Cse Study Guide 5th Ed

Control Systems
Engineering (CSE)
Study Guide,
Fifth Edition
for the Professional Engineering
(PE) Licensing Examination
Standards
Certication
Education & Training
Publishing
Conferences & Exhibits
CONTROL SYSTEMS ENGINEERING
STUDY GUIDE
Fifth Edition
FOR THE
PROFESSIONAL ENGINEERING
LICENSING EXAMINATION
International Society of Automation
P.O. Box 12277
Research Triangle Park, NC 27709
Notice
The information presented in this publication is for the general education of the
reader. Because neither the author nor the publisher has any control over the use of
the information by the reader, both the author and the publisher disclaim any and all
liability of any kind arising out of such use. The reader is expected to exercise sound
professional judgment in using any of the information presented in a particular
application.
Additionally, neither the author nor the publisher have investigated or considered the
effect of any patents on the ability of the reader to use any of the information in a
particular application. The reader is responsible for reviewing any possible patents
that may affect any particular use of the information presented.
Any references to commercial products in the work are cited as examples only.
Neither the author nor the publisher endorses any referenced commercial product.
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times, even if in conflict with the information in this publication.
Copyright 2012 by ISA
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ISBN: 978-1937560-03-4
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PREFACE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1
GENERAL INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
STATE LICENSING REQUIREMENTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
Eligibility. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
Examination Schedule. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4
Application Procedures and Deadlines . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4
DESCRIPTION OF EXAMINATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4
Exam Format. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4
Exam Content . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
EXAMINATION DEVELOPMENT. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
Exam Validity. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
Exam Specifications . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
Exam Preparation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6
MINIMUM COMPETENCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6
SCORING PROCEDURES. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6
EXAMINATION PROCEDURES AND INSTRUCTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7
Reference Materials . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7
Exam Materials. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8
Starting and Completing the Exam. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8
Special Accommodations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8
TIPS ON TAKING PE EXAMINATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9
REFERENCES FOR CSE EXAMINATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 11
GENERAL REFERENCES. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 11
SPECIFIC KNOWLEDGE AREAS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13
I. Measurement. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13
II. Signals and Transmission . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 14
III. Final Control Elements . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 14
IV. Control Systems . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 15
V. Safety Systems . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 16
VI. Codes and Standards . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 17
TABLE OF CONTENTS
APPENDIX A
CSE EXAM SPECIFICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 23
APPENDIX B
SAMPLE QUESTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29
APPENDIX C
ANSWERS TO SAMPLE QUESTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 73
APPENDIX D
SAMPLE EXAMINATION MATERIALS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 89
1
Control Systems Engineering (CSE) was recognized by a vote of the National
Council of Examiners for Engineering and Surveying (NCEES) at its annual
meeting in Nashua, New Hampshire, on August 10, 1991. Recognition means
that an examination will be developed by NCEES, with help from a
professional society, and offered for use by boards for engineering licensing in
the United States.
NCEES recognition followed a request by control systems engineers to the
Texas Board of Registration for Professional Engineers that it accept CSEs for
licensing in that state. The Texas Board, in turn, asked NCEES to provide an
approved examination. Meetings with CSEs, mostly ISA members, showed
NCEES committee and staff members that this new discipline satisfied their
criteria for recognition: existence of ABET-accredited programs in the field; an
effect on the public health, safety and welfare, and a need on the part of the
profession; sufficient numbers to justify preparation of an exam; and
availability of a professional society willing to support an exam program. An
exam committee was required to submit a two-year supply of acceptable
exam problems.
The supporting professional society is ISA The International Society of
Automation, originally the Instrument Society of America (ISA).
CSE was first recognized in California in the 1970s. A limited period of
licensing without examination (grandfathering) occurred in 1975-76, and an
exam was administered starting in 1978. The California exam did not meet
NCEES standards and was not accepted by other states for registration by
reciprocity. These difficulties were removed with availability of an NCEES-
approved exam, administered for the first time in October, 1992.
By April 2010, forty-six state boards had agreed to offer the CSE exam. The
other boards (Alaska, Hawaii, New York and Rhode Island) have asked for a
showing of need and interest in their states before they will recognize CSE.
PREFACE
3
INTRODUCTION
This study guide is published by ISA The International Society of
Automation, to assist candidates who are preparing for the Principles-and-
Practice of Engineering examination in Control Systems Engineering (CSE),
one of the requirements for licensure as a professional engineer.
The CSE exam is developed by the National Council of Examiners for
Engineering and Surveying (NCEES). The membership of NCEES is
comprised of the boards of registration in 55 US jurisdictions (50 states, 4
territories and the District of Columbia). As one of its functions, NCEES
provides these boards with uniform exams which are valid measures of
competency for the practice of engineering.
To develop reliable and valid exams, NCEES employs procedures using the
guidelines established in the Standards for Educational and Psychological
Testing (1985), published by the American Psychological Association. These
procedures are intended to maximize the fairness and quality of the exams.
The procedures require the involvement of experienced testing specialists
having the necessary expertise to develop examinations using current testing
techniques.
The exams are the result of careful preparation by committees comprised of
professional engineers from throughout the United States. These engineers
supply the content expertise which is essential in developing exams. By
utilizing the expertise of engineers with different backgrounds, such as
private consulting, government, industry and education, NCEES prepares
exams which are valid measures of competency.
STATE LICENSING REQUIREMENTS
Eligibility
Licensing of Control Systems Engineers (CSEs) is intended to protect the
public by ensuring that practitioners in this field possess a necessary level of
minimum competence. While exams offer one means of measuring the
competency levels of candidates, most jurisdictions also screen candidates
based upon education and experience requirements.
Licensing requirements vary from state to state, so it is necessary to contact
the appropriate board. Up-to-date phone numbers and addresses can be
obtained by calling the information operator in your state capitol, or by
checking the Internet at www.ncees.org or nspe.org.
GENERAL INFORMATION
4
Prior to 1998, most states did not have citizenship or residence requirements.
Now, as a result of the Welfare Reform Act passed by the US Congress in
1996, states cannot confer a benefit (including a professional or commercial
license) on a person who is not a US citizen or legal resident. However,
licenses can be issued to holders of certain types of visas for entry into the US.
Because the rules are complex, candidates affected by this regulation should
discuss their situation with one of the state boards.
Examination Schedule
The CSE exam is offered once per year, on the last weekend in October. Appli-
cation deadlines vary from state to state, but typically are about three or four
months ahead of the exam date.
Applicants for the CSE exam must have taken and passed the Fundamentals-
of-Engineering (FE) exam, also called the Engineer-in-Training (EIT) exam, or
have received a waiver of this exam. Many state boards will waive the FE/EIT
exam for persons with sufficient approved engineering experience, usually at
least eight years. This exam is given in April and October.
Note: Recipients of waivers may encounter difficulty in becoming licensed by
reciprocity or comity in another state where waivers are not available.
Therefore, applicants are advised that it may be advantageous to take and
pass the FE/EIT exam.
Application Procedures and Deadlines
Applications and information are available from the individual boards.
Requirements and fees vary among the jurisdictions, and applicants are
responsible for contacting their board office.
Sufficient time must be allotted to complete the application process and
assemble required data, including a professional work history, references, and
academic transcripts or other verifications of the applicant's engineering
education.
DESCRIPTION OF EXAMINATION
Exam Format
The NCEES Principles-and-Practice of Engineering exam (commonly called
the PE exam) in Control Systems Engineering (CSE) is an eight-hour exam,
administered in two four-hour sessions.
Each session contains forty (40) questions in a multiple-choice form.
Questions are stated in a standardized form. Questions start with a stem
which describes a situation an engineer might encounter in practice. Any
information or data that the examinee needs appears in the stem. Each
5
question has a correct answer and three incorrect answers. More than one
question may be based on a common stem.
All of the questions are compulsory; applicants are expected to answer all of
the questions. Each correct answer receives one point. If a question is omitted
or answered incorrectly, it will receive a score of zero. There is no penalty for
guessing.
Sample questions appear in Appendix B of this book.
Exam Content
The subject areas of the CSE exam are described by the exam specification
given in Appendix A.
EXAMINATION DEVELOPMENT
Exam Validity
Testing standards require that questions on a licensing exam be representative
of important tasks needed for competent practice in the profession. The
relation between the exam questions and these tasks is established by a
vocational or task analysis of the profession which identifies the duties
performed by practicing engineers. This information is used to develop an
exam content specification which guides development of job-related
questions.
In 1991, ISA retained a contractor to conduct a comprehensive professional
activities and requirements study of the CSE discipline. Questionnaires were
sent to 3200 professional engineers practicing as CSEs; approximately 800
replies were received. Based on their responses, a specification was developed
for an exam to measure critical aspects of the CSE profession. The first exam
was administered in October, 1992. The exam specification was modified
slightly when the all-multiple-choice format initiated in 1998.
Similar studies are performed for all of the disciplines in which NCEES
provides exams. The studies are repeated periodically to reflect changes in
technology. In 2002-3 and in 2009-11, following NCEEs policy, the CSE exam
specification was revised.
Exam Specifications
The examination specification presented in Appendix A shows six major
knowledge areas for CSEs. For each area, possible sub-areas and topics for
exam questions are listed.
6
Exam Preparation
Exams are developed by a standing ISA committee. Members of the
committee are CSEs, already registered as PEs, who volunteer to write or
review questions. ISA membership is not required.
A group of committee members meets at least twice annually, to determine
the passing score for the most recent exam or to select questions for future
exams. Between these meetings, committee members write new questions.
The content and format of the questions are reviewed by committee members
for compliance with the exam specifications and to assure the quality and
fairness of the exam. These engineers are representative of the profession in
terms of geographic location, area of practice, ethnic background, and gender.
MINIMUM COMPETENCE
One of the most critical considerations in developing and administering
exams for professional engineering registration or licensing is establishment
of passing scores which reflect a standard of minimum competence.
Minimum competence, as measured by the exam component of the licensing
process, is defined by NCEES as follows:
The lowest level of knowledge at which a person can practice professional
engineering in such a manner that will safeguard life, health and property and
promote the public welfare.
The concept of minimum competence is a primary concern of committee
members as they prepare questions for the exam.
SCORING PROCEDURES
Each question is worth 0 or 1 point, so the entire 8-hour exam has a maximum
score of 80 points.
Because it is impossible to write multiple-choice questions to a precise degree
of difficulty, a passing score cannot be set in advance but must be determined
individually for each exam administration.
However, candidates should understand that NCEES exams are NOT graded
by the curve so that pre-specified percentages of examinees will pass and
fail. Instead, they are graded by an item-specific, criterion-referenced
method, i.e., answers are evaluated in terms of what a minimally-competent
candidate is expected to know. With this procedure, each candidate is judged
separately and without regard to the performance of other examinees.
To achieve this result, a passing score workshop or equivalent procedure is
conducted for each exam.
7
At a passing-score workshop, a panel of engineers who have not been
involved with preparation of the exams is asked to study the questions and
independently estimate the fraction of minimally-competent candidates who
