0% found this document useful (0 votes)
77 views6 pages

CH 11

The document is a solved paper for the NEET 2013 exam, detailing the structure and rules of the test, which lasts 3 hours and consists of 180 questions with a total of 720 marks. It includes various physics questions with multiple-choice answers, covering topics such as projectile motion, forces, energy, and thermodynamics. Additionally, it outlines the scoring system, penalties for incorrect answers, and regulations regarding conduct during the examination.

Uploaded by

reeturaj378
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
77 views6 pages

CH 11

The document is a solved paper for the NEET 2013 exam, detailing the structure and rules of the test, which lasts 3 hours and consists of 180 questions with a total of 720 marks. It includes various physics questions with multiple-choice answers, covering topics such as projectile motion, forces, energy, and thermodynamics. Additionally, it outlines the scoring system, penalties for incorrect answers, and regulations regarding conduct during the examination.

Uploaded by

reeturaj378
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

Solved Paper 2013 | 1

NEET
National Eligibility cum Entrance Test
All India Pre Medical Test
Solved Paper 2013
Time : 3 Hrs M.Marks : 720
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries 4 marks. For
Instructions

each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be
deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
2. No candidate, without special permission of the superintendent or invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
3. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
4. The candidates are governed by all rules and regulations of the board with regard to their conduct in the
examination hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per rules and regulations of the board.

Physics
1. In an experiment four quantities 3. A stone falls freely under gravity. It
a, b, c and d are measured with covers distances h1 , h2 and h3 in the
percentage error 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% first 5 seconds, the next 5 seconds and
respectively. Quantity P is calculated the next 5 seconds respectively. The
as follows relation between h1 , h2 and h3 is
a 3 b2 (a) h1 = 2 h2 = 3 h3
P= %, Error in P is h h
cd (b) h1 = 2 = 3
3 5
(a) 14%
(c) h2 = 3 h1 and h3 = 3 h2
(b) 10%
(d) h1 = h2 = h3
(c) 7%
(d) 4% 4. Three blocks with masses F v
m, 2m and 3m are connected m
2. The velocity of a projectile at the
by strings, as shown in the
initial point A is (2i + 3 j) m/s. Its figure. After an upward force F 2m
velocity (in m/s) at point B is is applied on block m, the
Y masses move upward at 3 m
constant speed v. What is the
net force on the block of mass
2m ?
A B
X
( g is the acceleration due to gravity)
(a) − 2i − 3j (a) Zero
(b) − 2i + 3j (b) 2 mg
(c) 2i − 3j (c) 3 mg
(d) 2i + 3j (d) 6 mg
2 | NEET (National Eligibility cum Entrance Test)
5. The upper half of an inclined plane of 9. A small object of uniform density rolls
inclination θ is perfectly smooth while up a curved surface with an initial
lower half is rough. A block starting velocity v ′. It reaches up to a maximum
from rest at the top of the plane will 3v2
again come to rest at the bottom, if the height of with respect to the
4g
coefficient of friction between the block
initial position. The object is
and lower half of the plane is given by
1 2 (a) ring
(a) µ = (b) µ = (b) solid sphere
tan θ tan θ
(c) hollow sphere
(c) µ = 2 tan θ (d) µ = tan θ
(d) disc
6. A uniform force of (3i + j) N acts on a
10. A body of mass m taken from the
particle of mass 2 kg. Hence the
earth’s surface to the height equal to
particle is displaced from position
twice the radius ( R) of the earth. The
(2i + k) m to position ( 4 i + 3 j − k) m.
change is potential energy of body
The work done by the force on the
will be
particle is
2
(a) 9 J (b) 6 J (a) mg2 R (b) mgR
3
(c) 13 J (d) 15 J 1
(c) 3 mgR (d) mgR
7. An explosion breaks a rock into three 3
parts in a horizontal plane. Two of 11. Infinite number of bodies, each of mass
them go off at right angles to each 2 kg are situated on x-axis at distance
other. The first part of mass 1 kg 1m, 2 m, 4 m, 8 m, respectively from the
moves with a speed of 12 ms −1 and the origin. The resulting gravitational
second part of mass 2 kg moves with potential due to this system at the origin
8 ms −1 speed. If the third part flies off will be
with 4 ms −1 speed, then its mass is
8
(a) 3 kg (b) 5 kg (a) − G (b) − G
3
(c) 7 kg (d) 17 kg 4
(c) − G (d) − 4G
8. A rod PQ of mass M and length L is 3
hinged at end P. The rod is kepts 12. The following four wires are made of
horizontal by a massless string tied to the same material. Which of these will
point Q as shown in figure. When have the largest extension when the
string is cut, the initial angular same tension is applied?
acceleration of the rod is
(a) Length = 50 cm, diameter = 0.5 mm
(b) Length = 100 cm, diameter = 1 mm
(c) Length = 200 cm, diameter = 2 mm
(d) Length = 300 cm, diameter = 3 mm

