Sample Paper-02 Class 12th NEET (2024)

PHYSICS
SECTION-A 6. Three plates of common surface area 𝐴 are
1. The equivalent capacitance between A and B in the connected as shown. The effective capacitance will
figure is 1μF. Then the value of capacitance C is; be:

𝜀0 𝐴 3𝜀0 𝐴
(1) (2)
𝑑 𝑑
(1) 1.4μF 3 𝜀0 𝐴 2𝜀0 𝐴
(2) 2.5μF (3) (4)
2 𝑑 𝑑
(3) 3.5μF
(4) 1.2μF 7. The current in the arm 𝐶𝐷 of the circuit will be:
B
2. The electric potential V at any point O(x, y, z all in
i1 i2
metres) in space is given by V = 4x2 volt. The
electric field at the point (1m, 0,2m) in volt/metre O A
i3
is;
(1) 8 along negative X-axis C
(2) 8 along positive X-axis D
(3) 16 along negative X-axis (1) i1 + i2 (2) i2 + i3
(4) 16 along positive Z-axis (3) i1 + i3 (4) i1 – i2 + i3

3. Two positive point charges of 12μC and 8μC are 8. Equivalent resistance between the points 𝐴 and 𝐵
10 cm apart. The work done in bringing them to 4 is (in Ω);
cm close is;
1 1 1 1 1 B
(1) 5.8 J (2) 5.8 eV A
(3) 13 J (4) 13 eV

4. Charges 2q, -q and –q lie at the vertices of an 1 1

(1) (2) 1
equilateral triangle. The value of E and V at the 5 4
centroid of the triangle will be: 1 1
(3) 2 (4) 3
(1) E ≠ 0 and V ≠ 0 3 2
(2) E = 0 and V = 0
(3) E ≠ 0 and V = 0 9. A galvanometer of 25 Ω resistance can read a
(4) E = 0 and V ≠ 0 maximum current of 6mA. It can be used as a
voltmeter to measure a maximum of 6V by
5. If a charged spherical conductor of radius 10 cm connecting a resistance to the galvanometer.
has potential V at a point distant 5cm from its Identify the correct choice in the given answers:
centre, then the potential at a point distant 15 cm (1) 1025 Ω in series
from the centre will be: (2) 1025 Ω in parallel
(1)
1
V (2)
2
V (3) 975 Ω in series
3 3 (4) 975 Ω in parallel
3
(3) V (4) 3V
2
10. An equilateral triangle of side l is formed from a 14. Some equipotential surfaces of the magnetic scalar
piece of wire of uniform resistance. The current i is potential are shown in the figure. Magnetic field at
fed as shown in the figure. The magnitude of the a point in the region is;
magnetic field at its centre O is; V
(T-m) 0.2×10–4 0.3×10–4
0.1×10–4 0.4×10–4
30° 30° 30° 30° x(cm)
10 20 30 40

(1) 10–4 T
(2) 2 × 10–4 T
(3) 0.5 × 10–4 T
30i 3 20i
(1) (2) (4) None of these
2l 2l
0i
(3) (4) zero 15. A bar magnet of length 3 cm has points A and B
2l along its axis at distances of 24 cm and 48 cm on
the opposite sides. Ratio of magnetic fields at these
11. A wire in the form of a circular loop of one turn points will be:
carrying a current produces a magnetic field B at
the centre. If the same wire is looped into a coil of
two turns and carries the same current, the new
value of magnetic induction at the centre is; (1) 8 : 1 (2) 1 : (2 2)
(1) 3B (2) 5B (3) 3 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
(3) 4B (4) 2B
16. The network shown in the figure is a part of a
12. Two magnets of equal magnetic moments M each complete circuit. If at a certain instant the current i
are placed as shown in figure. The resultant is 5 A and is decreasing at the rate of 103 A/s then
magnetic moment is; VA – VB is;

A B
1 15 V 5mH
(1) 5 V (2) 10 V
(3) 15 V (4) 20 V

17. In a magnetic field of 0.05 T, area of a coil changes

(1) M (2) 3M from 101cm2 to 100 cm2 without changing the
M resistance which is 2Ω. The amount of charge that
(3) 3M (4)
2 flow during this period is;
(1) 2.5 × 10–6 coulomb
13. The variation of magnetic susceptibility (χ) with (2) 2 × 10–6 coulomb
magnetising field for a paramagnetic substance is; (3) 10–6 coulomb
(+) (+) (4) 8 × 10–6 coulomb
 
(1) (2) 18. A short solenoid of length 4 cm, radius 2 cm and
O H O H
100 turns is placed inside and on the axis of a long
(+) (+) solenoid of length 80 cm and 1500 turns. A current

 of 3 A flows through the short solenoid. The mutual
O H
(3) (4) inductance of two solenoids is;
O H
(1) 2.96×10–4 H (2) 5.3×10–5 H
(3) 3.52×10–3 H (4) 8.3×10–5 H
19. A 100 V, AC source of frequency 500 Hz is 23. A point source of electromagnetic radiation has an
connected to an L-C-R circuit with L = 8.1 mH, average power output of 800 W. The maximum
C = 12.5 μF, R = 10 Ω all connected in series as value of electric filed at a distance 4.0 m from the
shown in figure. What is the quality factor of source is;
circuit? (1) 64.7 Vm–1 (2) 57.8 Vm–1
–1
(3) 56.72 Vm (4) 54.77 Vm–1

