AH 8112 () _ Reva ats gftror ats 2013 (1) fart omer feet aot rear ar B 1 ger Teer gfeeraor yas et ech (20 arr ‘AY + 50 omr'B! +75 arn'C! #) ager fewer wer (MCQ)Ry me & 1 areeh arr A! Ht after 1S atte arr 'B! 35 gee rem arr ‘Cl a 2S went BH oeae ate) wee Prater & enfras reat sere fae are ara arey ech rT ‘A! 15,97 'B' 235 Te ae 'C! PDS weet a arta TEA | 2, ere Ua rere Pa mar Bf ore hes aa athe ie ar a Meret TEC Te TA shore A> gfe ges ake wh & cer we wee ET | ate Ger Bah aT gPrraftcter a gfternr Aer? oT Pber we want By gf ee a sere oH wT A OTT 3 1 ger gfterar Fos arr we & fe aifaReaer TF ore E 1 3. gee wa @ ye 1 Pay my eure we ame eed AR, AM SIT eT eT Be TET grr esr artes ag aah were ore #1 were fear rece ft err, Bh erarth & 1 5. or’ AY eer ar "BY Hacer Get wD en'C A her eT tar ar | Meer Te BRE Hr HEMET eT 25 % A ae fFaT TTT | 6. eter wer Bard are Rowen fy BI ea a Baer ca Res a “aE arr sera a | men) Heber re or HED eT TART Be TE | 7, wewer weet ay ar arg aT aor arr awed ay oT ar arch spam wr ge sie eae est fre rae] TERT ST TEA BY 8. anarelh wh are ar ww Ga fatter wa ate BU aM El KRrern ey | 9. hr araver eb mr Te ae eT ae Gee WF wt Prather wh arreE ee =AfEre 10, derqplee wr aaah aed ah arpatt wee | 1. rei seer fet a rch alah) etereer wet PIT WO TIE eee ee cetera areal rer Gh maf eT wat eA ara & 1 8/46 BI3-3AH—1A,S46 BJA3-3AH—1Bsas / PART ‘A’ 4 ew 16.2 At aa wes H FE aT 2 A TT zara Bi ew gas, Famer ser 22 aa A & a oa & fe ge Ft Rae Sat HAT mae? 1. 35a. 2. 7.0m. 3. 14.0. 4, 22.04. 1. A 16.2 mlong wooden log has a uniform diameter of 2 m. To what length the log should be cut to obtain a piece of 22 m? volume? 1. 3.5m 2. 7.0m 3. 140m 4. 22.0m 2. Tam 3ifear si Far 8? 17 2.9 3.3 41 2. Whatis the last digit of 7°? 1.7 2.9 3.3 at 3. ow amar ae at eat Apait & ah 6 airsat Brack €1 ged ae A eent ARTS AT wart wr: 60, 30, 20 er 15 Bi aie em fautita wa 8, ot aratt at efesat A eaok-agrat ft ateard war et aah 8 2492 4.124 10 1 1045 3. 15415 3. A lucky man finds 6 pots of gold coins. He counts the coins in the first four pots to be 60, 30, 20 and 15, respectively. If there is a definite progression, what would be the numbers of coins in the next two pots? 1. WandS . 2. 4and2 3. ISand15 4, 12nd 10 vow mgsea amet Aer ay Bae ots 8, we 30 fare after A ATT SeeT TF sears H wguet ie ac & fae Ay wat ae B1 aeueme ag oft A Aue 40 Pine Seat UH GAT seme H 10 Brae & fae ay wafks at HL PRE ae Hay faacaA TRY Taree Meat oe ATT art Bae amd Ae Ayre RT af & sect 8, ag aoe After & eet mara & far a er 4. 85 fae 2, 155 ae 3, 135 ae 4.1 ae a aT A bee leaves its hive in the morning and afier flying for 30 minutes due south reaches a garden and spends 5 minutes collecting honey. Then it flies for 40 minutes due west and collects honey in another garden for 10 minutes. Then it returns to the hive taking the shortest route. How long was the bee away from its hive? (Assume that the bee flies at constant speed) 1. 85min = 2, 155 min 3. 135min 4. _Less than | hour 12 mh Sug Fw oy HoH aah, 8s & Sag 3 get ah wa os a& & ate cad ww eae at dart th eft eg at garg war he ba oe Set Bi ae dat A afta were & at as & ae Pro ah ae era ehh THRT STAT? 1.16 a. 2 9a 3.12 af, 4, 14 a5. 6. A bird perched at the top of a 12 m high ‘tree sees a centipede moving towards the base of the tree from a distance equal to twice the height of the tree. The bird flies along a stralght line to catch the centipede. f both move at the same speed, at what distance from the base of the tree will the Centipede be picked up by the bird? 1.16m 3. 12m 2.9m 4.4m we tie faa av & aft aw fh tarait oe adh BE wt at a ar at TRY aE 1M wet & ater a gar cee & a B 1. 2 24 35 46 An ant goes from A to C in the figure ‘crawling only on the lines and taking the least length of path. The number of ways in which it can do so is A B > Jc 1.2 2 4 3.5 4.6 4 7. ae ait me aera aime A wa Rig 2 anftow e7 a ph act t ge Rig & qreeis OAB a geet ef snftrenaT war 8? (set ZA0B = x Bae 8) » | x gx atte A point is chosen at random from a circular disc shown below. What is the probability that the point lies in the sector OAB? (where ZAOB = x radians) Blea |e get le Roar RF skier ator & at ae URrafeler war sere PEROT, anufser Fao ‘aria ferwerar & (fea at aay aT sae faror a sifear quae Por & dtr A qernen & LR 3. 2K 2. RVZ 4, RVEA ray of light, after getting reflected twice from a hemispherical mirror of radius R (see the above figure), emerges parallel to the incident ray. The separation of the original incident ray and the final reflected ray is 1 Rk 2. RV2 3. 2R 4. RNB UH Tat 8 Ran, wa ae 2 Rear. ait aS we rafter fate zat # rat dat Bh gar & go ater quar sit sae We aot # aidt Meret 10 Pardo oe Pate aren sifeiAia gar a Pe ore & sae BA a aidl BT HAT: 1/2087 1/10aT ant aot wed El oe & aiee Parte ar waar 9.25 Pram. se wean BA a Pat fam, att & att Fr? 1. 05 kg. 2. 1 ke. 3 2 kg. 4 3k ‘A king ordered that a golden crown be made for him from 8 kg of gold and 2 ke of silver. The goldsmith took away some amount of gold and replaced it by an equal amount of silver and the crown when made, weighed 10 kg. Archimedes knew that under water gold lost 1/20" of its weight, while silver lost 1/10" . When the crown was weighed under water, it was 9.25 kg. How much gold was stolen by the goldsmith? 1. 05 kg. 2. 1 ke 3. 2 kg 4. 3kg 10, wm eg A Brae ae der yet & dar aT ‘wT, 7:35 Ft FAT FP 10 2.175 3. 19.5" 4, 20 10. What is the angle between the minute and hour hands of a clock at 7:35? 1 0 2. 175° 3. 195° 4. 20° ai. diftat ar ww war, fig A a 8 fig aH aah &, vor sdf wet @ fig A oe ae arch &1 waht Aifeat wom afer & mach & arn feat aff Pig ox oft Aas at diet we fer A on ete Gi ow eid et AaB am ort at we fae ater Bo Peet tet AB am A arn & cha ae Pract are net @& aifeat A Paras? 1. 120 2. 60 3. 240 4. 180 11.A stream of ants go from point A to point B and retum to A along the same path. Al the ants move at a constant speed and from any given point 2 ants pass per second one way. It takes 1 minute for an ant to go from A to B. How many returning ants will an ant meet in its journey from A to B? 1. 120 2. 60 3, 240 4. 18012, 12. 13, 13, vy VY Su aaa gar eigeareme acter ar avatar V 1 ae aioe Seng a and ae oe Yaar aan) acter Foret ar area Ee 1 2. 4, ‘The capacity of the conical vessel shown above is V. It is filled with water upto half its height. The volume of water in the vessel is sis Is ets 3. 1. 2. Sats [sats 3. 4, ett get at ee ag ag) Et at oR fer ae Ga owt AS ane ot at aera art Rear sret, tifa eat a are oT 10% & ata oft we ome? 1 oF 2 a 3. ait 4. aR A large tank filled with water is to be emptied by removing half of the water Present in it everyday. . After how many days will there be closest to 10% water left inthe tank? 1. One 3. Three 2. Two 4. Four 6 14, nwa opie tear t1 aie n° Pawar ¢, ar fara AB ear wet 8? (A) n far (8) n° fava & (C) n' ware 1. Bara 2, dar 3. Fare 4. deer A war B 14. isa natural number. If n* is odd, which of the following Is true? (A) nis odd (B) 1? Is odd {C)n‘iseven 1. Aonly 2. B only 3. Conly 4, AandB only 18, aut FF arene (x, + ys) (a+ yao + Ya ar ane faeqe wee Bl Peet RY oe ht Fordt dharer was x cre ah Bey BH? La 2.5 3. 10 4. 20 15. Suppose you expand the product (x: + ys) (x2 + Y2)++-(X20 + Yao). How many terms will have only one xand rest y's? La 205 3. 10 4. 20 16, fravet fara a React Sterat A at reir eet orige 1. 12q720 2. 13.820 3. 13eT21 4. 1011 6. In the figure below the numbers of circles in the blank rows must bewo 2. 32 4.3 49. um afaara afar xo + axtb=0 #1 Fa 1. iand 20, 2. 13and20 acd Ge Ow Pace & ot aa AIT THT 3, 13.and21 4. 1O0and 11 aie 6 air 2 a) sah gat Rez § ab 17, af ga Uw Rafer A Reet aed Far wr eet AT AT FART 6 TAT 1 TAR a eT (w) aerate (t) a sift HEA, aT b& wet ry, were: a BP zeifay art are derfaat A ata at watt ore 1, Tami2 2 sad 3. Tae 12 4. 8 aT 12 19. In solving a quadratic equation of the form x2 + axtb=0 , one student took the wrong value of a and got the roots as 6 and 2; while another student took the wrong value of b and got the roots as 6 and 1. What are the correct values of a and b, respectively? If we plot the weight (w) versus age () 4, 7and12—«2. Banda of a child in a graph, the one that will 3 -7andi12— 4, Band12 never be obtained from amongst the four graphs given below is 20. & dag & dtr ft aft 6 RH A.B 1:50000 aT 1:5000 area arrett Hyd ara ot aftai are: we eH? 1. 12a, aar1.2 Ba. 2 2 aah, aeri2 Bat. 3. 120838. er 12 tah 4. 12e.a. a 120. A. 20, The distance between two oil rigs is 6km. What will be the distance between these rigs in maps of 1:50000 and 1:5000 scales, respectively? 1. 12emand1.2cm 2. 2 emand 12cm 3. 120m and 12cm 4, 12emand 120em 18. Find the missing number:a. 2, 2, SeT_"@" PART 'B' at deettat amy A ste Ba fat A 8 wt weeatore-Reet siealrafire® gary aera ah a oe want afar ide giett B7 1a ait 8 wang aaa & ate restora weet Y urag & 1 2.a att Boye ae ameter BaF ate wraor ag fal a uray e 3.4 site B arotefter vat & ate war eget wt fanfic aed € 1 4.0 site 8 arate ee & ate war at at areata axa € 1 Which one of the following non-covalent interactions between two - non-bonded atoms A and B is most sensitive to the distance between then? 1, A and B are permanent dipoles and are involved in hydrogen bonding, 2..A and B ate fully ionized and are involved in salt bridge formation. 3. A and B are uncharged and repel each other, 4. A and B are uncharged and attract each other. Sheet A sreftett aaygt a pKa At wafer career ferrar HA atau wert Bar 8? 1. odie aE BT pKa c-aTafait we ¥ pKa @ sea ears 2. asta UAE BT pKa caniat wR ® pkad fava erat 8 1 Sasa GAG BT pKa cai TAR & pKa & aarner gare 22, 23, 4. c30iet way wT pKa anftetar Ar vanes med sfwa4r & pKa Y ser Bar F 1 Which statement best describes the pKa of amino groups in proteins? 