MCAT Full Length1

01 MCAT FL Test1
06/26/2003
05:29 PM
Page 1
Physical Sciences
Time: 100 Minutes
Questions 177
DO NOT BEGIN THIS SECTION UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.
01 MCAT FL Test1
06/26/2003
05:29 PM
Page 2
PHYSICAL SCIENCES
DIRECTIONS: Most of the questions in the Physical
Sciences test are organized into groups, with a
descriptive passage preceding each group of questions. Study the passage, then select the single best
answer to each question in the group. Some of the
questions are not based on a descriptive passage; you
must also select the best answer to these questions. If
you are unsure of the best answer, eliminate the
choices that you know are incorrect, then select an
answer from the choices that remain. Indicate your
selection by blackening the corresponding circle on
your answer sheet. A periodic table is provided below
for your use with the questions.
PERIODIC TABLE OF THE ELEMENTS
1
H
1.0
2
He
4.0
3
Li
6.9
4
Be
9.0
5
B
10.8
6
C
12.0
7
N
14.0
8
O
16.0
9
F
19.0
10
Ne
20.2
11
Na
23.0
12
Mg
24.3
13
Al
27.0
14
Si
28.1
15
P
31.0
16
S
32.1
17
Cl
35.5
18
Ar
39.9
19
K
39.1
20
Ca
40.1
21
Sc
45.0
22
Ti
47.9
23
V
50.9
24
Cr
52.0
25
Mn
54.9
26
Fe
55.8
27
Co
58.9
28
Ni
58.7
29
Cu
63.5
30
Zn
65.4
31
Ga
69.7
32
Ge
72.6
33
As
74.9
34
Se
79.0
35
Br
79.9
36
Kr
83.8
37
Rb
85.5
38
Sr
87.6
39
Y
88.9
40
Zr
91.2
41
Nb
92.9
42
Mo
95.9
43
Tc
(98)
44
Ru
101.1
45
Rh
102.9
46
Pd
106.4
47
Ag
107.9
48
Cd
112.4
49
In
114.8
50
Sn
118.7
51
Sb
121.8
52
Te
127.6
53
I
126.9
54
Xe
131.3
55
Cs
132.9
56
Ba
137.3
57
La *
138.9
72
Hf
178.5
73
Ta
180.9
74
W
183.9
75
Re
186.2
76
Os
190.2
77
Ir
192.2
78
Pt
195.1
79
Au
197.0
80
Hg
200.6
81
Tl
204.4
82
Pb
207.2
83
Bi
209.0
84
Po
(209)
85
At
(210)
86
Rn
(222)
87
Fr
(223)
88
Ra
226.0
89
Ac
227.0
104
Rf
(261)
105
Ha
(262)
106
Unh
(263)
107
Uns
(262)
108
Uno
(265)
109
Une
(267)
58
Ce
140.1
59
Pr
140.9
60
Nd
144.2
61
Pm
(145)
62
Sm
150.4
63
Eu
152.0
64
Gd
157.3
65
Tb
158.9
66
Dy
162.5
67
Ho
164.9
68
Er
167.3
69
Tm
168.9
70
Yb
173.0
71
Lu
175.0
90
Th
232.0
91
Pa
(231)
92
U
238.0
93
Np
(237)
94
Pu
(244)
95
Am
(243)
96
Cm
(247)
97
Bk
(247)
98
Cf
(251)
99
Es
(252)
100
Fm
(257)
101
Md
(258)
102
No
(259)
103
Lr
(260)
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

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01 MCAT FL Test1
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Page 3
The average distance a particle travels between collisions is known as the mean free path l. Intuitively, the
mean free path (mfp) could be expected to be larger for
gases at low pressure, since there is a lot of space between
particles. Similarly, the mfp should be larger when the gas
particles are small. The following expression for the mfp
shows this to be correct.
Passage I (Questions 16)

The equation of state of an ideal gas is given by the
ideal gas law:
PV = nRT
where P is the pressure, V is the volume, n is the number
of moles of gas, R is the ideal gas constant, and T is the
temperature of the gas. The gas particles in a container are
constantly moving at various speeds. These speeds are
characterized by the Maxwell shown in the figure below.
kT
l=
2s2P
Equation 4
fraction of molecules
In this equation, s is the atomic diameter (typically on

the order of 108), k is the Boltzmann constant, and P is the
pressure.
In addition to colliding with one another, gas particles
also collide with the walls of their container. If the container wall has a pinhole that is small compared to the mfp
of the gas, and a pressure differential exists across the wall,
the particles will effuse (or escape) through this pinhole
without disturbing the Maxwellian distribution of the particles. The rate of effusion can be described by:
speed
neff
A(P P1)
=
2T
MR
t
If two particles collide, their velocities change. However,

if the gas is in thermal equilibrium, the velocity distribution
of the gas as a whole will remain unchanged by the collision.
Equation 5
The average kinetic energy (E) of a gas particle is

given by:
E = (1/2) mu2
where neff is the number of moles of effusing particles, A

is the area of the pinhole, P and P1 are the pressures on the
inside and outside of the container wall respectively, and
P > P 1.
Equation 1
where m is the mass of one particle and u is the root mean
square speed (rms speed) of the gas particles: (i.e., u =
[(v12 + v22 + ... + vn2)/N]1/2, where N is the number of gas
particles; this is different from the average speed). For an
ideal gas, the kinetic energy of all the particles is:
Etotal = (3/2)nRT
Equation 2
1. Which of the following gives values for both standard temperature and pressure?
where n is the number of moles of gas. Combining these

equations gives:
A.
B.
C.
D.
u = (3RT/M)1/2
Equation 3
273 K and 760 Torr

273 K and 1 atm
0C and 760 mm Hg
All of the above
where M is the molar mass of the gas particles.

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2. If a pinhole were made in a container containing a

mixture of equal amounts of H2, O2, N2 and CO2,
which gas would have the fastest effusion rate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5. The average kinetic energy of an ideal gas can be

directly related to the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
H2
O2
N2
CO2
6. Which of the following will have the smallest root

mean square speed at 298K?
3. The mean free path of a gas will be longer if the :

A.
B.
C.
D.
rms speed.
temperature.
Boltzmann constant.
universal gas constant.
pressure of the gas is increased.

number of gas particles per unit volume is
increased.
distance between collisions is decreased.
pressure of the gas is decreased.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cl2(g)
O2(g)
CO2(g)
N2(g)
4. What is the relative rate of effusion for a mixture of

two noble gases, GA and GB, which escape through
the same pinhole?
A.
B.
PA
MB

PB
MA
C.

D.
PB
MB

PA
MA
MB

MA

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7. If the defibrillator has a capacitance of 10 F, how

much charge will build up on the two plates?
Passage II (Questions 711)

The periodic beating of the heart is controlled by electrical impulses that originate within the cardiac muscle itself.
These pulses travel to the sinoatrial node and from there to
the atria and the ventricles, causing the cardiac muscles to
contract. If a current of a few hundred milliamperes passes
through the heart, it will interfere with this natural system,
and may cause the heart to beat erratically. This condition is
known as ventricular fibrillation, and is life-threatening. If,
however, a larger current of about 5 to 6 amps is passed
through the heart, a sustained ventricular contraction will
occur. The cardiac muscle cannot relax, and the heart stops
beating. If at this point the muscle is allowed to relax, a regular heartbeat will usually resume.
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.08 C
1.6 103 C
6.25 108 C
1.25 109 C
8. The resistance between the two electrodes when

placed apart on the patients chest is 1,000 when
wetting gel is used. What is the initial current through
the patients heart, assuming that all the current takes
this path?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The large current required to stop the heart is supplied

by a device known as a defibrillator. A schematic diagram
of a defibrillator is shown below. This device is essentially
a heavy-duty capacitor capable of storing large amounts
of energy. To charge the capacitor quickly (in 1 to 3 seconds), a large DC voltage must be applied to the plates of
the capacitor. This is achieved using a step-up transformer,
which creates an output voltage that is much larger than
the input voltage. The transformer used in this defibrillator
has a step-up ratio of 1:50.
0.16 A
4A
6.25 A
8A
9. The plates of the capacitor are originally separated by

a vacuum. If a dielectric > 1 is introduced between
the plates of the capacitor, and the capacitor is
allowed to charge up, which of the following statements is/are true?
I. The capacitance of the capacitor will
increase.
II. The voltage across the capacitor plates will
increase.
III. The charge stored on the capacitor will
increase.
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I and III only
The AC voltage that is obtained from the transformer

must then be converted to DC voltage in order to charge
the capacitor. This is accomplished using a diode, which
allows current flow in one direction only. Once the capacitor is fully charged, the charge remains stored until the
switch is moved to position B and the plates are placed on
the patients chest. To cut down the resistance between the
patients body and the defibrillator, the electrodes are covered with a wetting gel before use. Care must be taken to
insure that the patient is not in electrical contact with the
ground while the defibrillator is in use.

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10. Why is it important to insure that the patient is not in

electrical contact with the ground while the defibrillator is in use?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Contact with the ground will decrease the resistance across the patients body.
The doctor administering the treatment will be
in greater danger of receiving an electric shock
if the patient is in electrical contact with the
ground.
Contact with the ground will cause a smaller
current to pass through the patients heart.
The patient receiving the treatment will be in
greater danger of receiving burns due to the high
current density if he is in electrical contact with
the ground.
11. If a dielectric was inserted between the plates of the

capacitor in the defibrillator when the switch is in
position A:
A.
B.
C.
D.
the energy
increase.
the energy
decrease.
the electric
increase.
the electric
decrease.
stored in the capacitor would

stored in the capacitor would
field between the plates would
field between the plates would

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Page 7
Due to the buffering effect of the soils cationexchange capacity, just measuring the soil solutions pH
will not indicate how much base is needed to change the
soil pH. In another experiment, measured amounts of acid
and base were added to 10-gram samples of well-mixed
soil that had been collected from various locations in a
field. The volumes of the samples were equalized by
adding water. The results were recorded in Figure 2.
Passage III (Questions 1218)

Many nutrients required by plants exist in soil as basic
cations: Mg2+, Mn2+, and Ca2+. A soils cation-exchange
capacity is a measure of its ability to adsorb these basic
cations as well as exchangeable hydrogen and aluminum
ions. The cation-exchange capacity of soil is derived from
two sources: small clay particles called micelles consisting
of alternating layers of alumina and silica crystals, and
organic colloids.
Replacement of A13+ and Si4+ by other cations of lower

valence creates a net negative charge within the inner layers
of the micelles. This is called the soils permanent charge.
For example, replacement of an atom of aluminum by calcium within a section where the net charge was previously
zero, as shown below, produces a net charge of 1, to which
other cations can become adsorbed.
O2Al3+OH
pH
6
4
0.8
0.4
meq acid
0.4
0.8
meq base
O2CA2+OH
Figure 2
Figure 1
A pH-dependent charge develops when hydrogen dissociates from hydroxyl moieties on the outer surfaces of
the clay micelles. This leaves negatively-charged oxygen
atoms to which basic cations may adsorb. Likewise, a large
pH-dependent charge develops when hydrogen dissociates
from carboxylic acids and phenols in organic matter.
12. Which column(s) in Table 1 represent(s) the permanent charge of the soil micelles?
A.
B.
C.
D.
In most clays, permanent charges brought about by

substitution account for anywhere from half to nearly all of
the total cation-exchange capacity. Soils very high in
organic matter contain primarily pH-dependent charges.
In a research study, three samples of soil were leached
with a 1 N solution of neutral KCl, and the displaced A13+
and basic cations measured. The sample was then leached
again with a buffered solution of BaCl2 and triethanolamine
at pH 8.2, and the displaced H+ measured. Table 1 gives
results for three soils tested by this method.
Al3+
H+
Al3+ and Basic Cations
Al3+ and H+
13. What percentage of the cation exchange capacity of

Sample I is base-saturated?
A.
B.
C.
D.
4%
6%
29%
40%
Table 1
(meq/100 g)
Sample I
Sample II
Sample III
pH
Al3+
Basic
Cations
H+
Total
Cation
Exchange
Capacity
4.5
5.3
6.0
11.7
1.6
0.5
1.9
16.3
9.8
34.0
19.5
7.8
47.6
37.4
18.1
14. Which soil from Table 1 most likely has the highest
percentage of organic matter?
A.
B.
C.
D.
I
II
III
Cannot be determined

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Page 8
15. What would be the effect of leaching the three soil

samples in Table 1 with a buffered BaCl2 solution at
pH 9.5 instead of 8.3?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The measured permanent charge would

greater.
The measured pH-dependent charge would
greater.
The measured permanent charge would
smaller.
The measured pH-dependent charge would
smaller.
18. Anaerobic organisms are able to denitrify wet soils

by the following metabolic pathway.
HNO3 HNO2 H2N2O2 N2O(g) N2(g)
be
be
If all the oxygen in the nitric acid is converted to water,

how many additional equivalents of acid will be consumed during the production of 5 M of nitrogen?
be
A.
B.
C.
D.
be
16. The amount of soil on a particular one-acre field

down to a depth of one furrow slice weighs 9 105
kilograms. Based on Figure 2, how many kilograms
of CaCO3 would have to be added to this field to
raise the pH from 5 to 6?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Questions 19 through 24 are NOT based on

a descriptive passage.
900 kg
1800 kg
9 105 kg
1.8 106 kg
19. Solution X boils at 100.26C and solution Y boils at

101.04C. Both solutions are at atmospheric pressure
and contain the same solute concentration. Which of
the following conclusions can be drawn?
A.
17. Which of the following would probably NOT displace Al3+ in soil micelles?
A.
B.
C.
D.
20
30
40
50
B.
Na+
Mg2+
Si4+
Cr2+
C.
D.
The freezing point of solution X is lower than

that of solution Y.
The vapor pressure of solution X is higher than
that of solution Y at 100.26C.
Solution X and solution Y are immiscible.
The vapor pressure of solution X is lower than
that of solution Y at 100.26C.
20. A converging lens has a focal length of 8 cm. If the

object is 10 cm to the left of the lens, what are the
position of the image formed and the magnification
of the lens?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.025 cm to the right of the lens and 0.0025

4.4 cm to the right of the lens and 0.4
40 cm to the right of the lens and 4
40 cm to the left of the lens and 4

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Page 9
21. If 29 g of maleic acid (C4O4H4) is dissolved in 500 g

of ammonia (NH3), what is the molality of the resulting solution?
A.
B.
C.
D.
24. A body is dropped from a height of 30 m on Earth

and hits the ground with a velocity ve. The body is
then taken to the Moon, which has a gravitational
acceleration 1/6 that of Earth. It is again dropped
from a height of 30 m, hitting the Moon with a velocity of vm. What is the ratio of vm/ve?
0.05 m
0.10 m
0.25 m
0.50 m
A.
B.
C.
D.
22. An electron travels in the plane of the page from left

to right, perpendicular to a magnetic field that points
into the page. The direction of the resulting magnetic
force on the electron will be in the plane of the page
and:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1/6
1/6

6
36
upwards.
downwards.
to the left.
to the right.
23. How much solid NaOH is required to neutralize 700

mL of 2 N HNO3?
A.
B.
C.
D.
40 g
48 g
56 g
64 g

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Page 10
Passage IV (Questions 2530)
25. The photons emitted by the mercury vapor have energies:
When light in the ultraviolet region of the spectrum is

shone on a type of material known as a phosphor, it fluoresces and emits light in the visible region of the spectrum.
Lamps that utilize this property, known as fluorescent
lamps, are very efficient light sources. The arrangement of
a typical fluorescent lamp is shown below. The lamp is a
glass tube whose inside walls are covered with a phosphor.
The tube has an appreciable length-to-diameter ratio so as
to reduce the power losses at each end, and it is filled with
argon gas mixed with mercury vapor. Inside each end of
the tube are tungsten electrodes covered with an emission
material.
A.
B.
C.
D.
equal to the energies of the electric current.

equal to the voltage across the tube.
equal to the energy differences between electron
orbitals in the mercury atom.
less than or equal to the energy differences
between the electron orbitals of the mercury
atom.
26. If the fluorescent light is left on for 4 hours, how

much useful energy is emitted as light?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Electrons are liberated at the cathode and accelerated

by an applied electric field. These free electrons encounter
the gas mixture, ionizing some mercury atoms and exciting others. Since it requires more energy to ionize the
atoms than to excite the electrons, more excitation than
ionization occurs. When the excited electrons revert to
their ground state, they radiate ultraviolet photons with a
wavelength of 253.7 nm. These photons impinge on the
phosphor coating of the tube and excite electrons in the
phosphor to higher energy states. The excited electrons in
the phosphor return to their ground state in two or more
steps, producing radiation in the visible region of the spectrum. Not every fluorescent lamp emits the same color of
radiation; the color is dependent on the relative percentages of different heavy metal compounds in the phosphor.
144 kJ
432 kJ
576 kJ
900 kJ
27. As the excited electrons in the coating drop back to

their ground states in more than one step, they will
emit light of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
higher frequency than the light absorbed.

longer wavelength than the light absorbed.
the same wavelength as the light absorbed.
greater energy than the light absorbed.
The fluorescent lamp shown operates at 100 volts and

draws 400 milliamps of current during normal operation.
Of the total power that the lamp consumes, only 25% is
converted to light, while the remaining 75% is dissipated as
heat. This energy keeps the lamp at its optimum working
temperature of 40C. In the lamp shown, the phosphor
coating is calcium metasilicate, which emits orange to yellow light.

