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1) What are the three types of interfaces?

Ans: 1.Input domain testing 2.Equivalence partitioning 3.Syntax checking

2) What three rules should be followed for all reviews?


Ans: Three rules should be followed for all reviews:
1. The Product is reviewed, not producer.
2. Defects and issues are identified, not corrected.
3. All members of the reviewing team are responsible for the results of
the review.

1) It is difficult to create test scenarios for high-level risks. (True / False) Ans:
True.

2) During software acceptance (acceptance testing),__________ testing


technique is relied upon for more accurate results (than other testing techniques
listed below).
a) White Box b) Black Box c) Incremental d) Thread Ans: Black Box

3) At a minimum, the developer should always execute Unit Regression Testing


when a change is made. (True /False) Ans: True.

4) Modules are added in descending hierarchical order in ________ type of


incremental testing. a) bottom up b)top down c)sandwich Ans: Top Down

5) __________ must be developed to describe when and how testing will occur.
a) Test case b)test strategy c) test plan d)Risk Ans: Test Plan

1. Why is it important to measure the process of software engineering and software it


produces?
a. It is really not necessary unless the project is extremely complex.
b. To determine costs and allow a profit margin to be set.
c. To determine whether a software group is improving or not.
d. To make software engineering more like other engineering processes.

Ans: B (confused Between B and C)

2. A software quality metric that can be used at both the process and project levels is
defect removal efficiency (DRE).
a. True
b. False

Ans: A (DRE basically use to detect to defects before delivery)

3. Backfiring is the best way to compute function point measures once a software
application is completed.
a. True
b. False

Ans: A

4. Extended function point metrics are designed to be applied to


a. business information systems applications
b. PC applications
c. real-time or embedded applications
d. computer graphics applications

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Ans: A

5. Evolutionary software process models


a. Are iterative in nature
b. Can easily accommodate product requirements changes
c. Do not generally produce throwaway systems
d. All of the above

Ans: B

6. The rapid application development model is


a. Another name for component-based development.
b. A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements
clearly.
c. A high-speed adaptation of the linear sequential model.
d. All of the above.

Ans: C

1. Testing begins at the component level and works “outward” towards the integration of the
entire computer-based system. (True/False)
True

2. For object-oriented systems, testing begins at the __object_______________ level.

3. Testers get involved with the project only when the testing steps are about to begin.
(True/False)
False

4. What is the role of an independent test group (ITG)?


The main role is to ensure that quality is measured accurately. Since they are
independent they give unbiased opinion about the product quality. They are
independent as they report to different person/group whom development team reports.

5. Model of software failures (uncovered during testing) as a function of execution time is a


graph resulting in _______________ shape.
a) linear b) parabolic c) exponential d) logarithmic e) none of
the above

6. A software failure model is a graph between Failures per Test Hour _ (y-axis) and
Execution Time (x-axis).
a) Number of software failures; Execution Time
b) Failures per test hour; Execution Time
c) Execution Time; Failures per test hour
d) Failures per test hour; Time taken to fix the failures

7. Define antibugging.
Antibugging is a programming technique in which coding is done by taking a
defensive approach to minimize the defects.

8. A ‘bathtub’ curve can be applicable to


a) hardware b) software c) hardware and software d) None of the above
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Ans:-a
9. Alpha test is conducted at one or more customer sites by the end-user of the software.
(True/False)
True

10. Alpha tests are conducted in a _-controlled__ environment.


a) controlled b) non-controlled

11. Beta tests are conducted in a controlled environment. (True/False)

12. _alpha___test is conducted at the developer’s site by a customer.


a) system b) alpha c) beta d) None of the above

13. Name the three categories for debugging approaches.


??
14. What is meant by error seeding and fault injection?

Error Seeding : Error Seeding is a statistical method used to assess the number and
characteristics of the faults remaining in the program. First faults are seeded into the
program. Then the program is tested and the number of faults discovered is used to
estimate the number of faults yet undiscovered. A difficulty with this technique is this
that the seeded errors should represent the yet undiscovered errors.

Fault Injection : Should be same as error seeding. Software Fault Injection is a form of
software testing that is distinct from traditional black-box, system-level Software
Testing; it allows software acquirers to determine software robustness when the
software is fed anomalous input events. This is something that traditional Software
Testing typically fails to address.
Therefore, Software Fault Injection methods and tools provide a means for assessing
the fault tolerance and trustworthiness of composed systems, and this technology
assesses which components of the system require additional validation in order to
demonstrate that certain behaviors (i.e. output events) from those components are not
possible.

15. Distinguish between isolation and debugging.

Isolation : Method thru which defects causing intermittent failure are captured.

Debugging : The process of analyzing and correcting syntactic, logic and other errors
identified during testing.

Knowledge Domain 1: TEST PRINCIPLES AND CONCEPTS (contd...)

1. Name the causes from which most of the testing problems occur.

Ans : Failure to define Test Objectives.


Lack of support from Development Team.
Lack of Training.
Lack of use of effective techniques.

2. In Cost Effective situation, the cost of testing is less than the resultant loss from
undetected defects.
3. As the cost of testing _increases_, the number of undetected defects _decreases.
a) decreases ; decreases
b) increases ; increases
c) increases ; decreases

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d) decreases ; remains same
e) remains constant ; decreases
4. Optimum___ point in a testing cost curve (cost-effectiveness of testing curve) separates
the ___Over Testing__condition and __Under Testing. condition.

5. At the optimum point condition in a testing cost curve, the cost of testing to uncover defects
___less_or same_____ the losses from those defects.

6. Define cost-effective perspective in testing.


Cost Effective way of Testing is a way to achieve maximum advantage out of testing
which means that Cost of Conduction Testing is less than the loss due to undetected
defects.

7. Name the criteria involved in a testing policy.


Two main criteria are
Test Policy should be Organizations Policy.
Testers should be involved from the beginning of the project. Not directly in the
end. As quality can not be tested in build product.

8. Testing cost curve is a graph plotted between __Cost of Testing and _Loss due to
undetected Defects.

9. Draw the Testing Cost Curve and the Optimum Test (where it occurs).

Test Cost Curve


Untected Defects

120
Loss Due to

100
80 Loss Due to
60 Untected
40 Defect
20 Testing Cost
0
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Testing Cost

10. What is The Domino Effect ?

11. Name the technological developments that caused organizations to revise their approach
to testing.

12. What is testing policy?


Testing Policy is Organizational Senior Management Policy towards Testing which
should has impact on overall Organization.

13. Name the two components of the testing strategy and define them.
a. Test Factor : The issue that needs to be addressed in Testing.
b. Test Phase : The SDLC phase in which the test will be conducted.

14. _d______________ method, which is a true organizational policy, is used to establish a


testing policy.
a) Management Directive
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b) Information Services Consensus Policy
c) Users Meeting
d) All the three above
e) None of the above
15. Quality /Testing Policy_______ is an organizational responsibility.

16. Management Directive____method) is an economical and effective method to write a


testing policy.

17. Testing after coding is the only Big Bang Technique (??? I am not sure)_ technique
used to determine the adequacy of the system.

18. Mention the stages of a traditional software development life cycle.


a. Conception
b. Initiation
c. Requirement
d. Design
e. Testing
f. Implementation
g. Retirement

19. It is not unusual to hear of testing consuming 50% of the development budget. (True /
False)
Ans:-T
20. Studies have shown that the majority of system errors occur in the _ Design _phase.
a) Requirements
b) Design
c) Code
d) Testing
e) Operation & Maintenance

21. Coding errors amount to _c.36% _ % of all detected system errors.


a) 20 b) 25 c) 36 d) 50 e) 64

22. Studies show that approximately two-thirds of all detected system errors can be attributed
to errors made during the design phase. (True / False)
Ans:T
23. Over __50% % of the life cycle costs of a software system are spent on maintenance.
a) 40 b) 50 c) 60 d) 30 e) None of the above
24. In designing a test strategy, _Risk__ become the basis or objective of testing.

