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IIT - JEE 2013 (Advanced)

(2) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (3)

PART I : PHYSICS
SECTION 1 : (One or more options correct Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONE or MORE are correct.
1. The figure below shows the variation of specific heat capacity (C) of solid as a function of
temperature (T). The temperature is increased continuously from 0 to 500 K at a constant
rate. Ignoring any volume change, the following statement(s) is(are) correct to a
reasonable approximation.
(A) the rate at which heat is absorbed in the range 0 100 K varies linearly with
temperature T.
(B) heat absorbed in increasing the temperature from 0 100 K is less than the heat
required for increasing the temperature from 400 500 K.
(C) there is no change in the rate of heat absorption in the range 400 500 K.
(D) the rate of heat absorption increases in the range 200 300 K.

100

200

300
T (K)

400

500

1. (A), (B), (C), (D)


dQ = mc dT
dQ
= m (aT + b)
in the range (0 100 k)
dT
option (A) is correct. Considering (0 100 k), the graph to be linear using the
reasonable approximation given in the question.
During (400k 500k) C is the maximum.
option (B) is correct.
Option (C) is correct as C is constant in the range (400k 500k)
and option (D) is also correct.
2. The radius of the orbit of an electron in a Hydrogen-like atom is 4.5 a0, where a0 is the
3h
Bohr radius. Its orbital angular momentum is
. It is given that h is Planck constant and
2
R is Rydberg constant. The possible wavelength(s), when the atom de-excites, is (are)
9
9
9
4
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
32R
16R
5R
3R
2. (A), (C)

n2
a0
z
n2
4.5a0 =
a0
z
n2

= 4.5
z
9
= 4.5 and z = 2

z
rn =

nh
2
3h
L =
2
n =3
L =

(4) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

Wavelength is given by
1
1
1
= Rz 2 2 2

nf ni
1
1
1
= 4R 2 2

nf ni
For transition, n = 3 1
1
9
=
=
(A)
32R
1
4R 1
9
For transition n = 3 2
1
1 36
9
=
=
=
(C)
5R
1 1 4R 5
4R
4 9
3. Using the expression 2d sin = , one calculates the values of d by measuring the
corresponding angles in the range 0 to 90. The wavelength is exactly known and the
error in is constant for all values of . As increases from 0.
(A) the absolute error in d remains constant.
(B) the absolute error in d increases.
(C) the fractional error in d remains constant.
(D) the fractional error in d decreases.
3. (D)
2d sin =
(2d sin ) =
But = 0
(2 sin ) d + 2d cos = 0
d

+ cot = 0
d
d

= cot (d)
d
= constant
absolute error in d is |d| = d cot ()
cos
|d| =
| d |
2 sin 2
at increase from 0 to 90, |d| decreases.
Hence (B) is not true.
By the same fractional error decreases.
4. Two non-conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2 and carrying uniform volume charge
densities + and , respectively, are placed such that they partially overlap, as shown in
the figure. At all points in the overlapping region,
(A) the electrostatic field is zero.
(B) the electrostatic potential is constant.
(C) the electrostatic field is constant in magnitude.
(D) the electrostatic field has same direction.

IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (5)

4. (C), (D)
G
JJJG
E1 =
O1P
E1
3 0
JJJJ
G
G

E2 =
PO 2
O1
3 0
Net field at P
G G G
E = E1 + E 2
JJJG JJJJG
=
[O1P + PO 2 ]
3 0
G
JJJJJG
E=
O1O 2
3 0
E is constant (C)
And option (D) is also correct.

E2
O2

5. A steady current I flows along an infinitely long hollow cylindrical conductor of radius R.
This cylinder is placed coaxially inside an infinite solenoid of radius 2R. The solenoid has
n turns per unit length and carries a steady current I. Consider a point P at a distance r
from the common axis. The correct statement(s) is (are)
(A) In the region 0 < r < R, the magnetic field is non-zero.
(B) In the region R < r < 2R, the magnetic field is along the common axis.
(C) In the region R < r < 2R, the magnetic field is tangential to the circle of radius r,
centered on the axis.
(D) In the region r > 2R, the magnetic field is non-zero.
5. (A), (D)
N
n=
L
Bd = 0I

0 I
2R
B2 = 0nI
B1 =

along axis of cylinder


along axis of solenoid

(i) 0 < r < R, magnetic field


At this point, there will be field only due to solenoid.
(ii) R < r < 2R
I
B= 0
by the rod. (Along the tangent to the circular part around the cylinder)
2r
Bsolenoid = 0nI along axis
6. Two vehicles, each moving with speed u on the same horizontal straight road, are
approaching each other. Wind blows along the road with velocity w. One of these vehicles
blows a whistle of frequency f1. An observer in the other vehicle hears the frequency of
the whistle to be f2. The speed of sound in still air is V. The correct statements(s) is (are)
(A) If the wind blows from the observer to the source, f2 > f1.
(B) If the wind blows from the source to the observer, f2 > f1.
(C) If the wind blows from observer to the source, f2 < f1.
(D) If the wind blows from the source to the observer, f2 < f1.

(6) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

6. (A), (B)

W
O
uSW = u w S
u
u
uOW = u + w
v+u+w
v+u+w
f1
f2 =
f2 =
f1
v (u w)
vu+w
Clearly f2 > f1 irrespective of sign of w.
7. Two bodies, each of mass M, are kept fixed with a separation 2L. A particle of mass m is
projected from the midpoint of the line joining their centres, perpendicular to the line. The
gravitational constant is G. The correct statement(s) is (are)
(A) The minimum initial velocity of the mass m to escape the gravitational field of the two
GM
bodies is 4
.
L
(B) The minimum initial velocity of the mass m to escape the gravitational field of the two
GM
bodies is 2
.
L
(C) The minimum initial velocity of the mass m to escape the gravitational field of the two
2GM
bodies is
.
L
(D) The energy of the mass m remains constant.
7. (B), (D)
(D) is clearly correct, since gravitational field is conservative.
2GMm 1 2

+ mve = 0
L
2
ve = 2

GM
L

8. A particle of mass m is attached to one end of a mass-less spring of force constant k, lying
on a frictionless horizontal plane. The other end of the spring is fixed. The particle starts
moving horizontally from its equilibrium position at time t = 0 with an initial velocity u0.
When the speed of the particle is 0.5 u0, it collides elastically with a rigid wall. After this
collision,
(A) the speed of the particle when it returns to its equilibrium position is u0.
(B) the time at which the particle passes through the equilibrium position for the first time
m
is t =
.
k
4 m
.
3 k
(D) the time at which the particle passes through the equilibrium position for the second
5 m
time is t =
.
3 k
8. (A), (D)
The impulse of the wall merely reverses the direction of motion is thout changing particle
speed. Hence (A)

(C) the time at which the maximum compression of the spring occurs is t =

IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (7)

Displacement from mean position be x


u
x = u0 cos (t)
x = 0 sin (t)
w
u
when particle speed is 0
2

1
[for first time]
cos (t) =
t =
3
2

t=
3
3 2 m
Time after which it passes the mean position = 2t =
=
3u
3 K
Hence (B) is incorrect.
Time after which particle crosses mean position for second time =
Hence (D).