would answer each question correctly. These estimates are averaged for the
panel and then summed to obtain a passing score.
After each exam administration, examinees' answers are analyzed to
determine if any questions might have contained typographical or other
errors and thus have no correct answer, or might have more than one correct
answer under some circumstances. Examinees receive a form during the test
administration for use in calling attention to possible bad questions. Poor
questions are discarded or revised before further use.
Exam scoring and analysis is supervised by consulting psychometricians
(testing specialists) provided by NCEES.
Legal authority for licensing decisions rests with the individual registration
boards and not with NCEES or ISA. Consequently, each board has the
authority to fix its own passing score for the exam. NCEES provides each
board with a recommended passing score developed by the methods
described above; the recommended score is generally adopted by the boards.
Candidates may appeal a board decision, subject to rules established by the
board.
Note: In some states, licensing exams must by law have a passing score
of 70. For these states, NCEES scales the raw scores so the maximum score
becomes 100 and the passing score becomes 70. Where this occurs, scores are
not directly comparable from state to state, but the same group of applicants
will pass on either basis.
EXAMINATION PROCEDURES AND INSTRUCTIONS
Reference Materials
The PE exam in CSE is open-book. Your board determines the reference
materials and calculators that will be allowed. In general, you may use
textbooks, handbooks and bound reference materials; battery-operated, silent,
non-printing calculators are usually permitted. Bring spare batteries; do not
expect to be seated next to an electrical outlet.
Writing tablets, unbound notes or tables, and devices that could compromise
the security of the exam are NOT permitted. In the exam booklets, questions
are printed on the right-hand pages; the left-hand pages are blank and can be
used for calculations or scratch work. Examinees are prohibited from copying
questions for future use.
State boards differ in their rules regarding references and calculators, so you
should contact your board for its specific instructions.
8
Exam Materials
Before each session, proctors will distribute exam booklets and answer sheets
to be used in responding to the questions.
The exam booklet should not be opened until you are instructed to do so by
the proctor. Read the instructions and information given on the front and back
covers. Enter your name in the upper right corner of the front cover. Listen
carefully to all instructions read by the proctor.
ALL answers must be recorded on the answer sheets in the spaces
corresponding to the question numbers. NO credit is given for anything
written in the exam booklet.
The answer sheets for the multiple-choice questions are machine scored. For
proper scoring, the answer spaces should be blackened completely. Use only
#2 pencils or mechanical pencils with HB lead. Marks in ink or felt-tip pens
may not be scanned accurately. If you decide to change an answer, the first
answer must be erased completely. Incomplete erasures and stray marks may
be read as intended answers.
One side of the answer sheet is used to collect identification and biographical
data. Proctors will guide you through this part of the answer sheet prior to
your taking the test. The process will take about 15 minutes.
Copies of the answer sheets described above are given in the following pages.
It will be wise to become familiar with them before the exam.
Starting and Completing the Exam
You are not to open the exam booklet until instructed to do so by the proctor.
Inside the front cover is additional important information. If you should
complete the exam with more than 30 minutes remaining, you are free to
leave. Within 30 minutes of the end of the exam, you are required to remain
until the end to avoid disrupting those still working and to permit orderly
collection of all exam materials.
Regardless of when you complete the exam, you are responsible for returning
the numbered exam booklet assigned to you. Cooperate with the proctors
collecting the exam materials. Nobody will be allowed to leave until the
proctor has verified that all materials have been collected.
Special Accommodations
If you need special accommodations in the test-taking procedure, due to a
disabling condition, you should communicate your need to your board office
well in advance of the examination day so that appropriate arrangements can
be made.
9
Advance study, either individual or in an organized review course, is
generally helpful in preparing for a PE exam. Surveys show that the
principle of diminishing returns sets in after 40-100 hours of preparation.
Last-minute cramming is probably not helpful. A good night's sleep is
advised before the exam.
Check that you have the necessary references, calculator, replacement
batteries, pencils, etc., before leaving for the exam site. Tape recorders,
cameras, cell phones, walkie-talkie radios and other communication
devices are prohibited in exam rooms.
Plan to arrive early at the exam site, allowing for delays in travel and
parking.
Before starting to answer any questions, read all of them. Rank them by
the apparent degree of difficulty for you. Tackle the easiest questions first,
then the next easiest, and so on, until you have answered all of the
questions in the morning or afternoon half of the exam. This approach will
leave more time for the tougher questions at the end of the session.
Because the morning and afternoon sessions are each four hours, you will
have approximately six minutes per question, not counting the time spent
reviewing the entire exam before starting.
If you finish the exam ahead of time, check your calculations or try
answering a question by an alternate method.
If you are running short of time or are uncertain about the correct
answer, try to eliminate clearly incorrect answers and make a guess
among the remaining answers (since there is no penalty for guessing).
Do not change your initial answer to a problem unless there is an obvi-
ous oversight or error.
TIPS ON TAKING PE EXAMINATIONS
11
The following pages list reference books that may be useful in preparing for
and taking the PE examination in CSE. The list has been organized into the
same topic areas as the exam. Where possible, several books have been listed
for each topic, and excerpts from the tables of contents are included to assist
candidates in comparing these books with other similar references.
It is NOT suggested that candidates should be familiar with or own all of the
following books, because there are substantial overlaps in coverage of the
exam content in the listed books. Instead, candidates should review these
books and other similar books, select a limited number of references covering
the major areas of the CSE exam, and study the selected references to learn
where particular topics are covered.
Some of the listed references may be out of print or unavailable. However,
their coverage of basic principles may still be valid and useful. Some older
references may have been replaced by newer editions, so be alert to this
possibility.
No representation is made or intended that mastery of the content of the listed
references is sufficient to assure passing the CSE exam.
GENERAL REFERENCES
Below is a list of reference material that one successful PE examinee used:
REFERENCES FOR CSE EXAMINATION
ISA offers a wide range of books, standards, electronic media
products, and training courses on control systems
engineering, some of which are abstracted in this section. A
free catalog can be obtained by contacting ISA at P.O. Box
12277, Research Triangle Park, NC 27709; phone (919) 549-
8411, FAX (919) 549-8288.
ISBN Title
Author/Editor/
Publisher
0-8493-1083-0 Instrument Engineers Handbook, 4th
Edition, Vol. 1: Process Measurement and
Analysis
Bla G. Liptk
0-8493-1081-4 Instrument Engineers Handbook, 4th
Edition, Vol. 2: Process Control and
Optimization
Bla G. Liptk
12
This list is presented here as an example of the references that met an
individuals specific needs. This list provides a good starting point for a
candidates development of his/her study reference list and exam reference
material. The material that you use should be based on your background and
references that you are familiar with and meets your jurisdiction (state,
territory, or district) guidelines and limitations.
The following references cover more than one of the areas included in the CSE
exam:
D. A. Coggan, FUNDAMENTALS OF INDUSTRIAL CONTROL, ISA,
2005. [Sensors; analyzers; process control; final elements; computer
technology; control theory; analog and digital control devices;
0-87201-382-0 Applied Instrumentation in the Process
Industries Volume I 2nd Edition A Survey
W.G. Andrew & H.B.
Williams
0-87201-047-3 Applied Instrumentation in the Process
Industries Volume III 3rd Edition
Engineering Data & Resource Material
W.G. Andrew & H.B.
Williams
0-8019-6766-x Instrumentation for Process Measurement &
Control 3rd Edition
Norman A. Anderson
0-07-012445-0 Process/Industrial Instruments & Controls
Handbook 4th Edition
Douglas M. Considine
0-932276-31-8 EIT Review Manual -Professional
Publications, Inc.
Michael R. Lindeburg,
P.E. Professional
Engineering Institute
Flow of Fluids Through Valves, Fittings, &
Pipe Technical Paper No. 410
The Crane Company
Flow Meter Engineering Handbook 5th
Edition
C.F. Cusick
Honeywell
951-95409-9-7 Flow Control Manual Lasse Kamppari
Neles-Jamesbury
Engineering Handbook For Neles-Jamesbury
Control Valves Technical Bulletin T150-1
Neles-Jamesbury
Engineering Data Gorman-Rupp Pumps
Programmable Controllers Practices &
Concepts
R.A. Gilbert & J.A.
Llewellyn
Control Valve Handbook 2nd Edition Fisher Controls
Company http://
www.emersonprocess
.com/fisher/
products/
documentation.html
Cameron Hydraulic Data 3rd Edition C.C. Heald Ingersoll
Rand
978-1-55617-
995-2
The Condensed Handbook of Measurement
and Control, Third Edition
N.E. Battikha P.E.
Consolidated Safety Relief Valves SRV-1 Dresser Industrial
Valves
978-193756-
0034
Control Systems Engineering Study Guide
5th Edition
ISA
13
telemetry; distributed control systems; programmable controllers;
ergonomics, human factors and safety; applications; engineering
practices]
W. G. Andrew and H. B. Williams, APPLIED INSTRUMENTATION
IN THE PROCESS INDUSTRIES - Vol. 3 (3rd Ed.), Gulf Publishing
Company, Houston, TX, 1993. [Fluid flow; engineering graphical
symbols; charts; tables; nomographs; formulas; typical installation
details; typical calculations.]
N. E. Battikha, CONDENSED HANDBOOK OF MEASUREMENT
AND CONTROL (3rd Ed.), ISA, 2007. [Symbols; instrument and
control valve selection; control loops; conversion factors; and other
reference material.]
B. G. Liptk, INSTRUMENT ENGINEERS' HANDBOOK - PROCESS
CONTROL AND OPTIMIZATION, 4th Ed., ISA, 2005 [Control theory;
controller, transmitters, converters and relays; control centers, panels
and displays; control valves, on-off and throttling; regulators; PLCs
and other logic devices; DCS and computer-based systems; process
control systems]
Bryon Lewis, CSE, PE, CONTROL SYSTEMS ENGINEERING EXAM
REFERENCE MANUAL: A PRACTICAL STUDY GUIDE (1st Ed.,
2007) [Reference material and information on control systems covering
the major topical areas of the PE exam]
SPECIFIC KNOWLEDGE AREAS
The following references cover one or more knowledge areas of the CSE exam
identified in the exam specification (Appendix A).
I. Measurement
B. G. Liptk, INSTRUMENT ENGINEERS' HANDBOOK - Process
Measurement and Analysis (4th Ed.), ISA, 2005. [Instrument symbols,
performance, and terminology; measurement of flow, level,
temperature, pressure and density; safety, weight and miscellaneous
sensors; analytical instrumentation]
D. R. Gillum, INDUSTRIAL PRESSURE, LEVEL AND DENSITY
MEASUREMENT (2nd Ed.), ISA, 2009. [Fluid properties; gauges,
transmitters and transducers; level measurement theory; hydrostatic
head; electrical level measurements; liquid density measurement.]
R. W. Miller, FLOW MEASUREMENT ENGINEERING HANDBOOK
(3rd Ed.), Gulf Publishing Company, Houston, TX, 1996. [Fluid
properties; measurement; flowmeters; equations; design; installation.]
14
G. K. McMillan, ADVANCED pH MEASUREMENT AND CONTROL
(3rd Ed.), ISA, 2005. [pH chemistry; titration curves; pH measurement;
mixing equipment; control valves; control systems; controller tuning;
checkout and troubleshooting.]
R. E. Sherman, ANALYTICAL INSTRUMENTATION, ISA, 1996.
R. H. Dieck, MEASUREMENT UNCERTAINTY (4th Ed.), ISA, 2007.
[Basics; use of correlation; curve-fitting problems; probability plotting;
combining different test methods; calibration errors; propagation of
uncertainties]
II. Signals and Transmission
L. M. Thompson, INDUSTRIAL DATA COMMUNICATIONS (4th
Ed.), ISA, 2007. [Introduction; history; signals and codings; modems;
serial and parallel communications; 100 MBps and 1000 MBps
Ethernet; RIP and OSPF router technologies; OLE for Process Control
(OPC); Active X, DCOM, virtual private networks; protocols and
security]
P. S. Marshall and John S. Rinaldi, INDUSTRIAL ETHERNET (2nd
Ed.), ISA, 2005. [Basics of common Ethernet-based networks including
Modbus/TCP, EtherNet/IP, ProfiNet, Foundation Fieldbus HSE, IDA
and wireless Ethernet; installation, maintenance, troubleshooting, and
security tips]
I. Verhappen and A. Pereira, FOUNDATION FIELDBUS (3rd Ed.),
ISA, 2009. [Foundation Fieldbus H1 protocol; installation tips; rules for
cabling length; documentation; commissioning checklist; system
sizing formulas; integrating with other systems]
J. Berge, FIELDBUSES FOR PROCESS CONTROL, ISA, 2002. [HART,
FOUNDATION Fieldbus, and PROFIBUS-PA; Field-level and
Ethernet-based host-level networking; capabilities; interoperability,
integration and migration; availability and safety; benefits]
III. Final Control Elements
Guy Borden (Ed.), CONTROL VALVES, ISA, 1998. [Control valves,
body assemblies, actuators and accessories; design and construction;
applications; safety; troubleshooting; maintenance; testing; standards;
valve-related computer programs; regulators]
B. Fitzgerald, CONTROL VALVES FOR THE CHEMICAL PROCESS
INDUSTRIES, Gulf Publishing Company, Houston, TX, 1995. [Basic
types; design and material considerations; valve and actuator sizing;
valve performance, installation and calibration; typical applications;
loop tuning]
15
H. D. Baumann, CONTROL VALVE PRIMER (4th Ed.), ISA, 2009.
[Control valves and control loops; selection and sizing; fail safety; flow
characteristics; positioners; actuators; stem forces; installation;
materials; environmental concerns; electric vs. pneumatic actuators]
D. W. Spitzer, VARIABLE SPEED DRIVES: PRINCIPLES AND
APPLICATIONS (3rd Ed.), ISA, 2004. [Basics; utilities and costs;
applications of control valves; alternate final control elements;
variable-frequency drives; control valves vs. variable-speed drive
applications; economics; applications]
D. Polka, MOTORS AND DRIVES, ISA, 2002. [Principles of DC and
