice gS
(3) lsØsfVu xzg.kh tBjh; L=ko ,oa
(3) Secretin Duodenum Decrease gastric
secretion and xfr'khyrk de
motility djrk gS
(4) CCK-PZ NksVh vk¡r fiÙk eqDr djus ds
(4) CCK-PZ Small Stimulate
intestine contraction of gall fy, fiÙkk'k; ds
bladder to release ladqpu dks çsfjr
bile djrk gS
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158. Select the incorrect statement. 158. xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles is (1) nek esa 'oluh vkSj 'olfudkvksa dk 'kksFk ns[kk
seen in asthma tkrk gS
(2) One of the major causes of Emphysema is (2) okrLQhfr dk ,d eq[; dkj.k /kqeziku gS
cigarette smoking
(3) /kwy dh vf/kd ek=k ds nh?kZdkyhu çHkkou ds
(3) Long exposure to large amount of dust could
lead to fibrosis of lungs dkj.k Qq¶Qql dh ftlls js'kke;rk gksrh gS
(4) Exchange of gases increases in emphysema (4) Qq¶Qqlksa ds 'kksFk ds dkj.k okrLQhfr esa xSlksa dk
due to inflation of lungs fofue; c<+ tkrk gS
159. Vital capacity does not include 159. tSo {kerk esa lfEefyr ugha gS
(1) RV (2) ERV (1) RV (2) ERV
(3) TV (4) IRV (3) TV (4) IRV
160. Every 1000 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver 160. çR;sd 1000 feyh- vkWDlhtfur jDr lkekU; 'kjhj
around ___ ml of O2 to the tissues under normal fØ;kRed fLFkfr;ksa esa Årdksa dks yxHkx _____ feyh
physiological conditions. Choose the option that O2 çnku djrk gSA ml fodYi dk p;u dhft, tks
fills the correctly. lgh :i ls iwÆr djrk gS
(1) 10 (2) 100 (1) 10 (2) 100
(3) 5 (4) 50 (3) 5 (4) 50
161. Gastro-oesophageal sphincter opens in which part 161. vkek'k;-xzfldk vojksf/kuh vkek'k; ds fdl Hkkx esa
of stomach? [kqyrh gS?
(1) Fundus (2) Cardiac (1) QaMl (2) tBjkxe
(3) Body (4) Pylorus
(3) dk; (4) tBjfuxZe
'A'
162. H+ + HCO3− 
 
 H2CO3 + 'A'
−  
162. H + HCO3   H2CO3
Here enzyme ‘A’ is ;gk¡ ,atkbe ‘A’ gS
(1) ATPase (1) ATPase
(2) Carbonic anhydrase dkcksZfud ,ugkbMªst
(2)
(3) Succinic dehydrogenase (3) lfDlfud MhgkbMªksftust
(4) Ribozyme (4) jkbckstkbe
163. Which of the following is not seen during 163. var% 'olu ds nkSjku fuEu esa ls dkSulk ugha fn[kkbZ
inspiration?
nsrk gS?
(1) Decrease in intra-pulmonary pressure
(1) vkarj Qq¶Qqlh nkc esa deh
(2) Increase in the volume of the thoracic
chamber (2) o{k-xqgk ds vk;ru esa o`f)
(3) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles (3) ckg~; varjki'kqZd isf'k;ksa dk ladqpu ilfy;ksa
lifting ribs and sternum vkSj mjksfLFk dks Åij mBk nsrk gS
(4) Relaxation of the diaphragm (4) Mk;kÝke dk f'kfFkyu
164. Select a correct match w.r.t. organisms and their 164. tho vkSj mudh 'olu lajpukvksa ds lanHkZ esa lgh
respiratory structures. feyku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Earthworm – Moist cuticle (1) dsapqvkW – ue D;wfVdy
(2) Cockroach – Gills (2) dkWdjksap – Dykse
(3) Sparrow – Buccal cavity (3) xkSjs;k¡ – eq[kxqgk
(4) Lizards – Moist skin (4) fNidyh – ueRopk
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165. Select a correct statement. 165. lgh dFku dk p;u dhft,A

(1) Cardiac notch is present in lower half of right (1) dkfMZ,d [kk¡p nk;sa Qq¶Qql ds fupys v)ZHkkx esa
lung mifLFkr gksrh gS
(2) Alveoli are the main sites where actual (2) ok;qdwfidk,a eq[; LFky gS tgk¡ jDr vkSj
diffusion of O2 and CO2 takes place between ok;qeaMyh; ok;q ds eè; O2 vkSj CO2 dk
blood and atmospheric air okLrfod folj.k gksrk gS
(3) Trachea divides at the level of 6th thoracic (3) 'oluyh NBsa o{kh; d'ks:d ds Lrj ij
vertebra foHkkftr gksrh gS
(4) The rate of breathing in a normal healthy man (4) fojkekoLFkk ij ,d lkekU; LoLFk O;fDr esa
at rest is 22-26 times/min
'olu dh nj 22-26 ckj/feuV gksrh gS
166. A device used to measure volume of lungs is
166. og ;qfDr tks Qq¶Qqlksa dk vk;ru ekius esa ç;qDr
(1) Electrocardiograph gksrh gS
(2) Spirometer (1) bysDVªksdkfMZ;ksxzkQ
(3) Electroencephalograph (2) LikbjksehVj
(4) Sphygmomanometer (3) bysDVªksbuflQsyksxzkQ
167. Choose the odd one w.r.t. occupational (4) fLQXekseSuksehVj
respiratory disorders. 167. O;kolkf;d 'olu fodkjksa ds lanHkZ esa fo"ke in dk
(1) Silicosis (2) Asbestosis p;u dhft,A
(3) Pneumoconiosis (4) Pneumonia (1) flfydksfll (2) ,sLcsLVksfll
168. O2-dissociation curve is best described as (3) U;qeksdksfuvksfll (4) U;qeksfu;k
(1) A graphic representation of relationship 168. O2-fo;kstu oØ dks mfpr :i ls fdl :i esa of.kZr
between pO2 and percentage saturation of Hb fd;k tk ldrk gS
with O2 (1) pO2 vkSj Hb ds lkFk O2 dh çfr'kr lkUærk ds
(2) A graphic representation between amount of eè; laca/k dk vkjs[kh; fu:i.k gS
CO2 delivered to the alveoli by every (2) çR;sd 100 ml fovkWDlhtfur jDr }kjk dwfidk
100 ml of deoxygenated blood esa eqDr CO2 dh ek=k ds eè; vkjs[kh; fu:i.k
(3) S-shaped curve depicting the relationship gS
between amount of carbonic anhydrase (3) RBCs esa mifLFkr dkcksZfud ,ugkbMªst dh ek=k
present in RBCs and formation of
oxyhaemoglobin
vkSj vkWDlhgheksXyksfcu ds fuekZ.k ds eè; laca/k
n'kkZus okyk S-vkdkj dk oØ gS
(4) Graphic relationship between breakdown of
glucose into H2O, CO2 and energy with (4) Xywdkst dk H2O, CO2 ,oa ÅtkZ esa fo[kaMu ,oa
diffusion of CO2 from tissues to blood Årdksa ls jDr esa CO2 ds folj.k ds eè;
169. Which of the following set of features characterise
vkjs[kh; fu:i.k gS
diffusion membrane in humans? 169. y{k.kksa dk dkSulk leqPp; ekuo esa folj.k f>Yyh
(1) 2 layered, alveoli lined by squamous ds vfHky{kf.kd djrk gS?
epithelium, basement substance is absent (1) 2 ijrh;] dwfidk,a 'kYdh midyk ls vkLrfjr
(2) 2 layered, alveolar wall is one-cell thick, gksrh gS] vk/kkj inkFkZ vuqifLFkr gksrk gS
basement substance is present (2) 2 ijrh;] dwfidh; fHkfÙk ,d dksf'kdk eksVh gksrh
(3) 3 layered, alveoli lined by squamous gS] vk/kkj inkFkZ mifLFkr gksrk gS
epithelium, capillaries surround it (3) 3 ijrh;] dwfidk,a 'kYdh midyk ls vkLrfjr
(4) 3 layered, alveoli lined by pavement gksrh gS blds pkjksa vksj dsf'kdk,a gksrh gS
epithelium, total thickness is more than (4) 3 ijrh;] dwfidk,a dqV~fVe midyk ls vkLrfjr
1 mm
gksrh gS] dqy eksVkbZ 1 mm ls vf/kd gksrh gS
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170. A person living on plains ascends to stay at an 170. eSnku ij jgus okyk ,d O;fDr leqæ ry ls 8000
altitude above 8000 ft. from sea level would QhV ls vf/kd Å¡pkbZ ij jgus ds fy, p<rk gS rks
develop certain symptoms in 8-24 hours. This is
8-24 ?kaVksa es bl O;fDr es dqN y{k.k fodflr gksus
called mountain sickness and is due to
yxrs gSaA bls ioZr-jksx dgrs gS tks gksrk gS
(1) Low pO2
(1) fuEu pO2 ds dkj.k
(2) Low pCO2
(2) fuEu pCO2 ds dkj.k
(3) Collapse of alveoli
(3) dwfidkvksa ds fldqMus ds dkj.k
(4) Pneumothorax (4) okro{k ds dkj.k
171. Receptors associated with aortic arch and carotid 171. egk/keuh pki vkSj xzhok dk; ls lacaf/kr xzkfg;ka
body are sensitive to
fdlds çfr laosnu'khy gksrh gS
+ +
(1) O2 and H (2) CO2 and H + +
(1) O2 vkSj H (2) CO2 vkSj H
(3) CO2 and O2 (4) O2 only (3) CO2 vkSj O2 (4) dsoy O2
172. The main centre of brain that regulates the 172. efLr"d dk eq[; dsUæ tks 'olu nj dks fu;fer
respiration rate is located in djrk gS] fLFkr gksrk gS
(1) Midbrain (1) eè; efLr"d esa
(2) Hypothalamus (2) gkbiksFkSysel esa
(3) Medulla oblongata (3) esMqyk vksCyksxsaVk esa
(4) Forebrain (4) vxzefLr"d esa
173. Read statements A and B and choose the correct 173. dFkuksa A vkSj B dks if<+, vkSj lgh fodYi dk p;u
option.
dhft,A
A. Pharynx is called the sound box.
A. xzluh dks èofu isfVdk dgk tkrk gSA
B. Diaphragm is a dome shaped muscular B. Mk;kÝke ,d xqacnkdkj is'kh; lajpuk gS tks
structure which separates thoracic cavity from
abdominal cavity.
o{kxqgk dks mnj xqgk ls i`Fkd djrk gS
(1) dsoy A lgh gS
(1) Only A is correct
(2) A o B nksuksa lgh gS
(2) Both A and B are correct
(3) dsoy B lgh gS
(3) Only B is correct
(4) A o B nksuksa xyr gS
(4) Both A and B are incorrect
174. CO2 ds ifjogu ds lanHkZ esa dkWye I rFkk dkWye II dk
174. Match column I and column II w.r.t. transport of
CO2. feyku dhft,A
Column I Column II
dkWye I dkWye II
a. IykTek ds ekè;e ls ?kqfyr (i) 70%
a. Dissolved form through (i) 70% :i esa
plasma
b. ckbZdkcksZusV vk;uksa ds :i (ii) 7%
b. As bicarbonate ions (ii) 7% esa
c. As carbaminohaemoglobin (iii) 20-25% c. dkckZehuksgheksXyksfcu ds :i (iii) 20-25%
esa
Choose the correct option.
lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
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175. Complete the analogy by choosing the correct 175. lgh fodYi dk p;u dj lkn`'; dks iw.kZ dhft,A
option.
Årdksa esa O2 vkiwfrZ dh vuqifLFkfr : vukWfDlvk : :
Absence of O2 supply to tissues : Anoxia : : Less
Årdksa esa O2 vkiwfrZ dh deh : ____
O2 supply to tissues : ____
(1) fMLuh;k
(1) Dyspnea
(2) ,sfLQfDlvk ('oklkojks/k)
(2) Asphyxia
(3) gkbiksfDl;k (vovkWDlherk)
(3) Hypoxia
(4) Eupnea
(4) ;wfIu;k
176. Thoracic cavity is bounded dorsally by A ,

176. o{k xqgk i`"Bh; :i ls A ls, v/kjh; :i ls
B ls vkSj ik'oZr% C ls ifjc) gksrh gSA ;gk¡
ventrally by the B and laterally by the C .
Here A, B and C are A, B o C gSa
A B C
A B C
(1) d'ks:d mjksfLFk ilfy;k¡
(1) Vertebral Sternum Ribs
column
naM
(2) mjksfLFk ilfy;k¡ d'ks:d naM

(2) Sternum Ribs Vertebral
column
(3) ilfy;ka mjksfLFk d'ks:d naM
(3) Ribs Sternum Vertebral
(4) d'ks:d ilfy;k¡ mjksfLFk
column
naM
(4) Vertebral Ribs Sternum
column 177. O2-fo;kstu oØ dks ck;ha vksj foLFkkfir djus okyk
dkjd gS
177. The factor causing left shift of O2-dissociation (1) mPp pO2
curve is
(2) mPp pCO2
(1) High pO2
(3) mPprj rkieku
(2) High pCO2
(4) H+ vk;uksa dh mPp lkaærk
(3) Higher temperature
178. lgh dFku dk p;u dhft,A
(4) High concentration of H+ ions
(1) ok;qeaMyh; ok;q esa dwfidkvksa dh rqyuk esa pO2
178. Select the correct statement. vf/kd gksrh gS
(1) pO2 in atmospheric air is higher than in alveoli (2) ,d ,dy ijrh; Qq¶Qqlkoj.kh f>Yyh Qq¶Qql
(2) A single layered pleural membrane increases lrg ij ?k"kZ.k dks c<krh gS
friction on lung surface (3) O2, CO2 dh vis{kk jDr esa vf/kd ?kqyu'khy
(3) O2 is more soluble in blood than CO2 gksrh gS
(4) CO2 has to be utilised for catabolic reactions (4) ÅtkZ mRiknu gsrq vip;h vfHkfØ;kvksa ds fy,
for energy production CO2 mi;ksx dh tkrh gS
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179. Following are the respiratory volumes of a man, 179. fuEufyf[kr ,d euq"; ds 'olu vk;ru gSA bldh
his inspiratory capacity and expiratory capacity (in var% 'olu {kerk ,oa fu%'olu {kerk Øe'k% gksxh
ml) respectively would be
TV 500 ml
TV 500 ml
IRV 2500 ml
IRV 2500 ml
ERV 1000 ml
ERV 1000 ml
RV 1100 ml
RV 1100 ml
(1) 1600 ml, 3600 ml
(1) 1600 ml, 3600 ml
(2) 3000 ml, 2100 ml
(2) 3000 ml, 2100 ml
(3) 3000 ml, 1500 ml
(3) 3000 ml, 1500 ml
(4) 2500 ml, 2100 ml
(4) 2500 ml, 2100 ml
180. fu%'olu ds nkSjku okq; dk iFk gksrk gS
180. Route of air during expiration is
(1) ok;q dwfidk → 'okluyh → 'oluh →
(1) Alveoli → Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchioles
'olfudk,a → uklk xqgka,
→ Nasal cavities
(2) Alveoli → Bronchioles → Pharynx → Larynx
(2) ok;q dwfidk → 'olfudk,a → xzluh → daB →
→ Nasal cavities uklk xqgk,a
(3) Alveoli → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Trachea (3) ok;q dwfidk → 'oluh → 'olfudk,a → 'okluyh
→ Nasal cavities → uklk xqgk,a
(4) Alveoli → Bronchioles → Bronchi → Trachea (4) ok;q dwfidk → 'olfudk,a → 'oluh →
→ Nasal cavities 'okluyh → uklk xqgk,¡
  
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27/03/2020 CODE-A
Test - 3
Answer Key
1. (1) 37. (2) 73. (4) 109. (3) 145. (3)
2. (4) 38. (4) 74. (3) 110. (4) 146 (4)
3. (3) 39. (1) 75. (1) 111. (3) 147. (3)
4. (3) 40. (2) 76. (4) 112. (2) 148. (1)
5. (2) 41. (3) 77. (3) 113. (2) 149. (2)
6. (1) 42. (4) 78. (2) 114. (3) 150. (1)
7. (3) 43. (1) 79. (3) 115. (3) 151. (4)
8. (1) 44. (4) 80. (2) 116. (2) 152. (1)
9. (4) 45. (3) 81. (2) 117. (1) 153. (4)
10. (1) 46. (4) 82. (1) 118. (3) 154. (2)
11. (3) 47. (3) 83. (1) 119. (3) 155. (1)
12. (1) 48. (2) 84. (4) 120. (2) 156. (4)
13. (1) 49. (3) 85. (1) 121. (2) 157. (2)
14. (4) 50. (4) 86. (3) 122. (4) 158. (4)
15. (3) 51. (1) 87. (1) 123. (1) 159. (1)
16. (3) 52. (3) 88. (2) 124. (3) 160. (4)
17. (4) 53. (1) 89. (3) 125. (1) 161. (2)
18. (1) 54. (2) 90. (1) 126. (1) 162. (2)
19. (4) 55. (4) 91. (3) 127. (1) 163. (4)
20. (3) 56. (2) 92. (1) 128. (3) 164. (1)
21. (1) 57. (1) 93. (2) 129. (2) 165. (2)
22. (2) 58. (3) 94. (1) 130. (3) 166. (2)
23. (1) 59. (3) 95. (2) 131. (3) 167. (4)
24. (1) 60. (2) 96. (1) 132. (4) 168. (1)
25. (3) 61. (3) 97. (1) 133. (2) 169. (3)
26. (4) 62. (4) 98. (3) 134. (3) 170. (1)
27. (1) 63. (2) 99. (3) 135. (3) 171. (2)
28. (3) 64. (2) 100. (4) 136. (3) 172. (3)
29. (3) 65. (1) 101. (2) 137. (3) 173. (3)
30. (2) 66. (4) 102. (1) 138. (2) 174. (4)
31. (4) 67. (3) 103. (1) 139. (3) 175. (3)
32. (1) 68. (1) 104. (2) 140. (3) 176. (1)
33. (3) 69. (4) 105. (3) 141. (1) 177. (1)
34. (2) 70. (2) 106. (4) 142. (4) 178. (1)
35. (4) 71. (2) 107. (3) 143. (1) 179. (3)
36. (2) 72. (2) 108. (3) 144. (1) 180. (4)
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(1)
27/03/2020 CODE-A
Test - 3
Hints and Solutions
PHYSICS

Work required = loss of energy vko';d dk;Z = ÅtkZ dh gkfu
1 1 1 1
= mv 2 + I ω2 = mv 2 + I ω2
2 2 2 2
1 1 2 v2 1 1 2 v2
=
W mv 2 + × MR 2 ⋅ 2 =
W mv 2 + × MR 2 ⋅ 2
2 2 3 R 2 2 3 R
5 5
= mv 2 = mv 2
6 6
5 5
= × 10 × 0.6 × 0.6 = 3 J = × 10 × 0.6 × 0.6 = 3 J
6 6
2. Answer (4)
2. mÙkj (4)
L = I ω = constant
L = Iω = fu;rkad
1
ω∝ 1
I ω∝
I
Moment of inertia goes on decreasing, hence
angular speed and rotational kinetic energy will tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ ?kVrk gS] vr% dks.kh; pky rFkk ?kw.kZu
increase. xfrt ÅtkZ c<+sxhA
= Imain − Icut
Iremain I= I e[q; − I dV
'k"sk
2 2 2
mR  mR m9R 
=−  +  mR 2  mR 2 m9R 2 
2 16 × 2 × 16 16 × 16  =−  + 
2 16 × 2 × 16 16 × 16 
mR 2  mR 2 9mR 2 
= − +  mR 2  mR 2 9mR 2 
2  512 256  = − + 
2  512 256 
256mR 2 19mR 2 237 mR 2
= − = 256mR 2 19mR 2 237 mR 2
512 512 512 = − =
512 512 512
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(2)

As external torque is zero; so angular momentum pwafd ckg~; cyk?kw.kZ 'kwU; gS] blfy, dks.kh; laosx
remain constant.
fu;r jgsxkA
5. Answer (2)
5. mÙkj (2)
2 2  36
=
I AB MR 2 +  MR 2 + 3MR 2 =×2 MR 2 2 2  36
5  5  5 =
I AB MR 2 +  MR 2 + 3MR 2 =×2 MR 2
5  5  5
6. Answer (1)
6. mÙkj (1)
Mass of stone m = 0.5 kg
iRFkj dk æO;eku m = 0.5 kg
Mass of man M = 50 kg
O;fDr dk æO;eku M = 50 kg
Apply conservation of linear momentum in vertical
direction mèokZ/kj fn'kk esa js[kh; laosx laj{k.k dks ç;qDr djsaA
 
0= 0.5 × 5 + 50v 0= 0.5 × 5 + 50v
 1  1
v= − m/s v= − m/s
20 20
20 20
Time taken to reach ground
= = 4s /kjkry rd igq¡pus esa fy;k x;k le;= = 4s
5 5
1 1
h = 20 + × 4 = 20.2 m h = 20 + × 4 = 20.2 m
20 20
Moment of inertia also depend on the mass tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ Hkh v{k ls æO;eku forj.k ij fuHkZj
distribution from the axis. djrk gSA
1 1 1 1
mv 2 + I ω2 =mgh mv 2 + I ω2 =mgh
2 2 2 2
7 7
mv 2 =mgh =2 × 10 × 7 mv 2 =mgh =2 × 10 × 7
10 10
mv 2 = 200 mv 2 = 200
1 1
=
KR = mv 2 40 J =
KR = mv 2 40 J
5 5
1 1 1 1 1 1
mv 2 + I ω2 = KX 2 mv 2 + I ω2 = KX 2
2 2 2 2 2 2
1 1 1 v2 1 1 1 1 v2 1
mv 2 + × mR 2 × 2 =KX 2 mv 2 + × mR 2 × 2 =KX 2
2 2 2 R 2 2 2 2 R 2
3 1 3 1
mv 2 = KX 2 mv 2 = KX 2
4 2 4 2
3m 3×2 5 3m 3×2 5
=
X v = 5 = = 0.5 m =
X v = 5 = = 0.5 m
2K 2 × 300 10 2K 2 × 300 10
(3)
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10. Answer (1) 10. mÙkj (1)

 
 dL  dL
τ= τ=
dt dt
   
dL = τdt dL = τdt
   
L2 − L1 = 10 × 3 L2 − L1 = 10 × 3
L2 = 30 + 5 = 35 kg m2/s L2 = 30 + 5 = 35 kg m2/s
11. Answer (3) 11. mÙkj (3)
I= I1 + I2 I= I1 + I2
1 3 1 3
=MR 2 + MR 2 = MR 2 =MR 2 + MR 2 = MR 2
2 2 2 2
12. Answer (1) 12. mÙkj (1)
     
L =×
r P= −300(kˆ ) kg m2s−1 L =×
r P=−300(kˆ ) kg m2s−1
13. Answer (1) 13. mÙkj (1)

Net gravitational force = centripetal force. usV xq:Roh; cy = vfHkdsUæh; cy
GMM 2GMM Mv 2 GMM 2GMM Mv 2
+ cos 45 ° = + cos 45 ° =
4r 2 (r 2)2 r 4r 2 (r 2)2 r
GMM  1 1  Mv 2 GMM 1 1  Mv 2
+ = 4 + =
r 2  4 2 r r2  2 r
1 GM 1 GM
=v (1 + 2 2) =v (1 + 2 2)
2 r 2 r
14. Answer (4) 14. mÙkj (4)

Apply energy conservation law ÅtkZ laj{k.k fu;e ç;qDr djsaA
GMm Gmm 1 GMm Gmm 1
= + 0 =− + mv 2 = + 0 =− + mv 2
2R R 2 2 2R R 2 2
1 GMm  1 1 1 GMm  1 1
= mv 2 − = mv 2 −
2 R  2 2  2 R  2 2 
GM GM
=v ( 2 − 1) =v ( 2 − 1)
R R
15. Answer (3) 15. mÙkj (3)

Apply energy conservation law ÅtkZ laj{k.k fu;e ç;qDr djsaA
GM1m  GM2m  1 GM1m  GM2m  1 2
− + − 2
 + mv =0
− + −  + mv =0
d /2  d /2  2 d /2  d /2  2
G(M1 + M2 ) G(M1 + M2 )
v =2 v =2
d d
16. Answer (3) 16. mÙkj (3)

Kepler’s second law is based on conservation of dsIyj dk f}rh; fu;e dks.kh; laosx laj{k.k ij
angular momentum. vk/kkfjr gSA
(4)
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17. Answer (4) 17. mÙkj (4)

GMm GMm
K= K=
2r 2r
18. Answer (1) 18. mÙkj (1)
−11
3GMM 3 × 6.67 × 10 × 0.1× 0.1 3GMM 3 × 6.67 × 10−11 × 0.1× 0.1
W =
− =
− W =
− =
−
r 0.2 r 0.2
−1.0 × 10−11 J
= −1.0 × 10−11 J
=
19. Answer (4) 19. mÙkj (4)
2
Mv GMM Mv 2 GMM
= =
R 4R 2 R 4R 2
GM GM
v= v=
4R 4R
20. Answer (3) 20. mÙkj (3)
Weight = w = mg Hkkj = w = mg
GM
g= GM
R2 g=
R2
4 4
M= πR 3d M= πR 3d
3 3
3M 3M
R3 = R3 =
4πd 4πd
1 1
R∝ , g ∝ d 2/3 R∝ , g ∝ d 2/3
d 1/3 d 1/3
2/3
Weight on earth w = kmd i`Foh ij Hkkj w = kmd2/3
2/3
Weight on planet wP = km(2d) xzg ij Hkkj wP = km(2d)2/3
wP = w(2)2/3 wP = w(2)2/3
21. Answer (1) 21. mÙkj (1)
Apply law of conservation of energy ÅtkZ laj{k.k fu;e ç;qDr djsaA
GMm GMm 1 GMm GMm 1
− +0 =
− + mv 2 − +0 =
− + mv 2
2R R 2 2R R 2
GM GM
=v = gR =v = gR
R R
22. Answer (2) 22. mÙkj (2)
G 2Mm G(3M )m G 2Mm G(3M )m
=
Fm, net − =
Fm, usV −
( AB )2 9 ( AB )2 9
( AB )2 ( AB )2
4 4
2GMm 4 GMm 2GMm 4 GMm
= − = −
( AB )2 3 ( AB )2 ( AB )2 3 ( AB )2
2GMm 2GMm
= , towards point A. = , fcUnq A dh vksj
3( AB )2 3( AB )2
(5)
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23. Answer (1) 23. mÙkj (1)

K mv 2 K mv 2
= =
r3 r r3 r
1 1
v∝ v∝
r r
24. Answer (1) 24. mÙkj (1)
GM
V= − GM
r V= −
r
25. Answer (3)
25. mÙkj (3)
1 2
θ = ω0t + αt 1 2
2 θ = ω0t + αt
2
1
θ= × 2 × 100= 100 rad 1
2 θ= × 2 × 100= 100 rad
2
θ 100
=
n = = 15.93  16 θ 100
2π 6.28 =
n = = 15.93  16
2π 6.28
26. Answer (4)
26. mÙkj (4)
8g × 1.5 =
12gd
8g × 1.5 =
12gd
d = 1.0 m
d = 1.0 m
27. Answer (1)
27. mÙkj (1)
1 1
=
mgh mv 2 + I ω2
2 2 1 1
=
mgh mv 2 + I ω2
2 2
1 1 v2
mgh = mv 2 + mR 2 × 2
2 4 R 1 1 v2
mgh = mv 2 + mR 2 × 2
2 4 R
3
mgl sin θ = mv 2
4 3
mgl sin θ = mv 2
4
4
=v gl sin θ
3 4
=v gl sin θ
3
28. Answer (3)
 28. mÙkj (3)
 v = constant

 v= fu;r
mg sin θ = µ N
mg sin θ = µ N
l l 
Torque of friction = µN=
⋅ mg sin θ  
2 2 l l 
?k"kZ.k dk cyk?kw.kZ = µN=
⋅ mg sin θ  
2 2
Because cube does not topple, so net torque is
zero. D;ksafd ?ku iyVrk ugha gS] vr% usV cyk?kw.kZ 'kwU; gS
1
So torque of normal reaction = mgl sin θ 1
2 blfy, vfHkyEc çfrfØ;k dk cyk?kw.kZ = mgl sin θ
2
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(6)
29. Answer (3) 29. mÙkj (3)

∫=xdm ∫ x (2 + 3 x )dx 2
∫=xdm ∫ x (2 + 3 x )dx 2
=
xcm =
xcm
∫ dm ∫ (2 + 3 x )dx
2
∫ dm ∫ (2 + 3 x )dx
2
l l l l
2∫ xdx + 3 ∫ x 3dx 2∫ xdx + 3 ∫ x 3dx
0 0
= l l 2 = 0
l l
0
2∫ dx + 3 ∫ x dx 2∫ dx + 3 ∫ x 2dx
0 0 0 0
3 4 3 4
l2 + l l2 + l
4 l (4 + 3l 2 ) 4 l (4 + 3l 2 )
= 3
= = 3
=
2l + l 4(2 + l 2 ) 2l + l 4(2 + l 2 )
30. Answer (2) 30. mÙkj (2)
Centre of mass lies towards heavier object. æO;eku dsUæ Hkkjh oLrq dh vksj mifLFkr gS
31. Answer (4) 31. mÙkj (4)
In gravity free space Fext is zero. xq:Ro eqDr f=foe esa Fext 'wkU; gSA
32. Answer (1) 32. mÙkj (1)
v0 ∝ R d
v0 ∝ R d
v0 R d 1 v0
= = R d 1
vP d 2 = =
2R vP d 2
2 2R
2
vP = v0 2 vP = v0 2
33. Answer (3) 33. mÙkj (3)
Inside a spherical shell gravitational field is zero xksyh; dks'k ds vUnj çR;sd LFkku ij xq:Roh; {ks=
everywhere.
'kwU; gSA
34. Answer (2)
34. mÙkj (2)
 d 
g ′ g 1 −
=   d 
 Re  g ′ g 1 −
= 
 Re 
g
g′ =
− d +g g
Re g′ =
− d +g
Re
=
y mx + c
=
y mx + c
35. Answer (4)
35. mÙkj (4)
36. Answer (2)
36. mÙkj (2)
2
mghR 1  2gR  2
= m  mghR 1  2gR 
R + h 2  2  = m 
R + h 2  2 
mghR 1 m2gR
= mghR 1 m2gR
R+h 2 4 =
R+h 2 4
4h= R + h 4h= R + h
R R
h= h=
3 3
(7)
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37. Answer (2) 37. mÙkj (2)

l = πR l = πR
l l
R= R=
π π
Gdm G GM Gdm G GM
−∫
V = − ∫ dm =
= − −∫
V = − ∫ dm =
= −
R R R R R R
πGM πGM
V = − V = −
l l
38. Answer (4) 38. mÙkj (4)
2u 2u
T = T =
g g
2 × 20 2 × 20
⇒ 20 = ⇒ 20 =
g g
g = 2 m/s2 g = 2 m/s2
Now weight = mg = 0.2 × 2 = 1 N vc Hkkj = mg = 0.2 × 2 = 1 N

39. Answer (1) 39. mÙkj (1)
 
∴ F ext = 0 ∴ F ext = 0
 
∆X cm = 0 ∆X cm = 0
40. Answer (2) 40. mÙkj (2)

   
If=τ 0,=L constant =
If
τ 0,
= L fu;r
41. Answer (3) 41. mÙkj (3)
g sin θ 2 g sin θ 2
=
Acceleration in rolling aR = g sin θ yksVuh esa Roj.k=
aR = g sin θ
K2 3 K2 3
1+ 2 1+ 2
R R
Acceleration when slipping=
as g sin θ fQlyus ds nkSjku Roj.k =
as g sin θ
aR 2 aR 2
= =
aS 3 aS 3
42. Answer (4) 42. mÙkj (4)
For motion of mass 4g – T = 4a æO;eku dh xfr ds fy, 4g – T = 4a
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(8)
For motion of cylinder csyu dh xfr ds fy,

TR = Iα TR = Iα
MK 2a 3 MK 2a 3
=T = a =T = a
R2 2 R2 2
3 3
4=
g 4a + a 4=
g 4a + a
2 2
8g 8g
a= a=
11 11
43. Answer (1) 43. mÙkj (1)
1 2 1 2
I ω= constant and K= Iω I ω= fu;r rFkk K= Iω
2 2
44. Answer (4) 44. mÙkj (4)
45. Answer (3) 45. mÙkj (3)
GM 4 GM 4
g= = πGRd g= = πGRd
R2 3 R2 3
ge ge
gP = gP =
2 2
4 4 πGRd 4 4 πGRd
πGRP 2d = πGRP 2d =
3 3 2 3 3 2
R R
RP = RP =
4 4
CHEMISTRY
46. Answer (4) 46. mÙkj (4)

Internal energy, enthalpy and entropy are state vkarfjd ÅtkZ] ,UFkSYih rFkk ,UVªkWih voLFkk Qyu
functions. gSaA
47. Answer (3) 47. mÙkj (3)
∆H 25000 Jmol−1 ∆H 25000 Jmol−1
T
= = T
= =
∆S 75 JK −1 mol−1 ∆S 75 JK −1 mol−1
= 333.3 K
= 333.3 K
mijksDr 333.3 K ij vfHkfØ;k Lor% izofrZr gksxh]
Above 333.3 K, the reaction will be spontaneous.
48. mÙkj (2)
48. Answer (2)
;fn vfHkfØ;k mRØe.kh; gS] rks lkE; fu;rkad dk
If the reaction is reversed, the value of equilibrium
constant is reciprocated. Also, if the reaction is
eku O;qRØfer gks tkrk gSA bl çdkj] ;fn vfHkfØ;k
multiplied by a factor (n) then the value of dks dkjd (n) }kjk xq.kk fd;k tkrk gS] rks lkE;
equilibrium constant becomes K ′C = (K C )n fu;rkad dk eku K ′C = (K C )n gks tkrk gS
(9)
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49. Answer (3) 49. mÙkj (3)

∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT
∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT
 ∆ng =
0  ∆ng =
0
∴ ∆H =∆U ∴ ∆H =∆U
50. Answer (4) 50. mÙkj (4)
∆H (kJ/mol) ∆H (kJ/mol)
[A → B –x]×2 [A → B –x]×2
[2B → C + D– y ] × 3 [2B → C + D– y ] × 3
[3 C → E+B +z]×1
[3 C → E+B +z]×1
2A + 3B → 3D + E – 2x – 3y + z
2A + 3B → 3D + E – 2x – 3y + z
51. mÙkj (1)
51. Answer (1)
w = – Pext ∆V
w = – Pext ∆V
 Pext = 0 (fuokZr)
 Pext = 0 (vacuum)
∴ w = 'kwU;
∴ w = zero
52. mÙkj (3)
52. Answer (3)
mnklhuhdj.k ,UFkSYih mPp gksus ij vEy izcy
Higher is the enthalpy of neutralisation stronger
gksxkA
will be the acid.
53. Answer (1)
53. mÙkj (1)
54. Answer (2)
54. mÙkj (2)
The properties which depends upon the quantity
og xq.k tks fudk; esa mifLFkr nzO; dh ek=k o
or size of matter present in the system is called as vkdkj ij fuHkZj djrk gS foLrh.kZ xq.k dgykrk gSA
extensive property. 55. mÙkj (4)
55. Answer (4) 56. mÙkj (2)
56. Answer (2) bysDVªkWu U;wu Lih'kht yqbZl vEy ds tSls dk;Z
Electron deficient species can act as Lewis acids. djrh gSA
57. Answer (1) 57. mÙkj (1)
58. Answer (3) 58. mÙkj (3)
HSO +H
−
4
+
→ H2SO4 HSO−4 + H+ → H2 SO4
Bronsted Base Conjugate acid czUlVsn {kkj la;Xqeh vEy
59. Answer (3) 59. mÙkj (3)
HCl is a strong acid and NaCl is a salt of strong HCl ,d izcy vEy gS rFkk NaCl izcy vEy rFkk
acid and strong base. Therefore, mixture of NaCl çcy {kkj dk ,d yo.k gSA vr%] NaCl rFkk HCl dk
and HCl is not a buffer.
feJ.k ,d cQj ugha gSA
60. Answer (2)
60. mÙkj (2)
For conjugate acid-base pair
la;qXeh vEy-{kkj ;qXe ds fy,
Ka × Kb = Kw
Ka × Kb = Kw
K Kw
Kb = w Kb =
Ka Ka
10 −14 10 −14
= =
1× 10 −4 1× 10 −4
= 1 × 10–10 = 1 × 10–10
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61. Answer (3) 61. mÙkj (3)

On increasing the concentration of PCl5(g), the PCl5(g) dh lkanzrk esa o`f) djus ij vfHkfØ;k vxz
reaction will procced in the forward direction.
fn'kk esa vxzlj gksxhA
62. Answer (4)
62. mÙkj (4)
CH3COONa is a salt of weak acid and strong
base. CH3COONa nqcZy vEy rFkk izcy {kkj dk yo.k
gSA
63. Answer (2)
63. mÙkj (2)
64. Answer (2)
Combustion of 16 g of methane gives x kJ heat
64. mÙkj (2)
16 g esFksu ngu ij x kJ Å"ek nsrk gS
x
Combustion of 40 g of methane give × 40 kJ
16 x
40 g esFksu ngu ij × 40 kJ Å"ek nsrk gS
heat. 16
= 2.5 x kJ. = 2.5 x kJ.
65. Answer (1) 65. mÙkj (1)
 For adiabatic process, Q = 0  :)ks"e izØe ds fy,, Q = 0
dQ dQ
Also, total heat capacity = =0 blh çdkj, dqy Å"ek /kkfjrk = =0
dT dT
66. Answer (4) 66. mÙkj (4)
67. Answer (3) 67. mÙkj (3)
q = Cm ∆T q = Cm ∆T
= 0.9 × 21 × (T2 – T1) = 0.9 × 21 × (T2 – T1)
= 0.9 × 21 × 100 = 0.9 × 21 × 100
= 1890 J = 1890 J
68. Answer (1)

68. mÙkj (1)
For one mole of monoatomic gas γ = 1.66 ,d eksy ,dyijek.kqd xSl ds fy, γ = 1.66
69. Answer (4) 69. mÙkj (4)
70. Answer (2) 70. mÙkj (2)
Standard enthalpy change for the formation of 1 eksy ;kSfxd dks mlds gh rRoksa tks viuh
1 mole of a compound from its elements in their vR;f/kd LFkk;h lewgu dh voLFkk esa gks] ds fuekZ.k
most stable states of aggregation is known as dh ekud ,aFkSYih ifjorZu dks ekud eksyj laHkou
standard molar enthalpy of formation. ,UFkSYih dgrs gSaA
71. Answer (2)
71. mÙkj (2)
CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
∆combH = ∑∆ H f (Pr oducts) − ∑∆ H
f (reac tan ts) ∆nguH = ∑∆ H mRikn − ∑∆ f H ( vfHkdkjd )
f ( )
= ∆ f HCO2 + 2x ∆ f HH2O − ∆ f HCH4 = ∆ f HCO2 + 2x ∆ f HH2O − ∆ f HCH4

= – y – 2z – (–x) = – y – 2z – (–x)
= x – y – 2z kJ/mol = x – y – 2z kJ/mol
(11)
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72. Answer (2) 72. mÙkj (2)

∆U = q + w ∆U = q + w
= + 50 J – 20 J = + 50 J – 20 J
= 30 J = 30 J
73. Answer (4) 73. mÙkj (4)
For isochoric process, ∆V = 0 levk;rfud izØe ds fy,, ∆V = 0
74. Answer (3) 74. mÙkj (3)
A2B3  2A3+ + 3B2–
A2B3  2A3+ + 3B2–
2s 3s
2s 3s
Ksp = [A3+]2 [B2–]3 Ksp = [A ] [B ]
3+ 2 2– 3
= (2s) (3s)
2 3
= (2s)2 (3s)3
= 4s2 27s3 = 4s2 27s3
= 108s5 = 108s5
75. Answer (1) 75. mÙkj (1)
76. Answer (4) 76. mÙkj (4)
On increasing temperature, dissociation rki esa o`f) gksus ij fo;kstu vf/kd gksrk gSA
increases.
77. mÙkj (3)
77. Answer (3)
KP = KC (RT)∆ng
KP = KC (RT)∆ng
2 × 104
2 × 104 KP = 2 × 104 (RT)–2 =
KP = 2 × 104 (RT)–2 = (RT)2
(RT)2
78. mÙkj (2)
78. Answer (2)
79. mÙkj (3)
79. Answer (3)
80. Answer (2)
80. mÙkj (2)
For the given salts fn, x, yo.kksa ds fy,
s = K sp s = K sp
s AgCl = 1.8 × 10−10 =3.24 × 10 −5 M s AgCl = 1.8 × 10−10 =3.24 × 10 −5 M
∴ AgCl will be most soluble among the given

∴ fn, x, yo.kksa esa ls AgCl vR;f/kd foys;'khy
salts. gksxkA
81. Answer (2) 81. mÙkj (2)
[Salt ] pH pK a + log
=
[ yo.k ]
pH pK a + log
=
[ Acid] [ vEy ]
= 4.74 + log 1 {  [Salt] = [Acid]} = 4.74 + log 1 {  [yo.k] = [vEy]}
= 4.74 = 4.74
82. Answer (1) 82. mÙkj (1)
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83. Answer (1) 83. mÙkj (1)

84. Answer (4) 84. mÙkj (4)
[NH3 ]
2
−3 2
(2 × 10 ) [NH3 ]
2
(2 × 10 −3 )2
=KC = =KC =
[N2 ][H2 ] (4 × 10 )(1× 10 )
3 −1 −2 3
[N2 ][H2 ] (4 × 10 )(1× 10 )
3 −1 −2 3
4 × 10 −6 4 × 10 −6
= = 10 = = 10
4 × 10 −1 × 1× 10 −6 4 × 10 −1 × 1× 10 −6
85. Answer (1) 85. mÙkj (1)
86. Answer (3) 86. mÙkj (3)
87. Answer (1) 87. mÙkj (1)
88. Answer (2) 88. mÙkj (2)
Latent Heat xqIr Å"ek
∆S = ∆S =
Temperature rki
3000 J / mol 3000 J / mol
= =
300K 300K
= 10 JK–1 mol–1 = 10 JK–1 mol–1
89. Answer (3) 89. mÙkj (3)
90. Answer (1) 90. mÙkj (1)
N2O4  2NO2 N2O4  2NO2
N2O4  2NO2 N2O4  2NO2

(i) 1 0 (i) 1 0
(eq)
= 1 − 0.4 0.6 0.4 × 2 0.8
= (eq)
= 1 − 0.4 0.6 0.4 × 2 0.8
=
vapour density of equilibrium mixture feJ.k dk lkE; ok"i ?kuRo

46 46 46 46
= = = 32.85 . = = = 32.85
0.6 + 0.8 1.4 0.6 + 0.8 1.4
BOTANY
91. Answer (3) 91. mÙkj (3)

Both eukaryotes and prokaryotes have ribosomes ;wdSfj;ksV~l o çksdSfj;ksV~l nksuksa esa jkbckslkse gksrk
92. Answer (1) gSA
In prokaryotes genetic material is naked. 92. mÙkj (1)
93. Answer (2)
çksdSfj;ksV~l esa vkuqoaf'kd inkFkZ vuko`r gksrk gS
93. mÙkj (2)
Plasmid is an extra-chromosomal DNA of
prokaryotes
IykfTeM çksdSfj;ksV~l dk ,d ckg~; xq.klw=h; DNA
gS
94. Answer (1)
94. mÙkj (1)
95. Answer (2) 95. mÙkj (2)
Lipids of plasma membrane contain polar heads ItkTek f>Yyh dh fyfiM~l esa ckg~; Hkkx dh vksj
towards the outer sides and non polar tails /kqzoh; 'kh"kZ o vkarfjd Hkkx dh vksj v/kqzoh; iqPN
towards inner sides. gksrk gS
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96. Answer (1)

96. mÙkj (1)
97. Answer (1)
97. mÙkj (1)
Glycosylation of proteins – Golgi body çksVhu dk – xkWYth dk;
Protease mediated – Lysosome Xykbdkstkbys'ku
protein break down çksVh,t eè;LFk çksVhu dk – ykblkslkse
Maintenance of osmotic – Vacuole
[kaMu
concentration of cell dksf'kdk dh ijklj.kh – jl/kkuh
98. Answer (3)
lkaærk dk j[kj[kko
Mitochondrial matrix contains 70S ribosomes. 98. mÙkj (3)
99. Answer (3) ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k dh vk/kk=h esa 70S jkbckslkse gksrk gSA
100. Answer (4) 99. mÙkj (3)
Nucleolus is site of r-RNA synthesis only. 100. mÙkj (4)
101. Answer (2) dsfUæd dsoy r-RNA la'ys"k.k dk LFky gSA

Both cilia and flagella help in locomotion. 101. mÙkj (2)
Prokaryotic flagella is extension of cell wall but i{ekHk o d'kkHk nksuksa pyu esa lgk;d gksrs gSaA
lack tubulin. çksdSfj;ksfVd d'kkHk dksf'kdk fHkfÙk dk foLrkj.k gS
102. Answer (1) ijUrq blesa V~;wC;wfyu çksVhu dk vHkko gksrk gSA
Spindle fibres are also formed in higher plants. 102. mÙkj (1)
103. Answer (1) rdqZ rarq mPp ikniksa esa Hkh curs gSaA
Nucleolus is the site of rRNA synthesis. It is larger 103. mÙkj (1)
and more numerous in cells actively involved in dsfUæd rRNA la'ys"k.k dk LFky gksrk gSA ;g çksVhu
protein synthesis.
la'ys"k.k esa lfØ;:i ls lfEefyr dksf'kdkvksa esa
104. Answer (2) o`g~r o la[;k esa vf/kd gksrk gSA
Sub-metacentric chromosomes appear L and J 104. mÙkj (2)
shaped.
mi-eè;dsUæh xq.klw= L o J vkdkjh gksrk gS
105. Answer (3)
105. mÙkj (3)
Capsule provide sticky character to bacterial cell.
dSIlqy thokf.od dksf'kdk dks fpifpik vfHky{k.k
106. Answer (4)
çnku djrk gSA
Lysosome is single membrane bound structure. 106. mÙkj (4)
107. Answer (3) ykblkslkse ,dy f>Yyh c) lajpuk gSA
Gas vacuoles are found in prokaryotes. 107. mÙkj (3)
108. Answer (3) xSl jl/kkuh çksdSfj;ksV~l esa ik, tkrs gSaA
Maturing or trans face gives rise the secretory 108. mÙkj (3)
vesicles.
ifjiDo o Vªkal lrg lgk;d iqfVdkvksa dks mRiUu
109. Answer (3)
djrh gS
Both mitochondria and chloroplast contain circular
109. mÙkj (3)
dsDNA, 70S ribosome and protein synthesis
machinery. ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k o gfjryod nksuksa esa o`Ùkh; dsDNA,
70S jkbckslkse o çksVhu la'ys"k.k e'khujh gksrk gSA
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110. Answer (4) 110. mÙkj (4)

111. Answer (3)
111. mÙkj (3)
Primary cell wall is capable of expansion.
çkFkfed dksf'kdk fHkfÙk foLrkj.k esa l{ke gksrh gSA
112. Answer (2)
112. mÙkj (2)
113. Answer (2)
113. mÙkj (2)
Lampbrush chromosomes are diplotene bivalents.
ySEicz'k xq.klw= fMIyksVhu ;qxyh gSA blesa çfr
They contain large number of chromonemata per
chromosome. xq.klw= ØkseksusekVk dh o`gr la[;k gksrh gSA
114. Answer (3) 114. mÙkj (3)
Germinating fatty seeds do not contain

vadqj.k'khy olk cht esa gfjroyd ugha gksrk gS
chloroplast. 115. mÙkj (3)
115. Answer (3) G0 dksf'kdk pØ dh 'kkar çkoLFkk gS
G0 is quiescent stage of cell cycle. 116. mÙkj (2)
116. Answer (2) 117. mÙkj (1)
117. Answer (1) iq=h dksf”kdk
Daughter cells
v/kZlw=h foHkktu I v/kZlw=h foHkktu II

Meiosis I Meiosis II → DNA dh ek=k 2C → DNA dh ek=k C
→ DNA content 2C → DNA content C → çR;sd xq.klw= esa → çR;sd dksf'kdk esa
→ Crossed over → Genetically
thofofue; djus vkuqoaf'kd :i ls
chromatids dissimilar okys ØkseSfVM~l~ vleku
in each chromatids each ØkseSfVM~l
chromosome cell → 1 xq.klw= → 1 xq.klw=
→ 1 chromosome → 1 chromosome = 2 ØksesfVM~l = 1 ØkseSfVM~l
= 2 chromatids = 1 chromatid 118. mÙkj (3)
118. Answer (3) 1 ;qxyh = 4 ØkseSfVM~l (nks flLVj) ;k
1 Bivalent = 4 chromatids (Two sister) or two nks letkr xq.klw=.
homologous chromosomes. 119. mÙkj (3)
119. Answer (3) 120. mÙkj (2)
120. Answer (2) 121. mÙkj (2)
121. Answer (2) tarq dksf'kdkvksa esa dksf'kdkæO; foHkktu [kk¡p fuekZ.k
In animal cells cytokinesis occurs by furrow }kjk gksrk gSA
formation. 122. mÙkj (4)
122. Answer (4) i'pkoLFkk II esa xq.klw=fcUnq foikfVr gksrk gS rFkk
In anaphase II centromere splits and chromatids ØkseSfVM~l i`Fkd gksrk gS
separate. 123. mÙkj (1)
123. Answer (1) varjkykoLFkk v/kZlw=h foHkktu I o v/kZlw=h foHkktu
Interkinesis is gap phase between meiosis I and II ds chp dh varjky çkoLFkk gksrh gS rFkk blesa
meiosis II and it lacks DNA replication. DNA i`frd`rh;u dk vHkko gksrk gS
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124. Answer (3) 124. mÙkj (3)

Active transport requires ATP. lfØ; ifjogu ds fy, ATP dh vko';drk gksrh gSA
125. Answer (1) 125. mÙkj (1)
Diffusion occur from high to low concentration. folj.k mPp ls fuEu lkaærk dh vksj gksrh gS
126. Answer (1) 126. mÙkj (1)
127. Answer (1) 127. mÙkj (1)
128. Answer (3) 128. mÙkj (3)
ψ s =0 for pure water. ψ s 'kq) ty ds fy, 0
129. mÙkj (2)
129. Answer (2)
130. mÙkj (3)
130. Answer (3)
,iksIykfLVd iFkØe esa dksf'kdkfHkfÙk o varjdksf'kdh;
Apoplastic pathway involves cells wall and
vodk'k lfEefyr gksrk gS
intercellular spaces.
131. mÙkj (3)
131. Answer (3)
132. mÙkj (4)
132. Answer (4) 133. mÙkj (2)
133. Answer (2) 134. mÙkj (3)
134. Answer (3) th.kZ i.kZ [kfut ds L=ksr dh rjg dk;Z dj ldrk
Senescent leaves may act as source of minerals. gS
135. Answer (3) 135. mÙkj (3)
ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (3) 136. mÙkj (3)

Parietal or oxyntic cells secrete HCl and intrinsic fHkfÙk ;k vkWfDlfUVd dksf'kdk,¡ HCl vkSj uSt dkjd
factor. (This factor is essential for absorption of L=for djrh gSaA ;g dkjd vk¡r esa foVkfeu B12 ds
vitamin B12 in intestine. Vitamin B12 vo'kks"k.k ds fy, vko';d gSA foVkfeu B12
(Cyanocobalamin, cobalamin is present in fish, lkbuksdksckykehu@dksckykehu eNyh] vaMs] nw/k] ek¡l
eggs, milk, meat, liver (animal source)). ;d`r (tarq L=ksr) esa mifLFkr gksrk gS)A
137. Answer (3) 137. mÙkj (3)
Heterodont – Different types of teeth are present fo"kenarh – nar foU;kl esa d`rd] jnud] vxzpo.kZd
in dentition, namely incisors, canine, premolars vkSj po.kZd uked fofHkUu çdkj ds nkar mifLFkr
and molars. gksrs gSaA
Thecodont – Each tooth is embedded in socket xrZnarh – çR;sd nkar tcMs dh vfLFk dh xfrZdk esa
of jaw bone. /k¡lk gksrk gS
Monophyodont – Teeth that appear only once ,dckjnarh – nk¡r tks tho ds thoudky ds nkSjku
during a lifetime of organism e.g., premolars and dsoy ,d ckj fn[kkbZ nsrs gS tSls ekuo esa
last molar teeth in humans. vxzpo.kZd vkSj vafre po.kZd nkarA
138. Answer (2) 138. mÙkj (2)
Enterokinase is secreted by the intestinal mucosa. ,UVsjksdkbust vka= E;wdkslk }kjk L=for gksrk gSA
The pancreatic juice contains enzymes – trypsinogen, vXuk'k;h jl esa fVªfIlukstu] dkbeksfVªfIlukstu
chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypeptidase, amylases, çksdkcksZDlhisIVhMst] ,ekbystst] ykbist vkSj
lipases and nucleases. Trypsinogen is activated U;qfDy,tst ,atkbe gksrs gSaA ,UVsjksdkbust }kjk
by enterokinase into active trypsin which in turn
fVªfIlukstu] lfØ; fVªfIlu esa cnyk tkrk gS tks
activates the other enzymes in the pancreatic
juice.
vXuk'k;h jl ds vU; ,atkbeksa dks Hkh lfØ; djrk
gSA
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139. Answer (3) 139. mÙkj (3)

During swallowing epiglottis prevents food from fuxj.k ds nkSjku daBPNn Hkkstu dks 'okluyh esa
entering wind pipe and uvula prevents it from ços'k djus ls jksdrk gS rFkk vfyftg~ok bls
entering into nasal cavity. uklkxqgk esa djus ls jksdrh gSA
140. Answer (3) 140. mÙkj (3)
In Jaundice, liver is affected and bile pigments like ihfy;k esa ;d`r çHkkfor gksrk gS rFkk jDr esa
bilirubin increase in blood causing yellowish fcfy:fcu tSls fiÙk o.kZdksa ds c<us ls Ropk vkSj
colouration of skin and eyes. Some substances vk¡[kksa dk jax ihyk gks tkrk gSA Xywdkst vkSj vehuksa
like glucose and amino acids are absorbed with vEy tSls dqN inkFkZ okgd çksVhuksa dh lgk;rk ls
the help of carrier proteins. This mechanism is vo'kksf"kr gks tkrs gSA ;g fØ;kfof/k lqxe ifjogu
called facilitated transport. Protein coated fat dgykrh gSA çksVhu vkofjr olk d.kksa dks
globules are called chylomicrons. Ptyalin/
dkbyksekbØksu dgrs gSA Vk;fyu@ α -ykj ,ekbyst
α -salivary amylase is a component of saliva.
ykj dk ,d ?kVd gS
141. Answer (1)
141. mÙkj (1)
Sucrase
Sucrose  → glucose + fructose lØ
q kst
lqØkst → Xywdkst + ÝDVkst
Lactase
Lactose 
→ glucose + galactose lØ
q kst
ySDVkst → Xywdkst + xSysDVkst
142. Answer (4)
142. mÙkj (4)
Argentaffin cells present in small intestine
probably release hormones. Paneth cells in NksVh vkar esa mifLFkr jtrjath dksf'kdk,¡ laHkor%
‘Crypts of Lieberkuhn’ secrete antibacterial gkWeksZu eqDr djrh gSA yhcjdqu-çxqfgdk esa iSusFk
lysozyme. dksf'kdk,¡ ,aVhcSDVhfj;y ykblkstkbe L=for djrh
143. Answer (1) gSA
143. mÙkj (1)
Salivary Gland Location
ykj xzafFk LFkku
Parotid Cheek area
iSjksfVM xky ds ikl dk Hkkx
Sub-maxillary/ Lower jaw
sub-mandibular v/kkstaHk/vofpcqdh; fupyk tcM+k
Sub-lingual Below the tongue v/kksftg~ok thHk ds uhps
144. Answer (1) 144. mÙkj (1)
The hard chewing surface / covering of the teeth is buSey ls cuh nkarksa dh pckus okyh dBksj lrg
made up of enamel which helps in mastication of Hkkstu dks pckus esa enn djrh gSA ;g buSey ekuo
food. This enamel is the hardest substance in the 'kjhj esa lcls dBksj inkFkZ gS tks buSey dksjd
human body, secreted by ameloblast cell
dksf'kdk (mRifÙk esa ,DVksMeZy) ls L=for gksrk gSA
(ectodermal in origin). Hard enamel is formed
principally of calcium phosphate.
dBksj buSey eq[; :i ls dSfY'k;e QkWLQsV dk cuk
gksrk gS
145. Answer (3)
145. mÙkj (3)
Glisson’s capsule is associated with mammalian
liver. fXylu laiqV Lru/kkjh ds ;d`r ls lacaf/kr gksrk gSA
146 Answer (4) 146 mÙkj (4)
The duct of gall bladder is called cystic duct. fiÙkk'k; dh ufydk fiÙkk'k;h ufydk dgykrh gSA
Duct of parotid gland is called Stenson’s duct. iSjksfVM xzafFk dh ufydk LVsalu ufydk dgykrh gSA
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147. Answer (3) 147. mÙkj (3)

The saliva secreted into the oral cavity contains eq[k xqgk esa L=for ykj esa oS+|qrvi?kV~; (Na+, K+
+ + –
electrolytes (Na , K Cl , HCO3− ), enzymes, – −
Cl , HCO3 ) ,atkbe] ykj ,ekbyst vkSj ykblkstkbe
salivary amylase and lysozyme. gksrs gSaA
148. Answer (1) 148. mÙkj (1)
Mucosa forms glands in the stomach (gastric E;wdkslk vkek'k; esa xzfFk;k¡ (tBj xzafFk;k¡) rFkk vkar
glands) and crypts in between the bases of villi in esa vadqjd ds vk/kkj ds eè; çxqfgdk (yhcjdqu
the intestine (crypts of Lieberkuhn).
çxqfgdk) fufeZr djrh gSA
149. Answer (2)
149. mÙkj (2)
The exocrine portion of pancreas secretes an
vXuk'k; dk cfg%L=koh Hkkx ,atkbe ;qDr {kkjh;
alkaline pancreatic juice containing enzymes and
vXuk'k;h jl L=for djrk gS vkSj var%L=koh Hkkx
the endocrine portion secretes hormones, insulin,
glucagon and somatostatin.
gkWeksZu] balqfyu XywdkxkWu ,oa lksesZVksLVsfVu L=for
djrk gSA
150. Answer (1)
150. mÙkj (1)
Fats are converted to fatty acids and glycerol in
small intestine. Kwashiorkor results from protein NksVh vk¡r esa olk olh; vEy vkSj fXyljkWy esa
deficiency unaccompanied by calorie deficiency. ifjofrZr gks tkrh gSA Dokf'kvksjdj çksVhu dh deh
ls gksrk gS u fd dSyksjh dh deh lsA
151. Answer (4)
151. mÙkj (4)
Pepsin converts proteins into proteoses and
peptones (peptides). isfIlu çksVhu dks çksVhvkstst vkSj isIVksu (isIVkbM) esa
ifjofrZr djrk gSA
Proteins  Trypsin/ Dipepti-
 Chymotrypsin dases
Peptones  → Dipeptidase  → Amino

fVfIlu /
Proteoses  Carboxy- acids çkVshu
peptidase  dkbekfsVªfIlu MkbisIVhMstst → vehuksa
iIsVksu   → MkbiIsVhMst 

çksVhvkstst  dkcks
D
Z lhisI VhMt
s vEy
152. Answer (1)
152. mÙkj (1)
Nucleases
Nucleic acids  → Nucleotides
U;fqDy,stt
s
U;qfDyd vEy 
→ U;qfDyvksVkbM~l
Nucleotidases Nucleosidases
→ Nucleosides 
 → ;fqDyvkV
s kbMstt
s U;fqDyvkl
s kbMstt
s
 →U;qfDyvkslkbM~l  →
Sugars + Nitrogenous bases
'kdZjk + ukbVªkstuh {kkj
153. Answer (4)
153. mÙkj (4)
Rennin is a proteolytic enzyme found in gastric
jsfUuu uotkr ds tBjh; jl esa ik;k tkus okyk
juice of infants which helps in the digestion of milk
,d çksVhvksykbfVd ,atkbe gS tks nqX/k çksVhu ds
proteins.
ikpu esa enn djrk gSA
154. Answer (2) 154. mÙkj (2)
The undigested, unabsorbed substances called vikfpr] vuvo'kksf"kr inkFkZ ey dgykrk gS tks
faeces enter into the caecum of the large intestine f=dka= dikV ds ekè;e ls cMh vk¡r dh va/kuky esa
through ileo-caecal valve. tkrk gSA
155. Answer (1) 155. mÙkj (1)
Presence of finger – like projections called villi and vadqjd uked vaxqyhuqek ço/kZ vkSj lw{ekadqj uked
foldings called microvilli increases the surface oy;ksa dh mifLFkfr vo'kks"k.k ds fy, lrgh {ks=Qy
area for absorption. dks c<krh gSA
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156. Answer (4) 156. mÙkj (4)

The chemical process of digestion is initiated in ikpu dh jklk;fud çfØ;k eq[k xqgk esa vkjaHk gksrh
the oral cavity. Salivary amylase hydrolyses about gSA ykj ,ekbyst yxHkx 30% LVkpZ dks
30% of starch into a disaccharide MkblSdsjkbM&ekYVkst esa ty vi?kfVr djrk gSA
– maltose. Other biomolecules in food are acted vkek'k; vkSj vk¡r esa Hkkstu ds vU; tSov.kqvksa ij
on by enzymes in stomach and intestine.
,atkbeksa }kjk fØ;k gksrh gSA
157. Answer (2) 157. mÙkj (2)
GIP (Gastric inhibitory peptide) inhibits gastric GIP (tBjh; vojks/kh isIVkbM) tBjh; L=ko vkSj
secretion and motility (slows gastric secretion) xfr'khyrk (tBjh; L=ko de djrk gS) dks ckf/kr
158. Answer (4) djrk gSA
Emphysema is a chronic disorder in which 158. mÙkj (4)
alveolar walls are damaged due to which okrLQhfr ,d nh?kZdkfyd fodkj gS ftlesa dwfidh;
respiratory surface is decreased. fHkfÙk {kfrxzLr gks tkrh gS ftlls xSl fofue; lrg
159. Answer (1) ?kV tkrh gSA
Volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a 159. mÙkj (1)
forcible expiration is termed as residual volume. cyiwoZd fu%'olu ds i'pkr~ QsQMksa esa 'ks"k ok;q dk
Vital capacity is the maximum volume of air a vk;ru vof'k"V vk;ru dgykrk gSA ok;q dh og
person can breathe out after a forced inspiration.
Vital capacity (VC) includes ERV, TV and IRV.
vf/kdre ek=k tks ,d O;fDr cyiwoZd var%'olu ds
ckn fu%'okflr dj ldrk gS] tSo {kerk dgykrh gSA
160. Answer (4) tSo {kerk esa ERV, TV rFkk IRV lfEefyr gksrs gSA
O2 gets bound to haemoglobin in the lung surface 160. mÙkj (4)
and gets dissociated at the tissues. Every 100 ml O2 Qq¶Qql lrg esa gheksXyksfcu ls ca/krh gS rFkk
of oxygenated blood can deliver around 5 ml of O2
Årdksa esa fo?kfVr gks tkrh gSA çR;sd
to the tissues.
100 fe-yh- vkWDlhtfur jDr Årdksa dks yxHkx 5 ml
161. Answer (2) O2 çnku djrk gSA
A muscular sphincter (gastro-oesophageal) 161. mÙkj (2)
regulates the opening of oesophagus into the
stomach.
,d is'kh; vojksf/kuh (vkek'k;-xzfldk) vkek'k; esa
xzfldk ds fNæ dks fu;af=r djrh gSA
162. Answer (2)
162. mÙkj (2)
The given reaction is facilitated by carbonic
anhydrase present in very high concentration in nh xbZ vfHkfØ;k dks RBCs esa cgqr vf/kd lkUærk esa
RBCs and in small quantity in plasma. Zn+2 is a ,oa IykTek esa de ek=k esa mifLFkr dkcksZfud
cofactor of carbonic anhydrase. ,ugkbMªst }kjk lqxe cuk;k tkrk gSA Zn+2 dkcksZfud
163. Answer (4) ,ugkbMªst dk lgdkjd gSA
Diaphragm contracts during inspiration causing 163. mÙkj (4)
increase in pulmonary volume and decrease in var%'olu ds nkSjku Mk;kÝke ds ladqfpr gksus ls
intrapulmonary pressure which forces the
atmospheric air to move into the lungs. Qq¶Qqlh; vk;ru esa o`f) gksrh gS vkSj vkarj Qq¶Qqlh
164. Answer (1)
nkc de gksrk gS tks ok;qeaMyh; ok;q dks Qq¶Qqlksa esa
[khaprk gSA
Animal Respiratory 164. mÙkj (1)
structure
tarq 'olu lajpuk
Cockroach Tracheal system
dkWdjksap 'okluyh ra=
Sparrow Lungs xkSjs;k Qq¶Qql
Lizards Lungs fNidyh Qq¶Qql
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165. Answer (2) 165. mÙkj (2)
Cardiac notch is present in left lung to dkfMZ,d [kk¡p ân; dks lek;ksftr djus gsrq ck;sa
accommodate heart. The rate of breathing in a Qq¶Qql esa mifLFkr gksrk gSA fojkekoLFkk esa lkekU;
normal healthy man at rest is 12-16 times/min. LoLFk ekuo esa 'olu dh nj 12-16 ckj/feuV gSA
Trachea divides at the level of 5th thoracic
'okluyh 5 osa o{kh; d'ks:d ds Lrj ij foHkkftr
vertebra.
gksrh gSA
166. Answer (2)
166. mÙkj (2)
A spirometer cannot measure RV.
LikbjksehVj RV dks ugha eki ldrk gSA
167. Answer (4)
167. mÙkj (4)
Pneumonia occurs due to bacterial infection.
U;qeksfu;k thokf.od laØe.k ds dkj.k gksrk gSA
168. Answer (1)
168. mÙkj (1)
The O2- dissociation curve is plotted with partial
O2- fo;kstu oØ O2 ds vkaf'kd nkc vkSj O2 ds lkFk
pressure of O2 and percentage saturation of
haemoglobin with O2. gheksXyksfcu dh çfr'kr lar`fIr lfgr vkysf[kr fd;k
tkrk gSA
169. Answer (3)
169. mÙkj (3)
Diffusion membrane is made up of three
layers : folj.k f>Yyh rhu ijrksa dh cuh gksrh gS :
→ Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli that lines → ok;q dwfidk dh iryh 'kYdh midyk tks bls
it. vkLrfjr djrh gSA
→ Endothelial lining of alveolar capillaries that → ok;q dwfidh; dsf'kdkvksa dh ,aMksFkhfy;y vkLrj
surround it. tks bls vkofjr djrh gSA
→ Basement substance between squamous → ok;qdwfidk dh 'kYdh midyk vkSj ok;q dwfidh;
epithelium of alveoli and endothelium of dsf'kdkvksa dh ,aMksFkhfy;e ds eè; vk/kkj inkFkZA
alveolar capillaries.
170. mÙkj (1)
170. Answer (1)
Å¡pkbZ esa o`f) ds lkFk cSjksehfVªd nkc Øfed :i ls
The barometric pressure falls progressively with de gksrk gS] ok;qeaMyh; ok;q esa pO2 vuqikfrd :i
the rise in altitude, pO2 falls proportionately in the
ls de gksrh gSA ;g dwfidh; pO2 dks de djrk gS
atmospheric air. This lowers the alveolar pO2 and
consequently reduces the diffusion of oxygen from
rFkk ifj.kkeLo:i dwfidh; ok;q ls jDr esa
the alveolar air to the blood. vkWDlhtu ds folj.k dks de djrk gSA
171. Answer (2) 171. mÙkj (2)
The role of O2 in regulation of respiratory rhythm is 'olu y; ds fu;eu esa O2 dh Hkwfedk dkQh
quite insignificant. egRoghu gksrh gSA
172. Answer (3) 172. mÙkj (3)
Respiratory rhythm centre is located in medulla 'olu y; dsUæ i'p efLr"d ds esMwyk vksCyksxsaVk esa
oblongata of hind brain. Pneumotaxic centre is fLFkr gksrk gSA 'oklçHkkoh dsUæ i'p efLr"d ds
situated in pons of hind brain. iksal esa fLFkr gksrk gSA
173. Answer (3) 173. mÙkj (3)
Larynx is called the sound box. daB dks èofu isfVdk dgk tkrk gSA
174. Answer (4) 174. mÙkj (4)
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@AakashDelhi02
175. Answer (3) 175. mÙkj (3)

Terms associated with breathing : 'olu ls lacafkr in :
(1) Dyspnea – Painful breathing (1) fMLIuh;k – ihMkdj 'olu
(2) Anoxia – Absence of oxygen in inspired
(2) vukWfDl;k – var% 'okflr xSlksa] vfyan jDr ;k
gases, arterial blood or tissues.
Årdksa esa vkWDlhtu dh vuqifLFkfr
(3) Eupnea – Normal breathing
(3) ;wfIu;k – lkekU; 'olu
176. Answer (1)
176. mÙkj (1)
The thoracic cavity is closed below by diaphragm.
o{k xqgk ds uhps Mk;kÝke gksrk gSA
177. Answer (1)
177. mÙkj (1)
High pCO2, higher temperature and high
+
concentration of H ions shifts the curve to right mPp pCO2, mPprj rkieku vkSj H+ vk;uksa dh mPp
side. lkUærk oØ dks nk;ha vksj çfrLFkkfir djrh gSA
178. Answer (1) 178. mÙkj (1)
Gases like O2 and CO2 are exchanged in our body
nkc ço.krk ds vk/kkj ij gekjs 'kjhj esa O2 o CO2
by simple diffusion based on pressure gradient.
tSlh xSlksa dk fofue; ljy folj.k }kjk gksrk gSA
179. Answer (3)
179. mÙkj (3)
IC = TV + IRV
IC = TV + IRV
EC = TV + ERV
EC = TV + ERV
180. Answer (4)
180. mÙkj (4)
Air enters from nostrils and exchange of air takes
place in the alveoli. ok;q ukfldk ls ços'k djrh gS rFkk ok;q dk fofue;
dwfidk esa gksrk gSA
  
(21)
@AakashDelhi02
31/03/2020 CODE-A
MM : 720 Time : 3.00 Hrs.
Topics covered :
Physics : Bkslksa rFkk rjyksa ds ;kaf=d çxq.k] æO; ds m"eh; çxq.k] m"ekxfrdh] v.kqxfr fl)kUr
Chemistry : fjMkZDl vfHkfØ;k,a] gkbMªkstu] s-CykWd ds rRo ({kkj rFkk {kkjh; e`nk /kkrq,a), p-CykWd ds rRo
(oxZ -13 & 14)
Botany : [kfut iks"k.k ikniksa esa çdk'kla'ys"k.k

Zoology : “kjhj nzo rFkk ifjlapj.k] mRlthZ mRikn rFkk budk fu’dklu] xeu rFkk lapyu
funsZ'k :
(i) mi;qDr xksys dks Hkjus ds fy, dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy isu dk ç;ksx djsAa

1. The uniform additional pressure applied on a 1. ,d xksys ij vkjksfir le:i vfrfjDr nkc P gSA
sphere is P. How much its temperature should be
blds ewy vk;ru dks cuk, j[kus ds fy, blds rki
raised to maintain its original volume? (The bulk
modulus of elasticity of the sphere is  and the
dks fdruk c<+kuk gksxk? (xksys dk vk;ru çR;kLFkrk
xq.kkad  gS rFkk vk;ru çlkj xq.kkad  gS)
coefficient of volume expansion is  )
P P
(1)
P
(2)
P (1) (2)
 3  3
P P
(3)
P
(4)
P (3) (4)
   
2. According to Hooke’s law of elasticity, if stress is 2. gqd ds çR;kLFkrk fu;e ds vuqlkj] ;fn çfrcy
decreased, the ratio of stress to strain (in elastic ?kVrk gS] çfrcy rFkk fod`fÙk dk vuqikr (çR;kLFk
limit) lhek es)a
(1) Decrease (2) Increase (1) ?kVrk gS (2) c<+rk gS
(3) Remains same (4) Becomes zero
(3) leku jgrk gS (4) 'kwU; gksrk gS
@AakashDelhi02
(1)
3. A metallic rod of length l and area of cross section 3. yEckbZ l rFkk vuqçLFk dkV {ks=Qy A dh ,d
A is made of material Young’s modulus Y. If rod is /kkfRod NM+ ;ax çR;kLFk xq.kkad Y ds inkFkZ ls
elongated by an amount x and work done is y, fufeZr gSA ;fn NM+ dks ek=k x ls çlkfjr fd;k x;k
then which one of the following graph is correct? gS rFkk fd;k x;k dk;Z y gS] rc fuEufyf[kr esa ls
dkSulk vkjs[k lgh gS?
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
4. For which of the following types of material stress-

strain curve is not a straight line within elastic limit 4. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl inkFkZ ds fy, çfrcy-fod`fÙk
and strain produced is much large for small stress oØ çR;kLFk lhek ds vUnj ,d ljy js[kk ugha gS
applied? rFkk mRiUu fod`fr vkjksfir vYi çfrcy ds fy,
(1) Brittle material (2) Ductile material vR;f/kd gS?
(1) Hkaxqj inkFkZ (2) rU; inkFkZ
(3) Elastomers (4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) çR;kLFkyd (4) (1) rFkk (2) nksuksa
5. Two wires A and B of diameter of cross section
0.5 cm each are loaded as shown in figure. The 5. nks rkjksa A rFkk B esa ls çR;sd ds vuqçLFk dkV dk
unloaded length of wire A is 3 m and that of wire B O;kl 0.5 cm gSA ;s fp= easa n'kkZ, vuqlkj Hkkfjr gSA
is 2 m. If Young’s Modulus of both wire is same, rkj A dh vHkkfjr yEckbZ 3 m gS rFkk rkj B dh
then the ratio of elongation of wire A to the wire B vHkkfjr yEckbZ 2 m gSA ;fn nksuksa rkjksa dh ;ax
will be çR;kLFkrk xq.kkad leku gSA rc rkj A ds çlkj rFkk
rkj B ds çlkj dk vuqikr gksxk
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 3 : 2
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 3 : 2
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 3 : 1
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 3 : 1
6. A metal wire 8 m long is suspended vertically.
6. 8 m yEch ,d /kkrq rkj dks mèokZ/kj :i ls yVdk;k
How much does it stretch under its own weight?
(Density of material is 1600 kg/m3,
x;k gSA vius Lo;a ds Hkkj ds çHkko esa ;g fdruk
8
Y = 4 × 10 N/m2, g = 10 m/s2) (within elastic limit)
[khaprh gS? (inkFkZ dk ?kuRo
8
1600 kg/m gS] Y = 4 × 10 N/m , g = 10 m/s2)
3 2
(1) 6.4 mm (2) 1.28 mm
(çR;kLFk lhek esa)
(3) 40 mm (4) 80 mm (1) 6.4 mm (2) 1.28 mm
7. The approximate depth of an ocean is 2000 m. (3) 40 mm (4) 80 mm
The compressibility of water is 40 × 10–11 Pa–1 and 7. ,d egklkxj dh vuqekfur xgjkbZ 2000 m gSA ty
average density of water is 103 kg/m3. The dh lEihM~;rk 40 × 10–11 Pa–1 gS rFkk ty dk
fractional compression of water at the bottom of
vkSlr ?kuRo 103 kg/m3 gS] egklkxj ds isans ij ty
the ocean will be (g = 10 m/s2)
dk fHkUukRed laihM+u gksxk (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 2 × 10–3 (2) 1 × 10–3
(1) 2 × 10–3 (2) 1 × 10–3
(3) 8 × 10–3 (4) 4 × 10–3 (3) 8 × 10 –3 (4) 4 × 10–3
(2) @AakashDelhi02
8. A wire of length l is hanging from a fixed support. 8. l yEckbZ dk ,d rkj ,d n`<+ vk/kkj ls yVdk gqvk
The length changes to l1 and l2 when masses m gSA tc æO;eku m rFkk 2m blds eqDr fljs ls
and 2m are suspended separately from its free
i`Fkd :i ls yVds gq, gS] rc yEckbZ l1 o l2 rd
end. Then l is equal to
ifjofrZr gksrh gS rc l dk eku gS
(1) 2l1– l2 (2) l1– l2
(1) 2l1– l2 (2) l1– l2
(3) l1– 2l2 (4) 3l1– 2l2
(3) l1– 2l2 (4) 3l1– 2l2
9. If the interatomic spacing in steel wire is 4.0 Å and
9. ;fn LVhy ds rkj esa vUrjkijek.kqd vUrjky
Young’s modulus of steel Ysteel = 20 × 1010 N/m2
4.0 Å gS rFkk LVhy dk ;ax çR;kLFkrk xq.kkad
then force constant is
YLVhy = 20 × 1010 N/m2 gS] rc cy fu;rkad gS
–3 –9
(1) 6 × 10 N/Å (2) 2 × 10 N/Å –3 –9
(1) 6 × 10 N/Å (2) 2 × 10 N/Å
–9 –3
(3) 8 × 10 N/Å (4) 4 × 10 N/Å –9 –3
(3) 8 × 10 N/Å (4) 4 × 10 N/Å
10. A steel wire can support a maximum load of W
before reaching its elastic limit. How much load
10. ,d LVhy rkj viuh çR;kLFk lhek rd igq¡pus ls
can another wire, made out of identical steel, but igys W dk vf/kdre Hkkj lgu dj ldrh gSA
with double the radius of cross section as that of leku LVhy ls fufeZr ysfdu çFke rkj ds vuqizLFk
the first wire, support before reaching its elastic dkV dh f=T;k ls nksxquh f=kT;k dh vU; rkj viuh
limit izR;kLFk lhek rd igq¡pus ls igys fdruk Hkkj lgu
(1) 2 W (2) W dj ldrh gS\
(3) 8 W (4) 4 W (1) 2 W (2) W
11. The area of cross-section of the wider limb shown (3) 8 W (4) 4 W
in figure is 500 cm2. If a mass of 10 kg is placed 11. fp= esa n'kkZ, pkSM+h Hkqtk dk vuqizLFk dkV {ks=Qy
on the piston, on the wider tube the difference in
500 cm2 gSSA ;fn 10 kg ds nzO;eku dks fiLVu ij
height h in level of water in two tubes is ( water =
j[kk tkrk gsS] rc pkSM+h ufydk esa nksuksa ufydkvkas esa
1000 kg/m3)
ty ds Lrj esa mpk¡bZ h esa vUrj gS
( ty = 1000 kg/m3)
(1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm
(3) 30 cm (4) 15 cm (1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm
12. Consider the following statements (3) 30 cm (4) 15 cm
(a) With increase in temperature, viscosity of gas 12. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,A
increases
(a) rki esa o`f+) ds lkFk] xSl dh ';kurk c<+rh gS
(b) With decrease in temperature, viscosity of
(b) rki esa deh ds lkFk] æoksa dh ';kurk c<+rh gS
liquids increases
Correct statements are lgh dFku gS@gSa
(1) Only (a) (1) dsoy (a)
(2) Only (b) (2) dsoy (b)
(3) Both (a) and (b) (3) (a) rFkk (b) nksuksa
(4) Neither (a) nor (b) (4) u rks (a) u gh (b)
(3) @AakashDelhi02
13. The terminal velocity of copper ball of radius 13. 20°C ij rsy dh ,d Vadh ls fxjrh f=T;k 2 mm ds
2 mm falling through a tank of oil at 20°C is dkWij xsan dk VfeZuy osx 6.5 cm/s gSA ;fn 20°C
6.5 cm/s. If viscosity of the oil at 20°C is ij rsy dh ';kurk 9.9 × 10–1 kg m–1 s–1 rFkk dkWij
9.9 × 10–1 kg m–1 s–1 and density of copper is
8.9 × 103 kg m–3. Then density of the oil will be
dk ?kuRo 8.9 × 103 kg m–3 gSA rc rsy dk ?kuRo
gksxk
(1) 1.2 × 103 kg/m3 (2) 8.0 × 102 kg/m3
(1) 1.2 × 103 kg/m3 (2) 8.0 × 102 kg/m3
(3) 1.66 × 103 kg/m3 (4) 1.8 × 103 kg/m3
(3) 1.66 × 103 kg/m3 (4) 1.8 × 103 kg/m3
14. Figure shown below (a) and (b) indicates venturi
meter tube connected to the steady flow of a (non-
14. uhps n'kkZ, fp= (a) rFkk (b) ,d æo (v';ku) ds
viscous) liquid. Which of the two figures is correct LFkk;h çokg ls la;ksftr osaP;qjhekih uyh dks çnf'kZr
regarding the static water levels in the tubes? djrs gSaA nks fp=ksa esa ls dkSulk ufydk esa fLFfrd
ty Lrjksa ds lanHkZ esa lgh gS?
(1) Only (a) (2) Only (b)

(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b)
(1) dsoy (a) (2) dsoy (b)
15. The pressure at the bottom of a tank of water is (3) (a) o (b) nksuksa (4) u rks (a) u gh (b)
4P where P is the atmospheric pressure. If the 15. ty dh Vadh ds isans ij nkc 4P gS tgk¡ P
water is drawn out such that the level of water is ok;qe.Myh; nkc gSA ;fn ty bl çdkj ckgj vkrk
lowered by one third, the pressure at the bottom of
the tank will now be
gS fd ty dk Lrj ,d-frgkbZ ls de gks tkrk gS]
vc Vadh ds isans ij nkc gksxk
2P
(1) (2) 3P 2P
3 (1) (2) 3P
3
5P
(3) 4P (4) 5P
3 (3) 4P (4)
3
16. The surface tension and vapour pressure of a fluid
at 20°C is 8 × 10–2 N/m and 4 × 103 Pa, 16. 20°C ij ,d rjy dk i`"Bh; ruko rFkk ok"i nkc
respectively. What is the radius of the smallest Øe'k% 8 × 10–2 N/m rFkk 4 × 103 Pa gS] lcls NksVh
spherical fluid droplet which can form without xksyh; rjy cwna dh f=T;k D;k gS tks 20°C ij fcuk
evaporating at 20°C? ok"ihdj.k ds fufeZr gksrh gS?
(1) 40  m (2) 4  m (1) 40  m (2) 4  m
(3) 6.81 10−3 m (4) 9  10−2 m (3) 6.81 10−3 m (4) 9  10−2 m
(4)@AakashDelhi02
17. The minimum force required to separate two glass 17. {ks=Qy 1000 cm2 dh nks dk¡p dh IysVksa ds eè; 0.1
plate of area 1000 cm2 with film of water mm eksVh ty dh ijr gS] bUgsa i`FkDd`r djus ds
0.1 mm thick between them, is (surface tension of
water is 70 × 10–3 N/m and angle of contact is 0°)
fy, vko';d U;wure cy gS (ty dk i`"Bh; ruko
70 × 10–3 N/m gS rFkk lEidZ dks.k 0° gS)
(1) 70 N (2) 50 N
(1) 70 N (2) 50 N
(3) 140 N (4) 100 N
(3) 140 N (4) 100 N
18. A cylinder of height 30 m is completely filled with
water. If water coming out through a small hole hit
18. Å¡pkbZ 30 m ds ,d csyu ds iw.kZr% ty ls Hkjk x;k
the ground 30 m away from the bottom of the gSA ;fn ,d NksVs fNæ ls ckgj vkus okyk ty csyu
cylinder. Then distance of the hole from the ds isans ls 30 m nwj /kjkry ls Vdjkrk gSA rc csyu
bottom of the cylinder will be ds isans ls fNæ dh nwjh gksxh
(1) 10 m (2) 20 m (1) 10 m (2) 20 m
(3) 15 m (4) 5 m (3) 15 m (4) 5 m
19. The viscous fluid is flowing through a cylindrical 19. ';ku rjy ,d csyukdkj uyh ls çokfgr gks jgk
tube. The velocity distribution of the fluid is best gSA rjy dk osx forj.k fdl fp= }kjk lgh :i ls
represented by the diagram çnf'kZr gksrk gS\
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
20. Estimate the drop in temperature when a drop of 20. tc f=T;k R dh ,d cwna N3 NksVh cwna ksa esa VwV tkrh
3
radius R breaks into N small droplets. (T : surface gS rc rki esa deh dh x.kuk dhft,A (T : i`"Bh;
tension,  : density, C : specific heat capacity) ruko,  : ?kuRo, C : fof'k"V Å"ek /kkfjrk)
3T 2T 3T 2T
(1) (N − 1) (2) (1) (N − 1) (2)
CR CR (N − 1) CR CR (N − 1)
T 2T T 2T
(3) (4) (N − 1) (3) (4) (N − 1)
RC (N − 1) RC RC (N − 1) RC
21. A vessel of volume 0.04 m3 contains a mixture of 21. vk;ru 0.04 m3 ds ,d ik= esa 20°C rFkk 2
hydrogen and helium at 20°C and 2 atmospheric ok;qe.Myh; nkc ij gkbMªkt s u rFkk ghfy;e dk
pressure and the mass of mixture is 10 g. Then feJ.k lfEefyr gS rFkk feJ.k dk æO;eku 10 g gSA
the ratio of mass of hydrogen to that of helium in
rc feJ.k esa gkbMªkstu ds æO;eku rFkk ghfy;e ds
the mixture is nearly (1 atm = 105 Pa)
æO;eku dk vuqikr yxHkx gSA (1 atm = 105 Pa)
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 2
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 2 (3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 2
22. The coefficient of volume expansion of an ideal 22. rki T K ij rFkk fu;r nkc ij ,d vkn'kZ xSl dk
gas at constant pressure at temp T K is equal to
vk;ru çlkj xq.kkad fdlds cjkcj gS?
1 −1 1 −1
(1) K (2) K 1 −1 1 −1
T T2 (1) K (2) K
T T2
2 −1 3 −1 2 −1 3 −1
(3) K (4) K (3) K (4) K
T T T T
(5) @AakashDelhi02
23. A cylinder of fixed capacity 67.2 litre contains 23. fLFkj /kkfjrk 67.2 yhVj ds ,d csyu esa ekud rki
helium gas at standard temperature and pressure.
rFkk nkc ij ghfy;e xSl lfEefyr gSA csyu esa xSl
The amount of heat needed to raise the
temperature of the gas in the cylinder by 20°C will ds rki dks 20°C ls c<+kus esa vko';d Å"ek dh
 25   25 −1 −1 
be  R = J mol−1 k −1  ek=k gksxh  R = 3 J mol k 
 3   
(1) 250 J (2) 750 J (1) 250 J (2) 750 J

(3) 400 J (4) 900 J (3) 400 J (4) 900 J
24. Which of the following figure does not depict ideal 24. fuEufyf[kr esa dkSulk fp= xSl dh nh xbZ ek=k ds
gas behaviour for a given amount of gas? fy, vkn'kZ xSl O;ogkj dks çnf'kZr ugha djrk gS?
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
25. The root mean square speed of the molecules of 25. f=ijek.kqd xSl ds v.kqvksa dh oxZ ekè; ewy pky V
triatomic gas is V. When the absolute temperature
is tripled, the molecules dissociate into three
gSA tc ijerki dks rhu xquk fd;k tkrk gS] rc
atoms, the new root mean square speed of the v.kq rhu ijek.kqvksa esa fo;ksftr gksrk gS] rc ijek.kq
atoms is dh uohu oxZ ekè; ewy pky gS
(1) 3V (2) V (1) 3V (2) V
(3) 3 V (4) 2 V (3) 3 V (4) 2 V
26. A fixed amount of an ideal monoatomic gas is 26. ,d vkn'kZ ,dy ijek.kqd xSl dh fuf'pr ek=k dks
taken through the cycle ABCD as shown in the fp= esa n'kkZ;s vuqlkj oØ ABCD ls xqtkjk tkrk
figure. The efficiency of the cycle will be
gSA pØ dh n{krk gksxh
(1) 22.2% (2) 33.33%

(1) 22.2% (2) 33.33%
(3) 20% (4) 40%
(3) 20% (4) 40%
27. For two mole of diatomic gas, work done at
27. nks eksy f}ijek.kqd xSl ds fy,] fu;r nkc ij
constant pressure is W. The heat supplied at
constant volume for the same rise in temperature fd;k x;k dk;Z W gSA xSl ds rki esa leku o`f) ds
of the gas is fy, fu;r vk;ru ij vkiwrZ Å"ek gS
3W 5W 3W 5W
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2 2 2 2
(3) 2 W (4) W (3) 2 W (4) W
(6) @AakashDelhi02
28. Consider the process on an ideal gas as shown in 28. fp= esa n'kkZ;h x;h vkn'kZ xSl ds çØe ij fopkj
figure. The work done by the system dhft,A fudk; }kjk fd;k x;k dk;Z gS
(1) First positive then negative (1) igys /kukRed fQj _.kkRed
(2) Always positive (2) lnSo /kukRed
(3) Always negative (3) lnSo _.kkRed
(4) First negative then positive (4) igys _.kkRed fQj /kukRed
29. If the heat input to a Carnot engine is four times 29. ;fn ,d dkuksZ batu dh fuos'kh Å"ek blds }kjk
the work it performs, then the fraction of heat fd;s x;s dk;Z dh pkj xquh gS] rc flad dks vkiwrZ
rejected to the sink is m"ek dh ek=k gS
1 3 1 3
(1) (2) (1) (2)
4 4 4 4
1 2 1 2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
3 3 3 3
30. When a person jogs, he produces 15 kcal/min.

30. tc ,d O;fDr tkfxax djrk gS] rc ;g
80% of this heat is removed as the sweat 15 kcal/min Å"ek mRiUu djrk gSA bl Å"ek dk
evaporates. The amount of sweat evaporated per 80% ilhus ds :i esa ok"ihd`r gksrk gSA rc
minutes is (1 kg sweat requires approximately 580 çfrfeuV ok"ihd`r ilhus dh ek=k gS (1 kg ilhus dks
kcal for evaporation) ok"ihd`r gksus ds fy, yxHkx 580 kcal dh
(1) 1.6 g (2) 20.7 g vko';drk gksrh gS)
(3) 4 g (4) 28 g (1) 1.6 g (2) 20.7 g
31. When one mole of gas expands as per the relation (3) 4 g (4) 28 g
V = KT2/3, where V is volume and T is 31. tc 1 eksy xSl lEcU/k V = KT2/3 ds vuqlkj çlkfjr
temperature. For the temperature change of gksrh gS] tgk¡ V vk;ru gS rFkk T rki gSA 40 K rki
40 K. Work done is (R is universal gas constant)
esa ifjorZu ds fy, fd;k x;k dk;Z gS (R lkoZf=d
(1) 35.6 R (2) 26.6 R xSl fu;rkad gS)
(3) 30.2 R (4) 20.1 R (1) 35.6 R (2) 26.6 R
32. The quantities of heat required to raise the (3) 30.2 R (4) 20.1 R
temperatures of two solid steel spheres of r and 32. nks Bksl LVhy xksyksa dh f=T;k Øe'k% r o 2r gS]
2r respectively through 1 K each are in the ratio of çR;sd xksys ds rki esa 1 K dh o`f) djus ds fy,
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 8 vko';d Å"ek dh ek=k dk vuqikr gS
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 8 : 27 (1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 8
33. The temperature of 200 g of water is to be raised (3) 1 : 1 (4) 8 : 27
from 20°C to 60°C by adding steam at 100°C to it. 33. 100°C okyh Hkki dks tksM+rs gq, 200 g ty ds rki
The mass of steam required for this purpose dks 20°C ls 60°C rd c<+k;k tkrk gSA bl çfØ;k
nearly is
ds fy, vko';d Hkki dk æO;eku gS
(1) 10 g (2) 14 g (1) 10 g (2) 14 g
(3) 6 g (4) 18 g (3) 6 g (4) 18 g
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34. It is difficult to cook rice in open vessel by boiling it 34. vR;f/kd Å¡pkbZ ij [kqys ik= esa pkoy dks mckydj
at high altitudes because of idkuk vf/kd dfBu D;ksa gksrk gS?
(1) High boiling point due to low pressure (1) fuEu nkc ds dkj.k mPp DoFkukad fcUnw
(2) Low boiling point due to low pressure (2) fuEu nkc ds dkj.k fuEu DoFkukad fcUnw
(3) Low boiling point due to high pressure (3) mPp nkc ds dkj.k fuEu DoFkukad fcUnw
(4) High boiling point due to high pressure (4) mPp nkc ds dkj.k mPp DoFkukad fcUnw
35. Consider P-V diagram for fixed mass of an ideal 35. fp= esa n'kkZ;h x;h vkn'kZ xSl ds fuf'pr æO;eku
gas shown in figure. Choose correct ds fy, P-V vkjs[k ij fopkj dhft,A laxr
corresponding pressure-density (P-  ) diagram. nkc-?kuRo (P-  ) ds lgh vkjs[k dk p;u dhft,A
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
36. rki js[kh; çlkj xq.kkad  okyh ,d le:i NM+ ds

36. The increase in moment of inertia I of a uniform ,d fljs ls xqtjus okys rFkk bldh yEckbZ ds
rod, having thermal coefficient of linear expansion
yEcor~ v{k ds lkis{k NM+ ds tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ I esa o`f)
, about an axis passing through its one end and
perpendicular to its length when its temperature is
D;k gksxh] tc blds rki dks vYi T }kjk c<+k;k
slightly increased by T . tkrk gS?
I T
I T (1) I T (2)
(1) I T (2) 2
2
(3) 2I T (4) 3I T
(3) 2I T (4) 3I T
37. rkih; pkydrk K okyh l yEckbZ dh NM+ A ds nksuksa
37. Ends of a rod A of length l having thermal fljksa dks rki T1 rFkk T2 (T1>T2) ij O;ofLFkr j[kk
conductivity K is maintained at temperature T1 and tkrk gSA NM+ ls xqtjus okyh Å"eh; /kkjk Q gSA NM+
T2 (T1>T2). The thermal current through the rod is
A ds leku yEckbZ rFkk vuqçLFk dkV {ks=Qy dh
Q. Now another rod B of same length and area of
vU; NM+ B (ftldh rkih; pkydrk 2K gS) dks Hkqtk
cross section as that of rod A and having thermal
conductivity 2K is welded together side by side ls Hkqtk dks ,d lkFk tksMk+ tkrk gs rFkk la;kstu ds
and common ends of the combination is mHk;fu"B fljksa dks rki T1 rFkk T2 ij O;ofLFkr
maintained at temperature T1 and T2. The new j[kk tkrk gSA la;kstu ls çokfgr uohu m"eh; /kkjk
thermal current through the combination will be gksxh
(1) Q (2) 2Q (1) Q (2) 2Q
Q
Q (3) (4) 3Q
(3) (4) 3Q 2
2
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38. Choose the correct graph which represent Wien’s 38. ohu ds foLFkkiu fu;e dks çnf'kZr djus okys lgh
displacement law. (Symbols have their usual vkjs[k dk p;u dhft,A (ladsrksa ds vius lkekU;
meanings)
lkekU; vFkZ gS)
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4) Both (1) and (3)

(3) (4) (1) rFkk (3) nksuksa
39. If l is the distance between lower fixed point and 39. ;fn FkekZehVj ds fupys n`f<+r fcUnw rFkk mijh n`f<+r
upper fixed point of thermometer and X is the
length of the mercury column above the lower
fcUnw ds eè; nwjh l gS rFkk rki t°C ds fy, fupys
fixed point for temperature t°C, then value of t will n`f<+r fcUnw ds Åij edZjh LraHk dh yEckbZ X gS] rc
be t dk eku gksxk
100X 50X 100X 50X

(1) (2) (1) (2)
l l l l
X 50l X 50l
(3) (4) (3) (4)
l X l X
40. The rate of cooling of a body is 40. ,d oLrw ds 'khryu dh nj

(1) Independent of the nature of the surface of the (1) oLrq dh lrg dh çd`fr ij fuHkZj ugha djrh gS
body (2) oLrq ds {ks=Qy ij fuHkZj ugha djrh gS
(2) Independent of the area of the body
(3) ifjos'k ds rki ij fuHkZj ugha djrh gS
(3) Independent of the temperature of the
(4) ifjos'k ds Åij oLrq ds rki vkf/kD; ij fuHkZj
surrounding
djrh gS
(4) Depend on the excess of temperature of the
body above that of surrounding 41. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulh ifj?kVuk esa m"ek çdk'k
41. In which of the following phenomena, the heat
dh pky ds lkFk ljy js[kk ds vuqfn'k xfr djrh
travels along straight line with speed of light gS?
(1) Thermal radiation (1) m"eh; fofdj.k
(2) Thermal conduction (2) m"eh; pkyu
(3) Natural convection (3) çkd`frd laogu
(4) Forced convection (4) ç.kksfnr laogu
42. Hot water cools from 60°C to 50°C in the first 10 42. xeZ ikuh çFke 10 feuV esa 60°C ls 50°C rd B.Mk
minutes and to 42°C in next 10 minutes. Then the gksrk gS rFkk vxys 10 feuV esa 42°C rd B.Mk
temperature of the surrounding is
gksrk gSA rc ifjos'k dk rki gS
(1) 10°C
(1) 10°C
(2) 30°C (2) 30°C
(3) 20°C (3) 20°C
(4) 15°C (4) 15°C
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43. Two spherical black bodies have radii r and 9r. 43. r o f=T;k okyh nks xksyh; d`f".kdk ds i`"Bh; rki
9r
Their surface temperature are T1 and T2. If they T1 o T2 gSA ;fn ;s leku 'kfDr fofdfjr djrh gS]
T1
radiates same power then value of is rc T1
dk eku gS
T2 T2
(1) 1 : 9 (2) 3 : 1 (1) 1 : 9 (2) 3 : 1
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 8 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 8
R 2 R 2
44. If for an ideal gas = then the degree of 44. ;fn ,d vkn'kZ xSl ds fy, = gS] rc xSl dh
CV 5 CV 5
freedom of the gas will be Lora=rk dh dksfV gksxh
(1) 3 (2) 8 (1) 3 (2) 8
(3) 6 (4) 5 (3) 6 (4) 5
45. The power radiated by a black body is P and it 45. ,d d`f".kdk }kjk fofdfjr 'kfDr P gS rFkk ;g 0
radiates maximum energy around the wavelength rjax ds ifjr% vf/kdre ÅtkZ fofdfjr djrh gSA
0 . If the temperature of the black body is now ;fn rjaxnS;Z dk rki bl çdkj ifjofrZr gksrk gS fd
changed so that its radiates maximum energy 3 0
rjaxnSè;Z ds ifjr% vf/kdre ÅtkZ fofdfjr
30 4
around the wavelength , the power radiated
4 djrh gSA rc blds }kjk fofdfjr 'kfDr fdl xq.kkad
by it will increase by factor of ls c<+x
s h?
256 64 256 64
(1) (2) (1) (2)
81 27 81 27
16 4 16 4
(3) (4) (3) (4)
9 3 9 3
46. Oxidation state of nitrogen in HCN is 46. HCN esa ukbVªkt

s u dh vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk gS
(1) –2 (2) –3 (1) –2 (2) –3
(3) –1 (4) –5 (3) –1 (4) –5
47. In the balanced equation 47. larqfyr lehdj.k esa
xHNO3 + yH2S ⎯⎯→ pNO + qS + zH2O xHNO3 + yH2S ⎯⎯→ pNO + qS + zH2O
x and q respectively are x rFkk q Øe'k% gS

(1) 2, 2 (2) 3, 2 (1) 2, 2 (2) 3, 2
(3) 2, 4 (4) 2, 3 (3) 2, 4 (4) 2, 3
48. In all of its compounds, oxidation state of oxygen

48. vkWDlhtu ds lHkh ;kSfxdksa esa bldh vkWDlhdj.k
may vary from voLFkk ifjofrZr gksrh gS
(1) + 6 to – 6 (2) + 2 to –2 (1) + 6 ls – 6 (2) + 2 ls –2
(3) + 2 to + 6 (4) 0 to –2 (3) + 2 ls + 6 (4) 0 ls –2
49. Which of the following species may undergo 49. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl Lih'kht dk vkWDlhdj.k o
oxidation and reduction both? vip;u nksuksa gks ldrk gS\
(1) CO (2) N2 (1) CO (2) N2
(3) SO2 (4) All of these (3) SO2 (4) buesa ls lHkh
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50. Eo = 0.8 V and Eo = −0.76 V . Eocell 50. Eo = 0.8 V rFkk EoZn2+ /Zn = −0.76 V gSA tc
Ag+ /Ag Zn2+ /Zn Ag+ /Ag
value when these electrodes are connected to bu nksuksa bysDVªkWMksa dks la;ksftr djds dk;Zdkjh lsy
construct a working cell will be
cuk;k tkrk gS rks Eolsy dk eku gksxk
(1) 1.56 V (2) –1.56 V
(1) 1.56 V (2) –1.56 V
(3) 0.04 V (4) –0.04 V
(3) 0.04 V (4) –0.04 V
51. Consider the given reaction
alkaline medium
51. uhps nh x;h vfHkfØ;k ij fopkj dhft,
Zn + NO3− ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ ⎯→ Zn2+ + NH+4
{kkjh; ekè;e
Zn + NO3− ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Zn2+ + NH+4
−
In alkaline medium, coefficients of Zn and OH ion
in the balanced equation respectively are larqfyr lehdj.k esa {kkjh; ekè;e esa Zn rFkk OH−
(1) 4, 7 (2) 4, 10
vk;uksa ds xq.kkad Øe'k% gS
(1) 4, 7 (2) 4, 10
(3) 2, 5 (4) 1, 7
(3) 2, 5 (4) 1, 7
52. The equivalent weight of KMnO4 in acidic medium
is 52. vEyh; ekè;e esa KMnO4 dk rqY;kadh Hkkj gS
M M M M
(1) (2)
(1) (2) 2 3
2 3
M M
M M (3) (4)
(3) (4) 5 4
5 4
53. fdlesa ukbVªkstu ijek.kq ,d ls vf/kd vkWDlhdj.k
53. Nitrogen atom exhibits more than one oxidation
state in voLFkk,¡ n'kkZrk gS?
(1) NH4NO3 (2) N2H4 (1) NH4NO3 (2) N2H4
(3) N2O5 (4) N2O4
(3) N2O5 (4) N2O4
54. ty dh LFkk;h dBksjrk laHkor% fdlds dkj.k gksrh gS \
54. Permanent hardness of water is most likely due to
(1) CaHCO3 (2) NaHCO3
(1) CaHCO3 (2) NaHCO3
(3) CaSO4 (4) NaCl
(3) CaSO4 (4) NaCl
55. vLFkk;h dBksjrk dks nwj fd;k tk ldrk gS
55. Temporary hardness can be removed by
(1) mckydj (2) DykdZ fof/k }kjk
(1) Boiling (2) Clark’s method
(3) lkWYos çØe }kjk (4) (1) rFkk (2) nksuksa
(3) Solvay process (4) Both (1) and (2)
56. In ion exchange method hydrated salt of (X) is
56. vk;u fofue; fof/k esa (X) ds ty;ksftr yo.k dk
used, (X) is mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gS] rc (X) gS
(1) Na2SO4 (2) NaAlF3 (1) Na2SO4 (2) NaAlF3
(3) NaAlSiO4 (4) NaAlO2
(3) NaAlSiO4 (4) NaAlO2
57. Value of which physical property of H2O is greater
57. H2O dh fdl HkkSfrd xq.k dk eku D2O dh vis{kk
than that of D2O vf/kd gksrk gS\
(1) ijkoS|qrkad (2) ?kuRo
(1) Dielectric constant (2) Density
(3) ';kurk (4) eksyj æO;eku
(3) Viscosity (4) Molar mass
58. Industrially H2O2 is prepared by the auto oxidation 58. vkS/kksfxd H2O2 dk fojpu fdlds Lor% vkWDlhdj.k
of }kjk fd;k tkrk gS\
(1) 2–Methylphenol (1) 2–esfFkyQhukWy
(2) 2–Alkylanthraquinol (2) 2–,fYdy ,UFkzkfDoukWy
(3) 3–Chlorophenol (3) 3–DyksjksQhukWy
(4) Barium sulphate (4) csfj;e lYQsV
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59. The volume of oxygen gas liberated at STP is 250 59. 10 mL H2O2 foy;u ds iw.kZ vo?kVu ls eqDr STP
mL from complete decomposition of 10 mL of ij vkWDlhtu xSl dk vk;ru 250 mL gSA H2O2
H2O2 solution. Volume strength of H2O2 solution is
foy;u dh vk;ru lkeF;Z gS
(1) 10 (2) 20 (1) 10 (2) 20
(3) 25 (4) 30 (3) 25 (4) 30
60. Ortho and para hydrogen differ is 60. vkWFkksZ rFkk iSjk gkbMªkstu esa vUrj gksrk gS
(1) Proton spin (2) Electron spin (1) çksVkWu pØ.k dk (2) bysDVªkWu pØ.k dk
(3) Molecular mass (4) Density (3) vk.kfod æO;eku (4) ?kuRo
acidic medium
61. PbS(s) + H2O2 (aq) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → (X) + H2O vEyh; ekè;e
61. PbS(s) + H2O2 (aq) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →(X) + H2O
In the above reaction (X) is mijksDr vfHkfØ;k esa (X) gS
(1) PbSO4 (2) Pb3O4 (1) PbSO4 (2) Pb3O4
(3) PbO2 (4) Pb(OH)2 (3) PbO2 (4) Pb(OH)2
62. Which of the following oxides is most basic in 62. fuEufyf[kr esa ls vR;f/kd {kkjh; çd`fr dk
nature? vkWDlkbM dkSulk gS\
(1) BeO (2) MgO (1) BeO (2) MgO
(3) K2O (4) Li2O (3) K2O (4) Li2O
63. Least soluble salt in water is 63. ty esa U;wure foys;'khy yo.k gS
(1) LiF (2) NaF (1) LiF (2) NaF
(3) KF (4) RbF (3) KF (4) RbF
64. Incorrect statement about a solution of alkali metal 64. æo veksfu;k esa {kkj /kkrq ds foy;u ds lanHkZ esa
in liquid ammonia is xyr dFku gS?
(1) It is blue coloured (1) ;g uhys jax dk gksrk gS
(2) It is paramagnetic in nature (2) ;g vuqpqEcdh; çd`fr dk gksrk gS
(3) In concentrated solution the blue colour (3) lkaæ foy;u esa uhyk jax lsc tSls gjs jax esa
changes to apple green ifjofrZr gks tkrk gS
(4) Metal amide is formed on standing (4) budks j[ks jgus ij /kkrq ,ekbM curk gS
65. Most stable metal carbonate is 65. vR;f/kd LFkk;h /kkrq dkcksZusV gS
(1) Li2CO3 (2) Na2CO3 (1) Li2CO3 (2) Na2CO3
(3) MgCO3 (4) K2CO3 (3) MgCO3 (4) K2CO3
66. Which oxide of nitrogen is liberated on heating 66. {kkjh; e`nk /kkrq ukbVªsV dks xeZ djus ij ukbVªkstu
alkaline earth metal nitrates? dk dkSulk vkWDlkbM eqDr gksrk gS?
(1) NO (2) NO2 (1) NO (2) NO2
(3) N2O3 (4) N2O5 (3) N2O3 (4) N2O5
67. Water gas is a mixture of 67. Hkki vaxkj xSl fdldk feJ.k gksrh gS?
(1) CO and H2 (2) CO2 and H2 (1) CO rFkk H2 (2) CO2 rFkk H2
(3) CO and N2 (4) N2 + O2 (3) CO rFkk N2 (4) N2 + O2
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68. Highest hydration enthalpy is found for which of 68. fuEu esa ls fdl vk;u dh ty;kstu ,UFkSYih
the following ions? vf/kdre gksrh gS?
(1) Be2+ (2) Mg2+ (1) Be2+ (2) Mg2+
(3) Ca2+ (4) Ba2+ (3) Ca2+ (4) Ba2+
69. Which of the following alkali metals mainly forms 69. fuEu esa ls fdl {kkj /kkrq dks vkWDlhtu ds vkf/kD;
monoxide when it burns in excess of oxygen? esa ngu ij ;g eq[;r% eksuks vkWDlkbM cukrh gS?
(1) Na (2) K (1) Na (2) K
(3) Li (4) Rb (3) Li (4) Rb
70. Correct order of densities of alkali metals is 70. {kkj /kkrqvksa ds ?kuRo dk lgh Øe gS
(1) Li < Na < K < Rb (2) Rb < K < Na < Li (1) Li < Na < K < Rb (2) Rb < K < Na < Li
(3) Li < K < Na < Rb (4) Li < Rb < K < Na (3) Li < K < Na < Rb (4) Li < Rb < K < Na
71. Metal(s) which does (do) not impart any colour to 71. Tokyk dks dksbZ jax u çHkki djus okyh /kkrq gS@gSa
flame is/are
(1) Be (2) Sr
(1) Be (2) Sr
(3) Ca (4) (1) rFkk (3) nksuksa
(3) Ca (4) Both (1) and (3)
72. csjhfy;e fdlds lkFk fod.kZ lEcU/k n'kkZrk gS?
72. Beryllium shows diagonal relationship with which
element? (1) eSXuhf'k;e (2) ,yqfefu;e
(1) Magnesium (2) Aluminium (3) lksfM;e (4) flfydkWu
(3) Sodium (4) Silicon 73. ,d mÙke xq.koÙkk dh lhesUV ds fy, flfydk o
73. For a good quality cement, the ratio of silica to ,yqfeuk dk vuqikr fdlds eè; gksuk pkfg,\
alumina should be between (1) 1 rFkk 2 (2) 2.5 rFkk 4
(1) 1 and 2 (2) 2.5 and 4
(3) 1 rFkk 4 (4) 5 rFkk 7.5
(3) 1 and 4 (4) 5 and 7.5
74. fcu cw>s pwus dk jklk;fud lw= gS
74. Chemical formula of quick lime is
(1) CaCO3 (2) Ca(OH)2
(1) CaCO3 (2) Ca(OH)2
(3) CaSO4 (4) CaO
(3) CaSO4 (4) CaO
75. (X) dks 393 K rd xeZ djus ij IykLVj vkWQ isfjl
75. Plaster of Paris is obtained by heating (X) to 393 çkIr gksrk gS] (X) gS
K. (X) is
(1) CaSO4.H2O (2) CaSO4.2H2O
(1) CaSO4.H2O (2) CaSO4.2H2O
(3) CaSO4.½H2O (4) CaSO4.5H2O
(3) CaSO4.½H2O (4) CaSO4.5H2O
76. fuEufyf[kr esa ls oxZ 13 ds rRoksa esa ls lcls de
76. Among the following group of 13 elements,
ijek.kq f=T;k okyk rRo gS
smallest atomic radius is of
(1) Al (2) Ga
(1) Al (2) Ga
(3) In (4) Tl
(3) In (4) Tl
77. cksfjd vEy ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku gS
77. Incorrect statement about boric acid is
(1) ;g ,d nqcZy ,dd {kkjdh; vEy gS
(1) It is a weak monobasic acid
(2) ;g vkjgsfu;l vEy gS
(2) It is an Arrhenius acid
(3) It is formed by acidifying an aqueous solution (3) cksjsDl ds tyh; foy;u dks vEyhd`r djus ij
of borax ;g curk gS
;g ty esa B (OH)4  cukrk gS
−
(4) It forms B ( OH)4  in water
−
(4)
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78. Number of bridge B – H – B bonds in a B2H6 78. B2H6 v.kq esa lsrq B – H – B ca/kksa dh la[;k gS
molecule is (1) 2 (2) 4
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 3
(3) 1 (4) 3 79. fuEufyf[kr esa ls mHk;/kehZ vkDlkbM dkSulk gS?
79. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric?
(1) CO2 (2) Al2O3
(1) CO2 (2) Al2O3
(3) Na2O (4) BaO
(3) Na2O (4) BaO
80. fuEufyf[kr cksjkWu gSykbMksa esa çcyre ywbZl vEy gS
80. Strongest Lewis acid among the following boron
(1) BF3 (2) BCl3
halides is
(3) BBr3 (4) BI3
(1) BF3 (2) BCl3
(3) BBr3 (4) BI3 81. fdlds tyvi?kVu o ckn esa la?kuu }kjk ljy
js[kh; Ja[kyk flfydkWu cgqyd curs gS\
81. Straight chain silicone polymers are formed due to
hydrolysis, followed by condensation, of (1) (CH3)3SiCl (2) (CH3)2SiCl2
(1) (CH3)3SiCl (2) (CH3)2SiCl2 (3) CH3SiCl3 (4) SiCl4
(3) CH3SiCl3 (4) SiCl4 82. flfydsV dh ewy bdkbZ curk@gksrk gS

82. The basic unit of silicates is (1) SiO2 (2) SiO44 −
(1) SiO2 (2) SiO44 − (3) SiO22− (4) SiO32−
(3) SiO22− (4) SiO32− 83. fuEu esa ls fdldh lajpuk casUthu ds leku gksrh gS?
83. Which of the following has structure like benzene? (1) AlN (2) B3N3H6
(1) AlN (2) B3N3H6 (3) BN (4) Al4C3
(3) BN (4) Al4C3 84. 'kq"d cQZ gS

84. Dry ice is (1) Bksl CO2
(1) Solid CO2 (2) Bksl SO3
(2) Solid SO3 (3) Bksl CO
(3) Solid CO (4) Bksl N2O5
(4) Solid N2O5
85. CCl4 tyvi?kfVr ugha gks ldrk D;ksafd
85. CCl4 cannot be hydrolysed because
(1) dkcZu Dyksjhu dh vis{kk de fo|qr_.kh gksrk gS
(1) Carbon is less electronegative than chlorine
(2) dkcZu esa fjDr d–d{kd ugha gksrk
(2) Carbon has no vacant d–orbitals
(3) dkcZu dk vkdkj vR;Ur NksVk gksrk gS
(3) Carbon has extremely smaller size
(4) CCl4 dh vkd`fr prq"Qydh; gksrh gS
(4) CCl4 is tetrahedral in shape
86. Zeolites are the examples of
86. ft;ksykbV fdldk mnkgj.k gS\
(1) Orthosilicates (1) vkWFkksZflfydsV
(2) Pyrosilicates (2) ik;jksflfydsV
(3) Sheet silicates (3) 'khV flfydsV
(4) Three-dimensional silicates (4) f=foeh; flfydsV
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87. Aluminium reacts with aqueous alkali to form A 87. ,yqfefu;e tyh; {kkj ds lkFk fØ;k djds A rFkk
and B, which are respectively B cukrs gS tks Øe'k% gS
(1) [Al(H2O)6] (OH)3 and NaH (1) [Al(H2O)6] (OH)3 rFkk NaH
(2) Na[Al(OH)4] and H2 (2) Na[Al(OH)4] rFkk H2
(3) [Al(H2O)6] (OH)3 and H2 (3) [Al(H2O)6] (OH)3 rFkk H2
(4) Na[Al(OH)4] and NaH (4) Na[Al(OH)4] rFkk NaH
88. Correct order of thermal stability of halides of
88. dkcZu ds gSykbMksa ds m"eh; LFkkf;Ro dk lgh Øe gS
carbon is
(1) CCl4 > CF4 > CBr4 > CI4
(1) CCl4 > CF4 > CBr4 > CI4
(2) CI4 > CBr4 > CCl4 > CF4
(2) CI4 > CBr4 > CCl4 > CF4
(3) CF4 > CCl4 > CBr4 > CI4
(3) CF4 > CCl4 > CBr4 > CI4
(4) CBr4 > CF4 > CCl4 > CI4
(4) CBr4 > CF4 > CCl4 > CI4
89. fuEu esa ls xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,
89. Select an incorrect statement among the following
(1) Si, Ge rFkk Sn dh fo|qr_.krk,a yxHkx leku
(1) Si, Ge and Sn have nearly equal
gksrh gS
electronegativities
(2) xzsQkbV dh ,UVªkWih ghjs ls vf/kd gksrh gS
(2) Entropy of graphite is more than diamond
(3) CO is called silent killer as it forms a complex (3) CO dks ewd gR;kjk dgk tkrk gS D;ksfa d ;g
with haemoglobin gheksXyksfcu ds lkFk ladqy cukrk gS
(4) SnO and PbO are basic in nature (4) SnO rFkk PbO {kkjh; çd`fr ds gksrs gSa
90. Hydrolysis product(s) of SiF4 is/are 90. SiF4 ds tyvi?kVu mRikn gS@gaS
(1) Si(OH)4 (2) H2SiF6 (1) Si(OH)4 (2) H2SiF6
(3) SiO2 (4) Both (1) and (2) (3) SiO2 (4) (1) o (2) nksuksa
91. A elements have been found to be essential for 91. A rRo ikni o`f) o mikip; ds fy, vko';d
plant growth and metabolism and out of them ik, x, rFkk buesa ls B o`griks"kdrRo gSA
B are macronutrients.
fjDr LFkku A o B ds fy, lgh fodYi dk p;u
Select the correct option to fill the blanks A and B. dhft,A
(1) A = 17, B = 12 (2) A = 11, B = 5 (1) A = 17, B = 12 (2) A = 11, B = 5
(3) A = 17, B = 9 (4) A = 11, B = 6
(3) A = 17, B = 9 (4) A = 11, B = 6
92. lw{eiks"kd rRo ds lanHkZ ds fo"ke in dk p;u
92. Find the odd one w.r.t. micronutrients
dhft,A
(1) Iron (1) vk;ju
(2) Manganese (2) eSXuht
(3) Magnesium (3) eSxuhf'k;e
(4) Zinc (4) ftad
(15)
@AakashDelhi02
Test-4 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET -2020
93. Which of the following is mismatched? 93. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dksulk vlqesfyr gS?
(1) Macronutrients – Concentration (1) o`griks"kdrRo – 10 m eksy kg–1
more than 10 m 'kq"d Hkkj ls
mole kg–1 of dry
vf/kd lkaærk
matter
(2) lw{eiks"kdrRo – 10 m eksy kg–1
(2) Micronutrient – Concentration
less than 10 m
'kq"d Hkkj ls de
mole kg–1 of dry lkaærk
matter (3) –
o`rgiks"kdrRo FkksM+k lk vf/kd
(3) Macronutrients – Toxic even in ek=k gksus ij Hkh
slight excess fo"kkDr gksrk gS
(4) Micronutrients – Generally (4) lw{eiks"kdrRo – ,atkbeksa dh
required in the fØ;k esa lkekU;
functioning of
:i ls vko';d
enzymes
94. DNA la'ysf"kr ,atkbe dh fØ;k fdldh vuqifLFkfr
94. Functioning of DNA synthesizing enzyme is
esa lanfer gksrh gS\
inhibited in the absence of
(1) Mg2+ (2) Zn2+
(1) Mg2+ (2) Zn2+
(3) Mn2+ (4) Fe2+
(3) Mn2+ (4) Fe2+ 95. ukbVªkt s u fdlds vfrfjDr fuEufyf[kr lHkh dk
95. Nitrogen is the component of all of the following, ?kVd gS?
except (1) vehuksa vEy (2) çksVhu
(1) Amino acids (2) Proteins (3) U;wfDyd vEy (4) lqØkst
(3) Nucleic acids (4) Sucrose 96. eè; iVfydk dk eq[; ?kVd gSa
96. Major components of middle lamella are (1) Mg rFkk Fe (2) Ca rFkk Zn
(1) Mg and Fe (2) Ca and Zn (3) Ca rFkk Mg (4) Zn rFkk Fe
(3) Ca and Mg (4) Zn and Fe 97. fdlds vfrfjDr fuEufyf[kr lHkh eSXuhf'k;e ds
97. All of the following are functions of magnesium, dk;Z gS?
except (1) ;g i.kZgfjr ds oy; lajpuk dk fuekZ.k djrk
(1) It forms the ring structure of chlorophyll gSa
(2) It activates the enzymes involved in (2) ;g 'olu esa lfEefyr ,atkbe dks lfØ; djrk
respiration gS
(3) It is involved in the synthesis of RNA (3) ;g RNA ds la'ys"k.k esa lfEefyr gksrk gS
(4) It activates the alcohol dehydrogenase (4) ;g ,sYdksgkWy fMgkbMªksftust dks lfØ; djrk gS
98. Read the following statements and choose the 98. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks if<+, rFkk buds fy, lgh
option which is true for them. fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
A. Sulphur is absorbed in the form of sulphate A. lYQj lYQsV vk;uksa ds :i esa vo'kksf"kr gksrk
ions. gS
B. Potassium helps in maintaining turgidity of the B. iksVSf'k;e dksf'kdkvksa dh LQhrrk dks cuk, j[kus
cells. esa lgk;d gksrk gS
(1) Only A is correct (1) dsoy A lgh gS
(2) Only B is correct (2) dsoy B lgh gS
(3) Both A and B are correct (3) A rFkk B nksuksa lgh gS
(4) Both A and B are incorrect (4) A rFkk B nksuksa xyr gS
(16)@AakashDelhi02
99. Conversion of NO3− → N2 is done by 99. NO3− → N2 dk :ikarj.k fdlds }kjk gksrk gS\
(1) Pseudomonas (2) Nitrobacter
(1) L;wMkseksukWl (2) ukbVªkcs SDVj
(3) Nitrococcus (4) Rhizobium
(3) ukbVªkds ksdl (4) jkbtksfc;e
100. ETS, during photosynthesis and respiration,
100. tc ___ vuqifLFkr gksrs gS rc çdk'kla'ys"k.k o
cannot function properly when ___ are absent. 'olu ds nkSjku ETS lgh rjhds ls dk;Z ugha dj
(1) Fe and Cu (2) Ca and B
ldrk gS\
(1) Fe rFkk Cu (2) Ca rFkk B
(3) B and Zn (4) Na and Ca
(3) B rFkk Zn (4) Na rFkk Ca
101. Ammonia formation from free N2 cannot be done
without the help of 101. eqDr N2 ls veksfu;k dk fuekZ.k fdldh lgk;rk ds
(1) K and Mn (2) Mo and Fe fcuk ugha gks ldrk gS\
(1) K rFkk Mn (2) Mo rFkk Fe
(3) Ca and Mg (4) B and Mn
(3) Ca rFkk Mg (4) B rFkk Mn
102. Azotobacter is
(1) Filamentous and autotrophic bacteria
102. ,tksVkscSDVj
(1)rarqe;h o Loiks"kh thok.kq gS
(2) Free living bacteria
(2) eqDr thoh thok.kq gS
(3) Symbiotic bacteria
(3) lgthoh thok.kq gS
(4) Filamentous and heterotrophic bacteria
(4) rarqe;h o fo"keiks"kh thok.kq gS
103. For the reduction of N2, microbes require
103. N2 ds vip;u gsrq lw{etho dks
(1) NADH and NH3
(1) NADH o NH3 dh vko';drk gksrh gS
(2) H+ and O2
(2) H+ o O2 dh vko';drk gksrh gS
(3) H+, e– and ATP (3) H+, e– o ATP dh vko';drk gksrh gS
(4) NADPH and O2 (4) NADPH o O2 dh vko';drk gksrh gS
104. During transamination, amino group donor in 104. ikj ,ehuu ds nkSjku A ikniksa esa vehuksa lewg dk
plants is A and amino group acceptor is B
nkrk gS rFkk B vehuksa lewg dk xzkgh gS
Here, A and B respectively are ;gk¡ A o B Øe'k% gS
(1) NH3 and NH+4 ions (1) NH3 o NH+4 vk;u
(2) Glutamic acid and oxaloacetic acid (2) XyqVkWfed vEy o vkWDlSyks,lhfVd vEy
(3) Aspartic acid and NH+4 ions (3) ,LikfVZd vEy o NH+4 vk;u
(4) Glutamic acid and NH+4 ions (4) XyqVkWfed vEy o NH+4 vk;u
105. ikniksa esa ik, tkus okyk vR;f/kd egRoiw.kZ ,ekbM~l
105. Most important amides in plants are
gSa
(1) Aspartic acid and glutamic acids
(1) ,LikfVZd vEy o XyqVkWfed vEy
(2) Asparagine and glutamine
(2) ,Lisjftu o XyqVkWfeu
(3) Ureides
(3) ;wfjM~l
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(4) (1) o (3) nksuksa
106. Steps of conversion of N2 into NH3 during N2
106. N2 fLFkjhdj.k ds nkSjku N2 dk NH3 esa gksus okys
fixation is shown below :
:ikarj.k dk p;u uhps n'kkZ;k x;k gS :
N2 → N2H2 → A → 2NH3
N2 → N2H2 → A → 2NH3
Here ‘A’ is
;gk¡ ‘A’ gS
(1) NH+4 (2) Hydrazine (1) NH+4 (2) gkbMªktkbu
(3) Amide (4) –NH2 (3) ,ekbM (4) –NH2
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107. In plants, minerals are 107. ikniksa esa [kfut

(1) Absorbed as ions usually by active process (1) lkekU;r% lfØ; çfØ;k }kjk vk;u ds :i esa
(2) Absorbed by leaves vo'kksf"kr gksrs gS
(3) Always absorbed passively (2) i.kksZ }kjk vo'kksf"kr gksrs gSa
(3) lnSo fuf"Ø; :i ls vo'kksf"kr gksrs gSa
(4) Not required
(4) dh vko';drk ugha gksrh gS
108. Find the incorrect match.
108. vlqesfyr dk p;u dhft,A
Symptoms Deficient element
y{k.k vi;kZIr rRo
(1) Chlorosis – N, K, Mg
(1) Dyksjksfll – N, K, Mg
(2) Necrosis – Ca, Mg, Cu
(2) usØksfll – Ca, Mg, Cu
(3) Inhibition of cell – N, K, S and Mo
division (3) dksf'kdk foHkktu – N, K, S o Mo
dk laneu
(4) Late flowering – Na and Si
(4) iq"i.k esa foyac – Na o Si
109. Leg-haemoglobin provides the favourable
condition for the activity of 109. ysx-gheksXyksfcu fdldh fØ;k'khyrk ds dkj.k
(1) Nitrogenase (2) RuBisCO

vuqdwy fLFkfr çnku djrk gS?
(1) ukbVªkfs tust (2) :fcLdks (RuBisCO)
(3) Nitrate reductase (4) Nitrite reductase
(3) ukbVªsV fjMDVst (4) ukbVªkbV fjMDVst
110. Both Cu and Fe is required for the function of
(1) Nitrite reductase 110. Cu rFkk Fe nksuksa fdlds dk;Z ds fy, vfuok;Z gksrk
gSa
(2) Nitrogenase
(3) Leg haemoglobin ukbVªkbV fjMDVst (2) ukbVªkfs tust
(1)
(3) ysx gheksXyksfcu (4) Vªkl
a ,feust
(4) Transaminase
111. ukbVªkl
s kseksukWl :ikarfjr djrk gS
111. Nitrosomonas convert
(1) NH3 → NO2− (2) NO2− → NO3−
(1) NH3 → NO2− (2) NO2− → NO3−
(3) N2 → NH3 (4) NH3 → N2
(3) N2 → NH3 (4) NH3 → N2 112. ukbVªkt
s u fLFkjhdj.k ds nkSjku NH3 ds pkj v.kqvksa
112. For the formation of four molecules of NH 3 during ds fuekZ.k ds fy, fdldh vko';drk gksxh?
nitrogen fixation, there will be requirement of (1) 16 ADP (2) 32 ATP
(1) 16 ADP (2) 32 ATP (3) 8 GTP (4) 24 NADH
(3) 8 GTP (4) 24 NADH

113. ikniksa esa fVªIVksQSu vehuksa vEy ds la'ys"k.k ds fy,
fdldh vko';drk gksrh gS
113. Tryptophan amino acid synthesis in plants
(1) Zn (2) Mn
requires
(3) Cl (4) Na
(1) Zn (2) Mn 114. Vh-MCyw baty
s eSu
(3) Cl (4) Na (1) us çekf.kr fd;k fd lw;Zçdk'k dh mifLFkfr esa
114. T.W. Engelmann demonstrated ikni O2 eqDr dj ldrk gS
(1) That in presence of sunlight plant could (2) us çekf.kr fd;k fd çdk'kla'ys"k.k ds fy, O2
release O2 dh vko';drk gksrh gS
(2) O2 is required for photosynthesis (3) us çdk'kla'ys"k.k dh çFke fØ;k LisDVªe dks
çekf.kr fd;k
(3) The first action spectrum of photosynthesis
(4) us çekf.kr fd;k fd O2 ds mRiknu ds fy,
(4) That H2O is required to produce O2
H2O dh vko';drk gksrh gS
(18)@AakashDelhi02
115. Find the odd one w.r.t. Moll’s half leaf experiment. 115. ekWy ds v/kZi.kZ ç;ksx ds lanHkZ esa fo"ke in dk p;u
(1) It demonstrates the role of O2 for respiration dhft,A
(1) ;g 'olu ds fy, O2 dh Hkwfedk dks çekf.kr
(2) A part of leaf was enclosed in a test tube
containing KOH soaked cotton djrk gS
(2) i.kZ ds ,d Hkkx dks ij[kuyh esa j[kk x;k Fkk
(3) Exposed part of leaf tested positive for starch
ftlesa KOH vo'kksf"kr fd, x, dkWVu dk
(4) Covered part of leaf tested negative for starch VqdM+k Fkk
Light
116. 2H2 A + CO2 ⎯⎯⎯ → 2A + CH2O + H2O (3) ç;ksx fd;s x, i.kZ dk [kqyk gqvk Hkkx eaM ds
fy, ldkjkRed ik;k x;k
In this equation H2A is
(4) ç;ksx fd;s x, i.kZ dk <dk gqvk Hkkx eaM ds
(1) Oxidisable compound fy, udkjkRed ik;k x;k
çdk'k
(2) Reducible compound 116. 2H2 A + CO2 ⎯⎯⎯ → 2A + CH2O + H2O
(3) Electron acceptor bl lehdj.k esa H2A

