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Page No.
PHYSICAL WORLD, UNITS & MEASUREMENTS P-1 – P-4
MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE P-5 – P-8
MOTION IN A PLANE P-9 – P-12
LAWS OF MOTION P-13 – P-16
WORK, ENERGY AND POWER P-17 – P-20
SYSTEM OF PARTICLES AND ROTATIONAL MOTION P-21 – P-24
GRAVITATION P-25 – P-28
MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF SOLIDS P-29 – P-32
MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF FLUIDS P-33 – P-36
THERMAL PROPERTIES OF MATTER P-37 – P-40
THERMODYNAMICS P-41 – P-44
KINETIC THEORY P-45 – P-48
. OSCILLATIONS P-49 – P-52
WAVES P-53 – P-56
ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS P-57 – P-60
ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL & CAPACITANCE P-61 – P-64
CURRENT ELECTRICITY P-65 – P-68
MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM P-69 – P-72
MAGNETISM AND MATTER P-73 – P-76
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION P-77 – P-80
ALTERNATING CURRENT P-81 – P-84
ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES P-85 – P-88
RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS P-89 – P-92
WAVE OPTICS P-93 – P-96
DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER P-97 – P-100
ATOMS P-101 – P-104
NUCLEI P-105 – P-108
SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS: MATERIALS,P-109 – P-112
DEVICES AND SIMPLE CIRCUITS
COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS P-113 – P-116
FULL SYLLABUS P-117 – P-120
FULL SYLLABUS P-121 – P-124
Solutions To Chapter-wise DPP Sheets (1-29) S-1 – S-84

Solutions of Full Syllabus DPP Sheets (1-2) S-85 – S-
92
PART-I (Single Correct MCQs)
1. A and B have different dimensions. Then which of the following

relation will be meaningful ?
(a)
(b) [A – B]
(c) [A + B]
(d) [eA/B]
2. N divisions on the main scale of a vernier calliper coincide with (N + 1)
divisions of the vernier scale. If each division of main scale is ‘a’ units,
then the least count of the instrument is
(a) a
(b)
(c)
(d)
3. Young’s modulus of a material has the same unit as

(a) pressure
(b) strain
(c) compressibility
(d) force
4. The time period of a body under S.H.M. is represented by: T = Pa Db Sc
where P is pressure, D is density and S is surface tension, then values of
a, b and c are
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) 1, 2,
5. In the eqn. the unit of a is
(a) dyne cm5

(b) dyne cm4
(c) dyne/cm3
(d) dyne cm2
6. The mass and volume of a body are found to be 5.00 ± 0.05 kg and 1.00
± 0.05 m3 respectively. Then the maximum possible percentage error in
its density is
(a) 6%
(b) 3%
(c) 10%
(d) 5%
7. Of the following quantities, which one has dimensions different from
the remaining three?
(a) Energy per unit volume
(b) Force per unit area
(c) Product of voltage and charge per unit volume
(d) Angular momentum
8. The percentage error in measuring M, L and T are 1%, 1.5% and 3%
respectively. Then the percentage error in measuring the physical
quantity with dimensions ML–1 T–1 is
(a) 1%
(b) 3.5%
(c) 3%
(d) 5.5%
9. If the capacitance of a nanocapacitor is measured in terms of a unit ‘u’
made by combining the electric charge ‘e’, Bohr radius ‘a0’, Planck’s
constant ‘h’ and speed of light ‘c’ then
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
10. If E, m, J and G represent energy, mass, angular momentum and

gravitational constant respectively, then the dimensional formula of
EJ2/m5G2 is same as that of the
(a) angle
(b) length
(c) mass
(d) time
11. A quantity X is given by where is the permittivity of the
free space, L is a length, ∆V is a potential difference and ∆t is a time
interval. The dimensional formula for X is the same as that of
(a) resistance
(b) charge
(c) voltage
(d) current
12. In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are measured with
percentage error 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. Quantity P is
calculated as P = % error in P is
(a) 10%
(b) 7%
(c) 4%
(d) 14%
13. If Q denote the charge on the plate of a capacitor of capacitance C then
the dimensional formula for is
(a) [L2M2T]
(b) [LMT2]
(c) [L2MT–2]
(d) [L2M2T2]
14. The respective number of significant figures for the numbers 23.023,
0.0003 and 2.1 × 10–3are

(a) 5, 1, 2
(b) 5, 1, 5
(c) 5, 5, 2
(d) 4, 4, 2
15. The dimensions of mobility are
(a) M–2T2A
(b) M–1T2A
(c) M–2T3A
(d) M–1T3A
16. The physical quantities not having same dimensions are
(a) torque and work
(b) momentum and Planck’s constant
(c) stress and Young’s modulus
(d) speed and (µ0ε0)–1/2
17. A student measured the length of a rod as 3.50 cm. Which instrument
did he use to measure it?
(a) A meter scale
(b) A vernier calliper where the 10 divisions in vernier scale matches with 9
divisions in main scale and main scale has 10 divisions in 1 cm
(c) A screw gauge having 100 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as 1
mm
(d) A screw gauge having 50 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as 1
mm
18. The unit of impulse is the same as that of
(a) energy
(b) power
(c) momentum
(d) velocity
19. An object is moving through the liquid. The viscous damping force
acting on it is proportional to the velocity. Then dimensions of constant
of proportionality are
(a) [ML–1T–1]
(b) [MLT–1]
(c) [M0LT–1]
(d) [ML0T–1]
20. A physical quantity of the dimensions of length that can be formed out
of c, G and is [c is velocity of light, G is universal constant of
gravitation and e is charge]
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
PART-II (Numeric/Integer Type Questions)
21. ln a simple pendulum experiment, the maximum percentage error in the

measurement of length is 2% and that in the observation of the time-
period is 3%. Then what is the maximum percentage error in
determination of the acceleration due to gravity g ?
22. Two full turns of the circular scale of a screw gauge cover a distance of
1mm on its main scale. The total number of divisions on the circular
scale is 50. Further, it is found that the screw gauge has a zero error of –
0.03 mm. While measuring the diameter of a thin wire, a student notes
the main scale reading of 3 mm and the number of circular scale
divisions in line with the main scale as 35. Then what is the diameter
(in mm) of the wire ?
23. The density of material in CGS system of units is 4g/cm3. In a system of
units in which unit of length is 10 cm and unit of mass is 100 g, then
what will be the value of density of material ?
24. The current voltage relation of a diode is given by I = (e1000V/T – 1)mA,
where the applied voltage V is in volts and the temperature T is in
degree kelvin. If a student makes an error measuring ±0.01 V while
measuring the current of 5 mA at 300 K, what will be the error in the
value of current in mA?
25. The density of a solid ball is to be determined in an experiment. The
diameter of the ball is measured with a screw gauge, whose pitch is 0.5
mm and there are 50 divisions on the circular scale. The reading on the
main scale is2.5 mm and that on the circular scale is 20 divisions. If the
measured mass of the ball has a relative error of 2%, then what is the
relative percentage error in the density ?
1. The co-ordinates of a moving particle at any time ‘t’are given by x =

αt3 and y = βt3. The speed of the particle at time ‘t’ is given by
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
2. A goods train accelerating uniformly on a straight railway track,
approaches an electric pole standing on the side of track. Its engine
passes the pole with velocity u and the guard’s room passes with
velocity v. The middle wagon of the train passes the pole with a
velocity
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
3. A particle starts moving rectilinearly at time t = 0 such that its velocity

v changes with time t according to the equation v = t2 – t where t is in
seconds and v is in m/s. Find the time interval for which the particle
retards.
(a) <t<1
(b) >t>1
(c) <t<1
(d) <t<
4. A ball is dropped on a floor and bounces back to a height somewhat less

than the original height. Which of the curves depicts its motion
correctly?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
5. The displacement x of a particle varies with time according to the

relation Then select the false alternative.
(a) At , the displacement of the particle is nearly
(b) The velocity and acceleration of the particle at t = 0 are a and –ab
respectively
(c) The particle cannot go beyond
(d) The particle will not come back to its starting point at t → ∞
6. The deceleration experienced by a moving motor boat after its engine is
cut off, is given by dv/dt = – kv3 where k is a constant. If v0 is the
magnitude of the velocity at cut-off, the magnitude of the velocity at a
time t after the cut-off is
(a)
(b) v0 e–kt
(c) v0 / 2
(d) v0
7. A car, starting from rest, accelerates at the rate f through a distance S,
then continues at constant speed for time t and then decelerates at the
rate to come to rest. If the total distance traversed is 15 S , then
(a) S =
(b) S = f t
(c) S =
(d) S =
8. A stone falls freely under gravity. It covers distances h1, h2 and h3 in

the first 5 seconds, the next 5 seconds and the next 5 seconds
respectively. The relation between h1, h2 and h3 is
(a) h1 = =
(b) h2 = 3h1 and h3 = 3h2

(c) h1 = h2 = h3
(d) h1 = 2h2 = 3h3
9. Initially car A is 10.5 m ahead of car B. Both start moving at time t = 0
in the same direction along a straight line. The velocity time graph of
two cars is shown in figure. The time when the car B will catch the car
A, will be
(a) t = 21 sec.
(b) t =
(c) t = 20 sec.
(d) None of these
10. A body starts from rest and travels a distance x with uniform
acceleration, then it travels a distance 2x with uniform speed, finally it
travels a distance 3x with uniform retardation and comes to rest. If the
complete motion of the particle is along a straight line, then the ratio of
its average velocity to maximum velocity is
(a) 2/5
(b) 3/5
(c) 4/5
(d) 6/7
11. A particle starts its motion from rest under the action of a constant
force. If the distance covered in first 10 seconds is S1 and that covered
in the first 20 seconds is S2, then:
(a) S2 = 3S1 (b) S2 = 4S1
(c) S2 = S1 (d) S2 = 2S1
12. A boat takes 2 hours to travel 8 km and back in still water lake. With
water velocity of 4 km h–1, the time taken for going upstream of 8 km
and coming back is
(a) 160 minutes
(b) 80 minutes
(c) 100 minutes
(d) 120 minutes
13. A particle moving along x-axis has acceleration f, at time t, given by
, where f0 and T are constants. The particle at t = 0 has
zero velocity. In the time interval between t = 0 and the instant when f =
0, the particle’s velocity (vx) is
(a) f0T2
(b) f0T2
(c) f0T
(d) f0T
14. A body moving with a uniform acceleration crosses a distance of 65 m
in the 5 th second and 105 m in 9th second. How far will it go in 20 s?
(a) 2040 m
(b) 240 m
(c) 2400 m
(d) 2004 m
15. Two cars are moving in the same direction with the same speed 30
km/hr. They are separated by a distance of 5 km. The speed of a car
moving in the opposite direction if it meets these two cars at an interval
of 4 minutes, will be
(a) 40 km/hr
(b) 45km/hr
(c) 30 km/hr
(d) 15 km/hr
16. A stone is dropped into a well in which the level of water is h below the
top of the well. If v is velocity of sound, the time T after which the
splash is heard is given by
(a) T = 2h/v
(b)
(c)
(d)
17. An automobile travelling with a speed of 60 km/h, can brake to stop

within a distance of 20m. If the car is going twice as fast i.e., 120 km/h,
the stopping distance will be
(a) 60 m
(b) 40 m
(c) 20 m
(d) 80 m
18. The displacement ‘x’ (in meter) of a particle of mass ‘m’ (in kg) moving
in one dimension under the action of a force, is related to time ‘t’ (in
sec) by t = . The displacement of the particle when its velocity is
zero, will be
(a) 2 m
(b) 4 m
(c) zero
(d) 6 m
19. The water drops fall at regular intervals from a tap 5 m above the
ground. The third drop is leaving the tap at an instant when the first
drop touches the ground. How far above the ground is the second drop
at that instant? (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 1.25 m
(b) 2.50 m
(c) 3.75 m
(d) 5.00 m
20. The velocity of a particle is v = v0 + gt + ft2. If its position is x = 0 at t =
0, then its displacement after unit time (t = 1) is
(a) v0 + g /2 + f
(b) v0 + 2g + 3f
(c) v0 + g /2 + f/3
(d) v0 + g + f
21. A thief is running away on a straight road on a jeep moving with a

speed of 9 m/s. A police man chases him on a motor cycle moving at a
speed of 10 m/s. If the instantaneous separation of jeep from the motor
cycle is 100 m, how long time (in sec) will it take for the police man to
catch the thief?
22. A metro train starts from rest and in five seconds achieves a speed 108
km/h. After that it moves with constant velocity and comes to rest after
travelling 45m with uniform retardation. If total distance travelled is
395 m, find total time (in sec) of travelling.
23. A ball is dropped from the top of a tower of height 100 m and at the
same time another ball is projected vertically upwards from ground with
a velocity 25 ms–1. Then what will be the distance (in m) from the top of
the tower, at which the two balls meet ?
24. A car, moving with a speed of 50 km/hr, can be stopped by brakes after
at least 6 m. If the same car is moving at a speed of 100 km/hr, then what
is the minimum stopping distance(in m) ?
25. A body is thrown vertically up with a velocity u. It passes three points
A, B and C in its upward journey with velocities
respectively. Then what is the ratio of AB and BC ?
1. If then the value of is

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) A + B
2. A projectile is given an initial velocity of m/s, where is
along the ground and is along the vertical. If g = 10 m/s2 , the
equation of its trajectory is :
(a) y = x – 5x2
(b) y = 2x – 5x2
(c) 4y = 2x – 5x2
(d) 4y = 2x – 25x2
3. For a particle in uniform circular motion, the acceleration at a point
P(R,θ) on the circle of radius R is (Here θ is measured from the x-axis)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
4. Six vectors, and have the magnitudes and directions

indicated in the figure. Which of the following statements is true?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
5. Two particles start simultaneously from the same point and move along
two straight lines, one with uniform velocity v and other with a uniform
acceleration a. If α is the angle between the lines of motion of two
particles then the least value of relative velocity will be at time given by
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
6. Initial velocity with which a body is projected is 10 m/sec and angle of

projection is 60°. Find the range R
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
7. A particle moves in a circle of radius 4 cm clockwise at constant speed

2 cm/s. If and are unit acceleration vectors along X and Y-axis
respectively (in cm/s2), the acceleration of the particle at the instant half
way between P and Q is given by
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
8. If vectors and are functions
of time, then the value of t at which they are orthogonal to each other is
:
(a)
(b)
(c) t = 0
(d)
9. A bus is moving on a straight road towards north with a uniform speed

of 50 km/hour turns through 90°. If the speed remains unchanged after
turning, the increase in the velocity of bus in the turning process is
(a) 70.7 km/hour along south-west direction
(b) 70.7 km/hour along north-west direction.
(c) 50 km/hour along west
(d) zero
10. The velocity of projection of oblique projectile is . The
horizontal range of the projectile is
(a) 4.9 m
(b) 9.6 m
(c) 19.6 m
(d) 14 m
11. A particle crossing the origin of co-ordinates at time t = 0, moves in the
xy-plane with a constant acceleration a in the y-direction. If its equation
of motion is y = bx2 (b is a constant), its velocity component in the x-
direction is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
12. The vector sum of two forces is perpendicular to their vector

differences. In that case, the forces
(a) cannot be predicted
(b) are equal to each other
(c) are equal to each other in magnitude
(d) are not equal to each other in magnitude
13. A water fountain on the ground sprinkles water all around it. If the
speed of water coming out of the fountain is v, the total area around the
fountain that gets wet is :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
14. A stone projected with a velocity u at an angle θ with the horizontal

reaches maximum height H1. When it is projected with velocity u at an
angle with the horizontal, it reaches maximum height H2. The
relation between the horizontal range R of the projectile, heights H1 and

H2 is
(a)
(b) R = 4(H1 – H2)
(c) R = 4 (H1 + H2)
(d)
15. A car runs at a constant speed on a circular track of radius 100 m,
taking 62.8 seconds in every circular loop. The average velocity and
average speed for each circular loop respectively, is
(a) 0, 10 m/s
(b) 10 m/s, 10 m/s
(c) 10 m/s, 0
(d) 0, 0
16. A vector of magnitude b is rotated through angle θ. What is the change
in magnitude of the vector?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
17. The position vector of a particle as a function of time is given by
where R is in meter, t in seconds and and denote unit vectors along x-and
y-directions, respectively.
Which one of the following statements is wrong for the motion of particle?
(a) Magnitude of acceleration vector is , where v is the velocity of
particle
(b) Magnitude of the velocity of particle is 8 meter/second
(c) Path of the particle is a circle of radius 4 meter.
(d) Acceleration vector is along -
18. A projectile is fired at an angle of 45° with the horizontal. Elevation
angle of the projectile at its highest point as seen from the point of
projection is
(a) 60°
(b)
(c)
(d) 45°
19. A stone tied to the end of a string of 1 m long is whirled in a horizontal
circle with a constant speed. If the stone makes 22 revolutions in 44
seconds, what is the magnitude and direction of acceleration of the
stone?
(a) π2 m s–2 and direction along the radius towards the centre
(b) π2 m s–2 and direction along the radius away from the centre
(c) π2 m s–2 and direction along the tangent to the circle
(d) π2/4 m s–2 and direction along the radius towards the centre
20. A man running along a straight road with uniform velocity
feels that the rain is falling vertically down along – . If he doubles his
speed, he finds that the rain is coming at an angle θ with the vertical.
The velocity of the rain with respect to the ground is
(a) ui – uj
(b)
(c)
(d)
21. A boat which has a speed of 5 km/hr in still water crosses a river of
width 1 km along the shortest possible path in 15 minutes. Then what is
the velocity of the river water inkm/hr ?
22. An artillary piece which consistently shoots its shells with the same
muzzle speed has a maximum range R. To hit a target which is R/2
from the gun and on the same level, then what will be the elevation
angle (in degree) of the gun ?
23. Passengers in the jet transport A flying east at a speed of 800 kmh–1
observe a second jet plane B that passes under the transport in
horizontal flight. Although the nose of B is pointed in the 45° north east
direction, plane B appears to the passengers in A to
be moving away from the transport at the 60°
angle as shown. Then what is the true
velocity (in km/h) of B ?
24. A point P moves in counter-clockwise
direction on a circular path as shown in the
figure. The movement of ‘P’ is such that it
sweeps out a length s = t3 + 5, where s is in metres and t is in seconds.
The radius of the path is 20 m. Then what is the value of acceleration
(in m/sec2) of ‘P’ at t = 2 s ?
25. A projectile is thrown in the upward direction making an angle of 60°

with the horizontal direction with a velocity of 147 m s–1. Then what
will be the time (in sec) after which its inclination with the horizontal is
45° ?
1. A player stops a football weighing 0.5 kg which comes flying towards

him with a velocity of 10m/s. If the impact lasts for 1/50th sec. and the
ball bounces back with a velocity of 15 m/s, then the average force
involved is
(a) 250 N
(b) 1250 N
(c) 500 N
(d) 625 N
2. A mass ‘m’ is supported by a massless string wound around a uniform
hollow cylinder of mass m and radius R. If the string does not slip on
the cylinder, with what acceleration will the mass release?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) g
3. A 40 kg slab rests on a frictionless floor as shown in
the figure. A 10 kg block rests on the top of the
slab. The static coefficient of friction between the
block and slab is 0.60 while the coefficient of
kinetic friction is 0.40. The 10 kg block is acted upon by a horizontal
force of 100 N. If g = 9.8 m/s2, the resultaing acceleration of the slab
will be
(a) 0.98 m/s2

(b) 1.47 m/s2
(c) 1.52 m/s2
(d) 6.1 m/s2
4. A satellite in a force free space sweeps stationary interplanetary dust at
a rate (dM/dt) = αv. The acceleration of satellite is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) – αv2
5. A monkey is decending from the branch of a tree with constant
acceleration. If the breaking strength is 75% of the weight of the
monkey, the minimum acceleration with which monkey can slide down
without breaking the branch is
(a) g
(b)
(c)
(d)
6. A plank with a box on it at one end is gradually raised about the other
end. As the angle of inclination with the horizontal reaches 30º the box
starts to slip and slides 4.0 m down
the plank in 4.0s. The coefficients of static and kinetic

friction between the box and the plank will be,
respectively :
(a) 0.6 and 0.5 (b) 0.5 and 0.6
(c) 0.4 and 0.3
(d) 0.6 and 0.6
7. A stationary body of mass 3 kg explodes into three equal pieces. Two of
the pieces fly off in two mutually perpendicular directions, one with a
velocity of and the other with a velocity of If the
explosion occurs in 10–4 s, the average force acting on the third piece in
newton is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
8. A bullet is fired from a gun. The force on the bullet is given by F = 600
– 2 × 105 t where, F is in newton and t in second. The force on the bullet
becomes zero as soon as it leaves the barrel. What is the average
impulse imparted to the bullet?
(a) 1.8 N-s
(b) zero
(c) 9 N-s
(d) 0.9 N-s
9. Three forces start acting simultaneously on a particle moving with
velocity, . These forces are represented in magnitude and direction
by the three sides of a triangle ABC. The particle will now move with
velocity
(a) less than
(b) greater than
(c) |v| in the direction of the largest force BC
(d) , remaining unchanged
10. A block is kept on a inclined plane of inclination θ of
length l. The velocity of particle at the bottom of inclined is (the
coefficient of friction is µ)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
11. A ball of mass 10 g moving perpendicular to the plane of the wall
strikes it and rebounds in the same line with the same velocity. If the
impulse experienced by the wall is 0.54 Ns, the velocity of the ball is
(a) 27 ms–1
(b) 3.7 ms–1
(c) 54 ms–1
(d) 37 ms–1
12. A block of mass m is placed on a surface with a vertical cross section
given by If the coefficient of friction is 0.5, the maximum
height above the ground at which the block can be placed without
slipping is:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
13. A block of mass m is connected to another block of mass M by a spring

(massless) of spring constant k. The block are kept on a smooth
horizontal plane. Initially the blocks are at rest and the spring is
unstretched. Then a constant force F starts acting on the block of mass
M to pull it. Find the force of the block of mass m.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
14. Two particles of mass m each are tied at the ends of a light string of
length 2a. The whole system is kept on a frictionless horizontal surface
with the string held tight so that each mass is at a distance ‘a’ from the
centre P (as shown in the figure).
Now, the mid-point of the string is pulled vertically
upwards with a small but constant force F. As a
result, the particles move towards each other on
the surface. The magnitude of acceleration, when
the separation between them becomes 2x, is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
15. A light spring balance hangs from the hook of the other light spring
balance and a block of mass M kg hangs from the former one. Then the
true statement about the scale reading is
(a) both the scales read M kg each
(b) the scale of the lower one reads M kg and of the upper one zero
(c) the reading of the two scales can be anything but the sum of the reading
will be M kg
(d) both the scales read M/2 kg each
16. A block A of mass m1 rests on a horizontal table. A light string
connected to it passes over a frictionless pulley at the edge of table and
from its other end another block B of mass m2 is suspended. The
coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the table is µk.
When the block A is sliding on the table, the tension in the string is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
17. Which one of the following motions on a smooth plane surface does not
involve force?
(a) Accelerated motion in a straight line
(b) Retarded motion in a straight line
(c) Motion with constant momentum along a straight line
(d) Motion along a straight line with varying velocity
18. A car having a mass of 1000 kg is moving at a speed of 30 metres/sec.
Brakes are applied to bring the car to rest. If the frictional force between
the tyres and the road surface is 5000 newtons, the car will come to rest
in
(a) 5 seconds
(b) 10 seconds
(c) 12 seconds
(d) 6 seconds
19. A body of mass M is kept on a rough horizontal surface (friction
coefficient µ). A person is trying to pull the body by applying a
horizontal force but the body is not moving. The force by the surface on
the body is F, then
(a) F = Mg
(b) F = µMg
(c)
(d)
20. A block of mass m is resting on a smooth horizontal surface. One end
of a uniform rope of mass (m/3) is fixed to the block, which is pulled in
the horizontal direction by applying a force F at the other end. The
tension in the middle of the rope is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
21. A block of 7 kg is placed on a rough horizontal surface and is pulled

through a variable force F (in N) = 5t, where t is time in second, at an
angle of 37° with the horizontal as shown in figure. The coefficient of
static friction of the block with the surface is one. If the force starts
acting at t = 0s, the time at which the block starts to slide is t0 sec. Find
the value of t0/2 in sec. (g = 10 m/s2 and cos 37° = )
22. A 5000 kg rocket is set for vertical firing. The exhaust speed is 800 m/s.
To give an initial upward acceleration of 20 m/s2, the amount of gas
ejected per second (in kg/sec) to supply the needed thrust will be (Take
g = 10 m/s2)
23. The pulleys and strings shown in the figure are smooth and of
negligible mass. For the system to remain in equilibrium, the angle θ (in
degree) should be
24. The rate of mass of the gas emitted from rear of a rocket is initially 0.1
kg/sec. If the speed of the gas relative to the rocket is 50 m/sec and
mass of the rocket is 2 kg, then the acceleration of the rocket in m/sec2
is
25. A particle tied to a string describes a vertical circular motion of radius r
continually. If it has a velocity at the highest point, then value of
ratio of the respective tensions in the string holding it at the highest and
lowest points is
1. A spring of spring constant 5 × 103 N/m is stretched initially by 5cm

from the unstretched position. Then the work required to stretch it
further by another 5 cm is
(a) 12.50 Nm
(b) 18.75 Nm
(c) 25.00 Nm
(d) 6.25 Nm
2. A particle of mass 10 g moves along a circle of radius 6.4 cm with a
constant tangential acceleration. What is the magnitude of this
acceleration if the kinetic energy of the particle becomes equal to 8 ×
10–4 J by the end of the second revolution after the beginning of the
motion ?
(a) 0.1 m/s2 (b) 0.15 m/s2
(c) 0.18 m/s2 (d) 0.2 m/s2
3. A body is moved along a straight line by a machine delivering a
constant power. The distance moved by the body in time ‘t’ is
proportional to
(a) t3/4
(b) t3/2
(c) t1/4
(d) t1/2
4. A ball is thrown vertically downwards from a height of 20 m with an
initial velocity v0. It collides with the ground and loses 50% of its
energy in collision and rebounds to the same height. The initial velocity
v0 is : (Take g = 10 ms–2)
(a) 20 ms–1
(b) 28 ms–1
(c) 10 ms–1
(d) 14 ms–1
5. When a rubber-band is stretched by a distance x, it exerts restoring
force of magnitude F = ax + bx2 where a and b are constants. The work
done in stretching the unstretched rubber-band by L is:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
6. A particle is acted by a force F = kx, where k is a +ve constant. Its

potential energy at x = 0 is zero. Which curve correctly represents the
variation of potential energy of the block with respect to x
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
7. A particle of mass m is driven by a machine that delivers a constant

power of k watts. If the particle starts from rest the force on the particle
at time t is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
8. A moving body with a mass m1 and velocity u strikes a stationary body

of mass m2. The masses m1 and m2 should be in the ratio m1/m2 so as to
decrease the velocity of the first body to 2u/3 and giving a velocity of v
to m2 assuming a perfectly elastic impact. Then the ratio m1/m2 is
(a) 5
(b)
(c)
(d) 25
9. Two similar springs P and Q have spring constants KP and KQ, such that
KP > KQ. They are stretched, first by the same amount (case a,) then by
the same force (case b). The work done by the springs WP and WQ are
related as, in case (a) and case (b), respectively
(a) WP = WQ ; WP = WQ
(b) WP > WQ ; WQ > WP
(c) WP < WQ ; WQ < WP
(d) WP = WQ ; WP > WQ
10. A body is allowed to fall freely under gravity from a height of 10m. If
it looses 25% of its energy due to impact with the ground, then the
maximum height it rises after one impact is
(a) 2.5m (b) 5.0m (c) 7.5m (d) 8.2m
11. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate a
turbine. The losses due to frictional force are 10% of energy. How
much power is generated by the turbine?( g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 8.1 kW
(b) 10.2 kW
(c) 12.3 kW
(d) 7.0 kW
12. A glass marble dropped from a certain height above the horizontal
surface reaches the surface in time t and then continues to bounce up
and down. The time in which the marble finally comes to rest is
(a) ent
(b) e2t
(c)
(d)
13. A block C of mass m is moving with velocity v0 and collides elastically

with block A of mass m and connected to another block B of mass 2m
through spring constant k. What is k if x0 is compression of spring when
velocity of A and B is same?
`
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
14. In the figure shown, a particle of mass m is released from the position A
on a smooth track. When the particle reaches at B, then normal reaction
on it by the track is
(a) mg
(b) 2mg
(c)
(d)
15. A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of a time

dependent force N, where and are unit vectors alogn
x and y axis. What power will be developed by the force at the time t?
(a) (2t2 + 3t3)W
(b) (2t2 + 4t4)W
(c) (2t3 + 3t4) W
(d) (2t3 + 3t5)W
16. A bullet of mass 20 g and moving with 600 m/s collides with a block of
mass 4 kg hanging with the string. What is the velocity of bullet when it
comes out of block, if block rises to height 0.2 m after collision?
(a) 200 m/s
(b) 150 m/s
(c) 400 m/s
(d) 300 m/s
17. A body of mass m kg is ascending on a smooth inclined plane of
inclination θ with constant acceleration of a m/s2. The final
velocity of the body is v m/s. The work done by the body during this
motion is
(Initial velocity of the body = 0)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
18. A car of mass m starts from rest and accelerates so that the
instantaneous power delivered to the car has a constant magnitude P0.
The instantaneous velocity of this car is proportional to :
2
(a) t P0
(b) t1/2
(c) t–1/2
(d)
19. A vertical spring with force constant k is fixed on a table. A ball of

mass m at a height h above the free upper end of the spring falls
vertically on the spring so that the spring is compressed by a distance d.
The net work done in the process is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
20. A stone is tied to a string of length l and is whirled in a vertical circle

with the other end of the string as the centre. At a certain instant of
time, the stone is at its lowest position and has a speed u. The
magnitude of the change in velocity as it reaches a position where the
string is horizontal (g being acceleration due to gravity) is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
21. An engine pumps water through a hose pipe. Water passes through the
pipe and leaves it with a velocity of 2 m/s. The mass per unit length of
water in the pipe is 100 kg/m. What is the power (in watt) of the
engine?
22. A 2 kg block slides on a horizontal floor with a speed of 4m/s. It strikes a
uncompressed spring, and compresses it till the block is motionless. The
kinetic friction force is 15N and spring constant is 10,000 N/m. The
spring compresses (in cm) by
23. A steel ball of mass 5g is thrown downward with velocity 10 m/s from
height 19.5 m. It penetrates sand by 50 cm. The change in mechanical
energy (in joule) will be (g = 10 m/s2)
24. A block of mass m rests on a rough horizontal surface (Coefficient of
friction is µ). When a bullet of mass m/2 strikes horizontally, and get
embedded in it, the block moves a distance d before coming to rest. The
initial velocity of the bullet is , then the value of k is
25. The potential energy of a 1 kg particle free to move along the x-axis is
given by .
The total mechanical energy of the particle is 2 J. Then, what will be the
maximum speed (in m/s) ?
1. The moment of inertia of a body about a given axis is 1.2 kg m2.

Initially, the body is at rest. In order to produce a rotational kinetic
energy of 1500 joule, an angular acceleration of 25 radian/sec2 must be
applied about that axis for a duration of
(a) 4 seconds
(b) 2 seconds
(c) 8 seconds
(d) 10 seconds
2. A pulley of radius 2 m is rotated about its axis by a force F = (20t – 5t2)
newton (where t is measured in seconds) applied tangentially. If the
moment of inertia of the pulley about its axis of rotation is 10 kg-m2 the
number of rotations made by the pulley before its direction of motion is
reversed, is:
(a) more than 3 but less than 6
(b) more than 6 but less than 9
(c) more than 9
(d) less than 3
3. A gymnast takes turns with her arms and legs stretched. When she pulls
her arms and legs in
(a) the angular velocity decreases
(b) the moment of inertia decreases
(c) the angular velocity stays constant
(d) the angular momentum increases
4. An equilateral triangle ABC formed from a uniform
wire has two small identical beads initially located at
A. The triangle is set rotating about the vertical axis AO. Then the beads
are released from rest simultaneously and
allowed to slide down, one along AB and the other along AC as shown.
Neglecting frictional effects, the quantities that are conserved as the
beads slide down, are
(a) angular velocity and total energy (kinetic and potential)
(b) total angular momentum and total energy
(c) angular velocity and moment of inertia about the axis of rotation
(d) total angular momentum and moment of inertia about the axis of rotation
5. Two identical discs of mass m and radius r are arranged as shown in the
figure. If α is the angular acceleration of the lower disc and acm is
acceleration of centre of mass of the lower disc, then relation between
acm,
α and r is
(a) acm = α/r
(b) acm = 2αr
(c) acm = α r
(d) None of these
6. A tennis ball (treated as hollow spherical shell) starting
from O rolls down a hill. At point A the ball becomes air borne leaving
at an angle of 30° with the horizontal. The ball strikes the ground at B.
What is the value of the distance AB ?
(Moment of inertia of a spherical shell of mass m and radius R about its
diameter
(a) 1.87 m
(b) 2.08 m
(c) 1.57 m
(d) 1.77 m
7. A hollow sphere is held suspended. Sand is now
poured into it in stages.
The centre of mass of the sphere with
the sand
(a) rises continuously
(b) remains unchanged in the process
(c) first rises and then falls to the
original position
(d) first falls and then rises to the original position
8. From a solid sphere of mass M and radius R a cube of maximum
possible volume is cut. Moment of inertia of cube about an axis passing
through its center and perpendicular to one of its faces is :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
9. A solid sphere is rolling on a surface as shown in figure, with a

translational velocity v m s–1. If it is to climb the inclined surface
continuing to roll without slipping, then minimum velocity for this to
happen is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
10. A loop of radius r and mass m rotating with an

angular velocity ω0 is placed on a rough
horizontal surface. The initial velocity of the centre of the hoop is
zero.What will be the velocity of the centre of the hoop when it ceases
to slip?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) rω0
11. A thin rod of length ‘L’ is lying along the x-axis with its ends at x = 0
and x = L. Its linear density (mass/length) varies with x as ,
where n can be zero or any positive number. If the position xCM of the
centre of mass of the rod is plotted against ‘n’, which of the following
graphs best approximates the dependence of xCM on n?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
12. A mass m moves in a circle on a smooth horizontal plane with velocity

v0 at a radius R0. The mass is attached to string which passes through a
smooth hole in the plane as shown.
The tension in the string is increased gradually and
finally m moves in a circle of radius . The
final value of the kinetic energy is

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
13. A ball rolls without slipping. The radius of gyration of the ball about an
axis passing through its centre of mass is K. If radius of the ball be R,
then the fraction of total energy associated with its rotational energy
will be
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
14. A ring of mass M and radius R is rotating about its axis with angular
velocity ω. Two identical bodies each of mass m are now gently
attached at the two ends of a diameter of the ring. Because of this, the
kinetic energy loss will be :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
15. A hollow smooth uniform sphere A of mass m rolls without sliding on a
smooth horizontal surface. It collides head on elastically with another
stationary smooth solid sphere B of the same mass m and same radius.
The ratio of kinetic energy of B to that of A just after the collision is
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 3 : 2
(d) None of these
16. Fig. shows a disc rolling on a horizontal plane with linear velocity v. Its
linear velocity is v and angular velocity is ω. Which of the following
gives the velocity of the particle P on the rim of the disc ?
(a) v (1 + cos θ)
(b) v (1 – cos θ)
(c) v (1 + sin θ)
(d) v (1 – sin θ)
17. A couple produces
(a) purely linear motion
(b) purely rotational motion
(c) linear and rotational motion
(d) no motion
18. A uniform rod of length l is free to rotate in a vertical plane
about a fixed horizontal axis through O. The rod begins
rotating from rest from its unstable equilibrium position.
When it has turned through an angle θ, its angular velocity
ω is given as
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
19. A rod PQ of length L revolves in a horizontal plane about the axis YY´.
The angular velocity of the rod is ω. If A is the area of cross-section of
the rod and ρ be its density, its rotational kinetic energy is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
20. A wooden cube is placed on a rough horizontal table, a force is applied

to the cube. Gradually the force is increased. Whether the cube slides
before toppling or topples before sliding is independent of :
(a) the position of point of application of the force
(b) the length of the edge of the cube
(c) mass of the cube
(d) Coefficient of friction between the cube and the table
21. Acertain bicycle can go up a gentle incline with

constant speed when the frictional force of
ground pushing the rear wheel is F2 = 4 N. With
what force F1 (in newton) must the chain pull on
the sprocket wheel if R1=5 cm and R2 = 30 cm?
22. From a circular ring of mass M and radius R, an
arc corresponding to a 90° sector is removed. The moment of inertia of
the ramaining part of the ring about an axis passing through the centre
of the ring and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is k times MR2.
Then what is the value of k ?
23. A solid sphere of mass 2 kg rolls on a smooth horizontal surface at 10
m/s. It then rolls up a smooth inclined plane of inclination 30° with the
horizontal. Then what is the height (in meter) attained by the sphere
before it stops ?
24. A pulley is in the form of a disc of mass M and radius R. In following
figure two masses M1 and M2 are connected by a light inextensible
string which passes over the pulley.
Assuming that the string does not slip over the pulley, the angular momentum
of system at the instant shown, about axis of
rotation of pulley is
then
find the value of k.