variable frequency AC drive technology; DC and AC motor and drive
operations; step motors; AC vector motors; brushless servo motors;
linear stepper and servo motors; tachometers, resolvers and encoders;
drive system control methods; maintenance and troubleshooting]
Also see standards ANSI/ISA-75.01.01-(IEC 60534-2-1 Mod)-2007FLOW
EQUATIONS FOR SIZING CONTROL VALVES and ANSI/ISA-75.05.01-
2000 (R2005)CONTROL VALVE TERMINOLOGY, as well as ASME VIII,
BOILER AND PRESSURE VESSEL CODE.
IV. Control Systems
T. McAvinew and R. D. Mulley, CONTROL SYSTEMS
DOCUMENTATION: APPLYING SYMBOLS AND
IDENTIFICATION (2nd Ed.), ISA, 2005. [Process flow diagrams;
detailed flow sheets; logic symbols; loop diagrams; ladder diagrams,
isometrics; installation details; location diagrams; document
numbering.]
Also see pertinent standards and recommended practices (such as ANSI/ISA
5.1-2009 for instrumentation symbols, loop and logic diagrams).
P. W. Murrill, FUNDAMENTALS OF PROCESS CONTROL THEORY
(3rd Ed.), ISA, 2000. [Basic concepts; control loops; block diagrams;
sensors and data transmission; typical measurements; controllers;
control valves; process dynamics; controller tuning; cascade,
feedforward and multivariable control; ratio, override and split-range
control; dead-time control; nonlinear and adaptive control; direct
digital control, supervisory, distributed and sequential or batch
control; new directions; graphic symbols; glossary]
W. S. Levine, THE CONTROL HANDBOOK, CRC Press, Boca Raton,
FL, 1996. [Mathematical foundations; dynamic models; analysis and
design methods for continuous systems; digital control; nonlinear
systems; analysis and design software; advanced control methods;
identification; applications]
16
S. M. Herb, UNDERSTANDING DISTRIBUTED PROCESS SYSTEMS
FOR CONTROL, ISA, 1999. [Introduction; evolution of plant-wide
process control; computing devices; controller hardware and software
structures; controller redundancy; user interfaces; alarms; networks,
physical and logical structures; open communications standards; plant
information; continuous and batch processes; system security;
reliability, failures and faults; safety systems; control system
implementation, justification, specification, vendor selection, testing
and installation; importance of distributed control; future trends;
glossary of terms and acronyms]
B. G. Liptk, INSTRUMENT ENGINEERS' HANDBOOK - Process
Software and Digital Networks (4th Ed.), ISA, 2011. [Overall plant
design; designing a safe plant; control center, workstation and logic
design; buses and networks; software packages for control loop
optimization, data reconciliation, and event-sequence recorders; batch
control; plantwide control; miscellaneous data tables]
D. W. Spitzer, ADVANCED REGULATORY CONTROL:
APPLICATIONS AND TECHNIQUES, Momentum Press, 2010.
[Manual control; field devices; controllers; PID control; controller
tuning; loop pairing; advanced regulatory control]
H. L. Wade, BASIC AND ADVANCED REGULATORY CONTROL:
SYSTEM DESIGN AND APPLICATION, ISA, 2004. [Mathematical
review; symbols and terminology; process characteristics; types of
control loops; standard and modified PID control; tuning; ratio,
cascade, feedforward, and selector control; interacting loops; model-
based control]
T. A. Hughes, PROGRAMMABLE CONTROLLERS (4th Ed.), ISA,
2005. [Introduction; numbering systems and codes; logic system
fundamentals; electrical design; input/output system; memory and
storage; basic and high-level programming languages; data
communication systems; applications; installation and maintenance]
V. Safety Systems
William M. Hawkins and T. G. Fisher, BATCH CONTROL SYSTEMS:
DESIGN, APPLICATION AND IMPLEMENTATION, ISA, 2006.
[Terminology; characteristics; architecture; communications; database
management; general requirements; safety interlock systems;
regulatory and sequence control; scheduling; recipes; design
approach; system hardware; reliability/availability; costs, benefits and
justification]
W. M. Goble, CONTROL SYSTEM SAFETY EVALUATION &
RELIABILITY (3rd Ed.), ISA, 2010. [Analytical tools including Fault
Tree Analysis (FTA), Reliability Block Diagrams (RBD), Failure Modes
and Effects Analysis (FMEA), Markov modeling; component failure
17
modes; on-line diagnostics; common cause; software reliability;
operational safety; design rules]
P. Gruhn and H. L. Cheddie, SAFETY INSTRUMENTED SYSTEMS:
DESIGN, ANALYSIS AND JUSTIFICATION, ISA, 2005. [Design life
cycle; risk; process vs. safety control; protection layers; developing
requirement specifications per ISA-84.01; safety integrity level;
choosing a technology; initial system evaluation; field device issues;
hardware and management considerations; installation; testing;
changes; justification; design checklist; case study]
E. M. Marszal and E. W. Scharpf, SAFETY INTEGRITY LEVEL
SELECTION, ISA, 2002. [Selecting safety integrity levels for safety
instrumented systems (SIS), accounting for existing layers of
protection; quantitative risk analysis]
E. C. Magison, ELECTRICAL INSTRUMENTS IN HAZARDOUS
LOCATIONS, ISA, 1998. [Area and material classification; hazard
reduction; ignition of gases and vapors; intrinsic safety; explosion-
proof housings; pressurization; standards; inspection, maintenance,
testing and calibration; testing laboratory certification; dust hazards]
VI. Codes and Standards
The following material lists codes and standards relevant to the practice of
CSE. The source, number and title of the codes or standards are given.
Because there are so many applicable codes and standards, it is not expected
that CSEs will memorize all their provisions, or bring copies of all of them to
the exam. When feasible, if exam problems call for details of a code or
standard, the needed information will be supplied as part of the problem
statement.
ISA The International Society of Automation
P.O. Box 12277
Research Triangle Park, NC 27709 (919) 549-8411
ANSI/ISA-5.1-2009 - INSTRUMENTATION SYMBOLS AND
IDENTIFICATION
ISA-5.2-1976 (R1992) - BINARY LOGIC DIAGRAMS FOR PROCESS
OPERATIONS
ISA-5.3-1983 - GRAPHIC SYMBOLS FOR DISTRIBUTED CONTROL/
SHARED DISPLAY INSTRUMENTATION, LOGIC, AND
COMPUTER SYSTEMS
ISA-5.4-1991 - STANDARD INSTRUMENT LOOP DIAGRAMS
18
ANSI/ISA-12.00.01-2002 - ELECTRICAL APPARATUS FOR USE IN
CLASS I, ZONE 0, 1, & 2 HAZARDOUS (CLASSIFIED) LOCATIONS
ISA-RP12.4-1996 - PRESSURIZED ENCLOSURES
ISA-18.1-1979 (R2004) - ANNUNCIATOR SEQUENCES AND
TERMINOLOGY
ISA-51.1-1979 (R1993) - PROCESS INSTRUMENTATION
TERMINOLOGY
ANSI/ISA-75.01.01 (IEC 60534-2-1 Mod)-2007 - FLOW EQUATIONS
FOR SIZING CONTROL VALVES
ANSI/ISA-75.11.01-1985 (R2002) - INHERENT FLOW
CHARACTERISTICS AND RANGEABILITY OF CONTROL VALVES
ANSI/ISA-84.00.01-2004 Part 1 (IEC 61511-1 Mod) - FUNCTIONAL
SAFETY: SAFETY INSTRUMENTED SYSTEMS FOR THE PROCESS
INDUSTRY SECTOR - PART 1: FRAMEWORK, DEFINITIONS,
SYSTEM, HARDWARE AND SOFTWARE REQUIREMENTS
INDUSTRY SECTOR - PART 2: GUIDELINES FOR THE
APPLICATION OF ANSI/ISA-84.00.01-2004 PART 1 (IEC 61511-1
MOD) INFORMATIVE
INDUSTRY SECTOR - PART 3: GUIDANCE FOR THE
DETERMINIATION OF THE REQUIRED SAFETY INTEGRITY
LEVELS - INFORMATIVE
ISA-MC96.1-1982 - TEMPERATURE MEASUREMENT
THERMOCOUPLES
ISA-RP60.3-1985 - HUMAN ENGINEERING FOR CONTROL
CENTERS
ANSI/ISA-60079-0 (12.00.01)-2009 - EXPLOSIVE ATMOSPHERES -
PART O: EQUIPMENT - GENERAL REQUIREMENTS
ANSI American National Standards Institute
25 W 43rd Street
New York, NY 10036 (212) 642-4900
ANSI/ASME PTC 19.1-2005 - MEASUREMENT UNCERTAINTY
19
ANSI/ASME PTC 19.2-1987 (R1998) - PRESSURE MEASUREMENT
INSTRUMENTS AND APPARATUS
ASME PTC 19.3 TW 2010 - THERMOWELLS - PERFORMANCE TEST
CODES
ASME PTC 19.22-2001 - DATA ACQUISITION SYSTEMS
API American Petroleum Institute
1220 L Street, NW
Washington, DC 20005-4070 (202) 682-8000
ANSI/API Spec 5L - SPECIFICATION FOR LINE PIPE, Forty-fourth
Edition
API RP 500 (R2002) - RECOMMENDED PRACTICE FOR
CLASSIFICATION OF LOCATIONS FOR ELECTRICAL
INSTALLATIONS AT PETROLEUM FACILITIES CLASSIFIED AS
CLASS I, DIVISION I AND DIVISION 2, 2nd Edition
ANSI/API RP 505 - RECOMMENDED PRACTICE FOR
CLASSIFICATION OF LOCATIONS FOR ELECTRICAL
INSTALLATIONS AT PETROLEUM FACILITIES CLASSIFIED AS
CLASS I, ZONE 0, AND ZONE 2, 1st Edition
API Std 520 - SIZING, SELECTION, AND INSTALLATION OF
PRESSURE-RELIEVING DEVICES IN REFINERIES, PART I - SIZING
AND SELECTION, Eighth Edition
API RP 521 - GUIDE FOR PRESSURE-RELIEVING AND
DEPRESSURING SYSTEMS, 4th Edition
ASME American Society of Mechanical Engineers
Three Park Avenue (800) 843-2763 (U.S/Canada)
New York, NY 10016-5990 001-800-843-2763 (Mexico)
(973) 882-1170 (outside North America)
ASME Section I 2010 - ASME BOILER AND PRESSURE VESSEL
CODE, SECTION I: RULES FOR CONSTRUCTION OF POWER
BOILERS
ASME Section IV 2010 - ASME BOILER AND PRESSURE VESSEL
CODE, SECTION IV: HEATING BOILERS
ASME Section VIII SET 2010 - ASME BOILER & PRESSURE VESSEL
CODE - SECTION VIII - PRESSURE VESSELS
ANSI/ASME B16.5-2009 - PIPE FLANGES AND FLANGED
FITTINGS: NPS 1/2 THROUGH NPS 24 METRIC/INCH
STANDARD
20
ASME B31.9 - EDITION: 11 BUILDING SERVICES PIPING
ASME/ANSI MFC Series (All 23) (see http://www.asme.org/kb/
standards#des=MFC,searchBy=MFC)
IEC International Electrotechnical Commission
3, rue de Varemb
P.O. Box 131
CH - 1211 Geneva 20 - Switzerland +41 22 919 02 11
IEC 60529 - Degrees of Protection Provided by Enclosures (IP Code)
IEC 60079-7 Edition 4 (2006-07) - EXPLOSIVE ATMOSPHERES - PART
7: EQUIPMENT PROTECTION BY INCREASED SAFETY "e"
IEC 60079-10-1 Edition 1.0 (2008-12) - EXPLOSIVE ATMOSPHERES -
PART 10-1: CLASSIFICATION OF AREAS - EXPLOSIVE GAS
ATMOSPHERES
IEC 60079-10-2 Edition 1.0 (2009-04) - EXPLOSIVE ATMOSPHERES -
PART 10-2: CLASSIFICATION OF AREAS - COMBUSTIBLE DUST
ATMOSPHERES
IEC 60079-11 Edition 6.0 (2011-06) - EXPLOSIVE ATMOSPHERES -
PART 11: EQUIPMENT PROTECTION BY INTRINSIC SAFETY "i"
NFPA National Fire Protection Association
1 Batterymarch Park
Quincy, MA 02269-9101 (617) 770-3000
No. 70 - NATIONAL ELECTRICAL CODE HANDBOOK
No. 72 - NATIONAL FIRE ALARM AND SIGNALING CODE, 2010
No. 85 - BOILER & COMBUSTION SYSTEM HAZARDS CODE
No. 496 - STANDARD FOR PURGED & PRESSURIZED
ENCLOSURES FOR ELECTRICAL EQUIPMENT
No. 497 - RECOMMENDED PRACTICE FOR THE CLASSIFICATION
OF FLAMMABLE LIQUIDS, GASES OR VAPORS AND OF
HAZARDOUS (CLASSIFIED) LOCATIONS FOR ELECTRICAL
INSTALLATIONS IN CHEMICAL PROCESS AREAS
NEMA National Electrical Manufacturers Association
Suite 1847
1300 North 17th Street
Rosslyn, VA 22209 (703) 841-3200
ICS 6-1993 (R2001, R2006) - ENCLOSURES
21
IEEE Institute of Electrical & Electronics Engineers
445 Hoes Lane
Piscataway, NJ 08854-1331 (732) 981-0060
S 315A-1986 - SUPPLEMENT TO GRAPHIC SYMBOLS FOR
ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS DIAGRAMS
ANSI/IEEE 488-1-1987 - IEEE STANDARD DIGITAL INTERFACE
FOR PROGRAMMABLE INSTRUMENTATION
802.1-QBB-2011 - IEEE APPROVED DRAFT STANDARD FOR
LOCAL AND METROPOLITAN AREA NETWORKS - VIRTUAL
BRIDGED LOCAL AREA NETWORKS - AMENDEMENT: PRIORITY-
BASED FLOW CONTROL
991-1986 - IEEE STANDARD FOR LOGIC CIRCUIT DIAGRAMS
OSHA Occupational Safety & Health Administration
200 Constitution Avenue NW
Washington, DC 20210 (202) 693-2000
1910 OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH STANDARDS,
SUBPART H, HAZARDOUS MATERIALS 1910.119, PROCESS
SAFETY MANAGEMENT OF HIGHLY HAZARDOUS CHEMICALS
Readers of this booklet are urged to submit information (name of
author(s), title, edition, publishers name and address, date of
publication, and description of contents) for other pertinent
references, codes or standards to:
ISA, P.O. Box 12277
Phone: (919) 549-8411 FAX: (919) 549-8288
so they can be included in future editions of the CSE Study Guide.
23
CSE EXAM SPECIFICATION
The following page shows the official NCEES exam specification, in the form
distributed by its member boards. The specification shows six major areas of
activity for control systems engineers, identified as I through VI, with a
descriptive title and the fraction of the exam (expressed in percent) devoted to
that area. For each area of activity, associated sub-areas of knowledge are
indicated.
APPENDIX A
24
NCEES Principles and Practice of Engineering Examination
CONTROL SYSTEMS Exam Specifications
Effective Beginning with the October 2011 Examinations
The exam is an 8-hour open-book exam. It contains 40 multiple-choice
questions in the 4-hour morning session, and 40 multiple-choice
questions in the 4-hour afternoon session. Examinee works all
questions.
The exam uses both the International System of units (SI) and the US
Customary System (USCS).
The exam is developed with questions that will require a variety of
approaches and methodologies, including design, analysis, and
application.
The knowledge areas specified as examples of kinds of knowledge are
not exclusive or exhaustive categories.
Approximate
Percentage of
Examination
20% I. Measurement
A. Sensor technologies applicable to the desired type of measurement
(e.g., flow, pressure, level, temperature, analytical, counters, motion,
vision)
B. Sensor characteristics (e.g., rangeability, accuracy and precision,
temperature effects, response times, reliability, repeatability)
C. Material compatibility
D. Calculations involved in pressure drop
E. Calculations involved in flow element sizing
F. Calculations involved in level, differential pressure
G. Calculations involved in unit conversions
H. Calculations involved in velocity
I. Calculations involved in linearization
J. Installation details (e.g., process, pneumatic, electrical, location)
15% II. Signals, Transmission, and Networking
5% A. Signals
1. Pneumatic, electronic, optical, hydraulic, digital, analog, buses
2. Transducers (e.g., analog/digital [A/D], digital/analog [D/A],
current/pneumatic [I/P] conversion)
3. Intrinsically safe (IS) barriers
25
4. Grounding, shielding, segregation, AC coupling
5. Basic signal circuit design (e.g., two-wire, four-wire, isolated
outputs, loop powering, buses)
6. Circuit calculations (voltage, current, impedance)
7. Unit conversion calculations
5% B. Transmission
1. Different communications systems architecture and protocols (e.g.,
fiber optics, coaxial cable, wireless, paired conductors, buses,
Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol [TCP/IP], OPC)
2. Distance considerations versus transmission medium (e.g., data
rates, sample rates)
5% C. Networking (e.g., routers, bridges, switches, firewalls, gateways,
network loading, error checking, bandwidth, crosstalk, parity)
20% III. Final Control Elements
8.75% A. Valves
1. Types (e.g., globe, ball, butterfly)
2. Characteristics (e.g., linear, low noise, equal percentage, shutoff
class)
3. Calculation (e.g., sizing, split range, noise, actuator, speed,
pressure drop, air/gas consumption)
4. Selection of motive power (e.g., hydraulic, pneumatic, electric)
5. Applications of fluid dynamics (e.g., cavitation, flashing, choked
flow, Joule-Thompson effects, two-phase)
6. Material selection based on process characteristics (e.g., erosion,
corrosion, plug, extreme pressure, temperature)
7. Accessories (e.g., limit switches, solenoid valves, positioners,
transducers, air regulators, servo amp)
8. Environmental constraints (e.g., fugitive emissions, packing,
special sealing)
