Professional Documents
Culture Documents
a. Hawaiian authority
b. Philippine Authority
c. A and/or B
d. U.S. Authorities
2. What is the duration of Arresto
Mayor as a penalty?
a. Accessory penalty
b. Preventive imprisonment
c. Subsidiary penalty
d. Afflictive penalty
5. The rule on summary procedure applies
to criminal cases where the penalty
prescribed by law for the offense charged
does not exceed -
a. 3 years
b. 6 months imprisonment
c. 6 years
d. d. 4 years and 2 months
6. What doctrine does not allow evidence
obtained by the police officers in an illegal
search and seizure to be used against the
accused?
a. Silver platter
b. Fruit of the poisonous tree
c. Exclusionary doctrine
d. Miranda ruling
e. Wrong evidence doctrine
7. What is that statement made by a
wounded person shortly after he received
severe bolo stabs narrating therein the
whole incident to another? Usually, this is
admissible as evidence as part of-
a. Res nullus
b. None of these
c. Res gestae
d. Res ispa loquiter
e. Res judicata
8. What is the means sanctioned by the
rules of ascertaining in a judicial proceeding
the truth respecting a matter of fact?
a. Evidence
b. Proof
c. Trial
d. Procedure
e. Investigation
9. What rule is observed when generally,
there can be no evidence of a writing, the
contents of which is the subject matter of
inquiry other than the original itself?
a. Secondary evidence
b. Hard evidence
c. Best evidence
d. Parol evidence
e. Corollary evidence
10. In the scheduled hearing, the judge, the
PAO lawyer, the private prosecutor and the
defense counsel were all present except the
public prosecutor. Can the trial legally
proceed if there are also witnesses ready to
testify?
a. It depends
b. Yes
c. No
d. Of course
11. What law governs the Katarungang
Pambarangay?
a. RA 1508
b. RA 7610
c. None of these
d. PD 1508
12. In misappropriation of funds or
property, all that is necessary to prove
is that the defendant -
a. Elements
b. Acted with deceit
c. None of these
d. Received the funds or property
e. Returned the funds or property
13. If the accused dies before
arraignment, what will happen to the
criminal action?
a. Terminated
b. Dissolved
c. Dismissed
d. Absolved
14. When a group of male factors acted
in unison in committing a crime, what
would you call it?
a. Proposal
b. Subjective
c. Conspiracy
d. Objective
15. The following constitutes a crime of
forgery, except -
a. None of these
b. Of right on the part of the accused
c. To be approved by both parties
d. Of discretion by the prosecution
e. Left to the discretion of the court
17. Judge Regacho issued the order
granting bail when the accused were
still at large. His disposition is –
a. None of these
b. Legal
c. Proper
d. Improper
18. Which of the following refers to a
presumption which proves the existence
and non–existence of the fact in issue is
called?
a. Judicial notice
b. Relevant
c. Material
d. Competency
19. The following are the
circumstances which consummates the
crime of arson, except -
a. Warrant of Arrest
b. Subpoena
c. Habeas Corpus
d. Summons
22. Mr. Godofredo killed baby boy Gerry, a
three days old child, not knowing his own
son. What is the crime committed by Mr.
Godofredo?
a. Parricide
b. Murder
c. Infanticide
d. Homicide
23. Peter and Daniel were OFWs in Korea. Before
their departure in Korea, Peter stole the netbook
of Daniel. Once home, Daniel learned that Peter
stole his netbook. What will happen if Daniel
files a case against Peter?
a. Seduction
b. Consented Abduction
c. Abduction
d. Forcible Abduction
27. The issuance of warrant of arrest is
not necessary in the following cases,
except -
a. 115
b. 60
c. 30
d. 90
29. If Ramon aided Romeo as a public
authority and the former was assaulted.
What crime is committed against him?
a. Assault
b. Indirect assault
c. Direct assault
d. None of these
30. White slavery crimes are, except -
a. Acts of prostitution
b. Cockfighting
c. Involving business on prostitution
d. None of these
31. What will happen to the
arraignment if a prejudicial question
exists in criminal case?
a. Waived
b. Suspended
c. Commenced
d. Terminated
32. Which of the following pleadings are
not allowed by the accused to file after
promulgation but before final judgment?
a. Not admissible
b. Admissible
c. Can be presented
d. Secondary
34. Within how many days is the
validity of warrant of arrest from its
acceptance?
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 30
35. If there are, more than one accused
how is complaint or information
stated?
a. 48
b. 72
c. 36
d. 24
37. How is amendment executed after
plea and during trial?
a. Suspended
b. Extinguished
c. Cancelled
d. Dismissed
e. Terminated
39. What do you call the record in
court that is written by the
stenographer?
a. Stenograph
b. Record
c. Transcript of stenographic notes
d. Transcript
e. All of these
40. An extra – judicial confession made
by an accused shall not be sufficient
unless -
a. Testified by witnesses
b. Voluntary given
c. Corroborated by evidence of corpus delicti
d. Presence of a counsel
41. The extra–territorial application of
the Revised Penal Code applies in the
following instances, except -
a. None of these
b. After pre–investigation
c. Before arraignment
d. Before or after conviction
e. After arraignment
43. How do you consider a judgment
rendered with negligence?