24. What is the time taken (in seconds) to cross a glass

of thickness 4 mm and μ = 3 by light?
(1) 4 × 10–11 (2) 2 × 10–11
(1) 2.02 (2) 2.5434 (3) 16 × 10–11 (4) 8 × 10–10
(3) 20.54 (4) 200.54
25. The power of a biconvex lens is 10 dioptre and the
20. Which of the following curves correctly represents radius of curvature of each surface is 10 cm. Then
the variation of capacitive reactance XC with the refractive index of the material of the lens is;
frequency f ? 3 4
(1) (2)
Xc Xc 2 3
9 5
(3) (4)
8 3
(1) (2)

f f 26. The slab of a material of refractive index 2 shown

in figure has curved surface APB of radius of
Xc
Xc
curvature 10 cm and a plane surface CD. On the left
of APB is air and on the right of CD is water with
(3) (4) refractive indices as given in figure. An object O is
placed at a distance of 15 cm from pole P as shown.
f f The distance of the final image of O from P, as
viewed from the left is;
21. In the circuit shown below, the ac source has A C

voltage V = 20 cos (ωt) volts with ω = 2000 rad/sec. P C O

The amplitude of the current will be nearest to; ''''''
 s= 2.0
B D
15 cm
6 20 cm
(1) 20 cm (2) 30 cm
5 mH, 4 50 F (3) 40 cm (4) 50 cm

(1) 2A (2) 3.3A 27. Two polaroids are kept crossed to each other. Now
2 one of them is rotated through an angle of 45°. The
(3) A (4) 5A
5 percentage of incident light now transmitted
through the system is;
22. A plane Electromagnetic Wave of frequency (1) 15% (2) 25%
30 MHz travels in free space along the x-direction. (3) 50% (4) 60%
The electric field component of the wave at a
particular point of space and time E = 6 Vm-1 along 28. Soap bubble appears coloured due to the
y-direction. Its magnetic field component B at this
phenomenon of;
point would be:
(1) 2 × 10–8 T along z-direction (1) Interference (2) Diffraction
(2) 6 × 10–8 T along x-direction (3) Dispersion (4) Reflection
(3) 2 × 10–8 T along y-direction
(4) 6 × 10–8 T along z-direction
29. In Young’s experiment, the distance between slits 35. For hydrogen atom electron in nth Bohr orbit, the
is 0.28 mm and distance between slits and screen is ratio of radius of orbit to its de-Broglie wavelength
1.4 m. Distance between central bright fringe and is;
third bright fringe is 0.9 cm. What is the n n2
wavelength of used light? (1) (2)
2 2
(1) 5000 Å (2) 6000 Å
1 1
(3) 7000 Å (4) 9000 Å (3) (4)
2n 2n 2
30. Sodium and copper have work functions 2.3 eV
36. Given that in a hydrogen atom, the energy of 𝑛th
and 4.5 eV respectively. Then the ratio of their
13.6
threshold wavelengths is nearest to; orbit En = − 2 eV. The amount of energy
(1) 1 :2 (2) 4 :1 n
required to send electron from first orbit to second
(3) 2 :1 (4) 1 :4
orbit is;
(1) 10.2 eV (2) 12.1 eV
31. A charged oil drop of mass 2.5 × 10–7 kg is in space (3) 13.6 eV (4) 3.4 eV
between the two plates, each of area 2 × 10–2 m2 of
a parallel plate capacitor. When the upper plate has SECTION-B
a charge of 5 × 10–7 C and the lower plate has an 37. In hydrogen atom, the electron is moving round the
equal negative charge, the oil remains stationary. nucleus with velocity 2.18 × 106 m/s in an orbit of
radius 0.528Å. The acceleration of the electron is;
The charge of the oil drop is; [Take g = 10 m/s2]
(1) 9 × 1018 m/s2 (2) 9 × 1022 m/s2
(1) 9 × 10–1 C (2) 9 × 10–6 C –22
(3) 9 × 10 m/s 2
(4) 9 × 1012 m/s2
(3) 8.85 × 10–13 C (4) 1.8 × 10–14 C
38. In a radioactive substance at t = 0, the number of
32. In the following diagrams if V2 > V1 then; atoms is 8 × 104. Its half life period is 3 years. The
i (Photoelectric effect)
number of atoms 1 × 104 will remain after interval;
(1) 9 years (2) 8 years
(3) 6 years (4) 24 years
2
1 39. What will be the angular momentum of an electron,
V2 V1 Potential V if energy of this electron in H-atom is –1.5eV
difference
(in J-s)?
(1) 1 =  2 (2) 1 < 2 (1) 1.05 × 10–34 (2) 2.1 × 10–34
–34
(3) 3.15 × 10 (4) –2.1 × 10–34
(3) 1 = 2 (4) 1 > 2
40. Which one of the series of hydrogen spectrum is in
33. A light whose frequency is equal to 6 × 10 Hz is14 the visible region?
incident on a metal whose work function is 2eV. (1) Lyman series (2) Balmer series
(3) Paschen series (4) Bracket series
[h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js, 1eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J].
The maximum energy of the electrons emitted will 41. A series circuit with resistance, capacitance and
be: inductance having values 1000 , 1 F and 2.0 H,
(1) 2.47 eV (2) 4.47 eV respectively is connected to a supply V = 100 2
(3) 0.47 eV (4) 5.47 eV sin 1000t volt. Match quantities in List-I with their
values in List-II.
List-I List-II
34. An electron of mass m and charge q is accelerated
A The rms current (in A) I 100
from rest in a uniform electric field of strength E. B The rms voltage (in V) II 0.0707
The velocity acquired by it as it travels a distance l C PD across inductor (in V) III 70.7
is; D PD across capacitor (in V) IV 141.4
(1) A → II, B → I, C → IV, D → III
2Eql 2Eq
(1) (2) (2) A → IV, B → I, C → II, D → III
m ml (3) A → II, B → I, C → III, D → IV
2Em Eq (4) A → IV, B → II, C → III, D → I
(3) (4)
ql ml
42. Match the List-I showing the type of EM wave
with List-II.
List-I List-II
EM Wave Frequency
A Visible I 1019 Hz
B Microwave II 1014 Hz
C X-rays III 1011 Hz
D Radio waves IV 105 Hz
(1) A → II, B → III, C → I, D → IV
(2) A → II, B → III, C → IV, D → I
(3) A → III, B → I, C → I, D → IV
(4) A → III, B → I, C → IV, D → I
43. Statement I: The phase difference between
 47.
electric and magnetic field in an EM wave is .
2 substances have initially same number of nuclei.
Statement II: The oscillation of electric and
magnetic field vectors are perpendicular to the
direction of propagation of EM wave.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are
incorrect.
44. Statement I: The resistivity of semiconductors
decreases with increase of temperature.
Statement II: In a conducting solid, the rate of
collisions between free electrons and ions increases
with increase of temperature.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are
incorrect.
45. Statement I: When radius of a circular wire
carrying current is doubled, its magnetic moment
becomes four times.
Statement II: Magnetic moment is directly
proportional to area of the loop. Which of the
following statement(s) is/are correct?
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) Both I and II (4) None of these
46. Assertion (A): NAND or NOR gates are called
digital building blocks.
Reason (R): The repeated use of NAND (or NOR)
gates can produce all the basic or complicated gates.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
of Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.
Assertion (A): Two different radioactive
Their decay constants are 1 and 2 (< 1), then
initially first radioactive substance decays at faster
rate.
Reason (R): Half-life of first radioactive substance
is more.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
of Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.
48. The current in a wire varies with time according to
the relation i = (3 + 2.0 t2), where i is in amperes
and t is in seconds. How many coulombs of charge
pass a cross-section of the wire in the time interval
between t = 0 and t = 3.0 s?
(1) 18 C (2) 25 C
(3) 27 C (4) 36 C
49. A plane mirror is inclined at an angle 45° in xy
plane as shown in figure. A point object moves
with speed v parallel to x-axis;
Find relative velocity of image wrt velocity of
object.
(1) viˆ + vjˆ (2) viˆ − vjˆ
(3) −viˆ + vjˆ (4) −viˆ − vjˆ
50. A bar magnet of length L and area of cross-section
A is cut into four identical parts as shown in figure.
If initially magnetic moment was M, find magnetic
moment of each piece after cutting;