13. The wettability of a surface by a liquid


P
L
Q depends primarily on
(a) viscosity
3g g (b) surface tension
(a) (b)
2L L (c) density
2g 2g (d) angle of contact between the surface and
(c) (d)
L 3L the liquid
Solved Paper 2013 | 3

14. The molar specific heats of an ideal 18. In the given (V-T ) diagram, what is the
gas at constant pressure and volume relation between pressures p1 and p2 ?
are denoted by C p and CV respectively. V
Cp
If γ = and R is the universal gas p2
CV
constant, then CV is equal to p1

1+ γ R θ2
(a) (b)
1− γ (γ − 1) θ1
T
(γ − 1)
(c) (d) γR (a) p2 = p1
R
(b) p2 > p1
15. A piece of iron is heated in a flame. If (c) p2 < p1
first becomes dull red then becomes (d) Cannot be predicted
reddish yellow and finally turns to
white hot. The correct explanation for 19. The amount of heat energy required to
the above observation is possible by raise the temperature of 1 g of helium
using at NTP, from T1K to T2 K is
(a) Stefan’s law 3 3
(a) Na K B (T2 − T1 ) (b) Na K B (T2 − T1 )
(b) Wien’s displacement law 8 2
(c) Kirchoff’s law 3 3  T2 
(c) Na K B (T2 − T1 ) (d) Na K B  
(d) Newton’s law of cooling 4 4  T1 

16. A gas is taken through the cycle 20. A wave travelling in the positive
A → B → C → A, as shown. What is x-direction having displacement along
the net work done by the gas? y-direction as 1 m, wavelength 2π m and
1
p (105 Pa) frequency of Hz is represented by
π
7
6 B (a) y = sin ( x − 2t )
5 (b) y = sin (2 πx − 2 πt )
4 (c) y = sin (10 πx − 20 πt )
3
A (d) y = sin (2 πx + 2 πt )
2 C
1 21. If we study the vibration of a pipe open
0 V (10–3 m3) at both ends, then the following
2 4 6 8
statements is not true
(a) 2000 J
(a) Open end will be anti-node
(b) 1000 J
(b) Odd harmonics of the fundamental
(c) Zero
frequency will be generated
(d) − 2000 J
(c) All harmonics of the fundamental frequency
17. During an adiabatic process, the will be generated
pressure of a gas is found to be (d) Pressure change will be maximum at both
proportional to the cube of its ends
Cp
temperature. The ratio of for the 22. A source of unknown frequency gives
Cv 4 beats/s when sounded with a source
gas is of known frequency 250 Hz. The
4 5 3 second harmonic of the source of
(a) (b) 2 (c) (d)
3 3 2 unknown frequency gives five beats
per second when sounded with a
4 | NEET (National Eligibility cum Entrance Test)
source of frequency 513 Hz. The 27. The resistances of the four arms P, Q, R
unknown frequency is and S in a Wheatstone’s bridge are
(a) 254 Hz (b) 246 Hz 10 Ω, 30 Ω, 30 Ω and 90 Ω, respectively.
(c) 240 Hz (d) 260 Hz The emf and internal resistance of the
cell are 7 V and 5 Ω respectively. If the
23. Two pith balls carrying equal charges galvanometer resistance is 50 Ω, the
are suspended from a common point by current drawn from the cell will be
strings of equal length, the equilibrium (a) 1.0 A (b) 0.2 A (c) 0.1 A (d) 2.0 A
separation between them is r. Now the
strings are rigidly clamped at half the 28. When a proton is released from rest in
height. The equilibrium separation a room, it starts with an initial
between the balls now become. acceleration a 0 towards west. When it
is projected towards north with a
speed v 0 it moves with an initial
acceleration 3 a 0 towards west. The
y electric and magnetic fields in the
room are
y/2 ma0 2 ma0
(a) west, up
r r e ev0
2 ma0 2 ma0
 1  r  (b) west, down
(a)   (b)  3  e ev0
 2  2
ma0 3ma0
 2r   2r  (c) east, up
(c)   (d)   e ev0
 3  3
ma0 3ma0
(d) east, down
24. A, B and C are three points in a e ev0
uniform electric field. The electric 29. A current loop in a magnetic field
potential is
(a) experiences a torque whether the field is
A uniform or non-uniform in all orientations
B
E (b) can be in equilibrium in one orientations
C (c) can be equilibrium in two orientations, both
the equilibrium states are unstable
(a) maximum at A (d) can be in equilibrium in two orientations,
(b) maximum at B one stable while the other is unstable
(c) maximum at C 30. A bar magnet of length l and magnetic
(d) same at all the three points A, B and C dipole moment M is bent in the form of
an arc as shown in figure. The new
25. A wire of resistance 4Ω is stretched to magnetic dipole moment will be
twice its original length. The
resistance of stretched wire would be
(a) 2 Ω (b) 4 Ω
(c) 8 Ω (d) 16 Ω
r r
26. The internal resistance of a 2.1 V cell
which gives a current of 0.2 A through 60°

a resistance of 10 Ω is
(a) 0.2 Ω (b) 0.5 Ω 3 2 M
(c) 0.8 Ω (d) 1.0 Ω (a) M (b) M (c) M (d)
π π 2
Solved Paper 2013 | 5