9. Installation practices (e.g., vertical, horizontal, bypasses, location,
troubleshooting)
3.75% B. Pressure Relieving Devices
1. Pressure relieving valve types (e.g., conventional spring, balanced
bellows, pilot operated)
2. Pressure relieving valve characteristics (e.g., modulating, pop
action)
3. Pressure relieving valve calculations (e.g., sizing considering inlet
pressure drop, back pressure, multiple valves)
26
4. Pressure relieving device material selections based on process
characteristics
5. Pressure relieving valve installation practices (e.g., linking valves,
sparing the valves, accessibility for testing, car sealing inlet valves,
piping installation)
6. Rupture discs (e.g., types, characteristics, application, calculations)
5% C. Motor Controls
1. Types (e.g., motor starters, variable speed drives)
2. Applications (e.g., speed control, soft starters, valve actuators)
3. Calculations (e.g., sizing, tuning, location)
4. Accessories (e.g., encoders, positioners, relays, limit switches)
5. Troubleshooting (e.g., root cause failure analysis and correction)
2.5% D. Other Final Control Elements
1. Solenoid valves (e.g., types, sizing)
2. On-off devices/relays (e.g., types, applications)
3. Self-regulating devices (e.g., types, sizing, pressure, temperature,
level, and flow regulators)
22% IV. Control Systems
5% A. Drawings (e.g., process flow diagrams, P&IDs, loop diagrams,
ladder diagrams, logic drawings, cause and effects drawings,
electrical drawings)
7% B. Theory
1. Basic processes (e.g., compression, combustion, evaporation,
distillation, hydraulics, reaction, dehydration, heat exchangers,
crystallization, filtration)
2. Process dynamics (e.g., loop response, pressure-volume-
temperature relationships, simulations)
3. Basic control (e.g., regulatory control, feedback, feed forward,
cascade, ratio, PID, split-range)
4. Discrete control (e.g., relay logic, Boolean algebra)
5. Sequential control e.g., batch, assembly, conveying, CNC)
10% C. Implementation
1. HMI (e.g., graphics, alarm management, trending, historical data)
2. Configuration and programming (e.g., PLC, DCS, hybrid systems,
SQL, ladder logic, sequential function chart, structured text,
function block programming, data base management, specialized
controllers)
27
3. System comparisons and compatibilities (e.g., advantages and
disadvantages of system architecture, distributed architecture,
remote I/O, buses)
4. Installation requirements (e.g., shielding, constructability, input/
output termination, environmental, heat load calculations, power
load requirements, purging, lighting)
5. Network security (e.g., firewalls, routers, switches, protocols)
6. System testing (e.g., factory acceptance test, integrated system test,
site acceptance test)
7. Commissioning (e.g., performance tuning, loop checkout)
8. Troubleshooting (e.g., root cause failure analysis and correction)
15% V. Safety Systems
2.5% A. Basic documentation (e.g., safety requirements specification, logic
diagrams, test procedures, SIL selection report)
5% B. Theory
1. Reliability (e.g., bathtub curve, failure rates)
2. SIL selection (e.g., risk matrix, risk graph, LOPA)
7.5% C. Implementation
1. Safety system design (e.g., I/O assignments, redundancy,
segregation, software design)
2. Safety integrity level (SIL) verification calculations
3. Testing (e.g., methods, procedures, documentation)
4. Management of change (e.g., scope of change, impact of change)
8% VI. Codes, Standards, and Regulations
A. American National Standards Institute (ANSI)
B. American Petroleum Institute (API)
C. American Society of Mechanical Engineers (ASME)
D. International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC)
E. Institute of Electrical & Electronics Engineers (IEEE)
F. International Society of Automation (ISA)
G. National Electrical Code (NEC)
H. National Electrical Manufacturers Association (NEMA)
I. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
J. Occupational Safety & Health Administration (OSHA)
29
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
This is the fifth study guide published for the CSE exam. The following
questions have been assembled from various sources, including past exams in
CSE and other disciplines, and some have been written specifically for this
publication.
The following questions are intended to illustrate the types of questions
which may be encountered in the CSE exam. Questions in this study guide
will NOT appear in future exams.
The following set of questions conforms to the NCEES exam specification in
having the prescribed number of questions for each listed topic. Half of the
questions are numbered 101 to 140 for the morning or AM part of the exam;
the others are numbered 501 to 540 for the afternoon or PM part. To the extent
possible, questions on a particular topic are divided equally between the two
parts of the exam.
Because the following questions resemble an actual exam, candidates wishing
to evaluate their performance under test conditions can do so. Select a time
and place where you will not be interrupted, assemble the materials you
would take to the actual exam, and allow yourself up to four hours for each
half of the exam. To create an answer form, use a sheet from a pad of lined
writing paper; make four columns, numbered 101-120, 121-140, 501-520, and
521-540. Do not check your answers while you are taking the exam; wait until
you are finished with both parts.
Answers and/or solutions are given separately, in Appendix C, so that users
of the study guide can read the questions and record their responses without
simultaneous exposure to the answers. Answers in Appendix C are identified
by topic areas, so you can easily see which areas require the most attention in
preparing to take the actual exam.
Candidates should understand that any one CSE exam can cover only some of
the areas of activity and knowledge listed in the exam specification. Thus, the
following questions do not necessarily deal with all of the possible sub-areas
of CSE activity or knowledge that may appear in future CSE exams.
Likewise, while an effort was made to match the level of difficulty of actual
exams, the match may not be exact. Variations in difficulty from exam to exam
are considered in setting the passing scores. For this reason, candidates
should view their ability to answer the sample questions as an indication of
where to focus their preparatory efforts, not as a prediction of their success on
the actual exams.
APPENDIX B
31
Morning Session
32
101. The flow rate of a clean, low-viscosity liquid is to be measured as the process input to a
flow control loop. The loop has a 4:1 turndown ratio, and the accuracy requirement is 2%.
The flow rate is best measured using a(n):
(A) Thermal
(B) Positive displacement meter
(C) Pitot tube
(D) Orifice plate
102. On-line measurement of the 90% point of a gasoline blending component is best done
using a:
(A) Liquid chromatograph
(B) Mass spectrometer
(C) Boiling point analyzer
(D) Infrared analyzer
Morning Session
33
103. A differential pressure transmitter LT-100 is used to monitor the level in a horizontal
storage vessel V-100. The vessel holds hot water which is manually filled and drained by
valves V-1 and V-2. The pressure taps on the vessel for LT-100 are 60 inches apart and the
transmitter is mounted 10 inches below the bottom process tap. The transmitters process
tubing is routed 10 feet horizontally before dropping vertically to the transmitter.
The following data apply:
Ambient temperature: 80F (always)
Normal Operating pressure: 100 psig (PIC-101)
Normal operating temperature: 280F (TIC-102)
Seal fluid for reference leg of level transmitter:
Specific gravity = 0.8 at 60F
= 0.62 at 80F
= 0.32 at 280F
Boiling point = 520F at 0 psig
The other leg of the level transmitter contains process fluid.
The span of the transmitter, in inches of water, is:
(A) 19.2
(B) 37.2
(C) 55.7
(D) 60.0
34
104. You must provide a tank gaging system for a liquified natural gas (LNG) tank. LNG is a
cryogenic liquid and is stored at near atmospheric pressure. Under certain conditions, the
LNG can stratify and potentially lead to unsafe conditions. The best choice to provide
reliable, safe operation of the LNG tank would be:
(A) Radar type with independent multi-point temperature indication that provides a
temperature profile of the tank
(B) Differential pressure with multiple temperature indicators located at low liquid
level around the diameter of the tank
(C) Servo-type that provides liquid level plus temperature and density profiles
(D) Float type with an independent multi-point temperature for tank temperature
profile and hydrostatic density indication
105. A liquid with an S.G. of 0.8 flows to a pump at 100 psig. The viscosity of the liquid is 3 cP,
the molecular weight is 94, and the temperature is 15C. The pump supplies 100 ft of
head. Piping losses are insignificant. The pressure (psig) at the inlet to the control valve
will be most nearly:
(A) 35
(B) 44
(C) 135
(D) 154
106. TK-1 has a capacity of 30,000 barrels (US). It is required to fill TK-1 in 6 hours. FV-1 will
need to be sized for a flow rate (gpm) of most nearly:
(A) 3,500
(B) 5,000
(C) 7,143
(D) 21,000
Morning Session
35
107. Which of the following Gas Chromatograph (GC) detector types is most appropriate for
measuring low concentrations of sulfur in hydrocarbon fuels?
(A) Thermal Conductivity (TCD)
(B) Flame ionization (FID)
(C) Flame photometric (PFD)
(D) Electron capture (ECD)
108. Which pair of devices listed below are most likely to be hazardous gas/gas environment
detectors?
(A) Catalytic bead, piezo-electric adsorption
(B) P2O5, infrared
(C) Catalytic bead, open path
(D) Electrochemical, thermal conductivity
109. A safety barrier limits the energy transfer to a hazardous location by limiting the
maximum current (using a fuse) and shunting any high-voltage faults in the safe area to a
safety ground (through Zener diodes).
Which of the following considerations does NOT apply to a shunt Zener Diode barrier?
(A) Requires an intrinsically safe ground
(B) Can cause voltage drop problems
(C) Is expensive and difficult to use
(D) Fuse can blow during startup
110. A control loop of a DCS consists of an isolated 420 mA output and a grounded control
element. A remote indicating device must be installed between the DCS and the control
element. The indicating device has an input range of 1-5 V and is referenced to ground.
Which of the following components (I/I is a current-to-current converter) is/are required
to give a full-scale reading of the indicating device without affecting the control element?
(A) 100- resistor only
(B) I/I and 100- resistor
(C) 250- resistor only
(D) I/I and 250- resistor
36
111. Which of the following statements about wireless (radio) data transmission systems for
use in plantwide data collection and control applications is FALSE?
(A) Wireless systems can have unlimited numbers of data links.
(B) Wireless systems are easier to install than wired or cable systems.
(C) Wireless systems do not eliminate the need to deliver power to sensor and/or
controller locations.
(D) Wireless systems can be made highly resistant to ambient electrical noise.
112. Which of the following practices is important in routing fiber optic cable?
(A) Laying cable in trays with high-horsepower motor wiring should be avoided
(B) Conduit fittings that required small-radius bends should be avoided
(C) Overhead runs on messenger wires should be limited to 75 feet
(D) Underground fiber optic runs must be covered with concrete
113. What is the principle advantage of a fieldbus installation over traditional 420 mA with
HART protocol?
(A) Lower cost field devices
(B) Device reaction time
(C) Device diagnostic coverage
(D) Lower cost field cabling
114. What physical network topology provides fault tolerance?
I Ring
II Star
III Bus
IV Mesh
(A) I * IV
(B) I * II
(C) II * IV
(D) All of these
Morning Session
37
115. A control valve, originally supplied for gaseous service, in now being considered for a
liquid service application.
Original Service Conditions:
Maximum capacity= 60,000 SCFH
P for valve sizing= 50 PSI
Gas molecular weight= 44
Inlet pressure = 300 PSIG
Inlet temperature= 120F
New Service Conditions:
Liquid specific gravity= 0.81
The valve coefficient Cv for the original service conditions is approximately equal to:
(A) 4.8
(B) 6.9
(C) 8.5
(D) 10.4
38
116. Which of the following statements about control valve installation practices is false?
(A) At least 10-20 pipe diameters of straight run inlet piping should be provided
upstream of control valves.
(B) At least 3-5 pipe diameters of straight run piping should be provided
downstream of control valves.
(C) Diaphragm-actuated control valves must be installed with the stem in a vertical
(upward) position.
(D) Valves must be installed with the flow arrow in the correct direction.
117. Which of the following statements about control valve installation practices is false?
(A) If the material is not hazardous, vent lines are not needed for fluid trapped
between stop valves.
(B) Valves must be located where an operator can see indicators or gages needed for
manual control.
(C) Lines should be flushed or blown out before valve installation.
(D) Higher flow velocities are allowed in gas lines than in liquid or steam lines.
118. A suggestion is made that a rising stem globe valve should be replaced with a rotary stem
ball valve. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) The ball valve C
v
would likely be too large for the application.
(B) The piping would need to be changed because the ball valve will likely be longer
than the globe valve.
(C) Using a ball valve would not allow use of a diaphragm-type actuator.
(D) Ball valves are not used for modulating control.
119. The applicable ASME (American Society of Mechanical Engineers) code limits the
maximum superimposed constant backpressure on pressure relief devices to what value?
(A) Set pressure including effect of static head and backpressure
(B) Set pressure including effect of static head
(C) Fluid critical pressure
(D) 55 percent above set pressure
Morning Session
39
120. What is the maximum vessel pressure (in psig) allowed by ASME Code Section VIII
when only PSV-1 is in service and relieving?
Vessel Data:
Max Allowable Working Pressure (MAWP): 200 psig
Dimensions: 4 OD, 10 cylinder, elliptical heads
Normal liquid level: 3.5
Operating pressure: 150 psig
Operating temperature: 100F
Process Data:
Inlet gas flow: 80,000 lb/hr Liquid flow: 60 gpm
Molecular weight: 19 SG: 0.590
(A) 200
(B) 210
(C) 220
(D) 230
FLARE HEADER
PSV
1
LV
CSO CSO
PSV
2
PCV
GAS FLOW
OUT
GAS FLOW
IN
10 FT.
4 FT.
LIQUID OUT
NLL LC
40
121. What is the most acceptable, cost-effective method for protecting a safety relief valve in
corrosive service?
(A) Inert gas purge
(B) Reverse-buckling rupture disk
(C) Standard rupture disk
(D) Wetted parts of non-corrosive materials
Morning Session
41
122. How would you insert a DCS RUN/STOP using a single DO into a motor control which
uses a local momentary START/STOP where the local stop can shutdown the motor?
EMER
STOP
LCL
EMER
STOP
SS
LCL
STOP
LCL
START
MX
STATUS
MX
A)