(1) vkWDlhd`r gksus okyk ;kSfxd gS
(4) Always H2O
(2) vipf;r gksus okyk ;kSfxd gS
117. Mg is located in (3) bysDVªkWu xzkgh gS
(1) Phytol part of chlorophyll (4) lnSo H2O gksrk gS
(2) Porphyrin head of chlorophyll 117. Mg fdleas fLFkr gksrk gS
(3) Xanthophylls (1) i.kZgfjr ds QkbVkWy Hkkx esa
(2) i.kZgfjr ds iksjQk;fju 'kh"kZ esa
(4) Carotenes
(3) tSUFkksfQy esa
118. ‘Shield pigments’ during photosynthesis
(4) dSjksfVu esa
(1) Absorb the light to produce ATP 118. çdk'k la'ys"k.k ds nkSjku ‘<ky o.kZd’
(2) Protect the plant from excessive heat and also (1) ATP ds mRiknu ds fy, çdk'k dks vo'kksf"kr
function as primary pigments djrk gS
(3) Prevent photo-oxidation of chlorophyll (2) vR;f/kr m"ek ls ikni dh j{kk djrk gS rFkk
pigments çkFkfed o.kZd ds :i esa Hkh dk;Z djrk gS
(4) Produce ATP and NADPH directly by (3) i.kZgfjr o.kZd ds çdk'k vkWDlhdj.k dks jksdrk gS
absorbing light (4) vo'kksf"kr çdk'k }kjk ATP rFkk NADPH dks
119. Find the odd one w.r.t accessory pigments. çR;{k :i ls mRiUu djrk gS
119. lgk;d o.kZd ds lanHkZ esa fo"ke in dk p;u
(1) Chlorophyll b
dhft,A
(2) Xanthophyll (1) i.kZgfjr b
(3) Carotene (2) tSUFkksfQy
(4) Chlorophyll a (3) dSjksfVu
(4) i.kZgfjr a
120. Reaction center of PS-I
120. PS-I dk@ds vfHkfØ;k dsUæ
(1) Has chlorophyll c and absorb the light at 780
(1) esa i.kZgfjr c gksrk gS rFkk tks 780 nm ij
nm
çdk'k vo'kksf"kr djrk gS
(2) Has chlorophyll a and absorb the light at 680
(2) esa i.kZgfjr a gksrk gS rFkk tks 680 nm ij
nm
çdk'k vo'kksf"kr djrk gS
(3) Has chlorophyll a and absorb the light at 700 (3) esa i.kZgfjr a gksrk gS rFkk tks 700 nm ij çdk'k
nm
vo'kksf"kr djrk gS
(4) Does not contain chlorophyll a in it (4) esa i.kZgfjr a ugha gksrk gS
(19)@AakashDelhi02
121. Water splitting complex 121. ty foikfVr ladqy

(1) Is associated with PS-II (1) PS-II ls lacaf/kr gksrk gS
(2) Is associated with PS-I (2) PS-I ls lacaf/kr gksrk gS
(3) Contains Mg and Fe (3) esa Mg o Fe gksrk gS
(4) Produces CO2 during photosynthesis (4) çdk'k la'ys"k.k ds nkSjku CO2 mRiUu djrk gS
122. PS-I, during non-cyclic photophosphorylation 122. v&pØh; çdk'kQkWLQksfjyhdj.k ds nkSjku PS-I
accepts the electrons immediately from fdlls 'kh?kzrkiwoZd bysDVªkWu çkIr djrk gS\
(1) NADPH (2) NADH (1) NADPH (2) NADH
(3) Plastocyanin (4) Ferredoxin

(3)IykLVksfl;kfuu (4) QsjksMkWfDlu
123. pØh; çdk'kQkWLQksfjyhdj.k lkekU;r% rc gksrk gS
123. Cyclic photophosphorylation usually occurs when
tc
(1) Light intensity is very high
(1) çdk'k rhozrk vR;f/kd mPp gksrh gS
(2) O2 concentration is very poor
(2) O2 dh lkaærk vR;f/kd de gksrh gS
(3) CO2 availability is poor
(3) CO2 dh miyC/krk de gksrh gS
(4) CO2 concentration is very high (4) CO2 dh lkaærk vR;f/kd mPp gksrh gS
124. To make one molecule of sucrose ___ turns of 124. lqØkst ds ,d v.kq ds fuekZ.k ds fy, dsfYou pØ
Calvin cycle are required
ds ___ ?kqeko dh vko';drk gksrh gS
(1) Three (2) Six (1) rhu (2) N%
(3) Twelve (4) Nine (3) ckjg (4) ukS
125. Calvin cycle is present in 125. dsfYou pØ fdlesa mifLFkr gksrk gS\
(1) C3 plants only (1) dsoy C3 ikniksa esa
(2) C4 plants only (2) dsoy C4 ikniksa esa
(3) CAM plants only (3) dsoy CAM ikniksa esa
(4) C3, C4 and CAM plants (4) C3, C4 rFkk CAM ikniksa esa
126. First CO2 acceptor molecule during Hatch and 126. gSp o LySd iFkØe ds nkSjku çFke CO2 xzkgh v.kq
Slack pathway is gksrk gS
(1) PEP (1) PEP
(2) Pyruvic acid (2)ik:fod vEy
(3) jkbcwykst-1, 5-fclQkWLQsaV
(3) Ribulose-1, 5-bisphosphate
(4) :fcLdks
(4) RuBisCO
127. C3 ikniksa esa 6CO2 v.kq ds fLFkjhdj.k ds fy,
127. For the fixation of 6CO2 molecules in C3 plants,
there is requirement of fdldh vko';drk gksrh gS?
(1) 2 ATP and 3 NADPH (1) 2 ATP rFkk 3 NADPH
(2) 2 ATP rFkk 4 NADPH
(2) 2 ATP and 4 NADPH
128. :fcLdksa ,atkbe fdlds vfrfjDr lHkh esa mifLFkr
128. RuBisCO enzyme is present in all, except
gksrk gS\
(1) Mesophyll cells of C3 plants
(1) C3 ikniksa dh i.kZeè;ksrd dksf'kdkvksa esa
(2) Mesophyll cells of C4 plants
(2) C4 ikniksa dh i.kZeè;ksrd dksf'kdkvksa esa
(3) Bundle sheath cells of C4 plants (3) C4 ikniksa dh iwy vkPNn dksf'kdkvksa esa
(4) In CAM plants (4) CAM ikniksa esa
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129. Photorespiration reaction occurs in 129. çdk'k'olu vfHkfØ;k fdlesa gksrh gS\
(1) All C4 plants
(1)lHkh C4 ikniksa esa
(2) Chloroplast and nucleus of some C3 plants (2) dqN C3 ikniksa ds gfjryod o dsUæd esa
(3) Majority of C4 plants and CAM plants (3) vf/kdka'k C4 o CAM ikniksa esa
(4) C3 plants (4) C3 ikniksa esa
130. Find the correctly matched pair. 130. lqesfyr ;qXe dk p;u dhft,
(1) çdk'k la'ys"k.k ds – C4 ikni
(1) During photosynthesis, – C4 plants
first stable product is 3C
nkSjku 3C ;kSfxd
compound çFke LFkk;h
mRikn gksrk gS
(2) Primary CO2 acceptor is – C3 plants
(2) 3C ;kSfxd – C3 ikni
3C compound
çkFkfed CO2 xzkgh
(3) Efficient process of CO2 – C3 plants gksrk gS
fixation (3) CO2 fLFkjhdj.k – C3 ikni
(4) Can tolerate saline – C4 plants dh dk;Zn{k çfØ;k

conditions due to (4) buesa mifLFkr – C4 ikni
abundant organic acids in
çpqj dkcZfud
them
vEyksa ds dkj.k
131. Double carboxylation usually occurs in yo.kh; fLFkfr dks
(1) Some C3 plants and all C4 plants lgu dj ldrs gS
(2) Some C4 plants and all C3 plants 131. f}dkcksZfDlyhdj.k lkekU;r% fdlesa gksrk gS?
(1) dqN C3 o lHkh C4 ikniksa esa
(3) Sugarcane and Amaranthus
(2) dqN C4 o lHkh C3 ikniksa esa
(4) Maize and tomato
(3) xUuk o vesjsUFkl esa
132. Plants which show Kranz anatomy have all the
following characteristics, except (4) eDdk o VekVj esa
132. Øst
a 'kkjhfjdh n'kkZus okys ikniksa esa fdlds vfrfjDr
(1) Adaptation to dry tropical regions
fuEufyf[kr lHkh vfHky{k.k gksrs gS?
(2) Production of glycolate in chloroplast
(1) 'kq"d m".kdfVca/kh; {ks=ksa ds fy, vuqdwyu
(3) Higher yield and greater productivity
(2) gfjryod esa XykbdksysV dk mRiknu
(4) More efficient in CO2 utilization
(3) mPp mit o vf/kd mRikndrk
133. Read the given statements and choose the option (4) CO2 ds mi;ksx esa vf/kd dk;Zn{krk
which is true for them.
133. fn, x, dFkuksa dks if<+, rFkk blds fy, lgh
Statement-A : NADP reductase located on the
fodYi dk p;u dhft,
stroma side of the thylakoid membrane.
dFku-A : NADP fjMDVst FkSysDokW;M f>Yyh ds
Statement B : Most of the photosynthesis by
plants takes place in blue and red regions of light
ihfBdk Hkkx ij fLFkr gksrk gS
spectrum. dFku B : ikni }kjk vf/kdka'k çdk'kla'ys"k.k çdk'k
LisDVªe ds uhys o yky Hkkx esa gksrk gSA
(1) A o B nksuksa lgh gSa
(2) Only A is correct
(2) dsoy A lgh gS
(3) Only B is correct
(3) dsoy B lgh gS
(4) Both A and B are incorrect (4) A o B nksuksa xyr gS
@AakashDelhi02
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134. Photorespiration leads to the ___ loss of fixed 134. çdk'k 'olu ds dkj.k ___ fLFkj CO2 dh gkfu
CO2.
gksrh gS
(1) 25 percent (2) 50 percent
(1) 25 çfr'kr (2) 50 çfr'kr
(3) 1 percent (4) 90 percent
(3) 1 çfr'kr (4) 90 çfr'kr
135. OAA is first product of 135. OAA ____ dk çFke mRikn gS
(1) Calvin cycle (1) dsfYou pØ
(2) Hatch-Slack pathway (2) gSp-LySd iFkØe
(3) Photorespiration (3) çdk'k'olu
(4) C3 cycle in CAM plants (4) CAM ikniksa esa C3 pØ
136. Which of the following represent non-nucleated 136. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,d jDr dk dsUnzd jfgr
formed elements of blood? laxfBr inkFkZ n”kkZrk gSa\
(1) Eosinophils (2) Basophils (1) bvksfluksfQYl (2) cslksfQYl
(3) Lymphocytes (4) Thrombocytes (3) ylhdk.kq (4) FkzkEs ckslkbV~l
137. A network of threads forming coagulum at the site 137. pksV ds LFky ij Ldanu dks fufeZr djus okys /kkxsa
of injury primarily consists of ds tky izkFkfed #i ls cus gksrs gS\
(1) Fibrin (2) Fibrinogen (1) Qkbfczu (2) Qkbfczukstu
(3) Thrombin (4) Prothrombin (3) Fkzkfs Ecu (4) izkFs kzksfEcu
138. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t lymphatic 138. ylhdkHk ra= ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dk p;u
system dhft,A
(1) The fluid is drained into major arteries through (1) nzo yfldk okfgfu;ksa ds ekè;e ls eq[; /kefu;ksa
lymph vessels esa tkrk gS
(2) It consists of capillaries, vessels, nodes and (2) ;g dsf”kdkvksa] okfgfu;ksa] xzafFk;ksa rFkk okfgdkvksa
ducts ls cuk gksrk gS
(3) The walls of larger lymphatic vessels are (3) cM+h ylhdkHk okfgfu;ksa dh fHkfÙk f”kjkvksa ds
similar to veins leku gksrh gS
(4) Lymphoid organs comprise of thymus, tonsils, (4) yfldkHk vaxksa esa Fkkbel] VkWfUly] Iyhgk rFkk
spleen and bone marrow vfLFk eTtk lekfo’V gksrs gSa
139. A neonate with blood group A positive suffered 139. jDr lewg A +ve okyk ,d uotkr bfjFkzkCs ykLVksfll
erythroblastosis fetalis. Choose the option that QhVsfyl ls ihfM+r gSA ml fodYi dk p;u dhft,
represents the possible blood group of his
tks mlds ekrk&firk ds lEHko jDr lewg dks n”kkZrk
parents.
gS
Mother Father
ekrk firk
(1) A positive O negative (1) A ikstfs Vo O usxsfVo
(2) O negative A positive (2) O usxsfVo A ikstfs Vo
(3) A positive A positive (3) A ikstfs Vo A ikstfs Vo
(4) O negative A negative (4) O usxsfVo A usxsfVo
(22)@AakashDelhi02
140. The opening in thick fibrous tissue septum 140. euq’;ksa esa] ân; ds ck,¡ vksj ds dks’B dks vyx djus
separating chambers on left side of the heart in okys eksVs js”ksnkj Ård iV dk fNæ [kqyuk fdlds
humans, is guarded by }kjk fu;af=r gksrk gS\
(1) Two flaps (1) nks ¶ySi
(2) Half-moon shaped flaps (2) v/kZpUnzkdkj ¶ySi
(3) Three flaps (3) rhu ¶ySi
(4) No flaps (4) dksbZ ¶ySi ugha
141. Double circulation differs from incomplete double 141. f}&ifjlapj.k] viw.kZ f}&ifjlapj.k ls fHkUu gksrk gS
circulation as in latter D;ksfa d viw.kZ f}lapj.k esa
(1) Left atrium receives oxygenated blood (1) cka;k vkfyan vkWDlhtfur jDr çkIr djrk gS
(2) Right atrium receives deoxygenated blood (2) nk;ka vkfyan fovkWDlhtfur jDr çkIr djrk gS
(3) Heart pumps out mixed blood (3) ân; fefJr jDr iai djrk gS
(4) Heart pumps out mixed blood from different (4) ân; fofHkUu dks"B ls fefJr jDr iai djrk gS
chambers
142. f'kjk vkfyan ioZ ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dk p;u
142. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. sino-atrial dhft,A
node
(1) ;g nk,¡ vkfyan ds Åijh nk,¡ dksus ij mifLFkr
(1) It is present in upper right corner of right gksrk gS
atrium
(2) ;g yxkrkj vkosxksa dk mRiknu djrk gS
(2) It produces impulses spontaneously
(3) ;g dsoy fuy;h ek;ksdkfMZ;e ds ladqpu dks
(3) It stimulates the contraction of only ventricular
mÙksftr djrk gS
myocardium
(4) blesa nksuksa vuqdaih rFkk ijkuqdEih raf=dkvksa dh
(4) It is innervated by both sympathetic and
parasympathetic nerves
vkiwfrZ gksrh gS
143. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk ?kVukØe fuy;h izdqapu
143. Which of the following events does not occur
during ventricular systole? ds nkSjku ugha gksrk gS\
(1) Closure of AV valves (1) AV dikVksa dk can gksuk
(2) Opening of semilunar valves (2) v/kZpUnzkdkj dikVksa dk [kqyuk
(3) Relaxation of atria (3) vfyUnksa dk vuqf”kfFkyu
(4) Second heart sound (4) f}rh; ân; èofu
144. Read the following statements. 144. fuEufyf[kr dFkukas dks if<+,A
Statement A : The cardiac output of an athlete

dFku A : ,d lkekU; O;fDr dh vis{kk ,d f[kykM+h
will be higher than that of an ordinary man. dh ân; fuxZr vf/kd gksrh gSA
Statement B : The endurance trained state in a dFku B : ,d f[kykM+h esa /khjt çf'kf{kr voLFkk
sportsperson is associated with greater stroke laof/kZr çhyksM ds dkj.k vf/kdre çokg vk;ru ds
volume because of augmented preload. lkFk lEcfU/kr gksrk gSA
Choose the correct option. lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Only statement A is correct (1) dsoy dFku A lgh gS
(2) Only statement B is correct (2) dsoy dFku B lgh gS
(3) Statement B explains statement A (3) dFku B dFku A dk o.kZu djrk gS
(4) Both statements are incorrect (4) nksuksa dFku xyr gS
(23)@AakashDelhi02
145. While studying an ECG, the heart rate can be 145. tc ECG dk vè;;u fd;k tkrk gS rks izk;% fdldh
determined by usually counting the la[;k ls ân; nj dks fu/kkZfjr fd;k tk ldrk gS
(1) P-waves (1) P-rjaxs
(2) QRS complexes (2) QRS lfEeJ
(3) T waves (3) T rjaxs
(4) PR intervals (4) PR vUrjky
146. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. blood 146. ;d`r dh :f/kj okfgfu;ksa ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dk
vessels of liver.
p;u dhft,A
(1) Hepatic artery brings oxygenated blood into
(1) ;d`r /kefu;k¡ ;d`r esa vkWDlhtfur #f/kj
the liver
igq¡pkrh gS
(2) Hepatic portal vein brings nutrient rich
(2) ;d`r fuokfgdk f”kjk] ;d`r esa iks’k.k izpqj
deoxygenated blood into the liver
fovkWDlhtfur #f/kj igq¡pkrh gS
(3) Hepatic vein carries urea rich blood out of the
liver (3) ;d`r f”kjk] ;d`r ls ;wfj;k ;qDr #f/kj dks ys
tkrh gS
(4) Hepatic portal vein and hepatic vein both carry
deoxygenated blood out of the liver (4) ;d`r fuokfgdk f”kjk rFkk ;d`r f”kjk nksuksa
147. The walls of blood vessels in human body are

;d`r ls fovkWDlhtfur #f/kj dks ys tkrh gS
internally lined by 147. ekuo “kjhj esa jDr okfgfu;ksa dh fHkfÙk vkarfjd #i
(1) More white fibres and less yellow fibres ls fdlls vLrfjr gksrh gS\
(2) More yellow fibres and less muscles fibres (1) vR;f/kd “osr rUrqvksa rFkk de ihys rUrqvksa ls
(3) White fibres, muscle fibres and endothelium (2) vR;f/kd ihys rUrqvksa rFkk fuEu is”kh; rUrqvksa ls
(4) Endothelium (3) “osr rUrqvksa] is”kh rUrqvksa rFkk ,.MksFkhfy;e ls
148. The part of brain responsible for maintenance of (4) ,.MksFkhfy;e ls

cardiac function through autonomic nervous 148. efLr’d dk og Hkkx tks Lok;Ùk raf=dk ra= ds
system is ekè;e ls ân; dk;ksZa dks cuk, j[kus ds fy,
(1) Midbrain mÙkjnk;h gksrk gS\
(2) Cerebrum (1) eè;efLr’d
(3) Pons (2) izefLr’d
(4) Medulla oblongata (3) iksal
149. ‘Complete stoppage of heart beat’ is referred to as (4) esM~;yw k vkscyksxa sVk
(1) Angina pectoris 149. ‘ân; Lianu dk iw.kZ #i ls #duk’ fdlls lEcfU/kr
(2) Heart failure gS
(3) Heart attack (1) ,sfUtuk isDVksfjl (2) gkVZ QsY;ksj
(4) Cardiac arrest (3) gkVZ vVSd (4) dkfMZ,d vjsLV
150. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. healthy adult 150. ,d LoLFk O;Ld euq’; ds lanHkZ esa xyr feyku dk
human p;u dhft,A
(1) Lymph = Blood − (RBCs + large proteins) (1) yfldk = jDr − (RBCs + cMs+ izkV s hu)
(2) Leucocytes = 6000 − 8000/mm3 (2) Y;wdkslkbV = 6000 − 8000/mm3
(3) Serum = Plasma + Clotting factors (3) lhje = IykTek + LdUnu dkjd
(4) Erythrocytes = 5 − 5.5 million/mm3 (4) bfjFkzkslkbV~l = 5 − 5.5 fefy;u/mm3
(24)@AakashDelhi02
151. In the given figure, the structure labelled ‘X’ is 151. fn, x, vkjs[k esa ukekafdr lajpuk ‘X’ vkarfjd #i
internally lined by ls fdlds }kjk vkLrfjr gS\
(1) Simple squamous epithelium (1)ljy “kYdh midyk

(2) Simple cuboidal brush bordered epithelium (2) ljy ?kukdkj cz”k ckMZj midyk
(3) Simple cuboidal ciliated epithelium (3) ljy ?kukdkj i{ekHkh midyk
(4) Pseudostratified epithelium (4) dwV Lrjhd`r midyk
152. In human kidney, the cortex extends between the 152. ekuo o`Dd esa] oYdqV eè;ka”k fijSfeM ds eè; LrEHk
medullary pyramids as columns called ds #i esa foLr`r gksrs gS] mUgsa dgrs gS
(1) Renal pelvis (1) o`Dd Jksf.k
(2) Columns of Bertini (2) cjfruh ds LrEHk
(3) Minor calyx (3) y?kq dSfyDl
(4) Major calyx (4) izeq[k dSfyDl
153. Choose the odd one w.r.t diuretics 153. ew=o/kZd ds lanHkZ esa ,d fo’ke dk p;u dhft,A
(1) ADH (2) Alcohol (1) ADH (2) ,Ydksgy
(3) ANF (4) Caffeine (3) ANF (4) dSQhu
154. Choose the correct match w.r.t. organism and its 154. tho rFkk blds eq[; mRlthZ mRiknksa ds lanHkZ esa
chief excretory product. lgh feyku dk p;u dhft,A
i. Bony fishes (a) Ammonia i. vfLFky eNyh (a) veksfu;k
ii. Terrestrial insects (b) Urea ii. LFkyh; dhV (b) ;wfj;k
iii. Marine fishes (c) Uric acid iii. leqnzh eNyh (c) ;wfjd vEy
(d) Guanine (d) Xokuhu
(1) i(b), ii(a), iii(d) (2) i(a), ii(c), iii(b) (1) i(b), ii(a), iii(d) (2) i(a), ii(c), iii(b)
(3) i(a), ii(c), iii(d) (4) i(a), ii(b), iii(c) (3) i(a), ii(c), iii(d) (4) i(a), ii(b), iii(c)
155. Which of the following is not a component of the 155. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,d usÝksu dh fuL;anu
filtration membrane of nephron? f>Yyh dk vo;o ugha gS\
(1) Endothelium of glomerular blood vessels (1) Xykses#yj #f/kj okfgfu;ksa dh ,.MksFkhfy;e
(2) Epithelium of Bowman’s capsule (2) cksesu lEiqV dh ,ihfFkfy;e
(3) Basement membrane between these layers (3) bu lrgksa ds eè; vk/kkjh; f>Yyh
(4) Mesothelium of glomerular blood vessels (4) Xykses#yj #f/kj okfgfu;ksa dh ehtksFkhfy;e
156. Osmoregulatory structures in Planaria are 156. IySufs j;k esa ilklj.kfu;eu lajpuk gS
(1) Protonephridia (2) Mesonephridia (1) izkVs ksufs ÝfM;k (2) ehtksusfÝfM;k
(3) Metanephridia (4) Nephrons (3) esVkusfÝfM;k (4) usÝksu
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157. The juxta glomerular apparatus is formed by the 157. tDLVk Xykses:yj midj.k fdlds #ikarj.k }kjk
modification of fufeZr gksrk gS\
(1) DCT only (1) dsoy DCT
(2) DCT and efferent arteriole (2) DCT rFkk viokgh /kefudkvksa
(3) DCT and afferent arteriole (3) DCT rFkk vfHkokgh /kefudkvksa
(4) DCT, afferent and efferent arteriole (4) DCT, vfHkokgh rFkk viokgh /kefudkvksa
158. Sympathetic stimulation of arteries of kidney leads 158. o`Dd dh /kefu;ksa ds vuqdEih mn~nhiu ds dkj.k
to their I and II in GFR. Choose the option budk I rFkk GFR esa II gksrh gSA ml fodYi
that fills I and II correctly. dk p;u dhft, tks fjDr LFkkuksa I rFkk II dh lgh
#i ls iwfrZ djrk gSA
I II
I II
(1) Dilation Increase (1) foLrkj.k o`f)
(2) Constriction Decrease (2) ladqpu deh
(3) Constriction Increase (3) ladqpu o`f}
(4) Dilation Decrease (4) foLrkj.k deh
159. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. regulation 159. o`Dd ds dk;Z ds fu;eu ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dk
of kidney function. p;u dhft,A
(1) Angiotensin II signals PCT to reabsorb more (1) ,aft;ksVsfUlu II PCT dks vf/kd NaCl rFkk ty
NaCl and water ds iqujko”kks’k.k ds fy, ladsr nsrk gS
(2) Aldosterone induces distal parts of the tubule (2) ,YMksLVsjku ufydk ds nwjLFk Hkkx dks vR;f/kd
to reabsorb more Na+ and water Na+ rFkk ty ds iqujko”kks’k.k ds fy, izsfjr
(3) Renin converts Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II djrk gS
(4) RAAS is a multihormonal system that can (3) jsfuu ,fUt;ksVfs lu I dks ,fUt;ksVsflu II esa
regulate blood volume and blood pressure. ifjofrZr djrk gS
160. Release of ADH can be stimulated by all of the (4) RAAS ,d eYVhgkeksZuy ra= gS tks jDr vk;ru
following except rFkk jDr nkc dks fua;f=r djrk gS
(1) Loss of fluid from the body 160. fdlds vfrfjDr fuEufyf[kr lHkh }kjk ADH dk
(2) Increased ionic concentration in body
L=o.k çsfjr gks ldrk gS
(1) “kjhj ls nzo dh gkfu
(3) Reduction in blood pressure
(2) “kjhj esa vk;uh lkanzrk esa o`f)
(4) Increased blood volume
(3) jDrnkc esa deh
161. Diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed by the
(4) jDr vk;ru esa o`f)
presence of ___ in urine. Choose the option that
fills the blank correctly 161. ew= esa ___ dh mifLFkfr ls Mk;fcVht esyhVl dh
(1) Glucose (2) Fructose
igpku dh tk ldrh gSA ml fodYi dk p;u
dhft, tks lgh #i ls fjDr LFkku dh iwfrZ djrk gS
(3) Urea (4) Creatinine
(1) Xywdkst (2) ÝDVkst
162. Mammals have the ability to produce concentrated
(3) ;wfj;k (4) fØVsfuu
urine. This happens primarily because of all the
following except 162. Lru/kkfj;ksa esa lkafnzr ew= mRiUu djus dh {kerk
(1) Counter current mechanism
gksrh gSA fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlds vfrfjDr vU;
lHkh ds dkj.k izkFkfed #i ls ;g ?kfVr gksrk gS\
(2) Proximity between Henle’s loop and vasa
recta (1) izfr/kkjk fØ;kfof/k
(2) gsuys ywi rFkk oklk jsDVk ds eè; fudVrk
(3) Long loops of Henle in cortical nephrons
(3) oYdqVh; usÝksu esa gsuys dh yEch ywi
(4) Long loops of Henle in juxtamedullary
(4) tDLVk esMywjh usÝksu esa gsuys dh yEch ywi
(26)@AakashDelhi02
nephrons 163. o`Dd df.kdk esa vuqifLFkr gksrh gS

163. Renal corpuscle lacks (1) Xykses:yl
(1) Glomerulus (2) cksesu lEiqV
(2) Bowman's capsule (3) ink.kq
(3) Podocytes (4) ljy ?kukdkj midyk
(4) Simple cuboidal epithelium 164. lajpuk rFkk blls lEcfU/kr mRlthZ mRikn ds lanHkZ
esa lgh feyku dk p;u dhft,A
164. Choose the correct match w.r.t. structure and its
respective excretory product a. ;d`r (i) dkcZu MkbvkWDlkbM
b. Losn xzzafFk;k¡ (ii) fiÙk o.kZd
a. Liver (i) Carbon dioxide
c. rSy xzzafFk (iii) gkbMªksdkcZu
b. Sweat glands (ii) Bile pigments
d. QsQM+s (iv) NaCl
c. Sebaceous glands (iii) Hydrocarbons
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
d. Lungs (iv) NaCl
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) 165. o`Dd ds eè; fufeZr v?kqyu”khy fØLVfyr yo.kksa ds
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) fiaM dks dgrs gS
165. Insoluble masses of crystallised salts formed (1) Xykses#yksusfÝfVl (2) jhuy dsydqykbZ
within the kidney are referred to as (3) fiyiFkjh (4) dhVksU;wfj;k
(1) Glomerulonephritis (2) Renal calculi 166. diky dh ;qXeh vfLFk;ksa ds lanHkZ esa ,d fo’ke dk
(3) Cholelithiasis (4) Ketonuria p;u dhft,A
166. Choose the odd one w.r.t paired bones of skull (1) iSjkbVy (2) ,Fkeks;M
(3) tkbxksesfVd (4) eSfDlyk
(1) Parietal (2) Ethmoid
167. ,d O;Ld euq’; dh ilfy;ksa ds lanHkZ esa xyr
(3) Zygomatic (4) Maxilla
dFku dk p;u dhft,A
167. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t ribs of an (1) izR;sd ilyh ,d iryh piVh vfLFk gS rFkk
adult human.
lHkh ilfy;k¡ mjksfLFk ls i`’Bh; #i ls tqM+h
(1) Each rib is a flat thin bone and all ribs are gksrh gS
connected dorsally to the sternum (2) okLrfod ilfy;k¡ nks fljksa ls d”ks#d ls tqM+h
(2) True ribs are attached with vertebrae by two gksrh gS
heads (3) oVhZczkd s ksUMªy ilfy;ksa ds rhu tksfM+;k¡
(3) The three pairs of vertebrochondral ribs are oVhZczkLs Vjuy ilfy;ksa ls tqM+h gksrh gS
attached to vertebrosternal ribs (4) Iykoh ilfy;k¡ o`Ddksa dh lqj{kk çnku djrh gS
(4) Floating ribs protect the kidneys 168. og lfU/k tks euq’; ds vaxwBs dks eqDr #i ls xeu
168. Joint which allows free movement of human djus nsrh gS
thumb is (1) dUnqd [kfYydk laf/k (2) lSMy laf/k
(1) Ball and socket joint (2) Saddle joint (3) folihZ laf/k (4) /kqjkxz laf/k
(3) Gliding joint (4) Pivot joint 169. rarq folihZ fl)kar ds vuqlkj]
169. According to sliding filament theory, (1) xgjs rFkk gYds ek;ksfQykesV a vius okLrfod
LFkku ls xfr djrs gSa rFkk ,d nwljs dh vksj
(1) Dark and light myofilaments move from their ljdrs gSA
original position and slide towards each other
(2) xgjs ek;ksfQykesUV NksVs gksrs gSa rFkk gYds
(2) Dark myofilaments shorten and slide towards ek;ksfQykesUV dh vksj vk tkrs gS
light myofilaments
(3) is”kh ladqpu ds nkSjku u rks xgjs u gh gYds
(3) Neither dark nor light myofilaments shorten ek;ksfQykesV NksVs gksrs gS
during muscle contraction
(4) gYds ek;ksfQykesUV vius fljksa ds foLrkj }kjk
(4) Light myofilaments participate in it by ØkWl lsrw fuekZ.k esa Hkkx ysrs gS
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extending their heads to form cross bridges 170. gkbiksdSfY”kfe;k ds dkj.k is”kh esa yxkrkj is'kh
170. A condition of sustained muscle contraction ladqpu dh voLFkk dks dgrs gS]
occurring due to hypocalcemia is called (1) Vksul (2) VsVul
(1) Tonus (2) Tetanus (3) fVVsuh (4) VªSIih

171. f}f”kjLd esa is”kh rUrq gksrs gS] tks
(3) Tetany (4) Treppe
(1) jsf[kr] “kkf[kr rFkk cgqdsUnzdh gksrs gS
171. Biceps contain muscle fibres that are
(2) jsf[kr] “kk[kkjfgr rFkk ,ddsUnzdh gksrh gS
(1) Striated, branched and syncytial
(3) rdqZ#ih] “kkf[kr rFkk cgqdsUnzdh gksrh gS
(2) Striated, unbranched and mononucleated (4) csyukdkj] “kk[kkjfgr rFkk jsf[kr gksrh gS
(3) Fusiform, branched and syncytial 172. F-,fDVu ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,A
(4) Cylindrical, unbranched and striated (1) ;g js”kh; rFkk daqMfyr gksrs gS
172. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. F-actin. (2) ;g cgqyhd`r izkV s hu gksrs gS
(1) It is filamentous and helically wound (3) ;g ladqpu'khy LMM rFkk HMM ds cus gksrs gS
(2) It is a polymerised protein (4) ;g ladqpu”khy izkV s hu gksrs gS
(3) It is made up of contractile LMM and HMM 173. mikfLFk;qDr laf/k vfLFk;k¡ dgk¡ ij@ds eè; ns[kh tk
ldrh gS\
(4) It is a contractile protein
(1) dikyh; vfLFk;k¡ (2) t?ku la/kku
173. Cartilaginous joints bones can be seen at/between
(3) dkiZy (4) ,Vyl rFkk v{kh;
(1) Skull bones (2) Pubic symphysis 174. ,d vk;q lEcU/kh dadkyh fodkj tks vfLFk;ksa ls
(3) Carpals (4) Atlas and axis [kfutksa dh deh }kjk vfHkyk{kf.kr gksrh gS
174. An age related skeletal disorder which is (1) xkmV
characterised by loss of minerals from the bone is
(2) vfLFk lqf’kjrk
(1) Gout
(3) vksfLV;ksvkFkzkZbfVl
(2) Osteoporosis
(4) :esfV laf/k”kksFk
(3) Osteoarthritis
175. da/kk laf/k esa LdSiqyk o fdlds chp dk laf/k;kstu
(4) Rheumatoid arthritis
lfEefyr gksrk gS\
175. Shoulder joint involves articulation between
(1) Qhej (2) DySfody
scapula and
(3) â;wesjl (4) mjksfLFk
(1) Femur (2) Clavicle
176. ,dy ekuo ikn esa mifLFkr esVkdkiZy dh dqy
(3) Humerus (4) Sternum
la[;k gksrh gS
176. Total number of metacarpals present in a single
human limb is (1) 5 (2) 10
(3) 20 (4) 30
(1) 5 (2) 10
177. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks if<+,
(3) 20 (4) 30
(a) gkbvksbM mikaxh; dadky dk ,d v;qfXer
vfLFk gS
(a) Hyoid is an unpaired bone of appendicular
skeleton. (b) VsEiksjy vfLFk;k¡ lhou dh lgk;rk ls iSjkbVy
(b) Temporal bones are joined with parietal bones

vfLFk;ksa ds lkFk tqM+h gksrh gS
by sutures. (c) f}rh; xzhok d”ks:d dks ,Vyl dgrs gS
(c) The second cervical vertebra is called atlas. (d) iVSyk] lslkekWbM vfLFk dk ,d mnkgj.k gS
(d) Patella is an example of sesamoid bone. lgh dFkuksa okys fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
Choose the option with correct statements. (1) (a) rFkk (b) (2) (a) rFkk (c)
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a) and (c) (3) (b) rFkk (c) (4) (b) rFkk (d)
(28)@AakashDelhi02
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (b) and (d) 178. Jksf.k es[kyk dh d{kkax vfLFk;ksa esa lekfo’V gksrh gS
178. Coxal bone of pelvic girdle comprises (a) bfy;e (b) bfLp;e
(a) Ilium (b) Ischium (c) {kqækar (d) I;wfcl
(c) Ileum (d) Pubis (1) dsoy (a) rFkk (b) (2) dsoy (b) rFkk (c)
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only (3) (b), (c) rFkk (d) (4) (a), (b) rFkk (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d) 179. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlds vfrfjDr vU; lHkh yky
179. Red muscle fibres contain all the following except is'kh rUrqvksa esa gksrs gSa
(1) Myoglobin (2) Mitochondria (1) ek;ksXyksfcu (2) ekbVksdkfMª;k
(3) Many nuclei (4) Gap junctions (3) vusd dsUnzd (4) vUrjkyh lfU/k
180. The connective tissue covering of a muscle is 180. ,d is”kh dk la;ksth Ård vkoj.k dgykrk gS\
called (1) ,ihekbfl;e (2) isjhekbfl;e
(1) Epimysium (2) Perimysium (3) ,UMksekbfl;e (4) lkdksZyEs ek
(3) Endomysium (4) Sarcolemma
❑ ❑ ❑
(29)@AakashDelhi02
31/03/2020 CODE-A
MM : 720 Time : 3.00 Hrs.
1. (4) 37. (4) 73. (2) 109. (1) 145. (2)

2. (3) 38. (4) 74. (4) 110. (1) 146 (4)
3. (1) 39. (1) 75. (2) 111. (1) 147. (4)
4. (3) 40. (4) 76. (2) 112. (2) 148. (4)
5. (3) 41. (1) 77. (2) 113. (1) 149. (4)
6. (2) 42. (1) 78. (1) 114. (3) 150. (3)
7. (3) 43. (2) 79. (2) 115. (1) 151. (2)
8. (1) 44. (4) 80. (4) 116. (1) 152. (2)
9. (3) 45. (1) 81. (2) 117. (2) 153. (1)
10. (4) 46. (2) 82. (2) 118. (3) 154. (2)
11. (2) 47. (4) 83. (2) 119. (4) 155. (4)
12. (3) 48. (2) 84. (1) 120. (3) 156. (1)
13. (3) 49. (4) 85. (2) 121. (1) 157. (3)
14. (2) 50. (1) 86. (4) 122. (3) 158. (2)
15. (2) 51. (2) 87. (2) 123. (3) 159. (3)
16. (1) 52. (3) 88. (3) 124. (3) 160. (4)
17. (3) 53. (1) 89. (4) 125. (4) 161. (1)
18. (3) 54. (3) 90. (4) 126. (1) 162. (3)
19. (4) 55. (4) 91. (3) 127. (4) 163. (4)
20. (1) 56. (3) 92. (3) 128. (2) 164. (4)
21. (2) 57. (1) 93. (3) 129. (4) 165. (2)
22. (1) 58. (2) 94. (1) 130. (4) 166. (2)
23. (2) 59. (3) 95. (4) 131. (3) 167. (1)
24. (3) 60. (1) 96. (3) 132. (2) 168. (2)
25. (3) 61. (1) 97. (4) 133. (1) 169. (3)
26. (1) 62. (3) 98. (3) 134. (1) 170. (3)
27. (2) 63. (1) 99. (1) 135. (2) 171. (4)
28. (4) 64. (3) 100. (1) 136. (4) 172. (3)
29. (2) 65. (4) 101. (2) 137. (1) 173. (2)
30. (2) 66. (2) 102. (2) 138. (1) 174. (2)
31. (2) 67. (1) 103. (3) 139. (2) 175. (3)
32. (2) 68. (1) 104. (2) 140. (1) 176. (1)
33. (2) 69. (3) 105. (2) 141. (3) 177. (4)
34. (2) 70. (3) 106. (2) 142. (3) 178. (4)
35. (1) 71. (1) 107. (1) 143. (4) 179. (4)
36. (3) 72. (2) 108. (4) 144. (3) 180. (1)
@AakashDelhi02
(1)
31/03/2020 CODE-A
MM : 720 Time : 3:00 Hrs.

P
= P
 V  =
 V   V 
   V 
 
 V   V 
 V  = t  V  = t
   
P P
= =
t t
P P
t = t =
 
Stress E=
çfrcy
E=
Strain fodf`r
Modulus of elasticity (E) is material’s property. It çR;kLFkrk xq.kkad (E) inkFkZ dk xq.k gSA ;g leku
will remain same. jgsxkA
1 YA 2 1 YA 2
x x
2 l 2 l
For elastomers stress-strain curve is not linear çR;kLFkyd ds fy, çfrcy-fod`fr çR;kLFk lhek esa
within elastic limit. js[kh; ugha gksrh gSA
Fl Fl
l = l =
YA YA
l A 80  3 l A 80  3
= = 4 :1 = = 4 :1
l B 30  2 l B 30  2
@AakashDelhi02
(2)

F l F l
l = l =
2YA 2YA
l  A  g  l l  A  g  l
l = l =
2Y  A 2Y  A
64  1600  10 64  1600  10
l = l =
2  4  108 2  4  108
= 64 × 2 × 10–5 = 64 × 2 × 10–5
= 128 × 10–5 = 128 × 10–5
= 1.28 × 10–3 = 1.28 mm = 1.28 ×10–3 = 1.28 mm
P P
= =
V V
V V
V P V P
= =
V  V 
= gh  40  10−11 = gh  40  10−11
= 103 × 10 × 2000 × 40 × 10–11 = 103 × 10 × 2000 × 40 × 10–11

= 8 × 10–3 = 8 × 10–3

Fl Fl
Y= Y=
lA lA
mgl 2mgl mgl 2mgl

= =
(l1 − l )A (l 2 − l )A (l1 − l )A (l 2 − l )A
(l2 − l )l = 2l (l1 − l ) (l2 − l )l = 2l (l1 − l )
l2 − l = 2l1 − 2l l2 − l = 2l1 − 2l
l = 2l1 − l2 l = 2l1 − l2

K = Yr0 K = Yr0
= 20 × 1010 × 4 × 10–10 = 20 × 1010 × 4 ×10–10
= 80 N/m = 80 N/m
= 80 × 10–10 N/Å
= 80 × 10–10 N/Å
= 8 × 10–9 N/Å
= 8 × 10–9 N/Å
10. Answer (4)
10. mÙkj (4)
Yield point (stress) remains same. ijkHko fcUnq (çfrcy) leku jgrk gSA
(3)
@AakashDelhi02
11. Answer (2) 11. mÙkj (2)

F F
= gh = gh
A A
100 100
= 103  10h = 103  10h
500  10−4 500  10−4
1
1 =h
=h 5
5
h = 0.2 m
h = 0.2 m
12. mÙkj (3)
12. Answer (3)
rki esa o`f) ds lkFk æo dh ';kurk ?kVrh gS rFkk
With increase in temperature, viscosity of liquids
xSl dh ';kurk c<+rh gSA
decreases and that of gas increases.
13. mÙkj (3)
13. Answer (3)
2gr 2
2gr 2 VT = ( − )
VT = ( − ) 9
9
2  10(2  10−3 )2
−3 2 6.5  10−2 = (8.9  103 − )
2  10(2  10 ) 9  9.9  10−1
6.5  10−2 = (8.9  103 − )
9  9.9  10−1
 = 1.66  103 kg/ m3
3 3
 = 1.66  10 kg/ m
14. mÙkj (2)
14. Answer (2) tgk¡ vuqçLFk dkV dk {ks=Qy de gS] pky vf/kd gS
Where area of cross-section is small, speed is rFkk nkc de gSA
high and pressure is low. 15. mÙkj (2)
15. Answer (2) 4P = gh + P
4P = gh + P gh
P=
gh 3
P=
3 2
P + gh   = P1
3
2
P + gh   = P1
3  P1 = 3P
 P1 = 3P 16. mÙkj (1)

f=T;k r dh cwna ds fy,
16. Answer (1)
2T
For drop of radius r =p
r
2T 2  8  10−2
=p  r =  4  10−5 m
r
4  103
2  8  10−2 17. mÙkj (3)
 r =  4  10−5 m
4  103
IysV dks i`FkDd`r djus ds fy, vko';d cy
17. Answer (3) 2SA
F=
Force required to separate the plate t
2SA 2  70  10−3  10−1 2  70  10−3  10−1

F= = = 140 N = = 140 N
t 1 10−4 1 10−4
(4)
@AakashDelhi02
18. Answer (3) 18. mÙkj (3)

R = 2 h(30 − h) R = 2 h(30 − h)
19. Answer (4) 19. mÙkj (4)
Velocity profile of a viscous fluid is a parabola. ,d ';ku rjy dh osx :ijs[kk ,d ijoy; gSA
20. Answer (1) 20. mÙkj (1)
Since volume remains the same when a liquid
pwfa d vk;ru leku jgrk gS tc f=T;k R dh ,d
drop of radius R breaks up into N3 droplets, each
of radius r,
æo dh cwan f=T;k r dh N3 cwna ksa esa VwVrh gSA
4 3  4 3  R
4 3  4 3  R R = N3  r  ;k r =
R = N3  r  or r = 3  3  N
3  3  N
Change in internal energy,
vkarfjd ÅtkZ esa ifjorZu,
U = T  A = T [4R 2 − N 2 (4r 2 )]
U = T  A = T [4R 2 − N 2 (4r 2 )]
U
U pfawd U = mc T , T =
As U = mcT , T = mc
mc
4T (R 2 − N 2r 2 ) 3(N − 1)T
4T (R 2 − N 2r 2 ) 3(N − 1)T ;k T = =
or T = = (4 / 3)R 3c PCR
(4 / 3)R 3c PCR
21. mÙkj (2)
21. Answer (2)
RT
RT p = (n1 + n2 )
p = (n1 + n2 ) V
V
m (10 − m) 2  105  0.04
5
m (10 − m) 2  10  0.04  + =
 + = 2 4 8.3  293
2 4 8.3  293
2m + 10 − m
 = 3.29
2m + 10 − m 4
 = 3.29
4  m = 3.16 g
 m = 3.16 g (10 – m) = 6.84 g
(10 – m) = 6.84 g 22. mÙkj (1)
22. Answer (1) PV = nRT
PV = nRT  PV = nRT
 PV = nRT V T
 =
V T
V T
 = V 1
V T  =
V T T
V 1
 = 23. mÙkj (2)
V T T
nCV T
23. Answer (2)
R
nCV T = 3  20
5 
−
3 1
R 9  
= 3  20 =  20  R
5  2
 3 − 1 9
  =  20  R
2
9 25 9 25
=  20  = 750 J =  20  = 750 J
2 3 2 3
(5)
@AakashDelhi02
24. Answer (3) 24. mÙkj (3)

PV = nRT
PV = nRT
Third graph is incorrect as PV would not remain
;g vkjs[k xyr gS D;ksafd PV fu;r ugha jgsxk ;fn
constant if T changes.
T ifjofrZr gksrk gSA
25. Answer (3)
25. mÙkj (3)
3RT
Vr .m.s. = 3RT
M Vr .m.s. =
M
3RT
V 3RT
= M
V M
V1 9RT =
M
V1 9RT
M
3
3
V 1
=  V1 = 3V V 1
V1 3 =  V1 = 3V
V1 3
26. Answer (1)
26. mÙkj (1)
W = 2P0 V0 = 4P0V0
W = 2P0 V0 = 4P0V0
3
nCV T = n  Rx 2T0 3
2 nCV T = n  Rx 2T0
2
= 3 nRT0 = 3 nRT0
5 5
nCP T = n  R 6T0 nCP T = n  R 6T0
2 2
= 15 nRT0 = 15 nRT0
Q+ = 18nRT0 = 18PV
0 0 Q+ = 18nRT0 = 18PV
0 0
w w
=  100 =  100
Qsupplied Q vkifwrZ
4P0V0 4P0V0
=  100 = 22.2% =  100 = 22.2%
18P0V0 18P0V0
27. Answer (2) 27. mÙkj (2)

W = nRT W = nRT
nR T nR T
Q= Q=
 
W W
Q= Q=
7   7 
 5 − 1  5 − 1
   
5W 5W
Q= Q=
2 2
28. Answer (4) 28. mÙkj (4)

Initially gas is being compressed and later it çkjEHk esa xSal laihfM+r gksrh gS rFkk ckn esa ;g
expands. çlkfjr gksrh gSA
(6)
@AakashDelhi02
29. Answer (2) 29. mÙkj (2)

1 3 1 3
(1 − ) = 1 − = (1 − ) = 1 − =
4 4 4 4
30. Answer (2) 30. mÙkj (2)
Amount of sweat evaporated ok"ihd`r ilhus dh ek=kA
15  103  80 kg 1500  80 15  103  80 kg 1500  80
= = g = = g
580  103  100 580 580  103  100 580
31. Answer (2) 31. mÙkj (2)
2/3
V = KT V = KT 2/3
2K −1/3 2K −1/3
dV = T dT dV = T dT
3 3
PV = nRT PV = nRT
nRT nRT
P= P=
V V
dW = PdV dW = PdV
nRT 2 nRT 2
dW = KT −1/3dT dW = KT −1/3dT
V 3 V 3
2 nRT 2 nRT
dW = KT −1/3dT dW = KT −1/3dT
3 KT 2/3 3 KT 2/3
2 2
 dW =  3 nRdT  dW =  3 nRdT
2 80 2 80
W=  40R = R = 26.6 R W=  40R = R = 26.6 R
3 3 3 3
32. Answer (2) 32. mÙkj (2)
Q = mS T Q = mS T
Q1 m1 Q1 m1
= =
Q2 m2 Q2 m2
4 3 4 3
 r r
3 1 3 1
= =
4
4
 (2r )3 8  (2r )3 8
3 3
33. Answer (2) 33. mÙkj (2)
mLf + mS (100 – 60) = 200 × 1 × (60 – 20) mLf + mS (100 – 60) = 200 × 1 × (60 – 20)
m(540 + 40) = 200 × 40 m(540 + 40) = 200 × 40
200  40 200  40
m= = 13.8 g m= = 13.8 g
580 580
34. Answer (2) 34. mÙkj (2)
At high altitudes pressure is low due to which the mPp Å¡pkbZ ij nkc de gS ftlds dkj.k DoFkukad
boiling point reduces. fcUnw de gksrk gSA
(7)
@AakashDelhi02
35. Answer (1) 35. mÙkj (1)

m m
PV = nRT = RT PV = nRT = RT
M M
 P   P 
36. Answer (3) 36. mÙkj (3)
ml 2 I 2l ml 2 I 2l
I=  = I=  =
3 I l 3 I l
I
I  = 2T
 = 2T I
I
 I = 2IT
 I = 2IT
37. mÙkj (4)
37. Answer (4)
T1 − T2
T1 − T2 Q=
Q=  l 
 l   KA 
 KA   
 
leku rkikUrj ds fy, f}rh; NM+ ls m"eh; /kkjk
For same temperature difference, heat current
through second rod will be 2Q. So total heat 2Q gksxhA blfy, dqy m"ek /kkjk,
current, Q = Q + 2Q = 3Q. Q = Q + 2Q = 3Q.
38. Answer (4) 38. mÙkj (4)

mT = constant  mT = fu;r
39. Answer (1) 39. mÙkj (1)

t −0 x t −0 x
= =
100 − 0 l 100 − 0 l
100x 100x
t= t=
l l
40. Answer (4) 40. mÙkj (4)
Rate of cooling  (T – T0) 'khryu dh nj  (T – T0)
41. Answer (1) 41. mÙkj (1)
In radiation, the heat travels with speed of light. fofdj.k esa] m"ek çdk'k dh pky ls lapfjr gksrh gSA
42. Answer (1) 42. mÙkj (1)
Q2 − Q1  Q + Q2  Q2 − Q1  Q + Q2 
= k 1 − Qs  = k 1 − Qs 
t  2  t  2 
60 − 50  50 + 60  60 − 50  50 + 60 
=K − Qs  =K − Qs 
10  2  10  2 
1 = K(55 − Qs ) … (i) 1 = K(55 − Qs ) … (i)
@AakashDelhi02
(8)
50 − 42  50 + 42  50 − 42  50 + 42 
and =K − Qs  rFkk =K − Qs 
10  2  10  2 
4 4
= K ( 46 − Qs ) … (ii) = K ( 46 − Qs ) … (ii)
5 5
5 (55 − Qs ) 5 (55 − Qs )
= =
4 (46 − Qs ) 4 (46 − Qs )
5 × 46 – 5Qs = 55 × 4 – 4Qs 5 × 46 – 5Qs = 55 × 4 – 4Qs

Qs = 46 × 5 – 55 × 4 Qs = 46 × 5 – 55 × 4
Qs = 10 Qs = 10
Qs = 10°C Qs = 10°C
43. Answer (2) 43. mÙkj (2)

Q = AT 4 Q = AT 4
4 4 4 4
1 1 = A2T2
AT 1 1 = A2T2
AT
4 4
 T1  A2 4(9r )2  T1  A2 4(9r )2
  = =   = =
 T2  A1 4(r )2  T2  A1 4(r )2
4 4
 T1  81  T1  81
  =   =
 2
T 1  T2  1
T1 T1
= 3 :1 = 3 :1
T2 T2
44. Answer (4) 44. mÙkj (4)

CP − CV = R CP − CV = R
CP R CP R
−1= −1=
CV CV CV CV
CP 7 CP 7
= =
CV 5 CV 5
f +2 7 f +2 7
= =
f 5 f 5
5f + 10 = 7f 5f + 10 = 7f
f=5 f=5
45. Answer (1) 45. mÙkj (1)

T = constant T = fu;r
4 4
 T2 = T1  T2 = T1
3 3
Power  T 4 'kfDr  T 4
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46. Answer (2) 46. mÙkj (2)

In H – C  N, oxidation state of N is –3. H – C  N esa N dh vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk–3 gSA
47. Answer (4) 47. mÙkj (4)
2HNO3 + 3H2S ⎯⎯→ 2NO + 3S + 4H2O 2HNO3 + 3H2S ⎯⎯→ 2NO + 3S + 4H2O
48. Answer (2) 48. mÙkj (2)
Oxidation state of oxygen may vary from vkWDlhtu dh vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk –2 ls +2 rd
–2 to +2. ifjofrZr gks ldrh gSA
49. Answer (4) 49. mÙkj (4)
Elements with intermediate oxidation state may eè;orhZ vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk okyk rRo vkWDlhd`r o
get oxidized or reduced.
vipf;r gks ldrk gSA
50. Answer (1)
50. mÙkj (1)
Eocell = 0.76 + 0.8 = 1.56 V
Eo = 0.76 + 0.8 = 1.56V
lsy
51. Answer (2)
51. mÙkj (2)
2+
4Zn + NO3− + 7H2O ⎯⎯→ 4Zn + NH+4 + 10OH −
4Zn + NO3− + 7H2O ⎯⎯→ 4Zn2+ + NH+4 + 10OH−
52. Answer (3)
52. mÙkj (3)
− +7 2+
5e + Mn → Mn 5e− + Mn+7 → Mn2+
53. Answer (1) 53. mÙkj (1)
NH4NO3 is composed of NH+4 and NO3− , N have NH4NO3 esa NH+4 rFkk NO3− gksrs gSa] N dh
–3 and +5 oxidation states respectively. vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk,a Øe'k%–3 rFkk +5 gksrh gSA
54. Answer (3) 54. mÙkj (3)
Permanent hardness is due to the presence of LFkk;h dBksjrk dSfYl;e rFkk eSXuhf'k;e ds lYQsV
sulphates and chlorides of calcium and
magnesium.
rFkk DyksjkbM dh mifLFkfr ds dkj.k gksrh gSA
55. Answer (4)
55. mÙkj (4)
boil
boil Ca(HCO3 )2 ⎯⎯⎯ → CaCO3 + H2O + CO2
Ca(HCO3 )2 ⎯⎯⎯ → CaCO3 + H2O + CO2
56. mÙkj (3)
56. Answer (3)
ft;ksykbV vk;u fofue; fof/k esa ç;qDr gksrk gSA
Zeolite is used in ion exchange method.
57. Answer (1) 57. mÙkj (1)
Dielectric constant of H2O is 78.39 C2/N.m2 and H2O dk ijkoS|qrkad 78.39 C2/N.m2 rFkk D2O dk
that of D2O is 78.06 C2/N.m2. ijkoS|qrkad 78.06 C2/N.m2 gksrk gSA
58. Answer (2) 58. mÙkj (2)
59. Answer (3) 59. mÙkj (3)
1 mL H2O2 liberates 25 mL at STP; volume 1 mL H2O2 STP ij 25 mL eqDr djrh gSA vk;ru
strength = 25. lkeF;Z = 25.
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60. Answer (1) 60. mÙkj (1)

61. Answer (1) 61. mÙkj (1)
PbS + 4H2O2 → PbSO4 +4H2O PbS + 4H2O2 ⎯→ PbSO4 +4H2O
62. Answer (3) 62. mÙkj (3)
Generally, group I metal oxides are more basic lkekU;r vius vkorZ esa oxZ I ds /kkrq vkWDlkbM oxZ
than group II metal oxides in their respective II ds /kkrq vkWDlkbM dh vis{kk vf/kd gksrs gSaA
period.
63. mÙkj (1)
63. Answer (1)
64. mÙkj (3)
64. Answer (3)
3 M ls mij lkaærk ij uhyk jax dkaL; jax esa
Above 3 M concentration blue colour changes to
ifjofrZr gks tkrk gSA
bronze.
65. mÙkj (4)
65. Answer (4)

 K 2CO3 ⎯⎯ → dkbsZ vi?kVu ugha
K 2CO3 ⎯⎯ → No Decomposition
66. mÙkj (2)
66. Answer (2)


2M(NO3 )2 ⎯⎯ → 2MO + 4NO2 + O2
2M(NO3 )2 ⎯⎯→ 2MO + 4NO2 + O2
67. mÙkj (1)
67. Answer (1)
( CO + H2 ) feJ.k Hkki vaxkj xSl dgykrk gSA
( CO + H2 ) mixture is called water gas.
68. mÙkj (1)
68. Answer (1)
/kuk;u (leku vkos'k okys) ds vkdkj esa o`f) ds lkFk
Hydration enthalpy decreases with increase in ty;kstu ,UFkSYih ?kVrh gSA
size of cations (with same charge).
69. mÙkj (3)
69. Answer (3)
70. mÙkj (3)
70. Answer (3)
oxZ esa uhps pyus ij K ds vfrfjDr ?kuRo c<+rk gS
Down the group density increases except K which
has lower density than Na, due to its large size. cM+s vkdkj ds dkj.k Na dh vis{kk bldk ?kuRo de
gksrk gSA
71. Answer (1) 71. mÙkj (1)
Be, Mg do not impart colour to flame. Be, Mg Tokyk dks jax çnku ugha djrs gSA
72. Answer (2) 72. mÙkj (2)
Be ⎯⎯→ Al shows diagonal relationship. Be ⎯⎯→ Al fod.kZ lEcU/k n'kkZrk gSA
73. Answer (2) 73. mÙkj (2)
74. Answer (4) 74. mÙkj (4)
CaO is quick lime CaO fcu cw>k pwuk gSA
75. Answer (2) 75. mÙkj (2)
76. Answer (2) 76. mÙkj (2)
Atomic radii; Ga < Al < In < Tl ijek.kq f=T;k; Ga < Al < In < Tl
77. Answer (2) 77. mÙkj (2)
78. Answer (1) 78. mÙkj (1)
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79. Answer (2) 79. mÙkj (2)

CO2 is acidic, Na2O and BaO are basic, Al2O3 is CO2 vEyh; gS] Na2O o BaO {kkjh; gS] Al2O3
amphoteric mHk;/kehZ gSA
80. Answer (4) 80. mÙkj (4)
Order of Lewis acid nature ywbZl vEyh; çd`fr dk Øe
BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3, < BI3 BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3, < BI3
81. Answer (2) 81. mÙkj (2)
82. Answer (2) 82. mÙkj (2)

83. Answer (2) 83. mÙkj (2)
B3N3H6 has benzene like structure. B3N3H6 dh lajpuk csUthu ds leku gksrh gSA
84. Answer (1) 84. mÙkj (1)
Solid CO2 is called dry ice. Bksl CO2 'kq"d cQZ dgykrh gSA
85. Answer (2) 85. mÙkj (2)
86. Answer (4) 86. mÙkj (4)
Zeolites are 3D silicates ft;ksykbV 3D flfydsV gSA
87. Answer (2) 87. mÙkj (2)
2Al + 2NaOH + 6H2O → 2Na[Al(OH)4] + 3H2 2Al + 2NaOH + 6H2O → 2Na[Al(OH)4] + 3H2
88. Answer (3) 88. mÙkj (3)
89. Answer (4) 89. mÙkj (4)
SnO and PbO are amphoteric in nature SnO rFkk PbO mHk;/kehZ çd`fr ds gSaA
90. Answer (4) 90. mÙkj (4)
3SiF4 + 4H2O ⎯⎯→ Si(OH)4 +2H2SiF6 3SiF4 + 4H2O ⎯⎯→ Si(OH)4 +2H2SiF6
91. Answer (3) 91. mÙkj (3)

92. mÙkj (3)
92. Answer (3)
eSXuhf'k;e ,d o`griks"kd rRo gS
Magnesium is a macronutrient
93. mÙkj (3)
93. Answer (3) o`griks"kdrRo FkksM+k vf/kd gksus ij fo"kkDr ugha gksrs
Macronutrients are not toxic in slight excess, while gS] tcfd lw{eiks"kd rRo FkksMk+ vf/kd gksus ij
micronutrients are toxic in slight excess. fo"kkDr gksrs gSaA
94. Answer (1) 94. mÙkj (1)
Mg2+ is the activator of DNA synthesising Mg2+ DNA la'ysf"kr ,atkbe dk lfØ;dkjd gksrk
enzymes. gSA
95. Answer (4) 95. mÙkj (4)
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96. Answer (3) 96. mÙkj (3)

Ca and Mg forms the calcium and magnesium Ca rFkk Mg Øe'k% dSfYl;e o eSxuhf'k;e dk
pectate respectively. fuekZ.k djrk gSA
97. Answer (4) 97. mÙkj (4)
Alcohol dehydrogenase is activated by Zn2+. ,sYdksgkWy fMgkbMªksftust Zn2+ }kjk lfØ; gksrk gSA
98. Answer (3) 98. mÙkj (3)
99. Answer (1) 99. mÙkj (1)
Pseudomonas is a denitrifying bacteria. L;wMkseksukWl ,d foukbVªhdkjh thok.kq gS

100. Answer (1) 100. mÙkj (1)
Fe and Cu can be reversibly oxidised and reduced Fe o Cu O;qRØekuqikrh :i ls vkWDlhd`r gks ldrs
during electron transport chain. gS rFkk bysDVªkWu ifjogu Ükà[kyk ds nkSjku vipf;r
101. Answer (2)
gksrk gSA
101. mÙkj (2)
Mo and Fe are the part of nitrogenase enzyme.
Mo o Fe ukbVªksftust ,atkbe ds Hkkx gksrs gSaA
102. Answer (2)
102. mÙkj (2)
Azotobacter is an unicellular free living bacteria
found in soil. ,tksVkscSDVj e`nk esa ik, tkus okyk ,ddksf'kdh;
eqDrthoh thok.kq gSA
103. Answer (3)
103. mÙkj (3)
Nitrogenase
N2 + 16ATP + 8H+ + 8e − ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → ukbVªkfstust
2NH3 + H2 + 16ADP + 16Pi N2 + 16ATP + 8H+ + 8e − ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →
2NH3 + H2 + 16ADP + 16Pi
104. Answer (2)
104. mÙkj (2)
Enzyme involved in this reaction is
bl vfHkfØ;k esa lfEefyr gksus okyk ,atkbe
aminotransferase.
vehuksVªkl a fQjst gS
105. Answer (2)
105. mÙkj (2)
Asparagine and glutamine derived from aspartic
acid and glutamic acid respectively.
,Lisjftu o XyqVkWfeu Øe'k% ,LikfVZd o XyqVkWfed
vEy ls mRiUu gksrk gSA
106. Answer (2)
106. mÙkj (2)
Hydrazine = N2H4
gkbVªkWtkbu = N2H4
107. Answer (1)
107. mÙkj (1)
108. Answer (4) 108. mÙkj (4)
Late flowering – N, S and Mo iq"i.k es foyEc – N, S rFkk Mo
109. Answer (1) 109. mÙkj (1)
Leg-haemoglobin is an O2 scavenger. ysx-gheksXyksfcu ,d O2 viektZd gSA
110. Answer (1) 110. mÙkj (1)
Nitrogenase enzyme is activated by Mo and Fe. ukbVªkfs tust ,atkbe Mo o Fe }kjk lfØ; gksrk gSA
111. Answer (1) 111. mÙkj (1)
Nitrosomonas is nitrifying bacterium converts ukbVªkls kseksukWl ukbVªhdkjh thok.kq gS tks
NH3 → NO2− NH3 → NO2− esa :ikarfjr djrk gSA
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112. Answer (2) 112. mÙkj (2)

Per N2 molecule reduction requires 16 ATP çfr N2 v.kq ds vip;u ds fy, 16 ATP dh
molecules. vko';drk gksrh gSA
113. Answer (1) 113. mÙkj (1)
114. Answer (3) 114. mÙkj (3)
115. Answer (1) 115. mÙkj (1)
116. mÙkj (1)
116. Answer (1)
vkWDlhd`r gksus okyk ;kSfxd H2O ;k H2S tSls gksrs
Oxidisable compound are like H2O or H2S. In
eubacteria it may be H2O or H2S.
gSaA ;wcSDVhfj;k esa ;g H2O ;k H2S gks ldrk gSA
117. mÙkj (2)
117. Answer (2)
118. mÙkj (3)
118. Answer (3)
dSjksfVukW;M~l <ky o.kZd gSa tks çdk'k }kjk çR;{k
Shield pigments are carotenoids which do not :i ls ATP o NADPH mRiUu ugha djrk gSaA
produce ATP and NADPH directly from light.
119. mÙkj (4)
119. Answer (4)
i.kZgfjr a ,d çkFkfed o.kZd gS
Chlorophyll a is a primary pigment. 120. mÙkj (3)
120. Answer (3) 121. mÙkj (1)
121. Answer (1) H2O foikfVr ladqy PS-II ls lEcfU/kr gksrk gS rFkk
H2O splitting complex is associated with PS-II and bldks bysDVªkWu çnku djrk gSA
provides electrons to it. 122. mÙkj (3)
122. Answer (3) IykLVksfl;kfuu Cyt b6 f ladqy ls PS-I esa bysDVªkWu
Plastocyanin transfer the electron from Cyt b6 f
dks LFkkukarfjr djrk gSA
complex to PS-I. 123. mÙkj (3)
123. Answer (3) pØh; çdk'kQkWLQksfjyhdj.k rc gksrk gS tc çdk'k

dh rhozrk fuEu rFkk CO2 dh miyC/krk de gksrh
Cyclic photophosphorylation occurs when light
intensity is low and CO2 availability is poor.
gSA
124. mÙkj (3)
124. Answer (3)
lqØkst v.kq nks Xyqdkst dk cuk gksrk gS rFkk çR;sd
Sucrose molecule is composed of 2 glucose and
Xywdkst dks blds fuekZ.k ds fy, N% dsfYou pØ dh
each glucose requires six Calvin cycles for its
formation. vko';drk gksrh gSA
125. mÙkj (4)
125. Answer (4)
126. mÙkj (1)
126. Answer (1)
C4 ikniksa esa isidst ,atkbe i.kZeè;ksrd dksf'kdkvksa
PEPCase enzyme in C4 plants fix the CO2 with esa PEP ds lkFk CO2 dks fLFkj djrk gSA
PEP in mesophyll cells.
127. mÙkj (4)
127. Answer (4)
dsfYou pØ ds nkSjku 18 ATP rFkk 12 NADPH dh
During Calvin cycle 18 ATP and 12 NADPH are vko'drk ,d 6C dkcZu 'kdZjk (Xywdkst) ds fuekZ.k
required to form one 6C carbon sugar (Glucose). ds fy, gksrh gSA
128. Answer (2) 128. mÙkj (2)
In mesophyll cells of C4 plants PEPCase enzyme C4 ikniksa ds i.kZeè;ksrd dksf'kdkvksa esa isidst
is present. ,atkbe mifLFkfr gksrk gSA
129. Answer (4) 129. mÙkj (4)
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130. Answer (4) 130. mÙkj (4)

C4 plants can tolerate saline conditions due to C4 ikni buesa mifLFkr çpqj dkcZfud vEyksa ds
abundant organic acids in them. dkj.k yo.kh; fLFkfr dks lgu dj ldrk gSA
131. Answer (3) 131. mÙkj (3)
Sugarcane and Amaranthus are C4 plants showing xUuk o vesjUs Fkl C4 ikni gSa tks f}-dkcksZfDlyhdj.k
double carboxylation. n'kkZrh gSA
132. Answer (2) 132. mÙkj (2)
Glycolate is produced during photorespiration, this

XykbdksyVs çdk'k'olu ds nkSjku mRiUu gksrh gS]
process is not shown by C4 plants. ;g çfØ;k C4 ikniksa }kjk ugha n'kkZ;k tkrk gSA
133. mÙkj (1)
133. Answer (1)
134. mÙkj (1)
134. Answer (1)
135. mÙkj (2)
135. Answer (2)
OAA ,d 4-C okyk ;kSfxd gS tks C4 ikniksa esa
OAA is a 4-C compound produced in C4 plants. mRiUu gksrk gSA
136. Answer (4) 136. mÙkj (4)

Thrombocytes or platelets are colourless, rounded FkzkEs ckslkbV~l ;k IysVysV~l dksf”kdkvksa ds jaxghu]
or oval, non nucleated fragments of cells. xksykdkj ;k vaMkdkj vdsna zd [kaM gksrs gSA
137. mÙkj (1)
137. Answer (1)
Fkzkfs Ecu IykTek dh ?kqyu”khy Qkbfczukstu dks
Thrombin converts soluble fibrinogen of plasma
into insoluble fibrin. The clot or coagulum mainly
v?kqyu”khy Qkbfczu esa ifjofrZr djrk gSA FkDdk ;k
consists of fibrin. Ldan eq[; #i ls Qkbfczu ds cus gksrs gSA
138. mÙkj (1)
138. Answer (1)
eq[; ylhdk okfgfu;k¡ vFkkZr~ o{kh; okfguh rFkk
The principle lymphatic vessels i.e. thoracic duct
nk;ha ylhdk okfguh ylhdk dks Øe”k% ck;sa rFkk
and right lymphatic duct drain the lymph into left
and right subclavian veins respectively.
nk;sa v/kkst=qd f”kjkvksa esa Mkyrh gSA
139. mÙkj (2)
139. Answer (2)
bfjFkzksCykLVksfll fQVSfyl rc gksrk gS tc D
Erythroblastosis foetalis occurs when a child with izfrtu jfgr ek¡ ls D izfrtu ;qDr f”k”kq dk tUe
D antigen is born to a mother who lacks D antigen.
gksrk gSA
140. Answer (1) 140. mÙkj (1)
The AV valve between the left atrium and left ck;sa vfyan rFkk ck;sa fuy; ds chp AV dikV esa nks
ventricle has 2 flaps or cusps and is called iYys ;k oyu ¼¶ySIl ;k dIl½ gksrs gSa ftUgsa
bicuspid or mitral valve. f}oyuh ;k feVªy dikV dgk tkrk gSA
141. Answer (3) 141. mÙkj (3)
Incomplete double circulation is present in viw.kZ nksgjk ifjlapj.k ra= mHk;pj rFkk ljhlìksa esa
amphibians and reptiles where both oxygenated mifLFkr gksrk gS ftuesa nksuksa vkWDlhd`r rFkk
and deoxygenated blood get mixed up in the fovkWDlhd`r jDr ,dy fuy; esa fefJr gks tkrs gSa
single ventricle and the heart pumps out mixed rFkk ân; fefJr jDr dks ckgj dh vksj iai djrk
blood. gSA
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142. Answer (3) 142. mÙkj (3)

The SA node is called the pacemaker of the heart SA ioZ dks ân; dk xfr izsjd dgk tkrk gS rFkk
and spontaneously produces impulse for the vfyan ek;ksdkfMZ;e ds ladqpu ds fy, ;s yxkrkj
contraction of atrial myocardium, depolarises AVN vkosxksa dk mRiknu] AVN dks fo/kzqfor djus o caMy
and sends impulses through bundle fibres to rarqvksa ds ekè;e ls fuy;h ek;ksdkfMZ;e dks vkosx
ventricular myocardium.
Hkstrs gSaA
143. Answer (4)
143. mÙkj (4)
Second heart sound is produced by closure of f}rh; ân; èofu fuy;h vuqf”kfFkyu ds vkjaHk ij
semilunar valves at the beginning of ventricular
v/kZpanzkdkj dikV ds can gksus ls mRiUu gksrh gSA
diastole.
144. mÙkj (3)
144. Answer (3)
vPNh rjg ls izf”kf{kr f[kykfM+;ksa esa izokg vk;ru esa
In well trained athletes, stroke volume can also
vf/kd o`f) gks ldrh gS ftlls buds foJke ewY;ksa
increase significantly allowing these individuals to
achieve cardiac outputs during strenuous exercise
dh rqyuk Ng&lkr xquk vf/kd rd dBksj vH;kl
upto six-seven times greater than their resting ds nkSjku ân; fudkl izkIr djus dh vuqefr feyrh
values. gSA
145. Answer (2) 145. mÙkj (2)
QRS wave complex represents depolarisation of QRS rjax lfEeJ] fuy;ksa ds fo/kzqohdj.k dks iznf”kZr
ventricles which initiates ventricular contraction. djrk gS tks fuy;h ladqpu dks izkjEHk djrk gSA ,d
Thus, by counting the number of QRS complexes fuf”pr le; esa QRS lfEeJ dh la[;k fxuus ij
that occur in a given time period, the heart beat ânj Lianu nj fudkyh tk ldrh gSA
rate can be determined. 146 mÙkj (4)
146 Answer (4) ;d`r fuokfgdk f”kjk ikpu iFk ls ;d`r rd jDr
Hepatic portal vein carries blood to the liver from dk ogu djrh gS tcfd ;d`r f”kjk jDr dk ogu
digestive tract whereas hepatic vein carries blood ;d`r ls ckgj dh vksj djrh gSA
out of liver.
147. mÙkj (4)
147. Answer (4) lcls NksVh jDr okfgfu;k¡] dsf”kdk,¡ gksrh gSa rFkk
Smallest blood vessels are capillaries and are ,aMksFkhfy;e uked ljy “kYdh midyk }kjk
lined by simple squamous epithelium called vkLrfjr gksrh gSaA
endothelium.
148. mÙkj (4)
148. Answer (4)
esMy w k vkscyksaxsVk esa mifLFkr ,d fof”k’V raf=dh;
A special neural centre present in medulla dsna z ANS ds ekè;e ls ân; ds dk;ksZa dks ifjofrZr
oblongata moderates cardiac functions through djrk gSA
ANS.
149. mÙkj (4)
149. Answer (4)
gkVZ QsY;ksj rc gksrk gS tc “kjhj dh
Heart failure occurs when heart is not able to vko”;drkuqlkj i;kZIr jDr ân; iai ugha dj ikrk
pump enough blood to met the needs of the body. gSA
150. Answer (3) 150. mÙkj (3)
Serum lacks clotting factors. lhje esa Ldand dkjd ugha gksrs gSA
151. Answer (2) 151. mÙkj (2)
PCT is internally lined by simple cuboidal brush PCT, vkarfjd #i ls ljy ?kukdkj cz”k ckMZj
bordered epithelium which increases surface area midyk }kjk vkLrfjr gksrs gSa tks iqu% vo”kks’k.k ds
for reabsorption. fy, lrgh {ks= esa o`f) djrs gSaA
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152. Answer (2) 152. mÙkj (2)

The renal pelvis where major calyces open is o`Dd isfYol tgk¡ estj p’kd [kqyrs gSa] ;s gkbye ds
placed inner to hilum. vanj gksrs gSaA
153. Answer (1) 153. mÙkj (1)
ADH is antidiuretic hormone. ADH, izfrew=y gkWeksZu gSA
154. Answer (2) 154. mÙkj (2)
Reptiles, birds, land snails and insects excrete ljhlì] i{kh] LFkyh; ?kksa?kk rFkk dhV ;wfjd vEy ds
nitrogenous wastes as uric acid. #i esa ukbVªkstuh vif”k’V dks mRlftZr djrs gSaA
155. Answer (4) 155. mÙkj (4)
The epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule called iksMkslkbV uked cksesu laiqV dh midyk dksf”kdk,¡
podocytes are arranged in an intricate manner so fo”ks’k izdkj ls foU;kflr gksrh gSa ftlls dqN
as to leave minute spaces called filtration slits. NksV& s NksVs vodk”k chp esa jg tkrs gSa bUgsa fuL;anu
156. Answer (1) [kkap dgrs gSaA
Protonephridia or flame cells are excretory and 156. mÙkj (1)
osmoregulatory structures in platyhelminthes. vf/ko`Ddd ;k Tokyk dksf”kdk,¡ IysfVgsfYeaFkht esa
157. Answer (3) mRlthZ rFkk ijklj.kfu;eu lajpukvksa ds :Ik esa ik,
JGA is formed by cellular modifications in DCT tkrs gSA
and afferent arteriole at the location of their 157. mÙkj (3)
contact. JGA, vfHkokgh /kefudkvksa rFkk DCT ds laidZ LFky
158. Answer (2) ij dksf”kdkvksa ds :ikarj.k ls curk gSA
Constriction of renal arteries causes decrease in 158. mÙkj (2)
renal blood flow as well as GFR. o`Dd /kefu;ksa ds ladqpu ds dkj.k o`Dd jDr izokg
159. Answer (3) ds lkFk GFR ?kVrk gSA
Renin converts Angiotensinogen to 159. mÙkj (3)
Angiotensin I jsfuu] ,aft;ksVsfUlukstsu dks ,aft;ksVasflu I esa
160. Answer (4) ifjofrZr djrk gSA
Increase in blood volume triggers the release of 160. mÙkj (4)
ANF. jDr vk;ru esa o`f) ANF ds L=o.k dks lfØ; djrk
161. Answer (1) gSA
Glucosuria and ketonuria are indicative of 161. mÙkj (1)
diabetes mellitus. Xyqdkslwfj;k rFkk dhVksu;wfj;k e/kqesg ds lwpd gSaA
162. Answer (3) 162. mÙkj (3)
Juxtamedullary nephrons have long loops of lfUuè; eè;ka”k o`Ddk.kq esa gsuys dh yach ywi gksrh gS
Henle which cortical nephrons have short loops of tcfd oYdqVh; o`Ddk.kq esa gsuys dh NksVh ywi gksrh
Henle. gSA
163. Answer (4) 163. mÙkj (4)
Glomerular capillaries, parietal and visceral layers Cksesu laiqV dh xqPNh; dsf”kdk,¡] ifj/kh; rFkk
of Bowman’s capsule contain simple squamous foljy ijrsa ljy “kYdh midyk }kjk cuh gksrh gSa
epithelium that allows filtration. tks fuL;anu dh vuqefr nsrh gSA
164. Answer (4) 164. mÙkj (4)
Our lungs remove approximately 200 ml/min of gekjk Qq¶Qql yxHkx 200 feyh/feuV CO2 dk
CO2. fu’dklu djrk gSA
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165. Answer (2) 165. mÙkj (2)

Glomerulonephritis is the inflammation of Xykses:yksuÝs kbfVl] xqPN “kksFk dh iznkgdrk gSA
glomeruli. Cholelithiasis is the presence of calculi dksyys hfFk,fll] fiÙkk”k; esa dsydqykbZ dh mifLFkfr
in gall bladder. Ketonuria is the presence of gksrh gSA dhVksu;wfj;k] ew= esa dhVksu dk; dh
ketone bodies in urine. mifLFkfr gksrh gSA
166. Answer (2) 166. mÙkj (2)
Ethmoid is an unpaired bone. ,Fkeks;M ,d v;qfXer vfLFk gSA
167. Answer (1) 167. mÙkj (1)
All ribs are connected dorsally to vertebrae. lHkh ilfy;k¡ i`’B Hkkx ij d”ks:d ls tqM+h gksrh gSaA
168. Answer (2) 168. mÙkj (2)
Saddle joint is a type of synovial joint between lSMy laf/k] lkbuksfo;y laf/k dk ,d izdkj gS tks
carpal and metacarpal of thumb in humans. ekuo vaxwBs ds dkiZy rFkk esVkdkiZy ds chp
169. Answer (3) mifLFkr gksrk gSA
According to sliding filament theory, actin and 169. mÙkj (3)
myosin filaments do not shorten but slide past rarq foliZ.k fl)kar ds vuqlkj ,fDVu rFkk ek;ksflu
each other. rarq NksVs ugha gksrs gSa ijarq ,d nwljs ds Åij foliZ.k
170. Answer (3) djrs gSaA
Tonus is the normal tone of a resting muscle. 170. mÙkj (3)
Treppe is increase in tension of muscle with each Vksul] foJke is”kh dk lkekU; Vksu gSA VªsIis] çR;sd
successive stimulus which is delivered shortly Øfed mÙkstuk ds lkFk is'kh ds ruko esa o`f) gS tks
after the completion of relaxation phase of the igys okys ,sBa u ds f”kfFkyu izkoLFkk ds iw.kZ gksus ds
preceding twitch. i”pkr~ “kh?kz izkIr gksrk gSA
171. Answer (4) 171. mÙkj (4)
Biceps contain skeletal muscle fibres. f}f”kjLd esa dadkyh is”kh rarq,¡ gksrh gSaA
172. Answer (3) 172. mÙkj (3)
LMM and HMM are components of myosin. LMM rFkk HMM ek;ksflu ds la?kVd gSA
173. Answer (2) 173. Answer (2)
The joint between atlas and axis is pivot joint. ,Vyl rFkk v{k ds chp /kqjkxz laf/k gksrh gSA
174. Answer (2) 174. mÙkj (2)
Osteoporosis can occur due to hormonal vfLFk lqf’kjrk gkeksZuy vlarqyu ds dkj.k gks ldrk
imbalance. Decreased bone mass is seen. gSA ?kVk gqvk vfLFk Hkkj ns[kk tkrk gSA
175. Answer (3) 175. Answer (3)
Glenoid cavity is a shallow articular surface fXyukW;M xqgk ,d mFkyh laf/kdkjh lrg gS tks
present in scapula. It articulates with the head of LdSiqyk esa mifLFkr gksrh gSA da/kk laf/k ds fuekZ.k gsrq
humerus to form shoulder joint. ;g â;wesjl ds “kh’kZ ds lkFk laf/k;kstu djrh gSA
176. Answer (1) 176. mÙkj (1)
Each human limb contains 5 metacarpals which izR;sd ekuo ikn esa 5 esVkdkiZYl gksrs gSa tks
articulate with phalanges. QSyUs tst ds lkFk laf/k;kstu djrs gSaA
177. Answer (4) 177. mÙkj (4)
Hyoid is a bone of axial skeleton. Second cervical gk;M] v{kh; dadky dh ,d vfLFk gSA f}rh; xzhok
vertebra is called axis. d”ks:d dks v{k dgk tkrk gSA
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178. Answer (4) 178. mÙkj (4)

Ileum is a part of small intestine. {kqnzkar NksVh vkar dk Hkkx gSA
179. Answer (4) 179. mÙkj (4)
Presence of gap junctions is a characteristic varjkyh laf/k;ksa dh mifLFkfr ,dy bdkbZ fpduh
feature of single unit smooth muscle fibres and is”kh rarq rFkk ân; is”kh rarqvksa dk ,d vfHkyk{kf.kr
cardiac muscle fibres. y{k.k gSA
180. Answer (1) 180. mÙkj (1)
Inside epimysium, a muscle has many muscle ,fiekbfl;e ds vanj ,d is”kh esa iqfydk uked dbZ
fibres arranged in bundles called fasciculi which is”kh rarq,¡ gksrh gS tks caMyksa esa O;ofLFkr gksrh gS tks
are covered by perimysium. isjhekbfl;e }kjk <dh gqbZ gksrh gSaA
❑ ❑ ❑
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03/04/2020 CODE-A
Test - 5
Topics covered :
Physics : Oscillations and Waves
Chemistry : Organic Chemistry-(Some Basic Principles and Techniques), Hydrocarbons, Environmental
Chemistry
Botany : Respiration in Plants, Plant Growth and Development
Zoology : Neural Control and Coordination, Chemical Coordination and Integration
Instructions :
PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer : 3. If x, v and a represents the position (w.r.t. mean
1. A particle is oscillating simple harmonically with position), velocity and acceleration of a particle
frequency ‘f’. The frequency of its kinetic energy executing simple harmonic motion, then which is
is incorrect option.
(1) f (1) x & a both are maximum at extremes
(2) 2f (2) v is maximum while a is minimum at mean
position
f
(3) (3) a is maximum while v is minimum at
2
extremes
(4) Zero
(4) x, v and a all are minimum at mean position
2. If K.E of a particle executing SHM is double of its
4. A block of mass m is connected with the help of
P.E at an instant, then position of particle at that
two springs as shown in the figure. Frequency of
instant is (Particle was initially at mean position
small oscillation of the block will be
and amplitude of oscillation is L)
L 2
(1) (2) L
2 3
L L
(3) (4)
2 3
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m 7k 11. Displacement of a particle executing a periodic

(1) 2π (2) 2π
7k m t 
motion is given by x = 4 cos2   .sin (1000t ) . If
2
1 7k 1 m this expression is considered as the
(3) (4)
2π m 2π 7k superposition of N independent harmonic
5. The speeds of a body executing SHM are β and motions. Then N is equal to
α when the displacement of body (w.r.t. mean (1) 4
position) are α and β respectively. Time period of (2) 3
oscillation of body is (in seconds) (3) 2
π (4) 1
(1) 2 (2)
2 12. A block of mass m1 is suspended together by a
(3) π (4) 2π massless spring of spring constant k. When this
block is in equilibrium position another block of
6. The equation of a wave travelling in x-direction
mass m2 is gently placed over it. Amplitude of
on a string is given by y = 8 sin(πx – 100πt)
oscillation of the system of combined block will
where x is in cm and t is in second. Acceleration
be
of particle at x = 6 cm and t = 0.11 s is
m1g m2g
(1) 1625 cm/s2 (2) 2952 cm/s2 (1) (2)
k k
(3) 9268 cm/s2 (4) Zero
 m + m2  g g
7. Which of the following functions represents a (3)  1  (4) ( m1 + m2 )
 2 k k
travelling wave?
13. A particle starts SHM from mean position at time
(1) (x – vt)2 (2) ln(x – vt) t = 0. If its amplitude is A and time period is T.
(
(3) e – x –vt
)2 (
(4) e x +vt
) The distance travelled by the particle in the time
5T
8. If travelling wave given by y = A cos(ωt – kx) interval from t = 0 to t = is
4
superpose on another wave producing stationary
wave having node at x = 0. The equation of other 5
(1) A (2) A
wave can be 4
(1) –A cos((ωt + kx) (2) –A sin(ωt + kx) 4
(3) 5A (4) A
(3) A cos((ωt – kx) (4) A cos(ωt + kx) 5
14. Two particles executing SHM with same
9. A particle is executing SHM on a straight line.
frequency and amplitude are shown in the figure
A and B are two points at which its velocity is
at any instant. Phase difference between them is
zero. It passes through a certain point
1 3
P(AP < PB) at successive intervals of and
2 2
second with a speed of 3 2 m/s maximum
speed of the particle (in m/s) will be –
(1) 12 m/s (2) 12 2 m/s
(3) 6 2 m/s (4) 6 m/s

10. The number of possible overtones of air column π
(1)
in a closed pipe of length 83.2 cm and of 2
diameter 6 cm, whose frequencies lie (2) 2π
below 1000 Hz, will be (Velocity of sound in
π
air = 340 m/s) (3)
6
(1) 5 (2) 4
5π
(3) 10 (4) 7 (4)
6
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15. A block of mass m is at rest on another block of 19. Fundamental frequency of a sonometer wire is ν.
same mass as shown in the figure. Lower block If the length, tension and diameter of wire are
is attached to the spring. The maximum doubled the new fundamental frequency
amplitude of oscillation so that both the block will becomes
remain in contact will be ν ν
(1) (2)
2 2
ν ν
(3) (4)
2 2 3 2
20. The fundamental frequency of a closed pipe is
1
220 HZ. Now th of the pipe is filled with water,
4
mg mg first overtone frequency of the pipe in this
(1) (2) situation will be –
2k k
(1) 880 HZ (2) 1110 HZ
2mg 3mg
(3) (4) (3) 1540 HZ (4) 440 HZ
k 2k
21. Two simple pendulums have time periods
16. The diagram below shows an instantaneous 5T
position of a string as a transverse progressive T and . They start SHM at the same time
4
wave travels along it from left to right from the mean position in same direction. The
phase difference between them after the bigger
pendulum have complete one oscillation is
(1) 30° (2) 90°
(3) 135° (4) 120°
Which of the following option correctly shows the 22. Three SHMs in the same direction having the
direction of the velocity of the particles P, Q, R of same amplitude A and same time period are
the string superimposed. If each differ in phase from the
next by 45°, them which of the following option is
P Q R correct.
(1) ↓ ↑ ↓ (
(1) Resultant amplitude is 2 + 1) A
(2) ↑ ↓ ↑
(2) Resultant motion is 90° out of phase relative
(3) ↑ ↑ ↓ to first SHM.
(4) ↑ ↓ ↓ (3) Energy associated with the resultant motion
17. A tuning fork of frequency f produces 6 beats per is ( 3 + 2 2 ) times the energy associated
second with a tuning fork of frequency of 248 HZ with any single motion.
and 9 beats with another tuning fork having (4) Both (1) and (3)
frequency of 263 HZ. The value of f will be 23. A disc of mass m and radius R is allowed to
oscillate about a horizontal axis and
(1) 257 HZ
perpendicular to plane of disc as shown in the
(2) 242 HZ figure. Time period of small oscillations of the
(3) 254 HZ disc (in the plane of disc) will be
(4) 282 HZ
18. In a stationary wave produced in a string, all the
particles –
(1) On either side of a node vibrate in the same
phase.
(2) In the region between two consecutive nodes
vibrates in the same phase. 3R 3R
(1) 2π 2g (2) 2π 4g
(3) In the region between two antinodes vibrate
in the same phase.
R 3R
(4) Of the medium vibrate in the same phase. (3) 2π g (4) π 2g
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24. A particle executing SHM of amplitude A has a 29. For the spring pendulum shown in the given
A T figure, value of spring constant is 3 × 104 N/m
displacement of at t = and a negative
2 4 and amplitude of oscillation is 0.1m. The total
velocity. The epoch of the particle is mechanical energy of the oscillation system is
200 J. Which of the following is not true.
π π
(1) (2)
3 6
5π 7π
(3) (4)
6 3
25. A thin uniform vertical rod of mass m and length l
is pivoted at point O as shown in the figure. Both
springs has force constant k. Angular frequency (1) Maximum PE of the oscillating system is
of small oscillation of rod will be – 200 J
(2) Minimum PE of the oscillating system is
50 J
(3) Maximum KE of the oscillating system is
200 J
(4) Maximum KE of the oscillating system is
150 J
30. Which of the following graph correctly depicts the
3k 2g 6k 3g
(1) + (2) + graph of the square of the velocity against the
m 3l m 2l square of the acceleration of a simple harmonic
3k 3g 6k g oscillator is
(3) + (4) +
2m l 2m l
26. A particle executes SHM with time period
8 second. Initially, it is at its mean position. The
ratio of distance travelled by it in the 1st second to (1) (2)
that in the 2nd second is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 :1
(3) 1: ( 2 –1) (4) ( 2 –1) :1
27. A particle of mass m moving along the x-axis has
(3) (4)
a potential energy U(x) = a + bx2, where a and b
are positive constants. Frequency of oscillations
of the particle will be
31. If a wave is going from one medium to another,
2b 1 2b
(1) (2) then the correct option is
3m 2π m
(1) Its frequency changes
2a 1 2m
(3) (4) (2) Its wavelength does not change
bm 2π b
28. A particle performs SHM of amplitude A along a (3) Its speed does not change
(4) Its amplitude may change
3
straight line. When it is at a distance A from 32. The equation of a wave is given by
2
mean position, its kinetic energy gets increased = 1
y sin (100t + 25 x ) . Ratio of maximum particle
1 2
by an amount mω2 A2 due to an impulsive velocity to wave velocity is
2
force. New amplitude of SHM becomes (1) 6
(1) 5A (2) 3A (2) 25
(3) 12.5
5
(3) A (4) 2A (4) 4
2
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33. In a resonance tube experiment, the first U0 2 km

resonance is obtained for 10 cm of air column & (1) 2π (2) 2π
k 2m U0
the second resonance for 32 cm.
The end correction for this apparatus is m m
(3) 2π (4) 2π
(1) 3 cm (2) 2 cm kU0 U0 k 2
1 39. A particle is acted upon simultaneously by two
(3) 1 cm (4) cm
2 mutually perpendicular simple harmonic motion
34. When the string of a sonometer of length L x = a cos ωt and y = a sin ωt
between the bridges, vibrates in the first The trajectory of motion of the particle will be
overtone, the amplitude of vibration is maximum (1) An ellipse (2) A circle
at
(3) A parabola (4) A straight line
L 5L 7L L 40. A simple pendulum has time period T. The point
(1) , , (2)
8 8 8 2 of suspension is now moved upward according to
L 3L L 3L 5L the relation y = 2t2, where y is vertical
(3) , (4) , ,
4 4 6 6 6 displacement. The time period now will be (g =
35. A sound wave starting from source S follows two 10 m/s2)
paths AOB & ACB, through a thin tube to reach 7 5
T T
the detector D as shown in the figure. (1) 5 (2) 7
5 7
(3) T (4) T
7 5
41. Due to increase in sound pollution in city. IGI
Airport authority (Delhi) made a regulation that
maximum allowable intensity level detected by a
microphone situated at the end of a 1860 m long
If detector detects a minima, then maximum runway can be 100 dB. Air India aeroplane when
wavelength (λ) of sound wave must be flying at a height of 300 m produces an intensity
(1) 4l (2) 3l level of 100 dB on ground. If while taking off this
(3) 2l (4) l aeroplane makes an angle of 30° with horizontal
36. A cord fixed at one end while other end is then what can be the maximum distance that this
attached to a vibrating fork oscillates in 8 loops, aeroplane can move on the runway.
when tension in the cord is 49 N. The tension at (1) 1560 m (2) 1480 m
which it will vibrates in 4 loops is (3) 300 m (4) 1260 m
(1) 98 N (2) 124 N 42. A point sound source emits 200π W power. The
(3) 36 N (4) 196 N loudness of sound at a distance of 10 m from the
37. Two cars A and B are moving on two crossed source is nearly
roads with speed of 20 m/s and 10 m/s (1) 113 dB (2) 117 dB
respectively towards the crossing. Car B blows a (3) 120 dB (4) 60 dB
horn of frequency 360 HZ when line joining the 43. Figure given below represents the displacement
cars makes angle of 45° with the roads, then y versus distance x along the direction of
frequency as observed by the driver of car A will propagation of a longitudinal wave. The pressure
be (Velocity of sound in air = 330 m/s) is maximum at position –
(1) 336 HZ (2) 384 HZ
(3) 298 HZ (4) 398 HZ
38. A body of mass m is situated in a potential field
whose energy is given by U(x) = U0(1 – cos kx),
when U0 and k are constants. Time period of (1) D (2) C
small oscillations of the body is (3) B (4) A
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44. A tunnel is dug through a chord of the earth at a 45. A source of sound producing a frequency f0 is
R fixed on ground. A detector is dropped from rest
distance from centre of earth. If a body of from sufficient height over source. Frequency
3
detected (f) is plotted with time (t) as shown in
mass m when dropped from rest from one end of the figure. (Speed of sound in air = 300 m/s and
tunnel then time taken by the object to reach at g = 10 m/s2 ). The frequency of source is
the other end of tunnel will be
R
(1) π
g
R
(2) 2π
g
g (1) 900 HZ
(3) π (2) 1200 HZ
R
(3) 2100 HZ
g
(4) 2π (4) 1800 HZ
R
CHEMISTRY
46. Number of σ and π bonds present in 52. Correct order of relative stability of given
CH2= CH – C ≡ N is resonating structures is
(1) 3 π and 6 σ (2) 2 π and 6 σ O O–
+
(3) 3 π and 3 σ (4) 2 π and 3 σ CH2 = CH – C – H CH2 – CH = C – H
(I) (II)
O+
47. IUPAC name of CH3 − C ≡ C − CH2 − CO − CH3 is
–
(1) Hex-2-yn-4-one (2) Hex-4-yn-2-one CH2 – CH = C – H
(III)
(3) 2-oxo pent-2-yne (4) Hex-4-enone
(1) I > II > III (2) II > I > III
O O
|| || (3) III > II > I (4) III > I > II
48. CH3 − C − CH3 and CH3 − CH2 − C − H are
53. Ortho-para directing group for electrophilic
(1) Chain isomers (2) Position isomers aromatic substitution reaction among the
(3) Functional isomers (4) Metamers following is
49. Electrophile among the following is (1) –COOH (2) –NO2
(1) BF3 (3) –CN (4) –NH2
(2) H2O 54. Kjeldahl’s method is not applicable to the
(3) NH3 (1) R – NO2
(4) CH4
(2)
50. 0.4 g of an organic compound gave 22.4 mL of
N
nitrogen gas at 273 K and 1 atm pressure. The
percentage of nitrogen in the organic compound (3)
is N=N
(1) 3.5% (2) 7%

(4) All of these
(3) 14% (4) 28%
55. Minimum pKa is of
51. Out of the following blood red color is of
(1) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3∙xH2O (1) CH3COOH
4– (2) Cl3CCOOH
(2) [Fe(CN)5NOS]
2+ (3) Cl2CHCOOH
(3) [Fe(SCN)]
4– (4) ClCH2COOH
(4) [Fe(CN)6]
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56. Most stable carbocation among the following is 65. Maximum rate of halogenation of alkane is given
⊕ ⊕ by
(1) CH3 − C − CH3 (2) CH3 − CH − CH3 (1) F2 (2) Cl2
|
CH3 (3) Br2 (4) I2
Cu/523 K
⊕ ⊕ 66. CH4 + O2 →
100 atm
P
(3) CH3CH2 (4) CH3CH2CH2
Product P is
57. Hyperconjugation effect is not observed in (1) CH3OH (2) HCHO
(1) Carbocation (2) Carbanion (3) HCOOH (4) CO2
(3) Carbon free radical (4) Alkene Mo2O3 / Cr2O3 / V2O5
67. C7H16 
773 K
→ P(Major)
10−20 atm
58. IUPAC name of is
Product P is
(1) Benzene (2) Toluene
(1) 1-ethyl-3, 3-dimethylcyclohexane
(3) Cyclohexane (4) Cycloheptane
(2) 3-ethyl-1, 1-dimethylcyclohexane 68. Total number of structural isomers possible for
(3) 3-propyl-1-ethylcyclohexane C4H8 is
(4) 3-ethyl-1-propylcyclohexane (1) 1 (2) 3
59. During IUPAC naming, minimum priority group (3) 4 (4) 5
among the following is 69. Select the correct statement regarding
(1) –CN (2) –CHO CH3 CH3 CH3 H
(3) –CO– (4) –CONH2 C C and C C
H H H CH3
60. Ammonium phosphomolybdate is (I) (II)
(1) (NH4)3PO4.12MoO3 (1) I and II are geometric isomers
(2) (NH4)3PO4.12MoO2 (2) I has higher melting point than II
(3) (NH4)3PO4.10MoO3 (3) II has higher boiling point than I
(4) (NH4)3PO4.10MoO2 (4) All of these
61. In Carius method of estimation of halogen, 70. Which of the following compounds on reaction
0.4 g of an organic compound gave 0.188 g of with CH3MgBr gives methane?
AgBr. The percentage composition of bromine in (1) HOH (2) CH3OH
the compound is (Ag = 108 u, Br = 80 u)
(3) CH3Cl (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) 10% (2) 20%
71. Markovnikov’s rule is applicable to which
(3) 40% (4) 50% reaction?
62. Which of the following is/are adsorption
CH2 CH2 + HBr →
(1) =
chromatography?
(C6H5CO)2 O2
(1) Column chromatography (2) CH3 − =
CH CH2 + HBr  →
(2) Thin layer chromatography (3) CH3 − = (C6H5CO)2 O2
CH CH2 + HCl  →
(3) Partition chromatography
(4) CH3 − =
CH CH − CH3 + HCl →
(4) Both (1) and (2)
63. Correct order of boiling point is 72. Product formed by the reductive ozonolysis of
2-methylpropene is/are
(1) n-pentane > isopentane > neopentane
(1) Propan-2-one (2) HCHO
(2) isopentane > n-pentane >neopentane (3) Ethanal (4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) neopentane > n-pentane > isopentane ∆
73. CaCO3  → A(s) + B(g)
(4) neopentane > isopentane > n-pentane
64. In Kolbe’s electrolysis of CH3COONa, the species A(s) + 3C(graphite) → D(s) + CO(g)
formed during the process is/are D(s) + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + E(g)
O
• || • Gas E is
(1) CH3 (2) CH3 − C − O (1) CH4 (2) C2H6
(3) CO2 (4) All of these (3) C2H2 (4) CO2
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74. Most acidic hydrocarbon among the following is 80. Phenanthrene is
(1) HC ≡ CH (2) (1)
(3) CH3 – C ≡ C – CH3 (4) H2C = CH2

H2O (2)
75. CH3 − C ≡ CH 
2+ + → A (major)
Hg /H /333 K
Product A is
(1) CH3CH2CHO (2) CH3COCH3
(3) CH3CH2COOH (4) CH3CH2CH2OH (3)
76. Aromatic species among the following is/are
(1) (2) (4)
81. CH2= CH2 on reaction with cold dilute, aqueous

(3) (4) All of these solution of KMnO4 gives
CH2 − OH
COONa (1) CH3CH2OH (2) |
CH2 − OH
77. NaOH/CaO
 CH3Cl
→ A  →B (3) CH3CHO (4) HCOOH
∆ AlCl ( Anhyd)
3
82. Geometric isomerism can be shown by
Product B is (1) (CH3)2C = CHCH3
CH3
(2) (CH3)2C = C(CH3)2
(3) CH3CH2CH = CHCH3
(1) (2)
(4) CH3CH2CH = C(CH3)2
OH Cl 83. Greenhouse gases is/are
(1) CO2 (2) H2O(g)
(3) (4) (3) CFCs (4) All of these
84. Select the incorrect statement regarding classical
78. Which of the following is/are true for arenium ion? smog?
(1) Attack of electrophile on benzene results in (1) It occurs in cool humid climate
the formation of arenium ion
(2) It is a mixture of smoke, fog and sulphur
(2) It is non-aromatic dioxide
(3) It contains sp3 hybridised carbon (3) It is a reducing mixture
(4) All of these (4) It results from the action of sunlight on
unsaturated hydrocarbon
79. + Cl2
UV
P 85. Clean water would have BOD value less than
500 K
(1) 5 ppm (2) 10 ppm
Product P is (3) 15 ppm (4) 20 ppm
Cl Cl
86. Maximum prescribed concentration of Fe in
Cl Cl drinking water is
(1) (2) (1) 0.2 ppm (2) 0.05 ppm
Cl Cl (3) 0.005 ppm (4) 3.0 ppm
Cl Catalyst
87. CH
=2 CH2 + O2  → A (Major)
Cl Cl Pd(II)/Cu(II)in water
Cl Cl A is
(3) (4) (1) CH3– CH2 – OH (2) CH2—CH2
Cl Cl Cl Cl O
Cl (3) CH3 – O – CH3 (4) CH3CHO
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88. Blue baby syndrome is caused by excess of 90. Ethene can be prepared by which of the following
(1) Fluorides reactions?
(2) Lead alc. KOH
(1) CH3CH2Cl  →
∆
(3) Nitrates
Zn/CH3OH
(4) Sulphate (2) CH2Br − CH2Br  →
∆
89. When the pH of the rain water drops below ____,
conc. H SO
it is called acid rain. (3) CH3CH2OH →
∆
2 4
(1) 6.5 (2) 5.6

(4) All of these
(3) 7 (4) 10.2
BOTANY
91. Find the mismatched pair. 97. Ethyl-alcohol concentration cannot exceed 13%
(1) Floating – Carbohydrates in naturally fermented beverages because
respiration (1) High alcohol concentration kills the
(2) Protoplasmic – Fatty acids microorganism
respiration (2) Ethyl-alcohol is converted into pyruvic acid
(3) Aerobic – O2 required (3) Microorganisms absorb the extra ethyl-
respiration alcohol
(4) Anaerobic – Glycolysis (4) Alcohol fermentation does not provide
respiration enough energy for survival of organism
92. Pacemaker enzyme of EMP pathway is 98. Lactic acid dehydrogenase is
(1) Phosphofructokinase (1) Activated by Zn+2 and FMN
(2) Pyruvate kinase (2) Converts lactic acid into alcohol
(3) Hexokinase
(3) Converts pyruvic acid into PEP
(4) Succinate dehydrogenase
(4) Is activated by Mg2+ and K+
93. Hexokinase enzyme of EMP pathway add the
99. R.Q. value of fatty acid and carbohydrate
phosphate group
respectively are
(1) To 6th carbon of glucose, using ADP
(1) 1 and 2
(2) To 1st carbon of glucose, using ATP
(2) Less than 1 and 1
(3) To 6th carbon of glucose, using ATP
(3) More than 1 and 1
(4) To 6th carbon of fructose, using ATP
(4) 2 and 1
94. Aldolase enzyme of EMP pathway catalyses
100. Respiratory pathway is considered to be
(1) Splitting of DHAP
(2) Splitting of fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate into (1) An anabolic pathway only
DHAP and PGAL (2) A catabolic pathway only
(3) Conversion of the DHAP into PGAL (3) Both catabolic and anabolic pathway
(4) Conversion of glucose-6-phosphate into (4) The only pathway in which ATP is formed
fructose-6-phosphate 101. Find the odd one out w.r.t ATP synthase
95. What will be the net gain of ATP if, one molecule (1) It is composed of F0 – F1 component
of PGAL is respired anaerobically?
(2) F1 headpiece is a peripheral membrane
(1) 2 ATP (2) 4 ATP
protein
(3) 1 ATP (4) 5 ATP
(3) F0 is an integral membrane protein
96. One molecule of sucrose produces ___ via EMP
pathway (4) F0 is the site of ATP synthesis
(1) 2 molecules of Acetyl-CoA 102. In a TCA cycle number of GTP molecule(s)
(2) 4 molecules of pyruvic acid produced from one acetyl CoA molecule is/are
(1) 1 (2) 3
(3) 2 molecules of pyruvic acid
(3) 4 (4) 5
(4) One molecule of fructose
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103. Terminal electron acceptor in ETS receives the 112. In yeast, glycolysis and TCA cycle takes place
electrons from respectively, in
(1) Cytochrome c (2) Complex III (1) Cytoplasm and mitochondrial membranes
(3) Complex I (4) Complex IV (2) Glyoxysomes and mitochondrial matrix
104. Reduced ubiquinone is oxidised by transferring (3) Cytoplasm and mitochondrial matrix
its electrons to
(4) Cytoplasm only
(1) Cytochrome c (2) Oxygen
113. Find the odd one w.r.t. intermediates of Kerbs'
(3) Complex IV (4) Complex II cycle
105. The enzyme of TCA cycle which is not found in (1) Malic acid (2) Succinyl-CoA
mitochondrial matrix is
(3) Citric acid (4) Pyruvic acid
(1) Succinate dehydrogenase
114. Select the incorrect statement
(2) Citrate synthase
(3) Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (1) Efficiency of aerobic respiration is 45%
(4) Decarboxylase (2) α - Ketoglutaric acid is the raw material for
amino acid synthesis
106. Complex I of ETS accepts the electrons from
(1) NADH2 (2) FADH2 (3) Oxygen combines with protons to form
metabolic water
(3) NADPH (4) GTP
(4) NAD+ is terminal electron acceptor of ETS
107. Conversion of pyruvic acid into acetyl CoA occurs
115. Epigeal germination is seen in
(1) In link reaction catalysed by lactate
dehydrogenase (1) Rice (2) Bean
(2) In transition reaction catalyzed by pyruvate (3) Mango (4) Maize
dehydrogenase complex 116. Find the odd one w.r.t. steps of aerobic
(3) In link reaction catalyzed by succinate respiration
dehydrogenase (1) Lactic acid fermentation
(4) In transition reaction catalyzed by citrate (2) Krebs cycle
synthase
(3) Glycolysis
108. If a sucrose molecule is used as respiratory
(4) ETS
substrate then, how many ATP will be produced
via substrate level phosphorylation in TCA cycle? 117. Cell division in cambium can be induced by the
(1) 2 application of
(2) 64 (1) ABA (2) Ethylene
(3) 4 (3) Auxins (4) GAs
(4) 38 118. Apical dominance can be counteracted by
109. Glucose usually produces A ATP during (1) Application of ethylene
aerobic respiration which releases B energy (2) Application of BAP
(1) A-12, B-1000 kJ (3) Removal of lateral buds

(2) A-38, B-1292 kJ (4) Providing auxins to plant
(3) A-2, B-68 kJ 119. Cells which are in elongation phase show all of
the following features, except
(4) A-4, B-136 J
(1) Large vacuoles
110. During alcoholic fermentation, acetaldehyde is
converted into ethanol by the action of enzyme (2) New cell wall deposition
(1) Pyruvic acid decarboxylase (3) Increase in cell size
(2) Alcohol dehydrogenase (4) Dense cytoplasm
(3) Lactate dehydrogenase 120. Which one is a dedifferentiated tissue?
(4) Pyruvate dehydrogenase (1) Cork cambium
111. In fermentation, reducing agent is (2) Secondary phloem
(1) NAD+ (2) NADH + H+ (3) Cork
(3) NADPH + H+ (4) FADH2 (4) Secondary cortex
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121. In exponential phase of geometric growth (3) Controlling the protein synthesis and
(1) Growth slows down due to accumulation of mobilisation of nutrients as resources
toxins (4) Increasing the cell division and shoot
(2) Growth progresses rapidly reaching its formation
maximum 129. Vivipary is seen in
(3) Growth is very slow due to shortage of space (1) Mango and Citrus
(4) Growth is slow due to shortage of food (2) Cherry and rice
122. Find the odd one out w.r.t. differentiated tissue (3) Eichhornia and henbane
(1) Aerenchyma (4) Sonneratia and Rhizophora
(2) Stomata 130. Ethylene, a fruit ripening hormone
(3) Collenchyma (1) Causes closure of stomata
(4) Intrafascicular cambium (2) Causes dormancy of buds and seeds
123. Heterophylly is found in all plants given below, (3) Promotes elongation of submerged aquatic
except plants
(1) Cotton (4) Inhibits the metabolism in fruits
(2) Coriander 131. Find the mismatched pair.
(3) Larkspur (1) Long day plant – Wheat
(4) Henbane (2) Short day plant – Sugarbeet
124. Plants like banana produces fruits without seeds (3) Day neutral plant – Tomato
because (4) Long day plant – Radish
(1) They have higher internal GA production 132. Violaxanthin is a precursor of
(2) They have lower internal ethylene production (1) ABA
(3) They have higher internal auxin production (2) Cytokinin
(4) They have higher internal cytokinin (3) Auxins
production (4) GAs
125. Find the odd one out w.r.t gibberelins 133. All are uses of auxin, except
(1) Highly basic in nature (1) Stimulates rooting on stem cutting
(2) Induce bolting in rosette plants (2) Induces pathenocarpy, when used in diluted
(3) Induce seed germination form on tomatoes
(4) Used in malting process (3) It can be used as weedicides
126. Select an incorrect match. (4) It can be used to induce senescence and
abscission of young leaves
(1) GA – Delays ripening of fruits
134. The condition of seed when it is unable to
(2) Cytokinin – Induces senescence
germinate due to non-availability of germinating
(3) Ethylene – Thinning of fruits in cotton conditions, is called
(4) ABA – Anti-transpirant (1) Dormancy
127. Dormancy of seeds is induced by hormone that (2) Quiescence
also
(3) Bolting
(1) Inhibits the protein and RNA synthesis in
(4) Scarification
leaves
135. Find the mismatched pair.
(2) Induces fruit ripening
(1) Ethylene – Derived from methionine
(3) Activates the α -amylase in seeds
(2) Ethylene – Sprouting of storage organs
(4) Induces rooting and root hair formation
(3) ABA – Opening of stomata during
128. Cytokinins delay the ageing of leaves by
stress
(1) Increasing the respiration rate
(4) GA – Quicker maturity in juvenile
(2) Increasing the nutrient consumption in leaves
conifers
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ZOOLOGY
136. ‘X’ is a gland which only stores and releases 143. People living in hilly areas mostly suffer from
hormones and is therefore not considered a true hypothyroidism due to the deficiency of which
endocrine gland. Identify ‘X’. mineral in the diet?
(1) Anterior pituitary gland (1) Sodium (2) Iodine
(2) Posterior pituitary gland (3) Potassium (4) Chlorine
(3) Parathyroid gland 144. Enlargement of thyroid, increased basal
(4) Thyroid gland metabolic rate, restlessness and exophthalmos
are symptoms associated with
correct option. (1) Hypothyroidism
Statement A : Catecholamines stimulate the (2) Graves’ disease
breakdown of glycogen resulting in an increased (3) Hyperparathyroidism
concentration of glucose in blood. (4) Cretinism
Statement B : Underproduction of 145. The hormone responsible for elevating the blood
catecholamines by adrenal cortex can cause calcium levels if hypocalcemia occurs is
acute weakness and fatigue.
(1) Calcitonin (2) Parathormone
(1) Only statement A is correct
(3) Thyroxine (4) Thymosin
(2) Only statement B is correct
146. A 34-year old male suffers from destruction of
(3) Both statements are correct adrenal cortex due to tuberculosis. The disease
(4) Both statements are incorrect he is most likely to be diagnosed with is
138. Early maturation of ovaries and testes with (1) Adrenal virilism (2) Addison’s disease
production of ova before age of 9 years in girls (3) Hypoparathyroidism (4) Acromegaly
and sperm before 10 years in boys is termed
147. Complete the analogy w.r.t. source of secretion
(1) Adrenal virilism from pancreas.
(2) Menopause Insulin : Beta cells : : Glucagon : _____
(3) Precocious puberty (1) Alpha cells (2) Mucous cells
(4) Addison’s disease (3) Delta cells (4) Gamma cells
139. Hormone which initiates ejection of milk in 148. Leydig cells which are present in the intertubular
lactating mothers is spaces of the male primary sex organ is
(1) Prolactin (2) Oxytocin responsible for secretion of
(3) Vasopressin (4) ICSH (1) Follicle stimulating hormone
140. A patient complains of excessive thirst and (2) Progesterone
elimination of copious amounts of urine. On (3) Testosterone
examination of his urine sample no glucose was
(4) Estrogen
detected but was found to be very dilute
(hypotonic). 149. Temporary endocrine gland formed in females is
The patient most likely suffers from (1) Corpus callosum
(1) Diabetes mellitus (2) Diabetes insipidus (2) Corpora quadrigemina
(3) Hyperthyroidism (4) Parathyroidism (3) Corpus luteum
141. Complete the analogy by choosing the correct (4) Corpus spongiosum
option. 150. A hormone produced by the JG cells of kidneys
Spermatogenesis : FSH : : Ovulation : ___ which stimulates formation of RBCs is
(1) MSH (2) Estrogen (1) Epinephrine (2) Renin
(3) Progesterone (4) LH (3) Erythropoietin (4) Estradiol
142. Pineal gland is also known as 151. Choose the incorrect match.
(1) Neurohypophysis (1) Iodothyronines – Thyroid hormones
(2) Adenohypophysis (2) Steroid hormones - Progesterone
(3) Master gland (3) Amino-acid derivative – Norepinephrine
(4) Epiphysis (4) Polypeptide – Cortisol
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152. Choose the odd one wr.t. hormones secreted by 160. How many of the following statements are
gastrointestinal tact. correct?
(1) Secretin (a) Unmyelinated nerve fibres in PNS are
(2) Cholecystokinin enclosed by Schwann cells that do not form a
myelin sheath around the axon.
(3) ANF
(b) Action potential is also termed as nerve
(4) GIP
impulse.
153. All of the following are correct except
(c) Chemicals like adrenaline and noradrenaline
(1) LH and FSH stimulate gonadal activity and are contained in vesicles and their release at
hence are called gonadotrophins the neuro-muscular synaptic cleft results in
(2) Pars nervosa produces six trophic hormones transmission of impulse.
(3) Oxytocin acts on the smooth muscles of our (d) The new action potential developed in post
body and stimulates their contraction synaptic neuron may be either excitatory or
(4) Low secretion of GH results in stunted growth inhibitory.
resulting in pituitary dwarfism. (1) Two
154. Hormone which stimulates cutaneous (2) Three
pigmentation by dispersion of melanin granules is (3) Four
(1) TSH
(4) None
(2) PRL
161. Unipolar neurons are only found in
(3) FSH
(1) Dorsal root ganglion of spinal nerve
(4) MSH
(2) Embryonic stage in humans
155. Which of the following glands degenerates in old
(3) Retina of human eye
individuals resulting in weak immune responses?
(4) Olfactory epithelium of nose
(1) Thyroid gland
(2) Thymus gland 162. At rest, the axonal membrane of a neuron is
comparatively more permeable to which ions?
(3) Pineal gland
(1) Sodium
(4) Parathyroid gland
(2) Potassium
(3) Chloride
(1) Glucocorticoids – Carbohydrate
(4) Protein anions
metabolism
163. The hypothalamus of an experimental monkey is
(2) Aldosterone – Stimulates
surgically removed without damaging any other
diuresis structures.
(3) CCK – Release of The function which is least likely to be affected is
bile juice (1) Osmoregulation
(4) Cortisol – RBC production (2) Regulation of body temperature
157. Hypersecretion of growth hormone (GH) in adults (3) Biological clock
will result in
(4) Movement and coordination
(1) Acromicria
164. Vestibulcochlear nerve and optic are sensory
(2) Acromegaly nerves associated respectively with
(3) Dwarfism (1) Taste and vision
(4) Cretinism (2) Smell and vision
158. The most rudimentary form of neural organisation (3) Hearing and vision
is found in
(4) Hearing and taste
(1) Porifera (2) Hydra
165. A canal which passes through the midbrain and
(3) Chordates (4) Vertebrates
connects third and fourth ventricle of brain is
159. The structures in a neuron which receive
(1) Foramen Magnum
impulses from different sources and direct then
towards cell body are (2) Foramina of Luschka
(1) Axons (2) Synaptic knobs (3) Foramen of Magendie
(3) Dendrites (4) Myelin sheath (4) Cerebral aqueduct
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166. A part of brainstem which contains centres for 171. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is present in the
controlling respiration, cardiovascular reflexes (1) Supradural space
and gastric secretion is
(2) Subdural space
(1) Midbrain
(3) Supra-arachnoid space
(2) Thalamus
(4) Subarachnoid space
(3) Medulla oblongata
172. The ___ continues forward to form a pigmented
(4) Hypothalamus and opaque structure called the iris.
167. In the spinal cord, the dorsal root is A and Choose the option that fills the blank correctly.
ventral root is B in nature. (1) Cornea (2) Sclera
Choose the option that fills the blanks correctly. (3) Retina (4) Ciliary body
A B 173. The resting membrane potential is maintained by
+
(1) Motor Sensory (1) Voltage gated Na channels
+
(2) Sensory Motor (2) Voltage gated K channels
(3) Sensory Sensory + +
(3) Na - K pumps
(4) Motor Motor +
(4) Leaky K channels
168. Identify the neuroendocrine structure marked ‘X’ 174. A sensory structure called ‘X’ is present on the
in the given diagram. basilar membrane and contains the following
cells
(i) Hair cells
(ii) Dieter cells
(iii) Hensen’s cells
Identify ‘X’
(1) Fenestra ovalis
(2) Organ of Corti
(3) Tympanic membrane
(4) Reissner's membrane
175. Match the visual pigments for colour vision in
column I with the colour they are sensitive to in
(1) Hypothalamus column II.
(2) Anterior pituitary Column I Column II
(3) Posterior pituitary a. Erythropsin (i) Blue
(4) Pineal gland b. Chloropsin (ii) Green
169. Choose the incorrect statement. c. Cyanopsin (iii) Red
(1) Saltatory impulse conduction is present in (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)
myelinated nerve fibres (3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii)
(2) The myelin sheath is not a continuous sheath 176. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. fovea
in myelinated axons
(1) It is a central pit present on macula lutea
(3) Gap present between two adjacent myelin
sheaths is called node of Ranvier (2) It is the point where visual acuity is greatest
(4) Impulse transmission across an electrical (3) Vision on the fovea is the sharpest
synapse is always slower than that across a (4) Only rods are present in the fovea
chemical synapse 177. The three ossicles of middle ear are arranged in
170. Epithalamus, thalamus and hypothalamus a chain like fashion from tympanic membrane in
together form order as
(1) Telencephalon (1) Malleus → Incus → Stapes
(2) Mesencephalon (2) Stapes → Incus → Malleus
(3) Diencephalon (3) Incus → Malleus → Stapes
(4) Myelencephalon (4) Stapes → Malleus → Incus
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178. The superior pair of colliculi receive sensory 179. The structure which represents the dorsal root
impulses from the A and control B ganglion in the given diagram is
reflexes. Choose the option that fills the blanks
correctly.
A B
(1) Nose and muscles Olfactory

of head
(2) Tongue and its Gustatory

muscles (1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
(3) Ear and muscles Auditory
of neck 180. An almond shaped part of the brain which
controls moods, especially anger and rage is
(4) Eyes and muscles Visual (1) Amygdala (2) Thalamus
of head (3) Hippocampus (4) Cerebellum
  
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03/04/2020 CODE-A
Test - 5
Answer Key
1. (2) 37. (2) 73. (3) 109. (2) 145. (2)
2. (4) 38. (4) 74. (1) 110. (2) 146 (2)
3. (4) 39. (2) 75. (2) 111. (2) 147. (1)
4. (3) 40. (3) 76. (4) 112. (3) 148. (3)
5. (4) 41. (4) 77. (2) 113. (4) 149. (3)
6. (4) 42. (2) 78. (4) 114. (4) 150. (3)
7. (3) 43. (4) 79. (4) 115. (2) 151. (4)
8. (1) 44. (1) 80. (3) 116. (1) 152. (3)
9. (4) 45. (4) 81. (2) 117. (3) 153. (2)
10. (2) 46. (1) 82. (3) 118. (2) 154. (4)
11. (2) 47. (2) 83. (4) 119. (4) 155. (2)
12. (2) 48. (3) 84. (4) 120. (1) 156. (2)
13. (3) 49. (1) 85. (1) 121. (2) 157. (2)
14. (4) 50. (2) 86. (1) 122. (4) 158. (2)
15. (3) 51. (3) 87. (4) 123. (4) 159. (3)
16. (1) 52. (1) 88. (3) 124. (3) 160. (2)
17. (3) 53. (4) 89. (2) 125. (1) 161. (2)
18. (2) 54. (4) 90. (4) 126. (2) 162. (2)
19. (3) 55. (2) 91. (2) 127. (1) 163. (4)
20. (1) 56. (1) 92. (1) 128. (3) 164. (3)
21. (2) 57. (2) 93. (3) 129. (4) 165. (4)
22. (4) 58. (2) 94. (2) 130. (3) 166. (3)
23. (1) 59. (3) 95. (1) 131. (2) 167. (2)
24. (1) 60. (1) 96. (2) 132. (1) 168. (1)
25. (2) 61. (2) 97. (1) 133. (4) 169. (4)
26. (3) 62. (4) 98. (1) 134. (2) 170. (3)
27. (2) 63. (1) 99. (2) 135. (3) 171. (4)
28. (4) 64. (4) 100. (3) 136. (2) 172. (4)
29. (3) 65. (1) 101. (4) 137. (1) 173. (3)
30. (2) 66. (1) 102. (1) 138. (3) 174. (2)
31. (4) 67. (2) 103. (4) 139. (2) 175. (3)
32. (3) 68. (4) 104. (1) 140. (2) 176. (4)
33. (3) 69. (1) 105. (1) 141. (4) 177. (1)
34. (3) 70. (4) 106. (1) 142. (4) 178. (4)
35. (3) 71. (3) 107. (2) 143. (2) 179. (1)
36. (4) 72. (4) 108. (3) 144. (2) 180. (1)
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03/04/2020 CODE-A
Test - 5
Hints and Solutions
PHYSICS
1. Answer (2) From (i)

Kinetic energy oscillates with double the β2 = ω2(β 2 + α2 – α2)
frequency of oscillation of particle.
ω=1
2. Answer (4)
⇒ T = 2 π second
KE = 2 PE
6. Answer (4)
1 1
⇒ mω2 ( L2 – x 2 ) =
2. mω2 x 2 dv
2 2 a=
dt
⇒ L2 – x2 = 2x2
= – (100π)2 × 8 sin (πx – 100πt)
⇒ 3x2 = L2
At t = 0.11 & x = 6 cm
L
⇒ x= ± a = Zero
3
7. Answer (3)
3. Answer (4)
Among the four functions only (c) is finite
x and a ⇒ maximum at extremes while minimum everywhere at all times.
at mean position.
8. Answer (1)
v ⇒ minimum at extremes while maximum at
mean position. At x = 0, ynet = 0, hence a node is formed at
x=0
4. Answer (3)
Equation of other wave should be
keff = k1 + k2
⇒ y2 = –Acos (ωt + kx)
= 7k
9. Answer (4)
1 k eff 1 7k
f = =
2π m 2π m
5. Answer (4)
Clearly T = 2 s
2 2
β=ω A –α …(i) Time taken by particle from 0 to P
α = ω A 2 – β2 …(ii) 1 1 1
⇒ – = s
2 4 4
β2 A 2 – α 2 Let equation of SHM be
On solving =
α 2 A 2 – β2
⇒ x = A sin ωt
⇒ A= β2 + α 2 v = Aω cos ωt
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v 16. Answer (1)

∴ vmax = Aω =
cos ωt Particle velocity vP = –slope × wave velocity
3 2 17. Answer (3)
⇒ vmax = Aω = = 6 m/s
 2π 1  Possible value of f are 242 HZ and 254 HZ.
cos  × 
 2 4 To have 9 beats with 263 HZ, it should be
254 HZ
10. Answer (2)
18. Answer (2)
λ = 4(l + e)
In stationary wave in a string all the particles
= 4(83.2 + 0.6r) = 3.4 m between two consecutive nodes oscillates in
v same phase.
f = = 100 HZ
λ 19. Answer (3)
As only odd harmonies are present 1 T
ν=
∴ Number of overtones below 1000 HZ are only 2L πr 2ρ
4.
T
11. Answer (2) ⇒ ν∝
lr
2 t 
y = 4cos   sin (1000 t ) ⇒ ν′ =
ν
2 2 2
= 2(1 + cost). sin (1000t) 20. Answer (1)
= 2 sin(1000t) + sin(1001t) + sin(999t) Fundamental frequency of closed pipe
12. Answer (2) v
ν= ⇒ v = 880L
4L
g m1g
A = ( m1 + m2 ) – New fundamental frequency
k k v v
m2 g =⇒ ν′ =
= 3 L
  3L
k 4 
4
13. Answer (3) v
First overtone = 3 × ν′ = = 880 HZ
T L
∆t = T + 21. Answer (2)
4
2π
In one complete time period it travel d1 = 4A ω1 =
T
T
In remaining , it travel d2 = A 2π 8π
4 ω2 = ×4 =
5T 5T
So dtotal = d1 + d2 = 5A  2π 8π  5T 2π 5T π
∆φ == ωrel .t  – × = × =
14. Answer (4)  T 5T  4 5T 4 2
By phasor method 22. Answer (4)
y = y1 + y2 + y3
 π  π
= A sin ωt + A sin  ωt +  + A sin  ωt + 
 4  2
  π   π
= A sin ωt + sin  ωt +   + A sin  ωt + 
  2   4
 π π  π
= 2 A sin  ωt +  cos   + A sin  ωt + 
5π  4 4  4
φ=
6  π
= ( 2 + 1) A sin  ωt + 
15. Answer (3)  4
The block will remain in contact till the blocks do Which is a SHM of amplitude ( 2 + 1) A
not go above the natural length of the spring.
Energy ∝ A2
2mg
So maximum possible amplitude = ( 2 + 1) Esingle
2
k ⇒ E′ =
(3)
@AakashDelhi02
1 R2
mR 2 + m
I
T = 2π 2π 2
= 4
mgr R
mg
2
3mR 2 2 3R
= 2π 2π
=
4mgR 2g
24. Answer (1) Phasor method
Equation of SHM y = A sin(ωt + φ) A

S1 =
2
v = Aω cos(ωt + φ)
⇒ v is –ive A
S2 = A –
2
π 3π
⇒ < ( ωt + φ ) <
2 2 S1 1
=
S2 2 –1
T
At t =
4 27. Answer (2)
A U = a + bx2
y= = A sin ( ωt + φ )
2 – dU
F= = –2bx
1 dx
⇒ sin( ωt + φ) =
2 –2b
a= x ⇒ a = –ω2x
m
π  5π
 + φ =
2  6 2b 1 2b
Hence ω = ⇒f=
m 2π m
π
Hence φ =
3 28. Answer (4)
25. Answer (2) 1
Total energy = mω2A2 = mω2 A′2
Restoring torque on rod 2
 l  A′ = 2A
τ = –  mg sin θ + kxl cos θ + kxl cos θ 
 2  29. Answer (3)
θ is small & x = lθ Kmin = 0 at extreme position
So Umax = E = 200 J
 l 2   2 l
τ = –  mg θ + 2kl θ  = –  2kl + mg  θ
 2   2 1 2 mA2ω2 KA2
Kmax = =mv max = = 150 J
2 2 2
ml 2
τ = Iα = α So Umin = 50 J
3
30. Answer (2)
 2 l
 2kl + mg  a = –ω2x & v2 = ω2(A2 – x2)
Hence α = –  2 θ
ml 2 –a  a2 
3 x= ⇒ v2 = ω2  A2 – 4 
ω2  ω 
 12kl 2 + 3mgl  ω2a 2
= – θ 2 2
= ωA –
 2ml 2  ω4
6k 3g Hence it is a straight line with negative slope.
Hence ω = +
m 2l 31. Answer (4)
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32. Answer (3) Frequency heared by driver of car A

dy 
(v P )max =
=  50units  v + v0 
f′ =   f0
 dt max v – vS 
ω 100
vW= = = 4units  330 + 10 2 
K 25 =   360
v P max  330 – 5 2 
= 12.5
vω = 383.64 Hz
33. Answer (3) ≈ 384Hz
λ 38. Answer (4)
l1 + e =
4
– dU
3λ F = = 2U0 k sin ( kx )
l2 + e = dx
4
= –U0k2x (for small angle sinθ ≈ θ )
1 1
on solving e = [ l 2 – 3l1 ] = [32 – 30] = 1 cm 2
2 2 –U0 k
a = x
34. Answer (3) m
m
hence T = 2π
U0 k 2
39. Answer (2)
x = a cos ωt
y = a sin ωt
hence, x2 + y2 = a2
35. Answer (3)
40. Answer (3)
λ
For maxima ∆x = 1
2 T∝
g eff
λ
2l – l =
2 T12 14 7
⇒ = =
λ T22 10 5
l= ⇒ λ = 2l
2
5
36. Answer (4) ⇒ T2 = T1
7
n I 41. Answer (4)
f= ⇒ n T = constant
2L µ
Hence 8 =
49 4 T ′
T′ = 196 N
37. Answer (2)
x
PM = x sin30° =
2
x
300 = ⇒ x = 600 m
1 2
vB cos45° = 20 × 10 2 m/s
=
2 So, the required distance is
vA cos45° = 5 2 m/s 1860 – 600 = 1260 m
(5)
@AakashDelhi02

P 200π 200 1
=
I = =
2
=
A 4πr 4 × 100 2
Loudness
I  1012 
dB = 10log   = 10log  
 I0   2 
 v ± v0   v + gt 
f = f0   = f0  v 
= 117 dB  v ± v S 
43. Answer (4) f0 g

f = f0 + t
v
Pressure is maximum at position ‘A’
 gt 
dy = f0 1 + 
P = –B  v 
dx
f 3 × 103
44. Answer (1) f0 = =
 gt  200
1 +  1+
Particle will execute SHM having time period  v  300
R 9 × 103
T = 2π = = 1800Hz
g 5
CHEMISTRY

47. Answer (2) 3° carbocation is more stable than 2° and 1°
O carbocation.
||
CH3 − C ≡ C − CH2 − C − CH3 57. Answer (2)
6 5 4 3 2 1
In carbanion, hyperconjugation is not possible.
Hex-4-yn-2-one

BF3 has incomplete octet. Priority order
50. Answer (2) – CONH2> –CN > – CHO > CO
Mass of nitrogen
60. Answer (1)
1× 22.4 × 28
= = 0.028 g 61. Answer (2)
0.0821× 273 × 1000
0.028 × 100 80 × 0.188
% of nitrogen = = 7% 0.188 g AgBr contains g bromine
0.4 188
51. Answer (3) = 0.08 g bromine
52. Answer (1) 0.08
% of bromine = × 100 =
20%
53. Answer (4) 0.4
–NH2 is +R causing group. 62. Answer (4)
55. Answer (2)
n-pentane > isopentane > neopentane
Greater is the –I effect in acid, lesser is the pKa. (BP 309 K) (BP 301 K) (BP 282.5 K)
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At anode 75. Answer (2)
• •
CH3 + CH3 → C2H6 ↑
At cathode
•
H2O + e− → H + OH− 76. Answer (4)
•
2H → H2 ↑ 77. Answer (2)
65. Answer (1)

Rate of halogenation : F2> Cl2> Br2 > I2
66. Answer (1)
67. Answer (2)
78. Answer (4)
68. Answer (4)
CH3 – CH2 – CH = CH2, CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
CH3 − C =CH2
| , ,
CH3
69. Answer (1)
RMgBr + H+ → R − H 80. Answer (3)
72. Answer (4) CH2 − CH2
CH
=2
dil. KMnO4
CH2 + H2O + O  → | |
273 K
OH OH
Glycol
82. Answer (3)
83. Answer (4)
84. Answer (4)

CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
86. Answer (1)
(A) (B)
87. Answer (4)
CaO + 3C (Graphite) → CaC2 + CO
88. Answer (3)
(A) (D)
CaC2 + 2H2O → C2H2 + Ca(OH)2 89. Answer (2)
(D) (E) 90. Answer (4)
(7)
@AakashDelhi02
BOTANY

Protoplasmic respiration - Protein Oxygen is a terminal electron acceptor in ETS of
respiration.
92. Answer (1)
115. Answer (2)
93. Answer (3)
116. Answer (1)
Glucose is converted into glucose-6-phosphate
by hexokinase using ATP. 117. Answer (3)

Cytokinins such as BAP counteracts the apical
95. Answer (1)
dominance.
Sucrose produces 2 glucose molecules thus 4 Dense cytoplasm is the feature of meristematic
pyruvic acid molecules will be produced. cells.
R.Q. of carbohydrates – 1 Intrafascicular cambium is a meristematic tissue.
R.Q. of fats and fatty acids – Less than 1 123. Answer (4)
R.Q. of protein – 0.9 Henbane does not show heterophylly.
100. Answer (3) 124. Answer (3)
101. Answer (4) Higher internal auxin concentration induces

parthenocarpy in banana.
102. Answer (1)
125. Answer (1)
103. Answer (4)
126. Answer (2)
Complex IV or cytochrome oxidase transfer its Cytokinin delays the senescence of leaves.
electrons to O2, (terminal electron) acceptor.
127. Answer (1)
104. Answer (1)
Given hormone is abscisic acid.
105. Answer (1)
128. Answer (3)
106. Answer (1) 129. Answer (4)
NADH donates its electrons to complex I. 130. Answer (3)
107. Answer (2) Ethylene promotes growth in partially submerged
108. Answer (3) plant such as rice.
Sucrose will produce four acetyl-CoA molecules 131. Answer (2)

leading to the 4 cycles of TCA cycle. Sugarbeet is a long day plant.
109. Answer (2) 132. Answer (1)
110. Answer (2) 133. Answer (4)
111. Answer (2) Auxin delay the senescence in young leaves.
NADH + H+ produced in glycolysis, functions as a 134. Answer (2)

reducing agent. 135. Answer (3)
112. Answer (3) ABA cause stomatal closing and also called
stress hormone.
113. Answer (4)
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ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (2) 149. Answer (3)
Posterior pituitary is not considered a true Graafian follicle is converted to a structure called
endocrine gland because it stores and releases corpus luteum after ovulation.
hypothalamic hormones i.e. oxytocin and
150. Answer (3)
vasopressin.
137. Answer (1) Erythropoietin is a circulating glycoprotein which
stimulates erythropoiesis.
Catecholamines stimulate the breakdown of
glycogen, lipids and proteins. They are secreted 151. Answer (4)
by adrenal medulla. Cortisol is a steroid hormone whereas insulin and
138. Answer (3) glucagon are polypeptides.
Precocious puberty is true sexual precocity due 152. Answer (3)
to early maturation of gonads. The atrial wall of our heart secretes a peptide
139. Answer (2) hormone called atrial natriuretic factor (ANF)
which causes dilation of the blood vessels.
Prolactin stimulates production and secretion of
milk. Oxytocin initiates ejection of milk. 153. Answer (2)
140. Answer (2) Parts distalis produces six trophic hormones.
In diabetes insipidus, the volume of urine 154. Answer (4)
increases due to lack of ADH but no glucose is
MSH is melanocyte stimulating hormone.
detected in urine.
141. Answer (4) 155. Answer (2)
LH stimulates the ovulation of fully mature Thymosin produced by thymus promotes

Graafian follicles. production of antibodies to provide humoral
immunity.
142. Answer (4)
156. Answer (2)
Pineal is located on the dorsal side of the
forebrain and is also called the epiphysis. Aldosterone acts mainly at the renal tubules and
stimulates the reabsorption of Na+ and water and
143. Answer (2)
thus helps in water conservation.
Iodine is essential in the diet for normal rate of
157. Answer (2)
hormone synthesis in the thyroid.
144. Answer (2) Hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults
results in severe disfigurement, particularly in
Graves’ disease is also called exophthalmic bones of face resulting in Acromegaly.
goitre.
158. Answer (2)
145. Answer (2)
In Hydra, the neurons are linked to one another
Parathormone (PTH) is a hypercalcemic forming a network.
hormone. Calcitonin is hypocalcemic. Both PTH
and calcitonin regulate blood calcium levels. 159. Answer (3)
146 Answer (2) Dendrites receive impulses from other neurons
and transmit these towards the cell body of the
Destruction of adrenal cortex by diseases like
neuron.
tuberculosis produces Addison’s disease.
147. Answer (1) 160. Answer (2)
Alpha cells secrete a peptide hormone called Statement (c) is incorrect. Synaptic vesicles
glucagon. contain neurotransmitters acetylcholine not
adrenaline at NMJ.
148. Answer (3)
161. Answer (2)
Leydig cells or interstitial cells produce a group of
steroid hormones called androgens mainly Unipolar neurons later develop other poles and
testosterone. become bipolar or multipolar.
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@AakashDelhi02
162. Answer (2) 172. Answer (4)

At rest, the axonal membrane is nearly Choroid becomes thick in the anterior part to form
impermeable to sodium ions. the ciliary body.
163. Answer (4) 173. Answer (3)
+ +
Motor cortex of forebrain and the cerebellum play Na - K pump utilizes ATP and actively pumps
+ +
a major role in movement and coordination. out 3Na ions in exchange for 2K ions in the
axon. It helps maintain the resting membrane
164. Answer (3) potential.
Auditory nerve is also called acoustic 174. Answer (2)
vestibulcochlear nerve.
Hair cells act as auditory receptors and are
165. Answer (4) present in rows on the internal side of the organ
Cerebral aqueduct is also called Iter or aqueduct of Corti.
of Sylvius. 175. Answer (3)
166. Answer (3) Cones are of three different types :
The medulla of the brain is connected to the (1) Short wavelength sensitive (blue) cones.
spinal cord. (2) Medium wavelength sensitive (green)cones.
167. Answer (2) (3) Long wavelength sensitive (red) cones.
Dorsal and ventral root combine with each other 176. Answer (4)
before coming out of the vertebral column The fovea is a thinned out portion of the retina
through intervertebral foramina. where only the cones are densely (closely)
packed.
168. Answer (1)
177. Answer (1)
Hypothalamus is a neuroendocrine gland which
secretes various releasing and inhibiting The malleus is attached to the tympanic
membrane and the stapes is attached to the oval
hormones.
window of the cochlea.
169. Answer (4) 178. Answer (4)
Impulse transmission across an electrical The two upper lobes of the corpora quadrigemina
synapse is always faster than that across a are called superior colliculi.
chemical synapse.
179. Answer (1)
170. Answer (3) B represents interneuron
Mesencephalon is mid-brain and medulla is C represents motor neuron
myelencephalon.
D represent the efferent pathway.
171. Answer (4) 180. Answer (1)
The space between arachnoid membrane and Hippocampus makes the lower portion of the
piamater is called subarachnoid space. limbic fork.
  
