Paper Code

(1001CPE401620035) )0//0CPE4/061//25)
FORM NUMBER

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

(ACADEMIC SESSION 2020-2021)

Pre-Nurture & Career Foundation Division

CLASS IX
MOCK TEST DATE : 30 - 11 - 2020
TARGET : IJSO
PLEASE READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

1. Duration of Test is 2 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 70 Questions. Total Marks are 240.

2. There are 60 questions single correct option and 3 marks for each correct answer and –1 Negative and 10
questions with more than one option correct 6 marks for each correct answer and No Negative marking for each
incorrect answer.

3. Use of calculator is strictly prohibited.

4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

6. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of
Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.

7. Use of Pencil and whitener is prohibited.

8. The marking scheme is given in the paper along with each Section.

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Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation

 CLASS - IX 30-11-2020

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PHYSICS 2. In the figure, |AB| = |BC| = |CD| and the vectors

r r r r
a , b , c , d are given.
1. A diver jumps up vertically in the air from a
P
high platform and falls into water. The v-t graph

below shows the variation of the velocity of

a b c d
the diver against time from the point he jumps

(P) until he is at the lowest point (Q) in the

A B C D
water. Which one of the following is the linear
r r r
platform combination of c in terms of a and d ?
r r r r
P a+d 2a + d
(1) (2)
2 2

r r r r
2a + d a + 2d
(3) (4)
3 3

water 3. A particle is projected into the air at time t = 0

Q
and it performs a parabolic motion before

landing on the ground as shown. Which graph

v / m s–1
represents the variation of the kinetic energy
3
0.3 1.6 2 (KE) of the particle with time before landing ?
0 t/s
Neglect air resistance.

ground

–13

not to scale KE KE

Which of the following is correct

(1) (2)
total distance height of the time 0 time
0
travelled platform above
from P to Q (m) water surface (m)
(1) 11.5 8.45 KE KE

(2) 10.6 11.05

(3) 11.5 8 (3) (4)
(4) 11.05 8.45 time time
0 0

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 PRE-NURTURE & CAREER FOUNDATION DIVISION 30-11-2020
4. The velocities and directions of motions of
vehicles K, L and M are shown in the figure.
L
If the velocity of vehicle K relative to vehicle
K
M is v1 and the velocity of vehicle L relative to
vehicle K is v 2 (v1 & v 2 are magnitudes of 2m
37°
velocities)
3v v (1) (2) 2 2
K M 2

(3) 3 2 (4) 4 2

4v 7. In the figure, the springs placed on a smooth,

horizontal frictionless plane are compressed a
L distance of x by masses 2m and m striking the
springs at velocities of v1 and v2 .
v1 k
What is the ratio v ? v1
2
2m
O
2 4 4 x
(1) (2) (3) (4) 1
7 7 5
2k
v2
5. An object of mass 2 kg performs uniform
m
circular motion in a vertical plane.
O
K x
2 kg
If the force constants of the springs are k and
2k, respectively, what is the ratio of the

v1
O velocities, v ?
2

1
(1) (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 2
L 2
If the centripetal force acting on the object is 8. After an object, passing point K on the path
30 N, what is the ratio of the tensions in the shown the figure, with kinetic energy E reaches
TK point R, slides back and stops at point N.
string at points K and L, ?
TL
R
(Take g = 10 N/kg) K

L P
1 1
(1) (2) (3) 1 (4) 2
5 2 M N O
6. The frictionless system shown in the figure, In which section of the path must friction exist?
composed of two identical objects K and L, is (1) Between K and L
released from rest.
(2) Between P and R
What is the velocity of object K, in m/s, when
(3) Between N and O
it strikes the ground? (Take sin 37° = 0.6;
cos 37° = 0.8; g = 10 N/kg) (4) Between O and P

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9. An athlete runs with a speed of 4v towards a 12. The effective resistance between the points A
mirror, which itself moves with a speed of 2v and B of the shown network where the value
relative to the ground as shown in the figure. of each resistor is R is
What is the speed of the image relative to the
ground in terms of v?