STOP RUN
EMER
STOP
LCL
EMER
STOP
SS
LCL
STOP
LCL
START
MX
STATUS
MX
B)

RUN/STOP
EMER
STOP
LCL
EMER
STOP
SS
LCL
STOP
LCL
START
MX
STATUS
MX
C)
RUN/STOP
EMER
STOP
LCL
EMER
STOP
SS
LCL
STOP
LCL
START
MX
STATUS
MX
D)

RUN STOP
42
123. An HVAC blower has a shutdown from a building fire detection/protection panel for
Confirmed Fire. Which of the following motor controls is the most correct?
EMER
STOP
LCL
EMER
STOP
SS
LCL
HOA
HVAC
PANEL
MX
STATUS
A)

RUN/STOP
HAND
OFF
AUTO
FRE
DETECTED
STOP
EOL
EMER
STOP
LCL
EMER
STOP
SS
HVAC
PANEL
MX
STATUS
B)

RUN/STOP
HAND
FRE
DETECTED
STOP
LCL
HOA
OFF
AUTO
EMER
STOP
LCL
EMER
STOP
SS
HVAC
PANEL
MX
STATUS
C)

RUN/STOP
HAND
FRE
DETECTED
STOP
EOL
LCL
HOA
OFF
AUTO
EMER
STOP
LCL
EMER
STOP
SS
HVAC
PANEL
MX
STATUS
D)

RUN/STOP
HAND
FRE
DETECTED
STOP
LCL
HOA
OFF
AUTO
Morning Session
43
124. According to ANSI/ISA-5.1-2009, which of the following is the symbol for a pressure-
reducing regulator with an external pressure tap:
125. The logic diagram on the next page depicts the control scheme for an acid injection pump
used to control the pH in a plant water system. The control of the pump in performed
exclusively by a Programmable Logic Controller (PLC). The HOA local hand switch is
spring return to OFF from the HAND position.
The combination of OR-gate C with AND-gate D is commonly referred to as:
(A) A flip-flop circuit
(B) An exclusive-OR circuit
(C) A seal circuit
(D) An inverter
44
Morning Session
45
126. Refer to the sketch shown below, where two liquid feed streams are combined for a
certain mixing operation to produce a single stream (product).
Based on the conservation requirements, what are the degrees of freedom of this system?
(A) One degree of freedom
(B) Two degrees of freedom
(C) Three degrees of freedom
(D) None of the above
INPUT STREAM #1
INPUT STREAM #2
PRODUCT OUT
FLOW CONTROL LOOP #1
46
127. The response of a system to a 1-unit step input is shown below.
The data obtained from this test include:
Peak value of unit step response = 0.5815
Steady-state value of unit step response = 0.500
Time to peak value of unit step response = 0.907 seconds
Assuming that the system can be described by a second-order differential equation:
The damping ratio is most nearly:
(A) 0.4
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.6
(D) 0.7
Morning Session
47
128. Estimate the integral time for Integrated Absolute Error and the resulting damped cycle
period under integral control.
1) Process Time Delay is 0.3 minutes.
2) A 20% change in feeder setpoint causes 28% change in mass flow rate.
(A) I = 45sec,
0
= 9 sec
(B) I = 23 sec,
0
= 129 sec
(C) I = 1 sec,
0
= 2 sec
(D) I = 45 sec,
0
= 129 sec
129. According to ISA-5.5-1985 concerning graphic symbols for use on Visual Display Units
(VDUs), the generic term for cathode-ray tube or solid-state display devices, which of the
following statements is true:
I Materials flows must be depicted in a left-to-right direction.
II Symbols for unimportant process equipment can be omitted in displays.
III An outline symbol indicates a stopped or inactive status, and a solid (filled) symbol
indicates a running or active status.
IV Red means closed or off, while green means open or on.
(A) I and III
(B) I and IV
(C) II and III
(D) I, II, III and IV
Variable
Speed
Drive
Flow Set Point
FC
WT
Weight