2
5
+
=
3 3

SECTION 2 : (Paragraph Type)


This section contains 4 paragraphs each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Eight
questions relate to four paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question of
a paragraph has only one correct answer among the four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)..

Paragraph for Questions 9 and 10


A small block of mass 1 kg is released from rest at the top of a rough track. The track is a
circular arc of radius 40 m. The block slides along the track without toppling and a frictional
force acts on it in the direction opposite to the instantaneous velocity. The work done in
overcoming the friction up to the point Q, as shown in the figure below, is 150 J. (Take the
acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 ms2).

9. The speed of the block when it reaches the point Q is


(B) 10 ms1
(C) 10 3 ms1
(A) 5 ms1
9. (B)

Kinetic energy of block at Q = mgR sin 30 150 J

1 2
1
mv = 10 40 150
2
2
r

2 50
= 10 ms1
1

= 50 J

(D) 20 ms1

(8) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

10. The magnitude of the normal reaction that acts on the block at the point Q is
(A) 7.5 N
(B) 8.6 N
(C) 11.5 N
(D) 22.5 N
10. (A)
mv 2
30
N mg cos 60 =
r
mv 2
N =mg cos 60 +
r
60
10 1 100
= 7.5 N
N =
+
2
40
mg

Paragraph for Questions 11 and 12


A thermal power plant produces electric power of 600 kW at 4000 V, which is to be
transported to a place 20 km away from the power plant for consumers usage. It can be
transported either directly with a cable of large current carrying capacity or by using a
combination of step-up and step-down transformers at the two ends. The drawback of the
direct transmission is the large energy dissipation. In the method using transformers, the
dissipation is much smaller. In this method, a step-up transformer is used at the plant side so
that the current is reduced to a smaller value. At the consumers end, a step-down transformer
is used to supply power to the consumers at the specified lower voltage. It is reasonable to
assume that the power cable is purely resistive and the transformers are ideal with a power
factor unity. All the currents and voltages mentioned are rms values.
11. If the direct transmission method with a cable of resistance 0.4 km1 is used, the power
dissipation (in%) during transmission is
(A) 20
(B) 30
(C) 40
(D) 50
11. (B)
P = 600 kW
V = 4000 V
600 103
I =
= 150A
4000
Power Loss = I2R
= (150)2 0.4 20 = 180 kW
180
% Power Loss =
100 = 30%
600
12. In the method using the transformers, assume that the ratio of the number of turns in the
primary to that in the secondary in the step-up transformer is 1:10. If the power to the
consumers has to be supplied at 200 V, the ratio of the number of turns in the primary to
that in the secondary in the step-down transformer is
(A) 200 : 1
(B) 150 : 1
(C) 100 : 1
(D) 50 : 1
12. (A)
Step up transformer
1 :
10
4000 V 40,000 V
Step down transform
40,000 V 200
40000
turns ratio =
= 200 : 1
200

IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (9)

Paragraph for Questions 13 and 14


A point charge Q is moving in a circular orbit of radius R in the x-y plane with an angular
Q
velocity . This can be considered as equivalent to a loop carrying a steady current
.A
2
uniform magnetic field along the positive z-axis is now switched on, which increases at a
constant rate from 0 to B in one second. Assume that the radius of the orbit remains constant.
The application of the magnetic field induces an emf in the orbit. The induced emf is defined
as the work done by an induced electric field in moving a unit positive charge around a closed
loop. It is known that, for an orbiting charge, the magnetic dipole moment is proportional to
the angular momentum with a proportionality constant .
13. The magnitude of the induced electric field in the orbit at any instant of time during the
time interval of the magnetic field change is
BR
BR
(A)
(B)
(C) BR
(D) 2BR
4
2
13. (B)
A dB
R 2
BR
Magnitude of induced emf is given by =
=
B=
2R
2R dt
2
14. The change in the magnetic dipole moment associated with the orbit, at the end of the
time interval of the magnetic field change, is
BQR 2
BQR 2
(A) BQR2
(B)
(C)
(D) BQR2
2
2
14. (B)
qE
q ER
f i
= t =
1 =
(1)
2( )
MR
MR
BR
E =
2
q BR
qB
=
=

2M
MR 2
= L = I
qBR 2
2 qB
2

= MR ( ) = MR
= 2
2M

Paragraph for Questions 15 and 16


The mass of a nucleus AZ X is less than the sum of the masses of (A-Z) number of neutrons
and Z number of protons in the nucleus. The energy equivalent to the corresponding mass
difference is known as the binding energy of the nucleus. A heavy nucleus of mass M can
break into two light nuclei of masses m1 and m2 only if (m1 + m2) < M. Also two light nuclei
of masses m3 and m4 can undergo complete fusion and form a heavy nucleus of mass M only
if (m3 + m4) > M. The masses of some neutral atoms are given in the table below :
1
1H
6
3 Li
152
64 Gd

1.007825 u
6.015123 u
151.919803 u

2
1
7
3 Li
206
82 Pb

2.014102 u

3
1 H
70
30 Zn
209
83 Bi

7.016004 u
205.974455 u

3.016050 u
69.925325 u
208.980388 u

4
2 He
82
34 Se
210
84 Po

4.002603 u
81.916709 u
209.982876 u

(1 u = 932 MeV/c2)