A B
4v

2v

8R 6R
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 (1) (2)
11 11
10. In the figure, the focal point of the convex
mirror is F1 and its focal length is f1, while the 6R 2R
(3) (4)
focal length of the concave mirror is f2 . 5 5

K Y
X
F1 A B
d
vacuum
13.
glass

f1 f2
F1A = AB
In order for light ray K to return back along its
incident path after being reflected by the
mirrors, what should the distance 'd' be? Two coloured lights, X and Y travel from
(1) f1 – f2 (2) f1 + f2 vacuum to glass. They undergo refraction and
travel along the same path in glass. Which of
f1
(3) + 2f2 (4) f1 + 2f2 the following descriptions about the two
2
coloured light is correct?
11. A block on a rough horizontal surface is
moving to the left with constant speed under (1) Glass has a greater refractive index for X
two horizontal forces 2N and 12 N indicated and X travels slower than Y in vacuum.
as shown. (2) Glass has a smaller refractive index for X
and X travels with the same speed as Y in
constant speed
vacuum.
2N 12N
(3) Glass has a smaller refractive index for X
and X travels faster than Y in vacuum.
If the force of 12 N is suddenly removed, what
(4) Glass has a greater refractive index for X
is the net force acting on the block at that
and X travels with the same speed as Y in
instant?
vacuum.
(1) 12 N (2) 10 N (3) 8 N (4) 2 N
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14. In the below circuit, the cell has constant e.m.f. 16. Two particles P and Q start from the same
and a fixed internal resistance. position and travel along the same straight line.
The figure shows the velocity-time (v-t) graph
S
from P and Q. Which of the following
descriptions about their motion is/are correct?
–1
v/m s
3W 6W
A
4

When key S is closed, the ammeter reads 3

3.0 A. When key S is open, which of the
following is a possible reading of the ammeter? 2

(1) 1.6 A (2) 2.0 A (3) 2.4 A (4) 3.2 A

15. The setup is Figure(a) is used to determine the 2
0
specific latent heat of fusion of ice. At time 1 3 4 5 t/s
t = 0, 0.15 kg of ice cubes at 0°C are added –1
into 1 kg of hot water. The initial temperature
of water is 60°C. Figure (b) shows the variation –2
of the water temperature with time. At Q, all
the ice cubes melt completely.
thermometer
(1) At t = 1 s, P changes its direction of motion
(2) At t = 2 s, the separation between P and Q
ice is 4 m.
cubes
(3) At t = 3s, the distance covered by Q is more
water
than the distance covered by P.
Figure (a) (4) At t = 4s, P and Q meet each other
Temperature/°C 17. For the circuit shown in the figure