25. List the considerations in Developing Testing Methodologies.


a. Acquire and study the test strategy
b. Determine the type of developing project
c. Determine the type of software system
d. Determine the project scope.
e. Identify the tactical risks
f. Determine when testing should occur
g. Build the system test plan.
h. Build the unit test plan.

26. Strategic risks are the low-level business risks faced by the software system. (True /
False)
Ans:-F
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27.Strategic Risks are the high-level business risks faced by the software system.

27. Tactical risks are the high-level business risks faced by the software system. (True /
False)
Ans: T

29. Tactical risks are subsets at a lower level of the strategic risks. (True / False)
Ans: T

30. What is the reason in decomposing the strategic risks into tactical risks?
So that Test Scenarios can be created. It is hard to create Test situations for
Strategic Risks.

31. Name the categories into which tactical risks can be divided.
Structural Risks
Technical Risks
Size Risks
32 Test Plan. must be developed to describe when and how testing will occur.

33. What is incremental testing?


Testing the interfaces between the unit tested programs as well as between
components.

34. It is difficult to create test scenarios for high-level risks. (True / False)
Ans: T

35. What are the different types of incremental testing?


a. Top-Down b. Bottom Up

36. __ White Box _ testing assumes that the path of logic in a unit or program is known.
a) White Box b) Black Box c) Static d) Performance e) None of
the above
38. During software acceptance (acceptance testing), _ b) Black Box testing technique is
relied upon for more accurate results (than other testing techniques listed below).
a) White Box b) Black Box c) Incremental d) Thread

39. When evaluating the paybacks received from various test techniques, _White(Glass) Box
Testing _ produces a higher defect yield than other dynamic techniques when planned and
executed correctly.

40. What qualities must an individual possess to test effectively a software application?
Good Communication Skill
Good Error Guessing
Good Analytical Skill
Knowledge of Programming Concepts

41. Due to a change in design, the requirements for an already coded (built) software
component (i.e., 1 software component among 10 software components in an application) got
modified in its entirety. The developer had to modify the code based on the new
requirements. Your role as a test manager is to choose the appropriate type of regression
test to minimize the impact to the project schedule. What are the types and which type of
regression test would you choose?
Full Regression Test

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42. At a minimum, the developer should always execute Unit Regression Testing when a
change is made. (True / False)
Ans: T

43. What are the rules that should be followed for all reviews?
1. Only the work product should be reviewed. Not the Author. That means the
Review results should not be used in performance evaluation of Author.
2. Focus should be on finding the defects not on the solution of defects.
3. Reviewers should work as a team. They should all be responsible for finding
the defects.
4. Review meeting should not last for more than two hours.
5. Review findings must be documented.

44. What is ‘stage containment’ as referred to reviews?


“Stage Containment”: identifying defects in the stage in which they were created,
rather than in later testing stages.

Reviews are generally greater than 65% effective


Testing is often less than 30% effective
The earlier defects are found the less expensive they are to correct

Skill Category: 6 - Test Planning Process

1. What is the purpose/objective of a test plan?

The main purpose is to organize and manage the Test Efforts and maximize the resource utilization to
carry out testing tasks.

Detailed Objectives

Improve Testing Coverage

Avoid unnecessary repetitions

Analyze the program and spot good test cases quickly

2. "Testers are in a lose-lose situation". What does this mean?

If they find more bugs – They are blamed for delaying the project, Developers are not happy and
developers become defensive too.

If they find less bugs – They are blamed for poor quality, Test manager is not happy , Upper
Management is not happy.

3. What is it that tester(s) complain usually?

Less testing Time, Low Priority to test

4. Test plan is a __bridge___ between the testers and the project team / users describing the role of
testing in the project.

5. The test plan should provide: [SELECT ALL THAT


APPLY]

a) background information on the software being tested b) details of each individual testing
the software c) test objective

d) risks that need to be taken care of e) specific tests to be performed

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6. List the concerns that testers face in assuring that the test plan will be complete.

Not Enough Training

Us versus Them mentality

Lack of Test Tools

Lack of Management Understanding/Support of testing

Lack of Customer and User Involvement

Not Enough Time for testing

Over Reliance On Independent Testers

Rapid Changes

Testers Are in a Lose-Lose Situations

Having to Say ‘No’

7. The concern "Us-versus-Them Mentality" occurs/arises a) when developers and testers


are on the same side of testing issue b) between testers and end-users

c) when developers and testers are on opposite sides of testing issue d) between developers and
end-users

8. Developing the test plan can be shown to be _second___ step on the 11-step software testing
process.

9. Which of the following tester's concern leads to the syndrome "throw it over the wall"?

a) Us-versus-Them Mentality

b) Lack of customer and user involvement

c) Not enough time for testing

d) Overreliance on independent testers

e) Having to say no

Ans: d

10. Test planning is an activity that commences after the product requirements analysis documents are
ready. (True/False)

Ans: F

11. List the input(s) used in developing the test plan.

Software Contract

Software Project Plan ( Which contains Project Schedule)

Requirements Document

Design Document

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12. Match the "TEST FACTOR" with the appropriate "TEST": TEST
FACTOR TEST

(a) RELIABILITY (i) Recovery Testing

(b) FILE INTEGRITY (ii) Manual, Regression & Functional Testing

(c) ACCESS CONTROL (iii) Stress Testing

(d) CONTINUITY OF PROCESSING (iv) Compliance Testing

(e) SERVICE LEVEL (v) Functional Testing

(f) PORTABLE (vi) Operations Test

(g) EASE OF OPERATION (vii) Disaster Testing

Pick ONE from the given choices:

A. (a)-(v); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii); (e)-(vii); (f)-(iii); (g)-(vi)

B. (a)-(ii); (b)-(v); (c)-(i); (d)-(iii); (e)-(iv); (f)-(vii); (g)-(vi)

C. (a)-(ii); (b)-(v); (c)-(iv); (d)-(i); (e)-(iii); (f)-(vii); (g)-(vi)

D. (a)-(v); (b)-(iv); (c)-(ii); (d)-(i); (e)-(vi); (f)-(vii); (g)-(iii)

Ans:C

13. Choose the one from the list of TEST FACTORS given below that doesn't map to Functional
Testing.

a) Reliability b) File Integrity c) Audit Trail d) Correctness e)


Performance f) Coupling

Ans: e

14. What are the contents of a Software/Test Matrix?

Test Matrix is a Table (or an arrangement), which contains different Modules to be tested as Rows and
Types of Testing techniques to be conducted as Columns. One or more kind of testing techniques can
be conducted for one module.

15. Name any 5 structural attributes of the software, which you might have worked upon, that may be
impacted and thus require testing.

Maintainability

Reliability

Complexity

Efficiency

Usability

Skill Category: 10 - Acceptance Testing

1. What is acceptance testing?

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Acceptance Testing is formal testing conducted to determine whether a software system
satisfied its acceptance criteria and to enable the buyer to determine whether to accept the
system. Software acceptance testing is usually the final opportunity of the customer to
examine the software and to object the developer for insufficient or incorrect software.

2. Software acceptance is a(n) ______________ process of approving or rejecting software


systems during development or maintenance, according to how well the software satisfies
predefined criteria.

