26/04/2017 Code - A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005; Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 720 Test Series : Test – 08 (Objective) Time : 3 Hrs.

(for NEET - 2017 )

Topics Covered :

Physics : Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction, Alternating current, Electromagnetic Waves

Chemistry : Haloalkanes and Haloarenes, Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers

Botany : Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production, Microbes in Human Welfare, Organisms and Populations

Zoology : Human Health and Disease

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Instructions :
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Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. A bar magnet of length l and magnetic moment M is 3. The slope of hysteresis curve is a measure of
broken into two parts of length in the ratio of 1 : 2.
(1) Retentivity (2) Susceptibility
Both parts kept at perpendicular to each other, the
new magnetic dipole moment is (3) Coercivity (4) Energy loss per cycle
4. The apparent dip angle in a plane perpendicular to
M M 5 earth’s magnetic meridian is
(1) (2)
3 2
(1) 0°

5M (2) 30°
M 5
(3) (4)
3 3 (3) 90°
(4) 45°
2. When a bar magnet is kept vertical on the surface
of earth, then number of neutral point obtained on 5. The deflection produced in tangent galvanometer,
that place will be when a current of 1 A flow through it is (Use
reduction factor k = 1)
(1) One
(1) 0°
(2) Two
(2) 30°
(3) Four
(3) 45°
(4)  (4) 90°
(1)
Test-08 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
6. A freely suspended magnetic needle is slightly 12. A conducting rod of mass m and length L is moving
rotated from its equilibrium position in the external with a constant force F, the terminal speed of rod is
magnetic field B and released. Its moment of inertia
is I and magnetic dipole moment is M, then the
least time after which it aligns with the field is
 m,L
I I B
(1)  (2) 
MB 8MB R F

I 2I
(3)  (4) 
4MB MB
7. Two short bar magnets of dipole moment M1 and M2
are arranged as shown in figure, then torque on
FR 2 FR
horizontal bar magnet by the vertical bar magnet is (1) (2)
mB 2L B 2L2
N
M2 F F
N S (3) (4)
BL B 2LR
M1
r
S 13. Flux () in a closed circuit varies with time t
(in second) according to the equation
 0 3M1M2  0 6M1M 2  = 2t2 – 5t + 8 weber. Then magnitude of average
(1)  (2) 
4 r3 4 r4 induced emf between t = 0 s to t = 0.5 s is
(1) 3 (2) 4
 0 M1M 2
(3)  (4) Zero (3) 6 (4) 8
4 r 3
14. A bar magnet suspended freely has a period of
8. A toroid has N turns and mean radius R,
oscillation of 4 s in a vibration magnetometer. If it is
cross-sectional area ‘a’ carries current I is placed on
broken into two halves (without change its original
horizontal table, then its magnetic dipole moment is
length) and one of the pieces is suspended in the
(1) Zero same vibration magnetometer, then the period of its
(2) Non-zero and pointing radially outwards oscillation will be

(3) Non-zero pointing along axis of the toroid (1) 2 s (2) 4 s

(4) Non-zero and tangentially to toroid (3) 8 s (4) 0.5 s

9. Consider the earth has a short magnet with its 15. A magnetic flux of 500 Wb per turn passing through
centre coinciding with centre of earth, dipole a 200 turns coil is reversed in direction in
moment of magnet is M. If angle of dip is  and 20 mS, the average emf induced in the coil is
angle of latitude is , then (1) 2 V (2) 5 V
(1) cot  = cot  (2) cot  = 2 cot  (3) 10 V (4) 20 V
(3) 2 cot  = cot  (4) tan  = cot  16. Which of the following is not an application of eddy
10. When a bar magnet turned into a semicircle, its currents?
magnetic dipole moment becomes M0. Now this (1) Dead beat galvanometer
magnet turns into quarter circle, the new magnetic
moment will be (2) Tangent galvanometer
(1) M0 (2) 2M0 (3) Induction furnace

(3) 2 2 M0 (4) Electric braking

(4) 2 M0
17. When a bar magnet falls through a long hollow metal
11. A super conductor is placed in a magnetic field then
cylinder fixed with axis vertical, then acceleration of
correct figure is
magnet after long duration will be

(1) (2) (1) < g

(2) > g
(3) = g
(3) (4)
(4) Zero

(2)
Test Series for NEET - 2017 Test-08 (Code A)
18. A rod slides with speed v on two long horizontal rail 22. A conducting rod of length L is rotating about a
separated by a distance L in uniform magnetic field perpendicular axis passing through point O as shown
B as shown in figure. The induced emf between the in figure. The potential difference between ends M
ends of rod is and N is
C
 × ×
× × × × × × × × B × × × × × × ×

× × ×B
× × × × × × × × × × × × × × ×
× × ×
L × × × × 60° × × × v × × × × × × ×
× × × × × × × × M × 2L × × × × O L N
 
× × × × × × × × × × 3 × × × × 3× ×
D ×
× × × × × × × × × ×
1
(1) BLv (2) BLv
2 BL2 BL2
(1) (2)
27 6
3
(3) 2BLv (4) BLv
2 BL2 BL2
(3) (4)
19. Two inductors having self inductance 40 mH and 9 2
90 mH are coupled. Possible mutual inductance 23. The mutual inductance between the coplanar circular
between them is loop of radius R and square loop of side L(L<< R)
(1) 60 mH (2) 50 mH
(3) 20 mH (4) All of these
R
20. The magnetic field inside loop is zero while outside
the loop field increases with time, then induced
current in loop L

× × ××
× × × ××××   0L2 0
× × × × × B 0
× × × × × (1) (2)
× × × × × 2R L2
× ×××
× × × × ×
× ×
2R
× ×× B = 0
×× × × ×
×× × × × × × × × × × ×  0L  0L2
(3) (4)
2R 2R 2
(1) Increases with time
24. A ring of area A and resistance R is placed on the
(2) Zero axis of a solenoid. The mutual inductance between
(3) Flows in anticlockwise them is M. When the current in the solenoid
changes at the rate of i0, the magnetic moment of
(4) Flows in clockwise
the ring will become
21. A conducting square metal frame of side L (< r) is
placed inside solenoid such that its plane is AMi 0 2MAi 0
perpendicular to the axis of solenoid. The solenoid (1) (2)
R R
have n turns per unit length. If a current I = I0sint
flows through the solenoid, then magnitude of emf AM
induced in frame is (3) i 0R (4) AMi0R

r 25. The number of turns and length of solenoid are

1
doubled, the area of cross-section kept times.
4
The self inductance of solenoid