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Page 11
30. The lamp also emits a small proportion of ultraviolet

light in addition to the light emitted in the visible
spectrum. This ultraviolet light is incident on a metal
that has a work function, which is the minimum
energy necessary to free an electron, of 2.00 eV.
What will be the kinetic energy of an electron that is
ejected from the metal if the frequency of the incident light is 1.2 1015 Hz? (Note: h = 4.14 10-15
eVs.)?
28. In the phosphor coating, an electron falls from an

excited state to a lower energy state, emitting a photon with an energy of 2.07 eV. What is the wavelength of the light emitted by the fluorescent tube?
(Note: Plancks constant h = 4.14 1015 eVs, and
c = 3 108 m/s.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
300 nm
600 nm
900 nm
1242 nm
A.
B.
C.
D.
29. Some fluorescent light bulbs are observed to glow for

a short period after their power supply has been
turned off. This glow is generated mainly by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.936 eV
6.948 eV
4.968 eV
2.968 eV
the incandescence of the hot ionic gas within the

bulb surface.
emission of light stored as vibrational kinetic
energy in the phosphor coating.
the dissipation of electric charge built up on the
bulbs surface.
electrons returning to the ground state from
excited states after the power was shut off.

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Page 12
Passage V (Questions 3136)
31. Which of the following four depictions of molecular

orbitals represents the highest energy state for a 6carbon polyene molecule? (The signs given are the
signs for the mathematical functions defining the p
orbitals on one side of the molecule.)
Every atomic orbital contains plus and minus regions,

defined by the value of the quantum mechanical function
for electron density. When orbitals from different atoms
overlap to form bonds, an equal number of new molecular
orbitals results. These are of two types: or bonding
orbitals, formed by overlap between orbital regions with
the same sign, and antibonding * or * orbitals, formed
by overlap between regions with opposite signs. Bonding
orbitals have lower energy than their component atomic
orbitals, and antibonding orbitals have higher energy. The
electron pairs reside in the lower-energy bonding orbitals;
the higher-energy, less stable orbitals remain empty when
the molecule is in its ground state.
A.
B.
C.
D.
+++
++++
+++
32. Among conjugated polyenes (molecules with alternating carbon-carbon double and single bonds) why
are those that are longer able to absorb longer wavelengths of light?
A benzene ring has six unhybridized pz orbitals (one

from each carbon atom), which together from six molecular orbitals, each one delocalized over the entire ring. Of
the possible orbital structures for benzene, the one with
the lowest energy has the plus region of all six p orbital
functions on one side of the ring. The six electrons occupying the orbitals fill the three most stable molecular
orbitals, leaving the other three empty.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Molecular orbitals are filled from the lowest to the

highest energy level. The number of bonds between atoms
is determined by the number of filled bonding orbitals
minus the number of filled antibonding orbitals; each antibonding orbital cancels out a filled bonding orbital. For a
diatomic molecule, orbitals in the n = 2 energy level are
filled as follows: 2s, *2s, 2p , 2px and 2py (equal in
z
energy), *2px and *2py (equal in energy), *2pz. (The
designation of the three p orbitals as px, py, and pz are interchangeable.)
Larger molecular orbitals have a lower ground

state.
A longer wavelength is better able to interact
with a longer molecular orbital.
The larger number of molecular orbitals allows
for smaller energy transitions.
Larger molecular orbitals can absorb more
energy.
33. Given the order in which orbitals are filled, which

molecule is a triplet in its ground state?
A.
B.
C.
D.
H2
O2
N2
F2
Absorption of a photon can raise an electron to a higherenergy molecular orbital. The excited electron does not
immediately change its spin, which is opposite to that of the
electron with which it was previously paired. This singlet
state is relatively unstable: the molecule may interact with
another molecule, or fluoresce and return to its ground state.
Alternatively, there may be a change in spin direction somewhere in the system; the molecule then enters the so-called
triplet state, which generally has lower energy. The
molecule now cannot return quickly to its ground state,
since the excited electron no longer has a partner of opposite
spin with which to pair. It also cannot return to the singlet
state, because the singlet has greater energy. Consequently,
the triplet state, which has two unpaired electrons in separate orbitals, is long-lived by atomic standards, with a lifetime that may be ten seconds or more. During this period,
the molecule is highly reactive.
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Page 13
34. Molecular orbitals in hydrocarbons are formed

between the 1s atomic orbital of hydrogen and the sp,
sp2, or sp3 hybrid atomic orbitals of carbon. Which
choice correctly lists the energy level of the C-H
bonds, from lowest to highest?
A.
B.
C.
D.
36. The quantum number that distinguishes the px orbital

from the py orbital is called the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
C6H6, HCCH, CH4

H2C=CH2, CH4, C6H6
C6H6, CH4, H2C=CH2
HCCH, C6H6, CH4
azimuthal quantum number.

magnetic quantum number.
principal quantum number.
spin quantum number.
35. Which of the following figures describes the shape of

*2pz molecular orbital?
A.
B.
C.
D.

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Page 14
Passage VI (Questions 3742)
37. How would the speed of a skier leaving the jump

ramp change if the vertical height of the jump ramp
were increased from its original height of 10 meters?
A ski jump is an inclined track from which a ski jumper

takes off through the air. After traveling down the track,
the skier takes off from a ramp at the bottom of the track.
The skier lands farther down on the slope.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Figure 1 shows a ski jump, in which the ramp at the

lower end of the track makes an angle of 30 to the horizontal. The track is inclined at an angle of to the horizontal
and the slope is inclined at an angle of 45 to the horizontal.
A ski jumper is stationary at the top of the track. Once the
skier pushes off, she accelerates down the track, and then
takes off from the ramp. The vertical height difference
between the top of the track and its lowest point is 50 m,
and the vertical height difference between the top of the
ramp and its lowest point is 10 m.
increase
decrease
remain the same
The answer depends on the incline angle of the
jump ramp.
38. Another ski jumper sets off from a point farther down
the jump track, and leaves the ramp at a speed of 16
m/s. If the time in flight is 4 s, what is the total horizontal distance traveled by the ski jumper after leaving the ramp?
A.
B.
C.
D.
4m
83 m
323 m
48 m
39. Which of the following would increase the jump

distance?
I. Increasing the vertical height h of the jump
track
II. Increasing the angle of incline of the
jump track
III. Carrying extra weight to increase the total
mass of the ski jumper
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I and III only
Figure 1
The distance traveled by the skier between leaving the
ski jump ramp and making contact with the slope is called
the jump distance. In some cases, in order to increase the
jump distance a skier will jump slightly upon leaving the
ramp, thereby increasing the vertical velocity.
Unless otherwise stated, assume that friction between
the skis and the slope is negligible, and ignore the effects
of air resistance.

14
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Page 15
40. How would the work done by gravity on the skier

when she skis down the track compare with the work
done by gravity on the skier if she fell the same vertical height?
A.
B.
C.
D.
42. If a skier uses skis of greater surface area, which of

the following would occur?
A.
Less work would be done on the skier when she

skis down the track.
More work would be done on the skier when she
skis down the track.
Equal amounts of work would be done.
The answer depends on the angle of the track.
B.
C.
D.
The normal force of the slope on the skier would

increase.
The normal force of the slope on the skier would
decrease.
The pressure exerted on the slope by the skis
would increase.
The pressure exerted on the slope by the skis
would decrease.
41. What is the acceleration of an 80-kg skier going

down the track if = 45?
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.9 m/s2
9.8 m/s2
13.9 m/s2
80 m/s2

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Page 16
46. Which titration curve would be produced by titrating

25 mL of a 0.1 N weak base with a 0.1 N strong acid?

A.
43. Suppose an -particle starting from rest is accelerated through a 5 megavolt potential difference. What
is the final kinetic energy of the -particle? (Note:
Assume that e = 1.6 1019 C.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.6 1012 J
8.0 1013 J
6.4 1026 J
3.2 1026 J
B.
44. Based on the table below, what is the cell voltage for
the following reaction?
Fe2O3 + 2 Al 2 Fe + Al2O3
Half-Reaction
Standard Potential (V)
Fe2+ + 2e Fe
0.44
Fe3+ + 3e Fe
2H2O +
2e
H2 +
Al3+ + 3e Al
A.
B.
C.
D.
C.
0.037
2OH
0.83
1.66
D.
1.33 V
1.99 V
1.33 V
1.62 V
45. A particle of mass m moves in a circle of radius r at

a uniform speed and makes 1 revolution per second.
What is the energy of the particle?
A.
B.
C.
D.
m2r2/42
22mr2
42mr2
mr2/2

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47. Four charges of equal magnitude but different sign

are arranged in the four corners of a square, as shown
below. What is the direction of the electric field in the
center of the square?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A
B
C
D

17
Page 18
Passage VII (Questions 4854)
0.1
2M
; [B
]=
[A
]=
time
Reaction 1
In this case, the first step in the reaction pathway is the
rate-determining step. Therefore, the overall rate of the reaction must equal the rate of the first step, k1[A] where k1 is the
rate constant for the first step. (Rate constants of the different
steps are denoted by kx, where x is the step number.)
Which of the following is the best tentative rate

equation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
In some cases, it is desirable to measure the rate of a

reaction in relation to only one species. In a second-order
reaction, for instance, a large excess of one species is
included in the reaction vessel. Since a relatively small
amount of this large concentration is reacted, we assume
that the concentration essentially remains unchanged.
Such a reaction is called a pseudo first-order reaction. A
new rate constant, k', is established, equal to the product of
the rate constant of the original reaction, k, and the concentration of the species in excess. This approach is often
used to analyze enzyme activity.
Rate = k'[A]x
Rate = k'[B]y
Rate = k'[A]x[B]y
Rate = k[A]x[[B]y[R]z
49. In a test of the rate of Step 3 of Reaction 1, a solution

is prepared containing a 0.1 M concentration of E and
a 50 M concentration of C. The rate is calculated after
the reaction has gone 50% to completion. By what
percent will the calculated rate differ from the true
rate if we treat the reaction as pseudo first-order?
A.
B.
C.
D.
In some cases, the reaction rate may be dependent on the

concentration of a short-lived intermediate. This can happen
if the rate-determining step is not the first step. In this case,
the concentration of the intermediate must be derived from
the equilibrium constant of the preceding step.
0.02%
0.05%
0.1%
0.2%
50. If Step 2 above were the rate-determining step of

Reaction 1, which of the following equations would
correctly define the rate?
For redox reactions, the equilibrium can be correlated

with the voltage produced by two half-cells by means of the
Nernst equation. This equation states that at any given
moment:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E = E (RT/nF)ln([C]c[D]d/[A]a[B]b)
Equation 1
when
2M
; [B
]=
AB+C
(slow)
B + D E + F (fast)
E+CG
(fast)
0.2
0.2
rate
A+DF+G
Step 1
Step 2
Step 3
Several techniques have been developed to determine the

order of a reaction. The rate of a reaction cannot be predicted
on the basis of the overall equation, but can be predicted on
the basis of the rate-determining step. For instance, the following reaction can be broken down into three steps.
48. An enzyme, R, catalyzes the oxidation of A to B.

Reacting various concentrations of A and B with a
large excess of R produced the following results during the first few minutes of the reaction.
[A
]=
05:30 PM
1M
; [B
]=
06/26/2003
[A
]=
01 MCAT FL Test1
Rate = k1k2[D]/k1[C]
Rate = k1k2[D]/k1k2[C]
Rate = k1k2[A][D]/k1[C]
Rate = k1k2[A][D]/k1k2[C]
aA+bBcC+dD
Reaction 2
Note: R = 8.314 J/Kmol; F = 9.6485 104 C/mol.)

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51. Which of the following is true of a reaction at equilibrium?
54. Catalysts are effective in increasing the rate of a reaction because they:
I. k1/k1 = 1
II. E = E
III. ln([C]c[D]d/[A]a[B]b) = nFE/RT
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I, II, and III
A.
B.
C.
D.
increase the energy of the activated complex.

increase the value of the equilibrium constant.
decrease the number of collisions between reactant molecules.
lower the activation energy.
52. What is the effect of increasing the concentration of

reactants in a voltaic cell?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The voltage increases, while the spontaneity of

the reaction remains the same.
The spontaneity of the reaction increases, but
the voltage remains the same.
Both the voltage and the spontaneity of the reaction increase.
The reaction rate increases, but the voltage and
spontaneity of the reaction are unchanged.
53. What would be the cell emf of the following system

at 298K?
Zn(s)|Zn2+(0.2 M)||Cu2+(0.02 M|Cu(s)
Ecell = +1.10 V
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.07 V
1.10 V
1.13 V
1.20 V

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Passage VIII (Questions 5561)
55. An electron is accelerated through a distance of 0.1 m

by a potential difference of 10,000 volts. What is the
electrons energy as it strikes the anode?
X-rays are produced by a device which beams electrons with an energy between 103 and 106 eV at a metal
plate. The electrons interact with the metal plate and are
stopped by it. Much of the energy of the incoming electrons is released in the form of X-rays, which are highenergy photons of electromagnetic radiation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
An example of such a device is shown below. Electrons are accelerated from the cathode towards the anode
by an electric field.
100 eV
1,000 eV
10,000 eV
1J
56. What is the direction of the electric field that accelerates the electrons?
A.
B.
C.
D.
From the anode toward the cathode

From the cathode toward the anode
Into the page
Out of the page
57. How does the wavelength of an X-ray produced from

a K-alpha transition in molybdenum compare to that
produced from a lower energy K-alpha transition in
copper?
A.
B.
C.
D.
There are two mechanisms by which the X-rays are

produced within the metal. The first mechanism is called
bremsstrahlung, which is German for breaking radiation. X-rays are emitted by the electrons as they are
brought to rest by interactions with the positive nuclei of
the anode.
It is shorter.
It is the same.
It is longer.
It depends on the energy of the incoming electron.
The second mechanism occurs when an incoming electron knocks an inner electron out of one of the metal atoms
of the anode. This electron is replaced by an electron from
a higher energy level of the atom, and a photon making up
the energy difference is emitted.
X-rays are absorbed by a material when they pass
through it. The amount of X-rays absorbed increases
with the density of the material. In addition, lower
energy X-rays are more likely to be absorbed than higher
energy X-rays. (Note: 1 eV = 1.6 1019 J; Plancks constant h = 4.1 1015 eVs; speed of light c = 3 108 m/s.)