25. The moment of inertia of a uniform semicircular
wire of mass m and radius r, about an axis passing through its centre of
mass and perpendicular to its plane is . Find the value of
k.
1. A Planet is revolving around the sun.
Which of the following is correct option?

(a) The time taken in travelling DAB is less than that for BCD
(b) The time taken in travelling DAB is greater than that for BCD
(c) The time taken in travelling CDA is less than that for ABC
(d) The time taken in travelling CDA is greater than that for ABC
2. Which graph correctly presents the variation of acceleration due to
gravity with the distance from the centre of the earth (radius of the earth
=RE)?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
3. The mean radius of earth is R, its angular speed on its own axis is ω and
the acceleration due to gravity at earth’s surface is g. What will be the
radius of the orbit of a geostationary satellite?
(a) (R2g / ω2)1/3
(b) (Rg / ω2)1/3
(c) (R2ω2 / g)1/3
(d) (R2g / ω)1/3
4. A uniform ring of mass m and radius r is placed directly
above a uniform sphere of mass M and of equal radius. The
centre of the ring is directly above the centre of the sphere
at a distance as shown in the figure.
The gravitational force exerted by the sphere on the ring will be
(a)
(b) (c)
(d)
5. A satellite revolves around the earth of radius R in a circular orbit of

radius 3R. Then what is the percentage increase in energy required to
lift it to an orbit of radius 5R ?
(a) 10% (b) 20%
(c) 30%
(d) 40%
6. The gravitational force of attraction between a uniform sphere of mass
M and a uniform rod of length l and mass m oriented as shown is
(a)
(b)
(c) Mmr2 + l
(d) (r2 + l) mM
7. A satellite of mass m revolves around the earth of radius R at a height ‘x’
from its surface. If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the
earth, the orbital speed of the satellite is
(a)
(b)
(c) gx (d)
8. Two hypothetical planets of masses m1 and m2 are at rest when they are
infinite distance apart. Because of the gravitational force they move
towards each other along the line joining their centres.
What is their speed when their separation is ‘d’?

(Speed of m1 is v1 and that of m2 is v2)
(a) v1 = v2
(b) ,
(c) ,
(d) ,
9. The gravitational field, due to the ‘left over part’ of a uniform sphere
(from which a part as shown, has been ‘removed out’), at a very far off
point, P, located as shown, would be (nearly):
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
10. A uniform spherical shell gradually shrinks maintaining its shape. The
gravitational potential at the centre
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) cannot say
11. Consider Earth to be a homogeneous sphere. Scientist A goes deep
down in a mine and scientist B goes high up in a balloon. The
gravitational field measured by
(a) A goes on decreasing and that by B goes on increasing
(b) B goes on decreasing and that by A goes on increasing
(c) each decreases at the same rate
(d) each decreases at different rates
12. A tunnel is dug along a chord of the earth at a perpendicular distance R/2
from the earth’s centre. The wall of the tunnel may be assumed to be
frictionless. A particle is released from one end of the tunnel. The
acceleration of the particle varies with x (distance of the particle from the
centre) according to
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
13. The change in the value of ‘g’ at a height ‘h’ above the surface of the
earth is the same as at a depth ‘d’ below the surface of earth. When both
‘d’ and ‘h’ are much smaller than the radius of earth, then which one of
the following is correct ?
(a) d =
(b) d =
(c) d = h
(d) d =2 h
14. A body starts from rest from a point distance R0 from the centre of the
earth. The velocity acquired by the body when it reaches the surface of
the earth will be (R represents radius of the earth).
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
15. Two identical geostationary satellites are moving with equal speeds in
the same orbit but their sense of rotation brings them on a collision
course. The debris will
(a) fall down
(b) move up
(c) begin to move from east to west in the same orbit
(d) begin to move from west to east in the same orbit
16. A satellite of mass M is moving in a circle of radius R under a
centripetal force given by (–k/R2), where k is a constant. Then
(a) The kinetic energy of the particle is
(b) The total energy of the particle is
(c) The kinetic energy of the particle is
(d) The potential energy of the particle is

17. A diametrical tunnel is dug across the Earth. A ball is dropped into the
tunnel from one side. The velocity of the ball when it reaches the centre
of the Earth is .... (Given : gravitational potential at the centre of Earth =
)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
18. If the earth is treated as a sphere of radius R and mass M; its angular
momentum about the axis of its rotation with period T, is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
19. A (nonrotating) star collapses onto itself

from an initial radius Ri with its mass
remaining unchanged. Which curve in
figure best gives the gravitational
acceleration ag on the surface of the star
as a function of the radius of the star
during the collapse
(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d
20. Which one of the following plots represents the variation of
gravitational field on a particle with distance r due to a thin spherical
shell of radius R ? (r is measured from the centre of the spherical shell)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
21. If the radius of the earth were to shrink by 1%, with its mass remaining
the same, the acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface would
increase by x%. Then find the value of x.
22. The period of moon’s rotation around the earth is nearly 29 days. If
moon’s mass were 2 fold its present value and all other things remain
unchanged, then what will be the period (in days) of moon’s rotation ?
23. A solid sphere of uniform density and radius R applies a gravitational
force of attraction equal to F1 on a particle placed at A, distance 2R
from the centre of the sphere.
A spherical cavity of radius R/2 is now made in the sphere as
shown in the figure. The sphere with cavity now applies a
gravitational force F2 on the same particle placed at A. Then
what is the value of ratio F2/F1?
24. A satellite is launched into a circular orbit of radius R around the earth.
A second satellite is launched into an orbit of radius 1.01 R. Then what
is the period of second satellite is larger than the first one by
approximately in percent?
25. A body is projected up with a velocity equal to 3/4th of the escape
velocity from the surface of the earth. The height it reaches from the
centre of the earth is xR. Then what is the value of x ?(Radius of the
earth = R)
1. For the same cross-sectional area and for a given load, the ratio of
depressions for the beam of a square cross-section and circular cross-
section is
(a) 3:π
(b) π:3
(c) 1:π
(d) π:1
2. A metal rod of Young’s modulus 2 × 1010 N m–2 undergoes an elastic
strain of 0.06%. The energy per unit volume stored in J m–3 is
(a) 3600
(b) 7200
(c) 10800
(d) 14400
3. The length of an elastic string is a metre when the longitudinal tension
is 4 N and b metre when the longitudinal tension is 5 N. The length of
the string in metre when the longitudinal tension is 9 N is
(a) a – b
(b) 5b – 4a
(c)
(d) 4a – 3b
4. A beam of metal supported at the two edges is loaded at the centre. The
depression at the centre is proportional to
(a) Y2
(b) Y
(c) 1/Y
(d) 1/Y 2
5. A structural steel rod has a radius of 10 mm and length of 1.0 m. A 100
kN force stretches it along its length. Young’s modulus of structural
steel is 2 × 1011 Nm–2. The percentage strain is about
(a) 0.16%
(b) 0.32%
(c) 0.08%
(d) 0.24%
6. The upper end of a wire of diameter 12mm and length 1m is clamped
and its other end is twisted through an angle of 30°. The angle of shear
is
(a) 18°
(b) 0.18°
(c) 36°
(d) 0.36°
7. The graph given is a stress-strain curve for
(a) elastic objects
(b) plastics
(c) elastomers
(d) None of these

8. A circular tube of mean radius 8 cm and thickness 0.04 cm is melted up
and recast into a solid rod of the same length. The ratio of the torsional
rigidities of the circular tube and the solid rod is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
9. If the ratio of lengths, radii and Young’s moduli of steel

and brass wires in the figure are a, b and c respectively,
then the corresponding ratio of increase in their lengths is
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
10. Copper of fixed volume ‘V; is drawn into wire of length ‘l’. When this
wire is subjected to a constant force ‘F’, the extension produced in the
wire is ‘∆l’. Which of the following graphs is a straight line?
(a) ∆l versus
(b) ∆l versus l2
(c) ∆l versus
(d) ∆l versus l
11. An elastic string of unstretched length L and force constant k is
stretched by a small length x. It is further stretched by another small
length y. The work done in the second stretching is :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
12. In materials like aluminium and copper, the correct order of magnitude
of various elastic modului is:
(a) Young’s modulus < shear modulus < bulk modulus.
(b) Bulk modulus < shear modulus < Young’s modulus
(c) Shear modulus < Young’s modulus < bulk modulus.
(d) Bulk modulus < Young’s modulus < shear modulus.
13. A cube at temperature 0ºC is compressed equally from all sides by an
external pressure P. By what amount should its temperature be raised to
bring it back to the size it had before the external pressure was applied.
The bulk modulus of the material of the cube is B and the coefficient of
linear expansion is α.
(a) P/B α
(b) P/3 B α
(c) 3 π α/B
(d) 3 B/P
14. Stress Vs strain for the elastic tissue of the aorta, the large tube (vessel)
carrying blood from the heart, will be : [stress is proportional to square
of the strain for the elastic tissue of the aorta]
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
15. A metal wire of length L1 and area of cross-section A is attached to a

rigid support. Another metal wire of length L2
and of the same cross-sectional area is attached to the free end of the first
wire. A body of mass M is then suspended from the free end of the
second wire. If Y1 and Y2 are the Young’s moduli of the wires
respectively, the effective force constant of the system of two wires is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
16. For a constant hydraulic stress on an object, the fractional change in the
object volume and its bulk modulus (B) are related as
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
17. The load versus elongation graphs for four wires
of same length and made of the same material are
shown in the figure. The thinnest wire is
represented by the line
(a) OA
(b) OC
(c) OD
(d) OB
18. Two wires A and B are of the same material. Their lengths are in the
ratio 1 : 2 and the diameter are in the ratio 2 : 1. If they are pulled by the
same force, then increase in length will be in the ratio
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 4
(c) 1 : 8
(d) 8 : 1
19. The end of a uniform wire of length L and of weight W is attached
rigidly to a point in the roof and a weight W1 is suspended from its
lower end. If s is the area of cross-section of the wire, the stress in the
wire at a height from its lower end is :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
20. K is the force constant of a spring. The work done in increasing its
extension from l1 to l2 will be
(a) K(l2 – l1)
(b)
(c)
(d)
21. A steel wire of length l and cross sectional area A is stretched by 1 cm

under a given load. When the same load is applied to another steel wire
of double its length and half of its cross section area. Then what is the
amount of stretching (extension) in cm ?
22. Steel ruptures when a shear of 3.5 × 108 N m–2 is applied. What amount
of force (in newton) is needed to punch a 1 cm diameter hole in a steel
sheet 0.3 cm thick nearly ?
23. The Poisson’s ratio of a material is 0.5. If a force is applied to a wire of
this material, there is a decrease in the cross-sectional area by 4%. Then
what will be the percentage increase in the length ?
24. When a 4 kg mass is hung vertically on a light spring that obeys
Hooke’s law, the spring stretches by 2 cms. Then what will be the work
(in joule) required to be done byan external agent in stretching this
spring by 5 cm(g 9.8 m/sec2) ?
25. Two wires A and B of same material and of equal length with the radii
in the ratio 1 : 2 are subjected to identical loads. If the length of A
increases by 8 mm, then what will be the increase in length (in mm) of
B?
1. The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has radius, R, one end of which
has n fine holes, each of radius r. If the speed of the liquid in the tube is
V, the speed of the ejection of the liquid through the holes is :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
2. On heating water, bubbles being formed at the bottom of the vessel

detach and rise. Take the bubbles to be spheres of radius R and making
a circular contact of radius r with the bottom of the vessel. If r << R and
the surface tension of water is T, value of r just
before bubbles detach is: (density of water is ρw)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
3. A jar is filled with two non-mixing liquids 1 and 2 having

densities ρ1 and, ρ2 respectively. A solid ball, made of a
material of density ρ3 , is dropped in the jar. It comes to
equilibrium in the position shown in the figure.Which of the
following is true for ρ1, ρ2and ρ3?
(a) ρ3 < ρ1 < ρ2
(b) ρ1 > ρ3 > ρ2
(c) ρ1 < ρ2 < ρ3
(d) ρ1 < ρ3 < ρ2
4. Figure shows a weigh-bridge, with a
beaker P with water on one pan and a
balancing weight R on the other. A solid
ball Q is hanging with a thread outside
water. It has volume 40 cm3 and weighs
80 g. If this solid is lowered to sink fully
in water, but not touching the beaker
anywhere, the balancing weight R’ will be
(a) same as R
(b) 40 g less than R
(c) 40 g more than R
(d) 80 g more than R
5. Let T1 be surface tension between solid and air, T2 be the surface
tension between solid and liquid and T be the surface tension between
liquid and air. Then in equilibrium, for a drop of liquid on a clean glass
plate, the correct relation is (θ is angle of contact)
(a) cos θ =
(b) cos θ =
(c) cos θ =
(d) cos θ =
6. A spherical solid ball of volume V is made of a material of density ρ1. It
is falling through a liquid of density ρ1 (ρ2< ρ1). Assume that the liquid
applies a viscous force on the ball that is proportional to the square of
its speed v, i.e., Fviscous = –kv2 (k > 0). The terminal speed of the ball is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
7. A square hole of side length l is made at a depth of h and a circular

hole of radius r is made at a depth of 4h from the surface of water in a
water tank kept on a horizontal surface. If l << h, r << h and the rate
of water flow from the holes is the same, then r is equal to
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
8. A glass tube of uniform internal radius (r) has a

valve separating the two identical ends. Initially,
the valve is in a tightly closed position.
End 1 has a hemispherical soap bubble of radius r.
End 2 has sub-hemispherical soap bubble (figure). Just after opening the
valve
(a) air from end 1 flows towards end 2. No change in the volume of the soap
bubbles
(b) air from end 1 flows towards end 2. Volume of the soap bubble at end 1
decreases
(c) no change occurs
(d) air from end 2 flows towards end 1. Volume of the soap bubble at end 1
increases
9. A ball of radius r and density falls freely under gravity
through a distance h before entering water. Velocity of ball
does not change even on entering water. If viscosity of water
is the value of h is given by
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
10. Two capillary of length L and 2L and of radius R and 2R are connected
in series. The net rate of flow of fluid through them will be (given rate
to the flow through single capillary, X = )
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
11. A tank is filled with water upto a height H.

Water is allowed to come out of a hole P in one
of the walls at a depth h below the surface of
water (see fig.) Express the horizontal distance X
in terms of H and h.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
12. A thread is tied slightly loose to a wire frame as in
figure and the frame is dipped into a soap solution
and taken out. The frame is completely covered with
the film. When the portion A is punctured with a
pin, the thread
(a) becomes concave towards A
(b) becomes convex towards A
(c) remains in the initial position
(d) either (a) or (b) depending
on the size of A w.r. t. B
13. There is a circular tube in a vertical plane. Two liquids which do not
mix and of densities d1 and d2 are filled in the tube. Each liquid subtends
90º angle at centre. Radius joining their interface makes an angle
with vertical. Ratio is:=
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
14. Wax is coated on the inner wall of a capillary tube and the tube is then
dipped in water. Then, compared to the unwaxed capillary, the angle of
contact θ and the height h upto which water rises change. These
changes are :
(a) θ increases and h also increases
(b) θ decreases and h also decreases
(c) θ increases and h decreases
(d) θ decreases and h increases
15. Two mercury drops (each of radius ‘r’) merge to form bigger drop. The
surface energy of the bigger drop, if T is the surface tension, is :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
16. A lead shot of 1 mm diameter falls through a long column of glycerine.
The variation of its velocity v with distance covered is represented by
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
17. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed vertically in a liquid such that

liquid rises in it to height h (less than the length of the tube). Mass of
liquid in the capillary tube is m. If radius of the capillary tube is
increased by 50%, then mass of liquid that will rise in the tube, is
(a) (b) m (c) (d)
18. The diagram below shows three soap bubbles A, B and C prepared by
blowing the capillary tube fitted with stop cocks S, S1, S2 and S3. When
all the three stop cocks S1, S2 and S3 are opened and S closed, then
(a) B will start collapsing with the increasing volume of A and C

(b) C will start collapsing with the increasing volume of A and B
(c) volumes of A, B and C will become equal at equilibrium
(d) C and A will both start collapsing with the increasing volume of B
19. What is the velocity v of a metallic ball of radius r falling in a tank of
liquid at the instant when its acceleration is one -half that of a freely
falling body ? (The densities of metal and of liquid are and
respectively, and the viscosity of the liquid is η).
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
20. Two liquids of densities d1 and d2 are flowing in identical capillary
tubes uder the same pressure difference. If t1 and t2 are time taken for
the flow of equal quantities (mass) of liquids, then the ratio of
coefficient of viscosity of liquids must be
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
21. An isolated and charged spherical soap bubble has a radius r and the
pressure inside is atmospheric. T is the surface tension of soap solution.
If charge on drop is then find the value of X.
22. If the terminal speed of a sphere of gold (density = 19.5 kg/m3) is 0.2
m/s in a viscous liquid (density = 1.5 kg/m3), find the terminal speed (in
m/sec) of a sphere of silver (density = 10.5 kg/m3) of the same size in
the same liquid.
23. Consider an iceberg floating in sea water. The density of sea water is
1.03 g/cc and that of ice is 0.92 g/cc. The fraction (in percent) of total
volume of iceberg above the level of sea water is near by
24. A vessel with water is placed on a weighing pan and it reads 600 g.
Now a ball of mass 40 g and density 0.80 g cm–3 is sunk into the water
with a pin of negligible volume, as shown in figure keeping it sunk.
Then what is the reading (in gram) of weighting pan ?
25. A thin liquid film formed between a U-shaped wire and a light slider
supports a weight of 1.5 × 10–2 N (see figure). The length of the slider is
30 cm and its weight negligible. What will be the surface tension (in
Nm–1) of the liquidfilm ?
1. Two rods of the same length and diameter having thermal

conductivities K1 and K2 are joined in parallel. The equivalent thermal
conductivity of the combination is
(a) (b) K1 + K2 (c) (d)
2. Consider two identical iron spheres , one which

lie on a thermally insulating plate, while the other
hangs from
an insulatory thread. Equal
amount of heat is supplied to the two spheres, then
(a) temperature of A will be greater than B
(b) temperature of B will be greater than A
(c) their temperature will be equal
(d) can’t be predicted
3. A student takes 50gm wax (specific heat = 0.6 kcal/kg°C) and heats it
till it boils. The graph between temperature
and time is as follows. Heat supplied to the
wax per minute and boiling point are
respectively
(a) 500 cal, 50°C
(b) 1000 cal, 100°C
(c) 1500 cal, 200°C
(d) 1000 cal, 200°C
4. Two rods of same length and area of cross-section A1 and A2 have their
ends at the same temperature. If K1 and K2 are their thermal
conductivities, c1 and c2 are their specific heats and d1 and d2 are their
densities, then the rate of flow of heat is the same in both the rods if
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
5. If α, β and γ are coefficient of linear, area and volume expansion

respectively, then
(a) γ = 3α
(b) α = 3γ
(c) β = 3α
(d) γ = 3β
6. Two spheres of different materials one with double the radius and one-
fourth wall thickness of the other are filled with ice. If the time taken
for complete melting of ice in the larger sphere is 25 minute and for
smaller one is 16 minute, the ratio of thermal conductivities of the
materials of larger spheres to that of smaller sphere is
(a) 4:5
(b) 5:4
(c) 25 : 8
(d) 8 : 25
7. One end of a thermally insulated rod is kept at a temperature T1 and the
other at T2. The rod is composed of two sections of length l1 and l2 and
thermal conductivities K1 and K2 respectively. The temperature at the
interface of the two sections is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
8. A long metallic bar is carrying heat from one of its ends to the other end
under steady–state. The variation of temperature θ along the length x of
the bar from its hot end is best described by which of the following
figures?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
9. Two rods of same length and transfer a

given amount of heat 12 second, when they
are joined as shown in figure (i). But when
they are joined as shwon in figure (ii), then
they will transfer same heat in same
conditions in
(a) 24 s
(b) 13 s
(c) 15 s
(d) 48 s
10. In a vertical U-tube containing a liquid, the two
arms are maintained at different temperatures t1 and
t2. The liquid columns in the two arms have heights
l1 and l2 respectively. The coefficient of volume
expansion of the liquid is equal to
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
11. Two rods, one of aluminum and the other made of steel, having initial
length l1 and l2 are connected together to form a single rod of length
l1 + l2. The coefficients of linear expansion for aluminum and steel
are αa and αs and respectively. If the length of each rod increases by the
same amount when their temperature are raised by t0C, then find the
ratio l1/(l1 + l2)
(a) αs/αa
(b) αa/αs
(c) s/(αa + αs)
(d) αa/(αa + αs)
12. When the temperature of a rod increases from t to t + ∆t, its moment of
inertia increases from I to I + ∆I. If α be the coefficient of linear
expansion of the rod, then the value of is
(a) 2α∆t
(b) α∆T
(c)
(d)
13. The plots of intensity versus wavelength for three
black bodies at temperatures T1, T2 and T3
respectively are as shown. Their temperature are
such that
(a) T1 > T2 > T3
(b) T1 > T3 > T2
(c) T2 > T3 > T1
(d) T3 > T2 > T1
14. A block of steel heated to 100ºC is left in a room to
cool. Which of the curves shown in fig., represents the
correct behaviour?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) None of these
15. The figure shows a system of two concentric spheres of radii r1 and r2
are kept at temperatures T1 and T2, respectively. The radial rate of flow of
heat in a substance between the two concentric spheres is proportional to
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
16. A wall has two layers A and B made of different materials. The
thickness of both layers is the same. The thermal conductivity of A and
B are KA and KB such that KA = 3KB. The temperature across the wall is
20°C. In thermal equilibrium
(a) the temperature difference across A is 15°C
(b) the temperature difference across A is 5°C
(c) the temperature difference across A is 10°C
(d) the rate of transfer of heat through A is more than that through B
17. A metallic rod l cm long, A square cm in cross-section is heated
through tºC. If Young’s modulus of elasticity of the metal is E and the
mean coefficient of linear expansion is α per degree celsius, then the
compressional force required to prevent the rod from expanding along
its length is
(a) EAαt
(b) E A α t/(1 + αt)
(c) E A α t/(1 – α t)
(d) Elαt
18. Three rods of same dimensions are arranged as
shown in figure, have thermal conductivities K1,
K2 and K3 . The points P and Q are maintained
at different temeratures for the heat to flow at
the same rate along PRQ and PQ. Then which
of the following option is correct?
(a)
(b) K3 = K1 + K2
(c)
(d) K3 = –2(K1 + K2)

19. If λm denotes the wavelength at which the radiative emission from a
black body at a temperature T K is maximum. Then
(a) λm ∝ T–1
(b) λm ∝ T4
(c) λm is independent of T
(d) λm ∝ T
20. Which of the given graphs proves Newton’s law of cooling?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) None of these
21. In a room where the temperature is 30°C, a body cools from 61°C to
59°C in 4 minutes. Then how much time (in minutes) will be taken by
the body to cool from 51°C to 49°C ?
22. Steam at 100°C is passed into 20 g of water at 10°C. When water
acquires a temperature of 80°C. Then what will be the mass (in gram)
of water present ?
[Take specific heat of water = 1 cal g– 1 °C– 1 and latent heat of steam = 540
cal g– 1]
23. The top of an insulated cylindrical
container is covered by a disc having
emissivity 0.6 and conductivity 0.167 WK–
1 –1
m and thickness 1 cm.
The temperature is maintained by circulating oil
as shown in figure. Find the radiation loss
(in Jm–2 sec–1) to the surrounding in Jm–2s–1 if temperature of the upper
surface of the disc is 27°C and temperature of the surrounding is 27°C.
24. A rectangular block is heated from 0ºC to 100ºC. The percentage
increase in its length is 0.10%. What will be the percentage increase in
its volume?
25. The filament of an evacuated light bulb has a length 10 cm, diameter
0.2 mm and emissivity 0.2. Calculate the power (in watt) it radiates at
2000 K. (σ = 5.67 × 10–8 W/m2 K4)
1. The relation between U, P and V for an ideal gas in an adiabatic process

is given by relation U = a + bP V. Find the value of adiabatic exponent
(γ) of this gas
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
2. Carbon monoxide is carried around a closed cycle abc in which bc is an

isothermal process as shown in the figure. The gas absorbs 7000 J of
heat as its temperture increases from 300 K to 1000 K in going from a
to b. The quantity of heat rejected by the gas during the process ca is
(a) 4200 J
(b) 5000 J
(c) 9000 J
(d) 9800 J
3. An insulated container of gas has two chambers
separated by an insulating partition. One of the
chambers has volume V1 and contains ideal gas
at pressure P1 and temperature T1. The other
chamber has volume V2 and contains ideal gas at
pressure P2 and temperature T2. If the partition is
removed without doing any work on the gas, the
final equilibrium temperature of the gas in the container will be
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
4. Consider a spherical shell of radius R at temperature T. The black body

radiation inside it can be considered as an ideal gas of photons with
internal energy per unit volume u = ∝ T4 and pressure . If
the shell now undergoes an adiabatic expansion the relation between T

and R is :
(a)
(b)
(c) T ∝ e–R
(d) T ∝ e–3R
5. A refrigerator works between 4°C and 30°C. It is required to remove
600 calories of heat every second in order to keep the temperature of
the refrigerated space constant. The power required is: (Take 1 cal = 4.2
joule)
(a) 2.365 W (b) 23.65 W (c) 236.5 W (d) 2365 W
6. A system goes from A to B via two processes I
and II as shown in figure. If ∆U1 and ∆U2 are the
changes in internal energies in the processes I and
II respectively, then the relation between ∆U1 and
∆U2 is
(a) ∆U1 = ∆U2
(b) ∆U2 < ∆U1
(c) ∆U2 > ∆U1
(d) can not be determined
7. A diatomic ideal gas is used in a Carnot engine as the working
substance. If during the adiabatic expansion part of the cycle the
volume of the gas increases from V to 32 V, the efficiency of the engine
?
(a) 0.5
(b) 0.75
(c) 0.99
(d) 0.25
8. ‘n’ moles of an ideal gas undergoes a process A → B as shown in the
figure. The maximum temperature of the gas during the process will be
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
9. The volume of an ideal gas is 1 litre and its pressure is equal to 72 cm

of mercury column. The volume of gas is made900 cm3 by compressing
it isothermally. The stress of the gas will be
(a) 8 cm of Hg
(b) 7 cm of Hg
(c) 6 cm of Hg
(d) 4 cm of Hg
10. A diatomic gas initally at 18ºC is compressed adiabatically to one
eighth of its original volume. The temperature after compression will be
(a) 18ºC
(b) 887ºC
(c) 327ºC
(d) 395.5°C
11. An ideal gas goes from state A to state B via
three different processes as indicated in the P-V
diagram :
If Q1, Q2, Q3 indicate the heat a absorbed by the gas
along the three processes and ∆U1, ∆U2, ∆U3
indicate the change in internal energy along the
three processes respectively, then
(a) Q1 > Q2 > Q3 and ∆U1 = ∆U2 = ∆U3
(b) Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and ∆U1= ∆U2 = ∆U3
(c) Q1 = Q2 = Q3 and ∆U1 > ∆U2 > ∆U3
(d) Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and ∆U1> ∆U2 > ∆U3
12. In a thermodynamic process, fixed mass of a gas is changed in such a
manner that the gas release 20 J of heat and 8 J of work was done on the
gas. If the initial internal energy of the gas was 30 J, the final internal
energy will be
(a) 2 joule
(b) 18 joule
(c) 42 joule
(d) 58 joule
13. In a Carnot engine, the temperature of reservoir is 927°C and that of
sink is 27°C. If the work done by the engine when it transfers heat from
reservoir to sink is 12.6 × 106J, the quantity of heat absorbed by the
engine from the reservoir is
(a) 16.8 × 106 J
(b) 4 × 106 J
(c) 7.6 × 106 J
(d) 4.2 × 106 J
14. 5.6 litre of helium gas at STP is adiabatically compressed to 0.7 litre.
Taking the initial temperature to be T1, the work done in the process is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
15. A reversible engine converts one-sixth of the heat input into work.
When the temperature of the sink is reduced by 62ºC, the efficiency of
the engine is doubled. The temperatures of the source and sink are
(a) 99ºC, 37ºC
(b) 80ºC, 37ºC
(c) 95ºC, 37ºC
(d) 90ºC, 37ºC
16. When the state of a gas adiabatically changed from an equilibrium state
A to another equilibrium state B an amount of work done on the
stystem is 35 J. If the gas is taken from state A to B via process in
which the net heat absorbed by the system is 12 cal, then the net work
done by the system is (1 cal = 4.19 J)
(a) 13.2 J
(b) 15.4 J
(c) 12.6 J
(d) 16.8 J
17. The temperature-entropy diagram of a
reversible engine cycle is given in the
figure. Its efficiency is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
18. If the ratio of specific heat of a gas at constant pressure to that at

constant volume is γ, the change in internal energy of a mass of gas,
when the volume changes from V to 2V at constant pressure P, is
(a)
(b) PV
(c)
(d)
19. A Carnot engine whose efficiency is 40%, receives heat at 500K. If the
efficiency is to be 50%, the source temperature for the same exhaust
temperature is
(a) 900 K
(b) 600 K
(c) 700 K
(d) 800 K
20. Calculate the work done when 1 mole of a perfect gas is compressed
adiabatically. The initial pressure and volume of the gas are 105 N/m2
and 6 litre respectively. The final volume of the gas is 2 litres. Molar
specific heat of the gas at constant volume is 3R/2. [Given (3)5/3= 6.19]
(a) –957 J (b) +957 J (c) – 805 J (d) + 805 J
PART-II (NumeRic/Integer Type Questions)
21. A gas is enclosed in a cylinder with a movable frictionless piston. Its initial
thermodynamic state at pressure Pi = 105 Pa and volume Vi = 10–3 m3
changes to a final state at Pf = (1/32) × 105 Pa and Vf = 8 × 10–3 m3 in an
adiabatic quasi-static process, such that P3V5 = constant. Consider
another thermodynamic process that brings the system from the same
initial state to the same final state in two steps: an isobaric expansion at
Pi followed by an isochoric (isovolumetric) process at volume Vf . The
amount of heat (in joule) supplied to the system in the two-step process
is approximately equal to ?
22. Helium gas goes through a cycle ABCDA (consisting
of two isochoric and isobaric lines) as shown in
figure. Then what is the efficiency (in percent) of this
cycle ?
(Assume the gas to be close to ideal gas)
23. A diatomic ideal gas is compressed adiabatically to of its initial

volume. If the initial temperature of the gas is (in Kelvin) and the
final temperature is aTi, then what is the value of a ?
24. A Carnot engine, having an efficiency of η = as heat engine, is used

as a refrigerator. If the work done on the system is 10 J, then what is the
amount of energy absorbed from the reservoir at lower temperature ?
25. A mass of diatomic gas (γ = 1.4) at a pressure of 2 atmospheres is
compressed adiabatically so that its temperature rises from 27°C to
927°C. Then what will be the pressure (in atm) of the gas in final state ?
1. Air is pumped into an automobile tube upto a pressure of 200 kPa in the
morning when the air temperature is 22°C. During the day, temperature
rises to 42°C and the tube expands by 2%. The pressure of the air in the
tube at this temperature, will be approximately
(a) 212 kPa
(b) 209 kPa
(c) 206 kPa
(d) 200 kPa
2. 4.0 g of a gas occupies 22.4 litres at NTP. The specific heat capacity of
the gas at constant volume is 5.0JK–1. If the speed of any quantity x in
this gas at NTP is 952 ms–1, then the heat capacity at constant pressure
is (Take gas constant R = 8.3 JK–1 mol–1)
(a) 7.5 JK–1 mol–1
(b) 7.0 JK–1 mol–1
(c) 8.5 JK–1 mol–1
(d) 8.0 JK–1 mol–1
3. The figure shows the volume V versus temperature T
graphs for a certain mass of a perfect gas at two
constant pressures of P1 and P2. What inference can
you draw from the graphs?
(a) P1 > P2
(b) P1 < P2
(c) P1 = P2
(d) No inference can be drawn due to insufficient information.
4. Consider an ideal gas confined in an isolated closed chamber. As the
gas undergoes an adiabatic expansion, the average time of collision
between molecules increases as Vq, where V is the volume of the gas.
The value of q is :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
5. Work done by a system under isothermal change from a volume V1 to

