SESSION : 2019-20

NSEJS Support Program

Daily Practice Problems
Duration : 60 Min. Total Marks: 40

Class : IX DPP : 04
General instructions :
1. The practice paper contains 40 questions.
(a) 1-10 questions from Mathematics
(b) 11-20 questions from Physics
(c) 21-30 questions from Chemistry
(d) 31-40 questions from Biology
2. Every correct answer will be awarded 1 mark. There will be no negative marking.

1. P can do a piece of work in 10 days. Q can do it in 24 days. If R also works with them then it takes only 6 days to
complete the whole work. In how many days R alone can complete the whole work?
(A) 25 (B) 40 (C) 50 (D) 75

2. A student who secures 20% marks in an examination fails by 30 marks. Another student who secures 32%
marks gets 42 marks more than those required to pass. T he percentage of marks required to pass is
______.
(A) 20% (B) 25% (C) 28% (D) 30%

3. Pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 10 hours and 15 hours respectively. When a third pipe C which works as
an outlet pipe is also open then the cistern can be filled in 18 hours. The outlet pipe can empty a full cistern
in _____.
(A) 12 hours (B) 8 hours (C) 9 hours (D) 14 hours

4. A trader marks his goods at 20% above the cost price. He sold half the stock at the marked price, one
quarter at a discount of 20% on the marked price and the rest at a discount of 40% on the marked price.
His total gain is ______.
(A) 2 % (B) 4.5 % (C) 13.5 % (D) 15 %

5. A railway half ticket costs half the full fare. But, the reservation charges are the same on the half ticket as
on the full ticket. One reserved first class full ticket from Mumbai to Ahmadabad costs Rs. 216 while one full
and one half reserved ticket costs Rs. 327. What is the value of the first class full ticket and what is the
reservation charge respectively?
(A) Rs 3, Rs 210 (B) Rs 210, Rs 210 (C) Rs 6, Rs 220 (D) Rs 210, Rs 6

6. The monthly salary of Megha and Beena together is 28,000. The salary of Megha and Beena is increased by
25% and 12.5% respectively, then the new salary of Beena becomes 120% of the new salary of Megha. The
new (or increased) salary of Megha is ______.
(A) Rs 15,000 (B) Rs 18,000 (C) Rs 14,000 (D) Rs 16,000

7. Two trains starting at the same time from two stations 300 km apart and going in opposite directions, cross
each other at a distance of 160 km from one of them. The ratio of their speeds is _____.
(A) 7 : 9 (B) 16 : 20 (C) 8 : 7 (D) None of these

8. A person was asked to state his age in years. His reply was, "Take my age three years hence, multiply it by
3 and then subtract three times my age three years ago and you will know how old I am." What was the
age of the person?
(A) 18 years (B) 20 years (C) 24 years (D) 32 years

H.O. 92, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Kota (Raj.) Mob. 97831-97831, 70732-22177, Ph. 0744-2423333 www.nucleuseducation.in 1
 PCCP

9. A lot of 24 bulbs contain 25% defective bulbs. A bulb is drawn at random from the lot. It is found to be not
defective and it is not put back. Now, one bulb is drawn at random from the rest. What is the probability that
this bulb is not defective?
18 15 17 20
(A) (B) (C) (D)
23 24 23 23

10. A man bought some fruits at the rate of 16 for Rs 24 and sold them at the rate of 8 for Rs. 18. What is the
profit percent ?
(A) 25% (B) 40% (C) 50% (D) 60%

11. Assuming earth to be a sphere of a uniform density, what is the value of gravitational acceleration in a mine
100 km below the earth’s surface (Given R = 6400 km)
2 2 2 2
(A) 9.66 m/s (B) 7.64 m/s (C) 5.06 m/s (D) 3.10 m/s

12. If the value of ‘g’ (acceleration due to gravity) at a height h above the surface of the earth is the same as at
a depth d below it, then (Assume that h and d < < R earth radius) :
h 2
(A) h = d (B) h = d/2 (C) d = (D) d = h
2

