Professional Documents
Culture Documents
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Dedicated to
The undergraduate engineering
students who initiated us to
evolve a sedative method of
teaching suited for them
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PREFACE
viii
The authors hopefully believe that this
book may to some extent help students taking
N.I.T. (National Institute of Technology)
Entrance Examination and also the Entrance
Examination for central quota of medical seats
in state owned medical institutions.
Dr. S.O. Pillai
CONTENTS
1.2
1.3
1.4
HEAT
Measurement 1
Problems and Solutions 4
Answers to Objective Questions 6
Simple Harmonic Motion 6
Problems and Solutions 12
Answers to Objective Questions 22
Moment of Inertia, Surface Tension
and Viscosity 22
Problems and Solutions 29
Answers to Objective Questions 42
Kinetic Theory of Gases and
Acoustics 42
Problems and Solutions 54
Answers to Objective Questions 67
AND
THERMODYNAMICS
68
AND
SPECTRA 90
MAGNETISM
137
ix
CONTENTS
ELECTROSTATICS
156
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
182
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
212
THERMAL
AND
CHEMICAL EFFECTS
220
ATOMIC PHYSICS
9.1
9.2
9.3
231
10 RADIOACTIVITY
REACTIONS
AND
NUCLEAR
286
300
xi
CONTENTS
11.2
11.3
11.4
11.5
11.6
11.7
APPENDICES
A.1
A.2
A.3
A.4
376
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CHAPTER
MEASUREMENT;
SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION;
MOMENT OF INERTIA, SURFACE
TENSION;
KINETIC THEORY OF GASES AND
ACOUSTICS
1.1 MEASUREMENT
1. If the wavelength of the green line of the
visible spectrum is 546 nm, its value in
metre is
(a) 546 1010
(b) 546 1019
(c) 54.6 108
(d) 54.6 109.
2. The speed of light (c), Plancks constant
(h) and gravitational constant (G) are
taken as the fundamental units in a
system. The dimensions of time in this
system are
(a) h3/2 G2 C1/2
(b) G3/2 h1/3 C
(c) C2 h G2
(d) h1/2 G1/2 C5/2.
3. Which one of the following has not been
expressed in proper units?
(a) momentum kg m s1
(b) power kg m2 s3
(c) power kg m2 s1
(d) pressure kg m2 s2.
1
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
MEASUREMENT
1
factor
8
(d) remains unchanged.
The time dependence of a physical
quantity L is given by L = L0 exp( t2),
where is a constant and t is the time.
The constant
(a) has the dimension of L
(b) has the dimension T2
(c) is dimensionless
(d) has the dimension of T2.
Which of the following is the smallest one
in magnitude?
(a) one metre
(b) one millimetre
(c) one fermi
(d) one angstron unit.
One torr is
(a) 1 m of Hg
(b) 1 atmosphere
(c) 1 mm of Hg
(d) 1 cm of Hg.
Joule degree1 is the unit for
(a) solar constant
(b) Boltzmanns constant
(c) Stefans constant
(d) Plancks constant.
The unit of thermal conductivity is
(a) J1 m1 s1 K2
(b) J m s K1
(c) J2 m s K1
(d) J m1 s1 K1.
The unit of magnetic field is
(a) weber/m2
(b) weber m
(c) m2/weber
(d) weber2/m2.
(c) is reduced by
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Force
MLT 2
=
Area
L2
= ML1T2
Ans.
R.H.S. =
1 (It) 2 T
M
L3
MEASUREMENT
= M1L3A2T2 T
= M1L3T3A2
This is the dimension of , electrical
conductivity.
3. Get the dimensional formula for coefficient of thermal conductivity.
Solution:
Let us consider a copper rod of uniform
cross-section say A sq. m. In the steady
state, the quantity of heat conducted is
proportional to
1. the area of cross-section
2. time of flow
3. temperature gradient
Q At
i.e.,
( 1 2 )
d
( 1 2 )
d
with as the coefficient of thermal conductivity.
Thus
Q = At
or
Q
J
=
( 1 2 )
2 K
At
m s
d
m
J m 1K 1
= W m1 K1
s
...(1)
Ans.
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(c)
(b)
(b)
(b)
2.
6.
10.
14.
(d)
(a)
(b)
(d)
3. (d)
7. (c)
11. (c)
15. (a)
4. (c)
8. (b)
12. (c)
16. (a)
(b)
.
60
7. A body executing S.H.M. will have
(a) maximum velocity when its displacement is zero
(b) no correlation between its displacement and velocity
(c) zero velocity when its displacement is
zero
(d) all the above are true.
8. The period of a satellite in a circular orbit near a planet is independent of
(a) the mass of the planet
(b) the radius of the planet
(c) the mass of the satellite
(d) all are true.
9. A body of mass M is suspended from a
rubber cord with force constant f. The
maximum distance over which the body
can be pulled down for the bodys oscillations to remain harmonic is
(c) 30
(d)
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
f
2f
(b)
Mg
Mg
( Mg ) 2
f2
(c)
(d)
.
f
M
Lissajous figures are obtained whenever
a particle is subjected to two simple harmonic motions simultaneously
(a) along the same straight line
(b) at right angles to each other
(c) at any angle to each other
3
to each other.
(d) at an angle of
4
Lissajous figures are useful in comparing
(a) intensity
(b) frequency
(c) loudness
(d) quality.
If the length of a simple pendulum is increased by 2%, then the time period
(a) decreases by 2%
(b) increases by 1%
(c) decreases by 1%
(d) increases by 2%.
In the case of damped motion the forces
acted upon the particles are
(a) restoring force
(b) frictional force
(c) the external periodic force
(d) both restoring force and frictional
force.
Hookes laws give us a relation between
(a) stress and strain
(b) Poissons ratio
(c) potential energy and height
(d) velocity and mass.
The geometrical moment of inertia of a
rectangular beam of breadth 2 cm and
thickness 1 cm is
(a)
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
1
1
(b)
10
6
1
(c)
(d) 12.
12
16. Relation between Youngs modulus Y and
bulk modulus k and the Poissons ratio
is
(a) Y = 3k(1 + 2)
(b) k = Y(1 + 2)
(c) Y = 3k(1 2)
(d) k = 3Y(1 2).
17. Quartz and phosphor bronze are used for
the suspension wires of galvanometers
because they
(a) are highly plastic
(b) are highly elastic
(c) have negligible elastic after effect
(d) have high elastic after effect.
18. The relation for the twisting couple in an
elastic material is
(a)
(a)
nr 4
2l
(b)
nr 4
l
.
n
nr
19. Four wires of the same material are
stretched by the same load. Their dimensions are given below. Which of them will
elongates most?
(a) diameter 2 103 m and length 1.5 m
(b) diameter 1 103 m and length 2 m
(c) diameter 2 103 m and length 2 m
(d) diameter 0.8 103 m and length 4 m.
20. The work done in deforming unit volume
of a body is
(a) stress strain
(b) stress strain
(c)
(d)
10
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
1
stress strain
2
(d) stress/strain.
Shearing strain is possible only in
(a) solids
(b) liquids
(c) both solids and liquids
(d) gases.
Poissons ratio is the ratio between
(a) rigidity modulus and Youngs
modulus
(b) Youngs modulus and bulk modulus
(c) Youngs modulus and modulus of
rigidity
(d) lateral strain and modulus of rigidity.
The Youngs modulus of rubber is
(a) zero
(b) 100 N/m2
(c) less than that for steel
(d) greater than that for steel.
For all materials the frictional force is
always
(a) perpendicular to the direction of
motion
(b) along the direction of motion
(c) opposite to the direction of motion
(d) none of these.
If F and R are the limiting force and normal reaction, then coefficient of static
friction is
(c)
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
F
R
(b)
R
F
(c) FR
(d) F 2R.
26. For all materials the coefficient of friction
is always
(a) less than one
(b) greater than one
(a)
11
27.
28.
29.
30.
3
7
(c) 0.3
(a)
7
3
(d) 0.7.
(b)
12
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
1.57 2 a
=
=
1
a
or
T=
2
2
=
=4
1.57
T = 4 sec.
Ans.
13
y = A sin t
and
y = A sin (t + ),
where is the phase difference between
A
the two motions. Setting y =
in the
2
A
first case we get
= A sin t or sin t
2
1
A
= . Now setting y =
in the second
2
2
1
A
case
= A sin (t + ) or sin (t + ) =
2
2
1
i.e., sin t cos + cos t sin =
2
1 sin 2 t sin =
or sin t cos +
sin sin t =
1
cos +
2
F
GH
1
2
1
, we get
2
1
4
I sin = 1
JK
2
3
1
sin =
4
2
1
cos +
2
cos +
3 sin = 1
(1 cos ) = ( 3 ) sin
Squaring
1 + cos2 2 cos = 3 sin2
or
1 + cos2 2 cos = 3 (1 cos2 )
4 cos2 2 cos = 2
or
2 cos2 cos 1 = 0
cos =
1 1 4 2( 1)
1 3
=
4
22
1
or 1
2
14
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
1
is possible or = 120
2
Thus the required phase difference
between the particles = 120. Ans.
3. In the figure a combination of two springs
of force constants F1 and F2 are given: Get
the time period of oscillation.
cos =
F1
F2
Solution:
In this arrangement, if the mass is displaced up or down by x, the restoring
forces are
f1 = F1x and f2 = F2x
f = F1x F2x
d2 x
+ (F1 + F2) x = 0
dt 2
So, the time period is
or
T = 2
LM
MN
m
( F1 + F2 )
OP
PQ
Ans.
15
Solution:
Displacement
x = 10t2 5t
dx
= 20t 5
Thus
velocity v =
dt
At t = 0; v = 20 0 5 = 5 cm/s
This initial velocity of 5 cm/s is directed
to the left.
dv
Now
acceleration
= a = 20 cm/s2
dt
Initially the particle is moving to the left
and acceleration is to the right. Hence,
the particle will come to rest momentarily at a distance s to the left of the origin
such that,
v2 = u2 + 2as
0 = ( 5)2 + 2 20 s
0 = 25 + 40 s
25
s=
= 0.63 cm
40
s = 0.63 cm
Ans.
2
a = 2va
T
= 2 300 0.1
v=
v = 60 cm/s
Ans.
16
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
a 2 y2
Thus 1000 = a 2 0 = a
and
500 = a 2 y 2
2
=
1
a
2
a y2
a2
a y2
4a2 4y2 = a2
4=
4y2 = 3a2; y2 =
y=
3a
=
2
3 2
a
4
3 10
= 5( 3 ) cm
2
y = 5 ( 3 ) cm
Ans.
1
Stress Strain
2
or Stress Strain = 2 Work done
Volume of the wire
Mass
21 10 3
=
=A3
=
Density
8.8 10 3
Work done =
17
21 10 3
8.8 3 10 3
= 0.79 106 m2
Youngs modulus,
Y=
=
F
l
A
x
5 9.8 3
0.79 10 6 2.4 10 3
Ans.
1
Stress Strain
2
1
5 9.8
2 0.79 10 6
LM
N
OP F 2.4 10 I
Q GH 3 JK
3
= 10.3 103 J
Hence, total energy
= 10.3 103 Volume
=
10.3 10 3 5
J
8.8 10 3
E = 5.85 J Ans.
8. On taking a solid ball of rubber from the
surface to the bottom of a lake of depth
100 m, the volume of the ball is reduced
by 0.2%. If the density of the lake water is
1 103 kg/m3, find the bulk modulus of
rubber ball taking g = 9.8 m/s2.
Solution:
Change in pressure of ball
= hg
18
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
v
= 0.2%
V
0.2
= 0.2 102
100
Thus bulk modulus,
=
k=
9.8 10 5
= 4.4 107
0.2 10 2
Ans.
i.e.,
T2
=
T1
T2
T1 =
I
C1
and
I
C2
C1
C2
nr 4 2(2l)
=
2l
nr 4
T2 = 4
or T2 =
2 (T1)
2 = 5.566 sec.
T2 = 5.566 sec
Ans.
19
D
respectively. If the wires are
2
stretched by same force, then find the
relation between their elongations.
Solution:
D and
FL
Y=
x1
F 2L
i.e.,
FG D IJ
H 2K
FG D IJ
H 2 2K
x2
4
2 16 x2
=
;
=8
x1
x2
x1
x2 = 8x1
Ans.
=
A1
x1
A2 x2
x2
A1
r 2
=
=
=4
x1
A2
( r / 2) 2
x2 = x1 4 = 4 3 1013
x2 = 12 103 m Ans.
12. A lady wearing high heel shoes balances
on a single heel. The heel is circular with
a diameter 0.8 cm. The pressure exerted
by the heel on the horizontal floor is
20
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
mg
r 2
( P r 2 )
g
7.8 10 6 (0.004 2 )
9.8
m = 40 kg Ans.
13. Compute the bulk modulus of water from
the following data. Initial volume = 100
litre. Increase in pressure = 100 atmos.
Final volume = 99.5 litre. (1 atmos = 1.013
105 Pa).
Solution:
V1 = 100 litre, V2 = 99.5 litre
V1 = 100 103 = 101 m3
dV = V1 ~ V2 = 0.5 litre
= 0.5 103 m3 = 5 104 m3
dP = 100 atoms
= 100 1.013 105
= 1.013 107 Pa
B=
1.013 107 10 1
dP V
=
dV
5 10 4
= 2.026 109 Pa
2.026 109 Pa Ans.
14. A block of iron weighing 28 kg can be just
pulled along a horizontal surface by a
horizontal force of 12 kg. Find the coefficient of friction and angle of friction.
21
Solution:
Coefficient of friction
P 12
= 0.4285
=
W 28
The angle of friction is given by
tan = = 0.4285
= tan1 (0.4285)
= 23.2
=
= 23.2
Ans.
LM 1 0.2 3 OP
2 PQ
MN 2
Ans.
22
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
1
=8N
2
= tan = tan 30 =
1
3
= 0.5773
P
= , where P = Force required to just
W
move the body along the horizontal plane.
P = 9.23 kg
Ans.
(c)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(c)
2.
6.
10.
14.
18.
22.
26.
30.
(a)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(a)
3. (c)
7. (a)
11. (b)
15. (b)
19. (d)
23. (c)
27. (d)
4. (b)
8. (c)
12. (b)
16. (c)
20. (c)
24. (c)
28. (c)
MOMENT OF INERTIA...
23
24
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
FG 2 IJ R
H 5K
F 2I
(c) G 5 J R
H K
(a)
FG 7 IJ R
H 5K
F 7I
(d) G 5 J (R).
H K
(b)
25
MOMENT OF INERTIA...
12.
13.
14.
15.
(a) 8r2S
(b) 24r2S
2
(c) 64r S
(c) 12r2S.
The excess of pressure inside a bubble is
r
3T
(a) p =
(b) p =
T
r
T
(c) p =
(d) none of these
r
where T is the surface tension.
With rise of temperature which of the
following forces can increase
(a) elastic force
(b) frictional force
(c) force due to surface tension
(d) viscous force.
What is surface tension of boiling water?
(a) zero
(b) 100 times that at 27C
(c) infinity
(d) half of its value at room temperature.
To measure the surface tension of water
by capillary rise method, the following
formula is used
FG
H
rg h +
T=
r
3
IJ
K
2
The second term on the R.H.S. of this
equation within brackets is a correction
term for taking into account the
(a) exact value of angle of contact
(b) viscous property of water
(c) vapour pressure
(d) spherical shape of the surface.
16. Liquid drops always occupy minimum
surface area on account of
(a) viscosity
(b) surface tension
26
17.
18.
19.
20.
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
27
MOMENT OF INERTIA...
(d) r.
r2
22. The surface tension of water is 72
dyne/cm. This is equal to
(a) 17 N/m
(b) 7 102 N/m
(c) 105 N/m
(d) 72 103 N/m.
23. If A is the area of a layer of a fluid and
dV
is the velocity gradient, then the tandx
gential viscous force F is
(a)
FG dV IJ
H dx K
(b) A (dV/dx)
A
(d) (dV/dx).
(dV / dx)
where is the coefficient of viscosity.
24. In a human body the blood pressure is
the greatest at
(a) brain
(b) hands
(c) Abdomen
(d) feet.
25. The value of Reynolds number signifies
(a) whether the flow is stream lined or
turbulent
(b) high surface tension of the liquid
(c) whether the flow is vertical or horizontal
(d) all the above.
26. The unit of coefficient of viscosity is
(a) Nm2
(b) Nm2/s
(c)
(c)
1
Nm 2
(d) Ns/m2.
28
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
r 2
(b)
r 2
.
(d)
29
MOMENT OF INERTIA...
FG IJ
H K
1
V2
=
2
V1
(c) 1 = V1 V2
2
(b)
FG IJ
H K
FV I
=G J
HV K
V
1
= 1
V2
2
(d) 1
2
30
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Solution:
1
1
I2 +
mv2
2
2
Total energy =
FG 2 IJ MR and = v
H 5K
R
1 F 2I
Mv
T.E. =
MR +
G
J
H
K
2 5
2
With
I=
1
v2
Mv2
MR2 2 +
5
2
R
7
Mv2
1
Mv2 +
=
Mv2
10
2
5
7
(0.05) (0.05)2 J
10
Ans.
LM ML
N 12
OP
Q
+ 2mr 2 1
LM ML + 2mFG L IJ OP
H 2 K PQ
MN 12
L 0.75 (0.4 ) + 2 1 (0.1) OP 30
=M
N 12
Q
=
31
MOMENT OF INERTIA...
2 = 10 rad/s Ans.
3. Two masses of 1 kg and 4 kg are moving
with equal K.E. The ratio of their linear
momentum may be obtained.
Solution:
1
1
m1v12 =
mv2
2 2 2
2
(m1v1 ) 2
(m2 v2 ) 2
=
m1
m2
1/ 2
m1v1
m1
1
=
=
m2 v2
m2
4
FG IJ
H K
m1v1 : m2v2 = 1 : 2
FG IJ
H K
1/ 2
1
2
Ans.
4. What will be the total energy of an artificial satellite circling round the earth in
an orbit of radius R?
Solution:
mv2 GMm
=
R
R2
1 GMm
1
mv2 =
R
2
2
Again, potential energy at distance R
from the centre of the earth is
1 GMm
GMm
P.E. = 2
=
R
2
R
Therefore, total energy
K.E. + P.E. =
GMm
1 GMm
R
R
2
E=
GMm
2R
Ans.
32
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
1
I2
2
Hence,
E1 =
1 2
I 1
2
and
E2 =
1 2 2 I 21
I 2 =
2
2
E2
I 21
=
=2
E1 (1/ 2 I 21 )
E2
=2
E1
Ans.
72 (0.5 2 )
MR 2
=
2
2
M.I = 9 kg m2
Ans.
1
I2
2
7
70
where = 2 with =
=
sec1
6
60
1
9 ( 2 7 / 6) 2
Thus
I2 =
2
2
(b) K.E. of rotation =
= 242 joule
Ans.
33
MOMENT OF INERTIA...
Centripetal force
mv =
I
r
F=
m 2 v2
I2
= 2
mr
r mr
I2
mr 3
Ans.
4
(0.5 106)3
3
Hence, radius of the bigger drop R is
given by
= 1000
4
4
R3 =
1000 (0.5 106)3
3
3
R = 10 0.5 106 = 5 106 m
Surface area of 1000 drops
= 1000 4 (0.5 106)2
Surface area of the bigger drop
= 4(5 106)2
34
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Ans.
Vsds g = (KVs) dl g
K=
ds
717
=
= 0.177
dl 1000
K = 0.177 Ans.
10. A film of water is formed between two
straight parallel wires each 10 cm long
and at separation 0.5 cm. Calculate the
work required to increase 1 mm distance
between the wires. Surface tension of
water is 72 103 N/m.
Solution:
Initial surface area
= 2 length separation
= 2 10 0.5 cm = 10 104 m2
Final surface area
2 10 (0.5 + 0.01)
= 12 cm2 = 12 104 m2
MOMENT OF INERTIA...
35
hrg
2 cos
S1 =
S2 =
1.4 r 13600 g
2 cos 130
4 r 1000 g
2 cos 0
S1
1.4 13600 2
=
S2
2 4 1000 cos 130
1.4 13.6
= 7.4
4 cos 130
S1
= 7.4 Ans.
S2
12. The capillary rise of water in a tube of
radius r1 is h1. If the radius is doubled,
find the relation between h1 and h2.
Solution:
h1gr1
h2gr2
T=
=
with r2 = 2r1
2
2
Thus h1r1 = h22r1
2r
h1
= 1 =2
h2
r1
36
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
h2 =
h1
= 0.5 h1
2
Ans.
Similarly
h1r1g
2
h1 =
2T
r1g
h2 =
2T
r2 g
(h1 h2) =
i.e., 1.25 102 =
2T
g
LM 1 1 OP
Nr r Q
1
2 49 10 3
9.8
LM 1
N 0.05 10
1
0.1 10
OP
Q
1.25 102 =
98 10
9.8
1.25 102 =
9.8 10 2 1000 10
=
9.8
[2000 1000]
37
MOMENT OF INERTIA...
10
1.25 10 2
= 800 kg/m3
10 3
= 800 kg/m3
1.25
Ans.
FG IJ
H K
v=
2r 2 g (d )
9
v=
38
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
FG IJ
H K
F I
=v Gr J
Hr K
F 1I
= 8 G J
H 2K
2
v2
r
= 2
r1
v1
v2
=8
v2
FG 0.2 IJ
H 0.4 K
=8
1
4
v2 = 2 cm/s Ans.
16. Water is flowing with a velocity of 2 m/s
in a horizontal pipe with cross-sectional
area decreasing from 2 102 m2 to
0.01 m2 at pressure 4 104 pascal.
Calculate pressure at smaller crosssection.
Solution:
The well known equation is
v1 A2
=
v2 A1
2 2 10 2
A1
=
A2
0.01
v2 = 4 m/s
v2 = v1
Now
P1 +
v12
v 2
= P2 + 2
2
2
39
MOMENT OF INERTIA...
10 3 4
10 3 16
= P2 +
2
2
4 104 + 2 103 = P2 + 8 103
P2 = 40 103 + 2 103 8 103
= 103(40 + 2 8)
= 34 103 pascal
4 104 +
34 103 pascal
Ans.
