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42 Thomas said My Lord and my God

Last updated 1/30/15 This document is 32 pages long


Many people believe that when Thomas said to Jesus my Lord and my God in John 20:28, that he was correctly
stating that Jesus is Jehovah God. On the face of it this seems like one of the strongest arguments to support the
"Jesus is God" argument. This is a legitimate position to take, and I understand that when John 20:28 is taken on its
own, or combined with some other passages, someone would hold this viewpoint. However I believe the
interpretation should be otherwise, and by the end of this study I will have shown that John 20:28 does not show
that Jesus is Jehovah God.
Before starting it is extremely significant to ask, why if Jesus is God did the first three gospel writers omit to use it
for Jesus during the 223 times it was written by them? Did they forget? Jesus is God and they forgot to write it
down, why if it is so importantly true would God want this? There was approximately 20-40 years between the first
three gospels being written and the book of John, therefore none of the readers of the first three gospels would have
known. How can this be? Since these three Gospel accounts only use theos for the only true God, it should not be
surprising (to any objective Bible student) that it is never used by them for Jesus either.
Before analyzing the passage in question in John 20:28, and the relationship of Christ with God, I am going to
provide some evidence that has to be taken into account when interpreting our passage. Because of the amount of
other considerations and possibilities, there are several possible interpretations all of which will be analyzed in
detail.
Index
1/ Eight Possible Interpretations
Surrounding Understanding.
2A God is not a Man
2B No one has Seen God
2C Jesus Claims During His Life
2D Peoples Questions
2E Others had Risen from the Dead
2F Addressing Others as Lord
Surrounding Texts
3A Seeing and Believing Jesus Rose From the Dead
3B What Thomas Believed Before vs28
3C What the other Disciples Believed Before vs28
3D What the other Disciples Believed After vs28
3E What Jesus said After the Resurrection
Possible Interpretations
4A Jesus Is God
4B Thomas is Talking to God, Not Jesus.
4C Thomas saw God the Father in Jesus
4D Thomas Addressed Jesus as A Representative on Gods Behalf
4E Thomas Called Jesus god not God
4F Thomas Made a Mistake
Realistic Interpretations
5A Analysis of the Greek Text Structure
5B Thomas is Talking to Jesus and also God
5C A Statement of Astonishment

Jesus' Response.
6A Vs29 Clarification
6B Why Didn't Jesus Correct Thomas
7 Summary and Conclusion

1/ There are Eight possible interpretations.


It seems fairly unbelievable that there are so many possible interpretations for one passage, usually there are two or
three possibilities but not eight. Taken at face value there is a fairly good argument for all of the options, it is when
all other information and facts are considered that the possibilities are reduced. Once everything is considered and
evaluated this analysis will show that John 20:28 does not show that Jesus is Jehovah God.
Before analyzing each of these possible interpretations it is important to confirm our surrounding beliefs.

2A God is Not a Man:


My belief is that the main problem with John 20:28 is that it is a proof text, one passage taken on its own in order to
define an entire theory. If you believe Jesus is God you will say John 20:28 is not a proof text and show your other
supporting argument. Here are two texts that say exactly the opposite to what is claimed about Thomass statement.
If you believe Thomass statement has to be taken at face value, then I say the same about the following two
passages that say God is not a man. In fact I have two and you have one, and Hosea is far more trustworthy that
Thomas!
Numbers 23:19 God is not a man, that he should lie, nor a son of man, that he should change his mind
Hosea 11:9 For I am God and not a man - the Holy one among you
These passages say God is not a man. Can both of these statements be true as well interpreting Thomas's declaration
to say God is a man? How? At face value they have as much strength as John 20:28, and there are two of them! If
someone else in the NT said exactly the same as Thomas, it could be said that it doubled the strength of that
argument, therefore the same view should be given to these two passages. If you are able to argue a strong point
from Thomass statement then you could equally argue in favor of Hosea and Numbers.
Would you say they are they proof texts or not? Whatever your answer, the same could be said about John 20:28.
For an in depth analysis of these two passages, see Section 02D The Man from Heaven. Part 1

2B No one has seen God:


Exodus 33:20 But," he said, "you cannot see my face, for no one may see me and live."
John 1:18, 1 John 4:12 No one has ever seen God.
John 5:37 You have never heard his voice nor seen his form.
John 6:46 No one has ever seen the Father

(God said)
(John said)
(Jesus said)
(Jesus said)

How could Thomas be interpreted to say that he realized Jesus is God, and these scriptures be true? If we think
Thomas was correct then what about the statements made by God, Jesus, and John that no one has seen God?
Whose words would you trust, God, Jesus and John vs Thomas? These four scriptures are not corresponding and in
harmony with Thomas. Either Thomas saw God or he didn't. Either God cannot be seen or he can. Either these
scriptures are true at face value or they are not.

2C Jesus Claims.
For years Jesus had told Thomas and the others who he was, he had not claimed to be God. Why if Jesus was God
did he never say I am God or God is me etc? He claimed to be bread of life, came from God, the Christ, door,
good shepherd, here, I am, Jesus of Nazareth, king, light of the world, light, messiah, resurrection, son of man, son
of God, true vine, truth, way, working. Surely Jesus, if he were God, he would have been explicitly clear as he was
throughout the OT, and would not have been so vague.

John 10:33 The Jews answered him, It is not for a good work that we are going to stone you but for
blasphemy, because you, being a man, make yourself God. 34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in
your Law, I said, you are gods? 35 If he called them gods to whom the word of God cameand Scripture
cannot be broken 36 do you say of him whom the Father consecrated and sent into the world, You are
blaspheming, because I said, I am the Son of God? 37 If I am not doing the works of my Father, then do
not believe me;
When Jesus was accused of being God, why didnt he agree with them rather than deny it? He then claimed to be
the son rather than God. This would have been the point, if he was God, that he would have announced it but he
didnt. Obviously the Jews didnt think Jesus was God otherwise they wouldnt have wanted to stone him!
John 20:17 Jesus said to her, Do not cling to me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to my
brothers and say to them, I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.
Jesus is with Mary Magdalene just after he has risen from the dead and he is saying my God. Does he have a God
in this point and then moments later, when Thomas arrives, does he become God? Why would he be deceiving
Mary and then revealing to Thomas, if it were true?
I have numerous studies, to many to list here of who and what Jesus claimed to be and why those claims means he
is not and cannot be God. Here are four of them.
02N: Jesus has a God, Jesus and God
12: Who did Jesus say Jesus was?
15: Jesus is under the authority of God
17: Jesus has a different will, but submits to Gods will

2D Peoples Questions
Why did no one, including his followers, ever ask Jesus are you God, or has God turned into you if it was
something they considered? Surely with all the bible scholars Jesus met one would have asked him are you God,
if they thought it even remotely possible. The fact is none of them even considered this as it was hard enough
already to believe he was the Son of God.
The disciples should have asked him at least once, they were with him most of the time saw the miracles and heard
what he said. Surely just once.
In Mathew 16:15, Mark 8:9 and Luke 9:20 Jesus says to his disciples "who do you say I am?" and Peter answered
"You are the Christ of God." If they had any thought that he was God they would have said so or said something
along the lines of "the Christ of God, but we are wondering if you are also God," but they didn't which should really
make anyone ask why.

2E Several Others had Rose from the Dead


Many rose from the dead which was not proof that they were God, but rather that they were not God who cannot
die. Here we take a look at biblical support for people raising from the dead, this has a strong bearing on how we
view Thomas and his statement.
OT God
1/
Ezekiel 37:11-14 Then he said to me, Son of man, these bones are the whole house of Israel. Behold, they
say, Our bones are dried up, and our hope is lost; we are indeed cut off. 12 Therefore prophesy, and say to
them, Thus says the Lord GOD: Behold, I will open your graves and raise you from your graves, O my
people. And I will bring you into the land of Israel. 13 And you shall know that I am the LORD, when I open
your graves, and raise you from your graves, O my people. 14 And I will put my Spirit within you, and you
shall live, and I will place you in your own land. Then you shall know that I am the LORD; I have spoken,
and I will do it, declares the LORD.

The people in the day of Ezekiel are told that the LORD will raise the dead is most likely a figurative passage,
however I include it here in case it has a literal meaning.
2/

2 Kings 13:20-21 So Elisha died, and they buried him. Now bands of Moabites used to invade the land in
the spring of the year. 21 And as a man was being buried, behold, a marauding band was seen and the man
was thrown into the grave of Elisha, and as soon as the man touched the bones of Elisha, he revived and
stood on his feet

A man was raised from the dead when his body touched Elisha's bones. I assume God takes all credit as there is no
mention of anyone having a direct bearing on it other than the soldiers who did not have any other intentions.
OT By People
3/
1 Samuel 28: 11-14 Then the woman said, Whom shall I bring up for you? He said, Bring up Samuel for
me. 12
When the woman saw Samuel, she cried out with a loud voice. And the woman said to Saul,
Why have you deceived me? You are Saul. 13 The king said to her, Do not be afraid. What do you see?
And the woman said to Saul, I see a god coming up out of the earth. 14 He said to her, What is his
appearance? And she said, An old man is coming up, and he is wrapped in a robe. And Saul knew that it
was Samuel, and he bowed with his face to the ground and paid homage.
15 Then Samuel said to Saul, Why have you disturbed me by bringing me up? Saul answered, I am in
great distress, for the Philistines are warring against me, and God has turned away from me and answers me
no more, either by prophets or by dreams. Therefore I have summoned you to tell me what I shall do
Samuel was raised up by the witch of Endor. It is interesting to wonder why God allowed or did this through a
witch. As a side note, does that mean that it is still possible for non believers to raise the dead?
4/

1 Kings 17:17-22 And he cried to the LORD, O LORD my God, have you brought calamity even upon the
widow with whom I sojourn, by killing her son? 21 Then he stretched himself upon the child three times
and cried to the LORD, O LORD my God, let this childs life come into him again. 22 And the LORD
listened to the voice of Elijah. And the life of the child came into him again, and he revived.