60 P
I 2kW R1
Q
40
R
20
24V
0 Time/s
Figure (b)
6kW R2 RL 1.5kW
What is the specific latent heat of fusion of ice
estimated from this experiment?
Given : specific heat capacity of water = 4200
J kg–1 °C–1 (1) the current I through the battery is 7.2 mA
(1) 3.34 × 105 J kg–1 (2) 3.92 × 105 J kg–1 (2) the potential difference across RL is 18 V
(3) 4.48 × 105 J kg–1 (4) 5.60 × 105 J kg–1 (3) ratio of powers dissipated in R1 to that in R2
Direction : Q.16 and Q.17 are multiple choice is 3
questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) (4) if R1 and R2 are interchanged, the magnitude
and (4) out of which MORE THAN ONE may be of the power dissipated in RL will decrease
correct. by a factor of 9.
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23. A currency counting machine counts 60
CHEMISTRY
million notes per day. A bank has an many
18. Consider a titration of potassium dichromate notes as number of oxygen atoms is 24.8 g of
solution with acidified Mohr's salt solution Na2S2O3. 5H2O (M.W. = 248)
using diphenylamine as indicator. The number How many days would be required to count
of moles of Mohr's salt required per mole of these notes?
dichromate is :
(1) 9.33 × 1017 (2) 7.03 × 1010
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 8.03 × 1015 (4) 6.66 × 10–12
(3) 5 (4) 6
24. The oxidation-reduction reaction among the
19. 25 mL of household bleach solution was mixed
following is -
with 30 mL of 0.50 M KI and 10 mL of 4N
acetic acid. In the titration of the liberated (1) H2SO4 + 2NH3 ¾® (NH4)2SO4
iodine, 48 mL of 0.25 N Na2S2O3 was used to (2) H2SO4 + Na2CO3 ¾® Na2SO4 + H2O + CO2
reach the end point. The molarity of the (3) 2K2CrO4 + H2SO4 ¾® K2CrO4 + K2SO4 +
household bleach solution is : H2 O
(1) 0.48 M (2) 0.96 M (4) 2H2SO4 + Cu ¾® CuSO4 + 2H2O + SO2
(3) 0.24 M (4) 0.024 M
25. Minimum amount of Ag 2 CO 3(s) required to
20. 125 mL of 63% (w/v) H2C2O4.2H2 O solution produce sufficient oxygen for the complete
is made to react with 125 mL of a 40% (w/v) combustion of C2H2 which produces 11.2 ltr
NaOH solution. The resulting solution is : of CO2 at S.T.P. after combustion is : [Ag =
(ignoring hydrolysis of ions) 108]
(1) neutral (2) acidic Ag2CO3(s) ¾® 2Ag(s) + CO2(g) + 1/2 O2(g)
(3) strongly acidic (4) alkaline C2H2 + 5/2 O2 ¾® 2CO2 + H2O
21. 17.1 grams of aluminum sulfate Al2 (SO4 )3 is (1) 276 g (2) 345 g
dissolved in enough water to prepare 1.00 L
(3) 690 g (4) 1380 g
of solution. What is the molarity of the sulfate
ion the solution? (Neglect any hydrolysis) 26. The time taken for a certain volume of a gas
'X' to diffuse through a small hole is 2 mintues.
(1) 1.67 × 10–2 M (2) 5.00 × 10–2 M
It takes 5.65 minutes for oxygen to diffuse
(3) 1.50 × 10–1 M (4) 2.50 × 10–1 M under the similar conditions. The molecular
22. Chlorine can be prepared by reacting HCl with weight of 'X' is
MnO 2. The reaction is represented by the (1) 8 (2) 4 (3) 16 (4) 32
equation:
27. Equal volumes of two gases which do not react
MnO2(s) + 4HCl(aq) ¾® Cl2(g) + MnCl2(aq) +
together are enclosed in separate vessel. Their
2H2 O(l)
pressure at 100 mm and 400 mm respectively.
Assuming the reaction goes to completion, If the two vessel are joined together, then what
what mass of concentrated HCl solution (36.0% will be the pressure of the resulting mixture
HCl by mass) is needed to produce 2.50 g Cl2 (temperature remaining constant)?
(1) 5.15 g (2) 14.3 g (1) 125 mm (2) 500 mm
(3) 19.4 g (4) 26.4 g (3) 1000 mm (4) 250 mm
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 PRE-NURTURE & CAREER FOUNDATION DIVISION 30-11-2020
28. A gaseous mixture contains 56 g of N2, 44 g 32. 1 g of dry green algae absrobs 4.7 × 10–3 mole
CO2 and 16 g of CH4. The total pressure of the of CO2 per hour by photosynthesis. If the fixed
mixture is 720 mm Hg. The partial pressure of carbon atoms were all stored after
CH4 is photosynthesis as starch (C 6 H 10 O 5 ) n .
(1) 180 mm (2) 360 mm Approximately how long (in hour) would it
take for the algae to double their own weight
(3) 540 mm (4) 720 mm assuming photosynthesis takes place at a
29. The wavelength of the radiation emitted, when constant rate?
in a hydrogen atom electron falls from infinity (1) 16 (2) 8 (3) 4 (4) 12
to stationary state 1, would be (Rydberg Direction : Q.33 to Q.35 are multiple choice
constant = 1.097 × 107 m–1) questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3)
(1) 91 nm and (4) out of which MORE THAN ONE may be
correct.
(2) 192 nm
33. A 5L vessel contains 2.8 g of N2. When heated
(3) 406
to 1800 K, 30% molecules are dissociated into
(4) 9.1 × 10–6 nm atoms.
30. Which of the following set a of quantum (1) Total no. of moles in the container will be
numbers is correct for an electron in 4f orbital? 0.13

