Second Year

CHAPTER # 1
Periodic Classification of Elements & Periodicity

1.
Which of the following pairs are chemically

dissimilar?
(A) Na and K
(C) Zr and Hf
2.
11.
(B) Ba and Sr
(D) Ca and Zn.
(A) Carbon
(C) Nitrogen
12.
13.
3.
(A) Zn2+
(C) Ni2+
9.
16.
(B) Rb
(C) CI
(B) Al3+
(D) N+
17.
18.
Gradual addition of electronic shells in the

noble gases causes a decrease in their
(A) Ionization energy
(C) Boiling point
Which one of the following is an incorrect

statement?
Electron affinity depends on

(A) Atomic size
(B) Nuclear charge
(C) Atomic number
(D) Atomic size and nuclear charge both.
(B) Cu+
(D) Ag+
(B) Na+
(D) Kr
The atomic radius increases as we move

down a group because
(A) The ionization potential of nitrogen is

greater than that of chlorine
(B) The electron affinity of fluorine is greater
than that of chlorine
(C) The ionization potential of beryllium is
greater than that of boron
(D) The electronegativity of fluorine is greater
than that of chlorine.
Ca2+ ion is isoelectronic with

(A) Mg2+
(C) Ar
10.
(B) Fr
(C) Be.
Which of the following ions are paramagnetic

in character?
(B) H 2O
(C) CO2
(A) Effective nuclear charge increases

(B) Atomic mass increases
(C) Additive electrons are accommodated in
new electron level
(D) Atomic number increase.
Which of the following is isoelectronic with

carbon atom?
(A) Na+
(C) O2-
8.
15.
The oxide of which of the following elements

will be acidic in character
(A) Mg
(C) Li
7.
(B) Ni2+
(C) Al3+
(B) S
(D) CI.
Which of the following is isoelectronic as well

as has the same structure as that of N2O ?
(A) N3H
(B) NO2
Which of the following has greatest tendency

to lose electron?
(A) F
(B) S
6.
14.
Which of the following ion will form most water

soluble hydroxide?
(A) K+
(B) Zn2+
5.
(B) Cs
(D) None
(B) Mg2+
(D) CI
Which of the following element has the

maximum electron affinity?
(A) F
(C) I
The alkali metal which is liquid at 15oC is

(A) K
(C) Na
4.
(B) 14
(C) 30
(B) Oxygen
(C) Boron.
Which of the following has the smallest size?

(A) Na+
(C) Al3+
The total number of inner transition elements

is
(A) 10
(C) 28
Which of the following has highest first

ionization potential?
Two elements whose eletronegativities are 1.2

and 3.0, the bond formed between them would
be
(A) Ionic
(C) Coordinate
(B) covalent
(C) metallic.
(B) atomic radius

(D) density.
19.
Ionic radii are

29.
(A) Directly proportional to square of effective
nuclear charges
(B) Inversely proportional to effective nuclear
charge
(C) Inversely proportional to square of
effective nuclear charge
(D) Directly proportional to effective nuclear
charge.
20.
(B) CO2
(D) SnO2
30.
a.
b.
c.
d.
31.
32.
35.
36.
Elements with greater number of electrons

have _________values of ionization energy.
a) Only one
c) Zero
b) Atomic mass
d) Electronic configuration
Elements present in a same group have the

same
s and p block elements are also called

Transition elements
Inert elements
Typical elements
Rare earth elements
What is the symbol of the element with only

three electrons and three protons?
a) Li
c) Ag
On electrolysis of NaH, hydrogen is liberated

(B) in the electrolyte
(D) none of them
Mendeleevs periodic table was based on
a)
b)
c)
d)
(B) F and CI
(D) Cu and Au
Which one of the following has the maximum

electron affinity?
(A) I
(B) Br
(C) CI
(D) F
Decrease
No regular trend
a) Atomic number
b) Molecular weight
c) Chemical properties
(B) 2
(D) 4
Which is the part of metalloids?
(A) At anode
(C) At cathode
28.
34.
b
d.
No. of electrons gained

No. of electrons lost
No. of electrons gained or lost
None of above correctly represent it
a) Atomic number
c) Atomic volume
The element with Z = 24 is placed in the period
(A) NA and K
(C) None of these
27.
Atom will lose electron easily

Atom will gain electron easily
Atom may form di-positive ion
The reason is unknown
Increase
Remain constant
a.
b.
c.
d.
Element, of group I-B are called
(A) 5
(C) 3
26.
affinity
Oxidation state of an atom represents______
(B) Lockery
(D) Ramsay
(A) Representative elements

(B) Transition elements
(C) Rare earth
(D) Coinage metals
25.
electron
Melting points of VII-A group ___________

down the group
a.
c.
33.
24.
Higher
value
of
means_________
Who introduced the zero groups?

(A) Lothar Meyer
(C) Mendleev
23.
b) K+
d) Ca+2
Mark the correct statement:

(A) Na+ is smaller than Na atom
(B) Na+ is larger than Na atom
(C) CI- is smaller than CI atom
(D) CI- and CI are equal in size
22.
a) Na+
c) Mg+2
Which of the following oxides is atmospheric in

character?
(A) CaO
(C) SiO2
21.
Which of the following possess maximum

hydration power?
37.
b) C
d) Cu
Elements with seven electrons in their valence

shell are known as
a) Inert
c) Halogens
b) Lanthanides
d) Alkali metals
b) More than one

d) Infinite
a) Inert gases
c) Alkali metals
38.
Which of the following pairs of elements are

chemically most similar?
a) Na and Al
c) S and F
39.
b) Cu and Cu
d) Sc and Zn
A student of chemistry will identify positively

the following symbols as sodium
40
23
a)
b)
11
c)
d)
Which one of the following is not a coinage

metal?
53.
b) Beryllium
d) Carbon
b) Complete orbital
d) Free orbital
b) Electronegative
d) None of these
b) MgO
d) P2O3
a) K+1
c) F-1
b) O-2
d) Na+
Ionization energy is lowest for
57.
b) Cu
d) Sr
Which two of the following are iso electronic

with one another?
a) Na+ and O
c) Na+ and Ne
Which of the following is smallest in size?
b) I -1
d) F
In its chemical properties, calcium is most

similar to
a) Cs
c) Sc
56.
b) 2
d) F
Which of the following will have largest size?

a) Br
c) I
55.
b) Cl
d) I
The element with atomic number 7 is likely to

have same properties to the element whose
atomic number is
a) 11
c) 15
54.
b) Fluorine
d) Iodine
Which halogen has the smallest electron

affinity?
a) F
c) Br
Which of the following has the most basic

character?
a) Na2O
c) Al2O3
47.
52.
b) 1S2 2S2 2P6 3S1

d) 1S2 2S2 2P5
Excluding hydrogen and helium, the smallest

elements in the periodic table is
a) Lithium
c) Cesium
Elements, which form basic oxides are

a) Electropositive
c) Inert
46.
51.
b) Electronegative
d) None of these
Which of the following has the highest electron

affinity?
a) 1S2 2S2 2P3
c) 1S2 2S2 2P5
The outer most orbital involved in chemical

bonding is called
a) Molecular orbital
c) Valence orbital
45.
50.
b) Plutonium
d) Tritium
With respect to chlorine, hydrogen will be

a) Electropositive
c) Neutral
b) Cu
d) Pd
Which is the most metallic element of 2nd

period?
a) Lithium
c) Boron
44.
16
Most electronegative
Most electropositive
Less electropositive
Less electronegative
a) Au
c) Ag
43.
49.
In the periodic table each period begins with a

metal, which is
a)
b)
c)
d)
42.
An isotope of hydrogen is
a) Neptunium
c) Thorium
32
13
41.
48.
19
26
40.
b) Halogens
d) Alkaline earth metals
b) Na+ and K+
d) Ne and O
Which of the following is a transuranic

element?
a) Americium
c) Neptunium
b) Plutonium
d) All of these
58.
The hydrogen, which is present in the

atmosphere of sun and stars in a large
amount, is
a) H2
b) H
c) H+
d) H-
59.
Cesium and Francium are liquids above

a) 10oC
c) 20oC
60.
61.
62.
63.
71.
The adsorption of hydrogen by platinum is

known as
a) Hydrogenation
c) Occlusion
72.
b) NaH
d) NaBH4
b) Dehydrogenation
d) Substitution
a) Decreases
c) Remains constant
b) 337 kj/mol
d) 348.8 kj/mol
Which ionic halides have high m.p and b.p?
73.
b) Chloride
d) Iodide
Which gas is used in the making of tungsten

bulb filaments?
74.
Iodide>bromide>chloride> fluoride
Bromide>chloride>fluoride>iodide
Chloride>bromide>iodide>fluoride
Fluoride>chloride>bromide>iodide
b) Neutrons
d) All of these
Ionic hydrides are also called
The hydrides are acts as powerful reducing

agents are
b) Al Razi
d) Mendeleeve
Dobreiners work led to the law of triads which

states that ______
a) Atomic weight of any one element was
found to be approximately the mean of the
other two elements of triad.
b) Atomic weight of the middle element was
other two elements of a triad.
c) Atomic number of any one element was
d) Atomic number of the middle element was
found t be approximately the mean of the
A hydride ion and helium atom has same

number of
b) Salt like hydrides

d) None of these
b) 110
d) 150
_______ classified the then known elements

into metals, non metals and their derivatives.
a) Dobreiner
c) Newlands
75.
b) Increases
d) None of these
______ elements have been discovered so

far.
a) 100
c) 120
b) N2
d) CO2
The ionic halides in order of decreasing m.p

and b.p can be arranges as
a) Saline hydrides
c) Both a & b
68.
a) PH3
c) LaH3
a) 348.8 kj/mol
c) 337 kj/mol
a) Protons
c) Electrons
67.
halogen
Which one is the example of complex hydride?
The electron affinity of fluorine is
a)
b)
c)
d)
66.
the
b) Covalent
d) Complex
From left to right in a periodic table charge to

mass ratio increases therefore the hydration
energy
a) H2
c) O2
65.
of
Lose their outermost electrons less easily

Become less dense
Becomes lighter in color
Gain electrons less easily
a) Fluoride
c) Bromide
64.
70.
b) Covalent
d) Complex
The hydrides which are non stoichiometric in

nature are
a) Ionic
c) Interstitial
b) Unstable
d) None of these
As the atomic number

increases, the halogens
a)
b)
c)
d)
69.
b) 15oC
d) 30oC
In an aqueous solution the hydrides of alkali

metals are
a) Stable
c) No change
a) Ionic
c) Interstitial
76.
The law of octaves was given by _______

a) Dobreiner
c) Newlands
b) Al Razi
d) None of these
a) 1
c) 4
84.
Which ion has the maximum polarization

power?
a) L+
c) Al 3+
77.
85.
Mendeleevs Periodic Table was based on

_______
a) Atomic number
c) Atomic volume
79.
Moseleys work led to the periodic law, which

states that _______
A pair of elements in the same family in the

periodic table classification is ________
a) Chlorine and carbon
b) Calcium and aluminum
c) Nitrogen and neon
d) Sodium and potassium
81.
82.
87.
b) Basic oxides
d) Amphoteric oxide
The electronegative elements form _____

a) Acidic oxides
c) Neutral oxides
b) Basic oxides
d) Amphoteric oxide
93.
The ionization energy of nitrogen is more than

oxygen because of _______
a) More attraction of electrons by the nucleus
b) More penetration effect
c) The extra stability of half filled p orbital
d) The size of nitrogen atom is smaller.
94.
_______ ion has the largest radius.
b) p block
d) f block
How many ionization energies can carbon

have?
b) Calorie
d) None
The electropositive elements form _____

a) Acidic oxides
c) Neutral oxides
92.
b) Alkali metals
d) Halogens
The unit of ionization energy is _______

a) Joule
c) Electron volt
91.
b) Atomic weight
d) None
The lowest ionization energies are found in the

_______
a) Inert gases
c) Transition elements
90.
b) P block
d) Zero block
The volume in cubic centimeters occupied by

one gram atom of the element is called
______
a) Atomic volume
c) Mass number
89.
b) Cl Cl
d) H H
Most of the known elements are metals of

______ of periodic table.
a) D block
c) III group
88.
b) Cld) I
The process requiring absorption of energy is

a) F F
c) O O2
Uranium is a member of
a) s block
c) d block
83.
86.
In the period, the elements are arranged in

strict sequence in order of _______
a) Increasing charges in the nucleus.
b) Increasing atomic weights.
c) Increasing number of electrons in valence
shell.
d) Increasing valency.
Which of the following halides is not oxidized

by MnO2?
a) F
c) Br
b) Atomic mass
a) The number of the electrons in the 1st

energy level increases as the atomic
number increases.
b) The properties of the elements are a
periodic function of their atomic mass.
c) The x rays spectra of the elements are
more complex than the optical spectra.
d) The properties of elements are the periodic
function of their atomic number.
80.
b) Mg 2+
d) O 2-
Law of octave states that ______

a) The properties of every 6th element from the
given one were similar to the first.
b) The properties of every 9th element from the
c) The properties of every 8th element from the
d) The properties of every 7th element from the
given one were similar to the second.
78.
b) 2
d) 6
a) Al+3
c) F-1
95.
b) Cl-1
d) O-2
Ionic hydrides are usually _______

a) Liquids at room temperature
b) Good reducing agents
c) Good electrical conductors in solid state
d) Easily reduced.
96.
The hydronium ion is a/an _______

a) Ion with formula H2O+
b) Ion with the formula H3O+
c) Free radical rather than an ion
d) Ion formed by removal of H- form a water
molecule.
97.
When steam is passed over red hot coke at

1000oC, a mixture of carbon monoxide and
hydrogen gas is produced. It is known as
______
a) Heavy water
c) Phosgen gas
CHAPTER # 2
S-Block Elements
1.
The oxides of beryllium are.

(A) Acidic
(C) Ba+2
2.
Which ion will have the maximum value of

heat of hydration?
(A) Na+
(C) Ba+2
b) Water gas
d) None
3.
(B) Basic
(D) Mg+2
(B) Cs +
(D) Mg+2
Which one of the following is not an alkali

metal?
(A) Sodium sulphate
(C) Zinc sulphate
4.
B) Potassium sulphate
D) Barium sulphate
The element cesium bears resemblance with.

(A) Ca
(C) Both of the above
5.
Chile saltpeter had the chemical formula

(A) NaNO3
(C) Na2B4O7
6.
(B) Cr
(D) None of the above
(B) KNO3
(D) Na2CO3H2O
The ore CaSO42H2O has the general name.

(A) Gypsum
(C) Calcite
7.
(B) Dolomite
(D) Epsom salt
Down's cell is used to prepare.

(A) Sodium carbonate
(B) Sodium bicarbonate
(C) Sodium metal
(D) Sodium hydroxide
8.
Which element is deposited at the cathode

during the electrolysis of brine in Nelson's cell?
(A) H2
(C) CI2
9.
(B) Na
(D) O 2
Ionic radius of potassium is.

(A) 60 pm
(B) 133 pm
(C) 99 pm
(D) 169 pm
20.
The super oxides are formed by the elements.
B
10.
Among alkaline Earth Metals, the highest heat

of hydration is of.
(A) Be
(C) Rb
11.
The chemical formula of Alumite (Alum stone)

is.
14.
23.
(B) K
(D) Li
17.
24.
25.
(A) Bones, egg shells

(C) Sea-shells
26.
27.
B) Gypsum
D) None of the above
When deficiency of calcium exists various

substances are accumulated in plants in
harmful concentration which are.
Which alkali metal behave different by from

others?
(B) Na
(D) Li
Spodumene, petalite, halite, natron, alinite are

the common minerals of.
(B) teeth
(D) All of the above
Sodium is prepared by the electrolysis of.
Dolomite is a compound of which elements.

(A) Be
(C) Ca
19.
The root system of several plants have been

greatly enlarged by the application of.
A) Alkali metals
B) Alkaline earth metals
C) Both of the above D) Li
28.
18.
(B) CaSO4, 2H2O(gypsum)

(D) LiNO3
(A) Mg
(C) Rb
(B) Rb
(D) Na
Calcium Phosphate Ca3 (PO4) and calcium

fluoride CaF2 are essential part of living
organisms.
Plaster of paris is formed after heating upto

100OC
(A) Lime
(B) Aluminium
(C) Aliminium and Manganese
(B) Plants
(C) None of the above
Which of the alkali earth metal has radioactive

nature.
(B) Cs
(D) Be
A) Sulphur
C) Both of the above
Magnesium is an essential constituent of.
(A) Be
(B) -200OC
(D) -0 oC
Among the alkaline earth metal which has

least reactivity even upto 800oC
(A) Mg(NO3)2
(C) NaNO2
Due to the high reactivity nature of the alkali

metals, they are found in.
(A) Storaata
(C) ChlorophyII
16.
22.
(A) Ba
(C) Li
(A) Free in nature

(B) Bounded with other elements
(C) Not free in nature
15.
Potassium, rubidium and caeslium are so

highly reactive that they react with ice even at .
(A) -100OC
(C) -50oC
Among alkali metals the lowest atomic number

is of.
(A) Rb
(C) Sr
(B) K, Na, Cs,

(B) KCI
(D) NaCI
(A) KCI. MgCI2. 6H2O

(B) KCI
(C) Na2B4O7. 10H2O
(D) K2SO4 Al(SO4)3. 2Al(OH)3
13.
21.
The chemical formula of sylvite is.

(A) Na2CO3. H2O
(C) KCI. MgCL2. 6H2O
12.
(B) Sr
(D) Cs
(A) K, Rb, Cs
(C) K, Li, Na
The melting point and boiling point of which

alkaline earth metal is high.
(A) Sr
(C) Be
(A) Simple NaCI in Down,s cell

(B) Molten NaCI in Down,s cell
(C) Molten sodium hydroxide in down's cell
(B) Mg
(D) Ba
(B) Mg
(D) Na
29.
Lime is used in.

(A) Glass industry
(B) Glass and paper industries
(C) Paper industries

30.
d) All
The elements which are very abundant in

earth crust are__________
a) Si & A
c) B & A
39.
a) Ionic
c) Metallic
b) Ca & Mg
d) All
40.
31.
32.
The alkali metals, which have radioactive

isotopes
a) Acidic
c) Amphoteric
a) Li
c) K
b) Basic
d) None
Carbonates of lithium are not stable like that of

sodium due to _____
42.
b) Caesium
d) Radium
b) Potassium sulphate
d) Barium sulphate
The ore CaSO4.2H2O has the general

name____
a) Gypsum
c) Sodium metal
45.
36.
Crystals of Na2CO3. 10H2O when exposed to

air, _______
a) Lose water and remain solid
b) Gain water and remain solid
c) Gain water and become liquid
d) Remains unchanged.
37.
The deliquescence is a process in which a

solid________
47.
48.
b) Ca
d) Sr
Metals, which are higher that water, are

Alkaline earth metals
Coinage metals
Alkali metals
All of these
Except lithium, the hydroxides of all alkali

metals are
a) Strongly acidic
c) Weakly basic
49.
b) Violet
d) Yellow
All alkaline earth metals are white except
a)
b)
c)
d)
In diaphragm cell, level of brine in anode

compartment is kept slightly higher which
prevents_________
a) Hydroxide ions to reach anode
b) Chlorine gas to mix
c) Anode to decay
Sodium imparts color to Bunsen flame
a) Mg
c) Be
a) Absorbs moisture and remains solid

b) Absorbs moisture and turns to liquid form
c) Loses water of crystallization
d) Increases the number of water of
crystallization
38.
Free motion of valence electrons

High I.P
Lesser atomic radii
None of these
a) Green
c) Blue
46.
b) MgCO3.CaCO3
d) BaSO4
The high electrical conductivity of alkali metals

is due to the
a)
b)
c)
d)
b) Dolomite
d) Sodium hydroxide
b) Halite
d) Sylvite
Which one of the following is dolomite?

a) MgCO3
c) CaCO3
44.
b) Potassium
d) Cesium
Na2SO3.10H2O is the mineral of sodium and is

called
a) Spodumene
c) Natron
43.
b) Na
d) K and Rb
Halite is the mineral of

a) Sodium
c) Lithium
Which of the following sulphates is not soluble

in water?
a) Sodium sulphate
c) Zinc sulphate
35.
41.
Which one of the following is not an alkali

metal?
a) Francium
c) Rubidium
34.
b) Covalent
d) Co-ordinate covalent
The oxides of Be are ___________
a) Low electronegativity
b) Low electropositivity
c) Low charge density
d) Not know yet
33.
Alkali metals form bonds
b) Strongly basic
d) All of these
The carbonates and phosphates of which

elements are insoluble in water
c) Indium
a) Na and K
c) Li and Mg
50.
b) Na and Be
d) All of these
59.
All alkaline earth metals react with water at

room temperature to release hydrogen and
give basic solutions except
a) Be and Ca
c) Ca and Mg
b) Be and Mg
d) Mg and Sr
Which alkali metal is rare and found in a small

amount in all igneous rocks?
a) Li
c) K
60.
Lithium only forms normal oxides when burnt

on air but when sodium burnt in air it forms
a) Normal oxides
c) Peroxides
52.
b) Sub oxides
d) Super oxides
The super oxides of alkali metals are generally

represented by
a) M2O
c) MO2
61.
63.
53.
The nitrates of which group decompose on

heating with the formation of nitrites and
evolution of oxygen
a) IA
c) III A
54.
b) II A
d) IV A
65.
a)
b)
c)
d)
To make it good conductor

To decrease the m.p of NaCl
To increase the ionization of NaCl
To decrease the ionization of NaCl
Liquid sodium in the Downs cell is collected at

a temperature of
a) 700oC
c) 500oC
56.
b) Dry chlorine
d) Hydrogen
68.
b) NaHCO3
d) Na2CO3
Which of the following does not conduct

electricity?
a) Boron
b) NaCl
d) NaOH
The radioactive alkaline earth metal is

a) Be
c) Ra
69.
b) CaSO4.H2O
d) MgSO4
Which one is commonly used as a

laboratory desicator?
a) Na2CO3
c) CaCl3
Which is manufactured by the electrolysis of

fused sodium chloride?
a) NaOH
c) Na
58.
67.
b) SiO2
d) MgO
Gypsum is
a) CaSO4.2H2O
c) CaSO4
The product, which is obtained at cathode in

the Downs cell is
a) Liquid Sodium
c) Water
57.
b) 600oC
d) 400oC
b) NaBr
d) NaF
Which one of the following is most basic?

a) Al2O3
c) P2O5
66.
55.
b) Alcohol
d) Kerosene oil
Which one has high m.p?

a) NaCl
c) Nal
A small amount of calcium chloride or mixture

of KCl and KF is added to NaCl in Downs cell
b) CaCO3
d) NaOH
Potassium is kept in
a) Water
c) Ammonia
64.
b) CaSO4.H2O
d) 2CaSO4.H2O
Which of the following is fluorspar?

a) CaO
c) CaF2
b) M2O2
d) M2O3
b) NaOH
d) NaCl
The formula of plaster of Paris is

a) CaSO4
c) CaSO4.2H2O
62.
b) Na
d) Fr
The ingredient of baking powder is

a) NaHCO3
c) Na2CO3
51.
d) Thallium
b) Mg
d) Ba
Which one of the following elements has its

compounds which are diamagnetic and
colourless?
a) Be
c) Na
b) Sr
d) All of these
b) Gallium
70.
Which metal is an important component of

transistors?
a) Ag
c) Ra
79.
a) Cubic
c) Hexagonal
b) Au
d) Os
80.
71.
Which impurities are present in common salt?

a) Na2SO4
c) CaCl2
72.
a)
b)
c)
d)
73.
The alkali metal, which is artificially prepared
75.
NaOH
NaCl
NaHCO3 and dilute acid
NaHCO3 and NaOH
a) Na2CO3
c) Li2CO3
77.
83.
84.
a) Marble
c) Epsom salt
85.
b) Gypsum
d) Baking soda
Mg+2 has fewer electron than Na+1

