Syllabus of the Test

Physics Chemistry Mathematics

Full Syllabus Full Syllabus Full Syllabus

Important Instructions :
1. Fill in the particulars on OMR provided carefully with blue/black ball-point pen only.

2. The test is of 3 hours in duration and the Test Booklet contains 75 Questions.

3. Each Subject is divided in 2 Sections viz Section A and Section B as per the details given below:

Section A Section B
(Marking Scheme: Correct +4 , (Marking Scheme: Correct +4, Incorrect
Incorrect -1, Unanswered : 0) -1, Unanswered : 0)

Subject Question Type: MCQs Question Type: Numerical Value Marks

Total Qs To be Attempted Qs Total Qs To be Attempted Qs

Physics 20 20 5 5 100

Chemistry 20 20 5 5 100

Maths 20 20 5 5 100

Total 75 Question | 75 Questions to be attempted 300

3. Section A: It will have 20 questions in each Subject. The correct Option marked will be given (4) marks
and the Incorrect option marked will be minus one (-1) mark.
Section B: It will have 5 Numeric Type questions in each Subject. The correct Option marked will be
given (4) marks and the Incorrect option marked will be minus one (-1) mark.
4. Use a Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
5. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator before
leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
7. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test
Booklet/Answer Sheet.
8. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
9. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
10. Use of an Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
 FLT-1703-JEE-Main
Questions

PHY SEC 1
1. A satellite is revolving very close to a planet of density D. The
time period of revolution of that satellite is
(a) 3π
√
DG

(b) 3/2

(a) 1 mA
3π
( )
DG

(b) 2 mA
(c) 3π
√
2 DG
(c) 3 mA
(d) 3πG (d) 4 mA
√
D

5. A magnetic flux of 8 × 10–4 Wb is linked with each turn of a

2. A massless uniform rod is subjected to force F at its end as
coil having 200 turns when there is an electric current of 4A
shown in figure. If the value of tensile stress at plane P is
in it. The self inductance of coil is
(1/4)th of its maximum value in the rod, then value of θ as (a) 20 mH
shown in diagram, will be
(b) 35 mH
(c) 40 mH
(d) 30 mH

6. From a town P, buses start at regular interval of 20 s and run

towards town Q with a constant speed of 50 km/h. At some
point of time, all the buses simultaneously have to reduce
their speeds to 40 km/h for some reason. The time interval
between the arrivals of the buses at town Q now will be
(a) 22 s
(b) 23 s
(c) 24 s
(d) 25 s

7. From the top of a tower of height 20 m, two balls are

projected, one with speed 20 m/s at an angle of 30° with
horizontal in upward direction and second with speed 20
m/s at an angle of 30° with horizontal in downward
(a) 30° direction. Distance between the balls, when they land on the
(b) 90° ground is
(c) 37° (a) 20√3 m

(d) 60° (b) 20 m

(c) 40√3 m
3. A large numbers of liquid drops each of radius ‘r’ coalesce to (d) 40 m
form a single drop of radius ‘R’. Assume that the energy
released in the process is converted into the kinetic energy 8. In the given arrangement, if the lift is moving upwards with
of the big drop so formed. Then find speed of the big drop g
acceleration , then then force exerted by the string on
[T is surface tension of liquid and ρ is the density] 2

ceiling is
(a) T 1 1
√ ( − )
ρ r R

(b) 2T 1 1
√ ( − )
ρ r R

(c) 4T 1 1
√ ( − )
ρ r R

(d) 6T 1 1
√ ( − )
ρ r R

4. The current flowing through the Zener diode in the circuit

shown, is
 (a) 4mg
of the gas. The ratio of work done by the gas to the heat
supplied to it is
3

(b) 3mg
(a) 1

(c) 8mg
3

3
(b) 2

(d) 4mg 3

(c) 3

9. 64 drops of mercury each charged to a potential of 10 V. (d) 1

They are combined to form one bigger drop. The potential 2

of this drop will be (Assume all the drops to be spherical)