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58. What is the minimum potential difference required to

produce a 0.06 nm X-ray from an electron transition
in a metal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
61. Which of the following graphs best represents the

relationship between the amount of X-rays absorbed
per unit length of material and the energy of the X-rays,
for lead, bone, and air?
15,000 V
20,000 V
20,500 V
21,500 V
59. An X-ray source produces X-rays with a maximum

frequency of 6 1018 Hz. If the cathode current is
doubled so that twice as many electrons are emitted
per unit time, what is the new maximum frequency of
the X-rays produced?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
C.
B.
D.
3 1018 Hz
6 1018 Hz
12 1018 Hz
24 1018 Hz
60. In an X-ray tube, electrons of charge e are accelerated through a potential difference of V. The anode is
cooled by water of mass m with specific heat c. If n
electrons per second strike the anode, what is the
maximum possible rise in the temperature of the
water after 100 s?
A.
B.
C.
D.
nVe/100mc
100Ve/mc
100n(Ve + mc)
100nVe/mc

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Passage IX (Questions 6267)
Table 1
Formula
Compound
A researcher in a molecular biology lab planned to carry
out an extraction procedure known as an alkaline plasmid
prep, which is designed to purify plasmids, small pieces of
the hereditary material DNA, from bacterial cells. The bacteria are first placed into a test tube containing liquid nutrient
medium and allowed to grow until they reach a high population density. The culture, which consists of solid cells suspended in the medium, is then centrifuged; a solid pellet is
formed. The supernatant is poured out, leaving the pellet
behind, and the cells are resuspended in a mL of lysis buffer
solution (50 mM glucose, 25 mM Tris buffer and 10 mM
ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA), with 5 mg of the
enzyme lysozyme added). They are then incubated for 30
minutes at 0C, during which time the bacterial cell walls
break down and the cell contents are released into the solution. After incubation, 1 mL of 0.4 N sodium hydroxide and
1 mL of 2% sodium dodecyl sulfate (SDS) are added, and the
solution is again incubated on ice for 10 minutes. 2 mL of 3
M sodium acetate are added and the mixture is incubated for
30 minutes at 0C. The test tube is centrifuged once more and
the supernatant is decanted into a clean tube, leaving behind
the protein and most other cell components in the pellet.
MW
Stock
Tris
(CH2OH)3CNH2
121 1M (pH 8)
EDTA
(HOOCCH2)4(CNH2)2
292 0.5 M (pH 8)
Sodium
hydroxide NaOH
40 5 N
SDS
C11H23CH2OSO3Na+
288 10%
Sodium
acetate
CH3COONa+
82 3 M (pH 5.2)
Ethanol
CH3CH2OH
46 95%
62. EDTA is available commercially in the form of a

hydrated sodium salt, Na2EDTA 2H2O. How much
of this salt must be used to produce 1 L of a 0.5 M
stock solution?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Finally, 10 mL of pure ethanol are added to the supernatant from the previous step to precipitate out the DNA,
and the test tube is incubated at 20C for 60 minutes, during which the mixture remains liquid. The mixture is centrifuged a final time and the supernatant removed. The
translucent precipitate that results is washed with 70%
ethanol (70% ethanol and 30% water by volume), allowed
to dry, and resuspended in 1 mL of TE buffer (10 mM Tris,
1 mM EDTA).
145 g
146 g
186 g
187 g
63. Tris (Tris(hydroxymethyl)aminomethane) is generally used as a buffer. If pH 8.0 is a good buffering

region for Tris, then:
I. the pKa of Tris must be near pH 8.0
II. if Tris is titrated with acid, the titration curve
will possess a steep region near pH 8.0.
III. a great deal of NaOH would have to be
added to pH 8.0 Tris in order to significantly affect the pH.
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
In preparation for this experiment, the researcher prepared stock solutions of the various chemicals that she will
need in the experiment. Stock solutions are highly concentrated solutions of commonly used chemicals in water from
which dilute solutions are prepared for daily use. Table 1
shows the chemicals, their molecular formulas and weights,
and the composition of commonly used stock solutions.
64. What is the molality of a stock solution that is 10%

SDS by mass?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.028 m
0.100 m
0.347 m
0.385 m
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67. What would be the pH of 100 mL of the sodium

acetate stock solution after the addition of 3.6 g of
HCl? (pKa of acetic acid = 4.74)
65. Pure ethanol (CH3CH2OH) is difficult to prepare and

therefore expensive; 95% ethanol is much cheaper.
Consequently, 95% ethanol is generally used in the
preparation of dilute ethanol solutions. How much
95% ethanol would be needed to produce a 500 mL
solution of 70% ethanol by volume in water?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
333 mL
350 mL
368 mL
475 mL
1.0
4.74
5.2
6.0
66. Which of the following conclusions can be reached

based on the fact that DNA precipitates in the last
step of the plasmid prep procedure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
DNA dissolves better in water at lower temperatures.

DNA is polar and therefore dissolves better in
water than in a mixture of water and ethanol.
DNA is nonpolar and therefore dissolves better
in ethanol than in water.
DNA dissolves well in ethanol and precipitates
only because the solution is centrifuged.

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Page 24
Passage X (Questions 6873)
69. The mass in the first experiment is pulled down a distance A from its equilibrium position and then
released from rest. The mass will then oscillate with
simple harmonic motion. As the mass moves up and
down, energy is dissipated due to factors such as air
resistance and internal heating of the spring. The
mass will no longer oscillate when the total energy
dissipated equals:
The simple harmonic motion of a mass suspended

from vertical springs is investigated in two experiments.
The springs used in both experiments have a spring constant k and a natural length L0. The material used to make
the springs has a Youngs modulus of 2 1011 Pa.
In the first experiment a mass m is suspended from a
spring. The mass stretches the spring to a new length L,
called the equilibrium length.
A.
B.
C.
D.
In the second experiment the mass m is suspended

from two identical springs as shown in Figure 2 below.
When the mass m is in equilibrium, each spring is
stretched from its natural length by the same amount xe.
kL2/2
kA2/2
k(L + A)2/2
kL02/2
70. In the first experiment the mass is pulled down and

set into motion. The position of greatest speed is:
In both experiments the masses of the springs are negligible, and the elastic limits of the springs are never
exceeded.
A.
B.
C.
D.
at the equilibrium position.

at the position where the springs length is its
natural length.
at the lowest point in its motion.
at the highest point in its motion.
71. In the first experiment, when a 5-kg mass is oscillating, the frequency of oscillation is 2 Hz. What is the
value of the spring constant?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5/2 N/m
20 N/m
402 N/m
802 N/m
68. In the first experiment, what is the mass of the object

hanging from the spring?
A.
B.
C.
D.
kL/g
kL0/g
k(L L0)/g
k/g

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Page 25
72. The two springs in Experiment 2 are replaced by a

single spring having a spring constant k such that the
equilibrium length xe does not change. What is the
ratio of k to k?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1/2
1
2
2
73. If the spring in Experiment 1 was suspended from the

ceiling of an elevator accelerating with acceleration
a, how would the equilibrium length of the spring
compare to the equilibrium length of the spring when
the elevator is stationary?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The equilibrium length of the spring would be

greater when the elevator is accelerating
upward.
greater when the elevator is stationary.
greater when the elevator is accelerating downward with acceleration smaller than the acceleration due to gravity.
The equilibrium length of the spring doesnt
depend on the acceleration of the elevator.

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Page 26
77. Which of the following is NOT an intermolecular

force?

A.
B.
C.
D.
74. If the noise level is increased by 30 decibels, what is

the ratio of the new intensity to the original intensity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10
30
100
1000
STOP. IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,

CHECK YOUR WORK. YOU MAY GO BACK TO ANY
QUESTION IN THIS SECTION ONLY.
75. A given volume of a diprotic acid is completely neutralized by twice that volume of a 0.3 N NaOH solution. What is the molarity of the acid?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.15 M
0.30 M
0.60 M
1.20 M
76. A fireman of mass m slides down a vertical pole with

an average acceleration a. If the acceleration due to
gravity is g, what is the average frictional force
exerted by the fireman?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dispersion forces
Resonance
Hydrogen bonding
Dipole interactions
mg
m(g + a)
m(g a)
ma
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Page 27
Verbal Reasoning
Time: 85 Minutes
Questions 78137
01 MCAT FL Test1
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Page 28
VERBAL REASONING
DIRECTIONS: There are nine passages in this Verbal
Reasoning Section. Each passage is followed by several questions. After reading a passage, select the one
best answer to each question. If you are not certain of
an answer, eliminate the alternatives that you know to
be incorrect and then select an answer from the
remaining alternatives. Indicate your selection by
blackening the corresponding oval on your answer
document.
40
10
15
In the early nineteenth century a large number of communal experiments, both secular and religious, sprang up
in the northeastern United States. Perhaps the most famous
secular commune was Brook Farm, founded by transcendentalists George Ripley and William H. Channing to promote the pursuit of leisure and culture through the proper
application of time and labor. Its members (among the
more notable were Nathaniel Hawthorne and Margaret
Fuller) pursued field labor by day, art and philosophy by
night. For a time the system worked so well that two afternoons a week were set aside for leisure and Brook Farm
began outcompeting local farmers at the produce market.
But by nature the Farms members were thinkers, not
workers; despite their success they remained mainly interested in the theoretical and philosophical implications of
the experiment. Thus, when a devastating fire brought the
community considerable financial burdens in its fifth year,
the members felt little compunction about closing shop
and returning to their comfortable Boston homes.
45
50
55
60
20
25
30
35
One of the most notable religious utopias was the

Oneida community. Its founder, John Humphrey Noyes,
believed that Christs second coming had already occurred
and that everyone alive was favored by Divine grace,
which Noyes saw as an imperative to live a better life. Perhaps surprisingly, the Oneidans embraced industry and
commerce, achieving success in fruit packing, trap making, and silk thread winding. They owned everything communally, and this principle extended to each other. The
Oneidans saw monogamy as a selfish act and asserted that
the men and women of the community were united in one
complex marriage; sex between any two consenting
members was perfectly acceptable. The Oneidans maintained order solely through criticismanyone acting out
of line was made to stand before the other members and
hear his or her faults recounted. Oneida remained viable
for some thirty years, until the leadership devolved on
Noyes son, an agnostic. The old religious fervor died out,
and the dream degenerated into a joint stock company.
Doubtless the most successful communalists were the

Shakers, so called for the early propensity to tremble
ecstatically during religious worship. Their guiding light,
Mother Ann, espoused four key principles: Virgin Purity,
Christian Communism, Confession, and Separation from
the World. Though the Shakers were less adamant on the
last pointmaintaining social relations and some commerce with their neighborsthey insisted on the other
three, and renounced both personal property and sex. Men
and women lived in a single large Unitary Dwelling and
were considered complete equals, but they occupied separate wings and could speak together only if a third person
were present. Despite their religious strictness, Shakers
were known as simple, sincere, intelligent people, healthy
and long-lived, producers of lovely books and hymns, and
of furniture still prized for its quality and durability. In
their heyday, six thousand Shakers lived in fifty-eight separate families throughout the Northeast. Later their
celibacy, combined with their strict discipline, led to a
decline in numbers, but even today a small number of
elderly Shakers in two communities in Maine and New
Hampshire continue to keep the faith.
78. The passage implies that the end of the Brook Farm
experiment was probably brought on by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
faltering commitment in the face of hardship.

a failure to attract members of sufficient intellect or ability.
the completion of the communitys aims.
the incompetence of philosophers at field labor.
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Page 29
82. The Shakers resembled the Oneidans in their attitude

toward:
79. According to the passage, the Oneidans believed

that:
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
men and women were equal in the eyes of God.

monogamy was wrong in principle.
rules and standards of behavior were unnecessary.
they were destined to witness Christs second
coming.
83. It can be inferred from the passage that the cohesion

of a secular workers cooperative, based on the principles of collective ownership and the sharing of
profits, would probably be weakened by:
80. The passage implies that Brook Farms economic

system:
A.
B.
C.
D.
did not include the selling of produce outside

the farm.
was based on the hiring of farm hands.
efficiently utilized time and labor.
was primarily intended to maximize collective
profit.
I. diminished contact with the outside world.

II. increasing agnosticism.
III. considerable economic losses.
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
81. According to the passage, all of the following were

characteristic of the Oneida community EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
sexual practices.
equality of men and women.
personal property.
contact with the outside world.
84. If the passage were to continue, the next topic the

author would discuss would probably be:
complex marriage.
maintenance of order through social pressure.
belief in present grace.
shared living quarters.
A.
B.
C.
D.
a comparison between nineteenth and twentieth

century communal living experiments.
a theory explaining why communal living might
become popular again.
an analysis of why early communes attracted
intellectuals and artists.
an investigation into why the three communes
discussed were successful to varying degrees.