(1) 0nI0Lsint (1) Becomes doubled (2) Becomes four times

(3) Remains same (4) Becomes halved
1
(2)  nI L2 cos t
2 0 0 26. An inductor of inductance 20 mH carries a current of
(3) 0nI0L2cost 2 A, then work done in setting this current is
(1) 0.4 J (2) 0.04 J
1
(4)  nI L cos t
2 0 0 (3) 2 J (4) 4 J
(3)
Test-08 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
27. Which of the following in electrical oscillator is I0
comparable with mass of mechanical oscillator? (1) I0 (2)
2
1
(1) (2) C I0 I0
C (3) (4)
2 4
(3) L (4) R
32. In series LCR circuit, if same current is at angular
28. An arbitrary loop moves in a magnetic field then, frequencies 1 and 2, then resonant frequency 0 is
choose incorrect statement
1   2
× × × × (1)  0  1 2 (2)  0 
× 2
× × ×
× × × × 1
× × × v (3)  0  12   22 (4)  0  11
× × × ×× 2
× × × ×× 33. In the given L-R circuit the correct phasor i0 – v0
×× × ×
×× graph is
(1) Induced current is zero R L
 
(2) ∫ E  dl  0
(3) Induced emf between two points on loop may be
zero
(4) Electric field inside conductor is zero ~
29. A bar magnet moves coaxially to the conducting coil v0
A and B, when view from left of coil A then choose i0
correct statement (1) (2)
v0 i0
A B
i0
v v0
S N (3) (4)
v0 i0
34. In the given R-C circuit, if the voltage across resistor
is 60 V, then effective voltage across C is
(1) Anticlockwise current flow in each coil
10  C
(2) Clockwise current flow in each coil
(3) Clockwise current in coil A, anticlockwise current
in coil B
(4) Clockwise in coil B, anticlockwise current in
coil A
~
V  100 2 sin31t
30. If VAB = 10 V and current 1 A flowing in circuit which
increasing with the rate of 103 A/s, then charge on (1) 80 V (2) 50 V
capacitor is
(3) 20 V (4) 40 V
i 1 1 mH 1 F 6V 35. A capacitor of capacitance C and an inductor of
inductance L are separately connected with an AC
A B
supply. If they carry equal rms current, the frequency
(1) 2 C (2) 7 C of the supply is
(3) 14 C (4) 10 C 1
31. The average value of the current in given I-t graph (1) 
2 LC
between 0 to T is
1
I (2) 
I0 2 LC
1
(3) 
t 2 LC
0 T
 T
2 1
(4) 
2 LC
(4)
Test Series for NEET - 2017 Test-08 (Code A)
36. At resonance in series LCR circuit, where VL, VC 40. The oscillating magnetic field in a plane
and VR are voltages across L, C and R respectively. electromagnetic wave is given as
Which of the following is correct? 
L B  6  106 sin(200x – 3  1010 t ) T .
R C
The amplitude of electric field is
VR VL VC
(1) 1800 V/m
(1) | VR | = | VL | | VC |
(2) 90 V/m
(2) | VR | = | VL | + | VC |
(3) | VL | = | VC | (3) 900 V/m

(4) | VR | + | VL | + | VC | = 0 (4) 300 V/m

37. The effective value of the current i = a + bsint is 41. The amplitude of electric field at a distance r from a
source of power P is (Source efficiency is 100%)
ab
(1)
2
P P
2
b (1) 3r 2  0C (2) 2r 2  0C
(2) a2 
2

a2  b2 2P P
(3) (3) (4)
2 3r 2 0C r 2  0C
b
(4) a  42. In an apparatus, the electric field was found to
2
oscillate with an amplitude of 20 V/m. The
38. A step up transformer is used on a 1000 V line to
magnitude of the oscillating magnetic field is
deliver 20 A at 120 V at the secondary coil if the
efficiency of the transformer is 80% then the current (1) 0.67 × 10–7 T (2) 6.7 × 10–7 T
drawn from line is
(3) 3 × 108 T (4) 6 × 107 T
(1) 3 A
(2) 10 A 43. A radiation of energy E falls normally on perfectly
reflecting surface. The momentum transferred to the
(3) 15 A
surface is
(4) 2 A
39. A capacitor of capacitance C has initial charge Q0 2E E
(1) (2)
and connected to an inductor of inductance L at C2 C
t = 0. The current through the inductor when energy
in capacitor is 4 times the energy of inductor is 2E
E
(3) (4)
2C 2 C

+ 44. The Maxwell’s equations is/are

L C _Q0
  qenclosed
(1) ∫ E  ds  0
 
(2) ∫ B  dl  0 IC  ID 
Q0  
(1)
LC (3) ∫ B  ds  0
(4) All of these
Q0
(2) 45. The wavelength of wave is 1 nm to 10–3 nm then the
2LC
electromagnetic wave is
Q0 (1) X-ray
(3)
5 LC (2) Ultra violet

Q0 (3) Infrared
(4)
5LC (4) Microwave

(5)
Test-08 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017

CHEMISTRY
46. Which of the following is correct order of dipole 53. In an SN1 reaction at chiral centre, there is
moment?
(1) 100% inversion of configuration
(1) CH3F > CH3Cl > CH3Br > CH3I
(2) 100% retention of configuration
(2) CH3I > CH3Br > CH3Cl > CH3F
(3) 100% racemisation
(3) CH3Cl > CH3I > CH3F > CH3Br
(4) Inversion more than retention leading to partial
(4) CH3Cl > CH3F > CH3Br > CH3I
racemisation
47. Chloral reacts with chlorobenzene in presence of
54. Which of the following is optically active?
sulphuric acid and produces
(1) BHC (2) DDT H CH3
(1) C=C=C
(3) TEL (4) TNT C2H5 H
48. Total number of isomeric products (including Br NO2
stereoisomers) obtained when 2-chlorobutane is
heated with alcoholic KOH is
(1) One (2) Two (2)
(3) Three (4) Four NO2 Br
CH = CH2 CH3
Organic
49. + HCl Product (s) N
Peroxide
(3)
The intermediate formed in the above reaction is a C2H5 C3H7 C4H9
(1) Carbocation
(4) All of these
(2) Carbanion
55. The configuration of the compound is
(3) Carbon free radical
Br
(4) No intermediate is formed
C
50. In the given compounds the one which undergoes
Cl
bromination in presence of FeBr3 most readily
CH3 H
CH3 CH3 – CH – CH3
(1) R (2) S

(1) C — CH3 (2) (3) Z (4) E

56. The increasing order of nucleophilicity in polar aprotic
CH3
medium would be
CH2 – CH3
(1) F– > Cl– > Br– > I–
CH3
(3) (4) (2) I– > Br– > Cl– > F–
(3) Br– > Cl– > I– > F–
51. A laevorotatory alkyl halide is allowed to undergo (4) I– > F– > Cl– > Br–
substitution via SN2 mode. The product obtained
57. The correct order of acidic strength of haloform would
(1) Is laevorotatory be
(2) Is an enantiomer of alkyl halide
(1) CHF3 > CHCl3 > CHBr3 > CHI3
(3) Is a mixture of d and l forms
(2) CHCl3 > CHF3 > CHBr3 > CHI3
(4) May be either dextro or laevorotatory
(3) CHF3 > CHl3 > CHBr3 > CHCI3
52. Reaction of trans-2-pentene with Br2 in presence of
CCl4 gives (4) CHCl3 > CHl3 > CHF3 > CHBr3
(1) A dextrorotatory compound 58. Total number of geometrical isomer of molecular
(2) A laevorotatory compound formula C2FClBrI
(3) A meso compound (1) 2 (2) 3
(4) Mixture of (1) & (2) (3) 6 (4) 4
(6)
Test Series for NEET - 2017 Test-08 (Code A)
59. Reactivity order of given alkyl halides towards E2 63. Compound ‘A’ of formula C3H6Cl2 on reaction with
mechanism alkali can give ‘B’ of formula C3H6O or ‘C’ of formula
C3H4. ‘B’ on oxidation gave a compound of formula
CH3 C3H6O2. ‘C’ with dilute H2SO4 containing Hg+2 ion
gave ‘D’ of formula C3H6O which with bromine and
a. CH3 C CH2Cl
alkali gave the sodium salt of C2H4O2. Compound ‘A’
CH3 is