16. A circular hole of radius 1.00 cm in a brass sheet is kept at
(a) 160 V
293 K. When the sheet is heated to 120°C, the diameter of
(b) 80 V
hole (coefficient of linear expansion of brass = 2 × 10–5 (°C)–
(c) 10 V
1
)
(d) 640 V
(a) Increases by 0.004 cm
10. A charged particle (q, m) enters a magnetic field B with (b) Increases by 0.004 mm
velocity V at angle of 37° with the direction of field B. The (c) Decreases by 0.004 cm
pitch of resulting path followed by charged particle, is (d) Increases by 0.002 cm
(a) 8 πmV

5 qB
17. Five capacitors are connected in series having effective
(b) 4 πmV
capacitance of 8 µF. When one of the capacitors is removed,
3 qB

(c) 3πmV the effective capacitance becomes 12 µF. The removed

2qB capacitor has capacitance of
(d) 6πmV
(a) 16μF
5qB

(b) 8μF

11. A magnetic needle lying parallel to a magnetic field requires (c) 48μF

W units of work to turn through 60°. The external torque (d) 24μF

required to maintain the magnetic needle in this position is

(a) W
18. In the network shown, points A, B and C are at potentials of
√3
70V, zero and 10 V respectively. Then
(b) W √3

(c) 2W

√3

(d) W √3

12. A beam of fast moving electrons coming from an electron

gun is diffracted through a narrow aperture. The angular
width of central maxima would increase, if
(a) The screen is moved towards the aperture
(b) The aperture width is increased
(a) Point D is at a potential of 20V
(c) The number of electrons in the beam is increased
(b) The current in section AD, DB, DC are in the ratio 1 : 2 :
without changing the accelerating voltage in the gun
3
(d) Accelerating voltage in the gun is decreased
(c) The network draws a total power of 100 W
(d) The network draws a total power of 200W
13. Given atomic mass of 7Li = 7.0160 u and that of 4He = 4.0026
u, the amount of energy released in the reaction is (mass of
19. The full scale deflection current of a galvanometer is 1 mA
proton, mp = 1.0073 u)
and its coil has resistance of 100 Ω. The value of shunt
7Li +p→α+α required to increase the range to 5 A is
(a) 16.86 MeV (a) 0.5 Ω
(b) 56.8 MeV (b) 0.05 Ω
(c) 385.6 MeV (c) 0.2 Ω
(d) 192.8 MeV (d) 0.02 Ω

14. The average degree of freedom of molecules of an ideal gas 20. 3 cm thickness of ice in a lake forms in 18 hours then in
is 5. The gas performs 100 J of work when it expands at what time 2 cm of it was frozen?
constant pressure. The heat absorbed by the gas is (a) 2 hr
(a) 250 J (b) 12 hr
(b) 200 J (c) 8 hr
(c) 350 J (d) 10 hr
(d) 400 J

15. PHY SEC 2

An ideal monoatomic gas follows the process
U

2
=

V 3 21. Peak value of the alternating voltage V = 3 sinωt + 5 cosωt

constant, where U is the internal energy and V the volume
 volt is √N volt, value of N is _______. (c)

22. Two simple harmonic motions represents by

and y2 = 8cos2πt are super imposed
π
y1 = 6 sin (2πt + )
2

on a single particle. The resultant amplitude is ______ unit.

23. A pipe of length ℓ1 closed at one end is kept in a chamber of

gas of density ρ1. A second pipe open at both ends is placed
(d)
in a second chamber of gas density ρ2. The compressibility
of both gases are equal. If frequency of first overtone in
both the cases are equal and length of second pipe is given
by Nℓ1 , then find value of N. (given ρ1 = 27 kg/m3. ρ2 = 3
kg/m3)

24. An electron in a hydrogen atom undergoes a transition from

an orbit with quantum number ni to another with quantum
number nf. Vi and Vf are respectively the initial and final
Vi
potential energies of the electron. If = 6.25, then the
V
f 27.
smallest possible nf is

25. A microscope has an eyepiece of focal length of 5 cm. The

magnification produces by objective of microscope is –6. If
the final image is formed at least distance of distinct vision The product ‘C’ is.
then find the magnitude of magnification produced by (a)
microscope.