V2 for a gas which obeys Vander Waal’s equation
is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
6. A thermally insulated vessel contains an ideal gas of molecular mass M

and ratio of specific heats γ. It is moving with speed v and it suddenly
brought to rest. Assuming no heat is lost to the surroundings, its
temperature increases by
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
7. The temperature at which proton in hydrogen gas would have enough

energy to overcome a barrier of 4.14 × 10–14 J is
(Boltzmann constant = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1)
(a) 2 × 109 K (b) 109 K (c) 6 × 109 K (d) 3 × 109 K
8. If 2 moles of an ideal monatomic gas at temperature T0 is mixed with 4
moles of another ideal monatomic gas at temperature 2T0, then the
temperature of the mixture is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
9. For a gas, difference between two specific heats is 5000 J/mole°C. If
the ratio of specific heats is 1.6, the two specific heats in J/mole-°C are
(a) CP = 1.33 × 104, CV = 2.66 × 104
(b) CP = 13.3 × 104, CV = 8.33 × 103
(c) CP = 1.33 × 104, CV = 8.33 × 103
(d) CP = 2.6 × 104, CV = 8.33 × 104
10. A graph is plotted with PV/T on y-axis and mass of the gas along x-axis
for different gases. The graph is
(a) a straight line parallel to x-axis for all the gases
(b) a straight line passing through origin with a slope having a constant
value for all the gases
(c) a straight line passing through origin with a slope having different
values for different gases
(d) a straight line parallel to y-axis for all the gases
11. One mole of a gas occupies 22.4 lit at N.T.P. Calculate the difference
between two molar specific heats of the gas.
J = 4200 J/kcal.
(a) 1.979 k cal/kmol K
(b) 2.378 k cal/kmol K
(c) 4.569 kcal/kmol K (d) 3.028 k cal/ kmol K
12. The temperature of the mixture of one mole of helium and one mole of
hydrogen is increased from 0°C to 100°C at constant pressure. The
amount of heat delivered will be
(a) 600 cal
(b) 1200 cal
(c) 1800 cal
(d) 3600 cal
13. The P-V diagram of a diatomic gas is a straight line passing through
origin. The molar heat capacity of the gas in the process will be
(a) 4 R
(b) 2.5 R
(c) 3 R
(d)
14. Three perfect gases at absolute temperatures T1, T2 and T3 are mixed.
The masses of molecules are m1, m2 and m3 and the number of
molecules are n1, n2 and n3 respectively. Assuming no loss of energy,
the final temperature of the mixture is :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
15. A sample of an ideal gas occupies a volume V at a pressure P and

absolute temperature T. The mass of each molecule is m. The equation
for density is
(a) m k T
(b) P/k T
(c) P/(k T V)
(d) P m/k T
16. A vessel has 6g of hydrogen at pressure P and temperature 500K. A
small hole is made in it so that hydrogen leaks out. How much
hydrogen leaks out if the final pressure is P/2 and temperature falls to
300 K ?
(a) 2g
(b) 3g
(c) 4g
(d) 1g
17. The work of 146 kJ is performed in order to compress one kilomole of
gas adiabatically and in this process the temperature of the gas increases
by 7°C. The gas is (R = 8.3 J mol–1 K–1)
(a) diatomic
(b) triatomic
(c) a mixture of monatomic and diatomic
(d) monatomic
18. The molar heat capacities of a mixture of two gases at constant volume
is 13R/6. The ratio of number of moles of the first gas to the second is 1
: 2. The respective gases may be
(a) O2 and N2
(b) He and Ne
(c) He and N2
(d) N2 and He
19. One litre of oxygen at a pressure of 1 atm, and 2 litres of nitrogen at a
pressure of 0.5 atm are introduced in the vessel of 1 litre capacity,
without any change in temperature. The total pressure would be
(a) 1.5 atm
(b) 0.5 atm
(c) 2.0 atm
(d) 1.0 atm
20. If the potential energy of a gas molecule is
U = M/r6 – N/r12, M and N being positive constants. Then the potential energy
at equilibrium must be
(a) zero
(b) M2/4N
(c) N2/4M
(d) MN2/4
21. A gaseous mixture consists of 16 g of helium and 16 g of oxygen. Then
what will be the ratio of the mixture ?
22. Figure shows a parabolic graph between T and 1/V for a mixture of a
gases undergoing an adiabatic process. What is the ratio of Vrms of
molecules and speed of sound in mixture?
23. The root mean square velocity of hydrogen molecules at 300 K is 1930
metre/sec. Then what is the r.m.s velocity (in m/sec) of oxygen
molecules at 1200 K?
24. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of oxygen and 4 moles of Argon at
temperature T. Neglecting all vibrational moles, the total internal
energy of the system is xRT. Then find the value of x.
25. N molecules, each of mass m, of gas A and 2 N molecules, each of
mass 2 m, of gas B are contained in the same vessel which is
maintained at a temperature T. The mean square velocity of molecules
of B type is denoted by V2 and the mean square velocity of A type is
denoted by V1, then what will be the value of ?
1. A uniform pole of length l = 2 L is laid

on smooth horizontal table as shown in
figure. The mass of pole is M and it is
connected to a frictionless axis at O.A
spring with force
constant k is connected to the other end. The pole
is displaced by a small angle θ0 from equilibrium position and released
such that it performs small oscillations. Then
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
2. If a simple pendulum of length l has maximum angular displacement θ,

then the maximum K.E. of bob of mass m is
(a)
(b) mg / 2l
(c) mgl (1 – cos θ)
(d) mgl sin θ/2
3. In S.H.M., the ratio of kinetic energy at mean position to the potential
energy when the displacement is half of the amplitude is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
4. Two springs, of force constants k1 and k2 are connected to a mass m as

shown. The frequency of oscillation of the mass is f. If both k1 and k2
are made four times their original values, the frequency of oscillation
becomes
(a) 2f
(b) f /2
(c) f /4
(d) 4f
5. The bob of a simple pendulum executes simple harmonic motion in
water with a period t, while the period of oscillation of the bob is t0 in
air. Neglecting frictional force of water and given that the density of the
bob is (4/3) × 1000 kg/m3. The relationship between t and t0 is
(a) t = 2t0
(b) t = t0/2
(c) t = t0
(d) t = 4t0
6. For a simple pendulum, a graph is plotted between its kinetic energy
(KE) and potential energy (PE) against its displacement d. Which one
of the following represents these correctly? (graphs are schematic and
not drawn to scale)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
7. A coin is placed on a horizontal platform which undergoes vertical

simple harmonic motion of angular frequency ω. The amplitude of
oscillation is gradually increased. The coin will leave contact with the
platform for the first time
(a) at the mean position of the platform
(b) for an amplitude of
(c) for an amplitude of
(d) at the highest position of the platform

8. A pendulum made of a uniform wire of cross sectional areaA has time
period T. When an additional mass M is added to its bob, the time
period changes to TM. If the Young’s modulus of the material of the
wire is Y then is equal to:
(g = gravitational acceleration)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
9. In the figure shown, the spring is light and has a force

constant k. The pulley is light and smooth and the string is
light. The suspended block has a mass m. On giving a
slight displacement vartically to the block in the
downward direction from its equilibrium position the
block executes S.H.M. on being released with time period
T. Then
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
10. A point particle of mass 0.1 kg is executing S.H.M. of amplitude 0.1 m.

When the particle passes through the mean position, its kinetic energy is
8 × 10–3 joule. Obtain the equation of motion of this particle, if the
initial phase of oscillation is 45º.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
11. A rod of length l is in motion such that its ends A and B are moving
along x-axis and y-axis respectively. It is given that rad/sec
always. P is a fixed point on the rod. Let M be the projection of P on x-
axis. For the time interval in which θ changes from 0 to , the correct
statement is
(a) The acceleration of M is always directed towards right
(b) M executes SHM
(c) M moves with constant speed
(d) M moves with constant acceleration
12. A 1 kg mass is attached to a spring of force constant 600 N/m and rests
on a smooth
horizontal surface with other end of the spring tied to wall as shown in figure.
A second mass of 0.5 kg slides along the surface towards the first at
3m/s. If the masses make a perfectly inelastic collision, then find
amplitude and time period of oscillation of combined mass.
(a) 5cm,
(b) 5cm,
(c) 4cm,
(d) 4cm,
13. A mass m fall on spring of spring constant k and negligible

mass from a height h. Assuming it sticks to the pan and
executes simple harmonic motion, the maximum height
upto which the pan will rise is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
14. A particle moves with simple harmonic motion in a straight line. In first
τs, after starting from rest it travels a distance a, and in next τ s it travels
2a, in same direction, then:
(a) amplitude of motion is 3a
(b) time period of oscillations is 8τ
(c) amplitude of motion is 4a
(d) time period of oscillations is 6τ
15. A simple pendulum attached to the ceiling of a stationary lift has a time
period T. The distance y covered by the lift moving upwards varies with
time t as y = t2 where y is in metres and t in seconds. If g = 10 m/s2, the
time period of pendulum will be
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
16. The particle executing simple harmonic motion has a kinetic energy K0
cos2 ωt. The maximum values of the potential energy and the total
energy are respectively
(a) K0/2 and K0
(b) K0 and 2K0
(c) K0 and K0
(d) 0 and 2K0
17. A point mass oscillates along the x-axis according to the law x = x0
cos(ωt – π/4). If the acceleration of the particle is written as a = A
cos(ωt – δ), then
(a) A = x0ω2, δ = 3π/4
(b) A = x0, δ = –π/4
(c) A = x0ω2, δ = π/4
(d) A = x0ω2, δ = –π/4
18. A particle of mass m is attached to a spring (of spring constant k) and
has a natural angular frequency ω0. An external force F(t) proportional
to cos ωt(ω ≠ ω0) is applied to the oscillator. The displacement of the
oscillator will be proportional to
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
19. An ideal gas enclosed in a vertical cylindrical container supports a

freely moving piston of mass M. The piston and the cylinder have equal
cross sectional area A. When the piston is in equilibrium, the volume of
the gas is V0 and its pressure is P0. The piston is slightly displaced from
the equilibrium position and released. Assuming that the system is
completely isolated from its surrounding, the piston executes a simple
harmonic motion with frequency
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
20. A uniform rod of length L and mass M

is pivoted at the centre. Its two ends are attached to
two springs of equal spring constants k. The springs
are fixed to rigid
supports as shown in the figure, and the rod is free to
oscillate in the horizontal plane. The rod is gently pushed through a
small angle θ in one direction and released. The frequency of oscillation
is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
21. The amplitude of a damped oscillator becomes in 2 seconds. If
its amplitude after 6 seconds is times the original amplitude, the

value of n is
22. The amplitude of a damped oscillator decreases to 0.9 times its original
magnitude in 5s. In another 10s it will decrease to α times its original
magnitude, then find the value of α ?
23. A pendulum with time period of 1s is losing energy due to damping. At
certain time its energy is 45 J. If after completing 15 oscillations, its
energy has become 15 J, then what will be the its damping constant (in
s–1) ?
24. Starting from the origin a body oscillates simple harmonically with a
period of 2 s. After what time (in sec) will its kinetic energy be 75% of
the total energy?
25. A body executes simple harmonic motion under the action of a force F1
with a time period s. If the force is changed to F2, it executes S.H.M.
with time period s. If both the forces F1 and F2 act simultaneously in

the same direction on the body, then what will be the time period in
second ?
1. When a wave travel in a medium, the particle displacement is given by

the equation y = a sin 2π (bt– cx) where a, b and c are constants. The
maximum particle velocity will be twice the wave velocity if
(a)
(b) c = πa
(c) b = ac
(d)
2. A thick uniform rope of length L is hanging from a

rigid support. A transverse wave of wavelength λ0 is
set up at the middle of rope as shown in figure. The
wavelength of the wave as it reaches to the topmost
point is
(a) 2λ0
(b)
(c)
(d) λ0
3. The fundamental frequency of a sonometer wire of length l is f0. A
bridge is now introduced at a distance of ∆l from the centre of the
wire (∆l << l). The number of beats heard if both sides of the bridges
are set into vibration in their fundamental modes are –
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
4. A source of sound S emitting waves of

frequency 100 Hz and an observor O are
located at some distance from each other. The
source is moving with a speed of 19.4 ms–1 at
an angle of 60° with the source observer
line as shown in the figure. The observor is at rest.
The apparent frequency observed by the observer is (velocity of sound
in air is 330 ms–1)
(a) 103 Hz
(b) 106 Hz
(c) 97 Hz
(d) 100 Hz
5. Two identical piano wires kept under the same tension T have a
fundamental frequency of 600 Hz. The fractional increase in the tension
of one of the wires which will lead to occurrence of 6 beats/s when both
the wires oscillate together would be
(a) 0.02
(b) 0.03
(c) 0.04
(d) 0.01
6. Two sound sources emitting sound each of wavelength λ are fixed at a
given distance apart. A listener moves with a velocity u along the line
joining the two sources. The number of beats heard by him per second
is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
7. A star, which is emitting radiation at a wavelength of 5000 Å, is
approaching the earth with a velocity of 1.50 × 106 m/s. The change in
wavelength of the radiation as received on the earth is
(a) 0.25 Å
(b) 2.5 Å
(c) 25 Å
(d) 250 Å
8. An object of specific gravity ρ is hung from a thin steel wire. The
fundamental frequency for transverse standing waves in the wire is 300
Hz. The object is immersed in water so that one half of its volume is
submerged. The new fundamental frequency in Hz is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
9. The transverse displacement y (x, t) of a wave on a string is given by

.
This represents a:
(a) wave moving in –x direction with speed
(b) standing wave of frequency
(c) standing wave of frequency
(d) wave moving in + x direction with speed
10. A source of sound A emitting waves of frequency 1800 Hz is falling

towards ground with a terminal speed v. The observer B on the ground
directly beneath the source receives waves of frequency 2150 Hz. The
source A receives waves, reflected from ground of frequency nearly:
(Speed of sound = 343 m/s)
(a) 2150 Hz
(b) 2500 Hz
(c) 1800 Hz
(d) 2400 Hz
11. In the figure shown the wave speed is v. The velocity of car is v0. The
beat frequency for the observer will be
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
12. The equation of a wave on a string of linear mass density 0.04 kg m–1 is
given by
y =0.02(m) .
The tension in the string is

(a) 4.0 N
(b) 12.5 N
(c) 0.5 N
(d) 6.25 N
13. Two points are located at a distance of 10 m and 15 m from the source
of oscillation. The period of oscillation is 0.05 sec and the velocity of
the wave is 300 m/sec. What is the phase difference between the
oscillations of two points?
(a)
(b)
(c) π
(d)
14. A massless rod of length L is suspended

by two identical strings AB and CD of
equal length. A block of mass m is
suspended from point O such that BO is
equal to ‘x’. Further it is observed that
the frequency of 1st harmonic in AB is
equal to 2nd harmonic frequency in CD.
‘x’ is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
15. A sound absorber attenuates the sound level by 20 dB. The intensity
decreases by a factor of
(a) 100
(b) 1000
(c) 10000
(d) 10
16. A uniform rope of length L and mass m1 hangs vertically from a rigid
support. A block of mass m2 is attached to the free end of the rope. A
transverse pulse of wavelength λ1 is produced at the lower end of the
rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top of the rope is
λ2 the ratio λ2/λ1 is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
17. A pipe of length 85 cm is closed from one end. Find the number of
possible natural oscillations of air column in the pipe whose frequencies
lie below 1250 Hz. The velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s.
(a) 12
(b) 8
(c) 6
(d) 4
18. The vibrations of a string of length 60 cm fixed at both the ends are
represented by the equation (96πt) where x and y
are in cm. The maximum number of loops that can be formed in it is

(a) 4
(b) 16
(c) 5
(d) 15
19. The frequency of whistle of an engine appears to be (4/5)th of initial
frequency when it crosses a stationary observer. If the velocity of sound
is 330 m/s, then the speed of engine will be
(a) 30 m/s
(b) 36.6 m/s
(c) 40 m/s
(d) 330 m/s
20. A sonometer wire supports a 4 kg load and vibrates in fundamental
mode with a tuning fork of frequency 416 Hz. The length of the wire
between the bridges is now doubled. In order to maintain fundamental
mode, the load should be changed to
(a) 1 kg
(b) 2 kg
(c) 4 kg
(d) 16 kg
21. An engine approaches a hill with a constant speed. When it is at a

distance of 0.9 km, it blows a whistle whose echo is heard by the
driver after 5 seconds. If the speed of sound in air is 330 m/s, then
what is the speed (in m/sec) of the engine?
22. A sonometer wire of length 1.5 m is made of steel. The tension in it
produces an elastic strain of 1%. What is the fundamental frequency (in
Hz) of steel if density and elasticity of steel are 7.7 × 103 kg/m3 and 2.2
× 1011 N/m2 respectively?
23. The equation of a travelling wave is y = 60 cos (180 t – 6x)
where y is in µm, t in second and x in metres. Then what is the ratio of
maximum particle velocity to velocity of wave propagation?
24. The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe of length 20 cm is
equal to the second overtone of an organ pipe open at both the ends.
Then what is the length of organ pipe open at both the ends?
25. Each of the two strings of length 51.6 cm and 49.1 cm are tensioned
separately by 20 N force. Mass per unit length of both the strings is
same and equal to 1 g/m. Then what is the number of beats when both
the strings vibrate simultaneously?
1. A solid conducting sphere of radius a has a net

positive charge 2Q. A conducting spherical shell of
inner radius b and outer radius c is concentric with the
solid sphere and has a net charge – Q.The surface
charge density on the inner and outer surfaces of the
spherical shell will be respectively
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
2. In the figure, the net electric flux through the
area A is when the system is in air. On
immersing the system in water the net electric
flux through the area
(a) becomes zero
(b) remains same
(c) increases
(d) decreases
3. An electric dipole is placed in a uniform electric field. The dipole will
experience
(a) a force that will displace it in the direction of the field
(b) a force that will displace it in a direction opposite to the field.
(c) a torque which will rotate it without displacement
(d) a torque which will rotate it and a force that will displace it
4. Figure shows two charges of equal magnitude separated by a distance
2a. As we move away from the charge situated at x = 0 to the charge
situated at x = 2a, which of the following graphs shows the correct
behaviour of electric field ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
5. An electric dipole is placed along the x-axis at the origin O. A point P is

at a distance of 20 cm from this origin such that OP makes an angle π/3
with the x-axis. If the electric field at P makes an angle θ with the x-
axis, the value of θ would be
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
6. A spherically symmetric charge distribution is characterised by a charge

density having the following variations:
for r < Rρ(r) = 0 for r ≥ R
Where r is the distance from the centre of the charge distribution ρo is a

constant. The electric field at an internal point (r < R) is:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
7. A charge q is placed at the centre of the open end of a

cylindrical vessel. The flux of the electric field through the
surface of the vessel is
(a) zero
(b)q/εo
(c) q/2εo
(d)2q/εo
8. A short electric dipole of dipole moment is placed at a distance r
from the centre of a solid metallic sphere of radius a (<< r) as shown in
the figure. The
electric field intensity at the centre of sphere C due to induced charge on the
sphere is
(a) zero
(b) along CO
(c) along OC
(d) along CO
9. A semi-circular arc of radius ‘a’ is charged uniformly and the charge

per unit length is λ. The electric field at the centre of this arc is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
10. A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb

within it. If φ is the electric flux in units of
voltmeter associated with the curved surface
B, the flux linked with the plane surface A in
units of voltmeter will be
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
11. A point Q lies on the perpendicular bisector of an electrical dipole of

dipole moment p. If the distance of Q from the dipole is r (much larger
than the size of the dipole), then the electric field at Q is proportional to
(a) p–1 and r–2
(b)p and r–2
(c) p2 and r–3
(d)p and r–3
12. The spatial distribution of electric field due to charges (A, B) is shown
in figure. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(a) A is +ve and B –ve, |A| > |B|
(b) A is –ve and B +ve, |A| = |B|
(c) Both are +ve but A > B
(d) Both are –ve but A > B
13. A small sphere carrying a charge ‘q’ is hanging in between two parallel
plates by a string of length L. Time period of pendulum is T0. When
parallel plates are charged, the time period changes to T. The ratio T/T0
is equal to
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) None of these

14. Three charges –q1, +q2 and –q3 are placed as shown
in the figure. The x - component of the force on –q1
is proportional to
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
15. An oil drop of radius r and density ρ is held stationary in a uniform

vertically upwards electric field ‘E’. If ρ0 (< ρ) is the density of air and e
is quanta of charge, then the drop has–
(a) excess electrons
(b) excess electrons
(c) deficiency of electrons
(d) deficiency of electrons
16. In a uniformly charged sphere of total charge Q and radius R, the electric
field E is plotted as function of distance from the centre. The graph
which would correspond to the above will be:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
17. Which of the following is a wrong statement?

(a) The charge of an isolated system is conserved
(b) It is not possible to create or destroy charged particles
(c) It is possible to create or destroy charged particles
(d) It is not possible to create or destroy net charge
18. A thin semi-circular ring of radius r has a positive
charge q distributed uniformly over it. The net
electric field at the centre O is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
19. A square surface of side L metres is in the plane of

the paper. A uniform electric field (volt /m),
also in the plane of the paper, is
limited only to the lower half of the square surface (see figure). The electric
flux in SI units associated with the surface is
(a) EL2/2
(b) zero
(c) EL2
(d) EL2/ (2ε0)
20. Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are separated by a distance
d. If F is the force of repulsion between the ions, the number of electrons
missing from each ion will be (e being the charge of an electron)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
21. A solid sphere of radius R has a charge Q distributed in its volume with
a charge density ρ = κr a, where κ and a are constants and r is the
distance from its centre.
If the electric field at times that at r = R, find the value of a
22. An uniform electric field E exists along positive x-axis. The work done
in moving a charge 0.5 C through a distance 2 m along a direction
making an angle 60° with x-axis is 10 J. Then what is the magnitude of
electric field (in Vm–1)?
23. Two small similar metal spheres A and B having charges 4q and – 4q,
when placed at a certain distance apart, exert an electric force F on each
other. When another identical uncharged sphere C, first touched with A
then with B and then removed to infinity, the force of interaction
between A and B for the same separation will be then find the value
of x?
24. A surface has the area vector Then what is the flux (in
V-m) of an electric field through it if the field is ?
25. The surface charge density of a thin charged disc of radius R is σ. The
value of the electric field at the centre of the disc is . With respect
to the field at the centre, the electric field along the axis at a distance R
from the centre of the disc reduces (in percent) by
1. The electric potential V(x) in a region around the origin is given by V(x)
= 4x2 volts. The electric charge enclosed in a cube of 1 m side with its
centre at the origin is (in coulomb)
(a) 8ε0
(b) – 4ε0
(c) 0
(d) – 8ε0
2. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is Ca (Fig. a). A dielectric
of dielectric constant K is inserted as shown in fig (b) and (c). If Cb and
Cc denote the capacitances in fig (b) and (c), then
(a) both Cb, Cc > Ca
(b) Cc > Ca while Cb > Ca
(c) both Cb, Cc < Ca
(d) Ca = Cb = Cc
3. Figure (i) shows two capacitors connected in series and connected by a
battery. The graph (ii) shows the variation of potential as one moves
from left to right on the branch AB containing the capacitors. Then
(a) C1 = C2
(b) C1 < C2
(c) C1 > C2
(d) C1 and C2 cannot be compared
4. In a hollow spherical shell, potential (V) changes with respect to
distance (s) from centre as
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
5. Charges +q and –q are placed at points A

and B respectively which are a distance 2L
apart, C is the midpoint between A and B.
The work done in moving a charge +Q
along the semicircle CRD is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
6. A, B and C are three points in a uniform

electric field. The electric potential is
(a) maximum at B
(b) maximum at C
(c) same at all the three points A, B and C
(d) maximum at A
7. A unit charge moves on an equipotential surface from a point A to point
B, then
(a) VA – VB = + ve
(b) VA – VB = 0
(c) VA – VB = – ve
(d) it is stationary
8. Identify the false statement.
(a) Inside a charged or neutral conductor, electrostatic field is zero
(b) The electrostatic field at the surface of the charged conductor must be
tangential to the surface at any point
(c) There is no net charge at any point inside the conductor
(d) Electrostatic potential is constant throughout the volume of the
conductor
9. A, B, C, D, E, F are conducting plates each
of area A and any two consecutive plates
separated by a distance d. The net energy
stored in the system after the switch S is
closed is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
10. Two concentric, thin metallic spheres of radii R1 and R2 (R1 > R2) bear
charges Q1 and Q2 respectively. Then the potential at distance r between
R1 and R2 will be
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
11. The space between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is filled with a
‘dielectric’ whose ‘dielectric constant’ varies with distance as per the
relation:
K(x) = Ko + λx (λ = a constant)
The capacitance C, of the capacitor, would be related to its vacuum
capacitance Co for the relation :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
12. For the circuit shown in figure, which of the following statements is
true?
(a) With S1 closed V1 = 15V, V2 = 20V

(b) With S3 closed V1 = V2 = 25 V
(c) With S1 and S2 closed V1 = V2 = 0
(d) With S1 and S3 closed, V1 = 30 V, V2 = 20 V
13. Two thin wire rings each having a radius R are placed at a distance d
apart with their axes coinciding. The charges on the two rings are +q
and –q. The potential difference between the centres of the two rings is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) zero
14. Two spherical conductors A and B of radii a and b (b>a)
are placed concentrically in air. The two are connected
by a copper wire as shown in figure. Then the equivalent
capacitance of the system is
(a)
(b) 4πε0(a + b)
(c) 4πε0b
(d) 4πε0a
15. Which of the following figure shows the correct equipotential surfaces
of a system of two positive charges?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
16. The capacitance of the capacitor of plate areas A1 and A2 (A1 < A2) at a
distance d, as shown in figure is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
17. Two identical metal plates are given positive charges Q1 and Q2 ( < Q1)
respectively. If they are now brought close together to form a parallel
plate capacitor with capacitance C, the potential difference between
them is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
18. A positively charged particle is released from rest in an uniform electric
field. The electric potential energy of the charge
(a) remains a constant because the electric field is uniform
(b) increases because the charge moves along the electric field
(c) decreases because the charge moves along the electric field
(d) decreases because the charge moves opposite to the electric field
19. In a given network the equivalent capacitance between A and B is [C1 =
C4 = 1 µF, C2 = C3 = 2µF]
(a) 3 µF
(b) 6 µF
(c) 4.5 µF
(c) 2.5 µF
20. A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a potential difference of V
volts. After disconnecting the charging battery the distance between the
plates of the capacitor is increased using an insulating handle. As a
result the potential difference between the plates
(a) does not change
(b) becomes zero
(c) increases
(d) decreases
21. What is the effective capacitance (in µF) between points X and Y ?
22. An alpha particle is accelerated through a potential difference of 106

volt. Then what is its kinetic energy (in MeV) ?
23. A capacitor of 2µF is charged as shown in the diagram. When the
switch S is turned to position 2,
the percentage of its stored energy dissipated is ?

24. If n drops, each charged to a potential V, coalesce to form a single drop.
If the potential of the big drop will be nxV then find the value of x ?
25. In the circuit given below, what is the charge in µC, on the capacitor
having 5 µF ?
1. Two sources of equal emf are connected to an external resistance R.

The internal resistance of the two sources are R1and R2 (R1 > R1). If the
potential difference across the source having internal resistance is
zero, then
(a) R =
(b) R =
(c) R =
(d) R =
2. The total current supplied to the circuit by the
battery is
(a) 4 A
(b) 2 A
(c) 1 A
(d) 6 A
3. To get maximum current in a resistance of 3 ohms, one can use n rows
of m cells (connected in series) connected in parallel. If the total
number of cells is 24 and the internal resistance of a cell is 0.5 ohms
then
(a) m = 12, n = 2
(b) m = 8, n = 3
(c) m = 2, n = 12
(d) m = 6, n = 4
4. See the electric circuit shown in the figure.
Which of the following equations is a correct
equation for it?
(a) ε2 – i2 r2 – ε1 – i1 r1 = 0
(b) − ε2 – (i1 + i2) R+ i2 r2 = 0
(c) ε1 – (i1 + i2) R + i1 r1 = 0
(d) ε1 – (i1 + i2) R– i1 r1 = 0

5. In a neon gas discharge tube Ne+ ions moving through a cross-section
of the tube each second to the right is 2.9 × 1018, while 1.2 × 1018
electrons move towards left in the same time; the electronic charge
being 1.6 × 10–19 C, the net electric current is
(a) 0.27 A to the right
(b) 0.66 A to the right
(c) 0.66 A to the left
(d) zero
6. Variation of current passing through a conductor
as the voltage applied across its ends is varied as
shown in the adjoining diagram. If the resistance
(R) is determined at the points A, B, C and D, we
will find that
(a) RC = RD
(b) RB > RA
(c) RC > RB
(d) RA > RB
7. Twelve resistors each of resistance 16 are
connected in the circuit as shown. The net
resistance between AB is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
8. The masses of the three wires of copper are in the ratio of 1 : 3 : 5 and
their lengths are in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 1. The ratio of their electrical
resistance is
(a) 1 : 3 : 5
(b) 5 : 3 : 1
(c) 1 : 25 : 125
(d) 125 : 25 : 1
9. A cylindrical solid of length L and radius a is having varying resistivity
given by ρ = ρ0x, where ρ0 is a positive constant and x is measured from
left end of solid. The cell shown in the figure is having emf V and
negligible internal resistance. The electric field as a function of x is best
described by
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) None of these

10. All batteries are having emf 10 volt and internal resistance negligible.
All resistors are in ohms. Calculate the current in the right most 2Ω
resistor.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
11. n equal resistors are first connected in series and then connected in
parallel. What is the ratio of the maximum to the minimum resistance ?
(a) n
(b) 1/n2
(c) n2
(d) 1/ n
12. There is an infinite wire grid with cells in the form of equilateral
triangles. The resistance of each wire between neighbouring joint
connections is R0. The net resistance of the whole grid between the
points A and B as shown is
(a) R0
(b)
(c)
(d)
13. You are given a resistance coil and a battery. In which of the following
cases is largest amount of heat generated ?
(a) When the coil is connected to the battery directly
(b) When the coil is divided into two equal parts and both the parts are
connected to the battery in parallel
(c) When the coil is divided into four equal parts and all the four parts are
connected to the battery in parallel
(d) When only half the coil is connected to the battery
14. A potentiometer circuit is set up as shown.
The potential gradient, across the
potentiometer wire, is k volt/cm and the
ammeter, present in the circuit, reads 1.0 A
when two way key is switched off. The
balance points, when the key between the
terminals (i) 1 and 2 (ii) 1 and 3, is plugged
in, are found to be at lengths l1 cm and l2 cm
respectively. The magnitudes, of the resistors
R and X, in ohms, are then, equal, respectively, to
(a) k (l2 – l1) and k l2
(b) k l1 and k (l2 – l1)
(c) k (l2 – l1) and k l1
(d) k l1 and k l2
15. If voltage across a bulb rated 220 Volt-100 Watt drops by 2.5% of its
rated value, the percentage of the rated value by which the power would
decrease is :
(a) 20%
(b) 2.5%
(c) 5% (d) 10%
16. In the given circuit diagram the current through the
battery and the charge on the capacitor respectively
in steady state are
(a) 1 A and 3 µC
(b) 17 A and 0 µC
(c) A and µC
(d) 11A and 3 µC

17. The length of a given cylindrical wire is increased by 100%. Due to the
consequent decrease in diameter the change in the resistance of the wire
will be
(a) 200%
(b) 100%
(c) 50%
(d) 300%
18. Drift velocity Vd varies with the intensity of electric field as per the
relation
(a) Vd ∝ E
(b) Vd ∝
(c) Vd = constant
(d) Vd ∝ E2
19. The length of a wire of a potentiometer is 100 cm, and the e. m.f. of its
standard cell is E volt. It is employed to measure the e.m.f. of a battery
whose internal resistance is 0.5Ω. If the balance point is obtained at l
= 30 cm from the positive end, the e.m.f. of the battery is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
where i is the current in the potentiometer wire.