1. pKa of a-amino group is higher than the pKa of e-amino group. pKa of a-amino group is lower than the pKa of c-amino group. . pKa of a-amino group is same as the pKa of e-amino group. pKa of a-amino group is higher than the PKaof guanidine side chain of arginine. agcatiegn WX 2, asrgahitelar ar war vara eter & 7 ag ster fara ar arr ae ar solegrt Rage ar tigre fe ATP wear at sree aT Sat 2u¢ side adaiieg mar & SIN-UR ATP-ADP ar Faferrr daft geegiet oRage sie are weasor at ‘afta aren & 1 3a set 1 uate un oe gAagia oRagat sit wel dar at afta ara & 1 4. ATP. eto & and aaa fear arar 8 ste geht aha at defeat | What is the effect of 2, 4-dinitrophenol on mitochondria? . Blocks ATP synthesis without electron transport by —dissi proton gradient, Blocks electron transport and ATP synthesis by inhibiting ATP-ADP exchange across the inner mitochondrial membrane, R =24, 24, 25, 25, 3. Blocks electron transport and proton pumping at complexes I, Il and III. 4. Interacts directly with ATP synthase and inhibits its activity, fret sitet A 30% wenfeter faewaret F afe wat tenia at vergfeat cant eae a fear are at 1, defer area ag are | 2. pax HT ay STAT | 3. dear A ag aRacter at eta | 4, Conference ster, rar siteter a gear A aa aefaa ett | A protein has 30% alanine. If all the alanines are replaced by glycines, 1, helical content will increase. 2. B-sheet content will increase. 3. there will be no change in conformation. 4, the alanine-substituted protein will be less structured than the parent protein. wfemierst at aa faeeeit iapror ATGA(Tm) FAT sR ero oR fea aa G1 se oR 1. aah ofemfeftet ar Tm TRA er 2. DPPC T Tm fart 3X DOPC FT seaaa er 3. Pope Ud DOPC #T Tm VaR eT fet Omec Hear DPcc B ferret er 4. D0PC I Tm yw Ze OPCC *T Tm SeaeH eT | ‘The gel to liquid crystalline transition temperature (Tm) of phospholipids is dependent on the fatty acid composition ‘Considering this, Tm of 1, all the phospholipids will be identical. 2. DPPC will be lowest and DOPC will be highest. 26. 26. 2. 3. POPC and DOPC will be identical and lower than DMPC or DPPC. 4, DOPC will be lowest and DPPC will be highest. SIT op Hi & ara Yar Heras Fae Prat & sit lac sitatex & fear feretror & feta daseewor & torgat at aia axet &1 Sita Afar fer ft A @ staat oRftafadt a sa fade 4, ot weit sinter dafaa sitet ect erat @, fret Rds Fr afteatet ein 1am aa oa date sit rae clei & squitua eet G1 2mm da we dale ste saate ate @ sofeea aa & 1 3.am aa oa aaete at arqufeet act atk vaste safeea eet & | 4am aa oa dacle at suites ect & ae vate sraqaieee ect F 1 You have created a fusion between the ip ‘operon, which encodes the enzymes for tryptophan biosynthesis, under the regulatory control of the Jac operator. Under which of the following conditions will tryptophan synthase be induced in the strain that carries the chimeric operator fused operons? 1. Only when both lactose and glucose are absent. 2. Only when both lactose and glucose are present. 3. Only when lactose is absent and glucose is present. 4, Only when lactose is present and glucose is absent. fart Aa stra soatfa wet Qrat ar pH HR faqya-HTa Heo CHAT am21, 28, 28, 1. argeleifer wet oirgaelat | 2, engekater ud angetaiger er slater fereurer | 3. engeeiter wa deter | 4, Higereiigers anertr ud sterner feereerer | Which of the following pairs of subcellular compartments is likely to have same pH and clectrolyte composition? 1, Cytosol and lysosomes. 2. Cytosol and mitochondrial membrane space, 3. Cytosol and endosome. 4, Mitochondrial matrix and inter membrane space, inter wifter fasnont & wer wear alk Raeageaaer & eigat # fast a ate-ar See Bae So ha 1. aqet aaron aH, wa ae fatter eer & smile, argectae qesrafaard, carer RT ok gf faageritger ekt a 2. aqeh wareaor a, war aw feist ght & oxnia, agaclea yenafserd, carer Rat ae a agorhrpet ete F1 3. wigan Ferra Tease Ta at area Ret at agape stat g TERE saat Pager war gt ‘reat Bt 4. Sigel Peres sy OTSA FRR oe aia gem aH at ager a & ook aera | saaT faagerhraror gat 81 Regarding microtubule assembly and disassembly during cell division, which will be the most appropriate answer? 10 29. 29, 30. 30, 1. Once formed, kinetochore microtubules depolymerize at the plus ends throughout mitosis. 2. Once formed, kinetochore microtubules polymerize at the plus ends throughout mitosis, 3. Kinetochore microtubules polymerize at their plus ends up to anaphase, at which point they begin to depolymerize! 4. Kinetochore microtubules polymerize at their minus ends up to cytokinesis, at which point they depolymerize, saferphay a sears at ree: Pee eh & 1. GC ager sat | 2. ait AT vd GC ager sap | 3, ataqnat aor aig fase fart atét 1 4. AT ART He | Origin of replication usually contains 1, GC rich sequences, 2. both AT and GC rich sequences, 3. no particular stretch of sequences, 4. AT rich sequences, & along He Wat U ite FT saa A saptor ont aft ata & attr dita a nee ahd fae rar & 2. as Vonge, athena wid deer at aét agra & 3.ms tanga a cade sf wt wa order agt areT & 4m GIge 8 sedeae ar arte ff Rca YAR at weet & o- o-subunit of E. coli RNA polymerase DOES NOT 1. tiate transcription and fall off during elongation, 2, increase affinity of the core enzyme to the promoter.31. 31. 32. 3. binds to DNA, independent of the core enzyme. 4, ensures specificity of transcri interacting with the core enzyme. ion by ai ardter siete (eIFAE), SY Tee (translation) & wréfaey frre & Hae % afta a aieia fade eet &1 we sete A feet cites a Sraent eaaafrat A attest ar eae har & gah ag.afreateaeer ee stawwanfaet (transfect) RaT] SA waeaed aiftrert aeitatt 4, VaCNATH (apoptosis) 2, AAREAA SAAT (neoplastic transformation) 3. tg oRadat argh 4, faaidrerer The cap binding protein (elF4E), which is involved in the global regulation of translation, is highly regulated in eukaryotic cells. In an experiment, a researcher transfected mammalian cells with (eIF4E) gene for its overexpression. Due to this, the cells will undergo apoptosis. neoplastic transformation. no change. differentiation. sraropiisht 14 calor wt seit FX arat & vat © aiferer A fase ae Sat Bl aereare fesey A stat ar area arr aaeerait A gat Bl Tear aT arti (early) facfaa (late) | et TERA FasToy state ae wet ate quart aa fee at fraaoretar & tate aed ERT | Bee (immediate early), 11 32. 33. 33, 2. anfeda a wat uw Siete a STAT EA KT I 3. adta oferta a eecoor FAK TI 4, ae wa © eam BLT A TF RR! Bacteriophage TA infects E. coli and injects its DNA inside the cell. The transcription of viral genes occurs in three stages: immediate early, early and late. All the promoters on viral genome are available, but the control takes place at the level of 1. promoter strength. 2. modification of host RNA polymerase. 3. synthesis of new polymerases, 4. tum over rate of RNA synthesis. am ae trary, -Felfeeetoir eaenierer (Klebsiella pneumoniae) nasal Hamam at & GO det Hae ae ‘Fant Teel (severe septic shock) FRAT SI Fa vant & daar & fae fer AA alae weet TEL ae 1. Aftaniien sierafas argetargietat ar xf seme are & | 2. aa wert HT STEN wie-TNFa wfafiet care far st wea & | 3. Hot wart & soa eq Fae States staat ar soar Reet oT weet & | 4. aot yd & sat & fae geist TNFa - amet fader ar saat rar st we FI Gram negative bacteria, Klebsiella ‘pneumoniae, upon infecting humans, results ‘in severe septic shock after a few hours of34, 34, infection. Which of the following is not true for this type of infection? 1, Coll wall endotoxins cause overproduction of eytokines, 2. Septic shock can be treated by anti-TNFa antibodies, 3. Recombinant bacterial proteins can be used for the treatment of septic shock. 4, Recombinant TNFa receptor antagonist can be used for the treatment of septic shock, fot a a ate Rafa daft afer & dae agh ari suet 8 1, agr gar vewist oRagaT | 2. wer Ra Forgatat feraor | 3, oer Sow a ser BIT TAMIA | 4, TepeRareroretat FH wet ax 1 Which of the following is NOT associated with insulin action? 1, Increased glucose transport 2. Increased glycogen formation, “3. Enhanced lipolysis in adipose tissue. 35. 35. 4, Decreased rate of gluconeogenesis, Sa tt (adenoma) AeTee eae RalstanfataT (metastatic adenocarcinoma) % oRafelr a omar 8, at fet A a alat atftet ar datoer avert fda wo 8 setter ef area 1. alas ware 1V att Afafeer 2. wigsitetfrest wa py, P is 1 hour. The time (in hours) required to reach 75% completion is, 11s. 70. ergfssten aeretta (hybridoma technology ) A unastet yfafts scares & sre oe, arin Ho og ag areata atest a agaerasacia Bremen gkaptst (HGPRT) varga #f gq dar 20 10. am att ach & fr softer arene att Seetaitet we wat F wa sa aT Brgtstetia- safceRe-egiaster (HAT) Uy fear sme) ger ATeAT Ht grattete het (aminopterin) #1 ayferer sar eet 8? Laren atest & ater a dere & wT sow eer | 2. mafierctergst ff aietoor uftar at HaeG FAT | Sara wane B aait stk wfafis scardt B attest wr deer wpriacr | 4. sofas serérB aRansit ar semeeT pri | In the ease of monoclonal antibody production by hybridoma technology, myeloma cells used lack’ the enzyme’ hypoxanthine-gudnine phosphoriboxyl transférase (HGPRT) such that fused cells can only survive when selected on hypoxanthine-aminopterin-tiymidite (HAT). What is the role of aminopterin in this medium? 1. To be used as cell cycle inhibitor of myoloma cells. 2. To block the pathway for nucleotide synthesis, 3. To facilitate fusion of myeloid B cells and antibody producing B cells. 4..To facilitate production of antibody producing B cells.sqa1_ST/PART "C’ 1. sate em Conbrt Feiat Herr A fratta eet Ar ser valet UNO FLAT Blo a 20Haee test FF ware Peo & gaara etaga, Beet owe ae Leet & ait ager are D.tenferar Y ware & at 185-250 om & ay Ht arAfea Pear arm ga Are fe ga Rafe 7 fees A A sae Sar sTeT: 1. RE ede eh asi ata eergst aargiiteaat ar faced a ore | 2 a women Segara & are Vea: waif D-Ala Seergs & wry ae geet area eft | 3, Are eaters eieeetran & Bre seat: waif dat @& teergs afttoreftaa aetaat aor att 4 wa TE eI artggcreran arett feat | 71. The amino acid alanine has high propensity to occur in helical conformation. The circular dichroism spectrum of an equimolar mixture of two 20-residue peptides, one composed of only L-alanine and the other only D-alanine is recorded in the region of 185-250 nm. ‘Which one of the following will be observed? 