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Karnataka 2004 PG entrance Exam with answers
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1-All of the following are chromosomal breakage
syndrome except:
a-Fanconis anaemia b-Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
c-Bloom syndrome d-Ataxia telengiectasia
Ans-B
2- All of the following are morphologic feature of
apoptosis except:
a-Cell shrinkage b-Chromatin condensation
c-Inflammation d-Apoptotic bodies
Ans-C
3-Macropolycyte in peripheral smear is a feature
of:
a-Hereditary spherocytosis b-Iron deficiency
anaemia
c-Sickle ceel anaemia d-Megaloblastic anaemia
Ans-D
4-Most common second malignancy in patients with
FAMILIAL Retinoblastoma is:
a-Teretoma b-Medullary carcinoma
c-Osteosarcoma d-Malignant melanoma
Ans-C
5-Polyp in Peutz Jeghers syndrome are:
a-Adenomatous polyps b-Hyperplastic polyps
c-Hamartomous polyps d-Pseudopolyps
Ans-C
6-Histologic hallmark of rapidly progressive
glomerulonephritis is:
a-Crescent in most of the glomeruli
b-Loss of foot process of epithelial cells
c-Subendothelial dence deposites
d-Diffuse thickening of glomerular capillary wall
Ans-A
7-All of the following are true for complete mole
except:
a-Diffuse circumferential trophoblastic proliferation
b-Hydropic swelling of villi
c-No fetal parts seen
d-Triploid karyotype
Ans-D
8-Histologic hallmark of paget disease of nipple is:
a-Comedo necrosis
b-Infiltration of the epidermis by malignant cells
c-Atypical lobular hyperplasia
d-Desmoplasia
Ans-B
9-In early gastric carcinoma malignancy is confined
to:
a-Mucosa
b-Mucosa and submucosa
c-Gastric wall without lymphnode metaasis

d-Gastric glands
Ans-B
10-Which hepatitis virus is notorious for causing a
chronic hepatitis evolving cirrhosis?
a-Hepatitis C virus b-Hepatitis B virus
c-Hepatitis E virus d-Cytomegalo virus
Ans-A
11-Example of type IV hypersensitivity:
a-Coagulase test b-Mantoux test
c-Schick test d-Eleks test
Ans-B
12-Recommended vaccines for rabies:
a-DPT b-MMR
c-BCG d-HDCV Ans-D
13-Pigment producing colonies are seen in:
a-Pseudomonas b-Atypical mycobacteria
c-Serratia marcescens d-All of the above
Ans-D
14-Flurescent microscopy is used to diagnose:
a-Mycobacterium tubeculosis b-Staphylococcus
aureus
c-Streptococcus capsulatum d-Klebsilla aerogenes
Ans-A
15-Germ tube test is diagnosis for:
a-Candida albicans b-Cryptococcus neoformans
c-Histoplasma capsulatum d-Coccidiodomycosis
Ans-A
16-pH of sabourauds dextrose agar is adjusted to:
a-4-6 b-1-2
c-6-8 d-8-10
Ans-A
17-Painless hematuria is seen in:
a-Schistostoma hematobium b-Schistostoma
mansoni
c-Schistostoma japonicum d-Paragonium
westermani
Ans-A
18-Babesoisis is transmitted by:
a-Tick b-Mites
c-flea d-Mosquito
Ans-A
19-Dengue fever is transmitted by:
a-Tiger mosquito b-Jackal mosquito
c-Wolf mosquito d-Lion mosquito
Ans-A

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Ans-A
20-Complication in Malaria are commonly seen with:
a-Plasmodium ovale b-Plasmodium vivax
c-Plasmodium falciparum d-Plasmodium malariae
Ans-C
21-Type III category of basal FRACTURE of skull
are:
a-Those that run in the coronal plane from lateral end
of one petrous through sella turcica to lateralend of
contralateral petrous ridge
b-Run from side to side in the coronal plane but do
not pass through the sella turcica
c-Run from front to the contralateral back passing
through the sella turcica
d-Run from front to back involving all cranial fossae
& sella turcica .
Ans-B
22-The various component of a will to be valid are:
a-A knowledge of the property to be disposed of
b-A legatee can attest a will
c-Presence of delusion not affecting in any way the
disposal of the property or the person affected by the
will
d-It should be made during lucid interval
Ans-?
23-Reasons for marked variation in the shape of exit
wounds of rifled weapons:
a-Deformation of bullet during its passage through
body and thereby presenting an irregular wound
b-Absence of tumbling of the bullet in the body &
hence it may not be able to exit with nose end first
c-Intact bullet in the body after striking bone
d-At times , both entry and exit wounds are of the
same as in the assassination of kennedy , President
of USA
Ans-A
24-Dry Submarine in custodia torture injuries refer
to:
a-Falanga beating on soles of feet
b-Tying of a plastic bag ocer the ears
c-Immersing head in contaminated water
d-Suspending the accused by ankles
Ans-B
25-CAF coronary refer to death in intoxication
person during meals due to :
a-Suffocation b-Natural cardiac death
c-Choking d-Smothening
Ans-C
26-The single test that confirms the diagnosis of
autoimmune hemolytic anaemia is:
a-Coombs test b-Reticulocyte count
c-Peripheral smear d-Hemoglobin electrophoresis