M M
(1) (2)
4 2
M
(3) (4) 2 M
8
 Sample Paper- 02 NEET XII (2024)

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
1. Statement I: Raoult’s law is applicable for dilute
solutions only.
Statement II: Henry’s law is applicable for
solution of gas in liquid.
(1) Statement I and statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I and statement II both are
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true.
2. The rate law for a reaction between the substances
A and B is given by rate = K[A]n[B]m. On doubling
the concentration of A and halving the
concentration of B, the ratio of the new rate to the
earlier rate of the reaction will be as;
(1) 1/2(m+n) (2) (m + n)
(3) (n – m) (4) 2(n – m)
6. Half-life of a first order reaction is 10 minutes.
What percentage of reaction will be complete in
100 minutes?
(1) 25% (2) 50%
(3) 99.9% (4) 75%
7. Assertion (A): The rate constant for a zero-order
reaction is equal to rate of reaction.
Reason (R): t1/2 for zero order reaction is directly
proportional to initial concentration.
(1) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are true
and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(2) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are true
and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation
of Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are false.

8. The relation between following two compounds is;

3. Hydrogen electrode is immersed in two solutions
of pH = 3 and pH = 8 respectively and linked
through a salt bridge. The operative emf of the
working cell would be;
(1) 0.327 V (2) 0.208 V
(3) 0.295 V (4) 0.250 V
(1) Anomers
4. A current is passed through two voltmeters (2) C-3 epimers
connected in series. The first voltmeter contains (3) Functional isomers
XSO4(aq) while second voltameter contains (4) Position isomers
Y2SO4(aq). The relative atomic masses of X and Y
are in the ratio 2 : 1. The ratio of the mass of X 9. For BaSO4,
liberated to the mass of Y liberated is;  
I. m   m of (BaCl2  H2SO4  2HCl)
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1 (4) None of these II.  
m   m of (BaCl2  H2SO4  HCl)
III.   
equiv.   equiv. of (BaCl 2  H 2SO 4  2HCl)
5. On dissolving sugar in water at room temperature
solution feels cool to touch. Under which of the IV.  
equiv.   equiv. of (BaCl2  H2SO4  HCl)
following cases dissolution of sugar will be most Select correct values;
rapid? (1) I, III (2) II, III
(1) Sugar crystals in cold water (3) I, IV (4) II, IV
(2) Sugar crystals in hot water
(3) Powdered sugar in cold water
(4) Powdered sugar in hot water
10. An ideal solution has two components A and B. A is 17. The crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) is
more volatile than B, i.e., PA  PB and PA  Ptotal . highest for;
(1) [CoF4]2– (2) [Co(NCS)4]2–
If XA and YA are mole fractions of component A in 3+
(3) [Co(NH3)6] (4) [CoCl4]2–
liquid and vapour phases, then;
(1) XA = YA (2) XA > YA 18. The degenerate orbital of [Cr(H2O)6]3+ are;
(3) XA < YA (4) Data insufficient
(1) d 2 and d xz (2) d yz and d z 2
z
11. Electrolysis can be used to determine atomic
(3) d xz and d yz (4) d x 2  y2 and d xy
masses. A current of 0.550 A deposits 0.55 g of a
certain metal in 100 minutes. Calculate the atomic
mass of the metal if eq. mass = mol. mass/3. 19. Which of the following is the strongest base?
(1) 100 (2) 45.0 (1) AsH3 (2) SbH3
(3) 48.25 (4) 144.75 (3) PH3 (4) NH3

12. When acetaldehyde is heated with Fehling’s reagent, 20. Which one of the following does not exist?
it gives a red precipitate of; (1) XeOF4
(1) Cu (2) CuO (2) NeF2
(3) CuSO4 (4) Cu2O
(3) XeF2
13. Statement I: In presence of DMSO, the rate of SN2 (4) XeF6
reaction increases.
Statement II: DMSO is a polar protic solvent. 21. Which of the following does not react with oxygen
(1) Statement I and statement II both are correct. directly?
(2) Statement I and statement II both are (1) Zn
incorrect. (2) Ti
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false. (3) Pt
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true. (4) Fe