a. Lack of foresight
b. Malfeasance
c. Misfeasance
d. Oppression
44. Which of the following is not a
crime against public interest?
a. Defense of Stranger
b. Self-Defense
c. Defense of Relative
d. Avoidance of Greater Evil of Injury
46. What is present when the act is
performed with deliberate intent?
a. None of these
b. Fraud
c. Motive
d. Deceit
47. Which of the following punishes an
act which was not punishable at the
time it was committed?
a. Bill of Attainder
b. Ex Post Facto Law
c. Retrospective Law
d. Due Process of Law
48. It states that the scale be tilted in favor of
the accused in obedience to the
constitutional presumption of innocence
when the evidence of the prosecution and of
the defense is equally balanced.
a. Two degrees
b. One degree
c. Three degrees
d. Four degrees
e. None
50. What theory in Criminal Law which goes
beyond the retributive penalty and recognizes the
redeemable good in the accused, hence, penalty is
imposed for preventive and corrective purposes?
a. Positivist Theory
b. Classical Theory
c. Neo-Classical Theory
d. Modern Theory
e. Eclectic or Mixed Theory
51. Which of these provides additional
exceptions to the territorial application
of penal law?
a. R.A. 9372
b. R.A. 3972
c. R.A. 9732
d. R.A. 9327
52. When there is an implied repealing
of a criminal law, what happens to the
pending criminal action?
a. Malfeasance
b. Misfeasance
c. Omission
d. Commission
54. This usually involves lack of foresight or
a deficiency of perception or failure to pay
proper attention and to use diligence to
avoid a foreseeable damage or injury.
a. Imprudence
b. Accident
c. Fault
d. Negligence
55. What is the capacity to know and
understand the consequences of an
act?
a. Knowledge
b. Ability
c. Opportunity
d. Will
e. Intelligence
56. What is the act or omission which is
the result of a misapprehension of facts
that is voluntary but not intentional?
a. None of these
b. Mistake of identity
c. Mistake in the blow
d. Mistake of fact
57. “Actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit
rea” means –
a. Praeter intentionem
b. Aberratio ictus
c. Error in personae
d. Mistake of fact
60. The art of piecing together that is the
invocation by counsel of the Rules of Logic and
Rhetoric in the combination of assumed facts
so as to reach ultimately the conclusion about
the truth of a certain proposition is called -
a. All of these
b. Logic
c. Argument
d. Debate
61. Which of the following tends to
prove or disprove the issue or issues
outlined in the pleading of the parties?
a. Direct evidence
b. Relevant evidence
c. Corroborative evidence
d. Material evidence
e. Competent evidence
63. It is a grievous, odious and hateful
offense which by reason of its inherent or
manifest wickedness, viciousness, atrocity
and perversity, is regarded as seriously
outrageous to the common standards or
norms of decency and morality in a just,
civilized and orderly society.
a. Grave Offense
b. Less Grave Offense
c. Brutality
d. Heinous Crime
63. If an unlicensed firearm is used to
commit murder, the crime is -
a. Indirect evidence
b. Partial evidence
c. Circumstantial evidence
d. Cumulative evidence
65. When the witness states that he did not
see or does not know the happening of the
event or the existence of the thing, the
evidence or testimony is –
a. Positive
b. Affirmative
c. Contradict
d. Negative
66. Jack is the girlfriend of Julie and they were
about to be married. David, Jack’s friend, also
desires the heart of Julie. One day, Jack saw
David holding hands with Julie while the two are
intimately seated together. Jack, in the spur of a
moment, pulled out a knife and stabbed David on
his back. What mitigating circumstance is
present?
a. Passion and/or Obfuscation
b. Vindication of grave offense
c. Confession of guilt
d. Provocation of threat
67. Franie introduced himself as the Municipal Mayor
as he was pacifying Bong and George who were
fighting inside a beer joint. Notwithstanding his
presence, Bong and Bruno continued to fight until
Bruno succeeded in killing Bong. What aggravating
circumstance is present?
a. Error in personae
b. Aberratio ictus
c. Mistake of blow
d. Praeter intentionem
e. Complex crime
70. What are the crimes consummated
in one instance or by a single act and
has no attempted of frustrated stage?
a. Normal crimes
b. Abnormal crimes
c. Impossible crimes
d. Formal crimes
e. Consummated
71. It is a Doctrine in Theft cases which
provides that the taking of several things,
whether belonging to the same or different
owners at the same time and place arising
from one criminal resolution constitutes but
one felony.
a. wholly true
b. partially true
c. wholly false
d. partly false
74. In a crime of hijacking it is qualified
in the following manner, except -
a. Wholly true
b. Partially true
c. Wholly false
d. Partly false
76. Philippine Penal Law is applicable
within the Philippine Archipelago to
include its -
a. Atmosphere
b. Interior waters
c. A, B, and C
d. Maritime zone
e. B and C only
77. The principle that sovereign and
head of states are exempted from
criminal in relation to the liability is
covered by this law
a. None of these
b. Law of Foreign Affairs
c. Law in Preferred Head of States
d. Law of preferential treatment
e. Law of Preferential Application