(10) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

15. The correct statement is


(A)The nucleus 36 Li can emit an alpha particle.
210
(B) The nucleus 84
Po can emit a proton.
(C) Deuteron and alpha particle can undergo complete fusion.
70
Zn and 82
(D)The nuclei 30
34 Se can undergo complete fusion.
15. (C)
3
12 H + 42 He
6 Li
M = 6.015123
m1 = 2.014102
m2 = 4.002603

m1 + m2 = 6.016705
m1 + m2 > M
(not possible)
210
209
(B) 84 Po
83 Bi + 11P
M = 209.982876
m1 = 208.980388
m2 = 001.007825
m1 + m2 = 209.988213
M < m1 + m2 (not possible)
(C) 12 H + 42 H
36 Li
(m1 + m2) > M
Possible
70
(D) 30
Zn + 82
152
34Se
64 Gd
m1 = 69.925325
m2 = 81.916709
m1 + m2 = 141.832034
M = 151.919803
m1 + m2 < M (not possible)
210
Po at rest
16. The kinetic energy (in keV) of the alpha particle, when the nucleus 84
undergoes alpha decay, is
(A) 5319
(B) 5422
(C) 5707
(D) 5818
16. (A)
210
206
82
Pb + 42 He
84 Po
M = 209.982876
m1 = 205.974455
m 2 = 4.002603

m1 + m2 = 209.977058
M (m1 + m 2 ) = 209.982876
209.977058
0.005818
E = mc = (0.005818)932 = 5422
K1 + K 2 = E
2

10

IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (11)

P2
P2
+
=E
2m1 2m 2
P2
=E
2
P 2 Em1m 2
=
2 m1 + m 2
Em 2
p2
E(206) 103
k1 =
=
=
=
E
2m1 m1 + m 2
210
105
103
k1 =
(5422) = 5319
105

SECTION 3 : (Matching List Type)


This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching lists. The
codes for the lists have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct
17. One mole of a monatomic ideal gas is taken along two cyclic processes E F G E
and E F H E as shown in the PV diagram. The processes involved are purely
isochoric, isobaric, isothermal or adiabatic.

Match the paths in List I with the magnitudes of the work done in List II and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List I
P. GE
Q. GH
R. FH
S. FG
Codes :
P Q
(A) 4 3
(B) 4 3
(C) 3 1
(D) 1 3
17. (A)

1.
2.
3.
4.
R
2
1
2
2

S
1
2
4
4

PF VF = PG VG
32P0 V0 = P0 VG

11

List II
160 P0V0 1n2
36 P0V0
24 P0 V0
31 P0V0

(12) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

VG = 32V0
PF VF = PH VH
32P0 V0 = P0 VH
1

VH =

32 V0

( 32 )3/ 5 V0 = 8 V0
WGE = P0 ( VE VG ) = P0 ( V0 32V0 )
=

(P)

= 31P0 V0 4.

(Q) WGH = P0 ( 8V0 32V0 ) = 24P0 V0 (3)

PH VH PF VF P0 ( 8V0 ) 32P0 V0
=
5
1
1
3
24P0 V0
= 36P0 V0 (2)
=
2

3
V
32V0
= PF VF n G = 32P0 V0 n
VF
V0

(R) WFH =

(A) WFG

= 32P0 V0 n 32
= 32 P0 V0 n ( 2 )

= 160 P0 V0 n 2 (1)

(P) 4; (Q) (3); (R) (2); (S) (1)


18. Match List I of the nuclear processes with List II containing parent nucleus and one of the
end products of each process and then select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists:
List I
P. Alpha decay

List II
1. 15
8 O

Q. + decay

2.

238
92 U

234
90 Th

+ .....

R. Fission

3.

185
83 Bi

184
82 Pb

+ .....

S. Proton emission

4.

239
94 Pu

Codes :
P
(A) 4
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 4
18. (C)
P Q
2 1

Q
2
3
1
3

R
1
2
4
2

S
3
4
3
1

R S
4 3

12

15
7 N

+ .....

140
57 La

+ .....

IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (13)
19. A right angled prism of refractive index 1 is placed in a rectangular block of refractive
index 2, which is surrounded by a medium of refractive index 3, as shown in the figure.
A ray of light 'e' enters the rectangular block at normal incidence. Depending upon the
relationships between 1, 2 and 3, it takes one of the four possible paths 'ef', 'eg', 'eh' or 'ei'.

Match the paths in List I with conditions of refractive indices in List II and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
P.
Q.
R.
S.

List I
ef
eg
eh
ei

1.
2.
3.
4.

Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 2 3
1
4
(B) 1 2
4
3
(C) 4 1
2
3
(D) 2 3
4
1
19. (D)
(P) e f for 1 2 towards normal
2 > 1
For 2 3 always from normal
3 < 2
i.e., (2)

(Q) e g no deviation any where


1 = 2 = 3, i.e., (3)
(R) e h 1 2 away from normal.
2 < 1
2 3 away from normal.
3 < 2
And also at 1 2 no I.R.

sin 45 < 2
1

1 < 2 2
2 < 1 < 2 2 i.e., (4)
(S) e i TIR at 1 2

13

List II
1 > 2 2
2 > 1 and 2 > 3
1 = 2
2 < 1 < 2 2 and 2 > 3

(14) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

sin 45 >

2
1

1 > 2 2

i.e., 1
(P) 2; (Q) 3; (R) (4); (S) (1).
20. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List I
List II
P. Boltzmann constant
1. [ML2T1]
Q. Coefficient of viscosity
2. [ML1T1]
R. Planck constant
3. [MLT3T1]
S. Thermal conductivity
4. [ML2T2K1]
Codes :
P
(A) 3
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 4

Q
1
2
2
1

R
2
1
1
2

S
4
4
3
3

20. (C)

(P) u =

3
K BT
2

[u] =

[ K BT ]

[ ML2 T 2 ]
= [K B ]
[K ]

[KB]

= [ ML2T 2 K 1 ] 4

(Q) F = 6 r V
2
F MLT
[] = =
= [ ML1T 1 ] 2
1
rv L (LT )

(R) E = h
2 2
E ML T
2 1
[h] = =
= [ ML T ] (1)
1
T

(S)

KA(T2 T1 )
Q
=
t
[ ML2T 3 ]
[K] =
[ L]
[ L2 ][ K ]

= [ MLT 3K 1 ] (3)
(P) 4; (Q) (2); (R) (1); (S) (3)

14

IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (15)