27-The advantage of breast feeding to the mother

includes:
a-Decrease postpartum bleeding b-Prevention of
breast cancer
c-Spacing of pregnancies d-All of the above
Ans-D
28-All these condition can produce metabolic
acidosis except:
a-Diabetic ketoacidosis b-Salicylate poisoning
c-Gastroenteritis with dehydration d-Congenital
hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Ans-D
29-All these condition are autosomal dominant
disorders except:
a-Marfans syndrome b-Hunter syndrome
c-Osteogenesis imperfecta d-Achondroplasia
Ans-B
30-All these conditions can produce first day
jaundice in newborn except:
a-RH incompatibility b-TORCH infection
c-Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis d-G6PD
deficiency
Ans-C
31-Infantile hemiplegia can occur due to
cerebrovascular accidents resulting in:
a-Thrombosis b-Embolism
c-Staphylococci d-All of the above
Ans-D
32-Common cause for epiglottitis in children is due to
:
a-Hemiphilus influenza b-Pneumococci
c-Staphylococci d-Strepyococci
Ans-A
33-The cause for anoixic spells in children include all
except:
a-Tranposition of great vessels b-Tricuspid artresia
c-total anomalous muscular venous return dCoarctation of aorta
Ans-D
34-Gower sign is classical of one of the following
condition:
a-Congenital myopathy b-Werdnig-Hoffman disease
c-Duchenne muscular muscular dystrophy d-GuillainBarre syndrome
Ans-C

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35-All these condition are SEX chromosome disorder
except:
a-Turner syndrome b-Kline filter syndrome
c-Super female d-Downs syndrome
Ans-D

36-Thought disorder is seen in:

a-Obsessive compulsive disorder b-Anxiety neurosis
c-Schizophrenia d-Psychopathic personality
Ans-A,C

37-Repetative hand washing is symptom of;

a-Posy-traumatic stress disorder b-Depression
c-Anorexia nervosa d-Obsessive compulsive
disorder
Ans-D
38-Clozapine is a:
a-Atypical anti-psychotic drug b-Anti-anxiety drug
c-Used in dementia d-Also known as disulfiram
Ans-A
39-Flouxetine is a :
a-Anti- psychotic drug b-Used in opiate poisoning
c-Tricyclic antidepressant d-Selective sacrotin
reuptake inhibitor
Ans-D
40-Fluctuating level of consciousness is seen in:
a-Hysteria b-Delirium
c-Dementia d-Mania
Ans-B
41-After oral ingection of 8- methyoxypsoralen , how
long an interval should be allowed before UVA
radiation is given in PUVA treatment?
a-1 hr b-2 hr
c-3 hr d-4hr
Ans-B
42-Which positive test does not necessarily indicate
HIV infection in a newborn?
a-ELISA for HIV IgG antibody b-p24 antigen
c-Virus culture d-ELISA for HIV IgA antibody
Ans-A
43-Each of the following ia caused by a pathogen of
a Borrelia species , except:
a-Erythema chronicum migrans b-Acrodermatitis
chronica atrophicvans
c-Epidemic relapsing fever d-Rat bite fever
Ans-D

44-Which of the following may occur either as a

result of an elevated antrogen level or an
exaggerated clinical response of tissues to
androgen?
a-Acne b-Hirsutism
c-Alopecia d-All of these
Ans-D
45-Which of the following is found least frequently in
patients with TEN (Toxic Epidrmal Necrilysis)?
a-Anamia (erythrocytic) b-Lymphopenia
c-Neutropenia d-Eosinophilia
Ans-D

46-The target material used in X ray tube:

a-Tin b-Tungsten
c-Platinum d-Copper
Ans-B
47-The following are radiological features of sigmoid
vovulus except:
a-Inverted U shaped bowel loop b-liver overlap sign
c-Bird of prey sign d-Cupola sign
Ans-D
48-Medical sonography employs ultrasound
frequency between:
a-1-2 MHz b-Less than 1 MHz
c-100 Hz d-Greter than 100 MHz
Ans-A
49-Colour Doppler study can evaluate the follwing
except:
a-Direction of blood flow b-Velocity of blood flow
c-Impedence index d-Intravascular pressure
Ans-D
50-The Radionuclide used in assessing the renal
morphology:
a-Thallium-201 b-99mTc-DMSA
c-99mT-DTPA d-99mTc-MAG
Ans-B
51-In Ransons criteria to predict severity of acute
pancreatitis:
a-A serum amylase that is 4 times normal is
significant
b-Serum amylase level is not a a criteria
c-Rising serum amylase level are important
d-Serum amylase equals urine amylase
Ans-B
52-Non-propulsive peristalsis is feature of:
a-Paralytic ileus b-Impacted faeces
c-Mesenteric vascular occlusion d-Incarceration