The son of the Zarepath widow raised by Elijah from the dead
5/

2 Kings 4:32-35 When Elisha came into the house, he saw the child lying dead on his bed. 33 So he went in
and shut the door behind the two of them and prayed to the LORD. 34 Then he went up and lay on the child,
putting his mouth on his mouth, his eyes on his eyes, and his hands on his hands. And as he stretched
himself upon him, the flesh of the child became warm. 35 Then he got up again and walked once back and
forth in the house, and went up and stretched himself upon him. The child sneezed seven times, and the
child opened his eyes

The son of the Shunammite woman raised by Elisha


NT By God
1/
Luke 9:30 And as he was praying, the appearance of his face was altered, and his clothing became dazzling
white. 30 And behold, two men were talking with him, Moses and Elijah, 31 who appeared in glory and
spoke of his departure, which he was about to accomplish at Jerusalem
Moses and Elijah were raised to talk to Jesus
NT By Jesus
2/
Mathew 9:18-25 a ruler came in and knelt before him, saying, My daughter has just died, but come and lay
your hand on her, and she will live. And Jesus rose and followed him with his disciples. 23 And when Jesus

said, Go away, for the girl is not dead but sleeping. And they laughed at him. 25 But when the crowd had
been put outside, he went in and took her by the hand, and the girl arose
Mark 5:22-24 Then came one of the rulers of the synagogue, Jairus by name, and seeing him, he fell at his
feet 23 and implored him earnestly, saying, My little daughter is at the point of death. Come and lay your
hands on her, so that she may be made well and live. Your daughter is dead. Why trouble the Teacher any
further. But he put them all outside and took the childs father and mother and those who were with
him and
went in where the child was. 41 Taking her by the hand he said to her, Talitha cumi, which
means, Little
girl, I say to you, arise. 42 And immediately the girl got up and began walking (for she was twelve years of age),
and they were immediately overcome with amazement.
Luke 8:41-42 a man named Jairus, who was a ruler of the synagogue. And falling at Jesus feet, he
implored him to come to his house, 42 for he had an only daughter, about twelve years of age, and she was
dying, Your daughter is dead; do not trouble the Teacher anymore.. 54 But taking her by the hand he
called, saying, Child, arise. 55 And her spirit returned, and she got up at once. And he directed that
something should be given her to eat.
Jarius the ruler's daughter raised by Jesus.
The disciples were with him, this may have included Thomas
3/

Luke 7:11-15 Soon afterward he went to a town called Nain, and his disciples and a great crowd went with
him. 12 As he drew near to the gate of the town, behold, a man who had died was being carried out, the only
son of his mother, and she was a widow, and a considerable crowd from the town was with her. 13 And when
the Lord saw her, he had compassion on her and said to her, Do not weep. 14 Then he came up and
touched the bier, and the bearers stood still. And he said, Young man, I say to you, arise. 15 And the dead
man sat up and began to speak, and Jesus gave him to his mother.

The Son of the Widow from Nain was raised by Jesus.


The disciples went with him, this may have included Thomas.
4/

John 11:14 Then Jesus told them plainly, Lazarus has died, 15 and for your sake I am glad that I was not
there, so that you may believe. But let us go to him." 16 So Thomas, called the twin, said to his fellow
disciples, "Let us also go, that we may die with him." 21 Martha said to Jesus, 22 But even now I know that
whatever you ask from God, God will give you. 43 When he had said these things, he cried out with
a loud
voice, Lazarus, come out. 44 The man who had died came out, his hands and feet bound with linen strips, and
his face wrapped with a cloth. Jesus said to them, Unbind him, and let him go.
Vs16 The disciples, including Thomas, went with Jesus.
Vs22 If Jesus asks God, God will help raise Lazarus from the dead.
Vs43-44 Lazarus was raised by Jesus
5/

Mathew 11:4-5 And Jesus answered them, Go and tell John what you hear and see: 5 the blind receive
their sight and the lame walk, lepers are cleansed and the deaf hear, and the dead are raised up, and the
poor have good news preached to them.
Luke 7:22 And he answered them, Go and tell John what you have seen and heard: the blind receive their
sight, the lame walk, lepers are cleansed, and the deaf hear, the dead are raised up, the poor have good
news preached to them.

The dead are raised up, said Jesus. This is before Jesus has told the disciples to do it therefore he must be referring
to himself performing the miracles. He had raised Jairuss daughter in chapter nine and perhaps others.
NT By Disciples

6/

Mathew 10:7-8 These twelve Jesus sent out, instructing them, Go nowhere among the Gentiles and enter
no town of the Samaritans, 6 but go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel. 7 And proclaim as you go,
saying, The kingdom of heaven is at hand. 8 Heal the sick, raise the dead, cleanse lepers, and cast out
demons. You received without paying; give without pay.

Unknown people were raised by the disciples during Jesus life time on earth. Did Thomas raise any dead people or
did he witness other disciples raising the dead? We don't know, however it would seem possible that he did. Then
again he doubted Jesus had risen, so maybe he did not raise anyone himself!
NT Jesus Rose
7/
Mathew 28:5-8 But the angel said to the woman, "Do not be afraid, for I know that you seek Jesus who
was crucified. He is not here, for he has risen, as he said. Come, wee the place where he lay.
Mark 16:5-6 And entering the tomb, they saw a young man sitting on the right side, dressed in a white
robe, and they were alarmed. And he said to them, "Do not be alarmed. You seek Jesus of Nazareth, who
was crucified. He has risen; he is not here. See the place where they laid him.
Luke 24:4-6 behold, two men stood by them in dazzling apparel. And they were frightened and bowed
their faces to the ground, the men said to them, "Why do you seek the living among the dead? He is not
here, but has risen.
John 20:9 for as of yet they did not understand the scripture, that he must rise from the dead.
Jesus rose from the dead
NT After Resurrection
8/
Mathew 27:50-53 And behold, the curtain of the temple was torn in two, from top to bottom. And the
earth shook, and the rocks were split. 52 The tombs also were opened. And many bodies of the saints
who had fallen asleep were raised, 53 and coming out of the tombs after his resurrection they went
into the holy city and appeared to many.
Many saints rose from the dead at the resurrection of Jesus, did Thomas see any of these people? Maybe.
9/

Acts 9:36-41 Now there was in Joppa a disciple named Tabitha, which, translated, means Dorcas. In those
days she became ill and died, and when they had washed her, they laid her in an upper room. So Peter rose
and went with them 40 But Peter put them all outside, and knelt down and prayed; and turning to the body
he said, Tabitha, arise. And she opened her eyes, and when she saw Peter she sat up. 41 And he gave her
his hand and raised her up. Then calling the saints and widows, he presented her alive.

Dorcas called Tabitha raised by Peter


10/

Acts 20:9-10 And a young man named Eutychus, he fell down from the third story and was taken up dead.
10 But Paul went down and bent over him, and taking him in his arms, said, Do not be alarmed, for his life
is in him. 12 And they took the youth away alive, and were not a little comforted.
Eutychus was raised by Paul
NT Judgment Day
11/
John 5:28-29 Marvel not at this: for the hour is coming, in the which all that are in the graves shall hear his
voice, And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that
have done
evil, unto the resurrection of damnation.
Acts 24:14-15 I confess to you, that according to the Way, which they call a sect, I worship the God of our
fathers, believing everything laid down by the Law and written in the Prophets, 15 having a hope in God,
which these men themselves accept, that there will be a resurrection of both the just and the unjust

All people will be raised from the dead for judgment.


Unconfirmed
Some claim Paul came back to life after being stoned and that Jonah also resurrected after being in the fish
for three days. Neither is substantiated.
2E Summary:
Ezekiel 37:13
2 Kings 13:21
1 Samuel 28: 11-14
1 Kings 17:17-22
2 Kings 4:32-35
Luke 9:30
Mat, Mark, Luke 8
Luke 7:11
John 11
Mathew 11, Luke 7
Mathew 10:7-8
Mat Mark Luke John
Mathew 27:50
Acts 9:36-51
Acts 20:9-10
John 5 Acts 24

The LORD will raise the dead is most likely a figurative passage
A man was raised from the dead when his body touched Elisha's bones
Samuel is raised from the dead by the witch of Endor.
The son of the Zarepath widow raised by Elijah from the dead
The son of the Shunammite woman raised by Elisha
Moses and Elijah were raised to talk to Jesus
Jarius the ruler's daughter raised by Jesus. Disciples were with him, possibly inc Thomas
Son of the Widow from Nain was raised by Jesus. Disciples with him possibly inc Thomas.
Lazarus was raised by Jesus. The disciples, including Thomas, went with Jesus.
Jesus told John's disciples to tell him that the dead are raised, meaning by Jesus.
Jesus told his disciples to "Heal the sick, raise the dead," therefore they likely did it.
Jesus rose from the dead
Many saints rose from the dead at the resurrection of Jesus
Dorcas called Tabitha raised by Peter
Eutychus was raised by Paul
All people will be raised from the dead for judgment

Therefore:
Thomas would have known the five OT stories of the dead being raised, you would imagine.
Thomas would have heard from Peter, John and James that Moses and Elijah had been raised, certainly.
Thomas would likely been a witness to the raising of Jarius's daughter and the son of the Nain widow by Jesus.
Thomas did witness Lazarus being raised by Jesus.
Thomas, along with other disciples, was told by Jesus to raise the dead himself, which they may have done.
Thomas was told that the dead would rise for judgment by Jesus
Thomas knew all these things, but prior to the resurrection had never suggested that Jesus was the creator and God
of the universe, in fact none of the disciples had suggested it. Resurrection does not prove Jesus is God, it proved
the opposite in that he died which God does not do. Are we to think that Thomas who had known about all these
resurrections suddenly, because Jesus had risen, thought Jesus was God? Extremely unlikely.
Surrounding Texts:

2F Addressing Others as Lord


It is interesting that nowhere in the NT does anyone address God as my Lord.
In both the Septuagint and the New Testament. Kurie, not kurios, is the form used when addressing
someone as Lord or My Lord.
We also find Thomas himself, at John 14:5, addressing Jesus as Lord by using kurie. And, when
addressing the angel at Rev. 7:14, John himself says kurie mou (My Lord)! There are 33 uses of kurie in
the Gospel of John alone. Here are a few of them: John 9:38; 11:3, 12, 21, 27, 32, 34, 39; 12:38 13:6, 9, 25, 36, 37;
14:5. (Compare these with an actual identification of the lord: it is the lord [kurios], John
21:7. Therefore, it
is probably safe to say that when John wrote down the incident with Thomas at Jn
20:28 and used the
nominative form for My Lord [Kurios] he was not saying that Thomas was
addressing Jesus as My Lord
and my God

It is true that for some nouns the nominative form can be used as a vocative. But in the cases of kurios
(translated Lord, master, and sir) and didaskalos (teacher, instructor) the true vocative forms
(kurie and didaskale) are probably always used by the NT writers when actually intended as nouns of
address.
It is reasonable to conclude that all uses of "Lord" (and its alternate meanings) used in address in the NT
are in the vocative form (kurie). And, therefore, the use of kurios mou at John 20:28 was not intended to be
used in address.

3A: Seeing and Believing Jesus Rose From the Dead


The theme of the entire passage of John 20:1-31 is about seeing and believing that Jesus rose from the dead.
The words see, seen, seeing, and saw total 11. The words believe, believed, believing, disbelieved total 8
The disciples had seen the resurrected Jesus and believed it had happened, but Jesus said blessed are those that
dont see the resurrected Jesus but believe. You and I saw none of this, but we believe it happened.
John 20:1 Now on the first day of the week Mary Magdalene came to the tomb early, while it was still dark,
and saw that the stone had been taken away from the tomb.
John 20:5 And stooping to look in, he saw the linen cloths lying there, but he did not go in.
John 20:6 Then Simon Peter came, following him, and went into the tomb. He saw the linen cloths lying
there,
John 20:8 Then the other disciple, who had reached the tomb first, also went in, and he saw and believed
John 20:9 for as yet they did not understand the Scripture, that he must rise from the dead.
John 20:12 And she saw two angels in white, sitting where the body of Jesus had lain, one at the head and
one at the feet.
John 20:14 Having said this, she turned around and saw Jesus standing, but she did not know that it was
Jesus
John 20:18 Mary Magdalene went and announced to the disciples, I have seen the Lordand that he had
said these things to her.
John 20:20 When he had said this, he showed them his hands and his side. Then the disciples were glad
when they saw the Lord.
John 20:25 So the other disciples told him, We have seen the Lord. But he said to them, Unless I see in
his hands the mark of the nails, and place my finger into the mark of the nails, and place my hand into his
side, I will never believe.
John 20:27 Then he said to Thomas, Put your finger here, and see my hands; and put out your hand, and
place it in my side. Do not disbelieve, but believe.
John 20:29 Jesus said to him, Have you believed because you have seen me? Blessed are those who have
not seen and yet have believed.
John 20:31 but these are written so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that by
believing you may have life in his name.

