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1. A point particle of mass m is attached to one 4. A copper ball of density c and diameter d is
end of a massless rigid non-conducting rod of immersed in oil of density 0. What charge
length l. Another point particle of same mass should be present on the ball, so that it could
is attached to the other end of the rod. The two be suspended in the oil, if a homogeneous
particles carry equal charges + q and – q electric field E is applied vertically upward ?
respectively. This arrangement is held in a d 2  c  0  g
region of uniform electric field E such that the (1) Q 
6E
rod makes an angle with the field direction:
(1) The tension in rod remains constant d 3  c  0  g
(2) Q 
6E
(2) If angle is very small, the rod executes

m d 3  c  0  g
simple harmonic motion of period 2 (3) Q 
2qE E
(4) None of these
(3) At every instant, net force on the system is
5. An electron is projected with velocity 107 m/s
zero at an angle  (= 30°) with horizontal in a region
(4) Both (2) and (3) are correct of uniform electric field of 5000 N/C vertically
2. A point mass m and charge q is connected upwards. The maximum distance covered by
with massless spring of natural length L. an electron in vertical direction above its initial
Initially spring is in its natural length. If a level is:
horizontal uniform electric field E is switched (1) 14.2 mm (2) 15 mm
on (shown in figure), the maximum separation (3) 12.6 mm (4) 14.2 cm
between the point mass and the wall is : 6. If a point charge +q of mass m is released from
(Assume all surfaces are frictionless). rest in a region where only electric field is
present then:
Wall (1) It follows a line of force
E (2) It must follow a line of force, if electric field
k
m is uniform
(3) It may follow a line of force, if field is
uniform
(4) None of the above
2qE qE 7. Select the wrong statement:
(1) L  (2) L 
k k (1) The electric field calculated by Gauss's law
(3) L (4) None of these is the field due to the charges inside the
3. In the previous problem, the separation of the Gaussian surface
point mass and wall at the equilibrium position (2) The electric field calculated by Gauss's law
of the mass is: is the resultant field due to all the charges
inside and outside the closed surface
qE qE (3) The Gauss's law is equivalent to Coulomb's
(1) L  (2) L 
k k law
(4) The Gauss's law can also be applied to
qE
(3) L (4) None of these calculate gravitational field but with some
k
modifications
8. A point charge q = 2 × 10–7 C is placed at the 12. Two points are at distance r1 and r2 (r1 < r2) from
centre of a spherical cavity of radius 3 cm in a long string having charge per unit length .
a metal piece. Points a and b are situated at The potential difference between the points is
distances 1.5 cm and 4.5 cm respectively from proportional to:
the centre of cavity. The electric intensities at
r 
a and b are: (1) r2 – r1 (2) log  2  (3) 1/ (4) r2/r1
 r1 
13. Three concentric spherical metallic shells A, B
and C of radii a, b and c (a < b < c) have charge
a
b densities , – and  respectively. If the shells
A and C are at same potential, then the relation
(1) 8 × 106 N/C and zero between a, b and c is:
(2) Zero and zero (1) a + b + c = 0 (2) a + c = b
(3) a + b = c (4) a = b + c
(3) Zero and 8.9 × 105 N/C
14. An electric dipole, made up of positive and
(4) None of the above negative charges, each of 1 µC and placed at
9. If the potential at each point on a conductor is a distance 2 cm apart. If the dipole is placed
same to each other, then: in an electric field of 10 5 N/C then the
(1) Electric lines of force may begin or end on maximum torque which the field can exert on
the same conductor the dipole, if it is turned from a position  = 0°
(2) No electric lines of force can begin or end to  = 180° is, is:
on the same conductor (1) 2 × 10–3 N-m (2) 3 × 10 N-m
(3) 4 × 10 N-m (4) 2.8 × 10–3 N-m
(3) The electric field inside the conductor may
15. The force of intraction of two dipoles, if the two
be non-zero
dipole moments are parallel to each other and
(4) None of the above
placed at a distance x apart:
10. Four identical charges are placed at the points
(1, 0, 0), (0, 1, 0), (–1, 0, 0) and (0, –1,0) : p1 p2
(1) The potential at the origin is zero x