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Ans-C
53-The operative wound after surgery for
gangrenous , perforated appendicitis is best
managed by:
a-Primary suture b-Delayed primary closure
c-Healing by secondry intention d-Antibiotic lavage
Ans-B

54-A thrombosed external haemorrhoid ( or perianal

haematoma ) is:
a-Painless, with gradual onset b-The 5 days ,
painful , self curing lesion
c-Part of internal haemorrhoids d-A sentinel pile
Ans-B

62-Osteosarcoma arises from:

a-Epiphysis b-Diaphysis
c-Metaphysis d-Bone marrow
Ans-C
63-Reversal of albumin-globulin ratio is seen in:
a-Osteochondroma b-Multiple myeloma
c-Osteoclastoma d-Osteoid osteoma
Ans-B
64-Treatment of bone cyct;
a-Amputation b-Bone grafting
c-Chemotheraphy d-Disarticulation
Ans-B

55-The ratio of males to female in the incidence of

strangulated inguinal hernia in infancy is :
a-5:1 b-1:2
c-2:1 d-1:5
Ans-D

65-Osteochondroma is also known :

a-Exostosis b-Gaint cell tumour
c-Ivary osteoma d-Osteoblastoma
Ans-A

56-Treatment of intracapsular FRACTURE in a man

aged 60 years:
a-Dynamic hip screw fixation b-Total hip replacement

66-Oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to

the right in the following condition:
a-Acidosis b-Increase 2-3 DPG level
c-Hyperthermia d-All the above
Ans-D

c-Hemiarthroplasty d-Austin Moore pinning

Ans-C
57-Barlows test is done to diagnose:
a-C.D.H. b-Cruciate ligament tear
c-Shoulder dislocation d-Ankle joint instability
Ans-A
58-Osteochondritis of lunate bone is known as:
a-Perthes disease b-Osgood schlatters disease
c-Kohlers disease d-Kienbocks disease
Ans-D
59-Spine ventosa is caused by:
a-Leprosy b-Defect in the spine
c-Tuberculosis d-Gout
Ans-C
60-Calcification of inter vertebral disc is a feature of:
a-Ankylosing spondilitis b-Hyper parathyroidis
c-Charcots disease d-Alkaptonuria
Ans-D
61-Tom Smiths arthritis of hip joint is due to:
a-C.D.H. b-Post polio
c-Pyogenic infection d-Cerebral palsy
Ans-C

67-Following are the effects of thiopentose sodium

anaethesis except:
a-Respiratory depression b-Reduced cardiac output
c-Good uterine relaxation d-Low intraocular tension
Ans-C

68-Contra indication for nasotracheal intubation:

a-Basal skull fractures b-Neonates
c-Difficult intubation d-Prolong intubation
Ans-A

69-Blood collected from acid citrate dextrose can be

stored for:
a-28 days b-21 days
c-14 days d-7 days
Ans-B
70-Advantages of regional analgesia blockade are all
these except:
a-A reduced need for opioids
b-Early resumption for normal activity and
ambulation
c-A quick awakening from general anaesthesis
d-Increase of the stress response
Ans-D

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71-Corneal manifestation of Wilsons disease is :

a-Fleischer Ring b-Arcus Juvenilis
c-Keyser Fleischer Ring d-Band Keratopathy
Ans-C

80-Early symptoms of carcinoma larynx:

a-Dysphagia b-Cough
c-Haemoptysis d-Hoarseness of voice
Ans-D

72-Diabetic retinopathy causes :

a-Traction Retinal Detachment b-Neovascular
glaucoma
c-Vitreos haemorrhage d-All of the above
Ans-D

81-Physiologically, oxytocin is characterized by all

except:
a-Circulates entirely in free forem
b-Plasma half life 5-7 minutes
c-Level increase during labor
d-Released in pulsatile fashion
Ans-C

73-Giant Papillary Conjunctivitis is caused by:

a-Contact Lens wear b-Ocular Prosthesis
c-Protruding corneal sutures d-All of the above
Ans-D

82-Studies have indicated the most important of the

components of the Bishop score to be that related to:

74-Ethambutol toxicity leads to :

a-Steven Johnson syndrome
b-Pupillary dilatation
c-Visual loss with colour vision defects
d-Bulls eye retinopathy
Ans-C
75- Field defect seen in papilledema
a-Seidels scotoma
b-Constriction of peripheral fields
c-Centro-caecal scotoma
d-None of the above.
Ans76- Dysphagia for fluids but not to solids is seen in :
a-Stricture
b-Achalasia
c-Carcinoma oesophagus
d-Reflux oesopagitis
Ans-B
77-Epistaxia in elderly person is common in:
a-Foreign body b-Allergic rhinitis
c-Hypertension d-Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Ans-C
78-Cerebello pontine angle tumour is most
commonly:
a-Acoustic neuroma b-Cholesteatoma
c-Meningioma d-All of the above
Ans-A
79-Gradenigos syndrome does not consist of:
a-Abduscent nerve palsy b-Palatal palsy
c-Aural discha d-Retro orbital pain
Ans-B

a-Dilatation b-Effacement
c-Station d-Consistency
Ans-A
Karnataka 2004 PREPG with answers
83-The factor that is likely to influence the rate of
relapce and prognosis in patients with ovarian cancer
is:
a-Tumor grade b-Tumor stage
c-Intraoperative Rupture of tumor d-Presence of
dence adhesion
Ans-C
84-Most common symptom associatd with uterine
myomas:
a-Menorrhagia b-Metrorrhagia
c-Pressure d-Urinary frequency
Ans-A
85-How much is the risk of ovarian cancer increased
above normal in a women with nonautosomal
dominant genotype with one first degree related with
ovarian cancer:
a-2-3 times b-5 times
c-10 times d-20 times
Ans-A

86-What is the most common method for detecting

early stage ovarian cancer?
a-Evaluaation of vague gastrointestinal symtomss
b-Palpation of an asymptomatic mass during routine
pelvic examination
c-Screening CA 125
d-Screening vaginal ultrasound
Ans-B
87-Which ultrasound finding with an adnexal mass is
most suspicious for malignancy?
a-8 cm in diameter b-Several internal excrescences
c-Cyctic with two thin septations d-Freee pelvic fluid
Ans-B

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88-The most common major complication with

Laparoscopic hysterectomy is:
a-Urinary tract injury b-Bowel injury
c-Uncontrolled bleeding d-Pulmonary embolus
Ans-A
89-The patient with pre-eclampsia diagnosed remote
from term, which of the following is NOT necessarily
an indication for expeditious delivery:
a-Blood Pressure 170/115 on medication
b-Proteinuria 5g per 24 hours
c-Platelet count 80,000/ul
d-Serum transaminase levels three times normal
Ans-B
90-Independent risk factors for pre-eclampsia include
all except:
a-hyper homocycteinemia b-Race
c-Number of partners d-Family history
Ans-B
91-Pregnancy- associated risk factor for preeclampsia include all except:
a-Rh Incompatibility b-Multiple pregnancy
c-Fetal structural abnormalities d-trisomy 13
Ans-A
92-The severity of pelvic pain in patients with
endometriosis correlated best with:
a-Number of implants b-Depth of invasion of lesions
c-Type of lesions d-stage of disease
Ans-B
93-accepted indication for Assisted Reproductive
Technologies (ART) in endometriosis patients include
all of the following except:
a-Advanced disease b-At least one year of infertility
c-Multifactorial infertility d-Advanced disease
Ans-B
94-The data are most convincing for which theory as
the pathogenesis of endometriosis in the peritoneal
cavity:
a-Coelomic metaplasia b-Induction
c-Embryonic rests d-Lymphatic & vascular
metastasis
Ans-C
95-Endometroisis has been found in all of the
following location except:
a-spleen b-Central Nervous system
b-Exatremities d-Pancreas
Ans-A

for infertility is most useful in which patient:

a-Women with premature ovarian failure
b-Women undergoing cancer therapy
c-Couples undergoing artificial insemination
Ans-C
97-The formation of primordial follicle in human fetus
is completed by:
a-4 weeks b-8 weeks
c-13 weeks d-18 weeks
Ans-D
98-During pregnancy there is an increased
respiratory sensitivity to Carbon dioxide due to higher
circulating level of:
a-Progesterone b-Estrogen
c-Estriol d-Prolactin
Ans-A
99-An effective and safe treatment for recurrent lag
cramps in the second half of pregnancy is:
a-Vitamin C b-Vitamin D
c-Acetaminophen d-Calcium 1 gm. Twice daily for 2
weeks
Ans-D
100-The Ureter:
a-Crosses superior to the uterine artery in the Broad
ligament
b-Derives its sympathetic nerve supply from the 2nd
and 3rd lumbar nerve roots
c-Is widest at the pelvic ureteric junction
d-Derives its blood supply entirely from the renal and
superior vesical arteries
Ans-B
101-Who said these words: To study phenomenon
of disease without books is to sail an uncharted sea,
while to study without patients is not to go to sea at
all
a-Hamilton Bailey b-Sir Robert Hutchison
c-Sir William Osler d-J.B.Murphy
Ans-C
102-T1 & T2 images are a feature of which
diagnostic test?
a-Ultrasound b-C. T. scan
c-Duplex scan d-MRI scan
Ans-d
103-Who said: SKIN is the best dressing?
a-Joseph Lister b-John Hunter
c-James Paget d-McNeill Love
Ans-A