Mg+2 has greater electron than Na+1
Mg+2 has greater atomic number than Na+1
Mg+2 has low I.P than Na+1
Which
of
them
electronegativity?
has
a) Be, B
c) Be, Al
b) B, Al
d) K, Na
same
b) Dead water
d) Milk of lime
If the compound has the same crystal

structure and analogous formulae, they are
called
b) Allotropes
d) Isobars
Out of all elements of group IA, the highest

heat of hydration is for _______
a) K
c) Cs
87.
almost
A mixture formed by mixing one volume of

slaked lime Ca(OH)2 with three or four volume
of sand and water to form a thick paste is
called
a) Isotopes
c) Isomers
86.
b) Mg(OH)2
d) Ba(OH)2
Mg+2 is smaller the Na+1 because
a) Lime water
c) Quick lime
b) K
d) Cs
Which one is used in the manufacture of chalk

pencils?
The hydroxide, which is called milk of

magnesium and is used for treatment of acidity
in stomach, is
a)
b)
c)
d)
b) NaHCO3
d) NaNO3
Which element is used in T.V picture tube?

a) Na
c) Ca
78.
82.
Li+1 has higher heat of hydration than Na+

Li+1 has lower heat of hydration than Na+
LiCl is more covalent than NaCl
Lattice energy of NaCl is less than that of
LiCl
Which compound is used for uric acid

treatment in human beings?
Potassium super oxide (KO2) is used in

breathing equipments for mountaineers and
space craft because it absorb
a) Ca(OH)2
c) Sr(OH)2
b) Rb
d) Cs
LiCl is more soluble in organic solvents than

NaCl because
a)
b)
c)
d)
76.
81.
The chemical use for the production of CO2 in

the fire extinguishers is
a)
b)
c)
d)
b) Monoclinic
d) Orthorhombic
a) Oxygen and giving out CO2 at the same

time
b) N2 and giving out CO2 at the same time
c) CO2 and giving out O2 at the same time
d) Pollutants and giving out O2 at the same
time
Greater I.P of K
Greater I.P of Na
More electropositivity of K
More electropositivity of Na
a) Na
c) Fr
74.
b) CaSO4
d) All of these
K can displace Na from NaCl due to
Plaster of Paris has a structure
b) Rb
d) Li
The nitride ion in lithium nitride is composed of

a) 7 protons and 7 electrons
b) 10 protons and 7 electrons
10
c) 10 protons and 10 electrons

d) 10 protons and 5 electrons
88.
89.
When NH3 is passed over heated sodium at

300oC, the product formed is
a) NaNH2
b) NaNO2
c) Na(NH3)2
d) Na3N
c) It is easy to fashion in circular form

d) It floats on the fused sodium chloride
97.
a) Stable
c) Soluble
98.
b) Kerosene
d) Water
a) Normal oxide
c) Super oxide
99.
b) KNO2
d) KNO3
b) Diatomic
d) None of these
Sodium is not observed in + 2 oxidation state

because of its ______
a) High first ionization potential
b) High second oxidation potential
c) High ionic radius
d) High electronegativity
103.
A graphite anode is used in Downs cell for the

production of sodium because ______
b) Ca(ClO4)2
d) Ca(ClO2)2
Sodium hydroxide solution reacts with

phosphorus to give phosphine, To bring about
we need this reaction
a) White phosphorus and dilute NaOH
b) White phosphorus and concentrated NaOH
c) Red phosphorus and dilute NaOH
d) Red phosphorus and concentrated NaOH
104.
In the alkali metal series, Cesium is the most

reactive metal because _______
a) Its incomplete shell is nearest to nucleus
b) The valence electron has a larger orbit than
the orbit of the valence electron of any of
the other.
c) It exerts considerable beautiful force on the
valence electrons
d) It is a heavier metal.
b) ZnH2ZA
d) ZnO
Which of the following represents calcium

chlorite?
a) CaClO2
c) Ca(ClO3)2
The metallic luster of sodium is explained by

the presence of _______
a) Na+ ions
b) Conduction electrons
c) Free protons
d) A body centered cubic lattice
Excess of NaOH reacts with zinc to form

a) Zn(OH)2
c) Na2ZnO2
102.
96.
b) KOH
d) HCl
In general alkali metals act as ________

101.
95.
b) Baking soda
d) None of these
_______ is a stronger base.

a) NaOH
c) LiOH
a) Reducing agents
b) Oxidizing agents
c) Both reducing and oxidizing agents
d) None of these
94.
Sodium bicarbonate is commonly called

a) Soda ash
c) Caustic soda
100.
93.
b) Peroxide
d) None of these
Alkali metals do not exist in

a) Monoatomic
c) Triatomic
92.
When burnt in air, Lithium forms _______
Chile sulphur is
a) NaNO2
c) NaNO3
91.
b) Unstable
d) None of these
Sodium metal can be stored under

a) Benzene
c) Alcohol
90.
Alkaline earth metals form ______ carbides on

heating with carbon.
Sodium reacts with water more vigorously than

lithium because it
a) Has higher atomic weight
b) Is more electronegative
c) Is more electropositive
d) Is a metal
105.
Plaster of Paris hardens by

a) Giving off CO2
b) Changing into CaCO3
c) Uniting with water
d) Giving out water
a) It does not react with sodium

b) It does not react with chlorine
11
12
CHAPTER # 3
Group III and IV Elements
1.
11.
(A) Regular
(C) Both
Which metal is used in the thermal process

because of its activity.
12.
(A) Iron
(C) Aluminum
2.
(A) Acidic oxide

(C) Amphoteric oxide
3.
(B) Aluminum
(D) Silicon
14.
15.
(B) Iodine
(D) Oxygen
Boric acid cannot be used.

(A) As antiseptic in medicine
(B) For washing eyes
(C) In soda bottles
(D) For enamels and glazes
7.
8.
17.
(B) Carbonates
Borax occurs as natural deposit called tincal in

the dried up lakes of.
(A) Tibet
(C) Tibet & California
18.
(B) California
(D) Virginia
Group IV A of the periodic table comprises

elements.
(A) Carbon silicon
(B) Tin, carbon , silicon
(C) Carbon, silicon, tin and lead
(B) Al2O3. 2H2O

(D) Al2O3. H2O
The Group IIA of the periodic table comprises

the elements.
(A) Boron, aluminum, gallium, indium and
thallium.
(B) Boron gallium, thallium.
(C) Aluminum, calcium, strontium.
10.
Borax is the sodium salt of tetraboric acid. It is

most important of all among.
The chief Ore of aluminum is.

(A) Na3AIF6
(C) Al2O3
9.
(B) Aluminum
(D) C
(B) Boron
(D) Gallium
Which of the elements of Group IIA are rare

and only obtained as by-products.
(A) Borates
(C) Bicarbonates
Which of the following elements is not present

abundantly in earth's crust.
(A) Silicon
(C) Sodium
Bauxite is an ore of.
(A) Gallium thallium

(B) Thallium indium
(C) Gallium indium
(D) Gallium thallium indium
16.
6.
(B) Silicon
(D) Boron
Aluminum is the third most abundant elements

in earth crust after.
(A) Aluminum
(C) Carbono
Which element among the following belongs to

Group IVA of the periodic Table.
(A) Barium
(C) Lead
Orthoboric Acid is a mineral of.
(A) Oxygen
(B) Silicon
(C) None of the above (D) Both of the Both
Which element forms an ion with charge 3+.

(A) Beryllium
(C) Carbon
5.
13.
(B) Basic oxide
(D) None of these
(B) CaB4O7. 4H2O

(D) CaNaB5O9. 8H2O
(B) Irregular
(A) Aluminum
(C) Calicium
Chemical composition of colemnite is.

(A) Ca2B6O11. 5H2O
(C) Na2B4O7. 4H2O
4.
(B) Copper
(D) Zinc
Aluminum oxides is
The increase in the atomic size in group is
Boron is non-metallic because of

(A) Large size and higher nuclear change
(B) Small size and higher nuclear charge
(C) Small size and smaller nuclear charge
19.
The non-metals in Group IV A are.

(A) Carbon, silicon
(C) All of the above
20.
(B) Tin and Lead

The elements of Group IV A are character

sized by a set of .
(A) Three valence shell electrons
(B) Four valence shell electrons
(C) Five valence shell electrons
(D) Two valence shell electrons
13
21.
Group IV A elements form.

(A) Super oxide
(C) Dioxide
22.
(B) Oxides
The property of catenation among the carbon

and silicon .
(A) Increase on moving down the group form
carbon to lead
(B) Decrease on moving down the group from
lead to carbon.
(C) Decreases on moving down the group
from carbon to lead
(D) Stable on moving down the group from
carbon to lead.
23.
25.
27.
32.
(A) Most of all

(B) 2nd in number
(C) Third most abundant
(D) 4th most abundant
One of the outstanding features of boron is

ability to form________
Which of the following does not give Borax

bead test?
a) Cu
c) Ni
33.
34.
b) Carbon
d) Tin
Tincal is a mineral of____________

a) Al
c) B
36.
b) Copper
d) Zinc
Which of the following shows inert pair effect?

a) Boron
c) Silicon
35.
b) Cr
d) Al
The metal which is used in thermite process

because of its activity is_______
a) Iron
c) Aluminium
b) Si
d) C
Because of its ability to combine with both

oxygen and nitrogen, aluminium metal is
used_________
a) As nitrometer
b) To remove air bubbles from molten metal
c) To produce alloy
d) All
(B) Insulators
Oxygen is the abundant element in earth

crust?
Boron is a white crystalline solid and it

is________
a) Molecular addition compounds

b) Molecular crystals
c) Semiconductors
d) All
Semiconductors conduct electricity better than.

(A) Conductors
28.
31.
Boron occurs in traces and has been found to

be important for the growth of.
(A) Plants of many kinds
(B) Plants and animals
(C) Animals
b) Boric Acid
d) All
a) More soluble in cold water

b) More soluble in hot water
c) More soluble in water
d) Soluble only in organic solvents
Various oxides are used as pigments in the

pigments of which element.
(A) Oxides of lead, basic lead carbonate etc.
(B) Various oxides of lead
(C) Various oxides of lead, basic lead
carbonate, lead chromate
(D) Oxides of aluminum
26.
30.
China wares are made form a mixture of

(A) Kaolin and bone ash
(B) Kaolin and feldspar
(C) Kaolin feldspar and bone ash
Substance which is found in dried up lakes of

Tibet and California is______
a) Tincal
c) Calcium carbonate
The oxides of carbon are

(A) CO and CO2
(B) CO, CO2 and C3O2 carbon sub oxide
(C) CO, CO2, C2C3
24.
29.
37.
Silicon differ from silica by a group of

_________
a) CH3
c) OCH3
b) OH
d) O2
14
38.
Boron in soil has been considered essential

specially for________
a) Soil porosity
b) Proper growth of plants
c) Alkalinity of soil
d) All
39.
41.
49.
50.
b) Remain unpaired
d) None of these
52.
a) Atomic number
c) E.N
42.
53.
Boron is metalloid and semiconductor like

a) Be
c) Si
44.
b) Metallic bond
d) Covalent bond
b) K
d) Al
b) Thallium
d) Indium
54.
45.
Termite is a mixture of
a)
b)
c)
d)
b) Monoclinic
d) Trigonal
Iron oxide and aluminum

Iron oxide and copper
Copper oxide and aluminum
None of these
The hydrides B2H6 and Si2H6 are said to

55.
a) Ionic hydrides
c) Interstitial hydrides
47.
In the electrolysis of alumina is mixed with

Cryolite (Na3AlF6) and fluorspar (CaF2) in the
ratio of 20 : 60 : 20. the function of the Cryolite
and fluorspar is
Crystalline boron has structure

a) Cubic
c) Hexagonal
46.
They belong to group III A

Their ions have small size and high charge
They have high I.P
None of these
a) To decrease the fusion temperature of

alumina and to make good conductor of
electricity
b) To dissolve alumina
c) To dissolve sodium
d) To increase the ionization of alumina
Which element is unstable in air and is

oxidized superficially in air
a) Aluminum
c) Gallium
b) Ag
d) Zn
AlCl3 and GaCl3 are covalent when anhydrous

because
a)
b)
c)
d)
Boron does not easily form cations, because it

has the tendency to form bond like non-metal
a) Ionic bond
c) Hydrogen bond
43.
b) Atomic weight
d) I.P
b) Baeyers process
d) Grignard process
Bauxite is an oxide mineral of

a) Cu
c) Al
The tendency of the pair of S electron to

remain inert increase with the increase in
b) HCl
d) HBO2
The process in which Bauxite is purified by

dissolving it in 45% aqueous NaOH at 150oC
to separate insoluble iron oxide as red mud is
called
a) Halls process
c) Arrhenius process
51.
b) Donate OH-1 ion

d) Donate H+1
The aqueous solution of which acid is used for

washing eyes?
a) H2B4O7
c) H3BO3
In p block elements, the S electrons of

outer shell of the heavier members are failed
to participate in bonding, because they
a) Remain paired
c) Are free
Orthoboric acid is weak acid because it

a) Accepts OH-1 ion
c) Accept H+1
Special feature of borate glass is that it is

______
a) Heat resistant
b) Low melting
c) Used to prepare chemical garden
d) All
40.
48.
b) Complex hydrides
d) Covalent hydrides
a) Reducing agent
b) Oxidizing agent
c) A flux
d) None of these
The compound, which is used in borax bead

test for cations analysis, is
56.
a) NaOH
c) Na2B4O7.10H2O
b) H3BO3
d) H2B4O7
In aluminum termite process, aluminum acts

as a
Which aluminium alloy is extremely light?

a) Duralumin
b) Alnico
15
c) Magnalium
57.
Cupric borates are white in color

Cupric borates are black in color
Cupric borates are green in color
Cupric borates are blue in color
In mordenting aluminium ions (Al +3) are

precipitated on the cloth as
a) Al2O3
c) Al(OH)3
59.
66.
67.
68.
Which of the following can form nitride, which

react with water to give ammonia?
a) Boron
c) Indium
a) s electrons
c) d electrons
63.
64.
71.
b) Dil HCl
d) Dil H2SO4
72.
Action of aqua regia on noble metals is due to

b) HCl
d) Chlorine
Phosgene is a poisonous gas, its chemical

name is
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Phosphonyl chloride
c) Carbon monoxide d) Carbonyl chloride
73.
The maximum inert pair effect is shown by

a) B
c) Ga
74.
75.
b) (CO2)n
d) None of these
If a metal is protected by an oxide layer from

further attack, the metal is said to be
a) Reactive
c) Passive
76.
b) Al
d) Tl
Quartz is the polymeric form of

a) (SiO2)n
c) (CH2 CH2)n
The dry ice is a compound of

a) Solid ice with any water
b) Solid SO2
c) Solid CO2
d) Solid C6H6
Aluminum does not react with HNO 3 at any

concentration and therefore HNO3 is
transported in aluminum containers, this is due
to formation of protective layer of
a) HNO3
c) H2SO4
In land storage batteries, the acid used is

a) Con HCl
c) Con H2SO4
65.
b) 1 : 3
d) 3 : 2
b) NaCl
d) Na2S2O3
a) Cupric oxide b) Ferric oxide

c) Aluminum oxide
d) Aluminum nitride
b) p electrons
d) All of these
Aqua regia is a mixture of concentrated HNO 3

and concentrated HCl in the ratio of
a) 3 : 1
c) 2 : 3
70.
b) H2SO4
d) All of these
Carbon differs from other members of its group

due to smaller atomic size, higher
electronegativity and the absence of
Which of the following is used in photographic

film?
a) MgBr2
c) AgBr
b) Gallium
d) Thallium
The weak acid, which cannot be titrated with

standard alkies, is
a) HCl
c) H3BO3
62.
Meta boric acid

Pyroboric acid
Tetra boric acid
Boric anhydride acid (B2O3)
Platinum metal can be dissolved in

69.
61.
b) Sn
d) Ni
Ortho boric acid on heating at 100oC yields

a)
b)
c)
d)
b) AlN
d) AlCl3
b) Ni
d) N2O5
The depositing layer in tin plating is

a) Cu
c) Al
a) Hot con HCl

b) Hot con H2SO4
c) Hot con HNO3
d) A mixture of Con. HCl and con HNO3
60.
In the contact process for the manufacturing of

H2SO4, the catalyst used is
a) Cu
c) Pt
Cupric oxide on heating with B2O3 yields blue

colored beads in the oxidizing flame because
a)
b)
c)
d)
58.
d) Aluminium bronze
b) Active
d) Attractive
Carbon reacts with metals to form

a) Hydrides
c) Hydroxides
b) Oxides
d) Carbide
16
77.
The control addition of III A and IV A members

in Silicon and Germanium is known as
a) Inert pair effect
c) Litharge
78.
P type of semi conductor are formed by

mixing Silicon or Germanium with members of
a) III A
c) V A
79.
b) Doping
d) Red lead
87.
a) Weak monobasic Lewis acid

b) Only weak monobasic Arhenius acid
c) Only weak monobasic Bronsted acid
d) Only weak tribasic Arrhenius acid
b) IV A
d) VI A
Litharge is chemically
88.
a) PbO
c) Pb3O4
80.
81.
a) Boron on BCl3
b) Oxygen in H2O
c) Nitrogen in NH3
d) Phosphorus in PH3
Which of the following elements show
oxidation state of + 3 only?
a) Acidic
c) Neutral
84.
89.
90.
91.
b) Basic
d) None of these
92.
The function of Fluorspar in the electrolytic

reduction of alumina dissolved in fused cryolite
(NA3 AlF6) is
a) As a catalyst
b) To lower the temperature of the melt and to
make the fused mixture conducting.
c) To decrease the rate of oxidation of carbon
at the anode.
d) None of the above
86.
b) Confectionary
d) Thermite welding
In the commercial electrochemical process fro

aluminum extraction, the electrolyte used is
a) Al(OH)3 in NaOH solution
b) An aqueous solution of Al2(SO4)3
c) A molten mixture of Al2O3 and Na3AlF6
d) A molten mixture of AlO(OH) and Al(OH)3
93.
Borax is prepared by treating colemanite with

a) NaNO3
c) NaHCO3
94.
95.
b) NaCl
d) Na2CO3
Elements, which exist in two or more physical

or molecular forms, are called _______
a) Isotopes
c) Isobars
Which of the following statements is correct?

a) H3PO3 is dibasic and reducing
b) H3PO3 is tribasic and reducing
c) H3PO3 is tribasic and non reducing
d) H3PO3 is dibasic and non reducing
b) Sn
d) None of these
Al2O3 formation involves evolution of a larger

quantity of heat which makes its uses in
_______
a) Deoxidizer
c) Indoor photography
Orthoboric acid on heating to about 100oC

looses a water molecule to form ______
b) Gypsum
d) None of these
_______ is a better conductor of heat.

a) Fe
c) Al
a) Metaboric acid
b) Pyroboric acid
c) Metaboric and pyroboric acid
d) None of these
85.
Halls process is based on electrolysis of

_____
a) Alumina
c) Borax
b) Aluminum
d) Thallium
The oxides of Boron are ______ in nature.
The reduction of metal oxides is sometimes

accomplished by using aluminum in the
______
a) Goldschmidts reaction
b) Silberchemdits reaction
c) Baeyers reaction
d) Zilchs reaction
b) Ga
d) Ti
______ of the following is not metallic in

nature.
a) Boron
c) Indium
83.
b) PbO2
d) Pb(CH3COO)
The Octet rule is not followed by
a) B
c) In
82.
Boric acid is
b) Allotropes
d) None of these
PbO behaves as a/an _______

a) Amphoteric oxide
c) Super oxide
b) Basic oxide
d) Sub oxide
17
96.
The number and type of bonds between two

carbon atoms in CaC2 are
a) One sigma and one pi bond
b) One sigma and two pi bonds
c) One sigma and one and a half pi bond
d) One sigma bond
97.
b) Si
d) B
b) SnI4
d) PbI4
2.
(B) P
(D) Bi
In group VA elements the most

electronegative elements is.
(A) Sb
(C) P
3.
4.
b) P4O8
d) None of these
(B) N2O
(D) N2O4
Out of all the elements of group IVA the

highest melting and boiling point is shown by
the elements;
(A) Te
(C) S
7.
(B) N2O
(D) NO
Laughing gas is chemically

(A) NO
(C) NO2
6.
(B) N2O3
(D) N2O5
The brown gas is formed when metal reduces

HNO3
(A) N2O5
(C) NO2
5.
(B) N
(D) As
Oxidation of NO in air produced.

(A) NO2
(C) N2O4
In which of the following phosphorus has an

oxidation state of + 4?
a) P4O6
c) P4O9
Out of all the elements of group VA the highest

ionization energy is possessed.
(A) N
(C) Sb
Which of the following halides is least stable

and has doubtful existence?
a) Cl4
c) GeI4
99.
1.
Aluminum is diagonally related to

a) Li
c) Be
98.
CHAPTER # 4
Group V and VI Elements
(B) Se
(D) Pb
SO3 is not absorbed in water directly to form

H2SO4 because.
(A) The reaction does not go to completion
(B) The reaction is quite slow
(C) The reaction is exothermic
(D) SO3 is insoluble in water
8.
Which catalyst is used in contact process?

(A) Fe2O3
(C) SO3
9.
(B) V2O5
(D) Ag2O
Which of the following specie has the

maximum number of unpaired electrons.
(A) O2
(B) O2+
18
(C) O210.
19.
Nitrogen and phosphorus of group VA show

the typical properties of
(A) Metals
11.
(D) O2-2
(A) S (sulphur)
(C) PO (pollinium )
(B) Non-Metals
20.
21.
22.
16.
23.
Di-Nitrogen oxide is a colourless gas.