1. No signal: as the chiroptical properties of the two peptides will cancel out 2, Bands with only negative ellipticity: as helix formed by the D-Ala peptide will be unstable. 3, Bands with only positive ellipticity: as both the peptides will form right- handed helices. 4, Bands with identical negative and positive ellipticity. 21 2, Peat aq deers Prarurt ar se tartar Br aferat ar ruin ae fae fear orar & sie are few 7 wigg afefea Pee are & ‘PATE Kei) [Koad PAPAIG | 402 ae PAPALA |1SI 37 PAPA IF | 0.64 18 ae Rasa eu at sta weet 81 ST fae ge Baroit & tar sete eter F (A) PAPAE watfte at afer & sofa erat FI (B) PAPAG welt ae afer a onfaat aa eI (© Cree a wa srtaTE ese arafttee sepaties Pra star 81 (D) CRRA IT WH sATET TT waft septite Prat orate | (©) wart w Racer Fat H NET aR Bde UH HoaTGT TY STANT ft grererat echt & | Sita Afar fe fea AS alee FT & 1. (A. ©) 2. (B),(D) &) 3. am 4. (0), ©) Am 72. The following small peptide substrates are ‘used for determining elastase activity and the following data have been recorded.73. 73. [ Substrate Kea)_] PAPAIG [4 26 PAPALA 7 PAPA IP. 18 The arrow indicates the cleavage site. From the above observations, it appears that: (A) PAPAF is digested most rapidly. (B) PAPAG is digested most rapidly. (© Abhydrophobic residue at the C- terminus seems to be favored. ©) A smaller residue st the C-terminus * seems to be favored. @) Blestase always requires a smaller residue at the N-terminus of the oleavage site, Which of the following is true? LAO.® 2. (B), (D), @) 3. (B) only 4, (D), ©) only feet ga ar vemT pl 7458, wet ae wae Cart FH argardbte aoe dag eat Sl arate aT a pKa FT 6.15 ate 1045 1 REST] aT Ato 4, 1000: 1 hs, Aeneas 13200, sep 16 = 1000) The apparent pH of @ fluid is 7.45, where bicarbonate buffer is involved for maintaining its pH. Values of pKa of carbonic acid are 6.15 and 10.45, ‘The molar ratio of [conjugate base]: facid} is antilog 1.3 = 20.0, and antilog 10° = 1000) 22 74. B-DNA 1 Va Gs 50 kD anfdaa sme a feet wesnger at adie aear By ae BS A puma eioniter sans aot 1, 0.1547 . 2. 0.1547 x 10 3. 0.4641 4. 0.4641 x 10% A segment of B-DNA encodes an enzyme of ‘molecular mass $0 KD. ‘The estimated length of this segment in um would be 4, 1. 0.1547 2. 0.1547 x 10° 3. 0.4641 4, 0.4641 x 10° fit steerterss ff ay ivan ar freien at & fae, sre oeanace (A) Gan, arate arr Saree ar over wer areetafetdeergs at wrafreaeess (B), argent feaat ©, fefewer (D) att CNBr (BE) & arr Soak Rear ser en ste BY Ba Re sit sea aot re aa 1 | wed ae terest ay Ree re ara ear] east aor wTeeT Be (wIeSa wets sit at ophat ama a Per aah &): (A) (2Ala, Arg, Lys, Met, Phe, 2Ser) (B) (Ala, Arg, Lys, Met, Phe, 2Ser) and Ala (C) (Ala, Arg, Phe, Ser), (Ala, Lys, Met, Ser) (D) (Ala, Arg), (Lys, Phe, Ser), (Ala, Met, Ser) (E) (Ala, Arg, Lys, Met, Phe, Ser), (Ala, Ser) Sita fife fe sifeattcrss ar we wont forest HB alert at dy 1. Arg-Ala-Ser-Lys-Met-Phe-Ser-Ala 2. Arg-Ala-Ser-Lys-Phe-Met-Ser-Ala 3, Ala-Arg-Ser-Phe-Lys-Met-Ser-Ala 4, Ala-Arg-Phe-Ser-Lys-Met-Ser-Ala 5.75, In order to determine the primary structure of an octapeptide, amino acid composition was determined by acid hydrolysis (A). The imact oligopeptide was treated with carboxypeptidase (B), chymotrypsin (C), trypsin (D) and CNBr (E). The peptides were separated in each case and acid hydrolysis was cared out for B - E. Following results were obtained (the brackets. represent mixtures of amino acids in each fragment): (A) Ala, Arg, Lys, Met, Phe, 2Ser) (B) (Ala, Arg, Lys, Met, Phe, 2Ser) and Ala (©) (Ala, Arg, Phe, Ser), (Ala, Lys, Met, Ser) (D) (Ala, Arg), (Lys, Phe, Ser), (Ala, Met, Ser) (BE) (Ala, Arg, Lys, Met, Phe, Ser), (Ala, Ser) Which one is the correct sequence of the oligopeptide? Arg-Ala-Ser-Lys-Met-Phe-Ser-Ala Arg-Ala-Ser-Lys-Phe-Met-Ser-Ala Ala-Arg-Ser-Phe-Lys-Met-Ser-Ala Ala-Arg-Phe-Ser-Lys-Met-Ser-Ala BER 76, 3 Batter A Re sic afer A ea wart | tager eT see acflearoT ar HEAT AT TE Ei aoe ga steer & art Fr ast “s- ARtehia (ere sett aa) arr sarpentt daa caches Genrer apt ferotar fear @) aso & we aw Sia, aarst a wider sta Heer & waa dana can seahta a, saad versa & fae denitre fre am gia Afar fe wa fate wfaftts a arr oferta sraatror aot a 23 sani 3a gat ster & safe ett FT arter feet a A Pra air A at 1, ara Stage 2. aa sagen wer F 3. aged onferer sik ofager Far oat & 4 Aor adr gta ate stated saferer & You are following the intracellular sorting of an integral plasma membrane protein in a living cell, in culture. You have decided to probe this protein by metabolic labeling technique with *S-methionine (pulse-chase technique). After one cycle of division, the cells were treated with a potent inhibitor of protein biosynthesis and processed for subcellular fractionation. In which of the following fractions will you expect the presence of this protein upon immunoprecipitation _ with a specific antibody? 1.Only cytoplasm. 2.Only plasma membrane. 3.Both endoplasmic reticulum and plasma membrane. 4,Only secretory vesicles and endoplasmic reticulum. 71. areata erggteit & net atesit otter (pH 6.6) & Fear westetat (pH 6.0) aftager att Mop (att 6 fete) anfgat a anecth at grief HET ufaan dat wait a ate pH & stat OT Freie aed 81 Mop argh sireteras ait gprtror atte argatetat A veret wearer &r uferesit a saat A art ‘art & sree sacra Aifsre Fes cafe facta weld A pH 66 & RT ay ag fear are at aftorar ea TT? 16.1. Mop gregrasit ar aiéer at ator ‘Wier ergghasit wt Rasa Wstateit 3F grawhfaer at aa 2. Mop gigghetsit ar aireieet ata ‘after grgghtat at fadita wetetat # gravhfaer atar 3, sea Westar pH ox, amt aregttcr ar sreaaiteot at ator aie garr anette ike yprwor ah a ‘wera 4. 30a pH WW MoP stgufea e sTeaT 77. The principal pathway for transport of lysosomal hydrolases from the trans Golgi network (pH 6.6) to the late endosomes (pH 6.0) and the recycling of M6P (mannose 6 phosphate) receptors back to the Golgi depends on the pH difference between those two compartments. From what you know about M6P receptor binding and recycling and the pathways for delivery of material to lysosomes, predict what would happen if the PH in late endosomes was raised to 6,62 1. M6P will bind to hydrolases but will not release the hydrolases in the late endosomes. 2. M6P will bind to hydrolases and will release the hydrolases in the late endosomes. 3. At higher endosomal pH, the receptor would not release the hydrolase, and could not be recycled back to the trans Golgi network. 4. M6P will be degraded at higher pH. 78. fra snfey at afaeiter steer 3 6.4 x 10° bp aS 3H Ue 6 um cares dea Ao sager wo a war oar eae attr oar St wat U Fae Wz 0.34 nm sieuet oe afta et at sta Afar fe fet ger ater at gt ore a aang Prat ety 1.3.0m 24 2.3.5m, 3.2.2 m 4.4.0m 78. The diploid genome of a species comprises 6.4 x 10° bp and fits into a nucleus that is 6 ym in diameter. If base paits occur at intervals of 0.34 nm along the DNA helix, what is the total length of DNA in a resting cell? 3.0m 3.5m 2.2m 4.0m 79, Bett ar tention aur ect eat A argitat ar After ate weer ayer EA a Sue wafer vieaer A fear at venir aed & ud cher afteater a ete a Herat fret enor axa €1 Sa WHT @ sera ander A srat aRadet qeat ar 8 wa 0 WT RET feet eT A amar at yaifee ata eal 1S war gore area gta & 2. St wa witecter were Bear eye ade Reada eer e 3. Stet ar wearer gt wat weer weeR far et agar & 4, arghtar ar APSO HT wetecteROT 3 war vita eR fer a agar & 79. Phosphorylation of serines as well 9s methylation and acetylation of lysines in histone tails affect the stability of chromatin structure above the nucleosome level, and have important consequences for gee expression, The resulting changes in charge are expected to affect the ability of the tails to interact with DNA becauseDNA is negatively charged. 2. DNA-histone interaction is independent of net charge. 3. phosphorylation of serine increases DNA- histone interaction, 4, methylation and acetylation of lysine increases DNA-histone interaction. 80. tar wart st Yate enghirster aaa meme 4 gf ath Rana ax et & s wae A sat DNA A areas at aes BTS Tara He adr € iow owe wi wf en F age Bret ated cae ae (30 (Rach, wenat oaaRt eather engin fafgeat ef andr 8 1 sae SRI Area wy Peaaeita angles & oe aaa Rar war a aan afater waa am afe ae at Raanfsra eter vehi areas GPa & are FoRS wT suid, aa A ws qenaet cant Sar Fen) WAT AT we wand aga wea apr cant waa & vee om & wa wiRrnsit at ag ier ret Usaratrr 3 ow ov fama % mw YBatattiar gant sisetar far aT AAT Ri oat saat ad auc far & sak angie daa Y waa Ay Prater & wa & area Rear ot Beat & 25 am & Sak aes HT ARTF am & one aera sa aa aT gata & ai fe Sr seh BAA (S phase) Svat wo wapiaarer WATT AL WE A wa visetaiee args a Preven sar at aa &r Prax afters A M sae FT aefar & 1 am 20 Rae F sNid HT Use wifes & uotetite sacar F Aee e1 ame A 10 frac & swat aT 3a arent a M Haga 4 fewer eet aefar 21 Cells that grow and divide in a medium containing radioactive thymidine covalently incorporate the thymidine into their DNA during $ phase. Consider a simple experiment in which cells are labeled by a brief (30 minutes) exposure to radioactive thymidine. The medium is then replaced with one containing unlabeled thymidine, and the cells grow and divide for some additional time, At different time points after replacement of the medium, cells are examined under a microscope. Cells in mitosis are easy to recognize by their condensed chromosomes and the fraction of mitotic cells that have radioactive DNA can be estimated by autoradiography and plotted as a function of time after the thymidine labeling as in the figure below: “a a‘The rise and fall of the curve is because: L.initial rise of the curve corresponds to cells that were just finishing DNA replication when radioactive thymidine was added (S phase), 2.the peak of the curve corresponds to cells in Mphase 3.the rise in curve after 20 min corresponds to cells in apoptotic phase, 4.the fall in curve after 10 min indicates the cells exiting M phase. 