Pa4 = constant
P1a14 = P2a24
P2
=
P1
i.e.,
Pa4
= constant
8 l
FG a IJ
Ha K
FG IJ
H K
a1
P2
P P1
1= 2
=
a2
P1
P1
LMF a I OP
MNGH a JK 1PQ 100
LF 10 I O
= MG J 1P 100 = 52%
MNH 9 K PQ
4
( P2 P1 )
100 =
P1
52% Ans.
40
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Pr 4
8l
(V/t) =
P=
8 l (V / t )
r 4
V/t = 10 l/s
= 104 cm3/sec = 102 m3/s
r = 5 cm = 5 102 m
l = 1 km = 103 m, = 0.001 Ns/m2
P = 8 103 0.0001/ (5 102)4
Ans.
t=
V
Pr 4
hgr 4
=
=
t
8 l
8 l
8l V
hdgr
8 15 2 4000
3.14 6 1 980
= 52 sec
t = 52 sec
Ans.
41
MOMENT OF INERTIA...
FG x IJ
H 2K
x
2
[ x + ( x / 2)] 3 x
=
2
4
V
Pr 4
hgr 4
=
=
t
8 l
8 l
t=
8lV
F 3x I
G J dgr
H4K
8 16 10 2 0.0012
(7 10 2 ) 2 ( x / 2)
=
(3 x / 4) 800 9.8 (4 10 4 ) 4
= 2.5 104 sec
t = 2.5 104 sec
Ans.
42
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(c)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(a)
2.
6.
10.
14.
18.
22.
26.
30.
34.
(d)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(a)
3. (d)
7. (a)
11. (c)
15. (d)
19. (c)
23. (b)
27. (a)
31. (d)
35. (a).
4. (a)
8. (d)
12. (d)
16. (b)
20. (d)
24. (c)
28. (d)
32. (b)
2
1
(a)
C1
= (12)2
C2
(b)
(c)
C1 2
=
C2 1
(d) C1 = 2C2.
FG IJ
H K
2E 1
3 V
(b) P =
3
2E
E2 V
2V
(d) P = 2 .
2
E
3. The root mean square velocity of an ideal
gas at constant pressure varies with
density as
(a) 2
(b)
(c) P =
(c)
(d)
43
P0
2
(b)
2
P0
(c) 2P0
(d) P02.
5. The mass of oxygen molecule is 16 times
the mass of hydrogen molecule. At room
temperature the r.m.s. speed of oxygen
molecule is v, then r.m.s speed of hydrogen molecule at the same temperature
will be
v
(b) v
16
(c) 16 v
(d) 4 v.
6. The temperature of an ideal gas is increased from 120 K to 480 K. If at 120 K
the root mean square velocity of the gas
molecules is v, at 480 K it becomes.
(a) 4v
(b) 2v
(a)
v
v
(d) .
2
4
7. What will be the ratio of the average K.E.
of molecules of a gas when temperature
is raised from 27C to 177C?
(a) 3 : 2
(b) 4 : 3
(c) 2 : 3
(d) 1 : 7.
8. Consider a gas with density d and root
mean ( c ) square velocity of the molecules
contained in a volume. If the system
moves as a whole with a velocity v, then
the pressure exerted by the gas is
1
1
d c2
(a)
(b) d( c + v)2
3
3
1
3
(c) d( c v)2
(d)
.
3
d c2
(c)
44
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
kBT
2
(b) kBT
3
k T
k T
(d) B .
2 B
5
14. The graph below shows the potential
energy between two atoms in a diatomic
molecule as a function of the distance r
between the atoms.
(c)
Ep
45
B
D
C
46
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
54
4
(c) 3.5
(b)
54
2
(d) 3 2 .
23. The frequency of the note produced by
plucking a given string increases as
(a) the length of the string increases
(b) the tension in the string increases
(c) the tension in the string decreases
(d) the mass per unit length of the string
increases.
47
FG IJ
H 3K
1/ 2
v
is
c
(b)
(c) ( 3 )
(d) .
29. A body is vibrating 3000 times in half a
minute. If the velocity of sound in air is
350 m/s, the wavelength of the wave
produced is
48
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(a) 3.5 m
(b) 35 m
(c) 350 m
(d) 3500 m.
30. Transverse wave can travel
(a) both in gas and metal
(b) in a gas but not in metal
(c) neither in gas nor in metal
(d) not in gas but in metal.
31. If at same temperature and pressure the
densities for two diatomic gases are
respectively 1 and 2, then the ratio of
velocity of sound in these gases will be
(v1/v2)
2
1
(a)
1 2
(b)
(c)
1
2
(d) 1 2.
49
V
is
Vrms
(b) 1 : 3
(c) 1 : 3
(d) 1 : 2 .
38. We know the frequency of the note
produced by plucking a string
transversely increases as
(a) the length of the string increases
(b) the tension in the string increases
(c) the tension in the string decreases
(d) the mass per unit length of the string
increases.
39. Ultrasonic probes can be used on different parts of human body for longer duration for diagonsis unlike X-rays, because
(a) the frequency of ultrasonic waves is
much lower with that of X-rays
(b) the frequency of ultrasonic waves is
much higher with that of X-rays
(c) they are also electromagnetic waves
(d) they are colourless radiation.
50
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
40. If the pressure amplitude of sound is tripled, then by what factor the intensity of
sound wave increases
(a)
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 9.
41. Why does sound wave travel faster on a
rainy day?
(a) air becomes drier
(b) the speed is independent of pressure
(c) density of moisture is less than that
of dry air
(d) density of moisture is much greater
than that of dry air.
42. In the case of closed pipe, the fundamental frequency 1 is given by
V
4l
(a) 1 =
(b) 1 =
4l
V
h
V
(c) 1 =
(d) 1 =
.
V
2l
43. If the wavelength of a sound wave in a
medium is reduced by 50%, then the percentage change in frequency is
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 75%
(d) 100%.
44. A tuning fork when sounded with a
frequency 256 Hz gave 4 beats/sec. When
a small bit of wax was attached to a
prong of the fork of unknown frequency,
3 beats/sec were produced. The frequency
of the unknown fork is
(a) 260
(b) 252
(c) 8
(d) 16.
45. Two tuning forks have frequencies
450 Hz and 454 Hz respectively. On
sounding these forks together, the time
interval between successive maximum
intensities will be
(a) 1 sec
47.
48.
49.
1
sec
2
1
sec
(d) 100 sec.
4
When stationary waves are produced,
which physical characteristic, density or
pressure will change at antinodes
(a) pressure
(b) density
(c) pressure as well as density
(d) no change of pressure or density.
Reverberation of sound in a hall results
due to its continued
(a) reflection of sound
(b) diffraction of sound
(c) interference of sound
(d) absorption of sound.
In stationary sound wave produced in air
(a) all the air particles are stationary
(b) air particles do not execute periodic
motion
(c) each particle executes simple
harmonic vibration with the same
amplitude
(d) amplitude of vibration is maximum at
some points and minimum at some
other places.
The walls of a hall built for music concert
should
(a) amplify sound
(b) reflect sound
(c) transmit sound
(d) absorb sound.
(c)
46.
(b)
51
52
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
0.165 V
0.21 aS
(b) t =
aS
V
V
0.165 aS
(c) t =
(d) t =
.
aS
2
A note emitted by a plucked string is
more pleasing if it is plucked,
(a) near one end
(b) in the middle
(c) at a fixed point
(d) none of these.
In stationary waves, all points between
two nodes are
(a) in the same phase
(b) out of phase
(c) in different phases
(d) none of these.
Ultrasonic waves have frequencies
(a) below 20 Hz
(b) above 20 Hz but below 20 kHz
(c) above 20 kHz
(d) below infrasonics.
The intensity of sound
(a) is directly proportional to square of
frequency
(b) is inversely proportional to density of
medium
(c) does not depend on speed of sound in
the medium
(d) is inversely proportional to frequency
of sound.
The intensity of sound
(a) and loudness have the same units
(b) cannot be measured
(a) t =
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
53
v
x
(c) x v
(d) v x.
60. A labourer sets his watch on hearing a
distant siren. His watch will record
(a) perfect time
(b) less than the actual time
(c) more than the actual time
(d) none of the above.
(a) v + x
(b)
54
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
T2
C1
T1
22 =
T2
T1
T2 = 4 T1 = 4 273 = 1092 K
T2 = 1092 K
Ans.
400
= 2.67 litre
150
Change is volume
= V1 V2 = 4 2.67 = 1.33
V2 =
1.33 litre
Ans.
55
P
150
= 2
300 400
P1 P2
=
;
T1 T2
P2 =
400 150
= 200 N/m2
300
P2 = 200 N/m2
Ans.
9V
10
Thus,
P1V1 = P2V2;
i.e.,
PV = (P + P)
i.e.,
PV =
9V
10
9 PV 9VP
+
10
10
9
9P
+
P
10
10
P
9P
=P
=
10
10
1
=
100
9
P=
or
or
9 P
10
P
P
11.11%
Ans.
56
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Solution:
2 10 3 kg of hydrogen contains N A
NA
molecules. Hence, 103 kg will have
2
molecules with NA = 6.1 1026 called
Avogadros number.
We know
P=
1 mN A c 2
Vm
3
3
k T
2 B
FG N IJ = 3 R
H2K 4
3
8.3 323
4
E = 2010 J Ans.
5. 6 gm of oxygen, 8 gm of nitrogen and 5 gm
of carbondioxide are mixed in a vessel.
The total volume is 3 litre at 27C. R =
8.4 J mol1 K1. The total pressure of the
system is calculated as follows.
Solution:
According to Daltons law of partial
pressure
RT
P = P1 + P2 + P3 ; P1 = 1
,
V
RT
RT
P2 = 2
and P3 = 3
V
V
Thus
P=
=
57
RT
(1 + 2 + 3)
V
8.4 300
3 10 3
FG 6 + 8 + 5 IJ
H 32 28 44 K
1 2
c
3
P = 0.76 13600 9.8
= 1.013 105 N/m2
P=
3 1.013 10 5
1.4
= 4.659 102 m/s
c =
Ans.
3 RT1
M1
and v2 =
T2 ( M1 )
M 2 T1
2T1 M1
=
M1
T1
2
FG IJ
H K
v2 = 2v1
Ans.
3 RT2
M2
58
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
1 2 1 mN A c 2
c =
3
3 Vm
1
2
PVm = M c = RT
3
where M is the molecular weight
P=
3 RT
M
c=
cH =
For oxygen cO =
3 RT2
MO
3 RT2
MO
T1
T
= 2 ;
MH
MO
T2 =
32
MO
T1 =
(60 + 273)
2
MH
T2 = 5328 K
Ans.
y = A sin 10 x + 15 t +
3
FG
H
IJ
K
59
2
= 10
Now
v=
15
=
= 1.5 m/s
k
10
and
2
2
=
= 0.2 m/sec
k
10
dy
= a cos (t kx)
dt
dy
slope s =
= a cos (t kx) k
dx
kv
2
v
=
s=
2v
v=
FG IJ
H K
2 L v O
=
M
P
N 2(c / ) Q
or
v = cs
Ans.
60
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
v
v
=
2l1
v
v
= 5;
=+5
2l1
2l1
v
v
= 5;
=5
2l2
2l2
Dividing eqn. (1) by eqn. (2)
and
...(1)
...(2)
v+5
21
l2
=
=
l1
v 5 20
20 + 100 = 21 105
= 205 Ans.
12. The equations of two sound waves are
given by
y1 = 3 sin 100 t and y2 = 4 sin 150 t
Get the ratio of the intensities of sound
produced in the medium.
Solution:
Here
Hence
or
a1 = 3, 1 =
100
= 50
2
I1 a1212
I1 (3)2 (50)2
I2 (4)2 (75)2
I1
(50 2 )
9
=
I2
16 (75 2 )
9
2
(4 )
50 50
75 75
61
I1
9
22
1
=
=
I2 16 3 3
4
I1 : I2 = 1 : 4 Ans.
13. The loudness changes from 30 dB to
60 dB. What is the ratio of intensities in
the two cases?
Solution:
The general equation is
L = 10 log (I1/I0) and L2 = 10 log (I2/I0)
L2 L1 = 10 log (I2/I1) = 60 30
log (I2/I1) =
60 30
=3
10
I2
= 1000
I1
Ans.
I
= 22 = 4
I
I I
= (4 1) = 3
I
or
LM I I OP 100 = 300%
N I Q
300 % Ans.
62
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Solution:
Let , v and be the wavelength, velocity
and frequency of the wave.
v
50
Now
= =
= 0.25 m
200
I = a2 = 0.09
a = 0.3 metre
The equation of stationary wave is
2x
2t
y = 2 a cos
sin
T
1 2 =
1 2
LM
N
OP
Q
1
1
v 0.01
10
=v
=
.
1 101
3
1.01
1.01 10
v=
= 336.7 m/s
3 0.01
v = 336.7 m/s Ans.
17. Sound of wavelength passes through a
Quinkes tube and it produces of sound of
maximum intensity I0. Through what distance should the sliding tube be moved to
give an intensity (I0/2)?
Solution:
...(1)
I0 = I + I + 2I cos = 4I
Further,
I0
= I + I + 2I cos = 2I + 2I cos
2
...(2)
63
4I
2
=
2 I(1 + cos )
(1 + cos )
2=
2 cos + 2 = 2
2
2 corresponds to a paths difference of
or
cos = 0 or =
FG IJ FG IJ .
H K H 2K
will corresponds to
2
2
Path difference
p.d =
Ans.
LM 340 OP = 10 n
N 340 34 Q 9
L 340 OP = 20 n
=n M
N 340 17 Q 19
n1 = n0
n2
10
n1
19
=
19 =
9 20
n2
18
n1 19
=
n2 18
Ans.
64
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Solution:
Here earth (observer) is approaching the
star and hence, the mutual distance is
decreasing. So, the observer will notice
an increase in frequency or decrease in
wavelength. If v be the velocity of the
observer and c, the velocity of light, then
the change in wavelength is given by
c
Substituting the given values, we have
d = =
d =
30 10 3
= 5875 104
3 10 8
T
m
m = r2
q
= 75
T
= 75
m
T
r 2
q=
Stress =
=
75 2 T
r 2
or
T=
65
q r 2
75 2
F
T
=
A
r 2
qr 2
(10) 11
=
r 2 (75) 2
(75) 2
Ans.
A < B
Ans.
66
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
a1S1
134.3
=
= 0.1802
S
745
a = 0.1802
Ans.
0.158 V
258.23
0.158 12 30 6
= 1.32 sec
258.23
T = 1.32 sec
Ans.
67
which is u
100
2
u
4
=
2
100
u = 8 102 cm
or
or
v
1600 100
=
u
8 10 2
6
= 2 10 Hz
v = u; =
= 2 MHz Ans.
(b)
(d)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b), (c)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(b).
2.
6.
10.
14.
18.
22.
26.
30.
33.
37.
41.
45.
49.
53.
57.
(a)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(d)
3. (d)
7. (c)
11. (c)
15. (b)
19. (d)
23. (b)
27. (c)
31. (b)
34. (b)
38. (b)
42. (a)
46. (d)
50. (b)
54. (a)
58. (c)
4. (a)
8. (a)
12. (a)
16. (d)
20. (d)
24. (c)
28. (a)
35. (c)
39. (b)
43. (d)
47. (a)
51. (b)
55 (d)
59. (d)
CHAPTER
HEAT
AND
THERMODYNAMICS
69
70
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
5R
3R
(b) Cv =
J
J
5R
3R
(c) Cp =
(d) Cp =
.
J
J
Which of the following has the largest
heat capacity?
(a) 10 kg of silver
(b) 10 kg of water
(c) 10 kg of brass
(d) 10 kg of aluminium.
For a gas the ratio of specific heats =
1.5. For this gas
(a) Cv = 3R
(b) Cp = 3R
(d) Cv = 5R.
(c) Cp = 5R
420 J of energy supplied to 10 gm of water
will raise its temperature nearly by
(a) 4.2C
(b) 1C
(c) 420C
(d) 10C.
The amount of heat that is absorbed by
unit mass of a substance during change
of state is known as
(a) specific heat
(b) coefficient of linear expansion
(a) Cv =
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
71
72
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
28.
29.
30.
31.
73
PV
= constant is true for
T
(a) isothermal change only
(b) adiabatic changes only
(c) both isothermal and adiabatic
changes.
33. The temperature of a gas is due to
(a) the potential energy of the molecules
(b) the attractive force between the
molecules
32. The gas law
74
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
V2
= constant
T
(d) VT = constant.
37. During an isothermal compression, if the
pressure of a given mass of a gas (of
volume V) increases ten fold,
(a) volume will become 10 V and heat will
be absorbed
(b) volume will become 10 V and heat will
be given out
(c)
V
and heat will
10
be given out
(d) volume will become
be absorbed.
V
and heat will
10
75
1
.
4
42. In a closed vessel, the pressure increases
by 0.4% when temperature increases by
1C. The initial temperature is
(a) 250 K
(b) 250C
(c) 100 K
(d) 20C.
(c) 19
(d)
76
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
C
K 273
F 32
=
=
;
5
5
9
x 273
x 32
=
5
9
9x 9 273 = 5x 160
4x = 2457 160
4x = 2257
or
x = 574.25
Ans.
5 F 160
9
5 98.4 160
=
= 36.9C
9
36.9 + 273 = 309.9 kelvin.
C=
or
309.9 K
Ans.
77
l 100
= T = 103 100 = 0.1
l1
0.1
Ans.
4. The temperatures inside and outside a refrigerator are 273 K and 303 K respectively. Assuming that refrigerator cycle is
reversible, what is heat delivered to the
surroundings for every joule of work done.
Solution:
Refrigerator is a heat engine that works
in backward direction.
=
T2
Q
=
T1 T2
W
Q=
1 273
W T2
=
T1 T2
303 273
Q = 10 joule
Ans.
78
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Solution:
P = 10 kW = 104 watt, m = 8 kg, = ?
t = 2.5 minute = 150, specific heat c = 910
J kg1 K
Heat generated in 150 sec
= P t = 104 150 = 1.5 106 J
Amount of heat used to heat the block is
Q = 50% of 1.5 106
But
= 0.75 106 J
Q = mc(T2 T1)
or (T2 T1) = =
=
Q
mc
0.75 106
= 103C
8 910
= 103C Ans.
6. The temperature of a furnace is 2000 K
and the intensity is maximum in its
radiation spectrum at 1200 nm. If the
intensity in the spectrum of a star is
maximum at 4800 , then calculate the
surface temperature of the star.
Solution:
mT1 = mT2
1200 2000 = 480 T2
24 105 = 480 T2
T2 = 5000 K
Ans.
79
Solution:
In the first case mean difference between
temperature of the body and that of the
surroundings is
40 + 50
20 = 25
2
40 +
20 = (0.5)C
2
Rate of cooling in the first case is
50 40
10
=
5
5
Rate of cooling in the second case is
40
10
But rate of cooling is proportional to the
mean excess of temperature over the
surrounding.
In the first case
10
25
5
in the second case
40
2
10
10
25
5
=
/ 2
40
10
10 10
50
=
5(40 )
20 = 50(40 )
80
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
70 = 2000
=
200
7
= 28.6C
Ans.
LM T
N
T2
l
OP
Q
2R
Cylinder
T1
T2
LM T
N
T2
l
OP
Q
RST
T
T2
l
UV
W
81
Thus
Q = Q1 + Q2
= 2 (3R2)
= R2
(T1 T2 )
(T1 T2 )
+ 1R2
l
l
(T1 T2 )
[32 + 1]
l
...(1)
(T1 T2 )
l
...(2)
LM
N
+ 3 2
4
OP
Q
Ans.
P 273 + 100
=
76
273
or
P = 76
FG 373 IJ
H 273 K
= 103.8 cm of mercury
82
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Ans.
P1 1
T1
P2 1
T2
FG T IJ = FG P IJ
HT K HP K
(log P2 log P1 )
0.4
(log 1 log 1.5)
1.4
0.4
log 1.5
1.4
log T2 = 2.4771 0.0503 = 2.4268
= log 300
T2 = 267.2C = 540.2 K
Ans.
83
2H
4
13
4
1
3
= H r3
3
300
277
FG3
H
r3 =
600
277
r=
FG 600 IJ
H 277 K
P1V1 P2 V2
=
T1
T2
IJ
K
1/ 3
= 1.29 cm
LM 4 1 OP
N3 Q
3
=H
LM 4 r OP
N3 Q
3
2 = [r3]1.4; r4.2 = 2
r = 2(1/4.2) = 0.057 cm
Ans.
84
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Ans.
85
Solution:
T1 = 800 K, T2 = 400 K
Work done per sec W = power = 4200 watt
= 4200 J/s
Thus efficiency of the engine
W
T
=1 2 =
Q1
T1
4200
400
=
800
Q1
4200
1
=
or Q1 = 4200 2
Q1
2
=1
i.e.
Q1 = 8400 J
Ans.
273
283
ms dT
T
273
283
= 0.336 kcal/K.
Change in entropy when this water
freezes at 273 K.
= 10 1 loge
mL
10 80
=
= 2.93
T
273
Change in entropy when the temperature
of this ice falls to 268 K.
d=
86
d=
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
268
273
10 0.5 dT
T
268
273
= 0.093
Total decrease in energy
= 0.336 + 2.93 + 0.093
= 3.359 kcal/K.
Ans.
L
dp
=
T (V2 V1 )
dT
dp =
=
or
LdT
T (V2 V1 )
540 4.2 20
373 1.676 10 3
Ans.
Pressure required
= 1 + 0.7256 = 1.7256 atmosphere.
16. A 15 kW drilling machine is used to drill
a bore in a small aluminium block of
mass 10 kg. How much is the rise in
temperature of the block in 2 min
87
120 15000
2 900 10
= 100C Ans.
17. A 2.5 kilowatt electric water heater holds
30 gallons (1 gallon = 3.78 litre) of water.
How long will it take to heat the water
from 68F to 149F?