(A) With a faint pleasant smell and a sweetish
taste.
(B) With unpleasant smell and bitter taste.
(C) With pleasant smell and bitter taste.
(D) With unpleasant smell and sweetish
24.
Oxygen is comprising about .
In the atmosphere the free oxygen occurs

about
Nitric acid is used for.
25.
Water contains nearly combined form of

oxygen
(A) 50%
(C) 30%
(B) 70%
(D) 89%
Sulphur exist as
(A) Free and combined state
(B) Only in free state
(C) Combined state
26.
18.
(B) Four
(D) Five
(A) 1/3 of the atmospheric air

(B) 1/2 of the atmospheric air
(C) 1/4 of the atmospheric air
(D) 2/3 of the atmospheric air
(A) Making varnishes and Organic dyes

(B) For making organic dyes
(C) Making varnishes
(D) For making varnishes, organic dyes,
explosives nitrogen fertilizers etc.
17.
Oxygen has allotropic forms such as.
(A) 30% of earth's crust

(B) 20% of earth's crust
(C) 10% of earth's crust
(D) 50% of earth's crust
(A) N2O, NO and NO2

(B) NO, NO2
(C) N2O, NO2
(D) N2O, NO, NO2, N2O3 & N2O5
15.
(B) O (oxygen)
(A) Three
(C) Two
(B) 38%
(D) 78%
Common oxides of nitrogen are
In group VIA the radioactive metal is

(A) Te (tellurium)
(C) N (nitrogen)
(B) Three and five

(D) Two and four
Nitrogen is present in free state in air as a

major constituent about.
(A) 58%
(C) 70%
14.
(B) Non-Metal
The common valencies of the group VA

elements are
(A) Two to three
(C) One and five
13.
(B) O (oxygen )
(D) Te (tellurium)
Arsenic and antimony are

(A) Metals
(C) Metalloids
12.
All the elements of grown VIA are non-metals

except.
Allotropes of phosphorus are of
Which of the following possesses melting point

below 0C?
(A) Three types

(C) Two types
a) Nitrogen
c) Carbon
(B) Four types

(D) Six different types
In combined state nitrogen is found in all living

matter including.
27.
(A) Animals and plants as proteins urea and

amino acids.
(B) In plants only
(C) In animals only
b) Phosphorus
d) Bismuth
Formation of H2SO4 by Contact process is an

example of ________
a) Homogenous equilibrium
b) Heterogenous equilibrium
c) Sulphonation
d) Dilution
28.
Which of the following does not contain
19
phosphorus?
c) Tollens test
a) Yolk of egg
c) Nerves
29.
b) Bone
d) Steel
The composition of brown ring in nitrate test is

________
40.
b) FeSO4.NO2
d) None of above
Which one of the following compounds smells

like garlic?
a) P2O3
c) H3PO3
41.
a) Hygroscopic
c) Polymeric
33.
group
b) Metals
d) All of above
43.
b) 3
d) 1 & 3
44.
The properties of Nitrogen is different from

other members of its group to
a)
b)
c)
d)
36.
Small atomic size and high E.N

Single screening shell
Absence of d orbital in the valence shell
All of these
47.
37.
38.
b) Accepts electrons
d) All of these
b) NO
d) N2O5
48.
49.
a) Silver minor test
b) H3BO3
d) HNO3
Removal of arsenic oxide is very essential

because it acts as a
b) Activator
d) Co-enzyme
The structure of H2SO4 is

a) Trigonal
c) Tetrahedral
The test which is used to confirm the presence

of nitrate is
b) HCl
d) HNO3
The acid which forms three series of salt is
a) Catalyst
c) Catalytic poison
Which oxides of nitrogen exist in solid state?

a) N2O
c) NO2
The acid which has garlic like smell and is

crystalline deliquescent is
a) H2SO4
c) H3PO4
Nitrogen can not as a central metal atom in a

complex because it can not
a) Devote electrons
c) Form an ion
Monoatomic molecule
Diatomic molecules
Triatomic molecules
Tetra atomic molecules
a) H2SO4
b) H3BO3
46.
b) Te
d) Mg
White phosphorous occurs in the form of

a)
b)
c)
d)
b) Less reactive
d) Moderatory reactive
b) Dibasic acid
d) Base
Galena is an ore of
a) S
c) Po
45.
35.
Orthophosphorous acid is a
a) Monobasic acid
c) Tribasic acid
The nitrogen gas present in air is

a) More
b) Non reactive
b) PBr5
d) Pl5
VIA
Phosphoric acid is a weak acid and its basicity

is_______
a) 1
c) Zero
34.
in
b) dil HNO3
d) HNO3
Which one PX5 is unknown?

a) PCl5
c) PF5
b) P2O5
d) All have same smell
All the elements

are______________
Mixture of HNO3 and NO2 is called

a) con HNO3
c) fuming HNO3
42.
32.
Unpaired electrons
Odd number of electrons
Paramagnetic
All of these
b) C
d) N
a) FeSO4.NO
c) FeSO4.NO3
31.
Nitric oxide has

a)
b)
c)
d)
Which of the following elements can follow

extended octet rule?
a) P
c) B
30.
39.
d) Baeyers test
b) Octahedral
d) Hexagonal
Which pair does not produce H2 gas?
b) Ring test
20
a)
b)
c)
d)
50.
Why it is difficult to form nitrogen compounds

from gaseous nitrogen
a)
b)
c)
d)
51.
Cu and Con HNO3

C2H5OH and Na metal
Mg and steam
Phenol and sodium metal
The elements which is essential in nitrogen

fixation is
54.
62.
b) CH4
d) BF3
b) NO2
d) NaNO3
White phosphorus
Gray phosphorus
Violet phosphorus
Red phosphorus
63.
b) Oxidizing agent
d) None of these
In group VI A highest electronegativity is for

a) S
c) Pb
b) Monoclinic sulphur
d) Colloidal sulphur
b) O
d) Se
a) Fe
c) Zn
66.
67.
68.
On industrial scale Nitric acid is prepared by

_______
b) Rhombic sulphur
d) Metallic sulphur
_______ is obtained when ammonium

dichromate is refrigerant?
a) Nitrogen
c) Ammonia
69.
b) 4
d) 7
When liquid sulphur at one atmospheric

pressre is very slowly cooled, unless super
cooling occurs, the first solid to appear is
_______
a) Monoclinic sulphur
c) Hexagonal sulphur
b) Cu
d) Sn
b) S2 chains
d) S8 rings
The number of hydroxyl group in

phrophosphoric acid is
a) 3
c) 5
b) N2O4
d) N2O3
Nitric oxide is prepared by the action of HNO3

on
Rhombic sulphur consists of _______

a) S8 chain
c) S4 rings
b) N2
d) N2O3
The product formed by heating mixture of NO

and NO2 are
a) N2O5
c) N2O
59.
Concentrated sulphuric acid acts as a ______

a) Reducing agent
c) Dehydrating agent
64.
Consider
NH4NO3 gentle
heating
Product
The product formed is
a) N2O
c) NO
58.
By _______ process the H2SO4 produced is

pure and can be produced of any desired
strength.
a) Lead Chamber Process
b) Contact Process
c) Downs Cell
d) None of these
65.
57.
b) Nitrogen peroxide
d) None of these
Which is most stable isotope of sulphur?

a) Plastic sulphur
c) Rhombic sulphur
56.
b) Pt
d) None of these
Copper reacts with dilute nitric acid to form

a) Nitric oxide
c) Nitrous Oxide
In making safety matches we use

a)
b)
c)
d)
55.
61.
The starting material in Birkland and Eyde

process for manufacturing of HNO3 is
a) NH3
c) Air
In Ostwalds Process the substance used to

oxide ammonia is ______
a) Zn
c) CO
b) Mo
d) S
Which one act as a free radical?

a) CO2
c) NO
53.
60.
All its reactions are endothermic

The bond dissociation
It contain triple bond
Its first ionization energy is very high
a) Zn
c) Fe
52.
a) Dutch Process
b) Birkland-Eydes Process
c) Solvays Process
d) Downs Process
b) Oxygen
d) None
Which compound acts as an oxidizing as well
21
as a reducing agent?
a) SO2
c) Al2O3
70.
b) MnO2
d) CrO3
Which of the following acids does not
involve
S S bond?
a) Phyrosulphrous acid
b) Dichotomous acid
c) Dichotic acid
d) Pyrosulphuric acid
71.
Oleum is formed by combining H2SO4 with

a) SO2
c) S
CHAPTER # 5
Halogens and Noble Gases
b) SO3
d) H2S
1.
72.
When SO2 is passed through an acidified

KMnO4 solution
a) KMnO4 is oxidized
b) KMnO4 is reduced
c) SO2 is reduced
d) KMnO4 solution turns green
Which is the most volatile compound?

(A) HI
(C) HBr
2.
Which one is the anhydride of HCIO4 ?

(A) CI2O
(C) CI2O6
3.
(B) HBr
(D) HCI.
In which of the following, oxygen has +2

oxidation number ?
(A) F2O
(C) Na2O2
9.
(B) HCI
(D) HI.
Which of the following acid is weakest

(A) HCIO
(C) HCIO3
8.
(B) Goitre
(D) Night blindness
Which one of the halogen acid is a liquid ?

(A) HF
(B) HBr
7.
(B) Carnallite
(D) Cryolite.
Iodine deficiency in diet is known to cause

(A) Beriberi
(C) Rickets
6.
(B) Chlorine
(D) Iodine
Bromine is obtained on a commercial scale

from
(A) Caliche
(C) Common salt
5.
(B) CIO2
(D) CI2O7
Which of the following halogens does not form

its oxyacids ?
(A) Fluorine
(C) Bromine
4.
(B) HCI
(D) HF
(B) CI2O
(D) Na2O.
Fluorine does not show positive oxidation

states due to the absence of
22
(D) Fluorine is highly reactive.

(A) d-orbitals
(C) p-orbitals
10.
(A) Lose the outermost electrons less readily

(B) Become lighter in colour
(C) Become less denser
(D) Gain electrons less readily.
(B) HBr
(D) HI.
(B) HCI
(D) HI
Bleaching power is obtained by the action

chlorine gas and
21.
(A) Dilute solution of Ca(OH)2

(B) Concentrated solution of Ca(OH)2
(C) Dry CaO
(D) Dry slaked lime.
13.
24.
(B) I2O5
(D) I2O9
25.
(A) Hydrogens are strong oxidizing agents

(B) Halogens show only 1 oxidation state
(C) HF molecules form intermolecular
hydrogen bonding
Strongest hydrogen bonding is shown by
Fluorine is a better oxidizing agent than Br 2. It

is due to
(A) Small size of fluorine
(B) More electron repulsion in fluorine
(C) More eletronegativity of fluorine
(D) Non metallic nature of fluorine.
26.
The element which liberated O2 from water is

(A) P
(C) F
(B) HCI
(D) HI.
Which of the following is a false statement ?
(B) HF
(D) K2Cr2O7
(A) Water
(B) Ammonia
(C) Hydrogen fluoride (D) Hydrogen sulphide.
(B) BrO2
(D) I4O9
Which of the following hydrogen halide has the

highest boiling point ?
(A) HF
(C) HBr
19.
(B) CI
(D) I.
(B) HCI
(D) HI.
Which one of the following reacts with glass ?

(A) H2SO4
(C) HNO3
Which of the following halogen oxides is ionic?

(A) CIO2
(C) I2O5
18.
23.
Which one of the following is the true covalent

oxide of iodine ?
(A) I2O4
(B) I2O7
17.
(B) CI2
(D) I2.
Which has the highest molar heat of

vaporization ?
(A) HF
(C) HBr
Which halogen is most electropositive ?

(A) F
(C) Br
16.
22.
Which of the following halogens has the

highest bond energy ?
(A) F2
(C) Br2
15.
(B) CI
(B) I.
Which statement is correct about halogens ?

(A) They are all diatomic and form univalent
ions
(B) They are all capable of exhibiting several
oxidation states
(C) They are all diatomic and form divalent ion
(D) They can mutually displace each other
from the solution of their compounds with
metals.
Mark the element which shows only one

oxidation state in its compounds
(A) F
(C) Br
14.
As the atomic number of halogens increases,

the halogens
Bad conductor of electricity is

(A) H2F2
(C) HBr
12.
20.
Which of the following has greatest reducing

power?
(A) HI
(C) HCI
11.
(B) s-orbitals
(D) None
27.
Ozonised oxygen can be obtained from H2O

by the action of
(A) Conc. H2SO4
(C) MnO
28.
(B) N
(D) I.
(B) KMnO4
(D) F2
Which one of the following is most basic ?
23
(C) Argon
(A) F(C) Br29.
(B) CI(D) I-
39.
Which one of the following elements can have

both positive and negative oxidation state?
(A) F
(C) Li
31.
(B) I
(D) He.
Least chemical activity is shown by
Which member of group VII A combines with

one more halogen?
(A) NH3
(C) Ar
a) Cl
c) Br
(B) CH4
(D) H2SO4.
In discharge tube, noon glows

(A) Bluish
(C) Pinkish
32.
41.
(B) Reddish
(D) Greenish
(B) Trigonal planar

(D) Square planar.
43.
44.
(B) 2%
(D) 4%
45.
(A) Distorted octahedral

(B) Pyramidal
(C) Tetrahedral
(A) Cavendish
(C) Lockyer
37.
38.
(B) William Ramsay

(D) Frankland.
The coloured discharge

advertisement mainly contain
(A) Xenon
(B) Neon
tubes
for
47.
(B) Radon
b) NaClO3
d) All of these
Fluorine directly combines with noble gases

a) Kr
c) Rn
48.
b) HBr
d) HI
Chlorine reacts with hot solution of NaOH to

form
a) NaCl
c) NaClO
(B) Helium
(D) ARGON
Which of the following noble gases does not

have an octet of electrons in its outermost
shell ?
(A) Neon
46.
b) Claubers salt
d) Oil of vitriol
Which one hydride has greater ionic character

and had H bond?
a) HF
c) HCl
The noble gas was first time discovered by
b) Br F3
d) Br I 7
Iodine occurs as iodate in

a) Chile salt peter
c) Blue vitriol
The structure of XeF6 is
b) Cl
d) I
Which type of interhalogenis formed by

Bromine?
a) Br Cl
b) Br F5
Percentage of Ar in air is about

(A) 1%
(C0 3%
36.
b) 5
d) 8
Which one halogen directly reacts with noble

gas?
a) F
c) Br
The forces acting between noble gas atoms

are
(A) Vander Waals forces
(B) Ion-dipole forces
(C) London disperslon forces
(D) Magnetic forces.
35.
The interhalogen formed by iodine requires

fluorine atoms
a) 3
c) 7
42.
34.
b) F
d) I
Xef2 molecule is
(A) Linear
(C) Pyramidal
33.
The lowest boiling point of helium is due to its

(A) Inertness
(B) Gaseous nature
(C) High Polaris ability
(D) Weak Vander Waals forces b/w atoms
40.
30.
(D) Helium
b) Xe
d) All of these
The density of pure liquid HF is less then

water due to
a) Covalent bond formations
b) High electron affinity
24
c) Absence of three dimensional net work of

H bond
d) Presence of three dimensional net work of
H bond
49.
51.
The most
halogen is
a) HOCl
c) HIO
52.
59.
recently
prepared
oxyacid
of
60.
b) HBrO3
d) HOF
61.
HXO > HXO2 > HXO3 > HXO4

HXO4 > HXO3 > HXO2 > HXO
HXO3 > HXO2 > HXO4 > HXO
None of these
54.
Sea weeds are important sources of

a) F
c) Br
Chlorine can be easily liquefied and is usually

marketed in
Steel cylinders
Iron cylinders
Carbon steel cylinders
Glass cylinders
64.
b) Cl
d) I
b) HF
d) HClO4
65.
b) ClF3
d) IF5
Are salt producer

Are highly reactive
Has seven electrons in their valence shell
Are non metals
Xenon trioxide is formed by

a)
b)
c)
d)
Hydrolysis of xenon hexafluoride

Hydrolysis of barium per xenate
Hydrolysis of xeondifloride
None of these
The known fluorides of xenon are

a) XeF2
c) XeF6
Which one interhalogen can further combine

with fluorine?
a) F Cl
c) BrF5
Halogen do not occur free in nature because

they
a)
b)
c)
d)
The acid used for etching glass is

a) HCl
c) HNO3
57.
b) Steel
d) Carbon steel
Which one is false for bleaching powder?

63.
56.
Fluorine can be transported in a special

container made up of
a)
b)
c)
d)
b) 35 40%
d) 45 50%
a) Highly soluble in water

b) Light yellow color powder
c) Oxidizing agent
d) Release Cl2 gas by reaction with dilute
acids
55.
It reacts with SiO2 of the glass

It reacts with the Al2O3 of the composition
It reacts with the Na2O of the composition
It reacts with the visible part of light
a) Aluminum
c) Glass
The average available chlorine in bleaching

powder is
a) 30 35%
c) 40 45%
HF is not preserved in glass bottle because

a)
b)
c)
d)
62.
53.
b) Alcohol
d) All of these
b) Cl
d) I
The increasing order of acidity and oxidizing

power of Oxyacids due to increasing number
of oxygen atoms is
a)
b)
c)
d)
Iodine is highly soluble in

a) Solution of Kl
c) CS2
The halogen which form unstable oxides is

a) F
c) Br
Which statement is true?

a) Except F2O, the oxides of all halogen are
endothermic compounds
b) The higher oxides of halogen are more
stable than lower oxides
c) The bond in the halogen oxides are largely
covalent
due
to
similarities
in
electronegativity
d) All of these
The order of increasing dissociation of HX at

1000oC is
a) HI (33%) > HBr (0.5%) > HCl (0.014%) >
HF (0%)
b) HBr > HI > HF > HCl
c) HCl > HBr > HI > HF
d) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
50.
58.
66.
b) XeF4
d) All of the above
Mixture of 80% helium and 20% oxygen is

used for
25
a)
b)
c)
d)
67.
Breathing air by seas divers

Breathing by patient
Breathing by fishes
All of these
Tyres of large aeroplane contain

a) He
c) Ar
68.
69.
78.
79.
The gas that will liquefy with most difficulty is
71.
a) He
b) CO2
c) NH3
d) SO2
Which of the following is radioactive?
81.
a) Cl
c) I
b) Br
d) At
The electron affinity of halogens is of the order

a) F < Cl > Br > I
c) Cl < F < Br < I
73.
b) F < Cl < Br < I

d) I < Br < F < Cl
83.
74.
a) Br2O
c) BrO3
75.
b) HCl
d) HI
In which of the following bromine has an

oxidation state of + 4?
The element which liberates O2 form water is

a) P
c) F
84.
b) BrO2
d) None
b) N
d) I
Which forms maximum compounds with

xenon?
a) F
c) Br
85.
b) Oxygen
d) Nitrogen
b) Cl
d) I
86.
b) HClO2
d) HClO4
Which of the following rare gases is not

present in the atmosphere?
a) He
c) Kr
In which of the following oxyacids, chlorine has

an oxidation state of +3?
a) HClO
c) HClO3
77.
Bleaching powder is obtained by the

interaction of Cl2 and _______
Electrolysis of Brine produces _______

a) Chlorine
c) H2S
76.
Hydrofluoride acid is _________
a) Slaked lime
b) Conc. Solution of Mg(OH)2
c) Dry CaO
d) Dry slaked lime
Which of the following hydride of halogen is

thermally most stable?
a) HF
c) HBr
Phosgene is the common name of _______
a) A powerful oxidizing agent

b) A weak acid
c) A strong acid
d) A good reducing agent
82.
72.
b) Carbon dioxide
d) Hydrogen sulphide
a) Carbon dioxide and phosphate

b) Phosphoryle chloride
c) Carbonyle chloride
d) Carbon tetrachloride
b) d2SP3
d) dSP3
70.
b) Greenish Yellow
d) Blue
To kill bacterial, moist of the drinking water is

treated with _______
a) Nitrogen
c) Chlorine
80.
b) Contact process
d) Deacons process
Chlorine gas is ______ in color.

a) Yellow
c) Violet
b) XeF4
d) XeF3
The type of hybridization does the oxygen has

in OF2 is
a) SP2
c) SP3
a) Nelsons cell
c) Downs process
b) Ne
d) Kr
Which xenon fluoride is impossible?

a) XeF2
c) XeF6
hydrochloric acid with oxygen is ______
b) Xe
d) Rn
The structure of XeOF4 is

a) Tetrahedral
c) Distorted
b) Square pyramidal
d) Irregular pentagonal
The process based on the oxidation of
26
87.
Which of the following fluorides of xenon is not

observed?
a) Xef
c) XeF4
7.
b) XeF2
d) XeF6
The percentage of carbon in different types of

iron products is in the order of .
(A) Cast iron > wrought iron > steel
(B) wrought iron > steel > cast iron
(C) cast iron > steel > wrought iron
(D) cast iron = steel > wrought iron
8.
The colour of transition metal complexes is

due to.
(A) d-d transitions of electrons
(B) Para magnetic nature of transition element
(C) Ionization
(D) Loss of s-electrons
CHAPTER # 6.
Transition Elements
1.
Which of the following is a non-typical

transition element ?
(A) Cr
(C) Zn
2.
(B) Mn
(D) Fe
(B) Y
(D) Co
4.
10.
f-block elements are so called.
12.
The strength of binding energy of transition

elements depends upon
Transition metals have very high melting and

boiling points due to.
Substances which are weakly attracted by

which type of force are called as paramagnetic
substances.
(A) Weak magnetic field
(B) Strong magnetic field
(C) Feeble magnetic field
13.
The diamagnetic substances are
Group VIB of transition elements contains

(A) Zn, Cd , Hg
(C) Cr, Mo, W
6.
(B) 14
(D) 50
(A) Weak binding forces

(B) Strong binding forces
(A) Number of electron pairs

(B) Number of unpaired electrons
(C) Number of neutrons
(D) Number of protons
5.
(B) 4
(D) 6
The total number of transition elements is.

(A) 10
(C) 40
11.
(A) Non-typical transition element

(B) Outer transition elements
(C) Normal transition elements
(D) Inner transition
Coordination number of Pt in
[t CI (NO2)(NH3)4]-2 is.
(A) 2(C) 1
Which of the following is a typical transition

metal ?
(A) Sc
(C) Ra
3.
9.
Which is the formula of tetra-amine chloro

nitro platinum (IV) sulphate ?
(A) [Pt(NH3)4(NO2)]SO4
(B) [Pt NO2CI (NH3)4]SO4
(C) [Pt CI (NO2)(NH3)]SO4
(D) [Pt (NH3)4(NO2)CI]SO4
(A) Weakly repelled by a strong magnetic field

(B) Strongly repelled by a weak magnetic field
(C) Strongly repelled by a weak magnetic field
(D) Weakly repelled by a weak magnetic field.
(B) Fe, Ru, Os

(D) Mn, Te, Re
14.
Paramagnetic behaviour is caused by the

presence of.
(A) Unparied electrons
(B) Paired electrons
(C) Paired protons
(D) Paired electrons in an aton, molecule or
27
ion
15.
22.
The transition elements includes.