@AakashDelhi02
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07/04/2020 CODE-A
MM : 720 Time : 3.00 Hrs.
Topics covered :
Physics : fLFkjoS|qr
Chemistry : Bksl voLFkk] foy;u] fo|qr jlk;u] jklk;fud cyxfrdh] i`"Bh; jlk;u
Botany : thoksa esa tuu] iq"ihi ikniksa esa ySafxd tuu
Zoology : thoksa esa tuu] ekuo tuu] tuu LokLF;
funsZ'k :
(i) mi;qDr xksys dks Hkjus ds fy, dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy isu dk ç;ksx djsA a

1. Work done in moving a unit positive charge from 1. ,d bdkbZ ?kukRed vkos”k dks fcUnq P ls A rd xfr
point P to A is WA and from P to B is WB. Then djkus eas fd;k x;k dk;Z WA gS rFkk P ls B rd xfr
djkus esa fd;k x;k dk;Z WB gSA rc
(1) WA – WB = 0 (2) WA < WB

(3) WA = WB (4) Both (1) and (3) (1) WA - WB = 0 (2) WA < WB
(3) WA = WB (4) (1) rFkk (3)
nksuksa
2. Two conducting spheres of radius r1 and r2 have
2. f=T;k r1 rFkk r2ds nks pkyd xksyksa dh lrg ds
same electric fields near their surfaces. The ratio
of their electric potential at their surface, is
fudV fo|qr {ks= leku gSA budh lrg ij buds
fo|qr foHko dk vuqikr gS
r12 r22
(1) (2) r12 r22
r22 r12 (1) (2)
r22 r12
r1 r2 r1 r2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
r2 r1 r2 r1
@AakashDelhi02
(1)
3. An electric dipole is placed in an electric field due 3. ,d fo|qr f}/kqzo dks fcUnq lzkrs ds dkj.k fo|qr {ks=
to point source, then net esa j[kk x;k gS] rc
(1) Force experienced by dipole is zero while (1) f}/kqzo }kjk vuqHko usV cy “kwU; gS tcfd
torque will never be zero
cyk?kw.kZ dHkh Hkh “kwU; ugha gksxk
(2) Force experienced by dipole will always be
non-zero while torque may or may not be zero (2) f}/kqzo }kjk vuqHko usV cy lnSo v”kwU; gksxk
tcfd cyk?kw.kZ “kwU; gks ldrk gS ;k ugha Hkh
(3) Force experienced by dipole is zero while
torque may or may not be zero (3) f}/kqzo }kjk vuqHko usV cy “kwU; gS tcfd
(4) Force and torque both will be zero cyk?kw.kZ “kwU; gks ldrk gS ;k ugh Hkh
4. Two particles of masses m and 2m with charges (4) usV cy rFkk cyk?kw.kZ nksuksa “kwU; gksx
a s
(–2q) and 2q are placed in uniform electric field E 4. nzO;eku m rFkk 2m ds nks d.kksa dk vkos”k Øe”k%
and allowed to move for same time the ratio of
(- 2q) rFkk 2q gS bUgsa le:i fo|qr {ks= E esa j[kk
their kinetic energy is
tkrk gS rFkk leku le; ds fy, xfr djus fn;k
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 4 : 1
tkrk gS] budh xfrt ÅtkZ dk vuqikr gS
(3) 8 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 4 : 1
5. The flux entering and leaving a closed surface are (3) 8 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
3 × 105 and 4 × 105 MKS unit respectively, then 5. ,d cUn lrg esa izofs ”kr rFkk fu’dkflr ¶yDl
the total charge inside the closed surface will be Øe”k% 3 × 105 rFkk 4 ×105 MKS gS] rc cUn lrg ds
(1) 8.85 × 10–7 C (2) – 8.85 × 10–7 C vUnj dqy vkos”k gksxk
(1)8.85 × 10-7 C
(3) – 6.195 × 10–6 C (4) 3.56 × 10–6 C
(2)– 8.85 × 10-7 C
6. Two concentric spherical conducting shells of (3)– 6.195 × 10-6 C
radius R and 2R carry charges Q and 2Q (4)3.56 × 10-6 C
respectively. Change in electric potential of inner 6. f=T;k R rFkk 2R ds nks ladsUnzh; xksyh; pkyd dks”k
shell, when they are connected by a conducting Øe”k% vkos'k Q rFkk 2Q xzg.k fd, gq, gSA tc bUgsa
wire will be ,d pkyd rkj }kjk la;ksftr fd;k tkrk gS] rc
1 Q vkarfjd dks”k ds fo|qr foHko esa ifjorZu gksxk
(1) 0 (2)
40 2R 1 Q
(1) 0 (2)
40 2R
1 Q 1 2Q
(3) (4) 1 Q 1 2Q
40 R 40 R (3) (4)
40 R 40 R
7. The velocity v acquired by a proton starting from 7. fojke ls xfr izkjaHk djrs gq, rFkk foHkokUrj V ls
rest and moving through a potential difference V is xfreku ,d izkVs kWu }kjk izkIr osx v ds eè; vkjs[k
shown by the graph
dks fdlds }kjk n”kkZ;k x;k gS
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
(2) @AakashDelhi02
E = ( 3iˆ + 4yjˆ )
8. The electric field in a region is given by N
8. fdlh {ks= esa fo+|qr {ks= dks }kjk
E = ( 3iˆ + 4yjˆ ) . The potential at point P having
N C
C fn;k x;k gSA funsZ”kkad (2m, 1m) okys fcUnq P ij
co-ordinates (2m, 1m) is (assume potential at foHko gS ¼ekuk ewy fcUnq ij foHko “kwU; gS½
origin zero)
(1) 8 V (2) 16 V
(1) 8 V (2) 16 V
(3) –8 V (4) –16 V
(3) –8 V (4) –16 V
9. edZjh dh N le:Ik cwanks dks ,d lkFk 10 V ls
9. N identical drops of mercury are charged
vkosf”kr fd;k x;k gSA tc ,d cM+h cwna fufeZr
simultaneously to 10 V. When combined to form
one large drop, the potential is found to be 40 V, djus ds fy, lfEefyr fd;k tkrk gSA foHko 40 V
the value of N is ik;k tkrk gSA N dk eku gS
(1) 4 (2) 6 (1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 8 (4) 10 (3) 8 (4) 10
10. In a region of space the electric field is given by 10. f+=foe ds fdlh {ks= esa fo|qr {ks= dks
E = 8iˆ + 4 jˆ + 3kˆ . The electric flux through a E = 8iˆ + 4 jˆ + 3kˆ }kjk fn;k x;k gSA x – z ry esa 50
surface of area 50 unit in x – z plane is bdkbZ {ks=Qy dh lgr ls izokfgr fo|qr ¶yDl gS
(1) 400 unit (2) 200 unit (1) 400 bdkbZ (2) 200 bdkbZ
11. An electric dipole consists of two opposite charges 11. ,d fo|qr f}/kzqo es ifjek.k 1C ds nks foifjr vkos”k
each of magnitude 1C separated by a distance of
lfEefyr gSA ;s 2.0 cm dh nwjh ls i`FkDd`r gSA
2.0 cm. The maximum torque acting on the dipole
in uniform electric field of 2.0 × 105 N/C ds le:i fo|qr {ks= esa f}/kqzo ij
5
2.0 × 10 N/C is dk;Zjr vf/kdre cyk?kw.kZ gS
(1) 1.0 × 10–3 Nm (1) 1.0 × 10-3 Nm
(2) 2.0 × 10–3 Nm (2) 2.0 × 10-3 Nm
(3) 3.0 × 10–3 Nm (3) 3.0 × 10-3 Nm

(4) 4.0 × 10-3 Nm
(4) 4.0 × 10–3 Nm
12. 9C rFkk 6C ds nks ?kukRed fcUnq vkos”k 10 cm ls
12. Two positive point charges of 9C and 6C are 10
cm apart. The work done in bringing them to a
i`FkDd`r gSA budks 4 cm dh nwjh rd ykus esa fd;k
separation of 4 cm is x;k dk;Z gS
(1) 5.25 J (2) 6.29 J (1) 5.25 J (2) 6.29 J
(3) 7.29 J (4) 8.25 J (3) 7.29 J (4) 8.25 J
13. A thin conducting spherical shell of radius R has a 13. f=T;k R ds ,d irys pkyd xksyh; dks”k ij vkos”k
charge 2q. Another charge q is placed at the 2q gSA vU; vkos”k q dks dks”k ds dsUnz ij j[kk tkrk
centre of shell. The electric potential at a point P R
gSA dks”k ds dsUnz ls nwjh ij fcUnq P ij fo|qr
R 2
at distance from centre of shell is
2 foHko gS
1 4q 1  3q  1 4q 1  3q 
(1) (2) 2R 
40  2 R 
(1) (2)
40 R 40   40 R
1  5q  1 2q  1  5q  1 2q 
40  2 R 
(3) (4)
40  2 R 
(3) (4)
4 0  R  4 0 R 
 
(3) @AakashDelhi02
14. Two equal positive point charges q are held at a 14. nks leku /kukRed fcUnq vkos”kksa q dks ,d fLFkj nwjh
fixed distance a apart. A point test charge is a ij j[kk x;k gSA ,d fcUnq ifj{k.k vkos”k ry esa
located in a plane that is normal to the line joining
fLFkr gSA ry bu vkos”kksa dks tksM+us okyh js[kk ds
these charges and midway between them. Radius
of the circle in this plane for which the force on the yEcor rFkk buds eè; fL+Fkr eè; fcUnq ij gSA bl
test particle is maximum, will be ry esa o`Ùk dh f=T;k ftlds fy, ijh{k.k d.k ij
cy vf/kdre gS] gksxk
a a
(1) (2)
2 2 2 a a
(1) (2)
2 2 2
a
(3) (4) 2a a
2 (3) (4) 2a
2
15. Two concentric conducting thin shells of radius R
and 2R carry charge Q and 3Q respectively. The
15. f=T;k R rFkk 2R dh nks ladsUnzh; pkyd irys dks”k
magnitude of electric field at points A and B at a Øe”k% vkos”k Q rFkk 3Q xzg.k fd, gq, gSA ckgjh
distance x outside and inside from the surface of xksys dh lrg ls ckgj rFkk vUnj dh vksj x nwjh ij
outer sphere is same. Then value of x is fcUnqvksa A rFkk B ij fo|qr {ks= dk ifjek.k leku gSA
R 2R
rc x dk eku gS
(1) (2)
3 3 (1) R (2) 2R
3 3
R R
(3)
4
(4)
2 (3) R (4) R
4 2
16. A spherical conducting shell of radius 10 cm 16. f=T;k 10 cm dh ,d xksyh; pkyd dks”k q vkos'k
carrying charge q. The electric potential at
xzg.k fd, gq, gSA xksyh; dks”k ds dsUnz ls nwjh
distances 5 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm from centre of
5 cm, 8 cm rFkk 10 cm ij fo|qr foHko V1, V2 rFkk
the spherical shell are V1, V2 and V3 then
V3 gS] rc
(1) V1 > V2 > V3 (2) V1 < V2 < V3
(1) V1 > V2 > V3 (2) V1 < V2 < V3
(3) V1 = V2 = V3 (4) V1 = V2 > V3 (3) V1 = V2 = V3 (4) V1 = V2 > V3
17. A point charge causes an electric flux of 17. ,d fcUnq vkos”k ds dkj.k fo|qr ¶yDl 4.0 × 103
2
Nm Nm2
4.0 × 103 to pass through a spherical gS tks vkos”k ij dsfUnzr f=T;k 10 cm ds
C C
Gaussian surface of radius 10 cm centred on xksyh; xkmfl;u lrg ls xqtjrk gSA ;fn xksys dh
charge. If radius of sphere reduced to half, then f=T;k dks vk/ks rd de fd;k tkrk gS] rc xksys ls
the flux that would pass through the sphere is xqtjus okyk ¶yDl gS
Nm2 Nm2 Nm2 Nm2
(1) 1.0 × 103 (2) 2.0  103 (1) 1.0 × 103 (2) 2.0  103
C C C C
Nm2 Nm2 Nm2 Nm2
(3) 4.0  103 (4) 3.0  103 (3) 4.0  103 (4) 3.0  103
C C C C
18. Consider a rhombus ABCD as shown in figure. A 18. ekuk ,d leprqHkqZt ABCD fp= esa n”kkZ;s vuqlkj
charge +Q placed at corner A produces field E gSA “kh’kZ A ij j[kk ,d vkos”k +Q {ks= E mRiUu
and potential V at corner D. If we now placed djrk gS rFkk foHko V “kh’kZ D ij mRiUu djrk gSA
charges –2Q and +Q at corners B and C vc ;fn “kh’kZ B rFkk C ij Øe”k% vkos”k –2Q and
respectively. Now the magnitude of electric field +Q dks j[kk tkrk gSA vc D ij fo|qr {ks= + rFkk
and potential at D will be foHko dk ifjek.k gksxk
(4) @AakashDelhi02
V E V E
(1) E 2 , (2) ,V 2 (1) E 2 , (2) ,V 2
2 3 2 3
V V
(3) E, 0 (4) E 3 , (3) E, 0 (4) E 3 ,
2 2
19. If a dielectric slab of dielectric constant K is 19. ;fn ijkoS|qrkad K dh ,d ijkoS|qr ifêVdk dks
introduced between the plates of an isolated ÅtkZ U0 okys ,d foyfxr vkosf”kr ok;q la/kkfj= dh
charged air capacitor having energy U0. The
IysVksa ds eè; izosf”kr djk;k tkrk gSA la/kkfj= esa
energy stored in the capacitor will
laxzfgr ÅtkZ esa
 1
(1) Increase by U0  1 −   1
 K  (1) U0  1 −  ls o`f) gksxh
 K
 1
(2) Decrease by U0  1 −   1
 K (2) U0  1 −  ls de gksxh
 K
(3) Remain same
(3) leku jgsxh
(4) Increase by U0 ( K − 1)
(4) U0 ( K − 1) ls o`f) gksxh
20. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is
12F. If the distance between the plates is 20. ,d lekUrj IysV la/kkfj= dh /kkfjrk 12F gSA ;fn
doubled and area is halved. Then new IysVksa ds eè; nwjh dks nksxquk fd;k tk;s rFkk {ks=Qy
capacitance will be dks vk/kk fd;k tk;s] rc uohu /kkfjrk gksxhA
(1) 12 F (2) 6 F (1) 12 F (2) 6 F
(3) 4 F (4) 3 F (3) 4 F (4) 3 F
21. Four particles, each having a charge ‘q’ are placed 21. vkos”k ‘q’ okys pkj d.kksa dks Hkqtk a ds le’kVHkqt ds
at the four vertices of a regular hexagon of side a.
The electric field at the centre of hexagon is
pkj “kh’kksZa ij j[kk x;k gSA ‘kVHkqt ds dsUnz ij
fo|qr {ks= gS
1 4q
(1) 0 (2) 1 4q
40 a 2 (1) 0 (2)
40 a 2
1 3q 1 2q
(3) (4) 1 3q 1 2q
40 a2 40 a 2 (3) (4)
40 a2 40 a 2
22. The minimum possible electrostatic force between
two points objects placed at a separation of 1 cm 22. 1 cm dh nwjh ij j[kh nks fcUnq oLrqvksa ds eè;
is U;wure laHko fLFkjoS|qr cy gS
(1) 2.3 × 10-24 N (1) 2.3 × 10-24 N
(2) 2.3 × 10-23 N (2) 2.3 × 10-23 N
(3) 2.3 × 10-22 N (3) 2.3 × 10-22 N
(4) 2.3 × 10-21 N (4) 2.3 × 10-21 N
(5) @AakashDelhi02
23. The force on a charge due to another charge is 23. ,d vkos”k ij vU; vkos”k ds dkj.k cy gS
(1) Depends on the presence of other charges (1) vU; vkos”kksa dh mifLFkfr ij fuHkZj djrk gS
(2) Independent on the presence of other charges (2) vU; vkos”kksa dh mifLFkfr ij fuHkZj ugha djrk gS
(3) Depends on presence of other charges and (3) vU; vkos”kksa dh mifLFkfr rFkk muds fpà ij
their sign
fuHkZj djrk gSA
(4) Depends on presence of other charges, their
(4) vU; vkos”kksa dh mifLFkfr muds fpg~u rFkk nwjh
sign and distances
ij fuHkZj djrk gSA
24. Two equal positive charges are kept at points A
and B. The electric potential at the points A and B 24. nks leku /kukRed vkos”kksa dks fcUnqvksa A rFkk B ij
(excluding these points) is studied while moving j[kk tkrk gSA A ls B rd xfr djrs gq, fcUnqvksa A
from A to B. The potential rFkk B ¼bu fcUnqvksa ds vfrfjDr½ ij fo|qr foHko dk
(1) Increases continuously vè;;u fd;k x;k gSA foHko
(2) Decreases continuously (1) lrr :i ls c<sxk
(3) Decreases then increases (2) lrr :i ls ?kVsxk
(4) Increases then decreases (3) ?kVsxk rRi”pkr~ c<sxk
25. Two insulating small spheres are rubbed against (4) c<sxk rRi”pkr~ ?kVsxk
each other and placed 3.0 cm apart. If they attract
25. nks dqpkyd NksVs xksyksa dks ,d nwljs ds fo:) jxM+k
each other with a force of 0.256 N. Then the
number of electrons transferred from one sphere
tkrk gS rFkk 3.0 cm ls i`FkDd`r fd;k tkrk gSA ;fn
to other is ;s ,d nwljs dks 0.256 N ds cy ls vkdf’kZr djrs gSa]
rc ,d xksys ls nwljs xksys rd LFkkukUrfjr
(1) 1.0 × 1012 (2) 2.0 × 1012
bysDVªkWuksa dh la[;k gS
(3) 1.0 × 1013 (4) 2.0 × 1013
(1) 1.0 × 1012 (2) 2.0 × 1012
26. A capacitor of capacitance C1 = 1 F withstand a (3) 1.0 × 1013 (4) 2.0 × 1013
maximum voltage V1 = 6 kV, while a capacitor of
26. /kkfjrk C1 = 1 F dk ,d la/kkfj= vf/kdre oksYVrk
capacitance C2 = 3.0 F withstand the maximum
V1 = 6 kV lgu dj ldrk gS] tcfd /kkfjrk
voltage V2 = 4 kV. The maximum voltage which
C2 = 3.0 F dk la/kkfj= vf/kdre oksYVrk V2 = 4 kV
the capacitors can withstand when connected in
series
lgu djrk gSA tc Js.kh esa la;ksftr djrs gS rc
la/kkfj=ksa ds lgus dh vf/kdre oksYVrk gS
(1) 8 kV (2) 9 kV
(1) 8 kV (2) 9 kV
(3) 10 kV (4) 5 kV (3) 10 kV (4) 5 kV
27. Three charges are arranged on the vertices of an 27. rhu vkos”kksa dks fp= esa n”kkZ;s vuqlkj ,d leckgq
equilateral triangle as shown in figure. The dipole
f=Hkqt ds “kh’kksZa ij O;ofLFkr fd;k x;k gSA la;kstu
moment of combination is
dk f}/kqzo vk?kw.kZ gS
(1) qa 3 (2) qa 5 (1) qa 3 (2) qa 5

(3) qa 7 (4) 3qa (3) qa 7 (4) 3qa
@AakashDelhi02
(6)
28. A thin metallic spherical shell contains a charge Q 28. ,d irys /kkfRod xksyh; dks”k ij Q vkos”k gSA ,d
on it. A point charge q is placed at the centre of fcUnq vkos”k q dks dks”k ds dsUnz ij j[kk x;k gS rFkk
shell and charge – q1 is placed outside it as shown vkos”k – q1 dks fp= esa n”kkZ, vuqlkj blls ckgj
in figure. The force on the charge at centre due to
shell is
j[kk tkrk gSA dks”k ds dkj.k dsUnz ij vkos”k ij
cy gS
(1) Towards left (2) Towards right

(1) ck;h vksj (2) nk;h vksj
(3) Upward (4) Zero (3) Åij dh vksj (4) “kwU;
29. In a certain region of space electric field is along 29. f=foe ds fdlh fuf”pr {ks= esa fo|qr {ks= z-fn”kk ds
the z-direction throughout. The magnitude of
electric field is however, not constant but
vuqfn”k gSA gkykafd fo|qr {ks= dk ifjek.k fu;r
increases uniformly along positive z-direction at ugha gS ysfdu 106 N/Cm dh nj ls /kukRed z-fn”kk
the rate of 106 N/Cm. The force experienced by a ds vuqfn”k ,dleku :Ik ls c<+rk gSA _.kkRed z
dipole of dipole moment 0.2 × 10–5 Cm in negative fn”kk esa f}/kqzo vk?kw.kZ 0.2 × 10–5 Cm ds f}/kqzo }kjk
z direction is vuqHko cy gS
(1) 2 N along +z-direction (1) + z-fn”kk ds vuqfn”k 2 N
(2) 2 N along (–z)-direction (2) (–z)-fn”kk ds vuqfn”k 2 N
(3) 0 N (3) 0 N
(4) 2 N along – x-direction (4) – x- fn”kk ds vuqfn”k 2 N
30. The equivalent capacitance of combination shown 30. fcUnqvksa A rFkk B ds eè; fp= esa n”kkZ, la;kstu dh
in figure between points A and B is rqY; /kkfjrk gS
(1) C (2) 3C (1) C (2) 3C

3C 3C
(3) 4C (4) (3) 4C (4)
2 2
31. A spherical volume of radius 10 cm contains a 31. f=T;k 10 cm ds ,d xksyh; vk;ru esa ?kuRo
uniformly distributed charge of density 2 × 10–4 2 × 10–4 Cm–3 dk vkos”k ,dleku :Ik ls forjhr
Cm–3. The electric field at a point inside the gSA dsUnz ls 5 cm dh nwjh ij vk;ru ds vUnj ,d
volume at a distance of 5 cm form centre is fcUnq ij fo|qr {ks= gS
N N N N
(1) 2.75 × 105 (2) 3 × 105 (1) 2.75 × 105 (2) 3 × 105
C C C C
N N N N
(3) 3.75 × 105 (4) 5 × 105 (3) 3.75 × 105 (4) 5 × 105
C C C C
(7) @AakashDelhi02
32. Dielectric strength of a dielectric is 32. ,d ijkoS|qr dk ijkoS|qr lkeF;Z gS

(1) The maximum potential which a dielectric can (1) vf/kdre foHko tks ,d ijkoS|qr fcuk Hkatu ds
bear without break down lgu dj ldrk gS
(2) The maximum value of electric field which a (2) fo|qr {ks= dk vf/kdre eku tks ,d ijkoS|qr
dielectric can bear without break down fcuk Hkatu ds lgu dj ldrk gSA
(3) The maximum charge which a dielectric can (3) vf/kdre vkos”k tks ,d ijkoS|qr fcuk Hkatu ds
bear without break down lgu dj ldrk gS
33. Five capacitors are connected in a circuit as 33. ik¡p la/kkfj=ksa dks fp= esa n”kkZ, vuqlkj ifjiFk esa
shown in figure. la;ksftr fd;k x;k gSA
The charge stored on 4 F capacitor and potential la/kkfj= 4 F ij laxzfgr vkos”k rFkk bldh IysVksa ds
drop across its plates are respectively
fljksa ij cksYVrk iru Øe”k% gS
(1) 24 C, 6 V
(1) 24 C, 6 V
(2) 30 F, 7.5 V
(2) 30 F, 7.5 V
(3) 80 C, 20 V
(3) 80 C, 20 V
(4) 40 C, 10 V
(4) 40 C, 10 V
34. The flux through the hemispherical curved surface
placed in uniform electric field E in the figure
34. n”kkZ, fp= esa le:i fo|qr {ks= E esa j[ks v)Zxksyh;
shown is oØh; lrg ls izokfgr ¶yDl gS
(1) R E
2
(1) R 2 E
(2) 2R E
2 (2) 2R 2 E
(3) Zero (3) 'kwU;

2 2
(4) –R E (4) –R E
35. Some negative charge is uniformly distributed in a 35. dqN _.kkRed vkos”k ,d vpkyd xksys esa ,d
nonconducting sphere, then its potential is leku :Ik ls forfjr gS] rc bldk foHko
(1) Minimum at surface (1) lrg ij U;wure gS
(2) Minimum at centre
(2) dsUnz ij U;wure gS
(3) Remain same throughout the material
(3) lEiw.kZ inkFkZ esa leku jgrk gS
(4) Minimum somewhere between surface and
centre (4) lrg rFkk dsUnz ds eè; dgh ij U;wure gS
(8) @AakashDelhi02
36. A capacitor of capacitance C is charged with a 36. /kkfjrk C ds ,d la/kkfj= dks ,d cSVjh ls vkosf”kr
battery and energy stored in capacitor is U. After fd;k tkrk gS rFkk la/kkfj= esa laxzfgr ÅtkZ U gSA
disconnecting battery another uncharged
cSVjh dks foPNsfnr djus ds ckn leku /kkfjrk ds
capacitor of same capacity is connected in parallel
to the first capacitor. The energy stored in each vU; vukosf”kr la/kkfj= dks izFke la/kkfj= ds lkFk
capacitor now is lekUrj esa la;ksftr fd;k tkrk gSA vc izR;sd
U
la/kkfj= esa laxzfgr ÅtkZ gS
(1) U (2)
2 U
(1) U (2)
U U 2
(3) (4)
4 8 U U
(3) (4)
37. The minimum number of 2F identical capacitors 4 8
which can withstand a maximum potential 37. 2F ds le:i la/kkfj=ksa dh U;wure la[;k tks
difference of 400 V require to design a circuit of 400 V dk vf/kdre foHkokUrj lgu dj ldrs gS]
effective capacitance of 2F and bearing voltage 2F dh izHkkoh /kkfjrk rFkk 1000 V dh lgu oksYVrk
1000 V are.
ds ifjiFk dks fufeZr djus ds fy, vko”;d gS
(1) 3 (2) 6 (1) 3 (2) 6
(3) 9 (4) 12 (3) 9 (4) 12
38. A soap bubble of radius 1 m is charged to a 38. f=T;k 1 m ds ,d lkcqu ds cqycqys dks 100 V ds foHko
potential of 100 V. Its radius is then doubled. The ls vkosf”kr fd;k tkrk gS bldh f=T;k nksxquh gks tkrh
electric field at surface of bubble now will be gSA vc cqycqys dh lrg ij fo|qr {ks= gksxkA
(1) 25 V/m (2) 50 V/m (1) 25 V/m (2) 50 V/m
(3) 100 V/m (4) 200 V/m (3) 100 V/m (4) 200 V/m
39. A and B are two concentric spheres. If A is given a 39. A rFkk B nks ladsUnzh; xksys gSaA ;fn A dks vkos”k q
charge q and B is earthed, then fn;k tkrk gS rFkk B dks HkwlEifdZr fd;k tkrk gS]
rc
(1) The charge density of A and B are same

(2) The electric field inside and outside A is zero (1) A rFkk B dk vkos”k ?kuRo leku gS
(3) The electric field between A and B is non zero (2) A ds vanj rFkk ckgj fo|qr {ks= “kwU; gS
(4) The electric field inside and outside B is zero (3) A rFkk B ds eè; fo|qr {ks= v”kwU; gS
40. Volume charge density for a solid nonconducting (4) B ds vanj rFkk ckgj fo|qr {ks= “kwU; gS
Qr 40. ,d Bksl vpkyd xksys ds fy, vk;ru vkos”k ?kuRo
sphere is given by  = where Q is total
R 4 dks =
Qr
}kjk fn;k x;k gS] tgk¡ Q xksys ij dqy
charge on sphere and R is its radius, r is distance R 4
from centre of sphere. Magnitude of electric field vkos”k gS rFkk R bldh f=T;k gS] r xksys ds dsUnz ls
at a distance ‘l’ from centre of sphere (l < R) will nwjh gSA xksys ds dsUnz ls ‘l’ nwjh (l < R) ij fo|qr {ks=
be dk ifjek.k gksxk
Ql 2 Ql 2 Ql 2 Ql 2
(1) (2) (1) (2)
80R 4 40R 4 80R 4 40R 4
Ql Ql
(3) (4) Zero (3) (4) 'kwU;
40R 2 40R 2
@AakashDelhi02
(9)
41. Two identical capacitors A and B are shown in 41. nks le:i la/kkfj=ksa A rFkk B dks fp= esa n”kkZ;k x;k
figure. If a dielectric slab of dielectric constant
gSA ;fn ijkoS|qrkad K dh ijkoS|qr ifêVdk dks
K is slipped between the plates of capacitor B.
Then energy of capacitor B will la/kkfj= B dh IysVksa ds eè; j[kk tkrk gSA rc
la/kkfj= B dh ÅtkZ
(1) Decrease
(2) Increase
(1) ?kVsxh (2) c<sxh
(3) Remain same (3) leku jgsxh (4) “kwU; gksxh
(4) Become zero 42. fp= esa n”kkZ, ifjiFk esa A rFkk B ds eè; 60 V ds
42. In the circuit shown in figure the charge stored in foHkokUrj dks vjksfir djus ij la?kkfj= 2F esa
2F capacitor on applying a potential difference of laxzfgr vkos”k gS
60 V between A and B is
(1) 40 C (2) 80 C
(1) 40 C (2) 80 C
(3) 60 C (4) 120 C
(3) 60 C (4) 120 C
43. vkos”kksa +2q rFkk -q dks Øe”k% fcUnq A rFkk B ij j[kk
43. Charges +2q and -q are placed at point A and B tkrk gS tks nwjh 2L ls i`FkDd`r gSA C, A rFkk B ds
respectively which are at a distance 2L apart, C is
the midpoint between A and B.
eè; fcUnq gSA
The work done in moving a charge (-Q) along the iFk CED ds vuqfn”k vkos”k (-Q) dks xfr djkus esa
path CED is fd;k x;k dk;Z gS
1 4qQ 1 qQ 1 4qQ 1 qQ
(1) (2) − (1) (2) −
40 3L 4 0 3L 40 3L 4 0 3L
1 3qQ 1 3qQ 1 3qQ 1 3qQ

(3) (4) − (3) (4) −
40 L 40 L 40 L 40 L
(10)@AakashDelhi02
44. The electric potential at a point having coordinate 44. funsZ”kkad okys ,d fcUnq ij fo|qr foHko dks
x, y, z
x, y, z is given by V = – [x2 + y2 + z3]. The V = – [x2+ y2+ z3] }kjk fn;k x;k gSA funsZ”kkad
magnitude of electric field at point having
(0, 2, 1) okys fcUnq ij fo|qr {ks= dk ifjek.k gS
coordinate (0, 2, 1) is (all quantities are in SI units)
(lHkh jkf”k;k¡ SI ek=d esa gS)
N
(1) 7 N
C (1) 7
C
N
(2) 10 N
C (2) 10
C
N
(3) 5 N
C (3) 5
C
N
(4) 12 N
C (4) 12
C
45. The variation of electric field vector from centre of
a charged conducting sphere of radius R is
45. f=T;k R ds ,d vkosf”kr pkyd xksys ds dsUnz ls
correctly shown in graph. fo|qr {ks= lfn”k ds ifjorZu dk lgh vkjs[k gS
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
(11)@AakashDelhi02
46. At certain temperature molar conductance of 0.2 46. ,d fuf'pr rki ij nqcZy ,dd vEyh;
molar aqueous solution of a weak monoacidic gkbMªkWDlkbM ds 0.2 eksyj tyh; foy;u dk eksyj
hydroxide is 8.44 S cm2 mol–1 and at infinite pkydRo 8.44 S cm2 mol-1 gS rFkk vuUr ruqrk ij
dilution its molar conductance is 326 S cm2 mol–1.
The degree of ionisation of weak monoacidic
bldk eksyj pkydRo 326 S cm2 mol-1 gSA leku
hydroxide at the given concentration and same rki ij nh x;h lkaærk ij nqcZy ,dd vEyh;
temperature is gkbMªkWDlkbM ds vk;uu dh ek=k gS
(1) 2.59% (2) 20.90% (1) 2.59% (2) 20.90%
(3) 2.09% (4) 5.21% (3) 2.09% (4) 5.21%
47. Standard oxidation potentials of the half-cell 47. uhps v/kZ lsy vfHkfØ;kvksa ds ekud vkWDlhdj.k
reactions are given below foHko fn, x, gSa
EF− /F = −2.85 V, E = −1.36 V EF− /F = −2.85 V, E = −1.36 V
2 Cl− /Cl2 2 Cl− /Cl2
EBr− /Br = −1.06 V, E − = −0.53 V EBr− /Br = −1.06 V, E − = −0.53 V

2  / 2 2  / 2
The weakest oxidising and reducing agents nqcZyre vkWDlhdkjd rFkk vipk;d Øe'k% gS
respectively are
(1) F2 rFkk  − (2) 2 rFkk F–
− –
(1) F2 and  (2)  2 and F
(3) Br2 rFkk Cl− (4) F2 rFkk 2
−
(3) Br2 and Cl (4) F2 and 2
48. mPp rki ij Al2O3 ds fuEufyf[kr fo|qrvi?kVuh
48. 2.5 V is required for the following electrolytic vip;u ds fy, 2.5 V vko';d gS:
reduction of Al2O3 at a high temperature:
2Al2O3 ⎯→ 4Al + 3O2
2Al2O3 ⎯→ 4Al + 3O2
leku rki ij ,yqfefu;e vkWDlkbM ds vi?kVu ds
The Gibb’s energy for the decomposition of
fy, fxCl ÅtkZ gS
aluminium oxide at same temperature is
(1) +5211 kJ mol-1 (2) +2895 kJ mol-1
(1) +5211 kJ mol–1 (2) +2895 kJ mol–1
(3) +1960 kJ mol-1 (4) +960 kJ mol-1
(3) +1960 kJ mol–1 (4) +960 kJ mol–1
2+ 2+ 49. Hg2+ / Hg22+ ;qXe ds fy, ekud bysDVªkWM foHko
49. Standard electrode potential for Hg / Hg2 couple is
2+
+0.92 V rFkk Fe / Fe ;qXe ds fy, – 0.44 V gSA
+0.92 V and that for the Fe2+ / Fe couple is
– 0.44 V. These two couples in their standard
bu nksuksa ;qXeksa dks budh ekud voLFkk esa la;ksftr
states are connected to make a cell. The cell djds ,d lsy cuk;k tkrk gS lsy foHko gksxk
potential will be (1) +0.48 V (2) -0.48 V
(1) +0.48 V (2) -0.48 V (3) +0.89 V (4) +1.36 V
(3) +0.89 V (4) +1.36 V 50. ruqrk ds lkFk CH3COOH dh eksyj pkydrk esa
50. An increase in molar conductance of CH3COOH o`f) dk dkj.k gS
with dilution is due to
(1) dsoy vk;uksa dh xfr'khyrk esa o`f)
(1) Increase in mobility of ions only
(2) lkekU; ruqrk ij ,lhfVd vEy dk 100%
(2) 100% ionisation of acetic acid at normal vk;uu
dilution
(3) vk;uksa dh la[;k rFkk H+ dh vk;fud
(3) Decrease in both number of ions and ionic
mobility of H+ xfr'khyrk nksuksa esa deh
(4) Increase in number of ions as well as ionic (4) vk;uksa dh la[;k rFkk vk;uksa dh vk;fud
mobility of ions xfr'khyrk nksuksa esa o`f)
@AakashDelhi02
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51. Consider the change in oxidation state of a non- 51. uhps n'kkZ, vuqlkj fo-ok-c- ds fofHkUu eku ds laxr
metal X corresponding to different emf values as v/kkrq X dh vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk esa ifjorZu ij
shown below:
fopkj dhft,:
Then the species undergoing disproportionation is

rc vlekuqikru n'kkZus okyh Lih'kht gS
(1) HXO4 (2) X2
(1) HXO4 (2) X2
(3) HXO (4) XO3− (3) HXO
−
(4) XO3
52. If the Daniell cell is not working at standard state 52. ;fn Msfu;y lsy ekud voLFkk ifjfLFkfr;ksa ij dk;Z
conditions, which of the following relationships is ugha djrk gS] rks fuEu esa ls dkSulk lEcU/k lgh gS?
correct?
(1) Eo  0; Go  0,Keq  1
(1) Eocell  0; Go  0,Keq  1 lsy
(2) Eo  0, Go  0, Keq  1

lsy
(2) Eocell  0, G  0, Keq  1
o
(3) Eo  0; Go  0; Keq  1

lsy
(3) Eocell  0; G  0; Keq  1
o
(4) E  0; Go  0; Keq  1

lsy
(4) Ecell  0; G  0; Keq  1
o
53. laxfyr dSfYl;e czkes kbM ds fo|qrvi?kVu ds nkSjku
53. During the electrolysis of molten calcium bromide, 2 ,fEi;j dh /kkjk ds mi;ksx ls 0.30 eksy czksehu
the approximate time required to produce 0.30 mol xSl çkIr djus ds fy, vko';d yxHkx le; gS
of bromine gas using a current of 2 amperes is
(1) 67 feuV (2) 110 feuV
(1) 67 minutes (2) 110 minutes
(3) 220 feuV (4) 482 feuV
54. ,d çFke dksfV vfHkfØ;k esa rki esa çR;sd 10°C dh
54. In a first order reaction for every 10°C rise of
o`f) ds fy, osx 2.2 xquk gks tkrk gSA ;fn rki dks
temperature, the rate becomes 2.2 times. If the
40°C ls 80°C rd c<+k;k tkrk gS] rks vfHkfØ;k osx
temperature is increased from 40°C to 80°C, the
rate of the reaction will become approximately yxHkx gks tk,xk
(1) 19.8 times (2) 23 times (1) 19.8 xquk (2) 23 xquk
(3) 39 times (4) 512 times (3) 39 xquk (4) 512 xquk
55. Which one of the following statements for the 55. vfHkfØ;k dksfV ds lanHkZ esa fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku
order of a reaction is correct? lgh gS?
(1) Order of a reaction is multiplication of in power (1) vfHkfØ;k dksfV osx fu;e esa çnf'kZr vfHkdkjdksa
to the concentration terms of reactants dh lakærk inksa ij yxh ?kkr dk xq.ku gksrk gS
expressed in the rate law.
(2) dksfV çk;ksfxd :i ls fu/kkZfjr gksrh gS
(2) Order is determined experimentally
(3) vfHkfØ;k dksfV lnSo iw.kk±d gksrh gS
(3) Order of reaction is always whole number
(4) dksfV dsoy vfHkdkjdksa ds jllehdj.kferh;
(4) Order is influenced by stoichiometric
coefficients of reactants only
xq.kkdksa }kjk çHkkfor gksrh gS
56. The half life of a substance in a certain first order
56. fdlh çFke dksfV ZSM-5 mRçsfjr vfHkfØ;k esa inkFkZ
ZSM-5 catalysed reaction is 72 s. The time dh v/kZ vk;q 72 s gSA inkFkZ dh lkaærk dks
required for the concentration of the substance to 2.56 mmol L–1 ls 0.02 mmol L–1 rd de gksus esa
fall from 2.56 mmol L–1 to 0.02 mmol L–1 is yxk vko';d le; gS
(1) 690 s (2) 434 s (1) 690 s (2) 434 s
(3) 574 s (4) 504 s (3) 574 s (4) 504 s
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@AakashDelhi02
57. For the following reaction, 57. fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;k ds fy,,

A + B ⎯→ C + 56 kJ mol-1, A + B ⎯→ C + 56 kJ mol-1,
lfØ;.k ÅtkZ 113 kJ mol–1 gSA
vfHkfØ;k:
energy of activation is 113 kJ mol–1. For the
reaction: C ⎯→ A + B, the energy of activation C ⎯→ A + B ds fy, lfØ;.k ÅtkZ gksxh
will be (1) 57 kJ mol–1 (2) 169 kJ mol–1
(1) 57 kJ mol–1 (2) 169 kJ mol–1 (3) 56 kJ mol–1 (4) 226 kJ mol–1
(3) 56 kJ mol–1 (4) 226 kJ mol–1 58. vEyh; foy;u esa gksus okys ,lhVksu ds czkes huhdj.k
dks fuEu lehdj.k }kjk çnf'kZr fd;k tkrk gS
58. The bromination of acetone that occurs in acid
solution is represented by this equation CH3COCH3(aq) + Br2(aq) → CH3COCH2Br(aq)
CH3COCH3(aq) + Br2(aq) → CH3COCH2Br(aq) + H+(aq) + Br–(aq)
+ H+(aq) + Br–(aq) vfHkfØ;k osx dks osx = k [CH3COCH3][H+] }kjk

fn;k tkrk gSA osx fu;rkad dk eku de gks ldrk
The rate of reaction is given as rate = k
[CH3COCH3][H+]. The value of rate constant can gS
be decreased by (1) ,lhVksu dh lkaærk c<kus ij
(1) Increasing the concentration of acetone (2) H+ dh lkaærk c<kus ij
(2) Increasing the concentration of H+ (3) H+ dh lkaærk ?kVkus ij
(3) Decreasing the concentration of H+ (4) rki ?kVkus ij
(4) Decreasing the temperature 59. tc veksfu;k dh çkjfEHkd lkaærk dks rhu xquk dj
59. When initial concentration of ammonia is tripled, fn;k tkrk gS] rks fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;k dk v/kZ-vk;q
the half-life period of following reaction dky
2NH3 (g) ⎯⎯→
Pt
 N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g) ⎯⎯→
Pt
 N2 (g) + 3H2 (g)
(1) Is tripled (1) rhu xquk gks tk,xk

(2) Becomes one-third (2) ,d-frgkbZ gks tk,xk
(3) Is doubled (3) nqxquk gks tk,xk
(4) Remains unchanged (4) vifjofrZr jgsxk
60. A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate of 60. ,d çFke dksfV vfHkfØ;k dk fof'k"V vfHkfØ;k osx
2 × 10–2 s–1. How much time will it take for 2 × 10–2 s–1 gSA 80 g vfHkdkjd dks 20 g rd de
80 g of the reactant to reduce to 20 g? gksus esa fdruk le; yxsxk?
(1) 277.2 s (2) 138.6 s (1) 277.2 s (2) 138.6 s
(3) 104.32 s (4) 69.3 s (3) 104.32 s (4) 69.3 s
61. For the reaction X + Y ⎯→ Products, it is 61. vfHkfØ;k X + Y ⎯→ mRikn ds fy,] ;g çsf{kr gksrk
observed that gS fd
(i) On doubling the initial concentrations of both (i) X rFkk Y nksuksa dh çkjfEHkd lkaærk nqxquh djus
X and Y, there is a change by a factor of 16 in ij vfHkfØ;k osx esa 16 xquk ifjorZu gksrk gSA
the rate of the reaction.
(ii) dsoy Y dh çkjfEHkd lkaaærk nqxquh djus ij
(ii) On doubling the initial concentration of Y only,
the rate of reaction becomes eight times. The
vfHkfØ;k osx vkB xquk gks tkrk gSA bl
rate of this reaction is given by vfHkfØ;k ds fy, osx O;atd gSA
(1) Rate = k [X] [Y]2 (2) Rate = k [X]2 [Y]2 (1) osx = k [X] [Y]2 (2) osx = k [X]2 [Y]2
(3) Rate = k [X] [Y]3 (4) Rate = k [X]2 [Y] (3) osx = k [X] [Y]3 (4) osx = k [X]2 [Y]
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@AakashDelhi02
62. Which of the following sols is negatively charged? 62. fuEu esa ls dkSulk lkWy _.kkosf'kr gS?
(1) Gold sol (2) Al2O3.xH2O sol (1) xksYM lkWy (2) Al2O3.xH2O lkWy
(3) Methylene Blue sol (4) Haemoglobin (3) esfFkyhu Cyw lkWy (4) gheksXyksfcu
63. The coagulation of lyophobic sols cannot be 63. æofojks/kh lkWy dk Ldanu fdlds }kjk ugha fd;k tk
carried out by ldrk?
(1) Electrophoresis (1) fo|qr d.k lapyu
(2) Ultrafiltration (2) vfrlw{e fuL;anu
(3) Addition of electrolytes (3) fo|qrvi?kV~; feykdj
(4) Boiling (4) mckydj
64. Which of the following statements is incorrect? 64. fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku xyr gS?
(1) In Haber’s process finely divided iron is used (1) gscj çØe esa mRçsjd ds :i esa lw{e foHkkftr
as catalyst vk;ju dk mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gS
(2) Zeolites are used as catalysts in (2) thvksykbV dk mi;ksx gkbMªksdkcZu ds Hkatu ds
petrochemical industries for cracking of fy, isVªksjlk;fud m|ksxksa esa mRçsjd ds :i esa
hydrocarbons. fd;k tkrk gS
(3) The maltase enzyme is used for the (3) Xywdskt dk ekYVkst esa :ikUrj.k djus ds fy,
conversion of glucose into maltose. ekYVkst ,Utkbe dk mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gS
(4) Amylase in presence of sodium chloride i.e., (4) lksfM;e DyksjkbM vFkkZr Na+ vk;uksa dh
Na+ ions are catalytically very active
mifLFkfr esa ,ekbyst mRçsjdh; :i ls cgqr
65. Match column I with column II lfØ; gksrk gS
Column I Column II 65. dkWye I rFkk dkWye II dks lqesfyr dhft,A
(a) Hydrogenation of dkWye I dkWye II
(i) Control of
oils by finely
humidity (i) vkæZrk dk fu;a=.k (a) lw{e foHkkftr Ni
divided Ni
}kjk rsyksa dk
(b) Silver halides gkbMªkstuhdj.k
(ii) Heterogeneous
adsorb eosin
catalysis
(ii) fo"kekaxh mRçsj.k (b) flYoj gSykbM
(c) Silica gel
(iii) Adsorption b;ksflu dks
indicator vo'kksf"kr djrk gS
(d) Pine oil
(iv) Froth floatation
(iii) vf/k'kks"k.k lwpd (c) flfydk tSy
process
(1) (i) – (d), (ii) – (b), (iii) – (a), (iv) – (c)
(iv) >kx Iyou çØe (d) phM+ dk rsy
(2) (i) – (c), (ii) – (a), (iii) – (b), (iv) – (d) (1) (i) – (d), (ii) – (b), (iii) – (a), (iv) – (c)
(2) (i) – (c), (ii) – (a), (iii) – (b), (iv) – (d)
(3) (i) – (b), (ii) – (a), (iii) – (c), (iv) – (d)
(3) (i) – (b), (ii) – (a), (iii) – (c), (iv) – (d)
(4) (i) – (a), (ii) – (b), (iii) – (c), (iv) – (d) (4) (i) – (a), (ii) – (b), (iii) – (c), (iv) – (d)
66. Which of the following is an incorrect Freundlich 66. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,d xyr ÝkW;.Mfyd vf/k'kks"k.k
adsorption isotherm? lerki gS?
x x x x
(1) = kp3/2 (2) = kp1/10 (1) = kp3/2 (2) = kp1/10
m m m m
x x x x
(3) = kp2/5 (4) = kp1/9 (3) = kp2/5 (4) = kp1/9
m m m m
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@AakashDelhi02
67. The number of tetrahedral void(s) in a unit cell of 67. ?kuh; fufcM ladqfyr lajpuk dh ,dd dksf"Bdk esa
cubic close-packed structure is
prq"Qydh; fjfDr;ksa dh la[;k gS
(1) 8 (2) 4
(1) 8 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4) 1 (3) 2 (4) 1
68. A solid compound AB has rock salt (NaCl) type 68. ,d Bksl ;kSfxd AB dh [kfut yo.k (NaCl) çdkj
structure. If the radius of A+ is 200 pm, the radius dh lajpuk gSA ;fn A+ dh f=T;k 200 pm gS] rks B–
of B– will be
dh f=T;k gksxh
(1) 165.7 pm (2) 483 pm
(1) 165.7 pm (2) 483 pm
(3) 550 pm (4) 644 pm (3) 550 pm (4) 644 pm
69. Percentage of free space in a face-centred cubic 69. Qyd dsfUær ?kuh; ,dd dksf"Bdk esa çfr'kr fjDr
unit cell is LFkku gS
(1) 12 % (2) 26 % (1) 12 % (2) 26 %
(3) 32 % (4) 47.6 % (3) 32 % (4) 47.6 %
70. In AB2 type ionic salt, having the fluorite structure, 70. ¶yqvksjkbV lajpuk okys AB2 çdkj ds vk;fud yo.k
number of A2+ and B– in 5 unit cells are esa 5 ,dd dksf"Bdkvksa esa A2+ rFkk B– dh la[;k gS
(1) 40, 10 (2) 4, 8 (1) 40, 10 (2) 4, 8
(3) 10, 20 (4) 20, 40 (3) 10, 20 (4) 20, 40
71. If a is the length of the side of a unit cube, the 71. ;fn ,d bdkbZ ?ku dh Hkqtk dh yEckbZ a gS] ?ku esa
distance between the face centred atom and one Qyd dsfUær ijek.kq rFkk ,d dksus ds ijek.kq ds
corner atom in the cube will be eè; nwjh gksxh
2 1 2 1
(1) a (2) a (1) a (2) a
3 2 3 2
2 a 2 a
(3) a (4) (3) a (4)
2 2 2 2
72. Which of the following is not equal to zero for a 72. n-gsDlsu rFkk n- gsIVsu ds foy;u ds fy, fuEu esa ls
solution of n-hexane and n- heptane? dkSulk 'kwU; ugha gS?
(1) Hmix (1) HfeJ.k
(2) Vmix (2) VfeJ.k
(3) P = PObseved − PRaoult (3) P = Pçsf{kr − PjkmYV
(4) Gmix (4) GfeJ.k

73. The boiling point of 0.14 mol kg–1 solution of 73. ty esa A2B4C2 ds 0.14 eksy kg–1 foy;u dk
A2B4C2 is greater than equimolal solution of A6B12 DoFkukad A6B12 ds rqY; eksyy foy;u dh vis{kk
in water. Which one of the following statements vf/kd gSA bl fLFkfr esa fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku
may be correct in this case?
lgh gks ldrk gS?
(1) Molecular mass of A2B4C2 is greater than the
(1) A2B4C2 ds vk.kfod æO;eku A6B12 ds vk.kfod
molecular mass of A6B12
æO;eku ls vf/kd gS
(2) A6B12 is undergoing dissociation in water (2) A6B12 dk ty esa fo;kstu gksrk gS tcfd
whereas A2B4C2 undergoes no change
A2B4C2 ifjofrZr ugha gksrk
(3) Molecular mass of A2B4C2 is less than the (3) A2B4C2 dk vk.kfod æO;eku A6B12 ds vk.kfod]
molecular mass of A6B12
æO;eku ls de gS
(4) A2B4C2 is undergoing dissociation in water (4) A2B4C2 dk ty esa fo;kstu gks tkrk gS tcfd
whereas A6B12 undergoes no change A6B12 ifjofrZr ugha gksrk
(16)
@AakashDelhi02
74. Of the following 0.23 m aqueous solutions, which 74. fuEufyf[kr 0.23 m tyh; foy;uksa esa ls dkSulk
one will exhibit the largest freezing point foy;u vf/kdre fgekad voueu n'kkZ,xk?
depression?
(1) C12H22O11 (2) NaCl
(1) C12H22O11 (2) NaCl (3) Na2SO4 (4) K4[Fe(CN)6]
(3) Na2SO4 (4) K4[Fe(CN)6] 75. ty rFkk csUthu esa ,lhfVd vEy ds fy, ok.V gkWQ
75. van’t Hoff factor i for acetic acid in water and xq.kkad i Øe'k% gS
benzene is respectively (1) bdkbZ ls vf/kd rFkk bdkbZ ls vf/kd
(1) Greater than unity and greater than unity (2) bdkbZ ls de rFkk bdkbZ ls vf/kd
(2) Less than unity and greater than unity (3) bdkbZ ls vf/kd rFkk bdkbZ ls de
(3) Greater than unity and less than unity (4) bdkbZ ls de rFkk bdkbZ ls de
(4) Less than unity and less than unity 76. fuEu esa ls dkSu lk in rki esa ifjorZu ds lkFk
76. Which of the following does not change with ifjofrZr ugha gksrk gS?
change in temperature?
(1) vk;ru çfr'kr (2) ukWeyZrk
(1) Volume percentage (2) Normality
(3) eksyjrk (4) eksy çHkkt
(3) Molarity (4) Mole fraction
77. 30°C ij 20 g L y (vk.kfod æO;eku = 60 g mol–1)
–1
77. The osmotic pressure of a solution of a non-
fo|qrvuvi?kV~; ;qDr ,d foy;u dk ijklj.k nkc
electrolyte containing 20 g L–1 of y (molecular
mass = 60 g mol–1) is equal to that of a 10% vok"i'khy] fo|qr vuvi?kV~; foys; ds 10% foy;u
solution (w/v) of a non-volatile, non-electrolyte (w/v) ds ijklj.k nkc ds cjkcj gSA foys; dk eksyj
solute at 30°C. The molar mass of the solute is æO;eku gS
(1) 60 g mol–1 (2) 600 g mol–1 (1) 60 g mol–1 (2) 600 g mol–1
(3) 400 g mol–1 (4) 300 g mol–1 (3) 400 g mol–1 (4) 300 g mol–1
78. A solution of aniline in phenol 78. ,fuyhu dk QhukWy esa foy;u
(1) Behaves like an ideal solution (1) ,d vkn'kZ foy;u ds leku dk;Z djrk gS
(2) Shows a positive deviation from Raoult’s law (2) jkÅYV fu;e ls /kukRed fopyu n'kkZrk gS
(3) Obeys Raoult’s law (3) jkÅYV fu;e dk ikyu djrk gS
(4) Shows a negative deviation from Raoult’s law (4) jkÅYV fu;e ls _.kkRed fopyu n'kkZrk gS
79. The vapour pressure of two liquids A and B are 79. nks æoksa A rFkk B ds ok"i nkc Øe'k% 123 rFkk 167
123 and 167 torr respectively. The total vapour Vksj gSA 6 eksy A rFkk 3 eksy B dks fefJr djus ls
pressure of solution obtained by mixing 6 moles of çkIr foy;u dk dqy ok"i nkc yxHkx gksxk
A and 3 moles of B would be approximately
(1) 138 Vksj (2) 151 Vksj
(1) 138 torr (2) 151 torr
(3) 93 Vksj (4) 1239 Vksj
(3) 93 torr (4) 1239 torr
80. ty esa milgla;kstd ;kSfxd AB4C4 dk
80. 2 × 10–3 mol kg–1 solution of a coordination
2 × 10–3 mol kg–1 foy;u 0.0108°C dk fgekad
compound AB4C4 in water shows a fall in freezing
point by 0.0108°C. The structure of the compound voueu n'kkZrk gSA ;kSfxd dh lajpuk gksxh
will be (given Kf = 1.860 Km–1) (fn;k gS : Kf = 1.860 Km–1)
(1) [AB4C2] C2 (2) [AB4C]C3 (1) [AB4C2] C2 (2) [AB4C]C3
(3) [AB4]C4 (4) [AB4C3]C (3) [AB4]C4 (4) [AB4C3]C

81. Which of the following shows Schottky defect? 81. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,d 'kkWV~dh =qfV n'kkZrk gS?
(1) ZnS (2) AgCl (1) ZnS (2) AgCl
(3) AgBr (4) Ag (3) AgBr (4) Ag
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82. Which of the following statements is incorrect? 82. fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku xyr gS?
(1) O2 is paramagnetic (1) O2 vuqpqEcdh; gS
(2) MgFe2O4 becomes paramagnetic on heating (2) MgFe2O4 xeZ djus ij vuqpqEcdh; cu tkrk gS
(3) MnO shows ferrimagnetism (3) MnO y?kqyksg pqEcdRo n'kkZrk gS
(4) NaCl is diamagnetic. (4) NaCl çfrpqEcdh; gS

83. Which of the following gases has highest solubility 83. 298 K ij fuEu esa ls fdl xSl dh ty esa foys;rk
in water at 298 K? (KH = Henry’s law constant) mPpre gS? (KH = gsujh fu;e fu;rkad)
(1) A (KH = 40.3 kbar ) (1) A (KH = 40.3 kbar )
(2) B (KH = 1.67kbar ) (2) B (KH = 1.67kbar )
(
(3) C KH = 1.83  10−5 kbar ) (
(3) C KH = 1.83  10−5 kbar )
(4) D (KH = 145 .2 kbar ) (4) D (KH = 145 .2 kbar )
84. The van’t Hoff factor of 0.01 M weak monobasic

84. tyh; foy;u esa 0.01 M nqcZy ,dd {kkjdh; vEy
acid in aqueous solution is 1.041. The dissociation dk ok.V gkWQ xq.kkad 1.041 gSA vEy dk fo;kstu
constant of acid is approximately fu;rkad yxHkx gS
(1) 1 × 10–7 (2) 2 × 10–6 (1) 1 × 10–7 (2) 2 × 10–6
(3) 1 × 10–6 (4) 2 × 10–5 (3) 1 × 10–6 (4) 2 × 10–5
85. Which of the following ions has highest limiting 85. 298 K ij fuEu esa ls fdl vk;u dh ty esa lhekUr
molar conductivity in water at 298 K? eksyj pkydrk mPpre gS?
(1) Cl– (2) Ca2+ (1) Cl– (2) Ca2+
(3) Br– (4) Mg2+ (3) Br– (4) Mg2+
86. Which of the following reactions takes place at 86. fuEu esa ls dkSulh vfHkfØ;k edZjh lsy ds ,uksM ij
anode of a mercury cell? ?kfVr gksrh gS?
(1) Hg ( l ) + 2OH– ⎯⎯→ HgO + H2O + 2e – (1) Hg ( l ) + 2OH– ⎯⎯→ HgO + H2O + 2e –
(2) MnO ( OH) + NH3 ⎯⎯→ MnO2 + NH4+ + e− (2) MnO ( OH) + NH3 ⎯⎯→ MnO2 + NH4+ + e−
(3) Zn (Hg) + 2OH− ⎯⎯→ ZnO(s) + H2O + 2e−

(3) Zn (Hg) + 2OH− ⎯⎯→ ZnO(s) + H2O + 2e−
2+ −
2+ − (4) Zn(s) ⎯⎯→ Zn + 2e
(4) Zn(s) ⎯⎯→ Zn + 2e
87. fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku xyr gS\
87. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) ÅtkZ dk eq[; L=ksr tks gekjh vFkZO;oLFkk dk
(1) The main source of energy that is driving our
economy is fossil fuels such as coal, oil and
çsjd gS og thok'eh bZa/ku tSls dksy] rsy rFkk
gas xSl gSa
(2) Hydrogen produced by electrolysis of water is (2) ty ds fo|qrvi?kVu }kjk çkIr gkbMªkt s u ds
resulting in the Greenhouse Effect. ifj.kkeLo:i gfjr x`g-çHkko gksrk gS
(3) The hydrogen combustion in a fuel cell is (3) bZa/ku lsy esa gkbMªkstu dk ngu fo|qr
based on electrochemical principles jklk;fud fl)kUr ij vk/kkfjr gSa
(4) Fuel cells produce electricity with an efficiency (4) bZa/ku lsy yxHkx 70% n{krk okyh fo|qr mRiUu
of about 70%
djrk gS
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88. Consider a first order gas phase reaction 88. ,d çFke dksfV
xSl çkoLFkk vfHkfØ;k
A(g) ⎯⎯→ B(g) + C(g) . If 10 atm is the initial A(g) ⎯⎯→ B(g) + C(g) ij fopkj dhft,A ;fn A
pressure of A and 12 atm is the total pressure
dk çkjfEHkd nkc 10 atm gS rFkk 20 feuV ckn dqy
after 20 minutes, the rate constant of this reaction
is equal to nkc 12 atm gS] rc bl vfHkfØ;k dk osx fu;rkad
gksxk
2.303  20  2.303  12 
(1) log   (2) log  
12  10  20  10  2.303  20  2.303  12 
(1) log   (2) log  
12  10  20  10 
2.303  20  2.303  10 
(3) log   (4) log   2.303  20  2.303  10 
10  12  20  8  (3) log   (4) log  
10  12  20  8 
89. The number of collisions per second per unit
89. vfHkfØ;k feJ.k ds çfr bdkbZ vk;ru çfr lsd.M
volume of the reaction mixture is known as
VDdj (la?kê) la[;k dgykrh gS
(1) Enthalpy
(1) ,UFkSYih
(2) Activation energy
(2) lfØ;.k ÅtkZ
(3) Collision frequency (3) la?kê vko`fr
(4) Rate constant (4) osx fu;rkad
90. Hydrolysis of cane sugar in acidic medium is a/an 90. vEyh; ekè;e esa b{kq 'kdZjk dk ty vi?kVu gS ,d
(1) Pseudo zero order reaction (1) Nne 'kwU; dksfV vfHkfØ;k
(2) Pseudo first order reaction (2) Nne çFke dksfV vfHkfØ;k
(3) Pseudo second order reaction (3) Nne f}rh; dksfV vfHkfØ;k
(4) Pseudo third order reaction (4) Nne r`rh; dksfV vfHkfØ;k
91. Identify the incorrect statement regarding life 91. thoudky ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dh igpku
span. dhft,A
(1) It is specific trait of each organism (1) ;g çR;sd tho dk fof'k"V y{k.k gksrk gS
(2) It is always correlated with size and (2) ;g lnSo thoksa ds vkdkj o tfVyrk ls
complexity of organisms lglacfa /kr gksrk gS
(3) Life span of crow is shorter than parrot (3) dkS, dk thoudky rksrs ls NksVk gksrk gS
(4) It is period from birth to natural death (4) ;g tUe ls ysdj çkd`frd e`R;q rd dh vof/k
92. Amoeba is said to be immortal because gksrh gS
(1) Its life span is short
92. vehck dks vu'oj dgk tkrk gS D;ksfa d
(1) bldk thoudky NksVk gksrk gS
(2) None of its body part is left to die
(2) bldh dk; dk dksbZ Hkh Hkkx e`r ugha gksrk
(3) It does not show sexual reproduction
(3) ;g ySafxd tuu ugha n'kkZrk
(4) Its growth and reproduction are synonymous
(4) bldh o`f) rFkk tuu lekukFkhZ gksrs gSa
93. Asexual reproduction does not involve
93. vySafxd tuu esa D;k 'kkfey ugha gksrk?
(1) Gamete formation (1) ;qXed fuekZ.k
(2) Formation of genetically similarly individuals (2) vkuqoaf'kd :i ls leku thoksa dk fuekZ.k
(3) Gametic fusion (3) ;qXed lay;u
(4) Mitosis (4) lelw=h foHkktu
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94. Select the incorrect match. 94. vlqesfyr dk p;u dhft,A

(1) Rhizome – Ginger (1) çdan - vnjd
(2) Bulbil – Agave (2) i=çdfydk - vkxso
(3) Offset – Pistia (3) HkwLrkjh - fifLV;k
(4) Bulb – Opuntia (4) cYc - vkWifU'k;k
95. Which one is monocarpic perennial plant? 95. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,d eksuksdfiZd
(,dyQyuh) cgqo"khZ ikni gS?
(1) Wheat (2) Strobilanthus
(1) xsgw¡ (2) LVªksfcysUFkl
(3) Mango (4) Carrot
(3) vke (4) xktj
96. State true (T) or false (F) to the given statement
and select the correct option. 96. fn, x, dFkuksa dks lR; (T) ;k vlR; (F) crkdj
A. Vegetative reproduction is seen in some lower lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
plants only A. dkf;d tuu dsoy fupys ikniksa esa ik;k tkrk
B. Sexual reproduction can be uniparental gSaA
C. Cell division itself is a mode of reproduction in B. ySafxd tuu] ,d tud }kjk gks ldrk gSA
Monera and Protista C. dksf'kdk foHkktu] eksusjk o çksfVLVk esa tuu dh
A B C ,d fof/k gksrh gSA
(1) T T T A B C
(1) T T T
(2) T F T
(2) T F T
(3) F T T
(3) F T T
(4) F T F (4) F T F
97. Sexual reproduction through morphologically 97. fdlesa vkdkfjdh :i ls fHkUu ;qXedksa }kjk ySafxd
distinct gametes occur in tuu gksrk gS?
(1) Spirogyra (2) Ulothrix (1) Likbjksxkbjk (2) ;wyksfFkzDl
(3) Rhizopus (4) Fucus (3) jkbtksil (4) ¶;wdl
98. In which of the given plants both male and female 98. fn, x, fdl ikni esa uj o eknk nksuksa ySfxd vax
sex organs are produced on same plant body? leku iknidk; ij mRikfnr gksrs gS?
(1) Marchantia (2) Papaya (1) ekdsZfU'k;k (2) iihrk
(3) Cucumber (4) Date palm (3) [khjk (4) [ktwj
99. Chara is similar to Marchantia as both have 99. dkjk] ekdsZfU'k;k ds leku gksrk gS D;ksafd nksuksa esa
(1) Jacketed sex organs (1) tSdsV ;qDr ySafxd vax gksrs gSa
(2) Archegonium as female sex organ (2) ySafxd vax ds :i esa L=h/kkuh gksrh gS
(3) Unicellular sex organs (3) ,ddksf'kdh; ySafxd vax gksrs gSa
(4) Non motile male gametes (4) vpy uj ;qXed gksrs gSa
100. Which of the given is a post-fertilisational event in 100. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulh ikniksa esa i'p fu"kspu
plants? ?kVuk gS?
(1) Syngamy (2) Gametogenesis (1) ;qXed lay;au (2) ;qXedtuu
(3) Pollination (4) Embryogenesis (3) ijkxd.k (4) Hkwz.ktuu
101. The most vital event of sexual reproduction is 101. ySafxd tuu dh lcls eq[; ?kVuk gS
(1) Gamete formation (1) ;qXed fuekZ.k
(2) Zygote differentiation (2) ;qXeut foHksnu
(3) Fusion of gametes (3) ;qXedksa dk lay;u
(4) Transfer of gametes (4) ;qXedksa dk LFkkukrj.k
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102. Water is the medium for gamete transfer in 102. fdlesa ty ;qXed LFkkukarj.k ds ekè;e ds :i esa
(1) Algae (2) Angiosperm dk;Z djrk gS?
(3) Bryophytes (4) Both (1) and (3) (1) 'kSoky (2) ,aftvksLieZ
103. Select the incorrect match (3) czk;ksQkbV~l (4) (1) o (3) nksuksa
(1) Algae – External fertilisation 103. vlqesfyr dk p;u dhft,

(1) 'kSoky – ckgjh fu"kspu n'kkZrk gS
(2) Pteridophytes – Lack embryogenesis
(2) VsfjMksQkbV~l – esa Hkwz.ktuu dk vHkko gksrk
(3) Spirogyra – Shows internal
fertilisation gS
(3) Likbjksxkbjk – vkarfjd fu"kspu n'kkZrk gS
(4) Gymnosperms – Form embryo
(4) ftEuksLieZ – Hkwz.k dk fuekZ.k djrs gSa
104. A fertilised ovule develops into a
104. ,d fu"ksfpr chtkaM fodflr gksdj D;k curk gS\
(1) Seed (2) Fruit
(1) cht (2) Qy
(3) Pericarp (4) Zygote
(3) QyfHkfÙk (4) ;qXeut
105. Zoospore can not be
105. pychtk.kq ugha gks ldrk
(1) Asexual structure (2) Motile
(1) vySafxd lajpuk
(3) Haploid (4) Product of syngamy (2) py
106. If a meiocyte of onion has 16 chromosomes then (3) vxqf.kr
its gamete will have _______chromosomes
(4) ;qXed lay;u dk mRikn
(1) 32 (2) 8
106. ;fn ,d I;kt dh ehvkslkbV esa 16 xq.klw= gSa rc
(3) 48 (4) 4 blds ;qXed esa _______ xq.klw= gksxAsa
107. In which of the given plants clear cut distinction (1) 32 (2) 8
between all the three phases of life cycle are (3) 48 (4) 4
absent? 107. fdl ikni esa thou pØ dh lHkh rhu çkoLFkkvksa esa
(1) Mango (2) Carrot Li"V varj ugha gksrk gS?
(3) Radish (4) Rice (1) vke (2) xktj
108. Read the given statements. (3) ewyh (4) pkoy
(i) In potato new plantlets arises from A 108. fn, x, u, dFkuksa dks if<+,A
(i) vkyw esa u, iknid A ls mRiUu gksrs gSaA
(ii) Penicillium asexually reproduces through B
(ii) isfuflfy;e vySafxd :i ls B }kjk tuu
(iii) The Vegetative propagule in Eichhornia is
C djrk gSA
(iii) C vkbdksfuZ;k dk dkf;d çoè;Z gSA
Select the correct option for A, B and C.
A, B rFkk C ds fy, lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
A B C
A B C
(1) Internode Zoospore Stolon
ioZ
(1) pychtk.kq HkwLrkfjdk
(2) Bud Conidia Offset (2) dfydk dksfufM;k HkwLrkjh
(3) Internode Conidia Offset (3) ioZ dksfufM;k HkwLrkjh
(4) Bud Zoospore Sucker (4) dfydk pychtk.kq var%HkwLrkjh
109. The anther wall layer that provides nourishment to 109. ijkxdks'k dh og fHkÙkh; ijr tks fodkl'khy ijkx
developing pollen grains is d.kksa dks iks"k.k çnku djrh gS] gSa
(1) Endothecium (2) Tapetum (1) vUrLFkhfl;e (2) VsfiVe
(3) Epidermis (4) Middle layer (3) ckáRopk (4) eè;ijr
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110. The outermost layer of pollen grain 110. ijkxd.k dh lcls ckgjh ijr
(a) Lacks sporopollenin
(a)esa Liksjksiksysfuu dk vHkko gksrk gS
(b) Protects it from hazardous environment
(b) ijkxd.k dh gkfudkjd i;kZoj.k ls lqj{kk djrh
(c) Is called intine gS
Which of the given is/are correct? (c) var%pksy dgykrh gS
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) mijksDr dkSulk lgh gS@gSa?
(3) (a) and (c) (4) Only (b) (1) (a) rFkk (b) (2) (b) rFkk (c)
111. Pollen grains of cereals, such as wheat, loose (3) (a) rFkk (c) (4) dsoy (b)
viability
111. vuktksa tSls dh xsgw¡ ds ijkx d.kksa dh vadqj.k {kerk
(1) After several months (2) In 20 hours lekIr gks tkrh gS
(3) After 60 minutes (4) Within 30 minutes (1) dqN efguksa ckn (2) 20 ?kaVks esa
112. In pollen grains, the generative cell differs from (3) 60 feuV ds ckn (4) 30 feuV ds vanj
vegetative cell as the former
112. ijkxd.kksa esa tuu dksf'kdk] dkf;d dksf'kdk ls fHkUu
(1) Stores food reserve gksrh gS D;ksafd tuu dksf'kdk
(2) Has irregularly shaped nucleus (1) [kk| lap; dk laxzg djrh gS
(3) Is spindle shaped (2) es vfu;fer vkdkj dk dsUæd gksrk gS
(4) Is larger than the vegetative cell (3) rdwZvkdkj gksrh gS
113. Match the columns and select the correct option. (4) dkf;d dksf'kdk ls cM+h gksrh gS
Column I Column II 113. fuEufyf[kr dkWyeksa dk feyku dj lgh fodYi dk
(Plants) (Ovary)
p;u dhft,A
dkWye I dkWye II
a. Papaver (i) Multicarpellary
(ikni) (v.Mk'k;)
apocarpous
a. iSikoj (i) cgqv.Mih
b. Wheat (ii) Many ovules per
ovary
fo;qDrrkaMih
b. xsgw¡ (ii) ,d v.Mk'k; esa cgqr
c. Michelia (iii) Multicarpellary
ls chtkaM gksrs gS
syncarpous
c. ekbdsfy;k (iii) cgqv.Mih ;qDrkMaih
d. Papaya (iv) Single ovule per
ovary d. iihrk (iv) ,d v.Mk'k; esa ,dy
a b c d chtk.M gksrk gS
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) a b c d
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
114. Find the incorrect statement regarding embryo 114. Hkwz.k dks"k ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,A
sac. (1) ;g eknk ;qXedksn~fHkn Hkh dgykrk gS
(1) It is also called female gametophyte (2) ;g rhu dksf'kdh; v.M-midj.k ;qDr gksrk gS
(2) It contains three celled egg apparatus (3) /kwzoh; dsUædks ds vfrfjDr Hkqz.k-dks"k dk çR;sd
(3) Every nucleus of embryo sac is haploid except dsUæd vxqf.kr gksrk gS
polar nuclei (4) dsUæ dksf'kdk] Hkwz.k-dks"k dh lcls cM+h dksf'kdk
(4) Central cell is the largest cell of embryo sac gksrh gS
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115. In anatropous ovule 115. ,ukVªkis l chtkaM esa

(1) Chalaza is absent (1) fuHkkx vuqifLFkr gksrk gS
(2) Embryo sac is curved like horse shoe (2) Hkwz.k dks"k] ?kksMs+ dh uky dh rjg eqM+k gqvk gksrk
(3) Micropyle lies close to hilum

gS
(3) chtkaM}kj] gkbye ds fudV fLFkr gksrk gS
(4) Only single integument is found
(4) dsoy ,dy vè;koj.k ik;k tkrk gS
116. Choose the odd one w.r.t. ploidy
116. xqf.krk ds lanHkZ esa fo"ke dk p;u dhft,
(1) Synergid
(1) lgk; dksf'kdk
(2) Egg
(2) v.M
(3) Antipodal cell
(3) çfrO;klkar dksf'kdk
(4) Secondary nucleus
(4) fnÙkh;d dsUæd
117. Autogamy can be ensured if the plant
117. vksVksxSeh (Lo;qXeu) lquf'pr gks ldrk gS ;fn ikni
(a) Has bisexual flowers
(a) esa f}fyaxh iq"i gS
(b) Is dioecious
(b) ,dfyaxhJ;h gS
(c) Has cleistogamous flowers
(c) esa vuqUehY; ijkx.kh iq"i gS
(d) Shows self-incompatibility
(d) Lo-vfu"ksP;rk n'kkZrk gS
lgh mÙkj dk p;u dhft,A
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (b) and (d)
(1) (a) rFkk (c) (2) (b) rFkk (d)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (d) (3) (b) rFkk (c) (4) (a) rFkk (d)
118. All of the following features of flowers are in favour 118. fdlds vfrfjDr iq"i ds fuEufyf[kr lHkh y{k.k
of anemophily, except.
ok;qijkx.k ds fy, vuqdwy gS\
(1) Feathery stigma
(1) ia[k;qDr ofrZdkxz
(2) Light weight pollen
(2) de Hkkj okys ijkx
(3) Well exposed stamens (3) iq.kZ-vukofjr iqadslj
(4) Mucilage covered pollen (4) 'ys"kek ls vkofjr ijkx
119. Which of the given plants is insect pollinated? 119. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk dhV-ijkfxr ikni gS?
(1) Water lily (2) Vallisneria (1) ty fyyh (2) osfylusfj;k
(3) Wheat (4) Hydrilla (3) xsgw¡ (4) gkbfMªyk
120. Choose the wrongly matched pair 120. vlqesfyr ;qXe dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Castor – Geitonogamy is not possible (1) vjaMh – ltkr-iq"ihijkx.k laHko ugh gksrk
(2) Ficus – Insect pollinated (2) Qkbdl – dhV ijkfxr
(3) Grasses – Wind pollinated (3) ?kkl – ok;q ijkfxr
(4) Groundnut – Pollinators absent (4) ew¡xQyh – ijkx.kdÙkkZ vuqifLFkr gksrs gS
121. During artificial hybridisation of cucumber plant, 121. [khjs ikni ds Øf=e ladj.k ds nkSjku fn, x,
which of the given steps is not desired? dkSuls in okafNr ugha gksr?s
(1) Bagging of stigma (1) ofrZdkxz ij cSx-ca/kuk
(2) Emasculation (2) foiqalu
(3) Dusting of pollen on stigma (3) ofrZdkxz ij ijkx dk fNM+dko djuk
(4) Rebagging of stigma (4) ofrdkxz ij iqu% cSx ca/kuk
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122. Double fertilisation involves fusion of all of the 122. f}fu"kspu esa fdlds vfrfjDr 'ks"k lHkh dk lay;u
following except.
gksrk gS
(1) Egg (2) Male gametes
(1)v.M (2) uj ;qXed
(3) Polar nuclei (4) Synergids
(3) /kwzoh; dsUæd (4) lgk; dksf'kdk,a
123. In angiosperms, endosperm can not be
123. ,aftvksLieZ esa Hkwz.kiks"k
(1) Triploid
(1) f=xqf.kr ugha gks ldrk
(2) Involved in food storage
(2) [kk| laxzg esa 'kkfey ugha gks ldrk
(3) Formed before fertilisation
(3) fu"kspu ls igys ugha cu ldrk
(4) Formed from central cell
(4) dsUæ-dksf'kdk ls ugha cu ldrk
124. In mature seeds, endosperm is absent in
124. fdlds ifjiDo chtksa esa Hkw.kZiks"k ugha gksrk?
(1) Pea (2) Coconut
(1) eVj (2) ukfj;y
(3) Maize (4) Rice
(3) eDdk (4) pkoy
125. Scutellum represents
125. ç'kYd n'kkZrk gS
(1) Single cotyledon of monocots
(1) ,dchtif=;ksa esa ,dy chti= dks
(2) Embryonal axis
(2) Hkwz.kh; v{k dks
(3) Triploid structure of seeds
(3) chtksa dh f=xqf.kr lajpuk dks
(4) Endosperm of maize seed
(4) eDds ds cht ds Hkwz.kiks"k dks
126. In which of the given seeds, persistent nucellus is
126. fdlds chtksa esa fpjLFkk;h chtkaMdk; ik;k tkrk gS?
seen?
(1) dkyh fepZ (2) lse
(1) Black pepper (2) Bean
(3) ukfj;y (4) puk
(3) Coconut (4) Gram
127. fn, x, dFkuksa dks if<+,A
127. Read the given statements
A. lssc esa Qy v.Mk'k; ds vfrfjDr vU; iq"ih;
A. In apple, fruit develops from floral parts other
than ovary. Hkkxksa ls fodflr gksrk gSA
B. futZyhdj.k o çlqfIr chtksa ds og y{k.k gSa tks
B. Dehydration and dormancy are the features of
seeds that form basis of agriculture. d`f"k dk vk/kkj gksrs gSaA
(1) Only A is incorrect (1) dsoy A xyr gS
(2) Only B is incorrect (2) dsoy B xyr gS
(3) Both A and B are incorrect (3) A rFkk B nksuksa xyr gSa
(4) Both A and B are correct (4) A rFkk B nksuksa lgh gS
128. Seeds of which of the following plants are found to 128. fdl ikni ds cht] lcls iqjkus vadqj.k-{ke cht gS?
be oldest viable seeds? (1) Y;wfiu (2) vkWfdZM
(1) Lupine (2) Orchid (3) vjaMh (4) ikbul
(3) Castor (4) Pinus 129. ikniksa esa i'p-fu"kspu ?kVukvksa ds fy, fo"ke dk
129. Select the odd one for post fertilisational events in p;u dhft,A
plants. (1) v.Mk'k; ifjiDo gksdj Qy curk gS
(1) Ovary mature into fruit (2) v.Mk'k; ifjiDo gksdj cht curk gS
(2) Ovule mature into seed (3) v.Mk'k; dh fHkfÙk fodflr gksdj LiksjksMeZ
(3) Ovary wall develops into sporoderm cukrh gS
(4) PEN develops into endosperm (4) PEN fodflr gksdj Hkwz.kiks"k cukrh gS
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130. Identify the incorrect statement for apomixis. 130. vlaxtuu ds fy, xyr dFku dh igpku dhft,
(1) Apomictic embryos are genetically identical to
each other.
vlaxtfur Hkwz.k vkuqoaf'kd :i ls ,d-nwljs ds
(1)
leku gksrs gSa
(2) Apomixis is genetically controlled
phenomenon (2) vlaxtuu vkuqoaf'kd :i ls fu;af=r ifj?kVuk
(3) Apomictic embryo can not be diploid as they

gS
are not produced after fertilisation (3) vlaxtfur Hkwz.k] f}xqf.kr ugha gks ldrk D;ksafd
(4) Apomictic embryos are found in Citrus fruits. ;s fu"kspu ds ckn ugha curs
131. The nutritive tissue of ovule (4) vlaxtfur Hkwz.k] flVªl ds Qyksa esa ik;s tkrs gSa
(a) Is nucellus 131. chtkaM dks iks"k.k çnku djus okyk mÙkd
(b) Is involved in embryo sac formation (a) chtkaMdk; gS
(c) May form apomictic embryo in mango (b) Hkwz.kdks"k fuekZ.k esa 'kkfey gksrk gS
Choose the correct ones. (c) vke esa vlaxtfur Hkwz.k cuk ldrk gS
(1) Only (a) and (b) lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,A

(2) Only (b) and (c) (1) dsoy (a) rFkk (b)
(3) Only (a) and (c) (2) dsoy (b) rFkk (c)
(4) All (a), (b) and (c) (3) dsoy (a) rFkk (c)
132. Pollen grains can be stored in A for several (4) All (a), (b) rFkk (c)
years at a temperature of B . 132. ijkx d.kksa dks dbZ o"kksZ ds fy, A esa B
Complete the above statement by choosing rkieku ij laxzfgr fd;k tk ldrk gSA
correct option for A and B A o B ds fy, lgh fodYi dk p;u dj mijksDr
A B dFku dks iw.kZ dhft,A
(1) Liquid N2 – 96°C A B
(2) Liquid CO2 –196° C rjy N2
(1) – 96°C
(3) Liquid N2 –196°C (2) rjy CO2 –196° C
(4) Liquid CO2 –96°C (3) rjy N2 –196°C
133. Nectar and fragrance is not required if the (4) rjy CO2 –96°C
flowers are 133. ;fn iq"i ______ gS rc bUgsa edjan o lqxa/k dh
(1) Cleistogamous vko';drk ugha gksrh
(2) Entomophilous (1) vuqUehy; ijkx.kh (2) dhV-ijfxr
(3) Anemophilous (3) ok;q-ijkfxr (4) (1) rFkk (3) nksuksa
(4) Both (1) and (3) 134. f}fu"kspu
134. Double fertilization (1) lHkh gjs ikniksa dh fo'ks"k ?kVuk gS
(1) Is unique event of all green plants (2) esa ;qXed lay;u o f=lay;u gksrk gS
(2) Involves syngamy and triple fusion (3) esa ,d v.M ds lkFk nks uj ;qXedksa dk lay;u
(3) Is fusion of two male gametes with one egg gksrk gS
(4) Involves fusion of two polar nuclei with one (4) esa ,d v.M ds lkFk nks /kwzoh; dsUædksa dk
egg lay;u gksrk gS
135. Which of the given is a parthenocarpic fruit? 135. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk vfu"ksd tfur Qy gS?
(1) Pear (2) Apple (1) uk'kikrh (2) lsc
(3) Banana (4) Mango (3) dsyk (4) vke
(25)@AakashDelhi02
136. Read the following statements and choose the 136. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks if<, rFkk lgh fodYi dk
correct option p;u dhft,A
A. Life expectancy is based on average life span.
A. thou çR;k'kk vkSlr thou vof/k ij vk/kkfjr
B. Maximum life span is the maximum time gS
period upto which a population has survived
B. vf/kdre thou vof/k] og vf/kdre le; dky
(1) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
gS ftlesa lef"V fo|eku jgrh gS
(2) Statement B is correct but A is incorrect
(1) dFku A lgh gS ijUrq B xyr gS
(2) dFku B lgh gS ijUrq A xyr gS
(3) nksuksa dFku xyr gS
137. Choose the odd one w.r.t. sexual mode of
(4) nksuksa dFku lgh gS
reproduction.
137. tuu dh ySafxd fof/k ds lanHkZ esa ,d fo"ke dk
(1) Genitalia (2) Gonads
p;u dhft,A
(3) Gametes (4) Gemmules
(1) tuusfUæ; (2) tuu xzafUFk
138. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. asexual
(3) ;qXed (4) eqdqyd (tSE;wy)
reproduction
138. vySafxd tuu ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dk p;u
(1) Asexual reproduction occurs in only single
celled organisms. dhft,A
(2) Asexual reproduction is also called (1) vySafxd tuu dsoy ,d dksf'kdh; thoksa esa
somatogenic reproduction. gksrk gS
(3) The parent individual form identical (2) vySafxd tuu dks dkf;d tuu Hkh dgrs gS
individuals. (3) ,d tud ls le:i larfr;ka mRiUu gksrh gS
(4) New individuals develop without involving (4) ;qXedksa ds ;qXeu ds fcuk u;s tho dk fodkl
fusion of gametes. gksrk gS
139. Select the mismatch w.r.t. life span in years 139. o"kksZ esa thou vof/k ds lanHkZ esa vlqesfyr dk p;u
(1) Dog 20 – 30 dhft,A
(1) dqÙkk 20 – 30
(2) Fruit fly 1–2
(2) Qy eD[kh 1–2
(3) Tortoise 100 – 150
(3) dNqvk 100 – 150
(4) Crocodile 60
(4) exjePN 60
140. Complete the analogy w.r.t. chromosome 140. v/kZlw=k.kq esa xq.klw=ksa dh la[;k ds lanHkZ esa vuq:irk
numbers in meiocyte.
dks iw.kZ dhft,A
Human beings : 46 :: Housefly: _____.
euq"; : 46 :: ?kjsyw eD[kh: _____.
lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
(1) 12 (2) 42 (1) 12 (2) 42
(3) 8 (4) 24 (3) 8 (4) 24
141. In which animal oestrous cycle does not occur? 141. fdl tUrq esa en pØ ugha gksrk gS?
(1) Humans (2) Deer (1) euq"; (2) fgju
(3) Tigers (4) Sheep (3) phrk (4) HksM+
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142. Select a bisexual animal. 142. ,d f}fyaxh tUrq dk p;u dhft,A

(1) Cockroach (2) Earthworm (1) dkWdjksp (2) dspa qvk
(3) Frog (4) Human (3) es<+d (4) euq";
143. Internal fertilization is not seen in 143. vkarfjd fu"kspu fdl esa ugha ns[kk tkrk gS\
(1) Birds (2) Reptiles (1) if{k;ksa (2) ljhlìksa
(3) Frog (4) Mammals (3) es<+d (4) Lru/kkfj;ksa
144. Choose the incorrect statement. 144. xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Gametogenesis and gamete transfer are (1) ;qXedtuu rFkk ;qXed LFkkukarj.k fu"kspu-iwoZ
pre-fertilization events ?kVuk,a gS
(2) Syngamy is fusion of male and female (2) ;qXed lay;u (lkbuxSeh) uj rFkk eknk ;qXedksa
gametes dk ;qXeu gS
(3) Sexual reproduction is a complex and slower (3) vySafxd tuu dh vis{kk ySafxd tuu ,d
process as compared to asexual reproduction tfVy rFkk /kheh çfØ;k gS
(4) At the end of meiosis-II, two diploid gametes (4) v/kZlw=.k-II ds vUr ij] nks f}xqf.kr ;qXedksa dk
are formed fuekZ.k gksrk gS
145. Endogenous budding is present in 145. vUrtkZr eqdqyu fdlesa mifLFkr gksrk gS?
(1) Spongilla (2) Hydra (1) Likaftyk (2) gkbMªk
(3) Plasmodium (4) Planaria (3) IySTeksfM;e (4) Iysusfj;k
146. The second estrogen surge in a menstrual cycle 146. ,d vkrZo pØ esa f}rh; ,LVªkt s u ltZ fdlesa ns[kk
is seen in tkrk gS
(1) Luteal phase (2) Proliferative phase (1) ihr çkoLFkk (2) çpqjksn~Hkou-çkoLFkk
(3) Follicular phase (4) Menstruation phase (3) iqVdh; çkoLFkk (4) jtk/keZ çkoLFkk
147. Choose the unpaired male reproductive gland. 147. v;qfXer iq:"k tuu xzfUFk dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Seminal vesicle (2) Prostate gland (1) 'kqØk'k; (2) çksLVsV xzfUFk
(3) Bulbourethral gland (4) Cowper’s gland (3) cYcks;wjsFkzy xzfUFk (4) dkmij xzfUFk
148. Semen is forcefully expelled from the penis by the 148. ew=ekxZ dks vkLrfjr djus okyh fpduh isf'k;ksa ds
contractions of smooth muscles that line the ladqpu ds }kjk f'k'u ls oh;Z dks cyiwoZd fudkyus
urethra. This process is called dh çfØ;k dks dgrs gS]
(1) Spermiation (1) LifeZ,'ku
(2) Spermatogenesis (2) LiesZVkstsusfll
(3) Ejaculation (3) oh;ZL[kyu
(4) Insemination (4) oh;Zlspu
149. Choose the odd one w.r.t. structure of fallopian 149. fMEcokfguh ufydk dh lajpuk ds lanHkZ esa ,d fo"ke
tube. dk p;u dhft,?
(1) Infundibulum (2) Ampulla (1) dhid (2) rqafEcdk
(3) Isthmus (4) Cervix (3) bLFkel (4) xHkkZ'k; xzhok
150. In human female, primary sex organ is 150. L=h esa] çkFkfed ySafxd vax gS
(1) Ovary (2) Fallopian tube (1) v.Mk'k; (2) fMEcokfguh ufydk
(3) Uterus (4) Vagina (3) xHkkZ'k; (4) ;ksfu
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151. Sustentacular cells are found in A and provide 151. lLVsUVsdqyj dksf'kdk,a A esa ikbZ tkrh gSa vkSj
B to germ cells. Choose the option which fills tuu dksf'kdkvksa dks B çnku djrh gSa ml
the respective blanks. fodYi dk p;u dhft, tks lEcfU/kr fjDrLFkkuksa dh
A B iwfrZ djrk gSA
(1) Fallopian tube Estrogen A B
(1)fMEcokfguh ufydk ,LVªkstus
(2) Seminiferous tubules Nurishment
(2) 'kqØtud ufydk,a iks"k.k
(3) Uterus Progesterone
(3) xHkkZ'k; çkstsLVsjkWu
(4) Cervix Alkaline substance
(4) xHkkZ'k; xzhok {kkjh; inkFkZ
152. xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Seminal plasma in ejaculate of human males
(1) iq:"kksa ds L[kyu esa lsfeuy IykTek ÝqDVkst rFkk
is rich in fructose and calcium
dSfY'k;e ls çpqj gksrk gS
(2) Cleavage in mammals is holoblastic and
(2) Lru/kkfj;ksa esa iw.kZHkath rFkk vleku fonyu gksrk
unequal
gS
(3) Fertilizin is produced from acrosome
(3) ,Økslkse ls QfVZykbftu mRiUu gksrk gS
(4) Grey crescent is the area just opposite to the
(4) /kwlj v/kZpUækdkj] fMac esa 'kqØk.kq ds ços'k ds
site of entry of sperm into ovum
LFky ds Bhd foijhr {ks= gksrk gS
153. During human embryonic development, by the
end of which week, most of the major organ 153. ekuo Hkwz.kh; ifjo/kZu ds nkSjku fdl lIrkg ds var
systems are formed? rd yxHkx lHkh çeq[k vax&ra=ka dk fuekZ.k gks tkrk
(1) 2nd week (2) 4th week
gS?
(1) 2nd lIrkg (2) 4th lIrkg
(3) 8th week (4) 12th week
(3) 8th lIrkg (4) 12th lIrkg
154. Select the mismatch w.r.t. a normal menstrual
cycle of 28 days. 154. ,d lkekU; vkrZo pØ ds 28 fnuksa ds lanHkZ esa
vlqesfyr dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Follicular phase 5th to 13th day
(1) iqVdh; çkoLFkk 5 osa ls 13 osa fnu
(2) Proliferative phase 15th to 25th day
(2) çpqjksn~Hkou çkoLFkk 15 osa ls 25 osa fnu
(3) Ovulatory phase 14th day
(3) v.MksRlxZ çkoLFkk 14 osa fnu
(4) Menstrual phase 1st to 4th day
(4) vkrZo çkoLFkk 1st ls 4 fnu
155. Select the phase which is not a phase of ovarian
155. ml çkoLFkk dk p;u dhft, tks ,d v.Mk'k;h pØ
cycle.
dh çkoLFkk ugha gSA
(1) Follicular phase
(1) iqVdh; çkoLFkk
(2) Ovulatory phase
(2) v.MksRlxZ çkoLFkk
(3) Menstrual phase
(3) vkrZo çkoLFkk
(4) Luteal phase (4) ihr çkoLFkk
156. Choose the odd one w.r.t ploidy 156. xqf.krk ds lanHkZ esa ,d fo"ke dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Spermatozoa (1) LiesZVkstksvk
(2) First polar body (2) çFke /kqzoh; fiaM
(3) Secondary oocyte (3) f}rh; vaMd
(4) Primary spermatocyte (4) çkFkfed LiesZVkslkbV~l
(28)@AakashDelhi02
157. The correct path of transport of sperm passing 157. iq:"k 'kjhj ls 'kqØk.kq ds ifjogu dk lgh iFk gSA
through male body is
(1) 'kqØtuu ufydka, → o`"k.k tkfydk,a → 'kqØ
(1) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa okfgdk,a → vf/ko`"k.k → 'kqØokgd → L[kyuh;
efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens okfguh → ew=ekxZ
→ Ejaculatory duct → Urethra
(2) 'kqØtuu ufydka, → o`"k.k tkfydk,a
(2) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vas → 'kqØokgd → vf/ko`"k.k → 'kqØ okfgdk,a
deferens→ Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → L[kyuh; okfguh → ew=ekxZ
→ Ejaculatory duct → Urethra
(3) 'kqØtuu ufydka, → vf/ko`"k.k → 'kqØokgd
(3) Seminiferous tubules → Epididymis → Vas
→ o`"k.k tkfydk,a → 'kqØ okfgdk,a → L[kyuh;
deferens → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia
okfguh → ew=ekxZ
Ejaculatory duct → Urethra
(4) 'kqØtuu ufydka, → vf/ko`"k.k → 'kqØokgd
(4) Seminiferous tubules → Epididymis → Vas
→ o`"k.k tkfydk,a → 'kqØ okfgdk,a → ew=ekxZ
deferens → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia
→ Urethra → Ejaculatory duct → L[kyuh; okfguh
158. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlds vfrfjDr vU; lHkh gkeksZu
158. Hormones that are secreted by the placenta to
maintain pregnancy include all of the following lxHkZrk dks cuk, j[kus ds fy, vijk }kjk L=kfor
except. gksrs gS\
(1) hCG (2) Testosterone (1) hCG (2) VsLVksLVsjkWu
(3) hPL (4) Progesterone (3) hPL (4) çkstsLVsjkWu
159. During menstrual cycle which layer of uterus 159. vkrZo pØ ds nkSjku] xHkkZ'k; ds fdl Lrj us pØh;
undergoes cyclic changes? ifjorZu gksrs gS?
(1) Perimetrium (2) Myometrium (1) isfjeSfVª;e (2) ek;kseSfVª;e
(3) Endometrium (4) Mesometrium (3) ,aMkseSfVª;e (4) ehtkseSfVª;e
160. In below given figure, identify structures C, F and 160. uhps fn, x, fp= esa C, F rFkk G lajpukvksa dh
G. igpku dhft,A
Choose the correct option representing C, F and C, FrFkk G dks Øe'k% n'kkZus okys lgh fodYi dk
G respectively p;u dhft,A
(1) Ovum, Zygote, Blastocyst (1) vaMk.kq] ;qXeut] dksjdiqVh
(2) Ovum, Zygote, Morula (2) vaMk.kq, ;qXeut, rwrd
(3) Secondary oocyte, Zygote, Blastocyst (3) f}rh;d vaMd, ;qXeut, dksjdiqVh
(4) Embryo, Morula, Blastocyst (4) Hkwz.k] rwrd, dksjdiqVh
161. In humans, fertilization normally takes place at 161. euq";ksa esa fu"kspu lkekU;r% gksrk gS
(1) Isthmic region (2) Ampullary region (1) ladh.kZ iFk {ks= (2) rqfEcdk {ks= esa
(3) Infundibular region (4) Cervical region (3) dhid {ks= esa (4) xHkkZ'k; xzhok {ks= esa
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162. How many testicular lobules are present in each 162. euq"; ds çR;sd o`"k.k esa fdruh o`"k.k ikfydk
testis of human? mifLFkr gksrh gS?
(1) 250 (2) 25 (1) 250 (2) 25
(3) 1-3 (4) 8-16 (3) 1-3 (4) 8-16
163. Read the following statements w.r.t. humans and 163. ekuo ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks if<+, rFkk
choose the correct option regarding true (T) and
false (F) statements.
lR; (T) rFkk vlR; (F) dFkuksa ds lanHkZ esa lgh
fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
(a) The fully developed foetus and placenta
induce mild uterine contractions called foetal (a) iw.kZfodflr xHkZ ,oa vijk ls gYds xHkkZ'k;
ejection reflex. ladqpu çsfjr gksrs gS ftUgsa xHkZ mR{ksi.k çfrorZ
(b) During parturition, a complex neuroendocrine dgrs gS
mechanism is induced by cortisol, estrogen
(b) çlo ds nkSjku] ,d tfVy raf=var% L=koh
and oxytocin.
fØ;kfof/k dksVhZlkWy] ,LVªkstsu rFkk vkWDlhVksflu
(c) During ovulation, only one ovum is released }kjk çsfjr gksrh gS
per menstrual cycle.
(d) The presence of X or Y chromosome in the
(c) v.MksRlxZ ds nkSjku] çfr vkorZ pØij dsoy
sperm determines the sex of embryo. ,d v.Mk.kq eqDr gksrk gS
a b c d (d) 'kqØk.kq esa X ;k Y xq.klw= dh mifLFkfr Hkwz.k dk
(1) T F T T fyax fu/kkZfjr djrh gS
(2) T T T T a b c d
(3) F F T T (1) T F T T
(4) F T F T (2) T T T T
164. Implantation is embedding of the _____ into the (3) F F T T

endometrium of uterus. Choose the option that (4) F T F T
fills the blank correctly.
164. varjksZi.k esa _____ xHkkZ'k; ds vUrLrj esa
(1) Zygote
vUr%LFkkfir gksrh gSA ml fodYi dk p;u dhft,
(2) Blastocyst tks lgh :i ls fjDr LFkku dh iwfrZ djrk gSA
(3) Morula
(1) ;qXeut
(4) Transient 4-celled stage
(2) dksjdiqVh
165. In human female, the correct route of passage of
milk is (3) rwrd
(1) Mammary tubule → Mammary duct → (4) vLFkk;h 4-dksf'kdh; voLFkk
Mammary alveoli → Mammary ampulla →
Lactiferous duct
165. L=h esa] nqX/k ds ifjogu dk lgh ekxZ gSA
(2) Mammary duct → Mammary tubule → (1) Lru ufydk → Lruokfguh → Lru dwfidk →
Mammary alveoli → Mammary ampulla → Lru rqfEcdk → nqX/k okfguh
Lactiferous duct. (2) Lruokfguh → Lru ufydk → Lru dwfidk→
(3) Mammary alveoli → Mammary tubule → Lru rqfEcdk → nqX/k okfguh
Mammary duct → Mammary ampulla →
lactiferous duct.
(3) Lru dwfidk → Lru ufydk → Lruokfguh →
Lru rqfEcdk → nqX/k okfguh
(4) Mammary ampulla → Mammary tubule →
Mammary duct → Mammary alveoli → (4) Lru rqfEcdk → Lru ufydk → Lruokfguh →
Lactiferous duct. Lru dwfidk → nqX/k okfguh
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166. Match column I and column II w.r.t. STI and their 166. STI rFkk muds jksxdkjd ds lanHkZ esa dkWye I rFkk
causative agent. dkWye II dk feyku dhft,A
Column I Column II
dkWye I dkWye II
(a) Syphilis (i) Herpes simplex
(a) flfQfyl (i) gfiZl flEiysDl
virus
fo"kk.kq
(b) Trichomoniasis (ii) Neisseria
gonorrhoeae
(b) Vªkbdkseksfu,fll (ii) usbZlsfj;k xksufs j;k
(c) Gonorrhoea (iii) Trichomonas (c) xksuksfj;k (lwtkd) (iii) Vªkbdkseksukl
osthusfyl
vaginalis
(d) Genital Herpes (iv) Treponema
(d) tsukbfVy giZl (iv) Vªsiksusek isyhMe
pallidum lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,
Choose the correct option. (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
167. mYcos/ku ifj{k.k dk mi;ksx fdldh mifLFkfr ds
fy, ugha fd;k tk ldrk gS\
167. Amniocentesis cannot be used to test for the
presence of (1) [kaMrkyq
(1) Cleft palate (2) Mkmu flaMªkse
(2) Down’s syndrome (3) fldy lSy ,uhfe;k
(3) Sickle-cell anemia (4) gheksQhfy;k
(4) Haemophilia
168. lgh fodYi ds p;u ls vuq:irk dks iwjk dhft,A
168. Complete the analogy by choosing the correct
option.
VwcSDVkseh : fMac okfguh :: oklSDVkseh :____
Tubectomy : Oviducts :: Vasectomy :____ (1) 'kqØ okfgdk,a
(1) Vasa efferentia (2) 'kqØ okgd
(2) Vasa deferentia (3) vf/ko`"k.k
(3) Epididymis (4) 'kqØk'k;
(4) Seminal vesicles 169. eq[k }kjk yh tkus okyh gkeksZuy xksfy;ksa ds lanHkZ esa
169. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t hormonal xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,A
oral pills.
(1) fMEcokfguh ufydk dh L=koh fØ;k rFkk
(1) Inhibit motility and secretory activity of xfr'khyrk dks jksdrh gSa
fallopian tubes
(2) xHkkZ'k; xzhok ds 'ys"ek esa ifjorZu ls 'kqØk.kqvksa
(2) Change in cervical mucus impairing transport
of sperms ds ifjogu dks jksdrh gS
(3) Alteration in uterine myometrium to make it (3) vUrjksZi.k ds fy, vuqi;qDr cukus ds fy,
unsuitable for implantation xHkkZ'k; ek;kseSfVª;e esa ifjorZu djrh gS
(4) Inhibit ovulation (4) v.MksRlxZ dks jksdrh gS
(31)@AakashDelhi02
170. “Saheli” is a new oral contraceptive for females 170. efgykvksa ds fy, “lgsyh” ,d ubZ eq[k ls yh tkus
and was developed by scientists at okyh xHkZfujks/kd xksyh gS rFkk ;g fdlds oSKkfudksa
(1) The European Federation of Biotechnology }kjk [kksth xbZ Fkh\
(2) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (1) ;wjksih; tSo çkS|ksfxdh la?k
(3) International Union of Biochemistry (2) vkuqoaf'kd vfHk;kaf=dh laLrqfr lfefr
(4) Central Drug Research Institute (3) tSo jlk;u dk vUrjkZ"Vªh; la?k
171. Choose the odd one w.r.t. barrier methods of birth (4) dsUæ vkS"kf/k vuqla/kku laLFkku
control. 171. tUe fu;U=.k dh jks/kd fof/k;ksa ds lanHkZ esa ,d
(1) Spermicidal creams fo"ke dk p;u dhft,A
(2) Diaphragms (1) 'kqØk.kquk'kd Øhe
(2) Mk;kÝkWe
(3) Cervical caps
(3) xHkkZ'k; xzhok Vksih
(4) Vaults
(4) okWYV
172. Select a hormone releasing IUD.
172. ,d gkeksZu ekspd IUD dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Multiload 375 (2) LNG 20
(1) eYVhyksM 375 (2) LNG 20
(3) CuT (4) Cu7
(3) CuT (4) Cu7
173. Government of India legalized medical termination 173. Hkkjr ljdkj us fdl o"kZ esa fpfdRlh; lxHkZrk
of pregnancy in
lekiu dks dkuwuh Lohd`fr çnku dh Fkh?
(1) 1951 (2) 1971 (1) 1951 (2) 1971
(3) 2001 (4) 2011 (3) 2001 (4) 2011
174. Choose the incorrect match.
174. xyr feyku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) ICSI – Intracytoplasmic
sperm injection (1) ICSI – var% dksf'kdhæO; 'kqØk.kq fu{ksi.k
(2) GIFT – Gamete intra-
fallopian transfer (2) GIFT – ;qXed var% fMEcokfguh LFkkukarj.k
(3) IVF-ET – In vitro fertilization
and Embryo transfer
(3) IVF-ET – ik=s fu"kspu rFkk Hkwz.k LFkkukarj.k
(4) ZIFT – Zygote inter-fundus (4) ZIFT – ;qXeut var% QaMl LFkkukarj.k
transfer
175. VsLV V;wc csch dk;ZØe es]a 8 CykLVksfe;j rd dk
175. In test tube baby programme, embryo with upto
eight blastomeres is transferred into
Hkwz.k fdlesa LFkkukarfjr fd;k tkrk gS\
(1) xHkkZ'k;
(1) Uterus
(2) fMEcokfguh ufydk
(2) Fallopian tube
(3) ;ksfu
(3) Vagina
(4) xHkkZ'k; xzhok uky
(4) Cervical canal
176. gkeksZuy var% xHkkZ'k;h ;qfDr fdldk laneu ugha
176. Hormonal Intra Uterine Device does not suppress
djrh gS?
(1) Spermatogenesis
(1) 'kqØtuu
(2) Implantation of blastocyst
(2) dksjdiqVh dk vUrjksZi.k
(3) Fertilizing capacity of sperm (3) 'kqØk.kq dh fu"kspu {kerk
(4) Sperm motility (4) 'kqØk.kq xfr'khyrk
(32)@AakashDelhi02
177. Condoms are not 177. daMkse ugha gksrs gS

(1) Easy to use (1) mi;ksx esa vklku
(2) Barrier method of contraception (2) xHkZfujks/kd dh jks/k fof/k
(3) Reusable (3) iqu% mi;ksx
(4) Available for females (4) efgykvksa ds fy, miyC/k
178. Probable reason of population explosion is rapid 178. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlds vfrfjDr vU; lHkh dh
decline in all of the following except deh rhoz tula[;k foLQksV dk lEHko dkj.k gS?
(1) Number of people in reproducible age (1) tuu vk;q ds yksxksa dh la[;k
(2) Maternal mortality rate (2) ekr` e`R;qnj
(3) Infant mortality rate (3) f'k'kq e`R;qnj
(4) Death rate (4) e`R;q nj
179. Choose the odd one w.r.t. natural contraceptive 179. çkd`frd xHkZfujks/kd fof/k;ksa ds lanHkZ esa ,d fo"ke
methods. dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Coitus interruptus (1) varfjr eSFkqu (dksbVl bUVªIlu)
(2) Oral pills (2) eq[k }kjk yh tkus okyh xksfy;k¡
(3) Periodic abstinence (3) vkof/kd la;e
(4) Lactational amenorrhea (4) Lruiku vukrZo
180. Combination of which of the following set of 180. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl gkeksZu ds lewg ds la;kstu
hormones can be used by females as implants dk mi;ksx efgykvksa }kjk tUe fu;U=.k ds fy,
under the skin for birth control? Ropk ds uhps varjksZi ds :i esa fd;k tkrk gS?
(1) Oxytocin and progestogen (1) vkWDlhVksflu rFkk çkstsLVkstu
(2) Relaxin and estrogen (2) fjysDlhu rFkk ,LVªkt s u
(3) Estrogen and oxytocin (3) ,LVªkstu rFkk vkWDlhVksfuu
(4) Progestogens and estrogen (4) çkstsLVkstu rFkk ,LVªkstu
❑ ❑ ❑
(33)@AakashDelhi02
07/04/2020 CODE-A
MM : 720 Time : 3.00 Hrs.
1. (4) 37. (3) 73. (4) 109. (2) 145. (1)

2. (3) 38. (1) 74. (4) 110. (4) 146. (1)
3. (2) 39. (3) 75. (3) 111. (4) 147. (2)
4. (1) 40. (2) 76. (4) 112. (3) 148. (3)
5. (1) 41. (1) 77. (4) 113. (2) 149. (4)
6. (2) 42. (2) 78. (4) 114. (3) 150. (1)
7. (3) 43. (1) 79. (1) 115. (3) 151. (2)
8. (3) 44. (3) 80. (1) 116. (4) 152. (3)
9. (3) 45. (4) 81. (3) 117. (1) 153. (4)
10. (2) 46. (1) 82. (3) 118. (4) 154. (2)
11. (4) 47. (2) 83. (3) 119. (1) 155. (3)
12. (3) 48. (2) 84. (4) 120. (1) 156. (4)
13. (1) 49. (4) 85. (2) 121. (2) 157. (1)
14. (2) 50. (4) 86. (3) 122. (4) 158. (2)
15. (2) 51. (4) 87. (2) 123. (3) 159. (3)
16. (3) 52. (3) 88. (4) 124. (1) 160. (4)
17. (3) 53. (4) 89. (3) 125. (1) 161. (2)
18. (3) 54. (2) 90. (2) 126. (1) 162. (1)
19. (2) 55. (2) 91. (2) 127. (1) 163. (2)
20. (4) 56. (4) 92. (2) 128. (1) 164. (2)
21. (3) 57. (2) 93. (3) 129. (3) 165. (3)
22. (1) 58. (4) 94. (4) 130. (3) 166. (4)
23. (2) 59. (1) 95. (2) 131. (4) 167. (1)
24. (3) 60. (4) 96. (3) 132. (3) 168. (2)
25. (1) 61. (3) 97. (4) 133. (4) 169. (3)
26. (1) 62. (1) 98. (3) 134. (2) 170. (4)
27. (3) 63. (2) 99. (1) 135. (3) 171. (1)
28. (2) 64. (3) 100. (4) 136. (1) 172. (2)
29. (2) 65. (2) 101. (3) 137. (4) 173. (2)
30. (3) 66. (1) 102. (4) 138. (1) 174. (4)
31. (3) 67. (1) 103. (2) 139. (2) 175. (2)
32. (2) 68. (2) 104. (1) 140. (1) 176. (1)
33. (4) 69. (2) 105. (4) 141. (1) 177. (3)
34. (3) 70. (4) 106. (2) 142. (2) 178. (1)
35. (2) 71. (2) 107. (1) 143. (3) 179. (2)
36. (3) 72. (4) 108. (2) 144. (4) 180. (4)
(1)
@AakashDelhi02
07/04/2020 CODE-A
MM : 720 Time : 3:00 Hrs.