20. The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is R. If its length and
radius are both doubled, then
(a) the resistance and the specific resistance, will both remain unchanged
(b) the resistance will be doubled and the specific resistance will be halved
(c) the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will remain
unchanged
(d) the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will be doubled
21. A car battery has e.m.f. 12 volt and internal resistance 5 × 10–2 ohm. If it
draws 60 amp current, the terminal voltage (in volt) of the battery will be
22. Two rods are joined end to end, as shown. Both have a cross-sectional
area of 0.01 cm2. Each is 1 meter long. One rod is of copper with a
resistivity of 1.7 × 10–6 ohm-centimeter, the other is of iron with a
resistivity of 10–5 ohm-centimeter.
How much voltage (in volt) is required to produce a current of 1 ampere in
the rods?
23. The figure shows a meter-bridge circuit, X = 12Ω andR = 18Ω. The
jockey J is at the null point. If R is made 8Ω, through the jockey J have
to be moved by 4 × A cm to obtain null point again then find the value
of A.
24. A conducting wire of cross-sectional area 1 cm2 has 3 × 1023 charge

carriers per m3. If wire carries a current of 24 mA, then drift velocity (in
m/sec) of carriers is
25. A battery is charged at a potential of 15V for 8 hours when the current
flowing is 10A. The battery on discharge supplies a current of 5A for 15
hours. The mean terminal voltage during discharge is 14V. The “watt-
hour” efficiency (in percent) of the battery is
1. Two long parallel wires carry currents i1 andn i2 such that i1 > i2. When
the currents are in the same direction, the magnetic field at a point
midway between the wires is 6 × 10–6 T. If the direction of i2 is
reversed, the field becomes 3 × 10–5 T. The ratio of is
(a)
(b) 2
(c)
(d)
2. A wire carrying current I has the shape as shown in adjoining figure.
Linear parts of the wire are very long and parallel to X-axis while
semicircular portion of radius R is lying in Y-Z plane. Magnetic field at
point O is :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
3. A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and area of cross-section 1.5 ×
10–4 m2 carries a current of 2.0 A. It suspended through its centre and
perpendicular to its length, allowing it to turn in a horizontal plane in a
uniform magnetic field 5 × 10–2 tesla making an angle of 30° with the
axis of the solenoid. The torque on the solenoid will be:
(a) 3 × 10–2 N-m
(b) 3 × 10–3 N-m
(c) 1.5 × 10–3 N-m
(d) 1.5 × 10–2 N-m
4. An alternating electric field, of frequency v, is applied across the dees
(radius = R) of a cyclotron that is being used to accelerate protons (mass
= m). The operating magnetic field (B) used in the cyclotron and the
kinetic energy (K) of the proton beam, produced by it, are given by :
(a) and K = 2mπ2ν2R2
(b) and K = m2πνR2
(c) and K = 2mπ2ν2R2
(d) and K = m2πνR2

5. A galvanometer of 50 ohm resistance has 25 divisions. A current of 4 ×
10–4 ampere gives a deflection of one per division. To convert this
galvanometer into a voltmeter having a range of 25 volts, it should be
connected with a resistance of
(a) 2450 Ω in series
(b) 2500 Ω in series.
(c) 245 Ω in series.
(d) 2550 Ω in series.
6. In the adjoining figure, two very long, parallel wires A and B
carry currents of 10 ampere and 20 ampere respectively, and
are at a distance 20 cm apart. If a third wire C (length 15 cm)
having a current of 10 ampere is placed between them, then
how much force will act on C ? The direction of current in all
the three wires is same.
(a) 3 × 10–5 N (left)
(b) 3 × 10–5 N (right)
(c) 6 × 10–5 N (left)
(d) 6 × 10–5 N (right)
7. A 2 µC charge moving around a circle with a frequency of 6.25 × 1012
Hz produces a magnetic field 6.28 tesla at the centre of the circle. The
radius of the circle is
(a) 2.25 m
(b) 0.25 m
(c) 13.0 m
(d) 1.25 m
8. A current loop ABCD is held fixed on the plane
of the paper as shown in the figure. The arcs BC
(radius = b) and DA (radius = a) of the loop are
joined by two straight wires AB and CD. A
steady current I is flowing in the loop. Angle
made by AB and CD at the origin O is 30°.
Another straight thin wire with steady current I1
flowing out of the plane of the paper is kept at
the origin.
The magnitude of the magnetic field (B) due to the loop ABCD at the
origin (O) is :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) zero
9. A galvanometer of resistance, G is shunted by a resistance S ohm. To
keep the main current in the circuit unchanged, the resistance to be put
in series with the galvanometer is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
10. A beam of electrons is moving with constant velocity in a region having
simultaneous perpendicular electric and magnetic fields of strength 20
Vm–1 and 0.5 T respectively at right angles to the direction of motion of
the electrons. Then the velocity of electrons must be
(a) 8 m/s
(b) 20 m/s
(c) 40 m/s
(d)
11. A current I flows in an infinitely long wire with cross section in the
form of a semi-circular ring of radius R. The magnitude of the magnetic
induction along its axis is:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
12. A very long straight wire carries a current I. At the instant when a
charge + Q at point P has velocity , as shown, the force on the charge
is
(a) along OY
(b) opposite to OY
(c) along OX
(d) opposite to OX
13. A particle of mass m and charge q, accelerated by potential difference
V enters a region of uniform transverse magnetic field B. If d is the
thickness of region of magnetic field, then the deviation of the particle
from initial direction when it leaves the field is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) zero
14. A long insulated copper wire is closely wound as a spiral of ‘N’ turns.
The spiral has inner radius ‘a’ and outer radius ‘b’. The spiral lies in the
XY plane and a steady current ‘I’ flows through the wire. The Z-
component of the magnetic field at the centre of the spiral is
(a) ln
(b) ln
(c) ln
(d) ln
15. A particle of charge q and mass m moves in a circular orbit of radius r

with angular speed . The ratio of the magnitude of its magnetic
moment to that of its angular momentum depends on
(a) and q
(b) , q and m
(c) q and m
(d) and m
16. A thin flexible wire of length L is connected to two adjacent fixed points
and carries a current I in the clockwise direction, as shown in the figure.
When the system is put in a uniform magnetic field of strength B going
into the plane of the paper, the wire takes the shape of a circle. The
tension in the wire is
(a) IBL
(b)
(c)
(d)
17. In a mass spectrometer used for measuring the masses of ions, the ions
are initially accelerated by an electric potential V and then made to
describe semicircular path of radius R using a magnetic field B. If V
and B are kept constant, the ratio will be
proportional to
(a) 1/R2
(b) R2
(c) R
(d) 1/R
18. A cyclotron’s oscillator frequency is 10 MHz. If the radius of its ‘dees’
is 60 cm, what is the kinetic energy of the proton beam produced by the
accelerator ?
Given e = 1.60 × 10–19 C, m = 1.67 × 10–27 kg.
1 MeV = 1.6 × 10–13 J)
(a) 3.421 MeV
(b) 4.421 MeV
(c) 5.421 MeV
(d) 7.421 MeV
19. The deflection in a galvanometer falls from 50 division to 20 when a 12
ohm shunt is applied. The galvanometer resistance is
(a) 18 ohm
(b) 36 ohm
(c) 24 ohm
(d) 30 ohm
20. When a long wire carrying a steady current is bent into a circular coil of
one turn, the magnetic induction at its centre is B. When the same wire
carrying the same current is bent to form a circular coil of n turns of a
smaller radius, the magnetic induction at the centre will be
(a) B/n
(b) nB
(c) B/n2
(d) n2B
21. A 10 eV electron is circulating in a plane at right angles to a uniform

field at magnetic induction 10–4 Wb/m2 (= 1.0 gauss). The orbital radius
(in cm) of the electron is
22. An insulating rod of length l carries a charge q distributed uniformly
on it. The rod is pivoted at its mid point and is rotated at a frequency f
about a fixed axis perpendicular to rod and passing through the pivot.
The magnetic moment of the rod system is . Find the value of
a.
23. A moving coil galvanometer has 150 equal divisions. Its current
sensitivity is 10-divisions per milliampere and voltage sensitivity is 2
divisions per millivolt. In order that each division reads 1 volt, the
resistance in ohms needed to be connected in series with the coil will be
24. A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current i. The current is
uniformly distributed across its cross section. The ratio of the magnetic
field at a/2 and 2a is
25. A uniformly charged ring of radius 10 cm rotates at a frequency of 104
rps about its axis. The ratio of energy density of electric field to the
energy density of the magnetic field at a point on the axis at distance 20
cm from the centre is 9.1 × 10a . Find the value of a.
1. Two identical thin bar magnets each of length l

and pole strength m are placed at right angles to
each other, with north pole of one touching south
pole of the other, then the magnetic moment of
the system is
(a) 1 ml
(b) 2 ml
(c) ml
(d) ml/2
2. If the period of oscillation of freely suspended bar magnet in earth’s
horizontal field H is 4 sec. When another magnet is brought near it, the
period of oscillation is reduced to 2s. The magnetic field of second bar
magnet is
(a) 4 H
(b) 3 H
(c) 2 H
(d) H
3. A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side l is suspended between
the pole pieces of a permanent magnet such that is in the plane of
the coil. If due to a current i in the triangle a torque τ acts on it, the side
l of the triangle is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
4. A compass needle whose magnetic moment is 60 Am2, is directed

towards geographical north at any place experiencing moment of force
of 1.2 × 10–3 Nm. At that place the horizontal component of earth field
is 40 micro W/m2. What is the value of dip angle at that place?
(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c) 45°
(d) 15°
5. The materials suitable for making electromagnets should have
(a) high retentivity and low coercivity
(b) low retentivity and low coercivity
(c) high retentivity and high coercivity
(d) low retentivity and high coercivity
6. The length of a magnet is large compared to its width and breadth. The
time period of its oscillation in a vibration magnetometer is 2s. The
magnet is cut along its length into three equal parts and these parts are
then placed on each other with their like poles together. The time period
of this combination will be
(a)
(b)
(c) 2 s
(d)
7. A magnetic dipole is under the influence of two magnetic fields The

angle between the field directions is 60° and one of the fields has a
magnitude of 1.2 × 10–2 T. If the dipole comes to stable equilibrium at
an angle of 15° with this field, what is the magnitude of other field ?
(a) 4.4 × 10–3 tesla
(b) 5.2 × 10–3 tesla
(c) 3.4 × 10–3 tesla
(d) 7.8 × 10–3 tesla
8. A bar magnet 8 cm long is placed in the magnetic merdian with the N-
pole pointing towards geographical north. Two netural points separated
by a distance of 6 cms are obtained on the equatorial axis of the magnet.
If horizontal component of earth’s field = 3.2 × 10–5 T, then pole strength
of magnet is
(a) 5 ab-amp × cm
(b) 10 ab-amp × cm
(c) 2.5 ab-amp × cm
(d) 20 ab-amp × cm
9. If the susceptibility of dia, para and ferro magnetic materials are χd, χp,
χf respectively, then
(a) χd < χp < χf
(b) χd < χf < χp
(c) χf < χd < χp
(d) χf < χp < χd
10. The figure shows the various positions (labelled
by subscripts) of small magnetised needles P
and Q. The arrows show the direction of their
magnetic moment. Which configuration
corresponds to the lowest potential energy
among all the configurations shown ?
(a) PQ3
(b) PQ4
(c) PQ5
(d) PQ6
11. The angle of dip at a place is 37° and the vertical component of the
earth’s magnetic field is 6 × 10–5T. The earth’s magnetic field at this
place is (tan 37° = 3/4)
(a) 7 × 10–5 T
(b) 6 × 10–5 T
(c) 5 × 10–5 T
(d) 10–4 T
12. Needles N1, N2 and N3 are made of a ferromagnetic, a paramagnetic and
a diamagnetic substance respectively. A magnet when brought close to
them will
(a) attract N1 and N2 strongly but repel N3
(b) attract N1 strongly, N2 weakly and repel N3 weakly
(c) attract N1 strongly, but repel N2 and N3 weakly
(d) attract all three of them
13. A vibration magnetometer consists of two identical bar magnets placed
one over the other such that they are perpendicular and bisect each other.
The time period of oscillation in a horizontal magnetic field is 25/4
seconds. One of the magnets is removed and if the other magnet
oscillates in the same field, then the time period in seconds is
(a) 21/4
(b) 21/2
(c) 2
(d) 23/4
14. Two identical bar magnets are fixed with their centres at a distance d
apart. A stationary charge Q is placed at P in between the gap of the
two magnets at a distance D from the centre O as shown in the Figure
The force on the charge Q is

(a) directed perpendicular to the plane of paper
(b) zero
(c) directed along OP
(d) directed along PO
15. Two short bar magnets P and Q are arranged such that their centres are
on the X-axis and are separated by a large distance. The magnetic axes
of P and Q are along X and Y axes respectively. At a point R, midway
between their centres, if B is the magnitude of induction due to Q, the
magnitude of total induction at R due to the both magnets is
(a) 3B
(b)
(c)
(d) B
16. A dip circle is so set that its needle moves freely in the magnetic
meridian. In this position, the angle of dip is 40º. Now the dip circle is
rotated so that the plane in which the needle moves makes an angle of
30º with the magnetic meridian. In this position, the needle will dip by
an angle
(a) 40º
(b) 30º
(c) more than 40º
(d) less than 40º
17. A watch glass containing some powdered substance is placed between
the pole pieces of a magnet. Deep concavity is observed at the centre.
The substance in the watch glass is
(a) iron
(b) chromium
(c) carbon
(d) wood
18. A magnetic needle lying parallel to a magnetic field requires W units of
work to turn it through 60°. The torque required to keep the needle in
this position will be
(a) 2W
(b) W
(c)
(d)
19. The earth’s magnetic field lines resemble that of a dipole at the centre
of the earth. If the magnetic moment of this dipole is close to 8 × 1022
Am2, the value of earth’s magnetic field near the equator is close to
(radius of the earth = 6.4 × 106 m)
(a) 0.6 Gauss
(b) 1.2 Gauss
(c) 1.8 Gauss
(d) 0.32 Gauss
20. A thin rectangular magnet suspended freely has a period of oscillation
equal to T. Now it is broken into two equal halves (each having half of
the original length) and one piece is made to oscillate freely in the
same field. If its period of oscillation is , the ratio is
(a)
(b)
(c) 2
(d)
21. Two identical magnetic dipoles of magnetic moments 1.0 A-m2 each,
placed at a separation of 2 m with their axis perpendicular to each other.
Then what is the resultant magnetic field in tesla at point midway
between the dipole?
22. The magnetic field of earth at the equator is approximately 4 × 10–5 T.
The radius of earth is 6.4 × 106 m. Then what is the dipole moment (in
Am2) of the earth?
23. A bar magnet of moment of inertia 9 × l0–5 kg m2 placed in a vibration
magnetometer and oscillating in a uniform magnetic field l6π2 × l0–5T
makes 20 oscillations in 15 s. Then what will be the value of magnetic
moment of the bar magnet?
24. Two short bar magnets of length 1 cm each have magnetic moments
1.20 Am2 and 1.00 Am2 respectively. They are placed on a horizontal
table parallel to each other with their N poles pointing towards the
South. They have a common magnetic equator and are separated by a
distance of 20.0 cm. Then find the close value of the resultant
horizontal magnetic induction (in wb/m2) at the mid-point O of the line
joining their centres? (Horizontal component of earth’s magnetic
induction is 3.6× 10–5 Wb/m2)
25. The coercivity of a small magnet where the ferromagnet gets
demagnetized is 3 × 103 Am–1. Then what is the value of current (in A)
required to be passed in a solenoid of length 10 cm and number of turns
100, so that the magnet gets demagnetized when inside the
solenoid?
1. A metal rod of length l cuts across a uniform magnetic field B with a

velocity v. If the resistance of the circuit of which the rod forms a part
is r, then the force required to move the rod is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
2. Three solenoid coils of same dimension, same number of turns and

same number of layers of windings are taken. Coil 1 with inductance L1
was wound using a Mn wire of resistance 11 Ω/m, coil 2 with
inductance L2 was wound using the similar wire but the direction of
winding was reversed in each layer; coil 3 with inductance L3 was
wound using a superconducting wire. The self inductance of the coils
L1, L2, L3 are
(a) L1 = L2= L3
(b) L1 = L2; L3 = 0
(c) L1= L3; L2= 0
(d) L1 > L2 > L3
3. A rectangular, a square, a circular and an elliptical loop, all in the (x –
y) plane, are moving out of a uniform magnetic field with a constant
velocity, . The magnetic field is directed along the negative z
axis direction. The induced emf, during the passage of these loops, out
of the field region, will not remain constant for
(a) the circular and the elliptical loops.
(b) only the elliptical loop.
(c) any of the four loops.
(d) the rectangular, circular and elliptical loops.
4. A metal ring is held horizontally and bar magnet is dropped through the
ring with its length along the axis of the ring. The acceleration of the
falling magnet
(a) is equal to g
(b) is less than g
(c) is more than g
(d) depends on the diameter of ring and length of magnet
5. Which of the following figure correctly depicts the Lenz’s law. The
arrows show the movement of the labelled pole of a bar magnet into a
closed circular loop and the arrows on the circle show the direction of
the induced current
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
6. A metallic rod of length ‘l’ is tied to a string of

length 2l and made to rotate with angular speed
ω on a horizontal table with one end of the string
fixed. If there is a vertical magnetic field ‘B’ in
the region, the e.m.f. induced across the ends of
the rod is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
7. Figure shows a conducting rod of negligible resistance that can slide on

smooth U-shaped rail made of wire of resistance 1Ω/m. Position of the
conducting rod at t = 0 is shown. A time t dependent magnetic field B =
2t tesla is switched on at t = 0.
At t = 0, when the magnetic field is switched on, the conducting rod is

moved to the left at constant speed 5cm/s by some external means. The
rod moves perpendicular to the rails. At t = 2s, induced emf has
magnitude
(a) 0.12V
(b) 0.08V
(c) 0.04V
(d) 0.02 V
8. A square loop of side a is rotating about its
diagonal with angular velocity ω in a
perpendicular magnetic field . It has 10 turns.
The emf induced is
(a) B a2 sin ωt
(b) B a2 cos ωt
(c) 5 B a2
(d) 10 B a2 ω sin ωt
9. A conducting wire frame is placed in a magnetic
field which is directed into the paper. The magnetic
field is increasing at a constant rate. The directions
of induced current in wires AB and CD are
(a) B to A and D to C
(b) A to B and C to D
(c) A to B and D to C
(d) B to A and C to D
10. A square metal loop of side 10 cm and resistance 1 Ω is moved with a
constant velocity partly inside a uniform magnetic field of 2 Wbm–2,
directed into the paper, as shown in the figure. The loop is connected to
a network of five resistors each of value 3Ω. If a steady current of 1 mA
flows in the loop, then the speed of the loop is
(a) 0.5 cms–1

(b) 1 cms–1
(c) 2 cms–1
(d) 4 cms–1
11. The figure shows certain wire segments joined together
to form a coplanar loop. The loop is placed in a
perpendicular magnetic field in the direction going into
the plane of the figure.
The magnitude of the field increases with time. I1 and I2 are
the currents in the segments ab and cd. Then,
(a) I1 > I2
(b) I1 < I2
(c) I1 is in the direction ba and I2 is in the direction cd
(d) I1 is in the direction ab and I2 is in the direction dc
12. The mutual inductance of a pair of coils, each of N turns, is M henry. If
a current of I ampere in one of the coils is brought to zero in t second,
the emf induced per turn in the other coil, in volt, will be
(a) (b)
(c)
(d)
13. A thin semicircular conducting ring of radius R is falling with its plane
vertical in a horizontal magnetic induction B. At the position MNQ, the
speed of the ring is V and the potential difference developed across the
ring is
(a) Zero
(b) B vπR2 / 2 and M is at higher potential
(c) πRBV and Q is at higher potential
(d) 2RBV and Q is at higher potential
14. In fig, CODF is a
semicircular loop of a
conducting wire of
resistance R and radius
r. It is placed in a
uniform magnetic field
B, which is directed
into the page
(perpendicular to the plane of the loop).
The loop is rotated with a constant angular speed ω about an axis passing
through the centre O, and perpendicular to the page. Then the induced
current in the wire loop is
(a) zero
(b) Br2 ω/R
(c) Br2 ω/2R
(d) Bπr2 ω/R
15. The magnetic flux through a circuit of resistance R changes by an
amount ∆φ in a time ∆t. Then the total quantity of electric charge Q that
passes any point in the circuit during the time ∆t is represented by
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
16. A uniform magnetic field of induction B is confined to a cylindrical
region of radius R. The magnetic field is increasing at a constant rate
of tesla/second). An electron of charge e, placed at the point P on
the periphery of the field experiences an acceleration.
(a) towards left
(b) towards right
(c) towards left
(d) zero
17. As a result of change in the magnetic flux linked to the
closed loop shown in the fig, an e.m.f. V volt is induced in
the loop. The work done (joule) in taking a charge Q
coulomb once along the loop is
(a) QV
(b) 2QV
(c) QV/2
(d) Zero
18. In the figure shown a square loop PQRS of side
‘a’ and resistance ‘1 unit’ is placed near an
infinitely long wire carrying a constant current I.
The sides PQ and RS are parallel to the wire. The
wire and the loop are in the same plane. The loop
is rotated by 180° about an axis parallel to the
long wire and passing through the mid points of
the side QR and PS. The total amount of charge which passes through
any point of the loop during rotation is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) cannot be found because time of rotation not given

19. A thin circular ring of area A is held perpendicular to a uniform
magnetic field of induction B. A small cut is made in the ring and a
galvanometer is connected across the ends such that the total resistance
of the circuit is R. When the ring is suddenly squeezed to zero area, the
charge flowing through the galvanometer is
(a)
(b)
(c) ABR
(d)
20. A coil having n turns and resistance R Ω is connected with a

galvanometer of resistance 4R Ω. This combination is moved in time t
seconds from a magnetic field W1 weber to W2 weber. The induced
current in the circuit is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
21. The magnetic flux (in weber) linked with a coil of resistance 210 Ω is
varying with respect to time t as φ = 4t2 + 2t + 1. Find the current (in A)
in the coil at time t = 1 second.
22. The armature of a dc motor has 20W resistance. It draws a current of
1.5 A when run by a 220 V dc supply. Find the value of the back emf
(in volts) induced in it.
23. A boat is moving due east in a region where the earth’s magnetic field
is 5.0 × 10–5 NA–1 m–1 due north and horizontal. The boat carries a
vertical aerial 2 m long. If the speed of the boat is 1.50 ms–1. Find the
magnitude of the induced emf (in mV) in the wire of aerial.
24. In an inductor of self-inductance L = 2 mH, current changes with time
according to relation i = t2e–t. At what time (in second) emf is zero?
25. Two coaxial solenoids are made by winding thin insulated wire over a
pipe of cross-sectional area A = 10 cm2 and length = 20 cm. If one of
the solenoid has 300 turns and the other 400 turns, then find their
mutual inductance (in Henry) is:
(µ0 = 4π × 10 –7 Tm A–1)
1. A coil of inductance 300 mH and resistance 2Ω is connected to a source

of voltage 2V. The current reaches half of its steady state value in
(a) 0.1 s
(b) 0.05 s
(c) 0.3 s
(d) 0.15 s
2. Consider the RLC circuit shown below connected to an AC source of
constant peak voltage V0 and variable frequency ω0. The value of L is
20 mH. For a certain value ω0 = ω1, rms voltage across L, C, R are
shown in the diagram. At ω0 = ω2, it is found that rms voltage across
resistance is 50V. Then
The value of ω2 is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
3. A bulb is rated at 100 V, 100 W, it can be treated as a resistor. Find out

the inductance of an inductor (called choke coil) that should be
connected in series with the bulb to operate the bulb at its rated power
with the help of an ac source of 200 V and 50 Hz.
(a)
(b) 100 H
(c)
(d)
4. An inductor of inductance L = 400 mH and

resistors of resistance R1 = 2Ω and R2 = 2Ω are
connected to a battery of emf 12 V as shown in the
figure. The internal resistance of the battery is
negligible. The switch S is closed at t = 0. The
potential drop across L as a function of time is
`
(a)
(b) 6(1 – e–t/0.2)V
(c) 12e–5t V
(d) 6e–5t V
5. An ac source of angular frequency ω is fed across a resistor r and a
capacitor C in series. The current registered is I. If now the frequency of
source is changed to ω/3 (but maintaining the same voltage), the current
in the circuit is found to be halved. The ratio of reactance to resistance
at the original frequency ω is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
6. An ideal coil of 10H is connected in series with a resistance of 5Ω and a

battery of 5V. 2second after the connection is made, the current flowing
in ampere in the circuit is
(a) (1 – e–1)
(b) (1 – e)
(c) e
(d) e–1
7. A fully charged capacitor C with initial charge q0 is connected to a coil
of self inductance L at t = 0. The time at which the energy is stored
equally between the electric and the magnetic fields is:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
8. In an oscillating LC circuit the maximum charge on the capacitor is Q.
The charge on the capacitor when the energy is stored equally between
the electric and magnetic field is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) Q
9. The tuning circuit of a radio receiver has a resistance of 50Ω, an
inductor of 10 mH and a variable capacitor. A 1 MHz radio wave
produces a potential difference of 0.1 mV. The values of the capacitor
to produce resonance is (Take π2 = 10)
(a) 2.5 pF (b) 5.0 pF (c) 25 pF (d) 50 pF
10. The instantaneous values of alternating current and voltages in a circuit
are given as
amper
Volt
The average power in Watts consumed in the circuit is :

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
11. An inductor (L = 100 mH), a resistor (R = 100 Ω) and a battery (E =

100 V) are initially connected in series as shown in the figure. After a
long time the battery is disconnected after short circuiting the points A
and B. The current in the circuit 1 ms after the short circuit is
(a) 1/e A
(b) eA
(c) 0.1 A
(d) 1A
12. A coil has resistance 30 ohm and inductive reactance 20 ohm at 50 Hz
frequency. If an ac source, of 200 volt, 100 Hz, is connected across the
coil, the current in the coil will be
(a) 4.0 A
(b) 8.0 A
(c)
(d) 2.0 A
13. Which one of the following curves represents the variation of
impedance (Z) with frequency f in series LCR circuit?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
14. The primary winding of a transformer has 100 turns and its secondary
winding has 200 turns. The primary is connected to an A.C. supply of
120 V and the current flowing in it is 10 A. The voltage and the current
in the secondary are
(a) 240 V, 5 A
(b) 240 V, 10 A
(c) 60 V, 20 A
(d) 120 V, 20 A
15. The current in a LR circuit builds up to of its steady state value in
4s. The time constant of this circuit is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
16. An LCR series circuit is connected to a source of alternating current. At
resonance, the applied voltage and the current flowing through the circuit
will have a phase difference of
(a) π
(b)
(c)
(d) 0
17. In an electrical circuit R, L, C and an a.c. voltage source are all
connected in series. When L is removed from the circuit, the phase
difference between the voltage the current in the circuit is π/3. If
instead, C is removed from the circuit, the phase difference is again π/3.
The power factor of the circuit is :
(a) 1/2
(b)
(c) 1
(d)
18. A 100 µF capacitor in series with a 40Ω resistance is connected to a
110 V, 60 Hz supply. What is the maximum current in the circuit?
(a) 3.24 A
(b) 4.25 A
(c) 2.25 A
(d) 5.20 A
19. In an LCR circuit as shown below both switches are open initially. Now
switch S1 is closed, S2 kept open. (q is charge on the capacitor and τ =
RC is Capacitive time constant). Which of the following statement is
correct?
(a) Work done by the battery is half of the energy dissipated in the resistor
(b) At, t = τ, q = CV/2
(c) At, t = 2τ, q = CV (1 – e–2)
(d) At, t = 2 τ, q = CV (1 – e–1)
20. An AC generator of 220 V having internal resistance r = 10Ω and
external resistance R = 100Ω. What is the power developed in the
external circuit?
(a) 484 W
(b) 400 W
(c) 441 W
(d) 369 W
21. In a series LCR circuit R = 200Ω and the voltage and the frequency of
the main supply is 220V and 50 Hz respectively. On taking out the
capacitance from the circuit the current lags behind the voltage by 30°.
On taking out the inductor from the circuit the current leads the voltage
by 30°. Then what will be the power dissipated (in W) in the LCR
circuit?
22. Combination of two identical capacitors, a resistor R and a dc voltage
source of voltage 6V is used in an experiment on a (C-R) circuit. It is
found that for a parallel combination of the capacitor the time in which
the voltage of the fully charged combination reduces to half its original
voltage is 10 second. For series combination, what is the time (in
second) needed for reducing the voltage of the fully charged series
combination by half?
23. The voltage time (V-t) graph for triangular
wave having peak value V0 is as shown in
figure.The rms value of V in time interval
from t = 0 to T/4 is
then find the value of x.
24. In an alternating current circuit in which an inductance and capacitance

are joined in series, current is found to be maximum when the value of
inductance is 0.5 henry and the value of capacitance is 8µF. Then what
will be the angular frequency (in rad/s) of applied alternating voltage?
25. The primary and secondary coil of a transformer have 50 and 1500
turns respectively. If the magnetic flux φ linked with the primary coil is
given by φ = φ0 + 4t, where φ is in webers, t is time in seconds and φ0 is
a constant, output voltage (in volts) across the secondary coil?
1. An electromagnetic wave in vacuum has the electric and magnetic field

and , which are always perpendicular to each other. The direction
of polarization is given by and that of wave propagation by . Then
(a) and
(b) and
(c) and
(d) and
2. If E and B represent elctric and magnetic field vectors of the
electromagnetic wave, the direction of propagation of electromagnetic
wave is along
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
3. The figure here gives the electric field of an electromagnetic wave at a
certain point and a certain instant. The wave is transporting energy in
the negative z-direction. The direction of the magnetic field of the wave
at that point and instant is
(a) + ve x-direction
(b) –ve x-direction
(c) +ve z-direction
(d) –ve y-direction
4. A plane electromagnetic wave is incident on a material surface. If the
wave delivers momentum p and energy E, then
(a) p = 0, E = 0
(b)
(c)
(d)
5. The electric field of an electromagnetic wave travelling through vaccum is
given by the equation E = E0 sin (kx – ωt). The quantity that is
independent of wavelength is
(a) kω (b) (c) k2ω (d) ω
6. The figure shows graphs of the electric field

magnitude E versus time t for four uniform electric
fields, all contained within identical circular regions.
Which of them is according to the magnitudes of the
magnetic field?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
7. The electric field part of an electromagnetic wave in a medium is
represented by Ex=0;
Ez = 0. The wave is :
(a) moving along x direction with frequency 106 Hz and wave length 100 m.
(b) moving along x direction with frequency 106 Hz and wave length 200
m.
(c) moving along – x direction with frequency 106 Hz and wave length 200
m.
(d) moving along y direction with frequency 2π × 106 Hz and wave length
200 m.
8. The speed of electromagnetic wave in vacuum depends upon the source
of radiation. It
(a) increases as we move from γ-rays to radio waves
(b) decreases as we move from γ-rays to radio waves
(c) is same for all of them
(d) None of these
9. The energy of electromagnetic wave in vacuum is given by the relation
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
10. If microwaves, X rays, infrared, gamma rays, ultra-violet, radio waves

and visible parts of the electromagnetic spectrum are denoted by M, X,
I, G, U, R and V then which of the following is the arrangement in
ascending order of wavelength ?
(a) R, M, I, V, U, X and G
(b) M, R, V, X, U, G and I
(c) G, X, U, V, I, M and R
(d) I, M, R, U, V, X and G
11. Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a
propagating electromagnetic wave ?
(a) A charge moving at constant velocity
(b) A stationary charge
(c) A chargeless particle
(d) An accelerating charge
12. The pressure exerted by an electromagnetic wave of intensity I
(watts/m2) on a non reflecting surface is [c is the velocity of light]
(a) Ic
(b) Ic2
(c) I/c
(d) I/c2
13. Which of the following electromagnetic waves has minimum frequency
?
(a) Microwaves
(b) Audible waves
(c) Ultrasonic wave
(d) Radiowaves
14. All components of the electromagnetic spectrum in vacuum have the
same
(a) energy
(b) velocity
(c) wavelength
(d) frequency
15. Which of the following statement is false for the properties of
electromagnetic waves?
(a) Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maxima and minima
at the same place and same time.
(b) The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric
and magnetic vectors
(c) Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other and
perpendicular to the direction of propagation of wave
(d) These waves do not require any material medium for propagation.
16. A radiation of energy ‘E’ falls normally on a perfectly reflecting
surface. The momentum transferred to the surface is (c = Velocity of
light)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
17. If vs, vx and vm are the speed of soft gamma rays, X-rays and
microwaves respectively in vacuum, then
(a) vs > vx > vm
(b) vs < vx < vm
(c) vs > vx < vm
(d) vs = vx = vm
18. An electromagnetic wave going through vacuum is described by E =
E0sin(kx – ωt); B = B0 sin (kx – ωt). Which of the following equations
is true
(a) E0k = B0ω
(b) E0ω = B0k
(c) E0B0 = ωk
(d) None of these
19. If c is the speed of electromagnetic waves in vacuum, its speed in a
medium of dielectric constant K and relative permeability µr is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
20. Frequency of a wave is 6 × 1015 Hz. The wave is

(a) radiowave
(b) microwave
(c) x-ray
(d) None of these
21. A point source of electromagnetic radiation has an average power

output of 1500 W. What will be the maximum value of electric field at
a distance of 3m from this sources in Vm–1?
22. A plane electromagnetic wave in a non-magnetic dielectric medium is
given by with distance being in meter and
time in seconds. What is value of dielectric constant of the medium?
23. A plane electromagnetic wave travels in free space along x-axis. At a
particular point in space, the electric field along y-axis is 9.3 V m–1.
Find the magnetic induction (in Tesla) along z-axis.
24. The rms value of the electric field of the light coming from the Sun is
720 N/C. What is the average total energy density(in J/m3) of the
electromagnetic wave?
25. A lamp emits monochromatic green light uniformly in all directions.
The lamp is 3% efficient in converting electrical power to
electromagnetic waves and consumes 100 W of power. Then what will
be the amplitude of the electric field (in V/m) associated with the
electromagnetic radiation at a distance of 5 m from the lamp?
1. A car is fitted with a convex side-view mirror of focal length 20 cm. A

second car 2.8 m behind the first car is overtaking the first car at a
relative speed of 15 m/s. The speed (in m/s) of the image of the second
car as seen in the mirror of the first one is :
(a) m/s
(b) 10 m/s
(c) 15 m/s
(d) m/s
2. If the refractive index of the material of a prism is and the angle
of prism is A, then angle of minimum deviation is

(a) π – 2A
(b) π – A
(c)
(d)
3. A telescope has an objective of focal length 100 cm and an eyepiece of
focal length 5 cm. What is the magnifying power of the telescope when
the final image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision ?
(a) 20
(b) 24
(c) 28
(d) 32
4. In the figure shown, L is a converging lens of focal length 10 cm and M
is a concave mirror of radius of curvature 20cm. A point object O is
placed in front of the lens at a distance 15 cm. AB and CD are optical
axes of the lens and mirror respectively. The distance of the final image
formed by this system from the optical centre of the lens is cm.
Find the value of x in cm.
[The distance between CD and AB is 1 cm]
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 4
5. An object at 2.4 m in front of a lens forms a sharp image on a film 12
cm behind the lens. A glass plate 1 cm thick, of refractive index 1.50 is
interposed between lens and film with its plane faces parallel to film. At
what distance (from lens) should object shifted to be in sharp focus of
film?
(a) 7.2 m
(b) 2.4 m
(c) 3.2 m
(d) 5.6 m
6. A transparent solid cylindrical rod has a refractive index of . It is
surrounded by air. A light ray is incident at the mid-point of one end of

the rod as shown in the figure.
The incident angle θ for which the light ray grazes along the wall of the rod is
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) sin–1 (1/2)

7. A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism such that the angle of
incidence is equal to the angle of emergence and the latter is equal to
th of angle of prism. The angle of deviation is

(a) 25°
(b) 30°
(c) 45°
(d) 35°
8. A light ray falls on a rectangular glass slab as shown. The index of
refraction of the glass, if total internal reflection is to occur at the
vertical face, is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
9. A person can see clearly only upto a distance of 30 cm. He
wants to read a book placed at a distance of 50 cm from his eyes. What
is the power of the lens of his spectacles ?
(a) –1.0 D
(b) –1.33 D
(c) –1.67 D
(d) –2.0 D
10. An observer can see through a pin-hole the top
end of a thin rod of height h, placed as shown in
the figure. The beaker height is 3h and its radius
h. When the beaker is filled with a liquid up to a
height 2h, he can see the lower end of the rod.
Then the refractive index of the
liquid is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
11. A ray PQ incident on the refracting face BA is
refracted in the prism BAC as shown in the
figure and emerges from the other refracting
face AC as RS such that AQ = AR. If the angle
of prism A = 60° and the
refractive index of the material of prism is , then the angle of deviation of
the ray is
(a) 60°
(b) 45°
(c) 30°
(d) None of these
12. A rectangular glass slab ABCD of refractive
index n1 is immersed in water of refractive
index n2(n1 > n2). A ray of light is incident at
the surface AB of the slab as
shown. The maximum value of the angle of
incidence αmax such that the ray comes out only from the other surface
CD is given by
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
13. A microscope is focussed on a mark on a piece of paper and then a slab

of glass of thickness 3 cm and refractive index 1.5 is placed over the
mark. How should the microscope be moved to get the mark in focus
again ?
(a) 4.5 cm downward
(b) 1 cm downward
(c) 2 cm upward
(d) 1 cm upward
14. The focal lengths of the objective and the eye piece of a compound
microscope are 2.0 cm and 3.0 cm, respectively. The distance between
the objective and the eye piece is 15.0 cm. The final image formed by
the eye piece is at infinity. The two lenses are thin. The distance in cm
of the object and the image produced by the objective, measured from
the objective lens, are respectively
(a) 2.4 and 12.0
(b) 2.4 and 15.0
(c) 2.0 and 12.0
(d) 2.0 and 3.0
15. A rectangular block of glass is placed on a mark made on the surface of
the table and it is viewed from the vertical position of eye. If refractive
index of glass be µ and its thickness d, then the mark will appear to be
raised up by
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
16. A planoconcave lens is placed on a paper on which a flower is drawn.