Answer) incremental

3. Acceptance test is _______________ step in the "V" concept testing process model.

Answer) SEVENTH

4. Formal final software acceptance testing must occur at the end of the ____________
process.

Answer) development

5. What are the features/items that software acceptance, in a life cycle process, has to care
for?

Answer) As a life cycle process, software acceptance enables:


• Early detection of software problems (and time for the buyer to plan for
possible late delivery)
• Preparation of appropriate test facilities
• Early consideration of the user’s needs during software development

In Software Acceptance Testing Contract and Acceptance Criteria are most important things
those are required to be taken care of.

6. If you happen to be the customer/user of the software, what are (your) the responsibilities
for software acceptance?

1) Creation (or Update/review) of Acceptance Test Plan

2) Resource and Schedule for Acceptance Testing

3) Special Data collection for Acceptance Testing

4) Training Logistics for Acceptance Testing

5) Following Standard Practices while carrying out any tasks.

7. ________________ testing is designed to determine whether the software is "fit" for the
user to use.

Answer) ACCEPTANCE

8. The concept of "fit" in acceptance testing is important in _____________ and


_____________.

Answer) DESIGN ; TESTING

9. Mention the four components of fit in acceptance testing.

Answer) The four components of fit in acceptance testing are:


1. Data
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2. People
3. Structure
4. Rules

10. What are the concerns that a software user faces in making the acceptance decision?

Answer) The concerns that a software user faces in making the acceptance decision are:
a) Acceptance testing must be integrated into the overall development process
b) Cost and time for acceptance testing will not be available
c) The implementers of the project plan being unaware of the acceptance criteria
d) The users do not possess required skill sets to perform acceptance testing

11. The acceptance-testing workbench begins with software __________________ for the
system specifications.

Answer) that has been system tested

12. What is a 'Use Case'?

Answer) A Use Case is a description of how a user (or another system) uses the system being
designed to perform a given task.

Use case is a set of sequence of steps describing an interaction between user and system.

13. What is a System Boundary Diagram? Give an example.

Answer) A System Boundary Diagram depicts the interfaces between the software being
tested and the individuals, systems, and other interfaces. The purpose of the system
boundary diagram is to establish the scope of the system and to identify the interfaces that
need to be developed.

Example: System Boundary Diagram for an automated teller machine (ATM).

Bank ATM Control Security Alarm


Customer System System

Best Bank ATM

ATM Service ATM System


Technician Administrator

14. 'Test Cases' cannot be developed with system users and designers as the 'Use Cases'
are being developed. (True/False)

Answer) FALSE

15. What are the acceptance requirements that a system must meet in acceptance testing?

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Answer) Acceptance requirements that a system must meet can be divided in 4 categories:

a) Functionality requirements, which relate to the business rules that the system
must execute.
b) Performance requirements, which relate to operational requirements such as
time or resource constraints.
c) Interface quality requirements, which relate to a connection to another
component of processing.
d) Overall software quality requirements are those that specify limits for factors
or attributes such as reliability, testability, correctness, and usability.

16. Name the inputs for the acceptance-testing workbench.

Answer) The three inputs for the acceptance-testing workbench are:

1. Interim Work Products


2. Tested Software
3. Unresolved defect list

17. There should be _____________ relationship between use case definitions and test
cases.

Answer) one-to-one

18. ________________ is the input to the test case work paper.

Answer) Use case description

19. Software acceptance is a ____________ process during which users and developers
identify criteria for the acceptance of software systems.

Answer) contractual

20. What is the objective of acceptance testing?

The objective of acceptance testing is to determine throughout the development


cycle that all aspects of the development process meet the user's needs.

MOST DEFINITIONS ARE FROM CSTE GUIDE BOOK

1. What is the percent of the total cost of quality that comes from rework?
15-50%
2. What is the percent of the total gross of sales that come from product failure?
20% (Manufacturing Business)
30% (Service Sector)
3. What is the cost of quality?
Prevention Cost + Appraisal Cost + Failure Cost
(Total cost in multiple iterations – cost of doing things right first time)

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4. What is management by fact?
Management by fact is using quantitative measures and metrics to
manage the planning, execution, and reporting of software testing.
5. What are the three types of interfaces?
• Interfaces
o Person/Machine - Interfaces that include the operating system
and the development languages that are available, as well as
the input/output facilities.
o Communications Interfaces - Interfaces that include
transmission of information between computers and remote
equipment (e.g., transmission of computer data over networks.)
o Program Interfaces - Interfaces for the exchange of
information, whether on the same computer, or distributed
across multiple tiers of the application architecture.
6. What is boundary value testing?
The kind of testing in which test data or test cases are selected by identified
the boundaries that separate valid and invalid conditions. Tests are conducted to test
the inside and outside of these boundaries, in addition to these boundary points.
Experience suggests that these tests have higher payoff than selecting the random
values for testing.
7. What is decision/branch coverage strategy?
Branch Coverage Testing seeks to ensure that every branch has been executed. Branch
Coverage can be tested by probes inserted at points in the program that represent arcs
from branch points in the flow graphs.
8. Which of the following is not one of the 6 Structural Test Approaches?
Options not present … These are six Structural Testing

o Load/Stress .
o Execution
o Recovery
o Operations
o Compliance (to process)
o Security -
9. Which of the following is not one of the 8 Functional Test Approaches?
o Requirements
o Regression
o Error Handling
o Manual Support.
o Interfaces/Intersystem
o Control
o Parallel –
o Acceptance Testing

11. Which of the following is not a perspective of quality?


a. transcendent
b. product-based
c. translucent
d. user-based
e. value-based
f. manufacturing based
Ans:Translucent

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12. True or False. Effectiveness is doing things right and efficiency is doing
the right things. False
13. Which of the following is not one of Deming's 14 points for management?
a. Adopt a new philosophy
b. Eliminate slogans, exhortations, and targets for the work force
c. Mobility of management
d. Create constancy of purpose
Ans: c
14. True or False. The largest cost of quality is from production failure. True
15. Defects are least costly to correct at what stage of the development cycle?
a. Requirements
b. Analysis & Design
c. Construction
d. Implementation
Ans: b
16. A review is what category of cost of quality?
a. Preventive
b. Appraisal
c. Failure
Ans:b
17. True or False. A defect is related to the term fault. True
18. What type of change do you need before you can obtain a behavior
change?
a. Lifestyle
b. Vocabulary
c. Internal
d. Management
Ans:c
19. Software testing accounts for what percent of software development costs?
a. 10-20
b. 40-50
c. 70-80
d. 5-10
Ans:b
20. The purpose of software testing is to:
a. Demonstrate that the application works properly
b. Detect the existence of defects
c. Validate the logical design
Ans:b
21. True or False. One of the key concepts of a task force is that the leader be
an expert in leading groups as opposed to an expert in a topical area. True
22. Match the following terms with their definitions:
a. Black box testing
b. White box testing
c. Conversion testing
d. Thread testing
e. Integration testing

Definitions not found :

Here are the definitions as per CSTE Guide Book

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Black Box Testing : A test techniques that focuses on testing the functionality of the program ,
component, or application against its specifications without the knowledge of how the system
is constructed ; usually data or business process driven. Logic or path is unknown.

White Box Testing : A test technique that assumes that path of the logic of the program is
known. White box testing is usually consists of testing paths, branch by branch, to produce
predictable results. This test technique is usually used by the development team in testing
units and components.

Conversion Testing : A test technique that validates the effectiveness of data conversion
process, includes fields to field mapping, and data transaction.