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Page 30

50
The time has come to acknowledge the ascendancy of

the humanistic psychology movement. The so-called
Third Stream emerged at mid-century, asserting itself
against the opposition of a pair of mighty, long-established
5 currents, psychoanalysis and behaviorism. The hostility
between these two older schools, as well as divisiveness
within each of them, probably helped enable humanistic
psychology to survive its early years. But the movement
flourished because of its wealth of insights into the nature
10 of this most inexact science.
55
60
15
20
25
30
35
40
45
Of the three major movements in the course of 20thcentury psychology, psychoanalysis is the oldest and most
introspective. Conceived by Sigmund Freud as a means of
treating mental and emotional disorders, psychoanalysis is
based on the theory that people experience unresolved
emotional conflicts in infancy and early childhood. Years
later, although these experiences have largely disappeared
from conscious awareness, they may continue to impair a
persons ability to function in daily life. The patient experiences improvement when the psychoanalyst eventually
unlocks these long-repressed memories of conflict and
brings them to the patients conscious awareness.
In the heyday of behaviorism, which occurred between
the two world wars, the psychoanalytic movement was
heavily criticized for being too concerned with inner subjective experience. Behavioral psychologists, dismissing
ideas and feelings as unscientific, tried to deal only with
observable and quantifiable facts. They perceived the
human being merely as an organism which generated
responses to stimuli produced by its body and the environment around it. Patients neuroses no longer needed analysis; they could instead by modified by behavioral
conditioning. Not even babies were safe: B.F. Skinner
devised a container in which infants could be raised under
ideal conditionsif a sound-proof box can be considered the ideal environment for child-rearing.
65
70
75
80
By mid-century, a number of psychologists had grown

dissatisfied with both the deterministic Freudian perspective and the mechanistic approach of behaviorism. They
questioned the idea that human personality becomes permanently fixed in the first few years of life. They wondered if the purpose of psychology was really to reduce
people to laboratory specimens. Was it not instead possible
that human beings are greater than the sum of their parts?
That psychology should speak to their search for fulfillment and meaning in life?
not be simplified down to a single theoretical position, it

does spring from certain fundamental propositions.
Humanistic psychologists believe that conscious experience, rather than outward behavior, is the proper subject of
psychology. We recognize that each human being is
unique, capable of change and personal growth. We see
maturity as a process dependent on the establishment of a
set of values and the development of self. And we believe
that the more aspects of self which are satisfactorily developed, the more positive the individuals self-image.
Abraham Maslow, a pioneer of the Third Stream, articulated a hierarchy of basic human needs, starting with
food, water and air, progressing upward through shelter
and security, social acceptance and belonging, to love,
esteem and self-expression. Progress toward the higher
stages cannot occur until all of the more basic needs have
been satisfied. Individuals atop the pyramid, having developed their potential to the highest possible extent, are said
to be self-actualized.
If this humanist theoretical perspective is aimed at
empowering the individual, so too are the movements
efforts in the practical realm of clinical psychology.
Believing that traditional psychotherapists tend to lead
patients toward predetermined resolutions of their problems, Carl Rogers pressed for objective evaluations of both
the process and outcome of psychotherapeutic treatment.
Not content to function simply as a reformer, Rogers also
pioneered the development of client-centered or nondirective therapy, which emphasizes the autonomy of the
client (i.e., patient). In client-centered therapy, clients
choose the subjects for discussion, and are encouraged to
create their own solutions to their problems.
85. If the author of this passage met a Freudian psychoanalyst who felt that it was important for patients to
consider themselves capable of fundamental change,
he would most likely conclude that the psychoanalyst
was:
A.
B.
C.
D.
It is questions like these that members of the Third

Stream have sought to address. While the movement can-
opposed to the Third Stream.

concerned only with conscious experience.
influenced by humanist theory.
rejecting Maslows hierarchy of human needs.
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89. According to the passage, the ultimate goal of Carl

Rogerss client-centered therapy is:
86. The author states that not even babies were safe
(line 35) most probably in order to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
emphasize that the use of even very young subjects is considered valid among most psychologists.
indicate the pervasive influence of behaviorists
on the field of psychology.
show that behaviorists were anxious to apply
their theories to a wide range of subjects.
warn of the dangers of psychoanalysis for children.
B.
C.
D.
simplification of the Third Streams theoretical

perspective.
self-directed personal growth for the client.
rejection of Maslows scheme of self-actualization.
increased autonomy of psychotherapists.
90. Psychoanalysts and humanistic psychologists would

be most likely to disagree about:
A.
87. The author most probably believes that, in its early

days, the humanistic psychology movement:
B.
I. benefited from dissension among psychologists.

II. acknowledged Maslow and Rogers as its
only leaders.
III. was an offshoot of behaviorism.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
C.
D.
the effects of internal conflicts on childhood

behavior.
the necessity of proper training for psychologists.
the relevance and utility of clinical psychology.
the significance of conscious experience.
88. B.F. Skinner is mentioned in the passage to support

the point that:
A.
B.
C.
D.
the ultimate goal of behaviorism is technological innovation.

raising babies in isolation prevents childhood
conflicts.
stimulus-response conditioning was attempted
on all sorts of individuals.
behaviorists reject the scientific validity of subjective experience.

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mitigate globulation; however this procedure also seriously curtails the PFCs oxygen capacity.

Due to ever-increasing paranoia about the transmission
of hepatitis and AIDS via blood transfusions and the frequent difficulty of procuring matching blood donors for
patients, researchers have been working at a feverish pace
5 to produce disease-free and easy-to-use blood substitutes.
The difficulty most synthetic blood researches have had is
in formulating a substance that combines qualities of
sterility, high capacity for carrying oxygen to body tissues,
and versatility within the human body. Three major substi10 tute technologies have been developed to date; each has
certain advantages and shortcomings.
Red blood, the first of the blood substitute technologies, is derived from hemoglobin which has been recycled
from old, dead, or worn-out red blood cells and modified
15 so that it can carry oxygen outside the red blood cell.
Hemoglobin, a complex protein, is the bloods natural oxygen carrier and is attractive to scientists for use in synthetic
blood because of its oxygen-carrying capacity. However,
hemoglobin can sometimes constitute a two-fold threat to
20 humans when it is extracted from the red blood cell and
introduced to the body in its naked form. First, hemoglobin
molecules are rarely sterile and often remain contaminated
by viruses to which they were exposed in the cell. Second,
naked hemoglobin is extremely dangerous to the kidneys,
25 causing blood flow at these organs to shut down and leading, ultimately, to renal failure. Additional problems arise
from the fact that hemoglobin is adapted to operate optimally within the intricate environment of the red blood
cell. Stripped of the protection of the cell, the hemoglobin
30 molecule tends to suffer breakdown within several hours.
Although modification has produced more durable
hemoglobin molecules which do not cause renal failure,
undesired side effects continue to plague patients and
hinder the development of hemoglobin-based blood sub35 stitutes.
55
60
65
70
The final and perhaps most ambitious attempt to form

a blood substitute involves the synthesis of a modified version of human hemoglobin by genetically-altered bacteria.
Fortunately, this synthetic hemoglobin seems to closely
mimic the qualities of sterility, and durability outside the
cellular environment, and the oxygen-carrying efficiency
of blood. Furthermore, researchers have found that if modified hemoglobin genes are added to bacterial DNA, the
bacteria will produce the desired product in copious quantities. This procedure is extremely challenging, however,
because it requires the isolation of the human gene for the
production of hemoglobin, and the modification of the
gene to express a molecule that works without support
from a living cell.
While all the above technologies have serious drawbacks and difficulties, work to perfect an ideal blood substitute continues. Scientists hope that in the near future
safe synthetic blood transfusions may ease blood shortages
and resolve the unavailability of various blood types.
91. The author mentions all of the following as weaknesses of synthetic bloods EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Another synthetic blood alternative, white blood, is

dependent on laboratory-synthesized chemicals called perfluorocarbons (PFCs). Unlike blood, PFCs are clear oillike liquids, yet they are capable of absorbing quantities of
40 oxygen up to 50% of their volume, enough of an oxygencarrying potential for oxygen-dependent organisms to survive submerged in the liquid for hours by breathing it.
Although PFCs imitate real blood by effectively absorbing
oxygen, scientists are primarily interested in them as con45 stituents of blood substitutes because they are inherently
safer to use than hemoglobin-based substitutes. PFCs do
not interact with any chemicals in the body and can be
manufactured in near-perfect sterility. The primary pitfall
of PFCs is in their tendency to form globules in plasma
50 that can block circulation. Dissolving PFCs in solution can
naked hemoglobin can cause renal failure in

humans.
red blood can transmit viruses to a recipient.
genetic engineering can be extremely difficult.
white blood has a low oxygen-carrying
potential.
92. According to the passage, PFCs are helpful in the

synthesis of blood substitutes because they:
I. mimic the oxygen-carrying capacity of
blood.
II. do not react with other body chemicals.
III. break down in the blood within several
hours.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
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96. According to the passage, how much oxygen can be

absorbed by a 300 cc sample of PFC?
93. According to the passage, all of the following are

reasons for research into the development of synthetic bloods EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
dangerous diseases can be transmitted by conventional blood transfusions.

synthetic bloods have greater oxygen-carrying
capacities than naturally-produced human
blood.
donor blood is sometimes in short supply.
certain blood types are not readily available.
97. It can be inferred from the passage that the difficulty

of producing an ideal blood substitute is compounded by all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
94. We can infer that all of the synthetic blood technologies discussed in this passage:
A.
B.
C.
D.
50 cc
100 cc
150 cc
300 cc
B.
sustain submerged oxygen-dependent organisms.

possess high oxygen-carrying capacities.
maintain high standards of sterility.
exhibit versatility in the human body.
C.
D.
there is no known way to isolate the DNA

responsible for hemoglobin.
naked hemoglobin tends to break down in the
bloodstream.
non-globulating PFCs have significantly abbreviated oxygen-carrying capacities.
the use of PFCs may lead to blood clotting.
95. Which of the following is mentioned in the passage

as a problem specific to red blood?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Red blood cannot be produced in large

enough quantities.
Red blood tends to form globules that block
circulation.
Hemoglobin does not carry oxygen effectively.
Red blood exhibits poor durability in the
bloodstream.

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Muzak, the intentionally unobtrusive music that most
people associate with elevators and dentists waiting
rooms, represents the paradoxical success story of a product designed to be ignored. Although few people admit to
5 enjoying its blandly melodic sounds, Muzak reaches over
100 million listeners in 14 countries and has played in the
White House, the Apollo lunar spacecraft, and countless
supermarkets, offices, and factories. This odd combination
of criticism and widespread acceptance is not surprising,
10 however, when one considers that Muzak is not created for
the enjoyment of its listeners: rather, its purpose is to modify
physiological and psychological aspects of an environment.
In the workplace, Muzak is credited with increasing
both productivity and profitability. Research into the rela15 tionship between music and productivity can be traced to
the earliest days of the Muzak Corporation. Developed by
a military officer in 1922 as a way of transmitting music
through electrical wires, Muzak blossomed in the 1930s
following a study which reported that people work harder
20 when they listen to certain kinds of music. Impressed by
these findings, the BBC began to broadcast music in
English munitions factories during World War II in an
effort to combat fatigue. When workers assembling
weapons increased their output by 6 percent, the U.S. War
25 Production Board contracted the Muzak Corporation to
provide uplifting music to American factories. Today, the
corporation broadcasts its Environmental Music to
countless businesses and institutions throughout the world.
And while most people claim to dislike Muzaks discreet
30 cadences, it seems to positively influence both productivity and job satisfaction.
50
55
60
65
70
75
80
Researchers speculate that listening to Muzak and

other soft music improves morale and reduces stress by
modifying our physiology. Physiological changes such as
35 lowered heart rate and decreased blood pressure have been
documented in hospital studies testing the effect of calming music on cardiac patients. In addition, certain kinds of
music seem to effect ones sense of emotional, as well as
physical, well being. It is just this sort of satisfaction which
40 is thought to result in increased performance in the workplace. In a study of people performing repetitive clerical
tasks, those who listened to music performed more accurately and quickly than those who worked in silence; those
who listened to Muzak did better still. Moreover, while
45 Muzak was conceived as a tool for productivity, it also
seems to influence a business profitability. In an experiment in which supermarket shoppers shopped to the mellow sounds of Muzak, sales were increased by as much as
12 percent.
What makes Muzak unique is a formula by which

familiar tunes are modified and programmed. Careful
instrumentation adds to an overall sound that is neither
monotonous nor rousing. But it is the precisely timed programming that separates Muzak from other easy listening formats. At the core of the programming is the
concept of the Stimulus Progression. Muzak programs
are divided into quarter-hour groupings of songs, and are
specifically planned for the time of day at which they will
be heard. Each composition is assigned a mood rating
between 1 and 6 called a stimulus value; a song with a rating of 2, for example, is slower and less invigorating than
one with a value of 5. Approximately six compositions
with ascending stimulus values play during any given
quarter hour; each 15 minute segment ends in silence.
Each segment of a 24-hour program is carefully planned.
Segments that are considered more stimulating air at 11
a.m. and 3 p.m. (the times when workers typically tire),
while more soothing segments play just after lunchtime
and towards the end of the day, when workers are likely to
be restless.
From the point of view of management, then, Muzak is
a useful tool in the effort to maximize both productivity
and profits. However, some people object to its presence,
labeling it as a type of unregulated air pollution. Still others see it as an Orwellian nightmare, a manipulation of the
subconscious. But Muzaks effectiveness seems to lie in
the fact that most people never really listen to it. While it
may be true that no one actually likes this carefully crafted
aural atmosphere, many simply ignore it, allowing its forgettable sounds to soften the contours of the day.
98. According to the passage, a 15-minute segment of

Muzak with an average stimulus value of 5 would
most likely be broadcast at:
A.
B.
C.
D.
4:30 p.m.
8:15 a.m.
3:00 p.m.
1:15 p.m.

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102. According to the passage, Muzak differs from other

easy listening formats in that Muzak:
99. Of the following, the author is most interested in discussing:

A.
B.
C.
D.
I. produces measurable health benefits.

II. improves workers job performances.
III. is programmed in order to effect behavioral
changes.
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. II and III only
the origins of the Muzak Corporation.

how Muzak modifies physical states and psychological atmospheres.
how Muzak increases productivity in the workplace.
the ways in which Muzak differs from other
easy listening formats.
100. According to the passage, Muzak may provide all of

the following benefits EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
103. It can be inferred from the statements in the passage

that the author regards Muzak as:
increased work productivity.

decreased blood pressure.
increased business profitability.
decreased job absenteeism.
A.
B.
C.
D.
a paradoxical phenomenon.
an unnecessary evil.
a violation of privacy.
a pleasurable diversion.
101. It can be inferred from the passage that some critics

of Muzak believe that Muzak:
A.
B.
C.
D.
is not significantly different from other easy

listening programs.
subtly manipulates the subconscious mind.
is actually distracting to many workers.
caters to the whims of supermarket consumers.

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50
The Russian wheat aphid, Diuraphis noxia, is a small

green insect discovered in southern Russia around the turn
of the century. Agricultural researchers are not quite sure,
but they believe the Russian aphid adapted itself to wheat
5 about ten thousand years ago, when the crop was first
domesticated by man. What is not in doubt is the insects
destructiveness. Spread by both wind and human transport,
the Russian aphid has destroyed wheat fields throughout
Asia, Africa, and Latin America.
Until a few years ago, the United States had been free
of this pest. But in the spring of 1986, a swarm of Russian
aphids crossed the Mexican border and settled a few hundred miles north, in central Texas. From there, it quickly
spread to other Western states, destroying wheat fields all
15 along its path. In fact, the level of destruction has been so
great over the past five years that entomologists are calling
the Russian aphid the greatest threat to American agriculture since the Hessian fly, Phytophaga destructor, was
inadvertently brought to the colonies on ships by German
20 mercenary troops during the Revolutionary War.
may substantially curb the destructiveness of the Russian

aphid in the future. For the time being, however, American
farmers are left to their own devices when it comes to protecting their wheat crops.
10
104. Which of the following statements would be most in

agreement with the statements in the passage?
A.
B.
A combination of several factors have made it particularly difficult to deal with the threat posed by this aphid.
First, Russian aphids reproduce asexually at a phenomenal
rate. This process, known as parthenogenesis, often results
25 in as many as twenty generations of insects in a single
year. Although most generations remain in a limited geographic area because they have no wings, a few generations are born with wings, allowing the insect to spread to
new areas. Second, because wheat is a crop with a very
30 low profit margin, most American farmers do not spray it
with pesticides; it simply is not economical to do so. And
since the Russian aphid has only recently entered the
United States, it has no natural enemies among North
American insects or animals. As a result, there have been
35 no man-made or natural obstacles to the spread of the Russian aphid in the United States.
C.
D.
It is no longer economical to grow crops with

low profit margins.
Humans are powerless against the forces of
nature.
Regional ecosystems are often severely damaged when new organisms are introduced.
It is more difficult to stop the spread of an insect
that reproduces asexually than one that reproduces sexually.
105. According to the passage, which of the following

statements is/are true of Russian wheat aphids?
I. Most are capable of flight.
II. They are resistant to pesticides.
III. They are capable of spreading rapidly.
A. II only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
Agricultural researchers seeking to control the Russian

aphid have looked to its place of origin for answers. In the
Soviet Union, the Russian aphid has been kept in check by
40 predators which have evolved alongside it over many thousands of years. One species of wasp seems to be particularly efficient at destroying the aphid. The pregnant females
of the species search the Russian aphids home, the interior
of a wheat stalk, sting the aphid into paralysis, and then
45 inject an egg into its body. When the egg hatches the wasp
larva feeds off of the aphid, killing it in the process.
106. It can reasonably be inferred that the author of the

passage is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The introduction of predators like the wasp, coupled

with the breeding of new strains of insect-resistant wheat,
a botanist with an interest in wheat production.

an agriculturist with an interest in pest control.
a pest exterminator with an interest in agriculture.
an entomologist with an interest in asexual
reproduction.
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107. The passage supplies information for answering all

of the following questions EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
109. According to the passage, the Russian wheat aphid

and the Hessian fly are comparable with respect to:
What measures were taken to combat the Hessian fly during the 18th century?
Why does the Russian wheat aphid cause less
damage in the Soviet Union than in other
countries?
Is it logical for American farmers to use pesticides in order to attempt to protect their wheat
crops from the Russian aphid?
What sorts of solutions have agricultural
researchers investigated in their efforts to curb
the destructiveness of the Russian wheat aphid?
I. the amount of destruction they have

caused.
II. the means by which they reproduce.
III. the ways in which they entered the United
States.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
110. The author most likely believes American farmers will:
A.
B.
108. The author suggests the best way to control the Russian aphid population in the United States is to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
devote less acreage to the production of wheat.

spray wheat fields with large quantities of pesticides.
transplant its natural enemies from the Soviet
Union.
disrupt its reproductive process by sterilizing
females.
C.
D.
develop new types of aphid-resistant wheat.

develop their own effective methods for dealing
with the Russian aphid.
stop producing wheat until the Russian aphid is
brought under control.
continue to lose a portion of their wheat crops
for the foreseeable future.