Vs8 John went in, saw and believed.


Vs8-9 This was the time that John first believed, what Thomas later believed, that Jesus had rose from the dead.
Vs25 Thomas said that unless something happened I will never believe
What was it that he would not believe?
A/ That Jesus was God?
B/ That Jesus had risen from the dead and therefore must be God?
C/ That Jesus had risen from the dead?
A/ Is not an option because none of the disciples had been discussing this either before or after vs 28
B/ This is not an option either because none of the disciples had been discussing this either before or after vs28.
C/ This is what Thomas meant in vs25
3A Summary:
The progression in John 20:1-20 shows several of the disciples coming to a belief that Jesus had resurrected from
the dead. The context of John 20:24-27 shows that Thomas refused to believe that Jesus had been resurrected from
the dead.
Jesus command to Thomas to literally touch his wounds and actually see his hands proves that he meant, See, I
am the same person you saw die, but now I am alive ... be believing that I have been resurrected to life
NOT, see, these wounds prove I am God ... be believing that I am God.
Jesus was not showing the wound to imply you believe I am God because you can see me.

3B What did Thomas believe before vs28


Thomas grew up believing that YHWH was alone God, so when did he switch views. Did Thomas pass all at once
from the extreme of doubt to the highest degree of faith, and acknowledged Christ to be the true God?
Jesus death proved to many, including Thomas, that Jesus was not the Messiah or Christ. The resurrection proved
otherwise, and that he was the Messiah/Christ.
Thomas would not have said "unless I see the print of the nails I will not believe Jesus is God," because he would
have already known that for the God of the universe raising from the dead is not such a big deal. But then again he
would also have known that God cannot die!

3C: What the Disciples Believed Before Vs28


There are four possibilities regarding what the other disciples believed about Jesus' identity before vs28.
1/ All the disciples believed that Jesus was God before the crucifixion.
If this is true, why did the disciples flee when Jesus was arrested? Did they believe or not? A group of soldiers
verses the creator of the universe and they fled.
Why the big deal with Thomas? If the disciples knew, then Thomas also knew and his statement "my Lord and my
God" meant nothing to him or them. If they all knew Jesus was God then they knew he would rise from the dead
because God cannot be dead. In fact they would have been confused, thinking he cannot even die!
The fact is they did not know Jesus would rise from the dead, therefore before the crucifixion they did not think that
Jesus was God.
2/ All the disciples, except Thomas, knew Jesus was God.

If this is true why were they not attempting to persuade him that Jesus was God rather than focusing on the
resurrection? The entire context of John 20 would be on proving to Thomas that Jesus was God the creator of the
universe rather than he raised from the dead which isn't anywhere near as impressive.
3/ The disciples believed Jesus was the Son of God from Heaven.
This is who he said he was, and this is my understanding.
4/ The disciples believed Jesus was a man.
There are too many other passages that say otherwise.
3B Summary:
Why if they just realized they were in the presence of God did they not do anything other than what they did?
Because none of the disciples thought they had just learned Jesus was God!

3D: What The Disciples Believed After Vs28


Thomas:
As noted before, there had never been a point prior to John 20 when Thomas would have thought Jesus was God.
After the resurrection, Thomas did not bow down, worship, lie prostrate on the floor, think he was about to die etc.
upon learning that Jesus was really God. He could not have just discovered that he was in the presence of God, the
creator of the universe, and acted the way he did!
Other Disciples:
Why didn't they tell anyone else that Jesus is God? Why for the week in between the resurrection and now, had they
kept it quiet? How is it that between John 20:1 and now, no one including Jesus made any reference to anyone
about this new realization? If they had a new view of who Christ was and thought that Jesus was God they would
have said something to the effect of "we have seen Jesus who is God and amazingly we are still alive" etc. They
would have been prostrate on the floor in front of the God of the universe.
In vs22 they received the Holy Spirit, yet still they made no reference to a new learning.
Why in vs25 did they not say to Thomas, "we have found out that Jesus is actually God?" They would not have
cared that Jesus had risen from the dead if they additionally just found out he was God. The difference is too huge
to comprehend. Which do you think is more amazing, realizing you have met someone who rose from the dead or
meeting face to face with the creator of the universe? Comparatively speaking, raising from the dead is nothing
compared with being the God of the universe, and yet they didn't mention it. They did not bow down in worship
and they did not think they would die as per all the OT thinking.
This must count as the most incredible oversight in the history of the human race, if they had really believed they
had seen God!
Certainly, if they had discovered that Jesus was really God when they saw him resurrected, they would have talked
of nothing else! No other disciple of Jesus ever made a statement after vs28 which could honestly be construed as
meaning Jesus is God! Why would the disciples see Jesus on the beach when they were fishing, not say "there is
God on the beach?" or something similar? Why were they so casual about it, relatively speaking? How come they
were even fishing in the first place if they had just found out Jesus was God and they knew God was walking
around?
There was no new revelation which is why there was no new behavior from the disciples.
Johns Writings:
The books of John, and 1 John, were written somewhere between AD 85-90.

John says in 1 John 4:12 "No one has ever seen God." Did John, in spite of the incredible contradiction of this
statement, somehow think that Thomas had understood Jesus to be God and was correct?
If John had, somehow, understood Thomas statement that way, he certainly would have provided some follow-up
clarification and emphasis in his own comments. We already know that before Thomas's statement none of the
disciples had thought that Jesus was God, why would John not have declared this new revelation?
He would not have said in 1 John 4 that "no one has ever seen God." Either John thought people had seen God or
they had not. He would have clarified his understanding one way or the other.
Surely John would have shown Thomas prostrating himself before God and worshiping him (but he doesnt!). So
how does John summarize this incident? - But these were written that you may believe. Believe what? That Jesus
is God? No, but that Jesus is the Christ the resurrected SON of God.
Please get out a pencil and a piece of paper, stop reading this document for the moment, and in your own words,
please write down in about twenty words, very concisely but as directly as possible, what is the foremost obvious
conclusion you are able to draw from Thomas' outburst. Study your words carefully and write them down as if your
very life and the salvation of all of mankind depend on what you are about to say. Make it clear and to the point.
Now compare what you have written with what John wrote
John 20:30-31 Now Jesus did many other signs in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this
book; 31 but these are written so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that by
believing you may have life in his name
If John had recognized that Thomass statement and Jesus response meant that Jesus as the almighty God then
Johns summation of the event would have said that you may believe that Jesus is the Almighty God, and not the
Christ the Son of God.
After the Resurrection John 21
An entire chapter and no further mention of Jesus being God. What? Are we to seriously believe, as some do, that
Jesus has just been revealed as the Almighty Jehovah God and John is not covering that fact in his account? In fact
the disciples went fishing, which is not quite what you would expect if it had just been revealed that the creator of
the universe was walking around. Does anyone think that John didnt know? Or he did know and chose not to write
about such an event? An interesting exercise is this read up to vs 28 then stop. Write down, in your own words, or
say out loud, exactly what you think happened. Now compare it with what John wrote. If there is an important
difference then you have to ask why did John think and write differently to you? How is it that your insight and
interpretation is so glaringly different to that of John? Either something huge was just revealed or it wasnt.
Vs24 John is the disciple who has written these things that are true.
So is it true that Jesus is not God as per 1 John 4:12 or is it true that Jesus is God per John 20:28? Which is it?
After the Resurrection Other Gospels.
Mathew 28:1-20
An entire chapter including the great commission and no mention of Jesus being God
Mark 16:11-19
No mention of Jesus being God
Luke 24:1- 53 vs19
Jesus was a prophet before God. No mention of Jesus being God and yet plenty that show he is not God.
After the Resurrection Book of Acts.
How did the earliest Christians interpret Jesus resurrection? What do we find in the sermons contained
in Acts? Do we ever find them saying, Jesus was resurrected, a fact to which we are witnesses, which shows that

he is really God?
Acts 2.32 "This Jesus God raised up, and of that we are all witnesses36 Let all the houses of Israel
therefore know for certain that God has made him both Lord and Christ, this Jesus whom you crucified."
Acts 10:40-42 "God raised Him up on the third day and granted that He become visible, 41 not to all
the people, but to witnesses who were chosen beforehand by God, that is, to us who ate and drank with
Him after He arose from the dead. 42 "And He ordered us to preach to the people, and solemnly to testify
that this is the One who has been appointed by God as Judge of the living and the dead.
Acts 17:2-3 2 And according to Paul's custom, he went to them, and for three Sabbaths reasoned with
them from the Scriptures, 3 explaining and giving evidence that the Christ had to suffer and rise again
from the dead, and saying, "This Jesus whom I am proclaiming to you is the Christ."
Acts 17:31 because He has fixed a day in which He will judge the world in righteousness through a Man
whom He has appointed, having furnished proof to all men by raising Him from the dead."
Surely it seems strange in some way that no one, not one, person preached that Jesus was God or even mentioned it.
Surely if God was found to have been walking the earth, all who believed it would have been talking about nothing
else. All four of these passages talk about the crucifixion and resurrection yet not a mention of him being God
throughout the book of Acts. Either it wasn't true or it was unimportant, and we know it would have been important.
3C Summary
After John 20:28 this is what was believed by all those involved.
Thomas could not have just discovered that he was in the presence of God, the creator of the universe, and acted the
way he did!
The rest of the disciples, if they had discovered that Jesus was really God when they saw him resurrected, they
would have talked of nothing else! No other disciple of Jesus ever made a statement after vs28 which could
honestly be construed as meaning Jesus is God! If there was a new revelation which is why there was no new
behavior from the disciples. This must count as the most incredible oversight of all time if they had really believed
they had just seen God!
The book of John, and the book of 1 John, were written somewhere between AD 85-90. John says in 1 John 4:12
"No one has ever seen God." Did John, in spite of the incredible contradiction of this statement, somehow think that
Thomas had understood Jesus to be God and was correct? Obviously, neither Jesus response, nor Thomas
responses (before and after his statement at John 20:28), nor Johns summation of the event at 20:31 recognizes
Thomas statement to mean that Jesus is the only true God! So is it true that Jesus is not God as per 1 John 4:12 or
is it true that Jesus is God per John 20:28? Which is it?
Other Gospels:
All three other gospels fail to mention anything about Jesus being God after the resurrection, why?
Book of Acts
None of the sermons that were given in the book of Acts make any mention of Jesus being the resurrected God.

3E What Jesus said in His Last Few Words


Mathew 27:46 And about the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lema
sabachthani? that is, My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?
Jesus says my God, my God this is two of the six occasions my God is written in the bible. It is obviously very
interesting to ask if it is possible that Jesus says my God to his God and yet some say Jesus is the same my God
that he is addressing, which is very confusing.
Mark 15:44 And at the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, Eloi, Eloi, lema sabachthani? which
means, My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?