Thread Testing : Test technique in which a string of unit which accomplish a specific function
is tested.

Integration Testing: Testing two or more programs or components that interact with each other
to validate the quality and correct data transfer and interfaces.

1. The three main parts to a system presentation are:


Preparing, presenting, and closing.

2. An oral system proposal:


a. Allows the project leaders to walk users through the important features of the
solution to their problem
b. Gives the customer a chance to ask questions and clarify what the proposal left
unanswered
c. Replaces a written system proposal

3. The purpose of a system proposal closing is to:


a. Succinctly overview the proposal
b. Emphasize that you have the best solution to the problem
c. Get the approval to proceed
4. Ans:c

5. During a proposal presentation you should:


a. Emphasize that you have the best solution to the customer’s problems
b. Emphasize that your project team is well equipped to implement the solution
c. Sell the corporate experience of your project staff and yourself
d. Sell your enthusiasm to do the project effectively, efficiently, and economically
e. All the above
Ans:e
6. What are three things that constrain a solution?
Solution constraints. Think time, people, budget

7. You should put all the discussion details in your transparencies.


True / False
You should NOT put all the discussion details in your transparencies. Details go in
discussion, not transparency. The discussion expands on transparency points.
Ans:F
8. A common guideline to presenting a presentation is:
Tell them what you are going to tell them, tell them, and then tell them what you just
told them.

9. Why should you not present for more than one hour?
Normal ability to concentrate is extremely limited after one hour. Take a break and
reconvene if necessary

Section 5_35 Quiz:

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1. A core concept of quality philosophies is that grass-roots efforts are an
effective means to improve quality. True / False
Ans:F
Most quality improvement philosophies require that management take
ownership and leadership of quality improvement efforts.

2. _______________ is defined as doing things right.


EFFICIENCY is doing right things right. Effectiveness is doing the right
things.

3. Achieving quality requires:


A. Understanding the customer’s expectations
B. Exceeding the customer’s expectations
C. Meeting all the definitions of quality
D. Focusing on the customer
E. All the above
Ans:E
4. Quality can be defined through internal means. True / False
Quality cannot be defined without the customer.
Ans:F
5. The essence of a quality internal product is:
A. Improving internal processes
B. Delivering the right product
C. Customer satisfaction
Ans:C
6. The cost of poor quality is usually less than 15 % of the cost of doing
business. True / False
The cost of poor quality is generally known to be up to 50% of the cost of
doing business.
Ans:F

7. The gains from continuous process improvement will fall off over time
because internal processes can never be perfect. True / False
Ans:F
The gains from continuous process improvement (the basis of TQM, otherwise
known as Kaizen) can never fall off because the reduction in rework reduces
cost and then pays for more productive output.

8. Steps to implementing a Quality Culture would NOT include:


A. Creating a department that focuses on quality improvement
B. Listening to customers to determine their requirements
C. Demonstrating executive leadership and commitment
D. Identifying costs of quality and focusing on prevention
All levels of an organization must take ownership of the quality culture
transformation
Ans:A
9. Deming’s Fourteen Points for Management can be summed up by:
A. Create constancy of purpose by breaking down barriers between
departments
B. Cease dependence on inspection to achieve quality
C. Stop focusing on judgment results and start focusing on improvement
of processes

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D. Improve constantly and forever the system of production and service to
improve quality and productivity and to decrease costs
The other points are part of Deming’s fourteen points, but only C sums them
up.
Ans:C
INSTRUCTIONS

Three sets of questions follow that are typical of the types of questions included
on the CSTE examinations EXCEPT these questions are exclusively based on
the skill courses in this manual. The actual exam will be based on the complete
Common Body of Knowledge for the Information Systems Software Testing
Profession. The answers are also included.
These question sets follow:
For Answers Refer
Question Set Number of Questions to Answer Set

A 36 A
B 25 B
C 20 C

1. What type of change do you need before you can obtain a behavior
change?
o a) Lifestyle
o b) Vocabulary
o c) Internal
o d) Management
Ans:b
2. Quality assurance is the process by which product quality is compared with
applicable standards, and the action taken when nonconformance is
detected.
o True o False
Ans:f
3. Pick the best tactic to use in constructive criticism to help the worker
understand his or her solution to the criticism.
o a) Do it in public, while others are listening, so they too can learn from
other people's mistakes.
o b) Be prepared to help your subordinate improve his or her
performance.
o c) Criticize the individual rather than the product, because the individual
creates problems with the product.
o d) Explain to the employee what will happen to his or her career if the
employee's behavior doesn't change.
Ans:b
4. The objective of risk analysis is to help IT management strike an economic
balance between the impact of risks and the cost of protective measures.
o True o False
Ans:f
5. In quantifying risk, the term RE represents:
o a) Risk expense
o b) Related expense
o c) Risk exposure
Ans:c
17
6. A standard is not an expected norm.
o True o False
Ans:f
7. Quality and quality assurance are synonymous.
o True o False
Ans:f
8. Productivity is increased if value is added to a product.
o True o False
Ans:t
9. National Quality Awards are intended to foster continuous improvement
activities.
o True o False
Ans:t
10. Vision is a clear definition of the result you are trying to achieve.

o True o False
Ans:t
11. What is the present value of money of a $10,000 expenditure that you will
spend one year from now if money is worth 14 percent?

o a) $2630
o b) $8770
o c) $1600
o d) $8600
Ans:b
12. Quality control relates to a specific product or service.
o True o False
Ans:t
13. The objective of the present value of money calculation is to convert future
dollars into current dollars.
o True o False
Ans:t
14. What is the primary objective of the system proposal from the producer's
viewpoint?
o a) To present the costs/benefits of the proposal
o b) To obtain an agreement for more work
o c) To standardize presentations
Ans:b
15. The receivers of an information systems service are known as users.
o True o False
Ans:t
16. Almost one-half of a programmer's time is spent identifying and fixing errors
in specifications.
o True o False
Ans:t
17. Which two elements are the major causes of documentation problems?
o a) Low priority
o b) Forgetfulness
o c) Not enough time
o d) Personal attitudes
Ans:a,d

18
18. When installing an information processing tool into your work environment,
you can select an informal or formal procurement sequence. Which list is
the formal procurement sequence?

o a) Technical requirements o b) Selection criteria


User review Identify candidate
Generate RFP User review
Issue RFP Score candidates
Proposal evaluation Select tool
Select source
Ans:a
19. A process allows the same quality to be replicated from product to product,
often by the use of standards and procedures.
o True o False
Ans:t
20. The term "defect" is related to the term "fault" because a fault is a defect,
which has not yet been identified.

o True o False
Ans:t
21. A latent defect is the same as a fault.

o True o False
Ans:t
22. The average time between consecutive failures in a system or component
during a specified period is known as the mean time between failures
(MTBF).

o True o False
Ans:t
23. A program whose purpose is to reduce the number of defects produced is
known as a quality improvement program.

o True o False
Ans:t
24. The inspection is an evaluation technique that relies on visual examination
of an item.

o True o False
Ans:t
25. The functionality/structure of the system created to solve a problem, satisfy
a user need (note that this is the creative part of the design process) is
known as the fishbone diagram.

o True o False
Ans:f
26. The process used for documenting user’s requirements is known as
validation.

o True o False
Ans:f
27. A process/activity during which a high number of defects occur is known as
a defect-prone process.
19
o True o False
Ans:t
28. Name the three categories of costs associated with cost of quality.