Variable
Speed
Feeder
Motor
48
130. Consider the application of a hydrogen sulfide (H
2
S) analyzer that a plant is installing for
personnel protection.
The maximum permissible level of H
2
S for an 8-hour (weighted average) exposure is 20
ppm (parts per million). A dose of 150 ppm or more for a short time can cause permanent
injury or possibly death. The human nose can detect 1 ppm levels but is desensitized
quickly with continuing exposure.
The range of the H
2
S analyzer is 0-20 ppm. The most appropriate setting for the alarm
point (in ppm) would be:
(A) 0 - 4.9
(B) 5.0 - 9.9
(C) 10.0 - 14.9
(D) 15.0 or higher
131. A poorly-tuned PID control loop has consistently responded too slowly to load
disturbances because of a noise-free, but slow measurement device. An appropriate
action to accelerate the disturbance response would be to:
I Increase the controllers gain (decrease the proportional band).
II Increase the controllers integral action (increase the reset rate).
III Decrease the controllers integral action (decrease the reset rate).
IV Increase the controllers derivative action (increase the derivative time).
(A) I and II
(B) I and III
(C) III
(D) IV
132. A poorly-tuned PID control loop has consistently overcompensated for low humidity
conditions in a humidity-controlled room by injecting too much steam into the air supply
duct. An appropriate action to reduce the overshoot problem would be to:
(A) Re-tune the loop for a critically-damped step response.
(B) Re-tune the loop for a under-damped step response.
(C) Re-tune the loop for a 1/4-wave decay step response.
(D) Re-tune the loop to minimize rise time.
Morning Session
49
133. What is the best definition of a safety integrity level (SIL)?
(A) A percentage (between 0 and 100) used to define the availability requirements of a
safety instrumented function.
(B) A discrete number (one through four) used to define the performance
requirements of a safety instrumented function.
(C) A probability (between 0 and 1) used to define the likelihood of a dangerous
failure of a safety instrumented function.
(D) A percentage (between 0 and 100) used to define the ratio of the safe failure rate
and the total failure rate.
134. Safety integrity levels are selected for each:
(A) Process unit or area
(B) Piece of equipment
(C) Safety instrumented system
(D) Safety instrumented function
135. What is the best definition of a safety life cycle?
(A) The total length of time that a device remains functional.
(B) The activities involved in the development of the safety requirements
specification.
(C) The total length of time that a process facility remains operational.
(D) The necessary activities involved in the implementation of safety instrumented
functions.
136. What are the best factors to base safety system test intervals on?
(A) Corporate policies, regulatory requirements, process operating parameters.
(B) Performance targets, equipment failure rates, equipment configuration/
redundancy.
(C) Manufacturer recommendations, environmental factors, age of the plant.
(D) Recommendations of peers, production requirements, bypass capabilities.
50
137. Which is the best reason for performing Management Of Change?
(A) Recording all changes made to systems for tracking purposes.
(B) Ensuring that documentation reflects the actual plant design.
(C) Informing upper level management of changes made to systems.
(D) Ensuring that safety is maintained despite changes made to systems.
138. According to ISA-5.2-1976 (R1992)-Binary Logic Diagrams for Process Operations, which
of the following statements about this standard is FALSE?
(A) The symbols defined in this standard can be used to implement logic functions in
any type of hardware electronic, electric, fluidic, pneumatic, mechanical, etc.
(B) Symbols from different standards cannot be used in the same logic diagram.
(C) The flow of intelligence in a logic diagram is normally left to right, top to bottom.
(D) The term valve closed is not the same as valve not open.
139. Field-mounted or outdoor instrumentation equipment in a wet, non-hazardous area with
spray would need a:
(A) NEMA 1 enclosure.
(B) NEMA 2 enclosure.
(C) NEMA 3 enclosure.
(D) NEMA 4 enclosure.
140. Coal grinding areas in a coal-fired steam power plant would be classified under
hazardous area provisions of the National Electric Code (NEC) as:
(A) Class I, Group B
(B) Class I, Group D
(C) Class II, Group E
(D) Class II, Group F
51
Afternoon Session
Afternoon Session
53
501. A differential pressure transmitter LT-100 is used to monitor the level in a horizontal
storage vessel V-100. The vessel holds hot water which is manually filled and drained by
valves V-1 and V-2. The pressure taps on the vessel for LT-100 are 60 inches apart and the
transmitter is mounted 10 inches below the bottom process tap. The transmitters process
tubing is routed 10 feet horizontally before dropping vertically to the transmitter.
The following data apply:
Ambient temperature: 80F (always)
Normal Operating pressure: 100 psig (PIC-101)
Normal operating temperature: 280F (TIC-102)
Seal fluid for reference leg of level transmitter:
Specific gravity = 0.8 at 60F
= 0.62 at 80F
= 0.32 at 280F
Boiling point = 520F at 0 psig
The other leg of the level transmitter contains process fluid.
If LI-100 initially reads 50 percent and the pressure increases by 10 percent, the new
reading of LI-100 at steady-state conditions would be (in percent):
(A) 0
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 60
54
502. To avoid flooding a distillation column, a differential pressure measurement is required
across the top half of the column. The fluid entering the bottom of the column is similar
to heavy crude oil. Due to the corrosive nature of the fluid, the bottom half of the column
is clad with alloy steel. The bottom temperature is 1200F. The product from the top of
the column is light hydrocarbons at 250F.
The first available measurement point is on a platform at an elevation of 25 feet above
grade. The elevation of the platform at the top of the column is 100 feet. Access to all
platforms is by means of ladders.
What transmitter(s) should be used?
(A) One differential pressure transmitter
(B) One differential pressure transmitter and two temperature transmitters
(C) Two temperature transmitters
(D) Two pressure transmitters
503. The flow of water in a 4-inch steel pipe is measured with an orifice plate and a differential
pressure transmitter. At a flow rate of 120 gallons per minute (GPM), the differential
pressure is 27 inches of water. At a flow rate of 176 GPM, the differential pressure will be
most nearly equal to
(A) 12
(B) 18
(C) 39
(D) 58
504. For measuring the flow of raw sewage in a 4-inch steel pipe at a flow rate of 150 gpm,
which of the following sensing devices will provide the most reliable and maintenance-
free installation?
(A) Coriolis flow meter
(B) Magnetic flow meter
(C) Orifice plate
(D) Ultrasonic flow meter
Afternoon Session
55
505. A tank level is measured using a differential pressure transmitter and a bubbler tube. The
tank is vented to the atmosphere. The bubbler tube bottom is 1 foot above the tank
bottom; the tank wall is 20 feet high. A 0-10 psi differential pressure gauge, accurate to
0.25 percent of full scale, is connected to the bubbler tube connection at the high-pressure
side of the transmitter. The low-pressure side of the transmitter is connected to the tank
top.
When the water level in the tank is 14 feet, the gauge reading in pounds per square inch
(psi) is most nearly equal to
(A) 5.6
(B) 6.1
(C) 6.5
(D) 13.0
506. Which of the following statements are true?
The accuracy of orifice-type flow elements is affected by:
I Upstream piping configuration
II Downstream piping configuration
III Eccentricity of internal diameter of the meter run
IV Entrained gas or air bubbles
V Erosion of the hole bored in the orifice plate
(A) I and V only
(B) II and IV only
(C) I, II and V only
(D) I, II, III, IV and V
507. For a gas-fired heater, the best choice for flame detection is a:
(A) Flame rod detector
(B) Infrared detector
(C) Silicon cell detector
(D) Self-check UV detector
56
508. Consider the application of a hydrogen sulfide (H
2
S) analyzer that a plant is installing for
personnel protection.
Assuming no mechanical problems or other limitations at the site, where should a field
sensor be placed to provide the earliest possible warning of an excessive concentration of
H
2
S?
(A) 1 foot above ground
(B) 3 feet above ground
(C) Eye level
(D) 15 feet above ground
509. In an area of high electromagnetic disturbances, the computer data transmission medium
with the least noise pickup is:
(A) Fiber optics
(B) Twisted pairs of copper conductors with shielding
(C) Twisted pairs of copper conductors in conduit
(D) Coaxial cable
510. In hazardous areas, intrinsically-safe circuits can be wired:
(A) Only in metal conduit.
(B) Only in sealed or vented cables.
(C) Only with automatic shutdown on electric power failure.
(D) In the same way as in non-hazardous areas.
511. Comparing unshielded twisted pairs (UTP) with shielded twisted pairs (STP) for data
transmission in a control system, which of the following statements is false?
(A) UTP is less expensive for materials and installation
(B) STP is more resistant to electrical interference
(C) UTP and STP are equally acceptable to vendors of LANs
(D) UTP and STP can both be used at 5 million bits/second
Afternoon Session
57
512. According to IEEE Standard 802.3, CSMA/CD Networks, a data transmission medium
labeled 10BASE5 can be used up to:
(A) 10 thousand bits per second and 50 feet
(B) 10 million bits per second and 500 feet
(C) 10 million bits per second and 500 meters
(D) 10 million bits per second and 5 kilometers
513. What is not a function of a network firewall in an industrial network application?
(A) Limiting bandwidth usage
(B) Limiting unauthorized data access
(C) Separation of network layers
(D) Separation of control and safety systems
514. Which of the following is the international fieldbus standard?
(A) IEC 61131
(B) IEC 61158
(C) IEC 61508
(D) None of the above
58
515. A control valve, originally supplied for gaseous service, in now being considered for a
liquid service application.
Original Service Conditions:
Maximum capacity= 60,000 SCFH
Gas molecular weight= 44
Inlet temperature= 120F
New Service Conditions:
Liquid specific gravity= 0.81
In the new service, assuming the maximum C
v
= 12, the maximum flow in gallons per
minute (gpm) is:
(A) 30.7
(B) 34.2
(C) 37.9
(D) 42.2
Afternoon Session
59
516. Consider a gas flow control loop in manual, with the initial process conditions (A =
upstream and B = downstream) as given in the figure below. All conditions remain
constant other than the changes specified in each question. Subscripts 1 and 2 refer to the
old and new conditions, respectively.
If only the open flow area (X) of the valve increased, which of the following best
describes how the mass flow (F) would change?
(A) F
2
= F
1
(X1/X
2
)
0.5
(B) F
2
= F
1
(X
2
/X
1
)
0.5
(C) F
2
= F
1
(X
2
/X
1
)
(D) F
2
= F
1
(X
2
/X
1
)
2
517. Which of the following statements about control valve installation practices is FALSE?
(A) In locating valves, consideration must be given to the manufacturers
recommended clearances and also to the positions of heating ducts and electrical
wireways.
(B) For safety reasons, valves must always go to a closed or open position on power
failure.
(C) To allow for plant expansion, it is common to initially select valves smaller than
the connecting pipe.
(D) Characteristics of the flowing material determine whether flanged, threaded or
welded pipe joints can be used.
60
518. You are to engineer a motor control system in a relay-based motor controller in the DCS
with the following requirements:
1) Run status is to be displayed on the operator HMI
2) The motor is NOT to automatically restart after a power failure
3) You have 1-DI and 2-DO available
How are the I/O to be configured and wired into the motor control circuit?
M
EMER
STOP
LCL
EMER
STOP
SIS
LCL
STOP
DCS
STOP
LCL
START
MX
STATUS
MX
DCS
START
H
A.
STATUS- DI LATCHED
START- DO MOMENTARY
STOP- DO MOMENTARY
STARTER
N
M
EMER
STOP
LCL
EMER
STOP
SIS
LCL
STOP
DCS
STOP
LCL
START
MX
STATUS
MX
DCS
START
H
STATUS- DI LATCHED
START- DO LATCHED
STOP- DO MOMENTARY
B.
STARTER
N
M
EMER
STOP
LCL
EMER
STOP
SIS
LCL
STOP
DCS
STOP
MX
STATUS
MX
DCS
START
H
STATUS-LATCHED
START/STOP LATCHED
LCL
START
C.
STARTER
N
M
EMER
STOP
LCL
EMER
STOP
SIS
HOA LCL
OFF
H
STATUS-LATCHED
START/STOP LATCHED
D.
AUTO
START
STOP
STATUS
RUN
N
STARTER
Afternoon Session
61
519. A new pump was installed with the motor control, shown in the figure below, with a low
flow shutdown. the wiring and pump rotation was confirmed during checkout. When
operation went to place the pump in service, the pump will not start. What is the most
likely cause?
(A) The low flow switch needs a normally closed start-up bypass with a time delay on
relay.
(B) The flow switch needs a normally closed start-up bypass with a time delay off
relay.
(C) The low flow switch needs a normally open start-up bypass with a time delay off
relay.
(D) The low flow switch needs a normally open start-up bypass with a time delay on
relay.
520. Double-acting control valve actuators usually:
(A) Fail in closed position
(B) Fail in open position
(C) Fail in last position
(D) Are not fail safe
M
EMER
STOP
LCL
EMER
STOP
SIS
LCL
STOP
LOW
FLOW
SHUTDOWN
MX
STATUS
MX
DCS
START
H
LCL
START
STARTER N
DCS
STOP
62
521. Which of the following diagrams shows the best scheme for double-acting, fail-last-
position actuation of the process valve?
I.A.
C O
(B)
I.A.
FC
FC
VENT VENT
FC
FC
C O
(D)
I.A. I.A.
C O
(C)