E1 = E2 E1 = E2
q1 q q1 q
K = K 22 K = K 22
r12 r2 r12 r2
2
q1  r1 
2
=  q1  r1 
= 
q2  r2  q2  r2 
2 2
V1 q1 r2  r1   r2  V1 q1 r2  r1   r2 
=  =    =  =   
V2 q2 r1  r2   r1  V2 q2 r1  r2   r1 
V1 r1 V1 r1
= =
V2 r2 V2 r2

2qE 2qE
Acceleration of charge (- 2q), a1 = vkos”k (- 2q) dk Roj.k a1 =
m m
2qE qE 2qE qE
Acceleration of charge (2q), a2 = = vkos”k (2q) dk Roj.k a2 = =
2m m 2m m
2 2
1 1  2qE  1 1  2qE 
K1 = mv12 = m  K1 = mv12 = m  t
2  m 
t
2 2  m  2
2
1 1  qE 
2
1 1  qE 
K1 = 2mv 22 = 2m  t K1 = 2mv 22 = 2m  t
2 2 m  2 2  m 
K1 : K2 = 2 : 1 K1 : K2 = 2 : 1
(2)
@AakashDelhi02

q in qin
= =
0 0
qin = (4 – 3) × 105 × 8.85 × 10–12 qin = (4 – 3) × 105 × 8.85 × 10-12

= 8.85 × 10–7 C = 8.85 × 10-7 C
Before connecting potential of inner sphere la;kstu ls igys vkarfjd xksys dk foHko
1  Q 2Q  1 2Q 1  Q 2Q  1 2Q
V1 =  +  = V1 =  R + 2R  = 40 R
40  R 2R  40 R 40  
After connecting by conducting wire Pkkyd rkjksa }kjk la;ksftr djus ds ckn
1  3Q  1  3Q 
V2 =  2R  V2 =
40   40  2R 
1 Q 1 Q
Change in potential V = V1 − V2 = foHko esa ifjorZu V = V1 − V2 =
40 2R 40 2R

2qV 2qV
v= v=
m m
v2  V (Parabola) v2  V (ijoy;)
dV = –E.dr = – ( 3iˆ + 4yjˆ ) . ( dxiˆ + dyjˆ ) dV = –E.dr = – ( 3iˆ + 4yjˆ ) . ( dxiˆ + dyjˆ )
r 2 1 r 2 1
 dV = –3  dx – 4  ydy
0 0 0
 dV = –3  dx – 4  ydy
0 0 0
 V = –8 V  V = –8 V
V  = N 2/3V V  = N 2/3V
40 = (N2/3) 10 40 = (N2/3) 10
N = (4)3/2 = 8 N = (4)3/2 = 8
10. Answer (2) 10. mÙkj (2)
S = 50ˆj unit S = 50ˆj bdkbZ
( )
 = E .S = 8iˆ + 4 jˆ + 3kˆ . 50 jˆ ( )
 = E .S = 8iˆ + 4 jˆ + 3kˆ . 50 jˆ
= 200 unit = 200 bdkbZ

11. Answer (4) 11. mÙkj (4)
 max = PE sin 90°  max = PE sin 90°
= 1 × 10-6 × 2 × 10-2 × 2.0 × 105 = 1 × 10-6 × 2 × 10-2 × 2.0 × 105
= 4.0 × 10-3 Nm = 4.0 × 10-3 Nm
(3)
@AakashDelhi02
12. Answer (3) 12. mÙkj (3)

100 100  100 100 
W = U = k q1 q2  − W = U = k q1 q2  −
 4 10   4 10 
= 9 × 109 × 54 × 10-12 × 15
= 9 × 109 × 54 × 10-12 × 15
= 7.29 J
= 7.29 J
13. mÙkj (1)
13. Answer (1)
1  2q q 
V = V1 + V2 = +
1  2q q  1 4q 40  R R / 2 
V = V1 + V2 =  +  =
40  R R / 2  40 R
1 4q
=
14. Answer (2) 40 R
15. Answer (2) 14. mÙkj (2)
K ( 3Q + Q ) KQ 15. mÙkj (2)
EK = and EB =
( 2R + x )2 ( 2R – x )2 K ( 3Q + Q ) KQ
EK = rFkk EB =
( 2R + x )2 ( 2R – x )2
EK = EB
EK = EB
4KQ KQ
= 4KQ KQ
( 2R + x )2 ( 2R – x )2 =
( 2R + x )2 ( 2R – x )2
2R + x 2R + x
 =2  =2
2R – x 2R – x
2R 2R
x= x=
3 3
16. Answer (3) 16. mÙkj (3)
Potential at any point inside a conducting shell is ,d pkyd dks”k ds vanj fdlh fcUnq ij foHko
equal to its value at surface of spherical shell. xksyh; dks”k dh lrg ij blds eku ds cjkcj gksrk
17. Answer (3) gSA
Flux passed depends on charge inside the
17. mÙkj (3)
Gaussian surface. Xkqtjus okyk ¶yDl vanj vkos”k rFkk xkmfl;u
18. Answer (3) lrg ij fuHkZj djrk gSA
18. mÙkj (3)
1 Q 1 2Q
E = 2 cos 60 – 1 Q 1 2Q
4E0 a 2 4E0 a 2 E = 2 cos 60 –
4E0 a 2 4E0 a 2
1 Q
E = =E E =
1 Q
=E
4E0 a 2 4E0 a 2
Vnet = V1 + V2 + V3 = zero VusV = V1 + V2 + V3 = “kwU;
19. Answer (2) 19. mÙkj (2)
(4)
@AakashDelhi02
20. Answer (4) 20. mÙkj (4)

0 A 0 A
C= = 12F C= = 12F
d d
0 A 1 0 A 0 A 1 0 A
C = = = 3F C = = = 3F
2 ( 2d ) 4 d 2 ( 2d ) 4 d
21. Answer (3) 21. mÙkj (3)
1 q
| E1 | = | E2 |= | E3 |= | E4 |= = | E1 | = | E2 |= | E3 |= | E4 |=
1
=
q
40 a 2 40 a 2
1 q
Net field E = 3 usV {ks= E=
1 q
3
40 a 2 40 a 2
22. Answer (1) 22. mÙkj (1)
Minimum possible charge is q = 1.6 × 10-19 C.
U;wure laHko vkos”k gS q = 1.6 × 10-19 C.
1 q1q2 9  109  (1.6  10 −19 )2
F= = 1 q1q2 9  109  (1.6  10 −19 )2
40 r 2 1 10 −4 F= =
40 r 2 1 10 −4
= 2.3  10 −24 N
= 2.3  10 −24 N
23. Answer (2)
23. mÙkj (2)
24. Answer (3)
24. mÙkj (3)
25. Answer (1)
25. mÙkj (1)
qq n 2e2
F = K 122 = K 2 q1q2 n 2e2
r r F =K 2
=K 2
r r
Fr 2 0.256  9  10 −4
n2 = = Fr 2 0.256  9  10 −4
(
Ke 2 9  109  1.6  10 −19 )
2
n2 = =
(
Ke 2 9  109  1.6  10 −19 )
2
1.6  3  10−2
n= = 1.0  1012 1.6  3  10−2
3  105  1.6  10−19 n= = 1.0  1012
3  105  1.6  10−19
26. Answer (1)
Maximum charge on
26. mÙkj (1)
1 F = 1 6  10−3 = 6  10−3 C 1 F ij vf/kdre vkos”k = 1 6  10−3 = 6  10−3 C
Maximum charge on 3 F ij vf/kdre vkos”k
3 F = 3  4  10−3 = 12  10−3 C = 3  4  10−3 = 12  10−3 C
Maximum charge on series combination Js.kh la;kstu ij vf/kdre vkos”k
= 6  10−3 C = 6  10−3 C
Maximum voltage on series combination Js.kh la;kstu ij vf/kdre oksYVrk
6  10 −3 6  10−3
= 8 kV = 8 kV
3/4 3/4
(5)
@AakashDelhi02
27. Answer (3) 27. mÙkj (3)

28. Answer (2) 28. mÙkj (2)
29. Answer (2)
29. mÙkj (2)
pZ = –2  10 Cm
–5
pZ = –2  10–5 Cm
dE dE
= 106 NC –1m–1 = 106 NC –1m–1
dz dz
dE dE
FZ = pZ = –0.2  10–5  106 FZ = pZ = –0.2  10–5  106
dz dz
= 2N along (–z) – direction. = 2N (–z) – fn”kk ds vuqfn”k
30. Answer (3) 30. mÙkj (3)
31. Answer (3) 31. mÙkj (3)
−4 −2
r 2  10  5  10 N r 2  10 −4  5  10 −2 N
E= = −12
= 3.75  105 E= = = 3.75  105
3 0 3  8.86  10 C 3 0 3  8.86  10 −12 C
32. Answer (2) 32. mÙkj (2)
33. Answer (4) 33. mÙkj (4)
Potential will divide equally foHko leku :i ls foHkkftr gksxk

So potential drop in 4 F = 10 V blfy, 4 F esa foHko iru = 10 V
Charge on 4 F 4 F ij vkos”k
q = CV = 4 × 10 = 40 C q = CV = 4 × 10 = 40 C
34. Answer (3) 34. mÙkj (3)
35. Answer (2) 35. mÙkj (2)
36. Answer (3) 36. mÙkj (3)
Find potential V  =
CV + 0 V
= foHko Kkr djs V  = CV + 0 = V
C +C 2 C +C 2
1 V2 U 1 V2 U
Energy in each capacitor U = C = izR;sd la/kkfj= esa ÅtkZ U= C =
2 4 4 2 4 4
37. Answer (3) 37. mÙkj (3)
To divide 1000V minimum three capacitors are 1000V foHkkftr djus ds fy, U;wure rhu la/kkfj=
required in series, so effective capacitance of 1 Js.kh esa vko”;d gS] blfy, 1 “kk[kk dh izHkkoh
2 2
branch is F . /kkfjrk F gS
3 3
2 2
n =2  n=3 n =2  n=3
3 3
So total number of capacitors = 9. blfy, la/kkfj=ksa dh dqy la[;k = 9
(6)
@AakashDelhi02
38. Answer (1) 38. mÙkj (1)

q = CV = 40  1 100 q = CV = 40  1 100
1 (40  100) 1 (40  100)

E= = 100 V/m E= = 100 V/m
40 1 40 1
1 40  100 1 40  100

E = = 25 V/m E = = 25 V/m
40 4 40 4
39. Answer (3) 39. mÙkj (3)

40. Answer (2) 40. mÙkj (2)
41. Answer (1) 41. mÙkj (1)
Potential across the plate of B will decrease. B dh IysVksa ds fljksa ij foHko ?kVsxkA vr% ÅtkZ
Hence energy will decrease. ?kVsxhA
42. Answer (2) 42. mÙkj (2)
43. Answer (1) 43. mÙkj (1)
 2q q  q
 2q q 
VC = K  − =K VC = K  − =K
q
 L L L
 L L  L
 2q q  q  2q q  q
VD = K  −  = −K VD = K  −  = −K
 3 L L  3 L
 3 L L  3 L
1 4qQ 1 4qQ
W = (VD − VC )( −Q) = W = (VD − VC )( −Q) =
40 3L 40 3L
44. Answer (3) 44. mÙkj (3)
 V ˆ V ˆ V   V ˆ V ˆ V ˆ 
E = – i + j+ kˆ  E = – i + j+ k
 x y z   x y z 
= – 2xiˆ + 2yjˆ + 3zkˆ  = – 0 + 4 jˆ + 3kˆ  = – 2xiˆ + 2yjˆ + 3zkˆ  = – 0 + 4 jˆ + 3kˆ 
45. Answer (4) 45. mÙkj (4)
46. Answer (1) 46. mÙkj (1)

Weak monoacidic hydroxide : XOH nqcZy ,dd vEyh; gkbMªkWlkbM : XOH
XOH(aq) X+ (aq) + OH− (aq) XOH(aq) X+ (aq) + OH− (aq)
C(1−  ) C C
C(1−  ) C C
m ( XOH) 8.44 m ( XOH) 8.44

= = = 2.59  10−2 = o (
= = 2.59  10−2
o (
m XOH) 326 m XOH ) 326
 = ( 2.59  10−2  100 ) % = 2.59%  = ( 2.59  10−2  100 ) % = 2.59%
47. Answer (2) 47. mÙkj (2)

Eooxd = −Ered
o Eooxd = −Ered
o
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Eored ( V ) Eored ( V )
48. Answer (2) 48. mÙkj (2)

12e− + 2 ( Al3+ )2 ⎯⎯→ 4Al 12e− + 2 ( Al3+ )2 ⎯⎯→ 4Al
2 ( O2− )3 ⎯⎯→ 3O2 + 12e− 2 ( O2− )3 ⎯⎯→ 3O2 + 12e−
r Go = −nFEo r Go = −nFEo
= −12  96500  2.5 = −12  96500  2.5
= −2895 kJ mol−1 = −2895 kJ mol−1
As given reaction is absorbed energy pwfda nh x;h vfHkfØ;k esa ÅtkZ vo'kksf"kr gksrh gS
So, G = +2895 kJ/mol vr%, G = +2895 kJ/mol
49. Answer (4) 49. mÙkj (4)
(
Eocell = Ecat
o
)red − (Eano
o
)red (
Eocell = Ecat
o
)red − (Eano
o
)red
= 0.92 − ( −0.44 ) = 0.92 − ( −0.44 )
= 1.36 V = 1.36 V
50. Answer (4) 50. mÙkj (4)
CH3COOH is a weak electrolyte. CH3COOH ,d nqcZy fo|qrvi?kV~; gSA
51. Answer (4) 51. mÙkj (4)
Eodisprop must be +Ve Eovlekuqikru /kukRed gksuk pkfg,
−
For XO3 XO3− ds fy,
(
Eodisprop = Ecat
o
)red − (Eoano )red Eovlekuiqkru = Eo ( dFSkkM)
s vip;u (
− Eo )
,sukM vip;u
Eo − Eo Eo − Eo
XO3− / XO− HXO4 / XO3−
XO3− / XO− HXO4 / XO3−
= 1.78 − 1.62 = 1.78 − 1.62

= +ve Value = +ve eku
In other options, Eodisprop  0 vU; fodYi es,a Eovlekuiqkru  0
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52. Answer (3) 52. mÙkj (3)

Eocell  0 Eocell  0
 Go  0 ( Go = −nFEocell )  Go  0 ( Go = −nFEocell )

 Keq  1 ( Go = −RT ln K eq )  Keq  1 ( Go = −RT ln K eq )
53. Answer (4) 53. mÙkj (4)
2Br − (aq) ⎯⎯→ Br2 (g) + 2e− 2Br − (aq) ⎯⎯→ Br2 (g) + 2e−
0.30 mol 0.30 mol

1Br2 : 2 F 1Br2 : 2 F
 0.30 mol Br2 : 0.30 × 2F = 0.60 F  0.30 mol Br2 : 0.30 × 2F = 0.60 F
q = i t q = i t
0.60  96500 0.60  96500 1 min

t= s
1 min t= s
2 60 s 2 60 s
482.5 min  482 min
482.5 min  482 min
54. Answer (2)
54. mÙkj (2)
k80 k50 k 60 k70 k80
k80
=
k50

k 60

k70

k80 =   
k 40 k 40 k50 k 60 k70 k 40 k 40 k50 k 60 k70
= 2.2 × 2.2 × 2.2 × 2.2
= 2.2 × 2.2 × 2.2 × 2.2 = 23.42 times
= 23.42 xquk
 23 times
 23 xquk
55. Answer (2)
Order can be determined through observations in 55. mÙkj (2)
experiments. dksfV dk fu/kkZj.k ç;ksxksa esa çs{k.k ls gks ldrk gS
56. Answer (4) 56. mÙkj (4)
t1/2 = 72 s t1/2 = 72 s
t = 7t1/2 = 7  72 = 504 s t = 7t1/2 = 7  72 = 504 s

57. Answer (2) 57. mÙkj (2)
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58. Answer (4) 58. mÙkj (4)

k is affected by temperature k rki }kjk çHkkfor gksrk gS
k = Ae−Ea/RT k = Ae−Ea/RT
It is not affected by concentration of the reactants ;g vfHkdkjdksa rFkk mRiknksa dh lkaærk }kjk çHkkfor
and products. ugha gksrkA
59. Answer (1) 59. mÙkj (1)
Zero order reaction : 'kwU; dksfV vfHkfØ;k :
2NH3 (g) ⎯⎯
Pt
→N2 (g) + 3H2 (g)
2NH3 (g) ⎯⎯
Pt

→N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 
NH3  0
NH3  0 kt1/2 =
kt1/2 = 2
2
60. mÙkj (4)
60. Answer (4) çFke dksfV vfHkfØ;k
1st order reaction  A 0
kt = 2.303log
 A 0  A t
kt = 2.303log
 A t  80 
 2  10−2  t = 2.303log  
 80   20 
 2  10−2  t = 2.303log  
 20  t=
2.303
log22
2  10−2
2.303
t= log22 2  2.303 log2
2  10−2 t=
2  10−2
2  2.303 log2 0.693
t= = 0.693
2  10−2 10−2 =
10−2
t = 69.3 s t = 69.3 s
61. Answer (3) 61. mÙkj (3)
r0 = k  X  Y
m n
r0 = k  X  Y
m n
ri = k ( 2 X) ( 2 Y)
m n
ri = k ( 2 X) ( 2 Y)
m n (i)
(i)
= 2m+n k  X  Y 
m n
k  X  Y 
m n
=2 m+n
ri = 2m+n r0  16 r0 = 2m+n r0
ri = 2m+n r0  16 r0 = 2m+n r0
 24 = 2m+n  m + n = 4
 24 = 2m+n  m + n = 4
rii = k  X ( 2 Y)
m n
(ii)
(ii) rii = k  X
m
( 2 Y)n = 2n k  X  Y 
m n
= 2n k  X  Y 
m n rii = 2n r0
rii = 2n r0  8r0 = 2n r0
 23 = 2n
 8r0 = 2n r0  23 = 2n  n = 3
n=3
But, m + n = 4
ijUrq, m + n = 4
m=1 m=1
Hence, r = k  X Y  r = k  X Y 
3
3
vr%,
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62. Answer (1) 62. mÙkj (1)

Gold sol is negatively charged. xksYM lkWy _.kkosf'kr gksrk gS
63. Answer (2) 63. mÙkj (2)
Ultrafiltration is used for purification of colloidal vfrlw{e fuL;anu dk mi;ksx dksykWbMh foy;u ds
solutions 'kqf)dj.k esa fd;k tkrk gSA
64. Answer (3) 64. mÙkj (3)
The maltase enzyme converts maltose into ekYVst ,Utkbe ekYVkst dks Xywdkst esa ifjofrZr
glucose. djrk gSA
65. Answer (2) 65. mÙkj (2)
Silica gel adsorbs water to control humidity. flfydk tSy ty vo'kksf"kr djds vkæZrk fu;af=r
(i) – (c) djrh gSA
(ii) – (a) (i) – (c)
(ii) – (a)
Silver halides adsorb dyes like eosin to produce a
characteristic colour at the end point. flYoj gSykbM jatd tSls b;ksflu dks vf/k'kksf"kr
(iii) – (b)
djds vfUre fcUnq ij vfHkyk{kf.kd jax çnku djrk
gSA
(iv) – (d)
(iii) – (b)
66. Answer (1) (iv) – (d)
x 1
= kp1/n , can have values between 0 and 1
66. mÙkj (1)
m n
x 1
(probable range 0.1 to 0.5) = kp1/n , dk eku 0 rFkk 1 ds eè; gks ldrk gS
m n
67. Answer (1) (laHkkfor ijkl 0.1 ls 0.5)
No. of Tetrahedral voids per unit cell 67. mÙkj (1)
= 2N, N = No. of spheres çfr ,dd dksf"Bdk prq"Qydh; fjfDr;ksa dh la[;k
=2×4=8 = 2N, N = xksyksa dh la[;k
68. Answer (2) =2×4=8
In rock salt (NaCl) type structure, C. N = 6 68. mÙkj (2)

r+
[kfut yo.k çdkj (NaCl) dh lajpuk esa] C. N = 6
 = 0.414 (by geometry ) r+
r−  = 0.414 ( T;kfefr }kjk )
r−
200
 = 0.414 200
r_  = 0.414
r_
200
 =r_ 200
0.414  =r_
0.414
 r _ = 483 pm  r _ = 483 pm
69. Answer (2) 69. mÙkj (2)
Packing efficiency in FCC = 74 % FCC esa ladqyu n{krk = 74 %
Percentage of free space = 100 – 74 = 26% çfr'kr fjDr LFkku = 100 – 74 = 26%
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70. Answer (4) 70. mÙkj (4)

In 1 unit cell of AB2 , AB2 dh 1 ,dd dksf"Bdk esa,
no. of A 2+ ions =  8   +  6   = 4  1  1
1 1
A 2+ vk;uksa dh la[;k = 8   + 6   = 4
 8  2  8  2
no of B − ions = 4  2 = 8 B − vk;uksa
dh la[;k = 4  2 = 8
In 5 unit cells, 5 ,dd dksf"Bdkvksa esa,
no. of A 2+ ions = 4 × 5 = 20 A 2+ vk;uksa dh la[;k ions = 4 × 5 = 20
no. of B − ions = 8  5 = 40 B− vk;uksa dh la[;k = 8  5 = 40

71. Answer (2) 71. mÙkj (2)
Distance between face centred atom and corner Qyd dsfUær ijek.kq rFkk dksus ds ijek.kq ds eè;
2a a 2a a
atom = = nwjh = =
2 2 2 2
72. Answer (4) 72. mÙkj (4)
A solution of n-hexane and n-heptane is an ideal
n-gsDlsu rFkk n-gsIVsu dk foy;u vkn'kZ foy;u
solution. Gmix  0 (spontaneous process)
gksrk gSA Gmix  0 (Lor% çØe)
73. Answer (4)
73. mÙkj (4)
In water, Kb is equal in case of both solutions.
ty esa] nksuksa foy;uksa esa Kb cjkcj gSA
Tb = iKbm
Tb = iKbm
( Tb )A B C  ( Tb )A B
2 4 2 6 12 ( Tb )A B C  ( Tb )A B
2 4 2 6 12
iA B C2
i A 6B12 iA B i
2 4
2 4
C2 A 6B12
74. Answer (4) 74. mÙkj (4)

Tf = iKf m Tf = iKf m
Solute i foys; i
C6H12O6 1 C6H12O6 1
NaCl 2 NaCl 2
Na2SO4 3 Na2SO4 3
K 4 Se ( CN)6  5 K 4 Se ( CN)6  5
75. Answer (3) 75. mÙkj (3)

In water, ty es,a
CH3COOH CH3COO− + H+, i  1 CH3COOH CH3COO− + H+, i  1
In benzene, csUthu esa,

2CH3COOH (CH3COOH)2 , i 1 2CH3COOH (CH3COOH)2 , i 1
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76. Answer (4) 76. mÙkj (4)

Mole fraction depends on only moles. Moles are eksy çHkkt dsoy eksyksa ij fuHkZj djrk gSA eksy rki
not affected by change in temperature. esa ifjorZu ls çHkkfor ugha gksrAs
77. Answer (4)
77. mÙkj (4)
y = unknown
 y =  vKkr
( CRT )y = ( CRT )unknown
( CRT )y = ( CRT )vKkr
( C)y = ( C)unknown ( C)y = ( C)vKkr
20 100 g
= 20
=
100 g
60 1 L  M0 60 1 L  M0
M0 = 300 g mol−1 M0 = 300 g mol−1

78. Answer (4) 78. mÙkj (4)
Due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding between
,fuyhu ,oa QhukWy ds eè; vUrj vk.kfod
aniline and phenol, the solution is non-ideal in
nature. gkbMªkstu ca/ku ds dkj.k foy;u vukn'kZ çd`fr dk
gS
79. Answer (1)
79. mÙkj (1)
V.P = PAo x A + PBo xB
V.P = PAo x A + PBo xB
  6    3 
=  123     +  167    
  9    9    6    3 
=  123     +  167    
  9    9 
= 137.67
= 137.67
 138 torr
 138 torr
80. Answer (1)
80. mÙkj (1)
Tf = iKf m
Tf = iKf m
−3
 0.0108 = i  1.86  2  10
 0.0108 = i  1.86  2  10−3
 2.9 = i
 2.9 = i
i 3
i 3
Compound i
;kSfxd i
 AB4C2  C2 3
 AB4C2  C2 3
 AB4C  C3 4
 AB4C  C3 4
 AB4  C4 2
 AB4  C4 2
 AB4C3  C 2
 AB4C3  C 2
81. Answer (3)
81. mÙkj (3)
AgBr shows Frenkel defect as well as Schottky
defect AgBr QsUdy o 'kkWV~dh nksuksa =qfV n'kkZrk gSA
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82. Answer (3) 82. mÙkj (3)

MnO shows anti ferromagnetism MnO çfr yksg pqEcdRo n'kkZrk gS
83. Answer (3) 83. mÙkj (3)
The higher the value of K H , the lower is the K H dk eku mPp gksus ij xSl dh foys;rk de
solubility of gas. gksxhA
84. Answer (4) 84. mÙkj (4)
HX : weak monobasic acid HX : nqcZy ,dd{kkjh; vEy
H+ (aq) + X− (aq)
Ka
HX(aq) H+ (aq) + X− (aq)
Ka
HX(aq)
initial C 0 0
eqbm C (1 −  ) C C çkjfEHkd C 0 0
lkE; ij C (1 −  ) C C
C (1 −  ) + C + C
i= C (1 −  ) + C + C
C i=
C
 1.041 = 1+   0.041 = 
 1.041 = 1+   0.041 = 
At equilibrium, lkE; ij,
H  X 
+ −
H+  X − 
Ka = Ka =
HX  HX 
( C )( C ) ( C )( C )
= =
C (1 −  ) C (1 −  )
C 2 C 2
= =
1−  1− 
0.01  ( 0.041) 0.01  ( 0.041)
2 2
= =
1 − 0.041 1 − 0.041
= 1.75  10−5 = 1.75  10−5
 2  10−5 (round off)  2  10−5 (lfUudVu)
85. Answer (2) 85. mÙkj (2)

Ion o/(S cm2 mol-1) vk;u o/(S cm2 mol-1)
Cl– 76.3 Cl– 76.3
Br– 78.1 Br– 78.1
Mg2+ 106.0 Mg2+ 106.0

Ca2+ 119.0
Ca2+ 119.0
86. Answer (3)
86. mÙkj (3)
Mercury cell edZjh lsy
Anode : Zn (Hg) + 2OH− ⎯⎯→ ZnO ( s ) + H2O + 2e −
s : Zn (Hg) + 2OH− ⎯⎯→ ZnO ( s ) + H2O + 2e−
,ukM
Cathode :HgO + H2O + 2e − ⎯⎯→ Hg(l) + 2OH− dFskkM
s :HgO + H2O + 2e− ⎯⎯→ Hg(l) + 2OH−
87. Answer (2)

87. mÙkj (2)
Hydrogen can be used as a renewable and non- gkbMªkstu dk mi;ksx uohdj.kh; rFkk çnw"k.k jfgr
polluting source of energy. ÅtkZ L=ksr ds :i esa fd;k tk ldrk gS
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88. Answer (4) 88. mÙkj (4)

A(g) ⎯⎯→ B(g) + C(g) A(g) ⎯⎯→ B(g) + C(g)
A(g) ⎯⎯→ B(g) + C(g) A(g) ⎯⎯→ B(g) + C(g)

t=0 10 0 0 t=0 10 0 0
t = 20 min 10 − p p p t = 20 min 10 − p p p
10 − p + p + p = 12 10 − p + p + p = 12
 10 + p = 12  10 + p = 12
 p=2  p=2
 10   10 
kt = 2.303 log   kt = 2.303 log  
 10 − 2   10 − 2 
2.303  10  2.303  10 
 k = log    k = log  
20  8  20  8 
89. Answer (3) 89. mÙkj (3)

Rate = Z ABe−Ea/RT s = ZAB e−Ea/RT
ox
ZAB = collision frequency ZAB = la?kê vko`fÙk
90. Answer (2) 90. mÙkj (2)
Rate = k C12H22O11  for following reaction fuEu vfHkfØ;k ds fy, osx = k C12H22O11 
C12H22O11 + H2O ⎯⎯→ C6H12O6 + C6H12O6 C12H22O11 + H2O ⎯⎯→ C6H12O6 + C6H12O6
91. Answer (2) 91. mÙkj (2)

Life span is not correlated with size and thoudky thoksa ds vkdj o tfVyrk ls lglacaf/kr
complexity of organisms.
ugha gksrkA
92. Answer (2)
92. mÙkj (2)
93. Answer (3)
93. mÙkj (3)
Gametic fusion occurs only in sexual
;qXed lay;u dsoy ySafxd tuu esa gksrk gSA
reproduction.
94. mÙkj (4)
94. Answer (4)
Opuntia– Aerial shoot show vegetative
vkWifU'k;k – ok;oh; çjksg] dkf;dk ço/kZu n'kkZrh gSA
propagation. cYc- I;kt esa dkf;d tuu
Bulb – Vegetative reproduction in onions. 95. mÙkj (2)
95. Answer (2) xsgw¡ – eksuksdfiZd (,dyQyuh) okf"kZd] xktj
Wheat is monocarpic annual, carrot is monocarpic eksuksdfiZd f}o"khZ] tcfd vke cgqQyuh cgqo"khZ gksrk
biennial while mango is polycarpic perennial. gSA
96. Answer (3) 96. mÙkj (3)
Higher plants also reproduce vegetatively. mPprj ikni] dkf;d :i ls Hkh tuu djrs gSaA
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97. Answer (4) 97. mÙkj (4)

Fucus reproduces through heterogametes. ¶;wdl] fo"ke;qXedksa }kjk tuu djrs gSaA
98. Answer (3) 98. mÙkj (3)
Marchantia, papaya and date palm are dioecious. ekdsZfU'k;k] iihrk o [ktwj] ,dfyaxkJ;h gksrs gSaA
99. Answer (1) 99. mÙkj (1)
Chara lacks archegonium. Both Chara and dkjk esa L=h/kkuh dk vHkko gksrk gS] dkjk rFkk
Marchantia produce motile male gametes. ekdsZfU'k;k nksuksa py uj ;qXed mRiUu gksrs gSaA
100. Answer (4)
100. mÙkj (4)
Gametogenesis and pollination are pre-
;qXedtuu rFkk ijkxd.k] iwoZ-fu"kspu ?kVuk,a gksrh
fertilisational events. Syngamy is fertilisation
event. gSaA ;qXed lay;u] fu"kspu ?kVuk gksrh gSA
101. Answer (3) 101. mÙkj (3)
Fertilisation is the most vital event of sexual fu"kspu] ySfxd tuu dh lcls eq[; ?kVuk gksrh gSA
reproduction. 102. mÙkj (4)
102. Answer (4) ,aftvksLieZ esa uj ;qXed] ijkxufydk ds }kjk
In angiosperms, male gametes are transferred LFkkukarfjr gksrs gSaA
through pollen tube.
103. mÙkj (2)
103. Answer (2)
VsfjMksQkbV~l] ,fEcz;ksQkbV~l gksrs gSA
Pteridophytes are embryophytes.
104. mÙkj (1)
104. Answer (1)
105. mÙkj (4)
105. Answer (4)
pychtk.kq] vySafxd tuu dk lk/ku gksrs gSaA
Zoospores are meant for asexual reproduction.
106. mÙkj (2)
106. Answer (2)
1
1
;qXed xq.klw= = × ehvkslkbV xw.klw=
Gamete chromosomes = × meiocyte 2
2
107. mÙkj (1)
chromosomes.
cgqQyuh ikniksa esa thou pØ dh lHkh rhu
107. Answer (1)
çkoLFkkvksa ds chp Li"V varj ugha gksrkA
In polycarpic plants, clear cut distinction between
all the three phases of life cycle are absent. 108. mÙkj (2)
108. Answer (2) 109. mÙkj (2)
109. Answer (2) 110. mÙkj (4)
110. Answer (4) ijkxd.k dh lcls ckgjh ijr ckápksy gksrh gS rFkk
;g Liksjksiksysfuu ;qDr gksrh gSA
Outer most layer of pollen grain is exine and it
contains sporopollenin. 111. mÙkj (4)
111. Answer (4) 112. mÙkj (3)
112. Answer (3) dkf;d dksf'kdk cM+h gksrh gS rFkk vfu;fer vkdkj
Vegetative cell is larger, has irregularly shaped okys dsUæd ;qDr gksrh gS rFkk lafpr [kk| dk laxzg
nucleus and stores food reserve. djrh gSA
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113. Answer (2) 113. mÙkj (2)

Papaver–Multicarpellary syncarpous ovary. iSikoj–cgqv.Mih ;qDrkaMih v.Mk'k; gksrk gSA
Wheat– Single ovule per ovary. xsgw¡ – çR;sd v.Mk'k; esa ,d chtkaM gksrk gS
114. Answer (3) 114. mÙkj (3)
Polar nuclei are haploid. /kwzoh; dsUæd vxqf.kr gksrs gSaA
115. Answer (3) 115. mÙkj (3)
116. Answer (4) 116. mÙkj (4)
Secondary nucleus is diploid. f}rh;d dsUæd f}xqf.kr gksrk gSA
117. Answer (1) 117. mÙkj (1)
Dioecy and self-incompatibility ensures cross Mk;kslh o Lo-vfu"ksP;rk ij- ijkx.k dks lqfuf'pr
pollination. djrs gSaA
118. Answer (4) 118. mÙkj (4)
Hydrophilous flowers have mucilage covered gkbMªksfQyl iq"iksa esa 'ys"kek ls vkofjr ijkx gksrs
pollen. gSaA
119. Answer (1) 119. mÙkj (1)
120. Answer (1) 120. mÙkj (1)
Castor has unisexual flowers on same plant thus vjaMh esa ,dfyaxh iq"i leku ikni ij mifLFkr gksrs
it shows geitonogamy.
gSa] vr% ;g ltkriq"ih ijkx.k n'kkZrk gSA
121. Answer (2)
121. mÙkj (2)
Emasculation of cucumber is not desired as it
[khjs dk foiqalu oafNr ugha gksrk D;ksafd ;g ,dfyaxh
produces unisexual flowers.
iq"i mRiUu djrk gSA
122. Answer (4)
122. mÙkj (4)
Synergids are helper cells and they are not
directly involved in double fertilisation. lgk; dksf'kdk,a] lgk;d dksf'kdk,sa gksrh gS rFkk ;g
çR;{k :i ls f}fu"kspu esa 'kkfey ugha gksrhA
123. Answer (3)
123. mÙkj (3)
In angiosperms, endosperm is product of triple
fusion. ,aftvksLieZ esa Hkwz.kZiks"k f=lay;u dk mRikn gksrk gSA
124. Answer (1) 124. mÙkj (1)
125. Answer (1) 125. mÙkj (1)
126. Answer (1) 126. mÙkj (1)
Black pepper is perispermic seed. dkyh fepZ] ifjHkwz.kiks"kh; cht gksrk gSA
127. Answer (1) 127. mÙkj (1)
In apple, fruit develops from thalamus along with lsc esa Qy v.Mk'k; ds lkFk chtkaMklu ls fodflr
ovary. gksrk gSA
128. Answer (1) 128. mÙkj (1)
129. Answer (3) 129. mÙkj (3)
After fertilisation, ovary wall develops into pericarp fu"kspu ds ckn v.Mk'k; fHkfÙk fodflr gksdj
or fruit wall. isfjdkiZ ;k QyfHkfÙk cukrh gSA
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130. Answer (3) 130. mÙkj (3)

Apomixis mimics sexual reproduction and vlaxtuu] ySafxd tuu dh udy gksrh gS rFkk
apomictic seeds can be diploid. vlaxtfur cht] f}xqf.kr gks ldrs gSaA
131. Answer (4)
131. mÙkj (4)
132. Answer (3)
132. mÙkj (3)
133. Answer (4)
133. mÙkj (4)
Nectar is reward for insects.
edjan] dhVks ds fy, iq:Ldkj gksrk gSA
134. Answer (2)
134. mÙkj (2)
Double fertilization is unique event of
angiosperms. f}fu"kspu] ,aftvksLieZ dh fof'k"V ?kVuk gksrh gSaA
135. Answer (3) 135. mÙkj (3)
136. Answer (1) 136. mÙkj (1)

Maximum life span is the maximum number of vf/kdre thou vof/k ,d çtkrh ds fdlh Hkh
years survived or the greatest age reached by any lnL; }kjk thfor jgus dh vf/kdre o"kksZ dh la[;k
member of a species.
;k mldh vf/kdre vk;q gksrh gSA
137. Answer (4) 137. mÙkj (4)
Gemmules are common asexual reproductive tSE;wy lkekU; vySafxd tuu lajpuk, gksrh gS ,oa
structures or internal buds seen in sponges. Liat esa vkarfjd dfydk,a ns[kh tkrh gSA
138. Answer (1) 138. mÙkj (1)
Asexual reproduction occurs in both single celled vySafxd tuu nksuksa ,ddksf'kdh; rFkk cgqdksf'kdh;
and multicellular individuals. thoksa esa gksrk gSA
139. Answer (2) 139. mÙkj (2)
Life span of fruit fly is 2 weeks. Qy eD[kh dh thou vof/k 2 lIrkg gksrh gSA
140. Answer (1) 140. mÙkj (1)
Chromosome numbers in meiocyte of house fly is ?kjsyw eD[kh dh v/kZlw=k.kqvksa esa xq.klw=ksa dh la[;k
12. 12 gksrh gSA
141. Answer (1)

141. mÙkj (1)
euq";ksa es]a vkroZ pØ mifLFkr gksrk gSA
In humans, menstrual cycle is present.
142. mÙkj (2)
142. Answer (2)
,d fyaxh çkf.k;ksa es]a uj rFkk eknk tuu vax vyx-
In unisexual animals, male and female gonads vyx çkf.k;ksa esa mifLFkr gksrs gSA
are present in separate individuals.
143. mÙkj (3)
143. Answer (3) cká fu"kspu çk;% eNfy;ksa rFkk mHk;pjksa esa ns[kk
External fertilization usually is seen in fishes and tkrk gSA
amphibians. 144. mÙkj (4)
144. Answer (4) f}xqf.kr thoksa esa] v/kZlw=h dksf'kdk (;qXed ekr`
In diploid organisms, specialised cells called dksf'kdk) uked fof'k"V dksf'kdk,a v/kZlw=h foHkktu
meiocytes (gamete mother cell) undergo meiosis. ls gksdj xqtjrh gaS v/kZlw=h foHkktu ds vUr esa
At the end of meiosis, only one set of xq.klw=ksa dk dsoy ,d lewg çR;sd ;qXed ls
chromosomes get incorporated in each gamete. fuxfer djrk gSA
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145. Answer (1) 145. mÙkj (1)

In Hydra, exogenous budding is present.
gkbMªk esa] ckfgtkZr eqdqyu mifLFkr gksrk gSA
146. Answer (1)
146. mÙkj (1)
147. Answer (2) 147. mÙkj (2)
The prostate gland lies at the base of urinary çksLVsV xzfUFk ew=k'k; ds vk/kkj ij fLFkr gksrh gS
bladder and surrounds the first part of the urethra.
rFkk ew=ekxZ ds çFke Hkkx ds pkjksa vksj gksrh gSA
148. Answer (3)
148. mÙkj (3)
In spermatogenesis, formation of sperms occurs. 'kqØtuu esa] 'kqØk.kq dk fuekZ.k gksrk gSA
149. Answer (4) 149. mÙkj (4)
Fallopian tube comprises three parts : fMEcokfguh ufydk ds vUrxZr rhu Hkkx gksrs gS:
infundibulum, ampulla and isthmus. dhid] rqfEcdk] ladh.kZ iFk (bLFkel)A
150. Answer (1) 150. mÙkj (1)
Gametogenesis takes place in primary sex organ ;qXedtuu çkFkfed ySafxd vax esa gksrk gS mnkgj.k
e.g. testes and ovary. ds fy, : o`"k.k rFkk v.Mk'k;A
151. Answer (2) 151. mÙkj (2)
Sertoli cells/sustentacular cells are found in lVksZyh dksf'kdk,a@lLVsUVsdqyj dksf'kdk,a 'kqØtud
seminiferous tubules and provide nutrition to male
ufydkvksa esa ikbZ tkrh gS rFkk ;g iq:"k tuu
germ cells.
dksf'kdkvksa dks iks"k.k çnku djrh gSA
152. Answer (3)
152. mÙkj (3)
Fertilizin is a chemical substance produced from
QfVZykbftu ,d jklk;fud inkFkZ ifjiDo v.Ms ls
mature eggs.
mRiUu gksrk gSA
153. Answer (4)
153. mÙkj (4)
During first trimester, major organ systems are
formed.
çFke frekgh ds nkSjku] çeq[k vax rU=ksa dk fuekZ.k
gksrk gSA
154. Answer (2)
154. mÙkj (2)
Duration of secretory phase is about 15th to 28th
day.
L=koh çkoLFkk dk le; yxHkx 15 osa ls 28 osa fnu
gksrk gSA
155. Answer (3)
155. mÙkj (3)
Menstrual, proliferative and secretory phase are
the phases of uterine cycle.
vkrZo] çpqjksn~Hkou rFkk L=koh çkoLFkk xHkkZ'k;h pØ
dh voLFkk,a gSA
156. Answer (4)
156. mÙkj (4)
Primary spermatocyte is diploid (2n) while first
polar body, secondary oocyte and spermetazoa çkFkfed 'kqØk.kq dksf'kdk,a f}xqf.kr (2n) gksrh gS
are haploid structures. tcfd çFke /kqzoh; fiaM] f}rh; vaMd rFkk 'kqØk.kq
157. Answer (1) vxqf.kr lajpuk,a gSA
Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa
157. mÙkj (1)
efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens → 'kqØtud ufydk,a → o`"k.k tkfydk,a →
Ejaculatory duct → Urethra 'kqØokfgdk,a → vf/ko`"k.k → 'kqØokgd → L[kyuh;
158. Answer (2) okfguh → ew=ekxZ
Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain
158. mÙkj (2)
pregnancy are hCG, hPL, progesterone and hCG, hPL, çkstLs VsjkWu rFkk ,LVªkstu gkeksZu lxZHkrk
estrogen. dks cuk, j[kus ds fy, vijk }kjk L=kfor gksrs gSA
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159. Answer (3) 159. mÙkj (3)

Endometrium is the innermost layer of uterus.
,.MkseSfVª;e xHkkZ'k; dh lcls vkarfjd Lrj gSA
160. Answer (4)
160. mÙkj (4)
The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called a 8 ls 16 dksjd[k.Mksa okys Hkwz.k dks rwrd dgrs gSA
morula.
161. mÙkj (2)
161. Answer (2)
fu"kspu dsoy gks ldrk gS ;fn fMEcokfguh ufydk
Fertilisation can only occur if the ovum and ds rqfEcdk {ks= esa vaMk.kq rFkk 'kqØk.kq ,d lkFk
sperms are transported simultaneously to the
ampullary region of fallopian tube.
ifjofgr gksrs gSaA
162. mÙkj (1)
162. Answer (1)
çR;sd o`"k.k esa yxHkx 250 d{k gksrs gS ftUgsa o`"k.k
Each testis has about 250 compartments called
testicular lobules.
ikfydk dgrs gSA
Each lobule contains one to three highly coiled
çR;sd o`"k.k ikfydk ds vUnj ,d ls ysdj rhu
seminiferous tubules. vfr dqaMfyr 'kqØtud ufydk,a gksrh gSA
163. Answer (2)
163. mÙkj (2)
Parturition is induced by a complex
çlo ,d tfVy raf=&var%L=koh fØ;k&fof/k }kjk
neuroendocrine mechanism. The signals for çsfjr gksrk gS çlo ds fy, ladsr iw.kZ fodflr xHkZ
parturition originate from the fully developed ,oa vijk ls mRiUu gksrs gSA
foetus and the placenta. 164. mÙkj (2)
164. Answer (2) 8-16 dksf'kdk voLFkk okys Hkwz.k dks rwrd dgrs gSA
Embryo with 8-16 celled stage is called morula. 165. mÙkj (3)
165. Answer (3) Lrukxz ds fudV] Lruokfgfu;k¡ foLrkfjr gksdj Lru
Near the nipple, mammary ducts expand to form rqfEcdk dk fuekZ.k djrh gS ftlesa dqN nw/k nqX/k
mammary ampullae where some milk may be okfguh esa tkus ls igys laxzfgr gksrk gSA
stored before going to lactiferous ducts. 166. mÙkj (4)
166. Answer (4) STI jksxdkjd
STI Causative agent (1) flfQfyl Vªsiksusek isyhMe
(1) Syphilis Treponema pallidum (2) Vªkbdkseksfu,fll Vªkbdkseksukl oSthusfyl
(2) Trichomoniasis Trichomonas vaginalis (3) xksuksfj;k (lqtkd) usbZlsfj;k xksuksfj;k
(3) Gonorrhoea Neisseria gonorrhoea (1) tsukbfVy giZl gfiZl flEiysDl fo"kk.kq
(1) Genital Herpes Herpes simplex virus. 167. mÙkj (1)
167. Answer (1) mYcos/ku] Hkwz.k ds fyax] xq.klw=ksa dh la[;k esa
vlekurk rFkk tSo jlk;u fodkjksa ds ijh{k.k ds
Amniocentesis can be used to determine the sex
of the foetus, abnormalities in the number of fy, ç;qDr gksrk gSA
chromosomes and biochemical defects. 168. mÙkj (2)
168. Answer (2) oklSDVkseh ('kqØokgd-mPNsnu) ds nkSjku vaMdks"k
During vasectomy, a small part of the vas (LØksVe) 'kqØokgd esa phjk ekjdj NksVk lk Hkkx
deferens is removed or tied up through a small dkVdj fudky vFkok cka/k fn;k tkrk gSA
incision on the scrotum. 169. mÙkj (3)
169. Answer (3) eq[k ls yh tkus okyh gkeksZuy xksfy;k¡ xHkkZ'k;
Hormonal oral pills alter the uterine endometrium ,.MkseSfVª;e dks ifjofrZr dj vUrjksZi.k ds fy,
to make it unsuitable for implantation. vuqi;qDr cukrh gSA
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170. Answer (4) 170. mÙkj (4)

CDRI is located in Lucknow, India.
CDRI Hkkjr esa] y[kuÅ esa fLFkr gSA
171. Answer (1)
171. mÙkj (1)
Spermicidal creams are chemical methods of birth
'kqØk.kquk'kd Øhe] tUe fu;U=.k dh jklk;fud fof/k
control.
gSA
172. Answer (2)
172. mÙkj (2)
Copper releasing IUDs are CuT, Cu7 and
CuT, Cu7 rFkk eYVhyksM 375 rk¡ck ekspd IUDs gSA
multiload 375.
173. mÙkj (2)
173. Answer (2)
Hkkjr esa] ifjokj fu;kstu dk;ZØeksa dh 'kq:vkr
In India, family planning programmes were
1951 esa gqbZ FkhA
initiated in 1951.
174. Answer (4)
174. mÙkj (4)
ZIFT – ;qXeut var% fMacokfguh LFkkukarj.kA
ZIFT – Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer.
175. mÙkj (2)
175. Answer (2)
8 CykLVksfe;j ls vf/kd Hkwz.k dks xHkkZ'k; esa
Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres could be
transferred into the uterus.
LFkkukarfjr fd;k tkrk gSA
176. mÙkj (1)
176. Answer (1)
LNG-20 ,d vkS"k/kh ;qDr IUD dk mnkgj.k gSA
Example of a medicated IUD is LNG-20.
177. mÙkj (3)
177. Answer (3)
Qse f'kYM (fL=;ksa dk daMkse) ;ksfu vkLrj ds lkFk-
Fem Shield (Female condom) covers the external
lkFk ckgjh tuaukxksa dks Hkh vkofjr djrk gSA
genitalia as well as lines the vagina.
178. mÙkj (1)
178. Answer (1)
tuu vk;q ds yksxksa dh la[;k esa o`f) tula[;k
An increase in number of people in reproducible
foLQksVd dk lEHko dkj.k gSA
age is probable reason of population explosion.
179. mÙkj (2)
179. Answer (2)
eq[k }kjk fy;s tkus okys vU; xHkZfujks/kd (xksfy;ka)
Oral contraceptives (oral pills) are preparations
containing either progestin (progestogen or
esa ;k rks çkstsLVhu (çkstsLVkstu ;k fo'ysf"kr
synthetic progesterone) alone or a combination of çkstsLVsjkWu) vdsyk ;k çkstsLVkstu vkSj ,LVªkstu ds
progestogen and estrogen. la;kstu ls rS;kj fd;s tkrs gSA
180. Answer (4) 180. mÙkj (4)
Progestogens alone or in combination with fL=;ksa }kjk çkstsLVkstu vdsys ;k fQj ,LVªkstu ds
estrogen can also be used by females as lkFk bldk la;kstu Hkh Vhds ;k Ropk ds uhps
injections or implants under the skin. varjksZi (baIykV) ds :i esa fd;k tk ldrk gSA
❑ ❑ ❑
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10/04/2020 CODE-A
Test - 7
Topics covered :
Physics : Current Electricity, Moving charges and Magnetism
Chemistry : General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements, p-Block Elements (Group 15-18), d
and f-Block Elements, Coordination Compounds
Botany : Principles of Inheritance and Variation, Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Zoology : Evolution
Instructions :
PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. The current in a wire bent in the form of a circular conductors is filled with air. The two conductors
arc is as shown in the figure. The magnetic field carry equal currents but in opposite directions.
at the centre point O is (radius of circular part : R) The variation of magnetic field with distance from
the common axis is best plotted as
(R1 < R2 < R3)
(1)
µ0 i µ0 i
(1) (2)
6R 3R
µ0 i µ0 i
(3) (4)
2R 3πR
2. A coaxial cable is made of two conductors. The (2)
inner conductor is solid and of radius R1. The
outer conductor is hollow and of inner radius R2
and outer radius R3. The space between the
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(1)
6. Two charged particles a and b of same mass are

accelerated through the same potential
difference. On entering a region of uniform
magnetic field, they describe circular paths of
(3) radii R1 and R2 respectively. The ratio of charges
of a and b is
2
R 
(1)  2 
 R1 
R2
(2)
R1
(4) 1/2
R 
(3)  1 
 R2 
R1
3. A thin uniform rod of length l, and mass m is (4)
uniformly charged with a total charge q. The rod R2
l 7. Two parallel, long wires carry currents i1, and i2
is rotated about a point at a distancefrom
3 with i1 > i2. When the currents are in same
midpoint of the rod. The magnitude of the direction, the magnetic field at a point midway
magnetic moment of the rod, if the angular between the wires is 40 µT. If the direction of i1 is
velocity is ω is reversed, the field becomes 60 µT. The ratio i1 :i2
is
q ωl 2
(1)
72 (1) 1 : 6 (2) 1 : 5
7 (3) 5 : 1 (4) 6 : 1
(2) q ωl 2
72 8. A wire carrying current i, is kept in x – y plane
 2πx 
q ωl 2 along the curve y = A sin   . A uniform
(3)  λ 
36
magnetic field B exists in the Z- direction. The
7qωl magnitude of magnetic force on the portion of the
(4)
9 λ
wire between x = 0 and x = is
4. The ratio of energy density of magnetic field at 2
centre of a current carrying loop to that at a
Bi λ
R (1) 2Bi λ (2)
distance from centre of loop on its axis is 3
2
Bi λ
(R : radius of loop) (3) Bi λ (4)
2
(1) 1 : 9 (2) 27 : 4
9. A circuit is composed of ten identical batteries
(3) 27 : 8 (4) 3 : 1
and a resistor R = 10 Ω. Each batteries has an
5. In which condition wire AB can perform simple emf of 2 V and internal resistance 0.1 Ω. The
harmonic motion? voltage difference across the resistor R is
(1) (2)
(3) (4) (1) 3 V (2) 2 V

(3) 6 V (4) Zero
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10. Infinite number of straight wires each carrying µ0 λ

current i are equally placed as shown in the (1) (2) µ0 λ
2
figure. Adjacent wires have current in opposite
direction. Net magnetic field at point P is µ0 λ
(3) (4) 2µ0 λ
4
13. A particle of charge 0.5 C and mass 1 kg is
v (2iˆ + 2 ˆj )
projected from the origin with speed =
m/s, in magnetic field (4 iˆ)T . The coordinates of
the particle at time t = π s are
(1) ( 2π,0,0 ) m
(2) ( 4, 2π,0 ) m
(3) ( 2π, 2π,0 ) m
(4) ( 0, 0, 0 ) m
14. The resultant force on the current loop ABCD due
to long current carrying conductor wire be
µ0 i µ0 i
(1) (2)
6πa 4πa
(1) 10–4 N
µ0 i µ0 i
(3) ln(2) (4) ln(2) (2) 3.6 × 10–4 N
4πa 2πa
(3) 1.8 × 10–4 N
11. Consider following two statements
(4) 5 × 10–4 N
(a) For any rigid body of mass m and total
charge q, rotating about an axis, the ratio of 15. A charged particle enters a magnetic field at right
magnitude of magnetic moment to that of angle to the magnetic field. The field exists for a
angular momentum is always q/2m. length equal to 1.5 times the radius of circular
(b) Force experienced by a current carrying path of the particle. The particle will be deviated
closed loop in a uniform magnetic field is from its path by an angle
zero.
The correct statement(s) is/are
(1) Only (a) (2) Only (b)
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b)
12. A long hollow cylinder carrying uniform current
per unit length λ along the circumference as
shown. Magnetic field inside the cylinder is
2
(1) 90° (2) sin−1  
3
(3) 30° (4) 180°
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 
16. Rank the magnitude of ∫ B.dl for closed paths 19. The magnitude of magnetic field required to
accelerate protons (mass = 1.67 × 10–27 kg) in a
shown in the figure from the smallest to the cyclotron that is operated at an oscillator
largest frequency 6 MHz is approximately
(1) 0.8 T (2) 0.6 T
(3) 0.4 T (4) 0.2 T
20. In the figure shown, the power generated in y is
maximum if y = 8 Ω. The value of resistance of
resistor marked as R is
(1) A < B < C (2) A < C < B

(3) C < A < B (4) B < C < A
17. An electron enters the space between the plates
(1) 6 Ω (2) 8 Ω
of a charged capacitor as shown in the figure.
(3) 10 Ω (4) 4 Ω
The surface charge density on the plate is σ .
21. The amount of heat generated in a resistor of
Electric field intensity in the space between the
resistance 2 Ω, in a time interval of 2 s, if current
plates is E. The uniform magnetic field also exists
in it increases uniformly from zero to
in that space perpendicular to the direction of E.
 4 A in the 2 s is
The electron moves perpendicular to both E and
 81
(1) 16 J (2) J
B without any change in direction. The time 5
taken by the electron to travel a distance l in the
64
space is (3) 64 J (4) J
3
22. In the part of a circuit as shown in the figure, the
ratio of power dissipated in 2 Ω and 12 Ω is
σl σB
(1) (2)
ε0B ε0 l
ε0 lB ε0 l
(3) (4)
σ σB
18. A cylindrical cavity of diameter 2 m exists inside a (1) 2 : 27 (2) 1 : 9
cylinder of diameter 4 m as shown in the figure. A (3) 1 : 6 (4) 8 : 9
uniform current density 2 A/m2 exists along the
23. All the bulbs shown in the figure are identical and
length. If the magnitude of magnetic field at are rated to fuse if the voltage across the bulb
centre of cavity is exceeds 200 V. The bulb(s) which will fuse in the
circuit on closing the switch is
(1) 2 × 10–7 T (2) 4 × 10–6 T (1) B1 (2) B2

(3) 4π × 10–7 T (4) 6π × 10–4 T (3) B3 (4) No bulb will fuse
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24. A thin uniform rod is connected to a source of 29. The equivalent resistance between A and B in the
constant voltage supply across its ends. The heat following circuit diagram is
dissipated in time t in this case is H. Now, the rod
is cut into n equal parts (perpendicular to its
length) and all parts are connected to the same
power supply in parallel. The heat generated in
second case in the same time will be
(1) 12 Ω (2) 14 Ω
H
(1) n2H (2) (3) 10 Ω (4) 4 Ω
n2
30. Uniform magnetic field of 2 T exists, in a
H
(3) nH (4) cylindrical region of radius 5 cm. The direction
n parallel to axis of cylinder is along east to west. A
25. A part of a circuit is shown in figure. The potential wire carrying current of 7.0 A in the north to south
difference between B and C (VB - VC) is equal to direction passes through this region. Initially wire
12 V. The value of current through the 4 Ω intersect the axis. If the wire in N-S direction is
resistor is lowered from the axis by a distance 3 cm, then
the magnitude and direction of the force on the
wire is
(1) 1.4 N, upwards (2) 1.12 N, upwards
(3) 1.4 N downwards (4) 1.12 N, downward
31. A battery of emf E and internal resistance r is
connected across a resistance R. Resistance R
can be adjusted to any value greater than or
(1) 1 A (2) 2 A equal to zero. A graph is plotted between the
current (i) passing through the battery and
(3) 4 A (4) 7 A
potential difference(V) across it. Select the
26. A potentiometer circuit arrangement is as shown
correct alternative
in the figure. The potentiometer wire is
6 m long and having resistance 15r. At what
distance from point A should the jockey touch the
wire to get zero deflection in the galvanometer?
(1) Internal resistance of battery is 5 Ω

(2) emf of battery is 20 V
(3) Maximum current which can be taken from
the battery is 4 A
(4) V – i graph cannot be a straight line as shown
(1) 4.4 m (2) 3.2 m in the figure
(3) 5.5 m (4) 2.8 m 32. The current density in a metallic conductor is
27. A wire is stretched such that the length increases plotted against electric field in a conductor at two
by 0.01 %. The percentage charge in the different temperatures T1 and T2 choose the
resistance is correct statement
(1) 0.02 % (2) 0.2 %
(3) 0.01 % (4) 0.04%
28. Six hundred identical cells of emf E and internal
resistance r are connected in series in same
polarity. The potential difference across any 99
cells will be
(1) Zero (2) E (1) T1 > T2 (2) T2 > T1
(3) 99E (4) 501E (3) T1 = T2 (4) None of the these
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33. A metallic conductor of irregular cross-section is 37. Three identical circular loops each of radius a
as shown in the figure. A constant potential and with their centres at origin carry current i
difference is applied across ends A and B. then, each. The planes of all three loops are
perpendicular to each other. The net magnetic
field at the centre origin will be
3µ0 i 3µ0 i
(1) Current at cross section P is equal to that of (1) (2)
Q a 2a
(2) Electric field intensity at P is lesser than that 3µ0 i 2µ0 i
at Q (3) (4)
a a
(3) Both (1) and (2) 38. A charged particle having charge 1C is moving
(4) Neither (1) nor (2) with velocity (2iˆ + ˆj ) m/s. The magnetic field (due
34. A hemispherical network of radius a is made up to charged particle) at origin, when the charged
using conducting wires of resistance per unit
particle is at (1 m, 1 m) is
length λ. The equivalent resistance between
–7
points A and B is (1) (–10 k̂ ) T (2) (10–7 k̂ ) T
 10−7   −10−7 
(3)  3/2 kˆ  T (4)  3/2 kˆ  T
2   2 
39. A small block of mass m and charge q is pulled
(from rest) by horizontal force F on a smooth
horizontal ground as shown in the figure. A
uniform magnetic field B, directed into the plane
exists in the region. The normal force between
( 2 + π ) λa ground and the block would become zero at time
(1) (2) 2λa
8
πλa
(3) (4) λa mg m 2g
8 (1) (2)
35. Choose the correct statement(s). qBF qBF
(1) A low voltage supply from which one needs 2m 2g mg

(3) (4)
high current must have very low resistance qBF 2qBF
(2) A high tension (HT) supply of 6 kV (say) must 40. A circular loop of radius a = 1 m is placed in a
have a very large internal resistance
uniform magnetic field B of induction 6 T. The
(3) Ohm’s law is universally applicable for all loop carries a current 2 A. The tension developed
conducting elements in the loop will be (The magnetic field is
(4) Both (1) and (2) perpendicular to the plane of the circular loop)
36. The given wheatstone bridge is showing no (1) 2 N (2) 4 N
deflection in the galvanometer joined between the (3) 6 N (4) 12 N
points A and B. The value of resistance R as
shown in the circuit is 41. The average temperature coefficient of resistance
of a wire is 0.00125°C–1. At 300 K, the resistance
is 4 Ω. The temperature at which the resistance
of the wire will be 4.5 Ω is
(1) 600 K (2) 213 K
(3) 400° C (4) 127° C
42. Two identical heaters, when used individually
take 5 minutes to boil a certain amount of water.
The time taken to boil the water, when both
heaters are used together in parallel is
(1) 50 Ω (2) 200 Ω (1) 1.25 minutes (2) 10 minutes
(3) 100 Ω (4) 150 Ω (3) 2.5 minutes (4) 5 minutes
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43. The potential of point P in the given circuit 45. For a metallic conductor, choose the correct
diagram is graph
(1)
(1) Zero (2) 8 V

(2)
(3) 2 V (4) 10 V
44. If σ1, σ2 and σ3 are conductances of three rods of

identical shape and size, joined in series as
shown in the figure. The equivalent conductance
is
(3)
σ1 + σ2 + σ3
(1) σ1 + σ2 + σ3 (2)
3
3σ1σ2σ3 1 1 1
(3) (4) + +
σ1σ2 + σ2σ3 + σ1σ3 σ1 σ2 σ3 (4) All of the above
CHEMISTRY
46. Sulphide ore among the following is 51. Correct IUPAC name of K3[Fe(CN)6] is
(1) Bauxite (2) Zinc blende (1) Potassiumcyanateiron (III)
(3) Calcite (4) Dolomite (2) Potassium cyanateiron (II)
47. White phosphorous on reaction with NaOH gives (3) Potassium hexacyanidoferrate (II)
(1) PH3 (2) NaH2PO2 (4) Potassium hexacyanidoferrate (III)
(3) Na3PO4 (4) Both (1) and (2) 52. Which complex is paramagnetic?
(1) [Sc(H2O)6]Cl3 (2) [Co(NH3)6] Cl3
48. Solvent used during the leaching of gold is
(3) [Zn(H2O)6]Cl2 (4) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3
(1) NaOH (2) NaCN
53. Which complex ion has central atom with d2sp3
(3) NaCl (4) NaNO3
hybridization?
49. Ni is refined by
(1) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Mn(H2O)6]2+
(1) Mond process (2) van Arkel method (3) [Fe(CN)6]3– (4) [Zn(NH3)5Cl]+
(3) Distillation (4) Cupellation 54. CFSE of complex ion [Co(CN)6]3– is (neglect
50. Neutral bidentate ligand among the following is pairing energy)
(1) en (2) H2O (1) –1.2 ∆0 (2) –0.6 ∆0
(3) NH3 (4) EDTA (3) –2.4 ∆0 (4) –1.8 ∆0
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55. Correct electronic configuration of the central 64. Correct electronic configuration of Eu (atomic
atom in [Ni(H2O)6]Cl2 based on crystal field theory number : 63) is
is (1) [Xe] 4f8 6s1 (2) [Xe] 4f76s2
4 4
(1) t 2g eg (2) t 52ge3g (3) [Xe] 4f9 6s0 (4) [Xe]4f10
6 2
(3) t 2g eg (4) t 82ge0g 65. Oxide(s) of nitrogen which has /have N–O–N
bond is/are
56. The type of isomerism shown by complex (1) N2O3 (2) N2O4
[Co(NH3)4Cl2]Br is
(3) N2O5 (4) All of these
(1) Geometrical isomerism
66. Catalyst used in Ostwald’s process for production
(2) Ionization isomerism
of Nitric acid is
(3) Optical isomerism
(1) Cu (2) CuCl2
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Pt/Rh (4) Fe2O3
57. An example of a sigma bonded organometallic
compound is 67. Cation present in brown ring complex is
(1) CH3MgBr (2) [Fe( η5 – C5H5)2] (1) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (2) [Fe(H2O)5NO]+
(3) [Fe(H2O)5NO]2+ (4) [Fe(H2O)4NOCl]3+
(3) [Cr(η6 – C6H6)2] (4) [V( η5 – C5H5)2]
68. Select the reaction which shows incorrect product
58. Which of the following has longest ‘C – O’ bond formed.
length?
(1) PCl5 + H2O → POCl3 + 2HCl
(1) [Fe(CO)5] (2) Ni(CO)4
(3) [Co(CO)4]– (4) [Fe(CO)4]2- (2) POCl3 + 3H2O → H3PO4 + 3HCl
59. Complex which on reaction with excess AgNO3 (3) 2Ag + PCl5 → 2AgCl + PCl3
gives 3 moles of AgCl as precipitate is (4) C2H5OH + PCl5 → C2H6 + POCl3 +Cl2
(1) [Pt(NH3)4]Cl2 (2) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 69. Number of P-OH bond(s) in pyrophosphorous
(3) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (4) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl acid is
60. Optical isomerism can be shown by (1) 1 (2) Zero
(1) [Fe(H2O)5Cl]Cl2 (2) [Co(en)2Cl2]Br (3) 2 (4) 3
(3) K[Co(en)Cl4] (4) [Zn(H2O)5Cl]Br 70. Select the mixed oxide from the following oxides.
61. Correct order of bond energy of N – H, P – H,
(1) O (2) S
As – H and Sb – H bonds is
(3) Se (4) Te
(1) N – H > P – H > As – H > Sb – H
(2) Sb – H > As – H > P – H > N – H 71. Hydride of group 16 of lowest boiling point is
(3) Sb– H > N – H > As – H > P – H (1) H2O (2) H2S
(4) Sb – H > As – H > N – H > P – H (3) H2Se (4) H2Te
62. Correct molecular formula of ammonium 72. Select the oxide which is mixed oxide?
dichromate is (1) Fe2O3
(1) NH4CrO3 (2) NH4CrO4 (2) Pb3O4
(3) (NH4)2CrO4 (4) (NH4)2Cr2O7
(3) Cl2O7
63. Select the reaction in which N2(g) is formed as
(4) N2O5
one of the products.
∆ 73. Incorrect statement about Rhombic sulphur is
(1) Ba(N3 )2  →
(1) It is also known as α-sulphur
∆
(2) (NH4 )2 CO3  → (2) It is of yellow colour
∆
(3) NH4Cl + Ca(OH)2  → (3) It is formed by evaporating the solution of roll
sulphur in CS2
∆
(4) (NH4 )2 SO4 + NaOH  → (4) It is soluble in water
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74. Necessary condition for maximum yield of H2SO4 82. Element which is regarded as transition element
formation by the Contact process is is
(1) High temperature and high pressure (1) Cr (2) Hg
(2) High temperature and low pressure (3) Cd (4) All of these
(3) Low temperature and high pressure 83. Element which is having largest total number of
(4) Low temperature and low pressure electrons in s-orbitals is
75. Halogen molecule having lowest bond energy is (1) Cu (2) Cr
(1) F2 (2) Cl2 (3) Ag (4) Au
(3) Br2 (4) Ι2 84. Transition element of highest melting point is
76. Hydrogen halides of highest pKa is (1) W (2) Mo
(1) HF (3) Mn (4) Cs
(2) HCl 85. Element of highest first ionization energy among
(3) HBr the following is
(4) HΙ (1) Fe (2) Co
77. Deacon’s process is used in the manufacture of (3) Ni (4) Zn

(1) HCl 86. Element which shows highest number of possible
oxidation states is
(2) Cl2
(1) Sc (2) Cr
(3) HClO4
(4) SO3 (3) Mn (4) Ni
78. Aqua regia is a mixture of 87. Magnetic moment of ion Zn2+ is
(1) Three parts of conc. HCl and two parts of (1) 1.73 BM
conc. HNO3 (2) 2.84 BM
(2) Three parts of conc. HCl and one part of (3) 4.90 BM
conc. HNO3 (4) 0 BM
(3) Three parts of conc. HCl and one part of 88. Interstitial compounds are having
conc. H2SO4
(1) Less melting point than parent metals
(4) Three parts of conc. HCl and two parts of
conc. H2SO4 (2) Less hardness than parent metals
79. Hydrolysis of BrF5 forms (3) More chemical reactivity than parent metals
(1) HBrO4 (2) HBrO2 (4) Similar metallic conductivity as of parent

metals
(3) HOF (4) HBrO3
89. Select the oxide which is most basic in nature.
80. Noble gas element of highest positive electron
gain enthalpy is (1) CrO
(1) He (2) Cr2O3
(2) Ne (3) V2O5
(3) Ar (4) Mn2O7
(4) Kr 90. Oxalate ion on reaction with KMnO4, in acidic
81. Shape of XeF6 molecule is medium at 333 K forms
(1) Square planar (1) MnO2
(2) Linear (2) CO2

(3) Square pyramidal (3) CO
(4) Distorted octahedral (4) C3O2
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BOTANY
91. A particular character in diploid species is 97. Select the wrong statement regarding mutations.
controlled by a gene has three alleles in the (1) Frame-shift mutation may be due to deletion
population. Two of them show co-dominance or insertion of one or more bases in a
whereas the third one is recessive. How many nucleotide chain
phenotypes are possible in this population?
(2) When a purine base is substituted by another
(1) Six (2) Four purine base then it is transition mutation
(3) Three (4) Five (3) Transfer of gene segment during crossing
92. Which of the following cross in pea plant is over between homologous chromosome
considered to be test cross? results in chromosomal aberration
(1) Rr × rr (2) Tt × Tt (4) Many chemical and physical factors can be
(3) yy × yy (4) Rr × RR mutagens
93. Select the incorrect statement from the 98. In human beings, which of the following disorders
following. occur due to the dominant allele?
(1) Recombination frequency can be utilized in (1) Sickle cell anaemia (2) Cystic fibrosis
predicting the sequence of genes on (3) Myotonic dystrophy (4) Haemophilia
chromosome. 99. “The phenotype in F1 generation does not
(2) Recombination frequency is inversely resemble either of the two parents and is in
proportional to the distance between genes between the two”. This statement is true for all,
(3) The term centimorgan is used in eukaryotic except
genetics (1) Flower colour in Antirrhinum sp.
(4) The genes are arranged linearly on the (2) Size of starch grains in pea seeds
chromosome
(3) Skin colour in human beings
94. Mendel’s law of dominance is applicable in
(4) Eye colour in Drosophila
(1) Sex determination in Drosophila
100. Out of four children of a couple, one is colour-
(2) Flower colour in snapdragon blind. If this child is daughter then which of the
(3) Klinefelter’s syndrome following genotypes should be true for the
(4) Phenylketonuria couple?
95. Heterosis is the phenomenon in which (1) XCXC × XY (2) XCX × XCY
(1) Hybrid produced are often superior of both its (3) XX × XCY (4) XCX × XYC
parents 101. If 2816 seeds is obtained in a Mendelian dihybrid
(2) Introns are removed from hnRNA cross preformed for the shape and colour of
seeds then, how many seeds would be of pure
(3) Less vigour organism is transformed into
line?
more vigour by picking up DNA from the
medium (1) 1408 (2) 148
(4) More distinct form is achieved by an (3) 704 (4) 74
organism in its adult stage from its immature 102. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. Down’s
form syndrome.
96. Which among the following insects, males (1) It is an example of chromosomal aberration
produce two types of sperms? (2) It develops due to trisomy of chromosome
(a) Grasshopper (b) Moth number 21
(c) Drosophila (d) Honey bee (3) It is not an inheritable disorder
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (4) The inflected individual may be male or
(3) (b) and (d) (4) (a) and (c) female
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103. One of the reasons for adopting garden pea for 108. In a few insects, Henking observed a specific
experiment by Mendel was nuclear structure only in 50 percent of the sperms
(1) Flowers show cross pollination naturally whereas the other 50 percent lack this structure.
He termed this structure as
(2) It is a leguminous plant
(1) X body (2) Centrosome
(3) It is a dicot plant
(3) Barr body (4) Y body
(4) It has many distinct alternative traits
109. Select the option in which the combination will
104. Study the given pedigree chart and select the result Turner’s Syndrome
statement which is true for this family
(1) Egg (22 + 0) × sperm (22 + 0)
(2) Egg (21 + X) × sperm (22 + Y)
(3) Egg (22 + XX) × sperm (22 + 0)
(4) Egg (22 + X) × sperm (22 + 0)
110. All of the following traits of pea plant appear in
both homozygous and heterozygous conditions,
except
(1) Violet colour of flower
(1) The trait is X–linked recessive
(2) Axial position of flower
(2) All the unaffected individuals in generation Q
(3) Yellow seed colour
are heterozygous for that trait
(4) Constricted pod shape
(3) This pedigree chart can explain the
111. Fathers and mothers of a couple have same
inheritance of myotonic dystrophy
blood groups, i.e., AB and O, respectively. Which
(4) The trait in this pedigree chart is holandric blood group(s) is/are possible in the children of
105. How many different types of gametes will be this couple?
produced by the organism with genotype (1) Only AB and O
PpQQrrssTt?
(2) Only A and B
(1) 8
(3) All AB, A, B and O
(2) 4
(4) Only AB
(3) 32 112. Some feature of Drosophila are given below
(4) 9 (a) It is a tiny fly of about 2mm size
106. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was (b) It has a short life cycle
proposed by
(c) It has smaller number of morphologically
(1) Gregor Mendel distinct chromosomes
(2) Sutton and Boveri (d) It is found over ripe fruits.
(3) T.H. Morgan Which features are considered suitable for
(4) Correns and Tschermak experimental genetics?
107. Which of the following representation related to (1) (a), (c) and (d)
dihybrid cross in Drosophila conducted by (2) (b) and (c)
Morgan is for recombinant type?
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a) and (c)
(1) (2) 113. Bacteriophage φ × 174 has
(1) 48502 nucleotides
(2) 48502 base pairs
(3) (4) (3) 5386 nucleotides
(4) 5386 base pairs
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114. Consider the following representation of DNA 119. Hershey and Chase proved that DNA is genetic
and select the correct option for the names of material through his experiments by working with
different bonds I, II and III. (1) TMV and Streptococcus pneumoniae
(2) λ phage and Trichoderma polysporum
(3) T2 bacteriophage and Escherichia coli
(4) Coliphage φ and Rhizobium
120. Identify the following statements as true (T) or
false (F) and choose the option accordingly.
A – Viruses having RNA can directly code for the
synthesis of proteins.
I II III B – Free 5′OH of RNA makes it more easily
degradable as compared to DNA.
(1) Phosphodiester Glycosidic bond Hydrogen
bond bond C – RNA mutates at a faster rate than DNA.
(2) Glycosidic bond Hydrogen bond Phosphodiester A B C
bond
(1) F T T
(3) Glycosidic bond Phosphodiester Hydrogen
(2) T T T
bond bond
(3) T F T
(4) Phosphodiester Hydrogen bond Glycosidic
bond bond (4) F T F
115. A segment of dsDNA has 32.5% of the total 121. To know that the mode of DNA replication is
bases as adenine. What would be the total semiconservative, which of the following isotopes
percentage of pyrimidines in this segment? can be used?
(1) 50% (2) 65% (1) 37Cl (2) 34S
(3) 35% (4) 67.5% (3) 41K (4) 15N
116. The enzyme reverse transcriptase can synthesise 122. In which of the following organisms, only a single
(1) DNA over RNA origin of replication is present?
(2) ssDNA from dsDNA (1) E. coli (2) Vicia faba
(3) RNA from protein (3) Puccinia graminis (4) Euglena viridis
(4) RNA over DNA 123. Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates serve dual

purpose during DNA replication. These are
117. Nucleosome is
(1) As substrate and making replication fork
(1) Bead like structure in chromatin
(2) Providing energy and unwinding the helix
(2) A negatively charged histone wrapped
around by positively charged DNA (3) Joining the two strands and transfering the
bases
(3) Composed of two pairs of histone proteins
(4) As substrate and providing energy for
(4) Super coiled DNA in prokaryotes
polymerisations
118. In the transformation experiment, conducted by
124. Which of the following enzymes is required to join
Frederick Griffith, when the mixture of heat killed
the discontinuously synthesised fragments of
S strain and live R strain Pneumococcus bacteria
DNA?
injected into mice, they died. Which of the
following was the reason for death of mice? (1) DNA gyrase (2) DNA ligase
(1) Live R strain bacteria were virulent (3) Topoisomerase (4) Helicase
(2) R strain bacteria became live in the presence 125. The process in which both the strands of DNA act
of heat killed S strain bacteria as template is
(3) S strain bacteria became live in the presence (1) Replication
of R strain bacteria (2) Reverse transcription
(4) Protein polymers of heat killed S strain (3) Translation
bacteria became toxic for mice (4) Transcription
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126. Match the following columns and select the (3) It takes place in the same compartment
correct option. where translation occurs
Column I Column II (4) Many times the translation can begin much
before the mRNA is fully transcribed
a. Non-coding (i) Towards 5′
strand of DNA end of 131. The role of SnRNPs is to
coding (1) Add adenylate residues at 3′ end of mRNA
strand (2) Remove introns from hnRNA
b. Transcription (ii) 5′→3′ (3) Add methyl guanosine triphosphate at 5′ end
unit polarity (4) Catalise the elongation of mRNA
c. Promoter (iii) 3′→5′ 132. Genetic codes show degeneracy. It means
sequence polarity (1) In mRNA, codon is read in a contiguous
d. Sense strand (iv) Has three fashion
of DNA components (2) Some amino acids are coded by more than
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv) d(ii) one codon
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv) d(iii) (3) One codon codes for only one amino acid
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i) d(iii) (4) Each codon is independent and one codon
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i) d(ii) does not overlap the next
127. In most eukaryotes, structural gene is 133. tRNA with which of the following sequence of
monocystronic. It means bases on anticodon loop is responsible to bring
(1) Different type of polypeptides are synthesised methionine to the mRNA?
from only one gene (1) 3′ CAU 5′ (2) 5′ CAU 3′
(2) This gene has only one intron (3) 3′ AUG 5′ (4) 5′ AUG 3′
(3) This gene synthesises only one type of 134. Select the incorrect match w.r.t lac operon.
polypeptide (1) Operator gene – Interacts with regulator
(4) Many introns are present in a single gene molecule
128. The RNA which has/have both structural as well (2) Regulator gene – Codes for repressor protein
as catalytic role is/are (3) Lactose – Binds to promoter gene to induce
(1) mRNA transcription
(2) tRNA (4) Lacz gene – Codes for β-galactosidase
(3) rRNA 135. Read the following statements and choose the
(4) Both tRNA and rRNA option which is true for them.
129. In eukaryots, RNA polymerase II catalyses the Statement-1: VNTRs and SSRs code for many
synthesis of essential proteins.
(1) tRNA (2) SnRNA Statement-2: The degree of polymorphism in
(3) 5S rRNA (4) hnRNA DNA sequence is specific to an individual and is
130. Regarding the transcription in bacteria, which not inheritable.
statement given below is incorrect? (1) Both the statements are correct
(1) There are three types of DNA-dependent (2) Both the statements are incorrect
RNA polymerase for this purpose (3) Only statement-1 is correct
(2) mRNA does not require any processing to (4) Only statement-2 is correct
become active
ZOOLOGY
136. The concept of ‘organic evolution’ in Darwin’s 137. The chain of islands named the Galapagos,
theory of natural selection can be best explained where the famous small black birds called finches
by were first studied lies off the west coast of
(1) The rise of antibiotic resistant bacteria (1) South Africa
(2) Use of Bt toxins against insects in crops (2) South America
(3) Development of hybrid varieties in plants (3) Australia
(4) Interspecies hybrids like tigon and liger (4) New Zealand
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138. All of the following may be regarded as examples 144. A transitional form which shows characteristic
of evolution by anthropogenic action except features of both birds and reptiles, but is now
(1) Development of pesticide resistant weeds extinct, is
(2) Variation among breeds of domestic pigeons (1) Hyracotherium (2) Pteranodon
(3) Evolution of giraffe and cheetah (3) Archaeopteryx (4) Triceratops
(4) Industrial melanism 145. Natural selection can act on variations only if
139. Match the following w.r.t. major biogeographical (1) They are present in more than one type of
realm, and the area included in it somatic cell
Column I Column II (2) They provide homozygosity in all organisms
(Biogeographical (Area induced) of the species
realm) (3) One extreme of the population is eliminated
a. Ethiopian (i) Tropical part of by them
Asia (4) They are heritable and affect the ability to
b. Neotropical (ii) Europe and survive and reproduce
Asia (North of 146. Read the following statements and choose the
tropics) correct option.
c. Palaearctic (iii) Central America Statement A : Unequal ability of individuals to
adapt for survival leads to accumulation of
d. Oriental (iv) Africa
favourable traits over generations.
(Excluding Atlas
mountains) Statement B : Most species produce more
offsprings than their environment can support.
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
140. A bonsai tree is mechanically made to grow as a
dwarf by pruning and shaping, however its seeds (4) Only statement B is correct
would produce a tree of normal size. This 147. Ruminating horse : Merychippus : : Dawn horse :
example can best be used to oppose the theory _____.
of evolution proposed by Complete the analogy.
(1) Georges Cuvier (2) Jean Lamarck
(1) Eohippus (2) Pliohippus
(3) Charles Lyell (4) Carolus Linnaeus
(3) Parahippus (4) Mesohippus
141. How many years ago did the formation of earth
148. Read the following characteristics and choose the
supposedly take place?
option best described by them
(1) 4.5 million (2) 20 million
(i) Herbivorous (ii) Long necked
(3) 4.5 billion (4) 20 billion
(iii) Quadruped (iv) Long tail
142. The control apparatus of the Urey-Miller
experiment was devoid of (1) Tyrannosaurus (2) Triceratops
(1) Methane and ammonia (3) Stegosaurus (4) Brachiosaurus
(2) Energy source 149. An old rock possibly from the Precambrian era
(3) Water vapour has to be examined using radioactive dating
technique. The best radioactive isotope employed
(4) Being a closed system
for this method is
143. In the process of chemical origin of life, as
proposed by Oparin and Haldane, which of the (1) Carbon12
following organic compounds formed first? (2) Carbon14
(1) RNA (2) Cellulose (3) Potassium40
(3) DNA (4) Simple sugars (4) Nitrogen14
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150. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. homologous 155. In the course of human evolution, A was possibly
and analogous structures. the ancestor of B and B was possibly the
ancestor of C. Identify A, B and C.
Homologous Analogous
structures structures A B C
(1) Australopithecus Homo erectus Homo habilis

(1) Brain of Heart of vertebrates
vertebrates (2) Homo habilis Homo erectus Australopithecus
(3) Australopithecus Homo erectus Ramapithecus

(2) Forelimbs of Flippers of Penguins
bats and whales and Dolphins (4) Australopithecus Homo habilis Homo erectus
(3) Thorn of Eye of octopus and 156. The conclusion that was reached by neo
bougainvillea mammals Darwinism was that new species naturally
and tendril of develop through
cucurbita (1) Discontinuous variations which are not
genetic
(4) Forelimbs of Wings of butterfly
(2) Continuous variations with natural selection
cheetah and and birds
humans (3) Mutations with natural selection
(4) Hybridizations with artificial selection
151. A connecting link between Annelida and Mollusca
is 157. The immediate ancestors of Conifers and
Ginkgos were
(1) Peripatus
(1) Bryophytes (2) Psilophyton
(2) Proterospongia
(3) Dicotyledons (4) Zosterophyllum
(3) Neopilina
158. The occurrence of all of the following events will
(4) Balanoglossus
cause a change in gene frequency except
152. Identify the egg laying mammal which shows (1) Genetic drift
similarity to both reptiles and mammals
(2) Non-random mating
(1) Koala bear
(3) Gene migration
(2) Duck-billed platypus
(4) Random mating
(3) Blue-whale
159. The evolution of different species in a given area
(4) Red Panda starting from a point and spreading to other
153. Auricular muscles of pinna and nictitating geographical areas is known as
membrane are ___ organs in man. (1) Adaptive convergence
Choose the option that fills the blank correctly. (2) Divergent evolution
(1) Homologous (3) Adaptive radiation
(2) Vestigeal (4) Convergent evolution
(3) Analogous 160. If a population is in genetic equilibrium the sum
(4) Functional total of all allelic frequencies is
154. Read the following statements and choose the (1) Less than 1
correct option. (2) Equal to 1
Statement A: Evolution is a directed process in (3) Greater than 1
the sense of determinism. (4) Zero
Statement B: Evolution is a stochastic process. 161. Allopatric speciation is a result of
(1) Only statement A is correct (1) Geographical isolation
(2) Only statement B is correct (2) Mixing of genes
(3) Both statements are correct (3) Continuous immigration
(4) Both statements are incorrect (4) Gene flow
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162. In post-zygotic barrier to hybridisation if the 169. Africa is known as ‘Cradle of life’ because the
hybrid adults do not produce functional gametes, observation on DNA variation suggests that
it is termed as there is
(1) Hybrid inviability (2) Hybrid sterility (1) No variation in Africa
(3) Hybrid breakdown (4) Hybrid vigour (2) No variation in Asia
163. A popular food supplement and a top-selling (3) Greater variation in Asia than in Africa
herbal medicine which is also considered a living
(4) Greater variation in Africa than in Asia
fossil is
170. Sweet potato is a A modification and potato
(1) Gingko bilboa
is a B modification which are together
(2) Pisum sativum
(3) Oenothera lamarkiana examples of C .
(4) Drosophila melanogaster Choose the option that fills the blanks correctly.
164. In the course of human evolution, which of the A B C
following is considered least relevant to evolution
of man? (1) Stem Root Analogy
(1) Bipedalism (2) Cranial capacity (2) Root Stem Analogy
(3) Tool making (4) Loss of tail
(3) Stem Root Homology
165. If the frequency of a dominant gene in a
population is 0.6, what is the percentage of (4) Root Stem Homology
homozygous recessive individuals? 171. The action of artificial selection can be observed
(1) 64% (2) 16% in all except
(3) 24% (4) 36% (1) Breeding of dogs and horses
166. Read the following statements. (2) Horticulture and agriculture
Statement A : During the course of evolution the (3) Breeding of animals for sport
pouched mammals of Australia survived.
(4) Wing of bat and wing of pigeon
Statement B : Placental mammals failed to be a
172. The key concept of Darwinian theory of evolution
competition to marsupials as they were separated
is
due to continental drift.
(1) Panspermia
(1) Only statement A is correct (2) Physical fitness instead of reproductive
fitness
(3) Branching descent and natural selection
(4) Mutations
173. If the addition or deletion of genes from an old
167. According to which law can two species having
population occurs by chance (but not
the same ecological requirement not occupy the
same habitat indefinitely? continuously) it is best termed as
(1) Gause’s law (2) Allen’s law (1) Gene flow (2) Saltation
(3) Bergaman’s law (4) Cope’s law (3) Artificial selection (4) Genetic drift
168. A form of adaptation in which two or more 174. The type of natural selection in which more
inedible or unpalatable species resemble each individuals acquire peripheral character value at
other is called both ends of the distribution curve is
(1) Batesian mimicry (1) Stabilising selection
(2) Mullerian mimicry (2) Unidirectional change
(3) Reproductive isolation (3) Progressive selection
(4) Temporal isolation (4) Disruptive selection
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175. The geological time period which occurred just 179. The skull of which two organisms shown below is
before the Triassic period was most alike?
(1) Jurassic (2) Permian
(3) Cretaceous (4) Tertiary
176. Choose the odd one w.r.t. eras on the geological
time scale.
(1) Coenozoic (2) Mesozoic
(3) Paleozoic (4) Silurian
177. An animal which is believed to have evolved into
the first amphibian is
(1) Pelycosaurs (2) Therapsids
(3) Tuataras (4) Coelacanth (1) A and B (2) B and C
178. The dinosaurs disappeared on earth about ___ (3) A and C (4) A, B and C
years ago. 180. The organism that arose in the ice age between
Choose the option that fills the blank correctly. 75000 - 10,000 years ago was
(1) 65 mya (2) 65 bya (1) Homo erectus (2) Dryopithecus
(3) 165 mya (4) 165 bya (3) Ramapithecus (4) Homo sapiens
  
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10/04/2020 CODE-A
Test - 7
Answer Key
1. (2) 37. (2) 73. (4) 109. (4) 145. (4)
2. (3) 38. (4) 74. (3) 110. (4) 146 (2)
3. (2) 39. (2) 75. (4) 111. (3) 147. (1)
4. (3) 40. (4) 76. (1) 112. (2) 148. (4)
5. (3) 41. (4) 77. (2) 113. (3) 149. (3)
6. (1) 42. (3) 78. (2) 114. (4) 150. (1)
7. (3) 43. (2) 79. (4) 115. (1) 151. (3)
8. (4) 44. (3) 80. (2) 116. (1) 152. (2)
9. (4) 45. (4) 81. (4) 117. (1) 153. (2)
10. (4) 46. (2) 82. (1) 118. (2) 154. (2)
11. (2) 47. (4) 83. (4) 119. (3) 155. (4)
12. (2) 48. (2) 84. (1) 120. (3) 156. (3)
13. (1) 49. (1) 85. (4) 121. (4) 157. (2)
14. (4) 50. (1) 86. (3) 122. (1) 158. (4)
15. (4) 51. (4) 87. (4) 123. (4) 159. (3)
16. (1) 52. (4) 88. (4) 124. (2) 160. (2)
17. (3) 53. (3) 89. (1) 125. (1) 161. (1)
18. (3) 54. (3) 90. (2) 126. (4) 162. (2)
19. (3) 55. (3) 91. (2) 127. (3) 163. (1)
20. (1) 56. (4) 92. (1) 128. (3) 164. (4)
21. (4) 57. (1) 93. (2) 129. (4) 165. (2)
22. (1) 58. (4) 94. (4) 130. (1) 166. (2)
23. (4) 59. (3) 95. (1) 131. (2) 167. (1)
24. (1) 60. (2) 96. (4) 132. (2) 168. (2)
25. (4) 61. (1) 97. (3) 133. (2) 169. (4)
26. (2) 62. (4) 98. (3) 134. (3) 170. (2)
27. (1) 63. (1) 99. (4) 135. (2) 171. (4)
28. (1) 64. (2) 100. (2) 136. (1) 172. (3)
29. (2) 65. (3) 101. (3) 137. (2) 173. (4)
30. (4) 66. (3) 102. (1) 138. (3) 174. (4)
31. (1) 67. (3) 103. (4) 139. (1) 175. (2)
32. (2) 68. (4) 104. (2) 140. (2) 176. (4)
33. (3) 69. (3) 105. (2) 141. (3) 177. (4)
34. (1) 70. (1) 106. (2) 142. (2) 178. (1)
35. (4) 71. (2) 107. (3) 143. (4) 179. (1)
36. (2) 72. (2) 108. (1) 144. (3) 180. (4)
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10/04/2020 CODE-A
Test - 7
Hints and Solutions
PHYSICS
1. Answer (2) µ0 i R2 µ0 iR 2
Baxis = = 3/2
µ0 i  240°  µ0 i 2  R2 
3/2
 3R 2 
=B =    R 2
+  2 
2R  360°  3R  2   2 
2. Answer (3) µ0 i
=
For x < R1  27 
 R
µ0 i  2 
B= x
2πR12 Energy density ∝ B 2
1  27  27
For x > R1 and x < R2 =
∴Ratio = =  
22  2  8
µ0 i 5. Answer (3)
B=
2πx In case (3) F ∝ − x, hence wire AB will perform
For R2 < x < R3 SHM.
6. Answer (1)
a – b( x 2 – R22 ) mv 1
B has a form R= ; qV = mv 2 ⇒ mv = 2mqV
x qB 2
For x > R3 1
=
⇒R 2mqV ×
B=0 qB
3. Answer (2) 1 R qb
⇒R ∝ ⇒ 1 =
q R2 qa
q  ml 2 l 
2
q µ
== ⇒µ  + m  ω 2
2m L 2m  12 3  qa R 
⇒ = 2
qb  R1 
q  l2 l2  q6+8 2
=µ  + ω⇒   ωl
2  12 3  2  72  7. Answer (3)
i1 − i 2 40 2
7qωl 2 = =
= i1 + i 2 60 3
72
4. Answer (3) ⇒ 3i1 − 3i 2 = 2i1 + 2i 2
µ0 i i1
Bcentre = ⇒ i1 = 5i 2 ⇒ = 5
2R i2
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λ The particle will exit the magnetic field in opposite
Effective Length =
2 direction
λ 16. Answer (1)

Force = i l eff B = i × B  
2
∫ (B.dl )A = µ0
9. Answer (4)  
( ∫ B.dl )B = µ0 3
Eequivalent = 0
 
i.e. VR = 0 ( ∫ B.dl )C = µ0 8

µ0 i µ0 i µ i σ
=B = ( 2sin θ ) = B 2 sin 45° = 0 qvB = qE ⇒ v = E =
4πr  a  2πa ε0B
4π  
 2
l l ε Bl
time
= (t) = = 0
Bnet =
µ0 i
−
µ0 i
+
µ0 i
−
µ0 i
······
v ( σ / ε0B ) σ
2πa 4πa 6πa 8πa
18. Answer (3)
µ0 i  1 1 1 
= 1 − + − ······ µ0  
2πa  2 3 4  =B (J × (C1C2 ))
2
µ0 i µ0
= ln(2) = (2 × 1) = µ0 = 4π × 10−7
2πa 2
Statements (a) is correct only for bodies in which qB ( 2πm )
mass and charge distribution is similar. = f ⇒B = f
2πm q
12. Answer (2)
20. Answer (1)
B =µ0 ni =µ0 λ
Maximum power transfer theorem
13. Answer (1) ⇒y=R+2⇒R=6Ω
2πm 2π × 1 21. Answer (4)
T = = = πs
qB 0 .5 × 4 i = 2t
At this time the particle returns to the x-axis 2 2 2
t3 | 8 64
coordinates : ( 2π, 0, 0) m H = ∫ i 2Rdt = ∫ 4t 2 ( 2 ) dt = 8 =8 × = J
0 0
3 | 3 3
14. Answer (4) 0
µ0 i 22. Answer (1)

Magnetic field due to long wire (B) =
2π ( r )
µ0 ( 20 )
=F1 × 20 (15 × 10−2 )
2π ( 2 × 10−2 )
µ0 ( 20 )
=F2 ( 20 ) × (15 × 10−2 )
2π (12 × 10−2 )
400 µ0  5
=F  15 − 
4π  2 i × 4 2i
=i1 =
4+2 3
25
= 400 × 10−7 ×
⇒ 200 × 25 × 10 −7 i 2 ( 2) 4 2
2 2
Ratio = 21 = × =
= 5000 × 10 −7 N i 12( ) 9 12 27
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23. Answer (4)

l= 2 r 2 − d 2= 2 52 − 32
All four bulbs will be short circuited.
l = 8 cm
24. Answer (1)   
⇒ F = (iL × B ) = 7[0.08( − jˆ) × 2( −iˆ)]
V2 R
P= ⇒ Rf = 2i ⇒ Hf = n 2H
R n = 1.12( −kˆ ) N
25. Answer (4) i.e. F = 1.12 N, downward.
31. Answer (1)
E − ir =
V (∴ straight line graph)
When i = 0 ⇒ V= E= 10V
10 − 2r = 0 ⇒ r = 5 Ω
Maximum current when R = 0
VC – 2x + 10 = VB E 10
VB – VC = 10 – 2x = 12 imax= = = 2A
r 5
⇒ x = –1 A (negative sign indicates that direction ∴ Answer (1)
of current is from B to A)
32. Answer (2)
y = 6 + |x| = 7 A
Slope of current density – electric field graph
26. Answer (2)
→ (Conductivity)
E E 33. Answer (3)
=i =
r + 15r 16r
KCL : Current is same
Potential gradient
as J = σE ⇒ i = σEA for larger area, E is less.
i × 15r 15E
=K = 34. Answer (1)
6 96
E 15E E
Now = Kl ⇒ ×l=
2 96 2
96
=l = 3.2 m
30
27. Answer (1)
ρl ρl 2 dR dl Using symmetry, equivalent circuit diagram :-
=
R = ⇒ =2 ( 2 + π ) aλ
A V R l πaλ
R=
1
R=2
R=
3
R=4
=
R + a=
λ
28. Answer (1) 2 2
The potential difference across any cell is zero. R ( 2 + π ) aλ
Net resistance =
29. Answer (2) 4 8
Rnet= {( 8 || 8 ) − series − 8 || 12} series − 8 35. Answer (4)

Low voltage supply must have low internal
resistance because maximum current drawn from
( ( 4 + 8 ) || 12 ) − Series – 8 source is E/r. Also, for HT supply, if circuit is
shorted accidentally, the current draw will exceed
6 − series − 8 = 6 + 8 = 14 Ω safety limits, if internal resistance is not high. For
30. Answer (4) semiconductor, ohm’s law is not valid.
36. Answer (2)
The wheat stone bridge would be balanced,
( 200R ) / (200 + R ) 100
=
400 400
200R
⇒ = 100 ⇒ R = 200 Ω
200 + R
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37. Answer (2) 0.125 = 0.00125 (T – 300)

µ0 i T = 400 K = 127°C
B=
1
B=
2
B=
3
2a 42. Answer (3)
Bnet = 3 B1 V2
5=H
38. Answer (4) R
  µ   ν × r  V 2 V 2 
B =  0  q 3   + t =
H ⇒ t = 2.5 min
 4π   r  R R
43. Answer (2)
  ( 2iˆ + jˆ ) × ( −iˆ − jˆ ) 
B = 10−7 (1)   Let potential be x
 23/2 
10 − x 5 − x 10 − x
+ + 0
=
−7  −7  2 2 4
=
−10
23/2
{2kˆ − kˆ} =  −2103/2
kˆ  T
20 − 2 x + 10 − 2 x + 10 − x =
0
 
39. Answer (2) 40 = 5 x ⇒ x = 8 V
F  44. Answer (3)

v = t
m  1 l 1 l 1 l 1 3l
+ + =
 Ft  σ1 A σ2 A σ3 A σ A
Normal would be zero if q   B = mg
m
3 1 1 1
= + +
m2g σ σ1 σ2 σ3
t=
qBF 45. Answer (4)
40. Answer (4) ρl l
R= ⇒R∝
T = Bia = 6 × 2 × 1 = 12 N A A
41. Answer (4) =i neAv d ⇒ i ∝ v d
R = R0 [1 + α (T – T0)]
 eE 
4.5 = 4 [1 + 0.00125(T – 300)] vd = −   τ ⇒ vd ∝ τ
 m 
CHEMISTRY
46. Answer (2) Complex [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 contains Cr3+ which is
47. Answer (4) paramagnetic due to presence of three unpaired
P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O → PH3 + 3NaH2PO2 electrons.
53. Answer (3)
48. Answer (2)
54. Answer (3)
Leaching of Ag and Au is carried out by using
NaCN.
49. Answer (1)
Mond process is used for refining of Ni
50. Answer (1)
en : ethane-1,2-diamine CH2 – NH2
| [Co(CN)6]3– : Co3+ : [Ar]3d6
CH2 – NH2
CFSE = 6(–0.4 ∆ 0 ) = –2.4 ∆ 0
51. Answer (4)
K3[Fe(CN)6] : Potassium hexacyanidoferrate(III) 55. Answer (3)
52. Answer (4) Ni2+ : [Ar] 3d8 ⇒ Electronic configuration
In [Co(NH3)6]3+, pairing of electrons is caused by H2O is a weak field ligand. It does not cause
NH3. Complex is diamagnetic. pairing of electrons in this complex.
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Complex [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Br can show G.I as well as C2H5OH + PCl5 → C2H5Cl + POCl3 + HCl
ionization isomerism 69. Answer (3)
57. Answer (1) Pyrophosphorous acid : H4P2O5
In CH3MgBr, metal ‘Mg’ is bonded by σ bond with
–CH3 O O
58. Answer (4) || ||
P O  P
Higher is the negative charge on central metal
|
HO | | OH
|
atom/ion, longer is the ‘C – O’ bond length. H H
Chloride ions outside the complex sphere, results On moving down the group, electronegativity
in AgCl as precipitate. decreases.
[Co(en)2Cl2]Br : Boiling point order : H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2O
Cl 72. Answer (2)
Pb3O4 is a mixed oxide of PbO and PbO2
Cl
en Co 73. Answer (4)
Optically active Rhombic sulphur is insoluble in water but
dissolves to some extent in benzene.
en
Cl 74. Answer (3)
For maximum yield → low temperature and high
en Co pressure is required because exothermic reaction
en Optically inactive and ∆ng is negative. ∆ng = –1.
2SO2(g) + O2(g)  2SO3(g)
Cl
75. Answer (4)
61. Answer (1)
Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
On moving down, the group atomic size
increases due to which bond energy decreases. 76. Answer (1)
62. Answer (4) HF (pKa = –3.2), HCl (pKa = –7),
Ammonium dichromate :(NH4)2Cr2O7 HBr (pKa = –9.5), HI (pKa = –10)

Deacon’s process is used in the manufacture of
Ba(N3 )2 → Ba + 3N2 Cl2 by using CuCl2 as catalyst.
(very pure nitrogen)
78. Answer (2)
64. Answer (2)
Aqua regia : (HCl : HNO3 = 3 : 1)
Eu : [Xe] 4f76s2
79. Answer (4)
65. Answer (3)
BrF5 + 3H2O → HBrO3 + 5HF
N2O5
80. Answer (2)
Ne has highest positive electron gain enthalpy
81. Answer (4)
F
66. Answer (3)
••
Pt/Rh gauge catalyst is used as catalyst in F F
XeF6 : Xe
Ostwald’s process for production of Nitric acid Distorted Octahedral
67. Answer (3) F F
Brown ring complex: [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4 F
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Chromium (Cr) is 3d series element. Zn2+ ion does not have any unpaired electron, so
83. Answer (4) magnetic moment is zero.
Au : [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s1 88. Answer (4)
84. Answer (1)
Interstitial compounds show similar conductivity
W (Tungsten) has highest M.P. among transition
as of parent metal.
elements.
Order of IE1 : Zn > Fe > Co > Ni CrO is of basic nature
Mn Can show +2, +3, +4, +5, +6 and +7 oxidation
5C2O42- + 2MnO4– + 16H+ → 2Mn2+ + 8H2O + 10CO2
states.
BOTANY
ABO blood grouping is an example in which three 103. Answer (4)
alleles of a gene I control the blood group. Four Pea plants show self-pollination in nature.
blood groups are present in human population. 104. Answer (2)
In test cross, dominant phenotype of F1 Number of hybrides (n) = 2
generation is crossed with recessive parental Types of gametes = 2n = 22 = 4
type.
106. Answer (2)
93. Answer (2)
107. Answer (3)
As the distance between the genes on a
108. Answer (1)
chromosome is more, the recombination
frequency is also high. Henking observed X-chromosomes.
109. Answer (4)
94. Answer (4)
Chromosome compliment in Turner’s syndrome
95. Answer (1)
is 44 + XO.
96. Answer (4)
110. Answer (4)
In grasshopper and Drosophila, males are
111. Answer (3)
heterogametic.
Father of couple Mother of couple
97. Answer (3)
IA IB Io Io
Loss or gain of segment of DNA results in
[AB] [O]
alteration in chromosomes. This results in
chromosomal aberration. Possible blood groups I I
A0
IBI0

98. Answer (3) in cople  [A] [B]
99. Answer (4) Possible blood groups IAIB IAI0 IBI0 I0I0
In incomplete dominance F1 phenotype is 
in children [AB] [A] [B] [O]
intermediat between dominant and recessive
phenotypes. 112. Answer (2)
100. Answer (2) 113. Answer (3)
101. Answer (3) 114. Answer (4)

115. Answer (1)
2816
Number of seeds with pure line = In dsDNA, percentage of purines is equal to
4
percentage of pyrimidines.
= 704.
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116. Answer (1) 128. Answer (3)

117. Answer (1) 129. Answer (4)
118. Answer (2) Synthesis of tRNA, 5SrRNA an SnRNA are
119. Answer (3) catalysed by RNA polymerase III.
120. Answer (3) 130. Answer (1)
Free 2′OH of RNA makes it more labile and In prokaryotes, DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
easily degradable. is only of one type and transcribe all of RNAs.
121. Answer (4) 131. Answer (2)
122. Answer (1) Introns are removed by small nuclear RNA and
Prokaryotes have single origin of replication. protein complex called SnRNPs.
123. Answer (4) 132. Answer (2)
124. Answer (2) 133. Answer (2)
125. Answer (1) 5′ AUG 3′ on mRNA codes for methionine.

During replication, new strands are synthesised 134. Answer (3)
on both the parental strands of DNA. Promoter gene possesses site for RNA
126. Answer (4) polymerase attachment.
Non-coding strand of DNA has 3′→5′ polarity 135. Answer (2)
and a transcription unit has three components, VNTRs and SSRs normally do not code for
i.e., promoter, structural gene and terminator. proteins. Polymorphisms in DNA sequence are
127. Answer (3) inheritable.
ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (1) 141. Answer (3)
Development of antibiotic and drug resistance by In the solar system of milky way galaxy, earth, is
microbes is a classic example of natural supposed to have formed about 4.5 billion years
selection. ago.
137. Answer (2) 142. Answer (2)
Galapagos islands are a chain of islands off the In the experiment Miller took molecules similar to
west coast of South America in eastern pacific
early earth’s atmosphere and put them into a
ocean.
closed system. The control apparatus comprised
138. Answer (3) similar arrangement except that it was devoid of
Industrial melanism, drug resistance and an energy source.
herbicide resistance are due to the involvement
143. Answer (4)
and actions of man. That is why these are called
examples of evolution by anthropogenic action. Formation of diverse organic molecules from
inorganic constituents was termed chemical
139. Answer (1)
evolution.
Alfred Russel Wallace (1823-1913) divided the
whole world into six major biogeographical 144. Answer (3)
regions or realms. Archaeopteryx is a missing link which shows both
140. Answer (2) reptilian and avian characteristics.
Jean Baptiste Lamarck proposed two principles, 145. Answer (4)
namely Natural selection acts on variations only if they
(i) Use and disuse are heritable and affect an organism’s ability to
(ii) Inheritance of acquired characteristics survive and reproduce.
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146 Answer (2) 159. Answer (3)

According to Malthus, reproduction of a species When because of the competition for food and
follows a geometric progression unless the living space, a single ancestral species evolves
growth is retarded by environmental pressures. into different species which occupy different
147. Answer (1) habitats, it is called adaptive radiation.
Evolution of modern horse began with the 160. Answer (2)
Eohippus i.e. dawn horse in the Eocene epoch. Sum total of all allelic frequencies in Hardy
148. Answer (4) Weinberg equilibrium is 1.
Triceratops – 3-horned face 161. Answer (1)
Tyrannosaurus – Carnivore, bipedal Allopatric speciation results from geographical
Stegosaurus – Plate backed and spiked tail separation of a small number of individuals from
149. Answer (3) the original population.
Half-life of potassium40 is 1.3 billion years and it is 162. Answer (2)

therefore applicable to old rocks. C14 can only be Mule and hinny are common examples of hybrid
used to examine fossils upto 70,000 years old. sterility seen in mammals.
150. Answer (1) 163. Answer (1)
Hearts in various vertebrates are homologous The modern Gingko is relatable to the fossils from
structures which show similarity in basic plan but the Permian dating back 270 million years. It is
have a varied degree of specialization. therefore considered a living fossil.
151. Answer (3) 164. Answer (4)
A connecting link is an organism which Loss of tail in the human ancestors occurred as it
possesses characters of two different groups. became vestigeal, however it was not significant
152. Answer (2) from an evolutionary perspective.
Duck-billed platypus (Ornithorhynchus) is an egg 165. Answer (2)
laying mammal.
⇒ q = 0.6 ⇒ p = 1 – q = 0.4
153. Answer (2)
⇒ p2 = 0.4 × 0.4 = 0.16 = 16%
Vestigeal organs are remnants of organs which
166. Answer (2)
were complete and functional in our ancestors.
154. Answer (2) Continental drift created a biogeographical barrier
for placentals.
Evolution is not a directed process.
167. Answer (1)
155. Answer (4)
Gause’s law is also called the ‘Competitive
The chronological order of human evolution from
exclusion principle’.
early to recent is
168. Answer (2)
Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo
erectus Batesian mimicry is a form of mimicry in which an
edible species resembles an inedible one.
156. Answer (3)
Neo-Darwinism concludes that new species 169. Answer (4)
develop through mutations with natural selection. The high levels of genetic and phenotypic
157. Answer (2) variations in African populations make it an
excellent choice for studying human genetic
Dicotyledons are the immediate ancestors of
diversity.
angiosperms (flowering plants).
170. Answer (2)
158. Answer (4)
Random mating helps in maintaining the Hardy Sweet potato is a root modification and potato is
Weinberg equilibrium whereas genetic drift, gene a stem modification. They are analogous
migration and non-random mating disrupt it. structures.
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171. Answer (4) 176. Answer (4)

Wing of bat and wing of pigeon are analogous Silurian is a geological period from Paleozoic
structures. era.
172. Answer (3) 177. Answer (4)
Hugo de Vries believed that it is mutations which In 1938, a fish caught in South African was
cause evolution and not minor continuous Coelacanth which was called lobefin.
variations. 178. Answer (1)
173. Answer (4) About 65 mya, the dinosaurs suddenly
New genes are added to a new population and disappeared from earth.
lost from the old population. If this change occurs 179. Answer (1)
by chance it is called genetic drift.
A comparison of the skulls of adult modern
174. Answer (4) human being, baby chimpanzee and adult
Natural selection can lead to stabilisation, chimpanzee. The skull of baby chimpanzee is
directional change or disruption. more like adult human skull than adult
175. Answer (2) chimpanzee skull.
Carboniferous → Permian → Triassic → 180. Answer (4)
Jurassic → Cretaceous → Tertiary Homo sapiens arose in the ice age.
  
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14/04/2020 CODE-A
MM : 720 Time : 3.00 Hrs.
Topics covered :
Physics : pqEcdRo rFkk inkFkZ] fo|qrpqEcdh; çsj.k] çR;korhZ /kkjk] fo|qrpqEcdh; rjaxsa
Chemistry : gsyks,Ydsu rFkk] gsyks,jhu] ,YdksgkWy] QhukWy rFkk bZFkj
Botany : [kk| mRiknu esa o`f) ds fy, dk;Zuhfr;k¡] ekuo dY;k.k esa lw{etho] tho rFkk lef"V
Zoology : ekuo LokLF; rFkk jksx
funsZ'k :
Choose the correct answer : lgh mÙkj dk p;u dhft,:

1. Which of the following is true? 1. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk lgh gS\
(1) Diamagnetism is temperature dependent (1) izfrpqEcdRo rki ij fuHkZj djrk gS
(2) Paramagnetism is temperature dependent
(2) vuqpqEcdRo rki ij fuHkZj djrk gS
(3) Paramagnetism is temperature independent
(3) izfrpqEcdRo rki ij fuHkZj ugha djrk gS
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(4) (1) rFkk (2) nksuksa
2. A magnet of magnetic moment 4J/T is aligned in
the direction of magnetic field of 0.2 T. The net 2. pqEcdh; vk?kw.kZ 4J/T dk ,d pqEcd 0.2 T ds
work done to slowly rotate the magnet by 180° pqEcdh; {ks= dh fn”kk esa ,djsf[kr gSA pqEcd dks
(1) 0.8 J (2) 0.4 J /khjs&/khjs 180° ls ?kqekus esa fd;k x;k usV dk;Z gS
(3) 1.6 J (4) 1.2 J (1) 0.8 J (2) 0.4 J
3. A vertical dip needle dips initially in the magnetic (3) 1.6 J (4) 1.2 J
meridian when it shows an angle of dip  at a 3. ,d ÅèokZ/kj ufr lqbZ izkjaHk esa pqEcdh; ;kE;ksÙkj esa
place. The dip circle is rotated through an angle >qdh gS tc ;g ,d LFkku ij ufr dks.k  n”kkZrh
60° and then it shows an angle of dip , then gSA ufr o`Ùk 60° dks.k ls ?kqerk gS rRi”pkr~ ;g ufr
tan  tan 
is dks.k  n”kkZrh gSA rc gS
tan  tan 
(1) 3 (2) 2 (1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 1 (4) 2 (3) 1 (4) 2
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4. The magnetic moment of a steel wire is M. It is 4. ,d LVhy rkj dk pqEcdh; vk?kw.kZ M gSA bls ,d
bent into a circular arc which is making an angle o`Ùkh; pki tks blds dsna z ij 60° dks.k fufeZr djrh
60° at its centre. The new magnetic moment of
gS] esa eksM+k tkrk gSA o`Ùkh; pki dk uohu pqECkdh;
the circular arc will be
vk?kw.kZ gksxk
2M 4M
(1) (2) 2M 4M
  (1) (2)
 
3M 3M
(3) (4) 3M 3M
2  (3) (4)
2 
5. A domain in a ferromagnetic substance is in the
5. ykSg pqEcdh; inkFkZ esa ,d {ks= Hkqtk yEckbZ 1 m
form of cube of side length 1 m. If it contains
4 × 1010 atoms and each atomic dipole has a
ds ?ku ds :i esa gSaA ;fn blesa 4 × 1010 ijek.kq
dipole moment of 3 × 10–24 Am2, then the lfEefyr gSa rFkk izR;sd ijek.kqd f}/kzqo dk f}/kzqo
magnetisation of the domain is (consider all vk?kw.kZ 3 × 10–24 Am2 gS, rc {ks= dk pqEcdhdj.k gS
atomic dipoles are aligned in same direction) (ekuk lHkh ijek.kqd f}/kzqo leku fn”kk esa ,djsf[kr gS )
(1) 7.2 × 105 Am–1 (2) 3.6 × 105 Am–1 (1) 7.2 × 105 Am–1 (2) 3.6 × 105 Am–1
(3) 1.2 × 105 Am–1 (4) 2.4 × 105 Am–1 (3) 1.2 × 105 Am–1 (4) 2.4 × 105 Am–1
6. A paramagnetic liquid is filled in a glass U-tube of

6. ,d vuqpqEcdh; nzo dks dk¡p dh U-ufydk esaHkjk
which one limb is placed between the pole pieces x;k gS ftldh ,d “kk[kk dks fo|qrpqEcd ds /kzqoksa ds
of an electromagnet. When the field is switched VqdM+ksa ds eè; j[kk x;k gSA tc {ks= dks pkyw (ON)
on the liquid in the limb which is in the field will be fd;k tkrk gSA rc {ks= esa fLFkr “kk[kk esa nzo
(1) Rise (1) Åij mBsxk
(2) Fall (2) uhps fxjsxk
(3) Remains stationary (3) fLFkj jgsxk
(4) First rise then fall (4) igys mBsxk rRi”pkr~ fxjsxk
7. There are two coils A and B as shown in figure 7. fp= eas n”kkZ, vuqlkj nks dq.Myh A rFkk B gSa
(coil B is fixed). A current starts flowing in B as (dq.Myh B n`<+ gS)A ,d /kkjk n”kkZ, vuqlkj B esa
shown, when A moves away from B and stops izokfgr gksuk izkjaHk djrh gS] tc A, B ls nwj xfr
when A stops moving. We can refer that
djrh gS rFkk /kkjk :d tkrh gS tc A xfr djuk
can dj nsrh gSA ge mYys[k dj ldrs gS fd
(1) There is a constant current in the counter

clockwise direction in A
(1) A esa okekorZ fn”kk esa fu;r /kkjk gS
(2) There is a constant current in the clockwise
(2) A esa nf{k.kkorZ fn”kk esa fu;r /kkjk gS
direction in A
(3) okekorZ fn”kk esa A eas ifjorhZ /kkjk gS
(3) There is a varying current in A in counter
clockwise direction (4) A esa dksbZ /kkjk ugha gS
(4) There is no current in A 8. ,d fuf”pr {ks= esa le:i pqEcdh; {ks=
8. A uniform magnetic field in a certain region is le; (t) ds lkFk B = Bo cos ( t ) kˆ ds vuqlkj
varying with time (t) as B = Bo cos ( t ) kˆ and a coil ifjorhZ gS rFkk f=T;k a rFkk izfrjks/k R dh ,d
of radius a with resistance R is placed in the x – y dq.Myh dks x – y ry esa bl izdkj j[kk tkrk gS fd
plane with its centre at the origin in the magnetic bldk dsanz fp= eas n”kkZ, vuqlkj pqEcdh; {ks= esa
field as shown in figure. The magnitude of current 
ewyfcanq ij gSA t = ij dq.Myh esa /kkjk dk
 2
in the coil at t = will be
2 ifjek.k gksxkA
(2) @AakashDelhi02
B0 a2 2B0 a2 B0 a2 2B0 a2

(1) (2) (1) (2)
2R R 2R R
B a2 B0 a2
(3) 0 (4) Zero (3) (4) 'kwU;
R R
9. pqEcdh; ¶yDl izfrjks/k 5  dh dq.Myh ls ifjofrZr
9. Magnetic flux is changed through a coil of
resistance 5 . As a result, an induced current is
gksrk gSA ifj.kkeLo:i] izsfjr /kkjk bleas mRiUUk gksrh
developed in it, which varies with time as shown in gS] tks fp= esa n”kkZ, vuqlkj le; ds lkFk ifjofrZr
the figure. The magnitude of net change in flux gksrh gSA dq.Myh ls izokfgr ¶yDl esa usV ifjorZu
through the coil in Wb is dk ifjek.k (Wb eas) gS
(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) 2 (2) 3

(3) 1 (4) 6
(3) 1 (4) 6
10. nks dq.Mfy;ksa esa ?ksjs Øe”k% 5 rFkk 10 gS] bUgs ,d
10. Two coils of turns 5 and 10 respectively are kept nwljs ds fudV j[kk x;k gSA igyh dq.Myh ls
close to each other. Current passing through the
first is reduced at rate r, and emf 6 mV is
izokfgr /kkjk nj r ls de gksrh gS] rFkk fo-ok-c-
developed across the other coil. If second coil 6 mV nwljh dq.Myh ds fljksa ij mRiUUk gksrk gSA
carries current which is reduced at the rate 2r, the ;fn f}rh; dq.Myh /kkjk xzg.k fd, gq, gS tks nj 2r
emf induced across the first coil will be ls de gksrh gS] igyh dq.Myh ds fljksa ij izsfjr fo-
(1) 6 mV (2) 3 mV ok-c- gksxh
(3) 9 mV (4) 12 mV (1) 6 mV (2) 3 mV
(3) 9 mV (4) 12 mV
11. Two circular coil can be arranged in any of three
situation as shown in figure. Their mutual 11. nks o`Ùkh; dq.Myh dks fp= esa n”kkZ, vuqlkj fdUgha
inductance will be Hkh rhu fLFkfr;ksa esa O;ofLFkr fd;k x;k gSA budk
vU;ksU; izsjdRo gksxk
(1) Minimum in situation (B)

(1) fLFkfr (B) esa U;wure
(2) Minimum in situation (C)
(2) fLFkfr (C) eas U;wure
(3) Minimum in situation (A)
(3) fLFkfr (A) esa U;wure
(4) Same in all situation (4) lHkh fLFkfr;ksa esa leku
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12. Two inductors connected in parallel are equivalent 12. lekUrj esa la;ksftr nks izsjd izsjdRo 2 H ds ,dy
to a single inductor of inductance
2 H. When connected in series the inductors are
izsjd ds rqY; gSaA tc Js.kh esa la;kftr fd;k tkrk
equivalent to a inductor of inductance of 9 H. The gS çsjd 9 H ds izsjdRo ds izsjd ds rqY; gSA buds
difference in their respective inductances is laxr izsjdRo esa varj gSA (vU;ksU; izsjdRo dks ux.;
(neglect mutual inductances) ekfu,)
(1) 2 H (2) 4 H (1) 2 H (2) 4 H
(3) 6 H (4) 3 H (3) 6 H (4) 3 H
13. A metal rod of length 2 m is rotating about its end 13. yEckbZ 2 m dh ,d /kkfRod NM+ dks blds fljs ds
with an angular velocity of 100 rad/s in a plane lkis{k dks.kh; osx 100 rad/s ls B ds le:i
perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of B. If
the potential difference between the end of the
pqEcdh; {ks= ds yEcor~ ry eas ?kqek;k tkrk gSA ;fn
rod is 60 V. Then magnitude of magnetic field B NM+ ds fljksa ds eè; foHkokUrj 60 V gSA rc
will be pqEcdh; {ks= B dk ifjek.k gksxk
(1) 1 T (2) 0.6 T (1) 1 T (2) 0.6 T
(3) 2 T (4) 0.3 T (3) 2 T (4) 0.3 T
14. The current carrying wire and the rod AB are in 14. /kkjkokgh rkj rFkk NM+ AB leku ry esa gSaA NM+ rkj
the same plane. The rod moves perpendicular to ds yEcor~ fp= eas n”kkZ, vuqlkj osx v ls xfr
the wire with velocity v as shown in figure. Which djrh gSA NM+ eas izsfjr fo-ok-c- ds lanHkZ eas
one of the following statements is true about
induced emf in the rod?
fuEufyf[kr eas ls dkSUklk dFku lgh gS\
(1) End A will be at higher potential with respect

(1) fljk A, fljs B ds lkis{k mPp foHko ij gksxk
to end B (2) fljk A, fljs B ds lkis{k fuEu foHko ij gksxk
(2) End A will be at lower potential with respect to (3) NM esa dksbZ Hkh fo-ok-c- çsfjr ugha gksxk
end B
(4) fljk A rFkk B leku foHko ij gksx a s
(3) There will be no induced emf in the rod
15. fp= esa n”kkZ, vuqlkj fLop dks can djus ds ckn
(4) End A and B will be at same potential
izsjd esa laxzfgr pqEcdh; ÅtkZ gkssxh
15. The magnetic energy stored in the inductor long
after switch is closed as shown in figure will be
(1) 8 J (2) 16 J
(3) 4 J (4) 12 J
(1) 8 J (2) 16 J
16. ;fn /kkjk dks vk/kk fd;k tk;s] rc fdlesa fo{ksi.k
(3) 4 J (4) 12 J
vk/kk ugha gksxk\
16. If the current is halved, then the deflection is not
(1) ,d Li”kZjs[kh; xsYosuksehVj
halved in
(1) A tangent galvanometer (2) ,d xfreku dq.Myh xsYosuksehVj
(2) A moving coil galvanometer (3) Li”kZj[ s kh; rFkk xfreku dq.Myh xsYosuksehVj
(3) Both tangent and moving coil galvanometer nksuksa
(4) None of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
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17. A small bar magnet of magnetic moment 17. pqEcdh; vk?kw.kZ 1.44 A m2 ds ,d NksVs NM+ pqEcd
1.44 A m2 is placed horizontally with the north pole dks {kSfrt :i ls bl izdkj j[kk tkrk gS fd mÙkjh
pointing towards magnetic north. The position of
the neutral point if the horizontal component of /kzqo pqEcdh; mÙkj dh vksj IokbafVx gSA ;fn i`Foh
earth’s magnetic field is 18 T ds pqEcdh; {ks= dk {kSfrt ?kVd 18 T gS rc
(1) At a distance 10 cm on the axial line
mnklhu fcanq dh fLFkfr gS
(2) At a distance 20 cm on the equitorial line (1) v{kh; js[kk ij 10 cm nwjh ij
(3) At a distance 10 cm on the equitorial line (2) fo’kqoÙkh; js[kk ij 20 cm nwjh ij
(4) At a distance 20 cm on the axial line (3) fo’kqoÙkh; js[kk ij 10 cm nwjh ij
18. The permanent magnetic moment of the atom of a (4) v{kh; js[kk ij 20 cm nwjh ij
material is zero. The material
18. ,d inkFkZ ds ijek.kq dk LFkk;h pqEcdh; vk?kw.kZ
(1) Must be paramagnetic
“kwU; gSA inkFkZ
(2) Must be diamagnetic
(1) vuqpqEcdh; gS
(3) Must be ferromagnetic
(2) izfrPkqEcdh; gS
(4) May be paramagnetic
19. A conducting rod is moved with a constant (3) ykSgpqEcdh; gS
velocity v in a magnetic field. Among the (4) vuqpqEcdh; gks ldrk gS
following cases a potential difference appears 19. ,d pkyd NM+ pqEcdh; {ks= eas fu;r osx v ls xfr
across the two ends. (symbols have usual
djrh gSA fuEufyf[kr fLFkfr;ksa esa nks fljksa ij
meaning)
foHkokUrj izrhr gksrk gS] ;fn (ladsrksa ds lkekU; vFkZ
(1) If v l (2) If v B gS)
(3) If (v  B ) l (4) If (v  B ) ⊥ l (1) v l (2) v B
20. The ratio of primary to secondary turns in a (3) (v  B ) l (4) (v  B ) ⊥ l
transformer is 2 : 5. If the input power be P, then
the output power, neglecting all losses, will be 20. ,d Vªkl
a QkeZj esa izkFkfed rFkk f}rh; dq.Mfy;ksa dk
equal to vuqikr 2 : 5 gSA ;fn fuos”kh “kfDr P gS] rc fuxZr
(1) 2.5P (2) 2P “kfDr gksxh] lHkh gkfu;ksa dks ux.; ekfu;sA
(3) P (4) 1.5P (1) 2.5P (2) 2P
21. When the current in the portion of the circuit as (3) P (4) 1.5P
shown in the figure is 4 A and increasing at the 21. tc /kkjk fp= eas n”kkZ, vuqlkj ifjiFk ds Hkkx esa
rate 2 A/s, then the measured potential difference 4 A gS rFkk 2 A/s nj ls c<+rh gS] rc a rFkk b ds
across a and b (Vb – Va) is 12 V. However, when fljksa ij ekfir foHkokUrj (Vb – Va), 12 V gSA
the current is 4 A and decreasing at the rate of gkykafd] tc /kkjk 4 A gS rFkk 2 A/s dh nj ls de
2 A/s, then the measured potential difference
gksrh gS] rc a rFkk b ds fljksa ij ekfir foHkokUrj
across a and b (Vb – Va) is 8 V. The value of R
(Vb – Va), 8 V gSA R rFkk L ds eku gSa
and L are
(1) 2.5  and 1 H respectively

(1) Øe”k% 2.5  rFkk 1 H
(2) 5  and 2 H respectively (2) Øe”k% 5  rFkk 2 H

(5) @AakashDelhi02
22. A solenoid has a core of material with relative 22. ,d ifjukfydk eas lkisf{kd pqEcd”khyrk 400 okys
permeability 400. The winding of the solenoid are inkFkZ dk ØksM gSA ifjukfydk ds ?ksjs
insulated from the core and carry a current (okbfMax) ØksM ls dqpkfyr gSa rFkk 4 A /kkjk xzg.k
4 A. If the number of turns is 2000 per metre. The
value magnetic field B inside the solenoid is
fd, gq, gSaA ;fn ?ksjksa dh la[;k 2000 izfr ehVj gSA
nearly ifjukfydk ds vanj pqEcdh; {ks= B dk eku yxHkx
(1) 1 T (2) 4 T
gS
(1) 1 T (2) 4 T
(3) 2 T (4) 6 T
(3) 2 T (4) 6 T
23. As the frequency of an A.C. series circuit
increases, the current first increase, attains an 23. ,d A.C. Js.kh ifjiFk dh vko`fÙk dks tSls gh c<+krs
extremely high value, and then decreases. What gS] /kkjk igys c<+rh gS] ije :i ls mPp eku izkIr
combination of circuit elements is most likely to djrh gS rRi”pkr~ ?kVrh gSA ifjiFk vo;oksa dk
comprise the circuit?
dkSulk la;qDr ifjiFk esa lEHkkfor :i ls lfEefyr
(1) Inductor and capacitor only gS\
(2) Resistor and inductor only (1) dsoy izsjd rFkk la/kkfj=
(3) Resistor and capacitor only
(2) dsoy izfrjks/kd rFkk izsjd
(4) Only resistor
(3) dsoy izfrjks/kd rFkk la/kkfj=
24. An inductor of reactance 3  and a resistor of
(4) dsoy izfrjks/kd
4  are connected in series to the terminal of
10 V (r.m.s) A.C. source. The power dissipated in 24. izfr?kkr 3  ds izsjd rFkk 4  ds izfrjks/kd dks
the circuit is 10 V (r.m.s) A.C. Lkzksr ds VfeZuy ls Js.kh esa
(1) 8 W (2) 12 W la;ksftr fd;k tkrk gS ifjiFk eas O;f;r “kfDr gSA
(3) 20 W (4) 16 W (1) 8 W (2) 12 W
25. A pure inductor of 50.0 mH is connected to a (3) 20 W (4) 16 W
source of 220 V. If the frequency of the source is 25. 50.0 mH ds “kq) izsjd dks 220 V ds lzkrs ls
50 HZ. Then r.m.s current in the circuit is nearly
la;ksftr fd;k tkrk gSA ;fn lzkrs dh vko`fÙk
(1) 28 A (2) 14 A 50 HZ gSA rc ifjiFk esa r.m.s /kkjk yxHkx gSA
(3) 12 A (4) 24 A (1) 28 A (2) 14 A
1 (3) 12 A (4) 24 A
26. The power factor of an R – L circuit is
. If the
3 1
frequency of A.C is doubled. Then new power
26. ,d R – L ifjiFk dk “kfDr xq.kkad gSA ;fn
3
factor of the R – L circuit will be
A.C dh vko`fÙk dks nksxquk fd;k tkrk gSA rc R–L
(1)
1
(2)
1 ifjiFk dk uohu “kfDr xq.kkad gksxk
3 3
1 1
(1) (2)
1 1 3 3
(3) (4)
2 2 1 1
(3) (4)
27. In an L – C – R series AC circuit at resonance 2 2
(1) Power dissipated is minimum 27. ,d L – C – R Js.kh AC ifjiFk es vuqukn ij
(2) Power dissipated is maximum (1) O;f;r “kfDr U;wure gS
(3) The capacitive reactance is more than (2) O;f;r “kfDr vf/kdre gS
inductive reactance
(3) /kkfjrh; izfr?kkr izsjdh; izfr?kkr ls vf/kd gS
(4) The capacitive reactance is less than
inductive reactance (4) /kkfjrh; izfr?kkr izsjdh; izfr?kkr ls de gS
(6) @AakashDelhi02
28. A complex current wave is given by 28. ,d tfVy /kkjk rjax dks i = (8 + 12 sin100t) A
i = (8 + 12 sin100t) A. Its average value over one
}kjk fn;k x;k gSA ,d vkorZdky ij bldk vkSlr
time period is given as
eku gS
(1) 14 A (2) 10 A
(1) 14 A (2) 10 A
(3) 8 A (4) Zero
(3) 8 A 'kwU;
(4)
29. The voltage across a capacitor is represented as
shown in figure. Which one of the following curves 29. ,d la/kkfj= ds fljksa ij oksYVrk fp= esa n”kkZ,
in the figure will represent the corresponding vuqlkj iznf”kZr gSA fp= esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk
current? oØ laxr /kkjk dks iznf”kZr djsxk\
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(4)
30. fp= Js.kh L, C, R ifjiFk esa vko`fÙk f ds lkFk

30. The figure shows variation of R, XL and XC with
R, XL rFkk XC ds ifjorZu dks n”kkZrk gS] rc fdl
frequency f in a series L, C, R circuit, then for what
frequency point the circuit is essentially capacitive vko`fÙk fcanq ds fy, ifjiFk vko”;d :i ls /kkfjrh;
gS\
(1) A
(1) A
(2) C
(2) C
(3) B (3) B
(4) Both (A) and (C) (4) (A) rFkk (C) nksuksa
(7) @AakashDelhi02
31. Among the following set of values of resistance (R), 31. izfrjks/k (R), izsjdRo (L) rFkk /kkfjrk (C) ds ekuksa ds
inductance (L) and capacitance (C), the quality
fuEufyf[kr lewgksa esa ls] fdlds fy, xq.koÙkk xq.kkad
factor is minimum for
U;wure gS
(1) R = 4, L = 1 H, C = 64 F
(1) R = 4, L = 1 H, C = 64 F
(2) R = 4, L = 1 H, C = 1 F
(2) R = 4, L = 1 H, C = 1 F
(3) R = 8, L = 1 H, C = 64 F
(3) R = 8, L = 1 H, C = 64 F
(4) R = 8, L = 1 H, C = 1 F (4) R = 8, L = 1 H, C = 1 F
32. The self-inductance of the motor of an electric fan 32. ,d fo|qr ia[ks dh eksVj dk Lo izsjdRo 12 H gSA
is 12 H. In order to impart maximum power at 60 60 HZ ij vf/kdre “kfDr iznku djus ds fy, bls
HZ it Should be connected to the capacitance of
fdl /kkfjrk ds la/kkfj= ls la;ksftr djuk pkfg,\
(1) 30 F (2) 70 F
(1) 30 F (2) 70 F
(3) 0.587 F (4) 28.6 F (3) 0.587 F (4) 28.6 F
33. An alternating voltage V = 60 sin 50t + 80 cos 50t 33. ,d izR;korhZ oksYVrk V = 60 sin 50t + 80 cos 50t
is applied to a resistor of resistance 10 . The
dks izfrjks/k 10  ds izfrjks/kd ij vkjksfir fd;k
r.m.s value of current through the resistor is
tkrk gSA izfrjks/kd ls izokfgr /kkjk dk r.m.s eku gS
(1) 5 2 A (2) 10 A
(1) 5 2 A (2) 10 A
5 5
(3) A (4) 10 2A (3) A (4) 10 2A
2 2
34. An ac source rated 50 V (rms) supplies a current 34. vadu 50 V (rms) okyk ,d A.C lzksr ,d ifjiFk dks
of 10 A (rms) to a circuit. The average power
10 A (rms) dh /kkjk lIykbZ djrk gSA lzkrs }kjk
delivered by the source
iznku vkSlr “kfDr gS
(1) Must be 500 W
(1) 500 W gksxh
(2) Must be less than 500 W
(2) 500 W ls de gksxh
(3) May be greater than 500 W
(3) 500 W ls vf/kd gks ldrh gS
(4) May be less than 500 W
(4) 500 W ls de gks ldrh gS
35. A capacitor of capacity C is given charge Q and
then connected to the coil of inductance L by 35. /kkfjrk C ds la/kkfj= dks vkos”k Q fn;k x;k gS]
closing the switch. The maximum current flowing rRi”pkr~ fLop dks can djds izsjdRo L dh dq.Myh
in the circuit at any later time will be ls la;ksftr fd;k tkrk gS] fdlh ckn ds le; ij
Q Q ifjiFk esa izokfgr vf/kdre /kkjk gksxh
(1) (2)
LC 2 LC Q Q
(1) (2)
2Q 2Q LC 2 LC
(3) (4)
LC  LC (3)
2Q
(4)
2Q
LC  LC
36. A charged capacitor is discharged through a
resistance R with time constant . Both are now 36. ,d vkosf”kr la/kkfj= dks dkykad  esa izfrjks/k R ls
placed in series across an AC source of angular fujkosf”kr fd;k tkrk gSA nksuksa dks vc dks.kh;
1 1
frequency  = . The impedance of the circuit vko`fÙk = ds AC lzkrs ds fljks ij Js.kh esa
2 2
will be j[kk tkrk gSA ifjiFk dh izfrckèkk gksxh
(1) R (2) 3R (1) R (2) 3R
(3) 5R (4) 2R (3) 5R (4) 2R
(8) @AakashDelhi02
37. The graph representing the variation of induced 37. dkSulk vkjs[k o`Ùkh; IysVksa okys lekUrj IysV
magnetic field (B) in the gap of parallel plate
condenser with circular plates during its charging
la/kkfj= ds varjky esa izsfjr pqEcdh; {ks= (B) dk
with the distance (r) from the axis of the gap is ifjorZu rFkk blds vkos”ku ds nkSjku varjky ds v{k
ls nwjh (r) dks n”kkZrk gS\
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
38. The voltage between the plates of a parallel plate

condenser of capacity 1 F is changing at a rate 38. /kkfjrk 1 F ds ,d lekUrj IysV la/kkfj= dh IysVksa
of 5 V/s. The displacement current is ds eè; oksYVrk 5 V/s dh nj ls ifjofrZr gksrh gS
(1) 2.5 A (2) 10 A foLFkkiu /kkjk gS
(3) 1 A (4) 5 A (1) 2.5 A (2) 10 A
(3) 1 A (4) 5 A
39. Light with energy flux 36 W/m2 is incident normally
on a perfectly absorbing square surface of side 2 39. ÅtkZ ¶yDl 36 W/m2 okyk izdk”k Hkqtk 2 m ds ,d
m. The force experienced by it is iw.kZr% vo”kks’kd oxkZdkj lrg ij yEcor~ :i ls
(1) 0.48 N (2) 0.24 N vkifrr gksrk gSA blds }kjk vuqHko cy gS
(3) 0.12 N (4) 0.36 N (1) 0.48 N (2) 0.24 N
(3) 0.12 N (4) 0.36 N
40. An LC oscillation circuit contains inductance
L = 0.25 H and capacitance C = 0.01 F. The 40. ,d LC nksyu ifjiFk esa izsjdRo L = 0.25 H
rFkk
wavelength of electromagnetic wave generated /kkfjrk C = 0.01 F lfEefyr gSaA mRiUUk
nearly fo|qrpqEcdh; rjax dh rjaxnSè;Z yxHkx gS
(1) 188 m (2) 30 m (1) 188 m (2) 30 m
(3) 60 m (4) 94 m (3) 60 m (4) 94 m
41. The ratio of contributions made by the electric