PART II : CHEMISTRY
SECTION 1 : (One or more options correct Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONE or MORE are correct.
21. The carbon-based reduction method is NOT used for the extraction of
(A) tin from SnO2
(B) iron from Fe2O3
(C) aluminium from Al2O3
(D) magnesium from MgCO3 . CaCO3
21. (C), (D)
The oxides of the less electropositive methods are reduced by strongly heating them with
coke.
22. The thermal dissociation equilibrium of CaCO3(s) is studied under different conditions.
ZZX CaO(s) + CO 2 (g)
CaCO3 (s) YZZ

For this equilibrium, the correct statement(s) is (are)


(A) H is dependent on T
(B) K is independent of the initial amount of CaCO3
(C) K is dependent on the pressure of CO2 at a given T
(C) H is independent of the catalyst, if any
22. (A), (B), (D)
K Equilibrium constant is independent of the partial pressure of CO2.
It is independent of the catalyst.
23. The correct statement(s) about O3 is(are)
(A) OO bond lengths are equal
(B) Thermal decomposition of O3 is endothermic
(C) O3 is diamagnetic in nature
(D) O3 has a bent structure
23. (A), (C), (D)

2O3
3O 2 + 68 k cal i.e. Exothermic
24. In the nuclear transmutation
9
4 Be + X

84 Be + Y

(X, Y) is (are)
(A) (, n)

(B) (p, D)

(C) (n, D)

24. (A), (B)


84 Be + 10 n
(A) 94 Be +

(B) 94 Be + 11H
84 Be + 12 D
(C) 94 Be + 10 n
84 Be + 12 D

(False)

(D) 94 Be +
84 Be + 11H

(False)

15

(D) (, p)

(16) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

25. The major product(s) of the following reaction is(are)

(A) P
25. (B)

(B) Q

OH
Br

(C) R
OH

(D) S

Br

aq. Br2

SO3H

Br
(Q)
26. After completion of the reactions (I and II), the organic compound(s) in the reaction
mixtures is(are)
NaOH

(A) Reaction I
(B) Reaction I
(C) Reaction I
(D) Reaction I
26. (C)
O

CH3

:
:
:
:

||

(1 m o l )

P and Reaction II : P
U, acetone and Reaction II : Q, acetone
T, U, acetone and Reaction II : P
R, acetone and Reaction II : S, acetone

l)
C H 3 BrN2 (1
m o
(T ) + ( U )
aO H

Br2 (1mol)

(p)
CH COOH
3

16

IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (17)
27. The Ksp of Ag2CrO4 is 1.1 1012 at 298 J. The solubility (in mol / L) of Ag2CrO4 in a
0.1 M AgNO3 solution is
(A) 1.1 1011
(B) 1.1 1010
(C) 1.1 1012
(D) 1.1 109
27. (B)
ZZX 2Ag + (aq) + CrO 42 (aq)
Ag 2 CrO 4(s) YZZ

K sp

2s + 0.1
= 0.1
2
= (0.1) s = 1.1 1012

s = 1.1 1010 M
28. In the following reaction, the product(s) formed is (are)

(A) P (major)

(B) Q (minor)

(C) R (minor)

(D) S (major)

28. (B), (D)


O

O
CCl2

CH3

..

CCl2

CH3

OH
CHO

OH

CH3
O

CHO

H 2O

CH3
major

CH3

HC3

CHCl2
(minor)

17

CHCl2

(18) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

SECTION 2 : (Paragraph Type)


This section contains 4 paragraphs each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Eight
questions relate to four paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question of
a paragraph has only one correct answer among the four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)..
Using the following Paragraph , Solve Q. No. 29 and 30

An aqueous solution of a mixture of two inorganic salts, when treated with dilute HCl, gave a
precipitate (P) and a filtrate (Q). The precipitate P was found to dissolve in hot water. The
filtrate (Q) remained unchanged, when treated with H2S in a dilute mineral acid medium.
However, it gave a precipitate (R) with H2S in an ammoniacal medium. The precipitate R
gave a coloured solution (S), when treated with H2O2 in an aqueous NaOH medium.
29. The precipitate P contains
(B) Hg 22+
(A) Pb2+

(C) Ag+

(D) Hg2+

29. (A)
Pb +2 + HCl
PbCl2
soluble in hot water
(p)

30. The coloured solution S contains


(B) CuSO4
(C) ZnSO4
(A) Fe2(SO4)3
+2
Pb + HCl
PbCl2
soluble in hot water

(D) Na2CrO4

(p)

30. (D)
2 Cr(OH)3 + 4NaOH + 3[O]
2Na 2 CrO4 + 5H 2 O
(R)

(S)

Using the following Paragraph , Solve Q. No. 31 and 32

P and Q are isomers of dicarboxylic acid C4H4O4. Both decolorize Br2 / H2O. On heating , P
forms the cyclic anhydride.
Upon treatment with dilute alkaline KMnO4 , P as well as Q could produce one or more than
one from S, T and U.

31. Compounds formed from P and Q are , respectively


(A) Optically active S and optically active pair (T, U)
(B) Optically inactive S and optically inactive pair (T, U)
(C) Optically active pair (T, U) and optically active S
(D) Optically inactive pair (T, U) and optically inactive S.

18

IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (19)
31. (B)
O
COOH

H
C

(P)
(cis)

COOH

H O

C
H

O
cyclic anhydride

COOH

H
C
C
HOOC

H
(Q)
COOH

dil. KMnO 4
P

H
H

OH
OH
COOH
(S)
(meso)

COOH

COOH
dil. KMnO

4
Q

H
HO

HO
OH
+
H
H

COOH
COOH
(U)
(T)
32. In the following reaction sequences V and W are , respectively

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

19

H
OH

(20) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

32. (A)
O

(Q)

H 2 / Ni

CH2

C
O (V)

CH2 C
O

O
C CH 2 CH 2 COOH

anhy. AlCl3
+ (V)

Zn-Hg/conc.HCl
CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 COOH
H PO

3 4

(W)

Using the following Paragraph , Solve Q. No. 33 and 34

A fixed mass m of a gas is subjected to transformation of states from K to L to M to N and


back to K as shown in the figure

33. The succeeding operations that enable this transformation of states are
(A) Heating, cooling, heating , cooling
(C) Cooling , heating cooling, heating
(C) Heating, cooling, cooling, heating
(D) Cooling, heating, heating, cooling
33. (C)
Factual
34. The pair of isochoric processes among the transformation of states is
(A) K to L and L to M
(B) L to M and N to K
(C) L to M and M to N
(D) M to N and N to K
34. (B)
Factual
Using the following Paragraph , Solve Q. No. 35 and 36

The reactions of Cl2 gas with cold dilute and hot concentrated NaOH in water give
sodium salts of two (different) oxoacids of chlorine, P and Q respectively. The Cl2 gas reacts
with SO2 gas , in presence of charcoal, to give a product R. R reacts with white phosphorus to
give a compound S. On hydrolysis, S gives an oxoacid of phosphorus , T.