(2) The field at the origin is zero

(3) The potential at all points on the z-axis, 3p1p 2 p1p 2
(1) (2)
other than the origin, is zero 40 x 4 40 x 4
(4) None of the above p1p2 p1p2
(3) (4)
11. In the shown figure, the charge appears on the 20 x 4 3 0 x 4
sphere is: 16. P is a point on an equipotential surface S. The
field at P is E then:
(1) E must be perpendicular to S in all cases
R q (2) E cannot have a component along a tangent
d to S
(3) E may have a non-zero component along
qd qR a tangent to S. if S is a curved surface
(1) q (2) (3) (4) 0
R d (4) Both (1) and (2) are correct
17. Mark correct option or options:
(1) In the absence of an electric field, electrons
move in straight lines between collisions
(2) Relaxation time is of order 10–14 second
(3) Resistivity is inversely proportional to
relaxation time when number of electrons
per unit volume of material remains
constant
(4) All the above
18. Identify the correct statement related to the
properties of conductor.
(1) Since volume charge exists inside a
conductor, therefore, E inside conductor is
zero.
(2) E inside a conductor is non zero.
(3) Since conductor is an equipotential surface,
therefore, E = 0 inside a conductor is zero.
(4) All the above
19. Identify the correct statement related to the
properties of conductor.
(1) The amount of charge on a surface is
inversely proportional to the radius of
curvature.
(2) The surface charge density is proportional
to the radius of curvature.
(3) The surface charge density is inversely
proportional to the curvature of the surface.
(4) None of these.
20. If the number of free electrons is 5 × 1028 m–3 then
the drift velocity of electron in a conductor of
area of cross-section 10–6 m2 for a current of
1.2 A is:
(1) 1.5 × 10–2 m/s (2) 1.5 × 10–3 m/s
(3) 1.5 × 10–4 m/s (4) 1.5 × 10–6 m/s
21. Under which of the following conditions will
a convex mirror of focal length f produce an
image that is erect, diminished and virtual ?
(1) Only when 2f > u > f
(2) Only when u = f
(3) Only when u < f
(4) Always
22. The image of an object, formed by a
plano-convex lens at a distance of 8 m behind
the lens, is real and is one-third the size of the
object. The wavelength of light inside the lens
is 2/3 times the wavelength in free space. The
radius of the curved surface of the lens is :-
(1) 1 m (2) 2 m (3) 3 m (4) 6 m
23. Refractive index of air is 1.0003. The correct
thickness of air column which will have one
more wavelength of yellow light (6000 Å) than
in the same thickness in vacuum is :-
(1) 2 mm (2) 2 cm (3) 2 m (4) 2 km
24. A ray of light is incident at an angle i from denser
to rarer medium. The reflected and the refracted rays
are mutually perpendicular. The angle of reflection
and the angle of refraction are respectively r and r',
then the critical angle will be :-
i r
r'
(1) sin–1 (sin r) (2) sin–1 (tan r')
(3) sin–1 (tan i) (4) tan–1 (sin i)
25. A diver in a swimming pool wants to signal his
distress to a person lying on the edge of the pool
by flashing his water proof flash light :-
(1) He must direct the beam vertically upwards
(2) He has to direct the beam horizontally
(3) He has to direct the beam at an angle to the
vertical which is slightly less than the
critical angle of incidence
(4) He has to direct the beam at an angle to the
vertical which is slightly more than the
critical angle of incidence for the total
internal reflection.
26. With respect to air critical angle in a medium
for light of red colour [1] is . Other facts
remaining same, critical angle for light of
yellow colour [2] will be :-
(1)  (2) More than 
1
(3) Less than  (4) 
2
27. Material A has critical angle iA, and material B 30. A plastic hemisphere has a radius of curvature
has critical angle iB(iB > iA). Then which of the of 8 cm and an index of refraction of 1.6. On
following is true :- the axis halfway between the plane surface and
(i) Light can be totally internally reflected the spherical one (4 cm from each) is a small
when it passes from B to A object O. The distance between the two images
(ii) Light can be totally internally reflected when viewed along the axis from the two sides
when it passes from A to B of the hemisphere is approximately :-
(iii) Critical angle for total internal reflection
is iB – iA
(iv) Critical angle between A and B is
I1 I2
 sin i A 
sin 1  
 sin i B 
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (i) and (iv) 8 cm
(3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (ii) and (iv) (1) 1.0 cm (2) 1.5 cm
28. A ray of light passes through four transparent (3) 3.75 cm (4) 2.5 cm
media with refractive indices µ1,µ2,µ3 and µ4 as 31. A lens is placed between a source of light and
shown in the figure. The surfaces of all media a wall. It forms images of area A1 and A2 on
are parallel. If the emergent ray CD is parallel the wall for its two different positions. The area
to the incident ray AB, we must have:- of the source of light is :-

A  A2 1 1 
1
D
µ1 (1) 1 (2)  A  A 
µ2 µ3 µ4 2  1 2 

B C
 A1  A 2 
2

A (3) A1A 2 (4)  

 2 
(1) µ1 = µ2 (2) µ2 = µ3
(3) µ3 = µ4 (4) µ4 = µ1 32. A lens of refractive index n is put in a liquid
29. White light is incident on the interface of glass of refractive index n' of focal length of lens in
and air as shown in the figure. If green light air is f, its focal length in liquid will be :-
is just totally internally reflected then the fn '(n  1) f(n ' n)
(1) – (2) 
emerging ray in air contains :- n ' n n '(n  1)

n '(n  1) fn ' n
(3)  (4)
f(n ' n) n  n'
Air Green
33. Let fv and fr are the focal lengths of a convex
Glass
lens for violet and red lights respectively. If Fv
and Fr are the focal lengths of a concave lens
White
for violet and red light respectively, then :-
(1) Yellow, orange, red (1) fv < fr and |Fv| > |Fr|
(2) Violet, indigo, blue (2) fv < fr and |Fv| < |Fr|
(3) All colours (3) fv > fr and |Fv| > |Fr|
(4) All colours except green (4) fv > fr and |Fv| < |Fr|
34. The angle of minimum deviation measured 39. A point source S is placed at the bottom of
with a prism is 30° and the angle of prism is different layers as shown in figure. The
60°. The refractive index of prism material is:
refractive index of bottommost layer is µ0. The
(1) 2 (2) 2 (3) 3/2 (4) 4/3
refractive index of any other upper layer
35. A ray of monochromatic light is incident on one
is
refracting face of a prism of angle 75°. It passes
through the prism and is incident on the other n=3
face at the critical angle. If the refractive index n=2
n=1
of the material of the prism is 2 , the angle
of incidence on the first face of the prism is :- S
(1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 0°
36. Which of the following diagrams shows correctly µ0
µ(n)  µ 0  where n = 1, 2,....
the dispersion of white light by a prism ? 4n  18

A ray of light starts form the source S as shown.