13. The gravitational potential energy of a body of mass ‘m’ at the earth’s surface −mgR e . Its gravitational
potential energy at a height Re from the earth’s surface will be (Here Re is the radius of the earth)
1 1
(A) −2mgRe (B) 2mgRe (C) mgR e (D) - mgR e
2 2

14. Acceleration due to gravity on moon is 1/6 of the acceleration due to gravity on earth. If the ratio of
ρ  5
densities of earth (ρ e ) and moon (ρ m ) is  e  = then radius of moon Rm in terms of Re will be
 ρm  3
5 1 3 1
(A) Re (B) Re (C) Re (D) Re
18 6 18 2 3

15. The gravitational force between two stones of mass 1 kg each separated by a distance of 1 metre in vacuum is
(A) Zero (B) 6.675 × 10 −5 newton
(C) 6.675 ×10 newton
-11
(D) 6.675 ×10-8 newton

16. Two particles of equal mass go round a circle of radius R under the action of their mutual gravitational
attraction. The speed of each particle is
1 1 Gm 1 Gm 4Gm
(A) v = (B) v = (C) v = (D) v =
2R Gm 2R 2 R R

17. The earth (mass = 6 × 10 24 kg) ) revolves round the sun with angular velocity 2 × 10 −7 rad / s in a circular orbit of
radius 1.5 × 10 8 km . The force exerted by the sun on the earth in newtons, is
(A) 18 ×1025 (B) Zero (C) 27 ×1039 (D) 36 ×1021

18. A body of mass m kg starts falling from a point 2R above the Earth’s surface. Its kinetic energy when it has
fallen to a point ‘R’ above the Earth’s surface [R-Radius of Earth, M-Mass of Earth, G-Gravitational
Constant]
1 GMm 1 GMm 2 GMm 1 GMm
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 R 6 R 3 R 3 R

19. A body is projected vertically upwards from the surface of a planet of radius R with a velocity equal to half
the escape velocity for that planet. The maximum height attained by the body is
(A) R/3 (B) R/2 (C) R/4 (D) R/5

H.O. 92, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Kota (Raj.) Mob. 97831-97831, 70732-22177, Ph. 0744-2423333 www.nucleuseducation.in 2
 PCCP

20. Energy required to move a body of mass m from an orbit of radius 2R to 3R is

(A) GMm /12R2 (B) GMm / 3R2 (C) GMm / 8R (D) GMm / 6R

21. Which of the following is different from other three oxides?

(A) MgO (B) SnO (C) ZnO (D) PbO

22. The ground state electronic configurations of the elements, U, V, W, X, and Y (these symbols do not have
any chemical significance) are as follows :
2 2 3
U : 1s 2s 2p
2 2 6 1
V : 1s 2s 2p 3s
2 2 6 2 2
W : 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p
2 2 6 2 6 5 2
X : 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s
2 2 6 2 6 10 2 6
Y : 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s 4p .
Determine which sequence of elements satisfy the following statements :
(i) Element forms a carbonate which is not decomposed by heating.
(ii) Element is most likely to form coloured ionic compounds.
(iii) Element has largest atomic radius.
(iv) Element forms only acidic oxide.
(A) V W Y U (B) V X Y W (C) V W Y X (D) V X W U

23. Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?

(A) Greater is the nuclear charge, greater is the electron gain enthalpy.
(B) Nitrogen has almost zero electron gain enthalpy.
(C) Electron gain enthalpy decreases from fluorine to iodine in the group.
(D) Chlorine has highest electron gain enthalpy.
2–
24. The formation of the oxide ion O (g) requires first an exothermic and then an endothermic step as shown
below :
– – –1
O (g) + e O (g) ; ∆H = 142 kJ mol
– 2– –1
O (g) + e O (g) ; ∆H = 844 kJ mol
This is because :
–
(A) O ion has comparatively larger size than oxygen atom.
(B) Oxygen has high electron affinity.
–
(C) O ion will tend to resist the addition of another electron.
(D) Oxygen is more electronegative.