96-controlled ovarian hyperstimulation as a treatment

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104-How do you get an ideal scar?
a-Achieve quite, secondry healing b-Ensure tight
closure of the SKIN
c-Give antibiotics d-Minimize tension
Ans-D
105-Hypokalemic alkalosis is commonly seen in
surgical wards in:
a-Excessive absorption of alkali b-Excessive
vomiting in pyloric stenosis
c-Eessive steroid use d-Diarrhoea with dehydration
Ans-B
106-5% dextrose in normal saline is :
a-Hypotonic b-Isotonic
c-Hypertonic d-A blood substitute
Ans-B
107-Infection with Hepatitis B virus is associated with
the appearance in the blood of all of the following
except:
a-Hepatitis B antibody b-Hepatitis B surface antigen
c-The Dane particle d-DNA polymerase activity
Ans-A
108-Earliest changes of neoplastic transformation as
seen at a microscopic level is called:
a-Hyperplasia b-Metaplaisa
c-Dyplasia d-Carcinoma in sutu
Ans-C
109-The best guide to adequate tissue perfusion in
the fluid management of a patient with burns, is to
ensure a minimum hourly urine output of:
a-10-30 ml b-30-50 ml
c-50-70 ml d-70-100 ml
Ans-B
110-Example of indirect traumatic gangrene are all
except:
a-Use of local anaesthetic with adrenaline and
tourniquet for digits
b-Pressure of fractured bone on main artery to a limb
c-Thrombosis of large artery following injury
d-That resulting from crush or pressure injury
Ans-A
111-Axillary vein thrombosis is NOT a complication of
:
a-Throracic outlet syndrome b-Simple mastectomy
c-Excessive upper limb exercise d-Strap-hangers
Ans-B
112-The four points of probe placement in Focuced
Abdominal Sonogram for Trauma (FAST) in blunt

thoraco-abdominal trauma are:

a-Epigastrium , R hypochondrium , (L) Lower chest,
hypogastrium
b-Epigastrium, R & (L) Hypochondria R Iiiac fossa
c-Epigastrium, r 7 (L) Lumbar regions, hypogastrium
d-Hypogastrium, r& (L) Lumbar region,R lower chest
Ans-A
113-In the acronym SWELLING used for the history
and examination of a lumb or swelling , the letter N
stands for:
a-Nodes b-Noise (Thrill/bruit)
c-Numbness d-Neurological effects
Ans-B
114-A position Froments sign is associated with
palsy of which nerve?
a-Median b-Axillary
c-Radial d-Ulnar
Ans-D
115-Acute bactorial sailadenitis is managed by:
a-Immediate sialography
b-Fluid intake restriction
c-Cuture of the FNAC from the involved gland
d-Use of broad spectrum antibiotics
Ans-D
116-A branchial cyst develops from the vestigial
remnants of the :
a-2nd branchial cleft b-3rd branchial cleft
c-1st branchial cleft d-4th branchial cleft
Ans-A
117-About follicular carcinoma of the thyroid gland:
a-FNAC is diagnostic
b-Lymph node metasteses are common
c-Distant metastases are more common
d-Local recurrence rates are low
Ans-C
118-Polands syndrome of the congenital absence of
the sternal head of the pestoralis major muscle is
associated with:
a-Mastalgia b-Amazia
c-Polymazia d-Gynecomazia
Ans-B
119-Chest drain insretion is safest when perfomed:
a-In the apex of the chest for pneumothorax
b-In the base of the chest for haemothorax
c-In the triangle of safety on the antero-lateral chest
wall
d-With the smallest bore chest tube available
Ans-C
120-Disparity of the bowel ends during end to end

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anastamosis is corrected by:
a-Cheatles manoeuvre b-Connell suture
c-Lembert suture d-Czerny technique
Ans-A
121-Odynophagia is :
a-Throat pain b-Pain on swallowing
c-Heartburn d-Painless dysphagia
ans-B
122-For inoperable gastric neoplasms involving the
cardia, the best palliation is by:
a-Intubation b-Exclusion
c-Pre-sternal bypass d-Gastroenterostomy
Ans-A
123-Vascular inflow occlusion of the liver is by:
a-Clambing the hepatic artery b-Occluding the portal
vein
c-Clambing the hepatic veins d-The pringle
manoeuvre
Ans-D
124-Splenic abscess is best treated by:
a-Open splenectomy
b-Laparoscopic splectomy
c-Percutaneous drainage under image guidance
d-Antibiotic only
Ans-C