37
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Millenialism is, generally speaking, the religious belief
that salvation and material benefits will be conferred upon
a society in the near future as the result of some apocalyptic event. The term derives from the Latin word for 1,000;
5 in early Christian theology, believers held that Christ
would return and establish his kingdom on earth for a
period of a thousand years.
Millenialist movements, Christian and non-Christian,
have arisen at various points throughout history, usually in
10 times of great crisis or social upheaval. In nativistic millenialist movements, a people threatened with cultural disintegration attempts to earn its salvation by rejecting
foreign customs and values and returning to the old
ways. One such movement involving the Ghost Dance
15 cults, named after the ceremonial dance which cult members performed in hope of salvation, flourished in the late
19th century among Indians of the western United States.
By the middle of the 19th century, western expansion
and settlement by whites was seriously threatening Native
20 American cultures. Mining, agriculture and ranching
encroached on and destroyed many Indian land and food
sources. Indian resistance led to a series of wars and massacres, culminating in the U.S. Governments policy of
resettlement of Indians onto reservations which constituted
25 a fraction of their former territorial base. Under these dire
circumstances, a series of millenialist movements began
among western tribes.
50
disintegration during the previous twenty years, the Ghost

Dance movement spread rapidly this time, catching on
among tribes from the Canadian border to Texas, and from
the Missouri River to the Sierra Nevadasan area approximately one-third the size of the continental United States.
55
Wovokas Ghost Dance doctrine forbade Indian violence against whites or other Indians; it also involved the
wearing of ghost shirts, which supposedly rendered the
wearers invulnerable to the white mans bullets. In 1890,
when the Ghost Dance spread to the Sioux Indians, both
the ghost shirts and the movement itself were put to the
test. Violent resistance to white domination had all but
ended among the Sioux by the late 1880s, when government-ordered reductions in the size of their reservations
infuriated the Sioux, and made them particularly responsive to the millenialist message of the Ghost Dance. As the
Sioux organized themselves in the cult of the dance, an
alarmed federal government resorted to armed intervention
which ultimately led to the massacre of some 200 Sioux
men, women and children at Wounded Knee, South
Dakota in December of 1890. The ghost shirts had been
worn to no avail, and Wounded Knee marked the end of
the second Ghost Dance cult.
60
65
70
111. The passage implies that the second Ghost Dance

cult gained widespread popularity quickly because:
The first Ghost Dance cult arose in western Nevada

around 1870. A Native American prophet named Wodzi30 wob, a member of a Northern Paiute tribe, received the
revelation of an imminent apocalypse which would
destroy the white man, restore all dead Indians to life, and
return to the Indians their lands, food supplies (such as the
vanishing buffalo), and old way of life. The apocalypse
35 was to be brought about with the help of a ceremonial
dance and songs, and by strict adherence to a moral code
which, oddly enough, strongly resembled Christian teaching. In the early 1870s, Wodziwobs Ghost Dance cult
spread to several tribes in California and Oregon, but soon
40 died out or was absorbed into other cults.
A.
B.
C.
D.
the U.S. government no longer attempted to

suppress Native American religious practices.
many Native Americans felt particularly threatened by white civilization.
Wovoka was a more charismatic religious leader
than Wodziwob had been.
it was founded on the basis of a spiritual revelation.
112. The passage implies that a paradoxical element of the

Ghost Dance cults was their:
A second Ghost Dance cult, founded in January 1889,

evolved as the result of a similar revelation. This time
Wovokaanother Northern Paiute Indian, whose father
had been a disciple of Wodziwobreceived a vision dur45 ing a solar eclipse in which he died, spoke to God, and was
assigned the task of teaching the dance and
the millennial message. With white civilization having
pushed western tribes ever closer to the brink of cultural
A.
B.
C.
D.
organized resistance to cultural change.

mixture of anti-white sentiment and Christian
morality.
belief in the ability of ghost shirts to protect
them in combat.
combination of millenialist message and desire
to revive the old ways.
38
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116. Which of the following tribes would probably NOT

have taken part in the Ghost Dance cults?
113. All of the following characteristics are described in

the passage as common to all millenialist movements
EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
the desire for salvation.

the belief in imminent apocalypse.
attempts to preserve cultural integrity.
adherence to Christian doctrines.
117. The author answers all of the following questions

EXCEPT:
114. According to the passage, white encroachment on

Native American tribes involved all of the following
EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The Potawatomi of Illinois

The Eastern Shoshoni of Wyoming
The Pawnee of Nebraska
The Southern Arapaho of Oklahoma
A.
forced resettlement of Indians.

Western migration by whites.
justifications based on spiritual revelations.
depletion of Indian food sources.
B.
C.
D.
What was the magical property attributed to the

ghost shirts?
Was there any connection between the prophets
of the two Ghost Dance cults?
What distinguishes nativistic millenialist
movements from other millenialist movements?
What caused the first Ghost Dance cult to die out?
115. Which of the following was NOT part of the spiritual

revelation described in the fourth paragraph of the
passage?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Unity among all Indian tribes

Restoration of traditional Indian ways
Resurrection of the dead
Return of the buffalo

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50
Our sense of smell is arguably the most powerful of

our five senses, but it also the most elusive. It plays a vital
yet mysterious role in our lives. Olfaction is rooted in the
same part of the brain that regulates such essential func5 tions as body metabolism, reaction to stress, and appetite.
But smell relates to more than physiological function: its
sensations are intimately tied to memory, emotion, and
sexual desire. Smell seems to lie somewhere beyond the
realm of conscious thought, where, intertwined with emo10 tion and experience, it shapes both our conscious and
unconscious lives.
55
60
The peculiar intimacy of this sense may be related to

certain anatomical features. Smell reaches the brain more
directly than do sensations of touch, sight, or sound. When
15 we inhale a particular odor, air containing volatile odiferous molecules is warmed and humidified as it flows over
specialized bones in the nose called turbinates. As odor
molecules land on the olfactory nerves, these nerves fire a
message to the brain. Thus olfactory neurons render a
20 direct path between the stimulus provided by the outside
environment and the brain, allowing us to rapidly perceive
odors ranging from alluring fragrances to noisome fumes.
65
70
Certain scents, such as jasmine, are almost universally

appealing, while others, like hydrogen sulfide (which emits
25 a stench reminiscent of rotten eggs), are usually considered
repellent, but most odors evoke different reactions from person to person, sometimes triggering strong emotional states
or resurrecting seemingly forgotten memories. Scientists
surmise that the reason why we have highly personal asso30 ciations with smells is related to the proximity of the olfactory and emotional centers of our brain. Although the
precise connection between emotion and olfaction remains
a mystery, it is clear that emotion, memory, and smell are all
rooted in a part of the brain called the limbic lobe.
influenced by pheromones, which are odors that induce

psychological or behavioral changes and often provide a
means of communicating within a species. These chemical
messages, often a complex blend of compounds, are of
vital importance to the insect world. Honeybees, for example, organize their societies through odor: the queen bee
exudes an odor that both inhibits worker bees from laying
eggs and draws drones to her when she is ready to mate.
Mammals are also guided by their sense of smell. Through
odors emitted by urine and scent glands, many animals
maintain their territories, identify one another, signal
alarm, and attract mates.
Although our olfactory acuity cant rival that of other
animal species, human beings are also guided by smell.
Before the advent of sophisticated laboratory techniques,
physicians depended on their noses to help diagnose illness. A century ago, it was common medical knowledge
that certain bacterial infections carry the musty odor of
wine, that typhoid smells like baking bread, and that yellow fever smells like meat. While medical science has
moved away from such subjective diagnostic methods, in
everyday life we continue to rely on our sense of small,
knowingly or not, to guide us.
118. According to the passage, the location of the olfactory and emotional centers of the brain helps explain
all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
Even though we are not always conscious of the presence of odors, and are often unable to either articulate or
remember their unique characteristics, our brains always
register their existence. In fact, such a large amount of
human brain tissue is devoted to smell that scientists sur40 mise the role of this sense must be profound. Moreover,
neurobiological research suggests that smell must have an
important function because olfactory neurons can regenerate themselves, unlike most other nerve cells. The importance of this sense is further supported by the fact that
45 animals experimentally denied the olfactory sense do not
develop full and normal brain function.
35
D.
why smells can evoke distant memories.

why odors elicit different reactions from person
to person.
why a substantial part of the brain is devoted to
smell.
which functions are rooted in the limbic lobe.
119. The authors central concern in this passage is to:

A.
B.
C.
D.
The significance of olfaction is much clearer in animals than in human beings. Animal behavior is strongly
discuss both the physiological and emotional

aspects of olfaction.
explain why the sense of smell is more important than other senses.
detail the biological mechanisms by which
smells trigger long-forgotten memories.
defend the view that human emotion is rooted in
anatomical processes.
40
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120. The passage implies that physicians no longer make

diagnoses based on odors because:
A.
B.
C.
D.
123. It can be inferred from the passage that the emotional

element of human olfaction would be better understood through investigation into:
the human sense of smell has considerably

diminished over time.
the association of odors with disease proved
largely fictitious.
such subjective diagnostic methods were shown
to be useless.
the medical profession today favors more objective techniques.
A.
B.
C.
D.
121. The sense of smell in animals is different from olfaction in humans in that animals:
A.
B.
C.
D.
124. Which of the following evidence does NOT support

the authors statement that smell has an important
physiological function?
are unable to make associations between smells

and past experience.
only use smell to communicate outside their
own species.
rely on olfaction only for mating purposes.
more clearly exhibit behavioral changes in
response to odors.
A.
B.
C.
D.
122. The author describes the sense of smell as elusive

because:
A.
B.
C.
D.
the components and functions of the limbic

lobe.
how pheromones regulate social behavior and
organization.
the composition of certain highly evocative
odors.
the pathway between outside environment and
olfactory nerves.
Olfaction and metabolic function are located in

the same area of the brain.
Animals with impaired olfaction frequently
exhibit abnormal brain function.
A considerable amount of human brain tissue is
devoted to olfaction.
Human beings with impaired olfaction are usually able to behave and function normally.
odiferous molecules are extremely volatile.

the functions of smell are emotional rather than
physiological.
the function and effects of smell are not fully
understood.
olfactory sensations are more fleeting than those
of other senses.

41
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50
Bebop lives! cries the newest generation of jazz players. During the 1980s, musicians like Wynton Marsalis
revived public interest in bebop, the speedy, angular music
that first bubbled up out of Harlem in the early 1940s,
5 changing the face of jazz. That Marsalis and others thought
of themselves as celebrating and preserving a noble tradition is, in one sense, inevitable. After the excesses of
experimental or free jazz in the 1960s and the electronic
jazz-rock fusion of the 70s, it is hardly surprising that
10 people should hearken back to a time when jazz was
purer, perhaps even at the apex of its development. But
the recent enthusiasm for bebop is also ironic in light of the
musics initial public reception.
55
60
In its infancy, during the first two decades of the 20th

century, jazz was played by small groups of musicians
improvising variations on blues tunes and popular songs.
Most of the musicians were unable to read music, and their
improvisations were fairly rudimentary. Nevertheless, jazz
attained international recognition in the 1920s. Two of the
20 people most responsible for its rise in popularity were
Louis Armstrong, the first great jazz soloist, and Fletcher
Henderson, leader of the first great jazz band. Armstrong,
with his buoyant personality and virtuosic technical skills,
greatly expanded the creative range and importance of the
25 soloist in jazz. Henderson, a pianist with extensive training
in music theory, foresaw the orchestral possibilities of jazz
played by a larger band. He wrote out arrangements of
songs for his band members that preserved the spirit of
jazz, while at the same time giving soloists a more struc30 tured musical background upon which to shape their solo
improvisations. In the 1930s, jazz moved further into the
mainstream with the advent of the Swing Era. Big bands in
the Henderson mold, led by musicians like Benny Goodman, Count Basie and Duke Ellington, achieved unprece35 dented popularity with jazz-oriented swing music that
was eminently danceable.
65
15
Played mainly by small combos rather than big bands,

bebop was not danceable; it demanded intellectual concentration. Soon, jazz began to lose its hold on the popular
audience, which found the new music disconcerting. Compounding public alienation was the fact that bebop seemed
to have arrived on the scene in a completely mature state
of development, without that early phase of experimentation that typifies so many movements in the course of
Western music. This was as much the result of an accident
of history as anything else. The early development of
bebop occurred during a three-year ban on recording in
this country made necessary by the petrol and vinyl shortages of World War II. By the time the ban was lifted, and
the first bebop records were made, the new music seemed
to have sprung fully-formed like Athena from the forehead
of Zeus. And though a small core of enthusiasts would
continue to worship bebop pioneers like Charlie Parker
and Dizzy Gillespie, many bebop musicians were never
able to gain acceptance with any audience and went on to
lead lives of obscurity and deprivation.
125. According to the passage, which of the following is

true about the bebop music of the 1940s?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Against this musical backdrop, bebop arrived on the

scene. Like other modernist movements in art and literature, bebop music represented a departure from tradition in
40 both form and content, and was met with initial hostility.
Bebop tempos were unusually fast, with the soloist often
playing at double time to the backing musicians. The
rhythms were tricky and complex, the melodies intricate
and frequently dissonant, involving chord changes and
45 notes not previously heard in jazz. Before bebop, jazz
players had improvised on popular songs such as those
produced by Tin-Pan Alley, but bebop tunes were often
originals with which jazz audiences were unfamiliar.
It followed the tradition of jazz from the 1920s.

It differed markedly from the music of the
Swing Era.
It celebrated the songs of Tin-Pan Alley.
It did not require great improvisational skill.
126. According to the passage, which of the following is

true about the jazz of the 1920s?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It resembled the jazz played during the first two

decades of the century.
It placed greater demands on the improvisatory
skills of its soloists.
Its fast tempos foreshadowed those of bebop in
the 1940s.
It was primarily dance music.

42
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130. The author suggests that bebop seemed to represent a

radical departure from earlier jazz in that it:
127. Based on the information in the passage comparing

bebop to other movements in the history of Western
music, it is reasonable to conclude that:
A.
B.
C.
D.
I. most movements in music history passed

through a stage of experimentation before
reaching mature expression.
II. World War II prevented bebop from reaching a more appreciative audience.
III. bebop did not go through a developmental
stage before reaching mature expression
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
grew to maturity before reaching a wide audience.

attracted primarily a youthful audience.
dispensed with written arrangements of songs.
expressed the alienation of the musicians who
played it.
131. The author mentions Wynton Marsalis and Charlie

Parker as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
pioneers of jazz-rock fusion.

architects of the bebop movement.
Swing Era musicians hostile to bebop.
bebop musicians of different eras.
128. It can be inferred from the passage that the innovations of Fletcher Henderson (lines 27-34) were
inspired primarily by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
his admiration for Louis Armstrong.

a hunger for international recognition.
the realization that the public favored large
bands over small combos.
a desire to go beyond the structural limitations
of early jazz music.
129. According to the passage, all of the following are

characteristic of bebop music EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
eminently danceable tunes.

dissonant melodies.
complex rhythms.
intellectual complexity.

43
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10
15
20
Studies of photosynthesis began in the late eighteenth

century. One scientist found that green plants produce a
substance (later shown to be oxygen) that supports the
flame of a candle in a closed container. Several years later
it was discovered that a plant must be exposed to light in
order to replenish this flame-sustaining substance. Soon
another discovery showed that the oxygen is formed at the
expense of another gas, carbon dioxide.
In 1804, de Saussure conducted experiments revealing
that equal volumes of carbon dioxide and oxygen are
exchanged between a plant and the air surrounding it. De
Saussure determined that the weight gained by a plant grown
in a pot equals the sum of the weights of carbon derived from
absorbed carbon dioxide and water absorbed through plant
roots. Using this information, de Saussure was able to postulate that in photosynthesis carbon dioxide and water combine
using energy in the form of light to produce carbohydrates,
water, and free oxygen. Much later, in 1845, scientists
increased understanding of concepts of chemical energy led
them to perceive that, through photosynthesis, light energy is
transformed and stored as chemical energy.
45
In the twentieth century, studies comparing photosynthesis in green plants and in certain sulfur bacteria yielded
important information about the photosynthetic process.
Because water is both a reactant and a product in the central reaction, it had long been assumed that the oxygen
released by photosynthesis comes from splitting the carbon dioxide molecule. In the 1930s, however, this popular
view was decisively altered by the studies of C. B. Van
Niel. Van Niel studied sulfur bacteria, which use hydrogen
sulfide for photosynthesis in the same way that green
plants use water, and produce sulfur instead of oxygen.
Van Niel saw that the use of carbon dioxide to form carbohydrates was similar in the two types of organisms. He
reasoned that the oxygen produced by green plants must
derive from waterrather than carbon dioxide, as previously assumedin the same way that the sulfur produced
by the bacteria derives from hydrogen sulfide. Van Niels
finding was important because the earlier belief had been
that oxygen was split off from carbon dioxide, and that
carbon then combined with water to form carbohydrates.
The new postulate was that, with green plants, hydrogen is
removed from water and then combines with carbon dioxide to form the carbohydrates needed by the organism.
50
Later, Van Niels assertions were strongly backed by

scientists who used water marked with a radioactive
isotope of oxygen in order to follow photosynthetic reactions. When the photosynthetically-produced free oxygen
was analyzed, the isotope was found to be present.
25
30
35
40
132. Which of the following can be inferred about the scientists discussed in the passage?
A.
B.
C.
D.
They relied on abstract reasoning in the absence

of physical data.
They never came to understand the role of light
in photosynthesis.
Each contributed to our understanding of the
production of oxygen by plants.
They tended to undervalue previous scientific
findings.
133. According to the passage, C. B. Van Niels experiments:

A.
B.
C.
D.
provided the first model of photosynthesis.

showed that the carbon dioxide molecule is split
during photosynthesis.
proved that some organisms combine hydrogen
sulfide with carbon dioxide in photosynthesis.
provided evidence that weakened the accepted
model of photosynthesis.
44
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Page 45
137. It can be inferred from the passage that, in evaluating

Van Niels hypothesis about the role of water in photosynthesis, scientists were:
134. According to the passage, the study of organisms that

require hydrogen sulfide for photosynthesis:
A.
B.
C.
D.
proved that oxygen is not produced in photosynthesis.

contradicted the notion that oxygen is needed to
support a candles flame.
disproved assumptions about the role of light
energy in photosynthesis.
clarified the role of water in photosynthesis
among green plants.
A.
B.
C.
D.
135. Which of the following statements about photosynthesis would most probably NOT have been made by
de Saussure?
A.
B.
C.
D.

It involves an exchange of equal quantities of

gases.
It results in the conversion of light energy to
chemical energy.
It produces oxygen.
It requires light.
136. The passage supplies information for answering all

of the following questions EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
willing to overlook minor inconsistencies in Van

Niels account.
biased in favor of an older, more established
explanation.
brought to reluctant agreement after repeated
tests.
thoroughly convinced after conducting an independent experiment.
Why is oxygen necessary for a candle to burn?

What was de Saussures explanation of the
function of water in photosynthesis?
What is the function of light in photosynthesis?
Is water required for all photosynthetic reactions?
45
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01 MCAT FL Test1
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Page 47
Writing Sample
Time: 60 Minutes
2 Items, Separately Timed:
30 Minutes Each
01 MCAT FL Test1
06/26/2003
05:30 PM
Page 48
WRITING SAMPLE
DIRECTIONS: This section is a test of your writing skills. The
section contains two parts. You will have 30 minutes to complete
each part.
Your responses to the prompts given in the Writing Sample will
be written in the ANSWER DOCUMENT. Your response to Part 1
must be written only on the answer sheets marked 1, and your
response to Part 2 must be written only on the answer sheets
marked 2. You may work only on Part 1 during the first 30 minutes of the test and only on Part 2 during the second 30 minutes.
If you finish writing on Part 1 before the time is up, you may
review your work on that part, but do not begin writing on Part 2.
If you finish writing on Part 2 before the time is up, you may
review your work only on Part 2.
Use your time efficiently. Before you begin writing a response,
read the assignment carefully and make sure you understand
exactly what you are being asked to do. You may use the space
below each writing assignment to make notes in planning your
responses.
Because this is a test of your writing skills, your response to each
part should be an essay composed of complete sentences and
paragraphs, as well organized and clearly written as you can
make it in the allotted time. You may make corrections or additions neatly between the lines of your responses, but do not write
in the margins of the answer booklet.
There are six pages in your answer booklet to write your
responses, three pages for each part of the test. You are not
required to use all of the pages, but to be sure that you have
enough space for each essay, do not skip lines.
Essays that are illegible cannot be scored. In addition, essays
that are not written in English will not be scored.

48
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Part 1
Consider the following statement:
It is each citizen's duty to obey the laws of the nation.
Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above
statement means. Describe a specific situation in which a citizen might not have a duty to obey a law.
Discuss what you think determines when citizens have a duty to obey the laws of the nation and when
they do not.

49
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Part 2
Consider the following statement:
Heroes are ordinary people made heroic by circumstance.
Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above
statement means. Describe a specific situation in which someone might be heroic because of something
other than circumstance. Discuss what you think determines when heroism is dependent on circumstance
and when it is not.

50
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Biological Sciences
Time: 100 Minutes
Questions 138214
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BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES
DIRECTIONS: Most of the questions in the following
test are organized into groups, with a descriptive passage preceding each group of questions. Study the
passage, then select the single best answer to each
question in the group. Some of the questions are not
based on a descriptive passage; you must also select
the best answer to these questions. If you are unsure
of the best answer, eliminate the choices that you
know are incorrect, then select an answer from the
choices that remain. Indicate your selection by blackening the corresponding circle on your answer sheet.
A periodic table is provided below for your use with the
questions.
PERIODIC TABLE OF THE ELEMENTS

1
H
1.0
2
He
4.0
3
Li
6.9
4
Be
9.0
5
B
10.8
6
C
12.0
7
N
14.0
8
O
16.0
9
F
19.0
10
Ne
20.2
11
Na
23.0
12
Mg
24.3
13
Al
27.0
14
Si
28.1
15
P
31.0
16
S
32.1
17
Cl
35.5
18
Ar
39.9
19
K
39.1
20
Ca
40.1
21
Sc
45.0
22
Ti
47.9
23
V
50.9
30
Zn
65.4
31
Ga
69.7
32
Ge
72.6
33
As
74.9
34
Se
79.0
35
Br
79.9
36
Kr
83.8
37
38
Sr
87.6
39
Y
88.9
40
Zr
91.2
50
Rb
85.5
55
Cs
132.9
56
Ba
137.3
57
La *
138.9
72
Hf
178.5
87
Fr
(223)
88
Ra
226.0
89
Ac
227.0
24
Cr
52.0
25
Mn
54.9
26
Fe
55.8
27
Co
58.9
28
Ni
58.7
29
Cu
63.5
41
42
Nb
92.9
Mo
95.9
43
Tc
(98)
44
45
48
Rh
102.9
46
Pd
106.4
47
Ru
101.1
Ag
107.9
Cd
112.4
49
In
114.8
Sn
118.7
51
Sb
121.8
52
Te
127.6
53
I
126.9
Xe
131.3
73
Ta
180.9
74
W
183.9
75
Re
186.2
76
Os
190.2
77
Ir
192.2
78
Pt
195.1
79
Au
197.0
80
Hg
200.6
81
Tl
204.4
82
Pb
207.2
83
Bi
209.0
84
Po
(209)
85
At
(210)
86
Rn
(222)
104
Rf
(261)
105
Ha
(262)
106
Unh
(263)
107
Uns
(262)
108
Uno
(265)
109
Une
(267)
58
Ce
140.1
59
Pr
140.9
60
Nd
144.2
61
Pm
(145)
62
Sm
150.4
63
Eu
152.0
64
Gd
157.3
65
Tb
158.9
66
Dy
162.5
67
Ho
164.9
68
Er
167.3
69
Tm
168.9
70
Yb
173.0
71
Lu
175.0
90
Th
232.0
91
Pa
(231)
92
U
238.0
93
Np
(237)
94
Pu
(244)
95
Am
(243)
96
Cm
(247)
97
Bk
(247)
98
Cf
(251)
99
Es
(252)
100
Fm
(257)
101
Md
(258)
102
No
(259)
103
Lr
(260)
54

52
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138. The llama is a warm-blooded mammal that lives in

regions of unusually high altitudes, and has evolved
a type of Hb that adapts it to such an existence. If
Curve B represents the O2-dissociation curve for
horse Hb, which curve would most closely resemble
the curve for llama Hb?
Hemoglobin (Hb) and myoglobin (Mb) are the O2- carrying proteins in vertebrates. Hb, which is contained
within red blood cells, serves as the O2 carrier in blood and
also plays a vital role in the transport of CO2 and H+. Vertebrate Hb consists of four polypeptides (subunits) each
with a heme group. The four chains are held together by
noncovalent attractions. The affinity of Hb for O2 varies
between species and within species depending on such factors as blood pH, stage of development, and body size. For
example, small mammals give up O2 more readily than
large mammals because small mammals have a higher
metabolic rate and require more O2 per gram of tissue.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Curve A
Curve B
Curve C
Curve D
139. If Curve B represents the O2-dissociation curve for

elephant Hb, which curve most closely resembles the
curve for mouse Hb?
The binding of O2 to Hb is also dependent on the cooperativity of the Hb subunits. That is, binding at one heme
facilitates the binding of O2 at the other hemes within the
Hb molecule by altering the conformation of the entire
molecule. This conformational change makes subsequent
binding of O2 more energetically favorable. Conversely,
the unloading of O2 at one heme facilitates the unloading
of O2 at the others by a similar mechanism.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Curve A
Curve B
Curve C
Curve D
140. If Curve B represents the O2-dissociation curve for

human adult Hb, which of the following best
explains why Curve A most closely resembles the
curve for fetal Hb?
Figure 1 depicts the O2-dissociation curves of Hb

(Curves A, B, and C) and myoglobin (Curve D), where saturation, Y, is the fractional occupancy of the O2-binding
sites.
A.
The fraction of O2 that is transferred from Hb as the

blood passes through the tissue capillaries is called the utilization coefficient. A normal value is approximately 0.25.
B.
C.
D.
Fetal tissue has a higher metabolic rate than

adult tissue.
Fetal tissue has a lower metabolic rate than adult
tissue.
Fetal Hb has a higher affinity for O2 than adult
Hb.
Fetal Hb has a lower affinity for O2 than adult
Hb.
Figure 1
Myoglobin facilitates O2 transport in muscle and
serves as a reserve store of O2. Mb is a single polypeptide
chain containing a heme group, with a molecular weight of
18 kd. As can be seen in Figure 1, Mb (Curve D) has a
greater affinity for O2 than Hb.

53
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144. In sperm whales, the Mb content of muscle is about

0.004 moles/kg of muscle. If a sperm whale has 1000
kg of muscle, approximately how much O2 is bound
to Mb, assuming that the Mb is saturated with O2?
141. The sigmoidal shape of the O2-dissociation curve of

Hb is due to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
the effects of oxidation and reduction on the

heme groups within the Hb molecule.
the concentration of carbon dioxide in the
blood.
the fact that Hb has a lower affinity for O2 than
Mb.
the cooperativity in binding among the subunits
of the Hb molecule.
A.
B.
C.
D.
4 moles
8 moles
12 moles
16 moles
142. A sample of human adult Hb is placed in an 8 M urea

solution, resulting in the disruption of noncovalent
interactions. After this procedure, the chains of Hb
are isolated. Which of the four curves most closely
resembles the O2-dissociation curve for the isolated
chains? [Note: Assume that Curve B represents the
O2-dissociation curve for human adult Hb in vivo.]
A.
B.
C.
D.
Curve A
Curve B
Curve C
Curve D
143. The utilization coefficient is continually being

adjusted in response to physiological changes. Which
of the following values most likely represents the
utilization coefficient for human adult Hb during
strenuous exercise?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.0
0.125
0.25
0.75

54
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145. An elevated and potentially toxic level of ammonia

in the blood (hyperammonemia) would most likely
result from a defect in an enzyme involved in:
Just as the ingestion of nutrients is mandatory for

human life, so is the excretion of metabolic waste products. One of these nutrients, protein, is used for building
muscle, nucleic acids, and countless compounds integral to
homeostasis. However, the catabolism of the amino acids
generated from protein digestion produces ammonia,
which, if not further degraded, can become toxic. Similarly, if the same salts that provide energy and chemical
balance to cells are in excess, fluid retention will occur,
damaging the circulatory, cardiac, and pulmonary systems.
A.
B.
C.
D.
146. According to the passage, the catabolism of amino

acids produces ammonia. Therefore, after a proteinrich meal, would you expect a build-up of ammonia
in the lumen of the small intestine?
One of the most important homeostatic organs is the

kidney, which closely regulates the excretion and reabsorption of many essential ions and molecules. One mechanism of renal function involves the secretion of
antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
A.
B.
Diabetes insipidus (DI), is the condition that occurs

when ADH is ineffective. As a result, the kidneys are
unable to concentrate urine, leading to excessive water
loss. There are two types of DIcentral and nephrogenic.
Central DI occurs when there is a deficiency in the quantity or quality of ADH produced. Nephrogenic DI occurs
when the kidney tubules are unresponsive to ADH. To differentiate between these two conditions, a patients urine
osmolarity is measured both prior to therapy and after a
24-hour restriction on fluid intake. Exogenous ADH is
then administered and urine osmolarity is measured again.
The table below gives the results of testing on four
patients. Assume that a urine osmolarity of 285 mOsm/L of
H2O is normal.
C.
D.
A
B
C
D
Before Therapy After fluid

restriction
285
765
180
765
180
180
180
180
Yes, because the ammonia will not be able to

diffuse into the intestinal epithelium.
Yes, because the rate at which digestive
enzymes degrade ammonia is slower than the
rate at which ammonia is produced.
No, because the ammonia will diffuse into the
intestinal epithelium and will be excreted by the
kidneys.
No, because the ammonia is produced inside
individual cells, not within the lumen of the
small intestine.
147. Which of the following substances would NOT be

found in appreciable quantity in the urine of a healthy
individual?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Table 1 Urine Osmolarity (mOsm/L of H2O)