41. ,d fo|qrpqEcdh; rjax dh rhozrk esa fo|qr {ks= rFkk
field and magnetic field component to the intensity pqEcdh; {ks= ?kVdksa }kjk iznku ;ksxnku dk vuqikr
of an EM wave is gS
(1) c : 1 (2) c2 : 1 (1) c : 1 (2) c2 : 1
(3) 1 : 1 (4) c :1 (3) 1 : 1 (4) c :1
42. Which among the following are true for gamma

42. fuEUkfyf[kr esa ls dkSulk xkek fdj.kksa ds fy, lgh
rays? gS\
(1) They show fluoroscence (1) ;s izfrnhfIr n”kkZrs gSa
(2) They are used in cancer therapy (2) budk mi;ksx dSalj mipkj esa gksrk gS
(3) They have a high penetrating power (3) budh Hksnu {kerk mPPk gksrh gS
(4) All of the above (4) mijksDr lHkh
43. The amplitude of magnetic field in a region carried 43. ,d fo|qrpqEcdh; rjax }kjk uhr fdlh {ks= esa
by an electromagnetic wave is 0.2 T. The pqEcdh; {ks= dk ifjek.k 0.2 T gSA rjax dh rhozrk
intensity of the wave is nearly YkxHkx gS
(1) 2.4 W/m2 (2) 4.8 W/m2 (1) 2.4 W/m2 (2) 4.8 W/m2
(3) 1.2 W/m2 (4) 3.6 W/m2 (3) 1.2 W/m2 (4) 3.6 W/m2
(9) @AakashDelhi02
44. Radiation pressure on any surface : 44. fdlh Hkh lrg ij fofdj.k nkc
(1) Is dependent on wavelength of light used only (1) dsoy iz;qDr izdk”k dh rjaxnSè;Z ij fuHkZj
djrk gS
(2) Is independent of frequency and nature of
(2) vko`fÙk rFkk lrg dh izÑfr ij fuHkZj ugha
surface
djrk gS
(3) Independent on the nature of source from (3) lzkr
s ftlls izdk”k vkrk gS] dh izÑfr rFkk
which light is coming and on nature of surface lrg ftl ij ;g fxjrh gS] ij fuHkZj ugha
on which it is falling djrk gS
(4) Is dependent on nature of surface and (4) lrg dh izÑfr rFkk iz;qDr izdk”k dh rhozrk
intensity of light used ij fuHkZj djrh gS
45. An EM wave transport energy along +ve x-axis. If 45. ,d fo|qrpqEcdh; rjax /kukRed x-v{k ds vuqfn”k
at any instant magnetic field vector is along ÅtkZ LFkkukUrfjr djrh gSA ;fn fdlh {k.k ij
+ve z–axis. The electric field vector at this instant pqEcdh; {ks= lfn”k /kukRed z–v{k ds avuqfn”k gS]
along rc bl {k.k ij fo|qr {ks= lfn”k fdlds vuqfn”k
(1) +ve x-axis (2) –ve y-axis
gksxk\
(1) /kukRed x-v{k (2) _.kkRed y-v{k
(3) +ve y-axis (4) –ve x-axis (3) /kukRed y-v{k (4) _.kkRed x-v{k
46. Among the following strongest nucleophile in 46. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ok’Ik izkoLFkk esa izcyre
vapour phase is ukfHkdLusgh gS\
(1) F− (2) Cl− (1) F− (2) Cl−
(3) Br − (4) I− (3) Br − (4) I−
47. Salicylic acid on treatment with phenol in acidic 47. vEyh; ek/;e es lSfyflfyd vEy dks QhukWy ds
medium gives lkFk mipkfjr djus ij izkIr gksrk gS
(1) Oil of wintergreen (1) foUVjxzhu dk rsy
(2) Aspirin (2) ,sfLifju
(3) Salol (3) lSykWy
(4) Mesityloxide (4) esflfVyvkWDlkbM
48. Which alcohol does not give colour in Victor 48. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,YdksgkWy foDVj es;j
Meyer test?
ijh{k.k ugha nsrk\
(1)
(1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
(10)@AakashDelhi02
49. Which ether is most difficult to cleave by HI 49. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSuls bZFkj dks HI }kjk fonfyr
djuk vR;f/kd dfBu gS\
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4)
50. Glycerol on treatment with excess of HI finally (4)
gives 50. fXyljkWy dks HI ds vkf/kD; ds lkFk mipkfjr djus
(1) (2)
ij var esa izkIr gksrk gS
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
51. The reaction,
51. uhps nh x;h vfHkfØ;k dgykrh gS
is known as
(1) Fittig reaction (1) fQfVx vfHkfØ;k
(2) Swarts reaction (2) LokV~Zl vfHkfØ;k
(3) Wurtz-Fittig reaction
(3) oqV~Zt&fQfVx vfHkfØ;k
(4) Ullmann reaction
(4) myeku vfHkfØ;k
52. The major product (A) in the following reaction is
52. fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;k esa eq[; mRikn (A) gS
(1)
(1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
@AakashDelhi02
(11)
53. Most acidic compound among the following is 53. fuEufyf[kr esa ls vR;f/kd vEyh; ;kSfxd gS
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
54. Which of the following is called westrosol? 54. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdldks osLVªkl
s kWy dgk tkrk gS\
(1) (1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(4)
55. ,fFky eSXuhf”k;e DyksjkbM rFkk QhukWy dh
55. When ethyl magnesium chloride reacts with
phenol, the product obtained is
vfHkfØ;k ij izkIr mRikn gS
(1) Benzene (2) Ethane (1) csUthu (2) ,Fksu
(3) Ethylbenzene (4) Ethanol (3) ,fFkycsUthu (4) ,FksukWy

56. Optically active compound among the following is 56. fuEufyf[kr eas ls izdkf”kd lfØ; ;kSfxd gS
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(4)
57. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl vfHkfØ;k esa u;k C – C cU/k
57. In which reactions, new C – C bond formation
take(s) place? fuekZ.k gksrk gS\
(1) Swarts reaction (1) LokV~Zl vfHkfØ;k
(2) Finkelstein reaction (2) fQadsyLVhu vfHkfØ;k
(3) Reimer Tiemann reaction (3) jkbej&fVeku vfHkfØ;k
(4) Both (2) and (3) (4) (2) o (3) nksuksa
@AakashDelhi02
(12)
58. Glycerol on oxidation with periodic acid gives 58. ijvk;ksfMd vEy }kjk fXyljkWy fXyljkWy ds
(1) Methanal (2) Formic acid
vkWDlhdj.k ij izkIr gksrk gS
(3) Acetaldehyde (4) Both (1) and (2) (1) esFksuSy (2) QkWfeZd vEy
59. Select the correct statement among the following (3) ,slhsVsfYMgkbM (4) (1) o (2) nksuksa
(1) SN1 reaction is favoured by polar aprotic 59. fuEufyf[kr esa ls lgh dFku dk p;u dhft,
solvent (1) SN1 vfHkfØ;k /kzqoh; ,iksfVd foyk;d }kjk
(2) SN 2 reaction is favoured by polar protic vqudwy gS
solvent (2) SN 2 vfHkfØ;k /kzqoh; izkfs Vd foyk;d }kjk
(3) SN 2 reaction is accompanied by retention of vqudwy gS
configuration (3) SN 2 vfHkfØ;k gksus esa foU;kl cuk jgrk gS
(4) SN 2 reaction passes through a transition (4) SN 2 vfHkfØ;k laØe.k voLFkk ls xqtjrh gS
state
60. SN 2 vfHkfØ;k ds izfr vR;f/kd fØ;k”khy ;kSfxd gS
60. Most reactive compound towards SN 2 reaction is
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
61. fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;k ij fopkj dhft,
61. Consider the following reaction
eq[; mRikn (A) gS

Major product (A) is
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
62. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,YdksgkWy d{k rki ij

62. Which alcohol will give a white turbidity in 5- 10 ywdkWl vfHkdeZd ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k ij 5- 10 feuV
minutes on reaction with Lucas reagent at room
temperature?
ckn lQsn xanykiu nsxk\
(1) Pentan–1–ol (1) isUVsu–1–vkWy
(2) 2–methylbutan–2–ol (2) 2–esfFkyC;wVu
s –2–vkWy
(3) 3–methylbutan –1–ol (3) 3–esfFkyC;wVu
s –1–vkWy
(4) Pentan–2–ol (4) isUVsu–2–vkWy
(13)
@AakashDelhi02
63. In the given reaction sequence product (B) is 63. fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;k vuqØe esa mRikn (B) gS
(CH3 )3CO-Na+
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ Δ
→ A(Major) (CH ) CO-Na+
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
3 3
→ A(e[
q ;)
Δ
(i) (CH COO) Hg/CH OH

⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
3 2
(ii) NaBH /OH
3
→B(Major) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
3 2 3
→B(e[
q ;)
(i) (CH COO) Hg/CH OH
4 (ii) NaBH /OH4
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
64. Total number of optically active compound(s) 64. uhps nh xbZ vfHkfØ;k esa izkIr izdkf”kd lfØ;
formed in the given reaction is/are ;kSfxdksa dh dqy la[;k gS
,
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 0 (3) 3 (4) 0
65. Which among the following compound react 65. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ;kSfxd SN1 vfHkfØ;k ds
fastest by SN1 mechanism?
}kjk rhozrk ls vfHkfØ;k djrk gS\
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
66. Chloroform reacts with aq. KOH to form which of 66. DyksjksQkWeZ rFkk tyh; KOH dh vfHkfØ;k ij dkSulk
the following compound? ;kSfxd izkIr gksrk gS\
(1) Phosgene (2) Ethanol (1) QkWLthu (2) ,FksukWy
(3) Acetaldehyde (4) Potassium formate (3) ,slhVsfYgkbM (4) iksVSf”k;e QkWeZsV
67. Raschig process is used for the commercial 67. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlds O;kolkf;d fojpu ds fy,
preparation of
jkf”kx izØe dk mi;ksx gksrk gS\
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
@AakashDelhi02
(14)
68. The configuration of the compound 68. ;kSfxd dk foU;kl gS

is
(1) R (2) S
(1) R (2) S
(3) E (4) Z
(3) E (4) Z 69. lkbDyksizkis su ds Mkbczksehuhdj.k ij izkIr
69. Number of isomers obtained (including leko;fo;ksa ¼f=foe leko;o lfgr½ dh la[;k gS
stereoisomers) on dibromination of cyclopropane
(1) 1 (2) 2
is/are
(3) 3 (4) 4
(1) 1 (2) 2
70. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdldk ?kuRo U;wure gS\
(3) 3 (4) 4
(1) CH3 I (2) CH3Br
70. Minimum density among the following is of
(3) CH3F (4) H2O
(1) CH3 I (2) CH3Br
71. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk mHk;nUrqd ukfHkdLusgh ds
(3) CH3F (4) H2O :i esa dk;Z dj ldrk gS\
71. Which can act ambident nucleophile? (1) OH− (2) NH3
(1) OH− (2) NH3 (3) CN− (4) Cl−
(3) CN− (4) Cl− 72. xzwo izØe esa iz;qDr vfHkdeZd gS
(1) futZy ZnCl2 dh mifLFkfr esa HCl
72. In Groove’s process, the reagent used is
(1) HCl in presence of anhy. ZnCl2 (2) fifjMhu dh mifLFkfr esa SOCl2
(2) SOCl2 in presence of pyridine

(3) lkUnz H2SO4 dh mifLFkfr esa NaBr
(4) 95% H3PO4 esa KI
(3) NaBr in presence of conc. H2SO4
73. ,Fksu ds izfr gSykstu dh fØ;k”khyrk dk Øe gS
(4) KI in 95% H3PO4
(1) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2
73. The reactivity order of halogens towards ethane is
(2) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
(1) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2 (2) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
(3) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
(3) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 (4) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2 (4) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2
74. Presence of which of the following group makes 74. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl lewg dh mifLFkfr ls ,fjy
aryl halides more suspectable to nucleophilic
gSykbM ukfHkdLusgh izfrLFkkiu ds çfr vf/kd lqxzkgh
substitution?
gks tkrs gS \
(1) –CF3 (2) –CH3
(1) –CF3 (2) –CH3
(3) –Cl (4) –OH (3) –Cl (4) –OH
75. The product obtained by the action of PCl5 on 75. ,lhVksu ij PCl5 dh fØ;k }kjk izkIr mRikn gS
acetone is
(1) ClCH2COCH2Cl (2) CH3COCHCl2
(1) ClCH2COCH2Cl (2) CH3COCHCl2
(3) CH3CCl2CHO (4) CH3CCl2CH3
(3) CH3CCl2CHO (4) CH3CCl2CH3
76. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlesa ijkWDlkbM izHkko izsf{kr ugha
76. Peroxide effect is not observed in gksrk gS\
(1) Propylene (2) Ethene (1) izkfs iyhu (2) ,Fkhu
(3) Pent–1–ene (4) Isobutylene (3) isUV–1–bZu (4) vkblksC;wfVyhu
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77. 1°–Alcohol can be obtained by the action of 77. CH3CH2MgBr ij fdldh fØ;k }kjk rFkk ckn esa
____on CH3CH2MgBr followed by hydrolysis tyvi?kVu ij 1°–,YdksgkWy izkIr gks ldrk gS\
(1) Dry O2 (2) Ethylene oxide
(1) “kq’d O2 (2) ,fFkyhu vkWDlkbM
(3) Methanal (4) All of these
(3) esFksuy (4) buesa ls lHkh
78. The major product(A) in the following reaction is
78. fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;k esa izkIr eq[; mRikn (A) gS
(1) CH3 – CH = CH2 (2) CH2 = CH2

(1) CH3 – CH = CH2 (2) CH2 = CH2
(3) CHCH (4) CH2=C=CH2
(3) CHCH (4) CH2=C=CH2
79. When phenol is treated with Br2 in solvents of low
79. tc QhukWy dks de rki ij de /kzqork ds foyk;d
polarity such as CS2 at low temperature, ____
phenol are obtain
tSls CS2 esa Br2 ds lkFk mipkfjr fd;k tkrk gSA rc
____ QhukWy izkIr gksrs gSA
(1) Monosubstituted
(2) Disubstituted
(1) ,ddizfrLFkkfir (2) f}izfrLFkkfir
(3) Trisubstituted (3) f=izfrLFkkfir (4) prq’dizfrLFkkfir
(4) Tetrasubstituted 80. fiukdkWy dh fiukdksyksu iqufoZU;kl ds nkSjku lewgksa

80. The correct order of relative ease of migration of ds vfHkxeu ds lkisf{kd lqxerk dk lgh Øe gS
groups during pinacol to pinacolone (1) Ph > Me3C > MeCH2 > Me
rearrangement is
(2) Me > MeCH2 > Me3C > Ph
(1) Ph > Me3C > MeCH2 > Me
(3) Ph > Me > MeCH2 > Me3C
(2) Me > MeCH2 > Me3C > Ph
(4) Me3C > MeCH2 > Me > Ph
(3) Ph > Me > MeCH2 > Me3C
81. mPp rki (430 K ;k blds Åij) Qsfuy ,lhVsV dks
(4) Me3C > MeCH2 > Me > Ph futZy AlCl3 dh mifLFkfr esa xeZ djus ij ;g iqu%
81. Phenyl acetate on heating at higher temperature O;ofLFkr gksdj nsrk gS
(430 K or above) in presence of anhy AlCl3
(1) o-gkbMªkWDlh,lhVksQhukWu
rearranges to form
(2) o-gkbMªkWDlhcsUtksQhukWu
(1) o-hydroxyacetophenone
(2) o-hydroxybenzophenone (3) o-gkbMªkWDlhesfFkycsUtks,V
(3) o-hydroxymethylbenzoate (4) p-gkbMªkWDlhesfFkycsUtks,V

(4) p-hydroxymethylbenzoate 82. (A) ds lanHkZ esa lgh dFku@dFkuksa
82. Select the correct statement(s) regarding
dk p;u dhft,A
(A)
(1) ;g bysDVªkWuLusgh ds izfr MkbesfFky bZFkj dh
(1) It is more reactive than dimethyl ether towards vis{kk ;g vR;f/kd fØ;k”khy gS
electrophiles
(2) vEyh; ek/;e esa ukfHkdLusgh eq[;r% vR;f/kd
(2) Attack of nucleophile in acidic medium izfrLFkkfir dkcZu ij vkØe.k djrk gS
preferably occurs at more substituted carbon
(3) {kkjh; ek/;e esa ukfHkdLusgh eq[;r% de
(3) Attack of nucleophile in basic medium
preferably occurs at less substituted carbon izfrLFkkfir dkcZu ij vkØe.k djrk gS
(4) All of these (4) buesa ls lHkh
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83. The compound which will boil at highest 83. mPpre rki ij dkSulk ;kSfxd mcysxk\
temperature is
(1) HO–CH2CH2–OH
(1) HO–CH2CH2–OH (2) C2H5–O–C2H5
(2) C2H5–O–C2H5 (3) CH2Cl2
(3) CH2Cl2 (4) C2H5OH
(4) C2H5OH 84. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ;kSfxd ty esa vR;f/kd
84. Among the following most soluble compound in foys;”khy gS\
water is (1) DyksjksQkWeZ
(1) Chloroform
(2) ,FksukWy
(2) Ethanol
(3) dkcZu VsVªkDyksjkbM
(3) Carbon tetrachloride
(4) Mkb,fFky bZFkj
(4) Diethyl ether
85. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl ,YdksgkWy ds ok’Ik dks 573 K
85. Which among the following alcohol vapours on ij rIr dkWij ls izokfgr djus ij dhVksu curk gS\
passing over heated copper at 573 K forms
ketone?
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4) 86. MkbesfFky bZFkj esa C – O – C ca/k dk c/k dks.k gS

(1) 109.5° (2) 107.5°
86. The C – O – C bond angle in dimethyl ether is
(3) 111.7° (4) 105.5°
(1) 109.5° (2) 107.5°
87. fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;k vuqØe ij fopkj dhft,
(3) 111.7° (4) 105.5°
87. Consider the following reaction sequence,
fuEufy[kr esa ls lgh dFku@dFkuksa dk p;u

dhft,A
Select the correct statement(s) among the
(1) B dh vlarÌrrk dh dksfV 4 gS
following
(1) The degree of unsaturation of B is 4
(2) ok;q dh mifLFkfr es]a B /khjs&/khjs xgjs jax ds
feJ.k esa vkWDlhd`r gks tkrk gS
(2) In presence of air, B is slowly oxidised to dark
coloured mixture (3) C VkWysu vfHkdeZd ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k ugha djrk
(3) C does not react with tollen’s reagent
gS
88. Polar aprotic solvent(s) among the following is/are 88. fuEufyf[kr esa ls /kqzoh; ,sizksfjd foyk;d gS@gSa
(1) DMSO (1) DMSO
(2) Methanol (2) esFksukWy

(3) Water (3) ty
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89. The compound which is optically inactive is 89. izdkf”kd fuf’Ø; ;kSfxd gS
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
90. The product formed between the reaction of 90. lksfM;e QhukWDlkbM rFkk ,fFky vk;ksMkbM dh
sodium phenoxide and ethyl iodide is vfHkfØ;k esa fufeZr mRikn gS
(1) Phenetole (1) QsuksVkWy
(2) 4–ethyl phenol (2) 4–,fFky QhukWy
(3) 2–ethyl phenol (3) 2–,fFky QhukWy
(4) Anisole (4) ,fulkWy
91. Propagation of large number of plants in very 91. ikniksa dk cgqr de le; esa vf/kd la[;k esa
short duration is called ifjo/kZu djuk D;k dgykrk gS?
(1) Biofortification (1) tSoçcyhdj.k
(2) Micropropagation (2) lq{e ço/kZu
(3) Protoplast fusion
(3) thoæO; lay;u
(4) Somatic hybridisation
(4) dkf;d ladj.k
92. “Sonalika” and “Kalyan sona” are the varieties of
92. “lksukfydk” o “dY;k.k lksuk” fdldh fdLesa gS\
(1) Wheat (2) Rice
(3) Sugarcane (4) Maize
(1) xsgw¡ (2) pkoy
93. ‘Pusa Komal’ developed by hybridisation and (3) xUuk (4) eDdk
selection for disease resistance against bacterial 93. ‘iqlk dksey’ fdldh fdLe gS ftls thok.kqoh;
blight is a variety of
vaxekjh ds fo+:) jksx çfrjks/kdrk ds fy, ladj.k
(1) Chilli rFkk p;u }kjk fodflr fd;k x;k Fkk?
(2) Cauliflower
(1) fepZ (2) QwyxksHkh
(3) Wheat
(3) xsgw¡ (4) yksfc;k
(4) Cowpea
94. vlqesfyr dk p;u dhft,A
94. Select the incorrect match
(1) vkyw – foyafcr vaxekjh
(1) Potato – Late blight
(2) Rice – Loose smut (2) pkoy – 'yFk daM
(3) Sugarcane – Red strip (3) xUuk – yky iêh
(4) Wheat – Brown rust (4) xsgw¡ – Hkwjh fdV
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95. A gene responsible for dwarfing in rice, dee-geo- 95. pkoy esa ckSuis u ds fy, mÙkjnk;h thu Mh-thoks-oks-
woo-gen, was reported in tsu dgk¡ ikbZ tkrh gS\
(1) Taiwan (2) Philippines (1) rkboku (2) fQfyfiUl
(3) India (4) Australia (3) Hkkjr (4) vkWLVªsfy;k
96. Consider the following statements (a-d) and select
96. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa (a-d) ij fopkj dj dsoy lHkh
the option which includes all the correct ones
only. lgh dFkuksa okys fodYiksa dk p;u dhft,A
(a) Wheat variety Atlas 66 with high protein (a) çksVhu dh mPp ek=k okyh xsgw¡ dh fdLe ,Vyl
content has been used as a donor for 66 dk mi;ksx d`"V xsgw¡ dks mUur cukus ds fy,
improving cultivated wheat. nkrk ds :i esa fd;k tkrk gS
(b) SCP is alternative source of proteins for (b) SCP, tarq rFkk ekuo iks"k.k ds fy, çksVhu dk
animal and human nutrition. oSdfYid L=ksr gksrk gS
(c) The capacity to generate a whole plant from
(c) fdlh dksf'kdk@dÙkksrd ls laiq.kZ ikni dks
any cell/explant is called totipotency.
mRiUu djus dh {kerk] iq.kZ'kDrrk dgykrh gS
(d) In tissue culture, the optimum pH should be
7.5. (d) mÙkd lao/kZu esa b"Vre pH 7.5 gksuk pkfg,.
(1) (c) and (d) (1) (c) rFkk (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (b) rFkk (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (3) (b), (c) rFkk (d)
(4) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (c) rFkk (d)
97. Which of the given is vitamin A enriched vegetable 97. IARI, ubZ fnYyh }kjk fodflr dh xbZ foVkfeu A ls
crop developed by IARI, New Delhi?
çpqj lCth dh Qly gS?
(1) Pumpkin
(1) dn~nw (2) VekVj
(2) Tomato
(3) djsyk (4) cFkqvk
(3) Bitter gourd
98. dkf;d ladj.k ds fy, xyr dFku dk p;u
(4) Bathua
dhft,A
98. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. somatic
hybridisation.
(1) ;g leku fdLe ls lacaf/kr nks ikniksa ds
thoæO; dk lay;u gksrk gS
(1) It is fusion of protoplast of two plants
belonging to same variety (2) dksf'kdkvksa dks igys iSfDVust rFkk lsY;wyt
s ls
(2) Cells are first treated with pectinase and
mipkfjr fd;k tkrk gS
cellulase (3) uXu thoæO; dks fo|qr-lay;u ;k jlks&lay;u
(3) Naked protoplast are fused by electrofusion or }kjk layf;r fd;k tkrk gS
chemofusion (4) thoæO; ds jlks-lay;u ds nkSjku PEG ;k
(4) PEG or sodium nitrate are used during lksfM;e ukbVªsV dk mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gS
chemofusion of protoplast
99. çtuu ç;ksx dh lQyrk ds fy, egRoiw.kZ pj.k
99. The crucial step for the success of breeding dkSulk gS?
experiment is
(1) tuuæO; dk laxzg.k
(1) Germplasm collection
(2) tudks dk fu/kkZj.k rFkk p;u
(2) Evaluation and selection of parents
(3) Cross hybridisation (3) ladj ladj.k
(4) Selection and testing of superior recombinants (4) mRd`"V iqu;ksZtdksa dk p;u o ifj{k.k
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100. Match the column I with II and select the correct 100. dkWye I dk dkWye II ds lkFk feyku dj lgh fodYi
option. dk p;u dht,A
Column I Column II dkWye I dkWye II
a. Meristem culture (i) Plants genetically a. foHkT;ksÙkd lao/kZu (i) mÙkd lao/kZu ds
identical to the nkSjku cusa ikni
original plant vkuqoaf'kd :i ls
produced during
okLrfod ikni ds
tissue culture
leku gksrs gSaA
b. Somaclone (ii) Recovery of b. lksekDyksu (ii) jksxxzLr ikniksa ls
healthy plants
from diseased
LoLF; ikniksa dks
plants çkIr fd;k tkrk
gS
c. Domestication (iii) Purposeful
manipulation of c. MksesfLVds'ku (iii) ikni çtkfr;ksa dk
plant species mís'; iw.kZ n{k
ç;ksx djuk
d. Plant breeding (iv) Bringing species
under human d. ikni çtuu (iv) çtkfr;ksa dks ekuo
management çca/ku ds varxZr
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) j[kk tkrk gS
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
101. Cereals are commonly deficient in
101. vuktksa esa lkekU;r% deh gksrh gS
(1) Lysine and cysteine
(1) yk;lhu o flLVhu dh
(2) Lysine and methionine
(2) yk;lhu o esfFkvksuhu dh
(3) Lysine and tryptophan
(3) yk;lhu o fVªIVksQsu dh
(4) Methionine and cysteine
(4) esfFkvksuhu o flLVhu dh
102. In Abelmoschus esculentus, resistance to yellow
102. ,csYeksLdl ,LD;wysUVl esa ihys ekstd s fo"kk.kq ds
mosaic virus was brought about by
çfr çfrjks/kdrk fdl fof/k }kjk çkIr dh xbZ Fkh?
(1) Tissue culture
(1) mÙkd lao/kZu
(2) Conventional breeding
(2) ikjEifjd çtuu
(3) Mutation
(3) mRifjorZu
(4) Biofortification
(4) tSoçcyhdj.k
103. Which of the given characteristics develops
resistance to stem borer in maize? 103. eDds esa fn;k x;k dkSulk y{k.k ruk Nsnd ds fy,
(1) Low nitrogen only

çfrjks/kdrk fodflr djrk gS?
(1) dsoy de ukbVªkt s u
(2) Low aspartic acid and sugar
(2) de ,LikfVZd vEy o 'kdZjk
(3) High aspartic acid only
(3) dsoy vf/kd ,LikfVZd vEy
(4) Low nitrogen, sugar and high aspartic acid
(4) de ukbVªkstu] 'kdZjk rFkk vf/kd ,LikfVZd vEy
104. Sugarcane of North India, i.e., Saccharum barberi
had 104. mÙkjh Hkkjr dk xUuk vFkkZr ldSje ckjcsjh esa
(1) High sugar content (1) 'kdZjk dh mPp ek=k gksrh gS
(2) Thick stem (2) eksVk ruk gksrk gS
(3) Poor sugar content (3) 'kdZjk dh de ek=k gksrh gS
(4) High yield (4) mPp mRikndrk gksrh gS
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105. Find the incorrect match. 105. vlqesfyr dk irk yxkb;s

Variety Resistance to fdLe çfrjks/kd gkssrh gS
(1) Pusa Gaurav – Aphids (1) iwlk xkSjo – ,fQM~l
(2) Pusa Sem 2 – Jassids (2) iwlk lse 2 – tSflM
(3) Pusa Sawani – Aphids (3) iwlk Lokuh – ,fQM~l
(4) Pusa A-4 – Shoot borer (4) iwlk A-4 – çjksg Nsnd
106. The technology of biogas production was 106. Hkkjr esa eq[;r% fdlds ç;klksa ls tSoxSl mRiknu
developed in India mainly due to the efforts of dh rduhd dks fodflr fd;k x;k Fkk?
(1) Ministry of Environment and Forest (1) i;kZoj.k o ou ea=ky;
(2) Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) (2) dsoy Hkkjrh; d`f"k vuqla/kku laLFkku (IARI)
only
(3) dsoy [kknh o xzke m|ksx vk;ksx (KVIC)
(3) Khadi and Village Industries Commission
(4) IARI o KVIC nksuksa
(KVIC) only
107. fuEufyf[kr dkSulk lk;ukscSDVhfj;k] tyh; QuZ dh
(4) Both IARI and KVIC
ifÙk;ksa esa ukbVªkt
s u fLFkj djrk gS?
107. Which of the given cyanobacteria fixes nitrogen in
leaves of water fern? (1) ,sukschuk lk;dsMh
(1) Anabaena cycadae
(2) ukWLVkWd
(2) Nostoc
(3) ,ukchuk ,uksys
(3) Anabaena azollae
(4) vkWflysVksfj;k
(4) Oscillatoria
108. cM+s fNæks okys fLol pht dk iDou fdlds }kjk
gksrk gS
108. Large holed swiss cheese is ripened by
(1) isfuflfy;e (2) çksfivksfucSDVhfj;e
(1) Penicillium (2) Propionibacterium
(3) Y;wdksukWLVkWd (4) LVªsIVksdksdl
(3) Leuconostoc (4) Streptococcus
109. lw{ethoh o buds mi;ksx ds lanHkZ esa xyr feyku
109. Select the incorrect match w.r.t microbes and dk p;u dhft,A
their applications.
(1) ,LiftZyl – [kk| dks Lokn çnku
(1) Aspergillus – Flavouring and ukbxj djrk gS rFkk ijhj{k.k
niger preservation of
foods
djrk gS
(2) ,flVkscSDVj – vfHkjatu esa ç;qDr
(2) Acetobacter – Employed in dyeing
,flVh gksrk gS
aceti
(3) DykWfLVªfM;e – jsuflM cVj cukus esa
(3) Clostridium – Used for making C;qfVfyde bldk mi;ksx fd;k
butylicum rancid butter
tkrk gS
(4) Lactobacillus – Curd (4) ySDVkscSflyl – ngh
110. Which of the given is used as immunosuppressive 110. vax çR;kjksi.k ds jksxh;ksa esa çfrj{kk neudkjh dkjd
agent in organ-transplant patients? ds :i es afdldk mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gS?
(1) Statin (1) LVsfVu
(2) Lipase (2) ykbist
(3) Cyclosporin A (3) lkbDyksLiksfju A
(4) Streptokinase (4) LVªsIVksdkbust
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111. Which of the given is major component of biogas 111. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk] tSoxSal esa vius çfr'kr
w.r.t. their percentage composition? la?kVu ds lanHkZ esa eq[; ?kVd gksrk gS?
(1) CH4 (2) CO2 (1) CH4 (2) CO2
(3) H2 (4) H2S (3) H2 (4) H2S
112. Which of the given stages of sewage treatment 112. eyty mipkj dh fdl voLFkk esa Iykoh d.kksa dks
removes floating debris? gVk;k tkrk gS?
(1) Primary treatment (1) çkFkfed mipkj
(2) Secondary treatment (2) f}rh;d mipkj
(3) Tertiary treatment (3) r`rh;d mipkj

(4) tSfod mipkj
(4) Biological treatment
113. The microbial biocontrol agent that can be 113. frryh dh bfYy;ksa dk fu;a=.k djus ds fy, fdl
introduced to control butterfly caterpillars is lw{ethoh tSofu;a=.k dkjd dk mi;ksx fd;k tk
(1) Trichoderma ldrk gS?
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis (1) VªkbdksMekZ
(3) Azotobacter (2) cSflyl F;qfjaxft,usfll
(4) Aulosira (3) ,TksVkscSDVj
114. Identify the viruses given in figure (a-c) and select
(4) ,yksfljk
the correct option. 114. fp= (a-c) esa fn, x, fo"kk.kq dh igpku dj lgh
fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
a b c
a b c
(1) TMV Adeno- Bacterio- (1) TMV ,fMuks& thok.kq&
virus phage ok;jl Hkksth
(2) Adeno- Bacterio- TMV (2) ,fMuks& thok.kq& TMV
virus phage ok;jl Hkksth
(3) TMV Bacterio- Adeno- (3) TMV thok.kq& ,fMuks&
phage virus Hkksth ok;jl
(4) Bacterio- Adeno- TMV (4) thok.kq& ,fMuks& TMV
phage virus Hkksth ok;jl
(22)@AakashDelhi02
115. Read the given statements (A-D) stating true (T) 115. fn;s x, dFkuksa (A-D) dks i<+dj bUgsa lR; (T) ;k
or false (F) and select the correct option. vlR; (F) crkb;s rFkk lgh fodYi dk p;u
A. Antibiotics are the chemical substances which dhft,A
are produced by some microbes and can kill A. çfrtSfod jlk;fud inkFkZ gksrs gSa tks dqN
or retard the growth of other microbes. lw{ethoksa }kjk mRikfnr fd, tkrs gSa rFkk vU;
B. Flocs are masses of bacteria associated with lw{ethoksa dks ekj rFkk mudh o`f) dks /khek dj
fungal filaments. ldrs gSaA
C. Raising of crops through the use of chemical B. mf.kZd] dodh; rarqvksa ls la;qDr thok.kq ds
fertilizer is organic farming. lewg gksrs gSaA
D. IPM refers to integration of tactis for control of C. jlk;fud moZjd ds mi;ksx }kjk Qlyksa dks
single pest on one or more crops. mxkuk] dkcZfud d`f"k dgykrh gS
A B C D D. ,d ;k vf/kd Qlyksa ij ,dy ihM+d ds
fu;=a.k ds fy, ;qfDr;ksa dk lekdyu djuk
(1) T F F F
IPM dgykrk gSA
(2) T T T T A B C D
(3) T T F T (1) T F F F
(2) T T T T
(4) F F T T
(3) T T F T
116. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t (4) F F T T
‘Methanogens’.
116. ‘esFksukstu’ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,
(1) Grow anaerobically on cellulosic material (1) lsY;wyksftd inkFkZ ij vok;oh; :i ls o`f)
(2) Produce large amount of CH4 along with CO2 djrs gSa
and H2 (2) CO2 rFkk H2 ds lkFk-lkFk vf/kd ek=k esa CH4
(3) Promotes the growth of bacteria and fungi mRiUu djrs gSa
present in sludge in anaerobic sludge digester (3) vok;oh; iad ikfp= esa iad esa mifLFkr thok.kq
(4) Are present in rumen of cattle o dod dh o`f) dks c<+krs gSa
117. Read the following statements and select the (4) eos'kh dh vkgkjuky esa mifLFkr gksrs gSa
option which is true for them. 117. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks if<+;s rFkk buds fy, lR;
Statement A : Dragonflies are useful to get rid of fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
aphids. dFku A : Mªx s u ¶ykbZ] ,fQM ls NqVdkjk fnykus esa
Statement B : The majority of baculoviruses used mi;ksxh gksrh gSA
as biocontrol agents are in the genus dFku B : vf/kdka'k cSY;wyksok;jl] tSofu;a=.k dkjdksa
Nucleopolyhedrovirus. ds :i esa mi;ksx fd, tkrs gSa rFkk ;s
(1) Only statement A is correct U;wfDyksikWyhgSMªksok;jl oa'k ls lacfa /krA
(2) Only statement B is correct (1) dsoy dFku A lgh gS
(3) Both A and B are correct (2) dsoy dFku B lgh gS
(4) Both A and B are incorrect (3) A rFkk B nksuksa lgh gS
118. During primary treatment in STP, all the solids (4) A rFkk B nksuksa xyr gS
settle form the A , and the supernatant form the 118. STP esa çkFkfed mipkj ds nkSjku lHkh Bksl inkFkZ
B ry ij tek gksdj A rFkk lwiusZVUV (vf/kIykoh)
ry ij tek gksdj B cukrs gSaA
(1) A- Primary sludge B- Primary effluent
(1) A- çkFkfed iad B- çkFkfed cfgL=koh
(2) A- Primary effluent B- Primary sludge
(2) A- çkFkfed cfg%L=koh B- çkFkfed iad
(3) A- Primary sludge B- Activated sludge (3) A- çkFkfed iad B- lfØ; iad
(4) A- Activated sludge B- Primary effluent (4) A- lfØf;r iad B- çkFkfed cfg%L=koh
(23)@AakashDelhi02
119. In the production of which of the following, yeast is 119. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl mRikn ds mRiknu ds fy,
not used? ;hLV dk mi;ksx ugha fd;k tkrk?
(1) Bread (2) Toddy (1) czsM (2) VkWMh
(3) Beer (4) Dosa (3) ch;j (4) Mkslk
120. Puffed-up appearance of dough is due to 120. fdlds mRiknu ds dkj.k xwaFkk gqvk vkVk Qwyk-gqvk
production of fn[kkbZ nsrk gS\
(1) CO2 only (1) dsoy CO2
(2) Both CO2 and ethanol (2) CO2 o bFksukWy
(3) Lactic acid (3) ySfDVd vEy
(4) CO2 and starch (4) CO2 o LVkpZ
121. Lichens are the example of 121. yksbdsu fdldk mnkgj.k gS?
(1) Mutualism (2) Competition (1) lgksidkfjrk (2) Li/kkZ

(3) ijHk{k.k (4) ,esulsfyTe
(3) Predation (4) Amensalism
122. tSfod foHko ij i;kZoj.kh; çfrjks/kdrk dk çHkko
122. The influence of environmental resistance over the
biotic potential is denoted by fdlds }kjk n'kkZ;k tkrk gS
 1− K  K −N
 1− K  K −N (1)   (2)  
(1)   (2)    N   K 
 N   K 
N 1− N
N 1− N (3) (4)
(3) (4) K K
K K
123. Hkkyw fdl çfØ;k }kjk 'khr _rq esa le; esa iyk;u
123. Bear escapes in time during winter by a process djrk gS?
called
(1) xzh"e fuf"Ø;rk (2) 'khr fuf"Ø;rk
(1) Aestivation (2) Hibernation
(3) mijfr (4) vo{kkyu
(3) Diapause (4) Eluviation
124. ,d rkykc esa fiNys o"kZ ;fn 30 dey ds ikni Fks
124. If in a pond there are 30 lotus plants last year and rFkk tuu ds }kjk 12 u;s ikni tqM+us ls lef"V
through reproduction 12 new plants are added.
Taking the current population as 42, calculate the
cM+dj 42 gks xbZ gS] orZeku lef"V ds vuqlkj
birth rate (in offsprings per lotus per year) (çfro"kZ çfr dey esa larfr) tUe&nj dh x.kuk
dhft,A
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.4
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.4
(3) 0.8 (4) 0.6
(3) 0.8 (4) 0.6
125. When does the growth of a population following 125. T;kferh; o`f) ekWMy dk vuqlj.k djus okyh
the geometric growth model said to be zero?
lef"V dh o`f) dc 'kqU; dgh tk,xh?
N N
(1) When equals zero
K (1) tc 'kqU; ds lerqY; gksrk gS
K
(2) When intrinsic rate of natural increase equals (2) tc çkd`frd o`f) dh vkarfjd nj 'kqU; ds
zero
lerqY; gks tkrh gS
N N
(3) When equals unity (3) tc bdkbZ ds lerqY; gks tkrk gS
K K
(4) When intrinsic rate of natural increase is (4) tc çkd`frd o`f) dh vkarfjd nj okLro esa ,d
exactly one gks tkrh gS
(24)@AakashDelhi02
126. An ecologist study the population of Drosophila. 126. ,d ifjfLFkfrd-foK us MªkslksfQyk dh lef"V dk
He found that the average natality was 200, vè;;u fd;kA mlus ik;k dh vkSlr tUenj 200,
average mortality 180, immigration 20 and
emigration 30. Select the most appropriate impact
vkSlr e`R;qnj 180, vçokl 20 rFkk mRçokl 30 FkkA
w.r.t. the population size of Drosophila. MªkslksfQyk dh lef"V vkdkj ds lanHkZ esa lcls
mi;qDr çHkko dk p;u dht,A
(1) Expand
(1) c<+uk
(2) Stable
(2) LFkk;h
(3) Zero
(3) 'kqU;
(4) Declines
(4) ?kVuk
127. In which of the given interactions, both partners
127. fuEufyf[kr fdl var%fØ;k esa nksuksa lgHkkxh leku
striving for the same resource?
lalk/ku ds fy, ç;kl djrs gSa?
(1) Commensalism
(1) lgHkksftrk
(2) Predation
(2) ijHk{k.k
(3) Competition (3) Li/kkZ
(4) Protocooperation (4) vkfnlg;ksfxrk
128. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. ‘Altitude 128. ‘rqaxrk jksx’ ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dk p;u
sickness’. dhft,A
(1) Experienced when body does not get enough (1) dk; dks i;kZIr vkWDlhtu uk feyus ij bldk
oxygen
vuqHko gksrk gS
(2) Body decreases RBC’s production (2) dk; RBC’s ds mRiknu dks ?kVk nsrh gS
(3) Decreases binding capacity of haemoglobin (3) gheksXyksfcu dh ca/ku {kerk ?kV tkrh gS
(4) Increases breathing rate (4) 'olu nj c<+ tkrh gS
129. Penicillium secretes penicillin, that inhibits the 129. isfuflfy;e] isfuflfyu dk L=ko djrk gS tks
growth of large number of bacteria. This type of thok.kq dh vf/kd la[;k esa gksus okyh o`f) dks
interaction is
jksdrh gSA bl çdkj dh var%fØ;k D;k dgykrh gS\
(1) Ammensalism (1) ,esulsfyTe
(2) Parasitism (2) ijthfork
(3) Predation (3) ijHk{k.k
(4) Competition (4) Li/kkZ
130. Select the correct graphical representation of 130. lHkh if{k;ksa rFkk Lru/kkfj;ksa ds lanHkZ esa vtSfod
organismic response to abiotic factors w.r.t. all dkjdksa ds çfr tho çfrfØ;k ds lgh xzkQh;
birds and mammals.
fu:i.k dk p;u dhft,A
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
(25)@AakashDelhi02
131. Consider the following four conditions (a-d) and 131. fuEufyf[kr pkj ifjfLFkfr;ksa (a-d) ij fopkj dj
select the correct pair of them as adaptation to daxk: pwgs esa i;kZoj.k ds vuqdwyu ds :i esa buesa
environment in Kangaroo rat.
ls lgh leqPp; dk p;u dhft,A
(a) Capable of meeting all of its water
(a) vius vkarfjd olk vkWDlhdj.k ds }kjk viuh
requirements through its internal fat oxidation.
ty lac/a kh lHkh vko';drkvksa dks iwjk djrk gSA
(b) Can survive below 0°C.
(b) 0°C ls de rkieku esa thfor jg ldrk gSA
(c) Can concentrate its urine.
(c) vius ew= dks lkUæ dj ldrk gSA
(d) Insulating body due to thick fatty dermis.
(d) eksVh olh; Ropk ds dkj.k dk; jks/kd gksrh gS
(1) (a), (b) (2) (c), (d)
(1) (a), (b) (2) (c), (d)
(3) (a), (c) (4) (b), (d)
(3) (a), (c) (4) (b), (d)
132. Which of the given biome has maximum annual 132. fdl thokse esa vf/kdre okf"kZd o"kZ.k gksrk gS?
precipitation?
(1) 'khrks".k ou
(1) Temperate forest
(2) 'kadq/kkjh ou
(2) Coniferous forest
(3) m".k dfBca/kh o"kkZ ou
(3) Tropical rain forest
(4) ?kklLFky
(4) Grassland
133. e`nk dk fn;k x;k dkSulk xq.k] ty-/kkj.k djus dh
133. Which one of the given characteristics of soil does
not determine water-holding capacity?
{kerk dk fu/kkZj.k ugha djrk?
(1) e`nk la?kVu
(1) Soil composition
(2) d.k dk vkdkj
(2) Grain size
(3) pH
(3) pH
,d=hdj.k
(4)
(4) Aggregation
134. ,d fn, x, le; esa lef"V esa gksus okyh e`R;q dh
134. The number of deaths in the population during a
given period refers to la[;k D;k dgykrh gS?
(1) Mortality (2) Natality (1) e`R;qnj (2) tUenj
(3) Immigration (4) Emigration (3) vçokl (4) mRçokl
135. Most fascinating case of mutualism in nature is 135. çd`fr esa lgksidkfjrk dh lcls foLe;dkjh ?kVuk
seen in fdlesa ik;h tkrh gS?
(1) Lichens (1) ykbdsu
(2) Plant-pollinator interactions (2) ikni&ijkx.kdrkZ var%fØ;k
(3) Mycorrhiza (3) dodewy
(4) Rhizobium-leguminous root interactions (4) jkbtksfc;e-ySX;we;qDr ewy var%fØ;k
136. Select the odd one w.r.t bacterial diseases 136. thok.oh; jksxksa ds lanHkZ esa ,d fo"ke dk p;u
dhft,A
(1) Typhoid
(1) VkbQkWbM
(2) Poliomyelitis
(2) iksfy;ksekbfyfVl
(3) Diphtheria
(3) fM¶Fkhfj;k
(4) Plague (4) Iysx
(26)@AakashDelhi02
137. The most serious form of malaria i.e., malignant 137. eysfj;k dk lcls xEHkhj :i vFkkZr esyhxusUV
malaria which can be even fatal is caused by (nqnZe) eysfj;k] tks ?kkrd Hkh gks ldrk gSA fdlds
(1) P. vivax }kjk QSyrk gS?
(2) P. falciparum (1) ih. okboSDl
(3) P. malaria (2) ih. QSYlhisje
(4) P. ovale (3) ih. eysfj;kbZ
138. Complete the analogy by choosing the correct (4) ih. vksosy
option. 138. lgh fodYi ds p;u ls vuq:irk dks iw.kZ dhft,A
Wuchereria : Filariasis :: ___________ : oqpsjsfj;k : Qkbysfj,fll :: ___________ : fjaxoeZ
Ringworms
(1) LiksjkstkWbV~l
(1) Sporozoites
(2) VªkbdksQkbVkWu
(2) Trichophyton
(3) ,sLdsfjl
(3) Ascaris
(4) ,aVvehck fgLVksfyfVdk
(4) Entamoeba histolytica 139. dkWye I rFkk dkWye II dk feyku dhft, rFkk lgh
139. Match column I and column II and select the fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
correct option.
dkWye I dkWye II
Column I Column II
a. 'kkjhfjd jks/k (i) ykj] vkek'k; esa vEy
a. Physical barrier (i) Saliva, acid in the
b. dkf;dh; jks/k (ii) ,fiFkhfy;e dk
stomach
'ys"ek vkysi
b. Physiological barrier (ii) Mucus coating of
c. dksf'kdh; jks/k (iii) baVjQsjkWu
epithelium
d. lkbVksdkbu jks/k (iv) eksukslkbVl] PMNLs
c. Cellular barrier (iii) Interferons
d. Cytokine barrier (iv) Monocytes, PMNLs (1) a – ii, b – i, c – iv, d – iii
(1) a – ii, b – i, c – iv, d – iii (2) a – ii, b – i, c – iii, d – iv
(2) a – ii, b – i, c – iii, d – iv (3) a – i, b – ii, c – iv, d – iii
(3) a – i, b – ii, c – iv, d – iii (4) a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii

140. Hkkjr esa vusd Hkkxksa esa gky gh esa ik, x,
(4) a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii
fpduxqfu;k ds ekeyksa ds fy, dkSulk okgd
140. Which vector is responsible for recently reported mÙkjnk;h gS?
cases of chikungunya in many parts of India?
(1) xEcwfl;k
(1) Gambusia
(2) isfjIysusVk vesfjdkuk
(2) Periplaneta americana
(3) ,Mht ePNj
(3) Aedes mosquito
(4) lh-lh eD[kh
(4) Tse-tse fly
141. jksxksa rFkk muds funku ifj{k.kkas ds lanHkZ esa
141. Select the mismatched pair w.r.t diseases and vlqEesfyr ;qXe dk p;u dhft,
one of their diagnostic tests.
(1) VkbQkWbM – foMky ijh{k.k
(1) Typhoid – Widal test
(2) dSalj – MRI (,e vkj vkbZ)
(2) Cancer – MRI
(3) AIDS (,M~l) – ELISA (,yhlk)
(3) AIDS – ELISA
(4) vehch vfrlkj – fofdj.k-fp=.k
(4) Amoebic dysentery – Radiography (jsfM;ksxzkQh)
(27)@AakashDelhi02
142. Select the incorrect statement. 142. xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Elephantiasis causes chronic inflammation of (1) ,yhQSa'kh,fll ('yhin) ds dkj.k ylhdk
lymphatic vessels. okfgdkvksa esa nh?kZdkfyd 'kksFk gksrk gS
(2) Poppy plant is used to obtain the drug (2) ikWih ikni dk mi;skx vkS"k/kh çkIr djus ds fy,
commonly called ‘smack’. fd;k tkrk gS ftls lkekU;r;k ‘LeSd’ dgrs gS
(3) Cell-mediated immune response is mainly (3) dksf'kdk ekfè;r çfrj{kk vuqfØ;k eq[;r% Ropk
responsible for rejection of skin graft.
fujksi dh vLohd`rh ds fy, mÙkjnk;h gksrh gS
(4) HIV is an enveloped virus containing only one
(4) HIV ,d vkofjr fo"kk.kq gS] ftlesa dsoy ,d
molecule of single-stranded RNA and one
molecule of reverse transcriptase. v.kq ,dy-jTtqd RNA dk rFkk ,d v.kq foijhr
143. Read statements A and B and choose the correct
Vªkla fØIVst dk gksrk gS
option. 143. A rFkk B dFkuksa dks if<+;s rFkk lgh fodYi dk
A : Exposure to ionizing radiations like X-rays p;u dhft,A
and gamma rays can lead to increased A : ,Dl-fdj.k rFkk xkek fdj.kksa tSls vk;udkjh
incidences of cancers. fofdj.kksa ds çn'kZu ds dkj.k dSalj dh ?kVuk esa
B : Oncogenic viruses are always responsible for o`f) gks ldrh gS
causing AIDS. B : vksd a kstsfud fo"kk.kq lnSo AIDS ds fy, mÙkjnk;h
(1) Only statement B is incorrect gksrs gSA
(2) Only statement A is incorrect (1) dsoy dFku B xyr gS
(3) Both statements A and B are incorrect (2) dsoy dFku A xyr gS
(4) Both statements A and B are correct (3) nksuksa dFku A rFkk B xyr gSa
144. NACO conducts various awareness programmes (4) nksuksa dFku A rFkk B lgh gSa
to educate people about
144. NACO, us fdlds ckjs esa yksxks dks f'kf{kr djus ds
(1) Cancer (2) Drug abuse fy, fofHkUu tkx:d dk;ZØe lapkfyr djrk gS\
(3) AIDS (4) Alcohol addiction (1) dSalj (2) vkS"k/kh dk nq:i;ksx
145. Read the statements (a – d). (3) ,M~l (4) ,sYdksgy dk O;lu
(a) Cancer cells invade and damage the 145. (a – d) dFkuksa dks if<+,A
surrounding normal tissues.
(a) dSalj dksf'kdk,a vklikl ds lkekU; Årdksa ij
(b) Cancer cells show contact inhibition. vkØe.k djrh gS rFkk {kfr igqapkrh gS
(c) Chronic intake of alcohol could lead to (b) dSalj dksf'kdk,a laLi'kZ laneu n'kkZrh gS
cirrhosis of liver.
(c) ,sYdksgy ds fpjdkjh mi;ksx ls ;d`r dks {kfr
(d) Benign tumours always are life-threatening. (lsjksfll) igqaprh gS
How many of the above statements are wrong? (d) lqne (fcukbu) vcqZn lnSo thou-Hk;lwpd gksrk
(1) Two (2) Three gS
(3) Four (4) None mijksDr esa ls fdrus dFku xyr gS?
146. Preformed antibodies are administered in the (1) nks (2) rhu
case(s) of (3) pkj (4) dksbZ Hkh ugha
(a) Likelihood of developing tetanus 146. iwoZfufeZr çfrjf{k;k¡ fdu ifjfLFkfr;ksa esa nh tkrh gS?
(b) Allergy (a) ifjof/kZr VsVul dh laHkkouk esa
(b) ,sythZ esa
(c) Snake bite
(c) lkai ds dkVus esa
(d) Rheumatoid arthritis
(d) :esaVks;kM vkFkkZbfVl esa
lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,
(1) a only (2) a and c
(1) dsoy a (2) a rFkk c
(3) a, b and c (4) a, b, c and d (3) a, b rFkk c (4) a, b, c rFkk d
(28)@AakashDelhi02
147. is commonly called ‘crack’ and has a 147. dks lkekU;r% ‘ØSd’ dgrs gS rFkk bldk
action on central nervous system. dsUæh; rfU=dk ra= ij çHkko iM+rk gSA
Excessive dosage of it causes . bldh vR;f/kd ek=k ls gks tkrk gSA
Choose the correct option for A, B and C. A, B rFkk C ds fy, lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
A B C A B C
(1) Heroin Stimulating Euphoria (1) gsjksbu míhid ;wQksfj;k

(2) Amphetamine Depressing Hallucinations
(2) ,aQsVsehu volkndkjh gSyfq luslu
(3) Cocaine Stimulating Hallucinations
(3) dksdsu míhid gSyfq luslu
(4) Benzodiazepine Stimulating Euphoria
(4) cst
a ksMk;tsihu míhid ;wQksfj;k
148. The incorrect statement w.r.t smoking is
148. /kweziku ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku gSA
(1) rEckdw esa cgqr ls uqdlkunk;d jklk;fud
(1) Tobacco contains a large number of harmful
chemical substances including nicotine, an
inkFkZ gksrs gS] ftuesa ,d ,sYdsykbM] fudksVhu
alkaloid. 'kkfey gSa
(2) fudksVhu vf/ko`Dd xzfUFk dks míhfir djrh gS]
(2) Nicotine stimulates adrenal glands to release
adrenaline and nor-adrenaline. ftlls ,fMªuyhu rFkk ukWj-,fMuyhu dk ekspu
gksrk gS
(3) Smoking decreases carbon monoxide (CO)
content in blood and increases concentration (3) /kweziku ls jDr esa dkcZueksuksDlkbM (CO) dh
of haembound oxygen. ek=k de gks tkrh gS] vkSj ghevkc) vkWDlhtu
dh lkaærk c<+ tkrh gS
(4) It is associated with increased incidences of
emphysema and gastric ulcer. (4) ;g okrLQhfr rFkk tBj ozu dh ?kVukvksa esa
149. Withdrawal syndrome is seen in the body when

o`f) ls lEcfU/kr gSA
149. 'kjhj esa fofuorZu lay{k.k ns[kk tkrk gS] tc
(1) Drugs produce a sense of euphoria and
increased energy. (1) Mªx ;wQksfj;k dh vuqHkwfr mRiUu djrh gS rFkk
ÅtkZ esa o`f) djrh gS
(2) Dose of drugs/alcohol is abruptly
discontinued. (2) Mªx@,sYdksgy dh fu;fer ek=k vpkud can
dj nh tkrh gS
(3) Biological response modifiers such as
-interferons are administered. (3) -baVjQsjkWu tSls tSfod vuqfØ;k :ikarj.k fn,
tkrs gS
(4) A person is unduly pressurised by peers.
(4) ,d O;fDr ij lgikfB;ksa }kjk ncko Mkyk tkrk
150. Which of the following is not used as a treatment
gS
to eliminate cancer cells?
150. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ls mipkj dk mi;ksx dSalj
(1) Surgery
dksf'kdkvksa ds fu"dklu ds fy, ugha fd;k tkrk gS?
(2) Radiotherapy
(1) 'kY; fpfdRlk
(3) Computed tomography (2) fofdj.k fpfdRlk
(4) Chemotherapy (3) vfHkdfyr VkWeksxzkQh
151. How many of the following are secondary (4) jlksfpfdRlk
lymphoid organs?
151. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdrus f}rh;d y{khdkHk vax gS?
(1) Three (2) Four

(1) rhu (2) pkj
(3) Five (4) Six (3) ik¡p (4) N%
152. Each antibody molecule is made up of light and 152. çR;sd çfrj{kh v.kq y?kq rFkk nh?kZ Ük`[kykvksa dk cuk
heavy chains and is represented as gksrk gS rFkk ;g fdlds :i esa n'kkZ;k tkrk gS\
(1) H1 L1 (2) H2 L2 (1) H1 L1 (2) H2 L2
(3) H1 L2 (4) H2 L1 (3) H1 L2 (4) H2 L1
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153. Actively dividing mitotic cells and cancerous cells 153. lfØ; :i esa foHkkftr lelw=h dksf'kdk,a rFkk
show telomerase activity. of ‘c- dSaljtuh dksf'kdk,a Vsyksfejst lfØ;rk
onc’ genes of the normal cells induce neoplastic n'kkZrh gS çlkekU; dksf'kdkvksa ds ‘c-onc’ thu dh
transformation of normal cells. Here X and Y are
ls çlkekU; dksf'kdkvksa dk uoæO;h;
(1) X – High Y – Inactivation :ikarj.k çsfjr gksrk gSA ;gk¡ X rFkk Y gS]
(2) X – High Y – Activation (1) X – mPp Y – fuf"Ø;rk
(3) X – Low Y – Inactivation (2) X – mPp Y – lfØ;rk
(4) X – Low Y – Activation (3) X – fuEu Y – fuf"Ø;rk
154. In malaria, the rupture of RBCs is associated with (4) X – fuEu Y – lafØ;rk
the release of a toxic substance termed 154. eysfj;k es]a RBCs dk QVuk fdl vfo"kk.kq inkFkZ ds
(1) Haemotoxin (2) Haemozoin fuxZeu ls lEcfU/kr gS?
(3) Aflatoxin (4) Antitoxin (1) gheksVkWfDlu (2) ghekstksbu
155. Which type of antibodies are primarily increased (3) ,¶ykVkWfDlu (4) ,aVhVkWfDlu
in response to allergens like dust, animal dander, 155. ,sytZu tSls /kwy] tUrq MSaMj bR;kfn ds çfr vuqfØ;k
etc? esa dkSulh çfrj{kk çkFkfed :i ls c<+ tkrh gS?
(1) IgA (2) IgE (1) IgA (2) IgE
(3) IgM (4) IgG (3) IgM (4) IgG
156. Select an opiate drug which suppresses brain 156. ,d vksfi,V Mªx dk p;u dhft, tks efLr"d ds
function, relieves intense pain and thus is used as dk;Z dk neu dj rhoz ihM+k esa vkjke nsrh gS rFkk
an analgesic post surgery. blh rjg ;s 'kY;fpfdRlk ds i'pkr~ ,d ihM+kgkjh
(1) LSD ds :i esa ç;qDr gksrh gS
(1) LSD
(2) Marijuana
(2) eSjhtqvkuk
(3) Morphine
(3) ekWQhZu
(4) Cannabinoids
(4) dSuksfcukbM~l
157. Carcinogens in tobacco smoke are linked majorly
to cancer of
157. rEckdw /kweziku esa dSaljdkjh çeq[k :i ls fdlds
dSalj ls lEcfU/kr gS
(1) Liver
(1) ;d`r
(2) Lungs
(2) Qq¶Qql
(3) Skin
(3) Ropk
(4) Bone (4) vfLFk
158. All of the following can be obtained from leaves of 158. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlds vfrfjDr vU; lHkh uhps
the below given plant except
fn, x, ikni dh ifÙk;ksa ls çkIr fd, tk ldrs gSa\
(1) Hashish (2) Ganja (1) g'kh'k (2) xkatk

(3) Coke (4) Charas (3) dksd (4) pjl
(30)@AakashDelhi02
159. Read the following statements. 159. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks if<+,
(a) Blood cancer is also known as Leukaemia (a) jDr dSalj dks Y;wdsfe;k Hkh dgrs gSA
(b) The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to thymus
(b) T-fyEQkslkbV esa T 'kCn Fkkbel dks n'kkZrk gSA
(c) Alzheimer’s disease is an autoimmune
disease
(c) ,Ytkbej jksx ,d Loçfrj{kk jksx gSA
(d) The causative agent of Gonorrhoea is (d) usbZlsfj;k] xksuksfj;k (lqtkd) dk jksxdkjd gS
Neisseria dsoy lgh dFkuksa okys fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
Choose the option which includes only correct (1) a, b rFkk d (2) b rFkk c
statements.
(3) c rFkk d (4) a, b, c rFkk d
(1) a, b and d (2) b and c
(3) c and d (4) a, b, c and d
160. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulh çfrj{kh vijk ls Hkwz.k ds
fy, çfrj{kk çnku djrh gS?
160. Which of the following antibodies crosses
placenta to confer immunity to the foetus? (1) IgG (2) IgA
(1) IgG (2) IgA (3) IgD (4) IgM
(3) IgD (4) IgM 161. HIV dk lapkj.k çk;% fdlds }kjk ugh gksrk gS?
161. Transmission of HIV does not generally occur by (1) laØfer O;fDr ls ;kSu lEidZ ls
(1) Sexual contact with infected person (2) nwf"kr jDr rFkk jDr mRiknksa ds vk/kku ls
(2) Transfusion of contaminated blood and blood (3) dkWEc rFkk VkWoy tSlh futh oLrqvksa dks lka>k
products djus ls
(3) Sharing personal articles like comb and (4) var% f'kjk Mªx ysus okyksa ds ekeyksa esa laØfer
towels
lqbZ;ksa dks lka>k djus ls
(4) Sharing infected needles as in the case of
intravenous drug abusers 162. nqnZe vcqZnksa dk lcls Mjkouk xq.k dkSulk gS\
162. The most feared property of malignant tumours is (1) vius ewy LFkku rd lhfer jgrk gS
(1) Remaining confined to their original location (2) laiqVhdj.k
(2) Encapsulation (3) esVkLVsfll
(3) Metastasis (4) RBCs dk vi?kVu
(4) Lysis of RBCs 163. ,d jksxtud tks çk;% Qq¶Qql ds ok;qdks"B esa
163. A pathogen is generally responsible for infecting laØe.k rFkk buesa rjy ds Hkjus] Toj] fBBqju rFkk
alveoli of lungs and filling it with fluid, fever, chills gksBa vkSj gkFk dh maxqfy;ksa ds uk[kwuksa ds /kwlj jax esa
and grayish discoloration of lips and finger nails. deh ds fy, mÙkjnk;h gksrk gS og jksx dkSulk gS?
Which is that pathogen?
(1) gheksfQYl bU¶yq,th
(1) Haemophilus influenzae
(2) Pseudomonas
(2) L;wMkseksukt
(3) Salmonella typhi (3) lkYeksusyk VkbQh
(4) Mycobacterium (4) ekbdkscSDVhfj;e
164. Mucosa associated lymphoid tissue constitutes 164. 'ys"e lc) ylhdkHk Ård ekuo 'kjhj ds ylhdkHk
about percent of lymphoid tissue in human Ård dk yxHkx çfr'kr gksrk gSA ;gk¡ ‘X’
body. Here ‘X’ is gS
(1) 50 (2) 60 (1) 50 (2) 60
(3) 70 (4) 80 (3) 70 (4) 80
(31)@AakashDelhi02
165. A large bean-shaped organ which has a large 165. ,d lse ds vkdkj dk cMk vax ftlesa bfjFkzkl s kbV~l
reservoir of erythrocytes is dk cMk HkaMkj gksrk gS
(1) Liver (2) Spleen (1) ;d`r (2) Iyhgk
(3) Pancreas (4) Thymus (3) vXuk'k; (4) Fkkbel
166. Lysozyme present in saliva destroys certain 166. ykj esa mifLFkr ykblkstkbe fdls u"V djrs gS?
(1) dqN thok.kq dks (2) dqN dod dks
(1) Bacteria (2) Fungi
(3) dqN fo"kk.kqvksa dks (4) dqN lw=d`fe;k dks
(3) Viruses (4) Nematodes
167. tc laØfer eknk ,suksQsyht ePNj dkVrh gS] rks
167. In which form Plasmodium enters the human body IySTeksfM;e fdl :i esa ekuo 'kjhj esa ços'k djrk
when an infected female Anopheles mosquito
bites?
gS?
(1) LiksjkstkbV~l (thok.kqt)
(1) Sporozoites
(2) tuuk.kq
(2) Gametocytes
(3) (nh.kZd) 'kkbtkWUV
(3) Schizonts (4) ÅvksfduhV
(4) Ookinete 168. nqX/kL=o.k ds çkjfEHkd fnuksa esa dksyksDVªe }kjk f'k'kq
168. The immunity provided to the infant by colostrum dks fdl çdkj dh çfrj{kk çnku dh tkrh gS?
in initial days of lactation is a type of (1) çkd`frd lfØ; çfrj{kk
(1) Natural active immunity (2) d`fre lfØ; çfrj{kk
(2) Artificial active immunity (3) çkd`frd fuf"Ø; çfrj{kk
(3) Natural passive immunity (4) d`f=e fuf"Ø; çfrj{kk

169. fn, x, fodYiksa esa xyr feyku gS
(4) Artificial passive immunity
(1) çfrtu çfrj{kh – ELISA
169. The incorrect match among the given options is
var%fØ;k
(1) Antigen Antibody – ELISA
(2) gsiVs kbfVl B oSDlhu – iqu;ksZxt DNA
interaction ,ukefuLVhd
(2) Hepatitis B vaccine – Recombinant DNA çkS|ksfxdh
technology (3) IgM – Lej.k vuqfØ;k
(3) IgM – Anamnestic (4) fldy dksf'kdk – lgtkr fodkj
response
,uhfe;k
170. lqjf{kr i;kZoj.k ds dkj.k vk/kqfud thou 'kSyh ds
(4) Sickle cell anaemia – Congenital disorder
QyLo:i yksxksa esa çfrj{kk gS vkSj
170. Modern day life style has resulted in of ds çfr laosnu'khyrk c<+h gSA ;gk¡
immunity and more sensitivity to which
A rFkk B gS
could be due to protected environment. Here A
and B are (1) A – ?kVh B – ,ytZuksa
(1) A – lowering B – allergens
(2) A – c<+h B – çfrjf{k;ksa
(2) A – increase B – antibodies
(3) A – ?kVh B – çfrjf{k;ksa
(3) A – lowering B – antibodies
(4) A – c<+h B – ,ytZuksa
(4) A – increase B – allergens
171. Which among the following is a psychedelic drug? 171. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulh ,d psruk çlkjh vkS"k/kh
gS?
(1) Codeine (2) LSD
(1) dksMhu (2) LSD
(3) Caffeine (4) Adrenaline
(3) dsQhu (4) ,fMªusfyu
@AakashDelhi02
(32)
172. A virus that attacks helper T-cells leading to 172. ,d fo"kk.kq tks lgk;d T-dksf'kdkvksa ij geyk
decrease in their number and makes patient djrk gS ftlds dkj.k mudh la[;k esa deh gks
immuno-deficient is
tkrh gS rFkk jksxh dks bE;wuksa fMfQfl;sUV cukrs gS
(1) Rhino virus (1) jkbuksa fo"kk.kq
(2) HIV (2) HIV
(3) Hepatitis C virus gsiVs kbfVl C fo"kk.kq
(3)
(4) Rabies virus (4) jsfct fo"kk.kq
173. Read the statements (a to d) w.r.t vaccination and 173. Vhdkdj.k rFkk çfrj{khdj.k ds lanHkZ esa (a ls d)
immunisation and choose the option with only dFkuksa dks if<, rFkk dsoy xyr dFkuksa okys
incorrect statements.
fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
(a) Vaccines generate memory–B cells that
(a) oSDlhu B–Le`fr dksf'kdk,a cukrs gS tks ifjorhZ
recognise the pathogen quickly on
subsequent exposure. çHkkou (lClhDosVa ,Dlikstj) gksus ij jksxtud
dks tYnh ls igpku ysrh gSA
(b) In vaccination, small dose of live active
pathogen is introduced into the body. (b) Vhdkdj.k esa] thfor lfØ; jksxtud dks FkksMh
(c) When antibodies are formed by body’s own B lh ek=k esa 'kjhj esa ços'k djok;k tkrk gSA
cells it is called passive immunisation. (c) tc 'kjhj dh viuh B dksf'kdkvksa }kjk çfrjf{k;k¡
(d) The immune system plays an important role in fufeZr gksrh gS rks ;g fuf"Ø; çfrj{khdj.k
allergic reactions. dgykrk gSA
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (d) çfrj{kk rU=] ,ythZ vfHkfØ;kvksa esa egRoiw.kZ
(2) (b) and (c) Hkwfedk fuHkkrk gSA
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (1) (a), (b) rFkk (c) (2) (b) rFkk (c)
(4) (b), (c) and (d) (3) (a), (b) rFkk (d) (4) (b), (c) rFkk (d)
174. How many of the following diseases spread by 174. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdrus jksx ew= iFk }kjk QSyrs gS?
faeco-oral route?
vehfc,fll] Qkbysfj,fll] ,sLdsfj,fll]
Amoebiasis, Filariasis, Ascariasis, fpduxqfu;k] eysfj;k
Chikungunya, Malaria
(1) nks (2) rhu
(1) Two (2) Three (3) pkj (4) ik¡p
(3) Four (4) Five 175. xEcqfl;k eNyh ________ dks [kkrh gS bl rjg
175. Gambusia fish feeds on ________, thus prevents ;g jksxokgd ckWuZ jksxksa ls cpkrh gSA ml fodYi
vector borne diseases. Choose the option which dk p;u dhft, tks fjDr LFkku dh lgh :i ls
fills the blank correctly. iwfrZ djrk gSA
(1) Mosquito larvae (1) ePNj ds fMEcd
(2) Amoebae (2) vehck
(3) Filarial worm (3) Qkbysfj;k d`fe
(4) Human faecal matter (4) ekuo ey inkFkZ
176. The side-effects of the use of anabolic steroids in 176. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk efgykvksa esa mip;h
females do not include LVhjkWbMksa ds mi;ksx ds nq"çHkkoksa esa 'kkfey ugha gS
(1) Increased aggressiveness (1) c<h vØkedrk
(2) Abnormal menstrual cycles (2) vlkekU; vkrZo pØ
(3) Breast enlargement (3) o{k (Lru) dk c<uk
(4) Enlargement of clitoris (4) Hkx'ksQ dk c<uk
(33)@AakashDelhi02
177. Which of the following techniques used for 177. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl rduhd ds mi;ksx ls dSalj
detection of cancer involves non-ionising dh igpku vuk;udkjh fofdj.kksa ls dh tk ldrh gS
radiations and thus can be safely used in rFkk ftldk mi;ksx xHkZorh efgyk esa lqjf{kr :i
pregnant women?
ls fd;k tk ldrk gS?
(1) Radiography (2) CT
(1) fofdj.k fp=.k (2) CT
(3) MRI (4) Biopsy (3) MRI (4) thowfrijh{kk
178. Select the incorrect match. 178. xyr feyku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Myasthenia gravis – Autoimmune disorder (1) ekbLFksfu;k xzsfol – Loçfrj{kk fodkj
(2) Syphilis – Viral disease (2) flQfyl – fo"kk.oh; jksx
(3) NK cells – Innate immunity (3) NK dksf'kdk,a – lgt çfrj{kk
(4) Common cold – Rhino virus (4) lkekU; tqdke – jkbuks fo"kk.kq
179. The immunity in older individuals is weakened

179. o`) O;fDr;ksa esa çfrj{kk dh deh gks tkrh gS rFkk
and this could be attributed to degeneration of blds dkj.k fdldh fod`fr gksrh gS\
(1) Fkkbel xzfUFk
(1) Thymus gland
(2) Iyhgk
(2) Spleen
(3) iSjkFkkbjkWbM xzfUFk
(3) Parathyroid gland
(4) ih;w"k xzfUFk
(4) Pituitary gland
180. xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,
180. Select the incorrect statement. (1) T-dksf'kdk,a vius vki çfrjf{k;k¡ L=kfor ugha
(1) The T-cells themselves do not secrete djrh gS ijUrq çfrj{kh mRiUu djus ds fy, B
antibodies but help B cells to produce them. dksf'kdkvksa dh lgk;rk djrh gS
(2) A transplant recipient patient has to take (2) ,d çfrjksi ysus okys jksxh dks vius 'ks"k thou
immuno-suppressants all their life. Hkj çfrj{kk-fujks/kd (bE;qukslçslVsa ) ysus iM+rs gS
(3) Toxoids provide passive immunity (3) VkWDlkbM fuf"Ø; çfrj{kk çnku djrs gS
(4) T-lymphocytes originate in primary lymphoid (4) T-fyaQkslkbVl çkFkfed ylhdkHk Ård ls
tissue. mRiUu gksrs gSa
❑ ❑ ❑
(34)@AakashDelhi02
14/04/2020 CODE-A
MM : 720 Time : 3.00 Hrs.
1. (2) 37. (2) 73. (2) 109. (2) 145. (1)

2. (3) 38. (4) 74. (1) 110. (3) 146 (2)
3. (2) 39. (1) 75. (4) 111. (1) 147. (3)
4. (4) 40. (4) 76. (2) 112. (1) 148. (3)
5. (3) 41. (3) 77. (4) 113. (2) 149. (2)
6. (1) 42. (4) 78. (2) 114. (4) 150. (3)
7. (2) 43. (2) 79. (1) 115. (3) 151. (3)
8. (3) 44. (4) 80. (1) 116. (3) 152. (2)
9. (2) 45. (3) 81. (1) 117. (2) 153. (2)
10. (4) 46. (1) 82. (4) 118. (1) 154. (2)
11. (3) 47. (3) 83. (1) 119. (4) 155. (2)
12. (4) 48. (4) 84. (2) 120. (1) 156. (3)
13. (4) 49. (2) 85. (3) 121. (1) 157. (2)
14. (1) 50. (2) 86. (3) 122. (2) 158. (3)
15. (2) 51. (4) 87. (4) 123. (2) 159. (1)
16. (1) 52. (1) 88. (1) 124. (2) 160. (1)
17. (2) 53. (3) 89. (1) 125. (2) 161. (3)
18. (2) 54. (1) 90. (1) 126. (1) 162. (3)
19. (3) 55. (2) 91. (2) 127. (3) 163. (1)
20. (3) 56. (1) 92. (1) 128. (2) 164. (1)
21. (1) 57. (3) 93. (4) 129. (1) 165. (2)
22. (2) 58. (4) 94. (2) 130. (2) 166. (1)
23. (1) 59. (4) 95. (1) 131. (3) 167. (1)
24. (4) 60. (1) 96. (2) 132. (3) 168. (3)
25. (2) 61. (2) 97. (1) 133. (3) 169. (3)
26. (2) 62. (4) 98. (1) 134. (1) 170. (1)
27. (2) 63. (3) 99. (4) 135. (2) 171. (2)
28. (3) 64. (4) 100. (1) 136. (2) 172. (2)
29. (4) 65. (4) 101. (3) 137. (2) 173. (2)
30. (1) 66. (4) 102. (2) 138. (2) 174. (1)
31. (3) 67. (2) 103. (4) 139. (1) 175. (1)
32. (3) 68. (2) 104. (3) 140. (3) 176. (3)
33. (1) 69. (4) 105. (3) 141. (4) 177. (3)
34. (4) 70. (3) 106. (4) 142. (4) 178. (2)
35. (1) 71. (3) 107. (3) 143. (1) 179. (1)
36. (3) 72. (1) 108. (2) 144. (3) 180. (3)
(1)
@AakashDelhi02
14/04/2020 CODE-A
MM : 720 Time : 3:00 Hrs.

Diamagnetism is a temperature independent izfrPkqECkdRo ,d rki ls Lora= xq.k gS
property.
2. mÙkj (3)
2. Answer (3)
U = Uf – Ui
U = Uf – U i
W = MB – (–MB)
W = MB – (–MB)
= 2MB
= 2MB
= 2 × 4 × 0.2 = 1.6J
= 2 × 4 × 0.2 = 1.6J
B sin  B sin 
tan  = tan  =
B cos   cos60 B cos   cos60
tan  tan 
=2 =2
tan  tan 
M = ml M = ml
M M
m = m =
l l
 l  l
= =
3 R 3 R
3l 3l
R = R =
 
M1 = mR M1 = mR
3ml 3M 3ml 3M
= = = =
   
(2)
@AakashDelhi02

dipole moment
Magnetization = f}èkzqo vk?k.wkZ
volume pqEcdhdj.k =
vk;ru
4  1010  3  10–24
= 4  1010  3  10–24
1 10–18 =
1 10–18
= 12 × 104 = 1.2 × 105 Am–1 = 12 × 104 = 1.2 × 105 Am–1
6. Answer (1)
6. mÙkj (1)
7. Answer (2)
7. mÙkj (2)
As per Lenz's law, current in A should be
clockwise.
ysat fu;e ds vuqlkj] A esa /kkjk nf{k.kkorZ gksuh
pkfg,A
8. Answer (3)
8. mÙkj (3)
 = B0 cos t a2
 = B0 cos t a2
d
=– d
dt =–
dt
 = B0a2 sin t
 = B0a2 sin t
B0 a2
I= sin t B0 a2
R I= sin t
R

at t = 
2 t= ij
2
B0 a 2
I= B0 a 2
R I=
R
9. Answer (2)
9. mÙkj (2)
d
di = d
dt  R di =
dt  R
 = R  idt
 = R  idt
1
 = 5  6  0.2  =3 1
2  = 5  6  0.2  =3
2
10. Answer (4)
10. mÙkj (4)
dI p
s = – M12 dI p
dt s = – M12
dt
dIs
 p = –M21  p = –M21
dIs
dt dt
s r s
= (M21 = M12) =
r
(M21 = M12)
 p 2r  p 2r
p = 6  2 p = 6  2
= 12 mV = 12 mV
(3)
@AakashDelhi02
11. Answer (3) 11. mÙkj (3)

Flux linked in situation (A) will be minimum. fLFkfr (A) esa lacaf/kr ¶yDl U;wure gksxkA
12. Answer (4) 12. mÙkj (4)
L1L2 L1L2
Lp = Lp =
L1 + L2 L1 + L2
L1L2 L1L2
2= 2=
L1 + L2 L1 + L2
L1 + L2 = 9 L1 + L2 = 9
L1 × L2 = 18 L1 × L2 = 18
L1(9 – L1) = 18 L1(9 – L1) = 18
9L1 – L12 = 18 9L1 – L12 = 18
L21 – 9L1 + 18 = 0 L21 – 9L1 + 18 = 0
L21 – 3L1 – 6L1 + 18 = 0 L21 – 3L1 – 6L1 + 18 = 0
( L1 – 3 )( L1 – 6 ) = 0 ( L1 – 3 )( L1 – 6 ) = 0
L1 = 3 or 6 L1 = 3 ;k 6
L2 = 6 or 3 L2 = 6 ;k 3
L1 – L2 = 3 H L1 – L2 = 3 H
13. Answer (4) 13. mÙkj (4)
Bl 2
Bl 2
= =
2 2
B  100  4 B  100  4
60 = 60 =
2 2
30 30
B= B=
100 100
B = 0.3 T B = 0.3 T
14. Answer (1) 14. mÙkj (1)
Induced magnetic field will be downward therefore Ikzsfjr pqEcdh; {ks= uhps dh vksj gksxk blfy,
force on positive charge will be towards A /kukRed vkos”k ij cy A dh vksj gksxk blfy, A
Therefore end A will be at higher potential w.r.t. B. fljk B ds lkis{k mPPk foHko ij gksxk
15. Answer (2) 15. mÙkj (2)
20 20
I= I=
5 5
I = 4A I = 4A
1 2 1 2
U= LI U= LI
2 2
1 1
 2  ( 4)  2  ( 4)
2 2
= =
2 2
= 16 J = 16 J
(4)
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16. Answer (1) 16. mÙkj (1)

i = k tan (for tangent galvanometer) i = k tan ( Li”kZj[s kh; xsYosuksehVj ds fy,)
17. Answer (2) 17. mÙkj (2)
Be = BH Be = BH
0 M 0 M
= BH = BH
4r 3 4r 3
18. Answer (2) 18. mÙkj (2)
19. Answer (3) 19. mÙkj (3)
 = (v  B ) l  = (v  B ) l
20. Answer (3) 20. mÙkj (3)
ISVS =IPVP ISVS =IPVP
Input power will be equal to output power. fuos”kh “kfDr fuxZr “kfDr ds leku gksxhA
21. Answer (1) 21. mÙkj (1)
12 = 4R + 2L 12 = 4R + 2L
 2R + L = 6 (i)  2R + L = 6 (i)
8 = 4R – 2L 8 = 4R – 2L
 4 = 2R – L (ii)  4 = 2R – L (ii)
(i) + (ii) (i) + (ii)
4R = 10 4R = 10
R = 2.5  R = 2.5 
L=1H L=1H
22. Answer (2) 22. mÙkj (2)

A = nI A = nI
= 2000 × 4 = 8 × 103 A/m = 2000 × 4 = 8 × 103 A/m
The magnetic field B = r0A pqEcdh; {ks= B = r0A

= 400 × 4 × 10–7 × 8 × 103 = 400 × 4 × 10–7 × 8 × 103
 4T  4T
23. Answer (1) 23. mÙkj (1)

 1   1 
− L  on increasing frequency Z =  − L  vko`fÙk c<+kus ij izfrck/kk igys
Z =  L 
 L 
impedance first decrease then increase. ?kVsxh rRi”pkr~ c<+sxh
(5)
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24. Answer (4) 24. mÙkj (4)

P = Vr.m.s Ir.m.scos  P = Vr.m.s Ir.m.scos 
V 2r .m.s R V 2r .m.s R
P=  P= 
z z z z
V 2r .m.s
V 2r .m.s P= R
P= R z2
z2
(10 )2
(10 )2 P= 4
P= 2 4 ( 32 + 42 )
( 3 + 42 )
100
100 P= 4
P= 4 25
25
P = 16 W
P = 16 W
25. mÙkj (2)
25. Answer (2)
XL = 2fL
XL = 2fL
= 2 × 3.14 × 50 × 50 × 10–3
= 2 × 3.14 × 50 × 50 × 10–3
= 15.7 
= 15.7  V
Ir.m.s =
V XL
Ir.m.s =
XL
220
=
220 15.7
=
15.7  14 A
 14 A 26. mÙkj (2)
26. Answer (2) R 1
=
R + ( L )
2
R 1 2 3
=
R + ( L )
2
2 3
R2 + (L)2 = 3R2
R2 + (L)2 = 3R2 L = 2R
L = 2R R
Cos =
R 2 + ( 2 2R )
2
R 1
Cos = =
R 2 + ( 2 2R )
2 3
1
=
27. Answer (2) 3
At resonance current in the circuit will be

27. mÙkj (2)
maximum therefore power dissipated will be ifjiFk esa vuqukn ij /kkjk vf/kdre gksxh blfy,
maximum. O;f;r “kfDr vf/kdre gksxhA
28. Answer (3) 28. mÙkj (3)
T T
 ( 8 + 12sin100t ) dt
0
 ( 8 + 12sin100t ) dt
Iavg = Iavg = 0
 dt  dt
T T
 8dt 12
T  8dt 12
T
T 0 T 0
= 0
+ sin100t = 0
+ sin100t
T T
=8A =8A
(6)
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29. Answer (4) 29. mÙkj (4)

V = –V0 sin t V = –V0 sin t
   
I = –I0 sin  t +  I = –I0 sin  t + 
 2  2
I = –I0 cos t I = –I0 cos t
30. Answer (1) 30. mÙkj (1)
At frequency A capacitive reactance will be vko`fÙk A ij /kkfjrh; izfr?kkr izsjdh; izfr?kkr ls
greater than inductive reactance. vf/kd gksxkA
31. Answer (3) 31. mÙkj (3)
1 L 1 L
Q= Q=
R C R C
For minimum value of Q, R will be maximum and L Q ds U;wure eku ds fy,] R vf/kdre gksxk rFkk L
is minimum. U;wure gksxkA
32. Answer (3) 32. mÙkj (3)
1
L = L =
1
C C
1
42f 2L = 42f 2L =
1
C C
C = 0.587 F C = 0.587 F
33. Answer (1) 33. mÙkj (1)
V = 60 sin 50t + 80 cos 50t V = 60 sin 50t + 80 cos 50t
V = 100 sin(50t + ) V = 100 sin(50t + )
100 100
I0 = = 10 A I0 = = 10 A
10 10
I I
Ir.m.s = Ir.m.s =
2 2
= 5 2 A = 5 2A
34. Answer (4) 34. mÙkj (4)
p = Vrms Irms cos p = Vrms Irms cos
35. Answer (1) 35. mÙkj (1)
By conservation of energy ÅtkZ laj{k.k }kjk
1 2 Q2 1 2 Q2
LImax = LImax =
2 2C 2 2C
Q Q
Imax = Imax =
LC LC
36. Answer (3) 36. mÙkj (3)
 = RC  = RC
1 1
XC = XC =
C C
= 2R = 2R
R 2 + ( 2R )
2
R 2 + ( 2R )
2
Z= Z=
= 5R = 5R
(7)
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37. Answer (2) 37. mÙkj (2)

.I I r2 .I I r2
B= ,I= 0 2 B= ,I= 0 2
2r R 2r R
0I0 r 2 0I0 r 2
B= B=
2r  R 2 2r  R 2
0I0 0I0
B= r B= r
2R 2 2R 2
Br Br
38. Answer (4) 38. mÙkj (4)
dV dV
Id = C Id = C
dt dt
=1×5 =1×5
= 5 A = 5 A
39. Answer (1) 39. mÙkj (1)
U U
F= F=
ct ct
IAt IAt
F= F=
ct ct
36  4 36  4
= =
3  108 3  108
= 48 × 10–8
= 48 × 10–8
= 0.48 N
= 0.48 N
40. Answer (4)
40. mÙkj (4)
1
1 f=
f= 2 LC
2 LC
c
c  =
 = f
f
 = 3  108  2 0.01 0.25  10–12
 = 3  108  2 0.01 0.25  10–12
 = 3 ×108 × 2 × 5 × 10–8
 = 3 ×108 × 2 × 5 × 10–8
 = 30 × 
 = 30 × 
  94 m
  94 m
41. mÙkj (3)
41. Answer (3)
Contribution of electric field and magnetic field in
fo|qrpqEcdh; rjax esa fo|qr {ks= rFkk pqEcdh; {ks=
EM wave will be equal.
dk ;ksxnku leku gksxkA
42. Answer (4) 42. mÙkj (4)
43. Answer (2) 43. mÙkj (2)
BC2
B02C
I= 0 I=
2 0 2 0
( 0.2  10 –6 )2  3  108 ( 0.2  10 –6 )2  3  108

= =
2  4  10 –7 2  4  10 –7
= 4.8 W/m2 = 4.8 W/m2
(8)
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44. Answer (4) 44. mÙkj (4)

Radiation pressure on any surface is dependent fdlh Hkh lrg ij fofdj.k nkc lrg dh izÑfr
on nature of surface and intensity of high used. rFkk iz;qDr mPPk dh rhozrk ij fuHkZj djrk gSA
45. Answer (3) 45. mÙkj (3)
Eˆ × Bˆ = Cˆ Eˆ × Bˆ = Cˆ
46. Answer (1) 46. mÙkj (1)

47. Answer (3) 47. mÙkj (3)
48. Answer (4) 48. mÙkj (4)

3° alcohol does not give any colour in victor meyer 3° ,YdksgkWy foDVj es;j ijh{k.k esa dksbZ Hkh jax ugha
test nsrkA
49. Answer (2) 49. mÙkj (2)
50. Answer (2) 50. mÙkj (2)
51. Answer (4) 51. mÙkj (4)

52. Answer (1) 52. mÙkj (1)
It follow SNi pathway ;g SNi iFk dk ikyu djrh gS
53. Answer (3) 53. mÙkj (3)
54. Answer (1) 54. mÙkj (1)
Trichloro ethene is known as westrosol and used VªkbZDyksjks ,Fkhu dks osLVªkslkWy dgrs gS rFkk bldk
as a industrial solvent miHkksx m/kksxh vof”k’V ds lkFk esa gksrk gSA
55. Answer (2) 55. mÙkj (2)
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56. Answer (1) 56. mÙkj (1)

57. Answer (3) 57. mÙkj (3)
58. Answer (4) 58. mÙkj (4)
59. Answer (4) 59. mÙkj (4)

60. Answer (1) 60. mÙkj (1)
61. Answer (2) 61. mÙkj (2)
62. Answer (4) 62. mÙkj (4)

2°– Alcohols give white turbidity in 5-10 minutes 2°– ,YdksgkWy ywdkl vfHkdeZd ds lkFk 5-10 feuV
with Lucas reagent esa lQsn xanykiu nsrs gSA
63. Answer (3) 63. mÙkj (3)
64. Answer (4) 64. mÙkj (4)
65. Answer (4) 65. mÙkj (4)

During SN1reaction, carbocation intermediate is SN1 vfHkfØ;k ds nkSjku dkcZu/kuk;u eè;orhZ izkIr
formed gksrk gS
(10)
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66. Answer (4) 66. mÙkj (4)
67. Answer (2) 67. mÙkj (2)
68. Answer (2) 68. mÙkj (2)
69. Answer (4) 69. mÙkj (4)
70. Answer (3)

70. mÙkj (3)
Density :- CH3I > CH3Br > H2O > CH3F
?kuRo :- CH3I > CH3Br > H2O > CH3F
71. mÙkj (3)
71. Answer (3)
72. mÙkj (1)
72. Answer (1)
73. Answer (2)

73. mÙkj (2)
74. mÙkj (1)
74. Answer (1)
–CF3 legw ,fjy gSykbM esa bysDVªkWu ?kuRo dks de
–CF3 group decreases the electron density in
arylhalide facililating nucleophilic substitution
dj nsrk gS rFkk ;g ukfHkdLusgh izfrLFkkiu vfHkfØ;k
reaction.
nsrk gSA
75. Answer (4)
75. mÙkj (4)
76. Answer (2)

76. mÙkj (2)
On symmetrical alkenes, peroxide effect is not
leferh; ,Ydhu ij] ijkWDlkbM izHkko izsf{kr ugha
observed. gksrk gSA
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77. Answer (4) 77. mÙkj (4)

• •
•
•
•
•
78. mÙkj (2)

78. Answer (2)
gkWQesu foyksiu
Hoffmann elimination
79. mÙkj (1)

79. Answer (1)
80. mÙkj (1)

80. Answer (1) 81. mÙkj (1)
81. Answer (1) fÝt iqufoZU;kl
Fries rearrangement
82. mÙkj (4)

82. Answer (4) dks.kh; ruko ds dkj.k ,ikWDlkbM vR;f/kd
Due to angle strain epoxide are more reactive fØ;k”khy gksrs gSaA
83. Answer (1) 83. mÙkj (1)
Ethylene glycol forms extensive inrtermolecular ,fFkyhu XykbdkWy çlkfjr vUrjvk.kfod gkbMªkt
s u
hydrogen bonding. ca/k cukrk gSA
84. Answer (2) 84. mÙkj (2)
85. Answer (3) 85. mÙkj (3)
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86. Answer (3) 86. mÙkj (3)

Due to repulsion between two methyl groups, bond nks esfFky lewg ds e/; izfrd’kZ.k ds dkj.k ca/k dks.k
angle is more than 109.5°. 109.5° ls vf/kd gksrk gSA
87. Answer (4) 87. mÙkj (4)
88. Answer (1) 88. mÙkj (1)

89. Answer (1) 89. mÙkj (1)
Compound 1 contains plane of symmetry hence it ;kSfxd 1 esa lefefr ry gksrk gS vr% ;g izdkf”kd
opitcally inactive. fuf’Ø; gSA
90. Answer (1) 90. mÙkj (1)
91. Answer (2) 91. mÙkj (2)

92. Answer (1) 92. mÙkj (1)
93. Answer (4)
93. mÙkj (4)
Pusa Sadabhar, Pusa Shubhra and Himgiri are
the disease resistant varieties of chilli, cauliflower iqlk lnkcgkj] iqlk lHkzk fgefxjh Øe'k% fepZ]
and wheat respectively. QwyxksHkh rFkk xsgw¡ dh jksx çfrjks/kh fdLesa gSA
94. Answer (2) 94. mÙkj (2)
Loose smut is a disease associated with wheat. 'yHk daM xsgw¡ ls lacaf/kr gSA
95. Answer (1) 95. mÙkj (1)
96. Answer (2)
96. mÙkj (2)
In tissue culture, the optimum pH should be 5.7.
mÙkd lao/kZu esa b"Vre pH 5.7 gksuk pkfg,A
97. Answer (1)
97. mÙkj (1)
Tomato, bitter gourd, bathua are vitamin C
enriched vegetable crop developed by IARI, New VekVj] djsyk] cFkqvk IARI, ubZ fnYyh }kjk fodflr
Delhi. dh xbZ foVkfeu C ls çpqj lCth dh Qlysa gSaA
(13)
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98. Answer (1) 98. mÙkj (1)

Somatic hybridisation is the fusion of protoplast of dkf;d ladj.k] nks fHkUu fdLeksa] çtkfr;ksa rFkk oa'k
two plants belonging to different varieties, species ls lacfa /kr nks ikniksa ds çksVksIykLV dk lay;u gksrk
and even genera. gSA
99. Answer (4) 99. mÙkj (4)
100. Answer (1) 100. mÙkj (1)
101. Answer (3) 101. mÙkj (3)
102. mÙkj (2)
102. Answer (2)
,csyeksLdl ,LD;wysUVl esa ihys ekstsd fo"kk.kq ds
Resistance to yellow mosaic virus was
incorporated in Abelmoschus esculentus from a
fy, çfrjks/kdrk ,d oU; çtkfr ,csyeksLdl
wild species Abelmoschus manihot. The new esfugkWV ls lekosf'kr dh xbZ FkhA u;h çfrjks/kh
resistant variety is called ‘Parbhani Kranti’. fdLe ijHkkuh Økafr dgykrh gSA
103. Answer (4) 103. mÙkj (4)
104. mÙkj (3)
104. Answer (3)
105. mÙkj (3)
105. Answer (3)
iwlk Lokuh çjksg rFkk Qy Nsnd ds fy, çfrjks/kh
Pusa Sawani is resistant to shoot and fruit borer. gksrh gSA
106. Answer (4) 106. mÙkj (4)
107. Answer (3) 107. mÙkj (3)
108. Answer (2) 108. mÙkj (2)
109. mÙkj (2)
109. Answer (2)
,lhVkscsDVj ,lhVh] ,lhfVd vEy dk fuekZ.k djrk
Acetobacter aceti, produces acetic acid which can
be further used in preparation of vinegar. While,
gS ftldk vkxs fousxj ds fuekZ.k esa mi;ksx gksrk gSA
citric acid produced by Aspergillus niger is tcfd flfVªd vEy] ,LiftZyl ukbxj }kjk
employed in dyeing, inks, medicines, flavouring mRikfnr fd;k tkrk gS] ftldk mi;ksx jatd]
and preservation of food L;kgh] vkS"kf/k] [kk| ds Lokn rFkk ifjj{k.k esa fd;k
110. Answer (3) tkrk gSA
111. Answer (1) 110. mÙkj (3)
111. mÙkj (1)
Major component of biogas in methane (50-70%)
which is highly inflammable, other gases are CO2 tSoxSl dk eq[; ?kVd feFksu (50-70%) gS tks
(30-40%) and mixture of other gases H2, H2S etc. vR;f/kd Toyu'khy gksrh gS] vU; xSls CO2
(10%). (30-40%) rFkk nwljh xSlksa H2, H2S bR;kfn dk feJ.k
112. Answer (1) (10%) gksrk gSA
112. mÙkj (1)
113. Answer (2)
113. mÙkj (2)
114. Answer (4)
114. mÙkj (4)
A-Bacteriophage, B-Adenovirus, C-TMV
A-thok.kqHkksth, B-,fMuksok;jl, C-TMV
115. Answer (3) 115. mÙkj (3)
116. Answer (3) 116. mÙkj (3)
In anaerobic sludge digester, anaerobic vok;oh; iad ikfp= esa vok;oh; feFksukstfur
methanogenic bacteria, digest the bacteria and thok.kq] iad esa mifLFkr thok.kq rFkk dod dk ikpu
fungi present in sludge. djrk gSA
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117. Answer (2) 117. mÙkj (2)

118. Answer (1) 118. mÙkj (1)
119. Answer (4) 119. mÙkj (4)
120. Answer (1)
120. mÙkj (1)
121. Answer (1)
121. mÙkj (1)
122. Answer (2)
122. mÙkj (2)
123. Answer (2)
123. mÙkj (2)
124. Answer (2)
124. mÙkj (2)
Since,
pw¡fd,
N = 30
N = 30
Nt = 42 (30 + 12 = 42)
Nt = 42 (30 + 12 = 42)
t = 1 year
t = 1 o"kZ
 N = Nt = N  42 − 30 = 12
 N = Nt = N  42 − 30 = 12
Hence,
vr%,
N 12
Birth rate =  = 0.4 offsprings N 12
Nt 30  1 tEu nj =  = 0.4 larfr;k¡
Nt 30  1
per lotus per year.
çfro"kZ çfr dey
125. Answer (2)
125. mÙkj (2)
dN
Equation = rN describes geometric growth dN
dt lehdj.k = rN T;kferh; o`f) dh O;k[;k djrk
dt
resulting in a J-shaped curve.
gS ftlls J-vkdkjh oØ curk gS tcfd lehdj.k
dN K −N K −N
Whereas, equation = rN   describes
dN
= rN  laHkkj o`f) dh O;k[;k djrk gS
dt  K  
dt  K 
logistic growth resulting in a sigmoid curve. ftlls flXekWbM oØ curk gSA
126. Answer (1)
126. mÙkj (1)
127. Answer (3)
127. mÙkj (3)
128. Answer (2)
128. mÙkj (2)
129. Answer (1)
129. mÙkj (1)
130. Answer (2)
130. mÙkj (2)
Organisms like all birds and mammals are
regulators. tho tSls dh i{kh rFkk Lru/kkjh fu;ked gksrs gSaA
131. Answer (3) 131. mÙkj (3)
132. Answer (3) 132. mÙkj (3)

Tropical rain forest. m".kdfVca/kh o"kkZ ouA
133. Answer (3) 133. mÙkj (3)
134. Answer (1) 134. mÙkj (1)
135. Answer (2) 135. mÙkj (2)
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136. Answer (2) 136. mÙkj (2)

Poliomyelitis is a viral disease caused by polio iksfy;ksekbfyfVl ,d fo"kk.koh; jksx gS] tks iksfy;ks
virus. fo"kk.kq ls gksrk gSA
137. Answer (2) 137. mÙkj (2)
A tiny protozoan is responsible for causing ,d NksVk çksVkstksu] nqnZe eysfj;k ds fy, mÙkjnk;h
malignant malaria.
gksrk gSA
138. Answer (2)
138. mÙkj (2)
Many fungi belonging to the genera Microsporum, ekbØksLiksje] VªkbdksQkbVkWu vkSj ,fiMeksQZ kbVkWu vkfn
Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are responsible
oa”k ¼tsujk½ ds vusd dod] nkn ¼fjaxokeZ½ ds fy,
for ringworms.
mÙkjnk;h gksrs gSaA
139. Answer (1)
139. mÙkj (1)
Innate immunity is non-specific type of defence, lgt izfrj{kk ,d izdkj dh vfof”k’V j{kk gS tks tUe
that is present at the time of birth. ds le; ekStwn gksrh gSA
Innate immunity consists of four types of barriers. lgt izfrj{kk esa pkj izdkj ds jks/k gksrs gSA ;s
These are physical barriers, physiological barriers, “kkjhfjd jks/k] dkf;dh; jks/k] dksf”kdh; jks/k rFkk
cellular barriers and cytokine barriers.
lkbVksdkbu jks/k gksrs gSA
140. Answer (3) 140. mÙkj (3)
Incidences of vector-borne (Aedes mosquito) jksxokgd&okfgr ?kVukvksa ds dkj.k gksus okys jksx
diseases like Dengue and Chikungunya are tSls Msxw rFkk fpduxqfu;k Hkkxr ds vuqd Hkkxksa esa
widespread in many parts of India. Ol;kid :i ls QSys gq, gS
141. Answer (4) 141. mÙkj (4)
Entamoeba histolytica is a protozoan parasite in Ekkuo dh o`gr~ vkar esa ik;s tkus okys ,aVvehck
the large intestine of humans which causes fgLVksfyfVdk uked izksVkstksu ijthoh ls vehork
amoebiasis (amoebic dysentery) and is detected ¼vehch vfrlkj½ gksrk gSA rFkk bldh igpku ey
using routine stool testing. ijh{k.k ds mi;ksx ls dh tkrh gSA
142. Answer (4) 142. mÙkj (4)
HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical HIV vkofjr fo’kk.kq gksrk gS ftlesa ,dy&jTtqd
molecules of single-stranded RNA and two RNA ds nks le:i v.kq rFkk foijhr VªkalfØIVst ds
molecules of reverse transcriptase. nsk v.kq gksrs gSA
143. Answer (1) 143. mÙkj (1)
Cancer causing viruses called oncogenic viruses dSalj mRiUu djus okys fo’kk.kq vcqZnh; fo’kk.kq dgykrs
have genes called viral oncogenes. They could gS] buesa tks thu gksrs gS mUgsa fo’kk.kqoh; vcqZnthu
lead to oncogenic transformation of cells. dgrs gS os dksf”kdkvksa dk dSaljtuh :ikarj.k dj nsrs
144. Answer (3) gSA
In our country, the National AIDS Control 144. mÙkj (3)
Organisation (NACO) and other non-governmental gekjs ns”k esa] jk’Vªh; ,M~l fu;a=.k laxBu (NACO)
organisations (NGOS) are doing a lot to educate vkSj vU; xSj&ljdkjh laxBu (NGOS) yksxksa dks ,M~l
people about AIDS. ds ckjs esa f”kf{kr djus ds fy, cgqr dke dj jgs gSA
145. Answer (1) 145. mÙkj (1)
Cancer cells do not show contact inhibition. dSalj dksf”kdk,a laLi”kZ laneu ugha n”kkZrh gSA nqnZe
Malignant tumours exhibit metastasis while benign vcqZn esVkLVsfll n”kkZrs gS tcfd lqne vcqZn
tumours remain confined to their site of origin. lkekU;r;k vius ewy LFkku rd lhfer jgrs gSA
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146. Answer (2) 146. mÙkj (2)

A person likely to develop tetanus is immunised by ,d O;fDr ftls VSVul gksus dh laHkkouk gS mls iwoZ
administering preformed antibodies. Anti-
fufeZr çfrjf{k;ksa dks nsdj izfrjf{kr fd;k tkrk gSA
histamines and steroids are used to give a quick
relief from allergy. Preformed antibodies need to
,ythZ ls tYnh vkjke ds fy, izfrfgLVSfeu rFkk
be injected to treat the bite by a venomous snake.
LVhjkWbM dk mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gSA fo’kSys lkai ds
Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disorder dkVus ij mipkj ds fy, iwoZfufeZr izfrjf{k;ksa ds
and its patients are prescribed steroid and vUr{ksi.k dh vko”;drk gksrh gSA #esVkWbM
immunosuppressive drugs. vkFkzkbsZ afVl ,d Lo&izfrj{kk jksx gS rFkk blds jksfx;ksa
147. Answer (3) dks LVhjkWbM rFkk bE;wukslqizsflo (çfrj{kk neud)
Cocaine, commonly called 'coke' or 'crack' is
vkS’kf/k;k¡ nh tkrh gSA
usually snorted. It has a potent stimulating action 147. mÙkj (3)
on central nervous system, producing a sense of dksdsu dks lkekU;r% 'dksd' ;k 'ØSd' dgk tkrk gS bls
euphoria. izk;% tksj ls lkal }kjk [khapk tkrk gS bldk dsUnzh;
148. Answer (3) raf=dk ra= ij tksjnkj míhid vlj iM+rk gS ftlls
Smoking reduces the concentration of haembound lq[kkHkkl ¼;wQksfj;k½ dh vuqHkwfr gksrh gSA
oxygen. This causes oxygen deficiency in the 148. mÙkj (3)
body. /kzeziku ls ghevkc) vkWDlhtu dh lkanzrk ?kV tkrh
149. Answer (2) gS blls “kjhj esa vkWDlhtu dh deh gks tkrh gSA
Dependence is the tendency of the body to 149. mÙkj (2)
manifest a characteristic and unpleasant fuHkZjrk “kjhj dh o`fÙk gS tks Mªx@,sYdksgy dh
withdrawal syndrome if regular dose of fu;fer ek=k vpkud can dj fn;s tkus ij
drugs/alcohol is abruptly discontinued. This is vfHky{kf.kd vkSj vfiz; fofuorZu lay{k.k ds :Ik esa
characterised by anxiety, shakiness, nausea and O;Dr gksrh gSA blds vfHky{k.k gS] fpark] daiu] fepyh
sweating, which may be relieved when use is
vkSj ilhuk vkuk ftuls Mªx@,sYdksgy dk bLrseky
resumed again.
fQj ls pkyw dj fn;s tkus ij NqVdkjk fey tkrk gSA
150. Answer (3)
150. mÙkj (3)
Detection and diagnosis of cancer may be done
dSalj dk vfHkKku rFkk funku jDr rFkk vfLFk eTtk
by blood and bone marrow tests (e.g. for
increased cell counts in the case of leukaemia).
ijh{k.k }kjk fd;k tkrk gS ¼mnkgj.k ds fy,
Y;wdsfe;k ds fLFkfr esa dksf”kdk la[;k esa o`f) gksrh gS½
Common treatments prescribed for different types
fofHkUu izdkj ds dSalj dk mipkj “kY;fØ;k
of cancer are : Surgery, Radiotherapy/ Radiation
therapy, Chemotherapy Immunotherapy etc.
jsfM;ksFksjsih@fofdj.k fpfdRlk] jlksfpfdRlk]
bE;wuksFksjsih bR;kfn }kjk fd;k tkrk gSA
151. Answer (3)
151. mÙkj (3)
The primary lymphoid organs are bone marrow
and thymus.
vfLFkeTtk rFkk Fkkbel izkFkfed ylhdkHk vax gSA
152. mÙkj (2)
152. Answer (2)
bE;wuksXyksfcu dk izR;sd ,dyd 2 nh?kZ rFkk 2 y?kq
Each monomer of immunoglobin is made up of 2
heavy and 2 light chains. Each antibody molecule
Jà[kyk dk cuk gksrk gSA izR;sd izfrj{kh v.kq esa pkj
has four peptide chains two small, called light
isIVkbM Jà[kykad] nks NksVh ftUgs y?kq Jà[kyk dgrs
chains and two longer, called heavy chains. gSA rFkk nks cM+h] ftUgsa nh?kZ Ükà[kyk,a dgrs gS blfy,
Hence, an antibody is represented as H2L2. ,d izfrj{kh dks H2L2 ds :i esa n”kkZ;k tkrk gSA
153. Answer (2) 153. mÙkj (2)
Several genes called cellular oncogenes (c-onc) izlkekU; dksf”kdkvksa eas vusd thuksa dk irk pyk gS
or proto oncogenes have been identified in normal ftUgsa dqN fo”ks’k ifjfLFkfr;ksa esa lfØf;r fd, tkus
cells which, when activated under certain ij os dksf”kdkvksa dk dSaljtuh :ikarj.k dj nsrs gSA
conditions, could lead to oncogenic transformation ;s thu dksf”kdh; vcqZnthu ;k vkfn vcqZnthu
of the cells. dgykrs gSA
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154. Answer (2) 154. mÙkj (2)

Haemozoin is responsible for the chill and high ghekstksbu] fBBqju vkSj izR;sd rhu ls pkj fnu ds
fever recurring every three to four days. vUrjky esa vkus okys mPp vkorhZ Toj ds fy,
155. Answer (2) mÙkjnk;h gksrk gSA
IgA is found abundantly in colostrum. 155. mÙkj (2)
IgA dksyksLVªe esa izpqj ek=k esa ikbZ tkrh gSA
156. Answer (3)
156. mÙkj (3)
Opiate narcotics – Opium, morphine, heroin,
pethidine, methadone etc. vksfi;e] ekWQhZu] gsjksbu] isFkhMhu] esFkkMkWu bR;kfn
157. Answer (2)
vksfi,sV ukdksfZ VDl gksrs gSA
157. mÙkj (2)
Asbestos dust is also a chemical carcinogen
linked to cancer of lungs. ,lcsLVksl /kwy Hkh jklk;fud dkflZukstu gksrk gS tks
158. Answer (3)
QqDQql ds dSalj ls lacaf/kr gksrk gSA
158. mÙkj (3)
Cocaine, commonly called coke or crack is
obtained from coca plant Erythroxylum coca. dksdsu dks lkekU;r% dksd ;k ØSd dgrs gSa] ;g dksdk
ikni bfjFkzkstkbye dksdk ls izkIr gksrk gSA
159. Answer (1)
159. mÙkj (1)
Alzheimer’s disease is not an autoimmune
disease. Alzheimer’s disease occurs due to low ,Ytkbej jksx ,d Loizfrj{kk jksx ugha gSA ,Ytkbej
acetylcholine and manifests as loss of memory. jksx fuEu ,slhVkbydksfyu ds dkj.k gksrk gS rFkk
160. Answer (1)
Le`fr ds vHkko dks n”kkZrk gSA
160. mÙkj (1)
The only antibody that can cross placenta during
pregnancy is IgG. dsoy IgG izfrj{kh lxHkZrk ds nkSjku vijk ls xqtjrh
gSA
161. Answer (3)
161. mÙkj (3)
HIV transmission can also occur from infected
mother to her child through placenta. HIV dk lapkj.k laØfer ekrk ls mlds f”k”kq dks Hkh
vijk ds ek/;e ls gks ldrk gSA
162. Answer (3)
162. mÙkj (3)
Cells from malignant tumors slough and reach
distant sites through blood and whenever they get nqnZe vcqZn ls mrjh gqbZ dksf”kdk,a jDr }kjk nwjnjkt
lodged in the body, they start a new tumor there. LFkyksa ij igq¡p tkrh gS vkSj tgk¡ Hkh ;s tkrh gS u;s
163. Answer (1)
vcqZn cukuk izkjEHk dj nsrh gSA
163. mÙkj (1)
Bacteria like Streptococcus pneumoniae and
Haemophilus influenzae are responsible for the LVªsIVksdksdl U;qeksuh vkSj gheksfQYl bUQq,ath tSls
disease pneumonia in humans which infects the thok.kq ekuo esa U;qkseksfu;k jksx ds fy, mÙkjnk;h gS]
alveoli (air filled sacs) of the lungs. bl jksx esa QqIQql ds ok;qdks’B ¼ok;qdks’Bksa esa rjy Hkj
164. Answer (1) tkrk gS½ laØfer gks tkrs gSA
164. mÙkj (1)
The lining of the major tracts (respiratory,
digestive and urogenital tracts) has lymphoid izeq[k iFkksa ¼”olu] ikpu vkSj tuuew= iFk½ ds
tissue termed as MALT (Mucosa associated vkLrjksa ds Hkhrj ylhdkHk Ård fLFkr gS tks “ys’e
lymphoid tissue). laca) ylhdkHk Ård (MALT) dgykrs gSA
165. Answer (2) 165. mÙkj (2)
The spleen is a large bean-shaped organ. It Iyhgk lse ds vkdkj dk cM+k vax gSA blesa eq[;:i
mainly contains lymphocytes and phagocytes. It ls ylhdk.kq vkSj Hk{kdk.kq gksrs gSA ;g :f/kj esa iSnk
acts as a filter of the blood by trapping blood- gksus okys lw{e thoksa dks Qkaldj :f/kj fuL;and ds
borne microorganisms. :Ik esa dke djrs gSA
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166. Answer (1) 166. mÙkj (1)

Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva Ykkblkstkbe tks Losn] ykj vkSj vklqvksa esa mifLFkr
and tears, destroys certain types of bacteria. gksrs gS og vusd izdkj ds thok.kqvksa dks u’V djrs
167. Answer (1)
gSA
167. mÙkj (1)
Fertilization and development takes place in
mosquito’s gut. Sporozoites infect liver cells and fu’kspu rFkk ifjo/kZu ePNj dh vkar esa gksrk gSA
mature into schizonts. The motile zygote of LiksjkstkbVl ;d`r dksf”kdkvksa dks laØfer djrs gS
malarial parasite is called ookinete. rFkk 'kkbtksUV esa ifjiDo gks tkrs gS eysfj;k ijthoh
168. Answer (3) ds xfr”khy ;qXeut dks ÅvksfduhV dgrs gSA
The foetus also receives some antibodies from 168. mÙkj (3)
their mother through the placenta during lxHkZrk ds nkSjku Hkwz.k viuh ekrk ls dqN izfrjf{k;k¡
pregnancy. This is an example of Natural passive vijk }kjk izkIr djrk gS] ;g izkd`frd fuf’Ø;
immunity.
izfrj{kk dk ,d mnkgj.k gSA
169. Answer (3)
169. mÙkj (3)
IgG – Anamnestic response.
IgG – ,ukefLVd vuqfØ;k
170. Answer (1) 170. mÙkj (1)
The overall ability of an organism to fight with the fdlh tho dh jksxdkjd thoksa ls yM+us dh {kerk
disease – causing organisms, conferred by the
izfrjks{kh ra= ls feyrh gS ftls izfrj{kk dgrs gSA
immune system is called immunity.
171. mÙkj (2)
171. Answer (2)
Pksruk izlkjh vkS’kf/k;k¡ fcuk fdlh okLrfod laosnh
Psychedelic drugs change one’s behaviour,
míhid ds fdlh ds O;ogkj] fopkj rFkk vuqHkwfr dks
thoughts and perception without any actual
sensory stimulus. These are LSD, cannabinoids,
ifjofrZr djrh gSA ;s LSD dsusfcukWbM~l bR;kfn gksrh
etc. gSA
172. Answer (2) 172. mÙkj (2)
HIV enters into helper T-lymphocytes (TH), HIV lgk;d T-fyEQkslkbV~l (TH) esa izos”k djds
replicates and produces progeny viruses. The izfrd`fr djrk gS rFkk larfr fo’kk.kqvksa dks mRiUu
progeny viruses lead to a progressive decrease in djrk gSA larfr fo’kk.kq ds dkj.k laØfer O;fDr ds
the number of helper T-lymphocytes in the body “kjhj esa lgk;d T-fyQkslkbV~l dh la[;k esa rsth ls
of the infected person. deh gks tkrh gSA
173. Answer (2) 173. mÙkj (2)
In vaccines, inactivated/weakened pathogens are oSDlhu esa fuf’Ø;@detksj jksxtud “kjhj esa izos”k
introduced into the body. When antibodies are djok;s tkrs gSA tc ijiks’kh tho ds “kjhj esa fuosf”kr
produced in the host body against the introduced jksx tudksa ds izfr izfrjf{k;k¡ mRiUu gksrh gS rks bls
pathogen, it is called active immunity. lfØ; izfrj{kk dgrs gSA
174. Answer (1) 174. mÙkj (1)
Filariasis, Malaria – through bite of female Qkbysfj,fll] eysfj;k – eknk ePNj okgdksa ds
mosquito vectors. dkVus ls
Chikungunya – through bite of Aedes mosquito. fpduxqfu;k – ,Mht ePNj ds dkVus ls
175. Answer (1) 175. mÙkj (1)
Gambusia fish is larvicidal. xEcwfl;k eNyh ,d fMEcduk”kh gSA
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176. Answer (3) 176. mÙkj (3)

The side effects of the use of anabolic steroids in Ekfgykvksa esa mip;h LVsjkbMksa ds lsou ds vuq’kaxh
females include masculinisation (features like izHkkoksa esa iqLRou ¼eSLdqfyukbtslu½ ¼iq#’k tSls y{k.k½]
males), increased aggressiveness, mood swings, c<+h vØkedrk] Hkkon”kk esa mrkj&p<+ko] volkn]
depression, abnormal menstrual cycles, vlkekU; vkrZo pØ] eqg¡ vkSj “kjhj ij ckyksa dh
excessive hair growth on the face and body, vR;f/kd o`f)] Hkx”ksQ dk c<+ tkuk] vkokt dk xgjk
enlargement of clitoris, deepening of voice. gksuk “kkfey gSA
177. Answer (3) 177. mÙkj (3)
Computed tomography uses X-rays to generate a vfHkdfyr VkWeksxzkQh X-fdj.kksa dk mi;ksx djds
three-dimensional image of the internals of an fdlh vax ds Hkhrjh Hkkxksa dh f=foe izfrfcEc cukrh
object. MRI, uses strong magnetic fields and non- gSA thfor Ård eas oSd`frd ¼iSFkksykWftdy½ vkSj
ionising radiations to accurately detect dkf;dh; ifjorZuksa dk ,dne lgh irk yxkus ds
pathological changes in the living tissue. fy, MRI esa rst pqEcdh; {ks=ksa vkSj vuk;udkjh
178. Answer (2) fofdj.kksa dk mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gSA
178. mÙkj (2)
Syphilis is a bacterial disease caused by
Treponema pallidum. flQfyl ,d thok.oh; jksx gS tks fVªiksusek iSyhMe
}kjk gksrk gSA
179. Answer (1)
179. mÙkj (1)
Thymus is degenerated in old individuals resulting Fkkbeksflu ds mRiknu esa deh ds dkj.k o`) O;fDr;ksa
in a decreased production of thymosins. esa Fkkbel fod`r gks tkrk gSA Fkkbeksflu
Thymosins play a major role in the differentiation
T-fyaQkslkbV ds foHksnu esa izeq[k Hkwfedk fuHkkrk gS tks
of T-lymphocyte, which provide cell-mediated
immunity. As a result, the immune responses of
dksf”kdk ekf/;r izfrj{kk iznku djrk gS ftlds
old persons become weak.
ifj.kkeLo:i o`) O;fDr;ksa dh izfrj{kk vuqfØ;k
detksj gks tkrh gSA
180. Answer (3)
180. mÙkj (3)
Toxoids provide active immunity. VkDlkWbM lfØ; izfrj{kk iznku djrs gSA
❑ ❑ ❑
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@AakashDelhi02
21/04/2020 CODE-A
Test - 9
Topics covered :
Physics : Ray Optics and Optical Instruments, Wave Optics, Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter, Atoms
and Nuclei, Semiconductor Devices
Chemistry : Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids, Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen,
Biomolecules, Polymers, Chemistry in Everyday Life
Botany : Ecosystem, Biodiversity and Conservation, Environmental Issues
Zoology : Strategies for Enhancement of Food Production, Biotechnology: Principles and Processes,
Biotechnology and Its Applications
Instructions :
PHYSICS
1. A person can see clearly objects only when 3. A compound microscope consisting of two
they lies between 25 cm and 200 cm from his convex lenses of focal lengths 3 cm and 5 cm
eyes. In order to increase the maximum distance placed 25 cm apart. Where should an object be
of distinct vision to infinity, the power of placed left to objective, so that the final image
correcting lens, the person has to use, will be (virtual) is formed at a distance of 25 cm from the
(1) + 0.5 D (2) – 0.5 D eye?
(3) + 0.25 D (4) – 0.25 D (1) 1.5 cm (2) 5.5 cm
2. An air bubble in a glass slab (µ = 1.5) when (3) 3 cm (4) 3.5 cm
viewed from one side appears at 9 cm and
4. A mirror produces a magnified and erect image
appears at 5 cm from other side. The thickness
of an object. The nature of mirror will be
of the slab is
(1) 21 cm (1) Convex
(2) 9.33 cm (2) Concave

(3) 14 cm (3) Plane
(4) 18.5 cm (4) Both (1) and (3)
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5. The refractive indices of a glass prism for red, 11. If R is the radius of a nucleus and A is mass
yellow and violet colours are, 1.690, 1.695 and number, then the plot of ln(R/R0) versus ln(A) will
1.705 respectively. The dispersive power of the be
glass will be (nearly) (1) An ellipse
(1) 0.0215 (2) 0.0115 (2) A straight line
(3) 0.0155 (4) 0.0415 (3) A parabola
6. Choose the incorrect statement (4) A Hyperbola
(1) In Rayleigh scattering, amount of scattering 12. A monochromatic light of wavelength λ is incident
is inversely proportional to fourth power of
on an isolated metallic sphere of radius R. The
wavelength
threshold wavelength is λ0(λ0 > λ). The number of
(2) Secondary rainbow is fainter than primary
photoelectrons emitted before the emission of
rainbow
photoelectron will stop, is
(3) Light of red colour is scattered most in
atmosphere 4πε0Rhc 4πε0 Rhc ( λ0 + λ )
(4) In reflecting telescope, parabolic mirror can
(1) 2 ( λ0 − λ ) (2)
e e 2 λλ0
be used as an objective to remove the
spherical aberration 4πε0Rhc  1 1  4πε0 hc  1 1 
(3) λ − λ  (4) λ − λ
7. A plano concave lens fits into a plano convex e2  0  e  0 
lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel to each
other as shown in the figure. If µ1 = 1.4, µ2 = 1.6 13. A photon of energy hν is absorbed by a free
and radius of curvature R = 20 cm, then the focal electron of a metal having work function
length of the combination is (w < hν), then
(1) Electron is sure to come out
(2) Either electron does not come out or it will
come out with kinetic energy (hν – w)
(3) It may come out with kinetic energy less than
or equal to (hν – w)
(4) The electron is sure to come out with kinetic
(1) –100 cm (2) 50 cm energy (hν – w)
(3) + 100 cm (4) – 50 cm 14. The plot of stopping potential (V) and frequency
8. In one mean life (ν) of the light incident in an experiment on
photoelectric effect is shown in the figure. The
(1) Half of the initial nuclei will decay
ratio (h/e) will come out
(2) More than half of the initial nuclei will decay
(3) Less than half of the initial nuclei will decay
(4) All the active nuclei will decay
9. A radioactive sample has 1.6 × 1018 radioactive
nuclei at a certain instant. After three half lives
the number of nuclei that will remain undecayed
is
(1) 2 × 1018 (2) 5 × 1018
(1) 4.14 × 10–15 V s (2) 2.07 × 10–15 V s
(3) 2 × 1017 (4) 4 × 1017
(3) 8.28 × 10–15 V s (4) 2.58 × 10–14 V s
10. A hydrogen atom in ground state absorbs
15. If the momentum of an electron is changed by
12.75 eV of energy. The orbital angular
∆p, then the de-Broglie wavelength associated
momentum of the electron is increased by
with it changes by 0.2%. The initial momentum of
(1) 1.05 × 10-34 J s the electron will be
(2) 2.11 × 10-34 J s (1) 500∆p (2) 200∆p
(3) 3.16 × 10-34 J s
∆p ∆p
(4) 4.22 × 10-34 J s (3) (4)
500 200
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16. When photon of frequency ν falls on a metal 21. Which of the following graph represent the
plate of work function φ0, the photoelectrons of variation of speed of proton and the associated
maximum kinetic energy K are ejected. If the de-Broglie wavelength?
frequency of radiation is tripled, the maximum
kinetic energy of the ejected electrons will be
(1) K + φ0 (1) (2)
(2) K + 2hν
(3) 3K + 2φ0
(4) Both (2) and (3)
17. Better material for solar cells is
(1) Si (2) GaAs
(3) (4)
(3) Cdse (4) PbS
18. Two identical capacitors A and B are charged to
the same potential and are connected in two
circuits at time t = 0, as shown in the figure.
22. In YDSE, distance between the slits is 3.73 λ,
where λ is the wavelength of light. The number of
maximum which can be obtained in upper portion
of screen excluding central maxima, is
(1) 3.73 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 4.73
23. Light emitted from a distant star is observed at
The charge on the capacitors C1 is Q1 and on C2 frequency 5500 MHz for the star stationary with
Q respect to us. If the star is approaching us with
it is Q2, at time t = RC. The ratio 1 is (C1 = C2 = speed 3 × 105 m/s, then the observed frequency
Q2
will be
C)
(1) 5505.5 Hz (2) 5505.5 MHz
1 (3) 5500.5 MHz (4) 5505.5 kHz
(1) e (2)
e
24. Two coherent sources with intensity Ι0 and 4Ι0
1 respectively interfere in a medium. The maximum
(3) 1 (4) 2
e intensity of resultant wave is n times the
19. Choose the correct statement(s) for minimum intensity of resultant wave. The value of
electron/proton microscope n2 is
(1) 3 (2) 9
(1) Resolving power (R.P) ∝ de Broglie
wavelength ( λ ) (3) 81 (4) 27
(2) Resolving power (R.P) ∝ momentum (p) of 25. In YDSE, the spacing between the slits is
the particle 0.03 mm and wavelength of light used is λ. If the
angular width of a fringe formed on a distant
(3) (Resolving power)Proton > (Resolving
screen is 1°, then value of λ is
power)electron, for same speed of electron and
proton (1) 5233 Å (2) 5000 Å
(4) Both (2) and (3) (3) 5500 Å (4) 6500 Å
20. de-Broglie wavelength of an electron in 4th Bohr’s 26. Choose the incorrect statement for a good
orbit (λ) is related to the radius r of the orbit as. telescope (where symbols have their usual
meaning)
π
(1) λ = r (1) It has high magnifying power
4
1
π (2) Resolving power is proportional to
(2) λ = r λ
2
(3) Brightness of image is proportional to square
3π of diameter of objective lens
(3) λ = r
4 (4) Resolving power is larger when red light is
(4) λ = πr used instead of blue light
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27. The slit width of a single slit diffraction such that 34. If the ionization energy of an electron in ground
n maxima of double slit interference pattern are state of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, then energy of
obtained within central maxima of the diffraction a He+ ion in first excited state will be
pattern is (d is distance between slits for YDSE (1) 13.6 eV (2) –13.6 eV
arrangement and screen distance D and light
(3) 54.4 eV (4) –54.4 eV
used are same for both arrangements)
35. The shortest wavelength of Pfund series of
2d H-atom is
(1) (2) 2d
n2
25 16
2d (1) (2)
(3) nd (4) R R
n 9 36
(3) (4)
28. A polariser and an analyser are inclined to each R R
other at 45°. The intensity of the polarised light 36. The optical density of turpentine is higher than
emerging from the analyser is 2Ι0. The intensity that of water while its mass density is lower. The
of the unpolarised light incident on the polariser figure shows a layer of turpentine floating over
would be water in a container. For which of the four rays
(1) 8Ι0 (2) 4Ι0 incident on turpentine in figure, the path shown
may be correct?
(3) 2Ι0 (4) 4 2 Ι0
29. The angle of polarisation for a medium is 53°.