V V
(1) (2) R Total internal reflection takes place at the upper
R
surface of a layer having n equal to :-
(1) 3 (2) 5
V V
(3) (4) R (3) 4 (4) 6
R
40. An observer can see through a pin–hole the top
37. The dispersive powers of crown and flint end of a thin rod of height h, placed as shown
glasses are 0.02 and 0.04 respectively. In an
in the figure. The beaker height is 3h and its
achromatic combination of lenses the focal
length of flint glass lens is 40 cm. The focal radius h. When the beaker is filled with a liquid
length of crown glass lens will be :- up to a height 2h, he can see the lower end of
(1) –20 cm (2) + 20 cm the rod. Then the refractive index of the liquid
(3) –10 cm (4) + 10 cm
is :-
38. For a small angled prism, angle of prism A, the
angle of minimum deviation () varies with the
refractive index of the prism as shown in the
graph :-

 3h
Q
h

2h

O P µ (1) 5/2

(2) (5 / 2)
(1) Point P corresponds to  = 1
(2) Slope of the line PQ = A/2
(3) (3 / 2)
(3) Slope = 2A
(4) None of the above statements is true (4) 3/2
41. How many  bond does B 2 have :- 48. Which of the following pair of mol. have identical
(1) Zero (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 3 ˆ  Cl bond angle [where X central atom]
Cl  X
42. In which of the following process change in (a) CCl4, SiCl4 (b) POCl3, SO2Cl2
bond angle is maximum :- (c) BCl3, AlCl3 (d) SOCl2, COCl2
(1) NH3 + H  NH4 (1) a, b, c (2) a, c
(2) PH3 + H  PH4 (3) a, b, d (4) b, c
(3) BF3 + FΘ  BF4–1 49. Both p  – p  and p  – d  bonding occurs in
(4) H2O + H  H3O the :-
(1) Anionic part of solid Cl 2O6
43. Which of the following molecule is having
(2) Cationic part of solid N2O5
least dipole moment ?
(3) Cationic part of solid Cl2O6
(1) NH3 (2) NI3 (3) H2O (4) NF3
(4) Anionic part of solid I2
44. PClxF5–x mol. will be polar and non-polar for 50. Delocalised molecular orbitals are found in :-
what value of 'x' respectively :-
(1) H2 (2) HSΘ
(1) (2,3,5)  polar and (0,4,1)  non-polar
(3) CH4 (4) CO3–2
(2) (0,2,5)  polar and (3,1,4)  non-polar
51. Which of the following molecule posses only
(3) (4,3,0)  polar and (2,0,4)  non-polar trigonal bipyramidal geometry in all the three
(4) (2,1,4)  polar and (3,0,5)  non-polar states of matter ?
45. Which of the following reaction would not (1) PBr5
proceed in the forword direction (2) PCl5
spontaneously :- (3) PF5
(1) Xe  He  Xe  He (4) All of these
52. The E.N. of four elements A, B, C & D are 4,
(2) Si  Cl  Si  Cl 3.17, 0.7 and 2.85 respectively then which of
(3) FΘ  I  F  IΘ the following does not act as an acid :-
(1) H–O–A (2) H–O–B
(4) BeΘ  B  BΘ  Be
(3) H–O–C (4) H–O–D
46. Select the incorrect relation :- 53. In IF6 and TeF5 , sum of axial d-orbitals which
–1 –1

(1) I.E. of F > E.A. of Cl are used in hybridisation in both species ?