How far above its actual position does the flower appear to be?
(a) 10 cm
(b) 15 cm
(c) 50 cm
(d) None of these
17. A thin prism of angle 15º made of glass of refractive index µ1 = 1.5 is
combined with another prism of glass of refractive index µ2 = 1.75. The
combination of the prism produces dispersion without deviation. The
angle of the second prism should be
(a) 7°
(b) 10°
(c) 12°
(d) 5°
18. A telescope consists of two thin lenses of focal lengths, 0.3 m and 3 cm
respectively. It is focused on moon which subtends an angle of 0.5° at
the objective. Then the angle subtended at the eye by the final image
will be
(a) 5°
(b) 0.25°
(c) 0.5°
(d) 0.35°
19. A bi-convex lens made of glass (refractive index 1.5) is put in a liquid
of refractive index 1.7. Its focal length will
(a) decrease and change sign
(b) increase and change sign
(c) decrease and remain of the same sign
(d) increase and remain of the same sign
20. A container is filled with water (µ = 1.33) upto a height of 33.25 cm. A
concave mirror is placed 15 cm above the water level and the image of
an object
placed at the bottom is formed 25 cm below the water level. Focal length of
the mirror is
(a) 15 cm
(b) 20 cm
(c) –18.31 cm (d) 10 cm
21. The position of final image formed by the given lens combination from
the third lens will be at a distance (in cm) of (f1 = + 10 cm, f2 = – 10 cm
and f3 = + 30 cm).
22. A fish looking up through the water sees the outside world contained in
a circular horizon. If the refractive index of water is and the fish is
12 cm below the surface, then what is the radius of this circle in cm?
23. When a plane mirror is placed horizontally on a level ground at a
distance of 60 m from the foot of a tower, the top of the tower and its
image in the mirror subtend an angle of 90° at the eye. What is the
height of the tower in metre?
24. For a prism kept in air it is found that for an angle of incidence 60°, the
angle of Prism A, angle of deviation δ and angle of emergence ‘e’
become equal. Then what will be the refractive index of the prism?
25. A thin convergent glass lens (µg = 1.5) has a power of + 5.0 D. When
this lens is immersed in a liquid of refractive index µ, it acts as a
divergent lens of focal length 100 cm. Find the value of µ.
1. A YDSE is conducted in water (µ1) as shown in

figure. A glass plate of thickness t and refractive
index µ2 is placed in the path of S2. The optical path
difference at O is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
2. The condition for obtaining secondary maxima in the diffraction pattern
due to single slit is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
3. Which of the following diagrams represent the variation of electric field
vector with time for a circularly polarised light ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
4. Two sources of light of wavelengths 2500 Å and 3500 Å are used in

Young’s double slit expt. simultaneously. Which orders of fringes of
two wavelength patterns coincide?
(a) 3rd order of 1st source and 5th of the 2nd
(b) 7th order of 1st and 5th order of 2nd
(c) 5th order of 1st and 3rd order of 2nd
(d) 5th order of 1st and 7th order of 2nd
5. The intensity at the maximum in a Young’s double slit experiment is I0.
Distance between two slits is d = 5l, where l is the wavelength of light
used in the experiment. What will be the intensity in front of one of the
slits on the screen placed at a distance D = 10 d ?
(a) I0
(b)
(c)
(d)
6. In YSDE, both slits are covered by transparent

slab. Upper slit is covered by slab of R.I. 1.5 and
thickness t and lower is covered by R.I. and
thickness 2t, then central maxima
(a) shifts in +ve y-axis direction
(b) shifts in –ve y-axis direction
(c) remains at same position
(d) may shift in upward
or downward depending upon wavelength of light
7. In a single slit diffraction experiment, the width of the slit is made
double its original width. Then the central maxima of the diffraction
pattern will become
(a) narrower and fainter
(b) narrower and brighter
(c) broader and fainter
(d) broader and brighter
8. A beam of light is incident on a glass slab (µ = 1.54) in a direction as
shown in the figure. The reflected light is analysed by a polaroid prism.
On rotating the polaroid, (tan 57° = 1.54)
(a) the intensity remains unchanged

(b) the intensity is reduced to zero and remains at zero
(c) the intensity gradually reduces to zero and then again increase
(d) the intensity increases continuously
9. Two identical light waves, propagating in the same direction, have a
phase difference δ. After they superpose, the intensity of the resulting
wave will be proportional to
(a) cos δ
(b) cos (δ/2)
(c) cos2 (δ/2)
(d) cos2 δ
10. In the Young’s double-slit experiment, the intensity of light at a point
on the screen where the path difference is λ is K, (λ being the wave
length of light used). The intensity at a point where the path difference
is λ/4, will be:
(a) K
(b) K/4
(c) K/2
(d) Zero
11. In the phenomena of diffraction of light, when blue light is used in the
experiment in spite of red light, then
(a) fringes will become narrower
(b) fringes will become broader
(c) no change in fringe width
(d) None of these
12. Two coherent point sources S1 and S2 are
separated by a small distance d as shown.
The fringes obtained on the vertical
screen will be :
(a) points
(b) straight bands
(c) concentric circles
(d) semicircles
13. At the first minimum adjacent to the central maximum of a single-slit
diffraction pattern, the phase difference between the Huygen’s wavelet
from the edge of the slit and the wavelet from the midpoint of the slit is
:
(a)
(b) π radian
(c)
(d)
14. The adjacent figure shows Fraunhoffer’s diffraction due to a single slit.
If first minimum is obtained in the direction shown, then the path
difference between rays 1 and 3 is
(a) 0
(b) λ/4
(c) λ/2
(d) λ
15. If yellow light emitted by sodium lamp in Young’s double slit
experiment is replaced by a monochromatic blue light of the same
intensity
(a) fringe width will decrease
(b) finge width will increase
(c) fringe width will remain unchanged
(d) fringes will become less intense
16. The Young’s double slit experiment is performed with blue and with
green light of wavelengths 4360Å and 5460Å respectively. If x is the
distance of 4th maxima from the central one, then
(a) x (blue) = x (green)
(b) x (blue) > x (green)
(c) x (blue) < x (green)
(d)
17. Two polaroids are placed in the path of unpolarized beam of intensity I0
such that no light is emitted from the second polaroid. If a third
polarioid whose polarization axis makes an angle θ with the
polarization axis of first polaroids, is placed between these polaroids
then the intensity of light emerging from the last polaroid will be
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
18. The box of a pin hole camera, of length L, has a hole of radius a. It is
assumed that when the hole is illuminated by a parallel beam of light of
wavelength l the spread of the spot (obtained on the opposite wall of
the camera) is the sum of its geometrical spread and the spread due to
diffraction. The spot would then have its minimum size (say bmin) when
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
19. The wavefronts of a light wave travelling in vacuum are given by x + y

+ z = c. The angle made by the direction of propagation of light with
the X-axis is
(a) 0º
(b) 45º
(c) 90º
(d)
20. A point source is emitting light of wavelength 6000 Å is placed at a
very small height h above a flat reflecting surface MN as shown in the
figure.
The intensity of the reflected light is 36% of the incident intensity.

Interference fringes are observed on a screen placed parallel to the
reflecting surface at a very large distance D from it.
The shape of the interference fringes on the screen is
(a) circle
(b) ellipse
(c) parabola
(d) straight line
21. In Young’s double slit experiment shown in figure S1 and S2 are

coherent sources and S is the screen having a hole at a point 1.0mm
away from the central line.
White light (400 to 700nm) is sent through the slits. Which wavelength (in
nm) passing through the hole has strong intensity?
22. Figure shows two coherent sources S1 and S2 vibrating in same phase.
AB is an irregular wire lying at a far distance from the sources S1 and
S2. Let and ∠BOA = 0.12°.
How many bright spots will be seen on the wire, including points A and B?
23. A thin film of soap solution (µs = 1.4) lies on the top of a glass plate (µg
= 1.5). When visible light is incident almost normal to the plate, two
adjacent reflection maxima are observed at two wavelengths 420 and
630 nm. The minimum thickness (in nm) of the soap solution is
24. In the figure shown if a parallel beam of white
light is incident on the plane of the slits then
the distance of the nearest white spot on the
screen from O is d/A. Find the value of A.
(assume d << D, λ << d]
25. The figure shows the interference pattern
obtained in a double-slit experiment using
light of wavelength 600nm. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are marked on five fringes.
The third order bright fringe is

1. Two identical photocathodes receive light of frequencies f1 and f2. If the

velocites of the photo electrons (of mass m ) coming out are
respectively v1 and v2, then
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
2. The anode voltage of a photocell is kept fixed. The wavelength λ of the

light falling on the cathode is gradually changed. The plate current I of
the photocell varies as follows
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
3. In a photoelectric experiment, with light of wavelength λ, the fastest

electron has speed v. If the exciting wavelength is changed to 5λ/4, the
speed of the fastest emitted electron will become
(a)
(b)
(c) less than
(d) greater than
4. The wavelength λe of an electron and λp of a photon are of same energy

E are related by
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
5. The cathode of a photoelectric cell is changed such that the work
function changes from W1 to W2 (W2 > W1). If the current before and
after changes are I1 and I2, all other conditions remaining unchanged,
then (assuming hν > W2)
(a) I1 = I2
(b) I1 < I2
(c) I1 > I2
(d) I1 < I2 < 2 I1
6. The maximum velocity of an electron emitted by light of wavelength λ
incident on the surface of a metal of work-function φ is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
7. Which one of the following graphs represents the variation of maximum

kinetic energy (EK) of the emitted electrons with frequency υ in
photoelectric effect correctly ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
8. If E1, E2, E3 are the respective kinetic energies of an electron, an alpha-

particle and a proton, each having the same de-Broglie wavelength, then
(a) E1 > E3 > E2
(b) E2 > E3 > E1
(c) E1 > E2 > E3
(d) E1 = E2 = E3
9. In photoelectric effect, stopping potential for a light of frequency n1 is
V1. If light is replaced by another having a frequency n2 then its
stopping potential will be
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
10. A certain metallic surface is illuminated with monochromatic light of

wavelength λ. The stopping potential for photo-electric current for this
light is 3V0. If the same surface is illuminated with light of wavelength
2λ, the stopping potential is V0. The threshold wavelength for this
surface for photo-electric effect is
(a) 4 λ
(b)
(c)
(d) 6 λ
11. The ratio of the respective de Broglie wavelengths associated with
electrons accelerated from rest with the voltages 100 V, 200 V and 300
V is
(a) 1 : 2 : 3
(b) 1 : 4 : 9
(c)
(d)
12. Two radiations of photons energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV, successively

illuminate a photosensitive metallic surface of work function 0.5 eV.
The ratio of the maximum speeds of the emitted electrons is :
(a) 1 : 4
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 1 : 5
13. Photoelectric emission is observed from a metallic surface for
frequencies v1 and v2 of the incident light rays (v1 > v2). If the
maximum values of kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted in the
two cases are in the ratio of 1 : k, then the threshold frequency of the
metallic surface is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
14. In an electron gun, the potential difference between the filament and
plate is 3000 V. What will be the velocity of electron emitting from the
gun?
(a) 3 × 108 m/s
(b) 3.18 × 107 m/s
(c) 3.52 × 107 m/s
(d) 3.26 × 107 m/s
15. In the photoeletric effect, electrons are emitted
(a) at a rate that is proportional to the amplitude of the incident radiation
(b) with a maximum velocity proportional to the frequency of the incident
radiation
(c) at a rate that is independent of the emitter
(d) only if the frequency of the incident radiations is above a certain
threshold value
16. Light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on a metal with work function
2.28 eV. The de Broglie wavelength of the emitted electron is:
(a) < 2.8 × 10–9 m
(b) ≥ 2.8 × 10–9 m
(c) ≤ 2.8 × 10–12 m
(d) < 2.8 × 10–10 m
17. An electron of mass m and charge e initially at rest gets accelerated by a
constant electric field E. The rate of change of de-Broglie wavelength
of this electron at time t ignoring relativistic effects is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
18. The figure shows a plot of photo current versus anode potential for a
photo sensitive surface for three different radiations. Which one of the
following is a correct statement?
(a) Curves (1) and (2) represent incident radiations of same frequency but of
different intensities.
(b) Curves (2) and (3) represent incident radiations of different frequencies
and different intensities.
(c) Curves (2) and (3) represent incident radiations of same frequency
having same intensity.
(d) Curves (1) and (2) represent incident radiations of different frequencies
and different intensities.
19. The de-Broglie wavelength of neutron in thermal equilibrium at
temperature T is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
20. The stopping potential (V0) versus frequency (v) plot

of a substance is shown in figure, the threshold
wavelength is
(a) 5 × 1014m
(b) 6000 Å
(c) 5000 Å
(d) Cannot be estimated from given data
21. A 200 W sodium street lamp emits yellow light of wavelength 0.6 µm.
Assuming it to be 25% efficient in converting electrical energy to light,
then find the number of photons of yellow light it emits per second?
22. Monochromatic radiation emitted when electron on hydrogen atom
jumps from first excited to the ground state irradiates a photosensitive
material. The stopping potential is measured to be 3.57 V. Then what
will be the threshold frequency (in Hz) of the materials?
23. When the energy of the incident radiation is incredased by 20%, the
kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface
increased from 0.5 eV to 0.8 eV. Then what is the work function (in
eV) of the metal?
24. A 5 watt source emits monochromatic light of wavelength 5000 Å.
When placed 0.5 m away, it liberates photoelectrons from a
photosensitive metallic surface. When the source is moved to a distance
of 1.0 m, the number of photoelectrons liberated will be reduced by a
factor x. Then find the value of x.
25. An X-ray tube is operated at 15 kV. Calculate the upper limit of the
speed (in m/s) of the electrons striking the target.
1. In the Bohr’s model of hydrogen-like atom the force between the
nucleus and the electron is modified as where β
is a constant. For this atom, the radius of the nth orbit in terms of the
Bohr radius is:
(a) rn = a0n – β
(b) rn = a0n2 + β
(c) rn = a0n2 – β
(d) rn = a0n + β
2. In the Bohr model an electron moves in a circular orbit around the
proton. Considering the orbiting electron to be a circular current loop,
the magnetic moment of the hydrogen atom, when the electron is in nth
excited state, is :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
3. In Rutherford scattering experiment, the number of α-particles scattered

at 60° is 5 × 106. The number of α-particles scattered at 120° will be
(a) 15 × 106
(b) × 106
(c) × 106
(d) None of these

4. Electrons in a certain energy level n = n1, can emit 3 spectral lines.
When they are in another energy level, n = n2. They can emit 6 spectral
lines. The orbital speed of the electrons in the two orbits are in the ratio
of
(a) 4 : 3
(b) 3 : 4
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 1 : 2
5. Energy of an electron in an excited hydrogen atom is –3.4 eV. Its
angular momentum will be
(a) 3.72 × 10–34Js
(b) 2.10 × 10–34Js
(c) 1.51 × 10–34 Js
(d) 4.20 × 10–34Js
6. The radiation corresponding to 3 → 2 transition of hydrogen atom falls
on a metal surface to produce photoelectrons. These electrons are made
to enter a magnetic field of 3 × 10–4 T. If the radius of the largest
circular path followed by these electrons is 10.0 mm, the work function
of the metal is close to:
(a) 1.8 eV
(b) 1.1 eV
(c) 0.8 eV
(d) 1.6 eV
7. If in hydrogen atom, radius of nth Bohr orbit is rn, frequency of
revolution of electron in nth orbit is fn, choose the correct option.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) Both (a) and (b)

8. A 12.5 eV electron beam is used to bombard gaseous hydrogen at room
temperature. It will emit :
(a) 2 lines in the Lyman series and 1 line in the Balmar series
(b) 3 lines in the Lyman series
(c) 1 line in the Lyman series and 2 lines in the Balmar series
(d) 3 lines in the Balmer series
9. The electric potential between a proton and an electron is given by V =
V0 ln , where r0 is a constant. Assuming Bohr’s model to be
applicable, write variation of rn with n, n being the principal quantum

number?
(a) rn ∝ n
(b) rn ∝ 1/n
(c) rn ∝ n2
(d) rn ∝ 1/n2
10. Electron in hydrogen atom first jumps from third excited state to second
excited state and then from second excited to the first excited state. The
ratio of the wavelength λ1 : λ2 emitted in the two cases is
(a) 7/5
(b) 27/20
(c) 27/5
(d) 20/7
11. The diagram shows the energy levels for an electron in a certain atom.
Which transition shown represents the emission of a photon with the
most energy?
(a) IV
(b) III
(c) II
(d) I
12. Consider 3rd orbit of He+ (Helium), using non-relativistic approach, the
speed of electron in this orbit will be [given K = 9 × 109 constant, Z = 2
and h (Plank’s Constant) = 6.6 × 10–34 J s]
(a) 1.46 × 106 m/s
(b) 0.73 × 106 m/s
(c) 3.0 × 108 m/s
(d) 2.92 × 106 m/s
13. An electron of a stationary hydrogen atom passes from the fifth energy
level to the ground level. The velocity that the atom acquired as a result
of photon emission will be : (m is the mass of the electron, R, Rydberg
constant and h Planck’s constant)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
14. If υ1 is the frequency of the series limit of Lyman series, υ2 is the

frequency of the first line of Lyman series and υ3 is the frequency of the
series limit of the Balmer series then
(a) υ1 − υ2 = υ3
(b) υ1 = υ2 − υ3
(c)
(d)
15. Hydrogen (1H1), Deuterium (1H2), singly ionised Helium (2He4)+ and
doubly ionised lithium (3Li6)++ all have one electron around the nucleus.
Consider an electron transition from n = 2 to n = 1. If the wavelengths
of emitted radiation are λ1, λ2, λ3 and λ4 respectively then approximately
which one of the following is correct?
(a) 4λ1 = 2λ2 = 2λ3 = λ4
(b) λ1 = 2λ2 = 2λ3 = λ4
(c) λ1 = λ2 = 4λ3 = 9λ4
(d) λ1 = 2λ2 = 3λ3 = 4λ4
16. If the atom 100Fm257 follows the Bohr model and the radius of 100Fm257 is
n times the Bohr radius, then find n.
(a) 100
(b) 200
(c) 4
(d) 1/4
17. The ionisation potential of H-atom is 13.6 V. When it is excited from
ground state by monochromatic radiations of 970.6 Å, the number of
emission lines will be (according to Bohr’s
theory)
(a) 10
(b) 8
(c) 6
(d) 4
18. The energy of He+ in the ground state is – 54.4 eV, then the energy of
Li++ in the first excited state will be
(a) – 30.6 eV
(b) 27.2 eV
(c) – 13.6 eV
(d) – 27.2 eV
19. Which of the plots shown in the figure represents speed (vn) of the
electron in a hydrogen atom as a function of the principal quantum
number (n)?
(a) B
(b) D
(c) C
(d) A
20. Suppose an electron is attracted towards the origin by a force where
‘k’ is a constant and ‘r’ is the distance of the electron from the origin.
By applying Bohr model to this system, the radius of the nth orbital of
the electron is found to be ‘rn’ and the kinetic energy of the electron to
be ‘Tn’. Then which of the following is true?
(a)
(b) Tn independent of n, rn ∝ n
(c)
(d)
21. The largest wavelength in the ultraviolet region of the hydrogen

spectrum is 122 nm. The smallest wavelength (in nm) in the infrared
region of the hydrogen spectrum is
22. An electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from excited state n to the
ground state. The wavelength so emitted illuminates a photosensitive
material having work function 2.75 eV. If the stopping potential of the
photoelectron is 10 V, the value of n is
23. Ionization potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6eV. Hydrogen atoms in the
ground state are excited by monochromatic radiation of photon energy
12.1 eV. According to Bohr’s theory, the spectral lines emitted by
hydrogen will be
24. One of the lines in the emission spectrum of Li2+ has the same
wavelength as that of the 2nd line of Balmer series in hydrogen
spectrum. The electronic transition corresponding to this line is n = 12
→ n = x. Find the value of x.
25. An energy of 24.6 eV is required to remove one of the electrons from a
neutral helium atom. The energy (in eV) required to remove both the
electrons from a neutral helium atom is
]1. Binding energy per nucleon versus mass number
curve for nuclei is shown in the figure. W, X, Y and
Z are four nuclei indicated on the curve. The process
that would release energy is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
2. The decay constants of a radioactive substance for α and β emission are
λα and λβ respectively. If the substance emits α and β simultaneously,
then the average half life of the material will be
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
3. Radioactive element decays to form a stable nuclide. The rate of decay

of reactant is correctly depicted by
(a) (b) (c)
(d)
4. A nucleus of mass M + ∆m is at rest and decays into two daughter

nuclei of equal mass each. Speed of light is c.
The speed of daughter nuclei is

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
5. The radioactivity of a sample is R1 at a time T1 and R2 at a time T2. If

the half-life of the specimen is T, the number of atoms that have
disintegrated in the time (T1 – T2) is proportional to
(a) (R1T1 – R2T2)
(b) (R1 – R2)
(c) (R1 – R2)/T
(d) (R1 – R2) T
6. A nucleus disintegrates into two nuclear parts which have their
velocities in the ratio 2 : 1. Ratio of their nuclear sizes will be
(a) 21/3 : 1
(b) 1 : 31/2
(c) 31/2 : 1
(d) 1 : 21/3
7. The energy spectrum of β-particles [Number N(E) as a function of β-
energy E] emitted from a radioactive source is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
8. If M (A; Z), Mp and Mn denote the masses of the nucleus proton

and neutron respectively in units of u ( 1u = 931.5 MeV/c2) and BE
represents its bonding energy in MeV, then
(a) M (A, Z) = ZMp + (A – Z) Mn –BE/c2
(b) M (A, Z) = ZMp+ ( A–Z) Mn + BE
(c) M (A, Z) = ZMp + (A – Z) Mn – BE
(d) M (A, Z) = ZMp + (A – Z)Mn + BE/c2
9. If radius of the nucleus is taken to be RAl, then the radius of
nucleus is nearly:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
10. Binding energy per nucleon plot against the mass

number for stable nuclei is shown in the figure.
Which curve is correct?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
11. At time t = 0, N1 nuclei of decay constant and N2 nuclei of decay
constant λ2 are mixed. The decay rate of mixture is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
12. A radioactive nucleus of mass number A, initially at rest, emits an α-
particle with a speed v. The recoil speed of daughter nucleus is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
13. Consider a radioactive material of half-life 1.0 minute. If one of the

nuclei decays now, the next one will decay
(a) after 1 minute
(b) after
(c) after minute, where N is the number of nuclei present at that moment
(d) after any time

14. The ratio of half-life times of two elements A and B is . The ratio
of respective decay constant is
(a) TB / TA
(b) TA / TB
(c)
(d)
15. In a radioactive material the activity at time t1 is R1 and at a later time t2,
it is R2. If the decay constant of the material is λ, then
(a)
(b)
(c) R1 = R2
(d)
16. In the options given below, if E denotes the rest mass energy of a
nucleus and n a neutron, the correct option is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
17. If the nuclear force between two protons, two neutrons and between
proton and neutron is denoted by Fpp, Fnn and Fpn respectively, then
(a)
(b) and
(c)
(d)
18. In any fission process, the ratio of
(a) equal to 1
(b) greater than 1
(c) less than 1
(d) depends on the mass of the parent nucleus
19.
In the above plot of binding energy per nucleon Eb, against the nuclear mass
M; A, B, C, D, E, F correspond to different nuclei. Consider four
reactions :
(i) A + B → C + ε
(ii) C → A + B + ε
(iii) D + E → F + ε
(iv) F→ D + E + ε,
where ε is the energy released? In which reactions is ε positive?
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (iv)
20. A neutron travelling with a velocity v and kinetic energy E has a
perfectly elastic head-on collision with a nucleus of an atom of mass
number A at rest. The fraction of total energy retained by the neutron is
approximately
(a) [(A – 1)/(A + 1)]2
(b) [(A + 1)/(A – 1)]2
(c) [(A – 1)/A]2
(d) [(A + 1)/A]2
21. A radioactive nucleus undergoes a series of decay according to the
scheme
If the mass number and atomic number of ‘A’ are 180 and 72 respectively,
then what is atomic number for A4
22. If a neutron breaks into a proton and an electron then the energy (in
MeV) released during this process is : (mass of neutron = 1.6725 × 10–27
kg, mass of proton = 1.6725 × 10–27 kg, mass of electron = 9 × 10–31 kg)
23. A nucleus with atomic number Z= 92 emits the following in a
sequence:
Then Z of the resulting nucleus is

24. If 200 MeV energy is released in the fission of a single U235 nucleus, the
number of fissions required per second to produce 1 kilowatt power
shall be (Given 1eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J)
25. Find the ratio between half life and average life for a radioactive nuclei.
1. A pure semiconductor has equal electron and hole concentration of 1016

m–3. Doping by indium increases number of hole concentration nh to 5 ×
1022 m–3. Then, the value of number of electron concentration ne in the
doped semiconductor is
(a) 106/m3
(b) 1022/m3
(c) 2 × 106/m3
(d) 2 × 109/m3
2. A change of 8.0 mA in the emitter current bring a change of 7.9 mA in
the collector current. The values of parameters α and β are respectively
(a) 0.99, 90
(b) 0.96,79
(c) 0.97,99
(d) 0.99,79
3. The following circut diagram represents
(a) OR gate
(b) XOR gate
(c) AND gate
(d) NAND gate
4. The correct truth table for system of four NAND gates as shown in
figure is :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
5. A Zener diode is connected to a battery and a load as show below:
The currents, I, IZ and IL are respectively.

(a) 15 mA, 5 mA, 10 mA
(b) 15 mA, 7.5 mA, 7.5 mA
(c) 12.5 mA, 5 mA, 7.5 mA
(d) 12.5 mA, 7.5 mA, 5 mA
6. The circuit diagram shows a logic combination with the states of
outputs X, Y and Z given for inputs P, Q, R and S all at state 1. When
inputs P and R change to state 0 with inputs Q and S still at 1, the states
of outputs X, Y and Z change to
(a) 1, 0, 0
(b) 1, 1, 1
(c) 0, 1, 0
(d) 0, 0, 1
7. A sinusoidal voltage of amplitude 25 volt and frequency 50Hz is
applied to a half wave rectifier using P-n junction diode. No filter is
used and the load resistance is 1000Ω. The forward resistance Rf of
ideal diode is 10Ω. The percentage efficiency of rectifier is
(a) 40%
(b) 20%
(c) 30%
(d) 15%
8. The circuit has two oppositively connected ideal diodes in parallel. The
current flowing in the circuit is
(a) 1.71 A
(b) 2.00 A
(c) 2.31 A
(d) 1.33 A
9. A working transistor with its three legs marked P, Q and R is tested
using a multimeter. No conduction is found between P and Q. By
connecting the common (negative) terminal of the multimeter to R and
the other (positive) terminal to P or Q, some resistance is seen on the
multimeter. Which of the following is true for the transistor?
(a) It is an npn transistor with R as base
(b) It is a pnp transistor with R as base
(c) It is a pnp transistor with R as emitter
(d) It is an npn transistor with R as collector
10. The diagram of a logic circuit is given below. The output F of the
circuit is represented by
(a) W . (X + Y)
(b) W . (X . Y)
(c) W + (X . Y)
(d) W + (X + Y)
11. The concentration of hole-electron pairs in pure silicon at T = 300 K is
7 × 1015 per cubic meter. Antimony is doped into silicon in a proportion
of 1 atom in 107 Si atoms. Assuming half of the impurity atoms
contribute electron in the conduction band, calculate the factor by
which the number of charge carriers increases due to doping. The
number of silicon atoms per cubic meter is 5 × 1028
(a) 2.8 × 105
(b) 3.1 × 102
(c) 4.2 × 105
(d) 1.8 × 105
12. In a common emitter (CE) amplifier having a voltage gain G, the
transistor used has transconductance 0.03 mho and current gain 25. If
the above transistor is replaced with another one with transconductance
0.02 mho and current gain 20, the voltage gain will be
(a) 1.5 G
(b) G
(c) G
(d) G
13. Which of the junction diodes shown below are forward biased?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
14. For LED’s to emit light in visible region of electromagnetic light, it

should have energy band gap in the range of:
(a) 0.1 eV to 0.4 eV
(b) 0.5 eV to 0.8 eV
(c) 0.9 eV to 1.6 eV
(d) 1.7 eV to 3.0 eV
15. In a CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collector
resistance of 2kΩ is 2V. If the base resistance is 1kΩ and the current
amplification of the transistor is 100, the input signal voltage is :
(a) 0.1 V
(b) 1.0 V
(c) 1 mV
(d) 10 mV
16. In the circuit given below, A and B represent two inputs and C
represents the output.
The circuit represents

(a) NOR gate
(b) AND gate
(c) NAND gate
(d) OR gate
17. If the lattice constant of this semiconductor is decreased, then which of
the following is correct?
(a) All Ec, Eg, Ev increase

(b) Ec and Ev increase, but Eg decreases
(c) Ec and Ev decrease, but Eg increases
(d) All Ec, Eg, Ev decrease
18. The ratio of electron and hole currents in a semiconductor is 7/4 and the
ratio of drift velocities of electrons and holes is 5/4, then the ratio of
concentrations of electrons and holes will be
(a) 5/7
(b) 7/5
(c) 25/49
(d) 49/25
19. The I-V characteristic of a P-N junction diode is shown below. The
approximate dynamic resistance of the p-n junction when a forward bias
voltage of 2 volt is applied is
(a) 1 Ω
(b) 0.25 Ω
(c) 0.5 Ω
(d) 5 Ω
20. Figure shows a circuit in which three identical diodes are used. Each
diode has forward resistance of 20 Ω and infinite backward resistance.
Resistors R1 = R2 = R3 = 50 Ω. Battery voltage is 6 V. The current
through R3 is :
(a) 50 mA
(b) 100 mA
(c) 60 mA
(d) 25 mA
21. In a npn transistor 1010 electrons enter the emitter in 10–6 s. 4% of the
electrons are lost in the base. The current transfer ratio will be
22. In common emitter amplifier, the current gain is 62. The collector
resistance and input resistance are 5 kΩ an 500Ω respectively. If the
input voltage is 0.01 V, the output voltage (in volt) is
23. The intrinsic conductivity of germanium at 27° is 2.13 mho m–1 and
mobilities of electrons and holes are 0.38 and0.18 m2V–1s–1 respectively.
The density (in m–3) of charge carriers is
24. The current gain in the common emitter mode of a transistor is 10. The
input impedance is 20kΩ and load of resistance is 100kΩ. The power
gain is
25. The current gain for a transistor working as common-base amplifier is
0.96. If the emitter current is 7.2 mA, then the base current (in mA) is
1. If the heights of transmitting and the receiving antennas are each equal
to h, the maximum line-of-sight distance between them is (R is the
radius of earth)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
2. Given the electric field of a complete amplitude modulated wave as
Where the subscript c stands for the carrier wave and m for the modulating
signal. The frequencies present in the modulated wave are
(a)
(b) ωc, ωc + ωm and ωc – ωm
(c) ωc and ωm
(d) and
3. The power radiated from antenna of length l is proportional to
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
4. The mobile telephones operate typically in the range of

(a) 1–100 MHz
(b) 100–200 MHz
(c) 1000–2000 MHz
(d) 800–950 MHz
5. Depth of modulation (ma) in terms of Emax and Emin is
(a) ma = Emax + Emin/Emin
(b) ma = Emax – Emin/Emax
(c) ma = Emax – Emin/Emax + Emin
(d) ma = Emax + Emin/Emax – Emin
6. Television signals on earth cannot be received at distances greater than
100 km from the transmission station. The reason behind this is that
(a) the receiver antenna is unable to detect the signal at a disance greater
than 100 km
(b) the TV programme consists of both audio and video signals
(c) the TV signals are less powerful than radio signals
(d) the surface of earth is curved like a sphere
7. The frequency deviation in a FM transmission is 18.75 KHz. If it
broadcasts in 88-108 MHz band, then the percentage modulation is
(a) 10%
(b) 25%
(c) 50%
(d) 75%
8. An AM- signal is given as
xAM (t) = 100 [p(t) + 0.5g(t)] cos ωct in interval 0 ≤ t ≤ 1. One set of possible
values of the modulating signal and modulation index would be
(a) t, 0.5
(b) t, 1.0
(c) t, 1.5
(d) t2, 2.0
9. In earth’s atmosphere, for F2-layer, the virtual height and critical
frequency in night time are
(a) 210 km and 5 MHz
(b) 250 km and 6 MHz
(c) 280 km and 7 MHz
(d) 350 km and 6 MHz
10. For good demodulation of AM signal of carrier frequency f, the value of
RC should be
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
11. An audio signal represented as 25 sin 2π(2000 t) amplitude modulated

by a carrier wave : 60 sin 2π(100, 000)t. The modulation index of the
modulated signal is
(a) 25%
(b) 41.6 %
(c) 50 %
(d) 75 %
12. A radio transmitter transmits at 830 kHz. At a certain distance from the
transmitter magnetic field has amplitude 4.82 × 10–11T. The electric
field and the wavelength are respectively
(a) 0.014 N/C, 36 m
(b) 0.14 N/C, 36 m
(c) 0.14 N/C, 360 m
(d) 0.014 N/C, 360 m
13. A carrier frequency of 1.5 MHz and peak value of 50 V is amplitude
modulated with a signal frequency of 10 kHz producing 50%
modulation. The lower and upper side-band frequencies in kHz are
(a) 1490, 1510
(b) 1510, 1490
(c)
(d)
14. A radio station has two channels. One is AM at 1020 kHz and the other
FM at 89.5 MHz. For good results you will use
(a) longer antenna for the AM channel and shorter for the FM
(b) shorter antenna for the AM channel and longer for the FM
(c) same length antenna will work for both
(d) information given is not enough
15. For sky wave propagation of a 10 MHz signal, what should be the
minimum electron density in ionosphere
(a) ~ 1.2 × 1012 m–3
(b) ~ 106 m–3
(c) ~ 1014 m–3
(d) ~ 1022 m–3
16. Which of the following statement is NOT correct?
(a) Ground wave signals are more stable than the sky wave signals.
(b) The critical frequency of an ionospheric layer is the highest frequency
that will be reflected back by the layer when it is vertically
incident.
(c) Electromagnetic waves of frequencies higher than about 30 MHz cannot
penetrate the ionosphere.
(d) Sky wave signals in the broadcast frequency range are stronger at night
than in the day time.
17. If a carrier wave c(t) = A sin ωct is amplitude modulated by a modulator
signal m(t) = A sin ωmt then the equation of modulated signal [Cm(t)]
and its modulation index are respectively
(a) Cm (t) = A (1 + sin ωm t) sin ωc t and 2
(b) Cm (t) = A (1 + sin ωm t) sin ωm t and 1
(c) Cm (t) = A (1 + sin ωm t) sin ωc t and 1
(d) Cm (t) = A (1 + sin ωc t) sin ωm t and 2
18. Calculate the power developed by an amplitude modulated wave in a
load resistance of 100 Ω, if the peak voltage of carrier wave is 100 V
and modulation index is 0.4.
(a) 50 watt
(b) 54 watt
(c) 104 watt
(d) 4 watt
19. Consider the following amplitude modulated (AM) signal, where fm < B
xAM (t) = 10 (1 + 0.5 sin 2πfmt) cos 2πfct
The average side-band power for the AM signal given above is
(a) 25
(b) 12.5
(c) 6.25
(d) 3.125
20. An antenna has a radiation resistance of 68Ω, a load resistance of 10Ω,
and power gain of 16. The directive gain of the antenna is
(a) 15
(b) 16.02
(c) 17.08
(d) 18.35
21. A 1000 kHz carrier wave is modulated by an audio signal of frequency

range 100 – 5000 Hz. Then the width of the channel in kHz is
22. A device with input x(t) and output y(t) is characterized by: y(t) = x2
(t). An FM signal with frequency deviation of 90 kHz and modulating
signal bandwidth of 5 kHz is applid to this device. The bandwidth of the
output signal in kHz is
23. An amplitude modulated voltage is expressed ase = 10 (1 + 0.8 cos
2000 πt) cos 3 × 106 πt volt. The peak voltage (in Volts) of carrier wave
is
24. The maximum peak to peak voltage of an AM wire is 24 mV and the
minimum peak to peak voltage is 8 mV. The modulation factor (in
percentage) is
25. A broadcast radio transmitter radiates 12 kW when percentage of
modulation is 50%, then the unmodulated carrier power (in kW) is
1. Six point masses each of mass m are placed at the vertices of a regular
hexagon of side l. The force acting on any of the masses is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
2. A metre stick of length 1m is held vertically with one end in contact of

the floor and is then allowed to fall. If the end touching the floor is now
allowed to slip, the other end will hit the ground with a velocity of (g =
9.8 m/s2)
(a) 3.2 m/s
(b) 5.4 m/s
(c) 7.6 m/s
(d) 9.2 m/s
3. Two soap bubbles of radii r1and
r2 equal to
4 cm and 5 cm are touching each other
over a common surface S1S2 (show in
figure). Its radius will be
(a) 4 cm
(b) 20 cm
(c) 5 cm
(d) 4.5 cm
4. A thin rectangular magnet suspended freely has a period of oscillation
equal to T. Now it is broken into two equal halves (each having half of
the original length) and one piece is made to oscillate freely in the same
field. If its period of oscillation is , the ratio is
(a)
(b)
(c) 2
(d)
5. An electron and a proton are moving on straight parallel paths with same
velocity. They enter a semi infinite region of uniform magnetic field
perpendicular to the velocity. Which of the following statement(s) is true?
(a) They will never come out of the magnetic field region.
(b) They will come out travelling along perpendicular paths.
(c) They will come out at the same time.
(d) They will come out at different times.
6. The resistance of a wire at 20°C is 20Ω and at 500°C is 60 ohm. At
which temperature its resistance will be 25 ohm?
(a) 80°C
(b) 70°C
(c) 60°C
(d) 50ºC
7. Three blocks are placed as shown in
figure below. The mass of A, B and C are
m1, m2 and m3, respectively. The force
exerted by block C on B is
(a) m1g
(b) (m1 + m2)g
(c) m2g
(d) (m1 + m2 + m3)g
8. A physical quantity P is given by . The quantity which
brings in the maximum percentage error in P is