The critical angle for this medium will be
2 3
(1) sin−1   (2) sin−1  
3 4
(1) 2 (2) 3
3 4
(3) cos−1   (4) sin−1   (3) 4 (4) Both (2) and (4)
4 5
37. A very heavy nucleus having mass number
30. Among the following for which transition of a
A = 240 is having
hydrogen atom, photon of lowest wavelength are
emitted. (1) Lower binding energy as compared to that of
a nucleus with A = 120
(1) n = 2 to n = 1 (2) n = 4 to n = 3
(2) Lower binding energy per nucleon as
(3) n = 3 to n = 1 (4) n = 4 to n = 1 compared to that of a nucleus with
31. In Rutherford scattering experiment, if the angle A = 120
of deviation is 180°, then impact parameter will (3) Same binding energy per nucleon as
be compared to that of a nucleus with A = 120
(1) 1 (2) 2 (4) Both (1) and (3) are correct.
(3) Infinity (4) Zero  dN 
38. The variation of decay rate   of two
 dt 
32. If Kα X-ray for an element (Z = 41) has
radioactive sample A and B with time(t) is shown
wavelength 0.7 Å, then the wavelength of the
in the figure. If τA and τB be the respective mean
corresponding radiation for element (Z = 29) will lives of A and B, then
be
(1) 1.43 Å (2) 1.83 Å
(3) 2.1 Å (4) 1.13 Å
33. The velocity of an electron revolving in nth orbit of
cn p
a hydrogen atom is given by , where c is
K
speed of light, then value of K and p is
(1) K = 137, p = 1 (2) K = 137, p = –1 (1) τ A =τB (2) τ A > τB
(3) K = 274, p = 2 (4) K = 274, p = –1
(3) τ A < τB (4) 2τ A =τB
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39. Mx and My denote the atomic masses of the 43. Figure below shows the transfer characteristics
parent and daughter nuclei respectively in of a CE amplifier. Choose the false statement.
radioactive decay. The Q value for β+ decay is
Q0. If me denotes the mass of an electron, then
value of Q0 is
(1) (Mx – My ) c 2
(2) ( M x – My − 2me ) c 2
(3) ( M x – My + me ) c 2
(1) At Vi = 0.5 V, transistor is in cut off (switch
(4) (Mx – My + 2me ) c 2 off) mode
40. The semiconductor used for the fabrication of (2) At Vi = 1 V, it can be used as an amplifier
visible LEDs (Light emitting diodes) must have a
(3) At Vi = 2.5 V transistor is in cut off mode
minimum band gap of
(1) 1 eV (2) 1.8 eV (4) At Vi = 2.2 V, transistor is in saturation
(switch ON) mode
(3) 2.5 eV (4) 0.7 eV
41. A and B are inputs to a logic gate as shown in 44. Consider the statements given below.
the figure.
(a) At absolute zero temperature, an intrinsic
semiconductor acts as an insulator
(b) The fermi level in an intrinsic semi conductor

For the given set of inputs and corresponding lies between the valence band and
output data identify the logic gate. conduction band
A 0 1 0 1 Choose the correct statement(s)
B 1 0 0 1
(1) (a) only
Y 0 0 1 1
(2) (b) only
(1) AND (2) NAND
(3) Ex-OR (4) Ex-NOR (3) Both (a) and (b)
42. A 220 V ac supply is connected between the two (4) Neither (a) nor (b)
points A and B as shown in the figure. The output
waveform (qualitative) across the diode is 45. In a Zener regulated power supply, a Zener diode
with Vz = 6.0 V, Iz = 5IL is used for regulation. The
load current is to be 4.0 mA and the unregulated
input is 10 V, as shown in the figure. The value of
series resistance Rs required will be
(1)
(2)
(1) 167 Ω
(3)
(2) 200 Ω
(3) 267 Ω
(4)
(4) 367 Ω
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CHEMISTRY
46. Which among the following will not react with 52. Monomer(s) of Nylon 6 is /are
Fehling’s solution?
(1) H2N(CH2)6NH2 and HOOC(CH2)4COOH
(1) HCOOH (2) CH3CHO
(3) PhCHO (4) (2)

(3) HO (CH2) 2 OH and HOOC(CH2)4COOH
47. Consider the following reactions
(4)
53. Which among the following is thermosetting

Product B is
polymer?
(1) Urea -formaldehyde resin
(1)
(2) Polythene
(3) Polystyrene
(2)
(4) PVC
(3)
54. The pair of compounds which can be
(4) distinguished by Ι2/NaOH is
48. Deficiency of which vitamin causes beri beri?
(1) HCHO and PhCHO
(1) Thiamine (2) Riboflavin
(2) CH3CHO and C2H5OH
(3) Pyridoxine (4) Retinol
49. Incorrect statement among the following is
(1) Histidine is an essential amino acid (3)
(2) Proline is a cyclic amino acid (4)
(3) In aqueous solution Alanine can exist as
Zwitter ion
(4) Glycine is optically active amino acid
(1) Monomer of natural rubber is
50. Which among the following bases is absent in
RNA? 1, 3-butadiene
(1) Uracil (2) Guanine (2) Natural rubber is soluble in non-polar
solvents
(3) Cytosine (4) Thymine
51. Consider the following reaction (3) Natural Rubber is an elastomer
(4) On vulcanisation natural rubber becomes stiff
56. Tetrafluoroethene on polymerisation forms
(1) Orlon (2) Teflon
(3) Glyptal (4) PMMA
Product D is
57. Which among the following is an antacid?
(1) Zantac (2) Dimetapp
(1) (2)
(3) Luminal (4) Iproniazid
58. Dettol is a mixture of
(1) Bithional and Terpineol
(2) Chloroxylenol and Bithional
(3) (4)
(3) Chloroxylenol and Terpineol
(4) Bithional and Iodoform
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59. Most acidic compound among the following is 64. The compound which will react fastest with HCN
is
(1) (2)
(1) Ph – CHO (2)
(3) (4)
65. C – 4 Epimer of D – Glucose is
(3) (4)
(1) D – Mannose (2) D – Allose
(3) D – Galactose (4) D – Idose
60. Consider the following reaction
66. In Etard reaction reagent used is
(1) CrO3/(CH3CO)2O (2) CrO2Cl2
(3) CO/HCl/anh.AlCl3 (4) MnO2
67. Compound having formula C8H10O on reaction
Product C is with sodium liberates hydrogen gas. The same
compound gives positive iodoform test. The
structure of the compound is
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
61. Consider the following molecules

(3) (4)
68. When benzylamine is heated with chloroform in

presence of ethanolic KOH then the product
obtained is
The correct order of their basic strength is
(1) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i) (1) (2)
(2) (ii) > (iii) > (i) > (iv)
(3) (iii) > (ii) > (i) > (iv)
(4) (ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv) (3) (4)
62. The compound having highest percentage of enol
content is 69. The compound which is most easily hydrolysed in
alkaline medium is
(1) (2) (1) MeCO2Me (2) ClCH2CO2Me
(3) CHCl2CO2Me (4) EtCO2Et
(3) (4) 70. Consider the following statements

63. When propanamide is treated with Br2/KOH then (i) Insulin is globular protein
the product obtained is (ii) Globular proteins are spherical in shape
(1) Propylamine (iii) Myosin is present in muscles
(2) Ethanamine The correct statements are
(3) Ethanol (1) (i) and (ii) only (2) (ii) and (iii) only
(4) Ethanoic acid (3) (i) and (iii) only (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
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71. The polymer which is obtained by condensation 79. The compound which is most easily
polymerisation is decarboxylated on heating is
(1) Terylene (2) Teflon
(3) Buna–N (4) Orlon
(1) (2)
72. Which among the following is a polyamide?
(1) PHBV (2) Nylon 6,6
(3) Polythene (4) Neoprene
73. Paracetamol is used as (3) (4)
(1) Antihistamine (2) Antacid 80. Consider the following reaction sequence
(3) Analgesic (4) Antibiotic
(1) Amylopectin is insoluble in water
(2) Amylopectin is branched chain polymer of
α–D–glucose products C and D are
(3) Amylose is water soluble component of
starch
(4) In amylose C1–C6 glycosidic linkage is (1)
present
75. Consider the following reactions
(2)
product B is
(1) Tertiary alcohol (2) Primary alcohol (3)
(3) Secondary alcohol (4) Hemiacetal
76. Aniline and benzylamine can be chemically
distinguished by
(1) Benzenesulphonyl chloride (4)
(2) Br2/water
(3) aq.HCl 81. Which among the following is a disproportionation
(4) CHCl3/KOH/∆ reaction?
77. Which compound does not show mutarotation in (1) Hoffmann bromamide degradation
aqueous medium? (2) Aldol condensation reaction
(1) (+)–Sucrose (2) (+)–Maltose (3) Cannizzaro reaction
(3) D– (+)–Glucose (4) (+)–Lactose (4) Carbylamine reaction
78. When benzene diazonium chloride is treated with 82. Which compound does not react with Hinsberg’s
ethanol then the product obtained is reagent?
(1)
(1) (2) (2)
(3)
(3) (4)
(4)
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83. Consider the following reaction 88. Consider the following reaction
,
Product P is
(1)
A and medium, respectively are
(2)
(1) Phenol and acidic medium
(2) Aniline and acidic medium
(3) Phenol and basic medium (3)
(4) Aniline and basic medium
84. Which among the following is narrow spectrum (4)
antibiotic?
89. Which among the following has highest boiling
(1) Ampicillin (2) Amoxycillin point?
(3) Chloramphenicol (4) Penicillin G
85. Number of chiral carbons in (1) (2) CH3COOH
β- D- fructofuranose structure is
(3) CH3CHO (4) CH3CH2OH
(1) 6 (2) 5
(3) 4 (4) 3 90. When benzaldehyde is heated with
acetophenone in presence of dilute NaOH then
86. The given reaction is known as
major product obtained in
(1)
(1) Stephen reaction

(2) HVZ reaction
(2)
(3) Wolff-Kishner reduction
(4) Rosenmund reduction
(3)
87. Which artificial sweetener is unstable at cooking
temperature?
(1) Alitame (2) Sucralose
(4)
(3) Aspartame (4) Saccharin
BOTANY
91. All of the following are characteristics of 93. Select the odd one out from the following.
anthropogenic ecosystem, except
(1) Key industry animals
(1) It has simple food chain
(2) Transducers
(2) It possesses self-regulatory mechanism
(3) Autotrophs
(3) It shows high productivity
(4) Producers
(4) It has little biodiversity
94. How many of the following can be considered as
92. Edaphic factor of an ecosystem is concerned
both primary and secondary carnivore?
with
(1) Wind and air current Shark, Tadpole, Grasshopper, Falcon,
Snake, Tiger
(2) Water and humidity
(3) Physical feature of earth surface, like slope (1) Three (2) Five
(4) Composition of soil (3) Four (4) Two
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95. Select the incorrect match from the following. 102. 'The size of organisms finally reduces at higher
(1) Scavenger – Vulture trophic level'. This statement is always true for
(2) Detrivore – Termite (1) Predator food chain
(3) Parasite – Mosquito (2) Auxilliary food chain
(4) Saprotroph – Fungi (3) Detritus food chain
96. Amongst the following, which one is least (4) Aquatic food chain
productive ecosystem? 103. The pyramid of energy in an ecosystem is always
(1) Sugarcane field (2) Deep sea upright because
(3) Coral reefs (4) Tropical rain forest (1) The flow of energy is unidirectional from
consumer to producer
97. Identify the following statements as true (T) or
false (F) and select the option accordingly. (2) The energy decreases at each trophic level
from producer to consumer level
A. There is not much difference between GPP
and NPP as there is very little or no loss of (3) There is no loss of energy during its transfer
energy in respiration. from one trophic level to other
B. NPP is the available biomass of herbivores (4) Number of producers is always higher than
not for decomposers. that of consumers
C. One of the factors that affects primary 104. All of the following are not given any place in
productivity is temperature. ecological pyramids, except
A B C (1) Saprophytes (2) Decomposers
(1) F T F (3) Detrivores (4) Parasites
(2) F F T 105. Pioneer community in xerarch succession is of
(3) T F F (1) Phytoplanktons (2) Lichens
(4) T F T (3) Zooplanktons (4) Insectivorous plants
98. The process in which part of water-soluble 106. Select the statement(s) which is/are not true.
substances present in decomposing detritus go (a) Composition and structure of communities
down into the soil horizon by percolating water is change in response to change in
called environmental conditions.
(1) Humification (2) Fragmentation (b) Degree of diversity decreases during
(3) Catabolism (4) Leaching ecological succession.
99. What percent of incident solar radiation is (c) Primary succession occurs in areas, like cut
responsible for net primary productivity in the forests.
ecosystem? (d) Climax community has less nutrient
(1) 0.8-4% (2) 20% conservation.
(3) 1.6-8% (4) 8-10% (1) (a) and (b) (2) (a), (c) and (d)
100. In a grazing food chain of aquatic ecosystem, (3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (b) and (d) only
maximum number of individuals will be of 107. For which of the following biogenetic nutrients,
(1) Producers reservoir pool is lithosphere?
(2) Secondary carnivores (1) Nitrogen (2) Hydrogen
(3) Decomposers (3) Oxygen (4) Phosphorus
(4) Top carnivores 108. Which element constitutes maximum percent of
dry weight of organism next to water?
101. In the following food chains, if 10 kJ energy in
(1) Carbon (2) Nitrogen
the form of sunlight is falling on the green parts of
the plant, then what would be the difference in (3) Calcium (4) Phosphorus
amount of energy obtained by lion in food chain I 109. Out of the total cost of various ecosystem
and food chain II? services, 50% accounts for
I. Plant → Deer → Lion (1) Nutrient cycling
II. Plant → Deer → Jackal → Lion (2) Climate regulation
(1) 9 J (2) 0.09 kJ (3) Soil formation
(3) 0.9 J (4) 90 J (4) Habitat for wildlife
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110. About 1000 varieties of mango are found in India. 115. Select incorrect match w.r.t. the species
This is an example of susceptible to extinction and its population
(1) Ecological diversity characteristic.
(2) Species diversity (1) Lion – Large body size
(3) Genetic diversity
(2) Blue whale – Fixed migratory
(4) Community diversity routes
111. The following pie chart shows global biodiversity
w.r.t. proportionate number of different plants (3) Giant panda – Low reproductive
including fungi and lichens. rate
(4) Bald eagle – Low tropic level in
food chain
116. How many of the following should be considered
broadly utilitarian ecosystem services?
Firewood, Oxygen, Flood control, Drugs,
Fibre, Food, Pollination, Erosion control
The labels A and B respectively represent (1) Three (2) Four
(1) Algae and fungi (3) Six (4) Five
(2) Fungi and angiosperms 117. Which one of the following is not the key criteria
(3) Algae and angiosperms for determining a hotspot?
(4) Mosses and ferns (1) Very high levels of species richness
112. India has more than (i) species of birds (2) High level obstacles to check the invasions of
alien species
because most of the land area of our country lies
in (ii) . (3) High degree of endemism
(4) Degree of threat w.r.t. habitat loss
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks (i)
and (ii). 118. The historic convention on Biological Diversity
held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 was
(1) (i) 40,000, (ii) Tropics
(2) (i) 35,000m, (ii) Temperate areas (1) Earth summit
(3) (i) 18,000, (ii) Temperate areas (2) World summit
(4) (i) 1,200, (ii) Tropics (3) Helsinki declaration
113. One of the reasons for rich biodiversity in tropics (4) Nairobi international convention
is that 119. Select the statement which is incorrect w.r.t.
(1) Tropics have warm temperature and high species-area relationship.
humidity (1) For small areas, the value of slope of
(2) Tropical regions are more seasonal regression lies in the range of 0.1 to 0.2
(3) Tropical areas have frequent glaciations (2) On logarithmic scale, the relationship
(4) Tropics have much higher altitudes than becomes rectangular hyperbola
other parts of the earth (3) For a very large area the regression
114. Different zones in a terrestrial biosphere reserve coefficient ranges between 0.6 to 1.2
are labelled as A, B and C as shown below. (4) Alexander von Humboldt found that species
richness increased with increasing explored
area but only upto a limit
120. If we consider the different animal like birds (B),
reptiles (R), fishes (F) and mammals(M), the
correct order for their number of species in
Amazonian rain forest will be
In which zone(s), human settlements of local (1) F > M > R > B
people can be seen? (2) B > M > F > R
(1) B (2) B and C (3) B > F > M > R
(3) C (4) A (4) F > B > M > R
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121. The effect of reduction in biodiversity by ‘Rivet 128. The scrubbers installed in industries to remove
popper hypothesis’ was given by SO2 pollutant from the exhaust gases contain
(1) David Tilman (2) Robert May (1) CaCO3
(3) Paul Ehrlich (4) Edward Wilson (2) MgSO4
122. Since the origin and diversification of life on (3) SiO2
earth, there were how many episodes of mass (4) CaCl2
extension of species? 129. All of the following are advantages of CNG over
(1) Five (2) Three petrol or diesel, except
(3) Four (4) Six (1) It cannot be adulterated
123. All of the following may be the result of loss of (2) It burns more efficiently
biodiversity, except (3) It needs too much care for use
(1) Decreased variability of pest and disease (4) It is comparatively cheaper
cycle
130. To safeguard our Water resources, the
(2) Decline in net primary productivity government of India has passed the water act in
(3) Reduced resistance to environmental (1) 1974 (2) 1980
perturbations
(3) 1954 (4) 2000
(4) Increased variability of ecosystem processes
131. In Chamoli district, Chipko movement was
like water use
started to
124. One of the 'Evil Quartet' which is considered to
(1) Protect trees from their cutting
be most important cause for biodiversity loss is
(2) Conserve water
(1) Over-exploitation
(3) Promote sustainable use of forest products
(2) Co-extinction
(4) Protect the wild animals from their illegal
(3) Habitat loss and fragmentation hunting
(4) Alien species invasions 132. Which one of the following is not responsible for
125. Which of the following animals has become ozone depletion?
extinct due to over-exploitation by humans? (1) CH4
(1) Nile perch (2) Steller’s sea cow (2) CCl4
(3) African catfish (4) Cichild (3) CO2
126. The air pollutant that does not come directly from (4) CFCs
the pollution sources is
133. Global warming cannot be controlled by
(1) CO (2) SO2
(1) Reducing deforestation
(3) NOx (4) O3
(2) Cutting down the use of fossil fuel
127. Match the following columns and select the
(3) Slowing down population growth
correct option.
(4) Promoting the use of compressed natural gas
Column I Column II
134. For laying roads, polyblend is mixed with
(Pollutant) (Effect) (1) Benzene hexachloride
a. Carbon (i) Phaeophytization (2) Bitumen
monoxide in lichens (3) Polyethene
b. Sulphur dioxide (ii) Reduces O2 (4) PVC
carrying capacity 135. Pyrolysis is a process in which
of the blood
(1) Aerobic combustion of solid waste is done at
c. NOx (iii) Cancer temperature of 850°C-1000°C
d. Hydrocarbons (iv) Heart and lung (2) Dumping of wastes is done on blow-lying
problems uncovered area
(3) Anaerobic combustion of solid wastes is done
at 1650°C
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(4) Recovery of the articles that can be recycled
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) is carried out
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ZOOLOGY
136. 'Molecular scissors' belong to a broad class of 142. Which of the following is common between
enzymes called genomic library and cDNA library?
(1) Ligases (2) Nucleases (1) They contain introns
(3) Nucleotidases (4) Nucleosidases (2) They represent the entire genome of an
137. Genetic modification of an organism involves all organism
the given steps except (3) Fragments of both can be inserted into
(1) Identification and isolation of desirable DNA plasmids
sequence (4) Both are frequently used to express
(2) Introduction of desirable DNA sequence into eukaryotic proteins
the donor using a vector 143. Choose the incorrect difference between batch
(3) Cloning of the desired sequence in the host fermentation and continuous culture carried out in
body a bioreactor.
(4) Transfer of this sequence to the hosts Batch Continuous
progeny fermentation culture
138. In EcoRI, the letter ‘R’ stands for
(1) Closed system Open system
(1) Strain of bacteria
(2) Yields smaller Yields larger
(2) Bacterial genus
biomass biomass
(3) Viral strain
(4) Species of bacteria (3) Additional nutrients Internal conditions
are provided are not changed at
139. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. cloning all
vectors.
(1) Phagemids are a combination of (4) Involves short term Involves long term
bacteriophage and plasmids and have the operation operation
minimum DNA carrying capacity among all 144. A set of exclusive rights granted by a state to an
vectors inventor in exchange of an invention is a patent
(2) Bacterial artificial chromosome is based on F which may not be
plasmid of E.coli (1) Innovative
(3) Yeast artificial chromosome has the higher (2) Documented
DNA carrying capacity than BAC vector
(3) Useful
(4) Cosmid is the combination of cos site of
lambda phage and plasmid DNA (4) Well known
140. Alkaline phosphatase prevents self ligation of 145. Elution is a process in RDT that involves
fragments treated with restriction enzymes by (1) Dying the DNA fragments with ethidium
(1) Removing terminal phosphate group from 3′ bromide
end (2) Exposure to UV radiation
(2) Addition of a terminal phosphate group at 5′ (3) Extraction of separated fragments of DNA
end from agarose gel
(3) Removing terminal phosphate group from 5′ (4) Separation of DNA fragments
end 146. An incorrect statement w.r.t PCR is that
(4) Addition of a terminal phosphate group at 3′ (1) Taq polymerase eliminated the need to add
end fresh polymerase during every PCR cycle
141. Isolation of genetic material from fungal cells (2) A small amount such as 10 nanograms of
involves the use of all the following, except DNA can serve as initial template
(1) Chitinase (3) Deoxyribonucleotides serve as substrates for
(2) Lysozyme DNA polymerase
(3) Ribonuclease (4) Two primers at 5′ end of both strands are
required for initiation of PCR
(4) Protease
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147. Plasmid DNA is/does not 155. The ultimate aim of RDT is to
(1) Capable of independent replication (1) Cause genetic modification in the vector only
(2) Circular (2) Obtain a desirable protein in large quantities
(3) Rich in introns (3) Cut off a protein coding gene from donor
(4) Lack histone proteins (4) Produce large biomass of non-recombinants
148. A divalent cation usually used to make the host in a bioreactor
cell competent is 156. Consider the following features w.r.t. insulin
(1) Ca2+ (2) Mg2+ prohormone.
(3) Zn2+ (4) Mn2+ (a) ‘A’ peptide
149. A technique of transformation that involves the (b) Disulphide bonds
introduction of recombinant DNA directly into the (c) ‘B’ peptide
nucleus of animal cell is (d) ‘C’ peptide
(1) Heat shock technique
How many of the above structures does it lack?
(2) Biolistic
(1) One
(3) Electroporation
(2) Two
(4) Microinjection
(3) Three
150. The Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens is
(4) Zero
‘disarmed’ by
157. Match column I and column II and choose the
(1) Introducing it in a monocot plant cell
correct option.
(2) Treating it with disarming chemicals
(3) Replacement of harmful T-DNA of Ti plasmid Column I Column II
by a gene of interest a. Rosie (i) α -1-antitrypsin
(4) Changing the host bacterium that doesn’t
allow replication of Ti plasmid b. Tracy (ii) Green
fluorescent
151. Cohen and Boyer in 1972 isolated a gene by protein
cutting out a piece of DNA from a plasmid. This
gene was responsible for providing c. Polly (iii) α -lactalbumin
(1) Insect resistance d. ANDi (iv) Transgenic
(2) Antibiotic resistance sheep
(3) Pest resistance (v) Cloned sheep
(4) Nematode resistance
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(v)
152. An advantage of pUC8 over pBR322 is that the
former (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
(1) Contains genes for ampicillin as well as (3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(v)
tetracycline resistance (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(2) Contains genes that can be insertionally 158. Gene therapy includes all the following except
inactivated
(1) Correction of a genetic defect
(3) Requires simultaneous plating on two plates
(2) Delivery of a normal gene into a person’s
having different antibiotics for the selection of
cells
recombinants
(3) Replacement of a functional enzyme coded
(4) Has higher copy number
by a normal gene
153. DNA can be precipitated from a solution by using
(4) A normal gene taking over the function of a
(1) Chilled ethanol defective gene
(2) Phenol chloroform 159. A transgenic crop which was cultivated to
(3) Trihydroxy propane alleviate the problem of night blindness is a
(4) Chilled acetone variety of
154. PCR directly finds its application in the diagnosis (1) Triticum aestivum
of all the following except (2) Oryza sativa
(1) Muscular dystrophy (2) Pregnancy (3) Pseudomonas putida
(3) Phenyl ketonuria (4) AIDS (4) Mangifera indica
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160. In Bt cotton, the proteins encoded by gene 167. At present about ___ recombinant therapeutics
cry IAc and cry II Ab control have been approved for human use in world.
(1) Cotton bollworm (2) Corn borer Choose the option that fills the blank correctly.
(3) Flies (4) Nematodes (1) 30 (2) 12
161. A genetically modified crop plant produced by (3) 15 (4) 20
gene subtraction is 168. Observe the given diagram of pBR322.
(1) Brassica napus
(2) Flavr Savr tomato
(3) Bt tomato
(4) Golden rice
162. Which of the following represents a palindromic
DNA?
′ ′
(1) 5 − GAATCT − 3
3′ − CTTAGA − 5′
′ ′
(2) 5 − GAATTC − 3 Insertional inactivation due to the activity of Pvu II
5′ − CTTAAG − 3′
in the above will cause
′ ′
(3) 5 − GAATTC − 3 (1) Death of bacteria in presence of ampicillin
3′ − CTTAAG − 5′
(2) Death of bacteria in presence of tetracycline
′ ′
(4) 5 − GTTACA − 3 (3) Lack of proteins involved in the replication of
5′ − CAATGT − 3′ plasmid
163. Read the following statements. (4) Disruption of ori
Statement A : Traditional hybridisation 169. Upstream processing involves
procedures used in plant and animal breeding,
very often lead to inclusion and multiplication of (1) Biosynthesis of product
undesirable genes along with desired genes. (2) Separation and purification of product
Statement B : The technique of genetic (3) Ordinary fortification
engineering allows us to isolate and introduce (4) Quality control testing
only desirable genes without introducing
170. Babesiosis is a disease caused by
undesirable genes into the target organisms.
(1) Bacillus thuringiensis
(2) Protozoa
(3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(2) Only statement A is incorrect
(4) Pseudomonas
171. The first clinical gene therapy was given to treat a
4 year old girl suffering from
164. The first restriction endonuclease was
(1) SARS (2) SCID
(1) EcoRI (2) Hind II
(3) Swine flu (4) AIDS
(3) Hind III (4) Alu I
172. A mutated gene can be identified directly by
165. The applications of biotechnology include all using
except
(1) Probe
(1) Therapeutics
(2) ELISA
(2) Bioremediation
(3) Microscopy
(3) Cancer detection using MRI
(4) Serum analysis
(4) Energy production
173. Transgenic animals can be useful to humans for
166. Complete the analogy. all the following except
Apiculture : Apis (1) Study of disease
Pisciculture : ____ (2) Testing vaccine safety
(1) Crab (2) Prawn (3) Treatment of autoimmune diseases
(3) Fish (4) Silk worm (4) Obtaining useful biological products
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174. Insulin which is commercially produced by (1) (a) only

biotechnological procedures was first prepared by (2) (a) and (b) only
(1) Eli Lilly in 1981
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) Eli Lilly in 1983
(4) (a) and (c) only
(3) Roslin Institute in 1991
(4) Roslin Institute in 1989 178. Number of estimated varieties of rice in India is
175. Silencing of a specific mRNA due to (1) 27
complimentary dsRNA molecule to prevent (2) 2,00,000
translation is called
(3) 20,000
(1) Protein denaturation
(2) RNA polymerase inhibition (4) 270
(3) Antisense technology 179. In MOET, the cow made to superovulate to
produce per cycle total
(4) DNA polymerase inhibition
176. The activated Bt toxin causes death of insect by (1) 1 egg
(1) Cell swelling and lysis (2) 10-12 eggs
(2) Blocking oxygen transport (3) 6-8 eggs
(3) Disrupting protein formation (4) 15-20 eggs
(4) Neuronal breakdown
180. Which of the following need to be ‘disarmed’
177. Gel electrophoresis can be used to separate before introduction into host?
fragments of
(1) Retroviruses
(a) DNA
(2) Lambda phage vector
(b) RNA
(c) Proteins (3) M13 phage vector
(d) Lipids (4) pBR322
  
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21/04/2020 CODE-A
Test - 9
Answer Key
1. (2) 37. (2) 73. (3) 109. (3) 145. (3)
2. (1) 38. (2) 74. (4) 110. (3) 146 (4)
3. (4) 39. (2) 75. (3) 111. (2) 147. (3)
4. (2) 40. (2) 76. (2) 112. (4) 148. (1)
5. (1) 41. (4) 77. (1) 113. (1) 149. (4)
6. (3) 42. (1) 78. (1) 114. (3) 150. (3)
7. (3) 43. (3) 79. (1) 115. (4) 151. (2)
8. (2) 44. (3) 80. (3) 116. (2) 152. (4)
9. (3) 45. (1) 81. (3) 117. (2) 153. (1)
10. (3) 46. (3) 82. (4) 118. (1) 154. (2)
11. (2) 47. (1) 83. (3) 119. (2) 155. (2)
12. (3) 48. (1) 84. (4) 120. (4) 156. (4)
13. (3) 49. (4) 85. (3) 121. (3) 157. (4)
14. (1) 50. (4) 86. (3) 122. (1) 158. (3)
15. (1) 51. (4) 87. (3) 123. (1) 159. (2)
16. (4) 52. (2) 88. (2) 124. (3) 160. (1)
17. (2) 53. (1) 89. (2) 125. (2) 161. (2)
18. (2) 54. (4) 90. (2) 126. (4) 162. (3)
19. (4) 55. (1) 91. (2) 127. (4) 163. (4)
20. (2) 56. (2) 92. (4) 128. (1) 164. (2)
21. (1) 57. (1) 93. (1) 129. (3) 165. (3)
22. (2) 58. (3) 94. (3) 130. (1) 166. (3)
23. (2) 59. (3) 95. (3) 131. (1) 167. (1)
24. (3) 60. (2) 96. (2) 132. (3) 168. (3)
25. (1) 61. (2) 97. (2) 133. (4) 169. (1)
26. (4) 62. (2) 98. (4) 134. (2) 170. (2)
27. (4) 63. (2) 99. (1) 135. (3) 171. (2)
28. (1) 64. (3) 100. (1) 136. (2) 172. (1)
29. (2) 65. (3) 101. (3) 137. (2) 173. (3)
30. (4) 66. (2) 102. (2) 138. (1) 174. (2)
31. (4) 67. (2) 103. (2) 139. (1) 175. (3)
32. (1) 68. (2) 104. (4) 140. (3) 176. (1)
33. (2) 69. (3) 105. (2) 141. (2) 177. (3)
34. (2) 70. (4) 106. (3) 142. (3) 178. (2)
35. (1) 71. (1) 107. (4) 143. (3) 179. (3)
36. (4) 72. (2) 108. (1) 144. (2) 180. (1)
(1)
@AakashDelhi02
21/04/2020 CODE-A
Test - 9
Hints and Solutions
PHYSICS
1. Answer (2) 1 6 1
For objective= −
u=∞,v =−200 cm, f =? 3 125 u0
1 1 1 1 6 1
from lens formula − = = −
v u f u0 125 3
1 1 1
− = 1 18 − 125
−200 ∞ f =
u0 375
1 1
= − u0  −3.5 cm
f 200
P = – 0.5 D 4. Answer (2)
2. Answer (1) Concave mirror can produce erect and magnified
Thickness t = µt1 + µt2 image while convex mirror produces erect but
diminished image.
= 1.5 × 9 + 1.5 × 5 =21 cm
5. Answer (1)
3. Answer (4)
µv − µR
Dispersive power ω =
µy − 1
1.705 − 1.690
=ω = 0.0215
1.695 − 1
6. Answer (3)
1
Since amount of scattering ∝
For eyepiece λ4
1 1 1 λR is largest in visible light, hence it is scattered
= −
5 −25 ue least.
−25 7. Answer (3)

ue = cm
6 1  1 1 
= ( µ1 − 1)  − 
Now v 0 + ue =
25 cm f1 R
 1 R2 
25 125  1  1 − µ1
v 0 = 25 − = cm = ( µ1 − 1)  −  =
6 6  R R
(2)
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1  1 1  µ −1 12. Answer (3)

= ( µ2 − 1)  −  = 2
f2 R ∞ R hc hc
=
KE −
λ λ0
1  1 1  1 − µ1 µ2 − 1
= +  = +
f  f1 f2  R R hc hc
=
eV −
λ λ0
1 µ2 − µ1
=
f R hc  1 1 
=V − … (1)
R 20 20 e  λ λ0 
=f = =
µ2 − µ1 1.6 − 1.4 0.2
Q
Also, V = … (2)
f = 100 cm 4πε0R
8. Answer (2) ne hc  1 1 
= −
In one half life, half the nuclei decay and mean 4πε0R e  λ λ0 
life  1.44 (half-life)
Hence in one mean life, more than half the nuclei hc 4πε0R  1 1 
will decay. = n λ − λ 
e2  0 
9. Answer (3)
n 13. Answer (3)
N  1
=  If hν > work function (w), then electron may come
N0  2 
out the metal. Its energy may be equal or less
3 than (hν - w)
 1
= N0 ×  
N
2 14. Answer (1)
1 From the graph, equation of stopping potential

N =1.6 × 1018 × will be
8
1.656 [ν − 2 × 1014 ]
N= 2 × 1017 = V −0
( 6 − 2 ) × 1014
10. Answer (3)
1.656 
h = V 14 
ν − 2 × 1014 
In Ground state L1 = 4 × 10
2π
now after absorbing 12.75 eV, the energy of By comparing with standard equation
electron will E = – 13.6 + 12.75 = – 0.85 eV h
13.6
V=
e
( ν − ν0 )
Also, E =
− 2 = −0.85
n h 1.656
= Vs
2
n = 16 ⇒ n = 4 e 4 × 1014
for n = 4, angular momentum L4 =

4h = 4.14 × 10−15 V s
2π
15. Answer (1)
4h h 3h
Hence ∆L = L4 − L1 = − = h
2π 2π 2π p=
λ
3 × 6.6 × 10−34
∆=
L = 3.16 × 10−34 J s ∆p ∆λ
2 × 3.14 =
p λ
11. Answer (2)
∆p
R = R0 .A1/3 = 0.0020
pi
R  1
ln   = ln( A) ∆p
 R0  3 =
pi = 500∆p
0.0020
(3)
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K = hν − φ0 ∆ν v
= − rad
K =' 3hν − φ0= 2hν + hν − φ0 ν c
= K + 2hν  − ( −3 × 105 ) 
ν − 5500 =5500  
Also, K ' = 3hν − φ0 + 2φ0 − 2φ0  3 × 108 
= 3 ( hν − φ0 ) + 2φ0= 3K + 2φ0 ν − 5500 =5500 (10 −3 )
17. Answer (2) =ν 5500 +=

5.5 5505.5 MHz
GaAs (Eg = 1.5 eV) is having better absorption 24. Answer (3)
coefficient.
(=Ι + Ι ) ( )
2 2
18. Answer (2) Ιmax 1 2
Ι 0 + 4Ι 0 9
= =
( Ι− Ι) ( )
2 2
The diode connected with capacitor C1 is forward Ιmin Ι 0 − 4Ι 0 1
1 2
bias while diode D1 connected with capacitor C2
is forward and D2 is reversed bias. Hence C1 will 2
n = 9 ⇒ n= 2
9= 81
discharge and C2 contains same charge.
25. Answer (1)
CV
At time t = RC, Q1 = and Q2 = CV β λ
e Angular width= =
D d
CV
Q1 e 1 λ
The ratio = = 1° =
Q2 CV e d
19. Answer (4) π
=
λ × 0.03 × 10−3
1 1 p 180
Resolving power ∝ ∝ ∝
λ h h = 5233 Å
p
26. Answer (4)
for equal speed of electron and proton
1
pproton > pelectron For telescope resolving power ∝ and
λ
Hence (R.P)Proton > (R.P)electron Brightness ∝ (Diameter)2
20. Answer (2) Since λred > λblue ⇒ (R.P)red< (R.P)blue
Since nλ = 2πr (n = 4) for good telescope, it should have high
4 λ = 2πr magnifying power
π 27. Answer (4)
λ= r
2 nλD 2λD
=
21. Answer (1) d a
h h n 2
λ= = =
p mv d a
h 2d
λv = ⇒ Constant a=
m n
d sin θ = nλ Ι  2
=Ιt  incident  cos θ
nλ nλ  2 
sin θ = =
3.73λ 3.73λ
Ιincident
Sin θ ≤ 1 =2Ι0 cos2 45°
2
n 2
≤1 Ι  1 
3.73 2Ι0 =incident  
2  2
n ≤ 3.73
n=3 8Ι 0
Ιincident =
(4)
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tan i p = µ 1  1 1 
= R 2 − 2 
4 λ  n1 n2 
=µ tan53
= °
3
For shortest wavelength in Pfund series, n1 = 5
1 3
sin θc = = and n2 = ∞
µ 4
3 1  1 1
θc =sin−1   = R − 
4 λ  25 ∞ 
30. Answer (4) 1 R
=
1  1 1  λ 25
= R 2 − 2 
λ  n1 n2  25
λ=
31. Answer (4) R
θ 36. Answer (4)
ze 2 cot  
Impact parameter b = 2
4πε0E Here light rays goes from air to turpentine i.e.,
from optically rarer to optically denser, hence
θ light rays bends towards normal (i > r).
for =
θ 180° ⇒ cot   → 0
2
When it goes from optically denser to optically
Hence b = 0
rarer medium, then either it bends away from
32. Answer (1) normal or TIR may occurs. Hence ray (2) and (4)
λ 41 ( 29 − 1)2  28 2 may be correct path
= =  
λ 29 ( 41 − 1)2  40  37. Answer (2)
2
 40  Binding energy per nucleon is higher for
λ 29 =λ 41 ×  
 28  A = 120.
40 × 40 38. Answer (2)
0.7
=× 1.43 Å
=
28 × 28  dN   dN 
33. Answer (2) At t = 0,   = 
 dt  A  dt B
Zv 0
In nth orbit v n =  d  dN    d  dN  
n From the plot    <   
 dt  dt   A  dt  dt   B
c c ( n −1 )
For H-atom
= vn =
137n 137 i.e. λ A < λB
on comparing p = −1 and K = 137
Hence τ A > τB
34. Answer (2)
39. Answer (2)
Ionization energy = −En
β+ decay is represented as
En = −13.6 eV
for H-like atom z
X A →z −1 Y A +1 e° + ν + Q0
z2
En = −13.6
n2
Q0 = mn ( z X A ) − mn ( z −1Y A ) − me  c 2
E2 = −13.6
( 2 )2
(n = 2 for 1st excited state)
=Q0 mn ( z X A ) + zme − mn ( z −1Y A ) − ( z − 1) me − 2me  c 2
2
( 2)
E2 = −13.6 eV
Q0 = ( M x − My − 2me ) c 2
(5)
@AakashDelhi02

Maximum wavelength of visible From the given transfer characteristics of a CE
range is ≈ 700 nm amplifier
Hence minimum band gap energy For vi = 0.5 V, IB = 0 ⇒ IC = 0 ⇒ transistor is in
(12400 ) eVÅ cut off mode and it can be used as switch off. For
≈
( 7000 ) Å vi = 1V, transistor will be used as an amplifier
= 1.7714 eV For vi > 2.0 V, transistor will be in saturation
mode and corrector current will be maximum.
Eg min ≈ 1.8 eV
44. Answer (3)
41. Answer (4) At 0°C, semiconductor acts as an insulator and in
As from the given set of data, output Y is high (1) an intrinsic semiconductor fermi level just lies in
when both the input are same i.e., either 0 or 1 mid between the valence band and conduction
and Y is low (0) when both inputs are different, band.
then the gate is known as Ex-NOR gate 45. Answer (1)
42. Answer (1) IL = 4 mA
For 1st half cycle of input, vi < 0 ⇒ diode is off
Iz 5=
= IL 20 mA
and v0=vi
I = Iz + IL = 24 mA
For 2nd half cycle of input, vi > 0 ⇒ diode is on ⇒
v0 = 0 10 − 6 4000
Now Rs
= = −3
= 166.66 Ω
For 3rd half cycle of input, vi < 0 ⇒ diode is off 24 × 10 24
⇒ v0 = vi Rs  167 Ω
CHEMISTRY
Benzaldehyde does not react with Fehling’s
solution.
47. Answer (1)
48. Answer (1)

Vitamin Deficiency Diseases
Thiamine Beri beri
52. Answer (2)
Riboflavin Cheilosis
Pyridoxine Convulsions
Retinol Night blindness
49. Answer (4)
53. Answer (1)
50. Answer (4)
(6)
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Isopropanol is oxidised first by I2 to give acetone Acidity of methylene proton is maximum in option
as intermediate compound which contains (2) and enol form is stabilised by
H–bonding.
group and gives positive iodoform test.
PhCHO will not give iodoform test as it does not 63. Answer (2)
contain group.
55. Answer (1)
64. Answer (3)
2-Methylbuta-1,3-diene is monomer of natural Aliphatic aldehyde reacts fastest with HCN
rubber.
65. Answer (3)
56. Answer (2)
57. Answer (1)

Drugs User
Zantac Antacid
Dimetapp Antihistamine
Luminal Tranquilizer
Iproniazid Tranquilizer
D-glucose and D-galactose differ in configuration
58. Answer (3) at C–4 carbon only.
Due to ortho effect o–hydroxybenzoic acid is
strongest acid. The conjugate base is stabilised
by intramolecular H–bond
67. Answer (2)
60. Answer (2)

Lone pair of electron present on sp3 nitrogen is
most easily available for protonation. Hence
benzyl amine is most basic among the given
options. In pyrrole, the lone pair on nitrogen is
involved in aromatic sextet, hence it is least 69. Answer (3)
basic. In aniline the lone pair is involved in –I effect of halogens attached to the carbon
resonance but in pyridine the lone pair present
on sp2 nitrogen is available for protonation, facilitate attack of OH ion on carboxyl carbon.
hence pyridine is more basic than aniline. 70. Answer (4)
(7)
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72. Answer (2)

81. Answer (3)
Amide linkage is present in Nylon 6,6
Conc. NaOH
73. Answer (3) Ph–CHO →
∆
Ph–CH2OH
74. Answer (4) + PhCOONa

In amylose C1–C4 glycosidic linkage is present Cannizzaro is a disproportionation reaction.
In Ph – CHO, C atom undergoes oxidation to
75. Answer (3)
PhCOONa and reduction to PhCH2OH.
82. Answer (4)

Tertiary amines do not react with Hinsberg
reagent.
83. Answer (3)
76. Answer (2)
Aniline gives a white precipitate with Br2/water
but no characteristic reaction is observed with
benzylamine. + Cl– + H2O
77. Answer (1)
(+)-sucrose does not show mutarotation. It is a
disaccharide of glucose and fructose. The 84. Answer (4)
anomeric –OH of glucose and fructose are 85. Answer (3)
involved in glyosidic linkage hence the molecule
does not show mutarotation.
78. Answer (1)
86. Answer (3)

79. Answer (1)
87. Answer (3)
β– ketoacid decarboxylates on heating 88. Answer (2)
89. Answer (2)

90. Answer (2)
(8)
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BOTANY
Anthropogenic ecosystem does not possesses Primary succession on rocks is xerarch. Pioneer
self regulatory mechanism. community on such habitat is of lichens.
Edaphic factor includes structure and Degree of diversity increases during ecological
composition of soil including its physical and succession.
chemical properties. Primary succession occurs where no living
93. Answer (1) organisms ever existed.
Key industry animals convert plant matter into Climax community has more nutrient
animal matter. conservation.
Shark, falcon, snake and tiger can be considered The natural reservoir of phosphorus is rock.
as both primary and secondary carnivore. 108. Answer (1)
95. Answer (3) Carbon constitute 49% of dry weight of
Female mosquito needs our blood for its organisms.
reproduction. It is not considered as parasite 109. Answer (3)
because it never spends even a short duration as 110. Answer (3)
other parasites do.
A single species might show high diversity at the
96. Answer (2) genetic level.
Desert and deep sea are least productive 111. Answer (2)
ecosystem.
112. Answer (4)
97. Answer (2)
Most of the land area of our country lies in
Considerable amount of GPP is used by plants in tropics.
respiration. NPP is available biomass for both
113. Answer (1)
herbivores and decomposers.
Warm temperature and high humidity in tropics
98. Answer (4)
provide favourable conditions for survival
During leaching water-soluble substances throughout the year.
present in detritus go down into the soil horizon
114. Answer (3)
and get precipitated as unavailable salts.
Outermost part of the biosphere reserve is
99. Answer (1)
transition zone.
Roughly 20% of organic matter synthesised in 115. Answer (4)
plants is consumed in respiration so that NPP is
0.8-4% of incident radiation. Bald eagle occupies the high trophic level in food
chain.
100. Answer (1)
116. Answer (2)
GFC starts from autotrophs. For GFC, pyramid of
number is always upright. Broadly utilitarian ecosystem services are
oxygen, flood control, pollination and erosion
101. Answer (3) control.
In the food chain I, energy obtained by lion is 117. Answer (2)
1 J and in food chain II it is 0.1 J.
Alien species invasion is one of the causes of
102. Answer (2) biodiversity loss.
Auxilliary food chain is also called parasitic food 118. Answer (1)
chain.
The earth summit held in 1992, called upon all
103. Answer (2) the nations to take measures for conservation of
Only 10% of the energy of previous trophic level biodiversity.
is received by next trophic level. 119. Answer (2)
104. Answer (4) On log scale, the species-area relationship
Parasites are considered in ecological pyramids. becomes linear.
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120. Answer (4) 128. Answer (1)

Taxa Number of species The calcium in limestone combines chemically
Birds 1300 with SO2 to produce CaSO4.
Reptiles 378 129. Answer (3)
Fishes 3000 130. Answer (1)
Mammals 427 131. Answer (1)
121. Answer (3)
Chipko movement is related to conservation of
122. Answer (1) forests.
123. Answer (1)
132. Answer (3)
Biodiversity loss results increased variability of
pest and disease cycle. CFCs, CH4, CCl4, Halons and N2O are ozone
depleting substances.
124. Answer (3)
125. Answer (2) 133. Answer (4)
Steller’s sea cow is one of the extinct species in On burning, CNG produce CO2 and H2O.
the last 500 years. 134. Answer (2)
126. Answer (4) Polyblend is mixed with the bitumen that is used
Primary pollutants come directly from the to lay roads.
pollution sources.
135. Answer (3)
127. Answer (4)
Pyrolysis is anaerobic combustion inside
Hydrocarbons are responsible for cancer in
chambers at 1650°C.
organisms.
ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (2) 143. Answer (3)
Nucleases are the enzymes that cleave nucleic In continuous culture, used medium is drained out
acids. Molecular scissors are restriction from one side, while fresh medium is added from
endonucleases. other so that cells remain in their physiologically
137. Answer (2) most active log phase.
144. Answer (2)
The isolated sequence from the donor is
introduced in the host organism using a vector. Patents are supposed to satisfy three criteria of
– Novelty, non-obviousness and utility. Non-
138. Answer (1)
obviousness implies that the patent may not be
EcoRI → E = Escherichia, co = coli, R = Strain, documented but is otherwise well known.
I = order in which the enzymes were isolated. 145. Answer (3)
139. Answer (1) The separated bands of DNA are cut out from the
Phagemids can accommodate large insert size agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece.
and are used for carrying larger DNA sequence. This process is called elution.
140. Answer (3) 146 Answer (4)
Ligation requires the presence of a 5′ phosphate A pair of primers with exposed 3′ − OH groups
group, removal of which prevents self-ligation. are required. They can only add nucleotides to
the 3′ − OH end of a growing strand.
141. Answer (2)
147. Answer (3)
Lysozyme is used to isolate genetic material from
bacterial cells. Plasmid DNA is double stranded, circular, naked,
lacks introns and does not carry any vital gene
142. Answer (3) necessary for cell.
Genomic library is not useful in case of eukaryotic 148. Answer (1)
organisms as it contains non-coding DNA
sequences like introns which are absent in cDNA Treatment with divalent cation increases the
library. efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium
through pores in its cell wall.
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149. Answer (4) 159. Answer (2)

Electroporation involves short electrical impulses Golden rice is transgenic variety of rice which
of high field strength. Biolistics involve contains β -carotene which is the principle source
bombardment of cells with high velocity of vitamin A.
microparticles of gold or tungsten coated with 160. Answer (1)
DNA.
Proteins encoded by cry IAb control corn borer.
150. Answer (3)
161. Answer (2)
The T-DNA of Ti plasmid induces the formation of Gene subtraction involves either inactivation or
crown gall tumor and the plasmid has to be knockout of a gene. In Flavr Savr tomato,
disarmed before introduction into a plant cell by expression of gene coding for polygalacturonase
replacement of harmful T-DNA of Ti plasmid of is blocked.
original A. tumefaciens by gene of interest. 162. Answer (3)
151. Answer (2) A palindrome is a sequence of base pairs that
The construction of first recombinant DNA by reads same on two strands when orientation of
Cohen and Boyer involved the linking of a gene reading is kept the same. This sequence reads
encoding antibiotic resistance with a native the same on two strands i.e. 5′ → 3′ as well as
plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium. 3′ → 5′ direction.
152. Answer (4) 163. Answer (4)
pUC8 has higher copy number and identification This is an advantage of RDT over traditional
hybridisation procedures.
of recombinants can be achieved in a single step
by using chromogenic substrate. 164. Answer (2)
153. Answer (1) Hind II was isolated from Haemophilus
influenzae.
DNA that precipitates by using chilled ethanol can
165. Answer (3)
be separated and removed by spooling.
The applications of biotechnology include
154. Answer (2)
therapeutics, diagnostics, genetically modified
PCR can be used to detect the presence of a crops for agriculture, processed food, waste
specific mutation that is responsible for causing a treatment, bioremediation and energy production.
particular genetic disease. Pregnancy can be 166. Answer (3)
detected by using ELISA.
Sericulture is rearing of silk worm.
155. Answer (2)
167. Answer (1)
For the production of desirable protein in large
168. Answer (3)
quantities, expression of gene is enhanced by
Restriction site for Pvu II is present in rop which
using inducers that can increase the production.
codes for proteins involved in the replication of
156. Answer (4) the plasmid.
The mature insulin hormone lacks C peptide. 169. Answer (1)
157. Answer (4) Separation, purification fortification, control
Dolly is the first cloned mammal but not testing and marketing are parts of downstream
transgenic. Polly and Molly were first cloned as processing.
well as transgenic sheep. Tracy was the first 170. Answer (2)
transgenic sheep to produce α-1 -antitrypsin. Babesiosis spreads by tick bite.
ANDi was first genetically modified monkey. 171. Answer (2)
158. Answer (3) SCID is Severe Combined Immuno Deficiency
Correction of genetic defect involves delivery of which is caused due to deficiency of adenosine
normal gene to compensate non-functional gene. deaminase.
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172. Answer (1) 176. Answer (1)

Probe is a single stranded DNA or RNA, tagged The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut
with a radioactive molecule which is allowed to epithelial cells and create pores that cause cell
swelling and lysis and eventually causes death of
hybridise to its complimentary DNA in a clone of
insect.
cells followed by detection using autoradiography.
177. Answer (3)
173. Answer (3)
Agarose gel electrophoresis can be used to
Autoimmune diseases occur due to sensitisation separate DNA and RNA fragments.
of antibodies against self-antigens. Transgenic Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis can be used
organisms cannot treat autoimmune diseases. to separate proteins.
174. Answer (2) 178. Answer (2)

27 documented varieties of Basmati are grown in
Eli Lilly, an American company prepared two
India.
DNA sequences corresponding to A and B chains
179. Answer (3)
of human insulin. These insulin chains were
In MOET, cow is administered FSH like
produced separately which were later joined by
hormones, to induce follicular maturation and
disulphide bonds. superovulation.
175. Answer (3) 180. Answer (1)
Antisense technology or RNAi involves silencing pBR322 is not a pathogenic plasmid, therefore
of mRNA by using dsRNA. does not require disarming.
  
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22/04/2020 CODE-A
Test - 10
Topics covered : Complete Syllabus of XI & XII
Instructions :
PHYSICS
1. A physical quantity x depends on quantities y and 4. The famous Big Ben clock tower in London has
z as x = Ay + B sin (C z), where A, B, and C are hour hand of approximate length 10 feet.
constants. Calculate the magnitude of change in velocity of
Which of the following have same dimensions? hour hand of Big Ben in six hours (1 feet = 0.305
(1) x and Ay (2) x and B m)
(3) C and z-1 (4) All of the above (1) 0.4189 m/s (2) 0.06912 m/s
2. Acceleration versus time graph for a particle is as (3) 0.341 m/s (4) 0.887 mm/s
shown in the figure. If the particle starts its motion 5. A particle revolving in a circular path completes
from rest, then the maximum speed of the particle first one third of circumference in 3 s, while next
is one third in 2 s. The average angular velocity of
the particle is
3π π
(1) rad/s (2) rad/s
5 15
2π 4π
(3) rad/s (4) rad/s
15 15
6. A rope of length 10 m and linear mass density
1 4 kg/m is lying lengthwise on a horizontal smooth
(1) 4 m/s (2) m/s table. One end of the rope is pulled horizontally
2
by a force of 40 N. The tension in the rope at a
(3) 1 m/s (4) 2 m/s point 4 m from point of application of force will be
3. A body is dropped under gravity. The ratio of (1) 40 N
distances covered by the body in first and sixth
second of motion is (2) 24 N
(1) 1 : 11 (2) 1 : 6 (3) 49 N
(3) 1 : 5 (4) 5 : 12 (4) 15 N
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
7. A position dependent force= F ( y 2 x iˆ + x 2 y ˆj ) N (1) (i) – (b), (ii) – (a), (iii) – (a)
acts on a particle and displace it from x = 1 m, (2) (i) – (c), (ii) – (a), (iii) – (b)
y = 2m to x = 2m, y = 1m. The work done by the (3) (i) – (d), (ii) – (b), (iii) – (a)
force is (4) (i) – (b), (ii) – (d), (iii) – (c)
10 11. Five resistors of resistances as indicated in the
(1) J (2) 10 J
3 figure are connected together. If a current of
18 A enters into the resistance network at A, then
(3) 20 J (4) Zero
the potential difference across 5Ω resistor will be
8. A bat used in sports of cricket is cut at the
location of its centre of mass as shown in the
figure.
(1) 90 V (2) 25 V
(3) 45 V (4) 20 V
12. A capacitor of capacitance 2 µF is charged to
I II 40 V and another capacitor of capacitance 4 µF is
charged to 20 V. If the capacitors are connected
(1) The masses of both the pieces will be same
together in same polarity, then the energy lost in
(2) Mass of part II would be larger reorganisation of charge will be
(3) Mass of part I would be larger (1) 316.2 µJ (2) 266.67 µJ
(4) Mass of part I would be thrice the mass of (3) 402 µJ (4) 191.6 µJ
part II
13. In space two point masses of mass 10 kg each
9. A solid sphere, under the influence of a horizontal are fixed. The masses are separated by a
force F undergoes pure rolling on a smooth distance 10 m. Another point mass of mass
horizontal surface as shown in the figure. The 1 kg is to be projected from the point at midpoint
value of height h of point of application of force of line joining the fixed masses such that it
from centre is (Radius of sphere is R) escapes to infinity. The minimum speed of the
projection is
(1) G m/s (2) 2G m/s
(3) 8G m/s (4) 6G m/s
(1) 0.4 R (2) 0.8 R 14. A container of height h is completely filled with
(3) 0.6 R (4) R water. The container is placed on a frictional
10. Three gaussian surfaces S1, S2 and S3 are as surface with coefficient of friction µ and a small
shown in the figure. Match the Gaussian surface h
hole is punctured at a depth on container wall.
with their correct associated magnitude of electric 2
flux. If area of hole is a and area of base of container
is A (a << A), then the value of µ for which the
container remains stationary is (g = 10 m/s2)
Gaussian Surface Electric flux

(i) S1 (a) 3 Q/ε0
a 2a
(ii) S2 (b) 2 Q/ε0 (1) (2)
A A
(iii) S3 (c) Q/ε0
3a
(d) 4 Q/ε0 (3) (4) All of the above
A
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1
15. A kg block moving with 5 m/s strikes a spring
2
of force constant 1000 N/m attached to another (1) (2)
1
kg block at rest. Kept on a smooth floor. The
2
time for which the rear moving block remain in
contact with the spring will be (Assume π = 10 ) .
(3) (4)
20. At temperature T1, the magnetic susceptibility of a

1 1 diamagnetic material is χ1 and at temperature T2,
(1) s (2) s
10 20 it is χ2. Then
1 1 (1) χ1 T1 = χ2 T2 (2) χ1 T2 = χ2 T1
(3) s (4) s
30 40
(3) χ1 T1 = χ2 T2 (4) None of the above
16. For a given material, Young’s modulus is 3 times
the rigidity modulus. The poisson’s ratio of the 21. An ideal diatomic gas undergoes a
thermodynamic process where pressure (P) as a
material is 3V0
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.3 function of volume (V) is given by P = P0 e V .

(3) 0.1 (4) 0.02 The average rotational kinetic energy of the gas
V
17. Consider the following two statements molecules at volume V = 0 is
2
(a) Celsius is the smallest unit of temperature
P0V0 6
(b) The absorbance of a perfect black body is (1) e (2) P0V0
2
unity
3P0V0 6 5
The correct statement(s) is (3) e (4) P0V0 e 6
4 4
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only 22. Each side of regular polygon of n sides has a
(3) (a) and (b) both (4) Neither (a) nor (b) resistance R. The equivalent resistance between
any two adjacent vertices is
18. By what percent the impedance in an series LCR,
AC circuit should be increased so that the power R
(1) nR (2)
factor changes from ( 12) to ( 14 ) (assume
(n − 1)R n
n
resistance R remains constant) (3) (4) R

n n −1
(1) 200 % (2) 100 % 23. When a lens of power P (in air) made of material
(3) 50 % (4) 400 % of refractive index 3 is dipped in a liquid of
refractive index 4, the new power of lens is
19. There are two frictionless conducting rails placed
4P P
in a transverse uniform magnetic field B as (1) − (2)
shown in the figure. The rails are connected by a 3 8
fixed capacitive arm AB and a movable 3P P
(3) (4) −
conducting rod PQ is also placed as shown. If the 4 8
rod PQ is given a rightward initial velocity u then 24. A point source of electromagnetic radiation has
the graph that best represents variation of speed an average power output of 800 W.
of rod as a function of time The maximum value of electric field at a distance
3.5 m from source will be
V V
(1) 12 (2) 40
m m
V V
(3) 31.3 (4) 62.6
m m
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25. Two plates (area : a each) given charges + q1 30. Snapshot of a transverse disturbance on a
and + q2 (q2 < q1) are brought closer to form a stretched string is shown in the following figure.
capacitor of capacitance C. The potential The wave is travelling is along positive
difference across the plates is x-direction. The particles for which velocity is
directed along negative y - direction is
q1 − q2 q1 − q2
(1) (2)
2C C
q1 − q2 2 ( q1 − q2 )
(3) (4)
4C C
26. Binding energy per nucleon verses mass number
curve for nuclei is indicated in the following figure.
A, B, C and D are four nuclei indicated on the
curve. Among the following, the process that (1) A (2) B
would yield maximum energy is (3) C (4) D
31. In the figure shown, V0 is barrier potential across
a p-n junction, when no battery is connected
across the junction.
(1) C → 2 D (2) A → C + D
(3) A → B + C (4) B → C + D
27. A charged beam consisting of electrons and (1) 1 and 3 both correspond to forward bias of
positrons enter into a region of uniform magnetic junction
field B perpendicular to field, with a speed v. The (2) 1 and 2 both correspond to reverse bias of
maximum separation between an electron and a junction
positron will be (mass of electron = mass of (3) 1 correspond to forward bias and 3
positron = m) correspond to reverse bias of junction
mv 2mv (4) 2 correspond to forward bias of junction
(1) (2)
qB qB 32. A particle of mass M at rest decays into two
particles of masses m1 and m2 having non-zero
4mv mv
(3) (4) velocities. The ratio of the de-Broglie
qB 2qB wavelengths of the particles λ 1 : λ2
28. Which of the following is true for Lyman series in (1) m1 : m2 (2) m2 : m1
hydrogen atom?
(3) 1 : 1 (4) m2 : m1
(1) The series lies in ultra violet region
33. The graph shows logarithmic readings of
(2) It involves jump to or from ground state
pressure and volume for two ideal gases A and B
(3) The largest wavelength in Lyman series is undergoing adiabatic process. It can be
400 nm conduded that (one of the gases A and B is
(4) Both (1) and (2) monoatomic and one is diatomic)
29. In a Young’s double slit
experiment, the
2
separation between the two slits is mm. The
π
distance of the screen from the slits is 50 cm.
o
If the wavelength of light used is 4000 A , then
the angular position of first dark fringe is
(1) 1.21° (1) A is diatomic
(2) 0.018° (2) B is diatomic
(3) 0.16° (3) B is monatomic
(4) 0.3° (4) Both (1) and (3)
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34. Rate of emission of a black body at 546°C is E. 39. The ratio of time period of three identical springs
Then the rate of emission of radiation of body at if they are first joined in parallel and then in series
0°C will be is (assume same mass is suspended from them)
(1) 81 E (2) 3 E (1) 1 : 3 (2) 2 : 1
E E (3) 2 : 3 (4) 9 : 1
(3) (4)
3 81 40. An artificial satellite of the earth releases a
35. A body is rolling without slipping on a horizontal package. If air resistance is neglected the
plane. The radius of body is R. If the ratio of package reaches the earth
9 (1) With very high speed
rotational to translational kinetic energy is
25 (2) With almost zero speed
then the radius of gyration of the body is (3) The package never reaches the earth
5R 9R (4) None of the above
(1) (2)
3 25 41. A polariser and an analyser are inclined to each
3R 25R other at 45°. The intensity of polarised light
(3) (4) emerging from the analyser is I. The intensity of
5 9
unpolarized light incident on the polariser is
36. Consider the following two statements
I
(a) Electric field is always conservative in nature. (1) (2) 2 I
4
(b) In electromagnetic waves the phase
(3) 4 I (4) I
difference between oscillating electric and
magnetic field is 90°. 42. Telescopes have larger diameter of objective
The correct statement(s) is/are (1) To improve resolving power
(1) Only (a) (2) Only (b) (2) To increase limit of resolution
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b) (3) To decrease chromatic aberrations
37. The springs – blocks system suspended vertically (4) To decrease spherical aberrations
as shown in the figure is in equilibrium. The 43. Arrange the following steps in correct order for
masses of blocks are indicated. The acceleration formation of a secondary rainbow
of block B, immediately after string S is cut, will
be (a) Refraction with dispersion
(b) Internal reflection
(c) Refraction
(1) (a) → (c) → (b) → (c)
(2) (a) → (b) → (b) → (c)
(3) (a) → (b) → (c)
(4) (a) → (c) → (b)
44. A lens of focal length f forms an image of
magnification n. The distance of object from the
lens is terms of f and n is
g
(1) g (2) nf
2 (1) (1 + n ) f (2)
(1 − n )
g
(3) (4) Zero
3 (1 − n )f f
(3) (4)
38. A man can swim in still water with a speed 2 m/s. n n
The minimum time, in which he can cross a river → → →
of width 200 m is 45. A, B,C are three coplanar vectors, then

(1) 100 s → →  → → → →
(1)  A . B  × C =
0 (2)  A × B  . C = 0
(2) 200 s    
(3) 50 s → → → → → →
(3)  A × B  ×C =0 (4)  A . B  . C = 0
(4) 75 s    
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CHEMISTRY
46. 18 g of glucose is present in 100 mL of its 54. In which of the following processes, volume is
solution. The concentration of solution in constant?
mol L–1 will be (1) Isochoric process (2) Isobaric process
(1) 2 mol L –1
(2) 0.1 mol L –1
(3) Adiabatic process (4) Isothermal process
(3) 1 mol L–1 (4) 0.2 mol L–1 55. If the solubility of XY3 at a certain temperature is
2 × 10–1 mol L–1 then the solubility product of XY3
47. In which of the following options, the order of
will be
arrangement does not agree with the variation of
property indicated against it? (1) 4.3 × 10–2 (2) 4.8 × 10–3
(1) I < Br < F < Cl (negative electron gain (3) 5.1 × 10–2 (4) 2.1 × 10–4
enthalpy) 56. The species which will not undergoes
– 2– 2+ + disproportionation is
(2) Cl < S < Ca < K (increasing ionic size)
(1) S8 (2) Cl2
(3) B < C < O < N (First ionisation enthalpy) (3) P4 (4) F2
(4) C < N < O < F (electronegativity) 57. The method used to remove temporary hardness
is
48. The total number of nodes in 4p orbital is
(1) Calgon’s method
(1) 1 (2) 2 (2) Clark’s method
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) Ion-exchange method
49. Which of the following has the shortest bond (4) Synthetic Resin method
length? 58. The element which will not impart colour to flame
(1) N2 is
(1) Be (2) Ca
(2) N2+
(3) Sr (4) Ba
–
(3) N2 59. The mixture of gases which is known as producer
gas is
(4) All have same bond length
(1) CO + H2 (2) CO + N2
50. The paramagnetic species among the following is
(3) CO2 + H2 (4) CO2 + N2
(1) N2 (2) O22− 60. The number of σ and π bonds in the compound
(3) O2− (4) C2
51. The density of CO2 gas at 127°C and 2 atm respectively are
pressure is
(1) 1.98 g L–1 (2) 1.68 g L–1 (1) 18, 4 (2) 18, 3
(3) 3.62 g L–1 (4) 2.68 g L–1 (3) 19, 2 (4) 20, 3
52. Extensive property among the following is
(1) Internal energy (2) Temperature
61. The IUPAC name of the compound is
(3) Density (4) Pressure
53. Unit of van der Waals constant a is
(1) atm mol–2
(1) 3-chloro-1-methyl-4-methoxybenzene
(2) atm L2 mol–2 (2) 3-chloro-4-methoxytoluene
(3) atm L–2 mol–2 (3) 2-chloro-4-methylanisole
–1 –1
(4) atm L mol (4) 1-methoxy-2-chloro-4-methylbenzene
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62. The most stable carbocation among the following 66. In Carius method of estimation of halogen,
is 0.28 g of an organic compound gave 0.2 g of
AgBr. The percentage of bromine in the
compound is
(Atomic mass of Ag = 108 u, Br = 80 u)
(1) (2) (1) 38.2% (2) 36.2%
(3) 30.4% (4) 25.6%
67. The maximum limit of nitrate in drinking water is
(1) 500 ppm (2) 50 ppm
(3) 50 ppb (4) 10 ppm
(3) (4) 68. Atoms of element X forms fcc lattice and those of
1
the element Y occupy rd of the tetrahedral
3
voids. The formula of the compound will be
63. Which among the following molecules can exhibit (1) XY2 (2) XY
tautomerism?
(3) X3Y2 (4) X2Y3
(1) (2) 69. Which of the following substances is

ferrimagnetic in nature?
(1) Fe3O4 (2) MnO
(3) Ni (4) CrO2
70. 5% (w/v) solution of urea is isotonic with
(3) (4) 2% (w/v) solution of a non-electrolyte substance.
The molar mas of the substance is
(1) 180 g/mol (2) 24 g/mol
64. The major product (P) obtained in the reaction is (3) 120 g/mol (4) 30 g/mol
71. Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal
aqueous solution is
(1) 0.071 (2) 0.058
(3) 0.0177 (4) 1.72
72. The half life of a first order reaction, if the rate
constant k = 6.93 × 10–6 s–1 is
(1) (2) (1) 1 × 103 s (2) 1 × 105 s
(3) 2.4 × 105 s (4) 2 × 104 s
73. The unit of a rate constant for a second order
(3) (4) reaction is
(1) s–1 (2) Mol L–1 s–1
65. The most stable alkene among the following is
(3) L Mol–1 s–1 (4) Mol–2 L2 s–1
74. Negatively charged sol is
(1)
(1) Ag sol (2) TiO2 sol
(3) Al2O3.xH2O (4) Haemoglobin
(2)
75. The constituent of brass are
(3) CH3 – CH2 – CH = CH2 (1) Cu, Zn and Ni (2) Cu and Ni
(4) CH3 – CH = CH2 (3) Cu and Zn (4) Zn and Ni
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76. The correct order of acidic character is 81. Consider the following reaction,
(1) H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O 2CH3 – Cl+Na dry ether
→ CH3 – CH3 + 2NaCl The
(2) H2S < H2O < H2Se < H2Te above reaction is called
(3) H2Se < H2Te < H2O < H2S (1) Fittig reaction (2) Wurtz reaction
(4) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te (3) Swarts reaction (4) Finkelstein reaction
77. The shape of ClF5 is 82. Consider the following reaction,
(1) Trigonal bipyramidal

(2) Square pyramidal
D is
(3) See - saw
(4) Square bipyramidal
(1) (2)
78. Number of moles of MnO4– required to oxidize
one mole of iodide ion completely in acidic
medium is
(3) CH3CH2CH2Br (4) CH3CH2CH2OH
1 2
(1) mole (2) mole 83. In the reaction,
5 5
1 2
(3) mole (4) mole
3 3
79. The number of ions produced from the complex B is
Fe4 [Fe(CN)6]3 in an aqueous solution is
(1) Aldehyde
(1) 4 (2) 5
(2) Ketone
(3) 6 (4) 7
(3) Carboxylic acid
80. The correct order of melting point among the
following is (4) Ester
84. The most acidic compound among the following
is
(1) (1) CH3COOH
(2) C6H5CH2COOH
(3) HCOOH
(4) C6H5COOH
(2) 85. In the following reaction sequence
C is
(3) (1) But-3-enal

(2) But-2-enal
(3) Butan-2-one
(4) Butanoic acid
86. Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar?
(4)
(1) Maltose (2) Sucrose
(3) Lactose (4) Glucose
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87. Scurvy is caused by deficiency of 89. Which of the following is an antihistamines?
(1) Vitamin B12 (1) Seldane (2) Cimetidine

(3) Chlordiazepoxide (4) Salvarsan
(2) Vitamin C
90. Which of the following is most reactive toward
(3) Vitamin D SN1 reaction?
(4) Vitamin A
88. Biodegradable polymer among the following is

(1) (2)
(1) PHBV
(2) Nylon – 2 – Nylon 6
(3) Buna – S
(4) Both (1) and (2) (3) (4) CH3–Cl
BOTANY
91. Select the mismatched pair. 94. How many chromosomes and DNA content will a
cell have in G2 phase if it has 7 chromosomes
‘9 + 0’ arrangement and 7 pg DNA in G1 phase?
(1) Centrioles
of microtubules Chromosomes DNA
(1) 7 7
(2) Ribosome Membraneless (2) 14 14
(3) 14 7
(3) Chloroplast Semi-autonomous
organelle (4) 7 14
95. Find the option in which organism is placed in its
(4) Gas Surrounded wrong taxonomic category.
vacuoles by tonoplast Organism Taxonomic category
(1) Man - Class: Mammalia
92. Which of the following cell organelles take part (2) Mango - Order : Polymoniales
in oxidation of fatty acids and synthesis of lipids (3) Wheat - Family : Poaceae
respectively?
(4) Brinjal - Division : Angiospermae
(1) SER and RER 96. Select the incorrect statement.
(2) Mitochondria and SER (1) Royal Botanical Garden is an ‘ex-situ’
conservation strategy.
(3) RER and mitochondria
(2) A museum has preserved plants and animals
(4) Chloroplast and mitochondria (3) Key is a taxonomic aid for identification of
specimens.
93. A bivalent formed in a cell of a diploid organism
has (4) Herbarium houses live and conserved plant
specimens
(1) Two chromatids and two centromeres
97. The bacteria which are found in the gut of
(2) Four chromosomes and two chromatids ruminant animals and are responsible for
production of methane are
(3) Four chromatids and two centromeres (1) Cyanobacteria (2) Methanogens
(4) Four chromatids and four centromeres (3) Dinoflagellates (4) Eubacteria
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98. Read the following statements and select the (1) Only (a) and (b) (2) Only (b)
correct option. (3) Only (c) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
Statement A : All fungi possess a purely 106. Choose the feature which is exclusive to vascular
cellulosic cell wall amphibians of plant kingdom among
Statement B : Morels and truffles are non-edible embryophytes.
mushrooms. (1) Jacketed sex organs
(1) Only A is incorrect (2) Presence of archegonia
(2) Only B is incorrect (3) Presence of independent gametophyte as
(3) Both A and B are incorrect well as sporophyte
(4) Both A and B are correct (4) Requirement of water for fertilisation
99. The subviral agents which were discovered by 107. Non flagellated gametes are produced by
T.O. Diener (1) Volvox and Spirogyra
(1) Contain DNA as genetic material (2) Spirogyra and Gelidium
(2) Are infectious proteinaceous particles (3) Gracilaria and Sargassum
(3) Do not cause any disease in plants (4) Ulothrix and Volvox
(4) Are viroids 108. Which of the following is a homosporous
100. Select the incorrect statement. pteridophyte?
(1) Pulvinus is swollen leaf base (1) Sphagnum (2) Dryopteris
(2) Banana is a parthenocarpic fruit (3) Selaginella (4) Marsilea
(3) Alstonia shows whorled phyllotaxy 109. Select the wrong statement about facilitated
diffusion.
(4) In the axil of the every leaflet of compound
leaves there is presence of axillary bud (1) Requires special membrane proteins
101. Find the incorrect match (2) Highly selective in nature
Placentation Plant (3) Requires ATP energy
(1) Marginal – Pea (4) Movement of molecules along the
concentration gradient
(2) Axile – Lemon
110. For a solution at atmospheric pressure
(3) Parietal – China rose
(1) ψp = ψs (2) ψw = zero
(4) Basal – Sunflower
102. Staminode is (3) ψs = zero (4) ψs = ψw
(1) Stamen with two microsporangia only 111. Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are called
(2) Sterile stamen autotrophs but they do not use solar energy for
synthesis of food because
(3) Seen only in pistillate flowers
(1) They can fix CO2 of organic substances.
(4) Adhesion of stamens with each other
(2) They can fix N2 along with CO2
103. The living component of xylem is
(3) They use chemical energy liberated during
(1) Xylem fiber (2) Vessel oxidation of inorganic substances
(3) Xylem parenchyma (4) Tracheid (4) They have chlorophyll but they can fullfill their
104. Collenchyma differs from parenchyma in being food requirement from other organisms
(1) Photosynthetic (2) Simple Tissue 112. In legumes, certain portion of root nodules were
found red in colour due to presence of a pigment
(3) Mechanical in nature (4) Thin walled
which acts as O2 scavenger. This pigment also
105. Select the feature(s) which can differentiate dicot
(1) Fixes N2 in the legumes
root from monocot roots.
(2) Provides energy to the nitrogen fixing
(a) Presence of conjunctive tissue
bacteria
(b) Presence of cambium tissue
(3) Protects the nitrogenase from O2
(c) Presence of radial vascular bundles
(4) Transports oxygen to the nitrogen fixing
(d) Presence of hypodermis bacteria
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113. Which of the following elements helps in 122. There are A chromosomes in meiocyte of
translocation of carbohydrates through phloem. housefly whereas B chromosomes in its
(1) B (2) Mo gamete.
(3) Mn (4) Zn Choose the correct option for A and B.
114. The primary CO2 acceptor in a C4 plant A B
(1) Is phosphoenol pyruvate (1) 12 6
(2) Is RuBP (2) 6 12
(3) has four carbons (3) 8 4
(4) Is found in bundle sheath cells (4) 4 8
115. The common feature of a C3 and a C4 plant is 123. Water is the medium through which male gamete
presence of transfer takes place in all, except in
(1) Photorespiration (1) Algae (2) Angiosperms
(2) Calvin cycle (3) Bryophytes (4) Pteridophytes
(3) Kranz anatomy 124. The ploidy level of the cells of the nucellus, MMC,
(4) Double carboxylation the functional megaspore and female
gametophyte is respectively
116. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t glycolysis
(1) 2n, n, n, 2n (2) 2n, ,2n, n, n
(1) Glycolysis takes place in cytoplasm
(3) n, 2n, n, 2n (4) n, n, 2n, 2n
(2) It occurs both in aerobes and anaerobes
125. A male child has blood group AB and his sister
(3) There is no use of energy in the whole has blood group ‘O’. The genotype of his parents
process could be
(4) Pyruvic acid is the end product of it (1) IAIA and ii (2) IBIB and ii
117. Select the substrate with maximum RQ (3) IAi and IBi (4) IAIB and IAIB
(1) Oxalic acid (2) Malic acid
126. Study the given pedigree chart and choose the
(3) Glucose (4) Tripalmitic acid correct option regarding it.
118. The role of stress hormone is to
(1) Promote stem elongation
(2) Promote abscission
(3) Prevent dormancy
(4) Promote transpiration
119. Auxin and cytokinin work antagonistically as
(1) Auxin promotes cell division whereas
cytokinin inhibits it (1) The trait under the study can be Haemophilia
(2) Auxin promotes apical dominance whereas (2) Both parents are heterozygous for the trait
cytokinin counteracts it
(3) The genotype of (P) can be Aa and shows
(3) Cytokinin promotes senescence whereas myotonic dystrophy
auxin prevents it
(4) Female (Q) and (R) are not affected because
(4) Auxin induces shoot formation whereas parents are not carrying the trait
cytokinin inhibits it
127. During DNA replication, the discontinuously
120. Epicotyl grows first, cotyledons remain
synthesized fragments are later joined by the
underground in
enzyme
(1) Cucurbits (2) Mustard
(1) DNA polymerase (2) Helicase
(3) Groundnut (4) Castor
(3) RNA polymerase (4) DNA ligase
121. Find the incorrect match
128. In the nucleus of eukaryotes, there are three
(1) Rhizome - Ginger types of RNA polymerases and one of them
(2) Offset - Water hyacinth codes for ____.
(3) Tuber - Potato (1) 16S rRNA (2) 23S rRNA
(4) Bulb - Agave (3) 28S rRNA (4) σ factor
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129. If lactose is absent in the E. coli growing medium 133. Select the incorrect statement
then
(1) In ecological pyramids, any calculation of
(1) There will be no synthesis of repressor energy content, biomass, or numbers has to
protein include all organisms at that trophic level
(2) There will be synthesis of lac mRNA
(2) The pyramid of biomass in sea is generally
(3) There will be no synthesis of inverted
β-galactosidase
(3) In an ecosystem all the pyramids are upright
(4) Repressor will bind to the RNA polymerase
130. Which of the following diseases is caused by (4) The base of each pyramid represents the
bacteria? producers.
(1) Brown rust of wheat 134. Which of the following is the most important
(2) Turnip mosaic cause that drives animals and plants to
extinction?
(3) Black rot of crucifers
(4) Late blight of potato (1) Over-exploitation
131. Pusa Sawani is resistant to shoot and fruit borer. (2) Alien species invasions
It is a variety of
(3) Co-extinctions
(1) Brassica (2) Flat bean
(4) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(3) Okra (4) Cauliflower
132. Select the incorrect match. 135. Select the odd one w.r.t Montreal protocol.
Name of interaction Species A Species B (1) Was signed in 1987
(1) Predation : + + (2) Is meant to control the emission of ODS
(2) Commensalism : + 0
(3) Is another name for Kyoto protocol
(3) Amensalism : – 0
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Protocooperation : + +
ZOOLOGY
136. Cardiac muscle fibres are (1) Exothermic reaction with energy A in
(1) Unbranched, involuntary and multinucleated absence of enzyme.
(2) Endothermic reaction with energy B in
(2) Fusiform shaped, non-striated and
presence of enzyme.
uninucleated
(3) Endothermic reaction with energy A in
(3) Involuntary, striated and uninucleated absence of enzyme.
(4) Voluntary, cylindrical shaped and (4) Exothermic reaction with energy A in
uninucleated presence of enzyme
137. The type of cell junction found in epithelium which 139. In RNA molecule, thymine is replaced by
helps primarily to stop substances from leaking (1) Uracil (2) Guanine
across the tissue is
(3) Thiamine (4) Adenine
(1) Tight junction (2) Gap junction 140. Match column I with column II and select the
(3) Adhering junction (4) Desmosome correct option.
138. Select the correct statement w.r.t. the given Column I Column II
graph. (i) Oxyntic cells (a) Crypts of
Lieberkühn
(ii) Bile pigments (b) Biliverdin
(iii) Lysozyme (c) HCl
(iv) Scurvy (d) Ascorbic acid
(1) i – d, ii – b, iii – c, iv – a
(2) i – c, ii – b, iii – a, iv – d
(3) i – d, ii – a, iii – c, iv – b
(4) i – c, ii – a, iii – d, iv – b
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141. The condition in which the food is not properly 150. Photoreceptors in the human eye are A
digested leading to a feeling of fullness is called
during darkness and become B in response to
(1) Constipation the light stimulus.
(2) Indigestion Choose the option that represents A and B
(3) Diarrhoea correctly
(4) Vomiting A B
142. Partial pressures of oxygen in alveoli is (1) Hyperpolarised Depolarised
(1) Less than that in deoxygenated blood. (2) Polarised Repolarised

(3) Depolarised Hyperpolarised
(2) More than that in oxygenated blood.
(4) Repolarised Depolarised
(3) Equal to that in atmospheric air.
151. Electrogenic Na+–K+ ATPase transmembrane
(4) Less than that in tissues. pumps in the axonal membrane transport
143. A chronic disorder caused due to excessive (1) 3 Na+ outwards for 2K+ into axoplasm
cigarette smoking and damage to walls of alveoli (2) 2 Na+ inwards for 3K+ to ECF
resulting in reduced surface area for exchange of
gases is called (3) 3 Na+ to axoplasm for 2K+ outwards
(4) 1 Na+ to axoplasm for 2K+ outwards
(1) Asthma
152. Which of the following hormones interacts with
(2) Emphysema membrane–bound receptors and generates
(3) Pneumoconiosis second messengers?
(4) Asbestosis (1) Cortisol (2) Estradiol
144. In typical ECG, contraction of both the atria is (3) Progesterone (4) Glucagon
represented by 153. A form of hyperthyroidism, characterised by
enlargement of the thyroid gland, protrusion of
(1) P-wave (2) T-wave
the eyeballs, increased BMR and weight loss is
(3) S-T segment (4) Peak R called
145. In ABO blood grouping, person with blood group (1) Exophthalmic goitre
O– can accept blood from (2) Cretinism
(1) AB – (2) A+ (3) Simple goitre
(3) O+ (4) O – (4) Addison’s disease
146. Even in the absence of vasopressin hormone, 154. Choose the incorrect statement.
maximum reabsorption in nephron of human (1) Non-nutrient chemicals produced by the body
kidney occurs in in trace amounts that act as intercellular
(1) PCT (2) DCT messengers are known as hormones.
(3) CD (4) Loop of Henle (2) Fight-or-flight reactions cause activation of

the adrenal medulla, leading to increased
147. Select the odd one w.r.t regulation by RAAS secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine.
(1) ADH (2) ANF (3) Melanin produced from pineal gland,
(3) Renin (4) Angiotensinogen regulates the normal rhythm of sleep wake
cycle.
148. Choose the odd one w.r.t paired bones.
(4) Stored oxytocin is released from posterior
(1) Parietal (2) Temporal
pituitary and is known as milk let down
(3) Palatine (4) Mandible hormone.
149. Select the incorrect match. 155. Chromosome number in meiocytes and gametes
(1) Cartilaginous joint – Adjacent vertebrae of housefly is
of vertebral column (1) 12, 6
(2) Fibrous joint – Sutures (2) 46, 23
(3) Saddle joint – Between carpals (3) 8, 4
(4) Pivot joint – Elbow joint (4) 380, 190
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156. Match the name of the animal (column I), with Choose the correct option.
characteristics (column II), and the taxon (1) Both statements are correct.
(column III) to which it belongs.
(2) Both statements are incorrect.
Column I Column II Column III (3) Statement A is correct but statement B is
incorrect.
(1) Petromyzon Placoid Chondrichthyes
scales (4) Statement A is incorrect but statement B is
correct.
(2) Chameleon Poikilotherm Reptilia
162. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. evolution of
with
metanephric man.
kidney Characteristics Brain
capacities
(3) Apteryx Cornified Amphibia
skin with (1) Australopith • Hunted with 650-800 cc
epidermal ecines stone
scale weapons
• Essentially ate
(4) Macaca 10 pair Mammalia meat
cranial
nerves (2) Homo habilis • Probably did 650-800 cc
not eat meat
157. Which of the following hormones is mainly • First human-
responsible for ovulation and stimulates corpus like being, the
luteum in menstrual cycle? hominid
(1) FSH (2) Estrogen (3) Homo • Probably ate 900 cc

erectus meat
(3) LH (4) Progesterone • Had erect
posture
158. Incorrect statement w.r.t human reproduction is
(4) Neanderthal • Used hides to 1400 cc
(1) Capacitation occurs in female reproductive
man protect body
tract.
• Buried their
(2) Fertilization is feasible if both sperm and dead
ovum are transported simultaneously to the
ampullary region of fallopian tube. 163. In a population of 1000 individuals, 490 are of
dominant homozygous genotype AA. Based on
(3) Circulating levels of estrogen and this data, the frequency of allele ‘a’ in the
progesterone in females regulates the population and number of heterozygotes
changes in GnRH pulse frequency. respectively are
(4) In females, meiosis-I completes at the time of (1) 0.3, 420 (2) 0.7, 490
birth.
(3) 0.21, 420 (4) 0.3, 90
159. A non-steroidal contraceptive which is a selective
estrogen receptor modulator for females is 164. Read the following statements and choose the
option with incorrect statements only.
(1) Gossypol (2) Nirodh
(a) Typhoid fever could be confirmed by Widal
(3) Saheli (4) Norplant test.
160. In test-tube baby programme, the zygote or early (b) Rhinoviruses infect the nose and respiratory
embryo with upto 8 blastomeres could be passage but not the lungs.
transferred into
(c) P. malariae causes the most serious and fatal
(1) Fallopian tube (2) Uterus malignant malaria.
(3) Cervix (4) Fimbriae (d) Sporozoite form of Plasmodium are stored in
161. Read the following statements. the stomach of female Aedes mosquito.
Statement A: Triceratops was a three horned, (1) (a) and (b)

quadruped dinosaurs. (2) (a), (c) and (d)
Statement B: Brachiosaurus had plates on its (3) (b), (c) and (d)
back and was a flesh eating biped
dinosaur. (4) (c) and (d)
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165. Choose the set of bacterial diseases. 172. When pBR322 is digested with Pvu I and ligated
(1) Ascariases, dysentery with alien piece of DNA at its site, the
recombinants will be
(2) Diphtheria, filariasis
(1) Ampicillin resistant
(3) Plague, dysentery
(2) Tetracycline susceptible
(4) Common cold, amoebiasis
(3) Both ampicillin and tetracycline resistant
166. Select an incorrect match :
(4) Ampicillin susceptible
(1) Acid in stomach – Physiological barrier
173. Which among the following is not essential in
(2) Natural killer cells – Cellular barrier
PCR reaction mixture?
(3) IgA in colostrum – Passive immunity
(1) DNA template
(4) Administration of – Active immunity
(2) Taq polymerase
Anti-toxin
(3) Primers
167. Correct match among the following is
(4) Agarose
(1) HIV – Attacks B-lymphocytes
174. A stirrer in stirred-tank reactor primarily facilitates
(2) Benign tumor – Show metastasis
(1) Uniform oxygen availability throughout the
(3) Leghorn – Sheep bioreactor
(4) Jersey – Cattle (2) Death of microbes
168. In MOET,
(3) Temperature control
(1) A cow is administered hormone with
(4) Optimum pH conditions
progesterone like activity.
(2) Superovulation yields 1 to 2 eggs per cycle. 175. B thuringiensis forms protein crystals during a
particular growth phase. These crystals contain a
(3) Only one egg is fertilized by natural mating toxic protein which is
(4) The fertilized eggs are transferred to (1) Herbicidal
surrogate mothers.
(2) Insecticidal
169. Plasmid is
(3) Bactericidal
(1) Autonomously replicating, single stranded
chromosomal RNA. (4) Fungicidal
(2) Autonomously replicating, closed circular 176. Choose the correct option w.r.t. cockroach.
extrachromosomal DNA.
(1) Respiration : Tracheal system
(3) A double stranded, linear, chromosomal
RNA. (2) Paurometabolous : 12 times moulting
(4) A closed circular, single stranded vital gene
coding DNA. (3) Muscular heart : One-chambered
170. Choose the odd one w.r.t sticky ends. (4) Excretion : Ammonotelic
(1) Bam HI
177. In RNAi, there is silencing of a specific A due
(2) Sal I
to complementary B molecule that binds to
(3) Pst I
and prevents protein synthesis.
(4) Eco RV
Choose the option that represents A and B
171. Now adays, the most commonly used matrix is correctly.
agarose which is a natural polymer extracted
from A B
(1) Sea weeds (1) mRNA ssRNA
(2) B. thuringiensis (2) ssRNA ssRNA
(3) Bt cotton (3) mRNA dsRNA
(4) Thermus aquaticus (4) ssDNA dsDNA
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178. Mature form of recombinant human insulin lacks 180. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Disulphide bonds Genus Character Taxon
(2) A-peptide chain (1) Obelia  Metagenesis Coelenterata

 Cnidoblast cells
(3) B-peptide chain
(2) Planaria  High regeneration Platyhelminthes
(4) C-peptide chain
 Organ level of
179. The first clinical gene therapy was given to a organisation
4-year old girl with deficiency of enzyme
(3) Nereis • Segmented worm Annelida
(1) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase • Closed circulatory
system
(2) Adenosine deaminase
(4) Limulus • Living fossil Arthropoda
(3) Alcohol dehydrogenase
• Chitinous endoskeleton
(4) Myosin ATpase
  
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22/04/2020 CODE-A
Test - 10
Answer Key
1. (4) 37. (4) 73. (3) 109. (3) 145. (4)
2. (1) 38. (1) 74. (1) 110. (4) 146 (1)
3. (1) 39. (1) 75. (3) 111. (3) 147. (2)
4. (4) 40. (3) 76. (4) 112. (3) 148. (4)
5. (4) 41. (3) 77. (2) 113. (1) 149. (3)
6. (2) 42. (1) 78. (1) 114. (1) 150. (3)
7. (4) 43. (2) 79. (4) 115. (2) 151. (1)
8. (2) 44. (3) 80. (4) 116. (3) 152. (4)
9. (1) 45. (2) 81. (2) 117. (1) 153. (1)
10. (1) 46. (3) 82. (2) 118. (2) 154. (3)
11. (3) 47. (2) 83. (2) 119. (2) 155. (1)
12. (2) 48. (3) 84. (3) 120. (3) 156. (2)
13. (3) 49. (1) 85. (2) 121. (4) 157. (3)
14. (4) 50. (3) 86. (2) 122. (1) 158. (4)
15. (2) 51. (4) 87. (2) 123. (2) 159. (3)
16. (1) 52. (1) 88. (4) 124. (2) 160. (1)
17. (2) 53. (2) 89. (1) 125. (3) 161. (3)
18. (2) 54. (1) 90. (3) 126. (2) 162. (1)
19. (4) 55. (1) 91. (4) 127. (4) 163. (1)
20. (4) 56. (4) 92. (2) 128. (3) 164. (4)
21. (1) 57. (2) 93. (3) 129. (3) 165. (3)
22. (3) 58. (1) 94. (4) 130. (3) 166. (4)
23. (4) 59. (2) 95. (2) 131. (3) 167. (4)
24. (4) 60. (2) 96. (4) 132. (1) 168. (4)
25. (1) 61. (3) 97. (2) 133. (3) 169. (2)
26. (3) 62. (3) 98. (3) 134. (4) 170. (4)
27. (3) 63. (3) 99. (4) 135. (3) 171. (1)
28. (4) 64. (4) 100. (4) 136. (3) 172. (4)
29. (2) 65. (2) 101. (3) 137. (1) 173. (4)
30. (1) 66. (3) 102. (2) 138. (4) 174. (1)
31. (2) 67. (2) 103. (3) 139. (1) 175. (2)
32. (3) 68. (3) 104. (3) 140. (2) 176. (1)
33. (4) 69. (1) 105. (2) 141. (2) 177. (3)
34. (4) 70. (2) 106. (3) 142. (2) 178. (4)
35. (3) 71. (3) 107. (2) 143. (2) 179. (2)
36. (4) 72. (2) 108. (2) 144. (1) 180. (4)
(1)
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22/04/2020 CODE-A
Test - 10
Hints and Solutions
PHYSICS
[x] = [Ay] = [B]
  (2,1)
[Cz] = [M0 L0 T0] ⇒ [C] = [z-1] =w F . dr

∫= ∫ y 2 x dx + x 2 y dy
(1,2)
2. Answer (1)
2,1
a t 1
+ =1 ⇒ a =(4 − 2t ) ∫ d(x y ) = 0
2 2
=
4 2 2 1,2
t
v = ∫ a dt 8. Answer (2)
0
t
Centre of mass lies toward heavier part.
t
∫ (4 − 2t ) dt = 4t − t = 4t − t
2 2
⇒v = 9. Answer (1)
0
0
Velocity is maximum when a = 0 ⇒ t =2s I 2 mR 2 2

=h = = R
mR 5 mR 5
⇒ v = 8 − 4 = 4 m/s
Galileo law of odd numbers 2Q 3Q 3Q
φs= , φs= , φs=
4. Answer (4) 1
ε0 2
ε0 3
ε0
 2π  11. Answer (3)
∆v = 2v = 2ωR = 2   ×(3.05)
 12 × 60 × 60 
18
= 8.87 × 10–4 m/s i=
5π = 9A
2
5. Answer (4)
V = 9 × 5 = 45 V
2π / 3 + 2π / 3
Average angular velocity = 12. Answer (2)
3+2
4π C1V1 + C2V2
⇒ rad/s Vcommonn =
15 C1 + C2
6. Answer (2) 2 × 40 + 4 × 20 160 80
= = ⇒
2+4 6 3
F 40
=
a = = 1 m/s2 1 1 1
m 40 =
∆u C1V12 + C2V22 − (C1 + C2 )(Vcommon )2
2 2 2
T = (4 × 6) × 1 = 24 N
(2)
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1 1 20. Answer (4)

= × 2 × 402 × 10 –6 + × 4 × 202 × 10 –6
2 2 The susceptibility of a diamagnetic material is
1  80 
2
largely independent of the temperature.
− (6)   × 10 –6
2  3  21. Answer (1)
= 266.67 µJ 2  V0  P0V0 6
{KE=
}R = P0 e 6  =
= PV
nRT  e
13. Answer (3) 2  2 2
GmM 1 22. Answer (3)

2 = mv 2
( )

2
2
=Req
(n − 1) R × R (n − 1)
= R
(n − 1) R + R n
GM 8 × G × 10
8 =v ⇒ 8G
= 23. Answer (4)
 10
 1 1   1 1 
14. Answer (4) (3 − 1) 
P= − =2 − 
R
 1 R 2  R
 1 R 2 
=v 2g h
= gh
2  3  1 1  1 1 1  P
P′ =
 4 − 1  R − R  = −  − =−
F = ρa v2 = ρa (gh)   1 2  4 R 1 R 2  8
⇒ ρagh < µ ρ (A) hg 24. Answer (4)
a P E0 2
µ> =I = 2
A 4πr 2µ0c
15. Answer (2)
µ0cP
E0 = = 62.6 V/m
µ 2πr 2
Required time is half of time period = π
k 25. Answer (1)
1/ 4 1 1 q1 − q2
= π = = E=
1000 400 20 ε0 (2 a )
16. Answer (1) (q1 − q2 )d q1 − q2
Ed = V ⇒ V = =
Y = 2 γ (1 + σ) 2aε0 2C
3γ = 2 x γ (1 + σ) 26. Answer (3)
1 + σ = 1.5 Energy would be released when products of high
BE / nucleon are produced.
σ = 0.5
27. Answer (3)
17. Answer (2)
4mv
In metric system, Farheneit is smallest unit. Maximum separation = 2R1 + 2R2 =
qB
18. Answer (2)
28. Answer (4)
R
cosφ = Largest wavelength of Lyman series is
Z 1215.7 A
1 R 1 R 29. Answer (2)
= and = 1
2 Z 4 Z β λ  λD 
θ= = ⇒  β=
Z 1 Z D d  d 
⇒R = ⇒ = ⇒ Z ′ = 2Z
2 4 2Z 1 The first dark fringe will be at half the fringe width
z' – z from central maximum.
% increase in z, = 100%
z θ 1  λ  1  4000 × 10 −10  180°
α= = =  π×
19. Answer (4) 2 2  d  2  2 × 10 −3  π
The rod immediately attains terminal speed. = 0.018°
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30. Answer (1)

dy
Vp = −v . Particles where slope is positive has
∂x
speed along negative y-direction.
31. Answer (2)
In reverse biase potential barrier will increase.
32. Answer (3)
2mg – 2mg = 2ma
Momentum of both masses will be same in
a=0
magnitude.
38. Answer (1)
h
Since λ = 200
p The minimum time taken = = 100 s.
2
∴de-Broglie wavelength of the masses will be
39. Answer (1)
same.
33. Answer (4) m
T1 = 2π
3k
PV γ = C
m
ln (P) + γ ln (V) = ln (C) T2 = 2π
(k 3)
ln (P) = – γ ln (V) + ln (C) → straight line
40. Answer (3)
γ for B is higher.
The package continuous to move in the same
34. Answer (4) orbit.
T1 = 546 + 273 = 819 K 41. Answer (3)
T2 = 273 K  I0  2 I0
 2  cos (45°)= 4 = I
T1  
=3
T2 I0 = 4I
4 42. Answer (1)
E1  T1 
=  Larger the diameter, larger is the resolving
E2  T2  power.
1 2 Secondary rainbow is formed by refraction with
Iω dispersion → TIR → TIR → Refraction
2 9
=
1 25 44. Answer (3)
mv 2
2
1 1 1
− =
1
2
2 2
mk (v / R ) 2
9 3R v u f
= ⇒k=
1 mv 2 25 5
2 u u
−1=
36. Answer (4) v f
Electric field produced due to time varying 1 u  1− n 
−1= ⇒u = f 
magnetic fields are non- conservative in nature. n f  n 
In E.M. waves, the oscillating electric and 45. Answer (2)
magnetic fields are in phase.
For coplanar forces
37. Answer (4)
 →× →. →
Just after cutting the string forces on mass 2m A B C = 0
 
(4)
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CHEMISTRY
46. Answer (3) = 27 × (2 × 10–1)4
w 18 × 1000 = 432 × 10–4
Molarity = = = 1 mol L–1
M × VL 180 × 100
= 4.32 × 10–2
47. Answer (2)
56. Answer (4)
For isoelectronic species, the ionic size
decreases with increase in nuclear charge. F2 does not show disproportionation reaction
∴ Order of ionic size is since fluorine does not show any positive
oxidation state.
Ca2+ < K+ < Cl– < S2–
57. Answer (2)
48. Answer (3)
Total number of nodes = n – 1 In Clark’s method, Mg(HCO3)2 and Ca(HCO3)2
 for 4p, n = 4 reacts with lime and precipitation of CaCO3 and
Mg(OH)2 takes place.
∴ n–1
=4–1=3 58. Answer (1)
49. Answer (1) In beryllium, electrons are too strongly bound to
Bond length decreases with increase in bond get excited by flame.
order. 59. Answer (2)
50. Answer (3) Mixture of CO + N2 is known as producer gas.
Molecular orbital configuration of O2–
60. Answer (2)
(17 electrons)
π2 px2  π2 p1x
σ1s2 σ*1s2 σ2s2 σ*2s2 σ2pz2  2  2
π2 py π2 py
 One unpaired electron is present.
∴ O2 is paramagnetic in nature.
51. Answer (4)
PM 2 × 44
d= = = 2.68 g/L 61. Answer (3)
RT 0.0821× 400
52. Answer (1)
Extensive property depends upon the quantity or
size of matter present in the system.
53. Answer (2)
an2
Unit of must be same that of P
v2 62. Answer (3)
∴ Unit of a = atm L2 mol–2 –OH has + M effect, it increases the stability of
54. Answer (1) the carbocation.
The thermodynamic processes occurring at 63. Answer (3)
constant volume are called isochoric process.
55. Answer (1)
XY3  X3+ + 3Y –
s 3s
3+ – 3
Ksp = [X ] [Y ]
= s(3s)3
= 27s4
(5)
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64. Answer (4) 60 × 2

M2 = = 24 g/mol
5
71. Answer (3)
1 molal aq. solution means 1 mol of solute is
dissolved in 1000 g of H2O
1000
Number of moles of H2O = = 55.55 mol
18
1
xsolute = = 0.0177
1 + 55.55
65. Answer (2)
72. Answer (2)
More is the heat of hydrogenation, lesser is the
stability of the alkene. 0.693 0.693
t1 = = = 1× 105 s
66. Answer (3) 2
k 6.93 × 10 –6
188 g AgBr contains 80 g of bromine 73. Answer (3)
80 × 0.2
(Mol L–1 )
1–n
0.2 g of AgBr contains g of bromine
188 Unit of rate constant =
s
80 × 0.2 × 100
Percentage of bromine = For second order reaction, n = 2
188 × 0.28
(Mol L–1 )
1–2
= 30.4% ∴ Unit of k =
67. Answer (2) s
Maximum limit of nitrate in drinking water is 50 = (Mol L–1)–1 s–1
ppm.
= L Mol–1 s–1
68. Answer (3)
74. Answer (1)
Number of atoms of X per unit cell = 4
TiO2 sol, Al2O3.xH2O and haemoglobin are
1 positively charged sol.
Number of atoms Y per unit cell = × 8
3
75. Answer (3)
(  Number of tetrahedral voids = 2 × N)
Constituents of brass : Cu – 60% and Zn – 40%
8
∴ X:Y::4: 76. Answer (4)
3
Down the group, bond enthalpy for the
Hence, formula of the compound is X3 Y2 dissociation of H – E bond decreases as a result,
69. Answer (1) the acidic character increases.
77. Answer (2)
Substances Magnetic properties
Fe3O4 Ferrimagnetic
MnO Antiferromagnetic
Ni Ferromagnetic
CrO2 Ferromagnetic 78. Answer (1)
70. Answer (2)

 π1(urea ) =
π2 (unknown) For 10 moles of I–, 2 moles of MnO4– is required.
∴ C1 = C 2 2
For 1 mol of I–, moles of MnO4– is required
10
W1 W2
= 79. Answer (4)
M1 M2
5 2
=
60 M2
(6)
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Order of acidic character is
HCOOH > C6H5COOH > C6H5CH2COOH
> CH3COOH
85. Answer (2)
86. Answer (2)

Since, the reducing group of glucose and fructose
Para – isomer has high melting point then are involved in glycosidic bond formation.
o and m isomer because of symmetry. ∴ Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar.
The reaction in which alkyl halide reacts with Scurvy (bleeding gum) is caused by the
sodium in dry ether to give hydrocarbon deficiency of vitamin C (ascorbic acid).
containing double the number of carbon atoms
present in the halide is known as Wurtz reaction. 88. Answer (4)
82. Answer (2) Both PHBV and Nylon-2-Nylon 6 are bio-
degradable polymers.
89. Answer (1)
Seldane is an antihistamines
Cimetidine is an antacid
Chlordiazepoxide is a tranquilizer
Salvarsan is an antibiotic
83. Answer (2)
90. Answer (3)
More stable the carbocation is, more will be the
reactivity of the alkyl halide towards SN1 reaction.
BOTANY
Gas vacuoles are found in bacteria and they are Herbarium has dried and preserved specimens.
not surrounded by tonoplast.
97. Answer (2)
92. Answer (2)
98. Answer (3)
93. Answer (3)
Fungi have chitinous cell well.
One pair of homologous chromosomes forms a
bivalent. Morels and truffles are edible sac fungi.
DNA replication takes place in S phase which 100. Answer (4)

comes before G2 phase. Bud is present in the axil of leaf not of the leaflet.
Mango: Order → Sapindales. China rose shows axile placentation
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102. Answer (2) 121. Answer (4)

103. Answer (3) Bulb–Onion
104. Answer (3) Bulbil–Agave
105. Answer (2) 122. Answer (1)
Cambium is present in dicots. Meiocyte = 2n = 12
106. Answer (3) Gamete = n = 6
107. Answer (2) 123. Answer (2)
108. Answer (2) Angiosperms transfer their male gametes with the
109. Answer (3) help of pollen tube.
110. Answer (4) 124. Answer (2)
111. Answer (3) 125. Answer (3)
Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are
chemoautotrophs.
112. Answer (3)
Leghaemoglobin protects the nitrogenase from
oxygen. Hence acts as O2 scavenger.
113. Answer (1) 126. Answer (2)
114. Answer (1) Trait under study is autosomal recessive.
PEP is 3C compound. 127. Answer (4)

115. Answer (2) 128. Answer (3)
116. Answer (3) 129. Answer (3)
117. Answer (1) Inducible operon system.
RQ value is 4 for oxalic acid and 1.33 for malic 130. Answer (3)
acid. 131. Answer (3)
118. Answer (2)
132. Answer (1)
ABA is stress hormone which promotes
133. Answer (3)
dormancy and reduces transpiration.
119. Answer (2) 134. Answer (4)
120. Answer (3) 135. Answer (3)
ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (3) Enzymes lower the activation energy required for
Cardiac muscle fibres are cylindrical in shape, a reaction.
striated, uninucleated, involuntary and branched. 139. Answer (1)
137. Answer (1) Thymine (T) is replaced by uracil (U) in RNA that
Gap junctions facilitate cell to cell communication. base pairs with adenine.
Adhering junctions perform cementing to keep Guanine is a purine.
neighbouring cells together while desmosomes 140. Answer (2)
serve anchoring function.
Oxyntic cells - HCl and intrinsic factor
138. Answer (4)
Bile pigments - Biliverdin and bilirubin
If the energy level difference between substrate
and product is such that product is at lower level Lysozyme - Paneth cells of crypts of Lieberkühn
than substrate, the reaction is exothermic. Scurvy - Deficiency of vitamin C (Ascorbic acid)
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141. Answer (2) 153. Answer (1)

In constipation, the faeces are retained within the Simple goitre and cretinism is due to
colon as bowel movements occur irregularly. hypothyroidism while Addison’s disease is due to
Diarrhoea reduces the absorption of food. deficiency of both glucocorticoids and
Vomiting is ejection of stomach contents through mineralocorticoids.
the mouth. 154. Answer (3)
142. Answer (2) Melatonin is secreted from pineal gland to
regulate 24 hr diurnal rhythm.
Atmosp- Alveoli Deoxy- Oxygen Tissues
heric Air genated
ated 155. Answer (1)
blood
blood Meiocyte Gamete
pO2 159 104 40 95 40
Human beings 46 23
Fruit fly 8 4
143. Answer (2)
Butterfly 380 190
Pneumoconiosis and asbestosis are occupational
respiratory disorders. 156. Answer (2)
144. Answer (1) Petromyzon is a cyclostome.
Apteryx is a flightless bird. Macaca has
T wave marks the end of ventricular systole.
12 pairs of cranial nerves
145. Answer (4) 157. Answer (3)
Individuals with blood group O are considered as LH surge induces ovulation and triggers corpus
universal donors as they lack antigen A and B on luteum to release estrogen and progesterone.
RBC’s surface.
158. Answer (4)
RBC’s in individual having O– blood group also
In human females, meiosis-I completes at
lack (Rh) D antigen.
puberty.
146. Answer (1) 159. Answer (3)
Reabsorption is minimum in ascending limb of Norplant is an implant
Loop of Henle.
Nirodh: Condom
Conditional reabsorption occurs in DCT.
Gossypol: Male contraceptive
147. Answer (2) 160. Answer (1)
ANF (Atrial natriuretic factor) opposes the Embryo with more than 8 blastomeres could be
regulation by RAAS. transferred into uterus.
148. Answer (4) 161. Answer (3)
Mandible is an unpaired facial bone while all Brachiosaurus: Early long necked plant eater
others are paired bones of the skull. (herbivore) and quadruped with a
149. Answer (3) long tail.
Stegosaurus: Herbivore, plate backed and
Gliding joint – between carpals
spikes at the end of the tail.
Saddle joint – between carpals and metacarpals 162. Answer (1)
of thumb.
Australopithecines essentially ate fruits.
150. Answer (3)
163. Answer (1)
In light, photoreceptors cells are hyperpolarised.
p2 = AA = 490 [p = 0.7], [q = [1 – 0.7] = 0.3
151. Answer (1) 2pq = Aa = 420 [2pq = 2 × 0.7 × 0.3]
The Na+ – K+ pump transport 3Na+ outwards for q2 = Aa = 90
2K+ into the axon thereby maintaining polarisation
state. 164. Answer (4)
152. Answer (4) Malignant malaria caused by P. falciparum is the
most serious one and can be fatal.
Glucagon is a peptide hormone that does not
enter target cells directly but interacts with Sporozoites are stored in the salivary gland of
extracellular receptors. female Anopheles mosquito.
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165. Answer (3) 172. Answer (4)

Ascariasis and filariasis – Helminthic diseases Insertion at Pvu I results in insertional inactivation
Common cold – Viral disease of ampicillin resistant gene but tetracycline
Amoebiasis – Protozoan disease resistance gene remains intact.
Plague, diphtheria, – Bacterial disease 173. Answer (4)
dysentery Agarose is a matrix used in gel electrophoresis.
166. Answer (4) 174. Answer (1)
Antitoxin (a preparation containing antibodies to Stirrer facilitates even mixing and oxygen
the toxin) is an example of passive immunity. availability throughout the bioreactor.
167. Answer (4) 175. Answer (2)
HIV attacks T Lymphocytes Bt toxin is produced as an inactive/precursor form
Malignant tumor – Metastasis that gets activated in the alkaline pH of the gut of
Leghorn – Improved breed of chicken insects.
168. Answer (4) 176. Answer (1)
In MOET, a cow is administered with FSH-like Paurometabolus i.e. 13 times, moulting, 13
hormone to induce superovulation. They produce chambered heart and uricotelic mode of excretion
6-8 eggs per cycle. are seen in cockroach.
The fertilized eggs at 8-32 celled stage are 177. Answer (3)
recovered non surgically and transferred to RNAi prevents translation of the mRNA
surrogate mothers. (silencing) by using dsRNA molecules.
169. Answer (2) 178. Answer (4)
Plasmid is an autonomously replicating, closed C peptide is not present in mature insulin which is
circular, double stranded, extra chromosomal removed during maturation into insulin.
DNA.
179. Answer (2)
170. Answer (4)
G6PD deficiency causes lysis of RBCs. Myosin
Bam HI, Sal I and Pst I produce sticky ends while
ATPase is involved in muscle contraction.
Eco RV produce blunt ends.
171. Answer (1) 180. Answer (4)
Taq polymerase is extracted from Thermus Chitinous exoskeletal is present in arthropods like
aquaticus. Limulus, a living fossil.
  
(10)
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24/04/2020 CODE-A
Test - 11
Instructions :
PHYSICS
1. The mass and volume of a body are 6.237 g and 4. If R and h represents the horizontal range and
3.5 cm3, respectively. the density of the material maximum height respectively of an oblique
of the body in correct significant figures is R2
projectile, then + 2h represents
(1) 1.78 g/cm3 (2) 1.782 g/cm3 8h
(1) Time of flight
(3) 1.8 g/cm3 (4) 1.7 g/cm3
(2) Maximum horizontal range
2. The magnitude of velocity of a body is given by v
(3) Maximum height
= |t – 6| m/s, then average speed of body
between 2 s to 6 s will be (4) Velocity of projectile at highest point
5. Rohan is running down with some acceleration
(1) 2 m/s (2) 6 m/s
on a plank kept on fixed inclined plane as shown
(3) 3.5 m/s (4) 4.5 m/s in figure. Which of the following cases are
   possible?
3. In the figure, E − D + C equals
(1) Plank may accelerate up

(2) Plank may accelerate down
 
(1) A (2) B (3) Plank may be at rest
  (4) All of these
(3) − A (4) −B
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(1)
6. A ball falls vertically onto a floor, with momentum 12. A particle performing SHM with frequency
P, then bounces repeatedly. The coefficient of 10 Hz and amplitude 5 cm is initially in left
restitution is ½, the total momentum imparted by extreme position. The equation of its
the ball to the floor is displacement will be (x is in metre)
3P  3π 
(1) 2P (2) (1) x 0.05 sin  20πt +
=
2  2 
(3) 3P (4) 4P π

(2) x 0.05 sin  20πt + 
=
7. A body is projected vertically up with certain  2 
velocity. At point P in its path, the ratio of its
potential energy to kinetic energy is 36 : 64. The (3) x 0.05 sin (10πt )
=
ratio of velocity of projection to velocity at ‘P’ is (4) x 0.05 sin ( 20πt + π )
=
5 4
(1) (2) 13. The gravitational field at some point in space is
4 3 
g= 3i + 4 j N/ kg. The force exerted on a 2 kg
9 3
(3) (4) mass placed at a point is
4 2
(1) 10 N, 53° with x-axis
8. The radius of gyration of a body about an axis
parallel to axis passing through centre of mass (2) 10 N, 37° with x-axis
and at a distance 7 cm from centre of mass is (3) 7 N, 53° with x-axis
(1) 16 cm (2) 9 cm (4) 7 N, 37° with x-axis
(3) 15 cm (4) 25 cm 14. A wire having a linear mass density 5.0 × 10–3
9. A spherical shell of mass m and radius R is kg/m is stretched between two rigid supports with
pulled on a horizontal plane by a horizontal force tension of 450 N. The wire resonates at
F acting on its centre of mass. If shell is rolling frequency 400 Hz. The next higher frequency at
without slipping, then angular acceleration of the which the wire resonates is 500 Hz. The length of
spherical shell will be the wire will be
3F 3F (1) 1 m (2) 4 m
(1) (2)
2mR 5mR (3) 4.5 m (4) 1.5 m
5F 5F 15. Which of the following is correct.
(3) (4)
7mR 2mR (1) Doppler effect in sound and light is symmetric
10. A uniform rod AB of mass ‘m’ length ‘2a’ is (2) Doppler effect in sound and light is
allowed to fall under gravity with AB in horizontal asymmetric
position. When the speed of rod is ‘v’ suddenly (3) Doppler effect in sound is symmetric and in
the end ‘A’ is fixed. The angular velocity of rod
light is asymmetric
with which it begins to rotate will be
(4) Doppler effect in sound is asymmetric and in
3v 5v light is symmetric
(1) (2)
2a 3a
16. At t = 0, a transverse wave pulse travelling along
3v 5v positive x-direction with speed 3 m/s in a string
(3) (4)
4a 2a 9
described by the function y = given that
11. The amplitude of vibration of particle is given by x2
a0 x ≠ 0 . Transverse velocity of particle at
am = where a0, a, b and c are
2
aω − bω + c x = 3 m and t = 3 s will be
positive. The condition for single resonant 1 1
frequency will be (1) − m/s (2) m/s
4 4
(1) b2 > 4ac (2) b2 < 4ab
1 1
(3) − m/s (4) m/s
(3) b2 = 4ac (4) Both (2) and (3) 2 2
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(2)
17. Which of the following phenomenon gives (1) 848 cal (2) 424 cal
evidence of the molecular motion? (3) 336 cal (4) 672 cal
(1) Brownian motion (2) Diffusion
22. Expansion of liquid on heating is different from
(3) Evaporation (4) All of these that solids, since expansion of liquid is
18. Volume versus temperature graph of two mole of (1) More than solids because molecular spacing
helium gas is as shown in figure. The ratio of in them is less
change in internal energy and the work done by
(2) More than solids because molecular spacing
the gas in process 1-2 is
in them is more
(3) Less than solid because molecular spacing in
them is more
(4) Less than solids because molecular spacing
in them is less
23. A body of mass 25 g is under water at a depth of
50 cm. If the specific gravity of material of body is
5 3 5, the work necessary to lift the body slowly to
(1) (2)
2 2 the surface is (g = 9.8 m/s2)
7 7 (1) 980 × 105 erg (2) 9.8 × 105 erg
(3) (4)
2 3 (3) 980 × 106 erg (4) 98 × 105 erg
19. The efficiency of the reversible heat engine is ηr 24. Charge Q is distributed on two metallic spheres
and that of irreversible heat engine is ηI . Which having radii R and 3R such that both spheres
of the following is correct? have equal charge density then charge on
smaller sphere is
(1) ηr < 1 and ηi > 1 (2) ηr < ηi
Q Q
(1) (2)
(3) ηr > 1 and ηi < 1 (4) ηr > ηi 10 9
20. Temperature of a body θ is slightly more than 9Q 10Q

(3) (4)
the temperature of the surrounding θ0 , its rate of 10 11
cooling (R) versus temperature of body ( θ ) is 25. Charge is distributed non-uniformly in a volume
plotted, its shape would be (as per Newton’s law of solid insulating sphere of radius ‘a’ such that
of cooling) volume charge density ( ρ ) varies with distance
from the centre (r) as ρ (r) = Cr (r ≤ a, and C is
constant). Magnitude of electric field strength
(1) (2) outside the sphere at a distance ‘r’ from centre
will be
Ca5
(1)
5ε0 r 2
(3) (4) Ca 4
(2)
5ε 0 r 2
21. The specific heat of substance varies with Ca 4

(3)
temperature (T) as S = 0.20 + 1.4T cal/gm°C. 4ε 0 r 2
Heat required to raise the temperature of
2 gm of the substance from 5°C to 25°C is Ca5
(4)
(T is in °C) 4ε0 r 2
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(3)
26. There are four identical metal plates each of area (1) 1 (2) 3
A. The plates are placed at equal distance ‘d’
(3) 2 (4) 4
Aε0
successively as shown in figure. If = 2 µF 31. A transformer is used to light 150 W, 30 V lamp
d
and source of emf 10 V is connected between x from a 240 V mains. The current in the main
and y, then charge on plate x will be cable is 0.8 ampere. The efficiency of the
transformer is nearly
(1) 78% (2) 48%
(3) 88% (4) 92%
32. In the circuit shown, there is a box containing a
resistance R and inductance L and a capacitor of
(1) +30 µC (2) +10 µC capacitance C connected in series to an
(3) +20 µC (4) −20 µC alternating source of angular frequency 4 rad/s.
1
27. The current flowing in the given circuit is 0.2 A. Box has power factor and the circuit has
3
The potential difference between the points
overall power factor 1. The impedance of the box
A and B will be
is
(1) 0.4 V (2) 2 V

3 1
(1) (2)
(3) 0.2 V (4) 1 V 4 2C 4C
28. Current I is carried in a wire of length L. If the
1 3
wire is turned into a circular coil. The maximum (3) (4)
magnitude of torque acting on it, when placed in 4 2C 4 2C
a given uniform magnetic field B, will be 33. Let P and E denotes the linear momentum and
LiB 2 2
Li B energy of photon. If the wavelength is decreased
(1) (2)
2 2 (1) Both P and E decrease
2 2
L iB Li B (2) Both P and E increase
(3) (4)
4π 4π (3) P increase and E decrease
29. The relation between voltage sensitivity σv and (4) P decrease and E increase
the current sensitivity σi of a moving coil 34. The number of photons emitted per second by 60
galvanometer is (Given G is the resistance of the W source of monochromatic light of wavelength
galvanometer) 5000 Å is
σ (1) 1.5 × 1020 (2) 1.5 × 10–18
(1) σv = Gσi (2) σv = i
G (3) 3.5 × 1020 (4) 3.5 × 10–18
1 35. The ratio of magnetic dipole moment to angular
(3) σv σi =G (4) σv σi =
G momentum in a hydrogen like atom is
30. If a coil of 50 turns area 5.0 cm2 is suddenly e e
removed from magnetic field. It is observed that (1) (2)
m 4m
charge of 5 × 10–4 C flows into the coil. If the
resistance of the coil is 100 Ω , the magnetic flux e e
(3) (4)
density in Wb/m2 is 3m 2m
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36. A photon of energy 70 eV collides with He+

ion. 41. The combination of the gate shown below
Due to this collision, He -atom gets ionized. The
+ produces
maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electron
is
(1) 13.6 eV (2) 15.6 eV
(3) 27.2 eV (4) 31.2 eV
(1) AND gate
16
37. The energy required to split O nucleus into
8 (2) NAND gate
four α-particles is (The mass of α-particle is (3) NOR gate
4.002603 U and that of oxygen is 15.994915 U)
(4) OR gate
(1) 14.43 MeV (2) 6.53 MeV 42. A ray of light passes normally through a slab
(3) 10.2 MeV (4) 18.4 MeV (µ =1.5) of thickness 50 mm. If speed of light in
1
th vacuum be 3 × 108 m/s, then time taken by the
38. A certain substance decays to of its initial ray to cross the slab will be
64
activity in 24 days. The half-life of the substance (1) 250 ps (2) 5 ps
will be (3) 250 ns (4) 5 ns
(1) 6 days (2) 4 days 43. A diverging lens of focal length 20 cm having
(3) 3 days (4) 2 days refractive index 1.5 is immersed in a liquid of
refractive index 3. The focal length and nature of
39. In a moderately doped P-type semiconductor, the the lens in liquid is
fermi energy level lies
(1) 20 cm divergent (2) 20 cm convergent
(1) In the forbidden energy gap nearer to the
(3) 10 cm divergent (4) 10 cm convergent
conduction band
44. The wavelength of light used in two young’s
(2) In the forbidden energy gap nearer to the double slit experiments are 400 nm and 500 nm.
valence band If the fringe width are equal when the screen are
(3) In the middle of forbidden energy gap placed at 1.2 m and 1.6 m respectively. The ratio
(4) Outside the forbidden energy gap of the distance between the slits is
40. 4 ideal diodes are connected as shown in circuit. 4 3

(1) (2)
The current through 20 Ω resistor will be 5 4
1 3
(3) (4)
2 5
45. Two polaroid sheets are placed one over the
other with their axes inclined to each other at an
angle θ. If only 12.5% of intensity of unpolarised
(1) 0.2 A light incident on the first sheet emerges out from
(2) 0.3 A the second sheet, the value of θ is
(3) 0.5 A (1) 45° (2) 90°
(4) Zero (3) 30° (4) 60°
CHEMISTRY
46. Na2SO4.xH2O on heating loses 55.9% of its 47. 1 L of an unknown gas at NTP weighs 1.97g,
weight, value of x is. formula of the gas may be
(1) 2 (2) 5 (1) CO (2) CO2
(3) 6 (4) 10 (3) NO (4) SO2
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48. Number of radial nodes for 3d orbital is 56. Which of the following pairs of solution in not an
(1) 3 (2) Zero acidic buffer?
(3) 2 (4) 1 (1) CH3COOH and CH3COONa
49. Which of the following transitions will emit photon (2) H3PO4 and NaH2PO4
with minimum wavelength? (3) HNO3 and KNO3
(1) n4 → n5 (2) n4 → n2 (4) HCN and NaCN
(3) n4 → n1 (4) n2 → n1 57. 

PCl5 (g) 
 PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) ; ∆H =+ x kcal
50. For a gas at 273 K and 20 atm, molar volume is above reaction is favoured in forward direction by
20 percent greater than that for an ideal gas (1) Addition of PCl3(g)
under similar conditions. The correct statement
(2) Removal of Cl2(g)
about the gas and its compressibility factor (Z) is
(3) Increasing the temperature
(1) Z > 1 and repulsive forces are dominant
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(2) Z < 1 and repulsive forces are dominant
58. Oxidation states of N in NH4NO3 are
(3) Z > 1 and attractive forces are dominant
(1) 0, 0 (2) +3, –3
(4) Z < 1 and attractive forces are dominant
(3) –3, +5 (4) +3, +5
51. A certain gas takes four times as long to effuse
out as helium under similar conditions. The 59. Ion which cannot be oxidized by KMnO4?
molecular mass of gas will be 2− 2−
(1) SO3 (2) S2O3
(1) 8
−
(2) 16 (3) NO3 (4) S2−
(3) 32 60.
(4) 64
52. At 298 K, a gas expands 0.1 L to 0.4 L against a
Compound ‘D’ is
constant pressure of 20 atm. The work done
(1) OCl2 (2) Ca(OH)2
during the process is (given: 1 L atm = 100 J)
(3) CaOCl2 (4) CaHCO3
(1) –600 J (2) +600 J
61. Correct order of mobility of the alkali metal ions in
(3) –400 J (4) –800 J
water is
53. Two moles of an ideal gas expanded
(1) Na+ > K+ > Rb+
spontaneously into vacuum. The work done will
be (2) Rb+ > K+ > Na+
(1) 2 R cal (2) R cal (3) Na+ > Rb+ > K+
(3) 10 R cal (4) Zero (4) K+ > Na+ > Rb+
54. Molecule with sp3d hybridised central atom is 62. Number of B – O – B bonds is a borax molecule
is
(1) XeOF2 (2) XeF2
(1) 4 (2) 5
(3) PCl5 (4) All of these
(3) 2 (4) 4
55. Select the molecule/ion having highest bond
order among the following 63. NaBH4 + I2 → (X) compound of boron + other
+
products. (X) is
(1) O2 (2) O2
(1) H3BO3 (2) BI3
(3) O2− (4) O22− (3) [BI4]
–
(4) B2H6
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64. Most common fullerene C60 contains (1) 2 (2) 4

(1) 20 Hexagonal and 15 pentagonal rings (3) 6 (4) 8
(2) 20 Hexagonal and 12 pentagonal rings 72. The compound added to prevent chloroform to
(3) 12 Hexagonal and 20 pentagonal rings get oxidized to form phosgene gas is
(4) 20 Hexagonal and 20 pentagonal rings (1) Acetone (2) Methyl alcohol
65. IUAPC name of is (3) Aniline (4) Ethyl alcohol

73. Most reactive alcohol towards sodium metal is
(1) 1–Methoxy propane (1) CH3OH (2) (CH3)2CHOH
(2) Methoxy isopropane (3) (CH3)3COH (4) CH3CH2CH2OH
(3) Isopropoxy methane 74. Which of the following is/are the common
components of classical smog?
(4) 2–Methoxy propane
(1) SO2 (2) NO2
66. During nitrogen estimation of an organic
compound by kjeldehl’s method, the ammonia (3) PAN (4) All of these
evolved by 0.80 g of on organic compound was 75. Chemical which is the main cause of ozone layer
neutralised by 10 ml of 0.5 M H2SO4. Percentage depletion, is
of nitrogen in compound is (1) NO2 (2) NO
(1) 17.5 (2) 35 (3) CFCs (4) H2O2
(3) 56 (4) 42 76. Positive Fehling test is not given by
67. Least stable carbocation is (1) H–CHO (2) CH3CHO
⊕ ⊕
(1) CH3 (2) CH3 − CH − CH3 (3) C6H5CHO (4) Glucose
NH / ∆ Br /NaOH
⊕ ⊕ 77. CH3 COOH 
3
→ X 
2
→Y
(3) CH3 − C =
O (4) CH2 = CH
(1) C2H5Br (2) CH3Br
68. Geometrical isomerism is not shown by
(3) CH3OH (4) CH3NH2
(1) But–2–ene (2) Propene
∆
78. (CH3COO)2 Ca + (HCOO)2 Ca  → Product(s)
(3) But–1–ene (4) Both (2) and (3)
69. Select the compound which is non-aromatic Product(s) formed is/are
among the following (1) CH3CHO (2) H–CHO
O
II
(1) (2)
(3) CH3 − C − CH3 (4) All of these
O
79. ||
(3) (4) CN− H+ /H2O
CH3 – C – H + HCN  →(X)  →(Y)
compound (Y) is
Hg2 + , H+ /H O
70. Ph − C ≡ CH 
2
→ (X), compound (X) is
60°C Major (1) Acetic acid (2) Oxalic acid
(1) An alkene (2) An aldehyde (3) Lactic acid (4) Acetamide
(3) A ketone (4) An alcohol 80.