(2) I.E. of F + E.A. of Cl > I.E. of Cl + E.A of F (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2
(3) E.N. of F + E.A of Cl < E.N. of Cl + E.A of F
54. Total no. of
(4) I.E. of F + I.E. of Cl > E.A. of F + E.A. of Cl Total no. of
Electron pairs Shape
47. Which of the following combination gives p
[ bond  p]
maximum number of nodal planes :- 5 p Linear
(1) +
q 1 See  Saw
– +
4 r Bent shape
(2) + – – + s 2 Square planar
–
5 t Bent T  shape
+
(3) Then calculate the value of :-
– +
(p + q + r – s – t)
(1) 4 (2) 3
(4) – + –
(3) 2 (4) 5
55. The nodal plane of -bond of ethene is located 61. What is the IUPAC name for :-
in :- OH
(1) A plane parallel to the molecular plane Br
(2) The molecular plane O
(1) p-Hydroxy-m-bromo acetophenone
(3) A plane perpendicular to the molecular
(2) 1-[3-Bromo-4-Hydroxy phenyl] propan-1-one
plane
(3) 2-Bromo-4-propanoyl phenol
(4) A plane perpendicular to the molecular (4) 2-Hydroxy-5-propanoyl bromo benzene
plane which contain the (C–C) -bond 62. IUPAC name of the following compound :-
56. Select the incorrect statement :-
(1) Pure overlapping of two different d-orbitals
along x-axis result in the formation of
-bond.
(1) 5-ethyl-1-methyl-2-propyl cyclohexane
(2) In PH3 molecule lone pair at central atom
(2) 1-ethyl-3-methyl-4-propyl cyclohexane
is present in almost pure s-orbital.
(3) 4-ethyl-1-methyl-2-propyl cyclohexane
(3) (2p–3d) is stronger than (2p – 3p) bond (4) 1-ethyl-4-methyl-2-propyl cyclohexane
(4) Number of P – d bond in SO2 and ClO2 63. Which is wrong IUPAC name:-
are same (1) CH3CH2CH2COOCH2CH3 (Ethyl butanoate)
57. Which of the following combination of bond pair (2) CH3 CHCH2CHO (3-Methylbutanal)
(bp) and lone pair (p) give same shape :- CH3
(a) 3bp + 1p (b) 2bp + 2p
(3) CH3 CHCHCH3 (2-Methyl-3-butanol)
(c) 2bp + 1p (d) 2bp + 0p OH CH3
(e) 3bp + 2p (f) 2bp + 3p
(4) CHCHCOCH 2CH 3 (2-Methyl-3-pentanone)
(1) b and c CH3
(2) d & e 64. Which of the following pairs are correctly
(3) c & d indicated?
(4) e & f OCH2CH3 OH
1 CH2 CH3
58. In which of the following species 2 &  (1) (Metamers)
2
bond is present :-
CH2OH OH
(1) O2 (2) N2 (3) O2–1 (4) C2
CH3
59. Among the following, the least acidic is :- (2) (Functional isomers)
(1) P4O6 (2) P4O10
OH OH
(3) As4O6 (4) As4O10
60. Total number of species which has/have (3) (Positional isomers)
symmetrical electronic distribution in their CH3 H3C
HOMO and also paramagnetic :-
OH CH2OH
N 2 ,O , C 2 ,O 2 , B2 ,C , N
2
2
2
2
2
2
CH3
(4) (Homologous)
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 6
65. Which of the following pairs of molecules are 69. Identify (A) and (B) in Newman's projection
NOT structural isomers? of 2, 3-dimetyl pentane
CH3 A
(1) CH3 H Me
H 3C H3 C CH3
OH Me H
O
(2) B
H 3C CH3 (1) –CH3, –CH3
CH3 (2) –H, –C2H5
(3) H3C C C CH3 (3) –C2H5, –CH3
O (4) –C2H5, –C2H5
(4) H 3C HO 70. Which of the following doesn't show
OCH3 OH
conformational isomerism :-
66. How many 1°-amines are possible for C5H13N?
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 9 (1) CH2=CH–CH=CH2 (2) CH3–Br
67. Which of the following isomeric relationship (3) CH3–NH2 (4) 1 & 2 both
is correctly matched? 71. Identify alkene showing both geometrical as
well as optical isomerism.
(1) ; (Positional isomers)
(1) (2)
O O
(2) ;
O O (3) (4)
(Functional group isomers)
72. Which of the following is Z-isomer?
H3C CH2
CH CH3 H 3C H F
(3) CH3 CH2 CH H3C CH CH CH2 CH3 ; (1) C N (2) C C
H H D CH2 CH2
CH3 CH2 CH3
Cl
CH3
(Identical) Me OH
O (3) C N (4) None of these
Et
(4) ; (Chain isomers)
O 73. Find out total number of geometrical isomer in
68. Which one of the following is the most stable given compound :-
conformer?
CH3–CH=CH–CH2–CH=N–OH
CH3 CH3
(1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 3
HO H H CH3
(1) (2)
H OH H OH 74. & are :-
CH3 OH
CH3 OH (1) Conformer
H OH H CH3 (2) Geometrical isomer
(3) (4)
H OH H CH3 (3) Identical
CH3 OH (4) None of the above
75. Convert following Sawhorse projection in 78. Which of the following can form 'meso' :-
Fischer projection:- (1) CH3–CH–CH–CH 3
H OH Br Cl
H Br (2) CH3–CH – CH–CH 2–CH 3
CH3
OH OH
CH3
OH OH
CH3 CH3 (3) CH3–CH–CH–CH 3
H OH H OH
(1) (2) (4) CH3–CH–COOH
H Br Br H
OH
CH3 CH3
79. The S-ibuprofen is responsible for its pain
CH3 CH3 reliving property. Which one of the structure
OH H H Br shown is S-ibuprofen.
(3) (4) Me
H Br H OH COOH
CH3 CH3
(1) C CH3
76. Which of the following compounds are Me
H
optically active?
Me
(1) CH3CH(OH)COOH H
(2) Me
C COOH
H Cl
(2) C C C CH3
H H
CH3
(3)
I Br C H
COOH
(3)
(4) COOH
I Br
C H
OH
CH3
OH
(4) 80. Which of the following have plane of
symmetry?
COOH H H
77. COOH H H H H
OH (1) (2)
H H
H
HO H
The absolute configuration of above molecule H H
will be :-
(3) (4) All of these
(1) 2R, 3S (2) 2S, 3R H H

(3) 2S, 3S (4) 2R, 3R

81. How many of the following diseases are 85. Several genes called _______ have been
protozoan ? identified in normal cells which when activated
Filariasis, Common cold, Malaria, Ascariasis, will turn into _______ and under certain
Typhoid, Gonorrhoea, Amoebiasis conditions could lead to cancerous
transformation of cells.
(1) Four (2) Two
Complete the above paragraph by selecting
(3) Five (4) One
correct sequence of words.
82. Type of acquired immunity which is slow and (1) oncogenes, proto oncogenes
takes time to show full effective response also (2) cellular oncogenes, proto oncogenes
exhibit following feature except :- (3) proto oncogenes, oncogenes
(1) No participation of immune system of host. (4) oncogen, proto oncogenes
(2) Shows immunological memory. 86. Which set of disease are caused by bacteria ?
(3) Used for prophylaxis. (1) Cholera, typhoid, tetanus, pneumonia
(2) Cholera, AIDS, tetanus, typhoid
(4) More effective on second exposure of antigen.
(3) Typhoid, tetanus, Influenza, Rabies
83. Identify the correct match from the columns I, (4) Rabies, AIDS, Mumps, pneumonia
II and III 87. Non specific immunity includes all of the except:-
Column-I Column-II Column-III (1) Lysozyme (2) Interferons
(3) Immunoglobulin (4) Neutrophils
1. Bacteria (a) Plasmodium i. Infection
of lungs 88. Match these columns :-
2. Virus (b) Wuchereria ii. Fever with Column-I Column-II
bancrofti chill a Down's syndrome i Partial deletion of
3. Protozoa (c) Haemophilus iii. Inflammation short arm of 5th
influenzae of lower chromosome
limbs b Turner's syndrome ii AA + XXY
4. Helminth (d) Rhino virus iv. Infection of c Cri du chat iii 21st Trisomy
upper syndrome
respiratory
d Klinefelter's iv AA + XO
tract
syndrome
(1) 2–c–i, 1–d–iv, 3–a–ii, 4–b–iii (1) a - iii, b - iv, c - ii, d - i
(2) 3–a–ii, 4–b–iii, 2–c–iv, 1–d–i (2) a - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii
(3) 4–b–iii, 3–a–ii, 1–c–i, 2–d–iv (3) a - iii, b - ii, c - iv, d - i
(4) a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i
(4) 4–b–iii, 3–a–i, 1–c–ii, 2–d–iv
89. It is genetic disorder. The individuals are born
84. Read the following statement :
without T-cells and B-cells this disorder is found
(A) AIDS is congenital disease in new-born children. Identify the disease:-
(B) Sloughed cell of malignant tumour reaches (1) Thalassemia
distant site this is called metastasis (2) AIDS
(C) CT scan uses strong magnetic field to detect (3) SCID
pathological changes in living tissue (4) Sickle cell Anaemia
(D) Proto oncogene is responsible for abnormal 90. How many disease in the list given below are
cellular division transmitted through droplet infection ?
Tuberculosis, Typhoid, Pertusis, Dengue,
How many of above statements are correct ?
Filariasis, Cholera, Polio, Influenza, Rabies,
(1) 4 (2) 2 Hepatitis, common cold
(3) 3 (4) 1 (1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 1
91. Which is correct about following chemical ? 96. Pedigree for autosomal dominant trait :-
OH