(A) Inorganic Nomenclature Committee
(IUPAC)
(B) Organic Nomenclature Committee (IUPAC)
(A) Ti, Fe, Cr, Ni, Cu etc

(B) Ti, Fe, Nb, Ta, Th, etc
(C) Mo, W, Zr, Nb, etc
(D) Ti, Fe, Ci, Ni, Cu, Mo, W, Zr, Nb, Ta, Th,
etc
23.
16.
17.
Zn has
In writing the formula of a complex ion the

usual practice is to place the symbol of the
(A) Zero unpaired electrons

(B) Five unpaired electrons
(C) Three unpaired electrons
(D) One paired electrons
(A) Central metal atom second

(B) Central metal atom third
(C) Central metal atom 4rth
(D) Central metal atom 1st
In transition elements the orbital which is

responsible for the colour development is.
(A) s-orbital
(C) d-orbital
18.
24.
Pig iron or cast iron contains

(A) 0.25% to 2.5% carbon
(B) 2.5% to 4.5% carbon
(C) 0.12% to 0.25% carbon
25.
Wrought iron is manufactured from
(B) f-orbital
(D) o-orbital
In [Ti (H2O6)]3+ which wavelength of light is

absorbed.
(A) Pig iron

(B) Cast iron
(C) Pig iron or cast iron (D) Steel
26.
(A) Yellow light is absorbed while blue and red

light are transmitted
(B) Green light is absorbed
19.
Alloy steels are
27.
28.
21.
The amount of iron destroyed each year by

corrosion equal to.
(A) About 1/4th of its annual production
(B) About 1/3rd of its annual production
(C\) Both 1/2nd of its annual production
29.
Almost all the chromates are

(A) Blue in colour
(C) Red in colour
A complex compound may contain

(A) Simple catoins and a complexions
(B) A complex cations and a simple anion
In galvanic cell.
(A) Al does not releases electrons and
changes to al+3 ion
(B) Ai releases and changes to Al+3 ion
(D) Both of the above
Such compounds containing the complex

molecules or complex ions and capable of.
(A) Dependent existence are called
coordination compounds
(B) Independent existence are called
coordination compound
(C) None of the above
(D) A & B
In open hearth process for the manufacturing

of steel.
(A) Using cast iron, wrought iron, or steel
scrap
(B) Using cast iron
(C) just wrought iron
(A) Iron atoms substituted by Cr, Mn, and Ni

atoms
(B) Iron atoms substituted by Cr, and Mn
atoms
(C) Iron atoms substituted by Mn and Ni atoms
20.
The nomenclature of complex compounds is

based upon the recommendation by the
30.
(B) Green in colour

(D) Yellow in colour
K2Cr2O7(potassium dichromate) is used

extensively for.
(A) Dyeing
(B) Chrome tanning
28
(C) As an oxidizing agent

(D) All of the above are true
31.
The location of transition elements is in

between_________
a.
b.
c.
d.
32.
Lanthanides & actinides

s and p block elements
chalcogens and halogens
d and f block elements
34.
b) Paramagnetic
d) Ferromagnetic
43.
Following ion is a bidentate Ligand?

a) Ammonia
c) Carbonyl
36.
37.
b) Oxalate
d) Cyanide
The central atom along with Ligand is called

________
a) Complex ion
c) Ligand
Geometry of complex compounds depends

upon_________
For sp3d2 hybridization, the

geometry will be_________
47.
b) Enamel
d) Coating
a) n n 2
b)
n ( n 2)
c) n n 2
d)
n ( n 2)
Diamagnetic compounds are those which have
49.
b) Ferro magnetism
d) None of these
The number of ligands attached to the central

metal atom or ion, usually varying from
b) 2 to 4
d) 2 to 7
Co-ordinate compound with co-ordinate six

number have geometry
a)
b)
c)
d)
50.
b) Unpaired electrons
d) No electrons
An extreme case of Para magnetism is called
a) 2 to 3
c) 2 to 6
expected
b) Habers balance
d) All of these
The magnetic moment is related to the number

of unpaired electrons (n) by the equation
a) Diamagnetism
c) Isomerism
Any process of chemical decay of metals due

to action of surrounding medium is called
_________
a) Surrounding
c) Corrosion
The magnetic moment can be measured by
a) Paired electrons
c) Free electrons
48.
a) Tetrahydral
b) Square planar
c) Trigonal bipyramidal d) Octahedral
39.
46.
b) Coordination sphere
d) Complex compound
a) no. of ligand
b) no. of chelates
c) hybridization of central metal
d) All of above
38.
Contraction
I.P
Lanthanide Contraction
Complex formation
a) Gouys balance
c) Downs balance
b) Cation
d) Acid
45.
35.
b) 8
d) 9
A regular decrease in ionic and atomic radii

across the lanthanides is called
a)
b)
c)
d)
44.
b) Fe
d) Mn
In Ag2+ the number of electrons in 4 d orbital is

a) 7
c) 6
b) s-orbitals
d) d-orbitals
The specie which donates electrons to central

metal atom in co-ordination sphere is called
________
a) Anion
c) Ligand
42.
b) Galvanic cell
d) a & b
Which element has complete d orbital are

a) Ni
c) Zn
When light is exposed to transition element,

then electrons jumps from lower orbitals to
higher orbitals in___________
a) f-orbitals
c) p-orbitals
When an active metal like Al come in contact

with less active element like Cu, then it
produces _____
a) Voltaic cell
c) Electrolytic cell
41.
Compounds attracted by applied magnetic

field are called________
a) Diamagnetic
c) Good conductor
33.
40.
Tetrahedral
Square planner
May be tetrahedral or square planner
Octahedral
Steel is an alloy of iron and is classified into
29
a) Mild steel (0.1 0.2%C) and medium

carbon steel (0.2 to 0.7%C)
b) Medium carbon steel (0.2 to 0.7%C) and
high carbon steel (0.7 to 1.5%C)
c) Mild and high carbon steel
d) Mild medium and high carbon steel
51.
a) Low
c) Intermediate
61.
b) Two
d) Five
62.
52.
EDTA is
a) Monodentate
c) Polydentate
53.
a) Cl-1
c) NH2(CH2), NH2
54.
63.
64.
Complexes which have octahedral geometry

hybridized
57.
Co-ordination number
Type of hybridization of central metal atom
Chelates
Both a & b
66.
In Cr2O72 every Cr atom is linked to

a) Two O atoms
c) Four O atoms
67.
b) Three O atoms
d) Five O atoms
A substance which have even number of

electrons and have paired spin is called
______
a) Ferromagnetic
c) Dimagnetic
80% Cu + 20% Zn
80% Cu + 20% Sn
20% Cu + 80% Zn
20% Cu + 80% Sn
68.
The formula of blue vitriol is

a) CuSO4
c) CuSO4.4H2O
60.
An adding KI to a solution of CuSO4
Bell metal contains

a)
b)
c)
d)
59.
b) 70% Cu
d) 50% Cu
Titanium is used as catalyst in _______
a) Cupric oxide is precipitated

b) Metallic copper is precipitated
c) Cuprous iodide is precipitated with the
liberation of iodine
d) No change takes place
Brass contain 20% zinc and

a) 80% Cu
c) 60% Cu
58.
b) dSP2
d) d2SP3
The geometry of a complex depends upon

a)
b)
c)
d)
b) Bauxite
d) Alumina
a) Haber process
b) Catalytic hydrogenation
c) Oxidation of ammonia to nitric acid
d) Polymerization of ethyle into polyethylene
65.
56.
_______ is the important ore of copper.

a) Malachite
c) Blue Vitriol
b) 5
d) All of these
a) SP3
c) dSP3
________ reagent can be used to identify

Cu2+ ion.
a) Nitric acid
b) Sulphuric acid
c) Sodium hydroxide d) Potassium dichromate
b) NH3
d) EDTA
Complexes which are less common have coordination number

a) 4
c) 6
55.
b) Bidentate
d) None of these
Which one is Bidentate ligand
Finely divided iron is used in _______

a) Haber process
b) Catalytic Hydrogenation
c) Oxidation of ammonia to nitric oxide
d) Contact process
Ligands are classified into

a) One
c) Three
b) High
d) None of these
b) CuSO4.3H2O
d) CuSO4.5H2O
The transition elements usually have very

______ melting and boiling points.
The empty spaces between atoms of transition

metals in their crystal lattices are called _____
a) Vacant spaces
c) Interstices
69.
b) Paramagnetic
d) None of these
b) Valence spaces
d) None of these
[Ni(CN)4]2- is an example of ________

a) Square planar
b) Tetrahedral complexes
30
c) Octahedral complexes
d) None of these
70.
71.
a) NH3 is a better solvent than H2O

b) Ag+ forms a complex ion with NH3
c) NH3 is a stronger base than H2O
d) Dipole moment of water is higher than NH3
[Cu(NH3)4]2+ is an example of _______

a) Square planar
d) None of these
79.
[Co(NH3)6]3+ is an example of _______
80.
a) ZnCl2
c) HdCl2
a) Square planar
d) None of these
73.
c) Cr2 O
74.
b) Cationic ligands
d) None of these
b) Anion
b) Anode
75.
76.
2.
b) Ductility
d) Hardness
b) Oxygen
d) None of these
AgCl dissolves in u solution of NH3 but not in

water because;
(B) Sp2
(D) dsP2
In t-butyl alcohol, the tertiary carbon is bonded

to
(A) Two hydrogen atoms
(B) Three hydrogen atoms
(C) One hydrogen atoms
(D) No hydrogen atoms
3.
Which set of hybrid orbitals has planar

triangular shape
(A) Sp3
(C) Sp2
4.
When potassium permanganate is added to a

saturated aqueous solution of potassium
hydroxide, _______ gas is evolved.
a) Hydrogen
c) Carbon dioxide
78.
b) Co
d) Os
b) Cast iron
d) Steel
The state of hybridization of carbon atom in

methane is
(A) Sp3
(C) Sp
The property of a substance which permits it

being drawn into wire is called ________
a) Softness
c) Brittleness
77.
1.
The most strongly ferromagnetic element is

_______
a) Fe
c) Ni
d) Cr(OH)3
CHAPTER # 7
Fundamental Principles of Organic Chemistry
Ferric oxide is _______

a) A basic anhydride
b) An acid anhydride
c) An amphoteric anhydride
d) Green in colour
b) Cr(OH)2
Iron obtained from the blast furnace is called

a) Pig iron
c) Wrought iron
The suffix ate at the end of the name of the

coordinate complex ion represents a/an
______
a) Cation
c) Cathode
CrO3 dissolves in aqueous NaOH to give
2
7
The names of ______ are usually unchanged.

a) Anionic ligands
c) Neutral ligands
b) Hg2Cl2
d) HgCl2
a) CrO42
81.
72.
Which of the following is deliquescent?
The chemist who synthesized urea from

ammonium cyanate was
(A) Berzelius
(C) Wholer
5.
(B) Sp
(D) dsp2
(B) Kolbe
(D) Lavoisier
Linear shape is associated with which set of

hybrid orbitals ?
(A) Sp
(C) Sp3
(B) Sp2
(D) dsp2
31
6.
A double bond consists of.

(A) Two sigma bond
(B) One sigma and one pi bond
(C) One sigma and two pi bond
(D) Two pi-bond
7.
Early chemists recognized organic compounds

distinct from inorganic compounds because of
(A) The difference in their origin and
properties
(B) The similarities in their origin but
difference in their propertied
10.
11.
15.
16.
17.
Natural Gas is a
18.
In Pakistan the natural gas is used for.

(A) For power generation only
(B) In coment and fertilizer industries only
(C) As a fuel in general industries and for
Metamerism aries due to the.
Cis-trans isomerism is also called as

(A) Geometric Isomerism
(B) Position Isomerism
(C) Chain Isomerism
(D) Metamerism
19.
Coal, petroleum and natural gas are important

sources of.
(A) Organic compounds
(B) Inorganic compounds
20.
(A) Mixture of hydrocarbons

(B) Methane
(D) Nonn of the above
13.
The structure of alkynes can be explained by

yet another mode of hybridization called as
(A) Equal distribution of carbon atoms

(B) Unequal distribution of carbon atoms
(C) Both of the above are true
(D) None of the above are true
(A) Inorganic compounds

(B) Organic compounds
12.
B) Catalytic cracking
D) All of the above
(A) Sp2 hybridization

(B) Sp3 hybridization
(C) Sp5 hybridization
(D) Sp hybridization
B) Friedrick Wohler
D) None of the above
We have become dependent for our food

medicines and clothing to which compounds.
Cracking of petroleum is taken place by

A) Thermal cracking
C) Steam cracking
The vital force theory was rejected by

A) Jhon Dalton
C) Dmitri Mendeleev
At what temperature coal is heated in the

observe of air for converting it into coke, coal
gas, and coal tar
(A) Temperature ranging from 500-1000oC
(B) Temperature ranging from 100-1000oC
(C) Temperature ranging from 300-2000oC
(D) Temperature ranging from 1000-3000oC
Select from the following the one which is

alcohol.
(A) CH3 --------CH2--------OH
(B) CH3---------O-----------CH3
(C) CH3COOH
(D) CH3--------CH2--------Br
9.
14.
Ethers show the phenomenon of

(A) Position isomerism
(B) Functional group isomerism
(C) Metamerism
(D) Cis-trans isomerism.
8.
domestic purposes
(D) All of the above are truce
Organic compounds are classified into

(A) Acyclic and cyclic compound
(B) Acyclic & Heterocyclic
(C) Non-cyclic
21.
Rate of reactions of most organic compounds

are___________
a) Very slow
32
b) Very fast
c) Medium
d) No regular character present
a) Benzene
c) Naphthalene
32.
22.
Coal is produced after a long time decay of

__________
a) Animals
c) Wood
Ether functional group can be represented

as____________
a) OH
c) R-O-R
24.
b) R-CO-R
d) R-COOH
2-propanol can show isomerism as _______
34.
35.
26.
a) Square planar
c) Tetrahedral
27.
28.
29.
30.
of
Consider the reaction

3C2H2 Cu
tube
C6H6
This is the example of
a) Pyrolysis
c) Sublimation
38.
Octane no. of any fuel can be improved by

______
The fuel having 40% n-heptane & 60% isooctane will have octane number
Which of them
compound?
40.
heterocyclic
Chain isomerism
Position isomerism
Metamerism
Functional group isomerism
The type of isomerism found in 1 butene and

2 butane is
a) Position
c) Functional group
b) 60
d) 90
is
b) C2H6
d) CH4
Which type of isomerism is shown by the

following compounds?
CH3 CH2 CHO, CH3 CO CH3
a)
b)
c)
d)
b) Reforming
d) Condensation
b) Polymerization
d) Addition
Which one is acyclic hydrocarbon?

a) C6H6
c) C6H12
39.
b) sp
d) All
b) NaOH
d) PB(C2H5)4
37.
In alkyne, the hybridization is____________
a) 40
c) 80
31.
geometry
b) Butanoic acid
d) Ethoxy butane
a) Pyrolysis
c) Polymerization
The octane number of gasoline may increased

by adding
Which process increases the yield of gasoline

from petroleum?
a) Cracking
b) Polymerization
c) Reforming
d) Sublimation
Only sigma bonds are present in _______
a) sp2
c) sp
b) 40 180oC
d) 220 350oC
36.
b) Trigonal pyramidal
d) All are possible
a) Propene
c) Butanal
During the fractional distillation of petroleum,

paraffin oil boils between the ranges
a) EDTA
c) AgNO3
b) Aromatic
d) Aldehydes
In sp3 hybridization, the

molecules will be_________
n-pentane in a mixture
n-butane in a mixture
n-hexane in a mixture
2, 2, 4 trimethyl pentane in a mixture
a) 25oC
c) 175 275oC
The hydrocarbons which give smoke on

burning is called________
a) Aliphatic
c) Carboxylic acid
b) Coal gas
d) Crude coal gas
Octane number is the percentage of

a)
b)
c)
d)
a) Metamerism
b) Functional group isomerism
c) Geometric isomerism
d) None of above
25.
Which one is the mixture of 215 organic

compounds?
a) Water gas
c) Coal tar
b) Fossils
d) Ores
33.
23.
b) Cresol
d) Pyridine
organic
41.
b) Chain
d) Metamerism
The members of which of these have similar

methods of preparation and properties
a) Isomers
b) Homologues
33
c) Polymers
42.
52.
The maximum number of isomers for an

alkene with molecular formula C4H8 is
a) 2
c) 4
43.
d) Monomers
b) 3
d) 5
a) Dimethyl ether
c) Ethylene glycol
53.
Which of the following is not an organic

compound?
a) Urea
c) Natural gas
Kerosine oil is a mixture of

a) Alkane
c) Alkynes
b) Phenol
d) Carboxylic acid
56.
b) Coal gas
d) Both a & c
b) Ethane
d) Butane
57.
_______ is a mixture of methane, ethane,

propane and butane, used as a fuel and for
making other organic chemicals.
a) Refinery gas
c) Kerosene oil
b) Gasoline
d) Gas oil
A large number of organic compounds,

especially the unsaturated ones, show a great
tendency to unit. This process is termed as
______
a) Pyrolysis
c) Polymerization
b) Cracking
d) None of these
Isomerism, which involves compounds having

the same molecular formula, but different
functional groups are called _______
a) Chain isomerism
b) Position isomerism
c) Functional group isomerism
d) Metamerism
58.
51.
The kind of isomerism which depends upon

the relative position of the functional group, or
the position of double or tripe bond in case of
unsaturated compounds is termed as
________
a) Chain isomerism
d) Metamerism
Natural gas mainly consists of ________

a) Methane
c) Propane
50.
b) CCl3OH
d) None of these
Petroleum in the unrefined form is called ____

a) Rock oil
c) Crude oil
49.
Two or more than two different compounds

having the same molecular formula but
different carbon chains or skeletons are said
to be ______
The chemical formula of chloride is

a) CH3OH
c) CCl3CHO
48.
b) Octane number
d) None of these
a) Chain isomers
b) Position isomers
c) Functional group isomers
d) Metamers
Which of the following compounds does not

contain an OH group?
a) Alcohol
c) Aldehyde
47.
b) Alkene
d) All of these
b) Ethane
d) None of these
The quality of petroleum is determined by

_______
a) Decane number
c) Hexane number
b) Oxalic acid
d) Plaster of Paris
55.
46.
When ethylene is heated under pressure, a

transparent solid polymer, ________ is
obtained.
a) Polyethene
c) Methane
b) (CH3)2 HC+
d) All of these
54.
45.
b) Diethyl ether
d) Methanol
Which of the following is most stable ion?

a) CH3 H2C+
c) (CH3)3 C+
44.
An isomer of ethanol is ________
_______ is exhibited by compounds having

the same functional group but different alkyl
attached to the same multivalent atom.
a) Chain isomerism
d) Metamerism
34
59.
In cracking usually catalyst used is _______

a) Pt
c) Ni
60.
b) Aluuminosilicate
d) Tetra ethyl lead
b) Hexagon
d) Tetrahedron
b) Ketone
d) An acid hydride
b) C C
d) All of these
b) Ethers
d) Isomer
________ is the common name of methanol.

a) Formaldehyde
c) Propionaldehyde
65.
b) Acetaldehyde
d) None of these
______ is the common name of propanone.

a) Acetone
c) Diethyl ketone
Chapter # 8
Aliphatic Hydrocarbons
b) Ketone
d) None to these
1.
66.
The properties of organic compounds are due

to _______
a) Covalent bonds
c) Ionic bonds
67.
in
alkanes
are
Completely satisfied
Partially satisfied
No satisfied
No general rules
______ of the following are isomers.

2.
Which compound contains an sp hybridized C

atom?
a) CH3CN
c) CH3NH2
69.
Valencies
_____________
a.
b.
c.
d.
b) Functional groups
d) None of these
a) Methyl alcohol and dimethyl ether

b) Ethyl alchohol and dimethyl ether
c) Acetone and Acetaldehyde
d) Proponoic acid and propanone
68.
b) Molecular formula
d) Physical properties
Compounds in which two alkyl groups are

attached to an oxygen atom are called ______
a) Alkanes
c) Alcohols
64.
a) Structural formula
c) Chemical formula
______ has the longest bond length.

a) C = C
c) C C
63.
The isomers must have the same ______
The general formula (RCO)2O represents

________
a) An ether
c) An ester
62.
70.
In CCl4 molecule the four valencies of carbon

atom are directing towards the corners of a
_______
a) Cube
c) Prism
61.
a) Hexane
b) 2 methlypentane
c) 2, 2 dimethylbutane d) 3 methlypentane
Alkanes containing one branch on

main chain are called_________
a) Iso
c) Neo
3.
b) CH3CHO
d) None
When one hydrogen atom of alkane is

replaced/removed, then it is called
_________
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which of the following isomeric substances

would be expected to have the lowest boiling
point?
4.
b) Normal
d) Branched
Alkene
Alkyl
Aldehyde
Saturated hydrocarbon
Alkanes are also known as _______
35
a.
b.
c.
d.
5.
6.
b) alkene & O2
d) alkene & Cl2
7.
15.
b) Oxidizing agent
d) Reducing agent
Soda
lime
of_____________
a.
b.
c.
d.
b) Decarboxylation
d) Hydroxylation
16.
is
mixture
CaO and KOH

CaO and NaOH
NaOH and NaO
Nao and KOH
Malozonide
into___________
a) Epoxide
c) Ozonide
b) CO2 + H2O
d) CO+H2O
General
_______
19.
11.
formula
of
alkenes
is
b) CnH2n-2
d) CnH2n-x
sec>pri>ter
pri>sec>ter
ter>sec>pri
no specificity occurs
Halogenation
Dehalogenation
Dehydrohalogenation
Carbonations
20.
Alkenes
are
produced
Dehalogenation of_______
from
R-Mg-Br is called_________
a.
b.
c.
d.
Grignard reagent
Wurtz reaction
Tollens reagent
Pinacol pinacolour reagent
a) di-halides alkane
c) vic. Di-halide
21.
Upto _____ C atoms, alkanes are

gases
a) 2
c) 4
13.
b) C2H4
d) CH4
RCOONa+H2O [Electrolysis] is known

as _____
a) Bosch reaction
b) Kolb reaction
c) Sabatiers reactiuon d) Frankland reaction
12.
b) Halogenation
d) None
Removal of halogen and hydrogen

atom is___
a.
b.
c.
d.
10.
is
The order of dehydration of alcohol

is____
a.
b.
c.
d.
changes
group
Gas is used in fertilizer ____________
a) CnH2n+2
c) CnH2n
18.
nitro
b) F>Cl>I>Br
d) Cl>F>Br>I
a) C2H6
c) C2H2
17.
of
Order of halogenation is___________

a) I>Cl>Br>F
c) F>Cl>Br>I
Removal of -COOH is called______

a) Carboxylation
c) Esterification
Introduction
called______
a) Nitration
c) Sulphonation
Zn is a good___________
a) Metal
c) Non-metal
9.
14.
Sabatiers Sendrens reaction involves

_________in presence of Ni
a) alkene & H2
c) alkene & N2
8.
c. Presence of sigma and pi bonds

d. No justification available
Saturated hydrocarbon
Unsaturated hydrocarbon
Paraffins
a&c
b) 3
d) 6
Alkanes are less reactive than alkenes

due to__________
a. Presence of sigma bond
b. Absence of pi bonds
b) tri-halides alkane
d) vic. Trihalides
Reactivity due to pi- electrons is

present in
____________
a) Alkane
c) Alkyne
22.
b) Alkene
d) b and c
- electrons favour____________
a.
b.
c.
d.
Less reactivity
Addition reactions
Substitution reactions
None
36
23.
Raney nickel is____________

33.
a.
b.
c.
d.
24.
An alloy of Ni-Cu
Alloy of Ni-Fe
Alloy of Ni-Al
Alloy of Ni-Mg
Which member of IV A has little tendency to

form anions or cations?
a) Pb
c) Ge
a) Single bond
c) Triple bond
34.
Alkanes due to little chemical reactivity are

also called
a) Olefins
c) Grignards reagent
Methane and other members of paraffins do

not react with aqueous solution of acids,
alkalies, KMnO4 or other oxidizing agents this
lack of reactivity is due to its nature
27.
b) Nonpolar
d) Basic
Which hybrid orbital will form the compound

CH3 CH = CH CH2 CH3
a) SP2 and SP
c) SP
38.
28.
Which of the following types of reactions occur

when a reactant has a double bond?
a) Substitution
c) Photolysis
Among the following orbital bonds, the angle is

minimum between
a) SP3 bond
c) H O H in water
30.
b) Px and Py orbitals
d) SP bond
The compound with highest boiling point is

a)
b)
c)
d)
Hoffmanns Rule
Baeyers Strain theory
Thieles theory
Markownikoffs rule
Bromo Ethane on treatment with alcoholic

KOH yields
b) Ethene
d) Acetylene
Metallic carbide on treatment with water gives

out a colourless gas which burns readily in air
and gives a red precipitate with Cu2Cl2 +
NH4OH. The gas is
40.
n hexane
n pentane
2 methyl butane
2, 2 dimethyl propane
b) C2H6
d) C2H2
When acetylene reacts with 10% H 2SO4 in the

presence of HgSO4 yields
a) CH3OH
c) CH3CHO
b) CH3COOH
d) CH3OCH3
Dehydration of Ethanol gives
Alcoholic KOH solution is used for

a)
b)
c)
d)
32.
The positive part of the adding molecule will

go to that carbon which has greater number of
hydrogen atoms. This statement is called
a) CH4
c) C2H4
41.
31.
b) Ethene
d) Ether
a) Propane
c) Ethylene
b) Addition
d) Polymerization
39.
29.
b) Bromine water
d) Glycol
Which of them is used as general anesthetic?
a)
b)
c)
d)
b) SP2 and SP3

d) SP3
b) Ethyl alcohol
d) Ethylene glycol
When ethylene reacts with chlorine to form an

oily product. This oily product is called
a) Ethane
c) Ethyne
37.
a) Polar
c) Acidic
Ethylene reacts with Baeyers reagent to form
a) Baeyers test
c) Dutch liquid
b) Paraffins
d) None of these
36.
26.
b) Double bond
d) All of these
a) CO2 and H2O

c) Ethylene oxide
b) Sn
d) C
35.
25.
Baeyers test is use to detect the bond in an

organic compound
Dehydrogenation
Dehalogenation
Dehydrohalogenation
Dehydration
a) C2H4
c) C2H6
42.
a) Phenol
c) Benzoic acid
b) Benzene
d) Ethanol
Which of the following has active hydrogen?

a) C2H2
c) C2H6
Which is least soluble in water?