20

IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (21)
35. P and Q respectively, are the sodium salts of
(A) hypochlorus and chloric acids
(B) hypoclorus and chlorus acids
(C) chloric and perchloric acids
(D) chloric and hypochlorus acids
35. (A)
Cold
2NaOH + Cl2
NaCl + NaOCl(P) + H 2O
hot
6NaOH + 3Cl2
5NaCl + NaClO3 (Q) + 3H 2O

36. R, S and T , respectively are


(A) SO2Cl2 , PCl5 and H3PO4
(C) SOCl2 , PCl3 and H3PO2
36. (A)
SO 2 + Cl2
SO 2Cl2 (R)

(B) SO2Cl2 , PCl3 and H3PO3


(D) SOCl2 , PCl5 and H3PO4

P4 + 10SO 2Cl2
4PCl5 + 10 SO 2
PCl5 + 4H 2O
H3PO 4 + 5HCl

SECTION 3 : (Matching List Type)


This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching lists. The
codes for the lists have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct
37. An aqueous solution of X is added slowly to an aqueous solution of Y as shown in List I.
The variation in conductivity of these reactions is given in List II. Match List I with List II
and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

P.
Q.
R.
S.

List I
(C2 H5 )3 + CH3COOH
X
Y
KI (0.1 M) + AgNO3 (0.01 M)
X
Y
CH3C + KOH
Y
X
NaOH + HI
Y
X

Codes :
P
(A)
3
(B)
4
(C)
2
(D)
1
37. (A)
Factual

Q
4
3
3
4

R
2
2
4
3

1.
2.
3.
4.

List II
Conductivity decreases and then increases

Conductivity decreases and then does not


change much
Conductivity increases and then does not
change much
Conductivity does not change much and then
increases

S
1
1
1
2

38. The standard reduction potential data at 25 C is given below .


E (Fe3+ , Fe2+) = + 0.77 V;
E (Fe2+ , Fe) = 0.44 V
E (Cu2+ , Cu) = + 0.34 V
E (Cu+ , Cu) = + 0.52 V
E [O2(g) + 4H+ + 4e 2H2O] = + 1.23 V;

21

(22) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

E [O2(g) + 2H2O + 4e 4OH] = + 0.40 V


E (Cr3+ , Cr) = 0.74 V ;
E (Cr2+ , Cr) = 0.91 V
Match E of the redox pair in List I with the values given in List II and select the correct
answer using the code given below the lists :
List I

P.
Q.

List II

3+

E (Fe , Fe)

4H + + 4OH )

E (4H 2O

R. E (Cu2+ + Cu 2Cu+)
S. E (Cr3+ , Cr2+)
Codes :
P
4
2
1
3

Q
1
3
2
4

R
2
4
3
1

1.
2.

0.18 V
0.4 V

3.
4.

0.04 V
0.83 V

S
3
1
4
2

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
38. (D)
Use formula n 3F E30 = n1F E10 + n 2 F E 02
E30 =

n1E10 + n 2 E 0
n3

39. The unbalanced chemical reactions given in List I show missing reagent or condition (?)
which are provided in List II. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
the code given below the lists :
List I

List II

P.

PbO 2 + H 2SO 4
PbSO 4 + O 2 + other product

Q.

Na 2S2O3 + H 2O
NaHSO 4 + other product

R.

N 2 H 4
N 2 + other product

S.

XeF2
Xe + other product

Codes :

P
4
3
1
3

Q
2
2
4
4

R
3
1
2
2

S
1
4
3
1

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
39. (D)
warm
P PbO 2 + H 2SO 4
PbSO 4 + O 2 + H 2O
Cl2
Q Na 2S2 O3 + H 2O
NaHSo 4 + NaCl + HCl
I2
R N 2 H 4
N 2 + 4HI
NO
S XeF2

Xe + 2NOF

22

1.

NO

2.

I2

3.

Warm

4.

Cl2

IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (23)
40. Match the chemical conversions in List I with the appropriate reagents in List II and select
the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List I

P.

1.

List II
(i) Hg(OAc)2 ,; (ii) NaBH4

Q.

2.

NaOEt

R.

3.

Et Br

S.

4.

(i) BH3 ; (ii) H2O2 / NaOH

Codes :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

40. (A)

P = 2, Q = 3, R = 1, S = 4

PART III : MATHEMATICS


SECTION 1 : (One or more options correct Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONE or MORE are correct.
41. Let be a complex cube root of unity with 1 and P = [pij] be a n n matrix with
pij = i + j. Then P2 0, when n =
(A) 57
(B) 55
(C) 58
(D) 56
41. (B), (C), (D)
P2 = O only when n is multiple of 3.
2 1 2 1
0 0 0

2
2
Ex :
1 1 = 0 0 0

2
0 0 0
1 2 1

P2 0, when n = 55, 56, 58.
42. The function f(x) = 2 | x | + | x + 2 | | | x + 2 | 2 | x | | has a local minimum or a local
maximum at x =
2
2
(A) 2
(B)
(C) 2
(D)
3
3

23

(24) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

42. (A), (B)


Given, f(x) = 2|x| + |x + 2| ||x + 2| 2|x||

Sign scheme of |x + 2| 2|x| is

ve

ve

+ve
2/3

2/3

2
x>2
3
f(x) = 2 |x + 2|

For x <

= 2|x + 2|,

8
8/3

2
For x 2
3
f (x) = 4|x|

Now, f(x) = 4 |x|,

y
8
8/3

2
x2
3
2
x< x>2
3

2 2/3

y
8
8/3

2 2/3

2
The point of maxima or minima are 2, , 0.
3
3 +i
1

43. Let w =
and P = {wn : n = 1, 2, 3, }. Further H1 = z : Re z > and
2
2

is the set of all complex numbers. If z1 P H1,


H 2 = z : Re z < , where
2

z2 P H2 and O represents the origin, then z1 O z2 =


2
5

(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)
3
6
2
6
43. (C), (D)
3 i

=
= cos + i sin
+
2 2
6
6
n
n
n = cos + i sin
(by De Moivres Theorem)
6
6
n 1
If z1 P H1, then cos >
6 2
which is true for n = 0, 1, 11.