Solution:
Rise in temperature is 149 68 = 81F
We know
5(F 32) = 9C
5(68 32) = 9C
180 = 9C
C = 20C
and
5(149 32) = 9C
585 = 9C
C = 65C
Difference of temperatures 65 20 = 45C
Mass of water
= 30 3.78 1000 1
Heat required
= 30 3.78 1000 45 (mst) cal
Energy required
= 30 3.78 1000 4.5 J
88
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Time required =
t = 142.9 minute
Ans.
W1
(T1 T2 )
=
Q1
T1
W1
(500 + 273) (27 + 273)
=
Q1
(500 + 273)
=
s =
=
473
773
W2
Q2
(273 + 80) (273 + 27)
(273 + 80)
53
353
Assuming same input in two engines
s =
W1
473 353
=
W2
773 53
W1
=4
W2
Ans.
89
(a)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)
2.
6.
10.
14.
18.
22.
26.
30.
34.
38.
42.
(c)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(a)
3. (d)
7. (a)
11. (c)
15. (b)
19. (d)
23. (c)
27. (d)
31. (b)
35. (d)
39. (b)
43. (d).
4. (c)
8. (c)
12. (b)
16. (d)
20. (b)
24. (b)
28. (a)
32. (c)
36. (b)
40. (d)
CHAPTER
1
of the velocity of light.
3
The wavelength of such radio waves is
(a) 100 m
(b) 1500 m
(c) 300 m
(d) 3 108 m.
4. A medium in which the velocity of a wave
depends on its frequency is called
(a) dispersive medium
(b) elastic medium
travelling with
90
91
FG sin 53 IJ
H sin 55 K
(b) 1.63 sin 55
F sin 55 IJ
(c) 1.63 G
H sin 53 K
(a) 1.63
10 9
F/m
36
(b)
1
F/m
36
10 9
F/m.
36
8. If the refractive index of diamond with
respect to a rarer medium is 2.42, the
critical angle is
(a) 46.6
(b) 16.2
(c) 60
(d) 24.4.
9. Which one of the following phenomena
support corpuscular nature of radiation?
(a) Compton effect
(b) Diffraction
(c) 36 F/m
(d)
92
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(c) Polarization
(d) Scattering and Raman effect.
10. The refractive indices of a crown prism
are 1.540, 1.528, 1.532 for the violet, red
and the mean ray respectively, then the
dispersive power of the prism is
(a) 1.5
(b) 0.0012
(c) 1.223
(d) 0.0225.
11. The value of Stefans constant is
(a) 6.7 108 W m2 K4
(b) 5.7 108 J s1 m2 K4
(c) 8.7 108 W m2 K4
(d) 5.7 108 J s1 m2 K1.
12. Velocity of light in a transparent medium
2
of that in air. The refractive index
3
of the medium is
(a) 0.67
(b) 1.1
(c) 1.5
(d) 0.12.
13. Snells law of refraction is
1
sin r
(a)
=
sin i
12
(b) 12 sin i = sin r
(c) 21 = sin i sin r
(d) 12 = sin i.
14. Stefans law is used to determine
(a) earths radius
(b) coefficient of conduction of a metal
(c) temperature of sun
(d) distance of the sun from the earth.
15. A prism of angle 16 has a dispersive
power of 0.1 for two rays. If the refractive
index of the mean ray is 1.6, the
difference between the refractive indices
of the two rays is
(a) 0.12
(b) 0.16
(c) 0.22
(d) 0.06.
is
93
(A)
i
(B)
i
(C)
i
(D)
(a) A
(b) C
(c) D
(d) B.
19. To a fish under water, viewing obliquely
a fisher-man standing on the bank of a
lake, does appear as
94
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
t
c
(b) tc
tc
t
(d)
.
c
22. A light ray passes from air to crown glass
through an organic liquid. The refractive
index of this liquid with respect to glass
is
(Given: of glass is 1.5 and the velocity
of light in liquid is 0.8 times that in air)
(a) 0.8
(b) 1.6
(c) 2.2
(d) 1.2.
23. In the minimum deviation position
(a) angle of incidence is always twice the
angle of refraction
(b) angle of incidence is equal to angle of
refraction
(c) incident ray and emergent ray are
symmetrical to refracting faces
(d) all the above are true.
(c)
95
96
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
97
98
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
S1
O
S2
38.
39.
40.
41.
(a) 10
(b) 9
(c) 15
(d) 8.
Two coherent sources of light will produce destructive interference when the
phase difference between them is
(b) 2
(a)
2
(c)
(d) .
4
The frequency range of microwaves in Hz
is
(a) 5 1014 6 1014
(b) 2 1015 2.5 1016
(c) 1000 to 10000
(d) 3 108 1.5 1012.
In an electromagnetic wave the angle
between the planes of magnetic component and electric component is
(a) 0
(b) 90
(b) 120
(c) 180.
Laser is considered to be coherent
because it consists of
(a) many wavelengths
(b) unco-ordinated wavelengths
(c) co-ordinated waves of exactly the
same wavelength
(d) divergent beams.
99
42. The intensity ratio at a point of observation, of two coherent waves is 100 : 1. The
ratio between their amplitudes is
(a) 10 : 1
(b) 1 : 10
(c) 100 : 20
(d) 1 : 1.
43. Light waves of wavelength 1 and 2 is
made incident successively on the surface
of a metal. Light wave of wavelength 1
produces photo-electric effect whereas 2
does not. Now interference fringes are
produced with these sources; the fringe
2
widths obtained are
1 and
respectively, then which of the following
is correct
(a) 1 > 2
(b) 1 < 2
(c) 1 = 2
(d) 1 = 22.
44. Photons of wavelength 500 nm are
incident on an atom in the ground state
and scattered as 600 nm. The wavelength
of the corresponding antistokes line is
(a) 700 nm
(b) 500 nm
(b) 400 nm
(c) 600 nm.
45. Two beams of equal intensities of
wavelength 460 nm and 600 nm are
scattered by a fine suspension. The ratio
of intensities of the scattered radiation
when viewed at right angles to the beam
is approximately.
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 3
(d) 10.5.
46. Which one of the following statements is
not correct?
(a) stimulated emission is a must in laser
radiation
(b) lasers are widely used in holography
(c) Al2O3 is used in Ruby laser
(d) Lasers are highly non-coherent.
100
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
3
2
(c)
(d)
.
4
4
50. Two coherent sources whose intensity
ratio is 81 : 1 produce interference fringe.
The ratio of the maximum intensity to
minimum intensity in the fringe system
is
(a) 20 : 10
(b) 28 : 14
(c) 25 : 16
(d) 1 : 2.
51. In thin films, the condition for
constructive interference is
101
(b)
52.
53.
54.
55.
2 t cos r = n
(c) 2 t cos r = 2n
(d) 2 t cos r = ( + 1).
Electromagnetic theory was proposed by
(a) Newton
(b) de Broglie
(c) Huygen
(d) Maxwell.
Two beams of monochromatic light coming from two coherent sources produce
an interference pattern on a screen. If a
thin glass plate is introduced in the path
of one of the two beams, then
(a) the fringe width will decrease
(b) the fringe width will increase
(c) the pattern of the fringes will disappear
(d) all the fringes would be shifted laterally.
Newtons rings were observed in reflected
light of wavelength . The diameter of
the 10th dark ring was 0.5 cm and the
radius of curvature of the lens was 1 m,
the wavelength of the light used is
(a) 6250 nm
(b) 625
(c) 500 nm
(d) 6250 .
A student is asked to measure the
wavelength of a monochromatic light. He
sets up the apparatus as shown below.
S1, S2, S3 are narrow parallel slits. L is
the given monochromatic source and M
is a micrometer eye-piece. The student
fails to observe interference fringes. You
would advise him to
102
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
S2
S1
5 cm
L
S3
10 cm
80 cm
d1
is
d2
2
(b)
1
(c) (1 2)
(d) 22/12.
58. In a given Newtons rings set-up, the 10th
dark ring is viewed first by a sodium light
and then by a laser beam with their
wavelengths in the ratio 9 : 10. If the
radius of the 10th dark ring in sodium
103
F
GH
s
light is Given = 0.9
l
(a)
(c)
0.50
cm
90
(b)
I
JK
0.90
cm
0.50
cm
(d) 0.45 cm.
90
59. In the Newtons rings experiment, if the
radius of curvature of the plano-convex
lens is reduced to 75%, of its original
value the radius of the dark ring is
3
of its original value
2
3
of its original value
(b) increased to
2
(c) remains unaltered
(d) reduced to one fifth of its original
value.
60. Which one of the following is not electromagnetic in nature?
(a) X-rays
(b) -rays
(c) visible rays
(d) cathode rays.
61. A spectrum produced by an incandescent
solid, liquid, or gas is always
(a) a continuous spectrum
(b) a line spectrum
(c) an absorption spectrum
(d) a band spectrum.
62. In Newtons rings experiment, if the air
film is replaced by benzene, then
(a) the rings widen
(b) the rings shrink
(c) the rings disappear
(d) central dark ring disappears.
(a) reduced to
104
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(b)
l
tan
cos
(d) l cos .
l
64. In a single slit diffraction experiment the
width of the single slit is double the
original width. The size of the central
band is
(a) reduced to half of its original value
(b) reduced to one third of its original
value
(c) remains the same
(d) increased to half of its original value.
65. Two students are separated by a 7m
partition wall of a room 8 m high. They
converse easily though they are unable
to see each other. This is because
(a) diffraction of sound by macroscopic
obstacles
(b) diffraction of light by macroscopic
obstacles
(c) transverse nature of light
(d) sound velocity is greater than that of
light.
66. Ultrasonic waves from a transducer of
frequency 1 MHz travelling through a
binary mixture of water and dimethyl
sulphoxide were reflected back by
forming a grating. The diffraction pattern
on a screen produced by rays from a
sodium lamp through the grating gave a
value of 0.042 cm as the distance between
a node and the subsequent antinode. The
(c)
105
(b)
d
for
d
cos
nN
sin
(d) sin .
nN
70. The plane glass plate in Newtons rings
arrangement is replaced by a plane
mirror. Which one of the following
statements is true?
(a) the radii of the fringes decrease
(b) the radii of the fringes increase
(c) the radii remain same
(d) no rings are observed.
71. The condition for observing Fraunhofer
diffraction due to single slit is that the
wavefront incident on the slit should be
(a) elliptical
(b) plane
(c) cylinderical
(d) spherical.
(c)
106
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
77.
78.
79.
80.
107
108
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
87.
88.
89.
90.
109
110
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(a)
(b) 3
2
(c) 1.5
(d) 2.
93. In a Nicol prism which of the following
statements is correct with respect to a
monochromatic ray?
(a) extraordinary ray is polarized and
ordinary ray is unpolarized
(b) ordinary ray is polarized and
extraordinary ray is unpolarized
(c) both are polarized
(d) all are false.
94. If light is polarized by reflection, then the
angle between reflected and refracted ray
is
111
(c) 2
(d) .
4
95. A beam of light AO is incident on a glass
slab ( = 1.54) in the direction shown in
the figure. The reflected ray is passed
through a Nicol prism. On rotating the
Nicol prism one sees
(a)
(b)
O
34
34
= 1.54
112
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(a)
(b)
(c) 2
(d) 6 .
99. The amplitudes of electric field E and
magnetic field B are related as
(a) E = B
(b) 00E = B
(c) B = E ( 0 0 )
(d) E = B ( 0 0 ).
100. Transmission of TV signals from the
surface of the moon can be received on
earth. But the signal from Delhi cannot
be received beyond 100 km distance, the
cause for this is
(a) there is no atmosphere on the moon
(b) there is atmosphere round the earth
(c) the curvature of the earths surface
not follow the curvature of the earth
(d) all are true.
101. The temperature of infrared radiation is
calculated to be 3 109 K, the wavelength
of the radiation is approximately
(a) 1012 m
(b) 1012 m
(c) 10 nm
(d) 1 nm.
102. In Raman effect if the wavelength of the
scattered photon is greater than the
incident photon, then the energy of the
scattered photon is
(a) less than the incident photon
(b) higher than the incident photon
(c) equal in magnitude
(d) all are true.
103. The difference in wavelengths of the two
lines of sodium vapour lamp is approximately
(a) 20 nm
(b) 66.6 nm
(c) 0.60 nm
(d) 600 .
113
114
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
115
116
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
117
118
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(a) 652.2 nm
(c) 2002 nm
119
(b) 100
(d) 760 nm.
C
C
r
i
mg = 1.68
mc = 1.44
Solution:
12
sin C =
1
; or
sin C
1
2
=
sin C
1
1
1.44
=
= 0.8571
1.68
2
C = 59, r = 90 59 = 31
Total internal reflection takes place if the
angle of incidence is greater than C = 59
i.e., r < 31
sin i
sin i
=
sin r
sin 31
or sin i = 2 sin 31 = 1.68 sin 31
i = 60
Now 2 =
120
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
RS
T
Solution:
For achromatic combination the
dispersion produced by the two prisms
must be equal and opposite
A = 12; b = 1.523;
nr = 1.514
b = 1.638, nr = 1.622
(nb nr) A = (nb nr) A
(1.523 1.514) 12 = (1.638 1.622) A
A = 6 45.
3. A man with normal near point (25 cm)
reads a book using a magnifying glass of
focal length 5 cm.
(a) What are closest and farthest
distances at which he can read the
book when viewing through the
magnifying glass?
(b) What is the maximum and minimum
angular magnification (magnifying
points of the simple microscope)?
Solution:
(a) u = ?, v = 25 cm, f = 5 cm
1 1
1
=
v u
f
or
1
1 1
=
u
v f
=
1 1 5
1
=
5
25
25
121
1
6
=
u
25
u = 4.2 cm
Ans.
1
1 1
= ;
f
v u
1
1 1
=
f
u
u = f = 5 cm
Ans.
25
=6
25 / 6
D
u
Ans.
25
D
=
=5
5
u
Ans.
LM
MN
1
2
R|S
|T
cos sin
FG
H
2
1
IJ U|VOP
K |WPQ
122
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
B
2
a
D
Solution:
D
A
C
The ray will come out from CD if it suffers total internal reflection at surface AD
i.e., it strikes the surface AD at critical
angle C
Now
1 sin C = 2
sin C = (2/1)
Further,
2 sin = 1 cos C
sin =
FG IJ |UV
H K W|
LM cos R|sin F
MN S|T GH
|RS
T|
1
2
cos sin 1
2
1
= sin1
2
1
IJ U|VOP
K |WPQ
123
Solution:
In doppler effect in light, the wavelength
displacement is
c
where v is the velocity of light source. If
the wavelength of light coming from
source at earth is and of the light
coming from galaxy, then
= (1 + 0.005) = 1.005
=
= 1.005
( )
=
= 0.005
...(1)
v
or v = 0.005 c
c
v = 1.5 106 m/s
This is the velocity of galaxy. As the
wavelength is increased, the galaxy is
going away from the earth.
6. A glass prism of refractive index 1.66 and
angle of prism 72 is placed in a liquid of
refractive index 1.33. Get the angle of
minimum deviation.
Solution:
g
1.66
= lg =
=
= 1.248
1.33
l
0.005 =
sin
= 1.248 =
sin
=
FG A + D IJ
H 2 K
sin
FG A + D IJ
H 2 K
sin 36
A
2
124
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
sin
FG A + D IJ = 1.248 sin 36
H 2 K
= 0.733
A+ D
= 47.2
2
36 +
D
= 47.2
2
D
= 11.2
2
D = 22.4
Ans.
r12
I1
x
or
I2
= r2
2
=
I2
(2 x)
4
x
16
(2 x) 2
2
4
; 4x = 4 2x
=
x (2 x)
6x = 4
4
= 0.667 m
6
8. A source of 100 cd is
placed at a distance of 2.5
m from a wall. What is
the illumination on the
wall if it makes an angle
30 with the incident ray?
Ans.
P
r
30
x=
60
N
2.5 m
125
Solution:
cos 60 =
OP =
E=
2.5
OP
2.5
=5m
cos 60
I cos 60
r
E = 2 lumen
100 0.5
25
Ans.
2 Rh
2 6 10 6 100 = 3.5 104 m.
1000
10 6
= 103 m2
Population covered is
3.14 3.52 108 103
P = 4 106
Ans.
126
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
LM
N
(a1 + a2 )
Imax
=
(a1 a2 )
I min
OP
Q
I1
a12
81
=
=
I2
1
a2 2
i.e., a1 = 9a2
Thus
LM
N
F 10 I
=G J
H 8K
Imax
9 a2 + a2
=
I min
9 a2 a2
2
a1
= 9;
a2
or
OP
Q
25
= 1.56
16
Ans.
ch
1
and EB EA =
ch
3
and EC EB =
FG 1 1 IJ
H K
F IJ
E ) = ch G
H K
3 =
1 2
1 2
2 1
Ans.
ch
2
127
A+ D
= 40
2
sin
=
FG A + D IJ
H 2 K
A
sin
2
= 1.286
sin 40 0.643
=
0.5
sin 30
Ans.
v
u
u + mu = x; u(m + 1) = x
x
Thus
u=
(m + 1)
mx
and
v = mu =
(m + 1)
u + v = x and m =
1
1 1 u+ v
= + =
uv
f
u v
f=
mx 2
uv
=
u+ v
(m + 1) 2
f=
mx
m+1
Ans.
FG 1IJ
H xK
128
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
d
Since, and d are the same in both the
cases
D
1
D1
D
=
; 2 = 2 2
D2
2
D1
x
Let D1 = x and hence D2 =
2
1 = 0.6 cm
=
2 =
Thus
0.6 x
= 0.3 cm
2 x
2 = 0.3 cm
Ans.
B
x
(24 x)
129
1
1 1
+ =
(24 x) y 9
Also
FG 1 1 IJ = 1
H x yK 9
...(1)
...(2)
1
1
1 1
+ = +
9 9
(24 x) x
2
x + 24 x
=
9
x (24 x)
12
24 x x
1
9
24x x2 = 108
x2 24x + 108 = 0
x=
24 576 432
2
= 18 or 6 cm
Ans.
130
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Solution:
D
n D
( 1)t = n =
d
d
( 1) t = n
i.e., (1.5 1) t = 0.5 t = 5 600 109
Shift
x=
t = 6 104 m
Ans.
i
O
r
(i r)
N
Q
NOQ = i r = 22
with
i + r = 90
2r = 90 22 = 68
r = 34
Ans.
131
4 p R
( Dn2+ p Dn2) =
Here
p=1
2
Hence ( Dn+1
Dn2) =
4R
...(1)
( Dn2+ 1 Dn2 ) 1 =
4 1 R
...(2)
( Dn2+ 1 Dn2 ) 1
( Dn2+ 1
Dn2 )
1 ( Dn2+1 Dn 2 )
or
( Dn2+ 1 Dn2 ) 1 =
and
Ans.
( Dn2+ 1 Dn 2 ) 1 =
4 R
1
...(3)
132
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
( Dn2+ 1 Dn2 ) 1
( Dn2+ 1
Dn2 )
( Dn2+ 1 Dn2 ) =
= 1, 1 = 1.33
Here
and
( Dn2+ 1
( Dn2+ 1 Dn2 )
1
Dn2 ) = 0.125
eD
2
n+1
Dn2
( Dn2+ 1 Dn2 )
1
1 0.125
1.33
= 0.094 cm2
Ans.
eD
2
n+1
Dn2
eD
eD
eD
Dn2
eD
Dn2
2
n+1
2
n+1
2
n+1
Dn2
2
n+1
Dn2
R1
R1
R1
2R
4 R1
R1
R
R1
Dn2 + 1 Dn2
R
...(4)
2R
0.125
R
= 0.250 cm2
133
Solution:
sin = nN
sin
sin 30
N=
=
n
2 590 10 9
=
4.2 10 4
m
10 9
N = 4.2 105 metre
(a + b) =
1
= 0.23 105 m
N
Fringe width, =
=
1
= 0.1 cm
10
589.3 10 9
2 1 0.1
Ans.
134
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Solution:
( Dn2 ) liquid =
4nR
( Dn2 ) air
( Dn2 ) liquid
==
LM 0.30 OP
N 0.25 Q
= 1.44
Ans.
Ans.
135
c
o
3 10 10
= 1.809 1010 cm/s
1.658
Velocity of extraordinary ray,
i.e.,
vo =
vE =
c
3 10 10
=
= 2.018 1010 cm/s
1.486
E
Ans.
4 ( E O )
589.3 10 9 100
4(1.5533 1.5422)
t = 1.62 103 cm
Ans.
(d)
(c)
(a)
(a)
2.
6.
10.
14.
(b)
(a)
(d)
(c)
3. (a)
7. (d)
11. (b)
15. (d)
4. (a)
8. (d)
12. (c)
16. (c)
136
17.
21.
25.
29.
33.
37.
41.
45.
49.
53.
57.
61.
65.
69.
73.
77.
81.
85.
89.
93.
97.
101.
105.
109.
113.
117.
121.
125.
129.
133.
137.
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(d)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(c)
18.
22.
26.
30.
34.
38.
42.
46.
50.
54.
58.
62.
66.
70.
74.
78.
82.
86.
90.
94.
98.
102.
106.
110.
114.
118.
122.
126.
130.
134.
138.
(c)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(a).
19. (b)
23. (c)
27. (d)
31. (c)
35. (b)
39. (d)
43. (a)
47. (d)
51. (a)
55. (b)
59. (a)
63. (a)
67. (d)
71. (b)
75. (c)
79. (b)
83. (d)
87. (d)
91. (b)
95. (d)
99. (d)
103. (c)
107. (b)
111. (d)
115. (a)
119. (c)
123. (d)
127. (a)
131. (d)
135. (b)
20. (d)
24. (b)
28. (d)
32. (b)
36. (a)
40. (b)
44. (c)
48. (b)
52. (d)
56. (d)
60. (d)
64. (a)
68. (a)
72. (d)
76. (d)
80. (a)
84. (b)
88. (d)
92. (a)
96. (d)
100. (c)
104. (b)
108. (b)
112. (b)
116. (b)
120. (b)
124. (a)
128. (d)
132. (c)
136. (a)
CHAPTER
MAGNETISM
(c)
newton
4
d2
m m
(d) 0 1 2 2 newton.
d
2. The moment of a barmagnet of semi
length 2 cm is 2 106 weber-metre; the
pole strength is
(a) 2 104 weber
(b) 104 weber/metre
(c) 0.5 104 weber
(d) 0.75 104 weber.