OH

(1) Morphine-act as a depressant A B C

(2) Cannabinoid - effect on cardiovascular The genotype of A, B and C individual is
system respectively.
(3) Cocain - euphoria and increases energy (1) AA, Aa, aa (2) AA, AA, AA
(4) Opioid - obtained from poppy plant (3) aa, Aa, aa (4) Aa, aa, aa
92. Correct statement for thalassemia is :- 97. A Drosophila heterozygous for both body
(1) -chain is less synthesised colour and eye colour will be :-
(2) -chain is less synthesised (1) Only male
(3) Correctly sequenced -chain is less synthesised (2) Only female
(4) Both  and -chains are less synthesised (3) Mostly male
93. Match the columns :- (4) Either male or female

Column-I Column-II 98. I

a LSD i CNS/Stimulant

b Nicotine ii Raise blood pressure

II
Sedative and 1 2 3 4 5 6
c Morphine iii
Analgesic
d Cocaine iv Hallucinogen III

a b c d What is the genotype of II (3) ?

(1) AA (2) aa (3) x°y (4) Aa
(1) iv ii iii i 99. Study the pedigree chart given below –
(2) iv iii ii i
(3) iv i ii iii
(4) iv i iii ii

94. A disease caused by an autosomal primary

non-disjunction is :
(1) Klinefelter's Syndrome
(2) Turner's Syndrome
(3) Sickel Cell Anemia What does it show ?
(4) Down's Syndrome (1) Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked
95. Which of the following is not a sexually disease like haemophilia
(2) Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn error of
transmitted disease ?
metabolism like phenylketonuria
(1) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS)
(3) Inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria
(2) Trichomoniasis
as an autosomal recessive trait
(3) Encephalitis
(4) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not
(4) Syphilis possible
100. Study the given pedigree carefully, the trait 106. Fruit color in squash is example of :-
indicated is :- (1) Recessive Epistasis
(2) Dominant Epistasis
(3) Complementary genes
(4) Inhibitory genes
107. Which of the following options gives the
correct category of organisms and their pattern
of sex determination ?
: Normal male : Affected male
XY male type XO male type ZZ male type
: Normal female : Affected female
Human beings, Crocodile,
1 Drosophila, fowl
(1) Autosomal recessive (2) X–linked recessive cockroach Bonnelia
(3) Maternal inheritance (4) Paternal inheritance Cockroach,
2 Human beings Fowl, Fragaria
grass hopper
101. Grain colour in wheat is determined by three
Drosophila , Cockroach,
pairs of polygenes. Following cross AABBCC 3 Crocodile, fowl
Honey bees Grasshopper
(dark colour) x aabbcc (light colour), in F2 Fragaria, Honey bees
4 Fishes, Tortoise
generation what proportion of the progeny is Melandrium Drosophila
likely to resemble either parent ?
(1) None 108. Identify the correct match from the columns
(2) Less than 5 per cent I, II and III
(3) One third Column I Column II Column III
(4) Half (1) Hypertrichosis Hairs on ear Y linked
102. If dominant C and P genes are essential for the pinna gene
development of purple colour in sweet pea (2) G-6 PD Rupture of Y-Linked
flowers, what would be the ratio of white and deficiency erythrocyte recessive
membrane allele
purple colour in a cross between CcPp× Ccpp
(1) 5 : 3 (2) 9 : 7 (3) 2 : 6 (4) 6 : 2 (3) Xeroderma Skin cancer Y linked
pigmentosum disorder
103. Dominant phenotype/trait is produced by :-
(1) Unmodified allele only (4) DMD Smallest X linked
(2) Modified alleles only gene of recessive
(3) Both unmodified and equivalent modified human disorder
alleles
(4) Every modified and unmodified allele. 109. B b b b
104. How many types of gametes will be produced L l l l
by a tetrahybrid individual, where last two
genes are completely linked ?
(1) Eight (2) Four (3) Six (4) Two
Progeny 7:1:1:7
105. The Part of  chain of haemoglobin of a person
suffering from sickle cell anaemia is given. The Such deviation of ratio from 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 to
blank circle represents. 7 : 1 : 1 : 7 is due to variability of :-
(1) Gametic variability
Val His Leu Thr Pro Glu
(2) Random fertilisation
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
(1) same as 1 (2) same as 2 (3) Genotypic variability
(3) same as 3 (4) same as 5 (4) Phenotypic variability
110. Which of the following combination is directly 116. Two genes A & B present on same chromosome
proportional to linkage ? show 20% crossover, then what will be the
percentage of gamete (Ab) for the plant having
(1) Temperature Age Heterochromatin genotype AaBb in cis configuration ?
(1) 40 %
Distance (2) 80 %
(2) between Age Heterochromatin
Genes (3) 20 %
(4) 10 %
Closeness 117. A person with unknow blood group under ABO
(3) Age Heterochromatin
of genes
system, has suffered much blood loss in an
Length of Distance accident and needs immediate blood transfusion.
(4) Sex
chromosome of genes His one friend who has a valid certificate of his
own blood type, offers for blood donation
111. A roan bull is bred to three cows. Cow A has
the same genotype as the roan bull. cow B is without delay. What would have been the type
red and cow C is white. what proportions of of blood group of the donor friend ?
roan cows are expected in the offsprings of (1) Type B
each group of cows :-
(1) 2,1,1 (2) 1,2,1 (3) 1,1,2 (4) 3,1 (2) Type AB
112. Any male can't receive gene of DMD from (3) Type O
(A) Maternal grand father
(4) Type A
(B) Maternal grand mother
(C) Paternal grand father 118. Cytological observation on meiotic cell
(D) Paternal grand mother division and Mendel's concept on inheritance
(1) A and B (2) C and D were combined together to propose.
(3) A and C (4) B and D
(1) Laws of inheritance
113. Calvin Bridges stated that instead of XY
chromosomes, sex is determined by the genic (2) Chromosome theory of inheritance
balance. What would be the sex of drosophila having (3) Law of segregation
XX + 3A & XY + 3A karyotype respectively:-
(1) Inter sex & Metafemale (4) Law of sex determination