Preventive, Failure, and Appraisal

29. What category would inspections, walkthroughs, and testing qualify as?
Appraisal

30. What category would creating of a help desk qualify as?


Failure

31. What category would training qualify as?


Preventive

32. Rework activities are Failure costs.

CIRCLE THE CORRECT RESPONSE:

33. The conduct of an inspection of source code is quality control/quality


assurance.
Quality Control/Quality Assurance

Ans:QC

34. A computer operator verifies that the jobs to be run that day have been

run.

Quality Control/Quality Assurance


Ans:QC
35. A task force selects and installs a system development methodology.
Quality Control/Quality Assurance
Ans:QA
36. A computer programmer conducts unit tests to validate that the program
works.
Quality Control/Quality Assurance
Ans: QC
SAMPLE QUESTION SET B

1. The ______________ is an application of process management and quality


improvement concepts to software development and maintenance.

o a) Malcolm Baldridge
o b) ISO 9000
o c) SEI/CMM
20
o d) QS14000
Ans:c
2. Quality can be separated from the controls associated with it?

o True o False
Ans:f
3. What is one of the most powerful quality control tools?
Checklist

4. The number-one skill needed for the tester analyst is listening.

o True o False
Ans:t
5. The intent of the quality control checklist should be to improve the quality of
the product being controlled by investigative means.

o True o False
Ans:t
6. A large portion of the cost of quality is usually the cost of rework.

o True o False
Ans:t
7. Quality assurance means the same as total quality control.

o True o False
Ans:t
8. In the IT workbench, quality, and performance of the work are the respon-
sibility of the QA department.

o True o False
Ans:f
9. Identify five participant roles during a formal inspection.
Moderator
Author/producer
Reader
Inspector
Recorder
10. Function points measure the lines of code.

o True o False
Ans:f
11. Function points quantify data processing work outputs.

o True o False
Ans:t
12. Measurement of function points cannot be used for comparing two different
kinds of systems.

o True o False
Ans:f
13. Function points are hardware and software independent.

o True o False
21
Ans:t
14. There are three major activities in function point counting.

o True o False
Ans:t
15. The three parts of the function point count must be determined individually.

o True o False
Ans:t
16. Identify the 5 function types:
External Input type
External Inquiry type
External Interface File type
External Output type
Logical Internal file type

17. The process of identifying the kinds of software failures that can occur and
then quantifying how likely it is that they will actually occur is:

o a) Configuration management
o b) Risk management
o c) Contingency planning
o d) Process improvement
Ans:b
18. The Baldrige award is a world-wide quality award.

o True o False
Ans:f
19. What is the relationship between testing and quality assurance?

o a) QA is part of a complete testing process


o b) Testing and QA are two terms for the same thing
o c) Testing is part of a complete QA process
Ans:c
20. Software testing accounts for what percent of software development costs?

o a) 10-20
o b) 40-50
o c) 70-80
Ans:b
21. Software errors are least costly to correct at what stage of the development
cycle?

o a) Requirements
o b) Construction
o c) Acceptance test
Ans:a
22. The purpose of software testing is to:

o a) Demonstrate that the application works properly


o b) Detect the existence of defects
o c) Validate the logical design
Ans:b
22
23. For black-box testing:

o a) The tester is completely unconcerned about the internal behavior of


the program
o b) The tester is concerned with finding circumstances in which the
program does not behave according to specifications
o c) Test data is derived solely from specifications
o d) All of the above
Ans:d
24. Boundary value testing:

o a) is the same as equivalence partitioning tests


o b) test boundary conditions on, above, and below the edges of input
and output equivalence classes.
o c) tests combinations of input circumstances
o d) is used in white-box testing strategy
Ans:b
25. Decision/branch coverage strategy:

o a) always satisfies statement coverage


o b) is used in black-box testing
o c) means that every branch direction is traversed at least once
o d) is the same as condition coverage
Ans:c

SAMPLE QUESTION SET D

1. The National Quality Awards provide a basis for successful benchmarking


against other companies.

o True o False
Ans:t
2. Information systems organizations should have standards and procedures
on running meetings.

o True o False
Ans:t
3. The Pareto analysis is most effective for:

o a) Ranking items by importance


o b) Showing relationships between items
o c) Measuring the impact of identified items
Ans:a
4. One of the key concepts of a task force is that the leader be an expert in
leading groups as opposed to an expert in a topical area.

o True o False
Ans:t
5. The more common benefits associated with a service-level agreement are:

o a) Establish two-way accountability


o b) Make complaining easy
o c) Provide the basis for an IS budget
23
o d) All of the above
Ans:d
6. The two major differences between internal auditing and quality assurance
involve their respective statement of responsibilities and common body of
knowledge.

o True o False
Ans:t
7. Within an organization, a service-level agreement is most effective when it
is an ongoing negotiation and improvement process.

o True o False
Ans:t
8. A nonsampling error relates to the sample properly reflecting the true
characteristics of the population.

o True o False
Ans:f
9. The cost of quality is usually the:

o a) Cost of prototyping
o b) Cost of rework
o c) Cost of risk assessment
Ans:b
10. Motorola's objective of reaching "Six Sigma" translates into 3.4
defective parts per million.

11. Name the seven basic quality tools:


Histogram
Control Chart/Run Chart
Stratification
Scatter Diagram
Fishbone (Cause-Effect) Diagram
Pareto Chart
Check Sheet

12. Policies provide:

o a) Guidance to decision makers


o b) Broad direction to decision makers
o c) Detailed prescription to decision makers
Ans:a,b
13. A measurement system is established to measure the effectiveness of
system and unit testing.
Quality Control/Quality Assurance?
Ans:QA
14. Which of the following test approaches is not a structured test approach?

o a) Load/stress
o b) Operations
o c) Regression
o d) None of the above
Ans:c
24
15. A quantitative measurement used to determine test completion is:

o a) Defect measurement
o b) Requirements coverage
o c) Statistical analysis
Ans:b
16. Acceptance testing means:

o a) Testing performed on a single stand-alone module or unit of code


o b) Testing after changes have been made to ensure that no unwanted
changes were introduced
o c) Testing to ensure that the system meets the needs of the
organization and the end user.
Ans:c
17. Consensus means:

o a) Majority rules
o b) You don’t have to like it, you just have to be able to accept it
o c) Whatever the boss says
o d) Compromise
Ans:b
18. Joe is performing a test to see that it complies with the user requirement
that a certain field be populated by using a dropdown box containing a list of
values. Joe is performing:

o a) White-box testing
o b) Black-box testing
o c) Load testing
o d) Regression testing
Ans:b
19. Sue is told to prepare a report on the most commonly occurring product
defects. She reviews the software defect reports, which categorize the
defects as coding errors, requirements errors, documentation errors, etc.
The best tool to report this information is:

o a) A histogram
o b) A Pareto diagram
o c) A cause and effect diagram
o d) A scatter plot
Ans:b
20. Which of the following is NOT included in ISO guidelines?

o a) Purchaser and Supplier


o b) Internal Quality System Audits
o c) Documentation
o d) Management principles

Ans: d

25
Which one of the following activities is the most efficient and most cost
effective at identifying
Defects?

a) Design/code inspection
b) Beta test
c) Unit test
d) Prototyping
e) Risk analysis
Ans:c
2) When does metrics validation occur?

a) After the test


b) Throughout the life cycle
c) After the final software release
d) During the test
e) During requirements definition
Ans:b
3) I. Customer focus
II. Radical process improvement
III. Incremental process improvement
IV. Quality control specialists are key
V. Assumption of unsound processes
VI. Human side of quality
VII. Measurement and analysis

In the statements above, what are the key elements in the TQM
philosophy?

a) I, II, IV, and VI


b) III, IV, V, and VII
c) I, III, VI, and VII
d) I, II, VI, and VII
e) I, III, V, and VI

Ans:d

4) With whom does the responsibility rest for an inspection process


performed for a specific software artifact?

a) The recorder
b) The reader
c) The moderator
d) The developer/author
e) The management
Ans:c
5) Identification, control, auditing, and status accounting are functions
of which one of the following?

a) Inspection
b) Quality assurance
c) Configuration management
d) Testing
26
e) Verification and validation
Ans:c
6) I. Closeness of the accuracy between the population defective
rate and the
sample defective Rate
II. Desired level of confidence
III. Skewness of the graph
IV. Kurtosis of the graph
V. Variability of the data

When designing a plan for estimating the defective rate of a


software population, the
sample size depends on which two of the criteria listed above?