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
9. A particle starts from rest and moves with uniform acceleration. Then
the ratio of distance covered in nth second to n second is-
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
10. A transistor connected in common emitter configuration has input

resistance RB = 2 kΩ and load resistance of 5 kΩ. If β = 60 and an input
signal 12 mV is applied, calculate the voltage gain, the power gain and
the value of output voltage
(a) Av = 150, Vout = 1.8V, and power gain = 9000
(b) Av = 20, Vout = 1V, and power gain = 2000

(c) Av = 150, Vout = 1.5V, and power gain = 8500
(d) Av = 20, Vout = 1.5V, and power gain = 2000
11. The maximum range dmax , of radar is
(a) proportional to the cube root of the peak transmitted power
(b) proportional to the fourth root of the peak transmitted power
(c) proportional to the square root of the peak transmitted power
(d) Not related to the peak transmitted power at all
12. A nucleus disintegrates into two nuclear parts which have their
velocities in the ratio 2 : 1. Ratio of their nuclear sizes will be
(a) 21/3 : 1
(b) 1 : 31/2
(c) 31/2 : 1
(d) 1 : 21/3
13. The coefficient of thermal conductivity of copper is nine times that of
steel in the composite cylindrical bar shown in the figure. What will be
the temperature at the junction of copper and steel
(a) 75°C
(b) 67°C
(c) 33°C
(d) 25°C
14. The bob of a simple pendulum executes simple harmonic motion in
water with a period t, while the period of oscillation of the bob is t0 in
air. Nglecting frictional force of water and given that the density of the
bob is (4/3) × 1000 kg/m3.
What relationship between t and is true
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
15. From the following statements, concerning ideal gas at any given
temperature T, select the wrong one
(a) The coefficient of volume expansion at constant pressure is same for all
ideal gas
(b) The average translational kinetic energy per molecule of oxygen gas is 3
KT (K being Boltzmann constant)
(c) In a gaseous mixture, the average translational kinetic energy of the
molecules of each component is same
(d) The mean free path of molecules increases with decrease in pressure
16. The figure shows the P-V plot of an ideal gas taken through a cycle
ABCDA. The part ABC is a semi-circle and CDA is half of an ellipse.
Then,
(a) the process during the path A → B is isothermal

(b) heat flows out of the gas during the path B → C → D
(c) work done during the path A → B → C is zero
(d) negative work is done by the gas in the cycle ABCDA
17. Two waves originating from source S1 and S2 having zero phase
difference and common wavelength λ will show completely destructive
interference at a point P if
(S1 P – S2 P) is
(a) 5λ
(b) 3λ/4
(c) 2λ
(d) 11λ/2
18. The xy plane is the boundary between two transparent media. Medium
1 with z > 0 has a refractive index of and medium 2 with z < 0 has
refractive index of . A ray of light in medium 1 given by the vector
is incident of the plance of separation. Find the
angle of refraction in medium 2 vector in the direction of the refracted
ray in medium 2
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 75°
19. In an a.c. circuit the voltage applied is E = E0 sin ωt. The resulting
current in the circuit is . The power consumption in
the circuit is given by

(a)
(b)
(c) P = zero
(d)
20. A moving block having mass m, collides with another stationary block
having mass 4m. The lighter block comes to rest after collision. When the
initial velocity of the lighter block is v, then the value of coefficient of
restitution (e) will be
(a) 0.5
(b) 0.25
(c) 0.4
(d) 0.8
21. In an electromagnetic wave, the amplitude of electric field is 1 V/m.
The frequency of wave is 5 × 1014 Hz. The wave is propagating along
z-axis. What will be the average energy density of electric field, in
joule/m3 ?
22. A parallel-plate capacitor is formed by two plates, each of area 100 cm2,
separated by a distance of 1mm. A dielectric of dielectric constant 5.0
and dielectric strength 1.9 × 107 V/m is filled between the plates. Find
the maximum charge (in coulomb) that can be stored on the capacitor
without causing any ,dielectric breakdown.
23. The width of one of the two slits in a Young’s double slits experiment is
double of the other slit. Assuming that the amplitude of the light
coming from a slit is proportion to slit-width. Find the ratio of the
maximum to the minimum intensity in the interference pattern.
24. A motor cycle starts from rest and accelerates along a straight path at 2
m/s2. At the starting point of the motor cycle there is a stationary
electric siren. How far (in metre) has the motor cycle gone when the
driver hears the frequency of the siren at 94% of its value when the
motor cycle was at rest? (Speed of sound = 330 ms–1)
25. For what kinetic energy (in joule) of a neutron will the associated de-
Broglie wavelength be 1.40 × 10–10 m ? Mass of neutron is 1.675 × 10–27
kg (h = 6.6 × 10–34 J-s)
1. When a large air bubble rises from the bottom of a lake to the surface,
its radius doubles. If the atmospheric pressure is equal to that of a
column of water of height H, then depth of the lake is
(a) H
(b) 2H
(c) 7H
(d) 8H
2. A wire elongates by l mm when a load W is hanged from it. if the wire
goes over a pulley and two weights W each are hung at the two ends,
the elongation of the wire will be (in mm)
(a) 2l
(b) zero
(c) l/2
(d) l
3. A planet revolves around the sun in an elliptical orbit of eccentricity e.
If T is the time period of the planet, then the time spent by the planed
between the ends of the minor axis and major axis close to the sun is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
4. The region between two concentric spheres of radii

‘a’ and ‘b’ respectively (see figure), has volume
charge density , where A is a constant and r
is the distance from the centre. At the centre of the
spheres is a point charge Q. The value of A such
that the electric field in the region between the
spheres will be constant, is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
5. A series combination of n1 capacitors, each of value C1, is charged by a

source of potential difference 4 V. When another parallel combination
of n2 capacitors, each of value C2, is charged by a source of potential
difference V, it has the same (total) energy stored in it, as the first
combination has. The value of C2 , in terms of C1, is then
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
6. The supply voltage to room is 120V. The resistance of the lead wires is
6Ω. A 60 W bulb is already switched on. What is the decrease of
voltage across the bulb, when a 240 W heater is switched on in parallel
to the bulb?
(a) zero
(b) 2.9 volt
(c) 13.3 volt
(d) 10.04 volt
7. A metro train starts from rest and in five seconds achieves a speed 108
km/h. After that it moves with constant velocity and comes to rest after
travelling 45m with uniform retardation. If total distance travelled is
395 m, find total time of travelling.
(a) 12.2 s
(b) 15.3 s
(c) 9s
(d) 17.2 s
8. A particle starts from origin at t = 0 with a velocity ms–1 and moves
in x-y plane under the action of a force which produces a constant
acceleration of m s–2. They-coordinate of the particle at the
instant when itsx-coordinate is 84 m, is
(a) 12 m
(b) 24 m
(c) 36 m
(d) 48 m
9. A long horizontal rod has a bead which can slide along its length and
initially placed at a distance L from one end A of the rod. The rod is set
in angular motion about A with constant angular acceleration α. If the
coefficient of friction between the rod and the bead is µ, and gravity is
neglected, then the time after which the bead starts slipping is :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) infinitesimal
10. The half-life period of a radio-active element X is same as the mean life
time of another radio-active element Y. Initially they have the same
number of atoms. Then
(a) X and Y decay at same rate always
(b) X will decay faster than Y
(c) Y will decay faster than X
(d) X and Y have same decay rate initially
11. The truth table for the electrical circuit shown is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
12. A transmitting antenna of height h and the receiving antenna of height

45 m are separated by a distance of 40 km for satisfactory
communication in line of sight mode. Then the value of h is (given
radius of earth is 6400 km)
(a) 15 m
(b) 20 m
(c) 30 m
(d) 25 m
13. A bimetallic strip is formed out of two identical strips, one of copper
and other of brass. The coefficients of linear expansion of the two
metals are αC and αB. On heating the temperature of the strip goes up by
∆T and the strip bends to form an arc of radius of curvature R. Then R is
(a) independent of ∆T
(b) independent of ∆T
(c) proportional to |αB – αC|
(d) inversely proportional to |αB – αC|
14. Work done by a system under isothermal change from a volume V1 to
V2 for a gas which obeys Vander Waal’s equation
is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
15. A body executing linear simple harmonic motion has a velocity of 3 m/s
when its displacement is 4 cm and a velocity of 4 m/s when its
displacement is 3 cm. What is the amplitude of oscillation ?
(a) 5 cm
(b) 7.5 cm
(c) 10 cm
(d) 12.5 cm
16. A man is standing on a railway platform listening to the whistle of an
engine that passes the man at constant speed without stopping. If the
engine passes the man at time to. How does the frequency f of the
whistle as heard by the man changes with time.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
17. In a coil of resistance 10 Ω, the induced current developed by changing

magnetic flux through it, is shown in figure as a function of time. The
magnitude of change in flux through the coil in Weber is
(a) 8
(b) 2
(c) 6
(d) 4
18. Figure shows a circuit that contains three identical resistors with
resistance R = 9.0 Ω each, two identical inductors with inductance L =
2.0 mH each, and an ideal battery with emf ε = 18 V. The current ‘i’
through the battery just after the switch closed is
(a) 0.2 A
(b) 2A
(c) 0
(d) 2 mA
19. An electromagnetic wave travels along z-axis. Which of the following
pairs of space and time varying fields would generate such a wave ?
(a) Ex, By
(b) Ey, Bx
(c) Ez, Bx
(d) Ey, Bz
20. The focal length of a plano convex lens is f and its refractive index is
1.5. It is kept over a plane glass plate with its curved surface touching
the glass plate. The gap between the lens and the glass plate is filled by
a liquid. As a result, the effective focal length of the combination
becomes 2f. Then the refractive index of the liquid is
(a) 1.5
(b) 2
(c) 1.25
(d) 1.33
21. The distance between the plates of a parallel-plate capacitor is 0.05 m.
A field of 3 × 104 V/m is established between the plates. It is
disconnected from the battery and an uncharged metal plate of thickness
0.01 m is inserted. What would be the potential difference (in kv) if a
plate of dielectric constant K = 2 is introduced in place of metal plate?
22. It is found that if a neutron suffers an elastic collinear collision with
deuterium at rest, fractional loss of its energy is pd; while for its similar
collision with carbon nucleus at rest, fractional loss of energy is Pc.
Then ratio of Pd to Pc will be:
23. An observer can see through a pin-hole the top end
of a thin rod of height h, placed as shown in the
figure. The beaker height is 3h and its radius h. When
the beaker is filled with a liquid up to a height 2h, he
can see the lower end of the rod. Then the refractive
index of the liquid is
24. Calculate the work done (in joule) when 1 mole of a
perfect gas is compressed adiabatically. The initial
pressure and volume of the gas are 105 N/m2 and 6 litre respectively. The
final volume of the gas is 2 litre. Molar specific heat of the gas at
constant volume is 3R/2. [35/3 = 6.19]
25. Using light of wavelength 6000 Å stopping potential is obtained 2.4 volt
for photoelectric cell. If light of wavelength 4000 Å is used then
stopping potential (in volt) would be
1. (a) A and B have different dimensions. Hence, only A and B in a ratio
form and is meaningful.
2. (d) No of divisions on main scale = N
No of divisions on vernier scale = N + 1
size of main scale division = a
Let size of vernier scale division be b
then we have
aN = b (N + 1) ⇒ b =
Least count is a – b = a –
= =
3. (a)
4. (a) T = Pa Db Sc
M0L0T1 = (ML–1 T–2)a (ML–3)b (MT–2)c
= Ma+b+c L–a–3b T–2a–2c
Applying principle of homogeneity
a + b + c = 0; – a – 3b = 0; – 2a – 2c = 1
on solving, we get a = – 3/2, b = 1/2, c = 1
5. (b) As
6. (a) Here, Mass of a body, M = 5.00 ± 0.05 kg

Volume of a body, V = 1.00 ± 0.05 m3
Density, ρ =
Relative error in density is,
Percentage error in density is
= 1% + 5% = 6%
7. (d) For angular momentum, the dimensional formula is [ML2T–1]. For

other three, it is [ML2T–2].
8. (d) Let X = [ML–1 T–1]
Then,
As we know,
= (1 + 1.5 + 3) % = 5.5 %.
9. (d) Let unit ‘u’ related with e, a0, h and c as follows.
[u] = [e]a [a0]b [h]c [C]d
Using dimensional method,
[M–1L–2T+4A+2] = [A1T1]a[L]b[ML2T–1]c[LT–1]d
[M–1L–2T+4A+2] = [Mc Lb+2c+d Ta–c–d Aa]
a = 2, b = 1, c = – 1, d = – 1
∴ u=
10. (a) = angle.
11. (d) Dimensionally ε0L = Capacitance (c)
∴
12. (d) P = , × 100% = × 100% + × 100% + ×
100% + × 100%.
= 3 × 1% + 2 × 2% + 3% + 4% = 14%
13. (c) We know that is energy of capacitor so it represent the
dimension of energy = [ML2T–2].

14. (a) Number of significant figures in 23.023= 5
Number of significant figures in 0.0003 = 1
Number of significant figures in 2.1 × 10–3 = 2
15. (b) Mobility µ =
= kg–1 s2 A = [M–1 T2 A]
16. (b) [momentum] = [M][L][T–1] = [MLT–1]
Planck’s constant = =
17. (b) Measured length of rod = 3.50 cm

For vernier scale with 1 Main Scale Division = 1 mm
9 Main Scale Division = 10 Vernier Scale Division,
Least count = 1 MSD –1 VSD = 0.1 mm
18. (c) Impulse = change in momentum
19. (d)
20. (d) Let dimensions of length is related as,

L
= ML3T–2
L = [LT–1]x [M–1L3T–2]y[ML3T–2]z
[L] = [Lx + 3y + 3z M –y + z T–x – 2y – 2z]
Comparing both sides
–y + z = 0 ⇒ y = z ...(i)
x + 3y + 3z = 1 ...(ii)
–x – 4z = 0 (Q y = z) ...(iii)
From (i), (ii) and (iii)
z=y= x = –2
Hence, L =
21. (8) As we know, time period of a simple pendulum
T = 2π
The maximum percentage error in g
= 2% + 2(3%) = 8%
22. (3.38) Least count of screw gauge =
Reading = [Main scale reading + circular scale reading × L.C]

– (zero error)
= [3 + 35 × 0.01] – (–0.03) = 3.38 mm
23. (40) In CGS system,
The unit of mass is 100g and unit of length is 10 cm, so
density =
= 40 unit
24. (0.2)The current voltage relation of diode is
I = (e1000 V/T – 1) mA (given)
When, I = 5 mA, e1000 V/T = 6mA
Also, (By exponential function)
= = 0.2 mA
25. (3.1)Diameter D = M.S.R. + (C.S.R) × L.C.

D = 2.5 + 20 ×
D = 2.70 mm
The uncertainty in the measurement of diameter∆D = 0.01 mm.
We know that
ρ= = =
=
=2+3× = 3.1%
1. (b) x = αt3 and y = βt3
and
2. (d) Let ‘S ’ be the distance between two ends and ‘a’ be the constant
acceleration
As we know v2 – u2 = 2aS
or, aS =
Let vc be velocity at mid point.

Therefore,
vc =
3. (a) Acceleration of the particle a = 2t – 1

The particle retards when acceleration is opposite to velocity.
⇒ a . v < 0 ⇒ (2t – 1) (t2 – t) < 0 ⇒ t (2t – 1) (t – 1) < 0
Now t is always positive
∴ (2t – 1) (t – 1) < 0
or 2t – 1 < 0 and t – 1 > 0 ⇒ t < and t > 1.
This is not possible

or 2t – 1 > 0 and t – 1 < 0 ⇒ 1/2 < t < 1
4. (b) When a ball is dropped on a floor,
..... (1)
So the graph between y and t is a parabola. Here as time increases, y

decreases.
When the ball bounces back, then
..... (2)
The graph between y and t will be a parabola. But here as time increases,
y also increases. So (b) represents the graph.
5. (d)
velocity ,v0 = a
accleration
At t = 0, and
At ,
At
It cannot go beyond this, so point is not reached by the particle.
At t = 0, x = 0, at , therefore the particle does not come
back to its starting point at t = ∞.

6. (a) or
Integrating we get, ...(1)

At t = 0, v = v0
Putting in (1)
or or
or
7. (d) Distance from A to B = S =
Distance from B to C =
Distance from C to D =
............. (i)
............ (ii)
Dividing (i) by (ii), we get =
8. (a) Q h = gt2
∴ h1 = g(5)2 = 125
h1 + h2 = g(10)2 = 500
⇒ h2 = 375
h1 + h2 + h3 = g(15)2 = 1125
⇒ h3 = 625
h2 = 3h1 , h3 = 5h1
or h1 = =
9. (a) xA = xB
10.5 + 10t = ⇒ a = tan 45° = 1 m/s2
t2 – 20t – 21 = 0 ⇒
10. (b)
, ,
11. (b) u = 0, t1=10s, t2 = 20s

Using the relation, S = ut + at2
Acceleration being the same in two cases,

∴
S2 = 4S1
12. (a) Velocity of boat
Velocity of water
minutes
13. (c) Here, or,
or,
or,
where C is the constant of integration.

At t = 0, v = 0.
If f = 0, then
Hence, particle’s velocity in the time interval t = 0 and t = T is given by

14. (c) We have,
or
or ..... (1)
Also,
or ..... (2)
Equation (2) – (1) gives,

or a = 10 m/s2.
Substitute this value in (1) we get,
∴ The distance travelled by the body in 20 s is,
= 400 + 2000 = 2400 m.

15. (b) The two car (say A and B) are moving with same velocity, the
relative velocity of one (say B) with respect to the other A, =
=v–v=0
So the relative separation between them (= 5 km) always remains the
same.
Now if the velocity of car (say C) moving in opposite direction to A and
B, is relative to ground then the velocity of car C relative to A
and B will be
But as is opposite to vc
So, the time taken by it to cross the cars A and B
vc= 45km/hr.
16. (b) Time taken by the stone to reach the water level
Time taken by sound to come to the mouth of the well,
∴ Total time
17. (d) Speed,
Let declaration be a then (0)2 – u2 = –2ad

or u2 = 2ad … (1)
and (0)2 – u’2 = –2ad’
or u′2 = 2ad′ …(2)
(2) divided by (1) gives,
18. (c) t=
⇒ = t – 3 ⇒ x = (t – 3)2
v= = 2(t – 3) = 0
⇒t=3
∴ x = (3 – 3)2
⇒ x = 0.
19. (c) Height of tap = 5m and (g) = 10 m/sec2.
For the first drop,
5 = ut = 5t2 or t2 = 1 or t = 1.
It means that the third drop leaves after one second of the first drop. Or,
each drop leaves after every 0.5 sec.
Distance covered by the second drop in 0.5 sec
.
Therefore, distance of the second drop above the ground = 5 – 1.25 =

3.75 m.
20. (c) We know that, dx = v dt
Integrating,
or
or,
At t = 1,
21. (100) Relative speed of police with respect to thief

= 10 – 9 = 1 m/s
Instantaneous separation = 100 m
22. (17.2) Ist part: u = 0, t = 5s, v = 108 km/hr = 30 m/s

v = u + at 30 = 0 + a × 5 a = 6 m/s2
= = 75 m
IIIrd part: s = 45m, u = 30m/s, v = 0
v = u + at 0 = 30 – 10 × t t = 3s
IInd part :
s = s1 + s2 + s3
395 = 75 + s2 + 45 ⇒ s2 = 275 m
Total time taken = (5 + 9.2 + 3) sec = 17.2 sec

23. (78.4) Let the two balls Pand Q meet at height x m from the ground
after time t s from the start.
We have to find distance, BC = (100 – x)
For ball P
S = x m, u = 25 m s–1, a = –g
From S = ut +
x = 25t – .......... (i)
For ball Q
S = (100 – x) m, u = 0, a = g
∴ 100 – x = 0 + .......... (ii)
Adding eqns. (i) and (ii), we get

100 = 25t or t = 4 s
From eqn. (i),
x = 25 × 4 –
Hence distance from the top of the tower

= (100 – x) m = (100 – 21.6 m) = 78.4 m
24. (24) Case-1 :
....(i)
Case-2 : u = 100 km/hr = m/sec
v = 0, s = s, a = a ∴
⇒
⇒ … (ii)
Dividing (i) and (ii) we get
25. (2.85) Using v2 = u2 – 2gh i.e.,
and
∴
1. (b) ,
⇒ AB sin θ = √3 AB cos θ
or, tan θ = √3, ∴ θ = 60º
2. (b)
3. (c) Clearly
4. (c) Using the law of vector addition, is as shown in the fig.

5. (b)
The velocity of first particle, v1 = v

The velocity of second particle, v2 = at
Relative velocity,
or
For least value of relative velocity,
or
or 0 + a2 × 2t – 2vacos α = 0
or
6. (d)
R = 10 cos 30° t – g sin 30° t2
= =
7. (c) = 1 cm/s. Centripetal acceleration is directed towards the
centre. Its magnitude = 1. Unit vector at the mid point on the path
between P and Q is .
8. (b) Two vectors are
=
=
For two vectors and to be orthogonal A.B = 0
= 0 = cos ωt.cos + sin ωt.sin
= cos
So, ∴ t=
9. (a) due North;

due West. Angle between and
due South
∴ Change in velocity
The direction of this change in velocity is in South-West.

10. (b)
Comparing with , we get

vx = 6ms–1 and vy = 8 ms–1
Also, = 36 + 64 = 100
or v = 10 ms–1
= 9.6 m
11. (b) y = bx2

Differentiating w.r.t to t an both sides, we get
vy = 2bxvx
Again differentiating w.r.t to t on both sides we get
[ = 0, because the particle has constant acceleration along y-
direction]
Now,
vx =
12. (c)
Since and are perpendicular

∴
A2 = B2
13. (a) Total area around fountain
Where Rmax =
14. (a)
and
15. (a) Distance covered in one circular loop = 2πr

= 2 × 3.14 × 100 = 628 m
Speed
Displacement in one circular loop = 0

Velocity
16. (a)
Now
17. (b) Here, x = 4sin(2πt) ...(i)
y = 4cos(2πt) ...(ii)
Squaring and adding equation (i) and (ii)
x2 + y2 = 42 ⇒ R = 4
Motion of the particle is circular motion, acceleration vector
is along – and its magnitude =
Velocity of particle, v = ωR = (2π) (4) = 8π
18. (b) H = ...(1)
R=
...(2)
19. (a) ar = ω2 R
or, ar= (2πn)2R = 4π2n2R =

anet = ar = π2ms–2 and direction along the radius towards the centre.
20. (b) Suppose velocity of rain
and the velocity of the man
∴ Velocity of rain relative to man
According to given condition that rain appears to fall vertically, so (vx – u)

must be zero.
∴ vx – u = 0 or vx = u
When he doubles his speed,
Now =
=
=
The makes an angle θ with the vertical
tan θ =
which gives
vy =
Thus the velocity of rain

=
21. (3)
Speed along the shortest path

= km/hr
Speed of water km/hr
22. (15) Range of a projectile is maximum when it is projected at an angle
of 45° and is given by
, where u is the velocity of projection
⇒ ∴ … (i)
Now, to hit a target at a distance (R/2) from the gun, we must have
, where θ is the angle of projection.
⇒ ; from (i)
⇒ ⇒ sin 2θ = sin 30°
⇒ 2θ = 30° ∴ θ = 15°
23. (717)According to law of sines or Lami’s Theorem
⇒ = =
⇒ vB = 717 kmh–1
24. (14) s = t3 + 5
velocity,
Tangential acceleration at =
Radial acceleration ac =
At t = 2s, m/s2
m/s2
∴ Resultant acceleration
= = =
= = 14 m/s2
25. (5.49) At the two points of the trajectory during projection, the
horizontal component of the velocity is the same.
⇒ ucos 60° = vcos 45°
⇒ ⇒
Vertical component of u = u sin 60°

=
Vertical component of v = v sin 45°

=
but vy = uy + ayt ⇒
⇒ 9.8t = ⇒ t = 5.49 s
1. (d) Here m = 0.5 kg ; u = – 10 m/s;
t = 1/50 s ; v = + 15 ms–1
Force = m (v– u)/t = 0.5 (10 + 15) × 50 = 625 N
2. (b) From figure,
Acceleration a = Rα …(i)
and mg – T = ma …(ii)
From equation (i) and (ii)
T × R = mR2α = mR2
or T = ma
⇒ mg – ma = ma
⇒
3. (a) Limiting friction between block and slab

= µsmAg = 0.6 ×10 × 9.8 = 58.8 N
But applied force on block A is 100 N. So the block will slip over a slab.
Now kinetic friction works between block and slab
Fk = µkmAg = 0.4 × 10× 9.8 = 39.2 N
This kinetic friction helps to move the slab
∴ Accleration of slab
4. (b) Thrust on the satellite,
Acceleration
5. (c) Let T be the tension in the branch of a tree when monkey is

descending with acceleration a. Then mg – T = ma; and T = 75%
of weight of monkey
or .
6. (a) Coefficient of static friction,

µs = tan 30° = = 0.577 ≅ 0.6
S = ut +
4= a(4)2 ⇒ a = = 0.5
[ s = 4m and t = 4s given]
a = gsinθ – µk(g) cosθ
⇒ µk = = 0.5
7. (d) According to law of conservation of momentum the third piece has

momentum
kg ms–1
Impulse = Average force × time
⇒ Average force
8. (d) Given F = 600 – (2 × 105 t)

The force is zero at time t, given by
0 = 600 – 2 × 105 t
seconds
∴ Impulse
9. (d) As shown in the figure, the three forces are represented by the
sides of a triangle taken in the same order. Therefore the resultant
force is zero.
Therefore acceleration is also zero i.e., velocity remains
unchanged.
10. (b) From the F.B.D.
N = mg cos
F = ma = mg sin – µN
⇒ a = g(sin θ – µ cos θ)
Now using, v2 – u2 = 2as

or,
(l = length of incline)
or, v =
11. (a) As the ball, m = 10 g = 0.01 kg rebounds after striking the wall
∴ Change in momentum = mv – (–mv) = 2 mv
Inpulse = Change in momentum = 2mv
∴ν=
12. (a) At limiting equilibrium, µ = tanθ
tanθ = µ = (from question)
Q Coefficient of friction µ = 0.5
⇒ x=+1
Now,
13. (d) Writing free body-diagrams for m & M,
we get T = ma and F – T = Ma
where T is force due to spring
F – ma = Ma or, F = Ma + ma
Now, force acting on the block of mass m is

ma =
14. (b) The acceleration of mass m is due to the force T cos

∴ T cos = ma a= ... (i)
also,F = 2T sin T= ... (ii)
From (i) and (ii)
a=
15. (a) The Earth pulls the block by a force Mg. The
block in turn exerts a force Mg on the spring of
spring balance S1 which therefore shows a
reading of M kgf.
The spring S1 is massless. Therefore it exerts a force of
Mg on the spring of spring balance S2 which
shows the reading of M kgf.
16. (b) For the motion of both the blocks
m1a = T – µkm1g
m2g – T = m2a
a=
m2g – T = (m2)
solving we get tension in the string

T=
17. (c) Motion with constant momentum along a straight line.

According to Newton’s second law rate of change of momentum is
directly proportional to force applied.
18. (d) [ As v = 0]
19. (c) Maximum force by surface when friction works
Minimum force = R when there is no friction

Hence ranging from R to [where, R = mg]
20. (d)
The acceleration of the system is
The tension in the middle of the rope (i.e., at point A) is
⇒
21. (5) The block begins to slide if
F cos 37° = µ (mg – F sin 37°)
5t [cos 37° + µ sin 37°] = µ mg
or t0 = 10 sec. or t0/2 = 5 sec.
22. (187.5) Mass of rocket (m) = 5000 Kg

Exhaust speed (v) = 800 m/s
Acceleration of rocket (a) = 20 m/s2
Gravitational acceleration (g) = 10 m/s2
We know that upward force
F = m (g + a) = 5000 (10 +20) = 5000 × 30 = 150000 N.
We also know that amount of gas ejected
23. (45) The tension in both strings will be

same due to symmetry.
For equilibrium in vertical direction for
body B we have
∴ [ T =
mg, (at equilibrium]
∴
24. (2.5) ,
Mass of the rocket = 2 kg. Mv = constant

. ∴
⇒ Acceleration =
25. (0.25) Tension at the highest point

(∴ vtop = )
Tension at the lowest point

Tbottom = 2mg + 6mg = 8mg
∴ = 0.25
1. (b) k = 5 × 103 N/m
2. (a) Given: Mass of particle, M = 10g =

radius of circle R = 6.4 cm
Kinetic energy E of particle = 8 × 10–4J
acceleration at = ?
=E
⇒ = 8 × 10–4
⇒ v2 = 16 × 10–2
⇒ v = 4 × 10–1 = 0.4 m/s
Now, using
v2 = u2 + 2ats (s = 4πR)
(0.4)2 = 02 + 2at
⇒ at = (0.4)2 × = 0.1 m/s2

3. (b) We know that F × v = Power
where c = constant
4. (a) When ball collides with the ground it loses its 50%
of energy
∴ ⇒
or
or,
or, 4gh =
∴ v0 = 20ms–1
5. (c) Work done in stretching the rubber-band by a distance dx is
dW = F dx = (ax + bx2)dx
Integrating both sides,
6. (b) We know that ∆U = – W for conservative forces

∆U = or ∆U =
U(x) – U(0) =
Given U(0) = 0
U(x) =
This is the equation of a parabola, which is symmetric to U-axis in

negative direction.
7. (d) As we know power P =
⇒ w = Pt = mv2
So, v =
Hence, acceleration
Therefore, force on the particle at time ‘t’
= ma =
8. (a) (By condition of linear momentum)
...... (i)
Also
...... (ii)
From (i) and (ii), ⇒
9. (b) As we know work done in stretching spring
where k = spring constant

x = extension
Case (a) If extension (x) is same,
So, WP > WQ ( KP > KQ)
Case (b) If spring force (F) is same
So, WQ > WP
10. (c) Just before impact, energy
E = mgh = 10mg ... (1)
Just after impact
Hence, mgh1 = E1
(from given figure)
mgh1 = 0.75 mg (10)
h1 = 7.5m
11. (a) Given, h = 60m, g = 10 ms–2,
Rate of flow of water = 15 kg/s
∴ Power of the falling water
= 15 kgs–1 × 10 ms–2 × 60 m = 900 watt.
Loss in energy due to friction
∴ Power generated by the turbine

= ( 9000 – 900) watt = 8100 watt = 8.1 kW
12. (c)
Total time taken by the body in coming to rest
13. (d) When C strikes A

( = velocity of A)
............. (i)
(When A and B Block attains K.E.)

......... (ii)
From (i) and (ii),
= =
14. (a) By conservation of energy

mg (3h) = mg (2h) + (v = velocity at B)
From free body diagram of block at B
; N = mg
15. (d) Given force

According to Newton’s second law of motion,
(m = 1 kg)
⇒ =
⇒
Power P =
= (2t3 + 3t5)W
16. (a) According to conservation of linear momentum,
MbVb = MblVbl + MbVb1....(i)
where vb is velocity of bullet before collision velocity of bullet after
collision and vbl is the velocity of block.
K.E. of block = P.E. of block
Mbl gh (h = 0.2m)
Solving we get Vbl = 2ms–1
Now from eq (i)
20 × 10–3 × 600 = 4 × 2 + 20 × 10–3
Solving we get = 200 m/s
17. (d)
From free body diagram of the body
F – mg sin θ = ma
F = m (g sin θ + a) = m ....... (1)
Displacement of the body till its velocity reaches v

v2 = 0 + 2as ⇒ s =
Now, work done = F s cos 0° =
=
18. (b) Constant power of car P0 = F.v = ma.v
Integrating
P0 , m and 2 are constant

∴
19. (a) Gravitational potential energy of ball gets converted into elastic
potential energy of the spring.
mg(h + d) =
Net work done = mg(h + d) =0
20. (b) Wmg = ∆K ⇒ – mg l = ½ mv2 – ½ mu2

or mv2 = m(u2 – 2 g l) or
21. (400)Amount of water flowing per second from the pipe
= =
Power = K.E. of water flowing per second

=
= = 400 W
22. (5.5) Let the block compress the spring by x before stopping.
Kinetic energy of the block = (P.E of compressed spring) + work done
against friction.
10,000 x2 + 30x – 32 = 0
= 0.055m = 5.5cm.
23. (1.25) v2 = u2 + 2gh =
K.E. at the ground
= J
P.E. = mgh = J
Change in energy = =
24. (3) Let initial velocity of the bullet be v.