43.
b) C2H2
d) C2H4O
b) C2H4
d) CH4
Treatment of propene with cold concentrated

H2SO4 followed by boiling water forms
37
53.
a) Propyne
c) Propanal
44.
CH2 = CH CH3
CH2 = CH2
CH3 CH = CH CH3
None of these
54.
55.
46.
b) Propane
d) All of these
Electrophilic addition reaction

Nucleophilic substitution reaction
Free radical substitution reaction
Free radical addition reaction
57.
58.
Acetylene is used as a starting material for the

preparation of Plastics, Synthetic rubber and
Synthetic fibre called
b) Narlon
d) Forlon
b) Benzene
d) Vinyl acetylene
60.
b) Sodium Succinate
d) Sodium Fumerate
Formation of alkane by the action of zinc on

alkyl halide is called ________
The alkynes have _______

a) Tetrahedral frame work
b) Planar molecules
c) Linear structure
d) None of these
Which one of the following gives Ethyne on

electrolysis?
a) Sodium Acetate
c) Sodium Formate
Reduced to CCl4
Oxidized to CCl4
Reduced to phosgene
Oxidized to a poisonous phosgene
a) Frankland reaction
b) Wurtz reaction
c) Cannizzaros reaction
d) Kobes reaction
The high polymer of chloroprene is

a) Polythene
c) Neoprene
Displacement reaction
Substitution reaction
Addition reaction
Polymerization reaction
Chloroform is stored in dark coloured bottles

because in light it is
a)
b)
c)
d)
59.
Acetylene cyanide
Cyanoacetylene
Vinyl ethane
Acrylonitrile
Action of HOCl with ethene to give ethylene

chlorohydrin is an example of
a)
b)
c)
d)
Wurtzs rule
Franklands rule
Markownikoffs rule
Kekules rule
a) Orlon
c) Corlon
52.
b) C2H3Br
d) C2H5OH
Consider a reaction
CH3 CH = CH2 + H X product
The reaction occurs by obeying
a)
b)
c)
d)
51.
b) Ethyne
d) Butane
Acetylene adds on to HCN to give

a)
b)
c)
d)
The major reactions occur in alkanes are

a)
b)
c)
d)
50.
b) C2H6
d) C2H2
The structural formula of the compound which

yields ethylene upon reaction with Zinc is
a) CH2Br CH2Br
c) C2H2
49.
b) Less reactive
d) Both a & b
Which one will not decolourize bromine water?

a) Ethene
c) Propene
56.
48.
The compounds having Pi bonds are in

general
PVC is a polymer of
a) CH2 = CH2
c) CH2 = CH Cl
47.
Dichloro acetaldehyde
Dichlorohydrin
Ethylene chlorohydrin
Ethylene Dichlorohydrin
a) More reactive
c) Neutral
The compound having both SP and SP3

hybridized carbon atom is
a) Propene
c) Propyne
Ethene on interaction with hypochlorous acid

gives
a)
b)
c)
d)
Markownikoffs rule provides guidance for

addition of HBr in
a)
b)
c)
d)
45.
b) Propanol
d) 2 Propanol
61.
The alkenes have _______
38
a) Tetrahedral frame work

b) Planar molecule
c) Linear structure
d) None of these
62.
68.
a) Epoxide
c) Suboxide
Alkenes undergo _______

a) Addition reaction
b) Substitution reaction
c) Both addition & substitution reaction
d) None of these
63.
_______ does not react with aqueous solution

of acids, alkalies, or potassium permanganate
or other oxidizing agents and most of the usual
laboratory reagents.
a) Benzene
c) Methane
When a mixture of ethane and air is passed

over heated silver under pressure, we get
_____
69.
The IUPAC name for the following compound

is
CH3
CH2CH2CH3
CH3 CH CH CH CH = CH2
CH3
a) 4, 5 dimethyl 3 propyl 2 hexene
b) 4, 5 dimethyl 3 propyl 1 hexene
c) 3 propyl 3 dimethylpropyl 1 hexane
d) 2, 3 dimethyl 4 propyl 5 hexane
65.
Markovnikov addition of KCl to propene

involves,
The process used for the preparation of

acetylene is _______
a) Berthelot Process
b) Sabatier Senderns Reaction
c) Kolbes Process
d) Habers process
70.
b) Ether
d) Acetic acid
64.
b) Super oxide
d) None
A simple chemical test to distinguish 1, 3butadiene and 1- butyne is

a) Br2CCl4
c) KMnO4
b) Ag(NH3)2OH
d) None
a) Initial attack by a chloride ion

b) Isomerization of 1 chloropropane
c) Formation of n propyl cation
d) Formation of isopropyl cation
66.
When an aqueous solution of sodium or

potassium salt of mono carboxylic acid is
subjected to electrolytic, corresponding alkane
is formed. This reaction is called ________
Chapter # 9
Aromatic Hydrocarbons
1.
a) Sabatier Senderens Reaction

b) Kolbes Electrolysis
c) Polymerization
d) Chlroination
a) C7H7
c) C8H8
2.
67.
The elimination of hydrogen halide (HX) from

adjacent carbon atoms is called ________
a) Pyrolysis
c) Dehydrohalogenation
b) Chlorination
d) None
The molecular formula of toluene is_______

b) C7H8
d) C8H7
In benzene sulphonic acid, the sulphonic

group is attached with benzene ring
through_____
a) Hydrogen
c) Sulpher
b) Oxygen
d) OH
39
3.
Phenanthrene ________ benzene rings

a) Two
c) Four
4.
b) Three
d) Five
c. The absence of Oxygen

d. The presence of excessive Oxygen
12.
Aniline is a derivative of benzene which

contains______
a) Hydroxyl group
c) Amido group
a) Two
c) Four
b) Amino group
d) Imido group
13.
5.
How many electrons are there in benzene?

a) 3
c) 6
6.
a) C12H10
c) C13H10
7.
a) Bromine
c) Flourine
9.
14.
15.
16.
b) OH
d) CHO
17.
Which pair of groups contains both ortho &

para directors?
a.
b.
c.
d.
11.
18.
OH, RCO
NR3, CN
OCH3, CHO
N (CH3)2, NH2
Michael Faraday discovered benzene in the

gas which was produced by destructive
distillation of vegetable oil done in_________
a. The presence of Oxygen
b. The presence of Hydrogen
What catalyst is employed when benzene is

prepared from acetylene at 70C?
Zn amalgam
AlCl3
Organo-nickel
Rancy Rickel
Mixture of catalysts Cr2O3 + Al2O3 + SiO2 at

500C are used when benzene is prepared
from____________
a.
b.
c.
d.
19.
150.5 KJ/ mole

250.5 KJ/ mole
150.5 KJ/ mole
250.5 KJ/ mole
The resonance between different structures is

represented by______
a.
b.
c.
d.
10.
-219.5 KJ/ mole

219.5 calories/ mole
-119 KJ/ mole
-119 Cal/ mole
The resonance energy of benzene is______
a.
b.
c.
d.
b) Chlorine
d) Iodine
b) 0.307 nm
d) 0.307 nm
The heat of hydrogenation of cyclohexene is

_____________
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which one of the following is not a meta

directing group?
a) CN
c) COOH
In benzene the C-C bond length is larger than

the C-H bond length by a numerical value
of____________
a.
b.
c.
d.
b) CHO
d) CN
When benzene is substituted by halogens

only, which one of the following halogens is
given the number one position in the ring while
writing the name of compound?
b) Three
d) Six
a) 0.307Ao
c) 0.337Ao
b) C12H12
d) C13H12
When two or more different substituents are

attached with a benzene ring, the number 1
position in the ring is given to a high priority
group. Which one of the following groups has
highest priority?
a) NH2
c) COOH
8.
b) 4
d) 8
The molecular formula of biphenyl methane

is____________
How many moles of H2 are added up when

benzene is heated with hydrogen in the
presence of platinum?
Cycloalkene
n-hexane
Benzene sulphonic acid
Sodium benzoate
Which one of the following methods will not

give benzene?
40
a. Heating so. Salt of Benzoic acid with

soda lime
b. Distillation phenol with Zn dust
c. Chlorobenzene with NaOH at 360
C & 300atm.
d. Hydrolysis of benzene sulphonic acid
with super heated steam.
c) NO227.
What is the ratio of conc. HNO3 & conc.

H2SO4 when nitration of benzene is done at
50C?
a) 1:1
c) 1:2
21.
Strong nucleophile
Weak nucleophile
Strong electrophite
Weak electrophite
25.
31.
The preparation of benzene from acethylene

can also be said as ________
32.
b) Ketone
d) Other
b) Polymerization
d) Condensation
What is required other then anhydrous AlCl3,

when toluene is prepared from Friedel craft
reaction?
a) C6H6
b) C6H6 + CH3Cl
c) C6H5C2H5 d) C6H5 CH2
33.
The rupturing of Benzene mg

Addition reaction
No-reaction
Replacement of hydrogen of benzene by alkyl

group in pressure of alkyl halide & ferric
chloride is known as____________
a.
b.
c.
d.
Dows process
Friedel & Craft acylation
Friedel & Craft alkylation
Clemenson reaction
Benzene does not undergo ___________

34.
a.
b.
c.
d.
26.
Which one of the following statement is not

correct about benzene?
a) Oxidation
c) Dehydration
Reacting bromine with benzene in the

presence of sunlight will result in__________
a.
b.
c.
d.
Addition reaction
Elimination reaction
Oxidation reaction
a. On hydrogenation, 208 KJ/ mole is

liberated
b. C-H bond length in benzene is 1.09Ao
c. Molecular mass of benzene is 78.108
d. Resonance energy of benzene is
150.5 K Cal / mole
Acetophenone is a ______________
a) Quinone
c) Aldehyde
24.
30.
b) Nitro benzene
d) Chlorobenzene
Benzene is heated in air with V2O5 at 450C it

undergo ___________
a.
b.
c.
d.
Acylation of benzene is the introduction of

___________on benzene.
O
||
a. R C O
O
||
b. Cl C
O
||
c. R C
O
||
d. H C
23.
29.
b) NO
d) NO2+
Which compound will readily undergo

sulphonation?
a) Benzene
c) Golvene
In Friedel Craft Alkylation, AlCl3 is used to

generate___________
a.
b.
c.
d.
22.
b) 2:1
d) 2:3
Nitronium ion is_____________

a) NO3
c) NO2-
28.
20.
d) NO2+
Addition reaction
Polymerization reactions
Oxidation reactions
During sulphonation of benzene, H2SO4

generates____________ electrophile
a) HSO4-
b) SO2
Which of the following radical is called benzyl

radical?
a) C6H5
c) C6H5CH
35.
b) C6H5CH=CH2
d) C6H5CH2
Which compound form benzoic acid on

oxidation with strong oxidizing agent?
a) Toluene
b) Ethyle benzene
41
c) n-propyl bezene d) all

36.
a) Acetyl Benzene
c) Benzophenone
Toluene can be converted to benzoic acid in

presence of _________
45.
a.
b.
c.
d.
37.
C6H5 CH2Cl
C6H5 CHCl2
C6H5CH = CHCl
None of the above
39.
47.
The hydrolysis of Benzenetriozonide will yield

three moles of ________
Which of the following will undergo nitration

more easily and readily?
49.
The reaction of toluene with chlorine in the

presence of FeCl3 gives
a)
b)
c)
d)
42.
51.
a)
b)
c)
d)
6 Pi and 6 sigma bonds

52.
Common reaction
derivatives are
a)
b)
c)
d)
44.
of
Benzene
and
b) Benzoic acid
d) Benzophenone
b) Benzoic acid
d) All of these
b) Benzene
d) None of these
Sulphonation of benzoic acid gives

O benzene sulphonic acid
P benzene sulphonic acid
m benzene sulphonic acid
O/P benzene sulphonic acid
Benzene can be obtained by

a)
b)
c)
d)
43.
KMnO 4
Aspirin is obtained by reaction of sulphuric

acid and
a)
b)
c)
d)
Benzene is made of
acidic
Which of the following can be easily nitrated?
a) Phenol
c) Acetyl chloride
Benzyl chloride
Benzal chloride
m Chloro Toluene
O/P Chloro Toluene
with
Nitro group is O/P group

Nitro group is electron donating group
Bonding occurs in P nitro phenol
None of these
a) Phenol
c) Nitro benzene
b) C6H5CHCl2
d) C6H5CH3
50.
41.
reaction
b) Trinitrobenzene
d) Nitro benzene
The b.p of P nitro phenol is higher than that

of O nitro phenol because
a)
b)
c)
d)
b) Benzaldehyde
d) Glyoxal
a) C6H6
c) C6H5CCl3
Toluene on
produces
a) Phenol
c) Benzyl alcohol
48.
b) Acetic Acid
d) Benzaldehyde
Which of the following is not an explosive?

a) Picric Acid
c) Trinitro Toluene
b) C6H5O8
d) C6H6O6
a) Glyoxine
c) Glycol
40.
46.
What is the molecular formula of

Benzenetriozonide?
a) C6H6O9
c) C6H5O9
Passing vapors of Phenol over heated Zinc

gives
a) Benzene
c) Benzoic Acid
Which one of the following is benzal chloride?

a.
b.
c.
d.
38.
Dil NaO4
Mixture of HNO3 & H2SO4
Zn dust
Acidified KMnO4
b) Benzyl Chloride
d) Acetophenone
Reaction of zinc and phenol

Hydrolysis of benzene sulphonic acid
Reduction of benzene chloride
All of these
its
Electrophilic addition
Electrophilic substitution
Nucleophilic addition
Nucleophilic substitution
Benzene when treated with acetyl chloride in

the presence of AlCl3 yields
53.
o xylene on oxidation yields

a) Oxalic acid
c) Toluene
54.
b) o Phthalic acid
d) m Phthalic acid
The resonance energy of benzene is

a) 36 j/mol
c) 36 Kcal/mol
b) 36 cal/mol
d) none of these
42
55.
a) Cu
c) FeCl3
56.
b) Ni
d) Zn
63.
a) NO3
b) NO21
c) NH 41
d) None of these
a) Br2, heat and light

b) Cl2, FeCl3
c) KMnO4, OH-, heat (then H3O+)
64.
Which substituent group decrease

reactivity of benzene, because they
60.
b) Cyclohexane
d) None of these
b) Cl2, FeCl3
d) None
Benzene reacts with chlorine to give a

substance with formula C6H6Cl6. This reaction
is brought about by
a) An acid catalyst
c) Aluminum oxide
66.
67.
Benzene was found by _______ in 1825 in the

gas produced by the destructive distillation of
vegetable oils.
68.
b) Ultraviolet radiation
d) Iron fillings
Which of the following will be least reactive to

ring bromination using bromine water?
a) Toluene
c) Chlorobenzene
a) Increase the electronic density of benzene

b) Decrease the electronic density of
benzene
c) Decrease the stability of phenonium ion
d) Both b & c
b) Nitrobenzene
d) Aniline
Benzene and cyclohexene can be

distinguished by which of the following test?
a) AgNo3 C2H5OH
c) Br2 CCl4
b) Ag(NH3)2OH
d) None
Which of the following test can be used to

distinguish C6H5CH2Br and C6H5CH3?
a) Ag(NH3)2OH
c) AgNO3 C2H5OH
b) Michael Faraday
d) None of these
b) Br2 CCl4
d) Hot KMnO4
Replacement of hydrogen atom by SO2OH is

called _______
a) Nitration
c) Alkylation
62.
65.
Meta orienting groups decrease the reactivity

of benzene because they
a) Hofmann
c) Solvay
61.
a) Cl2, light
c) SOCl2
Benzene on ozonolysis produces

a) Benzoic acid
c) Glyoxal (CHO2)2
59.
The conversion of ethyl benzene into 1

chloro 1 phenyl ethane can be achieved by
the
a) Increase the electronic density of benzene

ring
b) Decrease the electronic density of
benzene ring
c) Decrease the stability of phenonium ion
d) Both b & c
58.
The conversion of toluene into benzoic acid

can be achieved by
Which one is nitronium ion?

1
57.
equilibrium.
d) Neither of the two structures describes
benzene adequately
The catalyst used for halogenation of benzene

is
b) Sulphonation
d) Hydrogenation
The Kekule structures of benzene are related

in which of the following way?
a) They are eac equally correct as structure for
benzene.
b) Benzene is sometimes one structures and
sometime the other.
c) The two structures are in a state of rapid
CHAPTER # 10
Alkyl Halides
1.
What should be the products when

reactants
are alcohol & thionyl chloride in the presence
of pyridine?
43
11.
a) RCl+S+HCl
c) RCl+SO2+H2O
b) RCl+SO2+HCl
d) RCl+S+H2O
Which alkyl halide out of the following may

follow both SN1 and SN2 mechanism?
a. CH3X
2.
Which C-X bon has the highest bond

energy
per mole?
a) C-F
c) C-Br
3.
CH3 H
|
|
b. CH3 C C X
|
|
CH3 H
CH3
b) C-Cl
d) C-I
Which alkyl halides has the highest

reactivity ,
for a particular alkyl group?
c.
CH X
CH3
a) R-F
c) R-Br
4.
b) R-Cl
d) R-I
CH3
|
d. CH3 C X
|
CH3
2.8 is the electronegativity of________

a) F
c) Br
b) Cl
d) I
12.
5.
Which one is not a nucleophile?

a) C2H5O
c) NH3
6.
b) SCN
d) H3C+
a) -carbon
c) -hydrogen
The number of molecules taking part in the

rate determining step is called_________
13.
a) Order of reaction
b) Rate or reaction
c) Molecularity of a reaction
d) Extent of a reaction
7.
During SN2 mechanism,carbon atom

changes
it state of hybridization from___________
a) spsp2
c) sp3sp
8.
a) Zero
c) Two
9.
10.
16.
b) First
d) Third
alcohol
When CO2 is made to react with ethyl

magnesium iodide, followed by acid
hydrolysis, the product formed is_________
b) Propanoic acid
d) Propanol
Grignard reagent is reactive

________
a.
b.
c.
d.
17.
and
b) H2
d) O2
a) Propane
c) Propanal
b) Cl
d) Br
What is the order of kinetics in the SN1

mechanism?
a) Zero
c) Second
15.
b) 1 mole of ethane
d) 1 mole of butane
Zn-Cu
couple
generate_______
a) [H]
c) [O]
b) One
d) Three
Which one among the following is not a

good
leaving group?
a) HSO4
c) OH
14.
b) -carbon
d) -hydrogen
When two moles of ethyl chloride react

with
moles of sodium in the presence of ether, what
will be formed?
a) 2 moles of ethane
c) 2 moles of butane
b) sp2sp3
d) sp3sp2
What will be the order of reaction of a

reaction
whose rate can be expressed R = K [A] [B]?
In elimination reaction of alkyl halide,

which
site is more susceptible for the attack of
nucleophile?
due to
The presence of halogen atom

The presence of magnesium atom
The polarity of C-Mg bond
All
SN2 reaction can be best carried out

with____
a. Primary alkyl halide
b. Secondary alkyl halide
44
c. Tertiary alkyl halide

d. All
18.
Elimination
involve____
a.
b.
c.
d.
19.
a) Formaldehyde
c) Propanone
reactions
a)Two
c) One
b) E2+SN2
d) SN1+SN2
(A) Flouride > chloride > Bromide > Iodide

(B) Chloride > Bromide > Flouride > Iodide
(C) Iodide > Bromide > Chloride > Flouride
(D) Bromide > Iodide > Chloride > Flouride
28. When CO2 is made to react with ethyl
magnesium iodide, followed by acid hydrogen,
the product formed is.
Alkyl halides are considered to be very

reactive compounds towards nucleophile
because___________
Which one of the following species in not

an
electrophile?
a) NH3
c) H+
23.
(A) Propane
(C) Propanal
a) Alcoholic KOH
c) Alkaline KMnO4
24.
a) Primary alcohol
c) Tertiary alcohol
(A) The presence of halogen atom

(B) The presence of Mg atom
(C) The polarity of C-Mg atom
30.
SN2 reactions can be lest carried out with

(A) Primary alkyl halides
(B) Secondary alkyl halides
(C) Tertiary alkyl halides
(D) All of these
31.
Elimination bimolecular reactions involve.

(A) First order kinetics
(B) Second order kinetics
(C) Third order kinetics
(D) Zero order kinetics
b) Aqueous KOH
d) Aqueous NaOH
Which one of the following alcohols will be

formed when ethyl magnesium bromide reacts
with acetone?
(B) Propanoic acid

(D) Propanol
29. Grignard reagent is reactive to.
b) Br+
d) BF3
Which one of the following reactants will

be
required to form ethane from ethyl chloride?
b) Three
d) Four
27. The reactivity order of alkyl halides for a

particular alkyl group is.
The rate of E1 reaction depends

upon____________
a. They have an electrophilic carbon

b. They have an electrophilic carbon & a
good leaving group
c. They have an electrophilic carbon & a
bad leaving group
d. They have a nucleophilic carbon & a
good leaving group
22.
b) Acetaldehyde
d) CO2
26. In primary alkyl halides, the halogen atom is

attached to a carbon which is further attached
to how many carbons atoms
For which mechanisms, the first step

involved
is the same?
a. The concentration of substrate

b. The concentration of nucleophile
c. The concentration of substrate as well
as nucleophile
d. No dependence
21.
Which one of the following molecules does

not
form alcohol when reacts with Grignard
reagent?
First order kinetics

Second order kinetics
Third order kinetics
Zero order kinetics
a) E1+E2
c) S1+SN1
20.
bimolecular
25.
32.
For which mechanism the 1st step involved in

the same.
(A) El and E2
(C) El and E2
b) Secondary alcohol
d) Dihydric alcohol
33.
(B) E2 and SN2

(D) El and SN1
Alkyl halides are considered to be very

reactive compounds towards nucleophilies
45
because.
34.
c) ROH
(A) They have an electrophilic carbon

(B) They have an electrophilic carbon and a
good leaving group
(C) They have an electrophilic carbon and a
bad leaving group
(D) They have a nucleophilic carbon and a
good leaving group
42)
The rate of E, reaction depends upon
43)
(A) The concentration of substrate.