I and IV
I and II
II and V
IV and V
I and III

9) I. Input domain
II. Processing
III. Output
IV. Acceptance criteria
V. Data quality

Which of the above examples are included in requirements statements?

a) I, II, and III


b) II, III, and V
c) I, II, III, and IV
d) I, II, III, and V
e) II, III, and IV

Ans:c
10) Which one of the following is NOT part of clean room
development?

a) White box testing


b) Statistics-based testing
c) Formal specifications
d) Block-structured development
e) Specification validation

11) Which one of the following is used as a tool for tracking an SQA
project?

a) PERT chart
b) Pareto chart
c) Cause and effect chart
d) Run chart
e) Control chart
Ans:b
27
12) Your audit indicates that the corporate quality management system
did NOT work as it should have. How should this finding be
categorized?
a) Minor nonconformance
b) Deficiency
c) Major nonconformance
d) Catastrophic failure
e) Observation

13) Your audit indicates that the corporate quality management system
did NOT work as it should have. How should this finding be
categorized?

a) Minor nonconformance
b) Deficiency
c) Major nonconformance
d) Catastrophic failure
e) Observation

14) What is testing in which the inner structure and control flow are
known and used in constructing test cases?

a) Regression testing
b) Platform testing
c) Unit testing
d) White box testing
e) Black box testing
Ans:d
15) I. Defect removal efficiency
II. Function point normalization of quality data
III. Defect tracking
IV. Formal inspections

Which of the above factors are NOT included in the ISO SQA
documentation?

a) II and III
b) I and IV
c) I and II
d) I and III
e) II and IV

15) Which one of the following is a method to identify the minority of


areas causing the majority of problems?

a) Predictive analysis
b) Capability analysis
c) Reliability modeling
d) Pareto analysis
e) Usage analysis
Ans:d
16) One annual award for quality is named for a former Secretary of
Commerce. While it is not explicitly for software, organizations that

28
win or merely compete for this award tend to produce higher-quality
software.

In the above statement, what is the name of this award?

a) Duran Award
b) Baldridge Award
c) Deming Award
d) Crosby Award
e) Taylor Award
Ans:b
17) A project you are working on will have four incremental builds. To
which build or builds should the requirements be mapped?

a) All
b) First and last only
c) Last only
d) First only
e) None
Ans:c
18) I. Formality
II. Clarity
III. Completeness

In the examples above, what is the primary purpose of taking the minutes
at configuration control board meetings?

a) III
b) II and III
c) II
d) I and II
e) I and III

19) What is the dominant standards-making body in the United


States?

a) ISO
b) ANSI
c) AFNOR
d) CCITT
e) ASQ

20) I. Product feasibility


II. Software requirements
III. Software Design
IV. Acceptance test

Which of the above reviews are necessary in order to ensure the


traceability of requirements in the implemented software?

a) II, III, and IV


b) I, II, and IV
c) II and III
29
d) I and II

21) I. Checklists have been perfected.


II. Checklists continue to evolve.
III. Measurements are focused on status of activities.
IV. Measurements are focused on performance.
V. Reliance on qualitative metrics continues.
VI. A method to quantify metrics is established.

As the organization matures from CMM Level 3 to Level 4, which of the


above occur with respect to configuration management?

a) I, III, and VI
b) II, III, and V
c) II, IV, and VI
d) II, III, and VI
e) I, II, and V

22) I. Checklists have been perfected.


II. Checklists continue to evolve.
III. Measurements are focused on status of activities.
IV. Measurements are focused on performance.
V. Reliance on qualitative metrics continues.
VI. A method to quantify metrics is established.

As the organization matures from CMM Level 3 to Level 4, which of the


above occur with respect to configuration management?

a) I, III, and VI
b) II, III, and V
c) II, IV, and VI
d) II, III, and VI
e) I, II, and V

23) In the Capability Maturity Model, at which level is effective


measurement mastered?

a) Level 1
b) Level 2
c) Level 3
d) Level 4
e) Level 5
Ans:e

24) What do you call a collection of descriptions of the data items for
the benefit of programmers and others who might need to refer to
them?

a) A specification
b) A data dictionary
c) A repository
d) A data model
e) A data map
Ans:b
30
25) You are participating in a milestone review for a test. Lower
complexity modules are being tested first. Halfway through the
scheduled test time, 100 major faults have been reported and test
coverage is 35 percent. Management asks if you are concerned.

In the above scenario, what is your best response?

a) No--you are halfway through the test and you have no


catastrophic faults.
b) Yes--you are only halfway through the test and you have a
lot of faults.
c) No--the lower complexity modules are being tested first.
d) Yes--the lower complexity modules are being tested first.
e) Yes--test coverage is only 35 percent though the test is
halfway through its schedule.

26) Which one of the following is the most cost-effective?

a) Let defects surface during beta testing.


b) Detect defects during unit testing.
c) Prevent defects rather than detect them.
d) Ignore minor defects.
Ans:c
e) Detect defects during system testing.

27) I. Psychology of inspection


II. Technical knowledge
III. Management participation
IV. Inspection process training

Which of the factors above are important factors in successful


inspections?

a) II, III, and IV


b) II and IV
c) I, II, and III
d) I and II
e) I, II and IV

28) In object-oriented programming, what is the inclusion within a


program object of all the resources needed for the object to function?
(For example, the methods and the data)

a) Emulation
b) Encapsulation
c) Decapsulation
d) Encryption
e) Simulation
Ans:b
29) Which one of the following is true of a cumulative frequency
distribution?

a) It is often a straight line.


b) It can curve upward or downward.
31
c) It always curves upward.
d) It always curves downward.
e) It is similar to a scatter plot.
Ans:a,b
30) What is the term for migrating an aging legacy application to a new
version?

a) Restructuring
b) Regression
c) Reengineering
d) Reusability
e) Reverse engineering
Ans:c
31) I. Requirements are formally reviewed.
II. Requirements are formally approved.
III. Requirements are placed under configuration control.
IV. Requirements are implemented in code.