I.A.
KEY:
I.A. INSTRUMENT AIR
SOLENOID VALVE
3-WAY SOLENOID VALVE
(arrow shows fail position)
PISTON ACTUATOR
PISTON ACTUATOR
(with spring return)
O
(A)
C O
Afternoon Session
63
522. According to ISA-5.1-1984(R1992), which of the following is the symbol for a discrete
instrument, not accessible to an operator, in an auxiliary location?
523. Which of the following Boolean statements (using the notation + means OR and
means AND) describes the operation of the logic circuit shown in the following
diagram?
(A) M = A + (B C D)
(B) M = A + B + (C D)
(C) M = A (B + (C D))
(D) M = A + (B (C + D))
C
A
D B
M
64
524. A control system is described by the block diagram shown below.
Data List:
1. G
s
(s) = system transfer function =
2. G
c
(s) = controller transfer function =
For which values of K is the system stable?
(A) All K > 0
(B) All K < 0
(C) All K > 19
(D) All K < 13/7
s 4 +
s
2
6s 13 + +
-----------------------------
K s 3 + ( )
s s 1 + ( )
--------------------
Afternoon Session
65
525. An alternative to open-loop process testing for determining controller parameters is
closed-loop testing: the controller is placed in AUTOMATIC, the integral and derivative
action are set to zero, and the controller gain is increased gradually until a sustained
oscillation is produced. Which of the following statements about this procedure are
correct?
I The two data items obtained from a closed-loop test and used in tuning parameter
calculation are the period and amplitude of oscillation.
II The tuning parameters obtained from a closed-loop test are likely to be more accurate
than those determined from an open-loop test.
III It is necessary to observe the process for many cycles (say, 10 or more) to be sure that
the oscillation is neither decaying nor increasing.
IV The engineer conducting a closed-loop test has no control over the amplitude of the
oscillation.
(A) I and III
(B) I, II and IV
(C) II and III
(D) II and IV
66
526. Compared to a control loop with no dead time (pure time delay), a control loop with an
appreciable dead time tends to require:
(A) Less proportional gain and less integral action
(B) More proportional gain and less integral action
(C) More proportional gain and more integral action
(D) Less proportional gain and more integral action
527. A distributed control system (DCS) is defined as follows:
(A) Controllers distributed throughout the facility mounted on valves or grouped in
small panels
(B) A control system that uses controllers built into valve positioners or field-
mounted transmitters and connected together by a fieldbus
(C) Keyboards, monitors, input/output modules, and control computers with
algorithms that have been assembled into a control system
(D) Input/output modules and control computers that are purchased from
distributed vendors and which may be mounted remotely from the operators
control console
528. Which of the following tuning criteria would be most appropriate for designing a
controller to regulate the temperature in the room where you are now sitting?
(A) Minimize the response time for setpoint changes
(B) Minimize the overshoot for setpoint changes
(C) Follow varying setpoints with a minimum error
(D) Maintain the controlled variable at a constant value
Afternoon Session
67
529. A Programmable Logic Controller (PLC) is used to start a motor using the circuit shown
below.
Which of the following logic statements will cause the motor to start running and
continue running after the start contact closes and then reopens?
(A) OUT1 = IN1 AND IN2 AND IN3 AND IN4
(B) OUT1 = NOT IN1 AND IN2 AND (IN3 OR IN4)
(C) OUT1 = IN1 AND IN2 AND IN3 OR IN4
(D) OUT1 = NOT IN1 AND (IN2 OR IN3) AND NOT IN4
STOP PERMISSIVE
MOTOR
STARTER
M M
OUT 1
START
IN 3 IN 2 IN 1
IN 4
68
530. What effect does timer A have on the pump control?
(A) It starts the pump 10 minutes after the pH reaches 7.0.
(B) It stops the pump after it has run for 10 minutes.
(C) It automatically starts the pump every 10 minutes
(D) It delays the pump start for 10 minutes.
Afternoon Session
69
531. Which ISA standard gives requirements for the specification, design, installation,
operation and maintenance of safety instrumented systems?
(A) 5.1
(B) 50
(C) 84
(D) 88
532. What is the objective of factory acceptance testing of a safety instrumented system?
(A) To test that the hardware and software satisfy the requirements defined in the
safety requirements specification.
(B) To test and document that the facility fabricating the system is qualified to
perform the required work.
(C) To test that field devices are operational before placing them in service.
(D) To create test procedures that will be used during the life of the system to verify
functionality.
533. The fundamental goal of any Safety Integrity Level selection study is to ensure that
(A) All risks are designed out of the process.
(B) Equipment is operated at peak efficiency.
(C) The residual risk is at or below the tolerable risk.
(D) The tolerable risk is at or below the residual risk.
70
534. A control system employs three sensors, each having a failure probability of 0.02 in six
months of operation. The system can function properly when any two or more of the
sensors are working, but it must shut down if two or three of the sensors fail.
The probability that the system can operate for six months without a shutdown is most
nearly equal to:
(A) 0.9412
(B) 0.9600
(C) 0.9800
(D) 0.9988
535. According to ANSI/ISA-84.01-1996, Application of Safety Instrumented Systems for the
Process Industries, which of the following statements is FALSE:
(A) The logic solver shall be separated from the Basic Process Control Systems except
where some applications have combined control and safety functions in one logic
solver.
(B) The sensors for Safety Instrumented Systems shall be separated from the sensors
for the Basic Process Control System.
(C) The final elements for Safety Instrumented Systems shall be separated from the
final elements for the Basic Process Control System.
(D) Changes for the Safety Instrumented System shall not be allowed from the SIS
operator interface.
536. What is the primary reason for visually inspecting safety systems?
(A) To satisfy company and union staffing and workload requirements.
(B) To validate the Probability of Failure on Demand (PFD) calculations.
(C) To ensure there are no unauthorized modifications or observable deterioration.
(D) To satisfy equipment manufacturer and regulatory requirements.
537. Management Of Change is not required in which case?
(A) Low risk applications
(B) Replacements in kind
(C) Changes to software
(D) Changes in personnel
Afternoon Session
71
538. The OSHA Process Safety Management Directive, 29CFR, Part 1910, addresses all of the
following EXCEPT:
(A) Transportation of hazardous chemicals
(B) Process operator training
(C) Plant contractor safety
(D) Process design considerations
539. Your assignment is to implement a burner management system using a solid-state
microprocessor-based programmable logic controller (PLC). You will analyze boiler
operation, develop system logic, and select control equipment.
The system design shall upgrade the burner management functions on a 50,000,000 btu/
hr, two-burner, gas-fired boiler to current NFPA standards. Igniters will be interrupted
(turned off) when the timed trial for ignition of the main burner has expired. PLC inputs
and outputs will de-energize to shut off (trip) fuel to the boiler.
The burner system manual emergency shutdown shall be accomplished by:
(A) A normally-open contact to a PLC input.
(B) A normally-closed contact to a PLC input.
(C) A normally-open contact to a PLC input and a normally-closed contact to another
PLC input.
(D) A hard-wired normally-closed contact to de-energize a fuel trip relay.
540. Loop drawings for a petrochemical process plant should be signed by:
(A) The manager of the Instrument/Control Department
(B) The person who created their technical content
(C) A licensed control systems engineer
(D) All of the above
73
ANSWERS TO SAMPLE QUESTIONS
This appendix contains solutions and/or answers to the questions contained
in Appendix B.
A one-page summary list of the answers is included to facilitate scoring for
those who treat the questions in Appendix B as a sample exam.
Comments about the questions and answers will be appreciated. They should
be sent to the Director of Credentialing Services, ISA, P.O. Box 12277,
Research Triangle Park, NC 27709 for forwarding to the CSE examination
committee.
APPENDIX C
74
ANSWERS
Q
U
E
S
T
I
O
N
C
O
R
R
E
C
T
A
N
S
W
E
R
Q
U
E
S
T
I
O
N
C
O
R
R
E
C
T
A
N
S
W
E
R
Q
U
E
S
T
I
O
N
C
O
R
R
E
C
T
A
N
S
W
E
R
Q
U
E
S
T
I
O
N
C
O
R
R
E
C
T
A
N
S
W
E
R
101 D 121 C 501 C 521 D
102 C 122 B 502 D 522 A
103 C 123 A 503 D 523 D
104 C 124 B 504 B 524 A
105 D 125 C 505 A 525 D
106 A 126 B 506 D 526 A
107 C 127 B 507 D 527 C
108 C 128 D 508 A 528 D
109 C 129 C 509 A 529 B
110 D 130 B 510 D 530 B
111 A 131 D 511 C 531 C
112 B 132 A 512 C 532 A
113 D 133 B 513 D 533 C
114 A 134 D 514 B 534 D
115 D 135 D 515 D 535 C
116 C 136 B 516 C 536 C
117 A 137 D 517 B 537 B
118 A 138 B 518 A 538 A
119 A 139 D 519 C 539 D
120 C 140 D 520 D 540 B
Answers - Morning Session
75
101. For this control application, the best choice is an orifice plate.
The correct answer is (D).
102. The 90% point is a boiling characteristic of a hydrocarbon liquid. Thus, the only
suitable analyzer is a boiling point analyzer. The other instruments measure different
characteristics of materials.
The correct answer is (C).
103.
104. The correct answer is (C).
105. The correct answer is (D).
106. The correct answer is (A).
109. The correct answer is (C). Zener diode barriers are inexpensive and easy to use.
The other statements are true.
Span S.G. d =
S.G.
density of Process at Normal Temp = 280F
water density at Standard Temp = 60F
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- =
S.G.
57.941#/ft
3
62.364 #/ft
3
----------------------------- 0.929 = =
Span 0.929 60 in. 55.7 in. H
2
O = =
76
111. The correct answer is (A). Wireless systems with a large number of links or channels in a
limited radio frequency spectrum can interfere with each other; there is no limit on the
possible number of wired or cable channels.
(B) is True. Wireless systems do not require conduit or cable trays to be routed through
the plant in order to connect a multitude of inputs to controllers and central processors;
many functions are built into the wireless system components.
(C) is True. Sensors and controllers in a wireless system still need power to perform their
functions.
(D) is True. By means of channel hopping, encryption, resending data packets, etc.,
wireless systems can be given a high degree of immunity to electrical noise.
112. The correct answer is (B) since the fiber can be broken by a small-radius bend.
DCS
CONTROL
ELEMENT
250 ohm
I/I
INDIC.
77
116. The correct answer is (C); putting valve stems in a vertical position is a common practice
but is not an absolute requirement for all situations. (See J.W. Hutchison, ISA Handbook
of Control Valves, 2nd Ed., 1976, p. 353.)
117. The correct answer is (A); vent lines should be provided so that personnel or equipment
will not be inadvertently sprayed, even with harmless material, when a vent valve is
opened. (See J. W. Hutchison, pp. 336-337.)
118. (A) is the correct answer. Ball valves usually have larger Cv for the same size body than
globe valves.
(B) Piping might need to be revised, but ball valves are usually shorter than the same
size globe valve.
(C) Ball valves often use piston actuators, but can use diaphragm-type actuators as well.
(D) Ball valves are often used for on/off control, but are also used for modulating
control.
119. The correct answer is (A). AMSE Section VIII Division 1, UG-134, Pressure Setting of
Pressure Relief Devices, (d) says: The pressure at which any device is set to operate shall
include the effects of static head and constant back pressure.
120. The correct answer is (C). The maximum vessel pressure with one valve in service is 110
percent of MAWP (10 percent accumulation) or 1.1 * 200 = 220 psig.
122. The correct answer is (B). A single maintained contact is to be placed between the
Emergency STOP SIS and the local STOP and after the local START.
123. The correct answer is (A). The typical fire detection/protection panel outputs are
normally closed and supervised. See NFPA-74. Therefore, motor control A is the only
correct answer.
124. The correct answer is (B). (A) is a pressure-reducing regulator, self-contained; (C) is a
back-pressure regulator, self-contained, and (D) is a back-pressure regulator with an
external tap.
78
126. The correct answer is (B), two degrees of freedom. Solution:
Number of variables: 3 Number of equations: 1*
*Material balance: F3 = F1 + F2
Therefore, degrees of freedom = 3 - 1 = 2
Any two of the flows can be specified; the third flow must satisfy the material balance.
127. The overshoot is
From standard response curves, the damping ratio is approximately 0.5, one-half of
critical damping. Alternately, the damping ratio () can be calculated from the equation
The correct answer is (B).
d
= 0.3 min (60sec/min) = 20 sec
K
p
= 28/20 = 1.4
For Integral-Only Control: I = 1.6 K
p
d
= 45
For
0
= 6.4
d
= 129
129. The correct answer is (C); statements II and III are true. Statement I is false because flows
can be in any direction; recycle flows will be right-to-left if the main flows are left-to-
right, and some flows are vertical, up or down. Statement IV is a common but not
universal convention; the convention can vary from company to company or industry to
industry.
0.5815 0.500
0.500
------------------------------------ 100 16.3% =
16.3 100e
1
2