71. On monochlorination of 2–Methyl butane, the – +
total number of optically active compounds (1) CH3OH (2) HCOO Na
formed is (3) CH3CH2OH (4) C2H6
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81. Carbylamine test is not given by 87. Highest and lowest flocculation power among
(1) CH3 – NH – CH3 (2) CH3NH2 Cl− , S2− , PO34− and [Fe(CN)6 ]4 − for a positive
(3) C6H5 – NH2 (4) C2H5NH2 charge sol is
82. . Select the (1) Cl− , PO34− (2) [Fe(CN)6 ]4 − , Cl−
appropriate reagent (X) in the above reaction (3) PO34− , S2− (4) S2− , PO34−
(1) H2O2 (2) Na in liquid NH3 88. Consider the given standard electrode potentials
(3) Pd–BaSO4 (4) DIBAL–H E°Zn2 + / Zn =
−0.726 V, E°Ag+ / Ag =
+ 0.8 V
83. Name of the polymer manufactured from
caprolactam is °
ECu2+ = °
+0.345 V, EFe 2+ −0.44 V
=
/Cu /Fe
(1) Nylon–2–nylon–6 (2) Nylon–6
Which among the following has highest oxidising
(3) Nylon–6, 6 (4) Dacron
power?
84. Glucose and fructose are
(1) Ag+ (2) Fe2+
(1) Position isomers
(3) Zn2+ (4) Cu2+
(2) Chain isomers
89. In Li2O, having antifluorite structure, the
(3) Functional group isomers
coordination number for Li+ ion and O2– ion are
(4) Metamers
respectively
85. Magnetic moment 3.87 BM is given by which of
(1) 4 and 8 (2) 3 and 6
the following ions?
(1) Cr3+ (2) Mn2+ (3) 6 and 6 (4) 4 and 4
(3) Sc3+ (4) Zn2+ 90. Morphine is an example of

86. If initial concentration of the reactant is doubled (1) Narcotic analgesics
then half life of first order reaction is (2) Non–narcotic analgesics
(1) Not affected (2) Halved (3) Tranquilizers
(3) Doubled (4) Tripled
(4) Antacids
BOTANY
91. Which of the given part of oxysome is a [Hint: Generation time = 1 minute]
peripheral membrane protein and contains the
site for ATP synthesis?
(1) Headpiece (2) Base
94. Crossing-over is seen in
(3) Stalk (4) F0 - part
92. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t isobrachial (1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene
chromosome. (3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene
(1) They are metacentric chromosome 95. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly
(2) The centromere is present at the centre matched?
(3) During anaphase, these chromosome are (i) Amoeba – Fission
divided into two equal arms (ii) Filamentous algae – Fragmentation
(4) They appear L – shaped during anaphase (iii) Planaria – Budding
93. A bacterium is multiplying in a cup and takes 36
(iv) Parrot – True regeneration
minutes to fill one-fourth of the cup with its
population. Calculate the time by which cup will (1) (i) and (ii) (2) Both (i) and (iii)
be completely filled with bacterial population. (3) Only (ii) (4) Both (iii) and (iv)
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96. The basic and lowest category in taxonomic (1) Only statement A is correct
hierarchy is (2) Only statement B is correct
(1) Kingdom (2) Species (3) Both A and B are correct
(3) Genus (4) Order (4) Both A and B are incorrect.
97. Which of the given is smallest living organism 105. Select the correct movement of water in given
and can survive without oxygen? presentation of cells.
(1) Mycoplasma (2) Trypanosoma
(3) Paramecium (4) Euglena
98. The parasitic fungus on mustard plant is
(1) Albugo (2) Ustilago
(3) Puccinia (4) Colletotrichum
99. Ploidy level of endosperm in a typical
angiosperm is (1) (2)
(1) n (2) 2n
(3) 3n (4) 4n
(3) (4)
100. Which of the given organisms reproduce
asexually by non-motile spores? 106. Mark the following statements as true (T) or
(1) Laminaria (2) Polysiphonia false (F) and select the correct option.
(A) Simple diffusion is carried out by special
(3) Chara (4) Volvox
membrane proteins.
101. Which of the given is medicinal plant of family
(B) Facilitated diffusion is highly selective in
Liliaceae?
nature.
(1) Aloe (2) Belladona
(C) Facilitated diffusion is ATP dependent.
(3) Ashwagandha (4) Muliathi (D) Active transport uses energy and pump to
102. In monocotyledonous seed, the plumule and transport molecules against concentration
radicle are enclosed in sheath which are called gradient.
and respectively.
A B C D
(1) A – Coleorhiza, B – Coleoptile
(1) T T T T
(2) A – Coleoptile, B – Coleorhiza
(2) F T F T
(3) A – Coleorhiza, B – Epiblast
(4) A – Coleoptile, B – pericarp (3) T F T T
103. Which of the given tissues give rise to lateral (4) F T T F

roots in monocot root? 107. Which of the given group of elements deficiency
(1) Pericycle (2) Vascular bundles delay flowering?
(3) Cambium (4) Pith (1) N, S, Mo (2) Na, K, S
104. Read the statements (A – B) and select the (3) Mg, S, Si (4) Na, K, Mg
correct option. 108. How many molecules of ATP are required to fix
Statement A: Bulliform cells are absent in dicot one molecule of nitrogen during biological N2
leaf. fixation?
(1) 8 (2) 16
Statement B: The spring wood is lighter in colour
and has a lower density. (3) 32 (4) 12
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109. Primary photosynthetic pigment in green plants 117. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. plants their
is/are mode of reproduction.
(1) Carotene (2) Xanthophylls (1) Rhizome – Banana
(3) Chlorophyll a (4) Chlorophyll b (2) Offset – Eichhornia
110. Which of the given is primary CO2 acceptor in C4- (3) Conidia – Chlamydomonas
plants?
(4) Bulbil – Oxalis
(1) PEP (2) OAA
118. Organic material, resistant to physical and
(3) PGA (4) RuBP biological decomposition and forms the outer
111. Net consumption of ATP for every CO2 molecule layer of pollen is
fixed in C4 plants is
(1) Sporopollenin (2) Callose
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) α-cellulosic fibres (4) Pectin
(3) 5 (4) 6
119. How many meiotic divisions are required to
112. Which of the given steps is first step of glycolysis produce 120 seeds in an angiospermic plant?
and catalysed by hexokinase?
(1) 30 (2) 120
(1) Glucose → Glucose - 6 - phosphate
(3) 150 (4) 60
(2) Glucose - 6 - phosphate
120. How many maximum types of gametes are
→ Fructose - 6 - phosphate
formed if genotype of a plant is TtRr?
(3) Fructose - 6 - phosphate
(1) 4 (2) 2
→ Fructose - 1, 6 - bisphosphate
(3) 3 (4) 1
(4) 2 – phosphoglycerate
121. A haemophilic male marries a homozygous
→ phosphoenolpyruvate normal female. What is the percentage of their
113. Which of the given has maximum value of son to become hemophilic?
respiratory quotient under aerobic respiration? (1) 0% (2) 50%
(1) Malic acid (2) Oxalic acid (3) 75% (4) 25%
(3) Glucose (4) Tripalmitin
114. Which of the given pair of hormones shows their
(1) zw – zz type – Birds
synergistic effect on cell division?
(2) xx – xo type – Drosophila
(1) I A A and Cytokinin
(3) zo – zz type – Butterflies
(2) Ethylene and ABA
(3) I A A and GA3 (4) xx – xy type – Human
(4) Ethylene and cytokinin 123. 5′ – C A T A G G C T T – 3′ is the one strand of

DNA. What will be the most appropriate
115. How many of the plants listed in the box are
sequence for its another strand of DNA?
LDPs?
(1) 5′ – G T A T C C G A A – 3′
Wheat, Sugarbeet, Radish, Soyabean,
Tobacco, Cucumber (2) 3′ – A A G C C T A T G – 5′
(3) 5′ – A A G C C T A T G – 3′
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5 (4) 3′ – G T A T C C G A A – 5′
116. Which of the given organisms have maximum 124. The technique of DNA fingerprinting was
life-span? developed by
(1) Elephant (2) Parrot (1) T.H Morgan (2) Altmann

(3) Banyan tree (4) Cow (3) Alec Jeffrey (4) Jacob and Monod
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125. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t humus. 129. Match column-I with column-II w.r.t sacred
groves and their locations.
(1) Essential for nutritional cycling
Column-I Column-II
(2) Is light coloured amorphous substance
(A) Khasi and Jaintia Hills(i) Rajasthan
(3) Is slightly acidic, colloidal and acts as
(B) Aravali Hills (ii) Madhya Pradesh
reservoir of nutrients
(C) Western Ghat (iii) Meghalaya
(4) Is highly resistant to microbial action
(D) Sarguja (iv) Karnataka
126. Lice on human is an example of
A B C D
(1) Ectoparasitism
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) Endoparasitism
(2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(3) Brood parasitism
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) Mutualism
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
127. The productivity of oceans is billion
tons and for terrestrial ecosystem is 130. How many biosphere reserves are in India?
billion tons. (1) 14 (2) 41
(1) A – 155, B – 115 (3) 98 (4) 25
(2) A – 15, B – 55 131. Yellowing of Taj Mahal is reported to be caused

by
(3) A –55, B – 115
(1) CO (2) SO2
(4) A –55, B –15
(3) NO2 (4) Hydrocarbons
128. 132. Noise becomes unbearable at
(1) 140 dB (2) 25 dB
(3) 30 – 60 dB (4) 60 – 80 dB
133. Swiss cheese is ripened with the help of
bacterium
(1) Penicillium roquefortii
With reference to above schematic
(2) Penicillium cambertii
representation of energy flow in an ecosystem,
select the P, Q and R. (3) Lactobacillus
(4) Propionibacterium sharmanii
P Q R 134. ‘Pusa swarnim’ developed by hybridisation and
resistant against white rust, is a variety of
(1) Gases NPP GPP
(1) Wheat (2) Brassica
(2) Water GPP NPP (3) Cauliflower (4) Cowpea
vapours 135. From 1960 to 2000, wheat production increased
from A million tonnes to B million tonnes.
(3) Dust NPP GPP
particle (1) A – 11, B – 75
(2) A – 21, B – 75
(4) Clouds Secondary Primary
(3) A – 11, B – 95
productivity productivity
(4) A – 11, B – 85
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ZOOLOGY
136. Unit of natural selection is ______ and unit of A : Zygote is the vital link that ensures continuity
evolution is ______ of species between organisms of one
generation to the next generation.
Choose the option which fills blanks correctly
respectively B : For normal fertility in humans at least 40% of
total sperms in each ejaculate must have
(1) Individual, population
normal shape and size and at least 60% of
(2) Population, individual them must show vigorous motility
(3) Species, genera (1) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Genera, species (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
137. Which one among the following has maximum life
span? (4) Only statement B is correct
(1) Parrot 140. Which of the following is a non-medicated IUD?

(1) Lippe’s loop (2) Multiload - 375
(2) Crow
(3) LNG - 20 (4) Progestasert
(3) Indian elephant
141. Choose the correct match w.r.t. disease and its
(4) Horse causative agent.
138. Following flow chart represents hormonal control (1) Genital herpes – Human papilloma virus
of testis. (2) Genital warts – Herpes simplex virus
(3) Trichomoniasis – Chlamydia trachomatis
(4) Syphilis – Treponema pallidum
142. The process by which organisms with same
evolutionary history evolve different phenotypic
adaptations in response to different
environmental challenges is called
(1) Convergent evolution
(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Adaptive convergence
(4) Saltation
Choose option which correctly represents 143. Choose correct option to complete the analogy
A, B, C and D. between placental mammals and Australian
marsupials
A B C D
Anteater : Numbat : : Lemur : _________
(1) Gonad- FSH Cells of Androgen (1) Bobcat (2) Marsupial mole
otropin Sertoli
(3) Flying phalanger (4) Spotted cuscus
(2) GHRH FSH Cells of Prolactin 144. Select incorrect statement w.r.t Homo habilis
Leydig (1) They were the first human like beings, the
(3) GnRH LH Androgen Cells of Sertoli hominids
(2) The brain capacities were between
(4) GnRH LH Cells of Testos-terone 650 – 800cc
Sertoli
(3) They probably did not eat meat
139. Read statements A and B carefully and choose (4) They used hides to protect their body and
the correct option. buried their dead
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145. Who finally dismissed the theory of spontaneous 150. Read following statements w.r.t AIDS and select
generation? the correct option.
(1) S.L Miller Statement A – AIDS is an infectious disease

caused by a retrovirus that
(2) A.I Oparin
contains enzyme reverse
(3) Louis Pasteur transcriptase for synthesis of host
(4) Ernst von Baer DNA.
146. Which gas was probably absent in free form in Statement B – HIV infected macrophages can
early atmosphere? survive while the virus replicates
and is released.
(1) CH4
(1) Both statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct.
(2) O2
(2) Both statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ are incorrect.
(3) NH3
(3) Only statement ‘A’ is correct.
(4) CO2 (4) Only statement ‘B’ is correct.
147. Choose a disease which is not transmitted from 151. Choose option which is matched correctly w.r.t
one person to another drugs, their receptors and effect
(1) Tuberculosis
Drugs Receptors Effect
(2) Ringworm
(1) Morphine CNS Sedative
(3) Hepatitis – B
(2) Charas Cardiovascular Analgesic
(4) Cancer
system
148. Match Column - A with Column - B and select the
(3) Cocaine Gastrointestinal Depressant
option having correct match.
tract
Column - A Column - B
(4) Nicotine CNS Hallucinogen
(i) Physical barriers (a) Skin & mucous
membrane 152. Choose incorrect statement
(ii) Physiological barriers (b) NK cells and (1) Outbreeding can involve mating of animals
neutrophils within the same breed with no common
(iii) Cytokine barriers (c) Acid in stomach ancestors or within different breeds.
and tears in eye (2) A single outcross often helps to overcome
(iv) Cellular barriers (d) Interferons inbreeding depression.
(1) i – a, ii – b, iii – c, iv - d (3) Outcrossing is necessary to evolve pure line
(2) i – a, ii – c, iii – d, iv - b in any animal.
(3) i – a, ii – d, iii – c, iv - b (4) Breeding between two different species is

called interspecific hybridisation.
(4) i – d, ii – c, iii – b, iv - a
153. Superovulation in multiple ovulation embryo
149. H2 L2 represents – transfer technology is possible with the help of
(1) Heavy chains and light chains in antibody certain hormones having effect similar to
(2) Heavy meromyosin and light meromyosin (1) FSH
(3) Higher and lower parts of antibody (2) LH

(3) Progesterone
(4) Heavy domains and light domains within
antigens (4) Oestrogen
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154. Insertional inactivation in pUC8 plasmid is done 159. Select the mismatched option w.r.t tissue and
at site of lac-Z gene coding for enzyme their occurrence in various parts of the body
β-galactosidase. The colonies of recombinant
(1) Simple squamous – Renal capsule and
bacteria containing this pUC8 plasmid are grown epithelium PCT of nephron
onto agar medium containing ampicillin and X-
gal. The colonies appeared (2) Pseudostratified – Trachea and large
ciliated columnar bronchi
(1) White in colour epithelium
(2) Blue in colour
(3) White fibrous – Sclera of eye and
(3) Orange in colour connective tissue periosteum of bones
(4) Red in colour (4) Transitional – Ureters and inner
155. Which of the following statement is correct w.r.t epithelium lining of urinary
observing DNA fragments separated by agarose bladder
gel electrophoresis?
160. If double stranded DNA molecule of a eukaryotic
(1) DNA can be seen in visible light after staining cell contains 20% guanine, the percentage of
with any stain other three bases expected to be present in this
DNA are
(2) DNA can be seen without staining in visible
light (1) C 20%, A 30%, T 30%
(3) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen (2) C 30%, A 25%, T 25%
in visible light (3) C 40%, A 20%, T 20%
(4) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen (4) C 23%, A 27%, T 30%
only after exposure to UV light 161. A graph is plotted between potential energy at y-
axis and progression of the structural
156. SCID is caused by defect in gene coding for
transformation of substrate into product on x-axis.
(1) Adenosine deaminase Which of the following describe the given graph
(2) DNA polymerase correctly?
(3) Carboxypeptidase
(4) Restriction endonuclease
157. Which product of genetic engineering is useful in
dissolving fibrin of blood clot?
(1) tPA
(2) Human insulin
(3) α interferon
(1) ‘B’ represents activation energy without
(4) Erythropoietin
enzyme
158. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t blood
(2) ‘A’ represents activation energy with enzyme
(1) Blood is a fluid connective tissue
(3) Reaction is endothermic
(2) It consists of formed elements and plasma (4) Reaction is exothermic
(3) Blood cells and plasma both are responsible 162. Vital capacity of lungs is correctly represented
for transportation of O2 and CO2 as
(4) Cells of blood form matrix and structural (1) TV + IRV + ERV (2) TV + IRV + RV
proteins like other connective tissues (3) TV + ERV (4) IRV + ERV
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163. In chronic smokers, the alveoli of lungs are 169. Read statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ carefully and choose
enlarged and damaged which reduces total the correct option.
surface area for exchange of respiratory gases.
Statement A : All eucoelomates are triploblastic
This disease is called
but all triploblastic animals are not eucoelomates.
(1) Asthma
Statement B : All vertebrates are chordates but
(2) Atelectasis all chordates are not vertebrates.
(3) Bronchitis
(1) Both A and B are incorrect
(4) Emphysema
164. Amino acids are absorbed by intestinal mucosa
of small intestine by all of the following processes (3) Only A is correct
except (4) Only B is correct
(1) Simple diffusion
170. Diagrammatic view of ear is given in following
(2) Facilitated diffusion figure.
(3) Active transport
(4) Osmosis
165. In a patient, the parietal cells of gastric mucosa
are damaged. Which of the following is not likely
to occur?
(1) Iron deficiency anaemia
(2) Megaloblastic anaemia
(3) Chances of peptic ulcer
(4) Impaired protein digestion in stomach
Choose option which represents A and B
166. Which of the following is not an organ of
correctly.
lymphatic system?
(1) Lymph nodes (1) ‘A’ is eustachian tube and ‘B’ is cochlear
nerve
(2) Spleen
(2) ‘A’ is external auditory meatus and ‘B’ is
(3) Thymus
cochlear nerve
(4) Kidney
(3) ‘A’ is external auditory meatus and ‘B’ is
167. Heart attack is also known as vestibular nerve
(1) Heart block
(4) ‘A’ is eustachian tube and ‘B’ is external
(2) Myocardial infarction auditory meatus
(3) Cardiac arrest 171. Select the incorrect statement among following
(4) Heart failure (1) Brain stem does not include hypothalamus
168. In which of the following phylum are all animals
(2) Breathing centre is not located in medulla
exclusively marine?
oblongata
(1) Chordata
(3) Cerebral cortex has motor areas to regulate
(2) Mollusca movement of voluntary muscles
(3) Porifera
(4) Cerebral aqueduct occurs as a narrow
(4) Echinodermata passage in midbrain
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172. Aquatic animals are mostly ammonotelic because 176. Choose incorrect option w.r.t hormone, chemical
(1) Ammonia helps in checking inflow of water nature and function
into body. Hormone Chemical Function
nature
(2) Excretion of ammonia requires large amount
of water which is available to these animals. (1) Aldosterone Steroid Salt retention
(3) Water contains less nitrogen. (2) Prostaglandins Fatty acid Uterine
derivative contraction
(4) They all have protonephric kidney.
(3) Melatonin Amine Regulates
173. Which one of the following correctly explains the biological
function of a specific part of a human nephron? clock
(1) Distal – Reabsorption of K+ ions (4) Parathormone Protein Hypocalcemia

convoluted into the surrounding 177. Which one of the following hormones does not
tubule blood capillaries work through a single definite target organ?
(2) Afferent – Carries blood away (1) LH (2) GH

arteriole from the glomerulus (3) Glucagon (4) PRL
towards renal vein 178. Choose incorrect statement.
(1) Cutaneous respiration is found in
(3) Podocytes – Create slit pores for the
earthworm and frog.
filtration of blood into
the Bowman’s capsule (2) Both insects and birds have wings for flight
and crop for storage and digestion of food.
(4) Henle’s – Maximum reabsorption (3) Polyp and medusa forms are exhibited by
loop of major substances Hydra.
from the glomerular
(4) Echinoderms are considered advanced non
filtrate.
chordates due to mesodermal endoskeleton,
174. Intervertebral disc consists of a shock absorber enterocoelom and deuterostomic
skeletal connective tissue known as development.
(1) Hyaline cartilage (2) Elastic cartilage 179. Which of the following is mismatched w.r.t
locomotory structures?
(3) Fibro cartilage (4) Calcified cartilage
(1) Nereis – Parapodia
175. Read the following statements carefully
(2) Hydra – Tentacles
Statement A : Age related disorder characterised (3) Cockroach – Jointed legs
by decreased bone mass and increased chances
(4) Sponges – Osculum
of fracture.
180. How many structures in the given box are
Statement B : Its causative factors include unpaired and found in a male cockroach?
deficiency of calcium, vitamin D and imbalance of
hormones like calcitonin, PTH and sex steroids. Labrum, Labium, Mandible, Hypopharynx,
Compound eye, Antenna, Spermatheca,
These above characters are associated with
Ejaculatory duct, Vagina, Phallomere, Nerve
which disease?
cord, Anus
(1) Gout (2) Osteoporosis
(1) 6 (2) 7
(3) Arthritis (4) Muscular dystrophy (3) 5 (4) 8
  
@AakashDelhi02
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24/04/2020 CODE-A
Test - 11
Answer Key
1. (3) 37. (1) 73. (1) 109. (3) 145. (3)
2. (1) 38. (2) 74. (1) 110. (1) 146 (2)
3. (2) 39. (2) 75. (3) 111. (3) 147. (4)
4. (2) 40. (3) 76. (3) 112. (1) 148. (2)
5. (4) 41. (4) 77. (4) 113. (2) 149. (1)
6. (3) 42. (1) 78. (4) 114. (1) 150. (4)
7. (1) 43. (2) 79. (3) 115. (2) 151. (1)
8. (4) 44. (4) 80. (2) 116. (3) 152. (3)
9. (2) 45. (4) 81. (1) 117. (3) 153. (1)
10. (3) 46. (4) 82. (4) 118. (1) 154. (1)
11. (3) 47. (2) 83. (2) 119. (3) 155. (4)
12. (1) 48. (2) 84. (3) 120. (1) 156. (1)
13. (1) 49. (3) 85. (1) 121. (1) 157. (1)
14. (4) 50. (1) 86. (1) 122. (2) 158. (4)
15. (3) 51. (4) 87. (2) 123. (4) 159. (1)
16. (1) 52. (1) 88. (1) 124. (3) 160. (1)
17. (4) 53. (4) 89. (1) 125. (2) 161. (4)
18. (2) 54. (4) 90. (1) 126. (1) 162. (1)
19. (4) 55. (2) 91. (1) 127. (3) 163. (4)
20. (3) 56. (3) 92. (4) 128. (2) 164. (4)
21. (1) 57. (4) 93. (3) 129. (3) 165. (3)
22. (2) 58. (3) 94. (3) 130. (1) 166. (4)
23. (2) 59. (3) 95. (4) 131. (2) 167. (2)
24. (1) 60. (3) 96. (2) 132. (1) 168. (4)
25. (3) 61. (2) 97. (1) 133. (4) 169. (2)
26. (1) 62. (2) 98. (1) 134. (2) 170. (1)
27. (4) 63. (4) 99. (3) 135. (1) 171. (2)
28. (3) 64. (2) 100. (2) 136. (1) 172. (2)
29. (2) 65. (4) 101. (1) 137. (1) 173. (3)
30. (3) 66. (1) 102. (2) 138. (4) 174. (3)
31. (1) 67. (4) 103. (1) 139. (3) 175. (2)
32. (1) 68. (4) 104. (3) 140. (1) 176. (4)
33. (2) 69. (3) 105. (3) 141. (4) 177. (2)
34. (1) 70. (3) 106. (2) 142. (2) 178. (3)
35. (4) 71. (2) 107. (1) 143. (4) 179. (4)
36. (2) 72. (4) 108. (2) 144. (4) 180. (1)
(1)
@AakashDelhi02
24/04/2020 CODE-A
Test - 11
Hints and Solutions
PHYSICS
mass   
Density = A+B = E …(i)
volume
  
6.237 A +C = D
=
3.5   
= 1.782 – A – C = –D …(ii)
In this question density should be reported to two (i) + (ii)

significant figures.    
As rounding of the number, we get density B –C = E –D
= 1.8 g/cm3    
=B E – D +C
2. Answer (1)
v = |t – 6| 4. Answer (2)
For t = 2s to t = 6s  u 2 sin 2θ 
2
v = –t + 6 2   2 2
R g  + 2 u sin θ
+ 2h =  2
dx 8h 8u sin2 θ 2g
= –t + 6
dt 2g
6
u 2 cos2 θ u 2 sin2 θ
∫=
dx ∫ ( –t + 6 ) dt = +
2 g g
6
 –t 2 
x=  + 6t  u2
 2 2 =
g
  36 – 4  
x = –   + 6 ( 6 – 2) = Rmax
  2  
x = [–16 + 24] 5. Answer (4)
x=8m Acceleration of the plank will depend on

8 acceleration of the Rohan, frictional force
vavg = between Rohan and plank and frictional force
4
between plank and inclined plane.
= 2 m/s
(2)
@AakashDelhi02
6. Answer (3) ( 24 )2 + ( 7 )2
=
Pnet = P + eP + eP + e2P + ……….
= 25 cm
= P +2eP + 2e2P + ……….
9. Answer (2)
= P + 2eP(1 + e + e2 + ……….)
Torque about point of contact.
 1 
= P + 2eP  
 1– e  F×R=τ
 1+ e  τ = Iα
= P 
 1– e  FR
α=
 1 2  2
 + 1 mR
 1+ 2  3 
Pnet = P  
 1– 1   3F 
 2 α=  
 5mR 
Pnet = 3P
10. Answer (3)
7. Answer (1)
By conservation of angular momentum about

mgh 36
= point A.
1 2 64
mv 2
2 m ( 2a )
mva = ω
2gh 36 3
=
v2 64 3v
ω=
v2 = u2 – 2gh 4a
u2 – v2 = 2gh 11. Answer (3)
u 2 – v 2 36 a0
= am =
v2 64 aω2 – bω + c
u2 36 a0
– 1=
v2 64 am = a
2 b c
u 2 100 ω – ω+
= a a
v2 64
a0
u 10
= am = a
v 8 2 2
b  b  c  b 
ω2 – ω +   + –  
u  5 a  2a  a  2a 
 = 
v   4
a0
8. Answer (4)
am = a
k1 = 24 cm, r = 7 cm 
2
b  c  b 
2
ω –  + – 
I = IG + Mr2  2a  a  2a 
IG = Mk12 at resonance am will be maximum
I = Mk2 2
c  b 
Mk2 = Mk1 +2 Mr2 –  =0
a  2a 
k= k12 + r 2 b2 = 4ac
(3)
@AakashDelhi02

ω = 2πt At t = 0
ω = 2π × 10 9
y=
= 20π x2
A = 0.05 m At t = t
x = 0.05 sin (20πt + δ) 9
y=
–0.05 = 0.05 sin (20πt + δ) ( x – 3t )2
sinδ = –1 dy 9 × ( –2 ) ( )
= × –3
 3π  dt ( x – 3t )3
δ=  
 2 
9×6
13. Answer (1) =
( 3 – 3 × 3 )3
 
F = mg
–9 × 6
Vy =
6×6×6
(
= 2 3iˆ + 4 jˆ )
–1
= 6iˆ + 8 jˆ = m/s
4

=
F 62 + 82 17. Answer (4)
= 10 N Brownian motion, diffusion and evaporation
8 phenomenon gives the evidence of the molecular
tanθ = motion.
6
4 18. Answer (2)

θ = tan–1  
3 W = nR∆T
= 53°
nR ∆T
∆U =
14. Answer (4) γ –1
n 400
= ∆U 1
n + 1 500 =
W γ –1
5n = 4n + 4
1
n=4 =
5
–1
n T 3
f=
2l µ
3
=
4 450 2
400 =
2l 5 × 10 –3 19. Answer (4)
1 Efficiency of reversible heat engine is greater
100
= × 300
2l than efficiency of irreversible heat engine.
l = 1.5 m
20. Answer (3)
15. Answer (3)
R ∝ ∆θ
Doppler effect in sound is asymmetric and in light
is symmetric. R = k(θ – θ0)
(4)
@AakashDelhi02
21. Answer (1) Q

E=
T2 4πε0 r 2
Q= ∫ MS dT
T1 C πa 4
E=
25 4πε0 r 2
Q = 2 ∫ ( 0.2 + 1.4T ) dT
5 Ca 4
=
= 2 [0.2 × 20 + 0.7[(25)2 – 52]] 4ε 0 r 2
= 2 [4 + 0.7 × 600] 26. Answer (1)
= 2 [4 + 420]
= 424 × 2
= 848 cal
22. Answer (2)
Expansion of liquid on heating is much more than
solid because molecular spacing in them is more. 3 Aε0
Ceff =
23. Answer (2) 2d
Fnet = Fup – mg = 3 µF
1  Q = Ceff × V
Fnet = mg  – 1
5 
= 3 × 10
25 × 10 –3 × 4
Fnet = × 9.8 = 30 µC
5
25 × 4 q1 = 10 µC and q2 = 20 µC
W= × 10 –3 × 50 × 10 –2 × 9.8
5 q = q1 + q2
W = 1000 × 10–5 × 9.8 = 30 µC
W = 9.8 × 10–2 J
27. Answer (4)
W = 9.8 × 105 erg
6–4
24. Answer (1) I=
5+R
Q1 Q – Q1
2
= 2 2
4πR 4π ( 3R ) 0.2 =
5+R
9Q1 = Q – Q1
1 1
10Q1 = Q =
10 5 + R
Q
Q1 = R=5
10
VA – VB = I × R
25. Answer (3)
= 0.2 × 5
dQ = 4πr2dr Cr
a =1V
∫ dQ
= C ∫ 4πr 3dr
28. Answer (3)
C 4πa 4 τmax = NiAB = 1× i × ( πr 2 ) × B

Q=
4 2
 L  L2 iB
= Cπa4 =
πi   B =
 2π  4π
(5)
@AakashDelhi02

BAN h h
σi = λ= and λ =
C p 2mE
BAN 34. Answer (1)
σv =
CG
nhc
σ =P
⇒ σv = i λ
G
P ×λ
30. Answer (3) n=
hc
∆φ
Q= 60 × 5000
R = = 1.5 × 1020
12400 × 1.6 × 10 –19
NBA
Q= 35. Answer (4)
R
50 × B × 5 × 10 –4 QL
5 × 10–4 = µ=
100 2m
B=2 µ e
=
31. Answer (1) L 2m
Poutput = 150 W 36. Answer (2)
Pinput = 240 × 0.8 13.6eV 22
B.E = +
= 192 W n2
Poutput B.E = 13.6 × 4 eV
n= × 100
Pinput = 54.4 eV
150 K.E = 70 – 54.4
= × 100
192 = 15.6 eV
= 78% 37. Answer (1)
32. Answer (1)
(The mass of α-particle is 4.002603u and that of
Power factor of circuit is 1
oxygen 15.994915u)
XL = XC
B.E = [4 × 4.002603 – 15.994915] × 931.5 MeV
R 1
= = 14.43 MeV
2 2
R + XL 3
38. Answer (2)
2 2
3R
= R +X N0
L
N=
2n
XL = 2 R
N0 N
2 R = XC = n0
64 2
 1  n=6
R=  
 4 2C 
24
T1 =
= R +X2 2
L 2
6
2 2 = 4 days
 1   1 
=   +  39. Answer (2)
 4 2C   4C 
In moderately dopped p-type semiconductor, the
3 fermi level lies in the forbidden energy gap
=
4 2C nearer to valance bond.
(6)
@AakashDelhi02
40. Answer (3) 1  µ1  1 1 

= – 1  –
f2  µ2  1R R 
2 
f2 µ1 – 1
=
f µ1
–1
µ2
V 3
I= –1
R f2 2
=
f 3
10 –1
I= 2×3
20
f2 = +20 cm
= 0.5
44. Answer (4)
41. Answer (4)
λD
W=
d
λ1D1 λ 2D2
=
d1 d2
Y′ = A ⋅ B = A + B d1 λ D
= 1× 1
d2 λ 2 D2
=A+B
400 1.2
′ A+B
Y′ = Y= Y= = ×
500 1.6
42. Answer (1) 4 3 3
= × =
d 5 4 5
t =
c 45. Answer (4)
µ
I0 = Intensity of unpolarised light
3 I = Intensity of emergent light
× 50 × 10 –3
= 2
3 × 108 I0
=I cos2 θ
2
= 25 × 10–11
I0 I0
t = 250 ps = cos2 θ
8 2
43. Answer (2)
1
cosθ =
1  1 1  2
= (µ1 – 1)  – 
f  R1 R2  θ = 60°
CHEMISTRY
wH O 55.9 x Molar mass of the gas
=2
=
w Na SO 44.1 142
2 4 = 1.97 × 22.4 = 44 g
x 180g ⇒ 10 mole water
∴ = ∴ Gas is CO2
(7)
@AakashDelhi02

Radial nodes = n – l – 1 = 3 – 2 – 1 = 0 In NO3− , N has its highest oxidation state +5.
49. Answer (3)
60. Answer (3)
1
λ∝ Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 → CaOCl2 + H2O
Energy
Energy change is maximum for n4 → n1 61. Answer (2)
50. Answer (1) 1

Degree of hydration ∝
Size of ion
v real
Z= = 1.2 > 1
v ideal 62. Answer (2)
∴ Repulsive forces are dominant. Structure of borax
51. Answer (4)
rgas 1 4
= = ∴ M = 64
rHe 4 M
52. Answer (1)

W=
−P(V2 − V1 )
= – 20 (0.4 – 0.1) × 100 J = – 600 J 63. Answer (4)

53. Answer (4) 2NaBH4 + I2 → B2H6 + 2NaI + H2
In vacuum, w = 0 as Pext = 0
64. Answer (2)
54. Answer (4)
Fact
XeOF2 ; sp3 d , XeF2 ; sp3 d , PCl5 ; sp3 d hybridised.
65. Answer (4)
55. Answer (2)
CH3 − O − CH − CH3
10 − 5 |
Bond order in
= O2+ = 2.5 CH3
2
56. Answer (3) IUPAC name is 2-methyoxypropane.
Acidic buffer is a mixture of weak acid and its salt 66. Answer (1)
with strong base.
1.4 × meq. of NH3
57. Answer (4) ∴ % of N =
wt. of compound
Increase in temperature favours endothermic
reactions. 1.4 × (0.5 × 2) × 10
∴ % of N =
0.8
58. Answer (3)
67. Answer (4)
• NH+4 : x + 4( +1) =+1
Vinylic carbocation is highly unstable.
x=–3
68. Answer (4)
• NO3− : x + 3( −2) =−1
Terminal alkene do not show geometrical
∴ x = +5 isomerism.
(8)
@AakashDelhi02
70. Answer (3)
80. Answer (2)

+ 2+
H /Hg NaOH
HC ≡ CH 
60°C
→ CH3 CHO(X) →
Br 2
HCOONa+ + CHBr3
(P)

Carbylamine test is given by 1º amines only.
On monochlorination 2 compounds will have
chiral centres, hence 4 optically active 82. Answer (4)
DlBAL −H
compounds. R − C ≡ N  → R − CH = NH
H O
72. Answer (4) 
2
→ RCHO
2C2H5 OH + COCl2 → (C2H5 )2 CO3 + 2HCl 83. Answer (2)

(phosgene) non −poisonous
(poisonous) Caprolactum polymerises to give nylon–6.
84. Answer (3)
73. Answer (1)
These two are functional group isomers having –
Acidic nature of alcohols decreases as CHO and groups.
CH3OH > 1º > 2º > 3º
85. Answer (1)
74. Answer (1) Cr3+ has 3d3 configuration hence it has 3 unpaired
electrons.
Classical smog consists of fog, smoke and SO2.
86. Answer (1)
75. Answer (3)
Half life period of first order reaction is
CFCs are main cause of ozone layer depletion independent of initial concentration.
87. Answer (2)
76. Answer (3)
Greater is the charge, more will the flocculation
Benzaldehyde does not give fehling test positive. power.
Greater is the reduction potential, greater is the
oxidising power.
89. Answer (1)
Li+ ion is surrounded by four O2– ion and each O2–
78. Answer (4) ion is surrounded by 8 Li+.
Heating of different calcium salts of carboxylic 90. Answer (1)

acids gives mixed products Morphine is narcotic analgesic.
(9)
@AakashDelhi02
BOTANY
Oxysome is differentiated into base, stalk and 98. Answer (1)
headpiece. The headpiece contains enzyme ATP
99. Answer (3)
synthetase which brings about oxidative
phosphorylation coupled with release of ATP. 100. Answer (2)
Red algae reproduce asexually by non-motile
spore.
Ex- Polysiphonia, Porphyra
101. Answer (1)
Medicinal plant Family
Aloe Liliaceae
92. Answer (4)
Belladonna Solanaceae
Isobrachial (metacentric) chromosome appears V
– shaped during anaphase. Ashwagandha Solanaceae
93. Answer (3) Mulaithi Fabaceae
102. Answer (2)

103. Answer (1)
104. Answer (3)
105. Answer (3)
In the given question, cell A, B and C are in
equilibrium as these cells have equal Ψw i.e,
–2. Thus, net movement of water is zero.
106. Answer (2)
Generation time = 1 minute
107. Answer (1)
t 1 (time taken to reach one -fourth of cup) = 36
4 108. Answer (2)
minutes
One molecule of nitrogen is converted into two
Since, Generation time (Tg) = 1 minutes molecules of ammonia.
∴ t 1 = 36 + 1 = 37 minutes
2
N2+8e–+8H++16ATP → 2NH3+H2+16ADP+16Pi
And, t(full cup) = 37 + 1 = 38 minutes 109. Answer (3)

Planaria (flat worm) reproduce through true
C4 plants involve both C3 and C4 cycle.
regeneration.
3 ATP are consumed to fix one CO2 in C3 cycle.
96. Answer (2) While, 2 ATPase consumed to fix one CO2 in C4
Species is the basic and lowest category in cycle. Hence, total 5 ATPs are consumed for
taxonomic hierarchy. every CO2 fixed in C4 plants.
(10)
@AakashDelhi02
112. Answer (1) According to the pedigree, no son is found to be

In glycolysis, glucose is phosphorylated to affected with hemophillia.
glucose - 6 - phosphate by using ATP in the
122. Answer (2)
presence of hexokinase.
113. Answer (2) xx – xo type of sex determination is seen in
grasshopper while, xx – xy type of sex
RQ of oxalic acid = 4.0
determination can be seen in insects like
114. Answer (1)
Drosophila and mammals including human
115. Answer (2)
beings.
Wheat, Sugarbeet, Radish – LDPs (Long day
plants) 123. Answer (4)
Soyabean, Tabacco – SDPs (Short day Both strands of DNA runs in antiparallel fashion
plants) with 5′ → 3′ polarity in one end and 3′ → 5′
Cucumber – DNPs (Day neutral polarity in other chain.
plants)
124. Answer (3)
116. Answer (3)
Organism Life-span 125. Answer (2)
Elephant 60-90 years Humus is dark coloured amorphous substance.

Parrot 140 years
126. Answer (1)
Banyan tree 200-300 years
Lice is present on body surface of host and obtain
Cow 20-5 years
their nutrition. Hence, lice shows ectoparasitism.
117. Answer (3)
Conidium is a mode of reproduction in 127. Answer (3)
ascomycetes. 128. Answer (2)

118. Answer (1)
129. Answer (3)
The hard outer layer of pollen grain is exine,
made up of sporopollenin that is one of the most 130. Answer (1)
resistant organic material known.
131. Answer (2)
119. Answer (3)
132. Answer (1)
120. Answer (1)
121. Answer (1) Noise becomes unbearable at 140 dB.
133. Answer (4)
Swiss cheese is ripened with help of bacterium

Propionibacterium sharmanii.
134. Answer (2)
135. Answer (1)
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@AakashDelhi02
ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (1) 145. Answer (3)
Individual is the unit of natural selection and Louis Pasteur by his experiment using a swan
population is the unit of evolution. necked flask and killed yeast finally dismissed
137. Answer (1) theory of abiogenesis.
Parrot has maximum life span nearly equal to that 146. Answer (2)
of giant tortoise (140 years)
O2 was absent free form in primitive atmosphere.
Crow – 15 years, Indian elephant – 70 years Now it is present in atmosphere due to
Horse – 62 years. photosynthesis in green plants.
138. Answer (4) 147. Answer (4)

FSH acts on cells of Sertoli and stimulates them Cancer is considered as non communicable
to secrete inhibin and LH acts on Leydig cells and disease so is not transmitted from one person to
stimulates them to secrete testosterone. Both another.
inhibin and testosterone have inhibitory effect on
148. Answer (2)
anterior lobe of pituitary gland.
Both physical and physiological barriers together
139. Answer (3)
form first line of defence whereas cellular and
For normal fertility in humans, at least 60% of cytokine barriers form second line of defence.
total sperms in each ejaculate must have normal
shape and size and at least 40% of them must 149. Answer (1)
show vigorous motility. Each antibody in its monomeric form consists of
140. Answer (1) two heavy and two light chains. So they are
represented as H2 L2.
Lippe’s loop is a nonmedicated IUD whereas
progestasert is a hormone releasing IUD. 150. Answer (4)
Multiload 375 and LNG – 20 are copper releasing Retroviruses with enzyme reverse transcriptase
IUDs. synthesize their own DNA from RNA which
141. Answer (4) incorporates into host DNA. Host DNA is not
Genital herpes – HSV - II synthesized by reverse transcriptase.
Genital warts – HPV 151. Answer (1)
Trichomoniasis – Trichomonas vaginalis Receptors for morphine are situated in CNS and
gastrointestinal tract. It acts as sedative and
142. Answer (2)
painkiller. Receptor for charas are mainly situated
When similar organisms evolve in different in brain and their effects are seen on
species due to different external factors, such a cardiovascular system. Cocaine and nicotine both
type of evolution is termed as adaptive radiation are stimulants.
or divergent evolution.
152. Answer (3)
143. Answer (4)
Inbreeding is necessary to evolve pure line in any
Spotted cuscus is a marsupial mammal which
animal because it increases homozygosity.
shows analogy with lemur.
153. Answer (1)
144. Answer (4)
Neanderthal man used hides to protect their body FSH like hormones are responsible for multiple
and buried their dead. ovulation at a time called superovulation.
(12)
@AakashDelhi02
154. Answer (1) 162. Answer (1)

Colonies give white colour due to insertional Forceful expiration after forceful inspiration is
inactivation of lac-Z gene which codes for defined as vital capacity VC = TV + IRV + ERV =
enzyme β-galactosidase responsible for blue [500 + 3000 + 1100]ml = 4600 ml
colouration with X-gal.
163. Answer (4)
155. Answer (4)
Chronic smoking causes damaging of alveoli and
DNA fragments separated by agarose gel difficulty in breathing resulting in emphysema.
electrophoresis can be seen after staining with
164. Answer (4)
ethidium bromide only after exposure to
ultraviolet light. Solvents such as water are absorbed by osmosis.
156. Answer (1) 165. Answer (3)
The gene coding for adenosine deaminase is Hypersecretion of oxyntic cells may cause peptic
helpful in maturation of lymphocytes and its ulcer due to damage to gastric mucosa. HCl is
deficiency causes severe combined immuno helpful in absorption of iron by converting Fe+3
deficiency (SCID). into Fe+2 state. Parietal cells synthesize Castle’s
157. Answer (1) intrinsic factor which helps in absorption of
vit - B12.
tPA is used to dissolve fibrin clot during coronary
artery blockage to activate plasminogen. Human 166. Answer (4)
insulin is used to treat diabetes mellitus, Kidney is not a lymphoid organ. Thymus is
α interferon is used in treatment of cancer and considered as throne of immunity.
erythropoietin is used in treatment of anaemia.
167. Answer (2)
158. Answer (4)
Complete stoppage of heart function is called
Fibroblasts form cells and matrix in all connective cardiac arrest. Inadequate blood supply to body
tissues except blood. Blood cells are formed possibly due to defect is heart valve is called
within bone marrow. heart failure.
159. Answer (1) 168. Answer (4)
Renal capsule is formed by white fibrous
All echinoderms are marine. Spongilla is a fresh
connective tissue and PCT of nephron is
water sponge.
internally lined by simple cuboidal epithelium
containing microvilli to form brush border 169. Answer (2)
epithelium. Protochordates are invertebrate chordates and
160. Answer (1) platyhelminths are triploblastic acoelomates.
According to Chargaff’s rule A + G = T + C 170. Answer (1)

A = T and G = C ‘A’ is eustachian tube which connects middle ear
So, G = 20% and C = 20% cavity with nasopharynx and ‘B’ is cochlear nerve
which is sensory and transmits impulses to
G + C = 40%, So A + T = 60%
temporal lobe of cerebral hemisphere.
So A = T = 30%
171. Answer (2)
161. Answer (4)
Breathing centre is situated in medulla oblongata
A represents activation energy without enzyme and brainstem consists of midbrain, pons and
and B represents activation energy with enzyme. medulla oblongata. Cerebral aqueduct/iter occurs
Reaction is exothermic as energy of product is as a narrow passage in midbrain to connect 3rd
lower than energy of substrate. ventricle with 4th ventricle.
(13)
@AakashDelhi02
172. Answer (2) 176. Answer (4)
Ammonia is most toxic, highly soluble Parathormone is a proteinaceous hormone which

increases osteoclast activity to increase blood
nitrogenous waste which requires more water for
calcium level by stimulating reabsorption of
its elimination than urea.
bones.
173. Answer (3) 177. Answer (2)
Most substances are reabsorbed in PCT. K+ ions GH is a general hormone and it has no any
are mainly secreted in DCT. Afferent arteriole specific target cell. It acts nearly on all of body
cells to increase permeability of amino acids in
brings blood towards glomerulus.
cells and stimulate protein synthesis.
174. Answer (3)
178. Answer (3)
Intervertebral discs are present between Hydra exists only in polyp form.
vertebrae forming secondary cartilaginous joints. 179. Answer (4)
These discs act as shock absorbers and permit
Sponges are sessile, found attached with
little movement between vertebrae. substrate in adult stage. They are motile only in
175. Answer (2) their larval stages. Osculum is present for exit of
water.
Gout is a metabolic disorder in which uric acid
180. Answer (1)
crystals are deposited in the region of joints.
Spermatheca and phallomeres are paired in
Inflammation of joints is called arthritis. Muscular
female cockroach. Nerve cord is paired in male
dystrophy is a genetic disorder. and female cockroach.
  
(14)
@AakashDelhi02
27/04/2020 CODE-A
MM : 720 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

funsZ'k :

1. If energy of a body moving along x-axis at time ‘t’ 1. ;fn le; ‘t’ o fLFkfr ‘x’ ij x-v{k ds vuqfn'k
A − x2 A−x 2
and position ‘x’ is given by E = , then the xfr'khy oLrq dh ÅtkZ dks E= }kjk fn;k
Bt Bt
dimensions of A × B will be
tkrk gS] rc A × B dh foek gksxh
(1) [M–1 L2 T1] (2) [M L T–2] (1) [M–1 L2 T1] (2) [M L T–2]
(3) [M–1 L3 T–2] (4) [M L–3 T2] (3) [M–1 L3 T–2] (4) [M L–3 T2]
2. A particle performs SHM on x-axis with amplitude 2. ,d d.k vk;ke A o vkorZdky T ds lkFk x-v{k
A and time period T. If at t = 0 particle starts from ij ljy vkorZ xfr djrk gSA ;fn t = 0 ij d.k
A A
rest, then time taken by it to travel a distance fojke ls xfr çkjEHk djrk gS] rc nwjh r; djus
4 4
will be esa blds }kjk fy;k x;k le; gksxk
(1)
T
16
(2)
T
16
cos−1 3
4( ) (1)
T
16
(2)
T
16
cos−1 3
4 ( )
(3)
T
2
cos−1 3( )
4
(4)
T
2
cos−1 1( )
4
(3)
T
2
cos−1 3( )
4
(4)
T
2
cos−1 1
4 ( )
3. A honey bee is flying along a straight line (x-axis) 3. ,d e/kqeD[kh ljy js[kk (x-v{k) ds vuqfn'k
according to the equation x =  + t2, where lehdj.k x =  + t2 ds vuqlkj mM+ jgh gS] tgk¡
 = 5 cm and  = 8 cm/s2. Its acceleration when  = 5 cm rFkk  = 8 cm/s2 gSA tc e/kqeD[kh dk osx
velocity of honey bee is 18 m/s, is 18 m/s gS] rc bldk Roj.k gS
(1) 8 cm/s2 (2) 16 cm/s2 (1) 8 cm/s2 (2) 16 cm/s2
(3) 4 cm/s2 (4) Zero (3) 4 cm/s2 (4) 'kwU;
@AakashDelhi02
(1)
4. An athlete is running towards a stationary source v

4. ,d /kkod èofu ds ,d fLFkj L=ksr dh vksj pky
v 5
of sound with a speed , where v is speed of
5 ls nkSM+ jgk gS] tgk¡ v ok;q esa èofu dh pky gSA
sound in air. Source is emitting a sound of L=ksr f vko`fÙk rFkk  rjaxnSè;Z dh èofu mRlftZr
frequency f and wavelength . The frequency and dj jgk gSA /kkod }kjk çsf{kr vko`fÙk rFkk rjaxnSè;Z
wavelength as observed by the athlete are
respectively
Øe'k% gS
(1) 1.2 f, 1.2  (2) 0.8 f, 0.8 
(1) 1.2 f, 1.2  (2) 0.8 f, 0.8 
(3) 1.2 f,  (4) 1.2 f, 0.8 
(3) 1.2 f,  (4) 1.2 f, 0.8 
5. fp= esa n'kkZ;s x;s ifjiFk ij fopkj dhft,A /kkjk I
5. Consider the circuit shown in the figure. The
current I is equal to
dk eku gS
6
6 (1) A (2) – 3 A
(1) A (2) – 3 A 5
5
5
5 (3) 3 A (4) A
(3) 3 A (4) A 6
6
6. ,d d.k dks {kSfrt ls Åij 60º dks.k ij /kjkry ls
6. A particle is projected from ground at an angle of
60º above the horizontal with speed 150 m/s. The 150 m/s dh pky ls ç{ksfir fd;k tkrk gSA fdrus
time (in second) after which particle moves at an le; i'pkr~ d.k mèokZ/kj ls 45º dks.k ij xfr
angle 45º with vertical, is djrk gSA (lsd.M esa)
(1) 15 ( )
3 +1 (1) 15 ( 3 +1 )
15 15
(2) ( 3 − 1) (2) ( 3 − 1)
2 2
(3) 15 ( )
3 +1 (3) 15 ( 3 +1 )
(4)
15
( 3 +1 ) (4)
15
2
( 3 +1 )
2
7. A large tank filled with water to a height ‘h’ is to be 7. Å¡pkbZ rd ty ls Hkjs ,d cMs VSad dks iSans ij
‘h’
emptied through a small hole at the bottom. The ,d lw{e fNæ djds [kkyh fd;k tkrk gSA ty dk
h h
time taken for the level of water to fall from h to Lrj h ls rd fxjus esa fy;k x;k le; T1 gS
2 2
h h
is T1 and to fall from to zero is T2. The value of rFkk ls 'kwU; rd fxjus esa fy;k le; T2 gSA
2 2
T1 T1
is dk eku gS
T2 T2
(1) 2 (2) 2 −1 (1) 2 (2) 2 −1

1 1 1 1
(3) (4) (3) (4)
2 −1 2 2 −1 2
(2) @AakashDelhi02
8. A convex lens of glass ( = 1.5) having focal 8. f = 15 cm Qksdl nwjh okys dk¡p ( = 1.5) ds ,d
length f = 15 cm is dipped completely in water. mÙky ysal dks ty esa iw.kZr% Mqck;k tkrk gSA ty esa
Focal length of convex lens in water becomes
 4
 4 mÙkj ysl
a dh Qksdl nwjh gks tk;sxh   ty = 3 
  water = 3   
 
(1) 60 cm (2) 15 cm
(1) 60 cm (2) 15 cm (3) – 60 cm (4) 30 cm
(3) – 60 cm (4) 30 cm 9. ,d ysai ds fQykesUV dk çfrjks/k rki esa o`f) ds
9. The resistance of the filament of a lamp increases lkFk c<+rk gSA 100 W rFkk 220 V vadu okyh ysEi
with the increase in temperature. A lamp rated 100 dks 220 V 'kfDr vkiwfrZ ds fljksa ij la;ksftr fd;k
W and 220 V is connected across 220 V power tkrk gSA ;fn oksYVrk iru 10% gS] rc ysEi dh
supply. If the voltage drops by 10%, then the
'kfDr gksxh
power of the lamp will be
(1) 100 W
(1) 100 W (2) 81 W (2) 81 W
(3) Less than 81 W (4) Greater than 81 W (3) 81 W ls de
10. A spool is pulled horizontally by two equal and (4) 81 W ls vf/kd
opposite forces, on rough surface as shown in the 10. fQjdh dks fp= esa n'kkZ;s vuqlkj ,d [kqjnjh lrg
figure. The correct statement is ij nks leku rFkk foifjr cyksa }kjk {kSfrt :i ls
[khapk tkrk gSA lgh dFku gS
(1) Centre of mass of spool moves toward right

(2) Centre of mass of spool moves toward Left (1) fQjdh dk æO;eku dsUæ nk;ha vksj xfr djrk gS
(3) Centre of mass of spool remains at rest (2) fQjdh dk æO;eku dsUæ ck;ha vksj xfr djrk gS
(4) Centre of mass of spool lift vertically from (3) fQjdh dk æO;eku dsUæ fojke ij jgrk gS
surface (4) fQjdh dk æO;eku dsUæ lrg ls mèokZ/kj :i
11. The electric potential V(x) in a region around the ls mBrk gS
origin is given by V(x) = 4x volts. The electric 11. ewyfcUnq ds ifjr% fdlh {ks= esa fo|qr foHko V(x) dks
charge enclosed in a cube of 1 m side with its V(x) = 4x oksYV }kjk fn;k tkrk gSA ewyfcUnq ij dsUæ
centre at the origin, will be okys 1 m Hkqtk ds o`r esa ifjc) fo|qr vkos'k gksxk
(1) 8 0 (2) – 4 0 (1) 8 0 (2) – 4 0
(3) – 8 0 (4) Zero (3) – 8 0 (4) 'kwU;
12. A rope passes over a pulley has a ladder with a 12. f?kjuh ls xqtjus okyh jLlh ds ,d fljs ij m
man of mass m on one end while another mass M æO;eku ds O;fDr ds lkFk ,d lh<+h gS rFkk nwljs
on its other end as shown in the figure. fljs ij fp= esa n'kkZ;s vuqlkj M vU; æO;eku gSA
(3) @AakashDelhi02
Initially system is at rest. The man climbs up with çkjEHk esa fudk; fojke esa gSA O;fDr lh<+h ds lkis{k
velocity V0 relative to ladder. If all strings and V0 osx ls Åij p<rk gSA ;fn lHkh jLlh;k¡ o
pulleys are ideal then the velocity of centre of f?kjfu;k¡ vkn'kZ gS] rc fudk; ds æO;eku dsUæ dk
mass of this system is
osx gS
mV0 MV0
(1) (2) mV0 MV0
2M M +m (1) (2)
2M M +m
mV0 MV0
(3) (4) mV0 MV0
M +m 2 (M + m ) (3) (4)
M +m 2 (M + m )
13. If the earth is supposed to be a sphere of radius
R, and g  is the value of acceleration due to
13. ;fn i`Foh dks R f=T;k dk ,d xksyk ekuk tk;s rFkk
gravity at latitude of 30º and g at the pole, then the
xq:Roh; Roj.k dk eku 30º v{kka'k ij g  gS rFkk
value of g − g  will be /kqzo ij g gS] rc g − g  dk eku gksxk
2 R 32R 2 R 32R
(1) (2) (1) (2)
4 4 4 4
2 R 2 R
(3)  R2
(4) (3) 2 R (4)
3 3
14. A particle of mass m and charge q enters a region 14. m æO;eku o q vkos'k dk ,d d.k fp= esa n'kkZ;s
of magnetic field with speed v as shown in the vuqlkj ,d pqEcdh; {ks= esa v pky ls ços'k djrk
figure. If collision of particle with wall is elastic gSA ;fn nhokj ds lkFk d.k dh VDdj çR;kLFk gS]
then time after which velocity of particle becomes rc fdrus le; i'pkr~ d.k dk osx blds çkjfEHkd
 mv 
antiparallel to its initial velocity is d =   mv 
 2qB  osx ds çfrlekarj gks tkrk gS? d = 
 2qB 
m m
(1) (  + 4) (2) (  + 2) (1)
m
(  + 4) (2)
m
(  + 2)
2q B 4q B 2q B 4q B
m m
(3) (  + 2) (4) (  − 2) (3)
m
(  + 2) (4)
m
(  − 2)
qB 4q B qB 4q B
15. Two carnot engine A and B have their sources at
15. nks dkuksZ batu A o B ds L=ksr 1000 K rFkk
1000 K and 1100 K and their sinks are at
temperatures 400 K and 500 K respectively. If 1100 K gS rFkk buds flad Øe'k% rki 400 K rFkk
A and B are their efficiencies, then 500 K ij gSA ;fn A rFkk B budh n{krk gS] rc
(1) A > B (1) A > B
(2) A < B (2) A < B
(3) A = B (3) A = B
(4) Insufficient data (4) vi;kZIr vk¡dMs
(4) @AakashDelhi02
16. In an ideal transformer, number of turns in primary 16. ,d vkn'kZ Vªkl

a QkeZj esa] çkjfEHkd dq.Myh esa ?ksjksa dh
coil are 140 and that in the secondary coil are 280. la[;k 140 gS rFkk f}rh;d dq.Myh esa ?ksjksa dh la[;k
If current in the primary coil is 7 A, then that in the
280 gSA ;fn çkFkfed dq.Myh esa /kkjk 7A gS] rc
secondary coil is
f}rh;d dq.Myh esa /kkjk dk eku gS
(1) 14 A (2) 3.5 A
(1) 14 A (2) 3.5 A
(3) 7 A (4) 4 A
(3) 7 A (4) 4 A
17. Four charges, each equal to –Q are placed at the 17. ,d leku vkos'k –Q ds pkj vkos'kksa dks ,d oxZ ds
four corners of a square and charge q is at its
centre. If the system is in equilibrium the value of
pkj 'kh"kksZ ij j[kk tkrk gS rFkk vkos'k q blds dsUæ
charge q is ij gSA ;fn fudk; lkE; esa gS] rc vkos'k q dk eku
gS
(1)
Q
(
1+ 2 2 )
4 (1)
Q
4
(
1+ 2 2 )
(2) −
Q
4
(
2 2 −1 ) (2) −
Q
(
2 2 −1 )
4
(3) −
Q
2
(
1+ 2 2 ) (3) −
Q
(
1+ 2 2 )
2
(4)
Q
2
(
1+ 2 2 ) (4)
Q
(
1+ 2 2 )
2
18. A point charge q is placed at a distance ‘r’ from 18. ,d fcUnq vkos'k q dks fp= esa n'kkZ, vuqlkj ‘L’
one end of a uniformly charged thin rod of length
‘L’ as shown in the figure. Magnitude of electric
yEckbZ dh ,d le:i vkosf'kr iryh NM+ ds fljs
force between them will be ls ‘r’ nwjh ij j[kk x;k gSA buds eè; fo|qr cy dk
ifjek.k gksxk
1 Qq 1 Qq
(1) (2) 1 Qq 1 Qq
40 r (r + L ) 40 r 2 (1) (2)
40 r (r + L ) 40 r 2
Qq Qq
(3) (4) Qq Qq
20 r 2 4r 2 (L + r )2 (3) (4)
20 r 2 4r (L + r )2
2
19. In the figure given below, the correct relation

between acceleration a1, a2 and a3 is 19. uhps fn;s x;s fp= es]a Roj.k a1, a2 o a3 ds eè; lgh
lEcU/k gS
(1) 2a1 + 2a2 = a3 (2) a1 + a2 = 2a3

(1) 2a1 + 2a2 = a3 (2) a1 + a2 = 2a3
(3) a1 + a2 = a3 (4) a1 = a2 = a3
(3) a1 + a2 = a3 (4) a1 = a2 = a3
(5) @AakashDelhi02
20. In figure E = 5 V, r = 1 , R1 = 1  and 20. fp= esa E = 5 V, r = 1 , R1 = 1  rFkk R2 = 4 

R2 = 4  while C = 3 F. If charge on each tcfd C = 3 F gSA ;fn çR;sd la/kkfj= ij vkos'k
capacitor are Q1, Q2, Q3 and Q4, then value of Q1, Q2, Q3 o Q4 gS] rc Q1 + Q2 + Q3 + Q4 dk eku
Q1 + Q2 + Q3 + Q4 will be
gksxk
(1) 6 C (2) 30 C
(1) 6 C (2) 30 C
(3) 48 C (4) 24 C
(3) 48 C (4) 24 C
21. The magnetic field at the centre of a circular
current carrying coil of radius R is Bc. The 21. R f=T;k dh o`Ùkh; /kkjkokgh dq.Myh ds dsUæ ij
magnetic field on its axis at a distance R from the pqEcdh; {ks= Bc gSA dsUæ ls R nwjh ij blds v{k ij
B Bc
centre is Ba. The value of c will be pqEcdh; {ks= Ba gSA dk eku gksxk
Ba Ba
1 1
(1) 2 (2) (1) 2 (2)
2 2 2 2
1 1
(3) 2 2 (4) (3) 2 2 (4)
2 2
22. The binding energy of deutron (1H2) is 22. M~;wVªkWu (1H2) dh ca/ku ÅtkZ 1.15 MeV çfr
1.15 MeV per nucleon and an alpha particle
U;wfDyvkWu gS rFkk ,d vYQk d.k ( 2 He4 ) dh ca/ku
( 2 )
He 4 has a binding energy of 7.1 MeV per
nucleon. Energy released in the following reaction
ÅtkZ 7.1 MeV çfr U;wfDyvkWu gSA fuEufyf[kr
will be 1 H2 + 1 H2 ⎯⎯
→ 2He4 + Q
vfHkfØ;k esa eqDr ÅtkZ gksxh
1 H2 + 1 H2 ⎯⎯
→ 2He4 + Q
(1) 5.95 MeV (2) 26.1 MeV
(1) 5.95 MeV (2) 26.1 MeV
(3) 23.8 MeV (4) 28.9 MeV
(3) 23.8 MeV (4) 28.9 MeV
23. The angular velocity of a rotating body is
→ →
 = iˆ − 2 jˆ + 2kˆ . Velocity of a point on the body 23. ,d ?kw.khZ oLrq dk dks.kh; osx  = iˆ − 2 jˆ + 2kˆ gSA
→ →
having position vector r = 4 jˆ − 3kˆ is having fLFkfr lfn'k r = 4 jˆ − 3kˆ okyh oLrq ij fLFkr fcanq
magnitude ds osx dk ifjek.k gS
(3) 120 unit (4) 87 unit (3) 120bdkbZ (4) 87 bdkbZ
24. A doubly ionised Lithium atom is excited from its 24. ,d f}&vk;fur fyfFk;e ijek.kq dks bldh vk|
ground state (n = 1) to n = 3 state. The voLFkk (n = 1) ls n = 3 voLFkk rd mÙksftr fd;k
wavelengths of the spectral lines for
corresponding transition are given by
tkrk gSA laxr laØe.k ds fy, LisDVªeh js[kkvksa dh
 32  rjaxnSè;Z dks 32,31 rFkk 21 }kjk fn;k tkrk gSA
32 , 31 and 21 . The value of and 21 are  32  21
 31  31 rFkk ds eku Øe'k% gS
respectively  31  31
(1) 8.1, 0.67 (2) 8.1, 1.2 (1) 8.1, 0.67 (2) 8.1, 1.2
(3) 6.4, 1.2 (4) 6.4, 0.67 (3) 6.4, 1.2 (4) 6.4, 0.67
(6) @AakashDelhi02
25. After learning SHM, Guddu a curious student of XI 25. SHM ;kn djus ds ckn d{kk XI dk ,d ftKklq
class, designed a spring pendulum with identical
fo|kFkhZ xqM~Mq fp= esa n'kkZ;s vuqlkj fLçax fu;rkad
springs of spring constant k and a small block of
mass ‘m’ as shown in figure k dh le:i fLçaxsa rFkk ‘m’ æO;eku dk NksVs xqVds
okys fLçax yksyd dk fuekZ.k djrk gSA
When block is at rest it just touches the lower

spring. So, Guddu forgot to connect lower spring tc xqVdk lkE; esa gS] ;g fupyh fLçax dks Bhd
with block. The time period of oscillation of the Li'kZ djrk gSA blfy, fupyh fLçax dks xqVds ls
block when it is slightly pushed downward and la;ksftr djuk Hkwy tkrk gSA tc xqVds dks gYds ls
released, is uhps dh vksj /kdsydj NksM+k tkrk gS] rc xqVds ds
m 2m nksyu dk vkorZdky gS
(1) 2 (2) 2
2k k m 2m
(1) 2 (2) 2
2k k
m m 1 
(3)  (4)  1+ 
2k k  2 m m 1 
(3)  (4)  1+ 
2k k  2
26. If the critical angle for total internal reflection from
a medium to vacuum is 30º, then velocity of light 26. ;fn ekè;e ls ok;q rd iw.kZ vkUrfjd ijkorZu ds
in the medium is fy, Økafrd dks.k 30º gS] rc ekè;e esa çdk'k dk
osx gS
3 m m
(1)  108 (2) 2  108 3 m m
2 s s (1)  108 (2) 2  108
2 s s
m 3 m
(3) 3  108 (4)  108 m 3 m
s 4 s (3) 3  108 (4)  108
s 4 s
27. Which of the following waves have the maximum 27. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulh rjaxksa dk rjaxnSè;Z
wave length
vf/kdre gksrk gS
(1) X – rays (1) X – fdj.ksa
(2) Radio waves (2) jsfM;ks rjaxsa
(3) Ultraviolet waves (3) ijkcSaxuh rjaxsa
(4) Visible rays (4) n`'; fdj.ksa
28. A 2 F capacitor is charged with the help of a 28. ,d 2F la/kkfj= dks 60 V cSVjh dh lgk;rk ls
60 V battery. After disconnecting the battery it is vkosf'kr fd;k tkrk gSA cSVjh ds foPNsfnr djus ds
connected with another uncharged capacitor of ckn bls 1F ds vU; vukosf'kr la/kkfj= ls la;kftr
1 F. The potential difference across the plates of
fd;k tkrk gSA 2F la/kkfj= dh IysVksa ds fljksa ij
2 F capacitor will be
foHkokUrj gksxk
(1) 30 V (2) 60 V (1) 30 V (2) 60 V
(3) 40 V (4) 20 V (3) 40 V (4) 20 V
(7) @AakashDelhi02
29. Two coherent light waves of intensities I and 4I 

29. I o 4I rhozrk dh nks dyklEcU/k çdk'k rjaxs
 2
superpose at a point with phase difference of .
2 dykUrj ds lkFk ,d fcanq ij vè;kjksfir gksrh gSA
The resultant intensity of the superposed wave at ml fcanq ij vè;kjksfir rjax dh ifj.kkeh rhozrk
that point will be
gksxh
(1) 5I (2) 7I (1) 5I (2) 7I
(3) 6I (4) 8I (3) 6I (4) 8I
30. A sample of radioactive element has a mass of 20 30. ,d jsfM;kslfØ; rRo ds uewus dk çkjfEHkd æO;eku
g initially. The approximate mass of this element in 20 g gSA nks ekè; vk;q ds i'pkr~ uewus esa bl rRo
the sample after two mean lives will be dk æO;eku yxHkx gksxk
(1) 5 g (2) 12.0 g (1) 5 g (2) 12.0 g
(3) 6.8 g (4) 2.7 g (3) 6.8 g (4) 2.7 g
31. A small object is embedded in a glass sphere of

31. ,d lw{e oLrq dks  = 3/2 rFkk 10 cm O;kl ds dk¡p
 = 3/2 and diameter 10 cm at a distance of ds xksys esa dsUæ ls 1.5 cm ck;h nwjh ij vUr%
1.5 cm left to the centre. Position of image of the LFkkfir fd;k tkrk gSA xksys ds ck;h vksj [kM+s çs{kd
object as seen by an observer standing to the left }kjk ns[ks tkus ij oLrq ds çfrfcEc dh fLFkfr
of the sphere is nearly yxHkx gS
(1) 1 cm left to the centre (1) dsUæ ls 1 cm ck;s
(2) 2 cm left to the centre (2) dsUæ ls 2 cm ck;s
(3) 1 cm right to the centre (3) dsUæ ls 1 cm nk;s
(4) 2 cm right to the centre (4) dsUæ ls 2 cm nk;s
32. In the circuit given below, V(t) is the sinusoidal 32. uhps fn;s x;s ifjiFk esa] V(t) T;koØh; oksYVrk L=ksr
voltage source, voltage drop VAB (t) across the gS] çfrjks/k R ds fljksa ij oksYVrk iru
resistance R is VAB (t) gksrk gS
(1) Is half wave rectified (1) v)Z rjax f}"Vd`r

(2) Is full wave rectified (2) iw.kZ rjax f}"Vd`r
(3) Has the same peak values in the positive and (3) /kukRed rFkk _.kkRed v)Z pØ esa leku
negative half cycles f'k[kj eku
(4) Has the different peak values in the positive (4) /kukRed rFkk _.kkRed v)Z pØ esa fHkUu-fHkUu
and negative half cycles f'k[kj eku
33. A thin brass sheet at 20ºC and a thin steel sheet 33. 20ºC okyh ,d iryh ihry dh ifêdk rFkk 40°C
at 40°C have the same surface area. The okyh ,d iryh LVhy dh ifêdk ds i`"B {ks=Qy
common temperature at which both would have
leku gSA fdl mHk;fu"B rki ij nksuksa dk {ks=Qy
the same area will be
leku gksxk
(brass = 19 × 10–6/ºC and steel = 11 × 10–6/ºC)
(ihry = 19 × 10–6/ºC rFkk LVhy = 11 × 10–6/ºC)
(1) – 3.7ºC (2) –7.5ºC (1) – 3.7ºC (2) –7.5ºC
(3) 12ºC (4) Not possible (3) 12 ºC (4) laHko ugha
@AakashDelhi02
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34. Part AB of the track shown below is smooth and 34. uhps n'kkZ;s x;s Vªds dk Hkkx AB fpduk gS rFkk
beyond point-B track is rough. A block of mass 2 fcanq-B ds vkxs Vªd
s [kqjnjk gSA 2 kg æO;eku ds ,d
kg is released from rest at point A and it stops xqVds dks fojke ls fcanq A ij NksM+k tkrk gS rFkk ;g
after travelling 8 m on track BC. The value of
Vªsd BC ij 8 m nwjh r; djus ds ckn :drk gSA
friction coefficient  between block and track BC is
xqVds o Vªsd BC ds eè; ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad  dk eku gS
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (1) (2)
4 8 4 8
3 6 3 6
(3) (4) (3) (4)
4 5 4 5
 C   Cp 
35. An ideal gas   = p  is taken through a process 35. ,d vkn'kZ xSl  =  dks ,sls çØe ls xqtkjk
 Cv   Cv 
in which the pressure and the volume vary as P = tkrk gS ftlesa nkc o vk;ru P = V ds vuqlkj
R ifjofrZr gksrk gSA ;fn bl çØe esa eksyj fof'k"V
V. If the molar specific heat in this process is
 R
Å"ek gS] rc xSl ds fy,  dk eku gksxk
, then value of  for the gas will be (R-universal 
gas constant) (R-lkoZf=d xSl fu;rkad)
(1) 1 +  + 2 (1) 1 +  + 2
(2) 1 +  + 2 (2) 1 +  + 2
(3)  + 2 +  (3)  + 2 + 

 (4) 1 + − 2
(4) 1 + − 2 

36. On the basis of Bohr’s atomic model the radius of

36. cksgj ds ijek.kq ekWMy ds vk/kkj ij fdlh ijek.kq
3rd orbit of any atom is dh r`rh; d{kk dh f=T;k gksrh gS
(1) Three times of radius of first orbit (1) çFke d{kk dh f=T;k dh rhu xquh
(2) Nine times of radius of first orbit (2) çFke d{kk dh f=T;k dh 9 xquh
(3) One third of radius of first orbit (3) çFke d{kk dh f=T;k dh ,dfrgkbZ
(4) Equal to the radius of first orbit (4) çFke d{kk dh f=T;k ds cjkcj
37. If the radius of a circular coil is doubled and the 37. ;fn ,d o`Ùkh; dq.Myh dh f=T;k nksxquh gS rFkk
number of turns are halved then the magnetic field ?ksjksa dh la[;k vk/kh gS] rc leku /kkjk ds fy,
at the centre of the coil, for the same current will dq.Myh ds dsUæ ij pqEcdh; {ks= gks tk;sxk
(1) Get doubled (1) nksxquk
(2) Get one fourth (2) ,d pkSFkkbZ
(3) Get quadrupled (3) pkj xquk
(4) Remains unchanged (4) vifjofrZr jgsxk
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38. Two ideal diodes are connected to a battery as 38. nks vkn'kZ Mk;ksMks dks ifjiFk esa n'kkZ;s vuqlkj cSVjh
shown in the circuit. The current supplied by the
ls la;ksftr fd;k tkrk gSA cSVjh }kjk vkiwrZ /kkjk gS
battery is
(1) Zero (2) 0.5 A (1) 'kwU; (2) 0.5 A

(3) 0.4 A (4) 0.75 A (3) 0.4 A (4) 0.75 A
39. A thin wooden rod of length 0.05 m is placed in 39. 0.05 m yEckbZ dh ,d iryh ydM+h dh NM+ dks
front of a spherical mirror as shown in the figure. fp= esa n'kkZ;s vuqlkj ,d xksyh; niZ.k ds lkeus
Length of the image rod will be j[kk tkrk gSA çfrfcEc NM+ dh yEckbZ gksxh
10 10
(1) 5 cm (2) cm (1) 5 cm (2) cm
21 21
(3) 10 cm (4) Both (2) and (3) (3) 10 cm (4) (2) o (3) nksuksa
40. If all the pulleys are massless and strings are ideal 40. ;fn lHkh f?kjfu;k¡ æO;ekughu gS rFkk jLlh;k¡ vkn'kZ
then tension in the string connected with 2 kg
block is
gS] rc 2 kg xqVds ls la;ksftr jLlh esa ruko gS
(1) 12 N (2) 8 N
(1) 12 N (2) 8 N
(3) 200 N (4) Zero
(3) 200 N (4) 'kwU;
41. m æO;eku o e vkos'k dk ,d bysDVªkWu çkjEHk ds
41. An electron of mass m and charge e initially at rest
gets accelerated by constant electric field E. The fojke esa fLFkr gS] ;g fu;r fo|qr {ks= E ds }kjk
rate of change of de-Broglie wavelength of this Rofjr gksrk gSA le; t ij bysDVªkWu dh Mh-czkx
s yh
electron at time t is rjaxnSè;Z esa ifjorZu dh nj gS
2h h 2h h
(1) (2) (1) (2)
eEt eEt eEt eEt
h –2h h –2h
(3) − (4) (3) − (4)
eEt 2 eEt 2 eEt 2 eEt 2
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42. The minimum wavelength of the X-ray emitted by 42. 10 kV ij lapkfyr ,d X-fdj.k ufydk }kjk
an X-ray tube operating at 10 kV is mRlftZr X-fdj.k dh U;wure rjaxnSè;Z gS
(1) 1.24 Å (2) 12.4 Å
(1) 1.24 Å (2) 12.4 Å
(3) 3.1 Å (4) 6.2 Å
(3) 3.1 Å (4) 6.2 Å
43. In a YDSE experiment, the coherent sources are
at 2d distance from each other and screen is 43. YDSE ç;ksx esa] dyklEc) L=ksr ,d nwljs ls 2d
placed a distance D from the slits. If nth bright nwjh ij gS rFkk insZ dks fLyVksa ls D nwjh ij j[kk
fringe is formed on the screen exactly opposite to tkrk gSA ;fn n oha nhIr fÝat insZ ij fLyV ds Bhd
a slit, the value of n must be foifjr fufeZr gksrh gS] rc n dk eku gksxk
d2 d2 d2 d2
(1) (2)
4 D D (1) (2)
4 D D
2d 2 d2
(3) (4) 2d 2 d2
D 2D (3) (4)
D 2D
44. Maximum kinetic energy of a photoelectron is E
when the wavelength of incident light is . If 44. ,d çdk'k bysDVªkWu dh vf/kdre xfrt ÅtkZ E gS]
energy becomes four times when wavelength is tc vkifrr çdk'k dh rjaxnSè;Z  gSA ;fn rjaxnSè;Z
reduced to one third, then work function of the dks ,d frgkbZ rd ?kVkus ij ÅtkZ pkj xquh gks
metal is tkrh gS] rc /kkrq dk dk;ZQyu gS
hc 3hc hc 3hc
(1) (2) (1) (2)
   
hc hc
(3) (4) hc hc
2 3 (3) (4)
2 3
45. At a point A on earth surface the angle of dip
45. i`Foh dh lrg ij fdlh fcanq A ij ufr dks.k dk
 = – 30º while on another point B it is  = 60º. We
can interpret that eku  = – 30º gS tcfd vU; fcanq B ij ufr dks.k
dk eku  = 60º gSA ge fu"d"kZ fudky ldrs gS fd
(1) A is located in Northern hemisphere and B is
located in Southern hemisphere (1) A mÙkjh xksyk)Z esa fLFkr gS rFkk B nf{k.kh
(2) B is located in Northern hemisphere and A is xksyk)Z esa fLFkr gS
located in Southern hemisphere
(2) B mÙkjh xksyk)Z esa fLFkr gS rFkk A nf{k.kh
(3) A and B both are located in Northern xksyk)Z esa fLFkr gS
hemisphere
(3) A o B nksuksa mÙkjh xksyk)Z esa fLFkr gS
(4) A and B both are located in Southern
hemisphere (4) A o B nksuksa nf{k.kh xksyk)Z esa fLFkr gS
46. The molarity of aqueous NaCl solution which 46. 500 ml foy;u esa 5.85 g NaCl ;qDr tyh; NaCl
contains 5.85 g NaCl in 500 ml solution is foy;u dh eksyjrk gS
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (1) (2)
5 2 5 2
3 2 3 2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
5 5 5 5
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47. Which of the following set of quantum number is 47. fuEufyf[kr esa ls Dok.Ve la[;kvksa dk dkSulk
possible? leqPp; laHko gS?
1 1
(1) n = 4, l = 4, m = –3, s=+ (1) n = 4, l = 4, m = –3, s=+
2 2
1 1
(2) n = 4, l = 3, m = –2, s=– (2) n = 4, l = 3, m = –2, s=–
2 2
1 1
(3) n = 2, l = 3, m = +3, s=+ (3) n = 2, l = 3, m = +3, s=+
2 2
1 1
(4) n = 4, l = 4, m = 4, s=– (4) n = 4, l = 4, m = 4, s=–
2 2
48. IUPAC name of element with Z = 110 is 48. Z = 110 okys rRo dk IUPAC uke gS
(1) Ununnillium (2) Unnilseptium
(1) vuvufufy;e (2) vufuylsfIV;e
(3) Unnilunium (4) Ununoctium
(3) vufuyvfu;e (4) vuvuvkWfDV;e
49. Square planar molecule among the following is
(1) SF4 (2) CH4
49. fuEufyf[kr esa ls oxZ leryh; v.kq gS
(3) XeF4 (4) ClF3 (1) SF4 (2) CH4
50. Maximum critical temperature is of (3) XeF4 (4) ClF3
(1) H2 (2) CO2 50. fdldk Økafrd rki vf/kdre gksrk gS\
(3) N2 (4) NH3 (1) H2 (2) CO2
51. If enthalpy of combustion of butane is –2658 kJ (3) N2 (4) NH3
mol–1 then how much heat energy will be released 51. ;fn C;wVsu dh ngu ,UFkSYih–2658 kJ mol–1 gS] rks
by the combustion of 5.8 g of butane in kJ is
5.8 g C;wVsu ds ngu ij fdruh m"eh; ÅtkZ (kJ es)a
(1) 132.9 (2) 265.8 eqDr gksxh\
(3) 332.25 (4) 664.5 (1) 132.9 (2) 265.8
52. If KC for the reaction (3) 332.25 (4) 664.5
N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) is x 52. ;fn vfHkfØ;k N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) dk KC
then KC for the reaction = x gS] rks vfHkfØ;k NO(g) 1 1 dk
N (g) + O2 (g)
2 2 2
1 1
NO(g) N2 (g) + O2 (g) is KC gksxk
2 2
1
1 (1) x2 (2)
(1) x2 (2) x
x
1 1
1 1 (3) (4)
(3) (4) x2 x
x2 x
53. Oxidation number of Cr in CrO5 is 53. CrO5 esa Cr dk vkWDlhdj.k vad gS
(1) +2 (2) +5 (1) +2 (2) +5
(3) +6 (4) 10 (3) +6 (4) 10
54. Strength of 10 V H2O2 in g/L is approximately 54. 10 V H2O2 dh lkeF;Z (g/L es)a yxHkx gS
(1) 50 (2) 30 (1) 50 (2) 30
(3) 40 (4) 10 (3) 40 (4) 10
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55. Maximum boiling point among the alkali metal 55. {kkj /kkrq gSykbM esa vf/kdre DoFkukad okyk gS
halide is of
(1) Fluorides (2) Chlorides (1) ¶yqvksjkbM (2) DyksjkbM
(3) Bromides (4) Iodides (3) czkes kbM (4) vk;ksMkbM
56. Minimum electronegativity among the following is 56. fuEufyf[kr esa ls U;wure fo|qr_.krk okyk gS
of (1) B (2) Al
(1) B (2) Al (3) In (4) Tl
(3) In (4) Tl 57. fuEufyf[kr esa ls vLFkk;h çHkko dkSulk gS\
57. Which of the following is a temporary effect? (1) çsj.kh (2) bysDVªkWejh
(1) Inductive (2) Electromeric
(3) vuqukn (4) vfrla;qXeu
(3) Resonance (4) Hyperconjugation
58. oqVZt vfHkfØ;k }kjk fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdldk
58. Which of the following can not be formed by fojpu ugha fd;k tk ldrk?
Wurtz reaction?
(1) C2H6 (2) CH4
(1) C2H6 (2) CH4
(3) C3H8 (4) C4H10
(3) C3H8 (4) C4H10
59. is; ty esa Cd dh vf/kdre vuq'kaflr lhek gS
59. Maximum prescribed limit of Cd in drinking water
is (1) 0.2 ppm (2) 0.05 ppm
(1) 0.2 ppm (2) 0.05 ppm (3) 0.005 ppm (4) 5.0 ppm
(3) 0.005 ppm (4) 5.0 ppm 60. dksj yEckbZ a rFkk ijek.kq dh f=T;k r okyh FCC
,dd dksf"Bdk ds lanHkZ esa lgh dFku dk p;u
60. Select the correct statement regarding FCC unit
cell having edge length a and radius of atom r
dhft,
(1) a = 2 2 r
(1) a = 2 2 r
(2) It contains 4 atoms per unit cell

(2) blesa çfr ,d dksf"Bdk 4 ijek.kq gSa
(3) Packing efficiency is 74% (3) ladqyu n{krk 74% gS

61. Negative deviation solution among the following 61. fuEufyf[kr esa ls _.kkRed fopyu okyk foy;u
is/are gS@gSa
(1) Phenol and aniline (1) QhukWy rFkk ,fuyhu
(2) Benzene and toluene (2) csUthu rFkk VkWywbZu
(3) Ethanol and acetone
(3) ,FksukWy rFkk ,lhVksu
(4) All of these
(4) buesa ls lHkh
62. Which of the following is true?
62. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk lgh gS\
(1) mKCl − mNaCl = mKBr − mNaBr
o o o o
(1) m
o
KCl − m
o
NaCl = m
o
KBr − m
o
NaBr
(2) mKCl + mNaCl = mKBr + mNaBr

o o o o
(2) m
o
KCl + m
o
NaCl = m
o
KBr + m
o
NaBr
(3) mKCl − mNaBr = mKBr − mNaCl

o o o o
(3) m
o
KCl − m
o
NaBr = m
o
KBr − m
o
NaCl
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63. If half life of a first order reaction is 2 min then the 63. ;fn ,d çFke dksfV vfHkfØ;k dh v/kZ vk;q 2 feuV
ratio of initial rate to the rate after two half lives is gks] rks çkjfEHkd osx o nks v/kZ vk;q ds ckn osx dk
1 1 vuqikr gS
(1) (2)
2 4 1 1
(1) (2)
2 4 2 4
(3) (4)
1 1 2 4
(3) (4)
64. Positively charged sol among the following is 1 1
(1) Copper sol (2) As2S3 sol 64. fuEufyf[kr esa ls /kukosf'kr lkWy gS
(3) Haemoglobin (4) Gelatin (1) dkWij lkWy (2) As2S3 lkWy
65. Oxide ore among the following is (3) gheksXyksfcu (4) ftysfVu
(1) Cuprite (2) Zinc blende 65. fuEufyf[kr esa ls vkWDlkbM v;Ld gS
(1) D;wçkbZV (2) ftad Cys.M
(3) Cryolite (4) Malachite
(3) Øk;ksykbV (4) esykdkbV
66. P4 + NaOH gives sodium salt of
66. P4 + NaOH ls fdldk lksfM;e yo.k çkIr gksrk gS\
(1) Phosphinic acid
(1) QkWLQhfud vEy
(2) Phosphoric acid
(2) QkWLQksfjd vEy
(3) Pyrophosphorous acid
(3) ik;jksQksWLQksjl vEy
(4) Metaphosphoric acid
(4) esVkQkWLQksfjd vEy
67. Fusion of chromite ore with sodium carbonate in
free access of air gives 67. ok;q ds eqDr vkf/kD; esa lksfM;e dkcksZuVs ds lkFk
(1) Na2CrO4 (2) Fe2O3
ØksekbV v;Ld ds xyu ij çkIr gksrk gS
(1) Na2CrO4 (2) Fe2O3
(3) CO2 (4) All of these
(3) CO2 (4) buesa ls
lHkh
68. Total number of geometrical isomers possible for
MABXL type square planar complex is
68. MABXL çdkj ds oxZ leryh; ladqy ds fy, laHko
(1) 2 (2) 3
T;kferh; leko;fo;ksa dh dqy la[;k gS
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5
(3) 4 (4) 5
H O+ H O+
69. CH3Cl ⎯⎯⎯
KCN
→ A ⎯⎯⎯
3
→B 69. CH3Cl ⎯⎯⎯
KCN
→ A ⎯⎯⎯
3
→B
The product B is mRikn B gS
(1) CH3OH (2) C2H5OH (1) CH3OH (2) C2H5OH
(3) CH3CHO (4) CH3COOH (3) CH3CHO (4) CH3COOH
70. Which of the following on reaction with Grignard 70. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlds lkFk fxzXukMZ vfHkdeZd dh
reagent followed by hydrolysis form alcohol? vfHkfØ;k o ckn esa ty vi?kVu ij ,YdksgkWy çkIr
(1) HCHO (2) CH3CHO gksrk gS?
(3) CH3COCH3 (4) All of these (1) HCHO (2) CH3CHO
(3) CH3COCH3 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
CHO
71. | ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Conc. NaOH
→A CHO
lkUæ NaOH
CHO 71. | ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →A
CHO
Product A is mRikn A gS
COOH CH2OH COOH CH2OH
(1) | (2) | (1) | (2) |
COOH COOH COOH COOH
CH2ONa CH2OH CH2ONa CH2OH
(3) | (4) | (3) | (4) |
COOH COONa COOH COONa
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@AakashDelhi02
72. Which of the following can give carbylamine test? 72. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,d dkfcZy,ehu ijh{k.k ns
(1) CH3NH2 (2) CH3 − CH − NH2 ldrk gS?
| (1) CH3NH2 (2) CH3 − CH − NH2
CH3 |
CH3
CH3
| CH3
(3) CH3 − C − NH2 (4) All of these |
| (3) CH3 − C − NH2 (4) buesa ls lHkh
CH3 |
CH3
73. Which among the following will not react with
Tollen’s reagent? 73. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,d VkWyus vfHkdeZd ds
(1) D-Mannose (2) D-fructose lkFk vfHkfØ;k ugha djsxk?
(3) Sucrose (4) Lactose (1) D-esukst (2) D-ÝDVkst
74. Monomer(s) of dacron is/are (3) lwØkst (4) ySDVkst
(1) Ethane-1, 2-diol (2) Terephthalic acid 74. MsØkWu dk ,dyd gS@gSa
(3) Acrylonitrile (4) Both (1) and (2) (1) ,Fksu-1, 2-MkbZvkWy (2) Vsjs¶FkSfyd vEy
75. Maximum sweetners value is of (3) ,fØyksukbVªkbZy (4) (1) rFkk (2) nksuksa
(1) Aspartame (2) Saccharin 75. vf/kdre ehBkiu eku okyk gS
(3) Sucralose (4) Alitame (1) ,LikVsZe (2) lSdfju
76. Most basic among the following in aqueous (3) lwØkykst (4) ,fyVse
medium is 76. fuEufyf[kr esa ls tyh; ekè;e esa vR;f/kd {kkjh; gS
(1) (CH3)2NH (2) CH3NH2 (1) (CH3)2NH (2) CH3NH2
(3) (CH3)3N (4) NH3 (3) (CH3)3N (4) NH3
77. Which among the following will not give iodoform 77. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,d vk;ksMksQkWeZ vfHkfØ;k
reaction? ugha nsxk?
(1) HCHO (2) CH3CHO (1) HCHO (2) CH3CHO
(3) CH3COCH3 (4) C2H5OH (3) CH3COCH3 (4) C2H5OH
78. In Carius method of estimation of halogen, 0.20 g 78. gSykstu ds vkdyu dh dsfj;l fof/k esa 0.20 g
of an organic compound give 0.188 g of AgBr. dkcZfud ;kSfxd 0.188 g AgBr nsrk gSA
The % of bromine in the compound is (Molar ;kSfxd esa czksehu dk çfr'kr gS (Ag dk eksyj
mass of Ag = 108 g mol–1, molar mass of Br = 80
æO;eku = 108 g mol–1, Br dk eksyj æO;eku = 80 g
g mol–1)
mol–1)
(1) 10% (2) 20% (1) 10% (2) 20%
(3) 30% (4) 40% (3) 30% (4) 40%
79. Which of the following yield straight chain 79. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlls lh/kh Ükà[kyk okyk cgqyd
polymer? çkIr gksrk gS?
(1) R4Si (2) R3SiCl (1) R4Si (2) R3SiCl
(3) R2SiCl2 (4) RSiCl3 (3) R2SiCl2 (4) RSiCl3
80. Ratio of radius of fourth orbit of He+ ion to the 80. He+ vk;u dh pkSFkh d{kk rFkk Be3+ vk;u dh
radius of second orbit of Be3+ ion is f}rh; d{kk dh f=T;k dk vuqikr gS
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 4 : 1 (1) 1 : 1 (2) 4 : 1
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 8 : 1 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 8 : 1
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@AakashDelhi02
81. If Kb for ammonia is 2 × 10–5 then the ionisation 81. ;fn veksfu;k dk Kb = 2 × 10–5 gS] rks NH+4 vk;u
constant of NH+4 ion is dk vk;uu fu;rkad gS
(1) 2 × 1010 (2) 2.5 × 10–10 (1) 2 × 1010 (2) 2.5 × 10–10
(3) 5 × 10–10 (4) 5 × 1010 (3) 5 × 10–10 (4) 5 × 1010
82. Which among the following is C-2 epimer of 82. fuEufyf[kr esa ls D-Xywdkst dk C-2 ,fiej dkSulk
D-glucose? gS?
(1) D-galactose (2) D-Mannose (1) D-xSysDVkst (2) D-eSukst
(3) D-Allose (4) D-Fructose (3) D-,sykst (4) D-ÝDVkst
83. Select the complex ion, which is paramagnetic in 83. vuqpqEcdh; çd`fr okyk ladqy vk;u gS
nature? (1) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Co(C2O4)3]3–
(1) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Co(C2O4)3]3– (3) [Zn(H2O)6]2+ (4) [Co(CN)6]3–
(3) [Zn(H2O)6]2+ (4) [Co(CN)6]3– 84. O2 ds çfrvkca/kh v.kq d{kd esa mifLFkr bysDVªkWuksa
84. Total number of electrons present in antibonding dh dqy la[;k gS
molecular orbital of O2 is
(1) 2 (2) 4
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8
(3) 6 (4) 8 85. 400°C ij nks eksy vkn'kZ xSl lerkih; o
85. Two moles of ideal gas expand isothermally and mRØe.kh; :i ls vius nqxus vk;ru rd çlkfjr
reversibly to double its volume at 400°C. The gksrh gSA çØe ds nkSjku ,UVªkWih ifjorZu gS
entropy change during the process is
(log 2 = 0.3)
(log 2 = 0.3)
(1) 6.74 J (2) 11.5 J
(1) 6.74 J (2) 11.5 J
(3) 15.61 J (4) 19.5 J
(3) 15.61 J (4) 19.5 J
86. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ty;ksftr vk;u jaxhu
86. Which of the following aquated ion is not ugha gksrk gS\
coloured?
(1) Ti4+ (2) V3+
(1) Ti4+ (2) V3+
(3) Mn3+ (4) Cr2+
(3) Mn3+ (4) Cr2+
87. fuEufyf[kr esa ls vR;f/kd {kkjh; çd`fr dk dkSulk
87. Which of the following is most basic in nature?
gS?
(1) La(OH)3 (2) Yb(OH)3
(1) La(OH)3 (2) Yb(OH)3
(3) Eu(OH)3 (4) Ce(OH)3 (3) Eu(OH)3 (4) Ce(OH)3
88. Reduction potential of hydrogen electrode at the 88. 1 atm H2(g) nkc o pH = 1 ij gkbMªkt
s u bysDVªkWM
pH of 1 and at 1 atm of H2(g) pressure is
dk vip;u foHko gS
(1) –0.0591 V (2) 1 V
(1) –0.0591 V (2) 1 V
(3) +0.0591 V (4) 0 V (3) +0.0591 V (4) 0 V
89. For the reaction A + B → product following data 89. vfHkfØ;k A + B → mRikn ds fy, fuEufyf[kr
were obtained.
vkadM+s çkIr gq,A
[A] [B] Initial rate
[A] [B] çkjfEHkd nj
(i) 0.1 0.1 0.04
(i) 0.1 0.1 0.04
(ii) 0.2 0.1 0.04 (ii) 0.2 0.1 0.04
(iii) 0.1 0.2 0.16 (iii) 0.1 0.2 0.16
Overall order of the reaction is vfHkfØ;k dh lexz dksfV gS
(1) 0 (2) 1 (1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3 (3) 2 (4) 3
@AakashDelhi02
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90. Consider the following reaction 90. uhps nh x;h vfHkfØ;k ij fopkj dhft,
CH3 CH3
| |
CH3 − C − Br + CH3CH2ONa + → P(Major) CH3 − C − Br + CH3 CH2ONa + → P( eq[; )
| |
CH3 CH3
Major product P is eq[; mRikn P gS

(1) CH − C = CH (1) CH − C = CH
3 2 3 2
| |
CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3
| |
(2) CH3 − C − OC2H5 (2) CH3 − C − OC2H5
| |
CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3
| |
(3) CH3 − C − CH2 − OCH3 (3) CH3 − C − CH2 − OCH3
| |
CH3 CH3
(4) CH − CH − CH − OC H (4) CH − CH − CH − OC H
3 2 2 5 3 2 2 5
| |
CH3 CH3
91. Select the wrong statement about prokaryotic 91. çkdSfj;ksfVd dksf'kdkvksa ds fy, xyr dFku dk
cells. p;u dhft,A
(1) There is no well defined nucleus (1) buesa lqLi"V dsUæd ugha gksrk
(2) The genetic material is naked (2) vkuqoaf'kd inkFkZ vukofjr gksrk gS
(3) All prokaryotes have a cell wall surrounding (3) lHkh çksdSfj;ksV~l esa dksf'kdk f>Yyh dks pkjksa
the cell membrane. vksj ls ?ksjus okyh dksf'kdh fHkfÙk gksrh gS
(4) They have 70 S ribosomes (4) buesa 70 S jkbckslkse gksrs gS
92. Eukaryotic flagella and centriole share similarity 92. ;wdSfj;ksfVd d'kkfHkdk rFkk rkjdsUæ esa lekurk,a
as both of them gksrh gS D;ksafd
(1) Are found in higher plant cells (1) ;s nksuksa mPprj ikni dksf'kdkvksa esa ik;s tkrs gSa
(2) Are surrounded by membrane (2) ;s nksuksa f>Yyh }kjk f?kjh jgrs gSa
(3) Has ‘9 + 2’ organisation of microtubules (3) bu nksuksa esa lw{eufydkvksa dk ‘9 + 2’ la?kVu
(4) Have tubulin proteins

gksrk gS
(4) bu nksuksa esa V~;c
w qfyu çksVhu gksrs gSa
93. Histone protein synthesis occurs in
93. fgLVksu çksVhu dk la'ys"k.k gksrk gS
(1) G1 phase
(1) G1 çkoLFkk esa
(2) S phase
(2) S çkoLFkk esa
(3) G2 phase
3) G2 çkoLFkk esa
(4) M phase (4) M çkoLFkk esa
(17)
@AakashDelhi02
94. Select the incorrect match 94. vlqesfyr dk p;u dhft,

(1) Zygotene : Synapsis occurs (1) tk;xksVhu : esa flusfIll gksrk gS
(2) Pachytene : Crossing over takes place (2) iSdhVhu : esa thu fofue; gksrk gS
(3) Diplotene : Dissolution of synaptonemal (3) fMIyksVhu : esa flusIVksfuey ladqy dk
complex fo;kstu gksrk gS
(4) Diakinesis : Nucleolus reappears (4) Mk;dkbusfll : esa dsUæhdk iqu% fn[kkbZ nsrh gS
95. Correct binomial epithet of mango is 95. vke dk lgh fnuke ladsr in gS
(1) Mangifera indica (1) Mangifera indica
(2) Mangifera indica Linn. (2) Mangifera indica Linn.
(3) Mangifera indica Linn.
(3) Mangifera indica Linn.
(4) Mangifera Indica Linn.
(4) Mangifera Indica Linn.
96. Select the incorrect statement
(1) gjcsfj;e] ofxZdh; vè;;uksa esa lanHkZ ds 'kh?kz
(1) Herbarium serves as quick source of L=ksr ds :i esa dk;Z djrk gS
reference in taxonomical studies
(2) ouLifr m|ku ikniksa ds Lo&LFkkus laj{k.k dh
(2) Botanical garden is ‘in-situ’ conservation
strategy of plants
uhfr gksrh gS
(3) laxzgky;ksa esa ifjjf{kr ikniksa o tarqvksa dk
(3) Museums have collection of preserved plants
and animals laxzg.k fd;k tkrk gS
(4) National Zoological Park (Delhi) is one of the (4) jk"Vªh; tarq m|ku (fnYyh) ,f'k;k ds lcls vPNs
finest zoos of Asia fpfM+;k?kjksa esa ls ,d gS
97. Viroids differ from Prions in 97. fojkWM~l] fçvkWu ls fHkUu gksrs gS D;ksfa d fojkWbM~l
(1) Having protein molecules (1) çksVhu v.kq ;qDr gksrs gSa
(2) Having genetic material (2) vkuqoaf'kd inkFkZ ;qDr gksrs gSa
(3) Being infectious (3) laØked gksrs gSa
(4) Being sub viral agent (4) mi-fo"kk.kqd dkjd gksrs gSa
98. The imperfect fungi which are decomposers of 98. dwM+s djdV ds vi?kVd rFkk [kfut pØ.k esa
litter and help in mineral cycling lgk;d viw.kZ dod
(1) Have aseptate and coenocytic mycelium (1) esa iVjfgr rFkk ladksf'kdh dodtky gksrk gS
(2) Reproduce sexually by spore formation (2) chtk.kq fuekZ.k }kjk ySafxd :i ls tuu djrh gS
(3) Include mushrooms and morels (3) esa e'k:e rFkk eksjsYl 'kkfey gS
(4) Asexually reproduce by means of conidia (4) dksfufM;k ds }kjk vySafxd :i ls tuu djrh gS
99. Insectivorous plants trap insects to meet their 99. dhVgkjh ikni] dhVks dks idM+dj viuh ukbVªkt s u
nitrogen needs, still they are placed in the dh vko';drkvksa dks iwjk djrs gSa fQj Hkh bUgsa ikni
kingdom plantae because txr esa oxhZd`r fd;k x;k gS D;ksfa d
a. They are multicellular a. ;s cgqdksf'kdh; gksrs gSa
b. They are photosynthetic b. ;s çdk'kla'ys"kh gksrs gSa
c. They are eukaryotic c. ;s ;wdSfj;ksfVd gksrs gS
d. They are heterotrophic d. ;s fo"keiks"kh gksrs gSa
(1) Only a and b (2) Only b (1) dsoy a rFkk b (2) dsoy b
(3) Only d (4) All a, b and c (3) dsoy d (4) lHkh a, b rFkk c
(18)@AakashDelhi02
100. The correct floral formula for family Solanaceae 100. lksysul
s h dqy ds fy, lgh iq"ih; lw= gS
is
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3) (4)
(4) 101. llhek{kh iq"iØe esa
101. In cymose inflorescence, (1) iq"ioàr dh vlhfer o`f) gksrh gS
(1) Peduncle has unlimited growth (2) eq[; v{k] ,d iq"i esa lekIr gksrk gS
(2) The main axis terminates into a flower (3) iq"i vxzfHklkjh Øe esa mRiUu gksrs gSa
(3) The flowers are borne in acropetal order (4) r:.k iq"i] 'kh"kZ dh vksj mifLFkr gksrs gSa
(4) Younger flowers are present towards the apex 102. f}chti=h ewy] ,dchti=h ewy ls fHkUu gksrh gS
102. Dicot root differs from monocot root
D;ksfa d f}chti=h ewy esa
(1) vjh; laogu iwy gkrs gSa
(1) In having radial vascular bundles
(2) çkFkfed tkbye dh cká vkfnnk:d çdkj dh
(2) In having exarch type of arrangement of
primary xylem O;oLFkk gksrh gS
(3) In showing secondary growth (3) f}Ùkh;d o`f) gksrh gS
(4) In having root hairs (4) ewy jkse mifLFkr gksrs gS
103. Ground tissue of leaf 103. i.kZ ds Hkj.k mÙkd

(1) Does not have chlorophyll containing cells (1) esa i.kZgfje ;qDr dksf'kdk,a ugha gksrh gS
(2) Is not differentiated into cortex and pith (2) oYdqV o eTtk esa foHksfnr ugha gksrs
(3) Comprises of palisade parenchyma only (3) dsoy [kEHk e`nÙw kd ls cus gksrs gSa
(4) Mainly consists of sclerenchymatous cells (4) eq[;r% n`<k+ sÙkdh; dksf'kdkvksa ls cus gksrs gSa
104. Select the mismatched option 104. vlqesfyr fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Selaginella – Heterosporous (1) flySftustk – fo"kechtk.kqd
(2) Funaria – Independent gametophyte (2) ¶;wufs j;k – Lora= ;qXedksn~fHkn
(3) Cycas – Monoecious (3) lkbdl – mHk;fyaxkJ;h
(4) Volvox – Colonial algae (4) okWYokWDl – fuogh 'kSoky
105. Life cycle of Fucus and Polysiphonia respectively 105. ¶;wdl rFkk ikWyhlkbQksfu;k dk thou&pØ Øe'k%
are gksrk gS
(1) Haplontic and Haplodiplontic (1) vxqf.krdh rFkk vxqf.kr-f}xqf.krdh
(2) Diplontic and Haplodiplontic (2) f}xqf.krdh rFkk vxqf.kr-f}xqf.krdh
(3) Haplodiplontic and Diplontic (3) vxqf.kr-f}xqf.krdh rFkk f}xqf.krdh
(4) Haplodiplontic and Haplontic (4) vxqf.kr-f}xqf.krdh rFkk vxqf.krdh
106. In plants, passive absorption of water 106. ikniksa esa ty dk gksus okyk fuf"Ø; vo'kks"k.k
(1) Is symplastic (1) fleIykfLVd gksrk gS
(2) Is responsible for 96% of total water (2) ty ds dqy vo'kks"k.k ds 96% çfr'kr ds fy,
absorption mÙkjnk;h gksrk gS
(3) Is water absorption by the roots (3) ewy ds }kjk gksus okyk ty vo'kks"k.k gksrk gS
(4) Has low rate of absorption (4) vo'kks"k.k dh fuEu nj dks n'kkZrk gS
(19)@AakashDelhi02
107. Solute potential of a solution is 107. ,d foy;u dk foys; foHko

(1) Equal to w of pure water (1) 'kq) ty ds w ds leku gksrk gS
(2) Any positive value (2) dksbZ Hkh /kukRed eku gksrk gS
(3) Negative (3) _.kkRed gksrk gS
(4) Zero (4) 'kwU; gksrk gS
108. ______ is required in synthesis of auxin. 108. ______ vkWfDlu ds la'ys"k.k ds vko';d gksrk gSA
(1) B (2) Zn (1) B (2) Zn

(3) Mn (4) S
(3) Mn (4) S
109. ukbVªkl
s kseksukl o ukbVªkscsDVj
109. Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter
a. Loiks"kh gksrs gSa
a. Are autotrophs b. i.kZgfje ;qDr gksrs gSa
b. Have chlorophyll c. [kk| ds la'ys"k.k ds fy, lkSj-ÅtkZ dk mi;ksx
c. Use solar energy for synthesis of food djrs gSa
(1) Only a (2) Only a and c (1) dsoy a (2) dsoy a rFkk c
(3) Only b and c (4) All a, b and c (3) dsoy b rFkk c (4) a, b rFkk c lHkh
110. Plants which show Kranz anatomy 110. ØsUt 'kkjhfjdh n'kkZus okys ikni
(1) dh iwy vkPNn dksf'kdkvksa esa dsoy isidst
(1) Have PEPcase only in bundle sheath cells
gksrk gS
(2) Have Calvin cycle in mesophyll cells
(2) dh i.kZeè;ksÙkd dksf'kdkvksa esa dSfYou pØ
(3) Show double carboxylation gksrk gS
(4) Show photorespiration (3) f}dkcksZfDlyhdj.k n'kkZrs gSa
111. Cyclic photophosphorylation (4) çdk'k'olu n'kkZrs gSa
(1) Involves production of NADPH 111. pfØ; çdk'kQkWLQksfjyhdj.k
(2) Synthesises ATP (1) esa NADPH dk mRiknu gksrk gS
(3) Involves splitting of H2O (2) esa ATP dk la'ys"k.k gksrk gS

(3) H2O esa foikVu esa 'kkfey gksrk gS
(4) Requires H2O as an external source of
electrons (4) esa bysDVªkWu ds cká L=ksr ds :i esa H2O dh
112. Which of these statements is correct?
vko';drk gksrh gS
112. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk dFku lgh gS?
(1) R.Q. of oxalic acid is 4.0
(1) vkWDtsfyd vEy dk R.Q. 4.0 gS
(2) All enzymes of Krebs cycle are found in matrix
of mitochondria (2) ØsCl pØ ds lHkh ,atkbe ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k ds
eSfVªDl esa ik;s tkrs gSa
(3) Glycolysis releases 2 molecules of CO2
(3) Xykbdksfyfll esa CO2 ds nks v.kq eqDr gksrs gSa
(4) Link reaction or transition reaction does not
(4) la;ksth vfHkfØ;k ;k laØe.k vfHkfØ;k esa dksbZ
release any NADH2
NADH2 eqDr ugha gksrk
113. Which of the following processes take(s) place in
113. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulh çfØ;k ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k ds
matrix of mitochondria?
eSfVªDl esa ?kfVr gksrh gS?
a. Formation of acetyl CoA
a. ,lhfVy CoA dk fuekZ.k
b. Citric acid cycle
b. flfVªd vEy pØ
c. Lactic acid fermentation c. ySfDVd vEy dk fd.ou
(1) Only a (2) Only c (1) dsoy a (2) dsoy c
(3) Only b and c (4) Only a and b (3) dsoy b rFkk c (4) dsoy a rFkk b
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114. Terpenes derivative phytohormone is 114. Vjihu O;qRiu iknigkWeksZu gS

(1) Gibberellic acid (1) ftCcjsfyd vEy
(2) Ethylene (2) ,fFkyhu
(3) Indole-3-acetic acid (3) bUMksy-3-,lhfVd vEy
(4) Abscisic acid (4) ,fClfld vEy

115. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks i<+dj lgh fodYi dk p;u
correct option. dhft,A
Statement-A : Apical bud secretes auxin which dFku-A : 'kh"kZ dfydk] vkWfDlu dk L=ko djrh gS
inhibits the growth of lateral buds. tks ik'oZ dfydkvksa dh o`f) dks jksdrh gSA
Statement-B : Cytokinins occur in regions where dFku-B : lkbVksdkbfuu mu Hkkxksa esa mifLFkr gksrs gSa
rapid cell division occurs. tgk¡ rhoz dksf'kdk foHkktu gksrk gSA
(1) Only statement A is correct (1) dsoy dFku A lgh gS
(2) Only statement B is correct (2) dsoy dFku B lgh gS
(3) Both statements A and B are correct (3) dFku A rFkk B nksuksa lgh gSa
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect (4) dFku A rFkk B nksuksa xyr gSa
116. Select the incorrect match. 116. vlqesfyr dk p;u dhft,A

(1) Rhizome : Ginger (1) çdan : vnjd
(2) Tuber : Tomato (2) dan : VekVj
(3) Offset : Eichhornia (3) HkwLrkjh : vkbdkWfuZ;k
(4) i=çdfydk : vkxso
(4) Bulbil : Agave
117. Interflowering period is not seen in
117. varjiq"iu vof/k fdlesa ugha ik;h tkrh?
(1) ukjaxh (2) ewyh
(1) Orange (2) Radish
(3) lsc (4) dVgy
(3) Apple (4) Jackfruit
118. In angiosperms, male gametes are formed by
118. ,aftvksLieZ esa uj ;qXed A }kjk fufeZr gksrs gS
A which B . tks B .
Complete the above statement by choosing the lgh fodYi dk p;u dj mijksDr dFku dks iw.kZ
correct option. dhft,A
A B A B
(1) Vegetative cell Is small in size (1) dkf;d dksf'kdk NksVs vkdkj dh gksrh gS
(2) Generative cell Has large irregularly (2) tuu dksf'kdk esa cMs vfu;fer vkdkj
shaped nucleus dk dsUæd gksrk gS
(3) Vegetative cell Has abundant food (3) dkf;d dksf'kdk esa çpqj [kk| lap; gksrk
reserves gS
(4) Generative cell Is spindle shaped (4) tuu dksf'kdk rdwZ vkdkjh gksrh gS
119. All of the following are characteristics of insect 119. fdldh vfrfjDr 'ks"k lHkh y{k.k dhV ijkfer iq"iks
pollinated flowers, except ds gksrs gSa
(1) Colourful, fragrant (1) jaxhu] lqxa/k;qDr
(2) Large feathery stigma (2) cMs ia[k;qDr ofrZdkxz
(3) Nectaries are present (3) edjndks"kks dh mifLFkfr
(4) Sticky pollen grain (4) fpifpis ijkxd.k
(21)@AakashDelhi02
120. In which of the following organisms, female can 120. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl tho esa eknk nks çdkj ds
produce two types of gametes? ;qXed mRiUu djrh gSa?
(1) Humans (2) Grasshopper (1) ekuo (2) fVM~Mk
(3) Butterflies (4) Drosophila (3) frryh (4) MªkslksfQyk
121. Choose the incorrect statement about sickle-cell 121. nk= dksf'kdk vjDrrk ds fy, xyr dFku dk p;u
anaemia
dhft,A
(1) It is an autosomal recessive disease
(1) ;g ,d vfyaxlw=h vçHkkoh jksx gS
(2) Individuals with genotype HbA HbS are normal
(2) thuç:i HbA HbS ;qDr tho lkekU; gksrs gSa
(3) The disease/defect is caused by transition
(3) ;g jksx@fodkj] laØe.k mRifjrZu }kjk mRiUu
mutation
gksrk gS
(4) The disease is controlled by a single pair of
allele (4) ;g jksx fodYih ds ,dy ;qXe }kjk fu;af=r
gksrk gS
122. Choose the odd one w.r.t. Turner’s syndrome
122. VuZj fl.Mªkse ds lanHkZ esa fo"ke dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Due to monosomy
(1) ,dU;wulw=rk ds dkj.k gksrk gS
(2) Genetic compliment is 44 + XXY
(2) vkuqoaf'kd iwjd 44 + XXY gksrk gS
(3) Are sterile females
(3) eknk,a cè; gksrh gSa
(4) Have short stature
(4) dk; dk vkdkj NksVk gksrk gS
123. If the sequence of coding strand in a transcription
unit is written as follows 123. ;fn ,d vuqys[ku bZdkbZ esa dksfMax jTtqd dk
5GGCCTTAATGGCG3 then what will be the vuqØe 5GGCCTTAATGGCG3 :i esa fy[kk tkrk
sequence of complementary strand in 3 – 5 gS rc 3 – 5 fn'kk esa iwjd jTtqd dk vuqØe D;k
direction gksxk?
(1) 5CCGGAATTACCGC3 (1) 5CCGGAATTACCGC3
(2) 3CCGGAATTACCGC5 (2) 3CCGGAATTACCGC5
(3) 5GGCCAATTACCGC3 (3) 5GGCCAATTACCGC3

(4) 3GGGGAATTACGCC5
(4) 3GGGGAATTACGCC5
124. vlqesfyr ;qXe dk p;u dhft,A
124. Select the incorrectly matched pair
(1) vuqdwyd v.kq – tRNA
(1) Adapter molecule – tRNA
(2) LuiZl v.kq – SnRNA + çksVhu ladqy
(2) Snurps – SnRNA + protein
complex (3) lekid dksMksu – AUG
(3) Stop codon – AUG (4) hnRNA dk vkPNknu – Xokfuy Vªk¡lfQjst

(4) Capping of hnRNA – Guanylyl transferase 125. ySd vkWisjkWu esa ijfe,t ,atkbe fdl thu }kjk
125. In lac operon, enzyme permease is synthesized la'ysf"kr gksrk gS?
by gene (1) ySd z (2) ySd y
(1) lac z (2) lac y (3) ySd a (4) ySd i
(3) lac a (4) lac i 126. ,dy dksf'kdk çksVhu ds lanHkZ esa fo"ke dk irk
126. Find the odd one w.r.t. single cell protein. yxkb;sA
(1) Methylophilus (2) Candida (1) esFkk;yksfQyl (2) dsfUMMk
(3) Fusarium (4) Albugo (3) ¶;wlsfj;e (4) ,Ycwxks
(22)@AakashDelhi02
127. Himgiri is a variety of ______ that is resistant to 127. fgefxjh] rEckdw dh ,d fdLe gksrh gS tks fgy cUV
hill bunt ds fy, çfrjks/kh gskrh gSA
(1) Tobacco (2) Rice (1) rEckdw (2) pkoy
(3) Wheat (4) Turnip (3) xsgw¡ (4) 'kyte
128. Match the following columns and select the
128. fuEufyf[kr dkWyeksa dk feyku dj lgh fodYi dk
correct option
p;u dhft,A
a. Cyclosporin A (i) Monascus purpureus
a. lkbDyksLiksfju A (i) eksukLdl iI;wZfjvl
b. Statins (ii) Lactobacillus
b. LVsfVu (ii) ySDVkscSflyl
c. Streptokinase (iii) Trichoderma
polysporum c. LVªsIVksdkbust (iii) VªkbdksMekZ ikWyhLiksje
d. Lactic acid (iv) Streptococcus d. ySfDVd vEy (iv) LVªsIVksdksdl
a b c d a b c d
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) (1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(4) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
129. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk tSomoZjd ugha gks ldrk?
129. Which of the following cannot be biofertilizers?
(1) thok.kq (2) uhy gfjr 'kSoky
(1) Bacteria (2) Blue green algae
(3) dod (4) fo"kk.kq
(3) Fungi (4) Viruses
130. lHkh i{kh rFkk Lru/kkjh
130. All birds and mammals
(1) vLFkkbZ :i ls rukoiw.kZ vkokl ls vf/kd
(1) Migrate temporarily from the stressful habitat
to a more hospitable area o`f)dj {ks= esa çokl djrs gSa
(2) Are able to maintain homeostasis (2) leLFkkiu O;ofLFkr djus esa l{ke gksrs gSa
(3) Change their body temperature with ambient (3) ifjos'kh rkieku ds lkFk viuh dk; ds rkieku
temperature dks cnyrs gS
131. Declining population 131. ?kVrh gqbZ lef"V
(1) Is called stable population (1) LFkk;h lef"V dgykrh gS
(2) Shows bell shaped age pyramid (2) ?kaVkdkj vk;q fijkfeM n'kkZrh gS
(3) Has less pre-reproductive individuals than (3) esa iwoZ-tuuh; tho] tuuh; thoksa ls de gksrs gS
reproductive
(4) uohu lef"V gksrh gS
(4) Is young population
132. ?kklHkwfe ikfjra= esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk
132. In grassland ecosystem, which of the pyramids
are upright? fijkfeM lh/kk gksrk gS@gksrs gSa?
a. Pyramid of energy a. ÅtkZ dk ifjkfeM
b. Pyramid of number b. la[;k dk fijkfeM
c. Pyramid of biomass c. tSoHkkj dk fijkfeM
(1) Only a (2) Only a and b (1) dsoy a (2) dsoy a rFkk b
(3) Only c (4) All a, b and c (3) dsoy c (4) a, b rFkk c lHkh
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133. Which of the following is not the alien species for 133. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulh Hkkjr ds fy, fons'kh
India? çtkfr ugha gS?
(1) Parthenium (1) ikFksZfu;e
(2) Lantana (2) ysUVkuk
(3) Eichhornia (3) vkbZdksfuZ;k
(4) Saccharum barberi (4) lsdSje ckjcsjh
134. Thinning of egg shells and their premature 134. v.M dopksa dk irykiu rFkk buds le;iwoZ VwVus
breaking is due to
dk dkj.k gS
(1) Eutrophication
(1) lqiks"k.k
(2) Biomagnification
(2) tSovko/kZu
(3) Accumulation of calcium (3) dSfY'k;e dk lap;u
(4) Thermal pollution (4) rki çnq"k.k
135. Photochemical smog does not include 135. çdk'kjlk;fud /kqa/k esa D;k 'kkfey ugha gksrk?
(1) O3 (2) PAN (1) O3 (2) PAN
(3) SO2 (4) NOx (3) SO2 (4) NOx
136. The epithelium found in the lining of stomach and 136. vkek”k; rFkk vkar ds vkLrj eas dkSUlh midyk ik;h
intestine is tkrh gS\
(1) Compound (1) la;qDr
(2) Simple squamous (2) ljy “kYdh
(3) Cuboidal ciliated (3) ?kukdkj i{kekHkh
(4) Simple columnar (4) ljy LraHkkdkj
137. Bones differ from cartilage as the former lacks 137. vfLFk;k¡] mikfLFk ls fHkUUk gksrh gSa D;kasfd vfLFk esa
(1) Pliable matrix (2) Lacunae vHkko gksrk gS]
(1) ueu”khy vk/kk=h dk (2) fjfDrdk dk
(3) Calcium salts (4) Collagen fibres
(3) dSfYl;e yo.k dk (4) dksyktsu rarq dk
138. Match Column I and II w.r.t. secondary
metabolites. 138. f}rh;d mikip;u ds lanHkZ esa dkWye I rFkk II dk
Column I Column II
feyku dhft,A
a. Polymeric substances (i) Cellulose
dkWye I dkWye II
(a) cgqyd inkFkZ (i) lsyqyksl
b. Alkaloids (ii) Curcumin
(b) ,YdkyksbM~l (ii) djD;wfeu
c. Drugs (iii) Codeine
(c) MªXl (iii) dksMhu
d. Lectins (iv) Carotenoids
(d) ysfDVUl (iv) dSjksVhukWbM~~Lk
(v) Concanavalin A
(v) dkSudsukosfyu A
Lkgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
(2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(v) (2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(v)
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(v) (3) a(i), b (iii), c(iv), d(v)
(4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(v) (4) a(i), b (iv), c(ii), d(v)
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139. Which of the following bonds is not formed by 139. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSuls ca/k dk fuekZ.k futZyhdj.k
dehydration? }kjk ugha gksrk gS\
(1) Glycosidic bond (1) XykbdksflfMd ca/k
(2) Peptide bond (2) isIVkbM ca/k
(3) Phosphodiester bond (3) QksLQksMkb,LVj ca/k
(4) Disulphide bond (4) MkblYQkbM ca/k
140. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. enzymes. 140. ,aTkkbe ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) A competitive inhibitor reacts reversibly with (1) ,atkbe&laned dkWeIysDl ds fuek.kZ gsrq ,d
the enzyme to form an enzyme – inhibitor izfrLi/kkZRed laned] ,atkbe ds lkFk mRØe.kh;
complex :i ls vfHkfØ;k djrk gS
(2) Most enzymes are proteins but RNA (2) vf/kdka”k ,atkbe izksVhu gksrs gSa ijarq RNA v.kq]
molecules can also behave as enzymes ,atkbe dh rjg Hkh dk;Z dj ldrs gSa
(3) The catalytic efficiency of two different (3) nks fofHkUUk ,atkbe dh mRizsjdh {kerk dh rqyuk]
enzymes can be compared by their turn over blds VuZ vksoj la[;k }kjk dh tk ldrh gS
number (4) ,d ,atkbe mRiknd esa lClVªsV ds :ikarj.k ds
(4) An enzyme increases the activation energy fy, vko”;d lfØ;.k ÅtkZ dks c<+krk gS
required for the conversion of substrate into 141. dkSulh vojksf/kuh xzg.kh esa vkek”k; ds fNnz dks
product fu;af=r djrh gS\
141. The sphincter that regulates the opening of (1) tBjkxe vojksf/kuh
stomach into the duodenum is
(2) vkek”k;&xzfLkdk vojksf/kuh
(1) Cardiac sphincter
(3) tBjfuxZeh vojksf/kuh
(2) Gastroesophageal sphincter
(4) vksMh dh vojksf/kuh
(3) Pyloric sphincter 142. lDdl ,aVsfjdl eas fdldk L=o.k lfEefyr gksrk
(4) Sphincter of Oddi gS\
142. Succus entericus includes secretion of (1) yhcjdqu&izxqfgdk
(1) Crypts of Lieberkuhn (2) vXuk”k;h ,fduh
(2) Pancreatic acini (3) tBj “ys’e xzhok dksf”kdk,¡
(3) Gastric mucus neck cells (4) ;Ñr ikfydk,¡
(4) Hepatic lobules 143. vkWDlhgheksXyksfcu ds lanHkZ eas xyr dFku dk p;u
143. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. dhft,A
oxyhaemoglobin. (1) vEyrk eas of) ds dkj.k og Ård ds fudV
(1) It dissociates near tissues due to increase in fo;ksftr gks tkrk gS
acidity (2) O2 ds lkFk la;kstu ds fy, gheksXyksfcu ds 1
(2) The capacity of 1 g of haemoglobin to xzke dh {kerk 1.34 feyh- gksrh gS
combine with O2 is 1.34 ml (3) dkcZu eksuksvkWDlkbM fo’kkDrrk ds nkSjku bldh
(3) Its concentration is increased during carbon lkanzrk c<+ tkrh gS
monoxide poisoning (4) vkWDlhgheksXyksfcu fo;kstu oØ flXekHk vkdkj
(4) The oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve is dk gksrk gS
sigmoid in shape 144. ,d fpjdkfyd “olu fodkj ftls ok;q dwfidk dh
144. A chronic respiratory disorder characterised by fHkfÙk;ksa dh izR;kLFkrk ds ál }kjk vfHkyf{kr fd;k
loss of elasticity of walls of alveoli is tkrk gS] dgykrk gS
(1) Asthma due to allergic conditions (1) ,ythZ; ifjfLFkfr;ksa ds dkj.k nek
(2) Emphysema due to excessive smoking (2) vR;f/kd /kqeziku ds dkj.k okrLQhfr
(3) Common cold caused due to Rhino viruses (3) jkbuks fo’kk.kqvksa ds dkj.k lkekU; tqdke
(4) Pneumonia due to bacterial infection (4) thokf.od laØe.k ds dkj.k U;qeksfu;k
(25)@AakashDelhi02
145. Conditional reabsorption of mainly Na+ from DCT 145. fdlds izR;{k izHkko ds varxZr DCT ls eq[;r% Na+
occurs under the direct influence of dk izfrcaf/kr iqujko”kks’k.k gksrk gS\
(1) ADH (1) ADH
(2) Aldosterone (2) ,YMksLVhjksu

(3) ANF (3) ANF
(4) Renin (4) jsfuu

146. How many of the animals given in the box below 146. uhps fn;s x, ckWDl eas fdrus izk.kh ;wfjdvEymRlthZ
are uricotelic? gSa\
Reptiles, birds, cartilaginous fishes, mammals, Lkjhlì] i{kh] mikfLFk;qDr eNfy;k¡] Lru/kkjh]
aquatic insects, Hydra, land snails tyh; dhV] gkbMªk] LFkyh ?kksa?kk
(1) 3 (2) 4 (1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 6 (3) 5 (4) 6
147. The blood vessel that would normally contain 147. fdl jDr okfguh esa lkekU; :i ls ;wfj;k dh ek=k
least amount of urea is lcls de gksrh gS\
(1) Hepatic vein (1) ;Ñr f”kjk
(2) Renal artery
(2) o`Dd /keuh
(3) Hepatic artery
(3) ;Ñr /keuh
(4) Renal vein
(4) o`Dd f”kjk
148. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. blood
corpuscles in a healthy male. 148. LoLFk iq:’k esa jDr df.kdk ds lanHkZ eas xyr feyku
dk p;u dhft;sA
149. ECG esa QRS lfEeJ fdlds izdqapu dks n”kkZrk gS\
149. QRS complex in an ECG represents systole of
(1) Only left ventricle
(1) dsoy ck;ka fuy;
(2) Only left atrium (2) dsoy ck;ka vfyan
(3) Both ventricles (3) nksuksa fuy;
(4) Only right ventricle (4) dsoy nk;ka fuy;
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150. In the diagram given below, A and B respectively 150. uhps fn, x, fp= esa A rFkk B Øe”k% fdlds ca/kd
represent binding sites for LFky dks iznf”kZr djrk gS\
(1) Myosin, actin (2) Actin, ATP

(1) ek;ksflu] ,fDVu (2) ,fDVu, ATP
(3) ATP, myosin (4) Tropomyosin, actin
(3) ATP, ek;ksflu (4) Vªkis ksek;ksflu] ,fDVu
151. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. human rib
cage. 151. ekuo ialyh fiatj ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dk p;u
dhft,A
(1) Vertebrosternal ribs are attached with the
sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage (1) ofVZczkLs VuZy ilfy;k¡] dkpkHk mikfLFk dh
lgk;rk ls mjksfLFk ds lkFk tqMs+ gksrs gSa
(2) The last two pairs of ribs are called vertebral
ribs (2) ilfy;ksa dh vafre nks tksfM+;k¡ ofVZczy ilfy;k¡
dgykrh gSa
(3) Vertebrochondral ribs articulate with the 7th
rib, thus are called false ribs (3) ofVZczkd s kaMªy ilfy;k¡] 7osa ilyh ds lkFk
laf/k;ksftr gksrh gSa blfy, ;s dwV ilfy;k¡
(4) Bicephalic ribs attach to the sternum with 2 dgykrh gSa
heads
(4) f}f”kjLFk ilfy;k¡] mjksfLFkr ds lkFk 2 “kh’kZ ls
152. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. human eye. tqM+rh gS
(1) An aperture called pupil is surrounded by iris 152. ekuo us= ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dk p;u dhft;sA
and is present in front of lens.
(1) I;wfiy uked fNnz vkbfjl ls f?kjk gqvk gksrk gS
(2) Rhodopsin is a purplish red protein present in rFkk ySal ds lkeus mifLFkr gksrk gS
rods only
(2) jksMksfIlu] ,d cSaxuh yky izkV s hu gS tks dsoy
(3) Photoreceptors become depolarised in “kykdk esa mifLFkr gksrk gS
response to light stimulus
(3) izdk”kxzfg;k¡] izdk”k mn~fniu dh izfrfØ;k esa
(4) Fovea lacks rods fo/kzqfor gks tkrh gSa
153. Upon arrival of a stimulus, the polarised state of a (4) Qksfo;k esa “kykdk dk vHkko gksrk gS
resting neuronal membrane is reversed by
153. mn~fniu ds igq¡pus ij foJke raf=dh; f>YYkh dh
(1) Efflux of K+ into ECF /kzqfor voLFkk fdlds }kjk foijhr gks tkrh gS
(2) Activation of Na+ – K+ pump (1) ECF esa K+ ds cfgokZg }kjk
(3) Influx of Na+ into axoplasm (2) Na+ – K+ iai ds lfØ;.k }kjk
(4) Influx of K+ into axoplasm (3) ,DlksIykTe esa Na+ ds varokZg }kjk
154. Which parts of the human brain are responsible (4) ,DlksIykTe esa K+ ds varokZg }kjk
for controlling thermoregulation and respiration 154. ekuo efLr’d dk dkSulk Hkkx Øe”k% rkifu;eu
respectively? rFkk “olu ds fu;a=.k ds fy, mÙkjnk;h gksrk gS\
(1) Pons and medulla oblongata (1) iksal rFkk esMqyk vkscyksaxsVk
(2) Hypothalamus and cerebellum (2) gkbiksFksysel rFkk vuqefLr’d
(3) Hypothalamus and medulla oblongata (3) gkbiksFksysel rFkk esMqyk vkscyksaxsVk
(4) Medulla oblongata and hypothalamus (4) esMqyk vkscyksx a sVk rFkk gkbiksFksysel
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155. Hyposecretion of thyroid hormones can lead to all 155. FkkbjkWbM gkeksZu ds vYiL=o.k ds dkj.k fdlds
the following, except vfrfjDr vU; lHkh gksaxs\
(1) Myxoedema (1) feDlvksMhek
(2) Grave’s disease (2) xzso jksx
(3) Simple goitre (3) ljy xyxaM
(4) Cretinism (4) ØsVhUkrk
156. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. steroid 156. LVhjkWbM gkeksZu ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dk p;u
hormones. dhft;sA
(1) Their receptors are intracellular receptors (1) budh xzkfg;k¡] varjk dksf”kdh; xzkfg;k¡ gksrh gSa
(2) Upon binding with the receptor, they regulate (2) xzkgh ds lkFk tqM+dj ;s thu vfHkO;fDr dks
gene expression fu;af=r djrs gSa
(3) They bring about physiological response (3) ;s cAMP rFkk IP3 ds ekè;e ls fØ;kkRed
through cAMP and IP3 vuqfØ;k ykrs gS
(4) They are slower but long lasting in response (4) fyfiM v?kqyu”khy gkeksZu dh rqyuk esa ;s
as compared to lipid insoluble hormone vuqfØ;k esa /khesa rFkk yEcsa le; ds fy,
157. Which of the following is a correct match of gksrs gSa
animal and its respective taxon? 157. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk izk.kh rFkk blls lacfa /kr
(1) Equus – Perissodactyla oxZd dk lgh feyku gS\
(2) Pinctada – Echinodermata (1) bDoql – isfjLlksMsDVkbyk
(3) Felis – Aves (2) fiadVkMk – ,dkbuksMesZVk
(3) Qsfyl – ,ohT+k
(4) Spider – Insecta
(4) LikbMj – balsDVk
158. A flagellated filter feeder is
158. ,d d”kkHkh fQYVj QhMj gS
(1) Paramoecium (2) Ctenoplana
iSjkehf”k;e
(1) (2) VhuksIykuk
(3) Sycon (4) Hydra
(3) lkbdu (4) gkbMªk
159. Male Periplaneta americana
159. uj isjhIysusVk vesfjdkuk esa
(1) Lacks anal cerci
(1) xwnk ywe dk vHkko gksrk gS
(2) Has caudal styles
(2) iqPN “kwd gksrk gS
(3) Possesses three pairs of wings
(3) rhu tksMh+ ia[k gksrs gS
(4) Has total four jointed legs
(4) dqy pkj laf/k;qDr ikn gksrs gS
160. The alimentary canal of cockroach has all the
160. fdlds vfrfjDr fuEufyf[kr lHkh dkWdjksp ds vkgkj
following, except
uky esa mifLFkr gksrk gS
(1) Crop
(1) “kLFk
(2) Ileum
(2) {kqnzkar
(3) Alary muscles
(3) i{kkdkj is”kh
(4) Malpighian tubules (4) eSyihxh ufydk,¡
161. Choose the incorrect feature w.r.t. Struthio.
161. LVªw fFk;ksa ds lanHkZ esa xyr y{k.k dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Oviparous
(1) vaMt
(2) Air sacs for exchange of gases
(2) xSlksa ds fofue; ds fy, ok;q dks’k
(3) Pneumatic bones
(3) U;qesfVd vfLFk;k¡
(4) Lacks well developed keel
(4) iw.kZ fodflr dhy dk vHkko
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162. A disadvantage of asexual reproduction is that it 162. vySafxd tuu dk ,d uqdlku ;g gS fd ;s

(1) Is rapid (1) rhoz gksrk gS
(2) Is a simple process (2) ,d ljy izfØ;k gS
(3) Is uniparental (3) ,dtudh; gksrk gS
(4) Does not contribute to evolution (4) fodkl esa ;ksxnku ugha nsrk gS
163. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks if<+;sA
A : tksuk isY;qlhMk ,d vdksf”kdh;] izkFkfed ijr
A : Zona pellucida is a non cellular, primary gS tks vaMd vius pkjksa vksj L=kfor djrk gSA
layer secreted by the oocyte around itself.
B : tc rd tksuk isY;qlhMk xHkk”kZ; rd ugha
B : Zona pellucida remains intact until the igq¡p tkrk gS ;g v{kr jgrk gSA
embryo reaches the uterus.
Lkgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
Choose the correct option. (1) dsoy A lgh gS
(1) Only A is correct (2) dsoy B lgh gS
(2) Only B is correct (3) nksuksa A rFkk B xyr gSa
(3) Both A and B are incorrect (4) nksuksa A rFkk B lgh gaS
(1) o`’k.k esa LkLVsUVsdy
w j dksf”kdkvksa }kjk bfUgfcu
L=kfor gksrk gS rFkk FSH ds L=o.k dks lanfer
(1) Inhibin is secreted by sustentacular cells in djrk gS
the testis and inhibits the secretion of FSH (2) LH, fyfMx dh varjkyh dksf”kdkvksa ls
(2) LH triggers the secretion of testosterone from VsLVksLVhjksu ds L=o.k dks izsfjr djrh gS
interstitial cells of Leydig (3) L=h esa] vkroZ LH ltZ ds dkj.k gksrk gS
(3) Menstruation in human females occurs due to (4) ih;w’k dh vxz ikyh FSH L=kfor djrh gS
LH surge ftlds dkj.k vaMk”k;h iqVd dh o`f) gksrh gS
(4) The anterior lobe of pituitary secretes FSH 165. “kqØk.kqtuu izfØ;k esa dk fuekZ.k
which causes growth of ovarian follicle
. Lks gksrk gSA ml fodYi dk p;u dhft,
165. Spermiogenesis is the process of formation of
from . Choose the option that tks fjDr LFkku dh iwfrZ lgh ls djrk gSA
fills the blank correctly.
A B
(1) Spermatozoa Spermatid
(2) Primary Secondary

spermatocyte spermatocyte
(3) Spermatid Spermatozoa
(4) Spermatogonium Primary

spermatocyte
166. Choose the odd one w.r.t. bacterial STI’s.