24

IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (25)

n 1
If z2 P H2, then cos <
, which is true for n = 5, 6, 7.
2
6

3 1
,
3 1

2 2
,

2 2

(1, 0)

(1, 0)
3 1
,

2
2

3 1
,

2
2

z1 oz2 can be

2
5
or
.
3
6

44. If 3x = 4x1, then x =


2 log 3 2
2
(B)
(A)
2 log 3 2 1
2 log 2 3
44. (A), (B), (C)
3x = 4x1
x log 2 3 = (x1) log 2 4
x log 2 3 = 2x 2
x (2 log 2 3 ) = 2

x=

2
2 log 2 3

(B)

1
1 log 4 3

(C)

(C)

1
1 log 4 3

(D)

2 log 2 3
2 log 2 3 1

3x = 4x1
x log 4 3 = x 1
x=

3x = 4x1
x log 3 3 = (x 1) log 3 4
x = (x 1) log3 4 = (x 9) 2. log3 2
x=

2.log 3 2
2.log 3 2 1

45. Two lines

L1 : x = 5,

(A)
y
z
y
z
=
and L 2 : x = ,
=
3 2
1 2

are coplanar. Then

can take values (s)


(A)1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
45. (A), (D)
x 5
y
Z
L1 :
=
=
Line L1 passes (x1, y1, z1) (5, 0, 0)
2
0
3
x
y
z
=
=
Line L2 passes (x2, y2, z3) (, 0, 0)
L2 :
1
0
2
As Line co-planar Shortest distance = 0

25

(26) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

x 2 x1

y 2 y1 z 2 z1
m1
m2

1
2

0
0

=0

n1
n2
0

( 5) ( 4) ( 1) = 0

3 2 = 0
1 2

= 1, 4, 5
1
46. In a triangle PQR, P is the largest angle and cos P = . Further the incircle of the triangle
3
touches the sides PQ, QR and RP at N, L and M respectively, such that
the lengths of
PN, QL and RM are consecutive even integers. Then possible length(s) of the side(s) of
the triangle is (are)
(A)16
(B) 18
(C) 24
(D) 22

46. (B), (D)

cos p =

(4x + 4) 2 + (4x + 2) 2 (4x + 6) 2


2(4x + 4) (4x + 2)

2x

1
16x 2 16
=
3 16(x + 1) (2x + 1)

2x
2x + 4

2x + 2

1
x2 1
=
3
2x 2 + 3x + 1
2
3x 3 = 2x2 + 3x + 1
3x2 3x 4 = 0
x = 4 or 1. Hence x = 4
So, possible lengths of sides are 18, 22.

2x + 2

2x + 4

47. For a R (the set of all real numbers), a 1,

(1

lim

( n + 1)

a 1

+ 2a + .... + n a

( na + 1) + ( na + 2 ) + ... ( na + n )

Then a =
(A) 5

(B) 7

(C)

1
60
15
2

(D)

17
2

47. (B), (D)

Let, L = lim

1a + 2a + ...... + n a

( n + 1)a 1 ( ( na + 1) + (na + 2) + ... + (na + n) )

a
1 a 2 a
n
n + + ... +
n
n n
= lim
n(n + 1)
n
( n + 1)a 1 n 2a +

2
1
1 n r a
a
x a dx
n n

a
n
n r = 1 n = lim
0
= lim

a
1
n +1
n
n + 1 n ( n + 1)
na +
( n + 1)a 1 n na +

2
a

26

IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (27)

Using limit of a sum we get


1
n

r
n
r =1

= x a dx
0

1
1
1
n
a + 1 = lim
a +1
L = lim
a

1
a
1

1 1
n
1
+
n n + 1
n
1
( ) na +
a+ +
1
+

2 2n
2
n
1
2
Given
L=
=
60
(a + 1) ( 2a + 1)
a

(a + 1) (2a + 1) = 120
2a2 + 3a 119 = 0
17

a = 7 or a =
2
Answer is (B), (D)
48. Circle(s) touching xaxis at a distance 3 from the origin and having an intercept of
length 2 7 on yaxis is (are)
(B) x2 + y2 6x + 7y + 9 = 0
(A) x2 + y2 6x + 8y + 9 = 0
2
2
(D) x2 + y2 6x 7y + 9 = 0
(C) x + y 6x 8y + 9 = 0
48. (A), (C)
Let centre, C = (3, )

and BC = 2 2 c = 2 7
2 c = 7
Agai 2 = 2 + 9 c c = 9

C
(1)
(2)

From (1), 2 9 = 7
=4
Eq is x2 + y2 6x 8y + 9 = 0

B
0

SECTION 2 : (Paragraph Type)


This section contains 4 paragraphs each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Eight
questions relate to four paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question of
a paragraph has only one correct answer among the four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)..
Paragraph for Question 49 and 50

Let f : [0, 1] R (the set of all real numbers) be a function. Suppose the function f is twice
differentiable, f(0) = f(1) = 0 and satisfies f '' ( x ) 2f ' ( x ) + f ( x ) e x , x [ 0,1] .
49. Which of the following is true for 0 < x < 1?
1
1
1
(A) 0 < f ( x ) <
(B) < f ( x ) <
(C) < f ( x ) < 1
2
2
4
49. (D)

27

(D) < f ( x ) < 0

(28) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

50. If the function ex f(x) assumes its minimum in the interval [0, 1] at x =

1
, which of the
4

following is true?
1
3
1
(B) f ' ( x ) > f ( x ) , 0 < x <
<x<
4
4
4
1
3
(C) f ' ( x ) < f ( x ) , 0 < x <
(D) f ' ( x ) < f ( x ) , < x < 1
4
4
50. (C)
g(x) = ex (f(x) f(x))
Let g(x) = ex f(x)
1
If x = is point of minima, then
4
1
ex (f(x) f(x)) < 0
x 0,
4
1
f(x) < f(x)
x 0,
4
Paragraph for Question 51 and 52

(A) f ' ( x ) < f ( x ) ,

Let PQ be a focal chord of the parabola y2 = 4ax. The tangents to the parabola at P and Q
meet at a point lying on the line y = 2x + a, a > 0.
51. Length of chord PQ is
(A) 7a
(B) 5a
(C) 2a
(D) 3a
51. (B)
P at12 , 2at1
P+T
Given point T lies on y = 2x + a
a(t1 + t2) = 2at1t2 + a
T ( at1t 2 , a ( t1 + t 2 ) )
(as focal chord t1t2 = 1)
t1 + t2 = 2 + 1
t1 + t2 = 1