3. The magnetic field due to a short
magnet at a point d from its centre and
making an angle with the axis of the
magnet is
(a)
(b)
0m
4 d 3
m
4 d 3
(1 + cos2 )1/2
cos2
137
138
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
0
(1 + cos )
4
(d) 4m (1 cos ).
Heating or rough handling will disturb
the arrangement of molecular magnets
and hence the strength is reduced. This
statement is
(a) true
(b) false.
When a magnet is broken, each piece
becomes a complete magnet because
(a) the number of electrons in one piece
are different from that of the other
(b) each piece becomes a complete magnet since molecular magnets cannot
be broken
(c) the density of atoms in the pieces are
different
(d) none of these.
If p is the magnetic moment of a bar
magnet in a magnetic field, than maximum value of the torque is
(a) pB cos
(b) p cos
(c) 180
(d) pB.
The magnetic susceptibility of a material
is 999. If this material is placed in a
magnetic field of 1000 A/m, the value of
the magnetic induction is
(a)
(b) 0.4
(c) 4
(d) 9.
Since the induced magnetic moments in
a diamagnetic substance in a magnetic
field oppose the applied field, the diamagnetic susceptibility is
(a) negative
(b) small positive value
(c) zero
(d) large positive value.
(c)
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
139
MAGNETISM
e2 h2
.
4m
140
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
MAGNETISM
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
141
(b) 36 107 N
(a) 4 107 N
7
(c) 10 N
(d) 107 N.
The magnetic flux of 9.8 106 weber
passing through a closed area has a
magnetic induction 2 106 tesla. The
area of the enclosed surface is
(a) 9 m2
(b) 19 m2
2
(c) 120 m
(d) 4.9 m2.
The ratio of magnetic field due to a small
bar magnet in the broad-on position to
that in the end-on position is
(a) 0.25
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 0.50.
Which of the following materials has a
very high positive susceptibility?
(a) diamagnetic material
(b) ferromagnetic material
(c) paramagnetic material
(d) anti ferromagnetic material.
The reduction factor of a tangent
galvanometer is equal to the current
required to produce a deflection of 45 in
the galvanometer
(a) true
(b) false.
The deflection at the centre of the tangent
galvanometer is
(a) directly depending on the tangent of
the deflection
(b) inversely depending on the tangent of
the deflection
(c) directly depending on sin
(d) all the above are false.
In SI unit of magnetic moment is
expressed in
(a) NT1
(b) NT2
(c) A/m
(d) JT1.
142
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
FT I F I I
(a) G J G J
HT K HI K
2
(c)
T12
m1
, is
m2
FT I
(b) G J
HT K
FT I
(d) G J
HT K
FG I IJ
HI K
FG I IJ .
HI K
1
T2
1
2
29. The magnetic moment per unit area is
called magnetization. This is
(a) true
(b) false.
30. Sure test of magnetism is
(a) attraction
(b) repulsion
(c) both
(d) none of these.
31. The radius of the coil in a T.G. is halved
and the number of turns is also halved.
MAGNETISM
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
143
144
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(a) gold
(b) iron
(c) mercury
(d) aluminium.
38. When magnetic specimen is subjected to
a magnetizing field the magnetization M
is proportional to
(a) H2
(b) H
1
.
H
The relative permeability of iron is of the
order of
(a) 104
(b) zero
(c) 1
(d) 104.
The period of oscillation of a magnet in a
vibration magnetometer is 1.5 sec. The
period of oscillation of another magnet
similar in size, shape and mass but
1
having th of the magnetic moment of
4
the first one at the same place is
(a) 8 sec
(b) 2 sec
(c) 3 sec
(d) 1 sec.
A hydrogen atom is paramagnetic and a
hydrogen molecule is
(a) diamagnetic
(b) paramagnetic
(c) ferromagnetic (d) none of these.
At Curie temperature
(a) ferromagnetism vanishes and the
substance attains paramagnetic
behaviour
(b) ferromagnetism becomes dominant
(c) ferromagnetic substance becomes
diamagnetic
(d) all the above are true.
When iron undergoes a cycle of magnetization the hysteresis loop represents
(a) gain of energy
(b) zero loss of energy
(c)
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
(d)
MAGNETISM
145
(c)
146
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
i
(a) m = i A
(b) m =
A
A
(c) m =
(d) m = i2 A .
i
The magnetic elements of earths magnetic field are
(a) dip and magnetic induction
(b) total flux and declination
(c) horizontal intensity
(d) horizontal intensity, declination and
dip.
The magnetic needle in a tangent galvanometer is short. This is
(a) to have the interaction between
aluminium needle and magnetic
needle is small
(b) to have greater interaction between
the two
(c) to bring the reading to zero
(d) to have both the poles in the same
field due to the current in the coil.
If a toroid uses bismuth for its core, the
field in the core will be
(a) slightly greater since bismuth is paramagnetic
(b) remains the same
(c) slightly less since bismuth is diamagnetic
(d) all the above are untrue.
The relative permeability of iron is 104.
If this specimen is subjected to a field of
147
MAGNETISM
(a) = B . A = BA cos
B
(b) =
A cos
A cos
(c) =
B
(d) =
B. A
| A|
normal to area A .
57. A cylindrical magnet of area of crosssection 1 sq. cm and volume 5 106 m3
has a magnetic moment of 2 10 6
weber-m. The pole strength of the magnet
is
(a) 0.04 104 weber
(b) 1.04 106 weber
(c) 0.4 104 weber
(d) 1000 weber.
58. The maximum value of angle of dip is at
the
(a) equator
(b) north pole
148
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
r =
=
4
B
1=
1
0 H
4 10 7 10 4
= 999
Ans.
i 0n
0.8 4 10 7 5
=
2a tan
2 8 10 2
BH = 0.314 104 tesla
BH =
149
MAGNETISM
BH 0.314 10 4
=
BH = 0H; H =
0
4 10 7
3.14 10 3
0.314 10 4
=
40
4
= 0.25 104
H=
Ans.
Ans.
Unit calculation:
eh
coulomb J s amp Js 2
=
=
4m
kg
kg
But
W.D. = joule = F d
= Mass Acceleration Distance
i.e., W.D. = kg (m/sec2) m
or
kg =
J sec 2
m2
amp J s 2
eh
=
= amp m2
4m
J sec 2 / m 2
or
B = 9.27 1024 A m2
Ans.
150
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Solution:
W 0.062 6200 10 5
=
=
6200
6200
d
5
3
= 10 m
Volume =
6 10
M
=
10 5
V
where M is magnetic moment
M=
or
M = 0.6 A/m
Ans.
M
; M = H = 1000 1000 = 106
H
B = 0 (H + M) = 0(106 + 103)
=
FG
H
B = 4 107 106 1 +
B = 0.4 Wb/m2
1
10 3
IJ = 4 10
K
Ans.
I
HM
151
MAGNETISM
I
I
T1 = 2 M H and T2 = 2 M H
1
2
T1
=
T2
M2
=
M1
T2 =
T1 2.5
=
0.5 0.5
T2 = 5 sec
M1
1
= = 0.5
4 M1 2
Ans.
or
B=
0.45 10 4
=
A
A
A=
0.45 10 4 0.45 10 4
=
0.6
B
4.5 10 4
6
4.5 10 4 10 1
6
= 7.5 106 m3
Volume = A l =
V = 7.5 106 m3
Ans.
I1
mB
i.e.,
T12
I1
m1
152
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
T22
or
T12
T2
T12
T22
=
=
I2
m2
I1
I2
I1
I2
FG m IJ
Hm K
FG 1IJ
H 2K
2
with m2 =
Ml 2 12
FG M IJ FG l IJ
H 2 K H 2K
12 2
T22 =
m1
2
8
=4
2
T12 16
=4
=
4
4
T2 = 2 sec
Ans.
FG IJ
H K
0 m
4 10 7 8 10 22
=
4 r 3
(6.4 10 6 ) 3
B = 0.3 104 T
Ans.
mv
eB
we note that an extremely small field
From the relation for the radius, r =
153
MAGNETISM
2m
M2 = 2r M1 =
M1
m
=
=
M 2 2m / 2
M1 =
M2
2
Ans.
154
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
eB
dr
m
dv =
Integrating,
V=
eB
m
V=
e(b a) B
m
dr =
eB
(b a)
m
Ans.
I
;
mB
4I
,
mB
T2=
or m n2
T2
(I is the intensity of magnetization)
i.e.,
m1 n12
m2 n22
i.e.,
m1
m
12 2
=
= 2
m2 4 m
n2
n22 = 22 122
n2 = 24 vib./m
Ans.
2. (c)
6. (d)
3. (a)
7. (b)
4. (a)
8. (a)
155
MAGNETISM
9.
13.
17.
21.
25.
29.
33.
37.
41.
45.
49.
53.
57.
(b)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(c)
10.
14.
18.
22.
26.
30.
34.
38.
42.
46.
50.
54.
58.
(c)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(d)
11. (a)
15. (b)
19. (d)
23. (a)
27. (b)
31. (d)
35. (a)
39. (d)
43. (c)
47. (a)
51. (d)
55. (d)
59. (b)
12. (c)
16. (d)
20. (a)
24. (d)
28. (d)
32. (b)
36. (a)
40. (c)
44. (a)
48. (c)
52. (d)
56. (a)
60. (d).
CHAPTER
ELECTROSTATICS
q1q2
r
or
F=
Aq1q2
r2
(a)
1
4
1
(b) 4
0
(c)
(d) 40.
156
where A is
157
ELECTROSTATICS
A
is the force between two charges in
r
q
(b) q2
r
(c) 8q
(d) 2q.
7. The unit of absolute permittivity is
(a) farad/metre
(b) coulomb/metre
(c) ampere metre
(d) ampere/metre.
8. In SI system the unit of 0 is
(a)
(a)
(c)
Nm 2
2
C
N 2m
C2
(b)
C
2
N m2
C2
(d)
.
Nm 2
158
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
1
times that of the electron in the
1840
same field
(d) all the above are false.
(c)
dV
is the potential gradient, then the
dx
intensity of the electric field at a point is
dV
dV
(a)
(b)
dx
dx
dV
dx
(c) q
(d)
.
dx
dV
11. In an electric field due to a charge Q, a
charge q moves from point A to B as
shown in figure. The
10. If
30
work done is
(a)
1
Q
4 0 r 2
(c) zero
(b)
(d)
1
q
4 0 r 2
Qq
.
r2
12. The work done in carrying a charge of
0.2 C from a point A to B is 8 m J. The
159
ELECTROSTATICS
1
joule
1.6 10 19
1
8 20
newton
(b) 80 newton
(c)
(d)
1
newton
4 0
1
4 20
newton.
160
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
1
coulomb
2
(b) 2 coulomb
(c) 22 coulomb
(d) no charge flows.
17. The mathematical form of Gauss theorem
is
(a)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
z
z
z
z
E ds = 0 dq
0 E ds = dq
E ds = q
E ds =
q
.
4 0
161
ELECTROSTATICS
1
th of the initial value
6
(c) remains same as the initial one
(d) reduced to zero.
21. An atom is electrically neutral. Why then
should an -particle be deflected by the
atom?
(a) the nucleus located at the centre of
the atom is negatively charged and
hence repels the -particle
(b) the nucleus is positively charged and
hence repels the uncharged -particle
(c) the positively charged nucleus repels
the positive charged -particle and
hence -particle is deflected
(d) all the above are true.
22. A conducting surface is charged to a surface density . The outward pressure on
the surface is
(b) reduced to
2
(a)
2 0
0
(b) 2
0
.
0
23. The unit of electric field V/m can also be
written
(a) newton/coulomb
(b) coulomb/newton
(c) amp/metre
(d) farad/metre.
(c)
(d)
162
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
4 0 r 2
2 F
1 F
1 F
P
Q
2 F
2 F
(a) 10.2 F
(b) 2.8 F
(c) 1.4 F
(d) 14 F.
26. The capacitance of a parallel plate
condenser does not depend upon
(a) area of the plates
(b) medium between the plates
(c) distance between the plates
(d) nature of the material of the plates.
27. A parallel plate capacitor in charged and
then isolated. What is the effect of
increasing the plate separation?
163
ELECTROSTATICS
Charge
Potential Capacitance
(a) remains
remains
decreases
the same the same
(b) increases increases
decreases
(c) remains
decreases
decreases
the same
(d) remains
increases
decreases
the same
28. What is the effective capacitance in the
circuit given below?
12 F
P
2 F
3 F
20 F
(a) zero
(b) 10 F
(c) 50 F
(d) 3 F.
29. Potential at a point Q at a distance r from
a short dipole of charge q and dipole
moment is
Q
r
q
q
+q
(a)
p
r2
(c)
1
4 0
p cos
r2
(b)
p cos
r2
(d)
1
4 0
p sin
r2
164
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
C1
is
C2
(a) 0.8
(b) 0.1
(c) 1
(d) 0.25.
32. Five capacitors 10 F capacity each is
connected to a d.c. potential of 100 volt
as shown in figure. The equivalent
capacitance between A and B is
C
10
10
10
A
10
B
10
D
100 V
(a) 10 F
(b) 60 F
(c) 20 F
(d) 30 F.
33. The force experienced on an oil drop of
charge 5 C in an electric field of intensity 12 103 V/m is
(b) 60 103 N
(a) 102 N
(d) 106 N.
(c) 60 102 N
34. The capacitance of a capacitor that should
be connected along with 2 capacitors,
165
ELECTROSTATICS
24
F.
11
(a) 12 F
(b) 120 F
(c) 8 F
(d) 6 F.
35. Separation between the plates of a
parallel plate capacitor is d and the area
of each plate is A. When a slab of material
of dielectric constant r and thickness t
introduced between the plates, the
capacitance becomes
of
(a)
A 0
OP
Q
(b)
A 0
d + t (1+ r )
L 1O
d t M1 P
N Q
(d)
A 0
.
(4d t)
LM
N
d + t 1
(c)
1
r
A 0
10 F
10 F
(a) 15 F
(c) 6.4 F
166
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
167
ELECTROSTATICS
A
C2
C3
C5
C4
(a) 2 F
(b) 10 F
(c) 6 F
(d) 8 F.
47. If two identical point charges separated
by 3 m experience a force of 10 newton,
then the individual charge is
(a) 100 C
(b) 10 C
(c) 1 C
(d) 0.1 C.
168
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(a) 0.2 cm
(c) 105 cm
120 q
O
(b) 103 cm
(d) zero.
ELECTROSTATICS
169
170
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
2W
10 W
0.5 W
2.5 V
(a) zero
(b) 2 C
(c) 4 C
(d) 6 C.
56. In the case of a parallel plate capacitor,
when the distance between the two plates
is reduced to one third and the area of
the plate doubled, the capacitance
(a) remains the same
(b) is doubled
(c) increases to five times
(d) increases to six times.
57. If the potential difference across the
combination shown in the figure is
33 volt, then the potential difference
across C2 is
5 F
10 F
15 F
C1
C2
C3
(a) 99 volt
(b) 9 volt
(c) 2 volt
(d) 100 volt.
58. An oil drop having 12 excess electrons is
held stationary by a field of 2.56 104
V/m. Estimate the radius of the drop of
density 1260 kg/m3.
(a) 2.2 108 m
(b) 1000 m
(c) 1.1 102 m
(d) 9.8 107 m.
59. Three charges q, Q and + q are placed
at equal distance on a straight line. If the
total potential energy of the system of
171
ELECTROSTATICS
Q
r
+q
r
(a) 1 : 4
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 1 : 0.
60. A spherical liquid drop has a diameter of
2 cm and is given a charge of 1 C
(1) What is the potential at the surface
of the drop? (2) If two such drops coalesce
to form a single drop what is the potential
at the surface of the drop so formed?
(a) 9 105 volt, 14.3 105 volt
(b) 22 102 volt, 2.2 105 volt
(c) 100 volt, 150 volt
(d) zero, 60 volt.
61. A substance has one coulomb of negative
charge on it. How many electrons are in
excess on it compared to its neutral state?
(b) 6.25 1028
(a) 6.25 1018
(c) 1019
(d) 6.25 1028.
172
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
i.e.,
LM 1
N 4
OP L 4e q O = LM 1 OP LM eq OP
Q MN d PQ N 4 Q N (a d) Q
2
( a d) 2
2
1
=
d ( a d)
2a 2d = d
3d = 2a
d
or
d=
2
a
3
Ans.
C=
with
dC
A 0
A 0 v 2
A 0 v
=
=
=
2
2
dt
vt
vd
d2
i.e.,
1
dC
2
d
dt
Ans.
173
ELECTROSTATICS
Solution:
A 0
= C0,
d
A 0
C0
=
= 2C0
C=
b
d
1
d 1
2d
d
Assuming
FG
H
or
C
=2
C0
IJ FG
K H
IJ
K
Ans.
3 F
70 V
Solution:
Equivalent circuit
V1
V2
V3
12
70 V
V1 + V2 + V3 = 70
174
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
17 F balances 70 volt
70 2
= 8.23 volt.
17
2 F will balance
A
+q
B
+q
+q
2
C
A
+q
2
B
+q
q2
1
= 2 105 N
4 0 4 a2
In the second case
Force on C due to A
=
q2
1
towards right
4 0 4 a 2
Force on C due to B
=
1 q2
towards left
4 0 2a 2
1
4 0
Fq
GH 2a
2
2
q2
4 a2
I towards left.
JK
175
ELECTROSTATICS
q2
1
4 0 4 a 2
= 2 105 newton
Ans.
2A
2t, e2
2t, e1
t, e1
t, e2
Solution:
LM
N
1
1 1
t
t
t
+
=
+
=
2 A 0 1 2 A 0 2 2 A 0 1 2
C1
or C1 =
LM
N +
1 2
Similarly
C2 =
=
OP FG 2 A IJ = 12 A
QH t K 5t
0
A 0 1 A 0 2
+
2t
2t
A 0
5 A 0
( 1 + 2 ) =
2t
2t
RS
T
C1
12 A 0
=
C2
5t
C1
24
=
C2
25
UV RS 2t UV = 24
W T 5 A W 25
Ans.
OP
Q
176
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
5 F
30 W
20 W
Copper voltameter
m 4.62 10 6
=
= 14 coulomb
Z 3.3 10 7
Energy stored in the capacitor,
q=
E=
1
1 q
q 1 q2
CV 2 =
V =
2
2V
C 2 C
LM
N
OP
Q
1
14 2
= 1960 J
2 5 10 2
When the capacitor is discharged through
a resistance R = 20 and a voltameter
of internal resistance 30 in series, then
1960 J of energy will be produced in these
resistances, in the form of heat.
=
177
ELECTROSTATICS
LM 1960 OP = 784 J
N 20 + 30 Q
E = 784 J
Ans.
t2
.
t1
Solution:
d
F1 = me
Also
t12
and
F2 = mp
d
t22
F1 = eE = F2
Hence me
d
t12
= mp
t2
=
t1
d
t22
mp
Ans.
me
E1
B
+
+
+
+
+
+
s1
+
+
(2)
E2
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
s2
(3)
E3
178
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Solution:
Intensity in region (1) is
1
1
+ 2 =
(1 + 2)
2 0
2 0 2 0
towards left
In region (2)
E1 =
1
1 2
=
(1 2)
2
0
2 0 2 0
towards right
In region (3)
1
(1 + 2)
E3 = 1 + 2 =
2 0
2 0 2 0
towards right
Special case:
If 1 = 2 = i.e., we have two infinite
plane sheets with equal and opposite
uniform densities of charge. Then the
field is non-zero only in between the two
sheets and there it is constant. The electrical intensity between plates,
E2 =
E=
1
[ ( )] =
0
2 0
rV
9 10 9
q
r
200 r
9 10 9
179
ELECTROSTATICS
Ans.
1
125 q 5000
QV =
2
2
Energy of 125 drops
1
E2 = QV 125
2
1
= q 200 125
2
E1 =
E1
= 25
E2
Ans.
6.8 10 6
= 1 =
2 0 2 0 2 8.85 10 12
= 3.84 105 N/C
E1 =
180
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
4.3 10 6
2
=
2 0
2 8.85 10 12
= 2.43 105 N/C
E2 =
+
+
E2
+
+
+
s
+
+
+
E2
+
+
B
E2
E1
E2
Ans.
181
ELECTROSTATICS
(b)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(a).
2.
6.
10.
14.
18.
22.
26.
30.
34.
38.
42.
46.
50.
54.
58.
(c)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(d)
3. (a)
7. (a)
11. (c)
15. (c)
19. (d)
23. (a)
27. (c)
31. (d)
35. (c)
39. (a)
43. (a)
47. (a)
51. (c)
55. (c)
59. (a)
4. (d)
8. (d)
12. (d)
16. (b)
20. (b)
24. (a)
28. (d)
32. (a)
36. (d)
40. (c)
44. (b)
48. (d)
52. (b)
56. (d)
60. (a)
CHAPTER
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
4
newton
0
(c)
1
4 0
0
number.
4
Here 0 is permittivity of a free space.
(d)
182
183
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
e
(b)
e
(c) e2
(d) e.
7. Ohms law is a basic law because
(a) V does not depend on I linearly always
(b) the relation between V and I depends
on the sign of V for the same absolute
value of I
(c) at very low temperatures the
resistance decreases rapidly
(d) all the above are true.
8. If , l and r are the resistivity, length and
radius respectively of a copper wire and
V and R are the p.d. and resistance, then
the current in the circuit can be equated
to
(a)
(a)
Vr 2
l
(b)
l
r2
Vr 2
q2
(d)
.
Rl
4 0
9. A steady current flows through a metallic
conductor of non-uniform cross-section.
Which of the following quantities are
constant along the conductor?
(a) current
(b) current density
(c)
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10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
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CURRENT ELECTRICITY
(b) =
ne 2
m
m
R (W)
ne 2
(c) =
(d) =
m
ne 2
where is the relaxation time.
16. Dimensions of resistivity, are
(a) ML3TA
(b) ML2T2A2
2
(c) ML AT
(d) ML3T3A2.