Using the above statements, when are requirements considered


baselined?

a) I, II, and III


b) I and II
c) I, III, and IV
d) I only
e) I, II, III, and IV
Ans:b
32) I. Inspection participation
II. Clean-room development
III. Configuration control tools
IV. Component reuse

Of the activities listed above, which can be considered defect prevention


methods?

a) I, II, III, and IV


b) II, III, and IV
c) IV
d) II
e) II and IV

33) What test demonstrates to the users and buyers that the system
fulfills the contractual requirements?

a) Acceptance test
b) System test
c) Validation test
d) Regression test
e) Unit test
Ans:a
34) I. Planning
II. Overview
III. Preparation
32
IV. Inspection Meeting
V. Rework
VI. Follow-up

Per the above examples, after which phases are inspections mandatory?

a) I, II, III, IV, and V


b) I, II, IV, V, and VI
c) I, II, III, IV, and VI
d) I II, III, IV, and V
e) I, III, IV, V, and VI
Ans:d

35) Testing on a number of modules or programs combined into a


package is what type of testing?

a) Unit testing
b) Regression testing
c) Acceptance testing
d) Integration testing
e) System testing

Ans:d
36) What is the single most important component in a software QA
program?

a) Automated data collection


b) Trained software QA analysts
c) Comprehensive checklists
d) Commitment from senior management
e) Accurate data collection
Ans:b,e
37) What is external testing that involves the customers?

a) Stress testing
b) System testing
c) Beta testing
d) Integration testing
e) Platform testing
Ans:c

38) What is a test called that is executed to ensure that NONE of the
unchanged code has been corrupted by the changed code?

a) Acceptance test
b) Regression test
c) Unit test
d) Mutation test
e) Integration test
Ans:e

39) What is the dominant SQA certification body in the United States?

33
a) IEEE
b) ACM
c) NIST
d) ASQ
e) ANSI

40) What is the term for decomposing a software program so that latent
design information can be extracted?

a) Restructuring
b) Reusability
c) Reverse engineering
d) Regression
e) Reengineering
Ans:e
41) On which one of the following is statistical quality control based?

a) Sampling
b) 50% inspection
c) 90% inspection
d) 95% inspection
e) 100% inspection

Code: ZC11223-WYHH-UHSY(1st)

42) You are participating in a program review. A large number of


requirements discrepancies are being discovered, yet the software
development organization has a CMM rating of 3.

In the scenario above, the project is probably in which one of the


following stages of the
lifecycle?
a) Maintenance
b) Design
c) Unit testing
d) Deployment/roll-out
e) System testing

43) I. Essential complexity is derived from cyclomatic complexity.


II. Cyclomatic complexity is derived from essential complexity.
III. Cyclomatic complexity is often much larger than essential
complexity.
IV. Essential complexity is often much larger than cyclomatic
complexity.
V. Essential complexity and cyclomatic complexity are usually
within five percent of
each other.

34
In the above examples, what is the relationship between essential
complexity and
cyclomatic complexity?

a) I and IV
b) I and V
c) II and IV
d) II and V
e) I and III

46) What is the dominant international standard-issuing body?

a) IEEE
b) ANSI
c) ACM
d) ISO
e) AQC

47) On which one of the following does a CMM Level 5 organization


focus on?

a) Product stabilization
b) Cost improvement
c) Schedule improvement
d) Process improvement
e) Process stabilization
Ans:d
48) I. Defect correction
II. Defect prediction
III. Personnel appraisal
IV. Resource allocation
V. Cost estimation

The items listed above are possible uses of data collected during code
inspections. Which
are the only acceptable uses of the data?

a) I, II, and III


b) I, II, and V
c) II, IV, and V
d) I, II, IV, and V
e) II, III, IV, and V

48) What is the primary difference between Verification & Validation


(V&V) and Test &
Evaluation (T&E)?

a) Testing is only one component of V&V, albeit the most critical.


b) The essence of V&V rests in requirements traceability; the essence
of T&E is in the actual exercising of the software.
c) V&V is always performed by an outside entity; T&E is always
performed internally.
35
d) The essence of V&V is in the actual exercising of the software; the
essence of T&E is in requirements traceability.
e) V&V can be accomplished without executing the software, though it
usually is not.

50) What happens to the cost of fixing software defects as software


development progresses?

a) It decreases linearly.
b) It decreases exponentially.
c) It remains constant.
d) It increases exponentially.
e) It increases linearly.

51) I. Configuration control


II. Performance
III. Reliability
IV. Efficiency
V. Responsiveness
VI. Presentation

The items listed above represent a partial list of areas of emphasis for
software QA. Which one of these is the most important area of emphasis
for weapon system software?

a) I
b) II
c) III
d) IV
e) VI

52)The following is a partial list of items required at the final software


audits before going into production.

I. Requirements specifications
II. Final source code
III. All approved change proposals
IV. Operation and support manuals
V. Software test plan
VI. Coding standards

a) II and V
b) I, III, and V
c) II, III, V and VI
d) I, IV, and VI
e) III, V, and VI
Ans:d
53) What type of testing is the lowest form of testing?

a) System testing
b) Integration testing
c) Performance testing
d) Regression testing
36
e) Unit testing
Ans:e
54) I. Defining SQA milestones
II. Assigning SQA resources
III. SQA scheduling
IV. SQA budgeting
V. Selecting software development tools that will interface with
the SQA tools
VI. Reviewing any contracts with subcontractors for SQA
requirements

In the above statements, which of the tasks are included in planning


the overall SQA effort?

a) I, II, III, and V


b) I, II, III, and IV
c) III, IV, V, and VI
d) II, III, V, and VI
e) I, III, V, and VI

55) ABC Corp. is developing an online transaction system. It will be


used by a maximum of 350 data entry clerks. The requirements are not
well defined, and the customer wants frequent, extensive reviews of the
product under development.

In the scenario above, which is the best development model to use?

a) Canonical
b) Bottoms-up
c) Rapid prototyping
d) Spiral
e) Waterfall

56) I. Requirements
II. Design
III. Coding
IV. Document
V. Bad fixes

Of the software defect types are listed above, which three are the
most difficult to identify?

a) II, III, and IV


b) I, IV, and V
c) I, II, and V
d) III, IV, and V
e) I, III, and V

57) Which one of the following is a method to identify the minority of


areas causing the majority of problems?

a) Capability analysis
b) Pareto analysis
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c) Predictive analysis
d) Reliability modeling
e) Usage analysis
Ans:b
58) For which one of the following is the Capability Maturity Model a
framework?

a) Environment improvement
b) Requirements improvement
c) Organizational improvement
d) Process improvement
e) Product improvement

59) I. Policymaker
II. Technical specialist
III. Project manager
IV. Software development manager

The personnel listed above represent a partial list of candidates for


the configuration control board (CCB). In addition to software QA and
software CM, which of these personnel should be included on the CCB?

a) II and III
b) I, II, III, and IV
c) II
d) II and IV
e) I and II

60) After which phase is the inspection process optional?

a) Rework
b) Planning
c) Preparation
d) Inspection meeting
e) Overview

61) I . Entities
II. Relationships
III. Algorithms
IV. Inputs
V. Outputs
Unlike the standard IFPUG function point metric, the British Mark II
function point metric includes counts of which two objects in the above
examples?

a) III and V
b) II and III
c) I and III
d) I and II
e) III and IV

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1. Software testing activities should start
a. as soon as the code is written
b. during the design stage
c. when the requirements have been formally documented
d. as soon as possible in the development lifecycle

2. Faults found by users are due to:


a. poor quality software
b. poor software and poor testing
c. bad luck
d. insufficient time for testing

3. What is the main reason for testing software before releasing it?
a. to show that the system will work after release
b. to decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release
c. to find as many bugs as possible before release
d. to give information for a risk-based decision about release
e. to use up the time between the end of development and release

4. Which of the following statements is not true:


a. Performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as
during the testing of the
whole system.
b. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression
test.
c. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews,
Inspection, etc).
d. Test environments should be as similar to production environments
as possible.