129-The following are the branches of the internal

iliac artery except:
a-Ovarian artery b-Uterine artery
c-Superior vesical artery d-Obturator artery
Ans-A
130-Which one of the followinf is attached to the
lingual of the mandible?
a-Stylomandiblar ligament
b-Sphenomandibular ligament
c-Pterygomandibular raphe
d-Middle constrictor of pharynx
Ans-B
131-The distance by which two touch stimuli must be
separated to be perceived as two separate stimuli is
greatest on:
a-The lips b-The palm of the hand
c-The back of scapula d-The dorsum of the hand
Ans-C
132-The visceral pain:
a-Shows relatively rapid adaption
b-Mediated by B fibre in the dorsal root of spinal
nerve
c-Can sometimes be relieved by applying an irritant
to the SKIN
d-Most closely resemble fast pain produced by
naxious stimulation of the SKIN
Ans-C

125-Limey bile is :
a-Present in the CBD
b-Thin and clear
c-Like toothpaste emulsion in the gall bladder
d-Bacterial rich
Ans-C

133-The fourth heart sound is caused by:

a-Closure of aortic and pulmonary orifices
b-Vibration of the ventricular wall during systole
c-Ventricualr filling
d-Closure of mitral and tricuspid orifices
Ans-C

126-Myelin around central nervous axons is laid

down by:
a-Microglia b-Schwann cells
c-Oligodendrocytes d-Protoplasmic astrocytes
Ans-C

Karnataka 2004 PG paper

134-Lymphocytes:
a-All originate from bone marrow after birth
b-Are unaffected by harmone
c-Converted to monocytes in response to antigens
d-Are part of bodys defence against cancer
Ans-D

127-Posterior belly of digastric is supplied by:

a-Facial nerve b-Mandibular nerve
c-Spinal accessory nerve d-Ansa cervicalis
Ans-A

135-Which of the follwing has the highest pH?

a-Gastric juice b-Bile in the gallbladder
c-Pancreatic juice d-Saliva
Ans-C

128-The paranasal air sinuses opening into the

middle meatus include all except:
a-Frontal sinus b-Maxillary sinus
c-Posterior ethmoidal sinus d-Anterior ethmoidal
sinus
Ans-C

136-The concentration of sphingomyelins are

increased in:
a-Gauches disease b-Fabrys disease
c-Febrile disease d-Niemann-Pck disease
Ans-D
137-Salivary amylase is activated by:

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a-Na+ b-K+
c-HCO3- d-ClAns-D

syndrome is:
a-clindamycin b-Cefadroxil
c-Vancomycin d-Azithromycin
Ans-C

138-Glucose increase plasma insuline by a process

that invoves:
a-GLVT1 b-GLVT2
c-GLVT3 d-SGLT1
Ans-B
139-In the body, metabolism of 10 gms. of protein
would produce approximately:
a-1 K calorie b-41 K calories
c-410 K calories d-41 calories
Ans-B
140-Refsums disease is a rere neurological disorser
caused by:
a-Accumulation of glutamic acid
b-Accumulation of glycine
c-Accumulation of phytanic acid
d-Accumulation of phnylalanine
And-C
141-The term physical half life is applicable to:
a-Repository preparations b-Prodrugs
c-Radioactive isotopes d-Alkylating agents
Ans-C
142-The antiretroviral drug which is also effective in
chronic active hepatitia-B infection is:
a-Zidovudine b-Nelfinavir
c-Efavirenz d-Procarbazine
Ans-D
143-The drug of choice ofr chronic myeloid
leukaemia is:
a-Chlorambucil b-Busulfan
c-Vincristine d-Procarbazine
Ans-B
144-Which of the follwing antipileptic drug does not
produce Hepatic Micromosomal enzyme induction?
a-Phenobarbitone b-Carbamazepine
c-phenytoin d-Sodium valproate
Ans-D

145-The antithyroid drug preferred for use during

pregnancy and lactation is:
a-Propylthiouracil b-Methimazole
c-Carbimazole d-Radioactive iodine
Ans-A

147-The local anaethetic known to cause

Methaemoglobinaemia as adverse effect is :
a-Lidocaine b-Bupivacaine
c-Tetracaine d-Prilocaine
Ans-D
148-Which of the following skeletal muscle relaxants
undergoes Hoffmann elimination?
a-Pancuronium b-Rocuronium
c-Atracurium d-Succinyl choline
Ans-C
149-Which of the follwing antitubercular drugs does
not cause hepatotoxicity?
a-Isoniazid b-Ethambutol
c-Pyrazinamide d-rifampicin
Ans-B