(1) n = 4, l = 3, m = +4, s = +1/2 (2) Total no. of molecules in the container will
be close to 0.421 × 1023
(2) n = 4, l = 4, m = –4, s = –1/2
(3) Total no. of moles in the container will be
(3) n = 4, l = 3, m = +1, s = +1/2 0.098
(4) n = 3, l = 3, m = –2, s = +1/2 (4) All of these are correct

31. In a photoelectric experiment, kinetic energy 34. If mP is the mass of proton, mn that of a neutron,
of photoelectrons was plotted against the M1 that of 10Ne20 nucleus and M2 that of 20Ca40
frequency of incident radiation (v), as shown nucleus, then which of the following relations
in figure. Which of the following statements is is/are not true?
correct? (1) M2 > 2M1
(2) M2 < 20(mP + mn)
(3) M2 = 2M1
KE (4) M2 < 2M1
(eV)
35. Consider the following statements :
The coefficient B in the virial equation of state
(i) Is independent of temperature
n1 n2 n3 n4
(ii) is equal to zero at boyle temperature
frequency (n,s–1)
(1) The threshold frequency is n1 æ B C ö
PVm = RT ç1 + + 2 + ......... ÷
(2) The slope of this line is equal to Plank's è Vm Vm ø
constant
(iii) has the demension of molar volume
(3) As the frequency of incident wavelength
Which of the above statements are incorrect
increases beyond threshold frequency,
kinetic energy of photoelectrons decreases (1) i and ii (2) i and iii

(4) It is impossible to obtain such a graph (3) ii and iii (4) i, ii and iii

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 CLASS - IX 30-11-2020
39. In photosynthesis, light is most directly
BIOLOGY
involved in
36. Four important steps in meiosis are
(1) reduction of CO2 to phosphoglycerate
I pairing of homologous chromosomes
II chromatids moving apart (2) synthesis of starch

III division of the centromeres (3) release of oxygen from CO2

IV replication of DNA (4) splitting of water
The correct order of these steps is
40. The diagram represents the life cycle of a fern,
(1) IV ® I ® II ® III with the stages drawn to different scales.
(2) IV ® III ® I ® II
(3) IV ® II ® I ® III
spore
(4) IV ® I ® III ® II
L
37. When an animal population is being estimated K
by the capture-recapture technique, which one
of the following would lead to the size of the gametophyte
sporophyte (n)
population being underestimated? (2n)
(1) a higher predation of marked than of M

unmarked animals zygote gametes

(2) a greater attraction of marked than of
fertilisation
unmarked animals to traps
(3) an immigration of animals into the area
between samplings Which one of the rows 1 to 4 correctly
(4) a high but proportionately equal mortality represents the nuclear events occurring at
of both marked and unmarked animals stages K, L and M?

38. The following table shows the interaction Pair Species 1 Species 2
between pairs of species 1 - 5. (1) mitosis meiosis mitosis
Pair Species 1 Species 2 (2) mitosis mitosis meiosis
1 0 + (3) mitosis meiosis meiosis
2 - + (4) meiosis mitosis mitosis
3 + +
41. Contractile vacuoles are found in a wide variety
4 + -
5 + - of unicellular organisms, but not in the cells of
Which one of the following gives the correct mammals. This is because mammalian cells
type of interactions for species
(1) have membranes that are not selectively
(1) mutualism, parasitism, commensalism,
permeable
herbivory, predation
(2) mutualism, parasitism, commensalism, (2) are generally surrounded by solutions with
predation, herbivory the same solute potential
(3) commensalism, parasitism, mutualism, (3) have ionic pumps
herbivory, predation
(4) commensalism, herbivory, parasitism, (4) expend energy to maintain cell volume
mutualism, predation
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42. Bryophytes resemble algae on the following 46. The diagram shows the effect of pH on the
basis activity of two enzymes, a protease and an
(1) differentiation of the plant body into root, amylase, in the alimentary canal.
stem and heterotrophic mode of nutrition
(2) thallus-like plant body, lack of vascular Protease Amylase