17. Actually the resistances of a superconductor does not fall sharply at a particular temperature, but in a small range of
temperature as shown in figure. This is
because of
T(K)
( R2 R1 )
(T2 T1 )
(b)
R2 / R1
R1 (T1 + T2 )
(c)
( R2 R1 )
R1 (T2 T1 )
(d)
R1
.
( R2 R1 )
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OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(c) Z =
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CURRENT ELECTRICITY
24. The root mean square velocity of the electrons at 27C in a metal is approximately
(a) 108 m/s
(b) 10 m/s
(c) 105 m/s
(d) 0.1 m/s.
25. The heat produced in a resistor is
(a) IRt
(b) I 2Rt
I
(d)
.
(c) IR2t
Rt
26. One Faraday is
(a) 965 C/g mol
(b) 9650 C/g mol
(c) 2140 C/g mol
(d) 96500 C/g mol.
27. The force experienced by an electron of
charge 1.6 1019 coulomb is an electric
field is 3.2 1018 newton. The strength
of the electric field is
(a) 200 V/m
(b) 2 V/m
(c) 0.2 V/m
(d) 20 V/m.
28. The critical temperature of the superconductor lead is
(a) 17.2 K
(b) 7.1 K
(c) 22.21 K
(d) 117.2 K.
29. The cause for the resistance in the
conductor is due to
(a) vibration of electrons
(b) collisions of electrons on atoms
(c) magnitude of the charge of the
electron
(d) none of these.
30. The current flowing through a conductor
depends on
(a) quantity of charge carriers
(b) charge and voltage
(c) resistance and voltage
(d) resistance alone.
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OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
q
(d) F = q (V B) .
(c)
F =
VB
33. The material having negative temperature coefficient of resistance is
(a) copper
(c) silicon
(b) aluminium
(d) water.
(b) 625
(c) 525
(d) 725 .
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CURRENT ELECTRICITY
mv 2
r
m
r
mv 2
(c) Ber = mv
(d) Bev =
.
r
39. PQ and RS are two conductors r metre
apart carrying current I1 and I2 ampere
respectively as in figure. The force
experienced by the conductor RS per unit
length is
(a) B =
(b) Be =
R
B
r
Q
(a)
I1 I2
r
(b)
I1 1.6 10 6
I2 r
(c)
2 2
0 I1
(d)
2 10 7 I 1 I2
.
r
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OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
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CURRENT ELECTRICITY
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OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
a2 x2
1
( a2 x 2 ) 3 / 2
(d) B
a2 x2 .
53. If a power of 50 watt is being supplied
across a p.d. of 250 volt, current flowing
is
(a) 0.1 A
(b) 0.2 A
(c) 2 A
(d) 5 A.
54. 1C rise in temperature is observed in a
conductor by passing a certain current.
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CURRENT ELECTRICITY
(a)
( R + r)
Er 2
and
ER
R+r
E2r
( R + r) 2
and
R+r
ER
Er
ER
(c)
and
( R + r)
( R + r)
(b)
E R
E
and
.
( R + r)
R
56. When a Daniell cell of e.m.f. 1.08 volt is
connected to an external resistor of 2 ,
the p.d. falls to 0.9 volt. The internal
resistance of the cell is
(a) 1
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.6
(d) 0.4 .
57. Two wires of resistance 3 and 6 are
connected in parallel with a battery of
e.m.f. 6 volt and internal resistance 1 .
Calculate the current through each
resistance following the figure given
below:
(d)
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OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
30
30
2V
30 W
(a) 0.1 A
(b) 1.2 A
(c) 4 A
(d) 20 A.
59. Electron in hydrogen atom revolves
around the nucleus with frequency
61014 Hz. The current is in the orbit is
(a) 9.6 A
(b) 9.6 102 A
5
(c) 9.6 10 A
(d) 9.6 105 A.
60. An electron is describing circular path in
a magnetic field 104 tesla. The frequency
of revolution of the electron is
(a) 2.8 106 Hz
(b) 1.8 106 Hz
(c) 8.8 102 Hz
(d) 1000 Hz.
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CURRENT ELECTRICITY
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OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(a) 5.4 m
(b) 6.4 m
(c) 7.5 m
(d) 8.5 m.
67. If each of the resistance in the network
is R, what is the resistance R between
the terminals A and B?
E
R
R
R
R
A
R
D
(a) R =
B
C
R
2
(b) R = R
2
.
R
68. A 500 watt heater is designed to operate
on 220volt line. By what percentage the
heat output drop if the p.d. goes to
160volt?
(a) 42%
(b) 36%
(c) 17%
(d) 28%.
69. A 100 watt bulb and 500 watt bulb are
joined in parallel to the main supply
voltage. Which bulb will draw more
current?
(a) 500 watt bulb
(b) 100 watt bulb
(c) both will draw some current.
70. When a straight conductor (of length
2metre) carrying a current of 5 A is
placed in a uniform magnetic field of
0.8tesla at an angle of 30 with the
magnetic field, the force on the conductor
is
(c) R = 2R
(d) R =
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CURRENT ELECTRICITY
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
(a) 8 N
(b) 4 N
(c) 16 N
(d) 160 N.
A galvanometer scale is divided into 100
equal divisions and a current of 2.5 mA
required to produce a full scale division.
The current required to produce a
deflection of 40 division is
(a) 4 mA
(b) 3 mA
(c) 2 mA
(d) 1 mA.
The acceleration of an electron in an
electric field of intensity 100 kV/m
(a) 100 102 m/s2
(b) 0.01 1015 m/s2
(c) 1.76 1016 m/s2
(d) 11.21 1015 m/s2.
Current is flowing through a conductor
of resistance 10 . Indicate in which of
the following cases maximum heat will
be generated
(a) 4.9 amp current for 3 minutes
(b) 3.9 amp current for 3 minutes
(c) 1.0 amp current for 4 minutes
(d) 1 amp current for 5 minutes.
The resistance of the shunt to be used to
divert 60% of the total current is 200 .
The resistance of the galvanometer is
approximately
(a) 733
(b) 33
(c) 3.3
(d) 133 .
A superconductor at superconducting
state
(a) requires larger power to carry even
small current
(b) has no thermal losses but has high
resistivity
(c) has no resistivity and no thermal
losses associated with the passage of
large current
(d) all the above are true.
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OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
76. The resistance of moving coil galvanometer is 150 and its full scale deflection
current is 0.5mA. By connecting a series
resistance of 950, the galvanometer can
be converted into a voltmeter to read up
to
(a) 0.55 V
(b) 2 V
(c) 1.6 V
(d) 6 V.
77. The dielectric constant of the three
materials, water, mica and glass are
respectively
(a) 80, 2 and 5.2
(b) 200, 100.2 and 7
(c) 800, 14.6 and 2
(d) 200, 8.6 and 15.2.
78. A 4 F capacitor is charged by a 200 volt
supply. It is disconnected and then
connected to an uncharged 2F
capacitor. The loss of energy on sharing
is
(a) 36.8 103 J
(b) 2.1 102 J
(c) 26.7 103 J
(d) 100 J.
79. The heat developed in a resistor due to
the flow of a current of 10 ampere for one
minute is 18000joule. The resistance of
the resistor is
(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 5
(d) 3 .
80. The resistance of ebonite
(a) exponentially decreases as the
temperature increases
(b) increases with increase of temperature
(c) does not change with temperature
(d) tends to infinity as temperature
decreases.
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CURRENT ELECTRICITY
E
4
(b)
E
2
(d)
E
.
3
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OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
FG IJ
H K
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CURRENT ELECTRICITY
(c) tripled
(d) reduced to zero.
90. A current of 2 ampere is passing through
a metal having an area of cross-section
4106 m2. If the drift velocity is
6.2105 m/s, the number of free electrons/mm3 is
(a) 717 106
(b) 2 1017
19
(c) 5 10
(d) 200 103
91. A steady current is passing through a
linear conductor of non-uniform crosssection. The current density in the
conductor is
(a) independent of the area of crosssection
(b) inversely proportional to the area of
cross-section
(c) inversely proportional to the square
of the area of cross-section
(d) all the above are false.
92. A copper wire of resistance R0 is stretched
the its length is increased to n times its
original length. The new resistance is
(a)
R0
(b) R0n
n2
R
(c) 0
(d) R0n2.
n
93. Null point of a potentiometer wire will
shift beyond the potential wire if
(a) battery in the main circuit is low in
e.m.f.
(b) battery in the main circuit is high in
e.m.f.
(c) the length of the wire is small
(d) the length of the wire is high.
94. If a given piece of wire of length and cross
sectional area A and resistance R, is
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95.
96.
97.
98.
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
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CURRENT ELECTRICITY
(a) 20 A
(b) 2 A
(c) 10 A
(d) 40 A.
99. Two resistors
R1andR2 may be
connected either in series or in parallel
across a battery of zero internal
resistance. It is required that the joule
heating for the parallel combinations be
five times that for the series combination.
If R1 is 100 , R2 is
(a) 162 or 18
(b) 268 or 2
(c) 100 or 10
(d) 262 or 38 .
100. Two resistances 400 and 800 are
connected is series with a 6 volt battery.
To measure the current in the circuit, an
ammeter of 10 resistance is used. The
reading in the ammeter is
(a) 5.96 mA
(b) 1.92 mA
(c) 2.6 mA
(d) 4.96 mA.
3kB T
m
3 1.38 10 23 300
9.1 10 31
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OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
j = nevd
or
vd =
j
ne
15 10 6
1.6 10 19 8.5 10 28
= 1.1 103
c
1.1 10 5
=
= 108
vd 1.1 10 3
c = 108 vd
Ans.
2lcu
lcu
lcu
=
=
acu Rcu (aal/ 2 ) Rcu aal Rcu
with
lcu = lal
Thus
al =
lal
aal Ral
cu 2Ral
=
al
Rcu
1.5 al 2 Ral
=
al
Rcu
Rcu =
2Ral
1.5
Ans.
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CURRENT ELECTRICITY
l1
A1
and R2 =
l2
A2
FG IJ FG A IJ
H KHA K
R2
l
= 2
R1
l1
But
A1l1 = A2l2 or
FG IJ
H K
R2
l
= 2
R1
l1
Hence
A1 l2
=
A2 l1
0.2 l1
= 0.002 l1
100
Hence l1 + 0.002l1 = l1(1 + 0.002)
= 1.002l1
or
l2 = 1.002l1
FG IJ
H K
R2
l
= 2
R1
l1
Thus
= 1.0022 = 1.004
R2
1 = 1.004 1 = 0.004
R1
( R2 R1 )
= 0.004
R1
FG R R IJ
H R K 100 = 0.4%
2
Ans.
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OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Solution:
R1 + R2 = 8
and
1
1
8
R + R2
+
= 1
=
R1 R2
R1 R2
R1 R2
8
1
=
R1 R2 1.5
Thus
R1R2 = 12
or
Also
R1 R2 = 4
and R1 + R2 = 8
or
2R1 = 12, R1 = 6
Hence R2 = 2
R1 = 6 and R2 = 2
Ans.
1.5 V
1.5 V
G
R
(a)
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CURRENT ELECTRICITY
1.5 V
r
r
1.5 V
R
G
(b)
In circuit (a)
1.5 + 1.5
=1
G + R + 2r
(G + R + 2r) = 3
(1)
In circuit (b), the total effective resistance
of the cell is given by
i=
1 1 1 2
= + =
r1 r r r ;
or r1 =
r
= 0.5r
2
1.5
G + R + 0.5r
1.5
= 2.5
0.6
(2)
Eqn. (1 2) is
2r 0.5r = 3 2.5 = 0.5
1.5r = 0.5
r = 0.333
Ans.
I=
P 6.0
3
=
=
ampere
V 220 11
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OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Q=I.t=
But Q = ne; n =
n = 1020
3 60 180
=
coulomb
11
11
180
Q
=
e 11 1.6 10 19
Ans.
12
= i and
R
12
= i 0.5
R+4
12
12
=
0.5
R+4 R
i.e.,
1
1 0.5
=
R + 4 R 12
1
1
1
=
R+4 R
24
R R4
1
=
R( R + 4)
24
4
1
=
24
R2 + 4 R
R2 + 4R 96 = 0
R=
4 16 + 384 4 + 20
=
=8
2
2
R=8
Ans.
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209
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
x
= 4; x = 20
5
x = 20C
Ans.
V2
V2
V2
; P1 =
and P2 =
R1
R2
R
P1 R2 200
=
=
=2
P2 R1 100
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28-11-2007
210
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
R2 = 2R1
R2 = 2R1
Ans.
V2
in series and so R1 = R + R = 2R
R1
H2 =
V2
1
1 1 2
in parallel and
= + =
R2
R2 R R R
or
R2 =
R
= 0.5R
2
V2
V2
V2
=
and H2 =
R2 0.5 R
2R
H 1 1 0.5
1
=
= 0.25 =
H2
2
4
H1 =
H1 1
=
H2 4
Ans.
2. (c)
6. (d)
10. (c)
3. (d)
7. (d)
11. (a)
4. (c)
8. (c)
12. (d)
P-2
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28-11-2007
211
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
13.
17.
21.
25.
29.
33.
37.
40A.
44.
48.
52.
56.
60.
64.
68.
72.
76.
80.
84.
88.
92.
96.
100.
(d)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(d).
14.
18.
22.
26.
30.
34.
38.
41.
45.
49.
53.
57.
61.
65.
69.
73.
77.
81.
85.
89.
93.
97.
(d)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(c)
15. (d)
19. (b)
23. (d)
27. (d)
31. (a)
35. (d)
39. (a)
42. (c)
46. (d)
50. (b)
54. (a)
58. (a)
62. (b)
66. (a)
70. (b)
74. (d)
78. (c)
82. (b)
86. (a)
90. (c)
94. (d)
98. (d)
P-2
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211
28-11-2007
16. (c)
20. (a)
24. (c)
28. (b)
32. (c)
36. (b)
40. (c)
43. (d)
47. (a)
51. (d)
55. (c)
59. (c)
63. (b)
67. (c)
71. (d)
75. (c)
79. (d)
83. (d)
87. (c)
91. (b)
95. (c)
99. (d)
CHAPTER
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
(a) 3.1 mV
(b) 2 V
(c) 31 mV
(d) 21 mV.
3. The mechanical energy spent by the
external agency is converted into
electrical energy stored in the coil. This
relates to
(a) Ohms law
(b) Coulombs law
(c) Lenzs law
(d) Newtons law of motion.
212
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
213
214
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(a) M = K (L1L2)
(b) M = K
(c) M = K L1 L2
(d) M = K(L1L2)2.
(d)
0 n i = .
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
215
216
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
217
1
. As the capacitance C is
2C
increased, its reactance decreases, the
current increases and hence the bulb
glows brighter.
2. What will be the inductance in an a.c.
circuit when the impedance of the coil is
Xc =
0.5
milli henry and frequency 50 Hz?
218
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Solution:
2 50 0.5 10 3
XL = L = 2L =
XL = 0.05
Ans.
1
2 LC
1
2 10 10
0.25 10 6
= 3184.5 Hz
c = ; = c/ =
3 108
3184.5
= 9.42 104 m
Ans.
0.6
= cos ;
cos = 0.5
AB
0.6 2
= 60
Ans.
219
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
Solution:
Vp
Vs
Is
Ip
2000
I
= 10 = s ;
200
0.5
Is = 10 0.5 = 5 A
Rs =
Vs 200
= 40
=
Is
5
Rs = 40
Ans.
0.05
henry are connected in series. If
of
X=
=
R 2 + (2L) 2
12 2 + (2 3.14 50) (0.05 / ) 2
X = 13
Ans.
(d)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(b)
2.
6.
10.
14.
18.
22.
26.
(c)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(d)
3. (c)
7. (d)
11. (c)
15. (a)
19. (a)
23. (d)
27. (b).
4. (d)
8. (b)
12. (c)
16. (d)
20. (b)
24. (b)
CHAPTER
THERMAL
AND
CHEMICAL EFFECTS
R1 2
=
R2 5
R1
=2
R2
R1 5
=
R2 2
(d) 100 watt bulb; R1 = R2.
2. Water boils in an electric kettle in
15 minute. Should the length of the
heating element increased or decreased
if water is to boil in 10 minute?
(a) increased
(b) decreased
(c) No necessity to change the length.
3. The energy consumed in one hour at the
rate of one kilowatt is one kilowatt-hour.
One kilowatt-hour is
(a) 3.6 106 J
(b) 1.6 106 J
(c) 4.8 102 J
(d) 5 103 J.
(c) 40 watt bulb;
220
221
222
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
dT
dV
1 dV
(b) =
T dT
d dT
(c) =
dT dV
dV
(d) =
.
dT
11. The Faraday constant F is related with
Avogadros number as
(a) =
FG IJ
H K
N
NA
(b) F = 2A
e
e
2
(c) F = NAe
(d) F = NAe.
12. The rate at which thermo e.m.f. varies
with temperature is known as
(a) Peltier effect
(b) Thomson effect
(c) Thermo electric effect
(d) Joules law.
13. In a thermocouple, one junction is kept
at constant temperature and the other
(a) F =
223
224
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
225
226
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Virtual voltage
Virtual current
200
= 80
2.5
Power consumed
=
R
Z
250 Z
R
250 = 200 2.5 ; R =
200 2.5
Z
= V I cos = V I
80
= 40
2
Z 2 = R2 + XL2
where XL is inductive reactance
6400 = 1600 + XL2;
XL2 = 6400 1600
XL2 = 4800
R=
XL = 40
Resistance is 40
Reactance is 40 3
Ans.
227
d
dt
If R is the resistance of the circuit, the
instantaneous induced current
e=
e
1 d
=
R
R dt
The charge that flows in a short time dt
is
I=
d
1 d
dt =
R
R dt
Total charge flowing when the flux
dq = Idt =
changes from
1 to 2 =
1 2
R
Change of flux
=
Resistance
FG
H
2
R
IJ
K
q=
Ans.
d
dB
= An
= 500 102 1
dt
dt
e = 5 volt
Ans.
228
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
2BAN d
=
dt
dt
e=
2 0.3 200 70 10 4
= 8.4
0.1
e = 8.4 volt
Ans.
Ans.
7. The thermo e.m.f. (E) of a copperconstantan thermocouple, and the temperature of the hot junction with cold
junction at 0C are found to satisfy the
1
relation E = a + b2 where E is in volt
2
and in C, a = 41 V/C and b =
0.044 V/C2, calculate the temperature
of the hot junction when the thermo e.m.f.
is 5.5 mV.
Solution:
E = a +
1
b2
2
229
1
0.044 106
2
5.5 10 3
0.022 10 6
10 6
41 10 6
10 6
10 6
= 125.6C
Ans.
8. Pure water and dry salt are both nonconductors of electricity, but the solution
of salt water is conductor of electricity.
Explain.
Solution:
Due to absence of ionisation in pure water
and dry salt, these are no free electrons
in them. In salt solution NaCl ionises into
Na+ and Cl ions. Hence salt solution
becomes conductor of electricity.
9. Why are salts ionised on dissolving in
water?
Solution:
In a salt, the positive and negative ions
are bound together by mutual force of
attraction. When dissolved in water, the
1
th
80
of the original value since the dielectric
constant of water is 80. Dissociation of
ions takes place and the salt is ionised.
force between the ions is reduced to
230
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(c)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(c)
2.
6.
10.
14.
18.
22.
26.
(b)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)
3. (a)
7. (a)
11. (d)
15. (c)
19. (d)
23. (d)
27. (a)
4. (a)
8. (b)
12. (c)
16. (c)
20. (a)
24. (a)
CHAPTER
ATOMIC PHYSICS
232
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
ATOMIC PHYSICS
233
234
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(a)
1
2
(b)
1
4
(c) 3
(d) 4.
14. Specific charge of cathode rays means
charge
(a) of a proton
(b) of a single electron
(c) per unit mass of electron
(d) of -ray.
15. The wavelength of X-rays is about
(a) 1010 times greater than that of
ultrasonic waves
(b) 1010 times smaller than that of
ultrasonic waves
(c) 10 times smaller than that of
ultrasonic waves
(d) both have almost the same
wavelength.
16. If vg is the terminal velocity then by
Stokes formula the viscous force is given
by
(a) F = 2avg
(b) F = 6avg
(c) F = avg
(d) F = 22avg.
where a is the radius of the drop and
the viscosity of air.
17. In a Millikans oil drop experiment an oil
drop having a charge e is held stationary
with an external p.d. of 600 volt. If the
radius of the drop is doubled without any
change of charge, the p.d. required to
keep the drop stationary is
(a) 600 volt
(b) 4800 volt
(c) 1600 volt
(d) 3200 volt.
ATOMIC PHYSICS
235
B
=E
(d) Bev = Ee.
e
20. A proton projected with kinetic energy E
describes a circle of radius r in a uniform
magnetic field. With what kinetic energy
should an -particle be projected in the
same magnetic field so that it describes
a circle of radius 2r?
(a) 2E
(b) 3E
(c) 4E
(d) 5E.
21. The mass of a proton is about 2000 times
that of electron. An electron and proton,
with equal kinetic energies, enter
perpendicularly a uniform electric field.
Then
(a) the path of proton will be more curved
than that of electron
(b) the path of a proton will be less curved
than that of electron
(c) the path of proton and electron will
be equally curved
(d) the paths of both will be straight.
22. In Millikans oil drop experiment, when
the force due to gravity and retarding
(c)
236
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
3
a3( ) = 8a
4
4 3
a ( a) = 8av
3
(d) a3( ) = 3a.
where and are respectively the
density of oil and air, a is the radius of
the oil drop and v is the constant velocity
of the oil drop.
23. The elementary particles having rest
mass equal or greater than that of
nucleons are
(a) mesons
(b) leptons
(c) photons
(d) baryons.
24. The ratio of specific charge of proton and
-particle is
(a) 2 : 4
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 4 : 1.
(c)
e
obtained from Thomsons
m
experiment for electron is 1.759 1011
C/kg. If mass of the electron is 1840 times
smaller than that of a proton, than the
mass of the proton is
(a) 1.27 1027 kg
(b) 7 1011 kg
(c) 1840 kg
(d) 1.67 1027 kg.