What if God replied what would he have said? Do some think that the Father would have said to Jesus, my God I
am here and it will be over soon? Or dont worry my God? This is a serious question, do you seriously think that
the Father would have said my God to Jesus?
Summary:
For me it seems impossible that Jesus can say my God and also be my God. It would seem as though someone
were joking if they suggested that the Father would say to another being my God, so how can it be possible that
Jesus can supposedly say my God and many people think it makes sense?
See study 02N Jesus has a God, Jesus and God.

3F: What Jesus said After the Resurrection


John 20:17 I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.
a/ to my Father and your God
b/ to your Father and my God
c/ to your Father and your God
d/ to my Father and my God
All these statements are true, Jesus compares himself to the disciples, in that he has a God, and God is his Father.
This statement says that the God that I have, is the same God that Jesus has.
The Father in heaven that I have is the same Father in heaven that Jesus has.
Jesus is being explicitly clear to those listening in that he has a God and has a Father, just like they do. God does
not have a God otherwise there would be two Gods! God does not have a Father otherwise there would be two
Gods.
3D Summary:
After the resurrection Jesus tells them that he is going back to God. How can Jesus be God and make this
statement? If you said you were going back to "someone", it would mean you were not "someone" therefore how
can this statement be any different.
Jesus has a God and he is of God, and parallels himself with people in this regard.
See section 02N Jesus has a God.

Possible Interpretations:
Because of the amount of surrounding evidence there should only really be a couple of possible options of
interpretation for John 20:28. However because many people would not have considered the evidence just provided,
I have analyzed all eight possible understandings below.

4A/ Jesus Is God:


When he said my lord and my God he meant you are the Lord/God and was correct, Jesus is both Lord and
YHWH God.
This is the understanding for those who think Jesus is God. However it is now fairly clear from the additional
evidence offered that the likelihood of this interpretation has too many problems to be correct. Even if you have
supporting evidence to the contrary, it doesnt negate the evidence provided.

4B/ Thomas is talking to God not Jesus.


Thomas was not addressing Jesus, he was looking into the sky and spoke to heaven and to God the Father.
This is possible if the Greek word autos is translated as he rather than to him. If this happens then
ESV John 20:28 Thomas answered him, "My Lord and my God!"
Other John 20:28 Thomas said he, my Lord and my God!"
Other John 20:28 Thomas spoke saying, my Lord and my God.
This way Thomas is talking to God.
A variation of this is that Thomas words might be a doxology, or praise, such as My Lord and my God be
praised. In that sense the words would still be aimed directly at the only true God (the Father alone).
Summary:
Although the explanation that Jesus is talking to only God not Jesus is possible, it needs other words adding and
altered translation along with the fact that there are no other biblical examples.

4C/ Thomas Saw God the Father in Jesus


To see Jesus is to see the Father, to believe Jesus is to believe in the Father, to see not one person but two.
Jesus said the Father was in him on several occasions.
John 10:38 understand that the Father is in me and I am in the Father.
John 14:7 If you had known me, you would have known my father also. From now on you do know him and
have seen him.
John 14:9 Whoever has seen me has seen the Father.
John 14:10 The words that I say to you I do not speak on my own authority, but the Father who dwells in
me does his work.
John 14:11 Believe me that I am in the Father and the Father is in me,
Thomas saw Jesus and saw that the Father was in him. When Jesus had risen from the dead he had perfectly shown
what the Father is like. Therefore, seeing the risen Jesus was, in effect, seeing God. So, Thomas is saying that he
believes now that he is truly seeing the resurrected Jesus (who is the only person who perfectly represents the
Father) by saying My Lord and my God. Or, in other words, I believe you are Jesus who died and was
resurrected. Therefore, I also believe what you told us when you said He who has seen me has seen the Father. I
am, therefore, now seeing what my Lord and my God is like.
Summary:
There are a few problems with the interpretation that Thomas saw God the Father in Jesus
1/ Why was it that no one had said this before this time?
2/ Thomas was never the brightest of the disciples, it seems strange that he made the discovery first
3/ Each disciple, like Christ, has an indwelling of the Holy Spirit and so it could be said about each of us. This is the
biggest issue with this interpretation.

4D Thomas Addressed Jesus as A Representative on Gods Behalf


Thomas called Jesus God as one might call a servant who is a representative of a master. In that sense, the words,
My Lord and my God could be addressed to the only true God through his servant, Jesus Christ. God works
through his human representatives so people can experience God. There are some OT examples that parallel this
idea.
Genesis 16:7 The angel of the LORD found her by a spring of water in the wilderness

vs9 The angel of the LORD said to her, "return to your mistress and submit to her."
vs11 And the angel of the LORD said to her, "Behold, you are pregnant and shall bear a son.......
vs13 So she called the name of the LORD who spoke to her, "You are a God of seeing," for she said,
"truly here I have seen him who looks after me."
Hagar calls the angel, "God of seeing," and says "I have seen him who looks after me" meaning the LORD God.
Hagar was referring to the angel as YHWH God.
Genesis 32:24 And Jacob was left alone. And a man wrestled with him until the breaking of day.
vs28 For you have striven with God and with men, and have prevailed
vs30 Jacob said, "for I have seen God face to face and yet my life has been delivered.
This "man" was a representative for the LORD God, and Jacob saw him that way.
This passage is quoted in Hosea 12:3-4.
Jacob said he had "seen God face to face."
Exodus 3:2 The angel of the LORD appeared to him in a flame of fire out of the midst of a bush
vs4 When the LORD saw that he turned aside to see, God called to him out of the bush, "Moses, Moses!"
and he said, "Here I am."
vs6 And he said, "I am the God of your father, the God of Abraham.... And Moses hid his face for he was
afraid to look at God.
The angel was in the bush.
Option 1/ "God" should be lower case god and is the angel. Because of vs6 this cannot be correct.
Option 2/ The angel is speaking on behalf of Jehovah God. This is the only option. The angel was speaking on
God's behalf and was addressed as Jehovah God.
Exodus 3:16 Go and gather the elders of Israel together and say to them, "The LORD, the God of your
fathers, the God of Abraham, of Isaac, and of Jacob, has appeared to me saying,
Vs18 and you and the elders shall go to the King of Egypt and say to him "let us go three days journey"
Exodus 4:15 You shall speak to him (Aaron) and put the words in his mouth
Exodus 4:16 and he shall be your mouth, and you shall be as God to him.
3:16 The LORD God instructs Moses to go to the elders of Israel and speak to them.
3:18 The LORD God instructs Moses to go with the elders to speak to the King of Egypt
4:15-16 Moses will take God's instructions and share them with Aaron and be as God to him
The LORD God has instructed Moses to speak to Aaron on God's behalf, His personal messenger who is
representing him and bears his credentials. Moses is identified with God, and speaks as God. Acts 7:35 quotes
Exodus, saying God sent him as a ruler and redeemer by the hand of the angel.
Judges 6:11 Now the angel of the LORD came and sat under the terebinth at Ophrah, which belonged to
vs12 And the angel of the LORD appeared to him and said to him, "the LORD is with you, .....
vs14 And the LORD turned to him and said, "God in this might of yours....
vs15 And he said to him, "But I will be with you, and you shall strike the Midianites as one man."
The angel of the LORD is identified as the angel and yet is spoken to as YHWH God.
Judges 13:21-22 When the angel of the LORD did not show himself again to Manoah and his wife,
Manoah realized that it was the angel of the LORD. 22 "We are doomed to die!" he said to his wife. "We
have seen God!"

My understanding is that Manoah made a mistake, however it is possible that Manoah was addressing the angel as
the LORD God because the angel was His representative.
Acts 3:26 God, having raised up his servant, sent him to you first ...
... as the Lords personal messenger who represented him and bore his credentials, Jesus could speak on
behalf of (and so be identified with) the One who sent him.
This would be in the same way that Jesus said "get behind me Satan" when talking to Peter.
Mathew 16:23 But he turned and said to peter, "Get behind me, Satan! You are a hindrance to me. For you
are not setting your mind on the things of God, the on the things of man."
We might well interpret Matt.16:23 similarly: Jesus said unto Peter, Get thee behind me, Satan [Satana
vocative, noun of address]. Here Jesus, in a complete statement, clearly addresses Peter as Satan! But
we know full well that Satan is someone else entirely. Therefore it would be reasonable to conclude
that Jesus
considered Peter to be (at this particular moment only) Satans servant (unwittingly, of course) and addressed that
servant as though actually speaking to his master!
4D Summary:
Genesis 16:7
Hagar was referring to the angel as YHWH God.
Genesis 32:24
Jacob said he had "seen God face to face."
Exodus 3:2
The angel was speaking on God's behalf and was addressed as Jehovah God.
Exodus 3:16 and 4:16 Moses is identified with God, and speaks as God.
Judges 6:11
The angel of the LORD is identified as the angel and yet is spoken to as YHWH God.
Judges 13:21
Perhaps Manoah addressed the angel as the LORD God as the angel was His representative
Acts 3:26
God raised up his servant Jesus who could therefore speak on His behalf.
Mathew 16:23
Jesus addressed Peter as Satan, Peter was Satans representitive
It is certainly possible that Thomas, upon discovering that this really was the resurrected Jesus, also realized
that this, must be a direct representative of God. The Angel of Jehovah was sometimes addressed as God
or Jehovah because at that moment he was perfectly speaking and performing Gods will. Realizing this, it
would not be surprising to hear Thomas address God through this perfect representative of God: My Lord
and my God!
This indwelling of God in Christ, and God sending Christ, reflects the concept of
agency. As in the parable of the vineyard, and in Jewish culture in general, the father sent
the son as he would be the best
candidate as his agent. So, with the son as agent,
dealing with a mans son was akin to dealing with the
man himself, as if the father was
in his son.
John, in referring to Jesus taught this concept of agency in various ways. He often said
the Father had
given him His words and deeds (John 12.49; 14.10, 24; 17.8). And he said
of the Father, My teaching is
not Mine, but His who sent me. If anyone is willing to do
His will, he will know of the teaching, whether it is of God or whether I speak from myself
(7.16-17). Notice he distinguishes himself from God. Another time he said, I have come in
My Fathers name, and he then called the Father the one and only
God (5.43-44).
As a King sending his own son who is himself a king; YHWH God sent Jesus as YHWH God.
Whether you agree with this viewpoint or not, there is no disputing that it is a strong and valid argument.

The problem with this viewpoint is that if Gods created representative, whether in the Old or the New Testaments,
can call himself God or even Yahweh with impunity. How are we to know when (if ever) the true God is actually
being referred to?

4E Thomas Called Jesus "god" not "God."