b. CH Cl
CH3 Cl
(1) CH3 – C – CH3
CH3
Cl
c. CH3 CH 2 Cl
Cl
(1) a > b > c (2) c > b > a
(2) CH3 – CH2 – CH
(3) a > c > b (4) c > a > b Cl
H (3) CH2 – CH2 – CH2
Cl
Alc. KOH Cl Cl
60. H Product
E2
CH3 (4) CH3 – CH – CH2
Cl Cl
Product of reaction is
64. In the presence of peroxide, hydrogen chloride and
hydrogen iodide do not give anti Markovnikov’s
(1) (2) addition to alkene because
CH3 CH3 (1) Both are highly ionic
(2) One is oxidising and the other is reducing
(3) (4) (3) One of the steps is endothermic in both the
CH2 CH3 cases
61. Find the correct series of synthetic steps for given
(4) All the steps are exothermic in both the
conversion.
reactions
OH
65. The ether O CH2 when treated

with HI produces

NO2 CH2I OH
(1) (2)
Cl
+
HNO3 H2O2/H
(1) AlCl3 H2SO4  I
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4)
+
HNO3 Cl2 NaOH H
(2) 66. In the given carbocation, which atom or group is
H2SO4 AlCl3 H2O/
most likely to migrate to the positively charged
carbon?
Cl2 HNO3 NaOH H H
(3) 2 3 4 5
AlCl3 H2SO4 H2O/ 1
CH3 – C – C – C – CH3

HNO2 HNO3 OH H CH3

(4)  H2SO4
(1) CH3 at C – 4
62. The formula of freon-12 is (2) CH3 at C – 2
(1) CHF2 (2) CCl2F2 (3) H at C – 4
(3) CH2Cl2 (4) CClF3 (4) H at C – 2
(7)
Test-08 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
67. During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating 74. A simple method to remove peroxides from ether is
with concentrated H2SO4 the initiation step is to treat them with an aqueous solution of
(1) Protonation of alcohol molecule (1) Kl (2) KCNS
(2) Formation of carbocation (3) Na2S2O3 (4) Br2
(3) Elimination of water 75. Salol is prepared from
(4) Formation of ester (1) Salicylic acid and methyl alcohol
CH3MgBr (1) HCHO
68. C2H5 – C  CH (A) + (B) (2) Salicylic acid and phenol
(2) H3O
The product B is (3) Both (1) & (2)
(1) CH3 – CH2 – OH (4) Salicylic acid and ethanoyl chloride

(2) C2H5 – C = CH – CH2 – OH (i) B2H6/THF

76. CH3 X (major product). X is
CH3 (ii) H2O2/OH–

(3) C2H5C  C – CH – CH3

(1) CH3 (2) CH2OH
OH OH
(4) C2H5C  C – CH2OH
OH
OH
CH3
(3) CH3 (4)
H2O18
69. In the reaction CH3 – C – CH2 +
A, the product
H
O
77. Consider the following compounds
A has the structure

CH3 CH3 OH OH CH2OH

(1) CH3 – C – CH2 (2) CH3 – C – CH2

18
18
OH OH OH OH

CH3 CH3
(i) (ii) (iii)
18
(3) CH3 – C – CH3 (4) CH3 – CH – CH2 – OH Which of the above compounds will react at room
18
OH temperature with NaOH?

70. (CH3)3CMgCl on treatment with D2O produces (1) (i) and (iii) (2) Only (i)

(1) (CH3)3CD (2) (CH3)3COD (3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (CD3)3CD (4) (CD3)3COD OH
71. The compound which reacts fastest with lucas
reagent at room temperature is 78. + PCl5 A (major) + side products.
(1) Butan-2-ol (2) Butan-1-ol
(3) 2-methyl propan-1-ol (4) 2-methyl propan-2-ol ‘A’ can be
72. Rectified spirit contains (1) (C6H5)2P = O (2) (C6H5O)3P
(1) 75% C2H5OH + 25% H2O (3) (C6H5O)3P = O (4) (C6H5)3P
(2) 95.5% C2H5OH + 4.5% H2O 79. The alcohol which is least reactive towards
(3) 80% C2H5OH + 20% H2O dehydration (in acidic medium)

(4) 100% C2H5OH CH3 OH

73. CH3OH and C2H5OH can be distinguished OH
(1) (2)
(1) By the action of I2 + Na2CO3(aq.)
CH3
(2) By the action of HCl/anhyd. ZnCl2
(3) By the action of NH3 OH CH3
(3) (4)
(4) Solubility in water OH
(8)
Test Series for NEET - 2017 Test-08 (Code A)

O 86. Which one of the following is Gilman reagent?

18 H+
80. R – C – OH + H – O – R “X” + H2O. (1) Phenyl magnesium chloride

Here ‘X’ is (2) Lithium dialkylcopper

O O (3) Trimethyl aluminium
18
(1) R – C – O – R (2) R – C – O – R (4) All of these
O O
18 OH
(3) R – C – O – R (4) R – C – O – R
87. can be distinguished from
81. Which of the following is not correct? CH3
CH(OH)CH3
OH OH
NO2 by

(1) is less acidic than

(1) Iodoform test
NO2 (2) Neutral FeCl3 solution
OH
NO2 (3) Both (1) & (2)
(2) Chelation occurs in (4) Tollen’s test
88. A non-poisonous compound is formed when 1%
C2H5OH is added to chloroform, this compound is
(3) Methyl salicylate is present in oil of winter green
(1) Diethyl carbonate (2) Ethyl chloride
(4) Bond angle <ROR is less than 109.28 due to
lone pair lone pair repulsion (3) Ethyl alcohol (4) Diethyl ether

82. Carbolic acid is 89. Product of following reaction is

NBS, h
(1) HCOOH (2) CH3COOH CH2 – CH = CH2
CCl4
(3) C6H5OH (4) C2H5OH

(1) CH – CH = CH2
83. is obtained when is treated with Br
OH OH
(1) MnO 4 / OH (2) HCO3H (2) CH2 – CH – CH2