(B) The concentration of nucleophile
(C) The concentration of substratc as well as
uncleophile
d) BF3
Alkyl halides give reactions

a)
b)
c)
d)
Electrophilic substitution
Nucleophilic substitution
Electrophilic addition
Nucleophilic addition
When Ammonia reacts with excess of alkyl

halides gives
a) Primary amine
c) Tertiary amine
44)
b) Secondary amine
d) Mixture of amines
Nucleophilic
substitution
represented by
reactions
are
35. Which one of the following is not a nucleophile

(A) H2O
(C) BF3
a) E1
c) ROH
(B) H2S
(D) NH3
45)
36)
Which Monohaloalkane can not be obtained

by the direct action of halogen and alkane?
a)
b)
c)
d)
37)
RCl
RBr
RI
None of these
46)
Ether
Water
Pyridine
Acetone
b) SN2
d) None of these
In SN2 reactions, two reactants are involved in

the rate determining step while these reactions
occur in
a) Wurtzs reaction
b) Sabatier reaction
c) Franklands reaction d) None of these
a) Two steps
c) One step
Carbon carrying negative charge is known as
49)
b) Carbon ion
d) Oxide ion
Formation of alkane by the action of Zinc on

alkyl halide is called
a) Wurtzs reaction
b) Sabatier reaction
c) Franklands reaction d) Kolbes reaction
41)
Which SN reaction occurs in two steps?
The reaction of Sodium metal with alkyl halide

in the presence of Ether is called
a) Carbonium ion
c) Oxonium ion
40)
Primary alkyl halide

Secondary alkyl halide
Tertiary alkyl halide
All of these
a) SN1
c) Both
48)
39)
b) 3
d) 1
SN2 reactions occur in

a)
b)
c)
d)
47)
38)
SN reactions are classified into types

a) 4
c) 2
For the preparation of RX, by the reaction of

Alcohol and Thionyl Chloride requires the
presence of a solvent
a)
b)
c)
d)
b) SN
d) RCHO
Which one
compound?
a) RMgX
c) ROH
50)
b) Three steps
d) Four steps
of
them
is
b) RX
d) RCHO
When
Grignard
reagent
formaldehyde to yield
a) CH3OH
c) CH3COCH3
organometallic
reacts
with
b) C2H5OH
d) C3H8
Which of the following is an electrophile?

a) O H
b) NH3
46
51)
The chemical reaction in which HX is removed

from two adjacent carbon atoms of an organic
molecule is called
a) Ethyl nitrate
c) Nitro methane
62)
a)
b)
c)
d)
52)
a)
b)
c)
d)
A nucleophile is a
63)
59)
66)
67)
61)
Ethyl iodide on its interaction with silver nitrate

to yield
70)
b) ZnCl2
d) None
When metallic sodium in ether is heated with

an alkyl halide, a higher alkane is formed. It is
called ______
b) Wurtzs reaction
d) None
Which molecule has a zero dipole moment?

a) CH3Cl
c) CH2Cl2
a) Methyl phosphate
b)Trimethyl phosphate
c) Dimethyl phosphate d) None of these
b) TEL
d) All of these
Formula of Thionyl chloride is _______
a) Sulphonation
c) Friedel-Crafts reacton
69)
b) Markownikoffs rule
d) Hoffmanns rule
Which of them is organometallic compound?
a) SOCl2
c) CH3Cl
68)
b) R2CHX
d) All of these
The removal of hydrogen from that beta

carbon which has fewer H atoms is called
a) RMgX
c) TML
b) CH3l
d) C2H5OH
RMgX reacts with PCl3 giving
E1 reactions occur in
a) Wurtzs rule
c) Saytzeefs rule
Both methane ethane may be prepared in one

step reaction from
a) C2H4
c) CH3OH
60)
65)
b) Methyl ester
d) Acetyl halide
b) Tertiary alcohol
d) Ketone
SN2 and E2 is a side reaction

E2 and SN2 is side reaction
E1 and SN2 is side reaction
All of these
a) RCH2X
c) R3CX
b) Ester
d) Carboxylic acid
Grignard reagent reacts with formaldehyde to

form
a) Primary alcohol
c) Acetic acid
64)
b) Fast step
d) None of these
Methyl iodide reacts with silver acetate to yield

a) Methyl acetate
c) Methylol phenol
58)
b) Lewis base
d) Arrhenius base
a)
b)
c)
d)
Which one of the organic compound is without

oxygen?
a) Ether
c) Alkyl halides
57)
In electron pair donor is a strong base

(OH , OR ) then the dominant reactions will
be
Rate determining steps in SN1 reaction is

always the
a) Slow step
c) Intermediate
56)
b) Lewis base
d) Arrhenius base
An electrophile is a
a) Lewis acid
c) Arrhenius acid
55)
Electrophilic substitution reaction

Nucleophilic substitution reaction
Addition reaction
Oxidation reaction
Wurtzs reaction
Franklands reaction
Hoffmanns reaction
Friedal Craft reaction
a) Lewis acid
c) Arrhenius acid
54)
Elimination reactions are the reverse of
Reaction of RX with Ammonia is called

a)
b)
c)
d)
53)
Dehydrogenation
Dehydrohalogenation
Dehydration
Dehalogenation
b) Ethyl nitrite
d) None of these
b) CCl4
d) CHCl3
Grignards reagent reacts with alkyl halide to

form ________
a) Alkanes
b) Alkynes
47
c) Alkenes
71)
On passing CO2 through Grignard reagent

______ is formed.
a) Methanoic acid
c) Alkyl sodium halide
72)
b) Cu I
d) Na
SN2 reaction proceeds via the formation of

a) Carbonation
c) Free radical
78)
b) CH3CHCl2
d) BrCH2CH2CH2CH2Br
3 Bromohexane can be converted into

hexane using
a) Zn, H+
c) (CH3)2CuLi
77)
b) 2 Butyne
d) 2 Butene
Which of the following is a vic dihalide?

a) ClCH2CH2Cl
c) BrCH2CH2CH2Br
76)
b) Ethanoic KOH
d) Both a & c
The major product obtained by treating 2

chlorobutane with alcoholic KOH is
a) 1 Butyne
c) 1 Butene
75)
b) Nucleophilic
d) None
Ethyl bromide can be converted into ethyl

alcohol by heating with,
a) Aqueous KOH
c) Moist silver oxide
74)
b) Ethanoic acid
d) None of these
The hydrolysis of alkyl halides by heating with

aqueous alkali is a _______ substitution
reaction.
a) Electrophilic
c) Both a & b
73)
d) Alcohols
b) Transition sate
d) Carbanion
Which of the following alkyl halide reacts

fastest with AgNO3?
a) (CH3)3C Cl
c) CH3CH2CH2Cl
b) (CH3)2 CH Cl
d) (CH3)2CCH2-Cl
48
9.
CHAPTER # 11
Alcohols Phenols and Ethers
1.
Which one of the following is termed as

benzyl
alcohol?
a) C6H5OH
c) C6H5CH2OH
2.
a) Oxygen
b) Hydrogen
c) Nascent oxygen [O] d)Nascent hydrogen [H]
10.
b) C6H5CH(OH)2
d) None
Which one of the following is also known

as
lactic acid?
11.
12.
4.
13.
b) Methanol
d) Methane
The
residue
obtained
after
the
crystallization of
sugar from concentrated sugar cane juice is
called________
a) Mother liquor
c) Extract
15.
b) Propanoic acid
d) None of these
Phenol on treatment with cone. HNO 3 gives

a) Picric acid
c) Both
b) Filtrate
d) Molasses
b) Styphinic acid
d) None
Alcohols are
a) Basic
c) Amphatere
b) C6H9O5
d) C6H12O6
17.
The process of fermentation of starch

involve
many enzymes, the sequence of enzyme used
are____________
18.
b) CH3OH
d) None of these
Ethanol containing some methanot is called

a) Absolute spirit
c) Power alcohol
19.
b) Strong acid
d) Neutral
The formula of wood spirit is ?

a) CH3COOH
c) C2H5OH
a) Diastase-maltase-zymase
b) Zymase-maltase-zymase
c) Maltase-diastase-zymase
d) Diastase-zymase-maltase
8.
Final product formed on reduction of glycerol

by hyddriodic acid is
The formula of starch is___________

a) C12H22O11
c) C6H10O5
7.
b) C2H5OH
d) C2H5OH and NH3.
Ethyl alcohol is industrially prepared from

ethylene by
a) Propane
c) Propene
16.
6.
Action of nitrous acid on ethylamine gives
a) Permanganate oxidation
b) Catalytic reduction
c) Absorbing in H2SO4 followed by hydrolysis
d) Fermentation.
14.
5.
Which one is primary alcohol ?
a) C2H6
c) C2H5OH and C2H4
Water gas heated at 450C and 200 atm

pressure in the presence of ZnO+Cr2O3 will
produce
a) Methanal
c) Carbonic acid
b) Propanol
d) Propanoic acid
a) Buten-2ol
b) Propan-2-ol
c) Butan-1-ol
d) 2,3-Dimethythexane-4-ol.
Which one of the following is also known

as
tartaric acid?
a) 2,3-dihydroxy butanedioic acid
b) 2,2-dihydroxy butanedioic acid
c) 2,3-dihydroxy butanioc acid
d) 2,2-dihydroxy butanioc acid
The oxidation of isopropyl alcohol will

yield____________
a) Propane
c) Propanone
a) 3-hydroxy propanioc acid

b) 2-hydroxy propanioc acid
c) 2-hydroxy butanoic acid
d) 3--hydroxy butanoic acid
3.
K2Cr2O7/H2SO4 generate___________
b) Rectified spirit
d) Methylated spirit
Glyccrol is a
The rectified spirit contain_________

a) 12% alcohol
c) 91% alcohol
a) Primary alcohol
c) Secondary alcohol
b) 90% alcohol
d) 100% alcohol
20.
b) Monohydric alcohol
d) Tribydric alcohol.
Glyccrol can be obtained from
49
a) Fats
c) Both
21.
The enzyme which can catalyse

conversion of glucose to ethanol is
a) Zymase
c) Maltase
22.
a) Pieric acide
c) 2,4Dinitrophenol
Rectified spirit is a mixture of
26.
32.
36.
Phenol is more readily soluble in

a) dil. HCl
b) Both NaOH and HCl
c) NaOH sol
d) Sodium bicarbonate solution.
37.
The order of reactivity of halogen acids for

reaction with C2H5OH is
a) HCl > HBr > HI
c) HBr > HI > HCl
b) Alkenes
d) AII.
38.
Alcohol fermentation is brought about by the

action of
a) CO2
c) Invertase
29.
Electrophilic substitution in phenol generally

occurs at
Alcohols reacts with Grignard reagent to form

a) Alkanes
c) Alkynes
28.
b) Acetic acid
d) None of these
a) O- and P-position
b) Metapositions
c) Only at ortho positions
d) Only at para position
Which of the following can work as a

dehydrating agent for alcohol ?
b) AI2O3
d) AII.
b) Hydrolyais
d) Hydrogenation
Alcoholic beverages are made of

a) Ethanol
c) Formic acid
35.
b) Ammonical AgNO3
d) CaSO2/Ca(OH)2
The reaction between alcohol and carboxylic

acids is called
a) Esterification
c) Saponification
34.
b) Ethyl alcohol
d) Methanol
Baeyer's reagent is
a) Alkaline KMnO4
c) Ammonial CuSO4
33.
b) CN
d) AII.
Which is used as an antifreeze ?

a) Glyeol
c) Water
Alcohola of low molecular weight are
a) H2SO4
c) P2O5
27.
31.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of

alcohol ?
a) Soluble in water
b) Soluble in water on heating
c) Insoluble in water
d) Insoluble in all solvents
Which of the following groups will increase the

acidity of phenol ?
a) NO2
c) X(halogens)
b) Inverslon
d) Inhibition.
a) They are lighter than water

b) Their boiling point rise fairly uniformly with
rising molccular weight
c) Lower members are insoluble in water and
organic solvents but the solubility regulary
increase with molecular mass
d) Lower members have a pleasant smell and
burning taste, higher members are
colouriess and tasteless.
25.
30.
b) Invertase
d) Diastase.
a) 95% ethyl alcohol +5% water

b) 94% ethyl alcohol +4.53% water
c) 94.4% ethyl alcohol + 5.43% water
d) 95.87% ethyl alcohol +4.13% water
24.
b) 2-Nitrophenol
d) m-Nitrophenol.
the
Hydrolytic conversion of sucrose into glucose

and fructose is known as
a) Induction
c) Insertion
23.
b) Propyiene
d) None
The reaction of Ethanol with H2SO4 does not

give
a) Ethylene
b) Diethyl either
c) Acetylene
d) Ethyl hydrogen sulphate
b) O2
d) Yeast.
Amongst the following phenols which is most

acidic?
b) HI > HBr > HCl

d) HBr > HCl > HI.
39.
Which one of them is a monohydric alcohol?
50
a) CH3CH(OH)2
c) C2H5OH
40.
Glycol is alcohol
a) Monohydric
c) Trihydric
41.
Alcohol reacts with carboxylic acids, acid an

hydrides and acid halides to form
46.
51.
53.
54.
An alcohol produced in the manufacture of

soap is
a) Ethanol
c) Glycerol
57.
48.
The formation of Acetaldehyde from ethanol is

called
a) Oxidation
c) Addition
49.
b) Reduction
d) Substitution
b) Acetylene
d) o/p methylol phenol
b) Acetic acid
d) Hydrochloric acid
b) Acetic acid
d) Benzaldehyde
the
b) o nitro phenol
d) None of these
b) TrinitroBenzene
d) Nitrobenzene
Sodium salt of benzene sulphonic acid on

fusion with caustic soda gives
b) C6H6
d) C6H5CHO
Ether is soluble in
a) Water
c) Conc. KOH
58.
the
Which of the following is not an explosive?
a) C6H5OH
c) C6H5COOH
b) Propanol
d) Glycol
by
Phenol reacts with dilute HNO3 in

presence of concentrated H2SO4 yields
a) Picric acid
c) Trinitrotoluene
b) Olefins
d) Esters
formed
Passing vapors of phenol over heated Zinc

gives
a) o/p nitro phenol

c) p nitro phenol
55.
is
Acidified potassium dichromate is also called
a) Benzene
c) Benzoic acid
56.
47.
Bakelite
plastic
polymerization of
a) Chromic acid
c) Iodic acid
b) Secondary alcohol
d) All of these
Low temperature and excess of Alcohol favors

the formation of
a) Paraffins
c) Ether
52.
b) Ketone
d) Aldehyde
Strongly acidic solution of Na2Cr2O7 is required

for the oxidation of
a) Primary alcohol
c) Tertiary alcohol
Which one of the following will not take place if

1 Propanol is under test?
a) Phenol
c) Ethane
Pure methyl alcohol

Methyl alcohol containing water
Methanol containing methanal
Ethanol containing methanol
a) Ether
b) Esters
45.
b) Aldehyde
d) Acetic acid
CH3OH & CH3COOH

CH3COOH & CH3COCH3
CH3OH & Pyridine
None of these
b) Wood spirit
d) Vinegar
a) The formation of H2 when sodium is added

to it
b) The formation of 1 bromopropane when
reacts with NaBr and concentrated H2SO4
c) The formation of sweet smelling
compound when reacts with a mixture of
CH3COOH and concentrated H2SO4
d) The formation of yellow colored product
when phenyl hydrazine is added to it
Methylated spirit is
a)
b)
c)
d)
44.
b) Dihydric
d) Both a & b
Ethyl Alcohol is denatured by adding

a)
b)
c)
d)
43.
50.
Wood Naphtha is the commercial name of

a) Ethyl alcohol
c) Methyl alcohol
42.
a) Absolute alcohol
c) Methylated spirit
b) CH3C(OH)3
d) None of these
b) Dil HCl
d) Conc. H2SO4
By accepting a proton, oxygen atom of the

Ether forms
Denatured Alcohol is known as

a) Carbonium ion
b) Carbon ion
51
c) Oxonium ion
59.
70.
a) Alkane
c) Water
b) Ethers
d) Aldehydes
71.
b) CHO Group
d) Ester Group
a) Base
c) Salt
72.
b) TNT
d) Toluene
b) Paraffins
d) Dimethyl ketone
b) Ketone
d) Ether
The conversion of
acetaldehyde is called
ethyl
alcohol
74.
b) Addition
d) Substitution
b) Dil HNO3
d) None of these
b) Blindness
d) None
b) Acid
d) Benzene
77.
Phenol and benzyl alcohol can be distinguish

by using
a) dil HCl
c) Aqueous bromine
b) Baeyers test
d) Tollens test
78.
Aqueous Br2
Na2Cr2O7 in dil H2SO4
Aqueous NaCl
Both a & b
b) Covalent bonding
d) None of these
Alcohols may be converted to the

corresponding ______ by actions of halogen
acids in the presence of ZnCl2.
a) Aldehydes
c) Acyl halides
79.
b) Minerals
d) None of these
CH3OH and C2H5OH are highly miscible with

water because they exhibits ________
a) Ionic bonding
c) Hydrogen bonding
Which one can be used to differentiate

between phenol and methyl alcohol?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Ethyl alcohol is produced on commercial scale

by the biological break down of ________
a) Starch
c) Cellulose
Paraffins dissolve in
a) Water
c) Methyl alcohol
69.
Methyl alcohol can cause _______

a) Cancer
c) Aneimia
76.
68.
b) Organic acid
d) Both a & b
Diethyl ether is soluble in

a) Water
c) Conc. H2SO4
67.
b) Iodoform test
d) Baeyers test
Phenol is weaker acid than

a) Water
c) HX
into
75.
a) Reduction
c) Oxidation
66.
b) Electrophile
d) All of these
The test which is used to distinguish between

primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols
a) Lucas Test
c) Benedicts test
Alcohol reacts with an organic acid to yield

a) An ester
c) Alkyl halides
65.
Alkoxide ion is
a) A powerful acid
c) Nucleophile
73.
64.
b) Acid
d) None of these
Which one is methoxy methane?

a) Olefins
c) Dimethyl ether
63.
Alkoxide ion is a powerful
Phenol reacts with Bromine water to form

a) Picric acid
c) Tribromo phenol
62.
b) Formaldehyde
d) Kerosene oil
Wax contains
a) OH Group
c) Ketonic Group
61.
Ethers have no hydrogen bonding but they

show weak H bonding when dissolve in
Williamsons synthesis is used to prepare

a) Alcohols
c) Esters
60.
d) Oxide ion
b) Alkyl halides
d) None of these
During the dehydration of alcohols, relatively

high temperature and moderate alcohol
concentration yield the corresponding
_______
Which one attack easily on phenol ring

a) Electrophile
c) Acid
a) Ether
c) Paraffin
b) Nucleophile
d) None of these
80.
b) Olefin
d) None
Isopropyl alcohol on oxidation gives ______
52
a) Ether
c) Ethylene
81.
Rectified spirit contains ______ % alcohol.

a) 95.6
c) 100.0
82.
84.
b) 75.0
d) 85.4
Primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols may

be distinguished by using _______
a) Fehlings solution
c) Hofmann set
83.
b) Acetone
d) Acetaldehyde
b) Victor Meyer test

d) Beilstein test
1.
a) Bring down the specific heat of water

b) Lower the freezing point
c) Reduce the viscosity
d) Make water a better lubricant
2.
Phenol can be converted into p

hydroxybenzaldehyde by
3.
b) Sp2 hybridized
d) None of these
Aldehydes can be oxidized by

a) Tollen's reagent
c) Benedict solution
b) Fehling solution
d) All.
Tollen's reagent is
a) Ammonical cuprous chloride
b) Ammonical cuprous oxide
c) Ammonical silver bromide
d) Ammonical silver nitrate.
4.
Phenol on treatment with excess of bromine

water give
a) O bromophenol
b) P bromophenol
c) M bromophenol
d) 2, 4, 5 tribromophenol
The carbon atom of a carbonyl group is

a) Sp hybridized
c) Sp3 hybridized
In cold countries glycerol is added to water in

car radiators as it helps to ________
a) Friedel crafts reaction

b) Gattermann synthesis
c) Hauban-Hoesch reaction
85.
CHAPTER # 12
Aldehydes and ketones
Silver mirror is a test for

a) Aidehydes
c) Acids
5.
b) Thioaleohols
d) Ethers
Aldehydes are produced in atmosphere by

a) Oxidation of secondary alcohols
b) Reducuon of alkenes
c) Reaction of oxygen atoms with
hydrocarbons
d) Reaction of oxygen atoms with ozone
6.
At room temperature formaldehyde is

a) Gas
c) Solid
7.
Formalin is____________% solution of H-C-H

in H2O
a) 10%
c) 40%
8.
b) Liquid
d) None
b) 20%
d) 60%
Which does not react with fehiling solution ?

a) Acetaldehydeb) Propanone
c) Glucose
d) Formic acid.
9.
Aldehydes can be distinguished from ketones

by using
53
a) Schiff's reagent
c) Anhy. ZNci2
10.
b) Conc. H2SO4
d) Resorcinol.
a) Tollen's reagent
b) Fehling solution
c) Acidic dichromate solution
d) Benedicts solution
An aidehyde on oxidation gives

a) An alcohol
c) A ketone
b) An acid
d) An ether
20.
Formaldehyde when reacted with methyl

magnesium bromide gives
a) C2H5OH
c) HCHO
11.
Bakelite is obtained by condensation of

21.
a) Acetaldehyde and acetone
b) Formaldehyde and phenol
c) Acetaldehyde and phenol
d) None of these
12.
Carbonyl group undergoes

a) eliminatory reaction
b) electrophilic addition
c) niteophlic adelretion
d) None of them
13.
22.
23.
b) Ethanal
d) Ethylamine
Which of the following compounds gives a

ketone with Grignard's reagent ?
25.
Which of the following has carbon with lowest
valency?
a) Carbides
c) Alkynes
16.
b) Alkenes
d) Alkanes
Reduction of aldehydes with HI and P give

a) Primary alcohols
c) Alkanes
17.
b) Secondary alcohols
d) Tertiary alcohols.
27.
b) Acetone
d) Ethanol
A silver mirror test is for

a) Aldehydes
c) Alcohols
b) Ketones
d) Ethers
Aldehydes can be distinguished from ketones

by the use of
a) Bayers test
c) Iodoform test
28.
b) Acetaldehyde
d) Propionaldehyde.
29.
Acetone is oxidized with
b) Grignard reagent
d) Fehling solution
When ammonia reacts with formaldehyde and

8% CH3OH is called
a)
b)
c)
d)
Paraaldehyde is a polymer of
a) Formaldehyde
c) Benzaldehyde
19.
Calcium acetate on dry distillation gives
Which reaction yields Bakelite?

a) Urea with HCHO
b) Tetramethyl glycol with Hexamethylene
diisocyanate
c) Phenol and HCHO
d) Ethylene glycol and Dimethylterephthalate.
18.
Unbreakable glass
Smokeless gun powder
Chloroform
All of these
a) Formaldehyde
c) Acetic acid
26.
b) Amine
d) Ether
Acetone is used in the preparation of

a)
b)
c)
d)
b) Ethanenitrile
d) Methyl iodide.
b) CH3CHO
d) C2H5OH
On oxidation, ketones yield

a) Alcohol
c) Carboxylic acid
24.
b) Methanc
d) Ethyl formate.
Acetone on reduction gives

a) CH3COOH
c) (CH3)2CHOH
a) Formaldehyde
c) Ethyl alcohol
15.
If formaldehyde and KOH are heated them we

get
a) Acctylenc
c) Methyl alcohol
A nucleophilic reagent will readily attack

a) Ethylene
c) Ethanol
14.
b) CH3COOH
d) CH3CHO
Bakelite
Para Formaldehyde
Meta Formaldehyde
Urotropine
When
Hexamethylene
tetramine
(Methanamine) reacts with fuming HNO3 to
yield a powerful explosive known as
54
a) Chloropicrin
c) Cyclonite
30.
Which one of the following reactions is not

given by formaldehyde?
a)
b)
c)
d)
31.
Which tests are used for the identification of

CHO in an aldehyde?
40.
41.
b) Picric acid
d) None of these
43.
a) HCHO
c) C2H5
34.
The compound which gives both positive

haloform test and Fehling test is
a) Acetone
c) Formaldehyde
35.
a) Schiffs reagent
c) Tollens reagent
37.
38.
39.
45.
46.
b) Acetaldehyde
d) Acetone
b) Acetone
d) Chloroform
The nucleophilic addition reaction of carbonyl

group are catalysed by
b) Cu(OH)2 + NaOH
d) ROH
Which compound gives brick red precipitate of

cuprous oxide with Benedicts solution
b) Aliphatic aldehydes
d) Aliphatic ketones
Ketones produced a wine red or orange red

color on adding
a)
b)
c)
d)
48.
b) Tollens reagent
d) Grignard reagent
Almost all the aldehydes and small methyl

ketones produce a crystalline white precipitate
with saturated solution of
a) Aromatic aldehyde
c) Aromatic ketones
47.
b) Schiffs reagent
d) Tollens reagent
Benzaldehyde reacts with aniline to form
a) RMgX
c) NaHSO3
Acetaldehyde reacts with moist chlorine to

form
a) Acetyl chloride
c) Chloral
Aldehydes and ketones both easily react with
a) Schiffs base
c) Borsches base
b) Fehling reagent
d) All of these
Which one does not pass through aldol

condensation?
a) Formaldehyde
c) Propanol
44.
b) Ester
d) Aldehyde
The reagent which is used to distinguish

aldehydes and ketones is
Aldol condensation
Cannizzaro reaction
Clemmensens reaction
None of these
a) Fehling solution
c) Grignard reagent
b) Ethanol
d) Acetaldehyde
Silver mirror is carried out for the detection of

functional group
a) Ketone
c) Ether
36.
b) CH3COCH3
d) C2H5O2CH5
b) C6H5CHO
d) All of these
Reduction of ketone into alkane in the

presence of Zn Hg is called
a)
b)
c)
d)
Which of the following undergoes halform

reaction?
b) CHO and OH
d) None of these
Cannizzaro reaction do not occur in

a) H CHO
c) CH3CHO
42.
b) Transition element
d) All of these
Aldols are those organic compounds which

contain functional group
a) NH2 and COOH
c) CHO and CO
b) Fehlings test
d) Both b & c
Benzaldehyde on reaction with alkaline KMnO4

yields
a) Benzophenone
c) Benzoic acid
33.
a) Salt
c) Acids or bases
Reduction of Fehlings solution

Reduction of Tollens solution
Formation of phenol complexes
Iodoform reaction
a) Bayers test
c) Tollens test
32.
b) Picric acid
d) None of these
Fehling solution
Tollens solution
Alkaline sodium nitroprusside solution
All of these
The IUPAC name of CH3CH = CH CHO is

a) But 2 enal
c) Methacrolein
b) But-2-en-3-al
d) Propenaldehyde
55
49.
50.
The IUPAC name of OHC CHO is
CH3CH = CH CHO LiAlH

4 ?
a) Glyoxal
b) Ethane-1, 2-dial
c) Both a & b
d) None is correct
a) CH3CH = CHCH2OH
b) CH3CH2CH2CHO
c) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
d) A mixture of a, b and c.
The IUPAC name of

OHC CH2 CH =CH CHO is
a) Pent-2-ene-1, 5-dial
b) Propene dialdehyde
c) Prop-1-en-1, 3-dial
51.
The IUPAC name of (CH3)2C = CHCOCH3 is

a) 4-methlypent-3-en-2-one
b) 2-Methlypent-3-en-4-one
c) Acetyl 2-Methyl-butene-3
52.
b) Formaldehyde
d) None of these
When aldehydes are warmed with ______ red

precipitates of cuprous oxide are precipitated.
60.
The C = O bond and C = C bond are similar in

which of the following ways?
a) Both are made up of one sigma bond and
one pi bond.
b) Both are planer in nature.
c) Both use sp2 hybrid orbitals of the C atom
for their formation.
d) All the above.
61.
The reaction of acetaldehyde with conc.