14. Sucrose is made up of; 22. Bleaching properties of bleaching powder are due
(1) D-glucose + L-fructose to its:
(2) D-glucose + D-fructose (1) oxidizing properties
(3) D-fructose + L-glucose (2) reducing properties
(4) L-fructose + L-glucose (3) basic properties
(4) disinfecting properties
15. Thermally most stable compound is;
(1) HClO4 (2) HClO3 23. Assertion (A): The valency and oxidation number
(3) HOCl (4) HClO2 of sulphur in S8 respectively are 2 and 0.
Reason (R): S8 rhombic is the most stable
16. Assertion (A): Formic acid is the strongest mono
allotropic form of sulphur.
carboxylic acid.
(1) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are true
Reason (R): Trifluoroacetic acid is weaker than and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
formic acid. Assertion (A).
(1) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are true (2) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are true
and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation
Assertion (A). of Assertion (A).
(2) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are true (3) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation (4) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are false.
of Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are false.
24. Match the following: 31. When benzyl alcohol is treated with thionyl chloride,
Column-I Column-II the product formed is;
(A) Ethyl amine (I) 3° amine
(B) Dimethyl amine (II) 1° amine
(C) Triethyl amine (III) 2° amine
(D) Benzyl amine (IV) Aryl amine
A B C D
(1) (II) (I) (IV) (III) (1) (2)
(2) (II) (IV) (I) (III)
(3) (II) (III) (I) (II)
(4) (IV) (III) (II) (I)

25. Which among the following is not diamagnetic?

(1) Cu2+ (2) Zn2+
+
(3) Ag (4) Cd2+
(3) (4)
26. K2Cr2O7 on heating gives;
(1) Cr2O3
(2) K2CrO4 32. Total number of optically active isomers of 2, 3-
(3) O2 Dibromobutane will be;
(4) All of these (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 1
27. Match the following:
Column-I Column-II 33. Consider the following reactions:
(A) Chloroethene (I) Aryl halide
(B) Benzyl chloride (II) Benzylic halide
(C) Chlorobenzene (III) Alkyl halide
(D) Chloroethane (IV) Vinylic halide
A B C D
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) Products A and B respectively are:
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (1)

28. Stephen’s reduction will covert CH3CH2CN to;

(1) EtOH (2)
(2) EtCHO
(3) MeCHO
(4) MeCOMe (3)

29. Which of the oxide is neutral? (4)

(1) CO (2) SnO2
(3) ZnO (4) SiO2
34. Most suitable reagent for following conversion is
30. Zr and Hf have almost equal atomic and ionic radii R – OH  R – Cl
because; (1) Anhyd. ZnCl2 + HCl
(1) of diagonal relationship (2) PCl5
(2) of lanthanide contraction (3) SOCl2
(3) of actinide contraction (4) NaCl
(4) both belong to same transition series
35. Benzylidene chloride is; 41. The correct increasing order of basic strength for
(1) C6H5CH2Cl the following compounds is;
(2) C6 H5  CH  CH
|
Cl
(3) C6H5CHCl2
(4) C6H5CCl3

SECTION-B (1) III < I < II (2) III < II < I

36. Rosenmund’s reduction is used for the preparation (3) II < I < III (4) II < III < I
of;
(1) Ketone 42. During denaturation of protein, the structure which
(2) Aldehyde does not get affected is?
(3) Carboxylic acid (1) Primary (2) Secondary
(4) Alcohol
(3) Tertiary (4) Quaternary
37. Which is incorrectly matched?
43. Which of the following is a reducing sugar?
(1) [Ni(CO)4] : sp3
(2) [Cr(NH3)6] 3+
: d2sp3 (1) Maltose (2) Sucrose
(3) [Fe(CN)6] 4–
: d2sp3 (3) Starch (4) Cellulose
2+
(4) [Cu(NH3)4] : sp3
44. The boiling point of 0.1 m KCl solution in water
38. CFSE values of [Fe(CN)6]3– and [Fe(H2O)6]3+ respectively having ebullioscopic constant (Kb) of 0.51 K kg
are; mol–1 is;
(1) 0 and 20 Dq (1) 100.102°C (2) 99.49°C
(2) –2 Dq and 0
(3) 100.051°C (4) 99.949°C
(3) –20 Dq and –20 Dq
(4) 0 and 0
45. Consider a first order gas phase reaction A(g) 
39. In Reimer-Tiemann reaction when phenol is treated B(g) + C(g). If 10 atm is the initial pressure of A and
with chloroform in presence of NaOH, which of the 12 atm is the total pressure after 20 minutes, then
following species act as reaction intermediate? rate constant of this reaction is equal to;
2.303  20 
(1) log  
12  10 
(1) :CCl2 (2)
2.303  12 
(2) log  
20  10 
(3) (4) Both (1) and (2)
2.303  20 
(3) log  
10  12 
2.303  10 
40. In a set of reaction, propanoic acid yielded (4) log  
compound (D): 20 8
SOCl NH
CH3CH 2 COOH (A) 2
 (B) 
3
 (C) 46. Which of the following is water-soluble?
KOH
  (D) (1) Vitamin E (2) Vitamin K
Br2
(3) Vitamin A (4) Vitamin B
The formula of compound (D) is:
(1) CH3CH2CH2NH2 47. The reagent used to convert acetamide into methyl
(2) CH3CH2CONH2 amine is;
(3) CH3CH2NHCH3 (1) NaOH / Br2 (2) Soda lime
(4) CH3CH2NH2 (3) Hot conc. H2SO4 (4) PCl5
48. The change in optical rotation of a freshly prepared 50. Consider the following complexes:
solution of glucose with time is called ______. [Co(NH3)6]Cl3, [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+,
(1) Specific rotation (2) Optical inversion
[Ni(CO)4], [Cr(H2O)6]3+,
(3) Mutarotation (4) Racemization [Pt(NH3)2Cl(NO2)], [Co(H2O)2Cl2(py)],
[Ni(en)3]2+, [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
49. The absolute configuration of the following The total number of homoleptic complexes is;
compound is;
(1) 4
HOOC COOH
(2) 6
HO (3) 8
OH
H H (4) 5
(1) R, R (2) S, S
(3) S, R (4) R, S
 Sample Paper- 02 Class 12th NEET (2024)