Patient
glycolysis.
fatty acid catabolism.
the urea cycle.
nucleic acid degradation.
Albumin
Sodium
Urea
Potassium
After ADH
765
765
400
180

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148. Which of the following would you most likely expect

to find in a patient with diabetes insipidus?
A.
B.
C.
D.
151. What is the most likely cause of Patient Bs dilute

urine before therapy?
Decreased plasma osmolarity

Increased urine osmolarity
Increased urine glucose
Increased urine output
A.
B.
C.
D.
Excessive water intake

Dehydration
Nephrogenic DI
Central DI
149. Based on the data in Table 1, which of the four

patients most likely has central diabetes insipidus?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Patient A
Patient B
Patient C
Patient D
150. Based on the data in Table 1, which of the four

patients most likely has nephrogenic diabetes
insipidus?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Patient A
Patient B
Patient C
Patient D

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152. The electrons that give color to a carotene molecule

are found in:
Electromagnetic radiation from space constantly bombards the earth. Most wavelengths are absorbed by the
atmosphere; however, there are two windows of nonabsorption through which significant amounts of radiation
reach the ground. The first transmits ultraviolet and visible
light, as well as infrared light or heat; the second transmits
radio waves. As a result, terrestrial organisms have
evolved a number of pigments that interact with light in
various ways: some capture light energy, some provide
protection from light-induced damage, and some serve
camouflage or signaling purposes.
A.
B.
C.
D.
153. Two pigments are identical except for the lengths of

their conjugated polyene chains. The first transmits
yellow light and the second red. What can be said
about the sizes of the chromophores?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Among these compounds are many conjugated

polyenes, which play important roles as photoreceptors.
For every chemical compound, there are certain wavelengths of light whose quanta possess exactly the correct
amount of energy to raise electrons from their ground state
to higher-energy orbitals. For most organic compounds,
these wavelengths are in the UV range. However, conjugated double bond systems stabilize the electrons, so that
they can be excited by lower-frequency photons with
wavelengths in the visible spectrum. Such a pigment,
known as a chromophore, will then transmit the subtraction color, a color complementary to the one absorbed.
For instance, carotene, a hydrocarbon compound with
eleven conjugated double bonds, absorbs blue light and
transmits orange. The wavelength that is absorbed generally increases with the number of conjugated bonds; rings
and side-chains also affect wavelength.
Wavelength
480 nm
580 nm
680 nm
Color
blue
yellow
red
s orbitals.
orbitals.
d orbitals.
f orbitals.
The first is longer.

The second is longer.
One of the chromophores must be a dimer.
The comparative lengths cannot be determined.
154. Why is benzene colorless?

A.
B.
C.
D.
The absorption energy is of too high a frequency

to be visible.
The absorption energy is of too low a frequency
to be visible.
Benzene does not absorb light.
Benzene is not conjugated.
Subtraction Color
orange
violet
green
Among the many biological molecules that are

affected by light is DNA, the genetic material of living
organisms. DNA absorbs ultraviolet light, and may be
damaged by UVC (< 280 nm) and UVB (280-315 nm).
UVA (315-400 nm) and visible light can actually repair
light-induced damage to DNA by a process called photorepair. For this reason UVA, which also stimulates tanning, was once considered beneficial. However, there is
now increasing evidence that UVA can damage skin.

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155. Many crustaceans produce a blue or green caroteneprotein complex. What is the most likely cause of the
color change from green to orange when a lobster is
boiled?
A.
B.
C.
D.
156. The four compounds represented by the electronic

spectra below were evaluated as potential sunscreens. What is the correct sequence of sunscreen
strength, from strongest to weakest, among these
four?
Heat causes the prosthetic group to become partially hydrated.

The increase in temperature permits the prosthetic group to absorb shorter wavelengths.
The protein is separated from the carotenoid
pigment.
Heat causes the prosthetic group to become
oxidized.
I.
II.
III.
IV.
A.
B.
C.
D.
I, II, III, IV
IV, III, II, I
III, II, I, IV
IV, I, II, III

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157. Which of the following compounds would be most

likely to produce color?
Questions 159 through 163 are NOT based

on a descriptive passage.
159. An increase in heart rate, blood pressure, and blood
glucose concentration are all associated with stimulation of the:
A.
A.
B.
C.
D.
parasympathetic nervous system.

sympathetic nervous system.
somatic nervous system.
digestive system.
160. Which of the following compounds share the same

absolute configuration?
B.
I.
NH2
III.
COOH
COOH
O
H
C.
Cl
II.
OH
COOH
NH2
OH
A.
B.
C.
D.
158. The color-producing quality of conjugated polyenes

is attributable to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
IV.
H3C
D.
CH2CH3
CH3
Cl
antibonding orbitals.
resonance.
polarity.
optical activity.
C2H5
OH
OH
HOOC
CH3
H
I and III
II and IV
I and II
II, III, and IV
161. Which of the following structures plays a role in both

the male excretory and male reproductive systems,
but in the female excretory system only?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Epididymis
Prostate
Urethra
Ureter

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162. The reaction RBr + Br* RBr* + Br is

always accompanied by inversion. If this reaction is
carried out on an optically pure sample of a chiral
compound, which of the following statements will be
true? [Note: Br* represents a radioactive isotope of
bromine.]
A.
B.
C.
D.
The rate of Br* incorporation is half the rate of

racemization.
The rate of Br* incorporation is equal to the rate
of racemization.
The rate of Br* incorporation is twice the rate of
racemization.
The relation between the rate of Br* incorporation and the rate of racemization cannot be
determined.
163. Which of the following cell types does NOT contain

the diploid number of chromosomes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Spermatogonium
Spermatid
Zygote
Primary oocyte

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164. According to Figure 1, which of the following

assumptions about the P1 generation must be true?
Hemophilia is a genetically inherited disease that

causes the synthesis of an abnormal clotting factor. As a
result, hemophiliacs bleed excessively from the slightest
injury. The figure below is a partial pedigree for the
hemophilia trait in Queen Victorias descendants. The
pedigree indicates no history of hemophilia for either parent
prior to the F1 generation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Albert did not have the gene for hemophilia.

Queen Victoria had two X chromosomes, each
with the gene for hemophilia.
Neither Albert nor Queen Victorian had the gene
for hemophilia.
Albert was a carrier of the hemophilia gene.
165. Which of the following best explains why Louis IV

was NOT a hemophiliac?
A.
B.
C.
D.
His son Frederick was a hemophiliac.

He did not inherit the gene for hemophilia from
his mother.
His father-in-law, Albert, was not a hemophiliac.
Only females can be carriers of the gene for
hemophilia.
166. If Beatrice had married a hemophiliac and had a son,

what is the probability that the son would have been
a hemophiliac?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Figure 1
0%
25%
50%
100%

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167. Theoretically, what percentage of Victoria Eugenias

sons should have been hemophiliacs?
A.
B.
C.
D.
25%
33%
50%
75%
168. Based on the pedigree, what is the most reasonable

explanation for Ruperts hemophilia?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A mutation occurred on the Y chromosome that

he inherited from his father.
His mother was a hemophiliac and transmitted
the gene to him.
His father was a carrier of the gene for
hemophilia.
His maternal grandfather was a hemophiliac.

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169. In which of the following phases of the cell cycle

could mitochondrial DNA replicate?
Aerobic respiration is the major process used by oxygen-requiring organisms to generate energy. During respiration, glucose is metabolized to generate chemical energy
in the form of ATP:
I. G1
II. S
III. G2
IV. M
A. IV only
B. I and III only
C. II and IV only
D. I, II, III, and IV
C6H12O6 + 6O2 6CO2 + 6H2O + 36ATP

The biochemical machinery necessary for cellular respiration is found in the mitochondria, small organelles
scattered throughout the cytoplasm of most eukaryotic
cells. The number of mitochondria per cell varies by tissue
type and cell function.
170. Scientists have demonstrated that human mitochondrial DNA mutates at a fairly slow rate. Because
mitochondria play such an important role in the cell,
these mutations are most likely to be:
Mitochondria are unusual in that they have their own

genetic systems that are entirely separate from the cells
genetic material. However, mitochondrial replication is
still dependent upon the cells nuclear DNA to encode
essential proteins required for replication. Despite this
fact, mitochondria seem to replicate randomly, out of
phase with both the cell cycle and other mitochondria.
A.
B.
C.
D.
The nature of the mitochondrial genome and proteinsynthesizing machinery has led many researchers to postulate that mitochondria may have arisen as the result of the
ingestion of a bacterium by a primitive cell millions of
years ago. It is postulated that the two may have entered
into a symbiotic relationship and eventually became
dependent on each another; the cell sustained the bacterium, while the bacterium provided energy for the cell.
Gradually, the two evolved into the present-day eukaryotic
cell, with the mitochondrion retaining some of its own
DNA. This is known as the endosymbiotic hypothesis.
Because mitochondrial DNA is inherited in a nonMendelian fashion (mitochondria are inherited from the
maternal parent, who supplies most of the cytoplasm to the
fertilized egg), it has been used to look at evolutionary
relationships among different organisms.
point mutations.
frameshift mutations.
lethal mutations.
nondisjunctions.
171. Which of the following mitochondrial genome characteristics differs most from the characteristics of the
nuclear genome?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mitochondrial DNA is a double-helix.

Some mitochondrial genes code for tRNA.
Specific mutations to mitochondrial DNA can
be lethal to the organism.
Almost every base in mitochondrial DNA codes
for a product.

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172. What is the net number of ATP molecules synthesized by an obligate anaerobe per molecule of glucose?
A.
B.
C.
D.
175. Which of the following pieces of evidence would

NOT support the hypothesis that mitochondria were
once independent bacteria that eventually formed a
symbiotic relationship with eukaryotic cells?
2 ATP
6 ATP
8 ATP
36 ATP
A.
B.
C.
173. A mating type of a wild-type strain of the algae C.

reinhardii is crossed with the opposite mating type of
a mutant strain of the algae, which has lost all mitochondrial functions due to deletions in their mitochondrial genome. All of the offspring from this
cross also lack mitochondrial functions. Based on
information in the passage, this can best be explained
by the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
D.
Mitochondrial DNA is circular and not enclosed

by a nuclear membrane.
Mitochondrial ribosomes more closely resemble
eukaryotic ribosomes than prokaryotic ribosomes.
Many present-day bacteria live within eukaryotic cells, digesting nutrients that their hosts
cannot and sharing the energy thus derived.
Mitochondrial DNA codes for its own ribosomal RNA.
endosymbiotic hypothesis.
non-Mendelian inheritance of mitochondrial
DNA.
recombination of mitochondrial DNA during
organelle replication.
presence of genetic material in the mitochondria
that is distinct from nuclear DNA.
174. Four different human cell cultureserythrocytes,

epidermal cells, skeletal muscle cells, and intestinal
cellswere grown in a medium containing radioactive adenine. After 10 days, the mitochondria were
isolated via centrifugation, and their level of radioactivity was measured using a liquid scintillation
counter. Which of the following cells would be
expected to have the greatest number of counts per
minute of radioactive decay?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Erythrocytes
Epidermal cells
Skeletal muscle cells
Intestinal cells

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176. Assuming that only the forward reaction occurs,

which of the following statements is correct?
The mechanism for the acid-catalyzed esterification of

a carboxylic acid, carried out with R'OH, is shown below.
The tagged alcohol R'18OH is used to study the reaction
mechanism. The resulting ester is separated from the reaction mixture; the water from the reaction mixture is then
distilled off completely and collected as a separate fraction.
A.
B.
C.
D.
O
R
OH
177. The rate of the reaction is negligible without the acid
catalyst. The catalyst:
H+
O
A.
B.
R
OH
C.
R'OH
D.
OH
R
R'
attacks the carbonyl oxygen, permitting the nucleophilic group to attack the carbonyl carbon.
attacks the carbonyl carbon, permitting the nucleophilic group to attack the carbonyl oxygen.
attacks the carbonyl oxygen, permitting the electrophilic group to attack the carbonyl carbon.
attacks the carbonyl carbon, permitting the electrophilic group to attack the carbonyl oxygen.
OH
O
178. Esterification may also occur between parts of the

same molecule. Which of the following compounds
would most easily undergo internal esterification to
form a cyclic ester?
A.
B.
C.
D.
OH
R
R'
The ester will contain labeled oxygen, while the

water fraction will not.
The water fraction will contain labeled oxygen,
while the ester will not.
Both the water fraction and the ester will contain labeled oxygen.
The location of the labeled oxygen cannot be
determined.
OH2
COOHCH2CH2OH
COOHCH2CH2CH2OH
COOHCH2CH2CH2CH2OH
COOHCH2CH2CH2CH2CH2OH
O
H2O
OH
OR'
H+
O
OR'

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179. Which of the following carboxylic acids will be most

acidic?
A.
B.
C.
D.
CH3CH2COOH
ClCH2CH2COOH
ClCH2CH2CH2COOH
Cl2CHCH2COOH
180. Another method for forming esters is:

RCOO + RX RCOOR + X
Why does this reaction occur?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The halide is a poor leaving group.

The halide acts as a good nucleophile.
The halide is an electron-donating group.
The carboxylate anion is highly nucleophilic.
181. Which of the following alkyl halides would be most

likely to react with sodium butanoate
(CH3CH2CH2COONa+) to form an ester?
A.
B.
C.
D.
CH3CH2CH2Cl
CH3Cl
(CH3)2CHCl
CH3CH2Cl

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182. In a paternity case, the mother has type A+ blood and

her son has type O blood. If the husband has type B+
blood, which of the following is true?

Four major blood types exist in the human ABO blood
system: types A, B, AB, and O; and there are three alleles
that code for them. The A and B alleles are codominant,
and the O allele is recessive. Blood types are derived from
the presence of specific polysaccharide antigens that lie on
the outer surface of the red blood cell membrane. The A
allele codes for the production of the A antigen; the B
allele codes for the production of the B antigen; the O
allele does not code for any antigen.
A.
B.
C.
D.
The husband could be the father.