=
e
1
2
100
16.3
---------- 6.135 = =
1
2
6.135 ln 1.814 = =

2
2
3.29 1
2
( ) ;
2
9.87 3.29 + ( ) 3.29; = =
2
0.25 ; 0.5 = =
79
130. The alarm point should be set above the noise or background level, perhaps caused by
small, intermittent releases of H
2
S, and well below the prescribed maximum permissible
level. Of the choices given, the best is 5-9.9 ppm. The correct answer is (B).
131. The correct answer is (D) since derivative action in a relatively noise-free system allows
the controller to anticipate the effects of a load disturbance and take pre-emptive action.
Action I might also work, but there is nothing to indicate that action III is required as
well.
132. The correct answer is (A) since all of the other tuning objective would required overshoot
which is stated to be undesirable. This question deals with important tuning criteria other
than the classical -wave decay criteria favored by Ziegler and Nichols.
133. The correct answer is (B). Based on clause 3.2.74 of ISA 84.
134. The correct answer is (D). Based on clauses 3.2.74, 9.2.2, 10.3.1 (and more) of ISA 84.
135. The correct answer is (D). Based on clause 3.2.76 of ISA 84.
136. The correct answer is (B). Based on clauses 16.3.1.3 and 11.9.2 of ISA 84.
137. The correct answer is (D). Based on clause 17.1.1 of ISA 84.
138. The correct answer is (B), which is a false statement. Symbols from different standards
can be used in the same diagram IF they are clearly defined.
139. Because water hoses may be used for house cleaning purposes, watertight (NEMA 4)
enclosures are desirable. General-purpose (1), drip tight (2), weatherproof (3), and dust
tight (5) enclosures are not indicated. The correct answer is (D).
140. Class II, Group F is for areas where coal dust is present. The correct answer is (D).
Answers - Afternoon Session
81
501. Since the differential pressure measurement provides for pressure fluctuation and water
is an incompressible fluid, the level measurement remains unchanged.
502. If a single differential pressure transmitter was used, mounted at one of the platforms,
the connecting lines would be significantly different in length. Extraneous effects, e.g.,
temperature or gravity head, could adversely affect the accuracy. Therefore, two pressure
transmitters should be used.
or
504. For a stream containing solids, the best choice is a flow sensor that offers a minimum
obstruction to the flowing stream, i.e., a magnetic flowmeter.
The correct answer is (B).
505. The pressure reading is
The correct answer is (A).
P
2
P
1
----------
F
2
F
1
------

2
=
P
2
27 ( )
176
120
---------

2
58.1 in. of H
2
O = =
14 1 ( )
62.4
144
----------

5.6 psi =
82
506. The correct answer is (D). All of the listed factors influence the accuracy of measurements
made with orifice-type elements.
507. The correct answer is (D), self-check UV detector.
508. Hydrogen sulfide (MW = 44) is heavier than air (MW 29), therefore its concentration is
highest close to the ground. For early detection, the field sensor (analyzer inlet) should be
as close to the ground as possible, i.e., one foot.
509. Fiber optic data transmissions is immune to electromagnetic disturbances. The other
media listed are electrical and, therefore, subject in varying degrees to electromagnetic
disturbances.
That is the purpose of intrinsically-safe equipment. Caution is needed at the boundary
between hazardous and non-hazardous areas, however, to prevent leakage of, for
example, explosive gases from the hazardous area to the non-hazardous area.
511. Answer (C) is false and is, therefore, the correct answer. Some LAN vendors insist on
STP.
512. According to IEEE 802.3, the designation 10BASE5 refers to millions of bits per second
and distances in hundreds of meters.
83
514. The correct answer is (B).
515. For the new service conditions, using the maximum C
V
= 12, the maximum flow can be
calculated using the equation (Eq. 1, ANSI/ISA-75.01.01-1985):
with q = flow rate, gpm
F
P
= piping geometry factor = 1 (assumed)
G
f
= fluid specific gravity = 0.81
p = pressure difference, psi = 10
N
1
= units factor = 1 for gpm and psi
Rearranging to solve for q, the equation is:
516.
The mass flow is directly proportional to open area of valve.
C
V
q
N
1
F
p
-------------
G
f
p
------- =
q C
V
p
G
f
-------
12
10
0.81
----------

42.2 gpm
=
=
=
F
2
F
1
X
2
X
1
-------

=
84
517. The correct answer is (B). In some cases, the best action is to hold the previous position, at
least in the short term.
518. The correct answer is (A). Upon loss of power, the MX contact opens and the motor will
remain off until either the local or DCS start is activated and the motor starter pulls in
sealing in the circuit.
POWER
On Delay
0.5 sec to activate
ON
OFF
CLOSED
OPEN
NC
CLOSED
OPEN
TIMER
NO
POWER
Off Delay
ON
OFF
CLOSED
OPEN
NC
CLOSED
OPEN
TIMER
NO
Flow Switch
Bypass active
POWER ON
85
The start-up bypass could be either an On Delay Relay with a Normally Open contact or
an Off Delay Relay with a Normally Closed contact. The Off Delay Relay with Normally
Closed contact is not fail safe as the normally closed contact will bypass the Low Flow
shutdown. Where the On Delay Relay requires a typically 0.5 sec power pulse to start the
timer which in turn energizes the relay and the contacts change state, i.e., the normally
open contact close. Therefore, the On Delay Relay is fail safe design and the only solution.
520. The correct answer is (D). A double-acting actuator must be given power to open and
again to shut. Fail safe means that a device, if not already so, will, on its own, go to a
safe mode upon loss of signal/control power.
521. The correct answer is (D). Blocks in the pressure on solenoid failure. If momentarily
actuated, is immune to loss of instrument air as well.
Distracters:
(A) Fails closed.
(B) Fails closed if solenoid fails. Unpredictable on loss of air. Also, will not actuate in
both directions.
(C) Almost works, but it may move when failed if the process exerts force on the valve.
523. The correct answer is (D). This Boolean statement means that M is activated when A or (B
and (C or D)) are closed. This is correct.
86
524. To check the stability of a system having the characteristic function
s
4
+ 7s
3
+ (19 + K) s
2
+ (13 + 7K) s + 12K,
write the Routh array as follows:
The first column will be positive when c > 0 and d > 0. The first condition requires
K > 6.2; the second requires K > 0.
525.
I False - The parameters are the period of the oscillation and the gain needed to
produce the oscillation.
II True
III False-3 or 4 cycles are sufficient.
IV True
s
4
1 19 + K 12K
s
3
7 13 + 7K
s
2
a b
s
1
c
s
0
d
a
7 19 K + ( ) 13 7K + ( )
7
-------------------------------------------------------
133 7K 13 7K +
7
------------------------------------------------
120
7
---------
=
=
=
b 12K =
c
a 13 7K + ( ) 7b
a
----------------------------------------
13 7K 7 12K ( )
7
120
---------

+
13 7K 4.9K +
13 2.1K +
=
=
=
=
d b 12K = =
87
Pure time delay requires a reduction in both proportional gain and integral action.
[See D. R. Coughanowr and L.B. Koppel, Process Systems Analysis and Control, McGraw-
Hill, 1965, pp. 312314, where the Cohen-Coon tuning formulas are discussed. The
equations show K
c
varying inversely with dead time, which means that the integral
action decreases with dead time.]
528. The correct answer is (D) since a rooms temperature is to be maintained in spite of load
disturbances. This question deals with the difference between tuning for setpoint
tracking or disturbance rejection.
529. The correct answer is (B).
530. The correct answer is (B). Note that the NOT element at the input to the following
AND element.
531. The correct answer is (C). Based on clause 1 of ISA-84.
532. The correct answer is (A). Based on clause 13.1.1 of ISA-84.
533. The correct answer is (C). Based on clauses 3.4 and 3.5 of Part 3 of ANSI/ISA-84.00.01
(IEC 61511-3 Mod).
534. The correct answer is (D), 0.9988.
Solution: Prob. of no failures = (0.98)
3
= 0.941192
Prob. of one failure = 3 (0.02)(0.98)
2
= 0.057624
Prob. of system operating = 0.998816
As a check: Prob. of two failures = 3 (0.02)
2
(0.98) = 0.001176
Prob. of three failures = (0.02)
3
= 0.000008
Prob. of system being shutdown = 0.001184
Total of all outcomes = 1.000000
88
535. The correct answer is (C). ANSI/ISA-84.01-1996, Section 7.4.3.1 only mandates separate
valves for SIL 3 (Safety Integrity Level 3).
The other statements are true.
536. The correct answer is (C). Based on clause 16.3.2 of ISA-84.
537. The correct answer is (B). Based on OSHA PSM regulation (29 CFR 1910.119), not
specifically referenced in ISA-84.
538. The correct answer is (A). Transportation of hazardous chemicals is covered by 49CFR,
Parts 100-185, and is a concern of the Department of Transportation (DOT), not OSHA.
Distracters:
(B), (C) and (D) are covered by 29CFR, Part 1910, and are concerns of OSHA.
539. The correct answer is (D). This is required by NFPA Standard 85C and precludes the
selection of (A), (B) or (C). Also, most PLC manufacturers recommend an external master
relay to remove all power from field devices in an emergency.
540. The correct answer is (B); the over-riding principle in this area is that the person
responsible for engineering designs should sign the drawings. Signatures by other people
wont hurt, but they are not required.
89
SAMPLE EXAMINATION MATERIALS
APPENDIX D
91
SERIAL
NAME:_________________________________
Last First Middle
Initial
PRINCIPLES AND PRACTICE
OF
ENGINEERING
EXAMINATION
DISCIPLINE
Control Systems
This test booklet is the property of the National Council of
Examiners for Engineering and Surveying and its contents are
copyrighted under the laws of the United States. Copying,
reproduction, or any action taken to reveal the contents of this
examination in whole or in part is unlawful. Removal of this
booklet from the examination room by unauthorized persons is
prohibited. At the conclusion of the examination, you are
responsible for returning the numbered test booklet which was
assigned to you.
Multiple-choice answers must be placed on the separate answer
sheet.
SAMPLE
1992, National Council of Examiners for
Engineering and Surveying, Clemson, South
Carolina 29633
93
NATIONAL COUNCIL OF EXAMINERS FOR ENGINEERING AND SURVEYING
CONTROL SYSTEMS ENGINEERING
THIS IS AN OPEN BOOK EXAMINATION
NOTE: LOCAL LICENSURE BOARD RULES TAKE PRECEDENCE
OVER THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS
Textbooks, handbooks, bound reference materials and battery-operated, silent, non-printing
calculators may be used in the examination room. Writing tablets, unbound tables or notes, and
devices that may compromise the security of the examination are NOT PERMITTED in the
examination room. The exchange of reference materials during the examination is not allowed.
This is an examination of your capabilities; the work is to be representative of your knowledge.
Copying or cheating of any kind is NOT tolerated and will result in an invalidation of your
examination score.
Respond to all 40 questions during this four-hour examination. Select the best answer from a list
of four choices. Each multiple-choice question has equal weight and points are not subtracted for
incorrect responses.
Be sure to correctly enter all of your answers on the separate answer sheet enclosed within this
test booklet. THIS IS THE ONLY RECORD OF THE PROBLEMS YOU HAVE WORKED.
Once you select your answer, fill in the corresponding space on the answer sheet using a
Number 2 pencil. BE SURE THAT EACH MARK IS DARK AND COMPLETELY FILLS THE
ANSWER SPACE. Only one answer is permitted for each question; no credit is given for
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Blank space in the test booklet may be used for scratch work. NO CREDIT WILL BE GIVEN
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Make certain that you have followed the above instructions before turning in all test materials to
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YOU ARE PROHIBITED FROM COPYING THE PROBLEMS FOR FUTURE REFERENCE;
VIOLATORS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.
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PRINCIPLES & PRACTICE
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Founded in 1945, the International Society of Automation (www.isa.org) is a leading,
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