( t1 t 2 )

So, PQ =

( t1 + t 2 )2 4t1t 2

a 2 t12 t 22

(t

2
1

=a

t 22

+ ( 2at1 2at 2 )
2

+ 4 ( t1 t 2 ) = a

Q at 2 2 , 2at 2

( (1) 5 )

+ 4( 5)

= a 5 + 20 = 5a

52. If chord PQ subtends an angle at the vertex of y2 = 4ax, then tan =


2
2
2
2
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
7
7
5
5
3
3
3
3
52. (D)
2
2 at1
= m1
Slope of OP =
=
2
t1
at1
2
Slope of OQ =
= m2
t2

tan

m1 m 2
1 + m1m 2

2 2

t1 t 2
=
2 2
1+
t1 t 2

= 2

as is 2nd quadrant.

28

t 2 t1
t1t 2 + 4

= 2

5
1 + 4

2 5
3

IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (29)
Paragraph for Question 53 and 54

Let S = S1 S2 S3 , where
z 1+ 3 i

S1 = {z C : z < 4} , S2 = z C : Im
> 0 and

1 3 i
S3 = {z C : Re z > 0}
53. Area of S =
10
(A)
3
53. (B)
S1 = {z |z| < 4}

(B)

20
3

(C)

16
3

(D)

y
(0, 4)

B
(4, 0)
A

C
(4, 0)

D (0, 4)
y

z 1 + 3 i
S2 = z c : Im
> 0
1 3 i

Let z = x + iy

(x 1) + i y + 3
z 1+ 3 i
(x + iy) 1 + 3 i

(1 + 3 i)
=
=
1 3 i
(1 + 3 i)
1 3 i
1 3 i

{(x 1)

} {

3 (y + 3) + i

3(x 1) + (y + 3

z 1+ 3 i
3x+y
Im
=
4
1 3 i
z 1+ 3 i
Im
> 0

1
3
i

3x+y
>0
4
3x+y>0
O

29

32
3

(30) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

S3 = {z c, Re(z) > 0}
x>0

S1 S2 S3

y
(0, 4)

x2 + y2 = 42

(4, 0)
/3

(2, 2 3 )
y+

Area of sector is = (4)2

3x=0

5 / 6 16 5
=
2
6 2

20
3

min

54. z S 1 3i z =
2 3
(A)
2
54. (C)
min |1 3i z|
zs

(B)

2+ 3
2

(C)

3 3
2

|1 3i z| = |z (3i 1)|
= |z (1 + 3i)|
3 3
(Perpendicular distance is minimum distance)
PM =
2
y
(0, 4)

(4, 0)
x

M
P(1, 3)

(2, 2 3 )

30

(D)

3+ 3
2

IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (31)
Paragraph for Question 55 and 56

A box B1 contains 1 white ball, 3 red balls and 2 black balls. Another box B2 contains 2 white
balls, 3 red balls and 4 black balls. A third box B3 contains 3 white balls, 4 red balls and 5
black balls.
55. If 1 ball is drawn from each of the boxes B1, B2 and B3, the probability that all 3 drawn
balls are of the same colour is
82
90
558
566
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
648
648
648
648
55. (A)
1W
2W
3W
E1 = one white from each box
E2 = one red from each box
3R
3R
4R
E3 = one black from each box
2B
4B
5B
B1
B2
B3

E1, E2, E3 are mutually exclusive events


P(E) = P(E1) + P(E2) + P(E3)
1 2 3 3 3 4 2 4 5 82
= + + =
6 9 12 6 9 12 6 9 12 648
56. If 2 balls are drawn (without replacement) from a randomly selected box and one of the
balls is white and the other ball is red, the probability that these 2 balls are drawn from
box B2 is
116
126
65
55
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
181
181
181
181
56. (D)

P(B1) =

1
3

P(B2) =
P(B3) =

1
3

E 1
P =
B1 5

1
3

E 1
P =
B2 6

E 2
P =
B3 11

B
P 2
E

1 1

3 6
=
1 1 1 1 1 2
+ +
3 5 3 6 3 11
55
=
181

31

(32) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

SECTION 3 : (Matching List Type)


This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching lists. The
codes for the lists have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct
57. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
lists :

List I
Volume of parallelepiped determined by vectors a, b and c is 2.
Then the volume of the parallelepiped determined by vectors
2 a b ,3 b c and c a is

) (

Volume of parallelepiped determined by vectors a, b and c is 5.


Then the volume of the parallelepiped determined by vectors
3 a + b , b + c and 2 c + a is

)(

Area of a triangle with adjacent sides determined by vectors


a and b is 20. Then the area of the triangle with adjacent sides

List II
1.

100

2.

30

3.

24

4.

60

determined by vectors 2a + 3b and a b is


Area of a parallelogram with adjacent sides determined by vectors
a and b is 30. Then the area of the parallelogram with adjacent

sides determined by vectors a + b and a is

Codes :
P
4
2
3
1

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Q
2
3
4
4

R
3
1
1
3

S
1
4
2
2

57. (C)
(P) Given volume of parallelepiped formed by a, b,c is equal to 2
[a bc ] = 2
(1)
volume of parallelepiped formed by 2 ( a b ) , 3 ( b c ) and c a is given by

v = 2 ( a b ) , 3( b c ) , c a

or v = 6 [ a b c ]
v = 24

p3

(Q) given [ a b c ] = 5
volume of parallelepiped formed by
3 ( a + b ) , b + c , and 2 ( c + a ) is given by
v = 3 ( a + b ) , b + c, 2 ( c + a )

v = 6 a + b, b + c, c + a
v = 12 [ a b c ] v = 60
Q4

32

IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (33)

(R) given

1
a b = 20
2
a b = 40

(1)

Area of triangle with adjacent sides


( 2a + 3b ) and ( a b ) is given as

=
=

) (

1
2a + 3b a b
2
1
5 a b = 100
2

R1
(S) given a b = 30

area of parallelogram with sides


a + b and a is given as
area = ( a + b ) a
= b a = 30
S2
P Q R S
3 4 1 2
Answer is (C)