What if the words My Lord and my God were meant to be applied directly to Jesus? But not that Thomas called
Jesus Jehovah God, but called him in the secondary sense of god or mighty one" in a similar way that others in
both the OT and the NT were called god. He confessed Jesus was prophet, judge and king and therefore god.
The words elohim and theos are simply titles or descriptions (like lord) signifying more than usual power,
might, and/or authority, etc. It may be applied on many levels, but when it is applied on the highest level to
YHWH the God of the universe it is understood in an exclusive sense: To distinguish, YHWH God will
usually be described as the god (ha elohim, Heb. or ho theos, Gk.) which, when translated into modern
English will be distinguished by a capital letter (God) since in our idiom we seldom use the definite
article with God.
Moses:
LEB Exodus 4:16 and you will be to him as a god (Elohiym/H430)
ESV Exodus 4:16 and you shall be as God to him
NRSV Exodus 4:16 and you shall serve as God for him
LEB Moses would "be to him as a god."
ESV/NRSV The LORD God tells Moses he will be as God to Aaron, Moses would be God's representative.
Darby Exodus 7:1 And Jehovah said to Moses, see, I have made thee God to Pharaoh;
AV Exodus 7:1 And the LORD said unto Moses, see, I have made thee a god to Pharaoh
Other translations say "like God" or "as a god" or "as God" or "seem like God"
The second part of Ex 7:1 says Aaron would be Moses prophet. It is clear that God is applying the title elohim (or
theos in the Greek Septuagint) to Moses in a proper subordinate or secondary sense of a mighty person. And here
it is Jehovah who is calling Moses "elohiym."
Samuel:
1 Samuel 28:13 The king said to her, Do not be afraid. What do you see? And the woman said to Saul,
I see a god coming up out of the earth.
14 He said to her, What is his appearance? And she said, An old man is coming up, and he is wrapped
in a robe. And Saul knew that it was Samuel, and he bowed with his face to the ground and paid homage.
The Witch of Endor called Samuel a Elohiym/H430.
She saw an old man coming up, wrapped in a robe, and she told Saul "I see a god." Was she right or wrong?
We could doubt the Witch of Endor as being untrustworthy, but how much more than Thomas? However she was
right, Samuel was "god" in a similar way that others were elohiym/god, he was someone extremely special.
King Hezekiah:
2 Chron 32:15 Now, therefore, do not let Hezekiah deceive you or mislead you in this fashion, and do not
believe him, for no god of any nation or kingdom has been able to deliver his people from my hand or
from the hand of my fathers. How much less will your God deliver you out of my hand!
Hezekiah is referred to as a god, however not the Jehovah God of the second part of the passage.
This would be a prime passage for claiming Hezekiah was god/God especially when matched with Isaiah 9.
King David:

Darby 1 Sam 20:12 And Jonathan said to David, Jehovah, God of Israel, when I sound my father
AV 1 Sam 20:12 And Jonathan said unto David, O LORD God of Israel, when I have sounded my father
KJV 1 Sam 20:12 And Jonathan said unto David, O LORD God of Israel, when I have sounded my father
ESV 1 Samuel 20:12 And Jonathan said to David, "The LORD, the God of Israel, be witness!"
If modern Bible translators wanted to find evidence that made King David also appear to be equally
God they would continue to translate this scripture addressed to David just as literally as they do John
20:28 to prove that Jesus is equally God! Since the context of John 20:28 could just as honestly be
translated with some addition comparable to that of 1 Sam. 20:12.
King David is called Jehovah God or Israel by his close friend Jonathan.
Psalm 45:6 Your throne, O God, is forever and ever. The scepter of your kingdom is a scepter of
uprightness;
Some interpret this verse to say it is calling David O God who is Gods representative. My viewpoint is that O
God is aimed at Jehovah God and the righteous branch is aimed at David.
Angels.
Judges 13:21The angel of the LORD appeared no more to Manoah and to his wife. Then Manoah knew that
he was the angel of the LORD.
22 And Manoah said to his wife, "We shall surely die, for we have seen God."
It is my belief that Manoah made a mistake thinking the angel was YHWH God.
It is possible that Manoah knew the angel was not the LORD God, but still called him god.
AV Psalm 8:5 For thou hast made him a little lower than the angels (H430/Elohiym).
ESV Psalm 8:5 Yet you have made him a little lower than the heavenly beings and crowned him
HCSB Ps 8:5 You made him a little less than God and crowned him with glory
Man is made a little lower than the angels/Elohiym
Do the translators believe angels to be gods because they translate Elohiym to angels?
NIRV Psalm 29:1 Praise the LORD, you mighty angels (H410/El). Praise the LORD for his glory
El/H410 a shorter version of Elohiym/H430 is translated to "angels."
Hebrews 2:7 You made him for a little while lower than the angels, you have crowned him with glory
This is a direct quote of Psalm 8 which uses the word Elohiym to describe the one who is higher. In Hebrews the
writer uses the word angelos/G32 which is translated to angel 165 times and messenger 11 times. This being the
case then the Hebrew writer is confirming that Psalm 8:5 called the angels, Elohiym/god.
So, if we accept both Ps. 8:5 (elohim - gods) and Heb. 2:7 (aggelous - angels) as inspired scripture, we must accept
that angels were, on occasion, called gods in a good, but subordinate, sense. Angels are spirits, Heb. 1:14, but can
assume the human form when necessary as per several OT appearances.
False gods
DR Exodus 15:11 Who is like to thee, among the strong (Elohiym/H430), O Lord?
ESV Exodus 15:11 Who is like you, o LORD, among the gods?
The translators are divided on how to interpret the Hebrew "Elohiym," most translate it to lower case gods.

ESV Ps 82:1 God has taken his place in the divine council, in the midst of the gods he holds judgment
NASB Ps 82:1 God takes His stand in His own congregation. he judges in the midst of the rulers.
YLT Ps 82:1 God hath stood in the company of God (elohiym), In the midst God (elohiym) doth judge
God is in the midst of the gods. The translators are divided on how to interpret the second and third use of
"Elohiym," most apply it to lower case gods.
DR Psalm 97:7 and that glory in their idols. Adore him, all you his angels.
ESV Psalm 97:7 who make their boast in worthless idols, worship him all you gods.
Worship him all you gods. The translators are divided on how to interpret the Hebrew "Elohiym," most translate it
as gods, some as angels.
Psalm 138:1 I give you thanks, O LORD, with my whole heart, before the gods I sing your praise.
Before the gods/Elohiym. Translated to "angels" in DR and "heavenly beings" HCSB, NET,
Isaiah 8:19 should not a people inquire of their god?
Inquire of their false god
Daniel 11:37 He shall pay no attention to the gods of his fathers...... not pay attention to any other god....
38 He shall honor the god of fortresses instead of these. A god whom his fathers did not know
39 He shall deal with the strongest fortresses with the help of a foreign god.
A god (Elohiym/H430) who his fathers did not know, a false god (Eloah/H433).
Judges
DR Exodus 21:6 His master shall bring him to the gods, and he shall be set to the door and the posts,
HCSB Ex 21:6 his master is to bring him to the judges and then bring him to the door or doorpost
ESV Ex 21:6 then his master shall bring him to God, and he shall bring him to the door or the doorpost.
The master shall bring him to the gods/judges. The translators are divided on how to interpret the Hebrew
"Elohiym," however it is usually applied to people.
DR Exodus 22:8 the master of the house shall be brought to the gods, and shall
HCSB Ex 22:8 the owner of the house must present himself to the judges, to determine whether
ESV Ex 22:8 the owner of the house shall come near to God to show whether or not he has
The master shall be brought to the gods/judges. The translators are divided on how to interpret the Hebrew
"Elohiym," however it is usually applied to people.
DR Exodus 22:9 the cause of both parties shall come to the gods.
HCSB Ex 22:9 the case before the two parties is to come before the judges. The one the judges condemn
ESV Ex 22:9 the case of both parties shall come before God. The one whom God condemns shall pay
The cause of both parties shall come to the gods/judges. The translators are divided on how to interpret the Hebrew
"Elohiym," however it is usually applied to people.
Psalm 82:6 I said you are gods (H430/Elohiym) you are all sons of the Most High. But you will die like
mere men, you will fall like every other ruler.
God called these men gods, does that mean they were each the God of the universe?

Some understand this to be not plural but owned by God, as in "you are God's" YLT. My understanding is that it is
gods plural.
The judges of Israel abused their office and God is represented as calling them gods (theoi, elohim)
because they were Gods representatives. Its interesting that those judges or magistrates of Israel who
were called gods by Jehovah himself were also called Sons of the Most High at Ps. 82:6, and Jesus
was was also called Son of the Most High God at Mark 5:7.
Judges 5:8 When new gods were chosen, then war was in the gates. Was shield or spear to be seen among
forty thousand in Israel?
"New gods were chosen" is the title for the men who were to be the commanders of Israel. Some translations have
the word "leaders" instead of "gods."
Other
NASB Genesis 30:8 So Rachel said, "With mighty (elohiym/H430) wrestlings I have wrestled with my
sister, and I have indeed prevailed." And she named him Naphtali.
Exodus 9:28 that there be no more mighty (elohiym/H430) thunderings and hail
ASV 1 Samuel 14:15 so there was an exceedingly (elohiym/H430) great trembling
Jonah 3:3 Now Nineveh was an exceedingly (elohiym/H430) great city, three days journey in breadth.
Elohiym in these passages signifies great, or large, or immense etc
Philippians 3:19 Their end is destruction, their god is their belly, and they glory in their shame, with minds
set on earthly things.
Whose god is their appetite is a figurative use of Theos
Jesus
John 20:28 Thomas answered him "my Lord and my God."
Thomas may have called Jesus theos/God
There are other passages that some might say quote Jesus as being God/god/theos such as John 1:1, 5:17, 10:33,
Philippians 2:7, 1 Timothy 3:16, Titus 2:13, Hebrews 1:8-9, 2 Peter 1:1,. They are listed elsewhere and examined in
full showing how and why none of them are calling Jesus, Jehovah God.
Paul:
2 Corinthians 11:1-2 I wish you would bear with me in a little foolishness. Do bear with me!
2 For I feel a divine (theos/god/G2316) jealousy for you, since I betrothed you to one husband, to present
you as a pure virgin to Christ.
Paul had a God (Theos) jealousy for the people, does this mean Paul was 100% man and 100% God?
No, this is Paul being figurative, or trying to make a point.
Acts 14:11 When the crowd saw what Paul had done, they shouted in the Lycaonian language, "The gods
(theos/G2316) have come down to us in human form!"
Paul did a miracle and the people thought Paul was a god/theos. How is what these people said any different from
what Thomas said in John 20:28?