81. wm ae aft Safe ae wr sfaropania SR along at wee BNlliquid nutrient broth) a fer oar AY arerforay Hae (Tae saeMT — abet aaEeT > Ranh sacar — AP saEUy geet 81 aie srr Becta 10° wert fafer ext sharopit a vata ar oeTar WaT 10 Rate et aie sera yore Gat af 10 fae at, at ita Afar fH 30 frac cada det ae ae Tet Farrah (@iRreareiata) etait 1.6.0 x 10° 2.2.0 x 10° 3.3.0 x 10° 4.4.0 x 10° 81. A rapidly growing bacterial species such as E. coli ex ical phase of growth cycle in liquid nutrient broth (lag phase — log phase — stationary phase —> death phase). If a bacterial culture has a starting density of [0° cells/ml has a lag time of 10 minutes and a generation time of 10 minutes, what will the cell density be at (cells/ml) 30 minutes? 6.0 x 10° 2.0 x 10° 3.0 x 10° 4.0x10° Bere 26 82. ot wt w wfeepfoaer at sires A afer aT set at & fae agains: aiPiga OA ANE ST dar fear ver Reet Aol ane wat vw dy cher ar Bara ay fea sar el we ga chet waren aEt aafterait wt dere ont walker Rar wean, ot seer 100 wife fasta a sRit of welacet aefer sit arerder weiftrensit a feeeper argh orar sr wera! Sita Afar fr fear a a ater wer weRoT B ot wa wv sfagiawor & dat a Seats worget $f aiectaar é efter @ area sik aya ap a A BT aa e 2. ot, ase st wet ve PR aT derret & BOT FrareHe ay atta Bt Soar v Re saga a fae Grater Hr sitaeener at ete 1 3. RNét A are A quer a ah cater ‘ae fear aren sires gt wav aepRAT Faquara eta 8 1 4, Fea Sowa w vfepitar at SI wt Uo uneret A sterner et ae | 82. In order to study the role of telomeres in DNA replication, genetically engineered mice ‘were prepared, where the gene for telomerase RNA was knocked out. When cells from these knock out mice were taken and cultured in vitro, they proliferated even after 100 cell divisions which is quite unlikely in the case of human cells.83, Which of the following is the correct reason? 1,Human and mice are fundamentally different with respect to their requirements for telomerase enzyme in the context of DNA replication. 2.1n vitro, mice DNA becomes circular due to end to.end chromosome fusion and does not require telomerase for DNA end replication, 3.Mice have very long stretch of telomere DNA sequence compared to that of human. 4.In vitro, mice DNA replication does not require the removal of RNA primers. SIT OF, wae OS BRAY seyret TT ae my at aw & fret dat areaged Hk sreae-fager wae Ml WH SIE Wat w (mRNAs) &T Seu fear amg 4 gt a WA AR wt it (mRNAs) # aerate ster sear fread & are seafta fear sie fe seers Score aT ats ave fr a SRST area Pram sre AS Pe ae fer ae amet & Sate ar see oRorat at wet wa F cetar 87 2 . eo oo Relyadenyied rio i { il | i| : t i! i il You are working with an in vitro eukaryotic transcription system, which produced both capped and uncapped mRNAs. You incubated these mRNAs with mammalian cell nuclear extract and then quantified the different products as shown below. Which of 27 84. the following graphs correctly represents the expected result? atc oO do aAferchrer ofr atte rarefterar afer ardt oS $1 ae x seer arr fret aft wae AY oF (in vitro) B vA U ander frareftear Ar ager at Fr oT ast, Ue AA (in vivo) afta ates we AAT aqdua EHH a we feratisret 1S TE | salad Gist a war F frst A a ata WT Feat Tales COREA WEA HAT e? 1. X wa St wat w areeret wet & | 2X sepa aR a BT opi faaw & are WeR fer ae el 3.X wafer ar saree Bie far woiaitea arch & | 4, xX Ua Bxfarer 3 | ‘A nonenzymatic viral protein X was found to be inducing a cellular gene promoter activity. Although no in vitro DNA binding activity could be identified with X protein, it was found to be co-recruited on the cellular promoter along with a cellular transcription factor in vivo. Which one of the following statements seems to be the best interpretation of the above findings?1.X is a DNA-binding protein, 2.X physically interacts with the transcription factor. 3.X modifies the chromatin for transcription activation, 4.X is a chaperone, 85. wider Getwor a Ateffaror aor By ez, 85, Paria. mRNA Site AeA CRNA wT ugsaiet At wera YU welt area erat t1 weg A GTP aie EF-G Samatieney B ae VeT F 1 Aer Bae Tagg, Fe EMaiawr Gre sk ER-G @ tacts off taste weve 81 get Sarit & sre we et oReecent wee Fr or wart F: (A) eeretieeor A ort anita afar he aera & quien: Brest & 1 (B) Perea HRareleraT GTP ST weet B eat 81 (© eaaiarer Brareiterat yola: GTP 3H EP-G & site & 1 (D) Sacer Prarie Ugetat & satite oat 8, Ae oF eae FY ae GTP st EF-G sofeufe A waar wr a as met & gta Aire Be Rew A a ata ‘Watart wer 2? 1, AIH (D) | 2. (A) aI (C) I 3. (A) IR (B) | 4, (C) ate (D) 1 During elongation step of protein synthesis, translocation moves the mRNA and the peptidyl t-RNA by one codon through the ribosome. Translocation in E. coli involves 28 86. GTP and .EF-G. However, in vitro. translocation can take place independent of GTP and EF-G, Based on these observations, the following hypotheses can be made: (A) The molecular mechanism of translocation in vitro is completely different from that in vivo. (B) Translocation activity is independent of GTP hydrolysis. (©) Translocation activity is completely dependent on GTP and EF-G. {D) Translocation activity is inherent in ribosomes, however, the rate of translocation in vivo is enhanced significantly in presence of GTP and EF-G ‘Which one of the following combinations is correct? 1. only (D) 2. (A)and (C) 3. (A) and (B) 4, (Cand (D) aieeat Fg wa vt Ata sepedt Prise & siala ue Aeeat agar ar fetdger exer 81 Yar rar aa & fir fat oer & feracadt att aie wr aa a ak wf wT OT ARherwr Fat & da wa facta wedi git & rae Bee viateeherror ate as Ae aE wea dhe weeider 81 arect A B afer gether pjean: aedwor A we area adit afer 1 aie a deh Seialtaer pafwen & ee oe eavoliaar Seto ae wh at saat vratheer amet alam) Saar aver & Ae wep deaBrar Viral a stanmgieder wert ax @& ome at ora vite atest 7sachet at FAT ag ote & ik ttt aneafeac et @1 ‘afta Aifsre fe s-tarengitsia & west A ea 4 stra seer ae att 2 1. ti BR at storages sora Ham sieht & ga argiediar Paret RB va UA wanfaee ae aT a 2. staragiega st wa v Afacert a wr AT Sat E storages feectr vfafectarer at sre BAT F 4, Storargiegia ster aftreafer ar BURR wet AAT & 86. DNA methylation plays an important role in transcription regulation in vertebrates. There is an inverse correlation between the level of DNA methylation in the vicinity of a gene and its transcription rate, whereas there is a direct correlation between histone acetylation and increased transcription. B-thalassemia is a common genetic impairment of hemoglobin B-chain synthesis in humans. If these patients can synthesize hemoglobin-F instead of hemoglobin B-chain in its place, they would be notably benefited. Administration of S-azacytidine to P-thalassemia patients increases hemoglobin-F level in erythrocytes and thus benefit the patients. Which one of the following statements about S-azacytidine is NOT correct? 1.Cells exposed to S-azacytidine incorporate it into DNA in place of cytidine. 2. S-azacytidine decreases DNA methylation. 3, S-azacytidine promotes histone acetylation. 4.S-azacytidine does not promote gene expression, 29 a7. tet sift Beet G shea aaa met Premaret o, sismTAT Tae A wher angler A cant Ware aR tesa ardtret Weta (ABP) SIR CREB shea ar Heya We aT | cAMP, ait ager ag &, & Rat a |. ABP AT Hees as ATTA | 2 CREB Wéat a wraith ae sea | 3. sata Fat we ang Raia at eT 4. Ga saree A GTPase Prareieat ae area | 87. In cells having G protein coupled receptor, inhibition of protein kinase A by siRNA technology led to diminished transcription of androgen binding protein (ABP) and CREB protein. Addition of cAMP, which is a second messenger, will lead to 1 increased transcription of ABP. 2. increased phosphorylation of CREB protein. 3.no change in transcription level. 4. increased GTPase activity of Ga subunit. 38. af fet fortes ar aitaracg ae @ anduer at far are at 4 vida aagetat & arepeiten afer & area Sum sam Hea TRA TET ‘afer at ont & | arerdter ater Tar Aa, ae ada we dha afte a up sae vier carr Hratforat wea & wa fe qt after tare 4, aE ager Aaa TS fear aver ett Bt ama er AS ate wearaan Her gt & 2wiftrer A at aitker onmoT af see art | . wer A a ore diet aGROT uftarit @ fees deer A arena steep ar eA | wifter A a dea vader A weeraar artamper sifttar sail 1 wife BOA sree dict afer a mer 8 det veo At are srterper Ser abit | . Binding of a ligand to a cell-surface receptor Activates an intracellular signal transduction pathway through the sequential activation of four protein kinases, In the human cell line A, these kinases are held in a signal complex by another cell line B, these kinases are freely diffusible, Which one of the following possibilities do you think is NOT correct? 1, Speed of signal transduction will be higher in cell A. 2. Possibility of cross-linking with other signal transduction pathways will be lesser in cell A 3. Pos higher ility of signal amplification will be cell A. 4.Potency of spreading. signal: through other signaling pathways will be higher in cell B. Fist & wo A saatr Pram srat & 1 wt atest at ssi & arr wR Hae A arate ae fear Srer @1 ger atari at der carr ait fader & far aiiRa Pear or ‘Wear & af Ue salchear sr eater a whl ga ma A adie wre 30 snfvaes afta ue et aa & fer Ger Se siesta Or fife aretere (URI) aagetot aT Hef starrer seer aX Ueber &, Sit vatfaer Feder aT way aentes & ge aietferdaor h waraer fader srerafte et smart & | Be ORCI ar Ucar Vt a fae fara AS ater-aht fate sfaer ah 8 2 THRE wrgetor oftet eng) MEL aiferarait at Paria aren 2.MEL Rani st ewer HRI ager Set #Y BAIT ae Set 3. steer ectaor ft ax ar aster a va ger & wat eared Renter wet 4. HRI tiger afrarar ar fester a wa per we A ae aT 89, Mouse erythroleukemia (MEL) cells are used, as an in vitro cell culture model for understanding erythropoiesis, These cells-are arrested at the stage of pro-erythroblast due to transformation. ‘These cells could be induced by heme to differentiate further so as to synthesize hemoglobin. The most probable molecular mechanism for this could be that heme may suppress and/or downregulate an endogenous heme-regulated inhibitor (HRI) kinase, an following approaches is NOT appropriate? 