BOTANY

SECTION-A 8. How many types of gametes are possible form the

1. In which of the following sets of families, the product obtained in the cross ABcDE × AbcdE?
pollen grains are viable for months? (1) 32 (2) 16
(1) Solanaceae, Poaceae and Liliaceae (3) 4 (4) 8
(2) Brassicaceae, Liliaceae and Poaceae
(3) Rosaceae, Liliaceae and Poaceae 9. In a medicolegal case of accidental interchange
(4) Leguminosae, Solanaceae and Rosaceae between two babies in a hospital, the baby of blood
group A could not be rightly given to a people;
2. What is the function of tassels in the corn cob? (1) With both husband and wife of group O.
(1) To trap pollen grains (2) Husband of group O and wife of group A.
(2) To disperse pollen grains (3) Husband of group A and wife of group O.
(3) To protect seeds (4) Both husband and wife of group A.
(4) To attract insects
10. If the kernel colour of wheat is determined by two
3. Pollen tablets are available in the market for; polygenes, then the number of phenotypes possible
(1) Ex situ conservation. is;
(2) In vitro fertilisation. (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) Breeding programmes. (3) 4 (4) 5
(4) Supplementing food.
11. Non-albuminous seed is produced in;
4. Unisexuality of flower prevents; (1) maize
(1) Geitonogamy, but not xenogamy. (2) castor
(2) Autogamy, but not geitonogamy. (3) wheat
(3) Both autogamy and geitonogamy. (4) pea.
(4) Both geitonogamy and xenogamy.
12. Father’s blood group is A and his son has O group.
5. Dichogamy which helps in cross-pollination is a Which of the blood groups cannot be present in
floral mechanism in which? mother?
(1) Pollen sac and stigma are at different heights. (1) A (2) B
(2) Anther and stigma mature at different times. (3) O (4) AB
(3) Structure of pollen sac and stigma functions as
hurdles. 13. A man with blood group A marries a woman having
(4) Pollen grain is unable to germinate on the blood group AB. Which of the following types in the
stigma of the same flower. progeny of this couple would show that the man is
heterozygous?
6. Maximum height of a plant species is 60 cm and (1) Type O (2) Type A
minimum height is 20 cm. What is the height of a (3) Type B (4) All of these
plant with genotype AaBB?
(1) 30 (2) 40 14. Which of the following enzymes if present in a
(3) 50 (4) 80 medium would affect the transformation in bacteria?
(1) DNAase
7. What would be the sum of phenotypes and genotypes (2) RNAase
obtained from a trihybrid test cross? (3) Protease
(1) 35 (2) 8 (4) More than one option is correct
(3) 16 (4) 24
15. Which one of the following does not follow the 21. For the strand separation and stabilisation during
central dogma of molecular biology? DNA replication which of the following set of
(1) HIV (2) Pea enzyme and proteins are required?
(3) Mucor (4) Chlamydomonas (1) SSBP, gyrase and primase
(2) Topoisomerase, helicase and ligase
16. Calculate the length of DNA sample, if it had 240 (3) Gyrase, ligase and primase
bp; (4) Topoisomerase, helicase and SSBP
(1) 340 A (2) 816 A
(3) 1024 A (4) 120 A
22. Endosperm is formed during the double
fertilization by;
17. A DNA molecule in which both strands have
(1) two polar nuclei and one male gamete
radioactive thymidine is allowed to duplicate in an
environment containing non-radioactive (2) one polar nuclei and one male gamete
thymidine. What will be the exact number of DNA (3) ovum and male gamete
molecules that contains the radioactive thymidine (4) two polar nuclei and two male gametes.
after three duplications?
(1) One (2) Two 23. Assertion (A): Autogamy is pollination taking
(3) Four (4) Eight place or limited to the same flower
Reason (R): Xenogamy is pollination between two
18. How many amino acids will be coded by the mRNA flowers on different plants.
sequence 5’ –CCCUCAUAGUCAUAC–3’, if one (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
adenosine residue is inserted after every 12th true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
nucleotide? of Assertion (A).
(1) Five amino acids (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
(2) Six amino acids
true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
(3) Two amino acids
explanation of Assertion (A).
(4) Three amino acids
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.
19. Escherichia coli cells were grown for many
generations in 15NH4Cl as sole nitrogen source.
Subsequently, these cells were grown exactly for 24. A pleiotropic gene;
four generations in medium containing 15NH4Cl. (1) is a gene evolved during Pliocene
The DNA from these cells were isolated and (2) is expressed only in primitive plants
separated. If 15N/15N represents the two strands of (3) Controls multiple traits in an individual
DNA where both strands have heavy nitrogen; (4) controls a trait only in combination with
15
N/14N as intermediate DNA; and 14N/14N as DNA anther gene
containing light nitrogen, the ratios for heavy : light
DNA, respectively would be; 25. Assertion (A): One codon may code for more than
(1) 1 : 0 : 7 (2) 1 : 1 : 6 one amino acid.
(3) 0 : 1 : 7 (4) 0 : 8 : 0 Reason (R): A codon is degenerate and ambiguous.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
20. If E. coil containing 14N bases was allowed to grow
true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
for 60 minutes in a medium 15N containing
of Assertion (A).
nitrogenous bases, then what would be the
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
proportions of light and hybrid densities DNA
true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
molecule?
(1) 2 light : 6 hybrid explanation of Assertion (A).
(2) 2 light : 2 hybrid (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
(3) 6 light : 2 hybrid (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.
(4) All light : No hybrid
26. Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched? 31. Conversion of sugar into alcohol during
(1) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles fermentation is due to the direct action of ;
(2) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance (1) temperature.
(3) XO type sex determination: Grasshopper (2) microorganisms.
(4) T.H. Morgan : Linkage (3) zymase.
(4) concentration of sugar solution.
27. Which one is the incorrect statement with regards
to the importance of pedigree analysis? 32. Roquefort cheese is ripened by growing a specific
(1) It confirms that DNA is the carrier of genetic fungus on it which gives it a particular__________
information (1) texture (2) large hole
(3) It helps to trace the inheritance of a specific (3) flavour (4) colour
trait
(3) It confirms that the trait is linked to one of the 33. In a cross between AABB × aabb, the ratio of F2
autosome genotypes between AABB, AaBB, Aabb and aabb
(4) It helps to understand whether the trait in would be:
question is dominant or recessive (1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 : 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 2 : 2 : 1 (4) 7 : 5 : 3 : 1
28. Statement I: In prokaryotes, the positively charged
DNA is held with some negatively charged 34. A population rows rapidly at first and then levels
proteins in a region called nucleoid. off as carrying capacity of it is;
Statement II: In eukaryotes, the negatively (1) Limited by density dependent factors.
charged DNA is wrapped around the positively (2) Limited by density independent factors.
charged histone octamer to form nucleosome. (3) Affected by an opportunistic species.
In the light of the above statements, choose the (4) Relatively unaffected by limiting factors.
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. 35. Which form of RNA has a structure resembling
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false. clover leaf?
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (1) rRNA
true. (2) hnRNA
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. (3) mRNA
(4) tRNA
29. The one aspect which is not a salient feature of
genetic code, is its being? SECTION-B
(1) Specific (2) Degenerate 36. Population size in any given habitat is also known
(3) Ambiguous (4) Universal as _____.
(1) Population cluster
30. Select the two correct statements out of the four (a- (2) Population explosion
d) statements given below about lac operon. (3) Population abundance
(a) Glucose or galactose may bind with the (4) Population density
repressor and inactivate it
(b) In the absence of lactose the repressor binds 37. Read the following statement having two blanks
with the operator region (A and B).
(c) The z-gene codes for permease A drug used for .....A... patients is obtained from a
(d) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and species of the organism ....B....
Jacque Monod (1) A = heart, B = Penicillium
The correct statements are: (2) A = organ-transplant, B = Trichoderma
(1) (b) and (d) (2) (a) and (b) (3) A = swine flu, B = Monascus
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (c) (4) A = AIDS, B = Pseudomonas.
.
38. Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a; 45. Loss of biodiversity in a region may lead to;
(1) physical process (1) Decline in plants production.
(2) mechanical process (2) Lowered resistance to environmental
(3) chemical process perturbations such as draught.
(4) biological process (3) Increase variability in certain ecosystem
process such as plant productivity, water use,
39. Pyramid of numbers is; and pest and disease cycle.
(1) Always upright. (4) All of these.
(2) Always inverted.
(3) Either upright or inverted. 46. Gause’s principle of competitive exclusion states
(4) Neither upright nor inverted. that;
(1) no two species can occupy the same niche
40. Approximately how much of the solar energy that indefinitely for the same limiting resources
falls on the leaves of a plant is converted to chemical (2) larger organisms exclude smaller ones
energy by photosynthesis? through competition
(1) Less than 1% (3) more abundant species will exclude the less
(2) 2–10 % abundant species through competition
(3) 30 % (4) competition for the same resources exclude
(4) 50 % species having different food preferences.