Acts 28:6 He, however, shook off the creature into the fire and suffered no harm.
6 They were waiting for him to swell up or suddenly fall down dead. But when they had waited a long
time and saw no misfortune come to him, they changed their minds and said that he was a god.
The people who saw Paul not die from a snake bite said he was Theos/G2316
Herod:
Acts 12:21-22 On an appointed day Herod put on his royal robes, took his seat upon the throne, and
delivered an oration to them.
22 And the people were shouting, The voice of a god (theos/ G2316), and not of a man!
The people saw that Herod was a man and they said that his voice was of a god. Did they mean he was the God of
the universe or were they trying to lift up Herod and show him support? This passage if applied to Jesus would be
used by Trinitarians to show he was YHWH God, however it is used as a man.
Satan:
2 Corinthians 4:4 In their case the god (theos) of this world has blinded the minds of the unbelievers, to
keep them from seeing the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God.
Most bibles have translated theos to lower case god rather than God. Most understand this to be a figurative
reference to Satan, however he is still called theos. What does that imply to you?
2 Thess 2:4 who opposes and exalts himself against every so-called god or object of worship, so
he takes his seat in the temple of God, proclaiming himself to be God.

that

A prophecy of the coming of Satan and all who follow him. Someone will claim to be theos/god or as Thessalonians
says theos/God.
4E Summary:
Moses
Exodus 4:16 and you will be to him as a god
Exodus 7:1 Jehovah God made Moses Elohiym. Moses is god.
Samuel
1 Sam 28:13 The witch of Endor called Samuel Elohiym, she called him god.
King Hezekiah2 Chron 2:15 Hezekiah is referred to as a god
King David 1 Sam 20:12 And Jonathan said to David, Jehovah, God of Israel,
Angels
Judges 13:22 Manoah calls the angel God
Psalm 8:5
Man is made a little lower than the angels/Elohiym
Hebrews 2:7 You made him for a little while lower than the angels
False gods
Exodus 15:11 Who is like the LORD among the gods
Psalm 82:1
God is in the midst of the gods
Psalm 97:7
worship him all you gods
Psalm 138:1 I give thanks with all my heart to the gods
Isaiah 8:19
Should not people enquire of their gods?
Dan 11:37-39 A god who his fathers did not know, a false god.
Acts 19:37, 1 Cor 8:5
Judges
Exodus 21:6 the master shall bring him to the gods
Exodus 22:8 The master shall be brought to the gods
Exodus 22:9 The cause of both parties shall come to the gods
Psalm 82:6
God called the people Elohiym, said they are gods. They were His sons, and gods.
Judges 5:8
When new gods were chosen, then war was in the gates. The commanders
Other
Genesis 30:8 Rachael had elohiym/mighty wrestlings.
Jesus
John 10:33
you being a man make yourself out to be God.
John 20:28
Thomas says "my Lord and my God."

Paul
Herod
Satan

2 Cor 11:2
Acts 14:11
Acts 28:6
Acts 12:21
2 Cor 4:4
2 Thess 2:4

he had a theos/god jealousy for the people


the crowd said the gods have come down when Paul healed the cripple
Paul survived a snake bite and people said he was theos/god.
The people said "a voice of a god/theos" when Herod spoke to them
Satan is called the theos/god of this world.
exalts himself against every so called god and claims to be God

In the old testament books of Exodus, Samuel, Chronicles, Judges, Psalms, Isaiah, and Daniel the writers give the
title of elohiym/God to those other than the LORD God. It was not an uncommon thing for writers to give this title
in a similar way that they might perhaps use the term Lord. The term "elohiym" was given to Moses, Samuel, King
Hezekiah, King David, angels and false gods.
Moses is the prophet called elohiym/god, judges are called elohiym/god, David and Hezekiah are called
elohiym/god. If Jesus is prophet judge and king, it seems clear that if they are called god then so should he be. Jesus
has been given all authority over heaven and earth, Mathew 28:18 and so is far above all three of them.
In the remainder of the NT, several times theos/God is used in a way other than for Jehovah God, theos is used for
false gods, Satan, Herod, Jesus and Paul. Paul was called theos/god in Acts 14:11 and 28:6 each time by a group of
people, he also applied it to himself. Therefore, if imperfect humans can be called Hebrew elohiym, or Greek theos,
or English god we should not be surprised that a much more perfect imitator of God, his servant, Jesus, should be
called god. However just like those listed here, Elohiym or Theos is not in reference to the creator of the universe
but to others in a lesser but positive subordinate sense
It could be argued that Thomas said "my God" which is different to all these quotes, no one ever said "my God/god"
to anyone other than YHWH God. Paul said I have a theos jealousy, which may be close but it is still not one person
saying to another my God. However it would seem very likely that in the OT when someone was referring to the
elohiym/judges/gods in Exodus 21/22 they could refer to them as "my judge/god" just as people called other people
"my lord" Genesis 18:12, 23:6 etc.
People were not independent elohiym, or theos, but perhaps extensions of the YHWH Elohiym.
If I were taking John 20:28 at face value and had never examined Greek text, it would be a perfectly legitimate
argument that Thomas called Jesus god/elohiym/theos. However, the analysis in 5A will show that this is not the
real answer, but that it is the problems with translating to the English language that have caused the
misunderstanding.

4F/ Thomas Makes a Mistake


Thomas spoke the words, "my lord and my God," but made a mistake as he always had done in his past statements
and actions.
Other People Wrongly Thought They Had Seen God.
Here are three other examples of occasions where people assume they have seen God but actually have not.
Something extraordinary happened and the people made a human mistake
Judges 13:22 We are doomed to die! he said to his wife. We have seen God!
Samsons father, Manoah, thought he had seen God. He was mistaken as it was an angel.
Acts 8:10 from the least to the greatest, saying, this man is the power of God that is called great.
Numerous people said Simon was the "power of God," (dynamis ho theos) however he was not God.
He was not even from God, it was peoples wrong conclusions due to extraordinary events.

If this statement were said of Jesus, some would say it was confirmation that Jesus is God.
Acts 14:11 When the crowd saw what Paul had done, they shouted in the Lycaonian language, "The gods
have come down to us in human form!"
Paul did a miracle and the people thought Paul was a god/theos.
The people made a mistake, many of them at once, due to a miraculous happening.
If this statement were said of Jesus, some would say it was confirmation that Jesus is God.
These statements are from untrustworthy people therefore we don't take them as face value.
Thomas's Checkered History:
On each of the times he is mentioned in the Bible (Other than when the apostles are listed) Thomas is making a
mistake. Should we now assume that he knew what he was doing, or talking about, and would be correct this time?
Of all the disciples, after Judas, Thomas seemed to be the most untrustworthy of the twelve.
Mistake 1.
John 11:16 Then Thomas said to the rest of the disciples, "Let us also go, that we may die with him."
Thomas said he was going to "go and die with Jesus" but didnt, Jesus who was right there with Thomas ignored his
wrong statement. Jesus had ignored wrong statements from Thomas, Peter and his disciples on several other
occasions. This also reveals Thomas's ignorance of the death Jesus had been telling them about that he had to die in
order to rise again.
Mistake 2.
John 14:5-7 Thomas said to him, "Lord, we don't know where you are going, so how can we know the
way?"
6 Jesus answered, "I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me.
7 If you really knew me, you would know my Father as well.
Vs5 Thomass question showed that despite being with Jesus for 3-4 years he still did not understand what Jesus
was saying and who Jesus said he was. On this occasion Jesus corrected Thomas. Although Thomas said we dont
know, as if speaking on the disciples behalf, that may not have been the case as he was prone to mistakes. Usually,
when something was unknown by all the disciples or a group of people, the passage would say the disciples asked
him, or the Pharisees and the scribes asked him. Mat 17:10, Mark 7:5, Mark 7:17, Mark 9:28, Mark 10:10, Luke
8:9, John 9:2 etc. Therefore we dont know for sure if it was just Thomas, some, or all of the disciples who thought
this way. What we know for sure is Thomas's lack of understanding.
Vs6-7 Jesus explains the "way" then confirms that Thomas does not really know Jesus, or God the Father.
Mistake 3:
John 20:24 Now Thomas (called Didymus), one of the Twelve, was not with the disciples when Jesus came.
Despite being told by Jesus in John 14:6-7 who Jesus was and how to have faith, Thomas was so faithless he was
not with the other disciples when Jesus came in John 20:24. The only other disciple not there was Judas who was
dead.
Mistake 4:
John 20:25 So the other disciples told him, "We have seen the Lord!" But he said to them, "Unless I see the
nail marks in his hands and put my finger where the nails were, and put my hand into his side, I will not
believe it."

Despite being told by Jesus that Jesus would rise from the dead, and after witnessing extreme miracles and Jesus
raising Lazarus in John 11 and 12, Thomas did not believe or understand it to be true that Jesus was alive.
Mistake 5:
John 20:26 A week later his disciples were in the house again, and Thomas was with them. Though the
doors were locked, Jesus came and stood among them and said, "Peace be with you!"
27
Then he said to Thomas, "Put your finger here; see my hands. Reach out your hand and put it into my side.
Stop doubting and believe."
A week after vs 25
Vs27 Jesus approached Thomas because the others had already seen him.
Vs27 Thomas makes another mistake and does not believe his own eyes . Thomas becomes doubting Thomas at this
point. Thomas is a very weak disciple with a lack of understanding who Christ was.
Holmans John 20:27 Dont be an unbeliever but a believer.
Jesus knew Thomas was an unbeliever, Jesus told him not to be.
Mistake 6:
John 20:28 Thomas answered him, "My Lord and my God!"
Thomas has gone from not believing Jesus had risen from the dead despite the fact that Jesus had raised Lazarus, to
now thinking Jesus was God Himself. The point of talking to Thomas was for Jesus to show him that he had risen,
as several others had and as Jesus had predicted he would.
Mistake 7:
John 21:4 Early in the morning, Jesus stood on the shore, but the disciples did not realize that it was Jesus.
Thomas, Simon, Nathanael and two other disciples. This was the third time Jesus had been with them after he had
risen, he had confirmed to Thomas by showing him holes in his hands and yet still they did not fully believe it was
Jesus back from the dead. Now Thomas did not recognize him. Surely they would be looking and hoping to see
Jesus, ready for him to come again. And yet Thomas did not recognize him.
It could be argued that the distance was to great or the lack of light, which I can understand, however it always
seems strange to me that the disciples hadn't stayed with Jesus or been trying to look for him.
Summary:
Except when he is listed as an apostle he is making a mistake.
Mistake 1/ John 11:16 Thomas said he was going to "go and die with Jesus" but didnt.
Mistake 2/ John 14:5 Thomas question showed that despite being with Jesus for 3-4 years he still did not
understand what Jesus was saying and who Jesus said he was.
Mistake 3/ John 20:24 Thomas was so faithless he was not with the other disciples when Jesus came.
Mistake 4/ John 20:25 Thomas did not believe or understand it to be true that Jesus was alive.
Mistake 5/ John 20:27 He makes another mistake and does not believe his own eyes, becomes doubting Thomas.
Mistake 6/ John 20:28 Thomas has gone from not believing Jesus had risen from the dead despite the fact that
Jesus had raised Lazarus, to now thinking Jesus was God Himself.
Mistake 7/ John 21:4 Thomas was fishing and did not recognize Jesus on the shore.
If I were taking John 20:28 at face value and had never examined Greek text, this would be a perfectly legitimate
argument that Thomas had made another mistake just as he usually did. However, the analysis in 5A will show that
this is not the real answer, but that it is the problems with translating to the English language that have caused the
misunderstanding.

5A/ Greek Analysis Shows Thomas Referring to Two Beings.