1, Transfect MEL cells with HRI kinase gene. 2. Knock down HRI kinase gene in MEL cells, 3. Determine the rate of protein synthesis in situ as a function of differentiation, 4, Measure HRI kinase activity as a function of differentiation.90. 90. witert oat re wt siege utensil, aes va stats, gar arent (apoptosis) arqara weet F | MeN afer wifter wea fates & Fer wae aq anigat & arduer carr wafer gar 1 gad feat aa ag arena seta aiake offer at air axa & at wrer-sreTaT aera ve are eet afer ae ot &§ ak agedeiieg a aigelela C at saat afta act @ fared deloraets ara oat a rat & aie aise: area ofterfater ear Si feet ater aA a gear Seto gant aigelara Cw wfaee weer rar B, sea fata ater Ba, agai yeneiacor gant ache C at at wfase ara arn 8, WY Tae wd aT ( sida ) at faire ax fear aa 81 ita Afar fe dat aet A wad sage serdar rey wae staat eh Wg i Cells undergo apoptosis by two distinct and inter-connected pathways: extrinsic and intrinsic, Extrinsic pathway is activated by extracellular ligand binding to cell surface death receptors. Whenever an apoptotic stimulus activates intrinsic pathway, the pro- apoptotic Bax and Bak proteins become activated and induce the release of cytochrome C from mitochondria leading to caspase cascade activation resulting in 3 a. 1 apoptosis. In cell A, cytochrome C is introduced by microinjection whereas in cell B, cytochrome C is introduced by microinjection but Bax and Bak are inactivated. — What will be the most appropriate apoptotic response type in both cells? 1 0 l BALB/c Hyet Ht gitar afar! (DC) IL-0 3¥ar IFN-Y gant seat fer ara gat wae p2-aigerelte fer ta asst Fr gitar aeit st sft 1L-10 3a IFN-Y art svearRe fear Tet | gat waa SHEL terse Fr safeute a, apt & sist & arrctonger (HEL)-faftee To @iRrermét wusfefr asa Fr cps’ T aifrnsit ® arr ag Wala fret war | via Rat & are, cbs’ T aiftansit ar eda ater cet & fee amare fren sear | sitar AT f fier daoet & a ata a after ca attra anfearger etsy re I — | spate fi 1. DC (BALBYe)"*""° CD8'T 2. DC (BALB/c) ""x CD8°T 3. DC (B2-microglobulin-deficient) """°x D8'T 4. DC (B2-microglobulin-deficient) "x cps'T91, Dendritic cells (DC) from BALB/c mice were treated with 1L-10 or with JFN-Y. Similarly, dendritic cells from: 2-microglobulin- deficient mice were also treated with 1L-10 of with IEN-Y.These cells were co-cultured with CD8* T cells from hen egg lysozyme (HBL)-specific T cell receptor transgenic mice in presence of the HEL peptide. Five days later, CD8* T cells were assayed for target cell lysis. Which one of the following combinations will have the highest target cytotoxicity? 1,DC (BALB/c)""""°x CD8°T 2.DC (BALBYe) '*"« CD8'T 3.DC (B2-mieroglobulin-deficient) "“!°x cps'T 4,DC (B2-microglobulin-deticient) "**x cps'T 92, we a arrar sift epRIOy wR 3s aT fer a € at aRysTAT (polyspermy) Y fRafet Sete ett BI ag wer: rovers, gtd & walter ag wT arerwet ar seat art & rat fea apres dear sit wae faawereT ee EL ger Feet & ofeher ot aga snftat a aggro & at rae Premera gt & ae orate stk aie wate way afer (A) et srerter ar sara Tea ta & ARH GoaeT 3s He aT Yor fad a sat % ate qprmy a sis arr data agi gat sar cen ag fear aigaet areatt & siete garr warfare & ont & I (B) ae arate aT weTE aewTe erat & BAT waraer aig wor aT aT Pasa ae ara & ait yay aT ais ue waa ad aa sar aa ae Hear 32 aidenr seri a afgete gant wenlferet & ondt & | © Fe wate ga aeRe FST aire | fewer reat | aaRT wate fr sick & 1 (Dy are arate rear aege sory HA ET efter arr gant wane Ar ora a sale He ated Beet wer EP 4.(A) 3k © 2. (A) aie (D) 3. (8) atk ©) 4, (B) aie (D) 92. Polyspermy results when two or more sperms fertilize an egg. It is usually lethal since it results in blastomeres with different numbers and types of chromosomes. Many species therefore, have two blocks to polyspermy: the fast block and the slow block. In the ease of sea urchitis: (A) the fast block is immediate’and causes the egg membiaie resting potential to rise which does not allow the sperm to fuse with the egg and is mediated by an influx of sodium ions. (B) the fast block is immediate and causes the egg membrane resting potential to. rise which does not allow the sperm to fuse with the egg and is mediated by an efflux of sodium ions. (©) the stow block or cortical granule reaction is mediated by calcium ions. (D) the slow block or cortical granule reaction is mediated by potassium ions, Which of the above statements are true? 1. (A)and (C) 2, (A) and (D) 3. (B) and (C) 4, (B) and (D)93, 93. we ova a, aa afte at ot aera: statoger & cit a AeT as aa orteh, oar & cia-fraior att & faite a Rar var sik we Feet & after & ohh at we Rar aa feafae geet A vavrat & start wa A ther weer oreeaar & arene a, Sita Afr fe fret A a ator weet Fe BP aeaft afta iene amet cir afters # vitae seat are tach &, afer cit eh athens sia dot aait & aT sree area At Peake aera & fet feria eet & | a afta ata welts cia aiftert ¢ xa: a efter & Tart we pt ore an farator ate after Rand are araracor Hf fear ag aiftansit & arr faa oth sir aa wa Hoar eter after ar erator oh ita wife arse eter aaa Fr wWieae ved at are tact & sik wa faftatadt daar & fate gq Raft at art fact Pacer aa at efter war Ghat ofa fae ager ate ar yt char wo A xa BT Tn an experiment, the cells that would normally become the middle segment of a Drosophila leg were removed from the leg forming area of the larva and were placed in the tip of the fly's antenna. Based on the “French flag” analogy for the operation of a gradient of positional information, which of the following statements is true? The transplanted cells retain their committed status as leg cells, but respond to the 8/46 BU/13-3AH—3A 33 4, positional information of their environment by becoming leg tip cells—ie., claws. The transplanted cells are determined as leg cells and therefore would form a complete limb instead of an antenna. The transplanted cells would intermingle with the cells present in the new environment and develop accordingly to give rise to an antenna, ‘The transplanted cells retain their committed status as leg cells and would develop to form a chimeric structure having proximal region made of antenna and the distal region ending ina complete leg. ag @& wife ak san age seers & doer fee ae fat oer yatat & art fae (A-D) A A ate afore frac (A wie ae age A ARATE wafader ofatiea cutet & (B) wR ae aga A wae eared Rather aetctt & (C:) sak AE sgn M aiftard anfeder oRatiea aetet & (D) 3a AE Sqr FT wae Farmed Rati aeitetr & anfade aa | eat oF |aar sam art fastcet (1) sare sidt aeacaer | areata aaetttert | (2) srdt areacarar | srdt ciaathRrare eran eeTe Ser Ae - (nant ard @reacaer aie aaa | : (2)| set areaeaar | emt taeifererre| areceear_|‘wer Romer & 1.) aie @) 2.(B) aie (©) 3.(A) FT 4.(D) Ft 94, Which of the inferences (A-D) given below ‘would you draw from the following tissue ‘transplantation experiments performed with the early and late gastrula stages’ of the newt? Tost regions [Donor Differenti regions ation of donor tissue !ARLY GASTRULA| Prospective neurons Prospective [Epidermis dermis (A) Cells of early newt gastrula exhibit conditional development. (B) Cells of early newt gastrula exhibit autonomous development (©) Cells. of late newt gastrula exhibit conditional development. (D) Cells of late gastrula exhibit autonomous development. ‘The correct inferences are: (A) and (D) (B) and (C) (A) only (D) only BENE Gil) | Prospective Prospective | Neurons epidermis heurons [LATE GASTRULA Prospective neurons Prospective | Neurons pidermi Gil) | Prospective rrospective [Epidermis epidermis peuror Brilftvor & eadterast sfet ater waygt (Ra, aa Baw atk us yam a ama seaRacd? werormedt a are Raenfors etd #1 treat Ge wey Gsherat tet vordt chal at aapite ar & (erage. 3 Baal A) Ege Pra are (A) hairy ~> paired tailless > patched (B) hunchback —> even-skipped -» fushi tarazu —> wingless (©) odd-skipped > giant -> paired > wingless (D) tailless + hairy —» fushi tarazu —> gooseberry Sita Aare fr una B see gor A afer chet a wor fae aepeat A @ weaved we FE 7 1.(D) at 2.(A) 3k (B) 3.(©) aie (B) 4.(B) 3k () ;. Segmentation genes in Drosophila are divided into three groups (gap, pair rule and segment polarity) based on their mutant phenotype, Below are some of the major genes expressed in a sequential manner (with respect to the groups) affecting segmentation pattern. (A) (B) hairy —> paired-> tailless > patched hunchback > even-skipped —> fushi tarazu > wingless ‘odd-skipped —> giant > paired —> wingless tailless -> hairy —> fushi tarazu -> gooseberry © (0) Which of the above sequence(s) of genes expressed from early to. late embryo is/are correct? 1. (D) only 2.(A) and (B) 3. ©) and (B) $/46 BIM3-SAH—3B4.(B) and (D) 96. tht ArT & fe arta orgs aiastgfte (hca) sareiaee & asferr ‘& aoe set wt Aer aRaT BI hCG ster A seaRadaeart aftarsit a, weal ae eq & fT hCG #T farator gar fire sft amtoor were GT! wa UH AAT afker a asters F ACG @ SfeRai-santar ax Rar ara, at SRT sree Wer) aE shea FRAT F fa Arerat A sietaer & fare: 1. afar wa Ht ase oar aA FE hCG srravawar wet eat 2. careeieec aA nCG ar seme aT wet %, at eres eo a ase Herat 3 were tat t 3. ahve ft attransit ar aster Ay se SoRRTT & Faw nca #1 arava at aed 1 4. ar & apterar & dow at & fae sfaterat she sae searertt at 21 96. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is known to facilitate attachment of blastocyst to uterus. In women with mutation in hCG gene, biologically inactive hCG was formed but implantation occurred. When hCG was immuno-neutralized in the uterus of normal ‘woman, implantation failed. This suggests that for implantation in humans: biologically active circulating hCG is not required. 2.blastocyst can produce the required hCG, which helps locally in uterine attachment. 3. trophoblastic cells do not require hCG for the invasion of uterus. 