(2) Metafemale & Intersex 119. Polygenic genes show :-
(3) Intersex & Normal male (1) Identical phenotype
(4) Intersex & Meta male
(2) Identical biochemistry
114. A women carrier for albinism as well as
colourblindness will produce how many types (3) Different phenotype
of gametes :- (4) Identical genotype
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One
120. Which is incorrect for Drosophila melanogaster ?
115. In a cross in Drosophila, the heterozygous
member with grey body (b+) and long wings (1) They could be grown on simple synthetic
(vg+)was crossed with black body and vestigial medium
wings, the progeny had the following ratio ; (2) Single mating could produce a large
grey vestigial - 24 ; grey long - 126 ; Black number of progeny
long-26, Black vestigial - 124. What is the
(3) They complete their life cycle in about
frequency of recombinant in the population ?
(1) 15.8 % (2) 16.7 % 7 weeks
(3) 17.5 % (4) 14.5 % (4) There is a clear differentiation of the sexes.
 DIRECTIONS FOR Q. NO. 121 TO 180
These questions consist of two statements each,
printed as Assertion and Reason.While
answering these Questions you are required to
choose any one of the following four responses.
A. If both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
B. If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
C. If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
D. If both Assertion & Reason are False.
121. Assertion :- The electrostatic field is of
conservative nature.
125. Assertion :- Electric field intensity at surface of
a uniformly charged spherical shell is E. If shell
is punctured at a point then intensity at
punctured point becomes E/2.
Reason :- Electric field intensity due to a
spherical charge distribution can be found out
by using Gauss law.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
126. Assertion :- If X-ray is allowed to fall on
uncharged gold leaf in evacuated glass
chamber of electroscope, leaves will diverge.
Reason :- Uncharged gold leaves will get
charged positively when x-ray falls on it.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Reason :- The line integral of electrostatic field 127.

 E  d  along closed path is always zero.

 

+q
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
122. Assertion :- Electrostatic potential is a relative
physical quantity.
Reason :- Electric potential difference is a
absolute physical quantity. A point charge is placed inside the hollow
spherical conducting shell.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Assertion :- On displacing the charge in the
123. Assertion :- An electric field line may form shell from centre the electric field pattern
closed loop. outside the shell does not change.

Reason :- An induced electric field is of non Reason :- The configuration of charge on outer
surface of shell is independent of location of
conservative in nature.
q charge in shell.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

124. Assertion :- A positive test charge placed in 128. Assertion : A bird sitting on a high power line
(say 11kV) is not affected practically.
external electric field tend to move due to
Reason : Because no current flows through
electric force. The path traced by test charge
birds body, the circuit being incomplete.
is called electric field line. This is correct when
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
field lines are straight.
129. Assertion : When charges are shared between
Reason :- In uniform electric field motion of two bodies, there occurs no loss of charge, but
there does occur a loss of energy.
the charge is along field line if the charge was
Reason : In case of sharing of charges energy
initially at rest.
of conservation fails.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
130. In the given figure there is uniformly charged 136. Assertion :- Spherical aberration occurs in
hemi spherical shell having centre O. mirror of larger aperture.
Reason :- The two rays, paraxial and marginal
rays focus at different points.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
O A
137. Assertion :- The mirrors used in search lights
Assertion :- At the given point A electric field
due to shell is perpendicular to plane are parabolic and not concave spherical.
containing points of O & A as well as Reason :- In a concave spherical mirror the
perpendicular to line OA. image formed is always virtual.
Reason :- Point O may have more potential than (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
A.
138. Assertion :- Air bubble shines in water.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Reason :- Air bubble in water shines due to
131. Assertion :- When an object is placed between
reflection of light.
two plane parallel mirrors, then all the images
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
found are of equal intensity.
139. Assertion :- Stars twinkle while the planets do
Reason :- In case of plane parallel mirrors,
not.
only two images are possible.
Reason :- Stars are much bigger in size than
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
the planets.
132. Assertion :- The size of a mirror affects the
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
nature of image.
140. Assertion :- The formula connecting u, v and
Reason :- Small mirrors always form a virtual f for a spherical mirror is valid only for mirrors
image. whose sizes are very small compared to their
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D radii of curvature.
133. Assertion :- Within a glass slab, a double Reason :- Laws of reflection are strictly valid
convex air bubble is formed. This air bubble for plane surfaces, but not for large spherical
behaves like a converging lens. surface.
Reason :- Refractive index of air is more than (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
the refractive index of glass. 141. Assertion :- N2 and NO both are diamagnetic