H2SO4 at room temperature gives
a) Grignards Reagent b) Fehlings solution

c) KMnO4
d) None of these
54.
Acetaldehyde reacts with ammonia to form

________
a) Elimination
c) Addition product
55.
b) Substitution products
d) Resin like product
Aldol condensation can occur between ______

a) An aldehyde and ketone
b) An aldehyde and ester
c) An aldehyde and benzene
d) None of these
56.
An aqueous solution containing about 40% of

formaldehyde and a little alcohol is sold under
the name of _______
a) Formalin
c) Pyridine
57.
a) Paraldehyde
c) A mixture of a & b
62.
b) Metaldehyde
d) None
The following reaction

CH3CHO + HCN CH3CH(OH)CN is an
example of
a) Nucleophilic addition
b) Electrophilic addition
c) Uncleophilic substitution
d) Electrophilic substitution
A nucleophilic addition of carbonion,

generated by the loss of proton from -position
of an aldehyde or a ketone by a base, to the
carbonyl group is called _______
a) Nitration
c) Esterification
58.
b) Malt-sugar
d) Starch
For a carbonyl compound which of the

following statements is correct?
a) The carbonyl carbon, oxygen and the other
two atoms (attached to carbon) are
coplanar.
b) The two groups attached to carbonyl carbon
are directed at an angle of 120o from each
other.
c) The electron density around oxygen is
more than the carbonyl compound.
Dry distillation of calcium format yields _____

a) Ether
c) Acetic acid
53.
59.
b) Aldol Condensation
d) None
The product obtained in the following reaction

is ________
56
d) No replaceable hydrogen
8)
Which of the following is a monobasic acid?

a) H2SO4
c) H3PO4
9)
Hydrolysis of esters in alkaline medium is

called
a) Sponification
c) Esterification
10)
1)
12)
b) RCHO
d) RCOOH
13)
a) Formic acid
c) Propionic acid
b) Acetic acid
d) Butanoic acid
14)
4)
Which one of the following is the strongest

acid?
a) CH3COOH
c) CHCl2COOH
15)
5)
Anhydrous acetic is a crystalline, hygroscopic

solid and is also known as
a)
b)
c)
d)
6)
Dilute acetic acid

Glacial (ice like) acetic acid
Methanoic acid
None of these
Acetyl chloride is formed by the reaction of

acetic acid with
a) Thionyl chloride
c) Alcohol
7)
a) Highly ionized
b) Weakly ionized
c) Insoluble in water
Between acetic acid and formic acid, the

former one is
16)
18)
b) Aspartic acid
d) Lactic acid
Formic acid can reduce

a) Mercuric chloride
c) KMnO4
17)
b) More acidic
d) More basic
Beta hydroxyl propionic acid is

a) Citric acid
c) Oxalic acid
b) Ammonia
d) Sodium hydroxide
Acetic acid is a weak acid because in aqueous

solution it is
Powerful oxidizing agent

Mild oxidizing agent
Powerful reducing agent
Mild reducing agent
a) Less acidic
c) Same strength
b) CH2ClCOOH
d) C2H5COOH
b) Acetic acid
d) Chloro acetic acid
Methanoic acid acts as

a)
b)
c)
d)
The acid present in butter is called
b) Ether
d) Ester
Which of them is a strong reducing agent?

a) Formic acid
c) Oxalic acid
Esters have general formula

a) ROH
c) RCOOR
3)
b) OR
d) COOR
b) Ethanoic acid
d) Picric acid
Two moles of carboxylic acids on heating in

the presence of P2O5 yields
a) Alcohol
c) Acetic acid
The function group in Citric acid is

a) OH
c) COOH
2)
11)
b) Hydration
d) None of these
Which one of the following does not have a

carboxylic group?
a) Benzoic acid
c) Aspirin
Chapter No. 13
Carboxylic Acids & Their Derivatives
b) H2CO3
d) CH3COOH
b) Tollens reagent
d) All of these
The number of H bonds formed per molecule

of carboxylic acid are
a) 4
c) 2
b) 3
d) 1
The attachment of
groups result into the
electron
withdrawing
a) Increase of acidity
b) Decrease of acidity
c) Increase of strength d) All of these
57
19)
a) Acidic nature
c) Polymerization
20)
29)
is
30)
used
31)
b) Methanoic acid
d) All of these
a) Aliphatic acid
b) Aromatic acid
c) Cyclo carboxylic acid d) None of these
32)
a) Succinic acid
c) Melonic acid
b) Methyl chloride
d) Chloro acetic acid
Vinegar is
35)
36)
b) Acidic salt
d) Interval salt
b) Fehling test
d) Ninhydrin test
b) Ester
d) All
In industrial preparation of Acetic Acid from

acetaldehyde manganous acetate is used as
a) Catalyst
b) Oxidizing agent
c) To prevent oxidation of Acetic acid into
peracetic acid
d) All above
37)
A peptide having molar mass up to 10000 is

called poly peptide while a poly peptide having
molar mass more than 10000 is called
a) Protein
b) 5
d) 2
Carboxylic acid can be prepared from

a) Alcohol
c) Grignards reagent
The test used to identify amino acid is

a) Tollens test
c) Meyers test
Succinic acid contain total carbon atoms

a) 4
c) 3
b) Aldehydes
d) Amino acid
The dipolar structure of an amino acid is also

called
a) Basic salt
c) Neutral salt
28)
b) Neutral in nature
d) Basic in nature
The compound which occur as zwitter ion or

dipolar are
a) Ketones
c) Alcohol
27)
b) Oxalic acid
d) Phthalic acid
a) 5% solution of acetic acid in H2O

b) 50% solution of acetic acid in H2O
c) 25% solution of acetic acid in H2O
d) 10% solution of acetic acid in H2O
b) Salicylic acid
d) Both a & b
34)
26)
Common name of 1, 3 Propanedioic acid is
Amino acids having two NH2 group are

a) Acidic in nature
c) Saltish in nature
25)
Long chain mono carboxylic acid are called

________
Which of them has two functional groups?

a) Amino acid
c) Acetone
24)
A carboxylic acid contains
for
33)
23)
b) Acetamide
d) Amino acid
a) Hydroxyl group
b) Carboxyl group
c) A hydroxyl group and carboxyl group
d) A carboxyl group and aldehydic group
Acetic acid when reacts with chlorine in the

presence of red phosphorus, the product
formed is
a) Acetyl chloride
c) Methyl ester
On heating ammonium acetate yields

a) Acetic acid
c) Ether
b) CHO
d) COOH
The carboxylic acid which

coagulating rubber latex is
a) Ethanoic acid
c) Propanoic acid
22)
b) H bonding
d) Reduction
Sodium bi carbonate when reacts with a

compound X as result CO2 liberates with
effervescence the compound X contain
a) OH
c) X
21)
b) Essential amino acids

c) Non essential amino acids
d) Acidic amino acid
The firs four members of carboxylic acid are

completely soluble in water. This is due to
Which one is not the derivative of carboxylic

acid?
a) Acid Halid
c) Enthanamide
38)
b) Amino acid
d) Acid amide
In carboxylic acid carbonyl carbon is
58
hydridized
a) SP3
c) SP
a) C2H5 OH
c) CH3COOH
b) SP2
d) None
48)
39)
Which one of the following will increase the

acidity of carboxylic acid?
a) OH
c) CN
40)
49)
Which one is less acidic?
The solution of which acid is used for

seasoning of food?
a) HCOOH
c) C2H4 COOH
a) Formic acid
c) Acetic acid
b) CH3COOH
d) C2H7 COOH
Which have higher B.P?
52)
b) CH3-CH2-CH2-OH
d) Both a & c
53)
b) 2
d) 4
Higher B.P of carboxylic acid as compared to

alcohol of the same m.wt is due to
a) Strong dispersion ferces
b) Strong dipole dipole interaction
c) Two H bonding per molecule
d) All of these
The greater acidity of carboxylic acid as
compared to alcohol is
a) Electron donating effect of OH group
b) Electron with drawing effect of COOH gp
c) Resonance stability of carboxylic ion
d) All
47)
Which of the following compounds on reaction

with NaHCO3 liberates CO2?
b) Benzoic acid
d) Butanoic acid
Acetamide is prepared by
a) Heating of ammonium acetate
b) Heating of Ethyl acetate
c) Amonium propionate
d) None
Carboxylic ion is represented by how many

resonating structure?
a) 3
c) 1
46)
b) An ester
d) Acid anhydride
Which one is more acidic?
a) CH3COOH
c) CH3O C2H5
45)
A compound undergo reduction with (LiAlH4) it

also dissolve in aq.NaOH from which it can be
recovered by addition of HCl the compound in
a) Carboxylic acid
c) An alcohol
51)
44)
b) Butanoic acid
d) Acetaldehyde
b) NH2
d) All
50)
43)
b) Ethanal
d) Ethyone
Acetic acid undergo dehydration reaction with

P2O5 and forms.
a) Methyl acetate
c) Acetic anhydride
a) CH2 COOH
Cl
b) Cl2 CH COOH
c) CH3 COOH
d) Cl3.C.COOH
42)
Acetic acid on reduction with LiAlH4 gives

a) Ethane
c) Ethanol
Which one will decrease the acidity of

carboxylic acid?
a) OH
c) Alkyl group
41)
b) NO2
d) Both b & c
b) CH3 O CH3
d) CH3CONH2
R CH COO- is called
NH3
a) Zwitter ion
c) Internal salt
54)
Amino acids are the building unit of protein the

linkage b/w Amino acid molecules is called
a) Glycosidic linkage
c) Ether linkage
55)
b) Peptide linkage
d) All above
Which of the following is not a fatty acid?

a) Acetic acid
c) Phthalic acid
56)
b) Dipolar ionic form

d) All
b) Propionic acid
d) Butanoic acid
Total number of amino acids are

a) 10
c) 30
b) 20
d) 40
59
CH3CH2COOH and CH3COOHCH3?

57)
Total number of essential amino acids

a) 10
c) 30
a) Conc. H2SO4
c) CrO3 H2SO4
b) 20
d) 40
67)
58)
NH2
R CH COO- is called
a) Amino acid
c) amino acid
59)
a) Acetic acid
c) Carbonic acid
60)
a) Hydration
c) Decarboxyletion
61)
62)
63)
b) Ester
d) Ketones
b) Glycine
d) Proline
a) CHF2 CH2 CH2 COOH

b) CH3CH2CF2COOH
c) CH2F CHF CH2 COOH
d) CH3CH2CH2COOH
66)
71)
Which of the following will serve as the basis

for simple chemical test to distinguish between
Which statement about the reaction of

1 bromobutane and NH3 is incorrect?
2 Bromopentanoic acid can be obtained by

a) Pentanoic acid + Br2 Light

b) Pentanoic acid + Br2 P
c) Pentanoic acid + HBr
d) Pentanoic acid + HBr Peroxides

72)
The product obtained in the following reaction

is CH3CH2COOH Br 2 P ?
a) CH3CHBrCOOH
b) BrCH2CH2COOH
c) BrCH2CHBrCOOH
d) A mixture of all the above products
b) Formalin
d) Alcohol
Which of the following carboxylic acid is the

strongest?
b) 3 hexylamine
d) Diethylamine
a) The reaction specifically gives a primary

amine
b) The reaction is a nucleophilic substitution
c) The reaction initially gives a primary amine
d) The reaction may lead to the formation of a
quaternary ammonium salt.
b) Aniline
d) Aspartic acid
Ethyl acetate can be prepared by the action of

_______ on carboxylic acid, in the presence of
acidic media.
a) Phenols
c) Pyradine
65)
70)
b) ClCH2COOH
d) Cl3CCOOH
Which of the following is not a primary amine?

a) Cyclohexylamine
c) 1 Butylamine
Which of the following is not an Amino acid?

a) Alanine
c) Glyine
64)
69)
CH3 CH COO- is called
NH2
a) Valine
c) Alanine
Which of the following carboxylic acids has the

largest acidity constant, Ka?
a) CH3COOH
c) Cl2CHCOOH
b) Dehydration
d) Oxidation
Which class of compound is commonly used

for the artificial flavouring in jams?
a) Aldehyde
c) Carboxylic acid
68)
b) Formic acid
d) Oxalic acid
The conversion of acetic acid to methane is an

example of
The IUPAC nomenclature of C6H5CH =

CHCOOH is
a) 3 Phenyl prop 2 enoic acid
b) Cinnamic acid
c) Phenyl acrylic acid
d) 1 Phynyl 2 ethylene carboxylic acid
b) amino acid
d) None
The acid produced in the sting of bees and

ants is
b) Conc. HNO3
d) NaHCO3 H2O
73)
Acetamide can be prepared by the reaction of

ammonia on
a) Ethyl acetate
c) Acetic anhydride
74)
b) Acetyl chloride
d) All the above
The products obtained in the following reaction

are CH3COOCH3 + CH3CH2OH H
60
a) CH3COOC2H5 + CH3OH
b) CH3CH2COOCH3 + CH3OH
c) A mixture of both the above products
75)
Which of the following reaction will give ethyl

propionate?
a) CH3CH2CO2H + C2H5OH H
b) CH3CH2CO2H + C2H5OH OH

NaOC 2 H 5
c) CH2CO2C2H5 + CH3I
d) All the above reactions
61
Chapter # 14
Macromolecules
1. Which of the following is polymerization
process?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The cracking of petroelum

Fractional disstillation of crude oil
Formation of polyethen
Hydrolysis of protiens
2. Which one is addition polymer?

a. Nylon-6
c. Terylene
b. Polystyrene
d. Epoxy resin
3. Which is synthetically prepared polymer?

a. Animal fat
c. Cellulose
b. Starch
d. PVC
4. Vegetable oils are

a.
b.
c.
d.
5. The water soluble vitamin is

b. D
d. C
6. Which of the following element is not present

in all proteins
a. Carbon
c. Nitrogen
b. Hydrogen
d. Sulphur
7. Hydrolysis of fats is catalysed by

a. Urease
c. Zymase
b. Maltase
d. Lipases
8. Which of the follwing statement is incorrect for

glucose and sucrose?
a.
b.
c.
d.
a. Homopolymer
c. Teropolymer
Bothe are soluble in waater

Both are naturllay occuring
Both are carbohydrates
Both are disaccharides
b. Copolymer
d. All of the above
12. The epoxy resin are fundamentally

a. Polyethers
c. Polyesters
b. Polyvinyls
d. None of the above
13. Starch is a polymer of

a. Beta-D glucose
b. Alpha-D glucose
c. Gamma-D glucose
d. Alpha-beta-D glucose
14. the most abundant protiens that are present in
the connective tissues throughout the body are
a. Legumin
c. Both
Unsaturated fatty acids

Glycerides of unsaurtated faty acids
Glycerides of stturated fatty acids
Essential oils obrained from plants
a. A
c. K
11. Major type of polymers are
b. Collagen
15. Based upon physicochemical

proteins may be classified into
a. Two types
c. Three types
properties
b. Four types
d. Five types
16. The primary building blocks of lipids are

a.
b.
c.
d.
Fatty acids and gycerols

Glycerols and sterols
Fatty acids , Glycerols and sterols
None of the above
17. Animal and Vegetable fats and oils gave

a. Different structure
b. Similar chemical structure
c. Both the above depend upon the
circumstances
18. The enzyme which use as drug in blood
cancer is
a. Thrombin
c. Both of the above
b. Lasparaginase
19. Different bases found in DNA are

9. Macromolecules may be of
a.
b.
c.
d.
Inorganic and organic nature

Inorganic nature
Organic nature
None of the above
a.
b.
c.
d.
Cytosine and thiamine

Adenine and guanine
All of the above
None of the above
20. Polyethylene is prepared from

10. Structure wise the polymers are of
a. Linear shaped
b. Branched linear shaped
c. Cross inked linear shaped
d. All of the above
a. Ethene
c. Ethyne
b. Ethylene
d. Both a and b
62
21.
The group of chemical reagents that take part

in life sustaining process is called
a. Wax
c. Food
22.
23.
b. Refinery gas
d. None of these
A balanced diet must contain at least

a. Two nutrients
c. Six nutrients
32.
a. Cn(H2O)n
c. Cn(H2O)2n
33.
b. Four nutrients
d. Three nutrients
34.
24.
26.
35.
b. Fats
d. All of these
36.
b. Vitamins
d. All of these
37.
38.
28.
The oxidation of protein produces urea in

addition to
a. CO2
c. Nitrogen
Glucose + Mannose
Glucose + Fructose
Fructose + Mannose
Mannose + Galactose
Glucose is also called
b. Water
d. Both a & b
b. Dextrose
d. Mannose
The heterogeneous group of organic

compounds which provides insulation for the
vital organs protects from electrical shock and
maintains optimum body temperature is called
a. Proteins
c. Lipids
b. Vitamins
d. Carbohydrates
Glucose is stored in the liver as

40.
a. Cellulose
c. Glycerol
31.
Sucrose on hydrolysis yields
a. Starch
c. Sucrose
b. CO2 + H2O
d. None of these
39.
30.
b. Fructose
d. Glycogen
The oxidation of fats produces:

a. CO2
c. CO2 + H2O + E
29.
b. Oligosaccharides
d. None of these
Which of the carbohydrates is tasteless?
a)
b)
c)
d)
b. Water
d. All of these
b. H2O
d. Acetone
Carbohydrates which contain 2 10 carbon

atoms and not are hydrolysable are called
a. Glucose
c. Sucrose
The product of oxidation of glucose is

a. CO2
c. Energy
Monosaccharide and Diaccharides are solid,

sweet in taste and soluble in
a. Monosaccharides
c. Polysaccharides
Which nutrients regulate the body processes?

a. Minerals
c. Water
27.
b. Dinutrient
d. None of these
Which of these are the sources of energy as

well as source for building of tissues?
a. Proteins
c. Carbohydrates
Polyhydroxy alcohols
Polyhydroxy ethers
Polyhydroxy ester
Polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones
a. C6H6
c. CHCl3
Milk is a food containing

a. Single nutrient
c. Multinutrient
25.
b. Boney
d. Glucose
b. C2n(H2O)n
d. None of these
Carbohydrates are
a)
b)
c)
d)
Which one of the following is a single nutrient

food?
a. Starch
c. Milk
The general formula of carbohydrates is
b. Glycogen
d. Starch
The excess of amino acids are not stored in

the body but dominated to form intermediates
of
a)
b)
c)
d)
Fat metabolism
Carbohydrates metabolism
Protein metabolism
None of these
The nutrients of food which are involved in

communication, nervous defenses, metabolic
regulation, catalysis and oxygen transport are
called
a. Proteins
c. Lipids
41.
b. Vitamins
d. Carbohydrates
Steroids belong to the family of lipids which

are
a. Tricyclic
c. Pentacyclic
b. Tetracyclic
d. Monocyclic
63
42.
Cholesterol is a steroid which is the important

precursor of
a. Sex hormones
c. Vitamin D
43.
44.
a. Activators
c. Coenzymes
49.
50.
51.
56.
57.
The plastics which are formed by plain

polymerization are known as:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Thermoplastics
Thermosetting plastics
Both
None of these
the
The condensation
following
58.
polymers
among
the
b. Polyamide
d. All of these
b. CH2 = CHCl
d. None of these
b. Nylon 6, 6
d. Polyester
A single type of monomer

Two types of monomers
Three types of monomers
All of these
A polymer is formed by polymerization of three

different types of monomers is
b. Homopolymer
d. All of these
Yeast is a
a) Bacteria
c) Virus
61.
b. Polystyrene
d. All of these
A copolymer is formed by polymerization of
a. Copolymer
c. Monomer
60.
is addition
Fluorine is present in
a)
b)
c)
d)
59.
following
PTEF is formed by the polymerization of
a. Polythene
c. Teflon
b. Acrylic fiber
d. Saran fiber
b. Terylene fiber
d. Saran fiber
of
a. CH2 = CH2
c. CF2 = CF2
Dacron is the trade name of

a. Nylon 6, 6
c. Acrylic fiber
Which one
polymer?
a. Polyester
c. Eposy resin
b. Inhibitors
d. None of these
The synthetic fiber composed of an ester of a

dihydric alcohol and terphthalic acid is called
a. Rayon fiber
c. Polyester
55.
b. 40oC
d. 50oC
Inorganic substances which increase the

activity of an enzyme is called
(CCl2 CCl2)n
(- CF2 CF2 -)n
(- CBr2 CBr2 -)n
(- Cl2 Cl2 - )n
a. PVC
c. Polythene
b. Turn over
d. None of these
Enzymes are most active at a temperature of:

a. 30oC
c. 45oC
48.
b. Salt of fatty acids

d. Both a & b
The number of moles of substrate transformed

per mole of enzyme per minute at a definite
temperature is called
a. Potency
c. Rancidity
47.
54.
b. Inorganic salts
d. Fats
b. Teflon
d. Nylon
The formula of Teflon is
a)
b)
c)
d)
Product of sponification is
a. Glycerol
c. Nucleic acid
46.
53.
Enzyme activators are
The trade name of polytetrafluoroethylene

(PTFE) plastic is
a. Dacron
c. Saran
Free cholesterol
Combine cholesterol
Starch
Mannose
a. Organic salt
c. Proteins
45.
b. Adrenal hormones
d. All of these
Gallstones contain:
a)
b)
c)
d)
52.
b) Antibiotic
d) Fungi
Polyester resins are the product of the reaction

of _______
a) Alcohol and aromatic acids
b) Polyamines with aliphatic dicarboxylic acids
c) Styrene in the presence of catalyst
d) Epichlorohydrin with diphenylol propane
64
62.
Enzyme tripsin converts