4. extra-embryonic tissue is not responsible for the attachment of embryo to uterus 35 97. went A aera oR & wer (a) ae athe Ar eae aed aiekgor a gris a aah Rena gant seat are Bi (B) Wer & faewaret ane area oer oRatia A were att &1 (© sae sitar? ofeatieeter spr at ison sar weet 1 (D) Weratetar we ort & att atat ae apart at ww avait weather (synergid )# araayeret aXet 1 aw fee ae weit A a ata wee? (A) 3#e (B) (B) 3k) (B) 3 (A) 3 (D) Rens 97. During reproductive development in plants: (A) male and female gametes are produced as a result of two mitotic divisions after meiosis. vegetative cells in pollen contribute to pollen development. antipodals provide developing embryos. pollen tube ruptures and releases both the male gametes in one ofthe degenerated synergids. (By © nourishment to (D) Which of the above statements are true? 1 (A) and (B) 2. (B) and (D) 3. (B) and (C) 4. (A)and(D) 98. Taare A Ferber Hea eT 3s seater fra, star defer (zp) aor A wietat ste serch eperor aro Ht faaererer aigat cart warfeaa fr ret 81 ZP3teh wae zp sider ugar ar mg & former weearpeaia waiewor qparor-3ig gee Bra & fae aga 81 wr wikegianers sratert sie A eperoy ar Qprrpsis seater fer sear A ys, 2P3 sat BAe waar wot S eT wey fem arar & 1 gier Aifere fer fares He whit welt gprsis wre Bren ah saver at we 1. veler By yprey wh zp3 steer @ dara ae ART) 2. 2p3 sic ar Ravergetarenteret a arid Ber eseEY WaT a AT soar Afar 3. 23 vider ar creme wel & SRT BTL ROY Biqear axa ay ere seeter AST 4. 2P3 sider ar faatenicteer at a SRT RE GMT Hest Her a fae Baatar Asie During fertilization in mammals, sperm-cgg. interaction is mediated by zona pellucida (ZP) membrane proteins and their receptors present in sperm membrane. ZP3 has been identified to be the principle ZP protein whose post-translational modification is i for sperm — egg interaction, In a competitive inhibition assay the sperm saturated with either active ZP3 or its modified forms, before studying sperm-ege- interaction. Which of the follow experiments will NOT inhibit sperm-ege- interaction 1. Saturate sperm with ZP3 protein prior to use. 2. Deglycosylate the ZP3 protein and use it for saturation of sperm. 3. Phosphorylate the ZP3 protein and use it for saturation of sperm, 4, Dephosphorylate the ZP3 protein and use it for saturation of sperm. ate wales et ser a, SRE aretha strive oar seaftacter et ger & qa X akypl, seornfedel wary A alee fr safeete A Sar srt at ae venesiedwor adh Gh ae wordt ser staan daft ae ATI Be seaRacet aor warersieteor Br ae ate meat gfe oe aS wera wet em veresred afa a wearer ae Ter ar ste-sie aeitear seeiittet & sea tear a wearer ‘fecrat ar in the figures, above. arcana ate anette aft at aetar & 1. X; = Geographic distance, 1 = Sexual isolation index; X; = Genetic distance, wa fe aqua aie far gaa ae YY; = mating frequency strife Pema & aac a 2. X; = Geographic distance; Y, = mating " frequency; X2 = Genetic distance, Y>= Sexual isolation index X, = Genetic distance; Y; = mating frequency; X> = Sexual isolation index; Geographic distance Genetic distance; Y = Geographic distance; X2 = Sexual isolation index; Y)= mating frequency ar far ge fast AX, VX SRY, 9. area | aTTaROT & aienisga |e, fac sogea aaeih eech ar cet 2006 ( fue RE ), & see fT Afr. B ataat ateitanfa (Nothospecies) 27 1. X, = Geographic distance, Y, = Sexual isolation index; X2= Genetic distance, 1. Polypodium vulgare subsp. prionodes ‘YY; = mating frequen (Asch.) Rothm. 2. Xi = Geographic distance; Y, = mating 2. Polypogon monspeliensis (L.) Desf. frequency; X; = Genetic distance, Y:= 3. Agrostis stolonifera L. Sexual isolation index 4, Agrostis stolonifera L. % Polypogon 3. X; = Genetic distance; Y, = mating ‘monspeliensis (L.) Desf. frequency; X2 = Sexual isolation index; Y, = Geographic distance 119. As per the of International Code of Botanical 4, X,= Genetic distance; Y; = Geographic Nomenclature, 2006 (Vienna Code), distance; X, = Sexual isolation index; which of the following is a Nothospecies? Y,= mating frequency 1. Polypodium vulgare subsp. prionodes 118. In a study of sexual isolation in a species of (Asch) Rothm. salamander, scientists brought together males 2. Polypogon monspeliensis (L.) Desf. and females from different populations and 3. Agrostis stolonifera L. from the same population. They observed the 4, Agrostis stolonifera L. * Polypogon frequency of mating and calculated a sexual monspeliensis (L.) Desf. isolation index. One graph shows the relationship between mating frequency and a9, fost 3 @ Prat aah A ra at er genetic distance, and the other shows the relationship between sexual isolation index faqgaret ea & 2 and geographic isolation. 1. were, ST, ae 2, ad, ates, ware 3. Sararreng, ferach, wert 4, Rea, wor, ACT120. Which of the following groups have only two wings? 1.Honey bee, beetle, ant 2. Butterfly, housefly, fruitfly 3.Dragonfly, butterfly, fruitly 4. Housefly, fruitfly, mosquito 124, at A adarer H 17 stasise freee oh Perf otceat ar wfefattcr at Gloag dun aa, ar & Rene Etat ast t aris wr Ft Bret 1 sevise faa Fr sau At wallecr Coreen at are wettest (A G ) & ae eater & seat Aare, (A) eearer, (B) Ren, (Carer ferare 31, (D) Ander Rare spre ae, (B) wareeeht fafter ware, (F) aS uate feraar af, Gate, 1.(A), (B), (©), (F), (G) 2.(A), (B), (D), (F), (G) 3.(A), (B), (©), (E), (G) 4.(A), (D), ©), (G) 121, India has currently 17 biosphere reserves representing different ecosystems. ‘These conservation areas significantly differ from the conventional protected areas of the country. Identify the correct combination of attributes (A to G) that best explains the concept of biosphere reserve, (A) Conservation, (B) Education, (C) Human habitation allowed, (D) Human habitation not allowed, (E) Strong legal back-up, (F)_ No supporting act, (G) Research, 1.(A), (B), (©), (F), (G) 2.(A), (B), (D), (F), (G) 3.(A), (B), (C), (E), (G) 4.(A), (D), (E), (G) 46 At RerPer oat Ft daca Safety feet oaror ate Rawr teoh few ae & 1 gitar Afr fe ent & ata-ar onfeet 3 sfetattr aigeaor a SOR RUT? Seen yee Erna gate 122, Followings are the niche characteristics of the constituent species and resource pa pattem in different ecosystems, Whi these would lead to competitive exclusion of species? arret & 1 aire few are fer at aa At siftat A marr & wre eet ant uftadait a am wetter Rae ae &1 ee aioe Be amt & fe feat a a ata at ott wer be1. A=arefedt, Bae, C=HtaacT 2, Asntaadt, B=wreiRdy, coaatfeat 3. Asweaaef, B=aanfRat, CHER 4, Aswad, Bareaad, c-refeet 123, Environmental conditions can influence accumulation of species in successional communities. Curves representing changes in forest species over time are given in the figure below. Which of the following keys is correct for the curves? no. of epeies crric, B = mesic, C = intermediate intermediate, B = xeric, C= mesic intermediate, B = mesic, C = xeric mesic, B= intermediate, C = xeric 124. ater Ge gooey wey st ast dear A arnt anata aa ora are | afer get qual A Pee aff eae & wake a scuret we et TT AT gitar Aire PR ge der A eile a fara AO ata cere corear et wach 82 1. faaeadt aa A Att ger ait awe & arg ag aT Tag sale et Hae 21 2. Pecadt de at at gerund at ara suiet at & sa: oeToTTe se Sf FY Bit set & fee arez FI 3. Teme wear: aah atte a afar @ 4. Bprorant ars are aot at Ge Tad EI 47 124. A plant with blue-coloured flowers was observed to attract a large number of pollinators. However, these flowers were not producing any nectar. Which of the following can be a logical explanation to the observation? 1. There could be another species in the vicinity that has blue flowers and is rich in nectar. 2. There is no other species with blue flowers in the vicinity so pollinators are compelled to visit this species. 3.Pollinators may not have blue-colour vision. 4.Pollinators may be able to see only blue colour. 125, dat aha & arare aeror wa Bae Bl gaa & vet adie ow We ont AL 325/km? & water Oe Paquet 8, aay aie TB, 179/km? & eaca oe Paauaret &, ctet ada, a@at A ait Bo onfeet arr: 297/km? HE 150/km? & aedt ae Rema @1 gad fet A a aaa oRona fran st waa 8? 1. at onfeat wr qat a sfaeset at ar et FI 2. gat atten ‘saferanfetar, sieconf wiketitar A gear H site dia & 1 3. at tera sfeatirer, sierra sfeatftar geen a ats ata F 1 4, sie att Hieonfa wfeatitare wa-aara dtaat # F 1 125, Three have identical habit characteristics. On first island rodent species A is present at a density 325/km’. Second island has only species B at a density of179/kia?, On the third island, both A and B co-exist with densities 297/km? and 150/km’, respectively. Which of the following can be inferred from this? 1,The two species do not compete with each other. 2.The intra-species competition is more intense than inter-species competition. 3. The inter-species competition is more intense than intra-species competition, 4. The inter and intra species competition are of the same intensity, 6H ot F Fo gfeer ws She Ghaseg va ae ade A yeni Pau ae] sort seniwar aS Meat aa arate fr ag aur suet att fr ay area test ae: safe ar ater cert Yeoh At career ‘agt ara 87 1, fewer fear steqarer(gfetat sr arden eer et aftr) 2, Pererer aeaE STATE 3. feeifter afta oRevaaar Hieeaatierdy oRatiet a stetet evar ware 126. A few males and females of a species were introduced to a new island, ‘Their population ‘was monitored over several generations and followed a pattern shown in the figure: \ 48 Which of the characteristics of the species does NOT explain the pattern? 1. Skewed sex ratio (more females than males) Large litter stze Delayed sexual maturity 4, Effects of intra-uterine development on fecundity vias stavpt a alten a Pawar RY cawerperHNT Yar eA St wat vaca & ot anfate aitansit are eery weal after ORO, ae are sare or wad Fl A we: sneer aa soe shat at ugard 81 sft Afae fH sae Ugshdy He-sikacr a faw feat at & alert Beanie smeiar e? 1, pir ar seaRada ott calor sfeepierarcor at ax afer anfetcer afer um ag et EI 2, cdfers stow war anise s wa T Ht sepals wares 3. Bauer carer cefsast ar ag aaa # Reet 4. gifeeer adRarait a wa OE aT & catisast ar eae: Were 127, Plasmids are self replicating small circular DNA elements in bacterial cells that can be said to have a stable symbiotic existence with the host cell. ‘They often carry genes useful to the host. Which of the following is a potential threat to the evolution and stability of the symbiotic coexistence? 