By linear momentum conservation
(v1 = combined velocity)
.......... (1)
retardation = µg
25. (2.121) Velocity is maximum when K.E. is maximum

For minimum. P.E.,
K.E.(max.) + P.E.(min.) = 2 (Given)

1. (b) I = 1.2 kg m2, Er = 1500 J,
α = 25 rad/sec2, ω1 = 0, t = ?
As Er
From
50 = 0 + 25 t, ∴ t = 2 seconds
2. (a) F = 20t – 5t2
∴
⇒ (as ω = 0 at t = 0, 6s)
⇒ θ = 36 rad
⇒
3. (b) Since no external torque act on gymnast, so angular momentum
(L=I ) is conserved. After pulling her arms & legs, the angular
velocity increases but moment of inertia of gymnast, decreases in,
such a way that angular momentum remains constant.
4. (b) The M.I. about the axis of rotation is not constant as the
perpendicular distance of the bead with the axis of rotation
increases.
Also since no external torque is acting.
∴ τext = L = constant Iω = constant
Since, I increases, ω decreases.
5. (b) ....... (1)
....... (2)
α1 = α ....... (3)
Acceleration of point b = acceleration of point a

rα1 = acm – rα ....... (4)
Hence, 2rα = acm
6. (b) Velocity of the tennis ball on the surface of the earth or ground
( where k = radius of gyration of spherical shell =
Horizontal range AB =
Solving we get AB = 2.08 m

7. (d) Initially centre of mass is at the centre. When sand is poured it will
fall and again after a limit, centre of mass will rise.
8. (a) Here
Now,
Moment of inertia of the cube about the given axis,
9. (d) Minimum velocity for a body rolling without slipping
For solid sphere,
10. (c)
From conservation of angular momentum about any fix point on the

surface,
mr2ω0 = 2mr2ω
⇒ ⇒
11. (a) When n = 0, x = k where k is a constant. This means that the

linear mass density is constant. In this case the centre of mass will
be at the middle of the rod i.e., at L/2. Therefore (c) is ruled out
n is positive and as its value increases, the rate of increase of
linear mass density with increase in x increases. This shows that
the centre of mass will shift towards that end of the rod where n =
L as the value of n increases. Therefore graph (b) is ruled out.
The linear mass density
With increase in the value of n, the centre of mass shift towards the end
x = L such that first the shifting is at a higher rate with increase in
the value of n and then the rate decreases with the value of n.
These characteristics are represented by graph (a).
12. (b) Applying angular momentum conservation
mV0R0 = (m) (V1)
∴ v1 = 2V0
Therefore, new KE = m (2V0)2 =
13. (b)
14. (c) Kinetic energy (rotational) KR =
Kinetic energy (translational) KT = (v = Rω)
M.I.(initial) Iring = MR2; ωinitial = ω

M.I.(new) I′(system) =
ω′(system)=
Solving we get loss in K.E. =
15. (c) After collision velocity of COM of A becomes zero and that of B
becomes equal to initial velocity of COM of A. But angular
velocity of A remains unchanged as the two spheres are smooth.
16. (c) Velocity of
17. (b) Couple produces purely rotational motion.

18. (c) = Loss of potential energy
19. (c) If rotation axis is passing through its middle point & is ⊥ to its
plane, then moment of inertia about YY’ is
where M = volume × density = (L×A)×ρ
so
so rotational
20. (c) For toppling = F1 × h
For sliding
µMg = F2
For sliding to occur first
F1 > F2
or or
21. (24) For no angular acceleration τnet = 0

⇒ F1 × 5 = F2 × 30 (given F2 = 4N)
22. (0.75)
Moment of inertia of a ring about a given axis isI = MR2

Mass of the remaining portion of the ring
Moment of inertia of the remaining portion of the ring about a given axis
is
Given I′ = kMR2
∴ k = 3/4 = 0.75
23. (7.1)If a body rolls on a horizontal surface, it possesses both
translational and rotational kinetic energies. The net kinetic energy
is given by
where K is the radius of gyration.

So from law of conservation of energy,
where h is the height attained by the sphere.
i.e.,
i.e.,
or
24. (2) Angular momentum of M2 about O is
L2 = M2vR clockwise
Angular momentum of M1 about O is
L1 = M1vR clockwise
Ldisc = Iω clockwise
∴ Ltotal = L1 + L2 + Ldisc
= M2vR + M1vR + MR2ω
Now, v = Rω as rope does not slip
Therefore k = 2
25. (4)
Moment of inertia about z-axis, Iz = mr2

(about centre of mass)
Applying parallel axes theorem,
Iz = Icm + mk2
Icm = Iz – m =
i.e., k = 4
1. (a) When closer to the sun, velocity of planet will be greater. So time
taken in covering a given area will be less.
2. (b) Acceleration due to gravity,
g ∝ r (if r < RE) and
(if r > RE)
3. (a)
Hence, or
or, r = (gR2 / ω2)1/3

4. (c) The gravitational field due to the ring at a distance is given by
Attractive force =
5. (d)
6. (a) The force of attraction between sphere and shaded position
7. (d) also
8. (b) We choose reference point, infinity, where total energy of the

system is zero.
So, initial energy of the system = 0
Final energy =
From conservation of energy,

Initial energy = Final energy
or ...(1)
By conservation of linear momentum

or
Putting value of v2 in equation (1), we get
Similarly
9. (c) Let mass of smaller sphere (which has to be removed) is m
Mass of the left over part of the sphere

Therefore gravitational field due to the left over part of the sphere
10. (a) The gravitational potential at the centre of uniform spherical shell
is equal to the gravitational potential at the surface of shell i.e.,
, where a is radius of spherical shell
Now, if the shell shrinks then its radius decrease then density increases,
but mass is constant. so from above expression if a decreases, then
V increases.
11. (d) Both decreases but variation are different.
12. (c) Net force towards centre of earth =
Normal force
Thus pressing force
constant and independent of x.
Tangential force, F = ma = mg′ cos θ

Curve is parabolic and at . Hence (c).
13. (d) Variation of g with altitude is,
variation of g with depth is,
Equating gh and gd, we get d = 2h
14. (b)
The K.E. acquired by the body at the surface
15. (a) The total momentum will be zero and hence velocity will be zero
just after collisiion. The pull of earth will make it fall down.
16. (b) or
Kinetic energy =
In case of satellites P.E = – 2 K.E

and T.E = P. E + K. E
Total energy =
17. (b) Loss in potential energy = Gain in kinetic energy
18. (d) Angular momentum, L = Iω; moment of inertia of sphere along the
axis passing through centre of mass, I = and ω = .
Putting these values,
19. (b)
R decreasing g increase hence, curve b represents correct variation.

20. (b) The Gravitational field due to a thin spherical shell of radius R at
distance r.
(If r > R)
For r = R i.e. on the surface of the shell
For r < R i.e., inside the shell

F=0
21. (2) Acceleration due to gravity on earth’s surface
This implies that as radius decreases, the acceleration due to gravity

increases.
But
(‘–’ sign is due to shrinking of earth)
22. (29) Time period does not depend upon the mass of satellite
23. (0.111) The gravitational force due to the whole sphere at A point is
, where m0 is the assumed rest mass at point A.
In the second case, when we made a cavity of radius (R/2), then

gravitational force at point A is
∴ F2/F1= 1/9
24. (1.5)
25. (2.286)
=
Total energy = K.E. + P.E. =
Let the height above the surface of earth be h, then

P.E. =
so x = = 2.286
1. (a) , where W = load, l = length of beam and I is
geometrical moment of inertia for rectangular beam,

where b = breadth and d = depth
For square beam b = d

∴
For a beam of circular cross-section,
∴ (for sq. cross section)
and
(for circular cross-section)
Now
( i.e., they have same cross-sectional area)
2. (a) Energy / volume = = 3600 J m–3
[Strain = 0.06 × 10–2]

3. (b) Using Hooke’s law, F = kx we can write
4=k(a – l0) … (i)
and 5=k(b – l0) … (ii)
If l be the length under tension 9N, then
9=k(l – l0) … (iii)
After solving above equations, we get
l=(5b – 4a).
4. (c)
For a beam, the depression at the centre is given by,
[f, L, b, d are constants for a particular beam]

i.e.
5. (a) Given: F = 100 kN = 105 N

Y = 2 × 1011 Nm–2
l0 = 1.0 m
radius r = 10 mm = 10– 2 m
From formula, Y =
Therefore % strain = = 0.16%
6. (b)
7. (c) The given graph does not obey Hooke’s law. and there is no well
defined plastic region. So the graph represents elastomers.
8. (a)
Initial volume = Final volume

∴
9. (c) According to questions,
As,
10. (b) As Y =
But V = Al so A =
Therefore ∆l =
Hence graph of ∆l versus l2 will give a straight line.

11. (d) W1 =
and W2 =
∴ W=
12. (c) Poisson’s ratio,
For material like copper, σ = 0.33

And, Y = 3k (1 – 2 σ)
Also,
Y = 2n (1+ σ)
Hence, n < Y < k
13. (b) Bulk modulus ....(1)
and or ...(2)
From eqs. (1) and (2), or
14. (a)
15. (c) Using the usual expression for the Young’s modulus, the force
constant for the wire can be written as k = where the
symbols have their usual meanings. Now the two wires together
will have an effective force constant . Substituting the
corresponding lengths and the Young’s moduli we get the answer.

16. (b) [∆p = constant]
17. (a) From the graph, it is clear that for the same value of load,
elongation is maximum for wire OA. Hence OA is the thinnest wire
among the four wires.
18. (c) We know that Young’s modulus
Since Y, F are same for both the wires, we have,
or, =
or,
So, l1 : l2 = 1 : 8
19. (c)
20. (d) At extension l1, the stored energy =
At extension l2, the stored energy =
Work done in increasing its extension from l1 to l2
21. (4) Young’s modulus of elasticity is

So,
∆L2 = 4 × ∆L1 = 4 × 1 = 4 cm
22. (3.3 × 104)
Shearing strain is created along the side surface of the punched disk.
Note that the forces exerted on the disk are exerted along the
circumference of the disk, and the total force exerted on its center only.
Let us assume that the shearing stress along the side surface of the disk is
uniform, then
23. (4)
24. (2.45)
Work done =
25. (2) Ratio of radii r1:r2 = 1:2
Ratio of area, A1:A2 =
A1 : A2 = 1 : 4
Now, Stress1 : Stress2 = 4 : 1
So, Strain1 : Strain2 = 4 : 1
∴ =
∴ l2 = 2 mm
Increase in length of B is 2 mm.
1. (a) Inflow rate of volume of the liquid = Outflow rate of volume of the
liquid
πR2V = nπr2(v) ⇒ v =
2. (a) When the bubble gets detached,

Buoyant force = force due to surface tension
Force due to excess pressure = upthrust

Access pressure in air bubble =
⇒ ⇒
3. (d) From the figure it is clear that liquid 1 floats on liquid 2. The
lighter liquid floats over heavier liquid. Therefore we can conclude
that ρ1 < ρ2
Also ρ3 < ρ2 otherwise the ball would have sink to the bottom of the jar.
Also ρ3 > ρ1 otherwise the ball would have floated in liquid 1. From the
above discussion we conclude that
ρ1 < ρ3 < ρ2.
4. (c) Upthrust = weight of 40 cm3 of water
= 40 g = down thrust on water
5. (d) T1 + T cos (π – θ) = T2
∴ cos (π – θ) =
6. (a) The condition for terminal speed (vt) is

Weight = Buoyant force + Viscous force
7. (a) As A1v1 = A2v2 (Principle of continuity)

or, (Efflux velocity = )
∴ or
8. (b) Pressure inside tube =

∴ (since r2 > r1)
Hence pressure on side 1 will be greater than side 2. So air from end 1
flows towards end 2
9. (c) Velocity of ball when it strikes the water surface
...(i)
Terminal velocity of ball inside the water
...(ii)
Equation (i) and (ii) we get
10. (a) Fluid resistance is given by R =
When two capillary tubes of same size are joined in parallel, then
equivalent fluid resistance is
= =
Rate of flow = = X
11. (c) Vertical distance covered by water before striking ground = (H –

h). Time taken is, : Horizontal velocity of water
coming out of hole at P,
∴ Horizontal range =
=
12. (a) Because film tries to cover minimum surface area.
13. (c) Pressure at interface A must be same from both the sides to be in
equilibrium.
∴ (R cos α + R sin α)d2g = (R cos α – R sin α)d1g
14. (c) Angle of contact θ
when water is on a waxy or oily surface

TSA < TSL cos θ is negative i.e., 90° < θ < 180°
i.e., angle of contact θ increases
And for θ > 90º liquid level in capillary tube fall. i.e., h decreases
15. (c) Sum of volumes of 2 smaller drops
= Volume of the bigger drop
Surface energy = T.4πR2

= T4π22/3r2 = T.28/3 πr2
16. (a) When a body falls through a viscous liquid, its velocity increases
due to gravity but after some time its velocity becomes uniform
because of viscous force becoming equal to the gravitational force.
Viscous force itself is a variable force which increases as velocity
increases, so curve (a) represents the correct alternative.
17. (c)
New mass m2 =
18. (d) The excess pressure inside a bubble of soap is given by . It
means excess pressure inside the bubbles A and C is more than

inside B. So, air will go towards B from A and C. So, A and C will
start collapsing with the increasing volume of B.
19. (c)
20. (a)
21. (8) Inside pressure must be greater than outside pressure in bubble.
This excess pressure is provided by charge on bubble.
22. (0.1) Terminal velocity,
23. (10.67) Let Vi be the volume of the iceberg inside sea water and V is
the total volume of iceberg.
Total weight of iceberg
= weight of water displaced by iceberg.
Thus the fraction of total volume of iceberg above the sea level
24. (650) Volume of ball =
Downthrust on water = 50 g.
Therefore reading is 650 g.
25. (0.025) At equilibrium, weight of the given block is balanced by force
due to surface tension, i.e.,
2L. S = W
or
1. (c) In parallel combination, the equivalent thermal conductivity is given
by
For two rods of equal area,

(if A1 = A2 = A)
2. (b) Temperature of B will be higher because, due to expansion centre of

mass B will come down same heat is supplied but in B, Potential
energy is decreased therefore internal energy gain will be more.
3. (c) Since specific heat = 0.6 kcal/g × °C = 0.6 cal/g × °C
From graph it is clear that in a minute, the temperature is raised from 0°C
to 50°C
⇒ Heat required for a minute = 50 × 0.6 × 50 = 1500 cal.
Also from graph, Boiling point of wax is 200°C.
4. (d)
5. (a) V + ∆V = (L + ∆L)3 = (L + αL∆T)3

= L3 + (1 + 3α∆T + 3α2∆T2 +α3∆T3)
⇒ α2 and α3 terms are neglected.
∴ V (1 + γ∆T) = V (1 + 3α∆T)
1 + γ∆T = 1 + 3α∆T
∴ γ = 3α
6. (d) Radius of small sphere = r
Thickness of small sphere = t
Radius of bigger sphere = 2r
Thickness of bigger sphere = t/4
Mass of ice melted = (volume of sphere) × (density of ice)
Let K1 and K2 be the thermal conductivities of larger and smaller sphere.
For bigger sphere,
For smaller sphere,
7. (d) Let T be the temperature of the interface. As the two sections are
in series, the rate of flow of heat in them will be equal.
where A is the area of cross-section.

or,
or,
or,
8. (a) The heat flow rate is given by
where θ1 is the temperature of hot end and θ is temperature at a distance

x from hot end.
The above equation can be graphically represented by option (a).
9. (d)
t′ = 4 × t
3/t′ = 48 s
10. (a) Suppose, height of liquid in each arm before rising the temperature
is l.
With temperature rise height of liquid in each arm increases i.e. l1 > l
and l2 > l
Also
11. (c) The lengths of each rod increases by the same amount
∴
12. (a) Moment of inertia of a rod,
Differentiating w.r.t. to ∆L, we get

∴
As we know, ∆L = Lα∆t or
Substituting the value , we get
13. (b) According to Wien’s law and from the figure (λm)1 < (λm)3
< (λm)2 therefore T1 > T3 > T2.

14. (a) According to Newton’s law of cooling if temperature difference
between body & surrounding is large, then rate of cooling is also
fast hence curve A shows correct behaviour.
15. (d)
Consider a shell of thickness (dr) and of radiius (r) and let the
temperature of inner and outer surfaces of this shell be T and (T –
dT) respectively.
= rate of flow of heat through it
= =
To measure the radial rate of heat flow, integration technique is used,

since the area of the surface through which heat will flow is not
constant.
Then,
or
16. (b) The wall of two layers A and B are connected in series.
Then, heat flowing per second across
both wall layers are same i.e
⇒ = (as KA = 3KB)
⇒ = ...................(i)
Also + = 20° C ...................(ii)
From (i) & (ii)
+3 = 20°C ⇒ 4 = 20°C
⇒ = 5°C
17. (a) where ∆l=(l’–l) = lαt so F = EAαt

18. (c)
The given arrangement of rods can be redrawn as follows
It is given that H1 = H2
19. (a) From Wein’s displacement law

λmT = constant
⇒ λm T–1
20. (b) When hot water temperature (T) and surrounding temparature (T0)
readings are noted, and log(T – T0) is plotted versus time, we get a
straight line having a negative slope; as a proof of Newton’s law of
cooling.
21. (6) From Newtwon’s law of cooling
Area of cross-section A and thickness dx is the same.

Also
Thus in first case
(i)
In second case,
(ii)
Dividing equation (i) by equation (ii)
or t = 6 minutes.
22. (22.5) According to the principle of calorimetry.
Heat lost = Heat gained
mLv + msw∆θ = mwswDq
⇒ m × 540 + m × 1 × (100 – 80)
= 20 × 1 × (80 – 10)
⇒ m = 2.5 g
Therefore total mass of water at 80°C
= (20 + 2.5) g = 22.5 g
23. (595) The rate of heat loss per unit area due to radiation = ∈σ (T4–T04)
= 0.6 × 5.67 × 10–8 [(400)4–(300)4] = 595 Jm–2s–1.
24. (0.30) Given
Now
or 0.001 = α × 100
or α = 10–5 /°C
Further γ = 3α = 3 × 10–5/°C
25. (11.4) l = 10 cm = 0.1 m, d = 0.2 mm,

r = 0.1 mm = 1 × 10–4 m,
e = 0.2, T = 2000 K, σ = 5.67 × 10–8 W/m2 K4
According to stefan’s law of radiation, rate of emission of heat for an
ordinary body,
E = σAeT4 = σ(2 π r l) eT4
= 5.67 × 10–8 × 2 × 3.14 × 1 × 10–4 × 0.1 × 0.2 × (2000)4
= 11.4 W
∴ Power radiated by the filament = 11.4 W[A = 2πrl]
1. (a) U = a + bPV ......(1)
In adiabatic change,
dU = – dW = =
or ......(2)
where a is the constant of integration.

Comparing (1) and (2), we get
2. (d) For path ab :

By using
For path ca :
...(i)
...(ii)
Also
= 0.48 × 8.31 × (300 – 1000) = –2792.16J ...(iii)
On solving equations (i), (ii) and (iii)
3. (a) Here Q = 0 and W = 0. Therefore from first law of
thermodynamics ∆U = Q + W = 0
Internal energy of the system with partition = Internal energy of
the system without partition.
But
4. (a) As,
But
So,
or [As PV = u RT]
Therefore, T∝
5. (c) Coefficient of performance of a refrigerator,

β= (Where Q2 is heat removed)
Given: T2 = 4°C = 4 + 273 = 277 k

T1 = 30°C = 30 + 273 = 303 k
∴ β=
⇒ W = 236.5 joule
Power P = = = 236.5 watt.
6. (a) Change in internal energy do not depend upon the path followed
by the process. It only depends on initial and final states i.e., ∆U1
= ∆U2
7. (b)
We have,
For diatomic gas,
Now, efficiency =
= = =
8. (c) The equation for the line is
P=
[slope = , c = 3P0]
PV0 + P0V = 3P0V0 ...(i)

But PV = nRT
∴P= ...(ii)
From (i) & (ii) V0 + P0V = 3P0V0
∴ nRT V0 + P0V2 = 3P0V0V ...(iii)

For temperature to be maximum =0
Differentiating e.q. (iii) by ‘V’ we get

nRV0 + P0(2V) = 3P0V0
∴ nRV0 = 3P0V0 – 2 P0V
= =0
V= [From (i)]
∴ Tmax = [From (iii)]
9. (a) V1 = = 1000 cm3, P1 = 72 cm of Hg.

V2 = 900 cm3, P2 = ?
The process is isothermal
P1V1 = P2V2
72 × 1000 = P2 × 900
P2 = 80 cm of Hg
Stress = P2 – P1 = 80 – 72 = 8 cm of Hg.
10. (d)
and
We know that = constant
or ,
11. (a) Initial and final condition is same for all process
∆U1 = ∆U2 = ∆U3
from first law of thermodynamics
∆Q = ∆U + ∆W
Work done
∆W1 > ∆W2 > ∆W3 (Area of P.V. graph)
So ∆Q1 > ∆Q2 > ∆Q3
12. (b) According to first law of thermodynamics,
∆Q = heat absorbed by gas

∆W = work done by gas.
–20J = ∆U – 8J
∆U = –12J = UFinal – Uinitial
Uinitial = 30J.
UFinal = 30 – 12 = 18J
13. (a) As we know
Q1= 16.8 × 106J

14. (a) Initially
V1 = 5.6l, T1 = 273K, P1 = 1 atm,
(For monatomic gas)
The number of moles of gas is
Finally (after adiabatic compression)

V2 = 0.7l
For adiabatic compression
∴ =
We know that work done in adiabatic process is
15. (a) Initially the efficiency of the engine was which increases to
when the sink temperature reduces by 62º C.

, when T2 = sink temperature
T1 = source temperature
Secondly,
or, T1 = 62 × 6 = 372K =372– 273 = 99ºC
& T2 =
16. (b) In the first-case adiabatic change,

∆Q = 0, ∆W = –35 J
From 1st law of thermodynamics,
∆Q = ∆U + ∆W,
or 0 = ∆U – 35
∴ ∆U = 35 J
In the second case
∆Q = 12 cal = 12 × 4.2 J = 50.4 J
∆W = ∆Q – ∆U = 50.4 – 35 = 15.4 J
17. (d)
Q2 = T0(2S0 – S0) = T0S0 and

=
18. (c) Change in internal energy is equal to work done in adiabatic system
∆W = –∆U (Expansion in the system)
=
Here,
19. (b) Efficiency of Carnot engine,
where T1 and T2 be the temperature of source and sink respectively.
∴ (Q η = 40%)
...(i)
(Q T1 = 500 K)
Let T′1 be the temperature of the source for the same sink temperature
when efficiency η′ = 50%
= 2T2 = 2 × 300 K = 600 K (Using eq. (i))

20. (a) For an adiabatic change PVγ = constant
P1V1γ = P2V2γ
As molar specific heat of gas at constant volume
CP = CV + R = ;
∴ From eqn. (1)
= (3)5/3 × 105 = 6.19 × 105 N/m2
Work done =
= –3 × 102 × 3.19 = –957 joules

[–ve sign shows external work done on the gas]
21. (587.55) P3V5 = constant ⇒ PV5/3 = constant ⇒
⇒ monoatomic gas
For adiabatic process
∴
From first law of thermodynamics q = ∆U + w ∴ ∆U = – w

∴ ∆U = – 112.5 J
Now applying first law of thermodynamics for process 1 & 2 and
adding q1 + q2 = ∆U + Pi(Vf – Vi)
= – 112.5 + 105 (8 – 1) × 10– 3 = 587.55 J
22. (15.4) Efficiency of a process is defined as the ratio of work done to
energy supplied. Here,
∴ η
23. (4) For an adiabatic process, the temperature-volume relationship is

Here γ = 1.4 (for diatomic gas).
∴ a=4
24. (90) Efficiency of carnot engine
n=1– i.e.,
⇒ =1–
∴ w = Q2
i.e., 10 = Q2 10 = Q2
⇒ Q2 = 90J
So, 90 J heat is absorbed at lower temperature.
25. (256) T1 = 273 + 27 = 300K
T2 = 273 + 927 = 1200K
For adiabatic process,
P1–γ Tγ = constant
⇒ P11–γ
T1γ = P21–γ
T2γ
= =
= P1 (27) = 2 × 128 = 256 atm
1. (b) Here, P1 = 200kPa
T1 = 22°C = 295 K T2 = 42°C = 315K
V2
2. (d) Molar mass of the gas = 4g/mol

Speed of any quantity x
V= ⇒ 952 =
⇒ γ = 1.6 =
Also, γ =
So, CP = = 8JK–1mol–1
3. (a) Q
From ;
Hence .
4. (a)
As, TVγ–1 = K
So, τ ∝ Vγ + 1/2
Therefore, q =
5. (a) According to given Vander Waal’s equation
Work done,
6. (c) As no heat is lost,

Loss of kinetic energy = gain of internal energy of gas
⇒
7. (a) ...(i)
where Kav is the average kinetic energy of the proton.
T=
8. (a) Let T be the temperature of the mixture, then

U = U1 + U2
⇒
⇒ (2 + 4)T = 2T0 + 8T0 ( n1 = 2, n2 = 4)

∴ T=
9. (c) Given
.......(i)
.......(ii)
From Equation (i) & (ii),
Hence CP = 1.6 CV = 1.6 × 8.33 × 103

CP = 1.33 × 104
10. (c) or
i.e., versus m graph is straight line passing through origin with
slope R/M, i.e. the slope depends on molecular mass of the gas M
and is different for different gases.
11. (a) V = 22.4 litre = 22.4 × 10–3 m3, J = 4200 J/kcal
by ideal gas equation for one mole of a gas,
= 1.979 kcal/kmol K
12. (b)
and
(Cp)mix = 3R = 3 × 2 = 6 cal/mol.°C
∴ Amount of heat needed to raise the temperature from 0°C to

100°C
13. (c) P-V diagram of the gas is a straight line passing through origin.
Hence P ∝ V or PV–1 = constant
Molar heat capacity in the process PVx = constant is
Here (For diatomic gas)
14. (a) Number of moles of first gas =
Number of moles of second gas =
Number of moles of third gas =
If there is no loss of energy then

P1V1 + P2V2 + P3V3 = PV
=
⇒ Tmix =
15. (d) We know that P V = n R T = (m/M) R T

where M = Molecular weight.
Now ...(1)
where d = density of the gas

... (2)
where R = k NA, k is Boltzmann constant.
But = m = mass of each molecule so
16. (d)
Initially, PV =
Finally, (if x g gas leaks out)
Hence, ∴ x = 1 gram
17. (a)
or
Hence the gas is diatomic.
18. (c)
⇒
Possible values are,
∴ Gases are monatomic (like He) and diatomic (like N2)

19. (c) According to Dalton’s Law
P = P1 + P2.....................
here 1 litre of orygen at a pressure of 1atm, & 2 litre of nitrogen at a
pressure of 5 atm are introduced in a vessel of 1 litre capacity.
so
20. (b)
In equilibrium position, F = 0
∴ or,
∴ Potential energy at equilibrium position
21. (1.62) For mixture of gas,

and
22. (1.414) From graph, T2V = const. .....(1)

As we know that TVγ–1 = const
⇒ ....(2)
On comparing (1) and (2), we get

⇒ γ = 3/2
Also and
⇒ = 1.414
23. (965) Root-mean square-velocity is given by
i.e.,
=
= 965 m/s
24. (11) Internal energy of 2 moles of oxygen
Internal energy of 4 moles of Argon.
∴ Total internal energy
25. (1) For 1 molecule of a gas, vrms =
where m is the mass of one molecule
For N molecule of a gas, v1=
For 2N molecule of a gas v2 =

1. (c)
Force applied by the spring is F = – kx

⇒ F = – k (2Lθ)
(θ is the angular displacement from the equilibrium position). Further
Also,
2. (c) When the bob moves from maximum angular displacement θ to

mean position, then the loss of gravitational potential energy is
mgh
where h = l(1 – cos θ)
3. (a) K. E. =
At mean position, y=0

K. E. =
P. E. =
At , y = ; P. E. = =
Ratio =
=
4. (a) The two springs are in parallel.

Effective spring constant, K = K1 + K2
Now, frequency of oscillation is given by
or, f = ....(i)
When both k1 and k2 are made four times their original values, the new
frequency is given by
=2f; from eqn. (i)
5. (a) ;
Net force
t = 2t0
6. (d) K.E =
and P.E. =
At mean position d = 0. At extrement positions d = A

7. (b) For block A to move in S.H.M.
mg – N = mω2x
where x is the distance from mean position
For block to leave contact N = 0
8. (c) As we know, time period, T
When additional mass M is added then
or
or,
9. (d) Let the extension in the spring be x0 at equilibrium. If F0 be the

tension in the string then F0 = kx0. Further if T0 is the tension in the
thread then T0 = mg and 2T0 = kx0.
Let the mass m be displaced through a slight displacement x downwards.
Let the the new tension in the string and spring be T and F
respectively.
⇒ and F = 2T
⇒ Time period
10. (a) The displacement of a particle in S.H.M. is given by

y = a sin (ωt + φ)
velocity = = ωa cos (ωt + φ)
The velocity is maximum when the particle passes through the mean
position i.e.,
=ωa
The kinetic energy at this instant is given by
m = mω2 a2 = 8 × 10–3 joule
or × (0.1) ω2 × (0.1)2 = 8 × 10–3
Solving we get ω = ± 4
Substituting the values of a, ω and φ in the equation of S.H.M., we get
y = 0.1 sin (± 4t + π/4) metre.
11. (b)
Let BP = a, ∴ x = OM = a sin θ = a sin (2t)

Hence M executes SHM within the given time period and its acceleration
is opposite to x that means towards left.
12. (a) Applying linear momentum conservation,
0.5 × 3 = (1 + 0.5) v or v = 1 m/s
By conservation of energy,
After collision
⇒
A = 5 cm.
Time period of oscillation,
13. (b) Loss in PE of mass = gain in PE of the spring
mg (h + x) =
kx2 – 2mgx – 2mgh = 0
x=
or x=
x=A– =
14. (d) In simple harmonic motion, starting from rest,

At t = 0, x = A
x = Acosωt .....(i)
When t = τ, x = A – a
When t = 2τ, x = A –3a
From equation (i)
A – a = Acosωτ .....(ii)
A – 3a = A cos2ωτ .....(iii)
As cos2ωτ = 2 cos2 ωτ – 1 .....(iv)
From equation (ii), (iii) and (iv)
⇒ A2 – 3aA = A2 + 2a2 – 4Aa

⇒ 2a2 = aA
⇒ A = 2a
⇒
Now, A – a = A cosωτ
⇒
⇒ or
⇒ T = 6τ
15. (b) Distance covered by lift is given by
y = t2
∴ Acceleration of lift upwards
Now,
16. (c) We have, U + K = E
where, U = potential energy, K = Kinetic energy, E = Total energy.
Also, we know that, in S.H.M., when potential energy is maximum, K.E.
is zero and vice-versa.
∴ Umax + 0 = E ⇒ Umax = E
Further,
But by question,
Hence, total energy,

∴ Umax = K0 & E = K0.
17. (a) Here,
x = x0 cos (ωt – )
Velocity,
Acceleration,
...(1)
Acceleration, a = A cos (ωt + δ) ...(2)

Comparing the two equations, we get
A = x0ω2 and .
18. (b) Equation of displacement is given by
where A = =
Here damping effect is considered to be zero
19. (c)
Mg = P0A … (1)
Let piston is displaced by distance x
∴ Frequency with which piston executes SHM.

=
20. (c)
Figure shows the rod at an angle θ with respect to its equilibrium

position. Both the springs are stretched by length .
The restoring torque due to the springs

τ = –2 (Restoring force) × perpendicular distance
τ= ... (i)
If I is the moment of inertia of the rod about M then
… (ii)
From (i) & (ii) we get
Comparing it with the standard equation of rotational SHM we get

21. (27)Amplitude of a damped oscillator at any instant t is given by
A = A0e–bt/2m
where A0 is the original amplitude
From question,
When t = 2 s, A =
∴ = A0e–2b/2m
or, = e–b/m … (i)
When t = 6 s, A =
∴ = A0e–6b/2m
or, = e–3b/m = (e–b/m)3
or, = (Using eq. (i))
∴ n = 33 = 27
22. (0.729)
(where, A0 = maximum amplitude)

According to the questions, after 5 second,
… (i)
After 10 more second,

…(ii)
From eqns (i) and (ii)

A = 0.729 A0
∴ α = 0.729
23. (0.0732) As we know,
[As no. of oscillations = 15 so t = 15sec]
Taking log on both sides

= 0.0732
24. (0.166) K.E. of a body undergoing SHM is given by,
Given K.E. = 0.75 T.E.
= 0.1666 sec
25. (0.8) Under the action of first force, F1 =

Under the action of second force,
Under the action of resultant force,

1. (a) Equation of the harmonic progressive wave given by :
y = a sin 2π (bt – cx).
Here υ = b
take,
∴ Velocity of the wave =
= a 2πb cos 2π (bt – cx) = aω cos (ωt – kx)
Maximum particle velocity = aω= a2πb = 2π ab

given this is i.e. or
2. (b) Speed of pulse at a distance x

from bottom, .
While traveling from mid point
to the top, frequency remains

unchanged.
3. (a)
Now beat frequency = f1 – f2
=
=
=2
4. (a) Here, original frequency of sound, f0 = 100 Hz

Speed of source Vs = 19.4 cos 60° = 9.7
From Doppler’s formula
f = f0
f = 100
f = 100
f = 100 = 103Hz
Apparent frequency f = 103 Hz

5. (a) For fundamental mode,
f=
Taking logarithm on both sides, we get

log f =
or log f = log
Differentiating both sides, we get

(as and µ are constants)
Here df = 6
f = 600 Hz
= 0.02
6. (b) Frequency received by listener from the rear source,
Frequency received by listener from the front source,
No. of beats = n’’ – n’

= =
7. (c) Given : Wavelength (λ) = 5000 Å

velocity of star (v) = 1.5 × 106 m/s.
We know that wavelength of the approaching star (λ’) =
or,
or, . Therefore,
[where ∆λ = Change in the wavelength]
8. (a) In air : T = mg = ρVg
∴ f= ... (i)
In water : T = mg – upthrust
= Vρg –
∴ f‘= =
= 300 Hz
9. (a) Given wave equation is y(x,t)

=
=
=
It is a function of type y = f (x + vt)

⇒ Speed of wave =
10. (b) Given

vt = v
fB = 2150 Hz
Reflected wave frequency received by A,
Applying doppler’s effect of sound,
here,
vt = 55.8372 m/s
Now, for the reflected wave,
11. (c)
The wave which reaches wall f1 is reflected.
The reflected frequency is f1 as the wall is at rest.
12. (d)
But
velocity, = 25 × 0.5 m/s = 12.5 m/s
Velocity on a string is given by
= (12.5)2 × 0.04 = 6.25 N
13. (b) Here, T = 0.05 sec, v = 300 ms–1.