26. If an electron has no initial velocity in a
direction different from that of an electric
field, the path of the electron in the
electric field will be
25. The value of
ATOMIC PHYSICS
27.
28.
29.
30.
237
(d) V .
V2
31. In photoelectric emission electrons are
emitted by heating the surface of the
metal while in thermoionic emission,
electrons are emitted under the influence
of electromagnetic radiation. This is
(a) true
(b) false.
(c)
238
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
239
ATOMIC PHYSICS
(a) h0 = W
1
mv2
2
(b) h0 = W
(c) h0 = W 2
1
mv2
2
1
mv2.
2
where 0 is the threshold frequency of the
metal.
37. A radio transmitter operates at a
frequency of 880 kHz and a power of
10 kW. The number of photons emitted
per sec is
(a) 1.8 1031
(b) 1.8 1020
15
(c) 7.8 10
(d) 102.
38. The main advantage of solar cell is
(a) no external source of e.m.f. is required
(b) it is very cheap
(c) it is sturdy
(d) all are true.
39. The standard photoelectric equation is
1
h = h0 + eV0
h = h0 + mv2 ; or
2
A graph is drawn between and V0 , the
intercept on the y-axis is given by
(a) h0
(b) (h0)2
(d) h0 = W 2 +
(c)
FG h IJ
H eK
0
(d)
FG h IJ .
H eK
0
240
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(a) 124.4 nm
(b) 8 nm
(c) 427.5 nm
(d) 12.4 nm.
In order to increase the kinetic energy of
ejected photoelectrons, there should be
an increase in the
(a) frequency of radiation
(b) intensity of radiation
(c) wavelength of radiation
(d) both wavelength and intensity of
radiation.
The photoelectric work function of a
metal is 2.061 eV. The threshold wavelength is
(a) 600 nm
(b) 60 nm
(c) 250 nm
(d) 160 nm.
Photon is a
(a) quantum of matter
(b) positively charged particle
(c) negatively charged particle
(d) quantum of light.
The mass of a photon is
h
(a) h
(b)
h
(c) zero
(d) 2 .
c
The photoelectric effect helps to convert
(a) light energy into sound energy
(b) sound energy into electrical energy
(c) electrical energy into light energy
(d) light energy into electrical energy.
Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold
frequency is incident on a photosensitive
surface. If the frequency is halved, the
photoelectric current is
(a) halved
(b) doubled
(c) quadrupled
(d) zero.
241
ATOMIC PHYSICS
r1
.
r2
Solution:
1
m v2 = Bev1r1
2 1 1
1
m v2 = Bev2r2
2 2 2
FG m IJ FG v IJ = FG v IJ FG r IJ
Hm K Hv K Hv K Hr K
FG m IJ v = r
Hm K v r
2
or
(1)
243
ATOMIC PHYSICS
m0
m=
1 (v 2 / c 2 )
1
m v2 = eV
2 e
1 (me v) 2
= eV
2 me
or
pe2 = 2eVme
and
p2 = 2 2eVm
pe2
p2
pe
=
p
me
;
2m
LM
N
pe
me
=
2m
p
OP
Q
me
2m
1/ 2
Ans.
244
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
M1 r1
=
M2 r2
r2 = r1
22
M2
= 10
= 11 cm
20
M1
r2 = 11 cm
Ans.
1
mv12
2
1
h2 = W + mv22
2
h1 = W +
245
ATOMIC PHYSICS
1
mv12 = 1 0.5 = 0.5 eV
2
1
mv22 = 2.5 0.5 = 2 eV
2
FG v IJ
Hv K
1
0.5
= 0.25
2
v1 1
=
v2 2
v1 : v2 = 1 : 2
Ans.
4
3.14 1018 2 103
3
= 8.373 1015 kg
Ee = mg
=
E=
mg 8.373 10 15 9.8
=
e
1.6 10 19
Ans.
246
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
me
.
2m
1
m v2 = eV
2 e
1 (me v) 2
= eV
2 me
1
(m v) 2
2
= 2 eV
m
and
pe2 = 2 eVm
e
p2 = 2 2 eVm
or
pe2
p2
pe
=
p
me
2 m
me
2m
Ans.
e
by
m
Dunningstons method the frequency of
the A.C. source is 20 MHz and = 330.
The successive values of B for which the
current is a maximum are 1.6 104 T
and 1.3 104 T. Find the value of e/m.
Solution:
If n is an integer, then n 1.6 104 = (n
+ 1) 1.3 104. Solving this n = 4.33
Formula used:
11. In
the
determination
of
=
=
m nTB1 TB1
247
ATOMIC PHYSICS
360 = 2 radian
330 =
2 330
radian
360
e
2 330 20 10 6
=
m 360 4 1.6 10 4
e
= 1.8 1011 C/kg Ans.
m
12. Calculate the potential difference through
which an electron would have to pass to
acquire a velocity of 0.995 c where, c is
the velocity of light.
Solution: We know from Einsteins
theory of relativity that the mass of a
particle increases with the increase in
velocity. According to this theory, the
mass m of a particle moving with a
velocity v is given by
m=
m0
[1 2 ] 1/ 2
m0
1 (0.995) 2
= 10 m0
248
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
7.37 10 13
1.6 10 19
= 4.6 106 eV
Energy, E = eV = 4.6 106 1.6 1019 J
V=
4.6 10 6 1.6 10 19
1.6 10 19
Ans.
(a)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b).
2.
6.
10.
14.
18.
22.
26.
30.
34.
38.
42.
46.
(d)
(d)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(d)
3. (c)
7. (b)
11. (b)
15. (b)
19. (d)
23. (d)
27. (d)
31. (b)
35. (c)
39. (d)
43. (a)
47. (d)
4. (c)
8. (c)
12. (b)
16. (b)
20. (c)
24. (b)
28. (b)
32. (d)
36. (d)
40. (d)
44. (d)
48. (c)
249
ATOMIC PHYSICS
(c) radioactivity
(d) all the above are true.
2. The radius of the nucleus depends on
mass number A as
1
R
or R = 0
A
A
(b) R A or R = R0 A
(c) R A1/3 or R = R0 A1/3
(a) R
(d) R A or R = R0[ A ].
3. In a hydrogen atom, the electron jumps
from the state n to (n 1) where n >> 1.
The frequency of the emitted radiation
is proportional to
1
(b) n
n
(d) n3.
(c) n6
The energy of hydrogen atom in the
ground state is 13.6 eV. The frequency
due to transition from n = 4 to n = 2 is
approximately
(a) 6 108 Hz
(b) 1.2 102 Hz
12
(c) 2.8 10 Hz (d) 6.2 1014 Hz.
Which one of the following particles can
be added to the nucleus of an atom so that
no change in properties is noticed
(a) proton
(b) positron
(c) electron
(d) neutron.
In a hydrogen like atom the energy
required to excite the electron from 2nd
to 3rd orbit is 47.2 eV. The atomic
number of the atom is
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 2
(d) 3.
One nanometre is equal to
(a) 105 m
(b) 1010 m
(a)
4.
5.
6.
7.
(c) [1018]1/2 m
(d)
1
m.
200
250
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
9
times
144
the Rydberg constant, what is the state
from which the transition has taken
place.
(a) n2= 4
(b) n2 = 5
(c) n2 = 7
(d) n2 = 6.
Compare the semi-major axis of 3p, 4d
sub-shells assuming semi-minor axes are
the same
9
8
(a)
(b)
8
7
4
1
(c)
(d) .
3
2
If n = 1.5 and h = 6.62 1034 Js, the
angular momentum of the revolving
electron in hydrogen atom as per Bohrs
theory is
h
h
(b) n2
(a) n
2
2
2n
(c)
h
(d) all the above are false.
Which of the following statements is
correct?
(1) electron was discovered by Millikan
(2) electron is 2000 times heavier than a
proton
(3) cathode rays are of electromagnetic
radiation
(4) electron is a fundamental particle.
(a) (1) and (4)
(b) (3)
(c) (2)
(d) all the four are correct.
The ratio of the orbital frequencies of the
electron in the first and 4th orbit of
hydrogen atom is
Brackett series of hydrogen is
9.
10.
11.
12.
ATOMIC PHYSICS
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
251
(a) 18
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 27.
The velocity of the electrons in the
stationary orbits of hydrogen atom is
(a) directly proportional to the square
root of the principal quantum number
(b) directly proportional to the square of
the principal quantum number
(c) independent of the principal quantum
number
(d) inversely proportional to the principal
quantum number.
The fundamental particles that constitute the nucleus are called
(a) -particles
(b) -particles
(c) cathode rays
(d) nucleons.
The area covered by the electron orbit for
the ground state of hydrogen atom is A.
What will be the area covered by the
electron orbit corresponding to the first
excited state?
(a) 2 A
(b) 6 A
(c) 3 A
(d) 16 A.
Isobars are
(a) atoms having the same number of
neutrons
(b) atoms that have the same mass
number and different atomic number
(c) atoms having the same atomic
number but different mass number
(d) all the above are false.
The fourth sub-shell of an atom can have
a maximum of
(a) 2
(b) 10
(c) 6
(d) 14.
252
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
FG IJ
HK
FG 1IJ rd of potential
H 3K
energy.
19. The order of frequencies of the lines of
the visible region of the mercury
spectrum is approximately
(a) 60000 1014/s
(b) 600 1014/s
(c) 60 1014/s
(d) 6 1014/s.
20. If r1 and r3 are the radii of the first and
third stationary orbits for electrons in
r
hydrogen atom respectively, then 1 is
r3
(a) 0.25
(b) 0.45
(c) 0.11
(d) 1.1.
21. In Sommerfield atom model for the
principal quantum number 4, ratio of the
major axis to the minor axis of the various
elliptical sub-shells are
1 1 1
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 1, , ,
2 3 4
4
3 1
(c) 4, 2, , 1
(d) 1, 8, , .
3
4 4
22. If the radius of the first orbit in hydrogen
atom is 0.05 nm, the radius of the first
orbit in helium atom is
(a) 0.05 nm
(b) 1
(c) 0.8 nm
(d) 0.025 nm.
ATOMIC PHYSICS
253
254
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(b)
27
(d) 2.
27
33. The ratio of the energies of the hydrogen
atom in its first to second excited state is
1
(a) 4
(b)
4
3
9
(c)
(d) .
4
4
34. Volume of the electron cloud in an atom
is largely dependent on the
(a) principal quantum number
(b) angular momentum quantam number
(c) spin quantam number
(d) magnetic quantam number.
35. The wave number of 2nd line of Lyman
series is
12 RH
(a) 2RH
(b)
5
8
3 RH
(c)
(d) RH .
9
4
(c)
255
ATOMIC PHYSICS
LM R OP
N (R 1) Q
H
(c) RH
1/ 2
LM R 1OP
N R Q
L 1 OP
(d) M
N R 1Q
(b)
1/ 2
1/3
256
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
2
n
n
(c) vn =
(d) vn =
.
2
ATOMIC PHYSICS
a
2a
(b)
2
3
a
a
(c) b =
(d) .
4
3
Which of the following transition is ruled
out in Sommer Feld model of the atoms
(a) 31 22
(b) 31 21
(c) 32 21
(d) 33 22.
One light year covers a distance of
approximately
(a) 100000 km
(b) 6.2 106 km
(d) 7.2 1010 km.
(c) 9 1012 km
Light coming from a commercially lighted
mercury fluorescence tube consists of
(a) emission lines of mercury
(b) emission lines of mercury with a few
bonds
(c) emission lines of mercury with a
continuous back ground
(d) emission lines of mercury and those
of electrode material.
If the series limit wavelength of Lyman
series for hydrogen atom is 91.2 nm, then
the series limit wavelength for the Balmer
series hydrogen atom is
(a) 912 nm
(b) 4 912 nm
(c) 2000
(d) 4 91.2 nm.
Given: mass number of gold = 197,
density of gold = 19700 k/m3, Avogadros
number 6 1026. The radius of the gold
atom is approximately.
(a) 1.8 1012 m
(b) 2.8 1011 m
(c) 1.6 1010 m
(d) 8.1 1010 m.
(a) b =
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
257
258
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
R
3
(b) 2.25 R
R
.
2
53. If the principal quantum number and
azimuthal quantum number in the
relativistic model of the atom are 3 and 1
respectively, then the magnitude of the
semi-minor axis b in terms of the semi
major axis a is
(a) 2.5
(b) 0.5
(c) 1
(d) 2.
54. The maximum number of electrons in a
sub-shell with orbital quantum number
l is
(a) (2l + 1)
(b) (2l 1)
(c) 2(2l + 1)
(d) 2(2l 1).
(c) 4.25 R
(d)
259
ATOMIC PHYSICS
hc
3 108 6.62 10 34
=
=
E
E 1.6 10 19
=
1240
nm
E
Ans.
F
GH
9
1
1
R = RH
2
2
400 H
n2
4
or
1
1
9
2
=
16 n2
400
I
JK
260
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
1
n22
9
1
400 9 16
=
400
16
16 400
256
6400
6400
400
n22 =
=
= 25
256
16
=
n2 = 5
Ans.
C
l1
B
EB
3
2
EA
EC EB = h1 =
hc
1
...(1)
EC EA = h3 =
hc
3
...(2)
EB EA = h2 =
hc
2
...(3)
EC EA = hc
FG 1 1 IJ
H K
Also, EC EA = hc
1
3
261
ATOMIC PHYSICS
FG
H
hc
1
1
= hc
3
1 2
3 =
IJ = hc ( )
K
2
1 2
1 2
( 2 1 )
Ans.
m0
1 (0.5 c) 2 / c 2
m0
1 0.25
E2 = mc2 =
m0
0.75
m0 c 2
0.87
E2
1
m0 c 2
=
=
2
0.87
E1
0.87 m0 c
E2 =
E1
0.511
=
= 0.079 MeV
0.87
0.87
E2 = 0.079 MeV
Ans.
262
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
But
2r
=
T
1
=
T
2r
ML = ir2 =
i=
erv
er 2 v
=
2
2 r
ev
1.6 10 19 2 10 6
=
2r
2 0.5 10 10
i = 1 mA
Ans.
263
ATOMIC PHYSICS
1.66 10 27 A 3
M
=
V
4 R0 3 A
Ans.
18
m3 of water contains = 6 1026
1000
1 m3 of water contains
6 10 29
molecules
18
= 3.33 1028 molecules.
3
1 cm contains
=
3.33 10 28
100 100 100
Ans.
264
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
For joule
J=W.D=Fd
= Mass Acceleration Distance
J = kg
B =
metre
metre = kg m2/sec2
sec 2
LM amp . J sec OP
N kg Q
2
amp sec 2
(kg m2/sec2)
kg
= amp m2
=
i.e.,
unit of B is amp m2
Ans.
13.6
n
eV ;
13.6
n2
= 3.4
or
n=2
Thus angular momentum,
2 6.62 10 34
nh
=
L=
2 3.14
2
L = 2.11 1034 J s Ans.
(a)
(d)
(a)
(d)
2.
6.
10.
14.
(c)
(b)
(d)
(d)
3. (c)
7. (c)
11. (a)
15. (d)
4. (d)
8. (d)
12. (b)
16. (b)
265
ATOMIC PHYSICS
17.
21.
25.
29.
33.
37.
41.
45.
49.
53.
(d)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(c)
(d)
18.
22.
26.
30.
34.
38.
42.
46.
50.
54.
(b)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(c)
19. (d)
23. (d)
27. (b)
31. (b)
35. (d)
39. (a)
43. (b)
47. (c)
51. (b)
55. (a)
20. (c)
24. (c)
28. (c)
32. (a)
36. (a)
40. (b)
44. (d)
48. (d)
52. (b)
56. (b).
266
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
267
ATOMIC PHYSICS
(a) =
(a)
(c)
V
1
V
(b) V2
(d) V.
268
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
1.8 103
n
1.8 10 3
(c) e = 2n
(d) e = 100 n.
In an X-ray tube, the intensity of the
emitted X-ray beam is increased by
(a) increasing the filament current
(b) decreasing the filament current
(c) increasing the target potential
(d) decreasing the target potential.
What determines the hardness of the
X-rays obtained from the Coolidge tube?
(a) current in the filament
(b) presence of air in the tube
(c) nature of target
(d) potential difference between the
cathode and the target.
The penetrating power of X-rays
increases with the
(a) increase in intensity
(b) decrease in intensity
(c) decrease in velocity
(d) increase in frequency.
An X-ray tube operates at 50 kV. The
minimum wavelength produced is
(a) 1
(b) 0.76
(c) 0.0248 nm
(d) 2.24 .
The resolving power of the given electron
microscope is of the order of the
wavelength of the ray used
(a) yes
(b) no.
ATOMIC PHYSICS
269
270
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
271
ATOMIC PHYSICS
(c) Ia =
(c)
1
( Z 1)
(d)
1
( Z 1) 2
272
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
273
ATOMIC PHYSICS
(b) (90 )
(d) 120.
274
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(hc) 2
eV
(b)
eV
hc
hc
(d) e2V.
eV
46. Continuous X-ray spectrum is due to
deacceleration of high velocity electron
(a) yes
(b) no.
47. Generation of X-rays is
(a) phenomenon of conservation of energy
(b) principal of conservation of momentum
(c) wave nature of matter
(d) phenomenon of conversion of K.E. into
radiant energy.
48. Line spectrum is produced when
electrons are dislodged from the
innermost orbits of atom of the target
material followed by electron jumps from
outer orbits.
(c) min =
(a) yes
(b) no.
1
2h
(c) h
(d) h2
where h is Plancks constant.
50. The wavelength of the matter waves
associated with a particle is given by
(a) (2rh)2
(b)
ATOMIC PHYSICS
h
p
(b)
p
h
p
h
(c)
(d)
h
p
where p is momentum.
Which of the following has the highest
frequency
(a) visible light
(b) ultraviolet rays
(c) infrared rays
(d) X-rays.
The quality of X-rays is determined by
(a) filament current
(b) filament voltage
(c) p.d. between the anode and the
cathode
(d) none of the above.
Continuous X-rays are produced as a
result of
(a) transition of electrons of target from
lower to higher orbits
(b) transition of electrons of target from
higher to lower orbits
(c) loss of kinetic energy of incident
electrons
(d) loss of mass of incident electrons.
The kinetic energy of electrons which are
converted into X-rays is
(a) 10%
(b) 50%
(c) 100%
(d) 2%.
The minimum frequency limit of the
X-ray depends on
(a) nature of target material
(b) kinetic energy of incident electrons
(c) the degree of vacuum is Coolidge tube
(d) none of the above.
(a)
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
275
276
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
emit
277
ATOMIC PHYSICS
Solution:
=
6.62 10 34
40 10 3 1000
= 1.66 1035 m
Ans.
Conclusion:
It is seen that the wavelength associated
with the bullet extremely small. So it
cannot be diffracted. Diffraction effects
are noticeable for obstacles whose
dimensions are of the order of the
wavelength. Even for obstacles of the size
of atom i.e. 1010 m, the wavelength is
small. Hence here the diffraction effects
could not be detected.
2. Compare the momentum of 105 eV X-rays
(px ) with that of 105 eV electron (pe ).
Solution:
RS
T
pe = 2 mE 3 E =
px =
E
c
3 10 8
pe
=
px
=
3 10 8
UV
W
EU
= V
cW
1 m2 v 2
; pe2 = 2 mE
2 m
RS3 E = mc
T
; mc = px
2 9.1 10 31 E
E
2 9.1 10 31
10 1.6 10
pe
16
=
px
5
19
16
5
Ans.
278
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Solution:
1
mv2 = eV
2
1
(mv2 mv2) = h.
2
For to be maximum, mv2 = 0
and
1
mv2 = Ve = hmax
2
hmax = Ve
Ve
max =
h
or
max V
Ans.
1
1
m1v12 = 4 m1v22
2
2
v1
=2
v2
p =
h
m1v1
and =
h
4 m1v2
4 m1v2
v
= 4 2 = 4 1/2 = 2
m1v1
v1
p = 2
Ans.
279
ATOMIC PHYSICS
Solution:
Ultrasonic waves:
v = v1u
u =
1576
6
m=
157600
X-rays
10
u = 0.15 cm
10 6
cm
v = c = x
x =
c 3 10 10
=
cm = 109 cm
3 10 19
x = 109 cm
u 0.15
=
= 10 9
x 10 9
u = 109 x
Ans.
1
mv2 = eV
2
m 2 v2
= eV
2m
p2 = 2 meV
280
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
h
p
6.62 10 34
2 9.1 10 31 1.6 10 19
1.25 10 3
6.62 10 34
6.62 10 34
2.13 10 23
= 3.1 1011 = 0.31
= 0.31
Ans.
(mv)2
F hI
= G J
H K
1 m 2 v2
h2
1
=
2 m
22 m
1
h2
mv2 = E =
2
2 m2
(6.62 10 34 ) 2
2 9.1 10 31 (3 10 2 ) 2
= 0.27 1033
E=
0.27 10 33
1.6 10 19
E = 1.68 1015 eV
Ans.
281
ATOMIC PHYSICS
h
6.62 10 34
=
=
mc 9.1 10 31 3 10 8
= 0.0244
= 0.00244 nm
Ans.
h
mv
h
mv =
h2
1
(mv)2 =
2
22
1
h2
mv2 =
=E
2
2m2
282
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
2 =
h2
2mE
2 =
h2
2mE
h
=
2m
or
3
kBT
2
=
=
2mE
h
3 m kBT
6.62 10 34
3 (6.7 10 27 )
(1.38 10 23 ) 400
Ans.
1
mv2max = eV
2
vmax =
=
2 eV
m
LM 2 1.6 10 18 10 OP
9.1 10
N
Q
3 1/ 2
19
31
283
ATOMIC PHYSICS
Solution:
2d sin = n
2d sin 60 = 3 0.97
2d sin 30 = 1
sin 30
=
3 0.97 sin 60
= 3 0.97
= 1.68
FG
H
1/ 2
3/2
IJ
K
Ans.
max =
c
min
3 10 8
0.496 10 10
Ans.