1. ‘Copy-up” mutations that increase the rate of plasmid replication per host cell cycle. 2. Reversible integration of plasmid DNA into the host DNA 3. Transfer of plasmids to new cells by conjugation 3A4, Spontaneous curing of plasmids in a small proportion of host cells. 128.te wera & fe site aaa 1 2. 3. Garey & fer eetelierar 4, ster Peer STE ERUT wGY er aa 128. Complex eukaryotic cells may have evolved from simpler prokaryotic cells because complexity of organization increases the 1. growth rate. 2. efficiency of energy utilization. 3. tolerance to starvation. 4, ability to attain larger size. 129. Tam Rte A arfetetitr fe a feizor & fae aga acacia anet at Rete Knox tet att 1 aE set airat stk get Soo oes aint & Utada & ofaaret ar aft fretror act 1 ate er wer far go ert sath % agint ga onfeqete aT aT exter & 1 faa a at gar sat fat at aafa & ot site eft faasaten ( TAT aitarsit & wart) a ware Tat & fae areka wet G1 attefater tet otet & St nearer carer afaayfora eet & sa Re daeht ag ott F ot ww oni A eT afaayoret etch &. ‘8/46 BJ/13-3AH—4, 49 i ea 23 z Een come EEEE $25 | faa & fara frend fare ae a: (A) Heme creat A agit aha after ata em (B) Hager crest A ete fafeerar otter afeaprat & area & scars gS eet (C) Hage cect H sete eit fasroatcrst ar feria attifatara stat garer eta 81 (D) adage rant a ote eis fascist aT faa daeitre stat caret ear 81 Sa Sar fH ft A a aha Ter facet at caer @ 1. (A), (B) 38 (D) 2 (A) @) 3 ©) 3. @) aR (CA 4. (B) SR (D) AT 129. Knox genes code transcriptional factors important for the regulation of indeterminate growth in plant shoots. These genes also regulate patterns of development of plant organs such as leaves and flowers. The figure represents a phylogenetic tree of the multigene family in some land plants. The circles represent genes that act to maintain shoot apical meristem (equivalent to stem cells). Orthologues are genes that duplicateFrom the figure; the following inferences ‘were made, (A) Multiple gene duplication occurred in vascular plants, (B) Gene duplications may have enabled shoot diversification in vascular plants. (©) Shoot apical meristems are regulated by orthologous genes in vascular plants. (D) Shoot apical meristems are regulated by paralogous genes in vascular plants. Which of the following represents a combination of correct inferences? + (A), (B) and (D) (A), (B) and (C) (BY and (C) only (B) and (D) only 130.va ta weet A ot waa 50 at aw aoe ter 8, FR ae we Tau & aor A wonfar Ht ag 8, Pah ats H der BH sere Brat eh ae wear war & fe aden A sitet aa arr aT sateen & fet oft cent @ seit afte BI Be sero Ff erent & fae faa aRtaereme wecnferer Fr ang eff: (@ Wo seoRada wETAT re waraed att a aot Fr sar ae 7g 50 (B) sea aera ent oad tet defeat seat at & fae se fae & Berk aot at dor Ar wet ag gS HAT aft (© Fawr & wT ert eat Hr at gs anearar aeraher BE, fort aie at ser dearer ey oft & datorat ar Prater gir earl site Afaw fa fer A a eta wer emit ar dala autar 8? (A) aie (8) ArT (A) ait (Cc) aT @® 3k © ar A). @) 3k © eepe 130, In an experiment that has continued for miore than 50 years, corn has been propagated by breeding only from plants, with the: highest amount of oil in the seeds. The average oil content is now much greater than any of the plants in the original population. ‘The following hypotheses were proposed as explanations for this observation, (A) Mutations occurred that inereased the oil content in seeds. (B) Plants with high oil content were stimulated to produce offspring with more lin their seeds. The breeding led to increased frequency of alleles at multiple loci, so that new combinations of genes for even higher oil content were formed. © Which of the following represents combination of correct statements? (A) and (B) only (A) and (C) only (B) and (C) only (A), (B) and (C) Sppe131. af & onfeat a saa weet fea wea A oreroraite Fr pies wa Aecageh ar A ae Bieler, tet ara & Pe ara we afar anf & amit ge a faeght a3 & aaa 4, areronite at wag after at wer earl aerate, pie set dy vet sik eR FH esa avid F aa sarA area ofeat ta ast ww oer aedt ¢ at ane aT wear A fafaftar fre ett él gat ofeatat & fer fet a a atar-zr ‘wad anf caret BP 1. @ferr wy ara A ay Sas aw UH feeneren wgiet cefet 81 2 dq wer faftet det % vant & wegen A oes ge at ait ae Rade ae art chigat arr denn ax far ae a 3. Yer Beat A aed S & Bet wa Fr aq fafaware faqgenet et) are a tet fea Bes aeaieat wir a ag at ot Beier ver & det at are Fore faretetepet eft 4, Bfcier CA srepRMT PaLOT aT SaTET aetet ¢ fret dq fafauar seahacer ait sa swe faitet dor vent & Waet ENT Seqet Bt aS ef | 131, The Galapagos finches were an important clue to Darwin's thinking about the origin of species. These finches are believed to have descended from a single ancestral species that colonized the Galapagos archipelago, America, over a short period of time. The iffer in their beak shape feed on seeds that vary in size and hardness. 51 Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these patterns? 1.The finches represent an example of directional trend in beak size from small to big. 2. Beak shapes changed in response to different seed types and these changes were inherited by subsequent generations. 3. The ancestral finch already had all the beak variations and different lineages formed that were specialized to eat different seed types. 4, The finches represent an example of adaptive radiation in which beak variation was generated by mutation followed by selection by different seed types. ue feat & fac fe faa ar ww oa A gferatt At aedt ye chiar fatgat at arafta aac @, satrndiait 3 ov Seat A yar Rat aT vas it sorb TS are St aie flee ge ae & fae areters fran fe Phaet ehfeer fafgat A sete gin fae are amare fare) sate a seeht et wae feriaor Ta a: @ ow Yfete Pasar fares seer et are oT Gi) oo’ Gfeiar Fagan fares Test ara eT, Serr iB are 2 a a athe apt: eT aT OTT acer & fore fer Fee rar aT Ye Her ofl Fasat Fata feriaott Fr een A age eng wie FatRat 3 eer warara fear) site Afere Pe ert a a iat ped career weer gant afta ae arag ey 1 iS wed & aera a gain PAR & ferearest wr vente FFT 132.2. 132. 133. fafgat a wage dt ae ge wre ay yfeir Faget at waren ysrerent ar war aR fea | eAfela fatgat a arener & ot Reet ofr faa at oRafia ax Rar / cer fear ‘ehfeir fatsat yfeer fase ar weer arefate arc Tn order to demonstrate that the long tails of males attracted females in a bird species, experimenters captured and cut the tails of ‘nv’ number of males and monitored the number of females mated by each male, They had two types of controls in the experiment. (i ‘1? males that were not captured Gi)'n’ males that were captured, had their tails cut and then stitched back to attain the original size. ‘The males with cut tails mated with a significantly smaller number of females than both the controls. Which of the following alternative explanations is NOT ruled out by the experiment? The stress of cutting tails affected the performance of males. ‘The time wasted in the capture reduced ‘mating opportunities of males. Females avoided any deviation from normal. Females chose males randomly. eutaye tscieia\ Aronson Ber fee ge snfegecter gar A, een oragat Pra fate dena 52 waren ge oRadet A Wear & arora H ait 1 F 1 ge gar a fete fread area fae are 9: (A) Savoy anffrar (Archaca) &Y gore # sR (Eukarya), o face weafeat # (B) sfaroy site anfser va aet a, gat a fret war a abftar A quar a, we sift wart BL (© anffar site aster wagat a, sai waders oor. stay & arer ght 9G, arrahta et ae at sia fae Bi fer a a ata aetoet wer reat aerfar & 1. (A), @) ak © 2. (A) 3k (B) AT 3. (B) 3k (© aa 4. (A) 3k © aa 133, In the phylogenetic tree above, branch- Tengths are drawn proportional to the number of changes along a lineage. The following inferences were made from this tree, (A) Bacteria are more closely related to Eukarya than to Archaea, (B) Bacteria and Archaea are more similar to each other than either is to Eukarya, (C) Archaea and Eukarya diverged from each other after their common ancestor diverged from bacteria, 3AtWhich of the following represents a combination of correct inferences? 1. (A), (B) and (©) 2. (A) and (B) only 3. (B) and (C) only 4. (A) and (C) only Baggh & ctiget Apesg eter ar sett Sete HUH vara HA aE oT FM Ps agi at gira Peay cart aatha ae fan or Haran af aera ge VET fas, rma & oft Ges atte fre va & well ye FT weet erat urge aif tar austell Aa vet fr ae sit oie fay F awit et ae: art fee ge fawcct A a adh after ar weet afnfsre: wa tar aa ot sifear fasrey tae sider Ar areata axat 81 ua tar aye St se area ant shat Hitcaiea are & st areet atte sift fasnoy & ancien & fare afer wat sida ar faattor ave 81 3. we tar age ot mma MHC aT IL fae igen #1 wieafea ear b1 4. em tar aya ot se are amet fer & afteaftt arm & aft ga van Fr wife cag ster a faaior wech &, fel oad oak aieat faaoy aeacr & area te chet at at at ataanear ot ger fase A ach wea #1 aiteaar ar A ataar enor ae et I ‘8/46 BUM3-3AH—5 53 134. While attempting to create a disease model of poliomyelitis in mice, it was found that mice can not be infected with the said virus. Since human beings are susceptible to this viral infection, which kind of transgenic mice should be generated to have a transgenic mouse model that can be infected with polio virus? Select the right approach from below A mouse expressing surface protein of polio virus. 2. A mouse expressing human receptor gene which makes cell surface protein for docking and internalization of polio virus. 3. A mouse expressing human MHC invariant chain 4. A mouse expressing human receptor gene which makes cell surface protein for docking and internalization of polio virus along with a gene designed to express surface protein of this virus at puberty. 