CHEM SEC 1
26. In the following reaction the most probable product will be :

(b)

(c)
(a)

(d)

(b)

28. A litre of dry air at STP expands adiabatically to a volume of

3 litres. If γ = 1.40, the magnitude work done by air is (31.4 =
4.6555) [Take air to be an ideal gas]
(a) 90.5 J
(b) 60.7 J
(c) 48 J
(d) 100.8 J
29. What is the bond order of Li+ ?
34. Which of the following reactions will not produce a racemic
2

(a) 2 major product?

(b) 1.5 (a)
(c) 1
(d) 0.5
30. In which one of the following molecules strongest back
(b)
donation of an electron pair from halide to boron is
expected?
(a) BBr3
(b) BCl3
(c) Bl3
(d) BF3
(c)
31. Which one of the following reactions does not occur?
(a)

(d) H Br

CH3 CH2 CH = CH2 −

−−→

35. Blood plasma is maintained at a pH of 7.4 largely by the

(a)
−
H CO
3

buffer
H2 CO3

(b)
2−

(b) HP O
4
buffer
3−
PO
4

(c)
− 2−
H CO HP O
3 4
and buffers
−
H2 CO3 H2 P O
4

(d)
2−
HP O

and haemoglobin buffers

4

H3 P O4

36. In order to oxidise a mixture of one mole of each of FeC2O4,

Fe2(C2O4)3, FeSO4 and Fe2(SO4)3 in acidic medium, the
(c)
number of moles of KMnO4 required is
(a) 1.5
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 1

37. For the reaction P Cl3(g) + Cl2(g) ⇌ P Cl5(g) the value of

(d) Kp at 250°C is 0.61 atm–1, the value of KC at this
temperature will be
(a) 15.19 mol–1 L
(b) 26.19 mol–1 L
(c) 35.19 mol–1 L
(d) 52.19 mol–1 L

38. Two liquids A and B have p0A and p0B in the ratio of 1:3 and
32. Which one of the following statements is not true about the ratio of number of moles of A and B in liquid phase are
enzymes? 1:3 then mole fraction of 'A' in vapour phase in equilibrium
(a) The action of enzymes is temperature and pH specific with the solution is equal to
(b) Enzymes are non–specific for a reaction and substrate (a) 0.1
(c) Enzymes work as catalysts by lowering the activation (b) 0.2
energy of a biochemical reaction (c) 0.5
(d) Almost all enzymes are proteins (d) 1.0

33. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of C – 39. For a d4 metal ion in an octahedral field, the correct
OH bond length
electronic configuration is
(a) phenol < p–ethoxyphenol < methanol
(a) t
4 0
eg when Δ0 < P
(b) methanol < phenol < p–ethoxyphenol 2g

(c) methanol < p–ethoxyphenol < phenol (b) t

3
2g
2
eg when Δ0 < P

(d) phenol < methanol < p–ethoxyphenol (c) eg t

2 2
when Δ0 < P
(d) t
3
2g
1
eg when Δ0 < P
2g
 (d)

40. Consider the equation

0
Λm = Λm − A√C

Which pair of electrolyte have same value of A?

(a) N aCl, M gCl2

(b) M gCl2 , CH3 COOH

(c) N aCl, KCl

45. Consider the following pairs of electrons
(d) KCl, M gCl2
(A) (a) n = 3, l = 1, ml = 1, ms = +
1
, (b)
2
1
n = 3, l = 2, ml = 1, ms = +
41. Which of the following order is incorrect:- 2

(B) (a) n (b)

1

(a) Al > Ga → Radius = 3, l = 2, ml = −2, ms = −

2
,

(b)
1

F+ > Cl+ → Electron affinity n = 3, l = 2, ml = −1, ms = −

2

(c) (C) (a) n (b)

1
+ +
N > O → Ionization energy = 4, l = 2, ml = 2, ms = +
2

(d) O > Se → Electronegativity

1
n = 3, l = 2, ml = 2, ms = +
2

The pairs of electrons present in degenerate orbitals is/are:

42. E
0
+2
for first transition series metals have irregular (a) Only (A)
M /M

values due to : (b) Only (B)

(I) Irregular variation in IE1 & IE2 on moving left to right (c) Only (C)
(II) Irregular order of hydration energy on moving left to (d) (B) and (C)
right
(III) Irregular order of heat of atomization on moving left to
right CHEM SEC 2
(a) I only 46. The passage of a constant current through a solution of
(b) II only dilute H2SO4 with ‘Pt’ electrodes liberated 336 cm3 of a
(c) I & II mixture of H2 and O2 at 1 atm and 0°C. The quantity of
(d) I, II & III electricity (in Columbs) that was passed is (Given 1F = 96500
C/mol)
43. How many monochlorinated products formed when S–2
chlorobutane undergo reaction with Cl2 /hv? 47. Number of planar species among the following :
(a) 3 H2O; ClF3; PCl5; SO3; SF4; BF3; SiF4; SF6; IF7; XeO3; [CoCl4]2-
(b) 4
(c) 5 48. Certain amount of dichloroacetic acid (CHCl2COOH) is
(d) 6 oxidised to CO2, H2O & Cl2 by 300 gram equivalents of
KMnO4 in acidic medium. How many moles of Ba(OH)2 are
44. Which of the following reactions will not yield phenol? required to completely neutralise same amount of acid ?
(a)
49.

(b)
Consider the above reaction where 6.1 g of Benzoic acid is
used to get 7.8 g of m-bromobenzoic acid. The percentage
yield of the product is ____.
(Round off to Nearest Integer).
[Given : Atomic masses : C : 12 u, H : 1.0 u, O : 16.0 u, Br :
80.0 u].

50. How many of the following compounds are aromatic ?

(c)
 (a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8

54. 10 10

If then variance
2
∑ (xi − 5) = 5 and ∑ (xi − 5) = 125,
i=1 i=1

of x1, x2, ……… x10 will be

(a) 9

(b) 25

(c) 49

(d) 81

55. Number of integral values of k for which the point M(0, k)

lies on or inside the triangle formed by the lines y + 3x + 2 =
0,3y – 2x – 5 = 0and 4y + x – 14 = 0, is-
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

56. If A is square matrix of order 3 such that |A| = 3, then |adj

(adj (adj A))| is-
(a) 38
(b) 39
(c) 310
(d) 311

57.
1

⎧ x
⎪ |x|−x(3 +1)
if x ≠ 0
Given f (x) then f(x) is
1
= ⎨ ,
3 x −1
⎩
⎪
0 if x = 0

(a) discontinuous at x = 0
(b) continuous but not differentiable at x = 0
(c) both continuous and differentiable at x = 0
(d) differentiable but not continuous at x = 0

58. Number of solutions of the equation(x – 1)2 + xℓnx = x is-

MATH SEC 1
(a) 0
51. A circle C of radius 2 lies in the second quadrant and
(b) 1
touches both the coordinate axes. Let r be the radius of a
(c) 2
circle that has centre at the point (2, 5) and intersects the
(d) 3
circle C at exactly two points. If the set of all possible values
of r is in the interval (α, β), then 3β − 2α is equal to :
59. Let z0, z1, z2,…., z6 be distinct complex numbers satisfying z7
(a) 15
(b) 14 – 7 = 0. If p is the product of all sums of zi taken pairwise i.e.