41. When we conserve and protect the whole ecosystem, 47. Assertion (A): The decomposition rate of lignin
its biodiversity at all levels is protected. This and chitin is slow in colder climates.
approach includes all of the following, except; Reason (R): The rate of decomposition is
(1) Biosphere reserves. controlled by chemical and climatic factors.
(2) Seed bank. (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
(3) National parks. true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
(4) Sanctuaries. of Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
42. Since the origin and diversification of life on earth, true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
how many episodes of mass extinction of species explanation of Assertion (A).
have occurred till date? (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
(1) 2
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.
(2) 3
(3) 4
48. Decline in the population of indian native fishes
(4) 5
due to introduction of Clarias gariepinus in river
Yamuna can be categoriesd as;
43. Arrange the following in the decreasing order of
(1) co-extinction
their species diversity:
(2) habitat fragmentation
Fishes, Birds, Reptiles, Amphibian
(3) over-exploitation
(1) Fishes > Birds > Reptiles > Amphibian
(4) alien species invasion.
(2) Fishes > Reptiles > Birds > Amphibian
(3) Reptiles > Fishes > Birds > Amphibian
49. An ecosystem which can be easily damaged but can
(4) Amphibian > Fishes > Birds > Reptiles
recover after some time if damaging effect stops
will be having;
44. For frugivorous (fruit eating) birds and mammals
(1) low stability and high resilience
in the tropical forests of different continents, the
(2) high stability and low resilience
slope of species area relationship is found to be
(3) low stability and low resilience
approximately;
(4) high stability and high resilience.
(1) 0.6 (2) (1)3
(3) (1)15 (4) 1
50. Farmers have reported over 50% higher yields of
rice by using which of the following biofertilizers?
(1) Cyanobacteria
(2) Legume-Rhizobium symbiosis
(3) Mycorrhiza .
(4) Azolla pinnata
Sample Paper-02 Class 12th NEET (2024)