25. Column-I and Column-II contains four entries each. Entries of Column-I are to be matched with some
entries of Column-II. One or more than one entries of Column-I may have the matching with the same
entries of Column-II.
Column-I Column-II
(atomic number) (position in the periodic table)
(A) 52 (p) s-block
(B) 56 (q) p-block
(C) 57 (r) d-block
(D) 60 (s) f-block
(A) (A) - (q) ; (B) - (p) ; (C) - (r) ; (D) - (s) (B) (A) - (q) ; (B) - (p) ; (C) - (s) ; (D) - (r)
(C) (A) - (q) ; (B) - (r) ; (C) - (p) ; (D) - (s) (D) (A) - (p) ; (B) - (q) ; (C) - (r) ; (D) - (s)

26. In the series carbon, nitrogen, oxygen and fluorine the electronegativity -
(A) Decreases from carbon to fluorine
(B) Increases from carbon to fluorine
(C) Remains constant
(D) Decreases from carbon to oxygen and then increases

27. Which one of the following elements shows both positive and negative oxidation states?
(A) Caesium (B) Fluorine (C) Iodine (D) Xenon

H.O. 92, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Kota (Raj.) Mob. 97831-97831, 70732-22177, Ph. 0744-2423333 www.nucleuseducation.in 3
 PCCP

28. The correct order of ionic size of N3–, Na+, F–, Mg2+ and O2– is :
(A) Mg2+ > Na+ > F– > O2– > N3–. (B) N3– < F– > O2– > Na+ > Mg2+.
(C) Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2– < N3–. (D) N3– > O2– > F– > Na+ < Mg2+.

29. Which of the following pairs have approximately the same atomic radii?
(A) Zr and Hf (B) AI and Mg (C) AI and B (D) Na and Ne

30. The second ionization energies for four consecutive elements of the periodic table W, X, Y and Z, (that is
–1 –1 –1
they have atomic numbers n, n+1, n+2 and n+3) are 2297.3 kJ mol , 2665.8 kJ mol , 3051.3 kJ mol and
–1
1145.4 kJ mol , respectively. Which of the following pairs of oxides would be most stable?
(A) WO, X2O (B) Y2O, ZO (C) XO3, Z2O (D) W 2O, YO2

31. What is the main difference in human and frog RBC?

(A) Human RBC are non-nucleated (B) Haemoglobin is found only in human RBC
(C) Human RBC have nucleus (D) Human RBC are multinucleated

32. Prothrombin is found in :

(A) Intestine and helps in cellulose digestion (B) Liver and helps in production of bile
(C) Blood and gives red colour (D) Blood and helps in blood clotting

33. The tissue which forms the basic structure of lymphoid organs, spleen, etc is :
(A) Lymphoid tissue (B) Cartilage tissue
(C) Elastic tissue (D) Areolar tissue

34. Haversian canal is situated in

(A) Glandular connective tissue (B) Skeletal connective tissue
(C) Fibrous connective tissue (D) Nervous tissue

35. Stratified squamous epithelium is found in :

(A) Pharynx (B) Trachea (C) Ileum (D) Bowman's capsule

36. Ciliated epithelium is present in

(A) Trachea (B) Ureter (C) Intestine (D) Nasal chamber

37. Minimum regeneration power is present in

(A) Nervous tissue (B) Connective tissue
(C) Epithelial tissue (D) None of these

38. The cavities of brain are lined by

(A) Cuboidal cells (B) Polygonal cells
(C) Ependymal cells (D) Simple squamous cells

39. Anaemia disease is caused by :

(A) Deficiency of Fe (B) Deficiency of Na
(C) Deficiency of Ca (D) Deficiency of Mg

40. Which one of the following anticoagulant is added in blood during storage?
(A) Sodium carbonate (B) Sodium oxalate
(C) Sodium chloride (D) Sodium hydroxide

H.O. 92, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Kota (Raj.) Mob. 97831-97831, 70732-22177, Ph. 0744-2423333 www.nucleuseducation.in 4