Enzyme activity
tissue; absence of root; and autotrophic
mode of nutrition
(3) Thallus-like plant body, presence of roots;
and heterotrophic mode of nutrition Strongly acidic Neutral Strongly alkaline
(4) filamentous body; presence of vascular
tissue; and autotrophic mode of nutrition In which regions of the alimentary canal would
43. Endocytosis is a process whereby a cell these enzymes be most active?
(1) digests itself Protease Amylase
(2) engulfs and internalizes material using its
membrane (1) Duodenum Colon
(3) identifies other cells within its immediate (2) Duodenum Stomach
surroundings
(4) enables the extracellular digestion of large (3) Stomach Colon
molecules (4) Stomach Duodenum
44. You perform the following dihybrid genetic
cross: AAbb × aaBB, where : A = big 47. The following is a scheme showing the fate of
(dominant), a = small, B = dark (dominant), b carbohydrates during digestion in the human
= light. In the F1 generation, all of the progeny alimentary canal. Identify the enzymes acting
are big and dark. You now self the F1 progeny at stages indicated as A, B, C and D. Choose
and score 100 of the resulting F2 progeny. How
the correct option from the given codes.
many of the F2 progeny would you expect to
be big and light?
Starch
(1) 1/16 (2) 3/16
(3) 1/4 (4) 9/16 A

45. When a potassium ion (K+) moves from the Maltose Sucrose
Lactose
soil into the vacuole of a cell on the surface of
a root, it must pass through several cellular B C D

structures. Which of the following correctly

describes the order in which these structures Galactose Glucose Fructose

will be encountered by the ion?