(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D substances.

134. Assertion :- The images formed by total Reason :- NO is isoelectronic with N2.
internal reflections are much brighter than those
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
formed by mirrors or lenses.
Reason :- There is very less loss of intensity 142. Assertion :- C3O2 has linear structure.
in total internal reflection. Reason :- Each 'C' atom in C3O2 is sp-hybridised.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
135. Assertion :- If the angles of the base of a prism 143. Assertion :- Bond order can +ve, –ve or zero.
are equal, then in the position of minimum Reason :- Higher the B.O., shorter is the B.L.
deviation, the refracted ray will pass parallel and greater is the bond energy.
to the base of prism.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Reason :- In the case of minimum deviation,
the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of 144. Assertion :- CCl4 is a non-polar molecule.
emergence. Reason :- CCl4 has polar bonds.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
145. Assertion :- Multiple bonds between two 154. Assertion :- Staggered conformation of n-butane
bonded atoms can have more than three bonds. is more stable than eclipsed conformation.
Reason :- Multiple bonds between two bonded Reason :- In staggered (anti) conformation all
atoms can not have more than two -bonds. strains are minimum.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
155. Assertion :- Alkenes containing more than
146. Assertion :- ICl2–1 and XeF2 both are Iso-structural.
3 carbons exhibit chain isomerism.
Reason :- ICl2–1 and XeF2 both are hypervalent.
Reason :- All the carbons in alkane are
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
sp3 hybridized.
147. Assertion :- Second E.A. for halogens is almost (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
zero. 156. Assertion :- Conformers are not true isomer.
Reason :- F has maximum value of E.A. Reason :- They are interconvertible at room
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D temperature.
148. Assertion :- In gaseous state the formation of (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
O2– ion is not favourable. 157. Assertion :- When even number of cumulated
Reason :- In solid state O2– ion is stabilised by bonds are present, the compound is optically
neighbouring cation. active for example
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (Me)3C C(Me)3
149. Assertion :- In SiO2, Si atom is sp hybridised. C C C C C
Reason :- In SiO2 each Si atom is surrounded Ph Ph
by two oxygen atoms. Reason :- Above molecule can also show
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D geometrical isomerism.
150. Assertion :- Si–Si bond is weaker than Si–O (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
bond. 158. Assertion :- D Erythrose and L-Threose are
Reason :- Si does not form multiple bond with enantiomer of each other.
it self. Reason :- Enantiomers have non
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D superimposable mirror image
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
151. Assertion :- Meso-tartaric acid is optically
159. Assertion :- Catechol and Resorcinol are
active.
positional isomer.
Reason :- Optically active molecule has
Reason :- They have different position of
non-superimposable mirror image.
–CH2OH.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
152. Assertion :- Metamerism can also be shown by
160. Assertion :- Cyclo octene can show geometrical
ethyl methyl ether.
isomerism.
Reason :- All functional groups can show
Reason :- It is an unsaturated compound.
metamerism.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D 161. Assertion :- Organ transplantation patients are
153. Assertion :- Anti [staggered] conformation is given immunosuppressive drugs.
always more stable than gauche. Reason :- Transplanted tissue has antigens
Reason :- Staggered form has minimum steric which stimulate the specific immune response
crowing. of the recipient.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
162. Assertion :- Withdrawal of drug is characterised 171. Assertion :- Round seeds in pea plant may have
by anxiety, shakiness, nausea, and sweating etc. large sized or intermediate sized starch grains.
Reason :- The body functions became Reason :- It is an example of pleiotropy,
dependent with regular use of drugs. multiple alleles and incomplete dominance.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
163. Assertion :- Smoking makes oxygen less 172. Assertion :- According to Mendel, factors are
available to the body. stable & discrete units that control the
Reason :- In presence of CO, O2 binds less with expression of traits.
haemoglobin. Reason :- He could not provide any physical
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D proof for the existence of factors.
164. Assertion :- Injection and syringes should be (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
used only after sterilization. 173. Assertion :- In birds, the females have one Z
Reason :- Infections like Hepatitis-B and HIV and one W chromosome, whereas male have
may spread. a pair of Z-chromosomes besides autosomes.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D Reason :- In birds, sex of the offsprings is
165. Assertion :- HIV is a retrovirus containing decided by the temperature of surroundings
ss-RNA covered by envelope. when they are released.
Reason :- Viral RNA form viral DNA inside (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
host cell and produce viral particles containing 174. Assertion :- In human genetics, pedigree study
viral RNA. provides a strong tool, which is utilized to trace
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D the inheritance of a specific trait, abnormality
166. Assertion :- Gonorrhoea is a bacterial disease. or disease.
Reason :- It cannot be cure completely even if Reason :- The controlled crosses that can be
it is detected at early stage. performed in pea plant or some other
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D organisms, are not possible in case of human
167. Assertion :- Mendel conducted artificial beings.
pollination experiments using several true- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
breeding pea lines. 175. Assertion :- An X-linked recessive trait shows
Reason :- Mendel selected 14 true-breeding transmission from carrier male to female progeny.
pea plant varieties. Reason :- X-linked recessive trait shows non-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D criss-cross inheritance.
168. Assertion :- Genes are the units of inheritance. (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Reason :- They contain the information that is 176. Assertion :- Sickle-cell anaemia is caused by
required to express a particular trait in an organism. the substitution of glutamic acid by valine at
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D the sixth position of the beta globin chain of
169. Assertion :- Simply looking at the phenotype the haemoglobin molecule.
of a dominant trait, it is not possible to know Reason :- It is due to the single base substitution
the genotypic composition. at the sixth codon of the beta globin gene from
Reason :- Mendel performed reciprocal crosses GUG to GAG.
to know the genotype of dominant organism. (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D 177. Assertion :- According to Mendelism,
170. Assertion :- Multiple alleles can be observed contrasting traits did not show any blending.
or studies in an organism, when its complete Reason :- Only one of the parental traits was
genome is known. expressed in the F1 while at the F2 stage both the
Reason :- Multiple alleles is a rare phenomenon. traits were expressed in the proportion of 1 : 1.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
178. Assertion :- The segregation of alleles is a 184. Points out the letter which represents Indians
random process and so there is a 50% chance and historians but not politicians on the basis
of a gamete containing either allele. of these three circles ?
Reason :- By the process of mitosis, the alleles
of the parental pair separates from each other Indian
& only one allele in transmitted to a gamete. a
bd c
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
f g e
179. Assertion :- Dominance is not an autonomous Historians Politicians
feature of a gene or its product.
Reason :- It depends on gene product or on the (1) b (2) c (3) e (4) f
particular phenotype that we choose to 185. If 6a1 = 70, 2a3 = 50 and 4a5 = 90, then find
examine, when more than one phenotype is the value of 1a4 = ?
influenced by the same gene.
(1) 50 (2) 30 (3) 10 (4) 60
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
186. A shopper in a mart loads his trolley and walks
180. Assertion :- On the basis of Punnett square, the 30 m through an alley which is going South,
F2 generation of dihybrid plant will produce 16 then he turns to his left and walks 10 m, then
different types of genotypes. he turns North and walks another 10 m, then
Reason :- In F1 generation plant, there are four he turns West and walks 45 m and then he turns
genotypes of gametes with a frequency of 25% North and walks 20 m. Where is he now with
of total gametes produced. reference to his starting position?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) 35 m West