284
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
m2v2 = 2mE ; mv =
=
=
2mE
2mE
2meV
6.62 10 34
= 0.66 nm
According to Braggs law
2d sin = n = 1 0.66 1010
d=
0.66 10 10
2 sin 60
= 0.38 1010 m
d = 0.38
Ans.
min =
=
hc
min
hc
eV
6.62 10 34 3 108
50000 1.6 10 19
min = 0.248
Ans.
2. (a)
6. (b)
3. (b)
7. (b)
4. (d)
8. (c)
285
ATOMIC PHYSICS
9.
12.
16.
20.
24.
28.
32.
36.
40.
44.
48.
52.
56.
10. (b)
14. (a)
18. (c)
22. (a)
26. (b)
30. (d)
34. (a)
38. (c)
42. (b)
46. (a)
50. (b)
54. (d)
58. (c)
11. (a)
15. (a)
19. (a)
23. (b)
27. (a)
31. (a)
35. (c)
39. (c)
43. (a)
47. (d)
51. (d)
55. (b)
59. (d).
CHAPTER
RADIOACTIVITY
AND
10
NUCLEAR
REACTIONS
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
287
(a) -particles
(b) -particles
(c) -rays
(d) all the above.
-rays are deflected by electric and
magnetic fields. The statement is
(a) true
(b) false.
-rays are
(a) acoustical waves
(b) cathode rays
(c) electromagnetic radiation
(d) none of these.
The half-life period of a radioactive
element is the period in which the
radioactive substance is disintegrated to
its
(a) one-fourth by mass
(b) half by mass
(c) two-third by mass
(d) one-eighth by mass.
The rate of radioactive disintegration
depends on
(a) the environmental factors
(b) on the number of atoms of the element
present at any time
(c) the colour of the element
(d) none of the above.
The decay constant which is the
reciprocal of the time duration for which
the number of the atoms of radioactive
substance falls to
(a) 17% of its original value
(b) 27% of its original value
(c) 37% of its original value
(d) 47% of its original value.
The half-life period of a radioactive
element is
288
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
15
.
69.3
0.693
(c) 0.1
(d) T =
(a)
(b) T =
log e 2
1
and
log e 2
1
and
1
(c)
and
log e 2
92U
235
+ 0n1 90U236 +
90U
236
+ .
289
290
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
291
0.693
0.693
=
T
3.8
FG
H
0.693 10
N
= exp
3.8
N0
= exp (1.82)
N
N 0 = 16%
IJ
K
Ans.
292
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Solution:
MA corresponds to
NA (Avogadros
number)
NA
m=N
m corresponds
MA
The activity is defined as the number of
disintegrations per unit time
dN
=
= N
dt
m N A
Thus,
activity =
MA
Activity =
m N A
MA
Ans.
1
N0
=
= 100
0.01
N
N0
= 100
N 0 exp (t)
exp (t) = 100
0.693
0.693
Decay constant, =
=
T
1500
= 4.6 104 per year
exp (4.6 104 t) = 100
4.6 104 t = loge100
i.e.,
t = 10000 years
Ans.
1
.
e
293
Solution:
N1 = N0 exp (10 t)
N2 = N0 exp ( t)
N1
exp (10 t)
1
=
=
N2
exp ( t)
exp (9 t)
Given:
i.e.,
or
N1 1
=
N2 e
1
1
=
e e 9 t
9 t = 1
t=
1
9
Ans.
4750
2700
N0
= 1.76
N
N0
= 1.76
N 0 exp (5 )
294
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(ii) Half-life, T =
0.693
0.693
=
0.113
Ans.
295
Solution:
Let M be the mass of radium with an
activity of one curie. Mass of one kg-atom
of radium is 226 kg because atomic
weight of radium is 226. We know that
the number of atoms in one kg-atom is
equal to Avogadros number (6.02 1026).
Hence the number of atoms per kg of
6.02 10 26
.
226
Hence, the number of nuclei in M kg of
radium is
radium is
6.02 10 26 M
= 2.66 1024 M
226
The general equation representing the
rate of decay is
dN
dN
N; i.e.,
= N
dt
dt
0.693
With
=
1600 365 24 3600
= 1.37 1011
dN
But
= 3.7 1010
dt
= 2.66 1024 M 1.37 1011
M=
or
3.7 10 10
= 103 kg
2.66 1.37 10 11
M = 1 gm
Ans.
296
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Ans.
1 m3 will have
Now
N A
=N
MA
= N =
N A
MA
297
I0
= 10000
I
x = ln 10000 = 9.21
exp (x) =
x=
9.21
= 9.5 105 m
97332
x = 9.5 105 m
Ans.
32 10 11
= 1023 atom
3.2 10 11
Now 6.02 1026 atom will weigh 235 kg
Hence 1023 will weigh
235 10 23
= 39 kg
6.02 10 26
39 kg
Ans.
298
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Output
Efficiency
1800
= 6000 kW
0.3
Thus input nuclear energy
= P time
= 6000 103 3600
= 216 108 J
Therefore number of U235 atoms required
for the run is
P=
216 108
= 7.5 1020
2.88 10 11
atoms
6.02 1026 U235 atoms will weigh 235 kg
Hence 7.5 1020 atom will weigh
235 7.5 10 20
= 2.92 103 kg
6.02 10 26
or
2.92 gm
Ans.
299
(b)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(c).
2.
6.
10.
14.
18.
22.
26.
(c)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(a)
3. (d)
7. (c)
11. (d)
15. (b)
19. (d)
23. (b)
27. (b)
4. (a)
8. (b)
12. (a)
16. (a)
20. (a)
24. (d)
28. (b)
CHAPTER
11
(b) 5.6
5.6
(d) 2 2.8 .
2
9. Why are lithium and sodium similar
chemically?
(a) both have the same number of electrons
(b) both are adjacent elements in the
atomic table
(c) both have one electron in the outer
most incomplete shell
(d) none of these.
10. One Debye unit is approximately
(a) 3.5 1020 Cm
(b) 7.5 10 20 Cm
(c) 5 1031 Cm
(d) 3.5 1030 Cm.
11. Metallic elements have
(a) low ionisation energy
(b) high ionisation energy
(c) zero ionisation energy
(d) all the above are false.
(c)
302
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
12. The radii of Cs and Cl are r1 and r2 respectively. Which of the following gives
the lattice constant of CsCl if it crystallizes in bcc structure?
(a)
2 (r1 + r2 )
(c)
(r1 + r2 )
(b)
(d)
2 (r1 + r2 )
3
2(r1 + r2 )
.
3
3
13. The number of atoms present in the unit
cell of hcp structure is
(a) 12
(b) 1
(c) 6
(d) 7.
14. The number of calsium chloride molecules in the unit cell of calsium chloride
is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 1
(d) 3.
15. Classify the following unit cell into proper
crystal system. a = 1.08 nm, b = 0.94 nm,
c = 0.5 nm and = 41, = 82 and =
95
(a) orthorhombic
(b) monoclinic
(c) triclinic
(d) hexagonal.
16. The number of lattice points in a primitive cell are
3
1
(b)
2
2
(c) 1
(d) 2.
17. The number of atoms present in the unit
cell of dcc structure is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 16.
18. The packing factor of diamond cubic
crystal structure is
(a)
(a) 62%
(b) 86%
(c) 34%
(d) 90%.
19. Magnesium crystallizes in hcp structure.
If the lattice constant is 0.32 mm, the
nearest neighbour distance in magnesium is
(a) 0.32 nm
(b) 0.64 nm
(c) 0.16 nm
(d) 1 nm.
20. If in a body centred cubic lattice, the
distance of the nearest neighbours,
a 3
, then the distance of the next
2
neighbours is
2r =
a
a
(b)
2
3
(c) 2a
(d) a.
21. The Miller indices of the plane parallel
to y and z axes are
(a) (100)
(b) (010)
(c) (001)
(d) (111).
22. (3 2 6) are the Miller indices of the plane;
the intercepts made by the plane on the
three crystallographic axes are
(a) (2a 3b c)
(b) (a b c)
(c) (a 2b 3c)
(d) (2a 2b 2c).
(a)
b
, 3c in a cubic
2
unit cell. The Miller indices of the plane
are
(a) (1 3 2)
(b) (2 6 1)
(c) (3 6 1)
(d) (1 2 3).
24. If r is the radius of the atom, the number
of atoms per unit area of the plane (0 1 0)
of a simple cubic crystal is
23. A plane intercepts at a,
304
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
1
(b) 4r2
4r 2
1
(c)
(d) none of these.
4r
25. Zinc has hcp structure. If the diagonal of
the hexagon is 0.64 nm, the radius of the
zinc atom is
(a) 0.2 nm
(b) 0.52 m
(c) 0.16 nm
(d) 2 nm.
26. If the lattice parameter of cubic crystal
is 3 nm and the distance between two
parallel planes is 1.732, the Miller indices of the plane are
(a) (2 2 3)
(b) (1 1 1)
(c) (1 1 0)
(d) (2 2 0).
(a)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(c)
2.
6.
10.
14.
18.
22.
26.
(b)
(d)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(b).
3. (c)
7. (a)
11. (a)
15. (a)
19. (a)
23. (c)
4. (c)
8. (a)
12. (b)
16. (c)
20. (d)
24. (a)
Hence
[ ( x)] x = x0 = 0
Thus
A exp( x0/) = 0
i.e.,
ln A
x0
=0
ln A =
x0
; x0 = ln A
x0 = ln A
Ans.
2. Suppose an atom A has an ionisation energy 5 eV, and an atom B has an electron
affinity of 4 eV. Let the atoms A and B be
0.5 nm apart. What is the energy required
to transfer an electron from A to B.
Solution:
Coulomb energy of the system
=
e2
joule
4 0 r0
e
eV
4 0 r0
1.6 10 19
4 8.8 10 12 0.5 10 9
= 2.9 eV
The energy required to transfer an electron from A to B is equal to I E C
= 5 4 2.9 = 1.9 eV
=
= 1.9 eV
Ans.
306
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Solution:
Volume of the unit cell = a3
Volume of all the atoms in a unit cell
=2
LM 4r OP
N 3 Q
3
4r
a 3
4
3
Now volume of all the atoms in a unit
cell is
a=
F 4 I
2G Jr
H3K
;r=
8
=
3
LM a 3 OP
MN 4 PQ
a3 3
8
Free volume is
=
LMa
MN
= a3
OP
PQ
LM1 3 OP
MN 8 PQ
a3 3
8
LM
MN
3
8
= a3 1
OP
PQ
Ans.
1
1
2
1
3
Reduce them into smallest numbers
3
6
1
(3 6 1) plane
308
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Solution:
119
m3 will contain 6.02 1026 K Br
2700
molecules a3 will have
2700 6.02 10 26 a 3
=4
119
4 119
a3 =
2700 6.02 10 26
= 0.029 1026
a = 6.63
Ans.
c
=
a
8
3
c=a
with a = 2r = 0.321
8
3
c = 0.321
8
= 0.321 1.63
3
c = 0.524 nm Ans.
8. The unit cell of aluminium is face centred
cubic with lattice constant a = 0.405 nm.
How many unit cells are there in an
aluminium foil 0.005 cm thick and side
25 cm square?
Solution:
(0.405 109)3 has one unit cell.
Hence [0.005 102 (25 102)2] metre3
will have 4.7 1022 cells
= 4.7 1022
Ans.
124.12
1241.2
nm (b) 0 =
nm
W0
W0
1241.2
nm (d) none of these.
2W0
4. The
minimum
energy
of
the
photoelectrons emitted is
(a) directly proportional to the frequency
of the incident light
(b) inversely proportional to the
frequency of the incident light
(c) independent of frequency
(d) none of these.
5. There exists a critical frequency for each
emitter below which no photoelectric
emission is possible. This frequency is
called
(a) orbital frequency
(b) angular frequency
(c) threshold frequency
(d) acoustical frequency.
6. Photoemissive cell is used for
(a) converting electrical energy into light
energy
(c) 0 =
310
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
8.
9.
10.
11.
the
2
V0
(b) 6 102
V0
312
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
V0
V0
314
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
31.
32.
33.
34.
tion =
(a) a(Z b)
(b) (Z + b)
(c) a(Z + b)
(d) (a + Z)
where Z is the atomic number, a and b
are constants.
Moseleys work enhanced our understanding of
(a) crystal structure
(b) properties of X-rays
(c) uses of X-rays
(d) periodic table.
According to Compton theory, the
wavelength increase is
(a) independent of the incident wavelength
(b) dependent on the incident wavelength
(c) dependent on charge of the electron
(d) none of these.
As the wavelength of X-rays is smaller
than that of visible light, the speed of
X-rays in air is
(a) same as that of the visible light
(b) larger than that of visible light
(c) smaller than that of visible light
(d) none of these.
According to Moseleys law the frequency
of the characteristics X-radiation is
proportional to the square of
(a) atomic weight of the element
(b) atomic number of the element
(c) screening constant
(d) Rydberg constant.
(b)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(c)
2.
6.
10.
14.
18.
22.
26.
30.
34.
38.
(a)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(b).
3. (a)
7. (b)
11. (b)
15. (a)
19. (a)
23. (c)
27. (a)
31. (d)
35. (d)
4. (a)
8. (c)
12. (c)
16. (b)
20. (a)
24. (c)
28. (b)
32. (a)
36. (b)
316
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
1
mv2 + e
2
where is the electronic exit work function.
When electrons are just liberated, v = 0
and the corresponding frequency is
h =
e 2.24 1.6 10 19
=
h
6.6 10 34
= 5.43 1014 Hz
But since
c = , the wavelength is
=
3 10 8
= 5.520 107 m
5.43 10 14
= 5.52 107 m
Thus shorter wavelength than this can
liberate electrons.
2. The photoelectric work function for Na
surface is 2 volt. Calculate the longest
wavelength of light that will eject photoelectrons from Na surface.
Solution:
Work function for Na surface, W0 = 2 eV
W0 = h0 =
hc
0
0 =
6.6 10 34 3 10 8
hc
=
W0
2 1.6 10 19
0 = 6000
Ans.
6.62 10 34 3 108
hc
=
2000 10 10
= 9.9 1019 J
h =
9.9 10 19
1.6 10 19
h = 6.2 eV
The kinetic energy of the fastest electrons
Ek = h W = 6.2 4.2
Ek = 2 eV.
(b) The kinetic energy of slowest electrons
= zero
As the emitted electrons have all possible
energies from 0 to certain maximum
value Ek.
(c) If Vs is the stopping potential, then
Ek = eVs
Vs =
2 eV
Ek
=
=2V
e
e
318
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
F hc I
GH JK
0
or 0 =
hc
W
6.6 10 34 3 10 8
4.2 1.6 10 19
= 3000 1010 m
=
W = 3000
Ans.
6.62 10 34 3 10 8
2.3 1.6 10 19
= 5397
This is the threshold wavelength i.e.,
maximum wavelength which can eject
electrons from sodium. Hence sodium will
not show photoelectric effect for orange
light with 6800 .
5. The cut-off potential for a photocell is V0
volt, when the incident photon has energy
E 0 electron volt. If the energy of the
incident photon is 1.5 E0 electron volt,
find
=
Ans.
2.82 2 sin 90
= 2.82
2
Ans.
320
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
6.62 10 34
(1 cos 60)
9.1 10 31 3 10 8
= 0.012 1010 m
The incident wavelength is
= 3 1010 m.
Therefore the scattered wavelength will
be
= +
= 3 1010 + 0.012 1010 m
=
Ans.
Ans.
1
(Z 1)2
1
or cu
( Zcu 1) 2
i.e.
c
1
cu = a
( Zcu 1) 2
1
Similarly mo
( Zmo 1) 2
c
1
mo =
a ( Zmo 1) 2
cu
( Z 1) 2
412
= mo
=
mo
28 2
( Zcu 1) 2
cu = mo
412
28
= 0.71
cu = 1.52
412
28 2
Ans.
FG
H
1
1
1
=R
1
22 2
IJ = R
K 4
322
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Wavelength of K series
FG
H
IJ
K
1
1
1
= R(Z 1)2 2 2
2
1
4
The maximum wave number occurs when
n = also
1
= R(Z 1)2
2 =
2
Then
2 =
1/ 1
R/4
=
1/ 2
R( Z 1) 2
2
1
=
1
4( Z 1) 2
(Z 1)2 =
1
3636 10 10
=
4 2
4 10 10
(Z 1) = 30.2
Z = 31
The element is gallium.
(d)
m0
(1 c 2 )
m0
.
1 (v 2 / c 2 )
6. Mass energy equivalence is expressed by
the relation
m
1 m
(b) E =
(a) E = 2
2 c2
c
(c) E = mc2
(d) E = m2c2.
7. The wavelength of waves associated with
particles is given by the relations
p
(a) hp
(b)
h
h
h
(c)
(d) 2 .
p
p
where h is Plancks constant and p is
momentum.
8. The relation between the p.d. that
accelerates the electrons and de-Broglie
wavelength is
(a) V = 12.26 nm
(b)
= 1.226 nm
V
(c) V = 12.26
(d) V = 1.226 nm.
9. The wave property of large, massive
objects is not observed because
(a) their acceleration is too small
(b) their momentum are too large
(c) their speeds are too small
(d) none of these.
10. The wavelength associated with a moving
particle
(a) depends upon the charge associated
with it
(b) does not depend upon the charge
associated with it
324
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(b) a
2
4
(c) p = a
(d) p = 2a.
If the momentum of an electron is
doubled, the de Broglie wavelength is
(a) halved
(b) doubled
(c) remains constant
(d) none of these.
If an electron is accelerated by a potential
of 100 volt, then the wavelength
associated with electron is
(a) 0.1225
(b) 1.1225 nm
(c) 12.25 nm
(d) 0.01225 nm.
The principle of electron microscope is
that the revolving power of the
microscope is of the order of the
wavelength of the ray used
(a) yes
(b) no
Electron behaves as wave because they
can be
(a) deflected by an electric field
(b) deflected by magnetic field
(c) diffracted by a crystal
(d) they ionise a gas.
The characteristic X-rays are emitted
when
(a) electrons are accelerated to a fixed
energy
(a) p =
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
V
V3/2
(b) V
(c)
(d) V2.
20. A patient is asked to drink BaSO4 for
examining the stomach by X-rays,
because X-rays are
(a) reflected by heavy atoms
(b) less absorbed by heavy atoms
326
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
h
where is the wavelength
photon is p =
(c) E p
(d)
FG E IJ
H pK
(a)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(b)
2.
6.
10.
14.
18.
22.
26.
(a)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(a).
3. (a)
7. (d)
11. (a)
15. (c)
19. (c)
23. (d)
4. (d)
8. (b)
12. (b)
16. (a)
20. (b)
24. (b)
328
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
m0
1 (v 2 / c 2 )
m0
1.25 m0 =
v2
v2
2
1 (v 2 / c 2 )
1
1.25 2
= 1
1
2
9
25
1.25
c
v
3
=
c
5
The required speed
3c
= 0.6 c.
v=
5
2. A particle of rest mass m0 moves with a
c
. Calculate its mass, momentum,
2
total energy and kinetic energy.
Solution:
speed
Mass =
m0
1 (v2 / c 2 )
m0
[1 (c / 2) / c ]
m0
LM1 1 OP
N 4Q
1/ 2
2 m0
3
Mass = 1.155 m0
Ans.
Momentum = 1.155 m0
c
= 0.5775 m0c
2
Ans.
2.5 10 25 (9 10 8 ) 2
1.6 10 19
= 14.06 104 MeV
v = 0.90 c
=
(b)
m=
m0
1 (v 2 / c 2 )
2.5 10 25
1 0.81
m = 5.735 1025 kg
Total energy
5.735 10 25 (9 108 ) 2
1.6 10 19
Total energy = 32.25 104 MeV.
4. A wrist-watch keeps correct time on earth.
If it is worn by the pilot of space ship,
leaving the earth with a constant velocity
of 109 cm/sec, how many seconds does it
appear to lose in one day with respect to
the observer on the earth.
Solution:
Time dilation formula is
= mc2 =
t=
t0
1 (v 2 / c 2 )
t = 24 =
t0
1 (10 7 / 3 10 8 ) 2
330
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
t0
t0
t0
Hence
LM1 1 OP
N 900 Q
1
= 24 L1
MN 900 OPQ
1
= L24
MN 75 OPQ
1/ 2
1/ 2
LM
N
= 24 1
1
1800
OP
Q
loss in 24 hours
=
1
hour or 48 sec
75
Ans.
1
mv2 = E = kBT
2
v=
=
=
2E
m
h
h
=
m
mv
m
2E
h
2mkBT
6.62 10 34
2 9.1 10 31 1.38
10 23 300
= 0.177 nm Ans.
6. What is the energy of a neutron of mass
1.6 1027 kg which has an associated
de Broglie wavelength of 0.75 1014 m?
Solution:
de Broglie wavelength,
=
h
h
;p=
...(1)
setting, p =
get
h
;
2mK =
K=
h2
2
LM 1 OP
N 2m Q
(6.62 10 34 ) 2
(0.75 10 14 ) 2 2 1.67 10 27
= 2.33 1012 joule
=
2.33 10 12
eV
1.6 10 19
FG IJ
H K
332
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
v1 =
4 eV
m
4 eVm2
=
m
4 eVm
4 1.6 10 19 25000
4 1.67 10 27
p1 = 1.027 1020
1 =
6.62 10 34
h
=
p1
1.027 10 20
Ans.
1
3 108
c=
m/s
20
20
Mass of proton = 1.6 1027 kg
Momentum of proton
v2 =
1.6 100 27 3 10 8
20
= 2.4 1010
= mv2 =
2 =
6.62 10 34
h
=
mv2
2.4 10 20
h
2mK
3
kB T
2
2m
6.62 10 34
3 6.7 10 27 1.38
10 23 400
= 0.63 nm Ans.
9. Compute the de Broglie wavelength of a
proton whose kinetic energy is equal to
the rest energy of an electron. Mass of a
photon is 1836 times that of the electron.