The husband could not be the father.
The husband could not be the father of an O
son, but could be the father of an O daughter.
The husband is definitely the father.
183. A couple decide to have a child. If the fathers genotype is AO and the mother has type B blood of
unknown genotype, which of the following are possible blood types for their child?
While there are many other antigens found on red

blood cell membranes, the second most important antigen
is the Rh antigen. Rh is an autosomally dominant trait
coded for by 2 alleles. If this antigen is present, an individual is Rh+; if it is absent, an individual is Rh. For
example, a person with type AB blood with the Rh antigen
is said to be AB+.
I. A
II. B
III. AB
IV. O
A. I and II only
B. I, II, and III only
C. I, II, and IV only
D. I, II, III, and IV
These antigens become most important when an individual comes into contact with foreign blood. Because of
the presence of naturally occurring substances that closely
mimic the A and B antigens, individuals who do not have
these antigens on their red blood cells will form antibodies
against them. This is inconsequential until situations such
as blood transfusion, organ transplant, or pregnancy occur.
184. A new virus has been discovered that evades detection by the immune system of only those individuals
with type A or type AB blood. Which of the following best accounts for this observation?
Erythroblastosis fetalis is a condition in which the red

blood cells of an Rh+ fetus are attached by antibodies produced by its Rh mother. Unlike ABO incompatibility, in
which there are naturally occurring antibodies to foreign
antigens, the Rh system requires prior sensitization to the
Rh antigen before antibodies are produced. This sensitization usually occurs during the delivery of an Rh+ baby. So
while the first baby will not be harmed, any further Rh+
fetuses are at risk.
A.
B.
C.
D.
The viral antigens resemble the A antigen.

The viral antigens resemble the B antigen.
The viral antigens are Rh+.
The viral antigens are too small to elicit an
immune response.
The Coombs tests provide a method for determining

whether a mother has mounted an immune response again
her babys blood. The tests are based on whether or not
agglutination occurs when Coombs reagent is added to a
sample. Coombs reagent contains antibodies against the
anti-Rh antibodies produced by the mother. The indirect
Coombs test takes the mothers serum, which contains her
antibodies but no red blood cells, and mixes it with Rh+
red blood cells. Coombs reagent is then added. If agglutination occurs, the test is positive, and the mother must be
producing anti-Rh antibodies. The direct Coombs test
mixes the babys red blood cells with Coombs reagent. If
agglutination occurs, the test is positive, and the babys red
blood cells must have been attacked by its mothers antiRh antibodies.
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188. A woman who has never been pregnant has type B

blood. Which of the following antibodies would you
expect to find in her serum?
185. If a man with type AB blood needed a transfusion of

red blood cells, which of the following individuals
could safely donate blood?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A man with type A blood

A man with the genotype BO
A woman with the genotype AB
All four blood types are equally safe
A.
B.
C.
D.
189. A medical student suggested giving Rh mothers of

Rh+ fetuses a specific exogenous substance prior to
delivery to prevent an immune response. Which of
the following substances would likely be the safest
and most effective?
186. How might one most practically assess the risk of

erythroblastosis fetalis in a pregnant woman?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Anti-B antibody
Anti-A antibody
Anti-Rh antibody
Both anti-A and anti-Rh antibodies
Test all women for the presence of anti-Rh antibodies.

Test all fetuses for the presence of the Rh antigen within the first trimester of pregnancy.
Test only Rh mothers for the presence of antiRh antibodies.
Test all mothers of Rh+ children for the presence
of anti-Rh antibodies.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Rh antigen
An immunosuppressive drug
Anti-Rh antibody
Iron pills
187. Based on information in the passage, what does the

reaction below represent?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Negative direct Coombs test

Positive direct Coombs test
Positive indirect Coombs test
Negative indirect Coombs test

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193. Which of the following products may be formed in

the reaction below?

O
190. A certain chemical is found to inhibit the synthesis of
all steroids. The synthesis of which of the following
hormones would NOT be affected when a dose of
this chemical is administered to a laboratory rat?
A.
B.
C.
D.
H2O
Cortisol
Aldosterone
Epinephrine
Testosterone
A.
B.
C.
D.
191. A biochemist grows two cultures of yeastone aerobically and the other anaerobicallyand measures
the amount of ATP produced by each culture. He
finds that the aerobically-grown yeast produce about
18 times as much ATP as the anaerobically-grown
yeast. These observations are consistent with the fact
that in the aerobically grown yeast:
A.
B.
C.
D.
CH3CH=CHCHO
HOOCCH2CH(CH3)2
CH3CH(CH3)2
HOCH2CH(CH3)2
194. Which of the following statements is supported by

the table below?
para-nitrophenol
meta-nitrophenol
ortho-nitrophenol
oxygen is converted into ATP.

oxygen is necessary to convert glucose into
pyruvate.
oxygen is the final electron acceptor of the respiratory chain.
oxygen is necessary for the reduction of pyruvate into lactate.
A.
B.
C.
192. Growth hormone decreases the sensitivity of cellular

receptors to insulin. Therefore, a patient with
acromegaly, which is caused by the oversecretion of
growth hormone, would be expected to have:
A.
B.
C.
D.
H3O+
D.
Solubility per
100g H2O
Melting point
(C)
1.7
1.4
0.2
114
97
44
Ortho-nitrophenol has the greatest intramolecular hydrogen bonding.

Para-nitrophenol has the weakest intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
Meta- and para-nitrophenol form intramolecular hydrogen bonds.
Ortho-nitrophenol does not form intermolecular
hydrogen bonds.
a low blood glucose concentration.

a high blood glucose concentration.
a decreased urine volume.
a decreased cardiac output.

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197. Assuming that all of the students deductions were

correct, which of the following could be the structure
of the unknown compound?
A student was given a sample of an unknown liquid

and asked to determine as much as possible about its structure. He was told that the compound contained only carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, and had only one type of
functional group. The student found its boiling point to be
206C. Using mass spectroscopy, he determined its molecular weight to be 138 g/mol. Finally, he took the infrared
spectrum of the compound, which is shown below.
COOH
A.
CH2OH
CH2CH3
C.
CH2OH
COOH
OCH3
B.
OCH3
D.
198. The student decides to carry out some simple tests on

the compound in order to confirm his identification.
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
From this spectrum, the student quickly reached a conclusion about the functional group. He then turned his
attention to the fingerprint region of the compound, which
generally has a complicated pattern of peaks that are determined by the structure of the hydrocarbon portion of a
molecule. The student decided that the large peak at 750
cm1 must indicate that this was a disubstituted aromatic
compound.
A.
B.
C.
D.
195. The correct formula for this compound could be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
He could distinguish between a phenol and a

benzoic acid by seeing if the unknown can be
extracted with a weak base.
He could distinguish between a benzyl aldehyde
and a benzyl ketone by seeing if the unknown
will react with cold KMnO4.
He could distinguish between a benzyl alcohol
and a phenol by attempting to dissolve the
unknown in an aqueous solution of HCl.
He could distinguish between a benzyl alcohol
and a benzoic ester by attempting to dissolve the
unknown in an aqueous solution of NaOH.
C7H10O3.
C8H10O2.
C9H13O.
C7H21O2.
196. The overlapping set of peaks near 3000 cm1

includes one peak at 2850 cm1. What type of functional group could this indicate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Methyl
Phenol
Carboxyl
Aldehyde carbonyl
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201. Based on the experimental results, what is the genotype of the female in Cross 5?
Although individual organisms have only two alleles

for any given trait, it is possible for a trait to have more
than two alleles coding for it. This phenomenon is known
as multiple alleles. Multiple alleles are created when a single gene undergoes several distinct mutations. These alleles may have different dominance relationships with one
another; for example, there are three alleles coding for the
human blood groups, the IA, IB, and i alleles. Both the IA
and IB alleles are dominant to the i allele, but IA and IB are
codominant to each other.
A.
B.
C.
D.
202. A white male is crossed with the heterozygous red

female from Cross 9. What is the expected ratio of
red to white offspring?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A multiple-allele system has recently been discovered

in the determination of hair coloring in a species of wild
rat. The rats are found to have one of three colors: brown,
red, or white. Let B = the gene for brown hair; b = the gene
for red hair; and w = the gene for white hair. The results
from nine experimental crosses are shown below. The
males and females in Crosses 1, 2, and 3 are all homozygous for hair color.
Cross
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
Male
brown
brown
red
brown
brown
red
red
brown
brown
Female
red
white
white
brown
brown
red
red
red
red
Bb
BB or Bb
BB or Bw
BB, Bb, or Bw
3:1
1:3
1:1
2:1
203. If it were discovered that the alleles for red and white
hair were actually incompletely dominant and produced a pink hair color in rats with one copy of each
allele, what would be the expected phenotypic ratio
in a cross between a Bb male and a pink female?
Offspring
all brown
all brown
all red
3 brown : 1 red
all brown
all red
3 red : 1 white
2 brown : 1 red : 1 white
1 brown : 1 red
A.
B.
C.
D.
2 brown : 1 red : 1 white

2 brown : 1 red : 1 pink
1 brown : 2 white : 1 pink
1 brown : 1 white
199. Based on the experimental results, what is the genotype of the male in Cross 6?
A.
B.
C.
D.
bw
bb
bw or bb
Bb or bw
200. If a large number of brown offspring from Cross 8

are mated with each other, what is the expected percentage of white offspring?
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.25%
8.33%
12.5%
25%

71
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Passage X (Questions 204209)
204. Reaction A is an example of:

A.
B.
C.
D.
Compounds containing a hydroxyl group attached to a

benzene ring are called phenols. Derivatives of phenols,
such as naphthols and phenanthrols, have chemical properties similar to those of phenols, as do most of the many
naturally-occurring substituted phenols. Like other alcohols, phenols have higher boiling points than hydrocarbons
of similar molecular weight. Like carboxylic acids, phenols are more acidic than their alcohol counterparts. Phenols undergo a number of different reactions; both their
hydroxyl groups and their benzene rings are highly reactive. A number of chemical tests can be used to distinguish
phenols from alcohols and carboxylic acids.
205. Comparing the Ka values for cyclohexanol (Ka

=1018) and phenol (Ka = 1.3 x 1010) reveals that
phenol is more acidic than cyclohexanol. Which of
the following explain(s) the acidity of phenol?
I. The exceptionally strong hydrogen bonding possible with phenol facilitates the loss
of a proton, making it more acidic than
cyclohexanol.
II. Phenols conjugate base, phenoxide, is stabilized by resonance to a greater extent
than phenol itself.
III. The negative charge of the oxygen atom on
the phenoxide ion is delocalized over the
benzene ring.
A. I only
B. II only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, and III
CH3
OH
OH
OH
naphthol
phenanthrol
a free radical substitution.

an electrophilic aromatic substitution.
an electrophilic addition.
a nucleophilic aromatic substitution.
CH(CH3)2
thymol
Thymol, a naturally occurring phenol, is an effective

disinfectant that is obtained from thyme oil. Thymol can
also be synthesized from m-cresol, as shown in Reaction A
below. Thymol can then be converted to menthol, another
naturally-occurring organic compound; this conversion is
shown in Reaction B.
206. Which of the following shows the order of decreasing acidity among the four compounds below?
CH3
OH
OH
NO2
H3PO4
+
OH
OH
O 2N
NO2
OH
NO2
CH(CH3)2
NO2
CH3
NO2
II
III
IV
thymol
m-cresol
A.
B.
C.
D.
Reaction A
thymol
OH
H2/Ni
high
pressure
I, III, IV, II
IV, I, II, III
IV, III, II, I
IV, II, I, III
OH
menthol
Reaction B
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208. What simple chemical test could be used to distinguish between the following two compounds?
207. The reaction of phenol with dilute nitric acid produces which of the following compounds?
OH
OH
II
OH
CH2OH
NO2
+
A.
NO2
CH3
OH
A.
B.
C.
D.
B.
Compound IIs solubility in NaHCO3

Compound Is solubility in NaOH
Compound Is ability to decolorize a bromine
solution
Compound Is solubility in NaHCO3
NO2
OH
NO2
C.
OH
OH
O2N
+
D.
NO2

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209. Compound X (C10H14O) dissolves in aqueous

sodium hydroxide but is insoluble in aqueous sodium
bicarbonate. The proton NMR spectrum of compound X is as follows:
1.3 (9H)
singlet
4.8 (1H)
singlet
7.1 (4H)
multiplet
Which of the following is the structure of Compound
X?
COOH
A.
OH
B.
Br
OH
Br
C.
O
D.

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212. Exocrine secretions of the pancreas:

A.
B.
C.
D.
210. Which of the following compounds readily undergoes

E1, SN1, and E2 reactions, but not SN2 reactions?
A.
B.
C.
D.
CH3CH2CH2Cl
(CH3)3COH
CH3CH2CH3
(CH3CH2)3CBr
raise blood glucose levels.

lower blood glucose levels.
regulate metabolic rate.
aid in protein and fat digestion.
213. Destroying the cerebellum of a cat would cause significant impairment of normal:
A.
B.
C.
D.
211. A certain drug inhibits ribosomal RNA synthesis.

Which of the following eukaryotic organelles would
be most affected by the administration of this drug?
urine formation.
sense of smell.
coordinated movement.
thermoregulation.
214. A cell with a high intracellular K+ concentration,

whose plasma membrane is impermeable to K+, is
placed in an ATP-rich medium with a low K+ concentration. After several minutes, it is determined
that the extracellular concentrations of both K+ and
ATP have decreased, while the intracellular K+ concentration has increased. What is the most likely
explanation for this phenomenon?
A.
B.
C.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1
2
3
4
D.
The K+ passively diffused from the medium into

the cell.
The K+ entered the cell by way of facilitated
transport.
The ATP formed a temporary lipid-soluble complex with the K+, thus enabling the potassium to
enter the cell.
The K+ entered the cell by way of active transport.

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01 MCAT FL Test1
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01 MCAT FL Test1

DO NOT BEGIN THIS SECTION UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

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Passage I (Questions 16)

In this equation, s is the atomic diameter (typically on

If two particles collide, their velocities change. However,

The average kinetic energy (E) of a gas particle is

where neff is the number of moles of effusing particles, A

where n is the number of moles of gas. Combining these

273 K and 760 Torr

where M is the molar mass of the gas particles.

2. If a pinhole were made in a container containing a

5. The average kinetic energy of an ideal gas can be

6. Which of the following will have the smallest root

3. The mean free path of a gas will be longer if the :

pressure of the gas is increased.

4. What is the relative rate of effusion for a mixture of

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7. If the defibrillator has a capacitance of 10 F, how

Passage II (Questions 711)

8. The resistance between the two electrodes when

The large current required to stop the heart is supplied

9. The plates of the capacitor are originally separated by

The AC voltage that is obtained from the transformer

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10. Why is it important to insure that the patient is not in

11. If a dielectric was inserted between the plates of the

stored in the capacitor would

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Passage III (Questions 1218)

Replacement of A13+ and Si4+ by other cations of lower

In most clays, permanent charges brought about by

13. What percentage of the cation exchange capacity of

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15. What would be the effect of leaching the three soil

The measured permanent charge would

18. Anaerobic organisms are able to denitrify wet soils

If all the oxygen in the nitric acid is converted to water,

16. The amount of soil on a particular one-acre field

Questions 19 through 24 are NOT based on

19. Solution X boils at 100.26C and solution Y boils at

The freezing point of solution X is lower than

20. A converging lens has a focal length of 8 cm. If the

0.025 cm to the right of the lens and 0.0025

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21. If 29 g of maleic acid (C4O4H4) is dissolved in 500 g

24. A body is dropped from a height of 30 m on Earth

22. An electron travels in the plane of the page from left

23. How much solid NaOH is required to neutralize 700

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Passage IV (Questions 2530)

25. The photons emitted by the mercury vapor have energies:

When light in the ultraviolet region of the spectrum is

equal to the energies of the electric current.

26. If the fluorescent light is left on for 4 hours, how

Electrons are liberated at the cathode and accelerated

27. As the excited electrons in the coating drop back to

higher frequency than the light absorbed.

The fluorescent lamp shown operates at 100 volts and

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30. The lamp also emits a small proportion of ultraviolet

28. In the phosphor coating, an electron falls from an

29. Some fluorescent light bulbs are observed to glow for