When looking at this passage in the original Greek it is revealed that when Thomas spoke saying my Lord and my
God. he identified two distinct and individual beings. The way the Greek writers composed a passage indicated
whether the first person referred to was different to the second person referred to. Once translated to English the
Greek text looks like this.
Two persons:
The Lord of me AND the God of me.
the written twice, my written twice. To
confirm that there are two person in the sentence the word kai/and is in between indicating "in addition to."
This is how it would be written in order to identify two different persons, much like an example where they might
say "mother and father" in place of "Lord and God".
The following examples are from the Nestle Aland Greek text, it will help if you compare the word for word
examples shown below with an English Bible translation.
Examples.
Mat 12:48 ;
ho de apokrinomai eipon ho lego autos tis eimi ho meter ego kai tis eimi ho adelphos ego
he but replied
said
told him, who is the mother my and who are the brothers my
Jesus asks a two part question, yellow mother AND teal brothers.
"the mother my" followed by "AND" " the brothers my"
Rev 3:21 , .
ego en Ho thronos ego hos kago nikao kai kathizo meta ho pater ego en ho thronos autov
my on the throne my the I conquered and sat
with the father my on the throne his
Jesus has two different things yellow throne AND teal father
"the throne my" followed by "AND" "the father my"
These two examples show how the Greek writers identified two distinct and individual beings or things, by the use
of the sentence structure. Jude 1:14 and Revelation 12:10 support this.
From Thomas.
John 20:28


apokrinomai Thomas kai eipon autos ho kyrios ego kai ho theos ego
answered
Thomas and said him the Lord my and the God my
This passage has the same structure as Mathew 12:48 and Revelation 3:21 indicating two distinct persons.
"the Lord my" followed by "AND" "the God my."
Thomas spoke in regard to two different beings, yellow Lord AND teal God, just like "my mother and my father."
If Thomas had wanted to identify one being he would have said it differently, the construction of the sentence
would have been different.
One Father
When Jesus spoke in John 20:17 he only used Gk ho- "the" once, to indicate that Father and God were the same.
N/Aland John 20:17
anabaino pros ho pater ego kai pater
sy kai theos ego kai theos sy
ascending to the father my and father yours and God my and God yours

John used different sentence structure to show that his father and their father were the same father. If he wanted to
indicate two different fathers he would have said, in the same way as vs28, "ho pater ego kai ho pater sy." Which in
English is "the father my and the father yours," this would mean two fathers.
This passage has an additional argument in that if people share the same Father with Jesus then he cannot be the
Father/God! This is addressed elsewhere in detail, section 02N Jesus has a God, Jesus and God, also sections 01C/D
The OT/NT Father.
ESV John 20:17 Jesus said to her, "Do not cling to me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to
my brothers and say to them, I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God."
When the translators convert to English they dont show the word the" after ascending and other words are reordered. In fact when looking at the English, we could understand that there are two fathers and two Gods because
of our sentence structure. We know this not to be true because of the context.
Septuagint Opposition.
There is opposition to this theory because of the sentence structure in Psalms 35:23 as translated in the Septuagint.
David said the God my and the lord my to God who is one being, therefore my theory, and Sharps rule, it seems
doesnt hold up. (Also claimed Psalm 84:3 or Septuagint 83:3)
ESV Psalm 35:23Awake and rouse yourself for my vindication, for my cause, my God and my Lord.
Sept Psalm 34:23 Awake, O Lord, and attend to my judgment, even to my cause, my God and my Lord.
Sept Gk , , , , .
The God my and the lord my
My response is that the Septuagint is not the word of God, which is without fault, but a translation with possible
errors? The Hebrew writers had a sentence structure that was different to the Greeks just like we do in our English
language, the problem happens once it was translated to Greek. This in fact becomes a perfect example of what is
happening in John 20:28 when the Greek text is translated to the English language. Something is altered and the
truth gets distorted.
Summary:
As identified in the supporting passages of Mathew 12:48 and Revelation 3:21"the abc my AND the xyz my" are
two different and distinct persons so we know that when Thomas spoke in John 20:28 he was referring to TWO
beings.
Because there has been a loss of clarity during the translation, it would perhaps have been helpful if there was a
comma after the word Lord. Here are some examples of possibilities, each of which are not truly adequate.
A/ And Thomas answered him, "my Lord, and my God."
B/ And Thomas declared my Lord, and my God.
C/ And Thomas declared to him my Lord, and my God.
D/ And Thomas answered him, "my Lord, along with my God."
E/ And Thomas said to them both, "my Lord, and my God."
F/ And Thomas declared to them both my Lord, and my God.
The word declared instead of answered might be better because Thomas was never asked a question!
The problem is that none of these are an exact translation. Translating from one language to another is always
problematic and involves interpretation. Therefore, because we know from the Greek text structure what Thomas
meant, modification or additions have to be allowable in order to express exactly what he meant. A, B, or C are all
very valid interpretations that if they had been in place since the KJV no one would have complained.
Now we know from the Greek syntax that Thomas is referring to two beings, we have to try and decide how and
what he was doing when he spoke. There are two possibilities in 5B-C.

If you are not convinced by this answer and you still believe Thomas addressed both titles to Jesus, take your pick
from the earlier possibilities that either Thomas called Jesus lower case god, or he made another mistake.

5B/ Thomas is talking to Jesus AND God:


As shown in 5A, Thomas realized that Jesus (Lord) and YHWH God had acted together when he said my Lord and
my God and meant "both of you." He was speaking of or to the Father when he said my God. In exactly the same
way Jesus had spoken to the Jews in Luke 13.
Jesus and the hypocrites.
Luke 13:14-15 But the ruler of the synagogue, indignant because Jesus had healed on the Sabbath, said to
the people, "there are six days in which work ought to be done. Come on those days and be healed, and not
on the Sabbath day."
Then the Lord answered him, "you hypocrites! Does not each of you on the Sabbath untie his ox etc

,
apokrinomai de auto ho kurios kai eipon hypokrites hekastos hymon ho sabbaton ou lyo ho bous
answered then him the Lord and you hypocrites each
you the Sabbath not untie the Ox
Luke: One person talking to Jesus,
Jesus replies to "him," however Jesus is talking to more than one person.
John: One Jesus talking to Thomas, Thomas replies to "him," however Thomas is talking to more than one person
Therefore in Luke Jesus spoke to several people in the same way that Thomas did when addressing Jesus and God.
Other John 20:28 Thomas answered him/them, "My Lord and my God!"
Summary:
Because of the proof identified in 5A that Thomas is referring to two beings, the solution to what Thomas meant is
shown here. Thomas is talking to the Lord Jesus and also to Jehovah God. He spoke to them, both of them, two of
them.
The problem with this viewpoint is if he was talking to both of them, where is the remainder of what he wanted to
say? It would be the same question if Thomas had aimed all of his words at Jesus. My Lord and my God, what?
There is no more to the sentence and therefore it is not really an address to anyone, even though it says Thomas
answered him. Therefore, because the statement ends without continuing as a normal address, and although this is
a very strong possibility, I dont favor this option.

5C An Exclamation of Astonishment.
It seems that when all things are considered, Thomas just made a statement of astonishment. The proof provided
earlier in this study has shown what Thomas did not mean, in that we know he didn't think or say that Jesus was
YHWH God. If Thomas was asking a question there would be more to the sentence and there is not. Thomass
words stop, and Jesus responds. Therefore, based on all other information reviewed and the process of elimination,
this is the most likely scenario. Thomas made an outburst.
The Translators Exclamation Mark!
Several translations including the ESV, GW, HCSB, ISV, LEB, NET, NASB, NCV, NIRV, NIV, NKJV, NRSV, RSV,
TNIV, and so forth have an exclamation mark at the end of the sentence. Why?
Exclamation points were originally called the note of admiration. They are still, to this day, used to
express excitement. They are also used to express surprise, astonishment, or any other such strong emotion.
Any exclamatory sentence can be properly followed by an exclamation mark, to add additional emphasis.
After all, isnt it a lot more exciting to say I am excited! then to say I am excited.

They are commonly used after interjections (words or phrases that are used to exclaim, command or
protest). Interrogatories include words such as oh, wow, and boy For example, Wow! This grammar stuff
is interesting. Boy! I wish Id learned it before. Oh! Thats right, I did.
So it seems that of the translations listed, which are the most popular today, all added an exclamation mark because
they felt Thomas made a statement of astonishment.
Some might say that Thomas would be taking the name of God in vain if he said this. This is not a valid argument
because God is not God's name. Gods name is YHWH/Jehovah/LORD which Thomas didn't use. Because this is
true, then Thomas didn't use His name YHWH in a "vain" way. In fact Thomas didn't use the name theos/God in a
vain way either, as a statement of astonishment can hardly be considered as vain.

6A/ Vs29-31 Clarification


So when Jesus responded to Thomas in vs29 what did he mean?
John 20:29 Then Jesus told him, "Because you have seen me, you have believed; blessed are those who
have not seen and yet have believed."
It is important to reiterate here two things, firstly I have previously identified that Thomas had been talking to two
beings and secondly if Thomas had called Jesus theos/god it would have been out of the ordinary but not
blasphemous or to mean he called Jesus YHWH.
One of the main points of vs29 is to confirm his rise from the dead, and that it all those who have not seen will be
blessed. Jesus goes past Thomas statement and talks about the disciples of the future saying blessed are those who
have not seen the resurrection, but believe it happened. This is confirmed in Romans 10:19.
John 20:30-31 Jesus did many other miraculous signs in the presence of his disciples, which are not
recorded in this book. 31But these are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God,
and that by believing you may have life in his name.
After Thomas last spoke, at the end of chapter 20, John again has to confirm who Jesus was and is. If Jesus was
suddenly newly identified as YHWH God by Thomas there is no doubt that John would have written it right here,
but he didnt because he had never thought it and it isnt the case.

6B/ Why Didn't Jesus Correct Thomas?


Because nothing Thomas had said was wrong. Thomas was addressing two beings, Lord Jesus and also God.
If he had been addressing Jesus as "theos," it would have been out of the ordinary but not wrong or blasphemous as
shown earlier in Part 4E.
Additionally if there was something wrong, which there wasn't, there were several other times Jesus did not correct
people who were wrong. People including his disciples often made incorrect assumptions, sometimes Jesus
corrected them, sometimes he didnt. There are several occasions when Jesus did not correct a wrong statement.
Summary:
The reason that Jesus did not correct Thomas is because nothing Thomas had said was different, wrong or
blasphemous.

7/ Summaries And Conclusion


2A:

Numbers 23:19 God is not a man, that he should lie, nor a son of man, that he should change his mind
Hosea 11:9 For I am God and not a man - the Holy one among you

These passages say God is not a man. They have to be considered when evaluating Thomas's statement.
Can both of these statements be true as well interpreting Thomas's declaration to say God is a man? How?
2B:

How could Thomas be interpreted to say that he realized Jesus is God, and these scriptures be true? If we
think Thomas was correct then what about the statements made by God, Jesus, and John that no one has
seen God? These scriptures are not corresponding and in harmony with Thomas, therefore they have to be
given interpretations that oppose what they actually say. Either Thomas saw God or he didn't. Either God
cannot be seen or he can. Either these scriptures are true at face value or they are not.

2C:

For years Jesus had told Thomas and the others who he was, he had not claimed to be God. Why if Jesus
was God did he never say I am God or God is me etc? He claimed to be bread of life, came from God,
the Christ, door, good shepherd, here, I am, Jesus of Nazareth, king, light of the world, light, messiah,
resurrection, son of man, son of God, true vine, truth, way, working. Surely Jesus, if he were God, would
have been explicitly clear and would not have been that vague or even deceitful.