181. Certain words are given below in question. All (2) 55 m West
are similar in nature except one which is (3) 35 m East
different. Pick out the odd one.
(4) 55 m East
Mars, Sky, Jupiter, Moon, Sun
187. Question given below consists of a statement,
(1) Sun (2) Mars followed by two arguments numbered I and II.
(3) Moon (4) Sky You have to decide which of the arguments is
a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak'
182. Arrange the given words in the sequence in
argument.
which they occur in the dictionary.
Statement: The educated people should work
1. Exception 2. Exceptional
in villages.
3. Exchanging 4. Exchanged
Arguments:
5. Excess I : Yes, because they can revolutionize
(1) 12543 (2) 21453 agriculture and revamp the rural atmosphere.
(3) 42531 (4) 32154 II : No, because their education might wastes
there in villages.
183. If 'cat' and 'boat' are written as 'xzg' and 'ylzg'
respectively in a code language then how is (1) Only argument I is strong
'egg' to be written in the same language? (2) Only argument II is strong
(1) vss (2) urr (3) Both the arguments are strong
(3) vtt (4) utf (4) Neither I nor II is strong
188. From the positions of a cube shown below, 192. Which team won the 85th Ranji Trophy title
which letter will be on the face opposite to face held in 2018-19?
with 'A'? (1) Karnataka (2) Saurashtra
(3) Vidarbha (4) Mumbai
A A D D
193. Who won women's singles title of Indonesia
E
F B C C B B F Masters Badminton Tournament 2019?
(1) P.V. Sindhu
(2) Saina Nehwal
(1) F (2) D (3) C (4) B
189. Which of the following figures represents the (3) Carolina Marin
best relationship among the three terms used (4) Ankita Raina
in the question. 194. Which country is the 2nd largest consumer and
Country, State, Chief Minister importer of the LPG in the world?
(1) France (2) Russia
(3) China (4) India
A. B.
195. What is the rank of India in Global Corruption
Index 2018 released by the Transparency
International?
(1) 72 (2) 75 (3) 78 (4) 80
C. D.
196. The National Voters Day is observed every year
on which date?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) January 24 (2) January 25
190. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which (3) January 28 (4) January 30
of the answer figures is the right image of the 197. Who has been chosen for 2019 Padma Vibhushan
given figure ? award?
(1) Dr Bhupen Hazarika
(2) Nanaji Deshmukh
(3) Teejan Bai
(4) Bachendri Pal
M N
198. Which company got the title of world's most
valued IT services brand according to Brand
Finance?
(1) (2)
(1) TCS (2) Accenture
(3) IBM (4) HCL
199. What is the full form of FSSAI?
(3) (4) (1) Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
(2) Food Sales and Standards Authority of India
191. "Train 18", India's first indigenous semi-high (3) Food Safety and Sales Authority of India
speed train was renamed as which of the
(4) Food Sales and Safety Authority of India
following?
200. Where is the headquarters of International
(1) Garibrath Express
Energy Agency (IEA)?
(2) Jai Bharat Express
(3) Hindustan Express (1) Vienna (2) London
(4) Vande Bharat Express (3) Paris (4) Geneva
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK