28/06/2016

A
CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MM : 720 Test Series : Test – 13 Time : 3 Hrs.

[NEET (Phase-2)-2016]
Topics Covered :
Physics : Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction
Chemistry : General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements, p-Block Elements (Group 15-18), d and f
Block Elements, Coordination Compounds
Botany : Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production, Microbes in Human Welfare
Zoology : Evolution-II: Darwin’s contribution, Modern Synthetic theory of Evolution; Mechanism of evolution-Variation
(Mutation and Recombination) and Natural Selection with examples, types of natural selection; Gene flow
and genetic drift; Hardy-Weinberg’s principle; Adaptive Radiation, Human Evolution

Instructions :
(i) Use Blue/Black ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :

1. A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is cut as 3. A line passing through places having zero value of
shown in figure then magnetic moment of part B is magnetic dip is called
(1) Isoclinic line (2) Agonic line
(3) Isogonic line (4) Aclinic line
A B 4. Magnetic susceptibility is negative for
D C
(1) Paramagnetic substance
M 2M
(1) (2) (2) Diamagnetic substance
4 3
(3) Ferromagnetic substance
M 3M
(3) (4) (4) All of these
8 4
2. A permanent magnet 5. If an electric cable is carrying current from west to
east, then
(1) Attracts all substances
(1) One null point can be obtained above the cable
(2) Attracts only magnetic substances
(2) One null point can be obtained below the cable
(3) Attracts magnetic substances and repels all
(3) Infinite null points can be obtained above the
non-magnetic substances
cable
(4) Attracts non magnetic substances and repels
(4) Infinite null points can be obtained below the
magnetic substances
cable
(1)
Test-13 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
6. The distance between two identical bar magnet 12. Three identical bar magnet each of magnetic moment
becomes tripled then magnetic force between bar M are placed in the form of equilateral triangle as
magnet shown in figure then net magnetic moment is
(1) Decreases by 81 times

N
N
(2) Increases by 81 times
(3) Increases by 27 times
(4) Decreases by 27 times

S
N S
7. A magnetic needle of negligible breadth compared to
its length oscillates in a horizontal plane with period (1) Zero (2) 2 M
T. Now bar magnet cut into two identical parts and (3) M 3 (4) M 2
both parts kept symmetrically and oscillate in same
13. Two wires of same length are shaped into a circle
plane, then time period of the combination will be
and a square, carry same current then ratio of
T T magnetic moment is
(1) (2)
2 4 (1)  : 2
(2) 2 : 
T T
(3) (4) (3)  : 4
2 2 2
(4) 4 : 
8. If current flowing in the coil placed in tangent
14. For a ferromagnetic material, correct graph between
galvanometer is increased to 3 times then what magnetic susceptibility (m ) and magnetizing field (H)
will be new angle of deflection if initial angle is 45°? is
(1) 30° (2) 60°
m m
(3) tan–1 3 (4) 45°
9. Which of the following is a paramagnetic
substances? (1) (2)
(1) H2O (2) O2
H H
(3) N2 (4) H2
10. Two short identical bar magnet placed at two vertex m m
of an equilateral triangle of side L such that the axis
of both bar magnet makes an angle 60° and centre
point of magnet is at vertex. N pole of both bar (3) (4)
magnet toward the other vertex, then magnetic field
at other vertex is H H

0 3M  
(1) . 15. If B1 and B2 be the magnetic field due to a bar
4 L3 magnet at axial and equatorial position respectively,
0 2 3M then
(2) .  
4 L3 (1) B1.B2  0
 0 2M  
(3) . (2) B1.B2  0
4 L3
 
0 3 2M (3) B1  B2  0
(4) .
4 L3 (4) Both (2) & (3)
11. Permanent magnet should have 16. What will be angular position of point at which
(1) Low retentivity, low coercivity resulting magnetic field becomes perpendicular to
magnetic dipole moment?
(2) Low retentivity, high coercivity
(1) 90° (2) tan1 2
(3) High retentivity, low coercivity
(3) tan–12 (4) cot 1 2
(4) High retentivity, high coercivity
(2)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-13 (Code A)
17. A magnetic dip needle shows reading 1 and 2 in 21. Due to earth magnetic field, charged cosmic ray
the plane of geographic meridian and in the plane particles
perpendicular to it respectively. The value of angle of (1) Require greater kinetic energy to reach the
declination at that place is equator than pole
(1) cot–1(tan21 + tan22) (2) Require less kinetic energy to reach the equator
(2) tan–1(tan21 + tan22) than pole
(3) Can never reach the equator
1 ⎛ tan 1 ⎞
(3) cot ⎜ ⎟ (4) Can never reach the pole
⎝ tan 2 ⎠
22. A square loop of side l is rotating about a axis
passing through centre of square and in same plane
1 ⎛ cot 1 ⎞ 
(4) cot ⎜ ⎟ in a uniform magnetic field B with angular speed 
⎝ cot 2 ⎠
having 5 turns. Find the induced emf.
18. An electron is moving vertically downward. In which y
direction will it deflect due to horizontal component 
of earth’s magnetic field?
(1) Towards north (2) Towards east
(3) Towards west (4) Vertically upward
19. Two identical short bar magnet placed as shown in
figure. A magnetic needle at point P makes some
d1 y
angle  with the horizontal line then d is
2 (1) BI2 cos(t) (2) BI2 sin(t)

(3) 5BI2sin(t) (4) Zero

N 23. The current is flowing in two co-axial coils in the
S N P S same direction on decreasing the distance between
the two, the electric current will
N
S (1) Decrease (2) Increase
d1 d2
(3) Remain unchanged (4) Insufficient data
24. The flux linked with a circuit is given by  = (t – 2)2.
1/3 The graph between induced emf (y-axis) and time
⎛ cot  ⎞
(1) (2 cot)1/3 (2) ⎜ ⎟ axis (x-axis) is
⎝ 2 ⎠
(1) Straight line through origin
1/3 (2) Straight line with negative intercept
(3) (2 tan)1/3 (4) ⎛⎜ tan  ⎞⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠ (3) Straight line with positive intercept
(4) Parabola
20. Two identical short bar magnet of magnetic moment
M1 and M 2 are taken and vibrated in vibrational 25. Two different loops are concentric but perpendicular
magnetometer with their (a) like poles together (b) to each other. The current in one loop is clockwise
unlike poles together. If the ratio of number of and increasing with time. Then induced current in the
other loop is
2 M1
vibration is , then M is (1) Clockwise (2) Anti-clockwise
3 2
(3) Infinite (4) Zero
4
(1) 26. A magnet is dropped down in long vertical copper
9
pipe
9 (1) The magnet moves with uniform acceleration
(2)
4
(2) The magent moves with decreasing acceleration
13
(3) (3) The magnet ultimately acquires a zero
5
acceleration
5
(4) (4) Both (2) & (3) are corrct
13
(3)
Test-13 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
27. An semi-infinite long copper cylinder is placed along 33. A metal rod moves at constant velocity in a direction
negative z-axis and one end of it is in contact with perpendicular to its length. A constant uniform
origin. A magnetic field B directed along positive magnetic field exist in a direction perpendicular to
z-axis is increasing. Find the direction of induced the rod as well as its velocity. Select the correct
current as seen from positive z-axis. statement
(1) Clockwise (1) Electric potential is same at each point of rod
(2) Anti-clockwise (2) Electric potential is maximum at centre of rod
(3) No induced current (3) Electric potential is maximum at the one end of
rod
(4) Along the magnetic field
(4) Electric potential is zero at the one end of rod
28. A conducting wire is placed along x-axis of length
 34. The average energy dissipated in pure inductor of
1 m moves with uniform velocity v  3 ˆj in magnetic
 inductance L will be
field B  2iˆ T . Find magnitude of induced e.m.f.
1 2 1 2
across the ends of conductor. (1) Li (2) Li
2 4
(1) 6 V (2) 6 2 V
(3) Li2 (4) Zero
(3) 3 V (4) Zero
35. Two coils of self inductance 4 mH and 9 mH are
29. A rectangular coil is placed parallel to magnetic field placed so that only 50% of flux from one coil is
and is rotated with a time period T. Coil repeats a linked with other. Find the mutual inductance
maximum induced e.m.f. in magnitude in time between these coil.
interval of
(1) 5 H (2) 2 H
T (3) 0 (4) 3 H
(1) (2) T
4
36. In L–R circuit if L is 10 H and R is 2 . Find the
time after switch is closed when current in the
3T T
(3) (4) circuit attains a 63% of its final magnitude.
4 2
(1) 5 s (2) 2.5 s
30. The magnitude of the earth’s magnetic field at a place
is B and the angle of dip is 30°. A horizontal (3) 10 s (4) Zero
conductor of length l lying along the magnetic 37. When the number of turns doubled and the length of
north-south moves towards east with a velocity v. the solenoid is halved then inductance becomes
Find induced e.m.f. across the ends of conductor.
(1) Two times (2) Four times
Bvl 3Bvl (3) Eight times (4) Remains same
(1) (2)
2 2
38. Which of the following is not an application of eddy
(3) Bvl (4) currents?
3Bvl
(1) Induction motor
31. A long solenoid has 100 turns. When a current of
1 ampere is passed through it, the resulting magnetic (2) Dead beat galvanonmeter
flux linked with each turns of solenoid is 2 × 10–3 (3) Deflection magnetometer
Wb. Find the self inductance of the solenoid.
(4) Induction furnace
(1) 2 H (2) 0.2 H
39. A magnet is placed along the axis of ring. Flux linked
(3) 3 H (4) 0.3 H with the coil will change
32. A copper disc of radius 1 m is rotated about its
centre with 10 radian/second in a uniform magnetic
field of 1 tesla with its plane perpendicular to field.
Find the e.m.f. induced across the diameter of disc. S N
(1) Zero (2) 5 V
(3) 10 V (4) 20 V

(4)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-13 (Code A)
(1) If ring is rotated about axis of ring 42. A conducting circular loop having a radius of 0.5 m
is placed perpendicular to a magnetic field 2T. It is
(2) If ring is rotated about its diameter
removed from the field in 0.1 s. The average emf
(3) If magnet is moved towards the ring produced in the loop during this time will be
(4) Both (2) & (3) are correct (1) 2 V (2) 20 V
40. A circular loop of radius R is placed in a region of (3) 5 V (4) 100 V

magnetic field B such that the plane of loop makes 43. An inductor carriers a steady-state current of 10 A
 when connected across an ideal battery of emf 50 V.
an angle  with the direction of B . In which of the If its inductance is 20 H. The time constant of the
given conditions there is no induced emf in the loop? circuit is

(1) B is non-uniform in region (1) 4 s (2) 0.2 s
 (3) 10 s (4) 0.5 s
(2) B is changing with time
44. A magnet is moved towards a coil in 1st case
(3) Radius is changing with time quickly and in 2nd case slowly, then induced charge
is
(4)  is changing with time
(1) Larger in case 1st (2) Smaller in case 2nd
41. The electromagnetic damping experienced by a
metallic object oscillating between poles of magnet (3) Smaller in case 1st (4) Equal in both cases
is due to 45. Which of the following factor is not responsible for
(1) Meisner effect deciding the mutual inductance of two coils?
(1) Separation between two coils
(2) Eddy currents
(2) Orientation of coils
(3) Magnus effect
(3) Current through coils
(4) Copper loss
(4) The number of turns of each coil

CHEMISTRY
46. The ferric ion is detected by the formation of a 50. Which one of the following has a magnetic moment
prussian blue precipitate on addition of potassium of 1.75 BM?
ferrocyanide solution. The formula of the Prussian (1) Ti+3 (2) V+3
blue compound is
(3) Cr+3 (4) Fe+3
(1) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (2) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]4
51. In solid state PCl5 is a
(3) KFe[Fe(CN)6] (4) KFe[Fe(CN)4]
(1) Covalent solid
47. Which of the following species is expected to be
colourless? (2) Trigonal planar structure
(1) [Ti(H2O)6]+3 (2) [Ti(NO3)6]–3 (3) Ionic solid with [PCl6]+ octahedral and [PCl4]–
tetrahedral
(3) [Cr(NH3)2]+ (4) [Fe(CN)6]–4
(4) Ionic solid with [PCl4]+ tetrahedral and [PCl6]–
48. Colour of coordination compounds depends on the octahedral
crystal field splitting. What will be the correct order
of absorption of wavelength of light in the visible 52. Which of the following statement regarding sulphur
region? dioxide is not correct?
(1) [Co(CN)6]3– > [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Co(H2O)6]3+ (1) SO2 is an angular molecule
(2) [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Co(H2O)6]3+ > [Co(CN)6]3– (2) SO2 is an anhydride of sulphuric acid
(3) [Co(H2O)6]3+ > [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Co(CN)6]3– (3) SO2 is an acidic oxide
(4) [Co(CN)6]3– > [Co(H2O)6]3+ > [Co(NH3)6]3+ (4) The S-O bond length is smaller than the
expected value
49. Which is not a -bonded complex?
53. Which of the following order is correct?
(1) Zeise salt
(1) H2S < H2Se < H2O (Enthalpy of vaporisation)
(2) Ferrocene
(2) H2O < H2S < H2Te (Acidic nature)
(3) Bis(benzene) chromium
(3) I2 < Br2 < Cl2 < F2 (Oxidising power)
(4) Tetraethyllead
(4) All of these
(5)
Test-13 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
54. The oxidation state of central atom in the anion of 62. Poling process is used for the removal of
Na2HPO3 will be
(1) Al2O3 from Al (2) Cu2O from Cu
(1) +3 (2) +5
(3) Fe2O3 from Fe (4) All of these
(3) +1 (4) –3 63. To obtain chromium from chromic oxide (Cr2O3), the
55. NH3  O2  A  H2O
Pt method used is


A + O2  B (1) Carbon reduction

B + H2O  C + A (2) Carbonmonoxide reduction

A, B and C are (3) Aluminothermy

(1) N2O, NO2 and HNO3(aq) (4) Electrolytic reduction

(2) NO, NO2 and HNO3(aq) 64. The maximum temperature of around 1800°C is
obtained in the _________ region of the blast furnace
(3) NO2, NO and HNO3(aq) used in the extraction of iron.
(4) N2O, NO and HNO3(aq) (1) Combustion (2) Reduction
56. Which of the following statements is correct for (3) Slag formation (4) Fusion
CsBr3?
65. Number of electron transferred in each case when
(1) It is a covalent compound KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent to give MnO2,
(2) It contains Cs+3 and Br– ions Mn+2, Mn(OH)3, K2MnO4.

(3) It contains Cs+ and Br3 ions (1) 3, 5, 4 and 1 (2) 4, 3, 1 and 5
(3) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (4) 5, 4, 3 and 1
(4) It contains Cs+, Br– ions
57. Electronic configuration of a transition element X in +3 66. The product of oxidation of I– with MnO 4 in alkaline
oxidation state is [Ar]3d 5 . What is its atomic medium is
number?
(1) IO 3 (2) I2
(1) 25 (2) 26
(3) IO– (4) IO 4
(3) 27 (4) 24
67. In the extraction of chlorine by electrolysis of brine
58. Highest oxidation state of manganese in fluoride is
+ 4 (MnF4) but highest oxidation state in oxides is (1) Oxidation of Cl– to chlorine gas occurs.
+ 7 (Mn2O7) because (2) Reduction of Cl– ion to chlorine gas occurs
(1) Fluorine is more electronegative than oxygen (3) For overall reaction G° has negative value
(2) Fluorine does not posses d-orbitals (4) A displacement reaction takes place
(3) Fluorine stabilises lower oxidation state 68. Which of the following ligands are bidentate or
(4) In covalent compounds fluorine can form single tridentate ligands, capable of forming chelate rings?
bond only while oxygen forms double bond (i) NH2CH2CH2NH2
59. Nitrogen (I) oxide is produced by (ii) CH3CH2CH2NH2
(1) Thermal decomposition of ammonium nitrate (iii) NH2CH2CH2NHCH2COO–
(2) Disproportionation of N2O4 

(3) Thermal decomposition of ammonium nitrite (iv) NH2 CH2 CH2 NH3

(4) Interaction of hydroxylamine and nitric acid (1) (i) and (iii) (2) (ii) and (iv)
60. Which of the following is an acidic oxide? (3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(1) Mn2O7 (2) Mn3O4 69. Which ion would you expect to have the largest
splitting of d-orbitals?
(3) MnO (4) Mn2O3
(1) [Fe(CN)6]–4 (2) [Fe(CN)6]–3
61. Sulphide ores of metals are usually concentrated by
froth floatation process. Which of the following (3) [Fe(H2O)6]+2 (4) [Fe(H2O)6]+3
sulphide ores offer an exception and is concentrated 70. Which one of the following combines with Fe+2 ion
by chemical leaching? to form a brown ring complex?
(1) Galena (2) Copper pyrite (1) N2O (2) NO
(3) Sphalerite (4) Argentite (3) N2O3 (4) N2O5
(6)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-13 (Code A)
71. The most acidic hydride of nitrogen is pH  X
81. Cr2O72 
 2
 CrO4
(1) NH3 (2) N2H4 pH Y

(3) N3H (4) NH4Cl The value of Y and X respectively are

72. Cl–P–Cl bond angles in PCl5 molecules are (1) 3, 8 (2) 8, 4
(1) 120° and 90° (2) 60° and 90° (3) 8, 10 (4) 10, 2
(3) 60° and 120° (4) 120° and 30° 82. Match the Column-I with Column-II
73. Mixture used in Holme’s signal is Column-I Column-II
(1) CaC2 and CaCl2 (2) CaCl2 and Ca3P2 (Oxoacid) (Oxidation state
(3) CaC2 and Ca3N2 (4) CaC2 and Ca3P2
of central element)
74. The element in group-15 having maximum melting
a. Phosphoric acid (i) +6
point is
b. Marshall’s acid (ii) +5
(1) Sb (2) Bi
(3) As (4) P c. Perchloric acid (iii) +4

75. Clatherates are not formed by d. Sulphurous acid (iv) +7

(1) He (2) Ne (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)

(3) Ar (4) Both (1) & (2) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
76. The secondary valency of metal CoCl3·4NH3 if its (3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
solution reacted with one mole of AgNO3 only, is (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(1) 6 (2) 4 83. Which of the following complex is homoleptic?
(3) 1 (4) 5
(1) Li[AlH4]
77. Which of the following is not true about [Fe(CO)5]?
(2) [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4
(1) Oxidation state of ‘Fe’ is zero
(3) [Co(en)(NH3)2(H2O2)]Cl2
(2) The hybridization of central atom is dsp3
(4) Both (2) & (3)
(3) It is a diamagnetic complex
84. Which of the following is/are correct statements?
(4) It is a paramagnetic complex
(1) K 2 Cr2 O 7 has orange colour due to charge
78. Low spin complex of d5-cation in an octahedral field transfer
will have the following energy
(2) Zn, Cd and Hg are not considered as transition
(0 = CFSE, P = Electron pairing energy)
metals
(1) –20 +P (2) –20 +2P
(3) Tungsten has a very high melting point
2 (4) All of these
(3)  0  2P (4) –20 +3P
5 85. Which of the following is/are the examples of square
79. In Ellingham diagrams of fG (oxide formation) planar complex?
versus temperature (T), which of the following graphs (1) [NiCl4]2– (2) [PtCl4]2–
has negative slope?
(3) [Ni(CO)4] (4) All of these
4 2
(1) Al  O2  Al2O3 (2) 2Mg + O2  2MgO 86. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
3 3
(1) t = 4/9 0
(3) 2CO + O2  2CO2 (4) 2C + O2  2CO
(2) Ligands are Lewis bases
80. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
when a mixture of NaCl and K2 Cr2 O7 is gently (3) Cis-platin is used in the treatment of cancer
warmed with conc. H2SO4? (4) All of these
(1) A deep red vapour is evolved 87. Which of the following is known as Wilkinson’s
(2) Chromyl chloride is formed catalyst?
(3) Chlorine gas is evolved (1) [(Ph3P)3RhCl] (2) [(C6H6)2Cr]
(4) Both (1) & (2) (3) [(C5H5)2Fe] (4) TiCl4 & AlCl3

(7)
Test-13 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
88. Which of the following complex has maximum (3) CO acts as -donor and -acceptor
stability?
(4) All of these
(1) [Cr(NH3)6]3 (2) [Cr(en) (NH3)4]3
90. The primary and secondary valences of the central
(3) [CrF6]3– (4) [Cr(en)3]3
atom of a schematic representation of given complex
 are respectively.

Cl
M C O OH2
89. 
H2O OH2

Co Cl
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for
above schematic diagram of metal carbonyl? H2O
OH2
(1) It shows synergic bonding interactions in a Cl
carbonyl complex OH2
(2) The (M–C)  bond is formed by the donation of
a pair of electrons from a filled d orbital of metal (1) 6 & 6 (2) 3 & 6
into the vacant antibonding * orbital of carbon
(3) 6 & 3 (4) 3 & 3
monoxide

BOTANY
91. Sugarcane breeding Institute is credited for
(1) Transfer of traits from north Indian cane to
Saccharum barberi
(2) Transfer of trait from noble cane to Indian cane
c. Screening germplasm for disease resistance
sources.
d. Testing and release of new varieties.
Arrange the above given steps in sequential order

(3) Making South Indian cane hardy and prone to (1) a  b  c  d

diseases (2) c  a  b  d
(4) Increasing sugar content of Saccharum (3) b  a  c  d
officinarum (4) c  b  a  d
92. Select the correct statement 95. How many different crop varieties are disease
(a) ICRISAT developed wheat varieties like Sonora resistant?
64. Himgiri, Karan rai, Parbhani kranti, Pusa snowball
K-1, Pusa swani, Pusa A-4, Pusa Gaurav.
(b) IRRI developed rice varieties are grown in India
as Jaya and Ratna. (1) Three
(c) TN-1 has dwarfing genes for wheat. (2) Four

(d) Sonalika was introduced wheat variety in India in (3) Five

1963. (4) Two
(1) a & b (2) a, b & c 96. The crucial step for the success of breeding
experiment is
(3) c & d (4) d only
(1) Collection of variability
93. Bacteriocidal application is required to control
(2) Cross hybridisation
(1) Black rot of crucifers
(3) Evaluation and selection of parents
(2) Mosaic disease in tomato (4) Selection and testing of superior recombinants
(3) Red rot of sugarcane 97. Hairy leaves in several plants are associated with
(4) Late blight of potato resistance to insect pests such as

94. The conventional breeding method for disease (1) Jassid in wheat leaf
resistance involves following steps. (2) Leaf beetle in wheat
a. Hybridisation of selected parents. (3) Stem saw fly in wheat
b. Selection and evaluation of the hybrids. (4) Stem borers in maize
(8)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-13 (Code A)
98. The objective of biofortification is the improving of (1) Somatic hybrid (2) Sexual hybrid
(1) Oil content and quality (3) Cybrid (4) Explant
(2) Protein content only 104. Haploid raising is helpful in
(3) Vitamins content and quality (a) Producing gametophytic generation.
(4) Micronutrient and mineral quality
(b) Production of homozygous individuals.
99. Ever growing human population has increased burden
on land mass. More than 25% of human population (c) Identification of deleterious genes.
is still malnourished. Meeting human requirement (d) Selection of useful recessive character if any
without putting excessive burden on land can be present.
(a) Through growing high yielding crop varieties. How many of the above are correct statement?
(b) Supplementing food with meat based diet. (1) b, c & d (2) a & b
(c) Through use of microbes.
(3) a only (4) a & d
(d) Supplementing with milk based food items.
105. Totipotency property of plant cell is first illucidated by
(1) a & b (2) a, b, c & d
(1) Hanstein (2) Haberlandt
(3) a & c (4) a, c & d
(3) Henking (4) Karlson
100. Biofortification can be achieved through
106. Atlas-66 is rich in
(1) SCP
(1) Mineral (2) Lysine and Tryptophan
(2) Breeding practices
(3) Iron (4) Protein
(3) Diseases resistant varieties 107. Microbial biomass production is not concerned with
(4) All of these (1) An alternative source of protein for animal and
101. Identify the incorrect match human nutrition
Column A Column B (2) A food supplement
(Natural Insecticide) (Source) (3) Enhancement of nutritional content of crops
(1) Rotenone Derris elliptica (4) The utilisation of waste matter in culture process
(2) Nicotine Nicotiana 108. The sum total of all the alleles for all the genes
present in a crop and its related species is called
(3) Pyrethrum Cinchona
(1) Gene pool (2) Germplasm
(4) Azadirachtin Margosa
(3) Genotype (4) Genome
102. Fill in the blanks correctly
109. 250 g of micro-organism like Methylophilus
(a) In 2000, maize hybrids are produced rich in methylotrophus produce 25 tonnes of protein per
(i) . day. This is because of
(ii) (1) High quality of protein present in them
(b) IARI develops spinach rich in .
(2) High rate of biomass production
(c) (iii) could be regenerated into new (3) Culturing bacteria in specialised nutrient media
plants. (4) High rate of protein synthesis
(d) Bomato is the product of (iv) . 110. Which one of the following is not the function of
mycorrhizae?
(1) (i) Certain amino acids
(1) Enrich soil with phosphorus
(iv) Genetic engineering
(2) Provide tolerance to salinity
(2) (ii) Vitamin A and C
(3) Increase plant growth and development
(iii) Explant
(4) Enriches soil with nitrogen fixation
(3) (i) Lysine and arginine
111. Which of the following is not used in SCP?
(ii) Vitamin A
(1) Chlamydomonas
(4) (ii) Calcium
(2) Chlorella
(iii) Embryo
(3) Spirullina
103. Which one of the following cases involves cytoplasm (4) Mushroom
from two sources and nucleus from only one?
(9)
Test-13 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
112. Scientists have succeeded in culturing meristems of 120. Commercial and industrial production of citric acid is
banana, sugarcane etc. The objective is to from
(1) Produce somatic hybrids (1) Acetobacter (2) Aspergillus
(2) Transfer disease resistant traits (3) Azospirillum (4) Anabaena
(3) Develop pathogen free plants 121. Statin functions by/as
(4) Produce somaclones (1) Competitive inhibitor of streptokinase
113. The enzyme, used in detergent formulations and also (2) Bursting blood clot
helpful in removing oily stains is (3) Removing oil stains from the laundry
(1) Streptokinase (2) Protease (4) Checking synthesis of cholesterol
(3) Lipase (4) Amylase 122. Which one of the following is correctly match?
114. Unorganised and undifferentiated actively dividing Beverages Type
cells in tissue culture are
(1) Beer Distilled
(1) Explant (2) Callus
(2) Brandy Distilled
(3) Somaclones (4) Embryoid
(3) Whisky Non-distilled
115. Green crop plants are ploughed back to soil, thus
(4) Rum Non-distilled
serve as _____ and are mainly_____.
123. The sewage water is treated till the BOD is reduced.
(1) Cropyard manure; Cereals
Identify the treatment process and organisms
(2) Manure; Millets involved
(3) Biofertiliser; Legumes (1) Primary treatment ; Pathogenic microbes
(4) Green manure; Legumes (2) Secondary treatment; Methanogens
116. Superiority of F1 hybrid over either of its parents is (3) Secondary treatment; Aerobic heterotrophs
(1) Heterosis (4) Tertiary treatment; KMnO4
(2) Hybrid vigour 124. Physicochemical process in STP help to get rid of
(3) Inbreeding depression (1) Floating debris
(4) More than one option is correct (2) Pathogens
117. Which of the following are the result of fungal (3) Pebbles
activity? (4) Flocs and organic matter
a. Swiss cheese b. Roquefort cheese 125. First bioherbicide was obtained from _______ and is
c. Curd d. Toddy effective against _______

e. Statin (1) Algae; a fungi (2) Fungi; a bacteria

(1) a, b & d (2) b, c & e (3) Fungi; a plant (4) Bacteria; an insect

(3) b, d & e (4) a, b & c 126. Baculoviruses are used as biopesticides and are
characterized by traits like
118. The puffed up appearance of dough in idli is due to
the production of CO2 gas. The microbes responsible (1) These are predator of insects etc.
are mainly (2) These are narrow spectrum herbicidal
applications
(1) Fungi (2) Yeast
(3) These have no effect on target insects
(3) Bacteria (4) LAB
(4) These are pathogenic to certain arthropods.
119. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t antibiotics.
127. Biological farming approach includes all of these,
(1) A broad spectrum antibiotic can kill or destroy
except
number of pathogens
(1) Use of biological control agents against pests
(2) Penicillin was widely used in world war II to treat
Indian soldiers (2) Eradication of flora and fauna pathogenic to crop
plants completely
(3) Alexander Fleming discovered first antibiotic from
a fungal source (3) No use of chemical fertilizers
(4) Waksman discovered his first antibiotic from a (4) To maintain more variety of organisms in a crop
bacterial source field
(10)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-13 (Code A)
128. Trichoderma is known 132. Which of the following cannot be the effect of
a. To have no adverse effect on crop plants. chemical fertilizers?
b. To be a broad spectrum pesticide. (1) Contamination of ground water
c. As free living fungi in symbiotic association with (2) Increases productivity
roots. (3) Hazards to human health
d. To be applied as spray on Brassica leaves. (4) Increases fertility of soil in long run
Select the correct statement. 133. Glomus is
(1) a, b & d (2) a, b & c (1) Ectomycorrhiza (2) Endomycorrhiza
(3) a & b (4) a & c (3) Lichen (4) SCP source
129. Biofertilizer in paddy field can include all of these, 134. IPM stands for
except
(1) International plant crop management
(1) Azotobacter (2) Certain BGA
(2) Indian pest management
(3) Azolla (4) Anabaena
(3) Integrated pest management
130. Major component of biogas is
(4) Indian production of microbes
(1) CO2 (2) H2
135. Primary treatment of sewage in STP involves
(3) H2S (4) CH4
(1) Biological treatment
131. Which of the following variety does not have ‘Dee
geo woo gen’ gene? (2) Physical treatment
(1) Jaya and Ratna (2) Taichung Native-1 (3) Physiochemical treatment
(3) IR-8 (4) Sonalika (4) Sedimentation only

ZOOLOGY
136. Mammals evolved from 140. The type of premating isolation in which breeding
(1) Sauropsids (2) Thecodonts period of mating individuals is different for different
species is
(3) Therapsids (4) Tuataras
(1) Mechanical isolation
137. Which of the following is not a proposition in the
Lamarck’s theory of evolution? (2) Temporal isolation

(1) Internal vital force (3) Psychological isolation

(2) Appetency (4) Gametic isolation

(3) Limited food and space 141. The type of natural selection which favours average
sized individuals while number of individuals with
(4) Inheritance of acquired characters extremes of the trait (small and large sized) remains
138. Different breeds of domestic pigeon have been small is
developed from the wild rock pigeon. It is an example (1) Stabilising selection (2) Directional selection
of
(3) Progressive selection (4) Disruptive selection
(1) Natural selection
142. Phrase “Survival of the fittest” was given by
(2) Artificial selection
(1) August Weismann (2) Ernst Mayr
(3) Mutation theory
(3) T. Dobzhansky (4) Herbert Spencer
(4) Genetic drift
143. When two species are morphologically almost
139. In founder effect, the change in the allele frequency identical but do not normally interbreed, such
is so different in the new sample of population that species are called
they become a different species. It is best
exemplified by (1) Polytypic species (2) Sibling species

(1) Cheetah population (3) Paraspecies (4) Pseudospecies

(2) Australian marsupials 144. Mule and hinny are examples of

(3) Oenothera lamarckiana (1) Hybrid inviability (2) Hybrid sterility

(4) Darwin’s finches (3) Hybrid breakdown (4) Incompatibility

(11)
Test-13 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
145. Find out the incorrect statement w.r.t. human 153. When more than one adaptive radiation appeared to
evolution. have occurred in isolated geographical areas
(1) About 15 MYA, primates called Dryopithecus (representing different habitats), it is known as
and Ramapithecus were existing (1) Divergent evolution
(2) Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were hairy and (2) Convergent evolution
walked like man
(3) Coevolution
(3) Ramapithecus was more man-like
(4) Quantum evolution
(4) Dryopithecus was more ape-like
154. The ancestral finch from which many species of
146. The brain capacity of Homo habilis was finches arose on the Galapagos islands was
(1) 500 cc (2) 650 – 800 cc originally
(3) 800 – 1000 cc (4) 1300 cc (1) Seed-eating and belonged to South American
mainland
147. About A MYA Australopithecines probably lived
(2) Seed-eating and belonged to North American
in B African grasslands mainland

A B (3) Insect eating and belonged to South American

mainland
(1) 10 East
(4) Insect eating and belonged to North American
(2) 2 West mainland
(3) 4 West 155. Which of the following is/are the two key concepts
(4) 2 East of Darwinian theory of evolution?
148. Which of the following human ancestor had a large (1) Branching descent
brain around 900 cc and probably ate meat?
(2) Natural selection
(1) Homo habilis
(3) Use and disuse of organs
(2) Homo erectus
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) Homo sapiens neanderthalensis
156. Find the incorrect statement
(4) Homo sapiens fossilis
(1) The rate of appearance of new forms is linked to
149. Agriculture came around ________ years back. the life cycle or the life span
(1) 18,000 (2) 15,000
(2) Nature selects for fitness
(3) 10,000 (4) 1,00,000 – 40,000
(3) Adaptive ability is not inherited as it is acquired
150. Which of the following man had cranial capacity near by individual when it experiences new
to that of modern man? environmental conditions
(1) Cro-magnon man (4) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt
(2) Neanderthal man and get selected by nature
(3) Jave ape man 157. The neck of Giraffes became elongated in an attempt
to forage leaves on tall trees. This explanation was
(4) Peking man
put forward by
151. Which of the following hominid is associated with
(1) Charles Darwin (2) Lamarck
cave paintings?
(3) Hugo de Vries (4) Sewall Wright
(1) Homo sapiens fossilis
(2) Homo sapiens neanderthalensis 158. All of the following factors disrupt Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium, except
(3) Sinanthropus pekinensis
(1) Gene migration (2) Gene recombination
(4) Pithecanthropus erectus
(3) Mutation (4) Random mating
152. Find the correct statement
159. In the expression, p2 + 2pq + q2 used to explain
(1) Stegosaurus is the ancestor of Tyrannosaurus
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of
(2) Brachiosaurus bears three horns heterozygous individuals is represented by
(3) Archaeopteryx was the largest flying bird (1) p2 (2) 2 pq
(4) Ichthyosaurs was fish like reptile (3) q2 (4) p2 and q2

(12)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-13 (Code A)
160. The Bryophytes evolved from 168. When the migrating individuals breed within the new
(1) Chlorophyte ancestors population, the immigrants will add new alleles to the
local gene pool of the host population. This is called
(2) Tracheophyte ancestors
(1) Genetic drift (2) Gene migration
(3) Rhynia-type plants
(3) Bottle neck effect (4) Random mating
(4) Psilophyton
169. The type of speciation in which formation of new
161. Find the incorrect statement species occurs within a single population without
(1) Seed ferns, that is the first gymnosperms geographical isolation and due to reproductive
originated in carboniferous period isolation is
(2) All plants have originated from chlorophyte (1) Allopatric speciation
ancestors (2) Sympatric speciation
(3) First organisms that invaded land were animals (3) Fusion species
(4) About 350 mya, fish with stout and strong fins (4) Phyletic speciation
could move on land and go back to water 170. The post-mating isolation in which the offspring of
162. Pelycosaurs are the ancestors of hybrids are inviable or infertile is
(1) Dinosaurs (2) Thecodonts (1) Mechanical isolation (2) Hybrid inviability
(3) Sauropsids (4) Therapsids (3) Hybrid sterility (4) Hybrid breakdown
163. Find the correct statement 171. Production of cabbage, cauliflower, kohlrabi from a
wild mustard ancestor is an example of
(1) Conifers evolved from progymnosperms
(1) Artificial selection (2) Natural selection
(2) Triceratops had a long neck and a long tail
(3) Stabilising selection (4) Balancing selection
(3) The largest flesh eating dinosaur was
Brachiosaurus 172. The type of selection which favours both small-sized
and large-sized individuals and eliminates most of
(4) Birds and crocodiles have common ancestry members with mean expression is known as
164. Which of the following is not the feature of Darwin’s (1) Directional selection
Theory of Natural Selection?
(2) Disruptive selection
(1) Struggle for existence
(3) Diversifying selection
(2) Appearance of variations
(4) Both (2) & (3)
(3) Use and disuse of organs
173. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t.
(4) Inheritance of useful variations industrial melanism?
165. Lamarckian concept of inheritance of acquired (1) The peppered moth exists in two strains, light
characters was disproved by the theory of coloured and black
(1) Wallace (2) Weismann (2) Before industrialisation, the bark of trees was
(3) Malthus (4) Erasmus Darwin covered by greyish lichens, so light grey moths
escaped unnoticed from predatory birds
166. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(3) After industrialisation barks got covered by soot,
(1) In 1938, a fish caught in South Africa happened so the light grey moths were selectively picked
to be a coelocanth which was thought to be up by birds
extinct
(4) The black moth developed due to deposition of
(2) Reptiles lay thick-shelled eggs which do not dry smoke on the body of white moths
up in sun unlike those of amphibians
174. Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus existed about
(3) Giant ferns (pteridophytes) fell to form coal
deposits (1) 25 MYA (2) 15 MYA
(3) 50 MYA (4) 1.5 MYA
(4) The first mammals were like rabbits
175. Homo habilis, had brain capacities of _______ and
167. Darwin’s finches are an example of
probably ______
A. Allopatric speciation B. Geographical isolation
(1) 900 cm3, ate meat
C. Founder effect D. Macroevolution
(2) 650-800 cm3, did not eat meat
(1) A, B, C, D (2) A, B, C
(3) 1400 cm3, ate fruits
(3) B, C, D (4) A, C, D (4) 350-450 cm3, ate meat
(13)
Test-13 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
176. Find the incorrect statement (1) Homo habilis – 650 - 800 cc
(1) Few fossils of man-like bones have been (2) Homo erectus – 900 cc
discovered in – Ethiopia and Tanzania (3) Homo sapiens – 1650 cc
(2) About 3-4 MYA, man-like primates walked in neanderthalensis
eastern Africa (4) Australopithecus – 500 cc
(3) About 2 MYA, Australopithecines probably lived 179. Which of the following statement is wrong?
in east African grasslands (1) Homo habilis made number of stone tools
(4) Evidences show that Australopithecines hunted (2) Homo erectus probably ate meat
with stone weapons and essentially ate meat
(3) The Neanderthal man lived in near east and
177. The first human like being or the earliest hominid central Asia between 1,00,000 - 40,000 years
was back
(1) Homo habilis (4) Australopithecines were insectivorous
(2) Homo erectus erectus 180. Lucy was
(3) Homo erectus heidelbergiensis (1) Australopithecus africanus
(4) Homo erectus pekinensis (2) Australopithecus afarensis
178. Find the incorrect match w.r.t. human ancestor and (3) Proconsul africanus
its cranial capacity (4) Homo neanderthalensis

  

(14)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-13 (Code A)

28/06/2015
A
CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
MM : 720 Test Series : Test – 13 Time : 3 Hrs.
[NEET (Phase-2)-2016]
ANSWERS
1. (3) 37. (3) 73. (4) 109. (2) 145. (2)
2. (2) 38. (3) 74. (3) 110. (4) 146. (2)
3. (4) 39. (4) 75. (4) 111. (1) 147. (4)
4. (2) 40. (1) 76. (1) 112. (3) 148. (2)
5. (3) 41. (2) 77. (4) 113. (3) 149. (3)
6. (1) 42. (3) 78. (2) 114. (2) 150. (2)
7. (1) 43. (1) 79. (4) 115. (4) 151. (1)
8. (2) 44. (4) 80. (4) 116. (4) 152. (4)
9. (2) 45. (3) 81. (1) 117. (3) 153. (2)
10. (2) 46. (1) 82. (1) 118. (3) 154. (1)
11. (4) 47. (4) 83. (1) 119. (2) 155. (4)
12. (2) 48. (3) 84. (4) 120. (2) 156. (3)
13. (4) 49. (4) 85. (2) 121. (4) 157. (2)
14. (4) 50. (1) 86. (4) 122. (2) 158. (4)
15. (4) 51. (4) 87. (1) 123. (3) 159. (2)
16. (2) 52. (2) 88. (4) 124. (2) 160. (1)
17. (4) 53. (4) 89. (4) 125. (3) 161. (3)
18. (3) 54. (1) 90. (2) 126. (4) 162. (4)
19. (3) 55. (2) 91. (2) 127. (2) 163. (4)
20. (3) 56. (3) 92. (4) 128. (3) 164. (3)
21. (1) 57. (2) 93. (1) 129. (1) 165. (2)
22. (3) 58. (4) 94. (2) 130. (4) 166. (4)
23. (1) 59. (1) 95. (2) 131. (4) 167. (1)
24. (3) 60. (1) 96. (4) 132. (4) 168. (2)
25. (4) 61. (4) 97. (2) 133. (2) 169. (2)
26. (4) 62. (2) 98. (1) 134. (3) 170. (4)
27. (1) 63. (3) 99. (3) 135. (2) 171. (1)
28. (4) 64. (1) 100. (2) 136. (3) 172. (4)
29. (4) 65. (1) 101. (3) 137. (3) 173. (4)
30. (1) 66. (1) 102. (4) 138. (2) 174. (2)
31. (2) 67. (1) 103. (3) 139. (4) 175. (2)
32. (1) 68. (1) 104. (1) 140. (2) 176. (4)
33. (3) 69. (2) 105. (2) 141. (1) 177. (1)
34. (4) 70. (2) 106. (4) 142. (4) 178. (3)
35. (4) 71. (3) 107. (3) 143. (2) 179. (4)
36. (1) 72. (1) 108. (2) 144. (2) 180. (2)
(15)
 28/06/2016
A
CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MM : 720 Test Series : Test – 13 (Objective) Time : 3 Hrs.

[for NEET (Phase-2)-2016]

Answers and Hints

PHYSICS

1. Answer (3) 3M M
2. Answer (2)
M2 M1
3. Answer (4)
4. Answer (2)
5. Answer (3) 90°
M
6. Answer (1)
7. Answer (1) M   ( 3M )2  M 2
8. Answer (2) M = 2 M
i  tan 13. Answer (4)
Let x is length of wire
i1 tan 45
 ⎛x⎞
2
3i1 tan  ⎜ ⎟
Mcircle L2 4 4
 2  ⎝ ⎠ 2 
 tan   3 Msquare r ⎛ x ⎞ 
⎜ ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠
  tan1( 3)  60º
14. Answer (4)
9. Answer (2)
15. Answer (4)
10. Answer (2)
16. Answer (2)
B
∵  +  = 90°
B2 60° B1
So,  = 90 – 
P
1
∵ tan   tan 
L L 2
1
tan(90  )  tan 
N N 2
S S
  tan1( 2)
∵ B1 = B2 17. Answer (4)
So, B  3B1 tan 1
tan  
 0 2M tan 2
= 3 .
4 L3
cot 1
11. Answer (4) or cot  
cot 2
12. Answer (2)

(1)
18. Answer (3)
B
19. Answer (3) eind   vl
2
B2 = B1tan
31. Answer (2)
0 M  2M
.  0. tan 
4 d 2 3 4 d13 ∵ N = L × i

d13 d1
  2 tan  N  100  2  103
13
 2 tan  ⇒
d23 d2 L   0.2 H
i 1
20. Answer (3)
32. Answer (1)
M1 n22  n12 [eind]diameter = 0
∵ 
M2 n22  n12
33. Answer (3)
21. Answer (1) 34. Answer (4)
22. Answer (3) 35. Answer (4)
∵ e = NBA sin (t)
∵ M  k L1L2
23. Answer (1)

1
∵ K M=3H
2

d 36. Answer (1)

If d is decreasing B is increasing
L 10
 iinduced in opposite direction ∵ t  L   5s
R 2
24. Answer (3)
37. Answer (3)
d 
∵ e
dt N2
25. Answer (4) ∵ L
l
∵  = 90º
L  8 L
 =0
26. Answer (4) 38. Answer (3)
39. Answer (4)
27. Answer (1)
40. Answer (1)
28. Answer (4)
41. Answer (2)

∵ B and length of wire along same axis 42. Answer (3)

 eind = 0  [ 2    .25]

∵ eind.  
29. Answer (4) t 0.1

eind = 5 V
e0 43. Answer (1)

T/2 3T/4 50
O t ∵ R 5
T/4 10

–e0 L
L   4s
R

30. Answer (1) 44. Answer (4)

∵ Charge is independant of time.
∵ eind = Bvvl = (B sin 30°) vl
45. Answer (3)
(2)
 CHEMISTRY
46. Answer (1) 71. Answer (3)
Prussian blue precipitate of Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 Hydrazoic acid (N3H)
47. Answer (4) 72. Answer (1)
Due to absence of unpaired electron. Trigonal bipyramidal (sp3d).
48. Answer (3) 73. Answer (4)
49. Answer (4) CaC2 and Ca3P2 used holme’s signal.
Metal atom directly attached to -bond. 74. Answer (3)
50. Answer (1) 75. Answer (4)
  1(1  2)  3  1.75 BM 76. Answer (1)

51. Answer (4) 77. Answer (4)

52. Answer (2) Fe(26) = 3d64s2

H 2 SO 4  SO 3 + H 2 O, SO 3 is anhydride of After rearrangement.

H2SO4.
CO CO CO CO CO
53. Answer (4) × × × × ×
× × × × ×
54. Answer (1) 10 2 3
3d 4s 3p
55. Answer (2)
3
A = NO, B = NO2, C = HNO3 dsp hybridization
56. Answer (3) Magnetic nature : Paramagnetic.
78. Answer (2)
CsBr3  Cs  Br3
57. Answer (2) 25
Energy    0  2P  2 0  2P
5
58. Answer (4)
79. Answer (4)
59. Answer (1)
2CO + O2  2CO2

NH4NO3   N2O  2H2O
60. Answer (1) 2C + O2  2CO

Mn2O7
61. Answer (4)
G0f 4 2
62. Answer (2) Al  O 2  Al 2O3
gO 3 3
 2M
63. Answer (3) + O2
2Mg
64. Answer (1)
Temperature
Combustion
80. Answer (4)
65. Answer (1)
81. Answer (1)
3, 5, 4 and 1
82. Answer (1)
66. Answer (1)
83. Answer (1)
IO3 is formed 84. Answer (4)
67. Answer (1) 85. Answer (2)
68. Answer (1) [NiCl4]2 & [Ni(CO)4] are the example of tetrahedral
Which have two or three donor site. complex.

69. Answer (2) 86. Answer (4)

Strong field ligand and high charge density. 87. Answer (1)

70. Answer (2) 88. Answer (4)

Brown ring form by Fe complex with NO. 89. Answer (4)

90. Answer (2)
(3)
 BOTANY
91. Answer (2) Meristem culture gives pathogen specially virus free
plants.
Transfer of trait from noble cane to Indian cane is
called noblisation of Indian cane 113. Answer (3)

92. Answer (4) 114. Answer (2)

93. Answer (1) 115. Answer (4)

Legumes which enrich soil with nitrogen.
Block rot of crucifers is caused by Bacteria-
Xanthomonas compestris 116. Answer (4)
94. Answer (2) 117. Answer (3)

95. Answer (2) 118. Answer (3)

Himgiri – Wheat Bacteria e.g.; - Leuconostoc

Karan rai – Brassica 119. Answer (2)

Disease
Parbhani kranti – Okra resistant Penicillin was used to treat American soldiers in
world war II.
Pusa snowball – Cauliflower
Pusa A-4 120. Answer (2)
Insect/
Pusa Sawani pest resistant Aspergillus

96. Answer (4) 121. Answer (4)

Statin competitively inhibits enzyme HMGcoA
97. Answer (2)
reductase.
For mutation breeding
122. Answer (2)
98. Answer (1)
123. Answer (3)
99. Answer (3) Aerobic bacteria (heterotrophs) in secondary
100. Answer (2) treatment process.

101. Answer (3) 124. Answer (2)

Pyrethrum is obtained from floral parts of 125. Answer (3)

Chrysanthemum. 126. Answer (4)
102. Answer (4) 127. Answer (2)
103. Answer (3) Biological farming is not for complete eradication of
flora and fauna but to maintain a controlled balance.
Cybrid (cytoplasmic hybrid)
128. Answer (3)
104. Answer (1)
Trichoderma is soil inhabiting fungi effective against
105. Answer (2)
several plant pathogen.
Haberlandt
129. Answer (1)
106. Answer (4)
130. Answer (4)
107. Answer (3)
131. Answer (4)
108. Answer (2)
132. Answer (4)
109. Answer (2)
Chemical fertilizer decreases fertility of soil eventually.
110. Answer (4)
133. Answer (2)
111. Answer (1)
134. Answer (3)
112. Answer (3)
135. Answer (2)
(4)
 ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (3) 161. Answer (3)
137. Answer (3) First organisms that invaded land were plants.
Limited food and space is a feature of Darwin’s 162. Answer (4)
theory. Mammals evolved from Therapsids.
138. Answer (2) 163. Answer (4)
Artificial selection is conducted by man. Conifers evolved from Psilophyton
139. Answer (4) Brachiosaurus had a long neck and a long tail.
140. Answer (2) 164. Answer (3)
141. Answer (1) Use and disuse of organ is the feature of Lamarck’s
theory.
142. Answer (4)
165. Answer (2)
143. Answer (2)
166. Answer (4)
144. Answer (2)
First mammals were like shrews.
145. Answer (2)
167. Answer (1)
Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus walked like gorillas
168. Answer (2)
and chimpanzees
169. Answer (2)
146. Answer (2)
170. Answer (4)
147. Answer (4)
171. Answer (1)
148. Answer (2)
172. Answer (4)
149. Answer (3)
173. Answer (4)
150. Answer (2)
Black moths are mutant forms.
Neanderthal man had cranial capacity of 1400 cc
174. Answer (2)
151. Answer (1)
175. Answer (2)
Homo sapiens fossilis is cro-magnon man
176. Answer (4)
152. Answer (4)
Australopithecines essentially ate fruits.
Brachiosaurus is the ancestor of Tyrannosaurus,
Triceratops bear horns. 177. Answer (1)

153 Answer (2) 178. Answer (3)

154. Answer (1) Homo sapiens neanderthalensis – 1400 cc

155. Answer (4) 179. Answer (4)
156. Answer (3) Homo habilis probably did not eat meat.
157. Answer (2) Homo erectus probabaly ate meat.
158. Answer (4) Neanderthal man lived in near east and central
159. Answer (2) Asia between 1,00,000 – 40,000 years back.
160. Answer (1) 180. Answer (2)
Tuang baby was Australopithecus africanus

  

(5)