(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) H2SO4 Br Br

(i) Hg(OAc)2, CH3OH (3) CH = CH – CH2 – Br

84. A
(ii) NaBH4

‘A’ in the above reaction is

(4) CH2 – CH = CH2
OCH3
(1) (2) Br
OCH3
OCH3 90. The reaction
OCH3
(3) (4) 
2CH 3 I + Cu

85. The correct order of boiling point of given compounds

OH OH OH
OH OH CH 3 CH3 + Cu2I2
OH
I II III is known as
(1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I (1) Fittig reaction (2) Wurtz fittig reaction
(3) II > III > I (4) III > I > II (3) Ullmann reaction (4) Frankland reaction
(9)
Test-08 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017

BOTANY
91. Which of the following step of plant breeding 96. Match the column I and column II.
programme is crucial to the success of the breeding Column I Column II
objective and requires careful scientific evaluation of (Variety) (Resistance to disease)
the progeny?
a. Himgiri (i) Curl blight black rot
(1) Collection of variability
b. Pusa swarnim (ii) Leaf and stripe rust
(2) Evaluation and selection of parents
c. Pusa snowball K-1 (iii) Bacterial blight
(3) Testing, release and commercialisation of new
cultivars d. Pusa komal (iv) White rust
(4) Selection and testing of superior recombinants (1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
92. The main steps of plant breeding are (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(A) Evaluation and selection of parents. 97. Which of the following is not true for Parbhani Kranti?
(B) Germplasm collection. (1) A variety of Abelmoschus esculentus
(C) Superior recombinant’s selection and testing. (2) Resistance to yellow mosaic virus
(D) Cross hybridization. (3) Created by mutation breeding
(E) Testing, release and commercialisation of new
(4) Gene transferred from a wild species
cultivar.
98. Find the correct match.
Find out the correct sequence.
(1) A  B  D  C  E Variety Insect pests

(2) B  A  C  D  E (1) Pusa A4 – Shoot and fruit borer

(3) B  A  D  C  E (2) Pusa Gaurav – Jassids
(4) A  B  C  D  E (3) Pusa Sem 2 – Shoot borer
93. How many statements are incorrect? (4) Pusa Sawani – Jassids and aphids
(A) In 1963, several varieties such as Sonalika and 99. Maize develops resistance to maize stem borers due
Kalyan Sona, which were high yielding and pest to
resistant, were introduced all over the wheat (A) Low nitrogen content (B) Low sugar content
growing belt of India.
(C) High aspartic acid (D) Hollow stem
(B) IR-8 variety of rice was developed at International
Rice Research Institute, Taiwan. (E) Smooth leaved
(C) Jaya and Ratna are semidwarf varieties of rice. (1) A, B & C (2) All, except E
(1) One (2) Two (3) B, C & D (4) Only D & E
(3) Three (4) Four 100. Mark odd one w.r.t. objectives of improving nutritional
94. Saccharum barberi differ from Saccharum quality of the plants.
officinarum in having (1) Carbohydrate content
(1) Higher sugar content (2) Protein quality
(2) Tropical canes (3) Oil content and quality
(3) Thicker stem (4) Vitamins and mineral content
(4) Low winter temperature tolerance 101. Read the following statements.
95. Mark the odd one (w.r.t. plant breeding for disease
a. Traits that are thought to be characteristic of
resistance).
r-selection include small body size, short
(1) Enhances food production generation time and low fecundity.
(2) Reduced uses of fungicides and bactericides b. As the temperature is lowered, some fishes
(3) Development of disease in a plant depends on possess small size with larger number of
the interactions among host genotype, pathogen vertebrae. This is called Jordan’s rule.
genotype and environment (1) Only a is correct
(4) Resistance of the host plant is the ability to (2) Both a & b are incorrect
prevent the pathogen from causing disease and
is mainly determined by the genetic constitution (3) Only b is correct
of the pathogen (4) Both a & b are correct
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Test Series for NEET - 2017 Test-08 (Code A)
102. Consider the following statements A-D with 106. Which of the following is incorrect for lactic acid
incomplete spaces : bacteria?
A. Insect resistance in host crop plants may be (1) Coagulation of milk protein
due to (i) , (ii) or (iii) characteristics (2) Inoculum for curdling of milk
(3) Causing leavening of milk
B. Hairy leaves give resistance to (iv) in cotton
(4) Checking disease causing microbes in stomach
and (v) in wheat
107. Which of the following combination is correct?
(vi)
C. breeding is often constrained by the Column I Column II
availability of limited number of disease resistant
genes. (1) Penicillium camemberti Penicillin

(1) (i) Morphological (v) Jassids (vii) Conventional (2) Leuconostoc Toddy
(3) Streptococcus Dosa and idli
(2) (ii) Anatomical (iv) Aphids (vi) Mutational
(4) Saccharomyces Swiss cheese
(3) (iii) Physiological (iv) Jassids (vi) Conventional
108. Curd is rich in vitamin
(4) (ii) Biochemical (v) Leaf beetle (vi) Mutation
(1) B12 (2) D
103. Which of the following statements are correct for
single cell protein? (3) B2 (4) K
A. Single cell proteins are exclusively unicellular 109. Wine yeast is
organisms. (1) S. cerevisiae (2) S. ellipsoidens
B. Spirulina and Chlorella are rich sources of (3) S. sake (4) S. pireformis
protein.
110. Which of the following is a bacterial fermented
C. Spirulina can be grown easily on molasses, product?
animal manure and even sewage.
(1) Swiss cheese (2) Penicillin
D. It helps in reduction environmental pollution.
(3) Roquefort cheese (4) Citric acid
E. One of the alternative sources of proteins for
animal and human nutrition. 111. Which of the following is not true regarding
antibiotics?
(1) Two
(1) ‘Against life’ in context to disease causing
(2) Four organisms
(3) Three (2) ‘Pro life’ in reference to human beings
(4) Five (3) Produced by some microbes and kill or retard
104. Find one word to the following statements for the the growth of other disease causing viruses
plant raised through tissue culture. (4) Penicillin was first antibiotic
(1) Method of producing Micropropagation 112. Which one of the following is not related to plant
thousands of plants with mycorrhizal association?
by tissue culture
(1) Increase plant growth and development
(2) Genetically identical Totipotency
to parent plant (2) Resistance to root borne pathogens
(3) Can be obtained Somaclones (3) Fungal symbiont mainly absorbs nitrogen from
from any cell/explant soil and passes it to plants
(4) For the recovery of Leaf tip culture (4) Tolerance to salinity and drought
healthy plant from
113. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t. antibiotics.
diseased plant
(1) A broad spectrum antibiotic can kill or destroy
105. Symmetric somatic hybrid differ from cybrid in having number of pathogens
(1) Cytoplasm of two parents (2) Penicillin was widely used in World War I to
treat soldiers
(2) Chloroplast and mitochondrion genome of two
parents (3) Alexander fleming discovered first antibiotic from
a fungal source
(3) Nuclear genome of two parents
(4) Cellular organelles of two parents (4) Waksman discovered his first antibiotic from a
bacterial source
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Test-08 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
114. Find the correct match. 119. Match the column I and column II.
Column I Column II
Name Kingdom Organic acid
(Bicontrol agent) (Pest)
(1) Aspergillus Monera Lactic acid
niger a. Ladybird beetle (i) Arthropoda