135, Wat Saw Wats A chasers Wot fafa sq 3 saat fear ora 2 sfageusr Hare #: (A) eet Treg afer wetter At ore TI (8) Hare ar eeratietor aes ET BI (©) Bifttes Sfetar earatierer Beast eat Bh (D) & Beiter gest # wars a ara arnt doe & fee eae fier or aaa BI Sita Afar fe sued wet wr PT HA Hara watoer wee? 1. A), (B) 3 © 2. (A), (C) 3H (D) 3. (A), (B) 3 (Dy 4, (B), (©) HE (D) lass I 135. Protoplast fusion is used in plant tissue culture tor various applications. In protoplast fusion: (A) naked plant cells are used. (B) transfer of organelles is not possible. (C)_ partial genome transfer is involved.(D) cells from two different plants can be mixed together and forced to fuse. Which one of the following combinations of the above statements is correct? 1, (A), (B) and ©) 2. (A), (C) and (D) 3. . (A), (B) and (D) 4.” (B), © and (D) 136. sft Afoe fae A A alee oer Sie garar ater gator atét & 7 1. Codeine ~ Papaver somniferum 2, Vinblastine - Catharanthus roseus 3. Quinine ~Cinchona ledgeriana 4, Digitalin—Artemisia annua 136. Which of the following is a mismatch between the plant drug and its source? 1, Codeine ~ Papaver somniferum 2. Vinblastine - Catharanthus roseus 3. Quinine — Cinchona ledgeriana 4, Digitalin— Artemisia annua . Siar Afr ft A a shea a ake cant wets sere & wae aT wet wr F autar F 2 54 137. Which of the following curves correctly represents the process of ethanol production by yeast? 3scte Rigel aa sewer aT Tet a waa whet awa Sere EF AT | Ofer ag weayaoft gear arerar Pater qe der ot) sha Are at & ag foal A a stew weet eo & fwrpat cust seq wer at & fae walt ate site Pact ee 1. after oxoieh ware ( wet sieq ) aT semet BT aART | 2. Ret faery daft Fart seams & fae eh Mat A aerate Fa BT Morr ( aT) GT TE wat & acer ate 3. Sat det & sama sienorret aaa ariect 4. Rat ora dala wae sectcer & Fare maga ear awa a WaT ae wear ASAT & aT ages138. Inbreeding for 5 generations led to production of homozygous transgenic. mice. However, these homozygous males or females were infertile. Which of the following approach is most preferable and economical to obtain heterozygous transgenic animals continuously? founder (1" animal) should 2. Crossing (breeding) of transgenic mice with ild type mice in earlier generations should be done for continued production of transgenic heterozygous offspring. Bunbreeding should be avoided after 3! generation. 4, Homozygous transgenic mice should be mated with wild type mice for continued production of transgenic heterozygous offspring. 139. Ted) & wetlerasaat A yaw a rae Go Hee fra & (A) Wie GRata & Ae eda waver grat 81 (B) wig Vater & fae sifeea arava Beat 2 © sitar Sagas a pe sede sawp gat e1 (D) @et, ae we wie oRai & fae SteAiferes seer sae eta 81 ta fare fas suatea weet ar Bret AT ala-ar qatar wer 8? a) ak © (B) atk () (A) 3i (D) @) ak © 55 139, Following are few statements for regeneration of plants from explants/tissues. (A) Cytokinin is required for shoot development. (B) Auxin is required for shoot development. (©) Auxin t0 cytokinin ratio is very important, (D) Jasmonic acid is required for both root and shoot development. Which of the following combinations of above statements is true? 1 (A) and (C) 2. (B) and (D) 3. (A)and(D) 4. (B) and (C) 140, aamraerr awa a a ACERT wT aT wagt & Renika Pear gare) wR & sawggat at Grit ofaoer & are al SST reat] WE 2 KL BT ‘Yaa fer mem HAE 3} aargaet @t aeafe KLH & arr tsa fear aren, ‘af grat eet ar aa wag 4 aawapat at KL favor rar, emgaedteper for aren, afer KLH- fafitee cpa’ r aires & rer Qe daft Bran aan ger wh oat et sigat wet aed oe, KL & arr fateh feaf a war mer atk via KLHIgG ofARis ar ara aeat a Pa am aia ioe fH fer A a steer areater than, > = greater than or equal to}, 1. Group 1 > Group 2> Group 3 > Group 4 2. Group 2 > Group 1 > Group 3 > Group 4140. 141. 141. 3. Group 2> Group 3 > Group 1 > Group 4 4, Group 4> Group 1 > Group 22 Group 3 A set of neonatal mice are divided into four groups. Group 1 neonates were not primed with any antigen. Group 2 neonates were primed with KLH. Group 3 neonates were primed with KLH but thymectomized. Group 4 neonates were KLH-primed, thymectomized, but reconstituted with KLH- specific CD4°T cells. All these mice, when grown adult, were challenged with KLH and the anti-KLH IgG antibody was measured in sera. Which of the following is the correct, order of magnitude of antibody response? [= greater than, z= greater than or equal to] Group 1 > Group 2> Group 3 > Group 4 Group 2> Group 1> Group 3 > Group 4 Group 2 > Group 3 > Group 1 > Group 4 Group 4> Group 1 > Group 2 Group 3 Hare Her separ carats oe aren we wept ster afatsen A wesnsit & ae sepa ar aa Arise 8 wat U featoroadat TRH ‘BrATOT> se DATA STAT sRecquiaercrsshade H regiaar 2 va v Pondorsgerarea Prater Sara asst eer Saar octade & segiaaer 2 va U fretvisada> aaRaH GUTS FEAHTOT ATA SHeHAT DASA HATTA ECT LTD shade A weqfernor owe U frentoroapge sett Dora Parr aa HET Saar ascites eer shares 3 wear appr Choose the correct sequence of events in a next generation sequencing technology-based whole genome sequencing project. L.DNA extraction ~> shearing —» library preparation —> sequencing —»assembly —> finishing — annotation —> submission to Genbank, 2. DNA extraction —> library preparation —> Jing —> assembly — annotation —> jing ~> submission to Genbank. 3.DNAcexiraction — shearing —» adapter ligation —> library amplification > sequencing — assembly — finishing —» annotation — submission to Genbank. 4,DNA extraction —> adapter ligation > library amplification —> shearing ~» sequencing — finishing —> assembly > annotation —> submi n to Genbank. waa fare aeaaar a fare are derath & fare wa ae me AY ator Ar S atte me aides stgtere eke weagl Hr Tea aT Tat oT] se SINT RA era vias at soereer argh et war, afer vie Grpsfafis wet. et arm) sft Aire fF Rar A a wae Alet waite unread: dead ff ogare avin 1. GRP. argh soar ster SY wa afer ver a seater 1 ordt & aie gear LC-MS/MS @anr feeetaor rar sar F 2. GEP-amet Borat siete AT war aAIART var A ateater fy oret @ sik GrP & fae wanes aftenit at stent at aft at ait war SifereRrTTATGS Ste oe wareM ara] 3. GEP-aét Welt #1 Wah WemgeT (ELISA) ugh oe area ape fie seaT wict-GFP sfaftis a rer verger fare war | 4. mg et GFP AY we Garaet wider wo a gota fear war aie safer aiftenit a after = fear aayfe-cre Watts & arr sfcraf- yaaa afta et LC-MS/MS @aRT Faeroe Fear aT! 142. An investigator discovers a new receptor for ‘a known ligand and wanted to identify the binding partner of the receptor i.e. its co- receptor. The antireceptor antibody is not available but anti GFP-antibody is available. Which one of the following strategies is most likely to identify the co-receptor? 1. The GFP-receptor fusion protein is expressed in a cell line and analyzed by LC-MS/MS. 2. The GFP-receptor fusion protein is expressed ina cell line and the cells positive for GFP were sorted out, lysed and run on a polyacrylamide gel. 3.The GFP-receptor protein is coated on ELISA plate, followed by ELISA with anti- GEP antibody. 4,The receptor is cloned as a fusion protein of GFP and expressed in stimulated cells. ‘The immuno-precipitated complex obtained by anti-GFP antibody was analyzed by LC- MS/MS. 143, ant a ta aa eat A Bent aii at fete t gr sag a arrancer Paar ate fear ara 8: Lowa egy at dita Afar PR ag sina F fae aan ager ar gat Ar Sagat we aS vara ygat 8, ara feet AS aha wife faedaor aafatt ae 2 1. thereat fr gpa & fare ¢ oer at aagt cm wrenfsanaiter Gra ST 3. ame ait sted ga Serge ar ened rawr 4. yer Senda ar aeaTeT oe aACHTOT 143, The frequency distribution of tree heights in two forest areas with different annual rainfall are given t i i iM. henna Which of the following statistical analysis will you choose to test whether rainfall has an effect on tree heights? 1 test for comparison of means. 2A non-parametric comparison of the two groups: 3. Correlation analysis of rainfall and mean tree heights. 4. Regression of tree heights on rainfall. 144, Peet ser H cach A at Hfeat Fr 32 wake A aia Ht mit of 1 a soaetrt & fae ated ae FATT war 162 3k 48 aa ofr 2 a fae 3.6 st 3.2 ot ga east & gant ga aaet A dat onfeath & frawr & deat A ea A A Pet eer ar water Bla 8? dat saftrat arefire eo & faafta & 2. we 1 at arefite wr @ Paka & safe onfe 2 as ae 3. ot 1 gs at aafe orf 2 at ureters ao & Pata & 4. dat anftai gis 4 Rafts & 144, Two species of plants were sampled in 32 quadrats in a forest. The mean and variance for the occurrence of species 1 were 16.2 and48 and species 2 were 3.6 and 3.2 Tespectively. Which of the following statements about the distribution of the two species in these quadrats is supported by these findings? 1, Both species are distributed randomly. 2.Species | is distributed randomly and species 2is clustered. 3.Species 1 is clustered and species 2 is distributed randomly, 4.Both species are clustered. 145, faces & Rafe a arene oe GiefL~ arnt yxagsch, paar ste arelirar gefeet eect F ewe wer oar F | ge cifeteergs & a-dactt, paar ait ares sia deat tar sraftee arignttren ayer ware: 220 nim ((G]20) FE -35,700, -13,800 34 43,900 deg cm’dmot" &1 ag uiferdeergs pH 10.8 sit 25°C oe agpscht ieaor a ferent Warf | aR at Hart & a srarensit cgedt atte arefte dedt gear a ta Racer ear 81 ae ora arene Pe 6M afar & safteta a steecss FT [Ghz2 -14800 deg cm'dmot" Brat @L Fa aietcerss ahs eo a wet & 137 2.41 3. 47 4, 50 145, Poly-L-lysine exists in pute o-helix, ‘P-sheet and random coiled conformations depending upon the solvent conditions. The values of ‘mean residue ellipticity at 220 nm ([@}z20) are ~35,700, -13,800 and +3,900 deg cm‘dmol" for achelix, B-sheet and random coil conformations of ‘this__ polypeptide, respectively. The polypeptide exists in a~ helix conformation at pH“10.8 and 25°C, 58 Addition of urea leads to a two. state transition between a-helix and random coil conformation, It has been observed that [Olz2 of the polypeptide is -14800 deg em*dmof" in the presence of 6M urea, ‘The Percentage of the polypeptide in a-helix conformation is 1.37 241 3.47 4, 50