166. thokf.kd STI’s ds lanHkZ esa ,d fo’ke dk p;u
dhft,A
(1) Syphilis (2) Gonorrhoea
(1) flfQfyl (2) lqtkd
(3) Chlamydiasis (4) Genital herpes (3) DysfefM;rk (4) tufud gihZt
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167. Match Column I and II w.r.t. action of 167. xHkZfujks/kd dh fØ;k ds lanHkZ esa dkWye I rFkk II dk
contraceptives. feyku dhft;sA
Column I Column II dkWye I dkWye II
a. Jellies (i) Anovulation a. tsyh (i) ,uvksoqys”ku
b. izkt s sLVklVZ (ii) “kqØuk'kd
b. Progestasert (ii) Spermicidal
c. dkWij T (iii) “kqØk.kq xfr”khyrk dk neu
c. Copper T (iii) Suppress sperm motility (iv) ;ksfu esa “kqØk.kq ds teko dks
(iv) Prevent deposition of jksduk
sperms into vagina Lkgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
Choose the correct option. (1) a (iv), b (i), c (ii) (2) a (ii), b (i), c (iii)
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) (3) a (ii), b (iii), c (iv) (4) a (iv), b(i), c (iii)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii) 168. pkYlZ MkfoZu ds vuqlkj fdlds vfrfjDr fuEUfyf[kr
168. According to Charles Darwin, all the following can lHkh ds dkj.k fodkl gksrk gS\
cause evolution, except (1) izkÑfrd oj.k
(1) Natural selection (2) lkYVs”ku
(2) Saltation (3) “kk[kkor~ vorj.k
(3) Branching descent (4) fofo/krk
(4) Variations 169. leqnzh ifjfLFkfrd esa igys ls fon~;eku cSaxuh jax ds
169. In a marine ecosystem, an already existing large leqnzh vfpZu dh cM+h lef’V eas o`f) gksrh gS D;ksafd
population of purple coloured sea urchins rkjk ehu vU; jax dks [kk tkrh gSA bl izdkj ds
increases as starfish eats other colours. Such a oj.k n”kkZrk gS]
type of selection represents
(1) fn”kkRed oj.k
(1) Directional selection
(2) LFkk;hdkjd oj.k
(2) Stabilising selection
(3) fofo/krk oj.k
(3) Diversifying selection
(4) fonkjd oj.k
(4) Disruptive selection
170. [kjxks”k rFkk fNidyh ftlus iwoZt lk>k fd;k buds
170. Hindlimb of rabbit and lizard which have shared i”pikn iznf”kZr djrs gSa
ancestry exhibit
(1) letkrrk
(1) Homology
(2) rqY;:irk
(2) Analogy
(3) vfHklkjh fodkl
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) vuqdwyh fofdj.k
(4) Adaptive radiation
171. okrkoj.k eas vkstksu fjfDrdj.k dks esysuksek ds ,d
171. Ozone depletion in atmosphere has been
identified as a major risk of melanoma due to cM+s [krjs ds :i esa igpkuk tkrk gS tks fdlds
excessive exposure to vR;f/kd izHkkou ds dkj.k gksrk gS\
(1) X-rays (2) Gamma rays (1) X-fdj.ksa (2) xkek fdj.ksa
(3) UV rays (4) Visible light (3) UV fdj.ksa (4) izdk”k
172. About 50% of lymphoid tissue in human body is 172. ekuo “kjhj esa ylhdkHk Ård dk yxHkx 50% dk
contributed alone by xBu vdsys fdlds }kjk gksrk gS\
(1) Spleen (2) Thymus (1) Iyhgk (2) Fkkbel
(3) MALT (4) Lymph nodes (3) MALT (4) ylhdk xzafFk;k¡
(30)@AakashDelhi02
173. An addictive compound obtained from Cannabis 173. dSukfcl lSVkbok ls izkIr O;ludkjh ;kSfxd ftls
sativa which is known to affect cardiovascular ân&okfgdk ra= dks izHkkfor djus gsrq tkuk tkrk gS]
system is ;g gS
(1) Heroin (2) Hashish (1) fgjksbu (2) g”kh”k
(3) Cocaine (4) Caffeine (3) dksdsu (4) dSQhu
174. Homozygous pure lines are obtained by 174. le;qXeth “kq)oa”kØe izkIr gksrk gS
(1) Inbreeding (2) Outbreeding (1) var%iztuu }kjk (2) cfg%iztuu }kjk
(3) Crossbreeding (4) Chromosomal DNA (3) ladj.k }kjk (4) xq.klw=h; DNA }kjk
175. The stained DNA can be extracted from agarose 175. fdl izfØ;k }kjk ,sxkjkst tsy ls vfHkjaftr DNA
gel by the process called dks fu’df’kZr fd;k tkrk gS\
(1) Electrophoresis (2) Elution (1) bysDVªkQs ksjsfll (2) {kkyu
(3) Fingerprinting (4) Transformation (3) fQaxjfizafVUx (4) :ikarj.k
176. Stirred tank bioreactors facilitate 176. foyksMd gkSt ck;ksfj,DVj lqxe cukrk gS]
(1) Purification of products (1) mRiknksa ds “kks/ku dks
(2) Filtration of products (2) mRiknksa ds fuL;anu dks
(3) Fermentation of contents (3) Lka?kVdksa ds QesZUVs”ku dks
(4) Segregation of contents for better yield (4) csgrj mit ds fy, lkexzh ds i`FkDdj.k dks
177. A plasmid can be all, except 177. fdlds vfrfjDr IykfTeM vU; lHkh gks ldrs gSa
(1) Circular (2) Double stranded (1) o`Ùkkdkj (2) f}jTtqd
(3) Devoid of histones (4) Chromosomal DNA (3) fgLVksu jfgr (4) xq.klw=h; DNA
178. Corn borer infection in crops can be kept at bay by 178. fdl thu dks vfHkO;fDr djus ds fy, ikni dks
making the plant transgenic to express the gene ikjthoh cukdj Qlyksa esa eDdk Nsnd laØe.k dks
(1) Cry I Ac (2) Cry II Ab nwj j[kk tk ldrk gS\
(3) Cry I Ab (4) Lac Z (1) ØkbZ I ,lh (2) ØkbZ II ,ch
179. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. transgenic (3) ØkbZ I ,ch (4) ySd Z
plants. 179. ikjthoh ikni ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dk p;u
(1) Golden rice is a biofortified crop containing dhft,A
gene for  carotene (1) xksYMsu pkoy ,d tSo vkjf{kr Qly gS ftlesa
(2) They show increased efficiency of mineral  dSjksVhu ds fy, thu gksrk gS
usage (2) ;s [kfut mi;ksx {kerk esa o`f) n”kkZrs gSa
(3) They cause and promote early exhaustion of (3) blds dkj.k gksrk gS rFkk ;s “kh?kz e`nk moZjrk
fertility of soil lekiu dks c<+krk gSa
(4) They are more tolerant to abiotic stresses (4) ;s vtSo izfrcyksa ds izfr vf/kd lfg’.kq gksrs gSa
180. The production of both sense and antisense RNA 180. ijiks’kh dksf”kdkvksa esa nksuksa lsUl rFkk ,aVhlsUl RNA
in host cells leads to mRNA silencing. This ds mRiknu ds dkj.k mRNA fuf’Ø;.k gksrk gSA bl
technique has been used to control nematode rduhd dk mi;ksx fdles lw=Ñfe ds laØe.k dks
infection in
fu;af=r djus ds fy, fd;k tkrk gS
(1) Stem of tobacco plant
(1) rEckdq ikni ds rus esa
(2) Seeds of cotton plant
(2) dikl ikniksa ds cht esa
(3) Roots of tobacco plant
(3) raEckdq ikni ds tM+ esa
(4) Stem of cotton plant
(4) dikl ikniksa ds rus esa
❑ ❑ ❑
@AakashDelhi02
(31)
27/04/2020 CODE-A
MM : 720 Time : 3.00 Hrs.
1. (1) 37. (2) 73. (3) 109. (1) 145. (2)

2. (3) 38. (2) 74. (4) 110. (3) 146 (1)
3. (2) 39. (2) 75. (4) 111. (2) 147. (4)
4. (3) 40. (2) 76. (1) 112. (1) 148. (4)
5. (4) 41. (3) 77. (1) 113. (4) 149. (3)
6. (2) 42. (1) 78. (4) 114. (1) 150. (2)
7. (2) 43. (3) 79. (3) 115. (3) 151. (4)
8. (1) 44. (4) 80. (4) 116. (2) 152. (3)
9. (4) 45. (2) 81. (3) 117. (2) 153. (3)
10. (1) 46. (1) 82. (2) 118. (4) 154. (3)
11. (4) 47. (2) 83. (1) 119. (2) 155. (2)
12. (1) 48. (1) 84. (3) 120. (3) 156. (3)
13. (2) 49. (3) 85. (2) 121. (3) 157. (1)
14. (1) 50. (4) 86. (1) 122. (2) 158. (3)
15. (1) 51. (2) 87. (1) 123. (2) 159. (2)
16. (2) 52. (4) 88. (1) 124. (3) 160. (3)
17. (1) 53. (3) 89. (3) 125. (2) 161. (2)
18. (1) 54. (2) 90. (1) 126. (4) 162. (4)
19. (2) 55. (1) 91. (3) 127. (3) 163. (4)
20. (4) 56. (2) 92. (4) 128. (2) 164. (3)
21. (3) 57. (2) 93. (2) 129. (4) 165. (1)
22. (3) 58. (2) 94. (4) 130. (2) 166. (4)
23. (1) 59. (3) 95. (3) 131. (3) 167. (2)
24. (3) 60. (4) 96. (2) 132. (4) 168. (2)
25. (4) 61. (1) 97. (2) 133. (4) 169. (2)
26. (1) 62. (1) 98. (4) 134. (2) 170. (1)
27. (2) 63. (4) 99. (4) 135. (3) 171. (3)
28. (3) 64. (3) 100. (3) 136. (4) 172. (3)
29. (1) 65. (1) 101. (2) 137. (1) 173. (2)
30. (4) 66. (1) 102. (3) 138. (2) 174. (1)
31. (2) 67. (4) 103. (2) 139. (4) 175. (2)
32. (4) 68. (2) 104. (3) 140. (4) 176. (3)
33. (2) 69. (4) 105. (2) 141. (3) 177. (4)
34. (2) 70. (4) 106. (2) 142. (1) 178. (3)
35. (2) 71. (4) 107. (3) 143. (3) 179. (3)
36. (2) 72. (4) 108. (2) 144. (2) 180. (3)
(1)
@AakashDelhi02
27/04/2020 CODE-A
MM : 720 Time : 3:00 Hrs.

[A] = [x2] = [L2]
[A] = [x2] = [L2]
[x 2 ] (L2 )
Also [B]= = =[M-1T1 ] [x 2 ] (L2 )
(E)(t) (ML2 T -2 )(T) rFkk [B]= = 2 -2
=[M-1T1 ]
(E)(t) (ML T )(T)
Hence [AB] = [M–1 L2 T1]
blfy, [AB] = [M–1 L2 T1]
2. Answer (3)
2. mÙkj (3)
Particle is starting from rest i.e. it starts from one
of its extreme position.
d.k fojke ls xfr çkjEHk djrk gS vFkkZr ;g viuh
fdlh ,d pje fLFkfr ls xfr çkjEHk djrk gSA
3A
cos  = 4=3 3A
A 4 cos  = 4=3
A 4
3
 = cos−1   3
4  = cos−1  
4
 1 3  1
Time taken by particle t = = cos−1   3
  4 d.k }kjk fy;k x;k le; t= = cos−1  
  4
T 3 3
= cos−1   =
T
cos−1  
2 4 2 4
x = 5 + 8 t2 x = 5 + 8 t2
v = 16 t v = 16 t
a = 16 cm/s2 is constant a = 16 cm/s2 fu;r gS
(2)
@AakashDelhi02

v + v  6 f v + v  6 f
fapparent =f 5 = = 1.2 f fvkHkklh = f  5 = = 1.2 f
 v  5  v  5
   
There is no change in wavelength in this case. bl fLFkfr esa rjaxnSè;Z esa dksbZ ifjorZu ugha gksrk gSA
Applying KVL for loop (1) and loop (2) ywi (1) o ywi (2) ds fy, KVL ç;qDr djus ij
1 1
28 I1 = – 6 – 8  I1 = − A 28 I1 = – 6 – 8  I1 = − A
2 2
1 1
54 I2 = – 6 – 12  I2 = − A 54 I2 = – 6 – 12  I2 = − A
3 3
5 5
Hence I3 = I1 + I2 = – A blfy, I3 = I1 + I2 = – A
6 6
5 5
Hence I = – I3 = A blfy, I = – I3 = A
6 6
150 3 150 3
Initially uy = v sin 60º =
2
m/s çkjfEHkd uy = v sin 60º = m/s
2
150 1 150 150 1 150
Finally uy = v sin 45º =  = m/s vfUre uy = v sin 45º =  = m/s
2 2 2 2 2 2
150 150 3 150 150 3
By v y = uy − ay t  = − 10 t v y = uy − ay t }kjk  = − 10 t
2 2 2 2
 10 t =
150
2
( 3 −1 )  10 t =
150
2
( 3 −1 )
t=
15
2
( 3 −1) t=
15
2
( 3 −1 )
 h 
T1 = k  h −  h
2  T1 = k  h − 
  2 
 h   h 
T2 = k  − 0  T2 = k  − 0 
 2   2 
T1 T1
 = 2 −1  = 2 −1
T2 T2
(3)
@AakashDelhi02

fair (  g − 1) fok;q
=
( w g − 1)
=
w
fwater ( a  g − 1) fty ( a g − 1)
3  3 
 − 1  − 1
 fWater =  2  air = 4 fair  fty =  2  ok;q = 4 f aok;q
9  9 
 8 − 1  8 − 1
   
Hence fwater = 15 × 4 = 60 cm blfy, fty = 15 × 4 = 60 cm
Due to voltage drop temperature rise will be less, oksYVrk iru ds dkj.k rki esa o`f) de gksxh]
so the resistance will be less than from previous. blfy, çfrjks/k igys ls de gksxkA
10. Answer (1)
10. mÙkj (1)
Torque about the point of contact is clockwise.
Therefore, centre of mass of spool moves
lEidZ fcUnw ds lkis{k cyk?kw.kZ nf{k.kkorZ gSA blfy,
rightwards. fQjdh dk æO;eku dsUæ nk;h vksj xfr djrk gSA
11. Answer (4) 11. mÙkj (4)
Net electric flux associated with the cube placed in le:i fo|qr {ks= a esa j[ks ?ku ls lEc) usV fo|qr
a uniform electric field is zero. ¶yDl 'kwU; gSA
qinside q
net = uVs = vUnj
0 0
 qinside = 0  qvUnj = 0
12. Answer (1) 12. mÙkj (1)
MV + m (V0 − V ) − ( M − m )V MV + m (V0 − V ) − ( M − m )V
Vcm = Vcm =
2M 2M
Here, V = velocity of ladder (let) ;gk¡, V = lh<+h dk osx (ekuk)
mV0
= mV0
2M =
2M
13. Answer (2)
13. mÙkj (2)
g – g = 2 R cos2 30º
g – g = 2 R cos2 30º
2
 3 3 2 2
= 2R   = R  3 3 2
=  R 2
 = R
 
2 4
 2  4
14. Answer (1)
14. mÙkj (1)
R 1
sin  = = R 1
d 2 sin  = =
d 2
 = 45°
 = 45°
mv
R= R=
mv
qB qB
After coming out B particle will collide with the wall B ls ckgj fudyus ds ckn] d.k nhokj ls Vdjk;sxk
m
time to exit from field t1 = m
4qB {ks= ls ckgj fudyus esa yxk le; t1 =
4qB
(4)
@AakashDelhi02
2m 2m
time spend in region of non magnetic field t2 = vpqEcdh; {ks= esa O;rhr le; t2 =
qB qB
m m
time for returning journey in B, t3 = B esa yksVus ds fy, yxk le; t3 =
4qB 4qB
Total time taken T = t1 + t2 + t3 fy;k x;k dqy le; T = t1 + t2 + t3
m 2m m m 2m m
= + + = + +
4qB qB 4 qB 4qB qB 4 qB
m
=
m
  + 4 =
2qB
  + 4
2qB
15. Answer (1) 15. mÙkj (1)
400
A = 1 − = 0.6 A = 1 −
400
= 0.6
100 100
500 500
B = 1 − = 0.545 B = 1 − = 0.545
1100 1100
Hence A  B blfy, A  B
16. Answer (2) 16. mÙkj (2)
I1N1 I1N1
I1N1 = I2N2  I2 = I1N1 = I2N2  I2 =
N2 N2
140 140
I2 = 7  = 3.5 A I2 = 7  = 3.5 A
280 280
17. Answer (1) 17. mÙkj (1)
For system to be in equilibrium net force on each fudk; ds lkE; esa gksus ds fy, çR;sd vkos'k ij usV
of the charges must be zero. cy 'kwU; gksxkA
Net force on any charge – Q
fdlh vkos'k ij usV cy – Q
2KQ 2 KQ 2 KQq
+ − =0 2KQ 2 KQ 2 KQq
a2 2a 2 a 2 / 2 + − =0
a2 2a 2 a 2 / 2
Q
q= 1 + 2 2  Q
4 q= 1 + 2 2 
4
18. Answer (1)
18. mÙkj (1)
k.dQ.q
df = df =
k.dQ.q
x2 x2
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@AakashDelhi02
Q r +l dx KQq  1 1  Q r +l dx KQq  1 1 
L r x 2
f = kq = −
f = kq
L r x 2
= −
L  r r + L 
 L  r r + L 
KQ.q Qq
KQ.q Qq =
= r (r + L ) 40 r (r + L )
r (r + L ) 40 r (r + L )
19. Answer (2) 19. mÙkj (2)
From basic constraint relation ewy ckè; lEcU/k ls
a1 + a2 = 2a3 a1 + a2 = 2a3
20. Answer (4) 20. mÙkj (4)
At steady state no current will flow through LFkk;h voLFkk esa] la/kkfj= ls dksbZ /kkjk çokfgr ugha
capacitor, gksxh
E 5 E 5
So I = = =1A blfy, I= = =1A
R2 + r 5 R2 + r 5
C C
Charge an each capacitor = 4 çR;sd la/kkfj= ij vkos'k = 4
2 2
3 3
=  4 = 6 C =  4 = 6 C
2 2
Hence Q = 6 × 4 = 24 C blfy, Q = 6 × 4 = 24 C
21. Answer (3) 21. mÙkj (3)
3 3
Bc  R 2 + x 2   R2 + R2 
2 2 3 3
= = Bc  R 2 + x 2  2
 R2 + R2  2
  =  = 
Ba  R 2   R
2
 Ba  R 2  2
 R 
= 2 2 = 2 2
22. Answer (3) 22. mÙkj (3)
Q = (4 × 7.1 – 4(1.15)) MeV Q = (4 × 7.1 – 4(1.15)) MeV
= 23.8 MeV = 23.8 MeV
23. Answer (1) 23. mÙkj (1)
→ → →
→ → →
v =  r
v =  r
= −2iˆ + 3 ˆj + 4kˆ = −2iˆ + 3 ˆj + 4kˆ
→
→
| v |= 22 + 32 + 42
| v |= 22 + 32 + 42
= 29 unit = 29 bdkbZ
24. Answer (3)
24. mÙkj (3)
1 1 1
R 2 − 2 1 1 1
  n1 n2  R 2 − 2
  1
n n2 
1 5 36
 R   32  1 5 36
 32 36 5R  R   32 
 32 36 5R
9 4
Similarly 31  and  21  leku :i ls 31 
9
rFkk  21 
4
8R 3R 8R 3R
 32   32  21
 = 6.4 and 21 = 1.2  = 6.4 rFkk = 1.2
 31  31  31  31
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25. Answer (4) 25. mÙkj (4)

T1 T2 T1 T2
T = + T = +
2 2 2 2
1 m m 1 m m
= 2 + 2  = 2 + 2 
2  k 2k  2  k 2k 
m 1  m 1 
= 1+  = 1+
k  2 k  2

26. Answer (1) 26. mÙkj (1)

1 1 1 1
= = =2 = = =2
sinC sin30º sinC sin30º
Velocity of light in the medium ekè;e esa çdk'k dk osx
3  108 3  108
v= = 1.5  108 m/s v= = 1.5  108 m/s
2 2
27. Answer (2)
27. mÙkj (2)
Radio waves are low frequency waves among the
given waves. So, their wavelength will be
nh xbZ rjaxksa esa jsfM;ks rjaxsa fuEu vko`fÙk rjaxsa gSA
comparatively large. blfy,] budh rjaxnSè;Z vis{kkd`r vf/kd gksxhA
28. Answer (3) 28. mÙkj (3)
C1V1 + C2V2 C1V1 + C2V2
Vcomman = VmHk;fu"B =
C1 + C2 C1 + C2
2F  60 + 0 2F  60 + 0
= =
3F 3F
= 40 V = 40 V
29. Answer (1) 29. mÙkj (1)
 
I1 = I and I2 = 4I  = I1 = I and I2 = 4I  =
2 2
 
Inet = I + 4I + 2 I  4I cos IusV = I + 4I + 2 I  4I cos
2 2
=5I =5I
30. Answer (4) 30. mÙkj (4)
M= M0e–t M = M0e–t
.2 .2
− −
M = 20e 
= 20 e −2 M = 20e 
= 20 e −2
= 2.7 g = 2.7 g
31. Answer (2) 31. mÙkj (2)
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2 1 2 − 1 2 1 2 − 1
− = − =
v v R v v R
1 1.5 1 − 1.5 1 1.5 1 − 1.5
 + =  + =
v 3.5 −5 v 3.5 −5
−70 −70
v=  −3 cm (inside the sphere) v=  −3 cm (xksys ds vUnj)
23 23
Hence image will be formed 2 cm left to the blfy, çfrfcEc dsUæ ds 2 cm ck;ha vksj fufeZr gksxk
centre.
32. Answer (4)
32. mÙkj (4)
Since R1 and R2 are different hence the peaks pwfa d R1 o R2 fHkUu gS blfy, /kukRed rFkk
during positive half and negative half will be _.kkRed v)Z pØ ds nkSjku f'k[kj eku fHkUu gksxsAa
different. 33. mÙkj (2)
33. Answer (2)
A0 [1+ 2B ( − 20)] = A0 [1+ 2s ( − 40)]
A0 [1+ 2B ( − 20)] = A0 [1+ 2s ( − 40)]
 19( − 20) = 11( − 40)
 19( − 20) = 11( − 40)
 19 − 11 = 380 − 440
 19 − 11 = 380 − 440
60
 =− = −7.5C
60 8
 =− = −7.5C
8
34. mÙkj (2)
34. Answer (2)
U = Wf
U = Wf
h 1
h 1 mgh = mg.x   = =
mgh = mg.x   = = x 8
x 8
35. mÙkj (2)
35. Answer (2)
çØe PVx = fu;r ds fy,
For process PVx = constant
R R
R R C= +
C= +  − 1 1− x
 − 1 1− x
R R R
R R R = +
= +   − 1 1+ 
  − 1 1+ 
  = 1+  + 2
  = 1+  + 2
36. mÙkj (2)
36. Answer (2)
Radius of Bohr’s model cksgj ekWMy dh f=T;k
n2 n2
rn = 0.529 Aº rn = 0.529 Aº
z z
r  n2 r  n2
Hence, r3 = 9r1 blfy,, r3 = 9r1

37. Answer (2) 37. mÙkj (2)
0 2In 0 2In
Bcentre = BdsUæ =
4 r 4 r
n n
Bcentre  BdsUæ 
r r
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@AakashDelhi02
B1 n1 r 1 B1 n1 r 1
=  1= =  1=
B n r 4 B n r 4
B
B1 =
B B1 =
4 4
38. Answer (2) 38. mÙkj (2)

V = IR V = IR
10 1 10 1
I= = A I= = A
20 2 20 2
39. Answer (2) 39. mÙkj (2)

uf −25  10 50 uf −25  10 50
VA = = = cm VA = = = cm
u − f −25 − 10 7 u − f −25 − 10 7
uf 10  ( −20) 20 uf 10  ( −20) 20
VB = = = cm VB = = = cm
u −f −20 − 10 3 u −f −20 − 10 3
50 20 10 50 20 10
Length of image = − = cm çfrfcEc dh yEckbZ = − = cm
7 3 21 7 3 21
40. Answer (2) 40. mÙkj (2)
2 g – T = 2a … (i) 2 g – T = 2a … (i)
5a 5a
2T= … (ii) 2T= … (ii)
2 2
From (i) and (ii) (i) rFkk (ii) ls
10 10
T = g =8N T = g =8N
13 13
41. Answer (3) 41. mÙkj (3)
v = u + at v = u + at
eE eE
= at = t = at = t
m m
mv = eEt mv = eEt
h h h h
Now = = vc = =
mv eEt mv eEt
d −h d −h
Hence = blfy, =
dt eEt 2 dt eEt 2
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@AakashDelhi02
42. Answer (1) 42. mÙkj (1)

hc hc
= eV = eV
 
hc 12400 hc 12400
=  Å =  Å
eV V eV V
12400
=
12400
= 1.24 Å = = 1.24 Å
10000 10000
43. Answer (3) 43. mÙkj (3)
N = d N = d
N.D
N.D =d
=d 2d
2d
2d 2
2d 2 N=
N= D
D
44. Answer (4)
44. mÙkj (4)
hc
hc E= − … (i)
E= − … (i) 

hc 3hc
hc 3hc 4E = −   4E = − … (ii)
4E = −   4E = − … (ii) ( / 3) 
( / 3) 
(i) rFkk (ii) ls
From (i) and (ii)
hc
hc =
= 3
3
45. Answer (2)
45. mÙkj (2)
Angle of dip is taken as positive for northern
mÙkjh xksyk)Z ds fy, ufr dks.k /kukRed ysrs gS
hemisphere while it is negative for southern tcfd nf{k.kh xksyk) ds fy, ufr dks.k _.kkRed
hemisphere. ysrs gSA
46. Answer (1) 46. mÙkj (1)

w 1000 5.85  1000 w 1000 5.85  1000
M=   M=  
mNaCl V(mL) 58.5  500 mNaCl V(mL) 58.5  500
47. Answer (2) 47. mÙkj (2)

For n = 4, l = 0, 1, 2 and 3 are possible. n = 4 ds fy,, l = 0, 1, 2 rFkk 3 laHko gSA
For l = 3, m = –3, –2, –1, 0, 1, 2, 3 are possible. l = 3 ds fy,, m = –3, –2, –1, 0, 1, 2, 3 laHko gSA
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48. Answer (1) 48. mÙkj (1)

Un un nill ium Un un nill ium
1 1 0  110 1 1 0  110
49. Answer (3) 49. mÙkj (3)

In XeF4, Xe has 4 bond pairs and 2 lone pairs XeF4 esa Xe ij 4 ca/k ;qXe rFkk 2 ,dkadh ;qXe gS]
therefore square planar. blfy, ;g oxZ leryh; gksrk gSA
50. Answer (4) 50. mÙkj (4)
NH3 forms H-bonding. NH3, H-cU/k cukrk gSA
51. Answer (2) 51. mÙkj (2)
CH = −2658 kJ mol−1 CH = −2658 kJ mol−1
5.8 5.8
nC H =  0.1 nC H =  0.1
4 10 58 4 10 58
Heat released = 2658 × 0.1 = 265.8 kJ eqDr Å"ek = 2658 × 0.1 = 265.8 kJ
52. Answer (4) 52. mÙkj (4)
N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g); KC = x N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g); KC = x
1 1
2NO(g) N2 (g) + O2 (g); KC = 2NO(g) N2 (g) + O2 (g); KC =
x x
1 1 1 1
NO(g)
1 1
N (g) + O2 (g); KC =
1
=
1 NO(g) N2 (g) + O2 (g); KC = =
2 2 2 KC x 2 2 KC x
53. Answer (3) 53. mÙkj (3)
54. Answer (2)

54. mÙkj (2)
10
10 M=  0.9
M=  0.9 11.2
11.2
Strength = 0.9 × 34 = 30 g/L
lkeF;Z = 0.9 × 34 = 30 g/L
55. Answer (1)
55. mÙkj (1)
M.P. order xyukad Øe
Fluorides > Chlorides > Bromides > Iodides ¶yqvksjkbM > DyksjkbM > czkes kbM > vk;ksMkbM
56. Answer (2) 56. mÙkj (2)
B(2), Al(1.5), In 1.7 and Tl (1.8) B(2), Al(1.5), In 1.7 and Tl (1.8)
57. Answer (2) 57. mÙkj (2)

Electromeric effect takes place in presence of bysDVªkWejh çHkko vkØe.kdkjh vfHkdeZd dh
attacking reagent. mifLFkfr esa gksrk gSA
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58. Answer (2) 58. mÙkj (2)

In wurtz reaction two or more than two carbon oqV~Zt vfHkfØ;k esa nks ;k nks ls vf/kd dkcZu ;qDr
containing alkanes are produced. ,Ydsu çkIr gksrs gSaA
59. Answer (3) 59. mÙkj (3)
Cd = 0.005 mg /dm3 = 0.005 ppm Cd = 0.005 mg /dm3 = 0.005 ppm
60. Answer (4) 60. mÙkj (4)
Face diagonal = 4r = a 2 Qyd fod.kZ = 4r = a 2
a = 2 2r a = 2 2r
4 3 4 3
4 r  100 4 r  100
Packing eff = 3 = 74% ladqyu n{krk = 3 = 74%
(2 2 r)3 (2 2 r)3
61. Answer (1) 61. mÙkj (1)

In phenol and aniline intermolecular H-bonding QhukWy rFkk ,fuyhu esa varjvk.kfod H-ca/ku gksrk
takes place. gSA
62. Answer (1) 62. mÙkj (1)
According to Kohlrausch’s law. dksyjkm'k fu;e ds vuqlkj
m
o
KCl − m
o
NaCl = m
o
KBr − m
o
NaCl m
o
KCl − m
o
NaCl = m
o
KBr − m
o
NaCl
63. Answer (4) 63. mÙkj (4)
a0 a0 a0 a0
r0  a0 r 2
= r0  a0 r =
2 4 22
4
r0 4 r0 4
= =
r 1 r 1
64. Answer (3) 64. mÙkj (3)
Blood is a positively charged sol. jDr ,d /kukosf'kr lkWy gSA
65. Answer (1) 65. mÙkj (1)
Cuprite is Cu2O. D;wçkbV Cu2O gSA
66. Answer (1) 66. mÙkj (1)
P4(white) + NaOH → PH3 + NaH2PO2. P4(lQsn) + NaOH → PH3 + NaH2PO2.
67. Answer (4) 67. mÙkj (4)
4FeCr2O4 + 8Na2CO3 + 7O2 4FeCr2O4 + 8Na2CO3 + 7O2
→ 8Na2CrO4 + 2Fe2O3 + 8CO2 → 8Na2CrO4 + 2Fe2O3 + 8CO2
68. Answer (2) 68. mÙkj (2)
69. Answer (4) 69. mÙkj (4)

+ H O+
CH3Cl ⎯⎯⎯
KCN
→ CH3CN ⎯⎯⎯
3
→ CH3COOH
H O
CH3Cl ⎯⎯⎯
KCN
→ CH3CN ⎯⎯⎯
3
→ CH3COOH
(A) (B) (A) (B)
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70. Answer (4) 70. mÙkj (4)

HCHO ⎯⎯⎯⎯ HCHO ⎯⎯⎯⎯ + → RCH2 OH
(i) RMgX
+ → RCH2 OH
(i) RMgX
(ii) H3O (ii) H3O
R
R |
|
CH3CHO ⎯⎯⎯⎯
(i) RMgX
→ CH − CH − OH
CH3CHO ⎯⎯⎯⎯
(i) RMgX
→ CH − CH − OH (ii) H O+ 3
(ii) H O+ 3
3
3
O R
O R ||
|| |
| CH3 − C − CH3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯
(i) RMgX
+ → CH − C − OH
CH3 − C − CH3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯
(i) RMgX
→ CH − C − OH (ii) H3O 3
(ii) H3O+ 3 |
| CH3
CH3
71. mÙkj (4)
71. Answer (4)
dSfutkjks vfHkfØ;kA
Cannizzaro reaction.
72. mÙkj (4)
72. Answer (4)
lHkh çkFkfed ,ehu gSaA
All are primary amines.
73. mÙkj (3)
73. Answer (3)
lqØkst vu vipk;h 'kdZjk gSA
Sucrose is non reducing sugar.
74. mÙkj (4)
74. Answer (4)
MsØkWu
Dacron is
gS
75. Answer (4) 75. mÙkj (4)
Alitame has 2000 times more sweeter than cane b{kq 'kdZjk dh vis{kk ,fyVse 2000 xquk vf/kd ehBk
sugar. gksrk gSA
76. Answer (1) 76. mÙkj (1)
(CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N > NH3 (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N > NH3
Basic strength {kkjh; lkeF;Z

77. Answer (1) 77. mÙkj (1)
HCHO does not have -methyl group. HCHO esa -esfFky lewg ugha gksrk gSA
78. Answer (4) 78. mÙkj (4)

Percentage of bromine czkes hu dk çfr'kr
80  0.188  100 80  0.188  100
= = 40% = = 40%
188  0.2 188  0.2
79. Answer (3)

79. mÙkj (3)
Hydrolysis of dialkyl – dichlorosilane followed by
Mkb,fYdy – MkbDyksjksflysu ds tyvi?kVu ds
condensation polymerisation yields straight chain ckn la?kuu cgqydhdj.k ij lh/kh Ükà[kyk okyk
polymers. cgqyd çkIr gksrk gSA
80. Answer (4) 80. mÙkj (4)
(r4 ) 42  4 (r4 ) 42  4
He+ He+
= = 8 :1 = = 8 :1
(r2 ) 2  22 (r2 ) 2  22
Be3 + Be3 +
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81. Answer (3) 81. mÙkj (3)

For conjugate acid base pair Ka.Kb = Kw la;qXeh vEy {kkj ;qXe ds fy, Ka.Kb = Kw
−14 −14
Kw 10 Kw 10
Kb = =  5  10−10 Kb = =  5  10−10
Ka 2  10−5 Ka 2  10−5
82. Answer (2) 82. mÙkj (2)
83. Answer (1) 83. mÙkj (1)
In [Fe(H2O)6]3+, Fe3+
has five unpaired electrons, [Fe(H2O)6]3+esa Fe3+ ik¡p v;qfXer bysDVªkWu gS] vr%
so it will be paramagnetic. ;g vuqpqEcdh; gksxkA
84. Answer (3) 84. mÙkj (3)
O2(16) : 1s * 1s 2s * 2s
2 2 2 2
2p2z O2(16) : 1s2 * 1s2 2s2 * 2s22p2z
2p2x * 2p1x  

2px * 2px
2 1
   
2p2y  * 2p1y 2p2y  * 2p1y
  
 

Six electrons are present in ABMO of O2. O2 ds ABMO esa N% bysDVªkWu mifLFkr gSA
85. Answer (2) 85. mÙkj (2)
Vf Vf
S = 2.303nRlog S = 2.303nRlog
Vi Vi
2V
= 2.303  2  8.314  log
2V
= 11.488  11.5 JK −1 = 2.303  2  8.314  log = 11.488  11.5 JK −1
V V
86. Answer (1) 86. mÙkj (1)
Ti4+ has no d electrons therefore colourless. Ti4+ esa dksbZ Hkh d bysDVªkWu ugha gS blfy, ;g
87. Answer (1) jaxghu gksrk gSA
On moving left to right in lanthanide, covalent 87. mÙkj (1)
character increases and basicity decreases. ySUFksukWbM esa ck;sa ls nk;sa pyus ij lgla;kstd
88. Answer (1) y{k.k c<+rk gS rFkk {kkjdrk ?kVrh gSA
2H+ (aq) + 2e− → H2 (g) 88. mÙkj (1)
2H+ (aq) + 2e− → H2 (g)
0.0592  1 
E=− log  + 2  = 0.0591log [H+ ]
2  [H ]  0.0592  1 
E=− log  + 2  = 0.0591log [H+ ]
2  [H ] 
= – 0.0591 pH
= – 0.0591 pH
= – 0.0591 × 1 = – 0.0591 V
= – 0.0591 × 1 = – 0.0591 V
89. Answer (3)
89. mÙkj (3)
r = k[A]x [B]y
r = k[A]x [B]y
0.04 = k[0.1]x [0.1]y … (1)
0.04 = k[0.1]x [0.1]y … (1)
0.04 = k[0.2] [0.1]
x y
… (2) 0.04 = k[0.2] [0.1]
x y
… (2)
0.16 = k[0.1] [0.2]
x y
… (3) 0.16 = k[0.1] [0.2]
x y
… (3)
From equation (1), (2) and (3) lehdj.k (1), (2) rFkk (3) ls
x = 0, y = 2 x = 0, y = 2
Overall order x + y = 0 + 2 = 2 lexz dksfV x + y = 0 + 2 = 2
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90. Answer (1) 90. mÙkj (1)

CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
| | | |
+
CH3 − C − Br + CH3CH2ONa → CH − C = CH +
CH3 − C − Br + CH3CH2ONa → CH − C = CH
| 3 2
| 3 2
CH3 CH3
Elimination reaction foyksiu vfHkfØ;k
91. Answer (3) 91. mÙkj (3)

Some prokaryotes lack cell wall such as dqN çkdSfj;ksV~l esa dksf'kdk fHkfÙk dk vHkko gksrk gS
Mycoplasma. tSls dh ekbdksIykTekA
92. Answer (4) 92. mÙkj (4)
Centrioles are not found in higher plant cells and rkjddsUæ] mPprj ikni dksf'kdkvksa esa ugha ik;s
not surrounded by any membrane. tkrs rFkk fdlh Hkh f>Yyh }kjk vkofjr ugha gksrsA
93. Answer (2) 93. mÙkj (2)
94. Answer (4) 94. mÙkj (4)
Diakinesis – Nucleolus disappears Mkbdkbusfll – dsfUædk foyqIr gks tkrh gSA
95. Answer (3) 95. mÙkj (3)
Binomial epithet includes generic name, specific fnuke ladsr in esa oa'kh; uke] tkfr ladsrin rFkk
epithet and author citation. ys[kd dk mYys[k 'kkfey gksrk gSA
96. Answer (2) 96. mÙkj (2)
Botanical garden is ‘ex-situ’ conservation strategy. ouLifr m|ku cfg-LFkkus laj{k.k dh uhfr gSA
97. Answer (2) 97. mÙkj (2)
98. Answer (4) 98. mÙkj (4)
Imperfect fungi are deuteromycetes. viq.kZ dod] M~;wVjs ksekbflVht gksrh gSA
99. Answer (4) 99. mÙkj (4)
100. Answer (3) 100. mÙkj (3)
101. Answer (2) 101. mÙkj (2)
102. Answer (3) 102. mÙkj (3)
Dicot root show secondary growth. f}chti=h ewy f}rh;d o`f) n'kkZrh gSA
103. Answer (2) 103. mÙkj (2)
Mesophyll is the ground tissue of the leaf. i.kZeè;ksÙd i.kZ dk Hkj.k mÙkd gksrk gSA
104. Answer (3) 104. mÙkj (3)
Cycas–Dioecious lk;dl–,dfyaxkJ;h
105. Answer (2) 105. mÙkj (2)
106. Answer (2) 106. mÙkj (2)
107. Answer (3) 107. mÙkj (3)
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108. Answer (2) 108. mÙkj (2)

109. Answer (1) 109. mÙkj (1)
Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are ukbVªkl
s kseksukl o ukbVªkscSDVj] jlksLoiks"kh gksrs gSaA
chemoautotrophs
110. mÙkj (3)
110. Answer (3)
C4 ikni] ØsUt 'kkjhfjdh n'kkZrs gSaA
C4 plants show Kranz anatomy.
111. mÙkj (2)
111. Answer (2)
112. mÙkj (1)
112. Answer (1)
lfDlusV] ekbVksdkWfUMª;k dh vkarfjd f>Yyh esa ik;k
Succinate is found in inner membrane of tkrk gSA
mitochondria.
113. mÙkj (4)
113. Answer (4)
ySfDVd vEy dk fd.ou] lk;Vkslksy esa gksrk gSA
Lactic acid fermentation takes place in cytosol.
114. mÙkj (1)
114. Answer (1)
115. mÙkj (3)
115. Answer (3)
116. mÙkj (2)
116. Answer (2)
dan – vkyw
Tuber – Potato
117. mÙkj (2)
117. Answer (2)
ewyh f}o"khZ Qly gksrh gSA ;g varjiq"iu vof/k ugha
Radish is biennial. It does not show inter flowering
n'kkZrhA
period.
118. mÙkj (4)
118. Answer (4)
119. mÙkj (2)
119. Answer (2)
120. mÙkj (3)
120. Answer (3)
121. mÙkj (3)
121. Answer (3)
122. mÙkj (2)
122. Answer (2)
Turner’s syndrome 44 + XO.
VuZj fl.Mªkse 44 + XO.
123. Answer (2) 123. mÙkj (2)
124. Answer (3) 124. mÙkj (3)
AUG – Start codon. AUG– çkjafHkd dksMksu
125. Answer (2) 125. mÙkj (2)
126. Answer (4) 126. mÙkj (4)
127. Answer (3) 127. mÙkj (3)
128. Answer (2) 128. mÙkj (2)
129. Answer (4) 129. mÙkj (4)

130. Answer (2) 130. mÙkj (2)
131. Answer (3) 131. mÙkj (3)
132. Answer (4) 132. mÙkj (4)
133. Answer (4) 133. mÙkj (4)
134. Answer (2) 134. mÙkj (2)
135. Answer (3) 135. mÙkj (3)
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136. Answer (4) 136. mÙkj (4)

ljy LraHkkdkj midyk L=o.k rFkk vo”kks’k.k eas
Simple columnar epithelium helps in secretion and
lgk;rk djrh gSA dksf”kdkvksa ds Lora= lrg ij
absorption. The free surface of cells may have
lw{evadqj gks ldrs gSaA
microvilli.
137. mÙkj (1)
137. Answer (1)
vfLFk dk vk/kk=h dBksj rFkk vueu”khy gksrk gS
The matrix of bone is hard and non-pliable which tks dSfYl;e yo.k rFkk dksystu rarqvksa ls izpqj
is rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres. gksrk gSA
138. Answer (2) 138. mÙkj (2)
Curcumin is a drug. djD;wfeu ,d Mªx gSA
139. Answer (4) 139. mÙkj (4)
Disulphide bond is a covalent bond and is not MkblYQkbM ca/k ,d lgla;kstd ca/k gS rFkk
formed by dehydration. bldk fuek.kZ futZyhdj.k }kjk ugha gksrk gSA
140. Answer (4)
140. mÙkj (4)
,atkbe] vfHkfØ;k ds fy, lfØ;.k ÅtkZ dks de
Enzyme reduces the activation energy for a
reaction.
djrk gSA
141. mÙkj (3)
141. Answer (3)
vksMh dh vojksf/kuh] xzg.kh esa ,Eiwyk vkWQ osVj ds
Sphincter of Oddi is present at the opening of fNnz ij mifLFkr gksrh gSA
ampulla of Vater into the duodenum.
142. mÙkj (1)
142. Answer (1) lDdl ,aVsfjDl] vka= jl gS ftlesa E;wdkslk ds cz”k
Succus entericus is intestinal juice which includes ckWMZj dksf”kdkvksa ds lkFk va= midyk dh xksCysV
secretions of brush border cells of mucosa along dksf”kdkvksa ds L=o.k Hkh lfEefyfr gksrs gSaA
with goblet cells of intestinal epithelium. 143. mÙkj (3)
143. Answer (3) gkseksXyksfcu v.kq ds lkFk dkcZu eksuksvkWDlkbM
Carbon monoxide combines with haemoglobin at gkseksXyksfcu ds mlh leku LFky ij tqM+rk gS ftl
the same site on haemoglobin molecule as ij vkWDlhtu tqM+rk gSA blfy, CO fo’kkDrrk esa
oxygen does. Thus in CO poisoning, vkWDlhgheksXyksfcu dh lkanzrk ?kV tkrh gSA
oxyhaemoglobin concentration is reduced. 144. mÙkj (2)
144. Answer (2) “kCn okrLQhfr dk vFkZ ôk;q ls Hkjk* gksrk gSA ok;q
The word emphysema means ‘full of air’. Loss of dwfidkvksa dh fHkfRr;ksa dh izR;kLFkrk esa deh ls
elasticity of walls of alveoli reduces the surface xSlksa ds fofu;e gsrq lrgh {ks= ?kV tkrh gSA
area for exchange of gases. 145. mÙkj (2)
145. Answer (2) RAAS fØ;kfof/k] GFR esa fxjkoV }kjk mRizsfjr gksrh
RAAS mechanism is stimulated by fall in GFR. gSA ,YMksLVhjksu ds dkj.k Na+ dk iqujko”kks’k.k c<+
Aldosterone causes increased reabsorption of tkrk gSA ftlls jDr vk;ru c<++ tkrk gS vr%
Na+, thereby causing an increase in blood volume, jDr nkc Hkh c<+ tkrk gSA
hence blood pressure. 146. mÙkj (1)
146. Answer (1) Lkjhlì] i{kh rFkk LFkyh ?kksa?ks ;qfjdvEymRlthZ gksrs
Reptiles, birds and land snails are uricotelic.
gSaA
147. mÙkj (4)
147. Answer (4)
;wfj;k dk mRltZu o`Ddksa ds }kjk gksrk gS blfy,
Excretion of urea occurs through kidneys, o`Dd f”kjk esa ;qfj;k dh vYi ek=k mifLFkr gksrh
therefore least urea is present in renal vein. gSA
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148. Answer (4) 148. mÙkj (4)

Secretion of inflammatory mediators is the
nkgd ¼”kksFk½ e/;LFk dk L=o.k] cslksfQy~l dk
function of basophils. dk;Z gSA
149. mÙkj (3)
149. Answer (3) nksuksa fuy; ,d lkFk ladqfpr gksrs gSaA fuy;ksa dk
Both ventricles contract simultaneously. fo/kzqfodj.k QRS lfEeJ }kjk iznf”kZr gksrk gSA
Depolarisation of ventricles is represented by QRS 150. mÙkj (2)
complex. ek;ksflu dk xksykdkj flj ,d lfØ; ,fVih,st
150. Answer (2) ,atkbe gS rFkk blesa ,fVih ds fy, ca/kd LFky o
,fDVu ds fy, lfØ; LFky gksrs gSaA
The globular head of myosin is an active
151. mÙkj (4)
ATPase enzyme and has binding sites for ATP
and active sites for actin.
f}f”kjLFk ilfy;k¡ d'ks:d ds lkFk nks “kh’kZ }kjk
tqM+h gksrh gSA
151. Answer (4)
152. mÙkj (3)
Bicephalic ribs attach to the vertebra with two
heads. Ekkuo us= esa izdk”kxzkfg;k¡ va/ksjs esa v/kzqfor gksrh gSa
152. Answer (3) rFkk izdk'k míhiu dh izfrfØ;k esa vfr/kqzfor gks
tkrh gSaA
Photoreceptors in the human eye are depolarised
during darkness and become hyperpolarised in 153. mÙkj (3)
response to light stimulus.
foJke raf=dh; f>Yyh dk fo/kqzohdj.k Na+ ds
153. Answer (3)
varokZg ds dkj.k gksrk gSA
Depolarisation of a resting neuronal membrane
occurs due to influx of Na+. 154. mÙkj (3)
154. Answer (3) gkbiksFksysel] “kjhj dk FkeksZLVSV gksrk gS rFkk esMqyk
Hypothalamus is the thermostat of the body and
vkscyksaxsVk] “olu] ân okfgdk izfrorZ rFkk tBjh;
medulla oblongata controls respiration, L=o.k dks fu;af=r djrk gSA
cardiovascular reflexes and gastric secretions.
155. mÙkj (2)
155. Answer (2) xzso jksx Loizfr{kk jksx gS tks FkkbjkWfDlu ds
Grave’s disease is an autoimmune disease that vfrL=o.k ds dkj.k gksrk gSA
occurs due to hypersecretion of thyroxine.
156. Answer (3)
156. mÙkj (3)
LVhjkWbM gksWeksuZ dks f}rh;d lans'kokgd ds fuekZ.k
Steroid hormones do not require the formation of dh vko';drk ugha gksrh gSA
second messenger.
157. Answer (1) 157. mÙkj (1)
fiadVkMk] eksyLdk ls lacaf/kr gS] Qsfyl ,d
Pinctada belongs to mollusca, Felis is a mammal,
spider belongs to class arachnida.
Lru/kjh gS] LikbMj] oxZ ,jsfDuMk ls lacaf/kr gSA
158. Answer (3) 158. mÙkj (3)
Sycon belongs to phylum porifera, the members of Lkkbdu] iksjhQsjk ls lacfa /kr gS ftuds lnL;ksa eas
which, contain flagellated canals and spongocoel ty dh xfr ds fy, dk”kkfHkd uky rFkk Liat
for the movement of water. xqgk gksrk gSA
159. Answer (2) 159. mÙkj (2)
Presence of anal styles in 9th
segment is a feature 9osa [k.M esa xwnk “kwd dh mifLFkfr] dkWdjksp ds
of sexual dimorphism of cockroach.
ySafxd f}:irk dk ,d y{k.k gSA
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160. Answer (3) 160. mÙkj (3)

Alary muscles are part of circulatory system of Ik{kkdkj isf”k;k¡] dkWdjksp ds ifjlapj.k ra= ds Hkkx
cockroach. gSaA
161. Answer (2) 161. mÙkj (2)
Air sacs connected to lungs supplement Qq¶Qql ls tqM+h ok;q dks’k “olu esa lgk;d gksrh gSa
respiration but do not participate in exchange of ijarq xSlksa ds fofue; esa Hkkx ugha ysrh gSaA
gases.
162. mÙkj (4)
162. Answer (4)
vySafxd tuu esa vkuqoaf”kd inkFkksZa ds feJ.k u
As there is no mixing of genetic material in gksus ds dkj.k fofo/krk ugha gksrh blfy, ;s fodkl
asexual reproduction, variations do not take place, esa ;ksxnku ugha nsrs gSaA
thus they do not contribute to evolution.
163. mÙkj (4)
163. Answer (4)
Tksuk isY;qlhMk] varjkZsi.k ds Bhd igys fo?kfVr gks
Zona pellucida is disintegrated just before tkrh gSA
implantation.
164. mÙkj (3)
164. Answer (3)
LH ltZ] vaMksRlxZ dks izsfjr djrh gSA
LH surge triggers ovulation.
165. mÙkj (1)
165. Answer (1) “kqØtuu ds nkSjku ;qXed ds Hkkj ds lkFk&lkFk
During spermiogenesis, the weight of gamete is xeu lajpukvksa ds fodkl esa deh gksrh gSA
reduced along with development of locomotory 166. mÙkj (4)
structures.
lkYVs”ku] fo”kky mRifjorZu dk cM+k dne gS
166. Answer (4)
ftlds dkj.k iztkfr dh mRifÙk gksrh gS] bls g~;x w ksa
Saltation is single step large mutation which cause Mhosjht us ukfer fd;k FkkA
speciation was named by Hugo de Vries.
tufud gihZt ,d fo’kkf.o; STI gS tks gihtZ
Genital herpes is a viral STI caused by herpes flEIysDl fo’kk.kq }kjk gksrk gSA
simplex virus.
167. mÙkj (2)
167. Answer (2)
HkkSfrd jks/k tSls daMkse rFkk Mk;kÝke ;ksfu esa
Physical barriers like condoms and diaphragms “kqØk.kvksa ds teko dks jksdrs gSaA
prevent the deposition of sperms into vagina.
168. mÙkj (2)
168. Answer (2)
lkYVs”ku] fodkl dh ,d fØ;kfof/k gS ftls g~;x w ksa
Saltation is a mechanism of evolution was given Mhosjht us fn;k FkkA
by Hugo de Vries.
169. mÙkj (2)
169. Answer (2) cSaxuh laeqnzh vfpZu dh ewy lef’V dk oj.k izÑfr
The original population of purple sea urchins is }kjk fd;k x;k gS] ;g LFkk;hdj.k oj.k dks iznf”kZr
selected by nature, this represents stabilising djrk gS D;ksafd igys ls izHkkoh cSaxuh leqnzh vfpZu
selection as the number of previously dominant dh la[;k c<+ xbZA
purple sea urchins is increase.
170. mÙkj (1)
170. Answer (1)
letkr lajpuk,¡] lk>h okyh iwoZt dks n”kkZrh gaS
Homologous structures show shared ancestry and rFkk fofHkUUk dk;Z djrh gSA
perform different functions.
171. mÙkj (3)
171. Answer (3)
UV fdj.ksa xSj vk;uhÑr fdj.ksa gSa ftlds dkj.k
UV rays are non ionising rays which cause DNA DNA dh {kfr gksrh gS ftlls fu;ksIykfLVd
damage leading to neoplastic transformation. :ikarj.k gksrk gSA
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172. Answer (3) 172. Answer (3)

Mucosa associated lymphoid tissue constitutes Ekkuo “kjhj esa ylhdkHk Ård dk yxHkx 50%
about 50% of lymphoid tissue in human body. “ys’e lac) ylhdkHk Ård gSA
173. Answer (2) 173. mÙkj (2)
Cannabinoids include marijuana, hashish, charas dSukfcukWbM~l esa eSfjtqvkuk] g”kh'k] pjl o xk¡tk
and ganja. lfEefyr gksrs gSaA
174. Answer (1) 174. mÙkj (1)
Inbreeding is mating of related individuals of same var% iztuu] leku uLy ds lacaf/kr O;fDr;ksa ds
breed which gives rise to homozygous pure lines. eè; dk laxe gS tks le;qXeth “kq) oa”kØe dks
175. Answer (2) mRiUUk djrs gSaA
The DNA fragments obtained and purified in this 175. mÙkj (2)
way are used for constructing rDNA. bl rjg ls izkIr rFkk “kq) fd, x, DNA dks
176. Answer (3) iqu;ksZxt DNA fuekZ.k esa mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gS
A stirred tank bioreactor facilitates even mixing 176. mÙkj (3)
and oxygen availability throughout the bioreactor. foyksMd gkSt ck;ksfj,DVj eas vkWDlhtu miyC/krk
Purification and filtration are parts of downstream
o mldk leku :i ls feJ.k gksrk gSaA “kks/ku rFkk
processing.
fuL;anu] vuqizokg lalk/ku ds Hkkx gSA
177. Answer (4)
177. mÙkj (4)
Plasmid is extra chromosomal circular double
stranded DNA.
IykfTeM] xksykdkj xq.klw= cká f}jTtqd DNA gSA
178. Answer (3)
178. mÙkj (3)
Proteins encoded by genes cry I Ac and cry II Ab
ØkbZ I ,lh rFkk ØkbZ II ,ch thu }kjk dwVc) izkVs hu
control cotton bollworms. dikl ds eqdqy Ñfe dks fu;af=r djrs gSaA
179. Answer (3) 179. mÙkj (3)
Transgenic plants prevent early exhaustion of Ikkjthoh ikni] “kh?kz e`nk moZjrk lekiu dks jksdrs
fertility of soil. gSaA
180. Answer (3) 180. mÙkj (3)
Meloidogyne incognita infects roots of tobacco feYokMsxkbu budksxuhf”k;k rEckdw ds ikS/kksa dh
plants and causes great reduction in the yield. tM+kas dks laØfer dj mldh iSnkokj dks dkQh de
This can be prevented by RNAi. dj nsrk gSA RNAi }kjk bls jksdk tk ldrk gSA
❑ ❑ ❑
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@AakashDelhi02
29/04/2020 CODE-A
Test - 13
Instructions :
PHYSICS
1. Consider a series LR circuit with a switch as
4 4
shown in figure. If the switch S is closed down at (1) (2)
3 5
t = 0 then, the magnitude of change in flux
through the ideal inductor in one time constant of 3 8
(3) (4)
the circuit is 5 5
3. An unpolarised beam of light falls on a system of
four polaroids, which are arranged consecutively
in a line such that each polaroid is turned through
the angle 45° with respect to the preceding one.
The percentage of incident intensity stopped by
 e − 1 the system is
(1) 10  
 e 
(1) 6.25 % (2) 93.75 %
 e − 1
(2)   (3) 25 % (4) 73.25 %
 e 
 e  4. In a vertical spring mass system if stretching in
(3)   spring at equilibrium near earth surface is x0 then
 e − 1
the extension in spring at a height 1600 km from
1
(4) earth surface is (radius of earth R = 6400 km)
e
2. In Young’s double slit experiment, the ratio of 5 5 x0
(1) x (2)
path difference corresponding to third maxima 16 0 4
obtained in air to the third minima obtained in
16 x0 x0
 4 (3) (4)
water is  µ of water =  25 4
 3
@AakashDelhi02
(1)
5. A block of mass 5 kg is hanging over an ideal 9. A thin rod of length 3l and mass 3m is bent as
pulley through a string (ideal). The other end of shown in figure. Then moment of inertia of the
the string is pulled by a constant force F such that given structure about an axis passing through
the kinetic energy of the block increases by 5 J in point O and perpendicular to the plane containing
1s. If the block is pulled from rest then (take rod is
g = 10 m/s2)
(1) Tension in the string is 50 N
(2) Work done by F is 5 J in 1s
(3) Work done by gravity on block in 1s is –5J
(4) Tension in the string is 57.07 N
6. Four particles A, B, C and D are situated at the
corners of a square of side d. They start moving ml 2
with same speed v along the sides of square in (1) (2) ml 2
3
same sense. Then their relative velocity of
17 2 3 2
d (3) ml (4) ml
approach after t = is 12 2
2v
10. The potential energy function in one dimension is
v
(1) (2) 2v given as shown in figure. If total energy of the
2
particle is 5J. Then in the region from x1 to x2, the
v value of its kinetic energy will be
(3) (4) 0
2
7. A solid cylinder of radius R is kept at rest on a
smooth horizontal surface. A horizontal force is
applied to move the cylinder under pure rolling.
Then height of force from horizontal surface is
R (1) 8 J (2) 11 J
(1) R (2)
2
(3) 5 J (4) 0 J
3R
(3) (4) 2R 11. In the shown figure the maximum value of
2
horizontal force F for which both the blocks move
8. A uniform rod of mass m and length l is hanging together without slipping between them is (take
vertically at one end as shown in figure. A bullet g = 10 m/s2)
m
of mass fired with velocity v strikes the rod in
2
the middle and sticks to it then angular velocity of
rod about hing just after being hit is
(1) 25 N (2) 30 N
(3) 35 N (4) 40 N
12. A rope can with stand the 120% weight of a
monkey tries to climb up along this rope. The
maximum acceleration of monkey on the rope
such that the rope does not break is
(take g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 10 m/s2
2v 6v
(1) (2) (2) 12 m/s2
3l 11l
(3) 2 m/s2
3v 4v
(3) (4) (4) 1.2 m/s2
7l 3l
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(2)
13. If the inverse square law of gravitation becomes 17. Equation of a plane progressive wave is given by
an inverse cube law of gravitation, then the y = 1.2cosπ(t + 2x). If this wave is incident on a
following statements denser medium and reflected from it such that
(a) The planet will have an elliptical orbit 1
amplitude of this reflected wave becomes of
3
(b) The planet may trace a circular orbit
the incident wave then equation of the reflected
(c) The path of projectile near the earth surface wave is
is parabolic to a greater extent
(1) y = 0.4sinπ(t + 2x)
Then the incorrect statement(s) is/are
(2) y = – 0.4sinπ(t – 2x)
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) All (3) y = – 0.4cosπ(t + 2x)
14. A uniform wire of length l and mass m is (4) y = – 0.4cosπ(t – 2x)

suspended from the ceiling and a block of mass 18. A travelling wave pulse is given by
m is suspended at the other end of wire. If A is 10
the area of cross section of the wire, then y= where symbols have their usual
2 + ( x − 3t )2
(1) Tensile stress at any cross section of the wire meanings; x, y are in meter and t is in second,
2 mg then
is
A
(1) The pulse is travelling along + ve y – axis
(2) Tensile stress at any cross section of the wire
(2) The pulse is travelling along – ve y – axis
is zero
(3) The amplitude of wave pulse is 10 m
(3) Tensile stress in wire at the point attached to
2 mg (4) The velocity of wave pulse is 3 m/s
the ceiling is
A 19. For a particle executing S.H.M with amplitude A,
(4) Tensile stress at any cross section of the wire is the position varies with time according to the
2 mg following graph. The corresponding position
equation with time is given by
15. A solid cylindrical body floats along its length in
water with half of its height submerged. In the
same way if it floats with one fourth of height
submerged in an oil then the density of oil
(in g/cm3) is
1
(1) (2) 4
4
1 (1) x = A sinωt
(3) 2 (4)
2 (2) x = A + B sinωt
16. The accuracy in the measurement of length
(3) x = B + A cosωt
50 cm of a simple pendulum is 1 mm. If time
period of 2s is determined by measuring the time (4) x = B + A sinωt
of 50 oscillations using a watch of resolution 0.2s. 20. A particle is executing S.H.M along x-axis
The percentage error in the determined value of g with origin as the mean position. If velocity v of
is the particle is related with position x as
(1) 0.2% 9v2 = 36 – x2 then time period of the oscillation
(2) 0.3% will be
(3) 0.6% (1) 3s (2) 3πs
(4) 0.4% (3) 6s (4) 6πs
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21. Equal mole of nitrogen and helium are mixed. (1) 5 min (2) 2.5 min
The ratio of speed of sound in the mixture to that (3) 4 min (4) 2 min
in nitrogen is
26. A hydraulic lift used to lift a stone of mass
5 15 1000 kg is as shown in figure. If A1 = 10 cm2 and
(1) (2)
16 8 A2 = 2m2 then the minimum force F required to lift
the stone is (take g = 10 m/s2)
2 7
(3) (4)
5 5
22. A gas is contained in a vessel of volume V0 at a
pressure P0. If the gas is to be pumped out by a
suction pump of stroke volume V then number of
moles of gas remained in the vessel after two
strokes is (where, R is gas constant, T is constant
temperature of gas) (1) 5 × 103 N (2) 5 × 104 N
(3) 5 N (4) 50 N
P0V03 P0V02
(1) (2) 27. 125 identical and nearly spherical rain drops are
RT (V0 + V )2 RT (V0 + V )2
falling through atmosphere vertically with a
terminal speed of 2m/s. If these drops coalesce
P0V03 P0V02
(3) (4) to form a big drop, then terminal speed of the big
RT (V0 + V )3 RT (V0 + V )3 drop is
23. If P is pressure, V is volume, K is Boltzmann (1) 5 m/s (2) 50 m/s
constant and T is absolute temperature of gas, (3) 25 m/s (4) 125 m/s
PV
then the quantity gives 28. The following graph shows the variation of
KT
maximum kinetic energy (Kmax) of the
(1) Molecular mass of the gas photoelectrons emitted versus frequency (f) of
(2) Kinetic energy of the gas incident radiation in an experiment of
(3) Number of molecules of the gas photoelectric effect. The stopping potential of the
surface for the incident light of wavelength
(4) Number of moles of the gas
4133.33Å is nearly
24. In the given figure if ∆U1 and ∆U2 be the change
in internal energy in processes A and B
respectively then
(1) 1.0 V (2) 0.5 V

(1) ∆U1 + ∆U2 = 0
(3) 3.0 V (4) 2.5 V
(2) Net heat will be rejected by the system in
process A + B 29. In a series LCR circuit with R = 10 Ω, L = 1H and
C = 10.1 µF connected across a variable
(3) Total work done by the system is positive in
frequency 220 V ac supply then the resonant
the process A + B
frequency and the corresponding average power
(4) Both (1) and (2)
transferred to the circuit in one complete cycle at
25. The temperature of a body falls from 52°C to resonant frequency will be
44°C in 4 minutes when placed in a surrounding
(1) 50 Hz, 4840 W (2) 6Hz, 4800 W
of constant temperature 18°C. The time taken for
(3) 50 Hz, 2000 W (4) 60 Hz, 4000 W
the temperature of the body to become 40°C is
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30. Two hollow concentric spheres have radii a and b 34. A parallel plate capacitor of plate area A and
(a < b) carrying charges +Q and –Q respectively. plate separation d is filled with a dielectric of
The potential difference between their surfaces is dielectric constant K = 2 and thickness d/3. The
5 V. Now the outer sphere is given a charge of effective capacitance of the capacitor will be
–2Q then the potential difference between their Aε0 Aε0
surfaces will now be (1) 6 (2) 3
d 2d
(1) 10 V (2) 2.5 V
6 Aε0 5 Aε0
(3) 5 V (4) 20 V (3) (4)
5 d 3 d
31. Electric potential (V) in a region varies with x co-
35. A conducting triangular frame is placed in x – y
ordinate as shown in figure. If E1, E2, E3, and E4
plane as shown in figure. If magnetic field B is
are magnitude of fields for the shown regions
varying w.r.t position x as B = 2x2 tesla, then emf.
then
Induced (in volts) in the loop is
3 2
(1) 3l 3 (2) l
(1) E1 > E2 > E3 > E4 (2) E4 > E3 > E2 > E1 2
(3) E4 > E3 = E2 > E1 (4) E4 > E3 = E1 > E2 (3) 3l 2 (4) Zero
32. A part of the circuit is as shown in figure. The
36. Apparent dips in two planes normal to each other
current in 2 Ω branch is are 30° and 45° respectively. True dip at that
place is
 1 
(1) tan−1 ( 2 ) (2) tan−1  
 2
 1
(3) tan−1 ( 2 ) (4) tan−1  
2
37. A hydrogen like atom of atomic number z is in an
(1) 1 A (2) 4 A excited state of quantum number 2n. It can emit a
(3) 0.5 A (4) 0 A photon of maximum energy 204 eV. If it makes a
33. In the following n–p–n transistor amplifier circuit transition in quantum state n, a photon of energy
40.8 eV is emitted the value of n will be
β = 100. The VCE and VBE of the transistor is
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
38. A particle is moving along x-axis whose equation
of motion is given by x = α + β e −Kt , where α, β
and k are +ve constant, α > β, t is time consider
the following statements
(I) x and v are positive for all time
(II) x and a (acceleration) are positive for all time
(1) Only I is correct
(2) Only II is correct
(1) 3V, 0.1V (2) 0.1V, 3V (3) Both I and II are correct
(3) 1V, 3V (4) 1V, 0.1V (4) Neither I nor II is correct
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39. A particle is projected at an angle 60° with 43. A cell is balanced on a length of 150 cm of a
horizontal with speed 10 m/s. The time after potentiometer wire. Now a resistance of 5Ω is
1 connected in parallel to the cell, then the balance
which the speed of the particle remains times
3 point is obtained at 100 cm. The value of internal
of its initial speed is resistance of cell is
2 (1) 2.5 Ω
(1) 5 3 s (2) s
3 (2) 20 Ω
1 (3) 10 Ω
(3) s (4) 10 3 s
3 (4) 25 Ω
40. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and 44. When a 20 Ω resistor is connected in parallel with
plate separation d is charged by a current a moving coil galvanometer then its deflection
of 5 mA. The displacement current through a reduces from 75 divisions to 25 division then the
2A resistance of galvanometer is
plane surface of area parallel to the plates
3
(1) 10 Ω (2) 20 Ω
and drawn symmetrically between the plates, is
(3) 40 Ω (4) 60 Ω
(1) 5 mA (2) 2.5 mA
45. Three infinite wires are joined at O as shown in
10 5 figure. If wire (1) carries a current i as shown in
(3) mA (4) mA
3 3 figure then net magnetic field at point C will be
41. Consider a thin prism of angle 3° and refractive
index 1.5. A horizontal incident ray on prism is
shown in figure. If a plane mirror is vertically
placed close to the prism then total deviation
produced in the incident ray is
(1) 178.5 (2) 177° µo i

(1)
2πr
(3) 180° (4) 180.5°
µo i
42. A telescope has an objective of focal length (2)
150 cm and magnifying power 30. The distance 4πr
between two lenses in normal adjustment will be µo i
(3)
(1) 95 cm (2) 145 cm 8πr
(3) 125 cm (4) 155 cm (4) Zero
CHEMISTRY
46. Maximum number of atoms is present in 48. Number of electrons in copper atom for which
(1) 0.1 mol NaOH (2) 0.2 mol C6H12O6 azimuthal quantum number (l) is 2, is
(3) 0.3 mol Na2C2O4 (4) 0.1 mol H2O (1) 6
47. Molarity of an aqueous solution containing 12 g
(2) 9
urea in 500 ml solution is
(1) 0.2 M (2) 0.3 M (3) 10
(3) 0.6 M (4) 0.4 M (4) 7
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56. Species having sp3d2 hybridization around

central atom is
–
49. (1) I3 (2) XeF2
(3) SF6 (4) XeO3
Choose the incorrect option based on above
57. Incorrect match of polymers among the following
reaction
is
(1) A is anilinium hydrogensulphate
(1) Polyamides → Nylon 6, 6
(2) B is sulphanilic acid
(2) Phenol formaldehyde → Bakelite
(3) A has electron withdrawing group attached
with ring (3) Synthetic rubber → Buna-N
(4) C has –NO2 group attached with ring (4) Biodegradable → Dacron
50. The major organic product in the reaction 58. Non-polar molecule among the following is
CH3 — OCH(Ph)2 + HI (1 eq) → (major) product, (1) CH4 (2) CH3F
is
(3) CH3Br (4) PF3Cl2
(1) CH3I and (C6H5)2CHI +
(2) CH3I and (C6H5)2CH(OH) 59. During the conversion of N2 from N2, electron will
(3) CH3OH and (C6H5)2CHI be lost from
(4) CH3OH and (C6H5)2CH(OH) (1) π2px (2) σ2pz

* *
51. de-Broglie wavelength of a particle of mass of (3) π2 p x (4) σ 2 pz
6.62 × 10–22 kg moving with 1 m/s speed is
60. C–O bond length in CO32− ion is
(Planck’s constant is 6.62 × 10–34 Js)
(1) 0.1 Å (2) 0.01 Å (1) Less than that of C–O bond length in CO2
(3) 0.2 Å (4) 0.02 Å (2) Less than that of C–O bond length in CO
52. Element of highest first negative electron gain (3) Equal to C–O bond length in CO2
enthalpy is (4) More than that of C–O bond length in CO
(1) N (2) O 61. In which of the following pair of molecules
(3) F (4) Cl London forces are the dominating intermolecular
forces of attraction?
53. Glucose on reaction with HNO3 forms
(1) HCl and HCl (2) HCl and H2O
(1) Gluconic acid (2) Saccharic acid
(3) N2 and N2 (4) NH3 and HCl
(3) n-hexane (4) Gluconaldehyde
62. Gas which can effuse out from a 8L container
54. Pair of compounds, which cannot be
most rapidly under identical conditions of
distinguished by iodoform test is
pressure and temperature is
(1) CH3OH and CH3CH2OH
(1) He (2) CO2
(2) CH3CH2OH and CH3CH2CH2OH
(3) N2 (4) O2
(3) CH3CH2OH and CH3COCH3
63. If equal masses of three gases H2, He and Ne
(4) CH3COCH3 and PhCOCH2CH3 are mixed in a 6L container then fraction of
55. Incorrect statement about AlCl3 is pressure contributed by H2 is
(1) It is an electron deficient molecule. (Ne : 20 g mol–1)
(2) It achieves stability by forming a dimer 1 1
(1) (2)
(3) It exists as [Al(H2O)6]3+ ion in its acidified 2 8
aqueous solution.
1 5
(4) The chloride bridge is a three-centre two (3) (4)
4 8
electron bond.
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64. Reaction for which ∆H is less than ∆U at 27°C is 71. Electron precise hydride among the following is
(1) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) (1) CH4 (2) PH3
(2) PCl5(g) → PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) (3) NaH (4) B2H6
(3) CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g) 72. Percentage strength of solution of 15 V H2O2 is

(1) 4.55 (2) 9.1
(4) NH4HS(s) → NH3(g) + H2S(g)
(3) 2.75 (4) 2.05
65. If 1 mol of an ideal gas at 300K expanded
reversibly from 1 atm pressure and 5L volume to 73. Alkali metal of highest density among the
0.2 atm pressure and 25 L volume then work following is
done involved in the process is (1) Na (2) Li
(1) –200 Rln2 (2) –300 Rln2 (3) K (4) Cs
(3) –300 Rln5 (4) –200 Rln5 74. Correct order of solubility of hydroxides of
66. Select the process in which entropy change is alkaline earth metals is
positive (1) Be(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2 <
Ba(OH)2
(1) Boiling of egg
(2) Be(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Ba(OH)2 <
(2) Streching of rubber band
Sr(OH)2
(3) Formation of NH3(g) by using N2(g) and H2(g)
(3) Ba(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 <
(4) Freezing of molten aluminium Be(OH)2
67. pH of aqueous solution 0.1N of NaOH is (4) Ba(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2 <
(1) 1 (2) 10 Be(OH)2
(3) 11 (4) 13 75. Among the following which is most susceptible to

nucleophilic substitution reaction?
68. Select the pair of solution which cannot act as
buffer.
(1) NaOH(aq) and CH3COOH(aq)
(1)
(2) CH3COONa(aq) and CH3COOH(aq)
(3) NH4Cl(aq) and NH4OH(aq)
(4) NH4NO3(aq) and HNO3(aq)
69. If solubility product of Zn(OH)2 is 4 × 10–15 then (2)
concentration of [OH–] in saturated solution of
Zn(OH)2 will be
(1) 10–5 mol L–1 (2) 2 × 10–5 mol L–1
(3) 4 × 10–5 mol L–1 (4) 3 × 10–5 mol L–1
70. Standard electrode potential of following reaction (3)
is
6Fe2+(aq) + Cr2O72–(aq) + 14H+(aq) → 6Fe3+ +
2Cr3+ + 7H2O
= 0
EFe 3+ (
/Fe2+
0.77
= V and E0Cr O 2− /Cr3+ 1.33 V
2 7
) (4)
(1) 0.26 V (2) 0.56 V
(3) 1.22 V (4) 1.12 V
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76. Which of the following is an example of 83. Number of moles of CO2(g) dissolved in 100 mol
antiseptic? of water at 298 K is
(1) Tincture of iodine (2) Norethindrone (Pressure of CO2 = 0.5 bar, KH(CO2) = 1.6 × 103
bar)
(3) Chloramphenicol (4) Salvarsan
(1) 0.2 mol (2) 0.3 mol
77. Aromatic species is
(3) 0.02 mol (4) 0.03 mol
84. The charge required to reduce 0.2 mol
(1) (2)
nitrobenzene into aniline is
(1) 0.6 F (2) 0.2 F
(3) (4) (3) 1.2 F (4) 1.6 F
85. Time required (in hr) to decompose a reactant
78. Alkanes of highest boiling point among the upto 93.75% in first order reaction is
following is (t1/2 = 3 hr)
(1) Pentane (2) 2-methyl butane (1) 9 (2) 6
(3) Butane (4) 2-methyl propane (3) 12 (4) 15
79. Which will give fastest electrophilic aromatic 86. Select the positive colloid among the following
substitution among the following? (1) Gold sol (2) Haemoglobin
(3) Congo red sols (4) Gelatin sol
87. Slag formed during the extraction of copper from
(1) (2) chalcopyrite is
(1) CaO (2) CaSiO3
(3) Ca3(PO4)2 (4) FeSiO3
88. Actinoids element which shows maximum
number of oxidation states is
(1) Pa (2) Pu
(3) (4)
(3) Es (4) Md
89. Outer orbital complex is formed by
(1) [Ni(CN)4 ]2− (2) [Co(en)3]Cl3
80. Which of the following solvents is a carcinogen
and was earlier used as solvent for dry cleaning? (3) [Ni(NH3)6]Cl2 (4) [Co(NH3 )6 ]Cl3
(1) H2O (2) Cl2C = CCl2 90. Match the following
(3) Liquid CO2 (4) H2O2 Column I Column II
81. Correct relation of edge length and atomic radius (i) EDTA a. Electroplating
of atom in bcc unit cell is with gold
(ii) DMG b. Black and white
(1) a = 2r (2) 3a = 4r
photography
(3) a = 2 2r (4) a = 2r (iii) [Au(CN)2]– c. Lead poisoning
82. The incorrect statement from the following is (iv) [Ag(S2O3)2]3– d. Detection of Ni2+
(1) O2, Cu2+, Fe3+ and Cr3+ are paramagnetic in (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
nature.
(1) d b a c
(2) NaCl, KCl and CsCl show schottky defect (2) d c a b
(3) Packing efficiency of FCC unit cell is 68% (3) c b a d
(4) Diamond and ZnS have similar lattices (4) c d a b
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BOTANY
91. Plasma membrane is an absolute requirement for 96. Which of the given taxonomic aids provide the
living organisms, because it is/has index to the plant species found in particular
(1) Responsible for the relationship of a cell with area?
the outside world. (1) Flora (2) Monograph
(2) Composed of lipids that are arranged in a (3) Catalogue (4) Manual
bilayer. 97. A protozoan which is endoparasite and does not
(3) Composed of protein. have locomotory structure is
(4) Variable ratio of protein and lipid in different (1) Trypanosoma (2) Paramoecium
cell types. (3) Plasmodium (4) Amoeba
92. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t plant cells. 98. ssDNA containing virus is
(1) Are generally smaller than animal cell (1) φ × 174 bacteriophage
(2) Have a rigid cell wall made up of cellulose (2) Pox virus
(3) Generally lack centrioles and centrosome (3) Herpes virus

(4) Cauliflower mosaic virus
(4) Contain plastid
99. Select the correct match w.r.t ‘aestivation’ of
93. In eukaryotes, histone proteins are formed during
petals.
which phase of cell cycle?
(1) Valvate – Pea
(1) G1 (2) S
(2) Twisted – Cassia
(3) G2 (4) M
(3) Imbricate – Cotton
94. Match Column I with Column II w.r.t stages of
(4) Vexillary – Bean flower
prophase – I.
100. In root tip, root hairs develop from
Column I Column II
(1) Region of root cap
(A) Leptotene (i) Synapsis
(2) Region of elongation
(B) Zygotene (ii) Crossing over
(3) Region of meristematic activity
(C) Pachytene (iii) Desynapsis
(4) Region of maturation
(D) Diplotene (iv) Condensation and
101. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t Endodermis.
coiling of chromatin
fibres (1) It is the innermost layer of cortex
(2) In transverse section, the cells of endosperm
A B C D appear barrel - shaped or oval – shaped.
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (3) The cells constituting endodermis are living
and may contain starch grains.
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) Are present in monocot stem
(3) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) 102. Select the correct statement w.r.t monocot leaf.
(1) Is dorsiventral
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) Stomata is equal in number on lower and
95. Standardisation of scientific name for animals is upper epidermis
done by
(3) Mesophyll is differentiated into palisade and
(1) ICNCP (2) ICZN spongy parenchyma
(3) ICBN (4) ICNB (4) Bulliform cells can not be present
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103. Which of the given plant groups is known as 111. Consider the given diagram and identify the parts
‘amphibians of the plant kingdom’? labelled as ‘A’ and ‘B’.
(1) Algae (2) Bryophytes
(3) Gymnosperm (4) Angiosperms
104. Which of the given structure represent juvenile
phase in life cycle of moss?
(1) Leafy gametophyte (2) Oospore
(3) Protonema (4) Capsule
105. The water potential of pure water at standard (1) ‘A’ is a peripheral membrane protein
temperatures, which is not under any pressure is complex.
always (2) ‘A’ is the site for synthesis of ATP from ADP
(1) Negative (2) Equal to ψ s and inorganic phosphate.
(3) One (4) Zero (3) ‘B’ contains the enzyme which catalyses
conversion of succinic acid to form fumaric
106. For a flaccid cell,
acid during aerobic respiration.
(1) ψP = 0 (2) DPD = 0
(4) ‘B’ contains all enzymes required in citric acid
(3) OP – TP = 0 (4) DPD = TP cycle.
107. Select the most appropriate reason for curling 112. Which of the given intermediates of amphibolic
of root hairs during nodule formation. pathway is raw material for amino acid
synthesis?
(1) Attachment of bacterium to epidermal root
hair cell (1) α – ketoglutaric acid (2) Oxaloacetic acid
(2) Release of Nod factors by Rhizobia (3) Succinyl CoA (4) Acetyl CoA
(3) Multiplication of bacteria 113. How many of the auxins given in the box are
(4) Production of infection thread natural?
108. Select the correct pairs of microorganisms w.r.t IAA, IBA, NAA, 2, 4 - D, 2, 4, 5 - T
free-living nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria?
(1) 3 (2) 2
(1) Anabaena and Nostoc
(3) 4 (4) 5
(2) Anabaena and Azotobacter
114. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t physiological
(3) Nostoc and Rhizobium
effects of ethylene.
(4) Azotobacter and Rhizobium
(1) Increases the number of female flowers in
109. In which of the given plants, double fixation of cucumber
CO2 occurs?
(2) Accelerates abscission
(1) Rice (2) Potato
(3) Increases sensitivity of roots to gravity
(3) Sorghum (4) Wheat
(4) Breaks dormancy
110. How many ATP and NADPH molecules are
required to fix 6 molecules of CO2 through Calvin 115. Which of the given is correct w.r.t increasing
cycle? order of life – span of various organisms?
(1) 6 ATP and 6 NADPH (1) Fruit fly < Crow < Cow < Crocodile
(2) 3 ATP and 2 NADPH (2) Butterfly < Cow < Parrot < Elephant
(3) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH (3) Rice plant < Banana tree < Rose < Banyan
(4) 12 ATP and 12 NADPH (4) Horse < Tortoise < Crocodile < Elephant
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116. Syngamy occurs outside the body in 122. In the process of transcription in eukaryotes, the
(1) Bryophytes RNA polymerase III transcribes.
(2) Pteridophytes (1) hn RNA
(3) Gymnosperm (2) r RNAs – 28S, 18S, 5.8S

(4) Most of the algae (3) t RNA, ScRNA, SnRNA and 5 SrRNA
117. Flowers have feathery stigma to easily trap the (4) m - RNA
air borne pollen grains is the characteristic
123. How many amino acid sequences will be present
features of which of the given plant?
in a polypeptide chain when genetic information
(1) Yucca
flows from the following stretch of DNA?
(2) Hydrilla
3′ ATGCATGC ATGCATC 5′ Template strand
(3) Wheat
5′ TACGTACG TACGTAG 3′ coding strand
(4) Zostera
(1) 5
118. Which of the given layer of anther is ephemeral
and degenerates at maturity? (2) 4
(1) Endothecium (3) 8
(2) Middle layer (4) 10
(3) Exothecium 124. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t ‘bacterial
(4) Tapetum transcription’.
119. In which genetic condition, each cell in the (1) mRNA does not require any processing to
affected person, has one sex chromosome only become active.
i.e. ‘XO’ condition.
(2) Transcription and translation takes place in
(1) Klinefelter’s syndrome
same compartment as there is no separation
(2) Down’s syndrome of cytosol and nucleus
(3) Turner’s syndrome (3) Translation begins only after the m-RNA is
(4) Phenylketonuria fully transcribed
120. If a colourblind male marries a female who is (4) Transcription and translation can be coupled
heterozygous for normal colour vision, the in bacteria
probability of their son being colourblind is
1
(1) 0 (2) (1) Wheat – Himgiri
2
(2) Cauliflower – Pusa sadabahar
1 3
(3) (4)
4 4 (3) Brassica – Karan Rai
121. The genotypes of a married couple for their blood (4) Cow pea – Pusa komal
groups are IA IB and I° I°. Among the blood types
126. Which of the given enzymes is genetically
of their children, how many different genotypes
and phenotypes are possible? engineered and used as ‘clot buster’?
(1) 2 genotypes and 2 phenotypes (1) Statin
(2) 4 genotypes and 2 phenotypes (2) Cyclosporin - A
(3) 4 genotypes and 3 phenotypes (3) Streptokinase

(4) 3 genotypes and 2 phenotypes (4) Amylase
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127. Given below is graphical representation of 132. Select the correct option w.r.t given below model
organismic response. Identify the correct of phosphorus cycle.
statement for A, B and C.
(1) ‘A’ – Ensures constant body temperature,

constant osmotic concentration, etc.
(2) ‘B’ – Maintains homeostasis by
physiological as well as behavioural
(1) ‘D’ is plants
means.
(3) ‘C’ – Cannot maintain a constant internal (2) ‘C’ is the process takes place through
environment decomposers
(4) ‘B’ – 99% animals (3) A = D

128. Which of the given population interaction is (4) Is a gaseous cycle
incorrect w.r.t mutualism?
133. The first national park established in India was
(1) Lichens
(1) Corbett national park
(2) Mycorrhizae
(2) Kanha national park
(3) Orchids and bees
(4) Cuscuta on hedge plants (3) Bandipur national park
129. The heterotrophs which convert plant matter into (4) Ranthambore national park
animal matter belongs to 134. Which of the given national park / sanctuaries are
(1) First order consumer known for protection of elephants?
(2) Primary carnivores (A) Kaziranga national park
(3) Tertiary consumer (B) Periyar sanctuary
(4) Top carnivores
(C) Simlipal sanctuary
130. Which of the given factors is/are most important
(D) Gir national park
climatic factors that regulate decomposition?
(1) Chemical nature of detritus (1) A and C
(2) Moisture only (2) B and C

(3) Temperature only (3) A and D
(4) Both moisture and temperature (4) B and D
131. Select the incorrect w.r.t gaseous cycle.
135. Which of the given gas is mostly responsible for
(1) Biogeochemical is non-mineral ozone depletion?
(2) Exchange of nutrients occur in gaseous or (1) CFC
vapour form
(2) H2S
(3) Reservoir pool is earth’s crust or lithosphere
(3) CO2
(4) Includes nitrogen, carbon, oxygen, hydrogen
cycle (4) SO2
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ZOOLOGY
136. Select the incorrect statement. 140. All of the following are present in intestinal juice
(1) Blood is a fluid connective tissue except
(2) Most of the cartilages in vertebrate embryos (1) Nucleases

are replaced by bones in adults (2) Sucrase
(3) The smooth muscle fibres taper at both ends (3) Maltase
and show striations (4) Nucleotidase
(4) Tight junctions help to stop substances from 141. When bile pigments like bilirubin increase in
leaking across a tissue blood it causes A . In this disorder B is
137. Choose the correct match affected.
(1) Compound epithelium – Single layer of Choose the correct option for filling the blanks A
cells and B
(2) Adhering junctions – Cement A B
neighbouring cells
(1) Indigestion Kidney
together
(2) Diarrhoea Liver
(3) Adipocytes – Secrete fibres
(3) Constipation Gall bladder
(4) Areolar tissue – Specialised
connective tissue (4) Jaundice Liver
138. Read statements A and B and choose the 142. The maximum volume of air a person can
correct option breathe in after a forceful expiration can be
represented by
Statement-A : Proteinaceous enzymes exhibit
substrate specificity and require optimum (1) TV + IRV
temperature and pH for maximal activity. (2) VC + RV
Statement-B : Inorganic catalysts work efficiently (3) TLC – RV
at high temperatures and high pressures, while
(4) ERV + RV
most enzymes get damaged at certain high
temperatures. 143. The incorrect statement w.r.t. emphysema is
(1) Statements A and B are correct (1) One of the major causes is excessive
cigarette smoking
(2) Statements A and B are incorrect
(2) Walls of alveoli are damaged
(3) Lungs remain inflated
(4) Exchange of gases increases across alveoli
139. Match Column-I and Column-II w.r.t. proteins
due to decrease in surface area
and their functions
144. Person with blood group ‘O’ is considered as
Column-I Column-II
universal donor because he has
a. Trypsin (i) Glucose transport
(1) Antigens-A, B on RBCs and no antibodies in
b. GLUT-4 (ii) Hormone plasma
c. Collagen (iii) Enzyme (2) Antigen-A on RBCs and anti-B antibody in
d. Insulin (iv) Intercellular plasma
ground substance (3) Antigen-B on RBCs and anti-A antibody in
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) plasma
(3) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) Neither A nor B antigen on RBCs.
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145. Which of the given statements are correct? a b c d

a. In humans, the cardiac output is about 5040
ml. (1) Hinge Pivot Sutures Saddle
b. Semilunar valves close when ventricular (2) Pivot Ball and Sutures Hinge
pressure rises during systole. socket
c. Deoxygenated blood is carried by pulmonary
vein. (3) Pivot Gliding Fibrous Saddle
d. First heart sound is produced due to opening
(4) Hinge Ball and Saddle Hinge
of AV valves.
socket
e. Veins have valves to prevent backflow of
blood 150. Select an autoimmune disorder of muscular and
(1) a, b and e skeletal system
(2) b, c and d (1) Myasthenia Gravis
(3) a and e (2) Tetany

(4) c, d and e (3) Osteoporosis
146. All of the following will favour increase in blood (4) Muscular dystrophy
pressure except
(1) Vasopressin option w.r.t. production of myelin sheath
(2) Angiotensin-II PNS : Schwann cells :: CNS : _________
(3) Renin
(1) Astrocytes (2) Oligodendrocytes
(4) ANF
(3) Osteoclasts (4) Osteoblasts
147. Which one of the following statements in regard
to human excretory system is correct? 152. Fovea is present on A and contains only
(1) The principal nitrogenous compound is B cells. Here A and B are

synthesised in the liver but is eliminated by
A B
kidneys
(1) Retina Rods
(2) Convoluted tubules are a part of renal
pyramid (2) Lens Cones
(3) Podocytes in loop of Henle create minute (3) Retina Cones
spaces (slit pores) for the filtration of blood
(4) Lens Rods
(4) When someone drinks a lot of water, ADH
153. Corpora quadrigemina which consists mainly of
release is increased
four round swellings is located in dorsal portion of
148. The total bones in axial and appendicular the
skeleton in an adult human are respectively
(1) Thalamus (2) Midbrain
(1) 80 and 26 (2) 206 and 80
(3) Pons (4) Medulla
(3) 80 and 126 (4) 126 and 206
154. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. chemical nature
149. Choose the option which correctly states the
of hormones
type of joint present between the following
a. Atlas and axis (1) Peptide – Insulin
b. Femur and acetabulum (2) Steroids – Estradiol
c. Cranial bones (3) Iodothyronine – Thyroid

d. Phalanges (4) Amino-acid derivative – Cortisol
@AakashDelhi02
(15)
155. Encystation when conditions are not favourable 162. Certain ART are given in the box below
is exhibited by
IVF, ZIFT, GIFT, AI, IUI, ICSI
(1) Hydra (2) Amoeba
(3) Sponges (4) Paramecium How many of them involve in-vitro fertilisation?
156. Oestrus cycle is not seen in (1) Two (2) Three
(1) Cows (2) Sheep (3) Four (4) Five
(3) Apes (4) Deers 163. Arrange the below given ancestors of man in
decreasing order of their cranial capacities.
157. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. human
reproduction a. Homo habilis b. Homo erectus
(1) Capacitation occurs in female reproductive c. Neanderthal man d. Cro-magnon man

tract Choose the correct option
(2) In human females, meiosis-II is not (1) d > c > b > a
completed until fertilisation (2) c > d > b > a
(3) The interstitial cells of tests are secretory (3) a > b > d > c
source of androgens
(4) b > a > d > c
(4) GnRH acts on posterior pituitary and
164. According to Hugo de Vries mutation causes
stimulates secretion of oxytocin and FSH
speciation, these mutations which he termed
158. Which of the following cells are found in ‘saltation’ are
seminiferous tubules and provide nutrition to
(1) Multi-step small mutations
male gamete mother cells?
(2) Single-step large mutation
(1) Sertoli cells
(3) Multi-step large mutations
(2) Secondary spermatocytes
(4) Single-step small mutation
(3) Leydig cells
165. Eye of the octopus and of mammals are
(4) Thecal cells
(1) Homologous organs
159. The hormone which remains at its lowest
concentration during ovulation is (2) Analogous organs
(1) LH (2) FSH (3) Indicative of common ancestry
(3) Estrogen (4) Progesterone (4) Anatomically similar
160. A terminal method of birth control which involves 166. All of the following are secondary lymphoid
surgery and whose reversibility is poor is organs except
(1) Implants (1) Peyer’s patches of small intestine
(2) Vasectomy (2) Spleen
(3) CuT insertion (3) Bone marrow
(4) Coitus interruptus (4) Tonsils
161. A sexually transmitted infection which is 167. Select the mismatch w.r.t. disease and
completely curable is detected early and treated causative agent
properly is Disease Causative agent
(1) Chlamydiasis (1) Filariasis – W. bancrofti
(2) Hepatitis-B (2) Malaria – Plasmodium
(3) Genital herpes (3) Ringworms – Ascaris
(4) HIV infection (4) Pneumonia – Haemophilus influenzae
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168. Chemotherapy, radiotherapy and immunotherapy 175. If an alien DNA is linked successfully at Bam HI
are treatment modalities for site of pBR322 vector the recombinant plasmid
(1) Hepatitis-B (2) AIDS will lose resistance to
(3) Malignant tumor (4) Dengue fever (1) Tetracycline (2) Chloramphenicol
169. Agent responsible for causing most serious form (3) Ampicillin (4) Kanamycin
of malaria which could be even fatal is 176. A method of insertion of recombinant DNA in
(1) Plasmodium vivax plant cells which involves bombarding of cells
(2) Plasmodium falciparum with high velocity micro-particles of gold or
tungsten coated with DNA is known as
(3) Plasmodium ovale
(4) Plasmodium malariae (1) Heat shock
170. Improved breed of cattle and chickens (2) Gene gun

respectively are (3) Micro-injection
(1) Leghorn and Hisardale (4) Insertional activation
(2) Jersey and Leghorn 177. Select the incorrect statement
(3) Jersey and Hisardale (1) Maximum number of existing transgenic
(4) Mule and Leghorn animals are mice
171. Odd one w.r.t marine edible fishes is (2) BAC and YAC are commonly used for human
(1) Hilsa (2) Sardines genome sequencing
(3) Rohu (4) Mackerel (3) Golden rice is a transgenic food crop meant
172. Each cycle of PCR has three temperature for biosynthesis of vitamin ‘A’
dependent steps, the correct order of which is (4) Acidic pH of stomach triggers activation of
(1) Primer annealing → Denaturation → protoxin to active Bt toxin of Bacillus
Extension of primers thuringiensis in boll worm
(2) Denaturation → Extension of primers → 178. A novel strategy of RNA interference is adopted
Primer annealing for tobacco plants to control
(3) Denaturation → Primer annealing → (1) Meloidogyne incognita

Extension of primers (2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(4) Extension of primers → Denaturation → (3) Bollworms
Primer annealing (4) Corn borer
179. Maturation of pro-insulin into insulin involves
option w.r.t. cell wall degrading enzyme.
removal of
Plant cells : Cellulase :: Fungi : _________
(1) A peptide (2) B peptide
(1) Lysozyme (2) Chitinase
(3) Disulphide bridges (4) C peptide
(3) Methylase (4) Ligase
180. The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990
174. _______ is used to stain separated DNA
to a 4-year-old girl with deficiency of
fragments after an agarose gel electrophoresis
and visualise them in UV light. (1) Insulin
Choose the option which fills the blank correctly (2) Adenosine deaminase
(1) Methylene blue (2) Chilled ethanol (3) Alkaline phosphatase
(3) Acetocarmine (4) Ethidium bromide (4) Polymerase
  
@AakashDelhi02
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29/04/2020 CODE-A
Test - 13
Answer Key
1. (2) 37. (2) 73. (4) 109. (3) 145. (3)
2. (4) 38. (2) 74. (1) 110. (3) 146. (4)
3. (2) 39. (3) 75. (3) 111. (3) 147. (1)
4. (3) 40. (3) 76. (1) 112. (1) 148. (3)
5. (4) 41. (1) 77. (3) 113. (2) 149. (2)
6. (4) 42. (4) 78. (1) 114. (3) 150. (1)
7. (3) 43. (1) 79. (3) 115. (1) 151. (2)
8. (2) 44. (3) 80. (2) 116. (4) 152. (3)
9. (4) 45. (4) 81. (2) 117. (3) 153. (2)
10. (1) 46. (2) 82. (3) 118. (2) 154. (4)
11. (3) 47. (4) 83. (4) 119. (3) 155. (2)
12. (3) 48. (3) 84. (3) 120. (2) 156. (3)
13. (1) 49. (4) 85. (3) 121. (1) 157. (4)
14. (3) 50. (3) 86. (2) 122. (3) 158. (1)
15. (3) 51. (2) 87. (4) 123. (2) 159. (4)
16. (3) 52. (4) 88. (2) 124. (3) 160. (2)
17. (4) 53. (2) 89. (3) 125. (2) 161. (1)
18. (4) 54. (3) 90. (4) 126. (3) 162. (2)
19. (4) 55. (4) 91. (1) 127. (2) 163. (1)
20. (4) 56. (3) 92. (1) 128. (4) 164. (2)
21. (2) 57. (4) 93. (2) 129. (1) 165. (2)
22. (1) 58. (1) 94. (4) 130. (4) 166. (3)
23. (3) 59. (2) 95. (2) 131. (3) 167. (3)
24. (4) 60. (4) 96. (1) 132. (2) 168. (3)
25. (2) 61. (3) 97. (3) 133. (1) 169. (2)
26. (3) 62. (1) 98. (1) 134. (2) 170. (2)
27. (2) 63. (4) 99. (4) 135. (1) 171. (3)
28. (2) 64. (1) 100. (4) 136. (3) 172. (3)
29. (1) 65. (3) 101. (4) 137. (2) 173. (2)
30. (3) 66. (1) 102. (2) 138. (1) 174. (4)
31. (4) 67. (4) 103. (2) 139. (4) 175. (1)
32. (4) 68. (4) 104. (3) 140. (1) 176. (2)
33. (1) 69. (2) 105. (4) 141. (4) 177. (4)
34. (3) 70. (2) 106. (1) 142. (3) 178. (1)
35. (4) 71. (1) 107. (2) 143. (4) 179. (4)
36. (4) 72. (1) 108. (1) 144. (4) 180. (2)
(1)
@AakashDelhi02
29/04/2020 CODE-A
Test - 13
Hints and Solutions
PHYSICS
1. Answer (2) 5×3
= λ
2× 4
Before closing down the switch current in the
10 ( ∆x )max 3 3λ 8
circuit is I= = 1A ⇒ ==
0
10 ( ∆x )min 3 15 5
λ
8
At t = 0, when S is closed, current in the circuit
decays with time to make continuity of the current 3. Answer (2)
L
τ= = 0.1 s
R
I0
1 dφ I1 = from malus law
Now from faraday’s law i = 2
R dt
τ ∆φ =I2 I1 cos2 θ
⇒ R ∫ idt = ∫ dφ = ∆φ
0 0 I0
= × cos2 45°
τ
2
⇒ 10 ∫ I0 e −t / τdt = ∆φ I0
0 =
4
10 × 1[ ] τ
= e −t / τ 0 = ∆φ I0 2 I0
−1/ τ =I3 cos
= 45°
4 8
−1
⇒ 1[1− e ] = ∆φ
I0
I4 =
 e − 1 16
⇒  e  = ∆φ
∴ % stopped
2. Answer (4)
 I0 
 I0 − 
( ∆x )max 3 =
3λ 16  × 100
= 
I0
( 2 × 3 − 1) λ
( ∆x )min 3 =
2×µ = 93.75 %
(2)
@AakashDelhi02

For pure rolling
mg GMm
=
x0 =
K KR 2
At height R = 1600 km
GMm
x=
K (R + h )2
Icm MR 2 R
=h = =
MR 2 × MR 2
x0 ( R + h )2  h
2
∴ = = 1 + 
x R2  R R
∴ from surface H = h + R = R +
2
2
 1600  3R
= 1 +  =
 6400  2
16 x0 8. Answer (2)
x=
25 Applying conservation of angular momentum
about hing ‘O’
5. Answer (4)
m vl  m l 2 ml 2 
 F − 50  =  × + ω
Tension in the string is F   = a ...(1) 2 2 2 4 3 
 5 
mvl 11 2
1 = ml ω
 ×5×v2 =5J 4 24
2
6v
ω=
⇒ v=2 m/s 11l
9. Answer (4)
∴ 2=
u + at
ml 2
I1 =
a= 2 3
 F − 50  ml 2
I2 =
 = 2 3
 5 
ml 2
F=50 + 5 2 =57.07 N =
I3 + m(OP )2
12
2
6. Answer (4) ml 2  3  5
=+ m  l = ml 2
Each particle will reach at the middle of sides of 12  2  6
d ∴ I = I1 + I2 + I3
square after time
2v
ml 2 ml 2 5 2
= + + ml
3 3 6
3ml 2
=
2
10. Answer (1)
 E= K + U
5= K − 3
v app = v cos 45° − v cos 45° = 0 8J
⇒ K=
(3)
@AakashDelhi02

Acceleration of both the blocks together is Tension at the point ‘O’ is
F − 0.2 × (5 + 2) × 10 T = 2 mg
a=
(5 + 2)
F − 14
a=
(7)
For 2 kg block to accelerate with same
F − 14
acceleration a = the friction between the
7 2mg
two block should be less than or equal to the Therefore, corresponding stress =
A
limiting value of friction.
At different points on the wire tension is different
i.e., 0.3 × 2 × 10 ≥ 2 × a
hence tensile stress is also different.
F − 14
⇒ 6 ≥ 2× 15. Answer (3)
7
For floatation in water
F ≤ 35 N
h 
Maximum value of force, F = 35 N V ρbody g =  × A  ρ water g …(1)
2 
12. Answer (3)
(Where V is volume of body and A is circular
When the monkey accelerates up along the rope
cross sectional area of cylinder)
with acceleration ‘a’ then tension in the rope is
For floatation in oil
T m(g + a )
=
For rope, not to break h 
V ρbody g =  × A  ρoil g ...(2)
4 
T ≤ Tmax
m(g + a ) ≤ (1.2)mg From (1) and (2)
a ≤ (1.2)g − g 1 1
ρw = ρoil
2 4
a≤2
ρoil =2ρw
amax = 2 m/s2
= 2 × 1000
13. Answer (1)
GMm = 2000 kg/m3
If F = then orbital speed is given as
r3
= 2 gm/cm3
mv 2 GMm
=
r r3 16. Answer (3)
GM l
⇒v = and hence time period of the planet T = 2π
r g
2πr 2
is T = 4 π2 l
GM ⇒g =2
T
⇒ T2 ∝ r4
l
Kepler’s III law is invalid and orbit can’t be ⇒g ∝
T2
elliptical.
(b) and (c) are correct moreover g near the earth ∆g ∆l 2∆T
⇒ × 100 = × 100 + × 100
surface will still be a constant. g l T
(4)
@AakashDelhi02
t ∆T ∆t 21. Answer (2)

 T = ⇒ × 100 = × 100
n T t
γ N RT
vN =
∆T 2 × 0.2 MN
⇒ 2 × 100= × 100= 0.4%
T 50
7
∆l 1× 10−3 × RT
Similarly, × 100
= × 100 = 5
l 50 × 10−2 28
= 0.2%
n1Cp + n2Cp
γ mix = 1 2
∆g n1Cv + n2Cv
× 100 = 0.2% + 0.4% 1 2
g
= 0.6% 7 5
 + R 6R 3
= 2 2 = =
17. Answer (4) 5 3 4R 2
 + R
Amplitude of reflected wave is 2 2
1 1 M1n1 + M2 n2
Ar = × Ai = × 1.2 Mmix =
3 3 n1 + n2
= 0.4 units
28n + 4n
=
 At denser medium phase of reflected wave 2n
changes by π = 16
Therefore, equation of reflected wave is
γ mix RT 3RT
=
v mix =
yr = 0.4 cosπ (t – 2x + π) 16 2 × 16
= – 0.4cosπ (t – 2x) v mix 3RT 28 × 5 15
= × =
18. Answer (4) vN 32 7RT 8
ω 22. Answer (1)
Wave velocity v =
K
PV
3 = constant
= n
= = 3 m/s RT
1
P0V0 P1(V0 + V )
19. Answer (4) ⇒ = n=
0
RT RT
x – B = Asinωt
(V0 ) P2 (V0 + V )
⇒ P1=
x = B + Asinωt
20. Answer (4)  PV 
⇒ 0 0  × V=
0
P2 (V0 + V )
1  V0 + V 
=v 36 − x 2
3
P0V02
⇒ P2 = 2
ω A2 − x 2
Comparing with v = (V0 + V )
1
ω= ∴ Number of moles after second stroke is
3
P2V0 P0V03
=
n2 =
2π 2
∴ T = =π
ω
6 s RT (V0 + V ) RT
(5)
@AakashDelhi02

NAK = R From Pascal’s Law
F1 F2
R =
⇒ K= A1 A2
NA
From ideal gas equation mg × A1

F1 =
A2
PV = nRT
= nKN AT 1000 × 10 × 10 × 10 −4
⇒ F1 =
2
PV
⇒ = nN A =5N
KT
27. Answer (2)
= Total number of molecules.
24. Answer (4) 2r 2 (ρ − σ)g
vT =
9η
(1) Since the process is cyclic hence
∆U = ∆U1 + ∆U2 = 0 vT ∝ r 2
(2) From I law of thermodynamics Radius of big drop R = n1/3 r

∆Q = ∆U + W 1/3
=R (125 ) × r
= 0 + W ⇒ ∆Q < 0
R = 5r
Heat is rejected by the system
(3) Work done by the gas from 1 to 2 is less (vT )1 r 2 1
⇒ = =
positive than negative work done by the gas ( T )2 (5r )
v 2 25
from 2 to 1.
⇒ vT = 25 × vT = 25 × 2
25. Answer (2) 2 1
From newton’s law of cooling = 50 m/s

∆θ 28. Answer (2)
= K [θmean − θsurr )
∆t nc
K max
= −φ
52 − 44 λ
= K ( 48 − 18 )
4 = nf − φ
1
K= ...(1) 6.63 × 10−34 × 6 × 1014
15 φ=
1.6 × 10−19
Again from 44°C to 40°C let time taken is time t
= 2.5 eV
min.
12400
44 − 40 Energy of incident light =
⇒ = K ( 42 − 18 ) 4133.33
t
= 3.0 eV
4 1
⇒ = × 24 Therefore, stopping potential is
t 15
1 2 nf φ
⇒ = V=
s
−
t 5 e e
3eV 2.5eV
5 = −
⇒ t= min e e
2
= 2.5 min = 0.5 V
(6)
@AakashDelhi02

1 IC = 100 × 20 × 10 −6 =
β IB = 2 mA
f =
2π LC
VC − 2 × 10−3 × 103 =
VCE
2
V
P= VCE = 5 − 2 = 3V
R
30. Answer (3) Now, VC − 20 × 10−6 × 245 × 103 =
VBE
Let, q1, q2 be the charge on the spheres,
⇒ 5 − 4.9 =
VBE
⇒ VBE = 0.1 V
34. Answer (3)
 1 1
Then VA − V=
B
Kq1  − 
a b 
i.e. potential difference between the spheres is
independent of charge on outer sphere.
KAε0 3 Aε0
31. Answer (4) C1 = , C2 =
d /3 2d
 ∆V
|E |= C1C2
∆x ∴ Ceq =
C1 + C2
10
=
E1
= 5 V/m
2 2
3  Aε 
6×  0 
0 2 d 
E2= = 0 V/m =
1  3  Aε0
6 + 
15 − 10  2 d
=E3 = 5 V/m
4−3 18 Aε0 6 Aε0
= =
15 15 d 5 d
=
E4 = 15 V/m
5−4 35. Answer (4)
32. Answer (4) Since magnetic field is not varying w.r.t time,
Apply KCL at O dφ
Therefore, =0
dt
Ein = 0
36. Answer (4)
tan δ
tan30° =
cos α
3 tan=
δ cos α ...(1)
10 − V0 8 − V0 V0 − 6 tan δ
+ = tan 45° =
4 2 4 cos(90 + α )
Simplifying and solving for V0.
tan δ
=
V0 = 8V − sin α
⇒ I2 = 0 A ⇒ sin α = − tan δ ...(2)
(7)
@AakashDelhi02
(1)2 and (2)2 gives 40. Answer (3)

 2 
1 = ( 3 ) + 12  tan2 δ  2A 
ε0 d φ ε0 d  E. 3 
1 =
Id =
tan δ = dt dt
2
2 A dE
 1 = ε
δ =tan−1   3 0 dt
2
37. Answer (2) 2 A ε0 dQ
=
3 Aε0 dt
Let ground state energy (in eV) be E1
Then from the given condition 2 10
= = I mA
204 eV
E2n − E1 = 3 3
41. Answer (1)
E1
204 eV
− E1 = …(i)
(2n )2 δ1 = ( µ − 1) A
40.8 eV
E2 n − En = = (1.5 − 1) 3
E1 E1 = 1.5°
− 40.8 eV
= …(ii)
4n 2 n2
Deviation produced by mirror
From equation (i) and (ii)
δ=
2
180 − 2=
δ 177°
1
1− 2
4n = 5 ⇒ n = 2 ∴ Total deviation produced in the incident ray is
3
δ = δ1 + δ2 = 1.5° + 177° = 178.5°
4n 2
x > 0 for all times as exponential function is f0 f0
m= ⇒ fe =
always positive. fe m
dx 150
v = =−K βe −Kt < 0 for every time =
dt 30
dv = 5 cm
=
a = K 2βe −Kt > 0 for all time
dt
L = fo + fe = 150 + 5 = 155 cm
39. Answer (3)
43. Answer (1)
u 2 2
v= ⇒ 3v = u Internal resistance
3
l −l 
( )
⇒ 3 v y2 + v x2 =u 2 =102 =100 =r  1 2 ×R
 l2 
2 100
⇒ (5 3 − 10t ) = − 25 Putting the values l1, l2 and R we have,
3
150 − 100
2 25 =r ×5
⇒ (5 3 − 10t ) = 100
3
5 = 2.5 Ω
⇒ 5 3 − 10t =
3 44. Answer (3)
1 25 G = 50 × 20
t= s
3 ⇒ G = 40 Ω
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@AakashDelhi02
45. Answer (4) B1 = 0

u0 i / 2
B2
= ⊗
4πr
u0 i / 2
B3 = 
4πr
∴ B net = B1 + B2 + B3 = 0
CHEMISTRY
0.2 mol C6H12O6 Compound having methyl keto group and
⇒ 0.2 × 24 = 4.8 mol of atoms
47. Answer (4) group give iodoform test.
w 12 55. Answer (4)
nurea
= = = 0.2 mol
M0 60
0.2 2
Molarity = = = 0.4 M
0.5 5
48. Answer (3)
Cu : [29] : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s1 The chloride bridge is a three-centre four-
electron bond.
l 0 0 1 0 1 2 0
56. Answer (3)
49. Answer (4)
SF6 :
Hybridization of atomic orbitals of sulphur is

sp3d2.
57. Answer (4)
50. Answer (3)
SN 1 Dacron is an example of polyester.
CH3O — CH(Ph)2 + HI  → CH3OH +
58. Answer (1)
Molecule of zero dipole moment is non-polar in
nature.
51. Answer (2)
CH4(µnet = 0), so will be non-polar.
h 6.62 × 10 −34
=
λ = = 10–12 = 0.01 Å
mv 6.62 × 10 −22 × 1
52. Answer (4)
Chlorine has highest first negative electron gain
enthalpy. 59. Answer (2)
53. Answer (2) N2 : [14e–] σ1s 2 σ *1s 2 σ2s 2 σ *2s 2 π2 px 2 =
π2 py 2
HNO3
Glucose  → saccharic acid
σ2 pz 2
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@AakashDelhi02
CO CO2 Boiling of egg results in increase of entropy due

CO32−
to denaturation of protein.
C–O bond 3 2 4 67. Answer (4)
order 3 0.1N NaOH ⇒ [OH–] = 10–1, pOH = 1, pH = 13
C – O bond Shortest Longest 68. Answer (4)
length Pair of solution of NH4NO3 and HNO3 cannot act
as buffer.
69. Answer (2)
Zn(OH)2 (s)  Zn2+ (aq) + 2OH– (aq)

61. Answer (3) s 2s
Non-polar molecules involve only London forces Ksp = 4s3 =4× 10–15
62. Answer (1) s3 = 10–15, s = 10–5
1/ 2
 1  70. Answer (2)
Rate of diffusion ∝  
 Molar mass 
E° = E°Cr O 2− /Cr 3+ − E°Fe3+ /Fe2+
63. Answer (4)
2 7
= 1.33 – 0.77 = 0.56 V

x
2 71. Answer (1)
Mole fraction (H2) =
x x x
+ + Hydrides which have number of H-atoms equal to
2 4 20
no. of electrons in valence shell
x x
72. Answer (1)
= 2 = 2
10 x + 5 x + x 16 x Volume strength = 11.2 × MH O
2 2
20 20
15 = 11.2 × MH
2 O2
20 10 5
= = =
2 × 16 16 8 w
% × 10
64. Answer (1) MH O = v
2 2 34
For, N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
w
∆ng = 2 – 4 = –2 ⇒ % = 4.55%
v
∆H = ∆U – 2RT 73. Answer (4)
∆U = ∆H + 2RT Density order : Cs > Rb > Na > K > Li
or ∆H < ∆U 74. Answer (1)
65. Answer (3) In alkaline earth metal hydroxides, magnitude of
V  lattice enthalpy decrease significantly down the
W = –2.303 nRT log  f  group, so solubility increases.
 Vi 
75. Answer (3)
 25 
= –2.303 × 1 × R × 300 log   Compound having largest no. of strong electron
 5 
withdrawing group will be more susceptible for
= –2.303 × 300R log 5 = –300R ln5 nucleophilic substitution reaction.
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@AakashDelhi02
76. Answer (1) To convert 1 mol nitrobenzene to aniline

77. Answer (3) = 6 F charge required
Cyclic planar species having (4n + 2)π electron in To convert 0.2 mol nitrobenzene to aniline,
delocalisation is aromatic in nature. charge required.
78. Answer (1) = 6 × 0.2 F
= 1.2 F
• With increase in molar mass of alkanes, van
der Waal forces increase, which results in 85. Answer (3)
increase of B.P. 2.303  100  2.303
= t = log   log(16)
• For isomeric alkanes, with increase in k  6.25  k
branching, B.P. decreases
79. Answer (3) 2.303 2.303 4log2
= × 4 log2 =
Ring of highest electron density gives fastest rate k 2.303log2
of electrophilic substitution. t1/ 2
80. Answer (2) = 4t1/2 = 4 × 3 = 12 hr

Tetra chloroethene was earlier used as solvent 86. Answer (2)
for dry cleaning. Haemoglobin is an example of positive sol.
FeSiO3 is formed as slag during extraction of
In bcc : 3a = 4r
copper
82. Answer (3)
FeO + SiO2 → FeSiO3
Packing efficiency of fcc unit cell is 74%.
88. Answer (2)
83. Answer (4) Both Np and Pu can show oxidation state upto
As per Henry’s law +7.
p = kH.X 89. Answer (3)
nCO2 [Ni(NH3)6]Cl2 ⇒ Ni2+ : [Ar]3d8
0.5 bar = (1.6 × 103 bar) ×
nCO2 + 100
nCO2
or 0.5 bar = (1.6 × 103 bar) ×
100
nCO2 = 0.03125
90. Answer (4)
84. Answer (3) EDTA is used in the treatment of lead poisoning
DMG is used to detect Ni2+
[Ag(S2O3)2]3– is used in black and white
photography.
BOTANY
Plant cells are generally larger than animal cell. 97. Answer (3)
93. Answer (2) Plasmodium is sporozoan and does not have
94. Answer (4) locomotory structure. There are endoparasites.
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@AakashDelhi02

φ × 174 bacteriophage virus contain ssDNA. Organisms with their life – span are as follows.
Remaining viruses in other option contain
Organisms Life span
dsDNA.
Fruitfly 2 weeks
99. Answer (4)
Butterfly 1 - 2 - weeks
100. Answer (4)
Rice plant 3 - 4 months
101. Answer (4)
Rose 5 - 7 years
Endodermis is absent in monocot stem.
Banana tree 25 years
102. Answer (2)
Monocot leaf is isobilateral; Mesophylls are not Banyan tree 200 - 300 years
differentiated into palisade and spongy Crow 15 years
parenchyma in monocot leaf. Bulliform cells are
Cow 20 - 25 years
present, particularly in grasses.
103. Answer (2) Elephant 60 - 90 years
104. Answer (3) Parrot 140 years
105. Answer (4) Crocodile 60 years

106. Answer (1) Horse 60 years
For a flaccid cell DPD or ψ w = ψ s or OP Tortoise 100 - 150 years
107. Answer (2) 116. Answer (4)
108. Answer (1) Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperm and
Anabaena and Nostoc are free-living nitrogen angiosperm show internal fertilisation.
fixing cyanobacteria. 117. Answer (3)
109. Answer (3) Wheat shows anemophily.
Sorghum is C4 plant in which double CO2 fixation
118. Answer (2)
occurs. Rice, potato and wheat are
C3 – plants. 119. Answer (3)
110. Answer (3) 120. Answer (2)
For every CO2 molecule entering Calvin cycle, According to given question,
three molecules of ATP and two molecules of
NADPH are required.
111. Answer (3)
‘A’ is F0 (an integral protein) whereas, ‘B’ is inner
mitochondrial membrane.
112. Answer (1)
113. Answer (2)
IAA and IBA are natural auxins. Hence, Probability of colour blind son
114. Answer (3)
1
= =
Ethylene decreases sensitivity of roots to gravity. 2
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121. Answer (1) 124. Answer (3)

Many times the translation can begin much
before the mRNA is fully transcribed in bacteria.
125. Answer (2)
Pusa sadabahar – Chilli
126. Answer (3)
127. Answer (2)
A – Conformer
Number of genotype = 2 (IA I° and IB I°)
B – Regulator
Number of phenotype = 2 (Blood group-A
C – Partial regulator
and B).
128. Answer (4)
122. Answer (3)
Cuscuta on hedge plants show parasitism
123. Answer (2) (ectoparasite).
According to given question, stretch of DNA is 129. Answer (1)
3′ ATGC ATGCATGC ATC 5′ Template strand Primary consumers are first order consumers and
5′ TACG TACGTACG TAG 3′ Coding strand they directly feed on producers. Hence, converts
plant matter into animal matter.
Since, template strand is involved in transcription
130. Answer (4)
Hence, the m-RNA produced will be
131. Answer (3)
In gaseous cycle, reservoir pool is atmosphere or
hydrosphere.
132. Answer (2)
133. Answer (1)
134. Answer (2)
Hence, total amino acid produced will be 4. 135. Answer (1)
ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (3) 139. Answer (4)
The smooth muscle fibres do not show striations. Protein Functions
137. Answer (2) Collagen – Intercellular ground substance
Compound epithelium is made of more than one Trypsin – Enzyme

layer of cells (multi-layered).
Insulin – Hormone
Fibroblasts secrete fibres. Cartilage, bone and
Antibody – Fights infections agents
blood are various types of specialised connective
tissue. Receptor – Sensory reception (smell, taste etc.)
138. Answer (1) GLUT-4 – Enables glucose transport into cells

Enzymes isolated from thermophilic organisms 140. Answer (1)
retain their catalytic power even at high
Nucleases are present in pancreatic juice.
temperatures (upto 80° – 90°C).
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@AakashDelhi02
141. Answer (4) 150. Answer (1)

In jaundice, bile pigments like bilirubin increases In Myasthenia gravis antibodies recognise the
in blood causing yellowness in skin and eyes. body’s acetylcholine receptors as foreign material
142. Answer (3) and start acting against it.
Vital capacity includes ERV, TV and IRV. 151. Answer (2)
It does not include residual volume The myelin sheath acts as a biological electrical
insulation, creating a region of high electrical
VC = IRV + TV + ERV
resistance on the myelinated axons.
VC = TLC – RV
152. Answer (3)
143. Answer (4)
In mammalian eye, the ‘fovea’ is the centre of the
The walls of alveoli are damaged due to visual field, where high density of cones occur,
excessive smoking, loss of elasticity of walls of but no rods.
bronchioles and alveoli. Due to this, the surface
area for exchange of gases is reduced. Alveolar 153. Answer (2)
sacs remain filled with air even after expiration. Principle structures of corpora quadrigemina are
The lungs remain inflated as exhalation becomes superior colliculi and inferior colliculi.
difficult.
154. Answer (4)
144. Answer (4)
Cortisol is a steroid.
Blood group ‘O’ can be donated to persons with
155. Answer (2)
any other blood group and hence ‘O’ group
individuals are called ‘universal donors’. Under unfavourable conditions the Amoeba
withdraws its pseudopodia and secretes a three
145. Answer (3)
layered hard covering or cyst around itself. This
Semilunar valves close when ventricular phenomenon is termed as encystation.
pressure falls. Oxygenated blood is carried by
156. Answer (3)
pulmonary vein. First heart sound is produced
due to closure of AV valves. In non-primate mammals like cows, sheep, rats,
146. Answer (4) deers, dogs, tiger, etc., cyclical changes during
reproduction are called oestrus cycle whereas in
ANF opposes the regulation of RAAS. The wall of primates (monkeys, apes and humans) it is
the atria of the heart releases ANF in response to called menstrual cycle.
an increase in blood volume and pressure. ANF
causes vasodilation (dilation of blood vessels) 157. Answer (4)
and thereby decreases the blood pressure. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in
147. Answer (1) reproduction, acts on anterior pituitary gland and
stimulates secretion of LH and FSH.
Convoluted tubules is not a part of renal pyramid.
Podocytes are present in Bowman’s capsule. 158. Answer (1)
ADH release is suppressed on drinking a lot of After spermiogenesis the sperm heads become
water. embedded in the Sertoli cells, and are finally
148. Answer (3) released from the seminiferous tubules by the
process called spermiation.
206 bones are present in adult human body.
Axial (80) + Appendicular (126) = Total (206). 159. Answer (4)
149. Answer (2) Peak of LH and FSH and estrogen surge is seen
Sutures are fibrous joints and do not allow any just before ovulation. Progesterone increases in
movement. luteal phase.
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@AakashDelhi02
160. Answer (2) 171. Answer (3)

In vasectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is Catla, Rohu and common carp are examples of
removed or tied up through a small incision of the freshwater fishes.
scrotum.
172. Answer (3)
161. Answer (1)
Denaturation – 94°C
162. Answer (2)
IVF, ZIFT and ICSI involves in-vitro fertilisation. Annealing – 50°C
163. Answer (1) Primer extension – 72°C

Homo habilis – 650 to 800 cc 173. Answer (2)
Homo erectus – 900 cc Lysozyme degrades bacterial cell wall.
Cro-magnon man – 1650 cc 174. Answer (4)
Neanderthal man – 1400 cc
Chilled ethanol precipitates DNA.
164. Answer (2)
175. Answer (1)
Darwin postulated that evolution was gradual
unlike de Vries. Ligation of alien DNA at BamH I site results in
165. Answer (2) insertional inactivation of gene providing
resistance to tetracycline.
Analogous organs have common function but
different origin. 176. Answer (2)
166. Answer (3) Gene gun is also called biolistics.
Bone marrow and thymus are primary lymphoid 177. Answer (4)
organs.
Once an insect ingest the inactive toxin, it is
167. Answer (3) converted into an active form of toxin due to the
Ascaris is intestinal parasite causes ascariasis. alkaline pH of the gut which solubilise the
Many fungi belonging to the genera crystals containing a toxic insecticidal protein.
Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton
178. Answer (1)
are responsible for ring worms.
168. Answer (3) RNA interference involves silencing of a specific
mRNA in nematode (parasite) due to which the
A malignant tumor is cancerous and treatment for
parasite does not survive.
cancer includes surgery, chemotherapy,
immunotherapy and radiotherapy. 179. Answer (4)
169. Answer (2) In rDNA technique of production of insulin chains
Plasmodium falciparum causes malignant A and B are produced separately, extracted and
malaria. combined by creating disulphide bonds/bridges.
170. Answer (2) 180. Answer (2)
Hisardale is a breed of sheep. Mule is a result of The disorder is caused due to the deletion of the
interspecific hybridisation. gene for adenosine deaminase.
  
(15)
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20/03/2020 CODE-A

MM : 720 TEST SERIES for NEN2020 Time 3.00

Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom

Botany The Living World, Biological Classification, Plant Kingdom

Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.

Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.

(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.

(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.

Choose the correct answer : 3. If eo is permittivity of free space and go is

1. If B and C are three physical quantities such

different dimensions, then which of the following dimensional formula of is

(C -2B) (1) [MLEI]

(3) (4) (3) [MLT-2]

velocity 2.03 m/s, accelerating uniformly with

(3) Percentage error is 0.5% (1) 2.3 (2) 2.0

(4) Percentage error is 0.05% (3) 2.06 (4) 2.1

(2) 2.5% 12. The velocity time graph of a particle moving on a

6. If power of a force varies with displacement x and

time t as where a and b are

dimensional constants, then the dimensional

(3) [MLOT-3] (4) [MOLT-I]

(l) [Fat] (2) [Fa-lt-l]

(3) [Fa-1t-2] (4) [Fa-lt2]

8. If each division on the main scale is 1 mm, which

(1) 9 mm divided into 10 divisions

[MBLbTC], then the physical quantity is

(1) Torque, if a= 1, b 22 and c = —1

on linear scale and 50 divisions on circular

(3) de-Broglie (4) Neil Bohr the particle is proportional to

10 s another ball is thrown in downward direction

3VIV2 becomes parallel to x-axis is

Velocity and acceleration both are

(2) Velocity is perpendicular to F and

(3) Velocity is parallel to F and acceleration is

The average velocity of the particle from t = 0 s

start running simultaneously with same speed as

to give zero vector. Then which of the following is

(1) 10 (2) m/s (3) if ÄLÉ

equation of its path will be which acceleration becomes normal to the

(3) 10, 5, 8 (4) 15, 8, 20

water is 50 m/s then the displacement of man

(4) 10077 m (3) 15 m/s2 (4) 20 m/s2

35. In the figure given below the maximum height of

(1) 0.5 unit (2) 1 unit

(3) 2 unit (4) 4 unit

41. A system of units has 10 kg, 10 cm and 10 s as

(1) 13.5m (2) 15.5 m (2) 1 units

(3) 18m (3) 10 units

brought to rest travelling a distance of 20 m. If

37. A ball is dropped from a long tower. One second

(3) 227.8 m (4) 150 m

2Jä m/s2 Angle made by

(1) 300 (2) 450

(1) 300 (2) 450 (3) 1.41 m ±O.15m

48. Normality of 0.1 M H3P03 is

(1) 0.2 N (2) 0.1 N

(1) 6.17m (2) 5.24 m

(3) 18 1024 (4) 1.8 x 1022

52. Which of the following method of expressing (3) 0.3 mole of H2

(3) 1 ms I (4) 0.1 ms I

(M = Molar mass of salt) (4) Neutron

(3) (4) 76. The number of photons emitted in one second by

(1) 02, 03 (2) CO, N2 78. A steel vessel containing 10 g H2 and 64 g 02