(2) Clostridium Fungi Acetic acid b. Dragonflies (ii) Aphids

butylicum c. Baculovirus (iii) Mosquitoes
(3) Acetobacter Monera Butyric acid d. Bacillus thuringiensis (iv) Insect larvae
aceti
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(4) Aspergillus Fungi Citric acid
niger (2) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
115. Identify the treatment process and organisms
involved in sewage water treatment till the BOD is (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
reduced. 120. The main sources of biofertilisers are all, except
(1) Primary treatment; pathogenic microbes (1) Bacteria (2) Cyanobacteria
(2) Secondary treatment; methanogens (3) Protista (4) Fungi
(3) Secondary treatment; aerobic heterotrophs 121. Ecology is basically concerned with _____ levels of
biological organisation.
(4) Tertiary treatment; ozone treatment
(1) Four (2) Two
116. Ganga Action Plan initiated by the Ministry of
Environment and Forest (3) One (4) Three

A. To save the major river of our country from 122.

30
pollution. 25
A C
Mean annual temperature (°C)

B. It is proposed to build a large number of sewage 20 D

treatment plants. 15 E

C. Under the plan, only treated sewage may be 10

discharged in the rivers. 5

F
0
(1) Only A & B are correct
–5
(2) Only B & C are correct –10 B

–15
(3) Only A & C are correct 50 100 150 200 250 300 350 400 450
Mean annual precipitation (cm)
(4) All are correct
(1) A-Desert, F-Temperate forest
117. Biogas contains
(2) A-Tundra, D-Coniferous forest
(1) 50 - 70% methane
(3) B-Desert, E-Coniferous forest
(2) 30 – 40% carbondioxide (4) C-Grassland, B-Tundra
(3) 5 – 10% carbon monoxide 123. Sal, teak and tendu are major vegetation of
(4) More than one option is correct (1) Tropical rain forest
118. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t. biogas plant. (2) Deciduous forest
(1) Microbes grow anaerobically on cellulosic (3) Desert
material
(4) Sea
(2) The biogas plant consists of concrete tank (1-5 124. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
feet deep) in which bio-wastes are collected and
slurry of dung is fed (1) Temperature is the most ecologically relevant
environmental factor
(3) A floating cover is placed over the slurry, which
keeps on rising as the gas is produced in the (2) Tuna fish is found in tropical latitudes in the
tank ocean
(3) Euryhaline can tolerate wide range of salinities
(4) The biogas plant has an outlet, which is
connected to a pipe to supply biogas to nearby (4) Mango trees can grow in temperate countries like
houses Germany and Canada
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Test Series for NEET - 2017 Test-08 (Code A)
125. Which of the following organisms are able to 130. The logistic population growth is expressed by the
maintain homeostasis by physiological means which equation
ensures constant body temperature and constant
osmotic concentration? dN dN ⎛N  K⎞
 rN  rN ⎜
(1)
dt
(2)
dt ⎝ N ⎟⎠
A. Mammals
B. Birds
dt ⎛ K  N⎞ dN ⎛ K  N⎞
 Nr ⎜  rN ⎜
C. Few lower vertebrates and invertebrates (3)
dN ⎝ K ⎟⎠ (4)
dt ⎝ K ⎟⎠
D. Giant reptiles in oceans
131. The correct population interaction is
(1) Only A & B
Species A Species B Name of interaction
(2) Only B & C
(1) + – Mutualism
(3) All, except C
(2) – + Competition
(4) All, except D
(3) – – Predation
126. The animals may show migration
(4) + – Parasitism
(1) If the stressful external conditions are localized
132. Which of the following statements is not true for
(2) Stressful conditions remain for a short duration predation?
(3) In search for reproduction (1) ‘Conduits’ for energy transfer across trophic
(4) More than one option is correct levels
127. Read the following statements carefully (2) Keeps prey population under control
A. Migrating temporarily to a more stressful habitat (3) Maintains species diversity, by increasing the
is a sort of adaptation. intensity of competition among competing prey
species
B. Adaptations evolved over a long evolutionary time
but these are not fixed genetically. (4) If predator is too efficient and overexploits its
prey, then it will lead to the extinction of predator
C. Kangaroo rat in North Africa can survive in the
itself
absence of external source of water.
133. All statements are correct for competition, except
D. Mammals from colder region generally have
shorter ears and limbs. (1) Resources need not be limiting for competition
to occur
How many statements are correct?
(2) Competitive species may evolve mechanism that
(1) One (2) Two
promote their coexistence
(3) Three (4) Four
(3) Connel’s field experiment is an example of
128. If in a pond the number of lotus plants increases competitive release
from 20 to 30 and the next year it again reduces to
(4) Only closely related species can show
20, then
competition
(1) Birth rate for the first year is more than death
134. ‘Resource partitioning’ mechanism promotes
rate for the next year
(1) Coexistence
(2) Birth rate for the first year is less than death
rate for the next year (2) Competitive exclusion
(3) Birth rate and death rate are same in the (3) Competitive release
successive year (4) Amensalism
(4) Birth rate and death rate cannot be calculated 135. The population interaction shown by the given figure
129. Which of the given age pyramid reflects an is
increasing human population?

(1) (2)

(3) (4) (1) Parasitism (2) Protocooperation

(3) Mutualism (4) Commensalism
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Test-08 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017