Solution:
According to Einsteins energy mass
relation, we have rest mass of electron is
E = m0c2
= 9.1 1031 (3 108)2
= 81.9 1015 J
Mass of proton = 1836 9.1 1031
1
mv2 = 81.9 1015
2
L 2 81.9 10 OP
v= M
N 1836 9.1 10 Q
15
1/ 2
31
=
=
h
mv
LM 6.62 10 OP
N 1836 9.1 10 Q
F 1836 9.1 10 I
G
H 2 81.9 10 JK
34
31
31 1 / 2
15
= 4 104
= 0.0004 Ans.
334
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
2
h
(c) (2 h)
(a)
h
2
(d) (h 2).
(b)
336
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
2. (d)
6. (c)
10. (a)
3. (a)
7. (c)
11. (b).
4. (a)
8. (b)
h
.
mv
For uncertainty principle, minimum uncertainty product,
x p h
particle is
p ~
h
h
=
= mv
x
(h / mv)
p = mv
Also
p = m v
mv = mv
v = v
Hence the minimum uncertainty in the
velocity of the particle is equal to its
velocity.
m0 v
1 (v2 / c 2 )
D
D
1 (v2 / c 2 )
=
m0 v
px
But
2
1 (v / c ) =
F 3 10 I
GH 3 10 JK
7
99
100
= 0.995
Smallest possible uncertainty is
x =
x = 0.0384
Ans.
the
338
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
D
1.054 10 34
=
t
10 8
= 1.054 1026 J
h = E
Thus the uncertainty in the frequency is
given by
h = E
then E =
1.054 10 26
E
=
6.63 10 34
h
2mE = (2 mE)1/2
1
(2mE)1/2 2m E
2
RS m UV
T2E W
1/ 2
RS m UV
T2E W
1/ 2
Thus minimum x =
6.62 10 34
=
0.01
E x h
h
E
2E
m
RS 2 40 1.6 10 UV
T 9.1 10
W
19
1/ 2
31
h
(1 cos )
m0 c
when = 90, = = 2 =
i.e.,
h
= 0.024
m0 c
hc
hc
= m0c2
h / m0 c
Ans.
340
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
6.62 10 34 3 108
4.21 10 12
E = 4.7 1014 J.
(a) vd =
me
Et
(b) vd =
me
E
e
eE
(d) vd =
.
m
m
3. If n is the number of free electrons in a
conductor of uniform cross-section and vd
is the drift velocity then equation for the
current density calculation is
(a) ne
(b) ne2
ne
(c) ne vd
(d)
.
vd
4. The
microscopic
expression
for
computing the resistivity is
m
ne 2
(a) =
(b) =
ne 2
m
m2
ne
(c) =
(d) =
.
ne
m
5. If I is the current passing through a
conductor of uniform cross-section A,
then the equation to compute the drift
velocity is
(c) vd =
(a) vd =
n Ae
I
(b)
I
= vd
nAe
ne
(d) (n Ae)2.
I
6. The drift velocity for unit electrical field
is called
(a) collision time (b) random speed
(c) mobility
(d) conductivity.
7. The mobility of charge carriers depends
on
(a) the current through the conductor
(b) density of the material
(c) thermal conductivity of the metal
(d) collision time of free electrons.
(c) vd =
342
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(a) ne
(b)
ne
1
(c)
(d) ne.
ne
10. The residual resistivity will be high if
(a) the metal is pure
(b) the metal is impure
(c) if it is a liquid metal
(d) if the metal is a superconductor.
11. At room temperature the velocity of the
random motion of the electron is of the
order of
(a) 10 m/sec
(b) 1020 m/s
5
(c) 10 m/sec
(d) 0.1 m/s.
12. For constant value of n, A and e, the
current flowing through a conductor is
(a) proportional to drift velocity
(b) inversely proportional to the drift
velocity
(c) directly proportional to the square of
the drift velocity
(d) directly proportional to the square
root of drift velocity.
13. 10 is the resistance of copper wire of
length l and area of cross-section a. If the
length is doubled and the area of crosssection is halved, the resistance of the
new copper wire will be
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
(a) 5 ohm
(b) 40 ohm
(c) 20 ohm
(d) 10 ohm.
If 1 ampere current flows through a conductor for 1 sec, it is equivalent to the
flow of how many electrons per sec?
(a) 1.6 1019
(b) 1 coulomb
(d) 2.1 1017.
(c) 6.25 1018
The drift velocity of free electrons for
ordinary field is of the order of
(a) 1 mm/s
(b) 103 m/s
(c) 1 nm/s
(d) 106 m/s.
Critical magnetic field
(a) does not depend on temperature
(b) increases if temperature increases
(c) increases if temperature decreases
(d) does not depend on superconducting
transition temperature.
The transition temperature of most
elemental superconductors fall in the
range (low critical temperature range)
(a) 0500 K
(b) 05 K
(c) 010 K
(d) 070 K.
Which of the following one is type-1
superconductor?
(a) niobium
(b) tantalum
(c) lead
(d) Nb3Ge.
In a superconductor, critical magnetic
field
(a) increases if temperature decreases
(b) does not depend on temperature
(c) increases if temperature increases
(d) remains constant.
A superconductor has
(a) a positive susceptibility
(b) a negative susceptibility
(c) becomes quite small as temperature
approaches
the
transition
temperature
344
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Tc
K
2
(d)
Tc
K.
3
(c)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(a)
2.
6.
10.
14.
18.
22.
(c)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(b)
3. (c)
7. (a)
11. (c)
15. (a)
19. (a)
23. (b).
4. (b)
8. (d)
12. (a)
16. (c)
20. (b)
I
nA
1.5
8.5 10 28 10 7 1.6 10 19
3 kB T
m
3 1.38 10 23 300
9.1 10 31
Ans.
N
1 m3 will have A electrons
MA
NA
i.e.,
n=
mA
6.02 10 26 8.95 10 3
63.54
n = 8.5 1028/m3
=
346
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Relaxation time,
=
= 2.67 1014 s
Ans.
I
nAe
3
8.5 10 28 2 10 6 1.6 10 19
vd = 1.1 104 m/s
Let t be the time taken to drift from one
end to the other,
=
t=
=
Distance
Velocity
3
1.1 10 4
= 2.7 104 s
Ans.
Solution:
The equation used is
E=
1
3
2 =
k T
2 mc
2 B
3
k T
2 B
= 1.5 1.38 1023 300
E=
E=
E = 0.039 eV
Also
c =
3 kB T
MH
3 1.38 10 23 300
2 1.008 1.67 10 27
c = 1920 m/s
Ans.
m
ne2
9.11 10 31
5.8 10 28 (1.6 10 19 ) 2
1.54 10 8
= 3.98 1014
Ans.
348
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
LM OP
N Q
= 0.7 m/s
Ans.
Ans.
19.2 (204.87) 1/ 2
=1
Tc (218.87) 1/ 2
Tc = 18.58 K
Ans.
LM L T O OP
MN1 MN T PQ PQ
2
Hc1 = H0
1
c
LM F T I OP
MN GH T JK PQ
2
Hc2 = H0 1
H c1
T 2 T12
= c2
H c2
Tc T2 2
T 2 T12
1.4 10 5
= c2
Tc T2 2
4.2 10 5
Tc 2 T12
1
= 2
3
Tc T2 2
LM T T OP
MN T PQ
c
2
1
Hc1 (Tc 2 )
]
Tc 2 T12
1.4 10 5 14.47 2
(14.47 2 14 2 )
H0 = 21.72 A/m
Ans.
LM R T UVOP
MN STT WPQ
Hc(T) = Hc(0) 1
350
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Now
H c (T )
LM1 T
MN T
3.3 10 4
25
1
7.2 2
OP RS
PQ T
UV
W
Ans.
Hc(0) =
6.
7.
8.
9.
352
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(d) zero.
2 B
14. In an antiferromagnet, the susceptibility
above the Neel temperature N has the
form
C
C
(a)
(b)
T
N
T
C
C
(c)
(d)
.
T + N
N
15. Alnico is an alloy of
(a) aluminium, iron and cobalt
(b) aluminium, iron and nickel
(c) aluminium, cobalt and nickel
(d) none of these.
354
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
356
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
(a) = Eg
(b) >
Eg
h
h
(c) <
(d) >
.
h
Eg
Hall effect occurs is
(a) metals only
(b) n-type semiconductors only
(c) intrinsic semiconductors only
(d) all of the above.
The smaller number of carriers and high
mobility in semiconductors gives
(a) small hall angle
(b) large hall field
(c) small hall field
(d) all the above are wrong.
A transistor amplifier of voltage gain 10
produces an output voltage of 2 volt. The
input signal of the amplifier is
(a) 0.001 volt
(b) 20 volt
(c) 10 volt
(d) 0.2 volt.
Which of the following statements is
wrong about a junction transistor
(a) the doping of the collector is less than
that of the emitter
(b) the electron hole recombination taking place at the base is very small
(c) the area of the base collector junction
is larger than that of the base emitter
junction
(d) the base is very thin and is heavily
doped.
Eg
32.
33.
34.
35.
2. (b)
6. (c)
10. (c)
3. (d)
7. (b)
11. (a)
4. (a)
8. (b)
12. (a)
13.
17.
21.
25.
28.
32.
(d)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(d)
14.
18.
22.
25A.
29.
33.
(c)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(c)
15. (b)
19. (d)
23. (a)
26. (b)
30. (b)
34. (d)
16. (a)
20. (b)
24. (c)
27. (d)
31. (b)
35. (d).
4 10 4
B
and B =
=
=1
A 4 100 2
H
=
Thus =
B
=
AH
H
1
= 6.25 104
1600
= 6.25 104 F/m
If is the susceptibility, then
1
= (r 1) =
0
=
6.25 10 4
1
4 10 7
= 496.6 Ans.
2. A magnetic material has a magnetization
of 2300 A/m and produces a flux density
of 0.00314 Wb/m2.
Calculate the magnetizing force and relative permeability of the material.
358
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Solution:
B = 0(H + M)
B
M =H
0
i.e.,
H=
0.00314
2300
4 10 7
= 198 A/m
But r 0H = B
r =
B
0.00314
=
H 0
198 4 10 7
r = 12.56
Ans.
1038
.
0.68
Solution:
MS = 2 Bn as iron has moments of two
Bohr magneton per atom.
n=
2
a
2
(2.9 10 10 ) 3
= 8.2 1028/m3
MS = 2 9.27 1027 8.2 1028
MS = 15.03 105 A/m
Curie constant, C =
n 0 B 2
kB
Ans.
8.2 10 22 4 10 7
(9.27 10 27 ) 2
=
7 1.38 10 23
= 0.68
M
Effective field intensity = MS =
e S
1038
=
15.03 105
0.68
Hi = 2.29 109 amp/m
Internal magnetic flux density,
Bi = 0Hi
= 4 107 2.29 109
Bi = 2878.8 tesla
Ans.
FG
H
= 0H 1 +
M
H
IJ
K
B = 0H (1 + )
[3 M = H
= 0.4 105 105
= 0.4 amp/m]
7
B = 4 10 105 (1 0.4 105)
B = 0.124 weber/m2
Ans.
360
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
8
8
3 =
a
0.837 10 27
= 1.36 1028/m3
Also MS = N(nB)
n=
MS
N B
5.2 10 5
1.36 10 28 9.27 10 24
n=4
The moment per Fe+2 is 4 B
4 B Ans.
6. A circular loop conductor having a
diameter of 50 cm carries a current of
100 mA. The loop is placed in a magnetic
field having a uniform flux density of
0.05 weber/m2 with its axis inclined at
60 to the direction of the field. Calculate
the values of magnetic dipole moment and
torque experienced by the current loop.
Solution:
The magnetic dipole moment,
m = IA = 0.1 0.1963
= 0.0196 amp m2
Torque
= I B cos
= 100 103 (0.05) cos 60
= 0.0025 newton metre
72.6
m3 will have
5.32 103
6.02 1026 Ge atoms
1 m3 will have
5.32 10 3 6.02 10 26
72.6
N = 4.41 1028/m3
Ans.
1
e i ( e + p )
1
2300 1.6 10 19
(0.048 + 0.135)
ni = 1.48 1016/m3
362
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
ni 2
1.48 2 10 32
=
Nd
10 19
13
= 2.2 10
The conductivity of doped semiconductor
is
d = e(nee + npp)
As
ne >> np
d = eene
1
d =
e e ne
1.0
=
19
1.6 10
0.135 10 19
np =
d = 4.63 m
Ans.
or
EF =
EF =
Eg
2
Eg
2
Eg
2
Eg
2
OP
Q
L m * OP
3
0.026 ln M
4
MN m * PQ
L 2 m * OP
3
0.026 ln M
4
MN m * PQ
LM
N
mp *
3
kBT ln
me *
4
0.0135
Ix
0.015 1
=
= 1000 A/m2
A
15 10 6
Ey
Bz J x
Ey
0.48 1000
hc
= hc1 joule
364
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Eg =
6.62 10 34 3 10 8 5.5 10 5
16
. 10 19
Eg = 0.683 eV
The conductivity
n exp ( Eg/2 kBT )
We want 20% increase in the conductivity
( 2 1 )
20
=
= 0.2
1
100
2
i.e.,
= 1 + 0.2 = 1.2
1
exp ( E g / 2 kB T1 )
2
=
exp ( E g / 2kBT2 )
1
|RS
|T
FG 1 1 IJ |UV
T K|
2k H T
W
R|F E I L 1 1 OU|V
ln 1.2 = SG
|TH 2 k JK MN T T PQ|W
Eg
1.2 = exp
1
1
2kB
=
ln 1.2
T2 T1
Eg
1 2 kB
1
=
ln 1.2
T
T
T2
1
=
1
2 1.38 10 23
T2 = 304.5 K Ans.
m
Q
(b)
2QV
m
m
2QV
(d)
.
2QV
m
5. The unit of dipole moment/unit volume
is
(a) coulomb/m2
(b) coulomb/m3
(c) m2/coulomb
(d) ampere/m3.
6. When a monoatomic gas atom is placed
in a uniform electric field E, the
displacement of the nucleus is
proportional to
(c)
1
(b) E
E
(c) independent of E (d) E .
7. The capacitance of a parallel plate condenser does not depend on
(a) area of the plates
(b) nature of the metals of the plate
(a)
366
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
Q Et
m
(b)
(c)
Q Em
t
(d)
m
QEt
m
.
QEt
Fr I
(a) G J
Hr K
Fr I
(c) G J
Hr K
Fr I
(b) G J
Hr K
(d)
r2
.
r1
368
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
LM n OP
Nn Q
Ln O
(c) sin M P
Nn Q
(a) sin
(b) sin1
LM n OP
Nn Q
(d)
n1
.
n2
(c)
(a)
(b)
(d)
2.
6.
10.
14.
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
3. (b)
7. (b)
11. (c)
15. (a)
4. (b)
8. (a)
12. (a)
16. (a)
370
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
17. (d)
21. (d)
25. (c)
18. (b)
22. (d)
26. (a)
19. (c)
23. (b)
27. (a)
20. (c)
24. (b)
28. (c).
1
mv2. It is equal to the work done due
2
to the p.d. between the conductors,
W = qV
=
i.e.,
1
mv2 = qV
2
v=
or
2qV
m
F
GH
107 9.1 10 31
vm
V=
=
2 1.6 10 19
2q
i.e.,
I
JK
1/ 2
V = 284.4 V Ans.
n=
8 10 17
q
800
=
= 500
19 =
e
1.6
1.6 10
n = 500
Ans.
P
E 0
4.3 10 8
1000 8.85 10 12
= 5.86
i.e., r = 5.86
Ans.
Pe
0 E
N e E
N e
=1+
0 E
0
N
r = 1 +
(40R3)
0
r = 1 + 4 9.8 1026
(0.53 1010)3
=1+
r = 1.0018
Ans.
372
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
1
is often
e
considered in two energy states at room
temperature of 300 K. Determine the
wavelength of the radiation emitted at
that temperature.
Solution:
We know that
N2
[( E2 E1 ) / kB T ]
=e
N1
1
N2
Given
=
e
N1
1
=
exp [+ ( E2 E1 )/ kBT ]
E2 E1
1
So
= ln = 1
e
kB T
hc
(E2 E1) = kBT = h =
8
3 10 6.62 10 34
ch
=
=
kBT
1.38 10 23 300
= 0.048 103 m
6. A relative population of
= 48 m
Ans.
0.018 640 10 9
6.62 10 34 3 108
700 10 9
=
d
5 10 3
d = 1.4 104 radian
Area spread = (d f)2
= (1.4 104 0.2)2
= 0.4 108
d =
Ans.
374
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
N.A. =
Here
FG 0.2 IJ = 1130
H 1K
n12 n2 2 .
n2 = 1.55
0.2 =
n12 1.552
1.55
n2
=
1.563
n1
c = sin1
LM 1.55 OP = 8236
N 1.563 Q
Ans.
c
3
=
v
2
F 10 I = 1.5
GH 10 JK
8
8
n2
n1
N.A. =
=
n12 n2 2
1.52 1.47722 = 0.264
Acceptance angle,
0 = sin1 (N.A.) = sin1 [0.264]
i.e., 0 = 15 18
Ans.
12 10 6
8 10 3
= 1500
Ans.
10
= 109
100
Bandwidth for each telephone
= 8 103 Hz
Therefore number of channels
= 10 109
10 9
= 1.25 105
8 10 3
Ans.
APPENDICES
A.1 SALIENT FEATURES OF SI UNITS
1. It is a coherent system of units, i.e.,
product or quotient of any two base
quantities results in a unit resultant
quantity. For example, unit length
divided by unit time gives unit velocity.
2. It is a rationalized system of units. It
clearly distinguishes between the units
of mass and weight (force) which are
expressed in kilogram and newton
respectively.
3. All the units of the system can be derived
from the base and supplementary units.
4. The decimal relationship between units
of same quantity makes it possible to express any small or large quantity as
power of 10.
5. For any quantity there is one and only
one SI unit. For example, joule is the unit
of energy of all forms such as mechanical,
heat, chemical, electrical and nuclear.
However, kWh also continues as unit of
electrical energy.
Advantages of SI units
1. Units of many different quantities are
related through a series of simple and
basic relationship.
2. Being an absolute system, it avoids the
use of factor g. i.e., acceleration due to
gravity in several expressions in Science
376
APPENDICES
3.
4.
5.
6.
1.
2.
377
378
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
APPENDICES
Q. 3.
Ans.
Q. 4.
Ans.
379
the twisted muscle. Hot water fomentation will increase the temperature and
decrease the pressure in that area. So
blood from places of higher pressure will
flow to this area.
In treating the fracture, we require less
blood in the fractured area in order to go
for a surgery or other treatment. Hence
pouring cold water on the fractured area
is preferred.
Women having some kind of skin
problems are advised not to wear
violet/red sarees. Explain
Violet rays (or ultraviolet rays) from the
sun has high energy. Absorption of such
radiation easily reacts with the thin skin
and aggravates the skin problems or
brings new problems to the skin. Red is
heat radiation unlike green radiations
with wavelength of the order of 5460 .
Explain anomalous expansions of water.
In majority of liquids, the increase in
temperature produces an increase in
volume of the liquids but water in a
notable exception i.e., the expansion of
water is so markedly irregular that even
ordinary laboratory methods can detect
the anomaly. In the case of water, from
0C to 4C, instead of expanding, actually
contracts, from 4C upwards it expands,
but far from uniformly. It is also noted
the density curve with temperature is not
uniform even beyond 4C. The anomalous
behaviour of water has been explained
on the assumption that three types of
water molecules, H2O, (H2O)2 and (H2O)3
which have different specific volumes and
are mixed in different proportions at
different temperatures, so that the
380
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
APPENDICES
Q. 6.
Ans.
Q. 7.
Ans.
381
382
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
383
APPENDICES
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
FG x IJ = ydx xdy
H yK y
2
z
z
z
z
z
(
) n +1
(ax + b) n dx = ax + b
,n1
a(n + 1)
1
dx
=
log (ax + b)
a
ax + b
dx
x
1
= log
x(ax + b)
b
ax + b
( ax + b) dx =
dx
( ax + b)
dx =
2
(ax + b)3/2
3a
2 (ax + b)
a
384
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
z
z
z
z
z
z
z
e ax dx =
1 ax
e
a
b ax dx =
b ax
a log b
x n e ax dx =
n positive
4.
1 n ax n
x e
a
a
x n 1 e ax dx ,
e ax
(a sin bx b
a 2 + b2
e ax sin bx dx =
cos bx)
5.
6.
log ax dx = x log ax x
LM
N
n1
7.
OP
Q
1
x n log ax dx = xn+1 log ax
,
n + 1 ( n + 1) 2
dx
= log (log ax)
x log ax
DEFINITE INTEGRALS
1.
2.
3.
4.
z
z
z
z
, if a > 0; 0, if a = 0; ,
2
2
if a < 0
adx
a +x
sin 2 x
dx =
2
2
x
sin 2 ax
dx = , if a > 0
2
a
sin 2 ax dx =
cos 2 ax dx =
385
APPENDICES
5.
sin ax cos bx dx
2a
6.
7.
8.
9.
z
z
z
z
z
z
z
z
z
z
z
z
a b2
=0
sin ax sin bx
x
cos ( x 2 ) dx =
e a
2 2
x n e ax dx =
12.
14.
15.
16.
0
1
0
1
x
e( x
dx =
a 2 )/ x 2
1
a, if a < b
2
sin( x 2 ) dx =
1
2
n!
if n is a positive
a n+ 1
x e ax dx =
e ax
13.
x 2 n e ax dx =
11.
dx =
if a b is even
if a > 0
2a
dx =
integer
10.
, if a b is odd
2
1
2a
n+ 1
an
a
dx =
e ax cos bx dx =
e ax sin bx dx =
log x
2
dx =
1 x
6
log x
2
dx =
1+ x
12
e 2a , if a > 0
2
a
2
a + b2
a
2
a + b2
, if a > 0
, if a > 0
386
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
OBJECTIVE PHYSICS
z
z
z
z
z
z
z
log x
2
dx
=
8
1 x2
log x
1 x2
dx =
2
log 2
2
LM 1 + x OP dx =
N1 x Q x 4
L e + 1OP dx =
log M
N e 1Q 4
2
log
dx
=
log (1/ x)
0
1
x log sin x dx =
[log (1/ x)] 1/ 2 dx =
2
log e 2
2
.
2