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 5. Which of the following hormones is not a
1. Choose the correct combination of the labelling secretion product of human placenta?
for the following structure. (1) Human chorionic gonadotropin
(b) (2) Vasopressin
(c) (3) Estrogen
(4) Progesterone
(d)
6. The earliest sign of pregnancy is;
(a)
(1) Profuse menstrual bleeding
(2) Premature degeneration of corpus luteum
(3) Production of progesterone and estradiol
(1) (a) – Oviduct; (b) – Uterus; (c) – Cervix; (d)
(4) Absence of menstrual bleeding
– Ovary
(2) (a) – Cervix; (b) – Uterus; (c) – Ovary; (d) –
7. Population of India is increasing due to;
Tumour
(1) Increase in infant mortality rate
(3) (a) – Uterus; (b) – Uterine cavity; (c) –
(2) Increase in number of people reaching
Cervix; (d) – Ovary
reproductive age
(4) (a) – Cervix; (b) – Uterine cavity; (c) –
(3) Increase in death rate
Fallopian tube; (d) – Ovary
(4) Increase in maternal mortality rate
2. Which of the following options is correct?
8. Progestogen or progestogen-estrogen combination
Haploid Diploid
pill helps in preventing pregnancy by not
(1) Secondary Primary spermatocyte
allowing;
oocyte
(1) Ovulation
(2) Secondary Secondary oocyte
(2) Fertilisation
Spermatocyte
(3) Implantation
(3) Primary oocyte Secondary
(4) Both (1) and (3)
Spermatocyte
(4) Ovum Spermatid 9. STDs lead to;
(1) Itching, fluid discharge, slight pain, swellings
3. In the event of pregnancy, the corpus luteum etc.
persists under the influence of; (2) Pelvic inflammatory diseases (PID), ectopic
(1) LH pregnancies, still births, infertility, abortions, etc.
(2) FSH (3) Both (1) and (2)
(3) chorionic gonadotropin (4) None of these
(4) progesterone
10. In lactational amenorrhoea, there is no ovulation
4. Signals from fully developed foetus and placenta or menstruation during the period of intense
ultimately lead to parturition which requires the lactation following parturition, due to high level
release of; of prolactin, which;
(1) estrogen from placenta (1) inhibits the release of gonadotropins.
(2) oxytocin from maternal pituitary (2) inhibits the release of androgen.
(3) oxytocin from foetal pituitary (3) stimulates the level of estrogen.
(4) relaxin from Leydig cells (4) stimulates the release of androgen
11. Which of the following is the unit of evolution? 17. Common symptoms of amoebiasis are;
(1) Cell (2) Individual (1) Constipation, stool with blood clots
(3) Population (4) Species (2) Abdominal pain and cramp
(3) Weakness
12. The correct sequence of the substances appeared
during the course of origin of life on earth was; (4) All of these
(1) Glucose, amino acids, nucleic acids and
proteins 18. The main reason why antibiotics could not solve
(2) Ammonia, amino acids, proteins and nucleic all the problems of bacteria mediated disease is?
acids (1) Decreased efficiency of the immune system.
(3) Nucleotides, amino acids, nucleic acids and (2) Insensitivity of the individual following
enzymes
prolonged exposure to antibiotics.
(4) Amino acids, ammonia, phosphates and
nucleic acids (3) Development of mutant strains resistant to
antibiotics.
13. Which of the following is a set of homologous (4) Inactivation of antibiotics by bacterial
organs? enzymes.
(1) Wings of grasshopper and flippers of whale
(2) Wings of birds and front feet of horse 19. Each antibody has (a) polypeptide chains, (b)
(3) Wings of housefly and wings of birds
small chains called (c) chains and (d) longer
(4) All of these
chains called (e) chains.
14. Equation of Hardy–Weinberg is depicted as; The antibody, therefore, is represented as (f).
(1) p2 + 2pq + q2 = 0 (2) p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 (1) (a) – four; (b) – two; (c) – light; (d) – two;
(3) p + 2pq + q = 0 (4) p + 2pq + q = 1 (e) – heavy; (f) – H2L2
(2) (a) – six; (b) – three; (c) – light; (d) – three;
15. Evolution of birds occurred in;
(e) – heavy; (f) – H2L2
(1) Devonian periods
(2) Silurian periods (3) (a) – two; (b) – one; (c) – light; (d) – one; (e)
(3) Carboniferous periods – heavy; (f) – H2L2
(4) Jurassic period (4) (a) – five; (b) – two; (c) – light; (d) – three;
(e) – heavy; (f) – H2L2
16. Match the following concepts of evolution in
List-I with List-II and select the correct option. 20. AIDS is majorly detected by:
List-I List-II
(1) Widal (2) ELISA
(A) Mutation (I) Changes in (3) CBC (4) MRI
population’s allele
frequencies due to 21. _____ is a very effective painkiller and sedative
chance alone used for patients who have undergone surgery.
(B) Gene flow (II) Difference in survival (1) Paracetamol (2) Morphine
and reproduction (3) LSD (4) Barbiturate
among variant
individuals 22. What is a tumour-inducing plasmid widely used in
(C) Natural (III) Immigration, producing transgenic plants?
selection emigration change (1) Escherichia coli
allele frequencies (2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(D) Genetic (IV) Source of new alleles (3) Pneumococcus
drift (4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(1) (A) – (I); (B) – (II); (C) – (III); (D) – (IV) 23. How many DNA molecules are formed from a
(2) (A) – (IV); (B) – (II); (C) – (III); (D) – (I)
DNA template molecule after 4 PCR cycles?
(3) (A) – (III); (B) – (I); (C) – (IV); (D) – (II)
(4) (A) – (IV); (B) – (III); (C) – (II); (D) – (I) (1) 4 (2) 32
(3) 16 (4) 8
24. Which of the following are the most distantly
related to one another?
(1) Sunfish and dolphins
(2) Tree frogs and snakes
(3) Vampire bats and birds
(4) Bears and whales
25. Construction of first rDNA by linking a gene
encoding antibiotic resistance gene with native
plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium was done by:
(1) Smith and Wilson
(2) Sanger and Hardy
(3) Cohen and Boyer
(4) Arber and Nathan
26. Given below are two statements.
Statement I: RNA mutates at a faster rate.
Statement II: Viruses having RNA genome and
shorter life span mutate and evolve faster.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
27. Which of the following features cannot be
associated with Ti-plasmid of Agrobacterium
tumefaciens which is modified into a cloning
vector?
(1) Deliver genes of our interest into a variety of
plants
(2) Transfer a piece of T-DNA into the plant
cells
(3) Pathogenic to the plants
(4) A natural genetic engineer
28. Manipulation in gene has been made possible
because of the;
(1) Discovery of restriction endonuclease
(2) Development of method for production of
rDNA
(3) Development of method for production of the
desired gene
(4) All of these
29. Which of the following steps are catalysed by Taq
polymerase in a PCR reaction?
(1) Denaturation of template DNA
(2) Annealing of primers to template DNA
(3) Extension of primer end on the template
DNA
(4) All of these
30. Protein encoded gene cryIAb controls;
(1) Cotton bollworm (2) Beetles
(3) Corn borer (4) Flies.
31. Statement I: The bulbourethral gland is a male
accessory gland.
Statement II: Its secretion helps in the lubrication
of the penis, thereby facilitating reproduction.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect.
(4) Both Statement I and statement II are
incorrect.
32. Statement I: Each seminiferous tubule is lined on
its inside by three types of cells.
Statement II: These cells are male germ cells,
sertoli cells and leydig cells.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are
incorrect.
33. The use of bioresources by multinational
companies and other organisations, without proper
authorisation from the countries and people
concerned without compensatory payment, is
called
(1) Bioethics (2) Biopiracy
(3) Bioterror (4) Bioweapon
34. Which of the following statements is true about
diseases and immunisation?
(1) If due to some reason, B-and T-lymphocytes
are damaged, the body will not produce
antibodies against a pathogen.
(2) Injection of dead / inactivated pathogens
causes passive immunity.
(3) Certain protozoans have been used to mass
production of hepatitis - B vaccine.
(4) Injection of snake antivenom against snake
bite is an example of active immunisation.
35. Assertion (A): Size of thymus increases with the
advancement of age.
Reason (R): Thymosin secretion has no role in
immunity.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the
reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
SECTION-B
36. Vasa efferentia connects;
(1) Testes and epididymis
(2) Kidney and urinary bladder
(3) Testes and ureter
(4) Seminiferous tubules and testicular lobules
37. Which of the following events occurs at the same
time when menstruation is beginning?
(1) The levels of LH and FSH are spiking.
(2) The levels of estrogen and progesterone in
the ovarian hormone cycle are on the rise.
(3) The corpus luteum is degenerating.
(4) Ovulation is occurring.
38. Primary sex organs differ from the secondary sex
organs in all the following, except:
(1) They produce gametes
(2) They secrete sex hormones
(3) They are concerned with the conduction of
gametes
(4) Testes in male and ovaries in female are the
examples of primary sex organs
39. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct
option.
List-I List-II
40. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Amniocentesis for sex
determination is one of the strategies of
Reproductive and child health care programme.
Reason (R): Ban on amniocentesis checks
increasing menace of female foeticide.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
41. According to Lamarckism, long-necked giraffes
evolved because;
(1) nature selected only long-necked ones.
(2) humans preferred only long-necked ones.
(3) short necks suddenly changed into long
necks.
(4) of stretching of necks over many generations
by short necked ones.
42. Read the following three statements (a) – (c) and
mark the correct option.
(a) The thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils in
cucurbita represent divergent evolution.
(b) The similarity in the eyes of octopus and
monkeys is the result of convergent
evolution.
(c) The potato and sweet potato are the examples
of homology.
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (c) (4) All of these