ZOOLOGY
136. Which one of the following options gives the (3) Both (1) & (2)
incorrect matching of a disease with its causative (4) By casual kissing and sharing of food
organism and mode of infection? 144. What is false about B lymphocytes?
Disease Causative Mode of infection (1) They arise from bone marrow
organism
(2) They react against transplant
(1) Influenza Orthomyxovirus Droplet infection (3) B cells provide humoral immunity
(2) Small pox Variola virus Droplet infection (4) Plasma cells have no role in secondary immune
(3) Mumps Paramyxo virus Droplet infection response
(4) Yellow fever Human Droplet infection 145. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. active immunity
papilloma virus (1) It is slow in action
137. Select the incorrect statement regarding the specific (2) It is not long lasting
disorder. (3) It can be natural or artificial
(1) Tetany - Rapid contractions in (4) It provides relief only after long period
muscles due to Ca 2+ 146. Read the following statements and select the correct
deficiency option.
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis - Autoimmune disorder (1) Mantoux test for tuberculosis
(3) Rickets - Insufficient amounts of (2) Widal test for syphilis
calcium and phosphorus (3) Wassermann test for typhoid
(4) Osteomalacia - Sufficient amounts of (4) Dick test for diphtheria
calcium and phosphorus 147. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. antigen.
138. Identify the correctly matched pair (1) Antigen is a protein or polysaccharide molecule
(1) SARS – Viral disease (2) It is capable of generating active immune
(2) Yellow fever – Bacterial disease response
(3) Enteric fever – Viral disease (3) It should be having high molecular weight
(4) Genital herpes – Protozoan disease (4) Antigen has paratopes
139. Read the following statement (a - d) 148. Identify the below given diagram :
(a) Small pox is viral disease.
(b) ELISA test for AIDS.
(c) AIDS virus has two RNA.
(d) Psychotropic drugs are mood alteration drug.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(1) Two (2) One
(3) Three (4) Four
140. Which one of the following acts as a physiological
barrier against pathogens?
(1) HCl (2) Saliva
(1) IgD (2) IgE
(3) Tears (4) All of these
(3) IgG (4) All of these
141. Which of the following immunoglobulins is present in
149. Antigen-antibody interaction is
mucous secretion of respiratory tract?
(1) Agglutination
(1) IgG (2) IgE
(2) Opsonisation
(3) IgA (4) IgM
(3) Precipitation
142. About 85% of all tumors are (4) More than one option is correct
(1) Carcinomas (2) Adenomas 150. Nicotine is known to
(3) Gliomas (4) Lymphomas (1) Bind to GABA receptors of neurons
143. How does the transmission of HIV take place? (2) Have depressive effect on CNS
(1) Sexual contact with infected person (3) Have vasodilatory effect towards gastrointestinal
(2) From infected mother to her child through tract
placenta (4) Serve as powerful analgesic
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Test Series for NEET - 2017 Test-08 (Code A)
151. Identify the wrong statements 158. Which of the following acts like an HIV factory?
i. The tumour of haematopoietic cells is called (1) T lymphocyte
leukemia. (2) Macrophages
ii. Adenomas are non-cancerous tumours. (3) B-lymphocyte
iii. Monoclonal antibodies are used in chemotherapy (4) Neutrophils and NK cells
as they prevent disjunction in cancerous cells. 159. Amongst the given statements, how many are
iv. Cancerous cells produce AGFs that promote ATP true/false?
formation in them. i. An antibody is a molecule that specifically
v. The contact inhibition property of cancerous cells inactivates an antigen.
leads to metastasis. ii. IgA is the most active, long acting antibody
(1) i, ii & iii (2) ii, iv & v representing about 80% of the antibodies.
(3) iii, iv & v (4) i, iv & v iii. Antibody that stimulates mast cells is IgE.
152. The most appreciable attribute of acquired immunity iv. Mode of working of antibodies that facilitates
is that recognition of antigens and their digestion by
(1) It ensures instant killing of foreign antigen cells phagocytes is known as opsonisation.
v. The tail portion of the antibody comprising the
(2) It makes antibodies against foreign antigens to
two heavy chains is called the fab.
destroy them
(1) i & v are true and ii, iii & iv are false
(3) It exhibits immunological memory that ensures
heightened state of immune reactivity on second (2) i, iii & iv are true and ii & v are false
encounter with antigen (3) i, ii & iii are true and ii & v are false
(4) It never allows foreign grafts to fluorish in the (4) i, iv & v are true and ii & iii are false
system of host 160. Emil von Behring discovered the concept of
153. The tissue surrounding the respiratory tubes in the (1) Active immunisation
lungs swell up and, compress the tubes, hence
(2) Natural active immunity
there is difficulty in breathing.These are common
symptoms of (3) Passive immunisation
(1) Anaphylactic shock (2) Asthma (4) Artificial active immunity
161. HLA complex is controlled by
(3) Influenza (4) Transplant rejection
(1) Chromosome number 9
154. The property of T cells that differentiates them from
B cells is that (2) Chromosome number 7
(1) They are generated by primary lymphoid organs (3) Chromosome number 6
(2) They can keep memory of antigens tackled by (4) Chromosome number 8
them in primary immune response 162. Parent cells in bone marrow that give rise to
(3) They depend upon antigen presentation lymphoblasts and plasmablasts are
(4) They are part of third line of defence (1) Haemocytoblasts
(2) Myeloid cells
155. Which of the following diseases does not spread
through mosquitoes? (3) Antigen presenting cells
(1) Dengue (2) Malaria (4) Mastocytes
(3) Elephantiasis (4) Hydrophobia 163. Autoimmune disease is
156. In immune system, which is responsible for graft (1) Insulin dependent diabetes
rejection (2) Addison’s disease
(1) Cytokines barriers (3) Ulcerative colitis
(2) Cell mediated immune response (4) All of these
(3) Humoral immunity 164. Match the following :
(4) Second line of defence Column I Column II
157. The vaccine that contain pathogens either live and a. Melanoma (i) Cancer of pigment cells of skin
weakened (attenuated) or in killed form is called b. Adenoma (ii) Cancer of glands
(1) Third and second generation vaccines c. Lymphoma (iii) Cancer of lymphatic tissue
(2) First generation vaccines d. Glioma (iv) Cancer of Glial cells of CNS
(3) First and third generation vaccines (1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(4) Third generation vaccines (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
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Test-08 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
165. Morphine is extracted from 174. Mark the incorrect statement :
(1) Latex of poppy plant (1) LSD is natural hallucinogen
(2) Latex of Atropa (2) Haptens are partial antigens
(3) Latex of Claviceps (3) IgM is not pentameric antibody
(4) Resin collected from Cannabis (4) Antigenic determinants also called epitope
166. Which of the following pairs of disease is caused by 175. Mark the statements that is incorrect for malarial
bacteria? infection.
(1) The sporozoite of plasmodium possesses paired
(1) Polio and dengue (2) Cholera and leprosy
organelles to produce lytic enzymes that
(3) Measles and mumps (4) Rabies and small pox facilitate its entry into hepatocytes
167. Target tissue of cadmium oxide (2) Microgametocyte and macrogametocyte give rise
(1) Lung (2) Liver multiple male and female gametes in gut of
(3) Prostate gland (4) Vagina mosquito
(3) The sporozoites are produced after zygotic
168. Addiction associated with drugs or alcohol can be
meiosis
best defined as
(4) Paroxysm of malaria has a sequence of rigour
(1) Tendency of body to manifest an unpleasant
phase, febrile phase and defervescent phase
reaction on discontinuation of regular dose
176. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. influenza
(2) Change in attitude and beliefs for effective
participation in society (1) Disease – Flu
(2) Pathogen – Orthomyxovirus (influenza virus)
(3) A psychological attachment to certain effects
such as euphoria and temporary feeling of well (3) Infection – Droplets
being (4) Vaccine – MMR
(4) Deviation from physical, mental, social well 177. Calmette and Guerin developed BCG vaccine for
being of a person (1) Tuberculosis (2) Ascariasis
169. Heroin (H-smack) cannot be expected to increase (3) Cysticercosis (4) Giardiasis
performance of sports persons as 178. Cancer is generally caused due to mutation of ____
(1) Its excessive dosage causes hallucinations to _____ and/or inactivation of _____.
(2) It is a pain relieving type of drug (1) Oncogene, tumour suppressor gene,
(3) It is an analogue of adrenaline proto-oncogene
(2) Tumour suppressor gene, oncogene, proto-
(4) It is a depressant and slows down body
functions oncogene
(3) c-onc, oncogene, proto-oncogene
170. Pyrogen, histamine and interferon are collectively
included under (4) Apoptic gene, tumour suppressor gene, proto-
oncogene
(1) Chemical alarms (2) Phagocytic barrier
179. Skin on our body is main barrier which prevents
(3) Inflammatory barrier (4) Cytokin barrier entry of microorganism. Mucous coating of epithelium
171. Cannabis sativa is the source of lining the respiratory, gastrointestinal and urogenital
(1) Bhang (2) Ganja tracts also help in trapping microbes entering our
body belongs to which group?
(3) Charas (4) All of these
(1) Physical barriers (2) Cellular barriers
172. Sabin et. al. prepared an oral vaccine called
(3) Cytokines barriers (4) Physiological barriers
(1) OPV (Oral Polio Vaccine)
180. Identify the molecular structure given below.
(2) Rabies vaccine CH3
O
(3) Typhoid vaccine N CH3
(4) Malaria vaccine O
173. Out of the following diseases which is/are caused H
due to fungal infection? O
(a) Tinea (Ringworm) (b) Loiasis
(c) Trichuriasis (d) Ancylostomiasis H O
(1) (a) & (b) only (2) (a) only (1) Morphine (2) Cannabinoid
(3) (b) & (d) only (4) (c) only (3) LSD (4) Valium
  