150-The betablocker having intrinsic

sympathomimetic activity is:
a-Propronolol b-Atenolol
c-Sotalol d-Pindolol
Ans-D

151-Myasthenia gravis may be associated with

a-Thymoma b- Systematic LUPUS erythematosus
c-Hyperthyroidism d-All of the above
Ans-D

152-Example of PRION disease include:

a-Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease b-Subacute sclerosing
panencephalitis
c-Alzheimers disease d-None of the above
Ans-A
153-The treatment of Herpes simplex viral
encephalitis should include:
a-Zidovudine b-Acyclovir
c-Didanosine d-Symptomatic treatment only
Ans-B
154-The drug found to be beneficial in amytrophic
lateral sclerosis is:
a-Riluzole b-Methylprednisolone
c-Hydroxyurea d-None of the above
Ans-A

146-The antibiotic known to cause Red Mans

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155-The drug of choice for a patient with a
combination of primary generalized tonic-clonic
seizures and absence seizures is:
a-Ethosuximide b-Carbamazepine
c-Valproic acid d-Phenytoin sodium
Ans-C
156-Complication of Pagets disease include:
a-High output cardiac failure b-Osteogenic sarcoma
c-Pathologic fractures d-All of the above
Ans-D
157-Causes of Rickets include:
a-Dietary phosphate deficiency
b-Distal renal tubular acidosis
c-Small intestinal disease with malabsoption
d-All of the above
Ans-D
158-Causes of hypercalcemia include:
a-Hyperthyroidism b-Hypothyroidism
c-Hypoparathyroidism d-None of the above
Ans-A
159-Drugs useful in the treatment of acute gouty
arthritis include:
a-Allopurinol b-Colchicine
c-Probenicid d-Sulfinpyrazone
Ans-B
160-Drugs considered safe in patients with acute
intermittent porphyria include:
a-Phenobarbitone b-Valproic acid
c-Carbamazepine d-Narcotic analgesics
Ans-D
161-The level of LDL cholestrol at which therapy
should be intiated in a aotient without coronary artery
disease and no risk factor is:
a-100 mg/ dL b-130 mg/ dL
c-160 mg/ dL d-190 mg / dL
Ans-C, D
162-The most common karyotypic abnormality
associated with Turner syndrome is :
a-45, X b-46, XY
c-47, XXY d-45, Y
Ans-A
163-Insulin resistance is defined as a daily
requirement of insulin greater than:
a-100 units b-150 units
c-200 units d-250 units
Ans-C

164-The treatment of choice for hypertension in a

patient with phaeochromocytoma:
a-Alpha adrenergic blocking agents
b-Beta adrenergic blocking agents
c-Calcium channel blockers
d-Angiotensin receptor blockers
Ans-A
165-Nelsons syndrome is a complication of:
a-Unilateral adrenalectomy for Cushings syndrome
b-Bilateral adrenalectomy for bilateral adrenal
hyperplasia
c-Excision of a pituitary tumor for bilateral adrenal
hyperlasia
d-Excision of a hypothalamic tumor for bilateral
adrenal hyperplasia
Ans-B
166-The electrolyte abnormality typical seen in
primary aldosteronism is:
a-Hypokalemia b-Hyperkalemia
c-Hyponatremia d-Hypernatremia
Ans-A
167-The feature of subacute thyroiditis include:
a-Elevated T3 & T4 levels b-Depressed TSH levels
c-Depressed RAIU d-All of the above
Ans-D
168-SIADH typical causes:
a-Hypernatremia and a urinary osmolality300
mmol/Kg
c-Hyponatremia & a urinary osmollity300 mmol/Kg
Ans-D
169- The most common manifestations in Takayasus
arteritis are related to
occlusion of:
a-Abdominal aorta b-Renal arteries
c-Subclavian arteries d-Pulmonary arteries
Ans-C
170-Nucleoside analogues used in the treatment of
HIV infection include:
a-Indinavir b-Nevirapine
c-Didanosine d-Efavirenz
Ans-C
171-Drugs used in the treatment of pneumocystis
carinii pneumonia include:
a-Trimethoprin-sulfamethoxazole b-Dapsone
c-Clindamycin d-All of the above
Ans-D
172-Drugs useful in the treatment of chronic hepatitis
C include:

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a-Glucocorticoids b-Interferon alpha
c-hydroxyurea d-None of the above
Ans-B
173-Finding suggestive of an obstructive jaundice on
a liver function test is a marked elevation of:
a-Unconjugated bilirubin b-Conjugated bilirubin
c-Alkaline phosphatase d-AST and ALT
Ans-C
174-An abnormal D-xylase test is suggestive of:
a-Pancreatic insufficiency
b-Hepatic insufficiency
c-A mucosal abnormality of proximal small intestine
d-Colonic disease
Ans-C
175-In a patient with hypoxemia the finding
suggestive of hypoventilation on an arterial blood gas
analysis is:
a-Elevated PaCO2 b-Decreased PaCO2
c-Elavated pH d-None of t he above
Ans-A
176-PQLI stands for:
a-Physical quality of life index
b-Physical quantity of life index
c-Physiological quality of life index
d-Psychological quality of life index
Ans-A