2D:

In Mathew 16:15, Mark 8:9 and Luke 9:20 Jesus says to his disciples "who do you say I am?" and Peter
answered "You are the Christ of God." If they had any thought that he was God they would have said so or
said something along the lines of "the Christ of God, but we are wondering if you are also God," but
they didn't
which should really make anyone ask why.
2E:

Thomas would have known the five OT stories of the dead being raised, you would imagine.
Thomas would have heard from Peter, John and James that Moses and Elijah had been raised, certainly.
Thomas would likely been a witness to the raising of Jarius's daughter and the son of the widow by Jesus.
Thomas did witness Lazarus being raised by Jesus.
Thomas, with other disciples, was told by Jesus to raise the dead himself, which they may have done.
Thomas was told that the dead would rise for judgment by Jesus
Thomas knew all these things, but prior to the resurrection had never suggested that Jesus was the creator
and God of the universe, in fact none of the disciples had suggested it.

2F:

It is reasonable to conclude that all uses of "Lord" (and its alternate meanings) used in address in the NT
are in the vocative form (kurie). And, therefore, the use of kurios mou at John 20:28 was not intended to be
used in address.
3A: The progression in John 20:1-20 shows several of the disciples coming to a belief that Jesus had resurrected
from the dead. The context of John 20:24-27 shows that Thomas refused to believe that Jesus
had been
resurrected from the dead.
Jesus command to Thomas to literally touch his wounds and actually see his hands proves that he meant,
See, I am the same person you saw die, but now I am alive ... be believing that I have been resurrected to
life NOT, see, these wounds prove I am God ... be believing that I am God.
Jesus was not showing the wound to imply you believe I am God because you can see me.
3B:

Jesus death proved to many, including Thomas, that Jesus was not the Messiah or Christ. The resurrection
proved otherwise, and that he was the Messiah/Christ.
Thomas would not have said "unless I see the print of the nails I will not believe Jesus is God," because he
would have already known that for the God of the universe raising from the dead is not such a big deal. But
then again he would also have known that God cannot die!

3C:

Why if they just realized they were in the presence of God did they not do anything other than what they
did? Because none of the disciples thought they had just learned Jesus was God.

3D:

After John 20:28 this is what was believed by all those involved.
Thomas could not have just discovered that he was in the presence of God, the creator of the universe, and
acted the way he did!
The rest of the disciples, if they had discovered that Jesus was really God when they saw him resurrected,
they would have talked of nothing else! No other disciple of Jesus ever made a statement after vs28 which
could honestly be construed as meaning Jesus is God! If there was a new revelation which is why there
was no new behavior from the disciples. This must count as the most incredible oversight of all time if
they had really believed they had just seen God!
The book of John, and the book of 1 John, were written somewhere between AD 85-90. John says in 1
John 4:12 "No one has ever seen God." Did John, in spite of the incredible contradiction of this statement,
somehow think that Thomas had understood Jesus to be God and was correct? Obviously, neither Jesus
response, nor Thomas responses (before and after his statement at John 20:28), nor Johns summation of
the event at 20:31 recognizes Thomas statement to mean that Jesus is the only true God! So is it true that
Jesus is not God as per 1 John 4:12 or is it true that Jesus is God per John 20:28? Which is it?
After the Resurrection Other Gospels.
Mathew 28:1-20 An entire chapter including the great commission and no mention of Jesus being God
Mark 16:11-19 No mention of Jesus being God
Luke 24:1- 53 vs19 Jesus was a prophet before God. No mention of Jesus being God and yet plenty that
show he is not God.

3E:

After the resurrection Jesus tells them that he is going back to God. How can Jesus be God and make this
statement? If you said you were going back to xyz, it would mean you were not xyz therefore how can this
statement be any different.
Jesus has a God and he is of God, and parallels himself with people in this regard.

4A:

When he said my lord and my God he meant you are the Lord/God and was correct, Jesus is both
Lord and YHWH God. This is the understanding for those who think Jesus is God. However it is now
fairly clear from the additional evidence offered that the likelihood of this interpretation has too many
problems to be correct.

4B:

Although the explanation that Jesus is talking to only God not Jesus is possible, it needs other words adding
and altered translation along with the fact that there are no other biblical examples.

4C:

There are a few problems with the interpretation that Thomas saw God the Father in Jesus
1/ Why was it that no one had said this before this time?
2/ Thomas was never the brightest of the disciples, it seems strange that he made the discovery first
3/ Each disciple, like Christ, has an indwelling of the Holy Spirit and so it could be said about each of us.
This is the biggest issue with this interpretation.

4D:

It is certainly possible that Thomas, upon discovering that this really was the resurrected Jesus, also
realized that this, must be a direct representative of God. The Angel of Jehovah was sometimes addressed
as God or Jehovah because at that moment he was perfectly speaking and performing Gods will.
Realizing this, it would not be surprising to hear Thomas address God through this perfect representative
of God: My Lord and my God!
As a King sending his own son who is himself a king; YHWH God sent Jesus as YHWH God.

4E:

In the old testament books of Exodus, Samuel, Chronicles, Judges, Psalms, Isaiah, and Daniel the writers
give the title of elohiym/God to those other than the LORD God. It was not an uncommon thing for writers
to give this title in a similar way that they might perhaps use the term Lord. The term "elohiym" was given
to Moses, Samuel, King Hezekiah, King David, angels and false gods.

Moses is the prophet called elohiym/god, judges are called elohiym/god, David and Hezekiah are called
elohiym/god. If Jesus is prophet a judge and a king, it seems clear that if they are called god then so should
he be. Jesus has been given all authority over heaven and earth, Mathew 28:18 and so is far above all three
of them.
In the remainder of the NT, several times theos/God is used in a way other than for Jehovah God, theos is
used for false gods, Satan, Herod, Jesus and Paul. Paul was called theos/god in Acts 14:11 and 28:6 each
time by a group of people, he also applied it to himself. Therefore, if imperfect humans can be called
Hebrew elohiym, or Greek theos, or English god we should not be surprised that a much more perfect
imitator of God, his servant, Jesus, should be called god. However just like those listed here, Elohiym or
Theos is not in reference to the creator of the universe but to others in a lesser but positive subordinate sense
It could be argued that Thomas said "my God" which is different to all these quotes, no one ever said "my
God/god" to anyone other than YHWH God. Paul said I have a theos jealousy, which may be close but it is
still not one person saying to another my God. However it would seem very likely that in the OT when
someone was referring to the elohiym/judges/gods in Exodus 21/22 they could refer to them as "my
judge/god" just as people called other people "my lord" Genesis 18:12, 23:6 etc.
People were not independent elohiym, or theos, but perhaps extensions of the YHWH Elohiym.
If I were taking John 20:28 at face value and had never examined Greek text, it would be a perfectly
legitimate argument that Thomas called Jesus god/elohiym/theos. However, the analysis in 5A will show
that this is not the real answer, but that it is the problems with translating to the English language that have
caused the misunderstanding.
4F:

Mistake 1/ John 11:16 Thomas said he was going to "go and die with Jesus" but didnt
Mistake 2/ John 14:5 Thomas question showed that despite being with Jesus for 3-4 years he still did not
understand what Jesus was saying and who Jesus said he was.
Mistake 3/ John 20:24 Thomas was so faithless he was not with the other disciples when Jesus came
Mistake 4/ John 20:25 Thomas did not believe or understand it to be true that Jesus was alive.
Mistake 5/ John 20:27 Another mistake and does not believe his own eyes, becomes doubting Thomas.
Mistake 6/ John 20:28 Thomas has gone from not believing Jesus had risen from the dead despite the fact
that Jesus had raised Lazarus, to now thinking Jesus was God Himself.
Mistake 7/ John 21:4 Thomas was fishing and did not recognize Jesus on the shore.
If I were taking John 20:28 at face value and had never examined Greek text, this also would be a
perfectlylegitimate argument that Thomas had made another mistake. However, the analysis in 5A will
show that this is not the real answer, but that it is the problems with translating to the English language that
have caused the misunderstanding.

5A:

As identified in the supporting passages of Mathew 12:48 and Revelation 3:21"the abc my AND the xyz
my" are two different and distinct persons so we know that when Thomas spoke in John 20:28 he was
referring to TWO beings.
Because there has been a loss of clarity during the translation, it would perhaps have been helpful if there
was a comma after the word Lord. Here are some examples of possibilities, each of which are not truly
adequate.
A/ And Thomas said to him, "my Lord, and my God."
B/ And Thomas said to him, "my Lord, along with my God."
C/ And Thomas said to them both, "my Lord, and my God."
The problem is that none of these are an exact translation. Translating from one language to another is
always problematic and involves interpretation. Therefore, because we know from the Greek text structure

what Thomas meant, modification or additions have to be allowable in order to express exactly what he
meant.
Now we know that Thomas is referring to two beings, we have to try and decide how and what he was doing
when he spoke. There are two possibilities in 5B-C.
If you are not convinced by this answer and you still believe Thomas addressed both titles to Jesus, take
your pick from the earlier possibilities that either Thomas called Jesus lower case god, or he made another
mistake.
5B:

Because of the proof identified in 5A that Thomas is referring to two beings, the solution to what Thomas
meant is shown here. Thomas is talking to the Lord Jesus and also to Jehovah God. He spoke to them, both
of them, two of them.
The problem with this viewpoint is if he was talking to both of them, where is the remainder of what he
wanted to say? It would be the same question if Thomas had aimed all of his words at Jesus. My Lord and
my God, what? There is no more to the sentence and therefore it is not really an address to anyone, even
though it says Thomas answered him. Therefore, because the statement ends without continuing as a
normal address, and although this is a very strong possibility, I dont favor this option.

5C:

It seems that when all things are considered, Thomas just made a statement of astonishment. The proof
provided earlier in this study has shown what Thomas did not mean, in that we know he didn't think or say
that Jesus was YHWH God. If Thomas was asking a question there would be more to the sentence and there
is not. Thomass words stop, and Jesus responds. Therefore, based on all other information reviewed and the
process of elimination, this is the most likely scenario.

6A:

After Thomas last spoke, at the end of chapter 20, John again has to confirm who Jesus was and is. If Jesus
was suddenly newly identified as YHWH God by Thomas there is no doubt that John would have written it
right here, but he didnt because he had never thought it and it isnt the case.

6B:

The reason that Jesus did not correct Thomas is because nothing Thomas had said was different, wrong or
blasphemous.

It is clear from context alone that neither Jesus, nor John, nor the disciples, nor Thomas considered the statement at
John 20:28 to mean that Jesus was actually God.
Currently my opinion is that when Thomas spoke he said Lord Jesus in addition to Jehovah God as per 5A-C, it was
a statement of astonishment to them both. My second choice is that he made a mistake and my third choice is that
he called Jesus lower case god. I am open to correction and input on all possibilities and could switch views if there
is more information that I have not covered.
Regarding my second choice, it would be that Thomas leapt to the same conclusion that Manoah had done in the
OT when he thought he had seen God, and the crowd had done in Acts 14:11 when they thought the gods had come
down. Thomas was weak in faith, belief, and understanding in all the times he is mentioned in the bible and again
he made a mistake. We should not be looking to these people for theological confirmation
Based on this analysis nothing in John 20:1-31 shows that Jesus is God.