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 26/04/2017 Code - A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005; Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 720 Test Series : Test – 08 (Objective) Time : 3 Hrs.

(for NEET - 2017 )

Answers and Hints

PHYSICS
1. Answer (3) 2  M2B1 sin90
M
M/3 0 M1M2

4r 3
2M/3
8. Answer (1)
2 2
⎛M⎞ ⎛ 2M ⎞ 9. Answer (3)
M  ⎜ ⎟  ⎜
⎝ 3⎠ ⎝ 3 ⎟⎠
tan   2 tan 
10. Answer (4)
M 5
M 
3 2M
In semicircle, M0 

2. Answer (1)
M 0
3. Answer (2) So, M
2
4. Answer (3)
2 2M
In quarter circle, M  
tan  tan  
∵ tan    
cos  cos90
2 2 M0
 = 90°    2M0
 2
5. Answer (3) 11. Answer (3)
I = K tan 12. Answer (2)
6. Answer (3) e
∵ F  ILB  LB
T I R
t 
4 4MB (BLv )LB FR
F ; v 2 2
R B L
7. Answer (3)
13. Answer (2)
N  = 2t2 – 5t + 8
M2
 68 2
N S e    4 volt
M1 t 0.5  0 1/ 2
r
S B1 14. Answer (2)

0 M1 mass × effective length

B1  ∵ T
4r 3 pole strength
(1)
Answers & Hints of Test-08 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
15. Answer (3) 31. Answer (4)
2 2  200  500  10 6
I0
e  = 10 V 0 I
t 20  10 3
 I  2  0
16. Answer (2) 2 4
17. Answer (4) 32. Answer (1)
18. Answer (2) 33. Answer (2)
L BL 34. Answer (1)
e = BLeq V = B V  V
2 2
19. Answer (4) VC  V 2  VR2

M  K L1L2
 1002  602
20. Answer (2)
= 80 V
21. Answer (3)
35. Answer (1)
22. Answer (2)
2 2
36. Answer (3)
1 ⎛ 2L ⎞ 1 ⎛L⎞ BL2
e  B ⎜ ⎟  B ⎜ ⎟  37. Answer (2)
2 ⎝ 3 ⎠ 2 ⎝3⎠ 6
23. Answer (1) 2
⎛ b ⎞
i  a2  ⎜
⎛ 0I ⎞ 2 ⎝ 2 ⎟⎠
⎜ ⎟L
 B  effectivearea ⎝ 2R ⎠
M  
I I I
b2
 a2 
 0L 2
2
M
2R
38. Answer (1)
24. Answer (1)
di VS IS
eM ∵ 
dt VpI p
iR = Mi0
39. Answer (4)
⎛ ⎞
⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ R  Mi 0 {∵   IA } U = UC + UL
A
AMi 0 Q02
  4UL  UL
R 2C
25. Answer (4)
Q02 1
0 N 2  5  LI 2
L A 2C 2
l
Q0
26. Answer (2) I
5 LC
1
U  LI 2
2 40. Answer (3)
27. Answer (3)  E0
28. Answer (4) V  
k B0
29. Answer (2)
41. Answer (2)
30. Answer (3)
42. Answer (1)
A i R L C  B E0
∵ C
di q B0
VA  IR  i     VB  0
dt C
43. Answer (4)
q
10  1  1 10 3  103  60 44. Answer (4)
1 10 6
q = 14 C 45. Answer (1)

(2)
Test Series for NEET - 2017 Answers & Hints of Test-08 (Code A)

CHEMISTRY
46. Answer (4) 57. Answer (2)
=q×d +
–H
CHCl3 Cl – C – Cl carbanion is more stable
for CH3 – Cl product of charge and distance is more.
47. Answer (2) Cl
due to d orbital resonance.
58. Answer (3)
CCl3 – CH = O H Cl
F Br F I F Cl
C=C C=C C=C
H Cl
Cl I Cl Br Br I

E Z E Z E Z
59. Answer (2)
Cl 60. Answer (2)
CCl3 – CH In E2 reaction all leaving groups are present in one
Cl plane at angle of 180º before elimination.
61. Answer (3)
D.D.T.
62. Answer (2)
48. Answer (3) CCl2F2 freon 12.
Alc. KOH 63. Answer (2)
CH3 – CH2 – CH – CH3

Cl CH3 – CH2 – CH
Cl
Aq. KOH
CH3 – CH2 – C – H
Oxidation
CH3 – CH2 – C – OH
CH 3 – CH = CH – CH 3 + CH 3 – CH 2 – CH = CH 2 Cl (B) O O
Alc. KOH dil H2SO4
CH3 – C CH CH3 – C –CH3
cis trans
+2
Hg
(C) (D) O
49. Answer (1)

Br2 + NaOH
Addition of HCl follow electrophilic addition
mechanism. CHBr3 + CH3 – C – ONa
O
50. Answer (4)
CH3 64. Answer (3)
In case of HCl chain initiation step is endothermic
more reactive towards electrophilic
and in case of HI addition of Iº (free radical) on
alkene is endothermic.
substitution reaction due to hyperconjugation.
65. Answer (3)
51. Answer (4)
Reaction carried out by SN1 mechanism.
In SN2 inversion takes place and inversion product 66. Answer (4)
may be d or l. 
CH3 – C – CH2 – CH – CH3
52. Answer (4) is stable due to
Unsymmetrical trans on anti addition gives OH CH3
enantiomeric pair. resonance.
67. Answer (1)
53. Answer (4) H
+
Fact. H
R–O–H R–O–H
54. Answer (4) 
68. Answer (4)
All are optically active due to molecular asymmetry.
CH3MgBr
55. Answer (2) C2H5 – C  CH C2H5 – C  CMgBr + CH4
+
According to C.I.P rule. (1) HCHO (2) H3O

56. Answer (1)

C2H5 – C  C – CH2OH
In polar aprotic medium anion is unsolvated.
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Answers & Hints of Test-08 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017
69. Answer (1) 79. Answer (1)
CH3 CH3
CH3
CH3 – C – CH2
+
H
CH3 – C – CH2
H2O
18

–H+
O O Intermediate carbocation is unstable.
H (Antiaromatic)
CH3 80. Answer (2)
CH3 – C – CH2
18 O O
OH OH 18 18
R – C – OH + H – O – R R – C – O–R+H2O
70. Answer (1)
81. Answer (4)
CH3 CH3
Cl
CH3 – CMgCl + D – O – D CH3 – C – D + Mg In ether < ROR is greater than 109.28 because of
greater size of alkyl or aryl groups resulting in
OD
CH3 CH3 greater faces of repulsion.