(A) Pill (I) Phagocytosis of

43. Founder effect is due to;
sperms
(1) Genetic drift
(B) Condom (II) Prevent ovulation (2) Isolation
(C) Vasectomy (III) Prevent sperms from (3) Gene pool
reaching cervix (4) Gene flow

(D) IUD (IV) Semen contains no 44. A person without thymus would not be able to;
sperms (1) Reject a tissue transplant
(1) (A) – (II); (B) – (III); (C) – (IV); (D) – (I) (2) Receive a tissue transplant
(2) (A) – (I); (B) – (II); (C) – (IV); (D) – (III) (3) Develop an inflammatory response
(3) (A) – (IV); (B) – (III); (C) – (II); (D) – (I) (4) Produce antibodies
(4) (A) – (III); (B) – (IV); (C) – (III); (D) – (II)
45. Which of the following statements is correct? 48. Select the correct option describing gonadotropin
(1) Malignant tumors may exhibit metastasis. activity in a normal pregnant female.
(2) Patients who have undergone surgery are (1) High level of FSH and SH stimulates the
given cannabinoids to relieve pain. thickening of endometrium.
(3) Benign tumors show metastasis. (2) High level of FSH and SH facilitates
(4) Caffeine acts as sedative. implantation of the embryo.
(3) High level of hCG stimulates the synthesis of
46. Identify the true statements. estrogen and progesterone.
(a) Abstinence from drugs of dependence causes (4) High level of hCG stimulates the thickening
withdrawal symptoms. of endometrium.
(b) Chikungunya is confirmed by Widal test.
(c) Rheumatoid arthritis which affects many 49. Which is not true with respect to transgenic
people in our society is an autoimmune animals and their contribution to human welfare?
disease. (1) Transgenic mice are being tested to ensure
(d) AIDS was first reported in 1981 and is safety of polio vaccine.
caused by a member of a group of viruses (2) Rosie’s milk contained human gene-insulin.
called retroviruses. (3) Transgenic cows produce milk with less fat.
(e) Malignant tumours shows the property of (4) Transgenic sheep grow more wool.
metastasis.
(f) Cocaine is a powerful stimulant. 50. Assertion (A): In gel electrophoresis, "the larger
(1) (a), (b) and (e) the fragment size, the farther it moves".
(2) (a), (c), (d), (e) and (f) Reason (R): The separation and ligation of DNA
(3) (c), (e) and (f) segments by cutting out the gel is known as
(4) (c), (d) and (e) elution.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
47. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct reason is a correct explanation of the
option. assertion.
List-I List-II (2) Both assertion and reason are true but the
(A) Bt cotton (I) Gene therapy reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(B) ADA (II) Cellular defence
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(C) RNAi (III) Detection of HIV (4) Both assertion and reason are false
infection
(D) PCR (IV) Bacillus thuringiensis
(1) (A) – (III); (B) – (II); (C) – (I); (D) – (IV)
(2) (A) – (IV); (B) – (III); (C) – (II); (D) – (I)
(3) (A) – (I); (B) – (II); (C) – (III); (D) – (IV)
(4) (A) – (IV); (B) – (I); (C) – (II); (D) – (III)