(1) plasma membrane ® primary cell wall ® (1) A-Amylase, B- Maltase, C- Lactase, D-
cytoplasm ® vacuole Invertase
(2) secondary cell wall ® plasma membrane (2) A-Amylase, B-Maltase, C- Invertase, D-
® primary cell wall ® cytoplasm ® Lactase
vacuole
(3) A-Amylase, B-Invertase, C-Maltase, D-
(3) primary cell wall ® plasma membrane ®
Lactase
cytoplasm ® vacuole
(4) A- Amylase, B- Lactase, C-Maltase, D-
(4) primary cell wall ® plasma membrane ®
Invertase
lysosome ® cytoplasm ® vacuole
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48. The diagram shows part of the human digestive (1) Mastication and sense of taste
system. When food is present, which two (2) Deglutition and bile secretion
structures usually contain bile?
(3) Mastication and Deglutition
A
B (4) Bile secretion and glucagon secretion
C
D 53. Which of the following is incorrect?
(a) Blood vessel leading to glomerulus is called
efferent arteriole
(b) Cortical nephron has no or highly reduced
vasa recta
(1) A and C (2) A and D
(3) B and C (4) B and D (c) Vasa recta runs parallel to the Henle's loop in
49. The part of nephron involved in active juxtamedullary nephrons
reabsorption of sodium is (d) In glomerulus, afferent arteriole is narrower
(1) distal convoluted tubule than efferent arteriole
(2) proximal convoluted tubule
MATHEMATICS
(3) Bowman's capsule
(4) descending limb of Henle's reabsorption 54. If 653xy is exactly divisible by 80, then the
50. Which of the following immune responses is find the value of (x + y).
more potent and long lived? (1) 2 (2) 3
(1) Primary immune response only (3) 4 (4) 6
(2) Secondary immune response only 55. A number when divided by 342 gives a
(3) Tertiary immune response remainder 47. When the same number is
(4) Both (1) and (2) divided by 19, what would be the remainder?
(1) 3 (2) 5
Direction : Q.51 to Q.53 are multiple choice
questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) (3) 9 (4) None of these
and (4) out of which MORE THAN ONE may be 56. What is the remainder when 7413 – 4113 + 7513
correct. – 4213 is divided by 66?
51. Which of the following statements about (1) 2 (2) 64
dinoflagellates is true?
(3) 1 (4) 0
(1) They possess two flagella.
57. Find the value of 'x' if 2logx 7 + log7x7 + 3log49x
(2) All known varieties are autotrophic. 7=0
(3) Their walls are usually composed of silica
plates. -4
(1) x = (2) x = 7–1/2
3
(4) They are single called eukaryotes
52. Given below are some functions occurring (3) x = 7–4/3 (4) Either (2) or (3)
during digestion. Select the functions 58. For what value of k will x2 – (3k – 1)x + 2k2 +
performed by buccal cavity among them. 2k = 11 have equal roots?
Mastication, Deglutition, Glucagon secretion,
(1) 9, –5 (2) –9, 5
Bile secretion, Sense of taste
(3) 9, 5 (4) –9, –5
The options are
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59. The number of natural numbers n £ 30 for 63. In the adjoining figure DP is parallel to AC,
then the ratio of area of triangle PCB and
which n + n + n + ..... is a prime number quadrilateral ABCD is :
is C
D
(1) Three (2) Zero
(3) Nine (4) Two
60. If sinx + siny = a and cos x – cos y = b. Then
P A B
1
find the value of
2
(
2 - a 2 - b2 ) (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 2 : 3
(1) cos(x + y) (2) cos(x – y)
64. AB and AC are two chords at the circle of radius
(3) sin(x + y) (4) sin(x – y)
r. If AB = 2AC and the perpendicular drawn
61. Let X be any point on the side BC of a triangle from the centre on those chords are of lengths
ABC. If XM, XN are drawn parallel to BA and
a and b. If b2 = k(a2 + 3r2) then k =
CA meeting CA, BA in M, N respectively; MN
meets CB produced in T. Then (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 1/4
A
65. A circle is inscribe in trapezoid PQRS. If PS =
QR = 25 cm, PQ = 18 cm and SR = 32 cm,
M what is the length of the diameter of the circle?

N
P Q

T C
B X
(1) TB2 = TX × TC S R
(2) TC2 = TB × TX
(3) TX2 = TB × TC (1) 14 cm (2) 25 cm

(4) TX2 = 2(TB × TC) (3) 24 cm (4) 674 cm

62. In the given figure OBC and OKH are straight 66. In the given figure, O, O' are centres of two
lines. If AH = AK, b = 80° and c = 30° then the circles intersecting at B and C. ACD is a straight
value of d is : line. Find x.
A
C D
H A
K O x°
O'
130°
c b B
d
C B O
(1) 130° (2) 50°
(1) 20° (2) 25°
(3) 40° (4) None of these
(3) 30° (4) 45°
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67. If x = 2 + 3 , xy = 1 then Direction : Q.69 and Q.70 are multiple choice

questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3)
x y and (4) out of which MORE THAN ONE may be
+ = correct.
2+ x 2- y
69. (2x2 + 3x + 5)1/2 + (2x2 + 3x + 20)1/2 = 15,
therefore x is :
(1) 2 (2) 3
(1) (–8/3) (2) (14/5)
(3) 1 (4) None
(3) (–11/2) (4) 4
68. Find x : y : z, if 3x – 2y – 7z = 0 and 2x + 3y – 70. If 3 sin b = sin (2a + b), then tan(a + b) – 2 tan a
5z = 0 is
(1) 31 : 1 : 13 (1) independent of a
(2) 1 : 31 : 13 (2) independent of b
(3) 13 : 1 : 31 (3) dependent of both a and b
(4) independent of a but dependent of b
(4) 31 : 13 : 1

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