180-In the demographic cycle, India is in the :

a-High stationary stage b-Early expanding stage
c-Late expanding stage d-Low stationary stage
Ans-C

181-The overall prevalence of tuberculosis infection

in India as per 4th round of longitudinal survey was:
a-20% b-30%
c-40% d-50%
Ans-B
182-Pulse polio immunization is administration of
OPV to:
a-All children between 0-5 years of age on a single
day, irrespective of their previous immunization
status
b-Children in the age group of 0-1 year only who
have not been immunized earlier
c-Children in the age group of 12-24 months only,as
the booster dose
d-All children between 0-5 years of sge, whenever
there is an outbreak of poliomyelitis
Ans-A
183-In high risk areas the radial treatment for
plasmodium vivax infection sfter microscopic
confermation is administration of tablets primaquine
in the daily dosage of:
a-0.25 mg/Kg body weight b-0.50 mg/Kg body weight
c-0.75 mg/Kg body weight c-1.00 mg/Kg body weight

177-Mean, Medium and Mode are:

a-Measure of dispersion
b-Measure association between two variables
c-Test of significance
d-Measure of central tendency
Ans-D
178-Incidence rate refers to:
a-Only old cases b-Both old and new cases
c-Only new cases d-None of the above
Ans-C
179-Generation time in epidemiology id defined as:
a-The interval between marriage and the birth of first
child
b-The interval of time between the receipt of infection
by host and maximal infectivity of the host
c-The interval of time between primary case and
secondry cases
d-Interval of time between invasion by infection agent
and appearance of first sign or symprom of the
disease/ in question
Ans-B

Ans-A
184-Couple protection rate in India is:
a-30.8 % b-46.2%
b-62.4% d-85.7%
Ans-B
185-By international agreement , low birth weight has
been defined as a birth weight when measured within
the first hour of life is:
a-Less than 2000 grams b-Less than 2500 grams
c-Less than 2800 grams d-Less than 3000 grams
Ans-B
186-For an adult Indian male the daily requirement of
protein is expressed as:
a-0.5 gms/ Kg body weight b-0.75 gms/Kg body
weight
c-1.0 gms/ Kg body weight d-1.50 gms/Kg body
weight
Ans-C
187-Lathyrism is due to consumption of :
a-Red gram dhal b-Contaminated ground nuts

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c-Bengal gram dhal d-Khesari dhal
Ans-D
188-Temporary hardness of water is due to presence
of :
a-Bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium
b-Chlorides of calcium and magnesium
c-Nitrates of calcium and magnesium
d-Oxides of calcium and magnesium
Ans-A
189-Kata thermometer measures:
a-Air temperature only
b-Air temperature and humidity
c-Air temperature humidity & air movement
d-None of the above
Ans-C

190-The optimum floor space recommended per

adult person in a dwelling place is:
a-50-100 sq. ft. b-101-150 sq.ft.
c-151-200 sq.ft. d-201-250 sq. ft.
Ans-A

191-An upper limit of noise which people can tolerate

without sub damage to their hearing is:
a-45 db b-65 db
c- 85 db d- 105 db
Ans-C

196-The following drugs cause methemoglobinemia:

a-Aniline b-Dapsone
c-Nitrates d-All of the above
Ans-D
197-The following drugs are useful in the treatment
of isonized poisoning:
a-Pyridoxine b-Diazepam
c-Bicarbonate d-All of the above
Ans-D
198-Gastric lavage is contraindicated in the following
:
a-Barbiturate poisoning b-Kerosene poisoning
c-Paracetamol poisoning d-None of the above
Ans-B
199-The following is not a feature of Wernickes
encephalopathy:
a-Lateral rectus palsy b-Paralysis of conjugate
dominant
c-Pupilary dilation d-Nystagmus
Ans-C

200-The inheritance in Dechenne muscular

dystrophy is:
a-X- linked recessive b-Autosomal dominant
c-Autosomal recessive d-Polygenic
Ans-A"
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192-The permissible dose of amn made radiation

should not exceed:
a-3 rads per year b-5 rads per year
c-8 rads per year d-10 rads per year
Ans-B
193-The mean radient temperature is measured by:
a-Dry bulb thermometer
b-Wet bulb thermometer
c-sixs maximum and minimum thermometer
Ans-D
194-Following latrines are suitable for camps and
temporary use except:
a-Shollow trench latrine b- Pit latrine
c-Borehole latrine d-Septic tank
Ans-D
195-Sand fly transmit the following disease except:
a-Relapsing fever b-Kala azar
c-Sand- fly fever d-Oraya fever
Ans-A

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