73.
a) Amino acid into proteins
b) Glucose into glycogen
c) Starch into sugar
d) Proteins into amino acids
63.
The digestion of fat in intestine is aided by

a) Diffusion
c) Emulsification
64.
a) Fibrinogin
c) Globulins
74.
b) Peptisation
d) Neutralization
Which of the following are required by the

body in small amount only?
a) Proteins
c) Vitamin
76.
b) Fats
d) None
Saponification of coconut oil yields glycerol

and
a) Palmitic acid
c) Oleic acid
b) Sodium palmitate
d) Satiric acid
b) Fructose
d) Maltose
b) Red
d) Green
The sweetest of all sugars is

a) Glucose
c) Sucrose
b) Maltose
d) Fructose
Amino acids are least soluble in water

a) At pH = 7
c) At pH < 7
70.
b) Insulin
d) Oxytocin
On heationg glucose with Fehlings solution

we get a precipitate of color _______
a) Yellow
c) Black
69.
b) Functional isomers
d) Position isomers
Starch is a polymer of ________

a) Glucose
c) Lactose
68.
b) Retinol
d) Nicotinamide
Glucose and fructose are

a) Optical isomers
c) Chain isomers
67.
Which hormone controls the metabolism of

carbohydrates?
a) Adrenaline
c) Thyroxine
75.
66.
b) Albumine
Chemical name of Vitamin A is

a) Thiamine
c) Ascorbic acid
65.
The protein responsible for the clotting of

blood is
b) At pH >7
d) At isoelectric point
Which of the following is the richest source of

energy?
a) Adenosine troposphere (ATP)
b) Adenosine diphophate (ADP)
c) Adenosine monophosphate (AMP)
d) All are equally rich source of energy
71.
Digestion of carbohydrates takes place in

a) Mouth
c) Intestine
72.
b) Stomach
d) Both a & c
Brown sugar can be decolourised by

a) Bleaching powder
c) Hypo
b) Soap solution
d) Animal Charcoal
65
Chapter 15
Chemical Industries in Pakistan
1. Which process/ reaction gives urea with
ammonium carbonat
a) Hlogenation
c) Hydrolsis
b) Dehrdration
2. Urea as a fertilizer contain

a) 57% N
c) 46% N
b) 73% N
d) 53% N
3. Ammonium nitrate is a useful fertilizer except

for
a) Wheat
c) Barley
b) Sugar cane
d) Paddy rice
4. The phosphoric acid which is used for the

preparation of di ammonium phosphate
fertilizer is having 60 to 70oC temperature and
a) PH 5-6
c) PH 7-8
b) PH 5.8 to 6\
d) PH 6 to 7.5
5. Which three elements are needed for the

healthy growth of plants
a) N.S.P
c) N.P.K
b) N.Ca.P
d) N.K.C
6. The nitrogen present in some fertilizer help

plants
a.
b.
c.
d.
To fight against diseases

To produce fat
To undergo photosynthesis
To produce proteins
7. phosphorus help in the growth of

a) Root
c) Stem
b) Leave
d) Seed
8. The wood paper is derived from the name of

which reedy plant
a) Rose
c) Papyrus
b) Sunflower
d) Water hyacinth
9. Which is not a calcarous material?

a) Lime
c) Marble
b) Clay
d) Marine shell
10. Ammonium nitrate fertilizer is not used for

which crop
a) Cotton
c) Sugar cane
b) Wheat
d) Paddy rice
11. Cement is very important building material

which was first of all introduce by English
Mason Joseph Aspdin in
a) 1875
c) 1860
b) 1824
d) 1920
12. Paper consumption per person in Pakistan is

a) 5kg
c) 6kg
b) 4kg
d) 8kg
13. The slurry which contains in the making of

cement % of water
a) 35 to 45
c) 45 to 50
b) 40 to 45
d) None of the given
14. The dried paper is wound in the form of a reel

having final moisture of about .%
a) 6 to 8
c) 2 to 8
b) 4 to 6
d) 5 to 8
15. NH2-CO-NH2 is the chemical formula of

a) Ammonia
c) Urea
b) Diamino keton
d) Both of b and c
16. The fertility of the soil is improved by ______

a.
b.
c.
d.
Rotation of the crops

Adding lime to the acid salts
Adding manure and growing legumes
All
17. Which of the following is incorrect statement

about nitrogen importance?
a. It enhances plant growth
b. It is involved in the synthesis of protein
and nucleic acids
c. It accelerates fruits and flowers growth
d. It is involved in the chlorophyll
synthesis
18. The fertilizers, which provide single nutrient
from NPK, are called _________fertilizer
a) Straight
c) Both a and b
b) Compound
19. Which of the following in macronutrient?

a) Cu
c) H2
b) Cl2
d) Zn
20. Addition of urea of the soil is ______________

reaction
a) Endothermic b) Exothermic
c) Both a and b d) No heat energy is involved
66
21. Which of the following is the most suitable

catalyst for ammonia synthesis?
a) Pt
c) Fe2O3 + MO2O3
31. The nutrients which are required in very small

amount for the growth of plants are called.
b) ZnO + Cr2O3
d) All of the above
a.
b.
c.
d.
22. The cooling of molten urea by air in the tower

is called_________
a) Prilling
c) Condensation
32. Which one of the following set of raw material

is most suitable for manufacture of urea?
b) Evaporation
d) Crystallization
a) CH4, N2 and CO2

c) H2, CO2 and H2O
23. Which of the following fertilizers is more useful

for paddy rice?
a.
b.
c.
d.
24. DAP (Diammonium hydrogen phosphate)

contains _______ PLANT nutrients.
b) 65%
d) 75%
It is a synthetic fertilizer
It is a natural fertilizer
It provides micronutrients to plants
It is an inorganic water soluble
compound
34. Which on the following is an inorganic

fertilizer?
25. Which of the following potassium fertilizers are

more useful for horticultural crops, tobacco &
potatoes?
a) KCl
c) K2SO4
b) H2, N2 and CO
d) H2O, N2 and H2
33. Which one of the following statement is correct

for urea?
a) Urea
b) DAP
c) Ammonium sulphate d) Ammonium nitrate
a) 60%
c) 70%
Nitrogenous fertilizers
Micronutrients
Phosphorus fertilizer
Surfactant
a) 36%
c) 56%
b) KNO3
d) KMnO4
b) 46%
d) 66%
35. Which one of the following is an inorganic

fertilizer?
26. Calcarious material includes___________

a) Lime stone
c) Chalk
a) Manure
c) Ammonium nitrate
b) Marble
d) All of the above
36.
27. Argillaceous
material
include____________
a) Clay
c) Slated
does
not
28. Which of the following processes is used for

the synthesis of cement?
a) Dry process
c) Both
a) Root
c) Stem
38.
40.
b) KNO3
d) NH3
NH4NO3 is used as fertilizer for most crops

except
a) Potato
c) Paddy rice
b) 3
d) 5
b) Basic
d) None of these
Which fertilizer contain 82% nitrogen?

a) NH4NO3
c) NH4Cl
39.
b) NH4Cl
d) (NH4)2HPO4
Except Ca(NO3)2, NaNO3 and KNO3, all

nitrogen fertilizers make the soil
a) Acidic
c) Neutral
b) Leave
d) Seed
30. How many zones through which the charge

passes in a rotary kiln?
a) 4
c) 2
37.
b) Wet process
d) None
29. Phosphorus helps in the growth of ________
There is only one nitrogen fertilizer which is

used as liquid is
a) NH4NO3
a) NH3
b) Marine shells
d) Blast furnace slag
b) Urea
d) All
b) Sugarcane
d) Tobacco
The percentage of nitrogen in urea is

a) 40%
c) 48%
b) 46%
d) 50%
67
41.
Potassium fertilizers are used for

a) Fruits
c) Tobacco
42.
b) Vegetable
d) All of these
52.
b) Vegetable
d) All of these
53.
44.
b) 33 33.5%
d) 48%
54.
a)
b)
c)
d)
45.
Its granules are solid

It is poisonous
It is neutral
The microbial bacteria in flooded field
decompose NH4NO3 into N2 gas
Manufacturing of super phosphate fertilizer

involves
a) Six steps
c) Four steps
55.
The percentage of P2O5 in triple super

phosphate fertilizer is
a) 45 46%
c) 33 35%
57.
47.
48.
b) C3S
d) C4AP
b) Animals
d) All of these
The fertilizers, which provide single nutrient

from NPK, are called _____ fertilizers.
b) Compound
d) None
The substances added to the soil in very small

amounts (about 6 grams to 200 grams per
acre) are called _______
a) 21%
c) 46%
a) Macronutrients
c) Fertilizers
b) 25%
d) 82%
The Stoichiometric ration

conversion to urea is about
of
CO2/NH3
Lime
MgO
Tricalcium silicate (3CaO.SiO2)
All of these
Clinker is produced by
a) Wet method
c) Bayers method
58.
b) 55%
d) 65%
The chief strength producing constituents of

cement is
a)
b)
c)
d)
50.
Tricalcium
The percentage of nitrogen in ammonium

sulphate is
a) 50%
c) 60%
49.
of
Natural fertilizers are materials derived from
a) Straight
c) Both a & b
b) 46 48%
d) 40%
abbreviation
Acylation of phosphate rock

Alkylation of phosphate rock
Acidulation of phosphate rock
Aromatization of phosphate rock
a) Plants
c) Algae
b) Five steps
d) Three steps
b) Pulp
d) Isomer
Super phosphate fertilizer is formed by the

a)
b)
c)
d)
56.
46.
The industrial
aluminate is
a) C2S
c) C3A
NH4NO3 is used as a fertilizer for many crops

except paddy rice because
b) Pulp
d) Polymer
The separation of cellulose fibers by

mechanical method or by various chemicals
from the matrix result into
a) Clinker
c) Polymer
The percentage of nitrogen in ammonia nitrate

is
a) 46%
c) 82%
The final product which is obtained from the

rotary kiln (cement production) is called
a) Clinker
c) Fiber
From which of the following natural fiber is

obtained?
a) Animal
c) Mineral
43.
51.
A natural fertilizer provide about ______ kg of

nitrogen.
a) 4.5
c) 2.2
59.
b) 3.2
d) 1.5
A natural fertilizer provides ______ kg of P2O5

a) 4.5
c) 2.2
60.
b) Micronutrients
d) None of these
b) 3.2
d) 1.5
The percentage of nitrogen in ammonium

sulphate is _______
a) 32 33.5
c) 80 82
b) 50 55
d) 20 25
b) Dry method
d) Both a & b
68
61.
The percentage of sulphur in ammonium

sulphate is ______ %.
a) 25
c) 23
Chapter # 16
Environmental chemistry
b) 21
d) 19
1. Peeling of ozone umbrella is due to
62.
Ammonium nitrate is sold as a mixture with

_________
a) Soda Ash
c) Zinc
a) CFCs
c) CO2
b) PAN
d) Coal burning
b) Limestone
d) None of these
2. DDT is
63.
Any material, which changes the cleaning

effect of water is called _______
a) Fertilizers
c) Acid
64.
Commercial detergents contain mainly ______

a) RCOON
c) RSNa
65.
b) Marble
d) All of the above
Cement is a mixture of so many compounds

roasted in rotary kiln. Which substances has
greater percentage?
a) Lime (CaO)
c) Alumina (Al2O3)
68.
b) (SiO3)n
d) None of these
Calcarious material includes ________

a) Lime stone
c) Chalk
67.
b) RONa
d) ROSO3Na
The principle former of almost all glasses is

________
a) (SiO2)n
c) (SiO2)X
66.
b) Detergent
d) None of these
b) Silica (SiO2)
d) Magnesia (MgO)
a) Biodegradable polulutant
b) Nondegradable pollutant
c) Not a pollutant
d) An antibiotic
3. Increasing skin cancer and high mutation rates
are
a) Acid rain
c) CO pollution
b) Ozone depletion
d) CO2 pollution
4. Sewage water is purified by

a) Microorganisms
c) Fishes
b) Light
d) Aquatic plants
5. UV radiations bring about

a) Skin cancer
c) Lung cancer
b) Mouth cancer
d) Liver cancer
6. Which one is more toxic?

a) Carbon
c) CO
b) CO2
d) SO2
7. Soil salinity can be measured by
The important function of burning zone in the

rotary kiln is ______
a) Conductivity meter
c) Protometer
a) To dry the moisture of slurry

b) To decompose lime stone to unslaked lime
c) Combination of different oxides like CaO2,
SiO2, Fe2O3 and Al2O3.
d) To reduce the impurities
8. Biodegradable pollutant is
a) Plastic
c) Sewage
b) Photometer
d) Potometer
b) Asbestos
d) Mercury
9. Lead is
69.
Asbestos is a _______
a) Mineral fiber
c) Vegetable fiber
b) Animal fiber
d) None of these
a) Air pollutant
b) Soil pollutant
c) Radioactive pollutant d) Noise pollutant
10. Air pollution is not caused by
a) Pollen grains
b) Hydroelectric power
c) Industries and automobiles
69
a) Ozone and dust

b) SO3 and CO
b) CO2 and CO
d) SO2 and NO2
11. CO is harmful for humans as it

20. Detergents are sodium salts of
a) Is carcinogenic
b) Is antogonistic to CO2
c) Has high affinity for heamoglobin than
oxygen
d) Is destructive of O3
12. Disease caused by eating fish in water
contaminated with industrial waste having
mercury
a) Minamat disease
c) Hashmitos disease
b) Brights dieses
d) Arthritis
13. Drawbacks of DTT as pesticide is

a) It becomes ineffective after some time
b) It is less effective that others
c) It is not easily degrades in nature
d) its high cost
14. Fish die in water bodies polluted by sewage
due to
a) Pathogens
b) Clogging of gills by silt
c) Reduction in oxygen
d) Foul smell
15. Drained sewage has BOD
a) More than that of water
b) Less than that of water
c) Equal to that of water
16.
Which one of the following forms a toxic

substance by combining with hemoglobin in
blood.
a) CO2
c) O2
b) CO
d) CH4
a) Calcium suphonates
b) Barium sulphonates
c) Sodium carbonates
d) Benzene sulphonates
21. BOD is the amount of
a) Carbon dissoved in water
b) Amount of oxygen in water
c) Amount of bacteria in water
d) All of the above
22. The oxygen demand in water is determined by
a) Disulphate ion
c) Bicarbonate ion
b) Dichromate ion
d) Bidentate ion
23. Herbicides are used for removal of

a) Insects
b) Fungus on the plants
c) Undesited plants
d) Rodents
24. DDT is one of the most powerful
a) Insecticide
c) Fugicied
b) Herbicides
d) Pastecide
25. Most hazardous metal pollutant of automobiles

exhaust is
a) Mercury
c) Lead
b) Cadmium
d) Copper
26. Photochemical smog is related to pollution of

a) Air
c) Soil
b) Water
d) Nostic
27. Environmental pollution affects

17. UV radiation from the sun causes a reaction
that produces
a) Flourides
c) SO2
b) CO
d) O3
a) Biotic components
b) Plants only
c) Man only
d) Biotic and abiotic components of
environment
18. The half of the atmosphere is concentrated in

the lower km
28. Ozone hole refers to
a) 3.5 km
c) 5.6 km
b) 4.5 km
d) 10 km
19. Acid rain is due to increase ion atmospheric

concentration of
a) Hole in ozone layer

b) Reduction in thickness of ozone layer in
stratosphere
c) Reduction of thickness of ozone layer in
troposphere
70
d) Increase concentration of ozone
c) 4
38.
d) 5
The main pollutant of leather tanneries in the

waste water is_______
a) Chromium III
c) Sodium
b) Chromium II
d) Copper
29. Eutrophication causes reduction in

a) Dissolved hydrogen b) Dissolved oxygen
c) Dissolved salts
d) All of the above
30. The yellow color in photochemical smog is due
to presence of_____
a) Carbon dioxide
c) Chlorine gas
b) Nitrogen dioxide
d) None
31. Which one of the following makes the bulk of

hydrospheres content?
a) Oceans
b) Glaciers & ice
c) Fresh water lakes and ponds
d) All have equal distribution
32.
b) Alums
d) All
Which of the following factors help to measure

quality of water?
a) DO
c) COD
36.
42.
44.
b) Bio sphere
d) Lithosphere
Ozone is located in
b) Stratosphere
d) Thermosphere
Which fuel on combustion produces fumigative

and sulphurous emission?
a) Coal
b) Gasoline
c) Kerosene oil d) Diesel and furnace oil
45.
The solid or liquid particles with diameter

ranges from 0.01 or less up to about 100
are
a) Aerosols
c) Smoke
46.
b) Nickel sulphate
d) Barium sulphate
b) Dust
d) All of these
The pollutants responsible for eye, nose,

throat, bronchial tract and respiratory tract
irritation are
a) H2S
c) NH3
47.
b) 3
The envelop of gases surrounding the earths

surface which absorb most of the cosmic rays
and maintain the balance is
a) Troposphere
c) Mesosphere
Newspaper can be recycled again and again

how many times?
a) 2
Soil
Mineral of earth crust
Organic matter of earth crust
All of these
a) Atmosphere
c) Hydrosphere
43.
b) Hydrosphere
d) Atmosphere
The components of lithosphere are

a)
b)
c)
d)
b) BOD
d) All of the above
In the purification of portable water, the

coagulant used is_________
a) Alum
c) Copper sulphate
37.
41.
b) CO
d) N2O4
The outer part of the earth is present in

a) Lithosphere
c) Biosphere
Which statement is wrong?

a) The amount of ozone layer is greater in the
region close to the equator.
b) Ozone acts as filter for UV radiations
c) In the polar region, it acts as pollutant
d) CFCs play effective role in removing O3 in
the stratosphere.
35.
40.
Which substance can be used for disinfection

water?
a) KMnO4
c) Ozone
34.
b) Dissolved oxygen
d) All
Which of the following air pollutants is quiet

killer?
a) CO2
c) NO2
Chlorination of water may be harmful if the

water contains_______
a) Ammonia
c) Carbon dioxide
33.
39.
b) CO2
d) Both a & c
The air pollutant which is responsible for

corrosion and erosion is
71
57.
a) SO2
c) Smoke
48.
49.
The pollutant which adhere to stones bricks

and surface and cause fouling are
51.
58.
59.
60.
b) Slightly basic
d) All of these
b) 4.6
d) 2.6
62.
b) NH3
d) All of these
b) Reducing smog
d) Smoke
63.
Reducing smog is formed by the combination

of
The pollutant
depletion is
a) CO
c) H2S
b) Fog
d) Smoke & fog
which
results
into
ozone
b) NH3
d) Freon
The photochemical smog is also called

oxidizing smog which has high content of
oxidant like
b) SO2
d) All of these
b) Ozone
d) All of these
Pathogens present in polluted water can killed

by chlorination but cannot remove
a) Viruses
c) Odour
66.
a) O3
c) NH3
b) Dust
d) Effluent
The techniques used to kill pathogens present

in drinking water are
a) Chlorination
c) UV irradiation
65.
b) Chloride ions
d) None of these
Water having high value of COD means the

water is
a) Pure
c) Aerosols
64.
b) 4ppm
d) 8ppm
The COD (Chemical Oxygen Demand) of

water can be determined directly by treating
with
a) Dichromate ions
c) Oxide ions
Photochemical smog is
a) Smoke
c) Dust
56.
b) 3 to 4ppm
d) 8 to 10ppm
The content of DO in polluted water is

a) Less than 4ppm
c) 6ppm
The pollutant which play an important role in

smog formation
a) Oxidizing smog
c) Neutral smog
55.
The concentration of dissolved molecular

oxygen in pure drinking water is
The PH of neutral rain water is
a) CO
c) H2S
54.
Drinking water should have
a) 2 to 4ppm
c) 4 to 8ppm
61.
53.
Occluded & dissolved gases

Inorganic salts & organic compounds
Pathogens
All of these
a) Turbidity less than 10ppm

b) pH between 7 to 8.5
c) should be free from diseases causing
bacteria
d) all of these
Clean rain is
a) 5.6
c) 3.6
52.
b) Nervous disorder
d) All of these
Industrial waste water contains

a)
b)
c)
d)
Smoke and dust

Smoke and aerosols
Aerosols and dust
None of these
a) Basic
c) Slightly acidic
Presence of heavy metals in water causes

a) Mental retardation
c) Cancer
Carbon and soot accelerate the corrosion and

erosion due to
a) Acidic nature
b) Basic nature
c) Absorption or adsorption of the gaseous
pollutant upon these particulars mater
d) All of these
a)
b)
c)
d)
50.
b) Carbon
d) Aerosol
b) Taste
d) All of these
The process in solid waste is burnt at high

temperature ranging from 900 to 1000oC
a) Chlorination
b) Ozonation
72
c) Incineration
67.
The chief pollutant which likely to deplete

ozone layer is
a) SO2
c) CO2
68.
The decrease in the thickness of ozone layer

present in the stratosphere is termed as
a) Ozone hole
c) Ozone coagulation
b) Ozone depletion
d) Both a & b
b) NH3
d) CF2Cl2
b) Lithosphere
d) Stratosphere
The yellow color in photochemical smog is due

to presence of _______
a) Carbon dioxide
c) Chlorine gas
70.
77.
Which one of the following is not a component

of environment?
a) Hydrosphere
c) Biosphere
69.
d) All of these
b) Nitrogen dioxide
d) None
Which statement is wrong?

a) The amount of ozone layer is greater in the
region close to the equator.
b) Ozone acts as filter for UV radiations.
c) In the polar region, it acts as pollutants.
d) CFCs play effective role in removing O3 in
the stratosphere.
71.
In the purification of portable water, the

coagulant used is _______
a) Alum
c) Copper sulphate
72.
The pH range of acid rain is

a) 5 7
c) 6.5 7
73.
b) Thermosphere
d) Mesosphere
Main reason of acid rain is

a) SO2 / CO2
c) SO2 / NO2
76.
b) 57
d) 77
Which layer consist of thick layer of ozone?

a) Stratosphere
c) Troposphere
75.
b) 6 8
d) Less than 5
The %age of SO2 from Volcanic eruption is

a) 47
c) 67
74.
b) Nickel Sulphate
d) Barium sulphate
b) NO2 / P2O5
d) All
The thickness of ozone layer is

a) 25 to 50 km
c) 3 km only
b) 25 to 28km
d) 1 km only
73

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Second Year

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CHAPTER # 1

Periodic Classification of Elements & Periodicity

Which of the following pairs are chemically

Gradual addition of electronic shells in the

Which one of the following is an incorrect

Electron affinity depends on

The atomic radius increases as we move

(A) The ionization potential of nitrogen is

Ca2+ ion is isoelectronic with

Which of the following ions are paramagnetic

(A) Effective nuclear charge increases

Which of the following is isoelectronic with

The oxide of which of the following elements

Which of the following is isoelectronic as well

Which of the following has greatest tendency

Which of the following ion will form most water

Which of the following element has the

The alkali metal which is liquid at 15oC is

Which of the following has the smallest size?

The total number of inner transition elements

Which of the following has highest first

Two elements whose eletronegativities are 1.2

(B) atomic radius

Ionic radii are

Elements with greater number of electrons

Elements present in a same group have the

s and p block elements are also called

What is the symbol of the element with only

On electrolysis of NaH, hydrogen is liberated

Mendeleevs periodic table was based on

Which one of the following has the maximum

Which is the part of metalloids?

No. of electrons gained

The element with Z = 24 is placed in the period

Atom will lose electron easily

Element, of group I-B are called

Oxidation state of an atom represents______

(A) Representative elements

Melting points of VII-A group ___________

Who introduced the zero groups?

Mark the correct statement:

Which of the following oxides is atmospheric in

Which of the following possess maximum

Elements with seven electrons in their valence

b) More than one

Which of the following pairs of elements are

A student of chemistry will identify positively

Which one of the following is not a coinage

Ionization energy is lowest for

Which two of the following are iso electronic

Which of the following is smallest in size?

In its chemical properties, calcium is most

Which of the following will have largest size?

The element with atomic number 7 is likely to

Which halogen has the smallest electron

Which of the following has the most basic

b) 1S2 2S2 2P6 3S1

Excluding hydrogen and helium, the smallest

Elements, which form basic oxides are

Which of the following has the highest electron

The outer most orbital involved in chemical

With respect to chlorine, hydrogen will be

Which is the most metallic element of 2nd

In the periodic table each period begins with a