58. Consider the lines L1 :

x 1 y z + 3
x4 y+3 z+3
and the planes
=
=
, L2 :
=
=
2
1
1
1
1
2

P1 : 7x + y + 2z = 3, P2 : 3x + 5y 6z = 4. Let ax + by + cz = d be the equation of


the plane passing through the point of intersection of lines L1 and L2, and
perpendicular to planes P1 and P2.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given
below the lists :
P
Q
R
S
Codes :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
58. (A)

List I
a=
b=
c=
d=
P
3
1
3
2

List II
1. 13
2. 3
3. 1
4. 2
Q
2
3
2
4

R
4
4
1
1

S
1
2
4
3

x 1
y
z+3
=
=
=t
2
1
1
x4
y+3
z+3
=
=
=s
and
L2 :
1
1
2
any point on L1 is M1 (2t + 1, t, t3)
and any point on L2 is M2 (s + 4, s 3, 2s 3)
Let

L1 :

33

(34) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

at the point on integration


2t + 1 = s + 4
t = s 3
t 3 = 2s 3
Solving (1), (2) and (3) we get
t = 2 and s = 1
M1 M2 (5, 2, 1)

(1)
(2)
(3)

Also if the plane is perpendicular to P1and P2 then


7a + b + 2c = 0
(4)
and
3a + 5b 6c = 0
(5)

b = 3a; c = 2a
hence the plane becomes,
ax 3ay 2az = d
(6)
using M1 or M2 in (6) we get
5a + 6a + 2a = d
d = 13a
the plane becomes
ax 3ay 2az = 13a
or x 3y 2z = 13
(a 0)
(P)
a=1
P3
(Q)
b = 3
Q2
(R)
c = 2
R4
(S)
d = 13
S1

P Q R S
3 2 4 1

59. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below
the lists :
List I
P

)
)

(
(

List II
12

1
1

+
cos
tan
y
y
sin
tan
y
1
+ y 4 takes value
y2

1
1

cot sin y + tan sin y

If cos x + cos y + cos z = 0 = sin x + sin y + sin z then possible


xy
value of cos
is
2

If cos x cos 2x + sin x sin 2x sec x = cos x sin 2x sec x


4

+ cos + x cos 2x
4

then possible value of sec x is

))

If cot sin 1 1 x 2 = sin tan 1 x 6 , x 0 ,


then possible value of x is

34

1.

2.

1 5
2 3

3.

1
2

4.

IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (35)

Codes :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

P
4
4
3
3

Q
3
3
4
4

R
1
2
2
1

S
2
1
1
2

59. (B)

(P) Now,

(
(

)
)

(
(

cos tan 1 y + y sin tan 1 y


1
y 2 cot sin 1 y + tan sin 1 y

1/2

+ y4

1/2

1
y

1
1
cos cos

y
sin
sin
+

2
2
1

1+ y
1+ y

4

y
+

y2

y
1
1 y2
+ tan tan
cot cot 1


y
1
y

1/2

1
y

2
1 1 + y2

1+ y
+ y4
= 2

y 1 y2

2
y

1
y

P4

=1

(Q) From the given equations we have


cos z = (cos x + cos y)
(1)
sin z = (sin x + sin y)
(2)
Squaring and adding (1) and (2) we get
1 = cos2x + cos2y + 2 cos x cos y + sin2x + sin2y + 2 sin x sin y
2 + 2 cos (x y) = 1
1
cos (x y) =
2
1
xy
2 cos 2
1 =
2
2
1
xy
cos
=
2
2
Q3
(R) The given equation can be simplified as

2sin sin x cos 2x = sin 2x sec x (cos x sin x)


4
= sin 2x sec x (cos x sin x)
2 sin x cos 2x
1
sin 2x cos 2x

= sin 2x ( cos x sin x )


2

35

(36) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

cos 2x

sin 2x
( cos x sin x ) = 0
2

2
2
cos x sin x

sin 2 x
( cos x sin x ) = 0
2

cos x + sin x
sin 2x (cos x sin x)
1 = 0
2



sin 2x ( cos x sin x ) sin x + 1 = 0
4

x=
sec x = 2
4
R2
(S) Now,

cot ( sin 1 1 x 2 )

= cot cot 1

1 x2

x
=
1 x2

x 6
= sin sin 1

2
+
1
6x

cot ( sin 1 1 x 2 )

and sin tan 1 x 6

))

sin ( tan 1 ( x 6 ) )

x 6

(1)

(2)

1 + 6x 2

From (1) and (2) we get


x
1 x2

Solving this we
or

x =

x 6
1 + 6x
x2 =

( x 0)

5
12

1 5
2 3

S1
P Q R S
4 3 2 1

60. A line L : y = mx + 3 meets y axis at E (0, 3) and the arc of the parabola
y2 = 16x, 0 y 6 at the point F(x0, y0). The tangent to the parabola at F(x0, y0)
intersects the yaxis at G(0, y1). The slope m of the line L is chosen such that the
area of the triangle EFG has a local maximum.
Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the code given below
the lists :

36

IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (37)

List I

List II
1
2

m=

1.

Q
R
S

Maximum area of EFG is


y0 =
y1 =

2. 4
3. 2
4. 1

Codes :
(A)

P
4

Q
1

R
2

S
3

(B)

(C)

(D)

60. (A)

8x E
(0, y1) = 0, 0
y0 G

F(x0, y0) = (1, 4)

y2 = 16x
Tangent at P(x0, y0) to y2 = 16x is yy0 = 2 4(x + x0)
8x
S0, G = 0, 0
y0

As F (x0, y0) lies on

y2 = 16x
(1)

y02 = 16x0

1
EG x0
2

1 8x 0 y02
3

2
y0 16

1
y
[3y0 8x 0 ] 0
2
16

1
[6y02 y30 ]
64

(2)

37

(38) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

1
[12y0 3y02 ]
64

= 0

3y0 (4 y0) = 0

y0 = 0 or y0 = 4

y0 = 4

1
[12 6y0 ] < 0
64

local maximum when y0 = 4

So, put in (2) y0 = 4,


max
From (1),

1
[6 42 43 ]
64

1
[6 4]
4

y02 = 16x0
16 = 16x0
x0 = 1

y1 =
Line GF,

8x 0
y0

8.1
4

=2

y3
43
=
x
1 0
y =x+3

So, slope m = 1
Hence, (A) option correct.

38

1
2

IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (39)

39

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