5. When reporting faults found to developers, testers should be:


a. as polite, constructive and helpful as possible
b. firm about insisting that a bug is not a "feature" if it should
be fixed
c. diplomatic, sensitive to the way they may react to criticism
d. subservient, after all the developers know what they are doing
e. a, b and c above

6. In which order should tests be run?


a. the most important tests first
b. the most difficult tests first (to allow maximum time for fixing)
c. the easiest tests first (to give initial confidence)
d. the order they are thought of

7. The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered,


the more expensive it is to fix. Why?
a. the documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what
the software is doing.
b. wages are rising
39
c. the fault has been built in to more documentation, code, tests,
etc.
d. none of the above

8. Which is not true - The black box tester


a. should be able to understand a functional specification or
requirements document
b. should be able to understand the source code
c. is highly motivated to find faults
d. is creative to find the system's weaknesses

9. A test design technique is


a. a process for selecting test cases
b. a process for determining expected outputs
c. a way to measure the quality of software
d. a way to describe in a test plan what has to be done
e. all of the above

10. Testware (test cases, test data, etc.)


a. needs configuration management just like requirements, design and
code
b. should be newly constructed for each new version of the software
c. is needed only until the software is released into production or
use
d. does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form
part of the released software system

Domain 1 Objective questions


1) Which of the following is not a part of cost of quality?
a) Production costs b) Appraisal c) Prevention costs d) Failure

Ans: a

2) Which of the following is not a misconception about testing?


a) Testing identifies errors, and there for appears to place the blame for those errors
on the development organization b) Anyone can test and no particular set of
skills are required
c) Developers spend more time debugging than actually testing
d) Tester can test the quality at the end of development project

Ans : c

3) The cost of a production bug is ________ times. a)30-40% b) 40-50% c) 70-80%


d) 100%
Ans:d

4) Testing will not improve bad coding techniques or poor coding structure (T/F) T

5) Who is not having interest in software testing?


a) Customer b) Software user c) Software developers d) All the three e) None
Ans :e
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6) A requirement incorporated into product that was not specified is a defect (T/F) T

7) The number of defects produced in building software will depend on the maturity
of the process (T/F) T

8) Over testing is a burden to organization (T/F) T

9) Testing itself is error-prone (T/F) T

10) Did we build the system right is ---------- a) Validation b) Verification c) a,b d)
None
Ans :a

11) --------is dynamic testing. a) Validation b) Verification c) a,b d) None


Ans :a

12) ---- is a way of illustrating and documenting how a specific activity is to be


performed
a) Structural testing b) Work bench c) RTM d) Review
Ans:b

13) Black box testing is more important when compared to white box testing (T/F) F

14) --- uses drivers


a) Bottom up strategy b) Top down strategy c) Both a and b d) None
Ans:a

15) Integration testing is


a) White box b) Black box c) Incremental d) All the three
Ans:d

16) Acceptance testing is


a) White box b) Black box c) Incremental d) All the three

Ans:b
17) Which of the following is not part of system testing?
a) White box b) Black box d) Incremental d) Thread testing
Ans:a

18) Which of the following is true for review?


a) The product is reviewed, not the producer b) Defects and issues are identified
not corrected
c) All members of the reviewing team are responsible for the results of the review
d) All the three
Ans:d

19) Formal reviews are also known as


a) Walk through b) Inspection c) Peer reviews d) Work bench

Ans:b

20) --------- is doing right things


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a) Efficiency b) Effectiveness c) a & b d) None

Domain 2

Ans: b
1) Which of the following is not a part of SDLC?
a) System design b) Maintenance c) Evaluation and acceptance d) Definition

Ans:b

2) Detailed planning for the development is done in ---- phase of SDLC


a) Initiation b) Definition c) System design d) None
Ans :
3) Certification of contractor-produced products is included in Project Plan (T/F) T

4) ------ Prepares functional requirements documents to serve as the basis of


procurement action
a) System designer b) System architect c) Project manager d) Senior programmer

Ans :C

5) Testing of systems under development is practical unless well-defined


documentation exists (T/F) F

6) Which of the following is not a purpose of risk analysis?


a) To identify external control
b) To determine the nature and magnitude of associated threats
c) To determine the resulting potential loss
d) None
Ans : a

7) Risk analysis findings should be reviewed and revisited as necessary during each
phase of SDLC (T/F) T

8) Cost benefit analysis report in conjunction with --- provide the information for
management to make decisions to initiate/continue the development procurement of
software or other SDLC-related components
a) Defect prevention reports b) Feasibility study c) Configuration management report
d) None
Ans :b

9) Which of the following is not a part of 11-step testing process?


a) Assess development plan b) Acceptance test c) Evaluate test effectiveness d) None
Ans:d

10) Structural analysis based tests are set to uncover errors that occur during --- of the
program
a) Requirement design b) Coding c) Requirement definition d) Implementation

Ans:b

11) --- testing determines the standards are followed and documentation is complete
42
a) Compliance b) Operations b) Recovery d) Execution

Ans:a

12) --- Testing ensures old and new systems can work together
a) Control b) Parallel c) Inter systems d) Regression

Ans: b

13) ----determines the extent to which a program can be expected to perform


a) Correctness b) Reliability c) Maintainability d) Interoperability

Ans:b

14) Quality can be achieved internally (T/F) F (Quality cannot be achieved without
customer)

15) Testing that the JCL statements and other operating systems support features
perform the predetermined tasks is an example of
a) Compliance testing b) Security testing c) Operations testing d) Requirement testing

ans: C
16) Project plan is prepared on
a) Initiation phase b) Definition c) System design d) None

Ans:b

Domain 3 & 5

1) Listening is the most frequently used form of communication (T/F) T

2) Which of the following is not a reason for people not to listen?


a) People are self-conscious about their communication abilities b) External stimuli
like noise c) Lack of motivation d) None
Ans :d

3) Which of the following is not a channel of communication incorporated into speech


a) Information channel b) Verbal channel c) Graphic channel d) None
Ans:d

4) Fact gathering is generally --- type of listening


a) Discriminative b) Comprehensive c) Therapeutic d) Critical

Ans:b
5) In ---- listening, the listener is performing an analysis of what the speaker said
a) Discriminative b) Comprehensive c) Therapeutic d) Critical
Ans:c

6) In --- listening, the listener automatically switches to the listener


a) Discriminative b) Appreciative c) Therapeutic d) Critical
Ans:b

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7) Salespersons often lose sales because they believe talking is more important than
listening (T/F) T

8) If you are conducting a meeting with people from different locations, it is always
advisable to conduct the meeting in your own area (T/F) F

9) In discussions most of the time it is advisable to seek information/output from


members outside the taskforce (T/F) F

10) Objections coming in discussions are normal and positive step of change (T/F) T

11) You are forming a COE for testing. The leader chosen for this is someone who
does not have much idea on this, but a good leader. You will support this or not (Y/N)
Y

12) -- is something which is capable of exploiting vulnerability in the security of a


computer system.
a) Risk b) Control c) Threat d) Defect

Ans:C

13) Risk associated with legacy systems are more compared to multi-tiered systems.
(T/F) F

14) Which of the following is not a risk associated with the development and
installation of a computer system
a) Results of the system will be unreliable b) System will be difficult to operate c)
Performance level will be unacceptable d) None

ans:d
15) For an application, you are confirming with other applications for reasonableness
of timing requirements. This is – kind of testing
a) Inter systems b) Control c) Operations d) Compliance
Ans:b

16) The cost of fixing a defect in an application is more than its impact loss. But it is
recommended to fix the defect. (T/F) F

17) --- is something that tends to cause the reduction of risk


a) Control b) Vulnerability c) Defect prevention d) Threat
Ans:a

18) Early users of new technology frequently do not consume large amounts of
resources/effort (T/F) F

19) In IT industry concentration of responsibilities is not a risk (T/F) F

20) Risks associated with testing are less (T/F) F

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