(c) 12 p = (z0 + z1) . (z0 + z2) ……. (z5 + z6), then p2 is

(d) 10 (a) 73
(b) 76
52. Let the sequence a1, a2, a3, …….. a2n form an arithmetic
(c) 221 . 73
progression Then a21 − a
2
2
2
+ a −. . . . . +a
3
2
2n−1
− a
2
2n
=

(d) None of these

(a)
n
2 2
(a − a )
2n−1 1 2n

(b) 2n
(a
2
− a )
2
60. Number of solution(s) of the equation
n−1 2n 1

(c)
n
(a
2
+ a
2
)
sinx + cosx = min {|x + 1|, |x – 1|} is
n+1 1 2n x∈R

(d) (a) 1
n 2 2
(a + a )
n+1 2 2n

(b) 2
53. The number of integral values of x satisfying the inequation (c) More than 2 but less than equal to 4
x2 – |x| – 6 ≤ 0 is (d) More than 4
61. ∘
(c) 113

The value of ∑x=1 is equal to

89 287
∘ (3 + cos 4x) cos 2x
(d) 115

287

(a) –1
(b) 0 68. Shortest distance between the lines
(c) 1 →
r = 2^
i + 3^
^
j + 4k + λ (2^
i + 4^
^
j + k) and
(d) 2
→
r = 4^
i + 3^
^
j + 2 k + μ (^
i − 2^
^
j + k) is equal to
62. Locus of a point which divides a chord of slope 2 of parabola (a) units
14

y2 = 4x internally in the ratio 1 : 2 is an another parabola

√101

having vertex as (b) 28

units
√101

(a) 8 2
(c) 56
(
3
,
3
) units
√101

(b) 2 8
(d) 19
(
3
,
3
) units
√101

(c) (
2
,
8
)
9 9
69. Total number of 4 digit even numbers that can be formed
(d) (
8
,
2
) using the digits (without repetition) 0, 1, 2, 4, 5 is
9 9

(a) 36
63. (b) 42
Let α, β, γ are roots of the equation x3 + qx + q = 0 then the
(c) 54
value of (α + β) is
−1 −1 −1
+ (β + γ) + (γ + α)
(d) 60
(a) 0
(b) –1 70. The area (in square units) of the region bounded by the
(c) 1 curves y + 2x2 = 0 and y + 3x2 = 1, is equal to
(d) q (a) 1

64. 1 1
2
(b) 3

x
I1
Let I1 and I2 Then is
e dx x dx 4
= ∫ = ∫
1+x
e
x
3
3
(2−x )
I2 (c) 3

0 0
5

(a) 3
(d) 4
e
3

(b) 1

3e

(c) MATH SEC 2

e

(d) 3e 71. The sum of all rational terms in the expansion of (1 + 21/3 +

65. Let R be the set of real number. Consider the following 31/2)6 is equal to _______
subsets of the plane R × R :
72. ((a−n)nx−tan x) sin nx
S = {(x, y) : y = x + 1 and 0 < x < 2} If Lt
2
= 0
x
x→0
T = {(x, y) : x − y is an integer}
(where ‘n’ is a non zero real number and a ), then
1
= kn +
Which one of the following is true ? n

k is equal to
(a) Both S and T are equivalence relations on R
(b) S is an equivalence relation on R but T is not
73.
3
log x 2
1/4 log (x +1)

(c) T is an equivalence relation on R but S is not

2 27
2 −3 −2x
y =
4log x
7 49 −x−1
(d) Neither S nor T is an equivalence relation on R dy
= ax + b, then value of a + b is
dx

66. Let y = y (x) be the solution of the differential equation

dy
2
3y +2xy 74. If f (x) = ∫ e
x
(
2
+ tan
2
(x +
π
))dx; where
= , y (1) = 1 1−tan x 4
2
dx x +2xy
3π
Then, the product of possible values of y(2) is f (
4
) = 0, then value of [ln(f(π))] is (where [.] denotes
(a) 16 greatest integer function)
(b) 4
(c) –16 75. If
2 2

(d) 8
p q p 2pq q
−1 −1
cos + cos = α and − cos α + = f (α),
a b 2
ab 2
a b

then number of integers in the range of f(α) is

67. Urn P contains 2 white, 2 black and 4 red balls, urn Q
contains 6 white, 2 black and 3 red balls, and Urn R contains
2 white, 1 black and 4 red balls. One Urn is chosen at
random and 2 balls are drawn at random from the urn. If
the chosen balls happen to be red and white, then the
probability that both balls come from Urn R is
(a) 109

287

(b) 110

287