31. A wire loop is rotated in a magnetic 36. A certain mass of hydrogen is changed
field. The frequency of change of to helium by the process of fusion. The
direction of the induced emf is mass defect in fusion reaction is
(a) once per revolution 0.02866 u. The energy liberated per u
(b) twice per revolution is (given 1 u = 931 MeV)
(c) four times per revolution
(a) 2.67 MeV (b) 26.7 MeV
(d) six times per revolution
(c) 6.675 MeV (d) 13.35 MeV
32. A coil of self-inductance L is connected
in series with a bulb B and an AC 37. For photoelectric emission from certain
source. Brightness of the bulb metal the cut-off frequency is ν. If
decreases when radiation of frequency 2ν impinges on
(a) frequency of the AC source is decreased the metal plate, the maximum possible
(b) number of turns in the coil is reduced velocity of the emitted electron will be
(c) a capacitance of reactance XC = XL is (m is the electron mass)
included in the same circuit hν hν
(d) an iron rod is inserted in the coil (a) (b)
(2 m) m
33. The condition under which a 2hν hν
microwave oven heats up a food item (c) (d) 2
m m
containing water molecules most
efficiently is 38. The wavelength λ e of an electron and
(a) the frequency of the microwave must match λ p of a photon of same energy E are
the resonant frequency of the water related by
molecules
(a) λ p ∝ λ2e (b) λ p ∝ λ e
(b) the frequency of the microwave has no
relation with natural frequency of water 1
(c) λ p ∝ λ e (d) λ p ∝
molecules λe
(c) microwave are heat waves, so always
produce heating 39. A plano-convex lens fits exactly into a
(d) infrared waves produce heating in a plano-concave lens. Their plane
microwave oven surfaces are parallel to each other. If
34. Ratio of longest wavelengths lenses are made of different materials
corresponding to Lyman and Balmer of refractive indices µ 1 and µ 2 and R is
series in hydrogen spectrum is the radius of curvature of the curved
5 3 surface of the lenses, then the focal
(a) (b)
27 23 length of the combination is
7 9 R R
(c) (d) (a) (b)
29 31 2( µ1 + µ 2 ) 2( µ1 − µ 2 )
35. The half-life of a radioactive isotope X (c)
R
(d)
2R
is 20 yr. It decays to another element Y ( µ1 − µ 2 ) ( µ 2 − µ1 )
which is stable. The two elements X
and Y were found to be in the ratio 1 : 7 40. For a normal eye, the cornea of eye
in a sample of a given rock. The age of provides a converging power of 40 D
the rock is estimated to be and the least converging power of the
(a) 40 yr (b) 60 yr eye lens behind the cornea is 20 D.
Using this information, the distance
(c) 80 yr (d) 100 yr
6 | NEET (National Eligibility cum Entrance Test)
between the retina and the cornea-eye 43. In a n-type semiconductor, which of the
lens can be estimated to be following statement is true?
(a) 5 cm (b) 2.5 cm (a) Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent
(c) 1.67 cm (d) 1.5 cm atoms are dopants
(b) Electrons are minority carriers and
41. In Young’s double slit experiment, the pentavalent atoms are dopants
slits are 2 mm apart and are
(c) Holes are minority carriers and pentavalentf
illuminated by photons of two
atoms are dopants
wavelengths λ 1 = 12000 Å and
λ 2 = 10000 Å. At what minimum (d) Holes are majority carriers and trivalent
distance from the common central atoms are dopants
bright fringe on the screen 2 m from 44. In a common emitter (CE) amplifier
the slit will a bright fringe from one having a voltage gain G, the transistor
interference pattern coincide with a used has transconductance 0.03 mho
bright fringe from the other? and current gain 25. If the above
(a) 8 mm (b) 6 mm transistor is replaced with another one
(c) 4 mm (d) 3 mm with transconductance 0.02 mho and
current gain 20, the voltage gain will
42. A parallel beam of fast moving 2
electrons is incident normally on a (a) G (b) 1.5 G
3
narrow slit. A fluorescent screen is 1 5
placed at a large distance from the slit. (c) G (d) G
3 4
If the speed of the electrons is
increased, then which of the following 45. The output ( X ) of the logic circuit
statements is correct? shown in figure will be
(a) Diffraction pattern is not observed on the
A
screen in the case of electrons X
B
(b) The angular width of the central maximum
of the diffraction pattern will increase
(a) X = A ⋅ B
(c) The angular width of the central maximum
will decrease (b) X = A ⋅ B
(d) The angular width of the central maximum (c) X = A ⋅ B
will be unaffected (d) X = A + B

You might also like