71. Answer (4) 82. Answer (3)

3º alcohol with lucas reagent show instant turbidity Fact
due to formation of stable carbocation.
83. Answer (1)
72. Answer (2)
1% alkaline KMnO4 Bayer’s reagent,
Fact.
(syn hydroxylation)
73. Answer (1)
C2H5OH gives Haloform test. 84. Answer (1)

74. Answer (1) Alkoxy mercuration-demercuration  product formed

by Markovnikov addition of CH 3 OH without
Ether can be free from peroxide by shaking with rearrangement.
aqueous solution of KI.
85. Answer (2)
75. Answer (2)
OH 86. Answer (2)
OH C – OC6H5
R2CuLi
C – OH H OC6H5 O
Salol 87. Answer (3)
O
76. Answer (3)  Aromatic alcohol gives neutral FeCl3 test and

Product resemble to anti Markovnikov without  due to presence of – CH – CH3 give Holoform
rearrangement.
OH
77. Answer (2)
test.
NaOH reacts with only those acid which are more
acidic than H2O. 88. Answer (1)

78. Answer (3)

Cl H OC2H5
Cl O=C (C2H5)2CO3
OH Cl H OC2H5 Diethyl carbonate
+ PCl5 + POCl3
89. Answer (1)
(Minor) N.B.S. in brominating agent at allylic or benzylic
position.
Cl H – OC6H5 OC6H5
O=P Cl H – OC6H5 O = P OC6H5 90. Answer (3)
Cl H – OC6H5 OC6H5
Name reaction.
Major
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Test Series for NEET - 2017 Answers & Hints of Test-08 (Code A)

BOTANY
91. Answer (4) 114. Answer (4)
92. Answer (3) 115. Answer (3)

93. Answer (2) 116. Answer (4)

(B) IRRI is in Philippines. 117. Answer (4)

94. Answer (4) (50 – 70%) methane, (30 - 40%) carbondioxide and
10% mixture of H2, N2, H2S etc.
Low winter temperature tolerance in northen India.
118. Answer (2)
95. Answer (4) Concrete tank is 10-15 feet deep.
96. Answer (1) 119. Answer (1)
97. Answer (3) 120. Answer (3)
Developed by conventional plant breeding. 121. Answer (1)
98. Answer (1) Four levels of biological organisation-organism,
populations, communities and biomes.
99. Answer (1)
122. Answer (4)
Low nitrogen, sugar and high aspartic acid in maize
develops resistance to maize stem borers. 123. Answer (2)

100. Answer (1) 124. Answer (4)

101. Answer (2) Mango trees cannot grow in temperate countries.

125. Answer (4)
102. Answer (3)
Giant reptiles are cold blooded.
103. Answer (2)
126. Answer (4)
All are correct, except (A).
Both (1) & (2) are correct.
104. Answer (1)
127. Answer (1)
105. Answer (3)
128. Answer (1)
Symmetric somatic hybrid formed by the fusion of
Number of lotus plants
two protoplast from two parents.
Initial = 20
106. Answer (3)
For 1st year = Number of births = 30 – 20
Causing coagulation of milk not leavening.
Number of Birth 10
107. Answer (3) Birth rate =   0.5
Initial individuals 20
108. Answer (1)
For 2nd year = Number of deaths = 30 – 20
Vitamin B12.
Number of Deaths 10
109. Answer (2) Death rate =   0.33
Initial individuals 30
S. ellipsoidens is known as wine yeast.
129. Answer (4)
110. Answer (1)
130. Answer (4)
Rest three products are obtained from fungi.
131. Answer (4)
111. Answer (3) 132. Answer (3)
Antibiotics kill bacteria not effective against viruses. Predation reduces the intensity of competition.
112. Answer (3) 133. Answer (4)
113. Answer (2) 134. Answer (1)
Widely used in World War II. 135. Answer (3)
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Answers & Hints of Test-08 (Code A) Test Series for NEET - 2017

ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (4) 155. Answer (4)
Yellow fever is caused by flavivirus. Hydrophobia - Dog bites.
137. Answer (4) 156. Answer (2)
Insufficient amount of calcium and phosphorus Graft rejection - Job of T-cells.
138. Answer (1) 157. Answer (2)
Yellow fever is viral disease.
158. Answer (2)
139. Answer (4)
Macrophages survive when HIV leaves them.
All statements are correct.
159. Answer (2)
140. Answer (4)
160. Answer (3)
141. Answer (3)
161. Answer (3)
IgA is secretory antibody.
162. Answer (2)
142. Answer (1)
85% cancer-carcinomas. Fact.

143. Answer (3) 163. Answer (4)

Casual kissing and sharing of food does not cause 164. Answer (3)
of AIDS. The virus is present in saliva in very little 165. Answer (1)
amount.
166. Answer (2)
144. Answer (2)
Polio is viral disease.
T lymphocytes react against transplant.
167. Answer (3)
145. Answer (2)
146 Answer (1) 168. Answer (3)

WIDAL test is for typhoid, Wasserman test for 169. Answer (4)
syphilis, Shick test for diptheria. 170. Answer (4)
147. Answer (4) They are all chemicals secreted by cells.
Antigens have epitopes. 171. Answer (4)
148. Answer (4)
172. Answer (1)
IgD, IgE and IgG have two paratopes, they are
173. Answer (2)
monomeric antibodies.
149. Answer (4) Ringworm is fungal disease.

150. Answer (3) 174. Answer (3)

Nicotine stimulates secretory activity of gut. IgM is pentamer.
151. Answer (3) 175. Answer (2)
 Monoclonal antibodies destroy cancerous cells 176. Answer (4)
by binding to cancerous antigens.
MMR vaccine for Measles, Mumps, Rubella.
 AGFs are secreted by cancerous cells that
177. Answer (1)
stimulate branching of blood vessels.
 Cancerous cells lose contact inhibition property. Giardiasis protozoan disease (diarrhoea).

152. Answer (3) 178. Answer (3)

153. Answer (2) 179. Answer (1)
154. Answer (3) 180. Answer (1)
B cells do not depend upon antigen presentation. Morphine is extracted from the latex of poppy.

  

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