Now
or, λ = 15 m
Phase of the point at 10 m from the source
=
Phase of the point at 15 m from the source
∴ The phase difference between the points

=
14. (a) Frequency of Ist harmonic of AB =
Frequency of 2nd harmonic of CD =
Given that the two frequencies are equal.
∴ = TCD
TAB = 4TCD ... (i)

For rotational equilibrium of massless rod, taking torque about point O.
TAB × x = TCD (L – x) ... (ii)
For translational equilibrium,
TAB + TCD = mg ... (iii)
On solving, (i) and (iii), we get
TCD = ∴ TAB =
Substituting these values in (ii), we get

x=
15. (a) We have, ;
L1 – L2 = 10 log
or, or,
or, or,
or, or,
⇒ Intensity decreases by a factor 100.

16. (b) From figure, tension T1 = m2g
T2 = (m1 + m2)g Rigid support
As we know
Velocity ∝ So,
λ∝
17. (c) Length of pipe = 85 cm = 0.85m

Frequency of oscillations of air column in closed organ pipe is given by,
⇒ 2n – 1 < 12.5 ≈ 6
18. (b) Let the string vibrates in p loops, wavelength of the pth mode of
vibration is given by
Given,
or y = 2
Comparing it with standard equation, we get
⇒ p = 16.
19. (b) n′ = .......(1)
n′′ = .......(2)
From (1) and (2), .......(3)
According to question,
vs = ? v = 330 m/s .........(4)

From eq. (3) and (4)
9vs = 330
∴ vs = 36.6 m/s
20. (d) Load supported by sonometer wire = 4 kg
Tension in sonometer wire = 4 g
If µ = mass per unit length
then frequency
When length is doubled, i.e., l′ = 2l

Let new load = L
As,
⇒ ⇒ L = 16 kg
21. (30)
Let after 5 sec engine at point C
5=
∴ BC = 750 m
Distance travelled by engine in 5 sec
= 900 m – 750 m = 150 m
Therefore velocity of engine
22. (178.2) Fundamental frequency,
Also,
....(i)
l = 1.5 m, = 0.01,
ρ = 7.7 × 103 kg/m3 (given)

γ = 2.2 × 1011 N/m2 (given)
Putting the value of and γ in eqn. (i) we get,
or f ≈ 178.2 Hz
23. (3.6 × 10–4) y = 60 cos (180t – 6x) ....(1)

ω = 180, k = 6 ⇒
Differentiating (1) w.r.t. t,
24. (120) Fundamental frequency of closed organ pipe
Vc =
Fundamental frequency of open organ pipe
V0 =
Second overtone frequency of open organ pipe =
From question,
⇒ l0 = 6lc = 6 × 20 = 120 cm
25. (7) The frequency of vibration of a string is given by,
where m is mass per unit length.
f1 =
f2 – f1 =
= 1.414 × 100
= 141.4
∴ f2 – f1=
1. (a) Surface charge density (σ) =
So
and
2. (d) Since electric field decreases inside water, therefore flux

also decreases.
3. (c) When a dipole is placed in a uniform electric field, two equal and
opposite forces act on it. Therefore, a torque acts which rotates the
dipole.
4. (a) For the distances close to the charge at x = 0 the field is very high
and is in positive direction of x-axis. As we move towards the
other charge the net electric field becomes zero at x = a thereafter
the influence of charge at x = 2a dominates and net field increases
in negative direction of x-axis and grows unboundedly as we come
closer and closer to the charge at x = 2a.
5. (b) From figure, , where
or
or
or
6. (b) Let us consider a spherical shell of radius x and thickness dx.
Charge on this shell

dq = ρ.4πx2dx =
∴ Total charge in the spherical region from centre to r (r < R) is

=
∴ Electric field at r, E =
7. (a) The flux is zero according to Gauss’ Law because it is a open

surface which enclosed a charge q.
8. (b)
Electric field at C due to electric dipole
= along OC
Electric field at C due to induced charge must be equal and opposite to

electric field due to dipole as net field at C is zero.
9. (a) λ = linear charge density;
Charge on elementary portion dx = λ dx.
Electric field at
Horizontal electric field, i.e., perpendicular to AO, will be cancelled.

Hence, net electric field = addition of all electrical fields in direction of
AO
=
Also, dθ = or dx = adθ
E=
= =
10. (d) Since ,
where q is the total charge.

As shown in the figure, flux associated with the curved surface B is φ =
φB
Let us assume flux linked with the plane surfaces A and C be
φA = φC = φ’
Therefore,
11. (d)
Apparently, and .
12. (a) Since lines of force starts from A and ends at B, so A is +ve and B is
–ve. Lines of forces are more crowded near A, so A > B.
13. (c)
When the plates are charged, the net acceleration is,
∴ T
14. (b) Force on charge q1 due to q2 is
Force on charge q1 due to q3 is
The X - component of the force (Fx) on

15. (c) Net downward force on the drop =
For equilibrium, electric force must be upwards i.e. charge on the drop is
positive.
i.e.
16. (c) inside the charged sphere
…(i)
on the surface of the charged
sphere
i.e., …(ii)
on any point away from the uniformly charged sphere is given
… (iii)
Q R is the radius of the sphere, which is constant, thus is
maximum and constant at the surface of the sphere. But decreases
on moving away from the surface of the uniformally charged
sphere.
17. (b) It is possible to create or destroy charged particles but it is not
possible to create or destroy net charge. The charge of an isolated
system is conserved.
18. (c) Let us consider a differential element dl. charge on this element.
Electric field at O due to dq is

=
The component will be counter balanced by another element on left

portion. Hence resultant field at O is the resultant of the component dE
sinθ only.
∴
= =
The direction of E is towards negative y-axis.

∴
19. (b)
is electric field vector & is area vector.
Here, angle between is 90º.
So, ; Flux = 0
20. (c) Let n be the number of electrons missing.
21. (2) Let us consider a spherical shell of radius x and thickness dx. The
volume of this shell is 4πx2(dx). The charge enclosed in this
spherical shell is
For r = R :
The total charge enclosed in the sphere of radius R is
.
The electric field at r = R is
For r = R/2 :
The total charge enclosed in the sphere of radius R/2 is
The electric field at r = R/2 is
Given,
1+a=3 a=2
22. (20) Force acting on the charged particle due to electric field =
work done in moving through distance S,
∴ 10 J = (0.5 C) × E × 2 cos 60°

E = 10 × 2 = 20 NC–1 = 20 Vm–1
23. (8)
when C is touched with A, then charge on A & C each = 2q after that C

is touched with B, charge on
B=
Now, force
24. (8)
25. (71.43) Electric field intensity at the centre of the disc.
(given)
Electric field along the axis at any distance x from the centre of the disc
From question, x = R (radius of disc)
∴ % reduction in the value of electric field

1. (c) Charges reside only on the outer surface of a conductor with
cavity.
2. (a) and
and
or
or .
3. (c) Since, potential difference across C2 is greater than C1.
4. (b) In shell, q charge is uniformly distributed over its surface, it

behaves as a conductor.
V= potential at surface and inside
Because of this it behaves as an equipotential surface.
5. (c)
Potential at C = VC = 0
Potential at D = VD
Potential difference
VD – VC =
⇒ Work done = Q (VD – VC)
6. (a) Potential at B, VB is maximum

VB > VC > VA
As in the direction of electric field potential decreases.
7. (b) At. equipotential surface, the potential is same at any point i.e., VA
= VB as shown in figure. Hence no work is required to move unit
change from one point to another i.e.,
8. (b)
(i) Electrostatic field is zero inside a charged conductor or neutral
conductor.
(ii) Electrostatic field at the surface of a charged conductor must be normal
to the surface at every point.
(iii) There is no net charge at any point inside the conductor and any excess
charge must reside at the surface.
(iv) Electrostatic potential is constant throughout the volume of the
conductor and has the same value (as insde) on its surface.
(v) Electric field at the surface of a charged conductor is
9. (c) since effective capacitance between plates A and E is
zero.
10. (c)
11. (c) The value of dielectric constant is given as,
And,
=
=
Now it is given that capacitance of vacuum = C0.
Thus,
= (Let surface area of plates = s)
= ( in vacuum ε0 =1)
12. (d) Initial charge on capacitors C1 and C2 is given by,

q1 = C1V1 = 60 pC
q2 = C2V2 = 60pC
When S1 and S3 are closed, capacitors C1 and C2 get connected in series.
As a result charge on them should be same and so the charge do
not redistribute on them. So potential on them remains same.
13. (a)
At (1) using, potential
At (2) using potential
14. (c) All the charge given to inner sphere will pass on to the outer one.
So capacitance that of outer one is .
15. (c) Equipotential surfaces are normal to the electric field lines. The
following figure shows the equipotential surfaces along with
electric field lines for a system of two positive charges.
16. (d)
A → common area, Here A = A1

17. (c) Let plate A plate B be carrying charges Q1 and Q2 respectively.
When they are brought closer, they induce equal and opposite
charges on each other i.e. – Q2 on plate A and – Q1 on plate B.
Therefore, net charge on plate A = Q1 – Q2 and net charge on plate
B = – (Q1 – Q2), so the charge on the capacitor = Q1 – Q2.
∴ Potneital different between the plates
18. (c) The direction of electric field is always perpendicular to the

direction of electric field and equipotential surface maintained at
high electrostatic potential to other equipotential surface
maintained at low electrostatic potential.
The positively charged particle experiences the electrostatic force in the
direction of electric field i.e., from high electrostatic potential to
low electrostatic potential. Thus, the work done by the electric
field on the positive charge, so electrostatic potential energy of the
positive charge decreases because speed of charged particle moves
in the direction of field due to force .
19. (a) The equivalent circuit is shown in figure.
CAB = 3µF.
20. (c) If we increase the distance between the plates its capacity
decreases resulting in higher potential as we know Q = CV. Since
Q is constant (battery has been disconnected), on decreasing C, V
will increase.
21. (6)
Equivalent circuit,
Here,
Hence, no charge will flow through 20µF
C1 and C2 are in series, also C3 and C4 are in series.

Hence, C’ = 3 µF, C’’ = 3 µF
C’ and C’’ are in parallel.
22. (2) Charge on α particle, q = 2 e.
K.E. = work done = q × V = 2e × 106 V = 2 MeV.
23. (80) When S and 1 are connected
The 2µF capacitor gets charged. The potential difference across its
plates will be V.
The potential energy stored in 2 µF capacitor
When S and 2 are connected

The 8µF capacitor also gets charged. During this charging process
current flows in the wire and some amount of energy is dissipated
as heat. The energy loss is
∆U =
Here, C1 = 2µF, C2 8 µF, V1= V, V2 = 0
The percentage of the energy dissipated
24. (0.66) As volume remains constant, therefore,
New potential
25. (9) Potential difference across the branch de is 6 V. Net capacitance of

de branch is 2.1 µF
So, q = CV
q = 2.1 × 6 µC
q = 12.6 µ C
Potential across 3 µF capacitance is
Potential across 2 and 5 combination in parallel is 6 – 4.2 = 1.8 V

So, q’ = (1.8) (5) = 9 µC
1. (a)
I=
Potential difference across second cell

=
=0
R=
2. (a)
hence Req = 3/2;
3. (a) Let, we connect 24 cells in n rows of m cells, then if I is the

current in external circuit then
...(1)
For I to be maximum, (mr + nR) should be minimum.

It is minimum for ...(2)
So maximum current in external circuit is

...(3)
here R =3, r = 0.5 so equation (2) become
so n = 2, m = 12
4. (d)
Applying Kirchhoff ’s rule in loop abcfa

ε1 – (i1 + i2) R – i1 r1 = 0.
5. (b) Current, × 1.6 × 10–19 = 0.66A towards
right.
6. (d) From the curve it is clear that slopes at points A, B, C, D have
following order A > B > C > D.
And also resistance at any point equals to slope of the V-i curve.
So order of resistance at three points will be
RA > RB > RC > RD
7. (d)
Rnet between AB =
8. (d) . But m = πr2 ld
, ,
9. (a) Consider an element part of solid at a distance x from left end of
width dx.
Resistance of this elemental part is,
Current through cylinder is, I =
Potential drop across element is, dV = I dR =
10. (a) The simplified circuit is

We have to find I.
Let potential of point P be 0. Potential at other points are shown in the
figure apply Kirchoff’s current law at B where potential is assume
to be x volt.
⇒ x – 10 + 2x – 20 + x – 20 + 2x – 20 = 0
⇒ 6x = 70 ⇒ volt
11. (c) In series, Rs = nR
In parallel,
∴ Rs/Rp = n2 /1 = n2
12. (c) By principle of symmetry and superposition,
(Current in AB is due to division in current entering at A and current
is due to current returning from infinity of grid).

13. (c)
When wire is cut into 4 pieces and connected in parallel.
14. (b) (i) When key between the terminals 1 and 2 is plugged in,
P.D. across R = IR = k l1
R = k l1 as I = 1A
(ii) When key between terminals 1 and 3 is plugged in,
P.D. across (X + R) = I(X + R) = k l2
X + R = k l2
X = k (l2 – l1)
R = kl1 and X = k (l2 – l1)
15. (c) Resistance of bulb is constant
⇒
= 2 × 2.5 + 0 = 5%
16. (d) In steady state capacitor is fully charged and no current flows
through it.
⇒ Req =
Current through battery
Q = CV = 0.5 × 10–6 × 6 = 3.0 × 10–6 C = 3µC

17. (d) The total volume remains the same before and after stretching.
Percentage change in resistance
= 300%
18. (a)
19. (d) From the principle of potentiometer,

where
V = emf of battery, E = emf of standard cell.

L = length of potentiometer wire
20. (c) , now l2 = 2l1
A2 = π(r2)2 = π (2r1)2 = 4π r12 = 4A1

∴ Resistance is halved, but specific resistance remains the same.
21. (9) E = V + Ir
V = 12 – 3 = 9 volt
22. (0.117) Copper rod and iron rod are joined in series.
∴ R = RCu + RFe = (ρ1 + ρ2)
From ohm’s law V = RI

= (1.7 × 10–6 × 10–2 + 10–5 × 10–2) 0.01 × 10–4 volt
= 0.117 volt (Q I = 1A)
23. (5) If l1 = length from one end then
and l’1 = length from one end in second case
; So shift = 20 cm
24. (5 × 10–3 ) I = neAVd
Vd = = 5 × 10–3 m/sec
25. (87.5) Efficiency is given by
or 87.5 %
1. (d)
...(i)
When the current is reversed in I2,
B2 = – ...(ii)
Dividing (ii) by (i) we get
– (i1 + i2) = 5i2 – 5i1 ⇒ 6i2 = 4i1
2. (b) Magnetic field due to segment ‘1’
Magnetic field due to segment 2

∴ at centre
3. (d) Torque on the solenoid is given by

= MB sin θ
where θ is the angle between the magnetic field and the axis of solenoid.
M = niA
= niA B sin 30°
4. (c) Time period of cyclotron is

; ;
⇒ p = eBR = R = 2πmυR
K.E. = = 2π2mυ2R2
5. (a) Rg = 50Ω, Ig = 25 × 4 × 10–AΩ = 10–2 A

Range of V = 25 volts
V = Ig(Re + Rg)
6. (b) The wires A and C carry current in same direction, therefore they
attract each other. The force on C due to is A towards the wire A
and is given by.
FCA =
0.15
or FCA = 3 x 10-5 N (towards left).

Similarly, the wires B and C attract each other as they also carry the
currents in same direction. the force on C due to current in B is
towards right hand side. Therefore, the force on C due to B is given
by
FBC =
or FBC = 6 × 10–5 N (towards right)

Therefore, the net force on C is
F = (6 × 10–5 – 3 × 10–5)
= 3 × 10–5 N (towards right).
7. (d) Magnetic field at the centre of the current loop is
or,
Substituting the given values, we get
= 1.25 m
8. (a) The magnetic field at O due to current in DA is
(directed vertically upwards)
The magnetic field at O due to current in BC is

(directed vertically downwards)
The magnetic field due to current AB and CD at O is zero.

Therefore the net magnetic field is
(directed vertically upwards)
9. (c) To keep the main current in the circuit unchanged, the resistance of
the galvanometer should be equal to the net resistance.
10. (c) As electron move with constant velocity without deflection. Hence,
force due to magnetic field is equal and opposite to force due to
electric field.
qvB = qE ⇒ v =
11. (d) Current in a small element,

Magnetic field due to the element
The component dB cos θ, of the field is cancelled by another opposite

component.
Therefore,
12. (a) The direction of is along
∴ The magnetic force
is along OY.
13. (a) ;
In ∆ CBD,
14. (a) Let us consider a thickness dx of wire. Let it be at a distance x

from the centre O.
Number of turns per unit length =
∴ Number of turns in thickness dx = dx
Small amount of magnetic field is produced at O due to thickness dx of

the wire.
∴ dB =
On integrating, we get,
B=
B=
15. (c) The angular momentum L of the particle is given by

L = mr2ω where ω = 2πn.
∴ Frequency n = Further i = q × n =
Magnetic moment, M = iA =
∴M= So,
16. (c) Let us consider an elemental length dl subtending an angle dθ at the
centre of the circle. Let FB be the magnetic force acting on this
length. Then
FB = BI (dl) directed upwards as shown
= BI (Rdθ)
Let T be the tension in the wire acting along both ends of the elemental
length as shown. On resolving T, we find that the components.
cancel out and the components. add up to
balance FB.
At equilibrium
17. (a) In mass spectrometer, when ions are accelerated through potential V
..........(i)
As the magnetic field curves the path of the ions in a semicircular orbit
.......... (ii)
Substituting (ii) in (i)
or
Since V and B are constants,
18. (d) m = 1.67 × 10–27 kg; e = 1.60 × 10–19 C;

ν = 10 MHz = 107 Hz; R = 60 cm = 0.6 m
B= = = 0.656 Tesla
Emax = =
= 11.874 × 10–13 J = = 7.421 MeV
19. (a) Ι = 50 k; Ig = 20k, where k is the figure of merit of galvanometer;
S = Ig Rg(I – Ig); so
On solving we get Rg = 18 ohms.

20. (d) Let I be current and l be the length of the wire.
For Ist case : where
and n = 1
For IInd case : ⇒
21. (11)K.E. of electron = 10 eV

⇒
⇒ v2 = 3.52 × 1012 ⇒ v = 1.88 × 106 m

Also we know that for circular motion
22. (6) At a distance x consider small element of width dx.

Magnetic moment of the small element is
23. (9995) Resistance of Galvanometer,

G= G=
Here = Full scale deflection current
= = 15 mA
V = voltage to be measured = 150 volts

(such that each division reads 1 volt)
R=
24. (1) Here, current is uniformly distributed across the cross-section of

the wire, therefore, current enclosed in the amperean path formed
at a distance
, where I is total current
Magnetic field at P1 is
B1
⇒
Now, magnetic field at point P2,
B2 .
Required ratio =
= 1.
25. (9) Electric field at P is
Magnetic field P is
f = frequency of revolution
Electric energy density =
Magnetic energy density =

= = 9.1 × 109.
1. (c) Initial magnetic moment of each magnet = m × l.
As is clear from Fig., S1 and N2 neutralize each other.
Effective distance between,
N1 and S2 =
∴
2. (a) The time period of oscillation of a freely suspended magnet is given
by,
Thus,
Given, T = 4 sec, ,
So,
or,
or,
3. (b) τ = MB sin θ
τ = iAB sin 90º
Also, A = 1/2 (BC) (AD)

But
4. (a) M = 60 Am2
= 1.2 × 10–3 Nm, BH = 40 × 10–6 Wb/m2
1.2 × 10–3 = 60 × 40 × 10–6 sin θ
= sin 30°
θ = 30°
5. (b) Electro magnet should be amenable to magnetisation and
demagnetization
∴ retentivity and coercivity should be low.
6. (b) where
When the magnet is cut into three pieces the pole strength will remain
the same and
M.I. (I′) =
We have, Magnetic moment (M)
= Pole strength (m) × l
∴ New magnetic moment,
∴ .
7. (a) Given that : B1 = 1.2 × 10–2 T, orientation of dipole with the field B1,
θ1 = 15°
Hence, orientation of dipole with B2,
θ2 = 60° – 15° = 45° (figure)
As the dipole is in equilibrium, therefore, the torque on the dipole due to

the two fields must be equal and opposite. If M be the magnetic
dipole moment of the dipole, then
τ1 = τ2 or MB1 sin θ1 = MB2 sin θ2
or, B2 =
= = 4.4 × 10–3 Tesla
8. (a) Here,
At neutral point,
= 5 ab-amp cm.
9. (a) χd < χp < χf
For diamagnetic substance χd is small and negative (10–5)
For paramagnetic substances χp is small and positive (10–3 to 10–5)
For ferromagnetic substanes χf is very large (103 to 105)
10. (d) PQ6 corresponds to the lowest potential energy among all the
configurations shown.
11. (d) tan
V = 6 × 10–5 T
H=
∴ Btotal =
= 10 × 10–5 = 10–4T.
12. (b) Ferromagnetic substance has magnetic domains whereas
paramagnetic substances have magnetic dipoles which get attracted
to a magnetic field.
Diamagnetic substances do not have magnetic dipole but in the presence
of external magnetic field due to their orbital motion of electrons
these substances are repelled.
13. (c) Initially magnetic moment of system
and moment of inertia
I1 = I + I = 2I.
Finally when one of the magnet is removed then
M2 = M and I2 = I
So,
14. (b) Force on a charged particle is given by F = qvB. Here v = 0 and

also resultant B is zero.
∴ Force = 0
15. (b)
= ,
16. (d) δ1 = 40°, δ2 = 30°, δ = ?

17. (a) Iron is ferromagnetic.
18. (d) Work done, W = MB (cosθ1 – cosθ2)
Here θ1 = 0°, θ2 = 60°
∴ ...(i)
Torque, τ = MBsinθ = MBsin60°
(Using eq. (i))
19. (a) Given M = 8 × 1022 Am2

d = Re = 6.4 × 106m
Earth’s magnetic field, B =
20. (b) The time period of a rectangular magnet oscillating in earth’s
magnetic field is given by
where I = Moment of inertia of the rectangular magnet

= Magnetic moment
BH = Horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field
Case 1
where
Case 2
Magnet is cut into two identical pieces such that each piece has
half the original length. Then
where and
21. ( ) As the axes are perpendicular, mid point lies on axial line
of one magnet and on equatorial line of other magnet.
and
∴ Resultant field =
22. (1023) Given, B = 4 × 10–5 T

RE = 6.4 × 106 m
Dipole moment of the earth M = ?
B=
∴ M 1023 Am2
23. (4) Given, I = 9 × 10–5 kg m2, B = 16π2 × 10–5 T
T=
In a vibration magnetometer
Time period, T = or M =
Μ =
24. (2.56 × 10–4) Given : M1 = 1.20 Am2
Bnet = B1 + B2 + BH
Wb/m2
25. (3) Magnetic field in solenoid B = µ0n i
(Where n = number of turns per unit length)
⇒
⇒
⇒ i = 3A
1. (b)
2. (b) The self-inductance of a coil L = µ0n2Al where
µ0 = permeability of air,
n = number of turns per unit length,
A = Area of cross-section and
l = length of the solenoid
This depends on the geometry of the inductor such as cross-sectional
area, length and number of turns and not on the material, even if it
is made of a super conducting material. If the superconductor is
below the critical temperature, the current will continuously flow
and the inductance may not have the property of inductance any
more. ∴ L1 = L2; L3= 0.
3. (a) The induced emf will remain constant only in the case of
rectangular and square loops. In case of the circular and the
elliptical loops, the rate of change of area of the loops during their
passage out of the field is not constant, hence induced emf will not
remain constant for them.
4. (b) Induced e.m.f. in the ring opposes the motion of the magnet.
5. (a) When a north pole of a bar magnet moves towards the coil, the
induced current in the coil flows in a direction such that the coil
presents its north pole to the bar magnet as shown in figure (a).
Therefore, the induced current flows in the coil in the
anticlockwise direction. When a north pole of a bar magnet moves
away from the coil, the induced current in the coil flows in a
direction such that the coil presents its south pole to the bar magnet
as shown in figure (b).
Therefore induced current flows in the coil in the clockwise direction.

6. (d) Here, induced e.m.f.
7. (b) At t = 2s, B = 4T,
A = 20 × 30cm2
= 600 × 10–4 m2,
= – 100 × 10–4 m2/s
= – [4 × (– 100 × 10–4) + 600 × 10–4 × 2]

= – [– 0.04 + 0.120] = – 0.08 V
8. (d) φ = n BA cos θ = 10 B a2 cos ωt
9. (a) As the magnetic field increases, its flux also increases into the
page and so induced current in bigger loop will be anticlockwise.
i.e., from D to C in bigger loop and then from B to A in smaller
loop.
10. (c)
[Since effective resistance R of bridge is
so total resistance = 1 + 3 = 4Ω]

⇒ v = 2 cm s–1
11. (d) The magnetic field is increasing in the downward direction.
Therefore, according to Lenz’s law the current I1 will flow in the
direction ab and I2 in the direction dc.
12. (a)
emf induced per unit turn =
13. (d) Rate of decrease of area of the semicircular ring
Acoording to Faraday’s law of induction induced emf
The induced current in the ring must generate magneticfield in the

upward direction. Thus Q is at higher potential.
14. (c) The area swept by radius OC in one half circle is πr2/2. The flux
change in time T/2 is thus (πr2 B/2). The induced emf is then e =
πr2B/T = Bωr2/2
The induced current is then I = e/R = Bωr2 /2R

15. (c) = QR
16. (a) If we consider the cylindrical surface to be a ring of radius R, there

will be an induced emf due to changing field.
⇒
∴ Force on the electron
⇒ acceleration =
As the field is increasing being directed inside the paper, hence there
will be anticlockwise induced current (in order to oppose the
cause) in the ring (assumed). Hence there will be a force towards
left on the electrons.
17. (a)
18. (b)
[ ]
19. (b) The individual emf produced in the coil
∴ The current induced will be
But
20. (b)
.
(Q W2 & W1 are magnetic flux)

21. (1) Given :
Induced current,
At t = 1 s,
22. (190) The back e.m.f. in a motor is induced e.m.f., which is maximum,
when speed of rotation of the coil is maximum
23. (0.15) Induced emf = vBH l = 1.5 × 5 × 10–5 × 2
= 15 × 10–5
= 0.15 mV
24. (2) L = 2mH, i = t2e–t
E=
when E = 0,
–e–t t2 + 2te–t = 0
or, 2t e–t = e–t t2
⇒ t = 2 sec.
25. (2.4π × 10–4)
1. (a) The charging of inductance given by,
Taking log on both the sides,
t=
t = 0.1 sec.
2. (a) If voltage across resistor is 50V then this should be the resonance
condition.
At resonance,
Also, At ω = ω1
3. (d)
From the rating of the bulb, the resistance of the bulb can be calculated.
For the bulb to be operated at its rated value the rms current through it
should be 1A
Also,
4. (c) Growth in current in LR2 branch when switch is closed is given by
Hence, potential drop across L

=
= = 12e–5tV
5. (a) At angular frequency ω, the current in RC circuit is given by

imax = .......(i)
From equation (i) and (ii) we get
6. (a) I =
(When current is in growth in LR circuit)
= (1 – e–1)
7. (a) Energy stored in magnetic field = Li2
Energy stored in electric field =
Also q = q0 cos ωt and
On solving
8. (c) When the capacitor is completely charged, the total energy in the
LC circuit is with the capacitor and that energy is
When half energy is with the capacitor in the form of
electric field between the plates of the capacitor we get
where is the charge on one plate of
the capacitor
9. (a) L = 10 mHz = 10–2 Hz

f = 1MHz = 106 Hz
pF
10. (d) The average power in the circuit where cos φ = power factory
< P > = Vrms × Irms cos φ
φ = π/3 = phase difference =
Vrms =
Irms =
cos φ =
<P>= W
11. (a) Initially, when steady state is achieved,

i=
Let E is short circuited at t = 0. Then

At t = 0, i0 =
Let during decay of current at any time the current flowing is
12. (a) If ω = 50 × 2π then ωL = 20Ω

If ω′ = 100 × 2π then ω′L = 40Ω
Current flowing in the coil is
I = 4A.
13. (c) Impedance at resonant frequency is minimum in series LCR circuit.
So,
14. (a)
∴ Is = = 5 amp
15. (b) We know that,
or
or
or
or s
16. (d) At resonance, . The circuit behaves as if it contains R
only. So, phase difference = 0

At resonance, impedance is minimum Zmin = R and current is maximum,
given by
It is interesting to note that before resonance the current leads the

applied emf, at resonance it is in phase, and after resonance it lags
behind the emf. LCR series circuit is also called as acceptor circuit
and parallel LCR circuit is called rejector circuit.
17. (c)
when L is removed from the circuit
...(1)
when C is remove from the circuit
...(2)
net impedence
power factor cos φ =
18. (a) Here, C = 100 µF = 100 × 10–6 F, R = 40 Ω,

Vrms = 110 V, f = 60 Hz
Peak voltage,
Circuit impedance,
Z=
= = = 48 Ω
hence, maximum current in coil,
19. (c) Charge on he capacitor at any time t is given by q = CV (1– et/τ)

at t = 2τ
q = CV (1 – e–2)
20. (b) V = 200V; r = 10Ω
R′ = 10 + 100Ω = 110Ω
= 2Α
P = I2R = 4 × 100 = 400 W

21. (242) When capacitance is taken out, the circuit is LR.
Again , when inductor is taken out, the circuit is CR.

∴
Now,
= = 200 Ω
Power dissipated =
= =
= = 242 W
22. (2.5) Time constant for parallel combination

= 2RC
Time constant for series combination
In first case :
...(1)
In second case :
....(2)
From (1) and (2)
sec.
23. (3)
24. (500)Current is maximum when XL = XC
ωL =
= 500 rad/s.
25. (120)Since
Where
Ns = No. of turns across primary coil = 50
Np = No. of turns across secondary coil
= 1500
and =4
1. (b) Q The E.M. wave are transverse in nature i.e.,
= …(i)
where
and … (ii)
is ⊥ and is also ⊥ to
or In other words and
2. (d) The direction of propagation of electromagnetic wave is
perpendicular to both electric field E and magnetic field B, i.e., in
the direction of E × B by right thumb rule.
The diagram given below
So, electromagnetic wave is along the z-direction which is give the cross
product of E and B direction is perpendicular to E and B from
. i.e., (E × B) in z-direction.
3. (a) Direction of energy progration of EM-waves is given by
= or =
Clearly direction of magnetic field is along positive x-axis.
4. (b) EM waves carry momentum and hence can exert pressure on
surfaces. They also transfer energy to the surface so p ≠ 0 and E ≠
0.
5. (b) Here, k = , ω = 2πυ
∴ (Q c = υ λ)
where c is the speed of electromagnetic wave in vacuum. It is a

constant whose value is 3 × 106 ms–1
6. (c) =
or = ∴
7. (b) Comparing with the equation of wave.

Ey = E0 cos (ωt – kx)
ω = 2 πf = 2π × 106 ∴ f = 106 Hz
= k = π × 10–2 m–1, λ = 200 m
8. (c) Speed of EM waves in vacuum
9. (d) is electric energy density.
is magnetic energy density.
So, total energy =
10. (c) Gamma rays < X-rays < Ultra violet < Visible rays < Infrared rays
< Microwaves < Radio waves.
11. (d) To generate electromagnetic waves we need accelerating charge
particle.
12. (c) Pressure = I/c
13. (b) Audible waves are not electromagnetic wave.
14. (b) All components of electromagnetic spectrum travel in vacuum
with velocity 3 × 108 m/s.
15. (c) Electromagnetic waves are the combination of mutually
perpendicular electric and magnetic fields.
16. (a) Momentum of light falling on reflecting surface p =
As surface is perfectly reflecting so momentum reflect p1 = –
So, momentum transferred
= P – P1 = =
17. (d)
18. (a) . also and
These relation gives E0k = B0ω
19. (c) Speed of light of vacuum and in another medium
∴ .
20. (d) Wave is UV rays.

21. (100)
22. (5.8)
23. (3.1 × 10–8)
Velocity of light
24. (4.58 × 10–6)
Erms = 720
The average total energy density
= 8.85 × 10–12 × (720)2

= 4.58 × 10–6 J/m3
25. (2.68) Wavelength of monochromatic green light
= 5.5 × 10–5 cm
Intensity I =
= =
Now, half of this intensity (I) belongs to electric field and half of that to
magnetic field, therefore,
or
= = =
∴ E0 = 2.68 V/m
1. (a) From mirror formula
so,
⇒ m/s
2. (a) We have,
or
or
or
or .
3. (b) f0 = 100 cm, fe = 5 cm
When final image is formed at least distance of distinct vision (d), then
M= [Q D = 25 cm]
M=
4. (c) I1 is the image of object O formed by the lens.
; u1 = – 15, f1 = 10
Solving we get, v1 = 30 cm.

I1 acts as source for mirror
∴ u2 = – (45 – v1) = – 15 cm.
I2 is the image formed by the mirror
∴ v2 = –30cm
The height of I2 above principal axis of lens is
I2 acts as a source for lens, u3 = –(45 – v2) = –15 cm.

Hence, the lens forms an image I3 at a distance v3 = 30 cm to the left of
lens.
The height of I3 below the principal axis of lens
=
∴ Required distance =
5. (d) The focal length of the lens
Shift =
Now v’ =
Now the object be distance u′.
u′ = –7 ×16 × 5 = – 560 cm = – 5.6 m
6. (c)
Applying Snell’s law at Q

...(1)
Applying Snell’s Law at P

; from (1)
or
7. (b) From the fig.

Angle of deviation,
Here, e = i
and
For equilateral prism, A = 60°

∴
8. (a) For point A,
For point B, sin (90° – r) = gµawhere,

(90° – r) is critical angle.
∴
9. (b) u = –50 cm = –0.5 m

v = –30 cm = –0.3 m
10. (b) For the image of point P to be seen by the observer, it should be
formed at point Q.
In ∆QNS,
NS = QS = 2h
∴ ∠NQS = 45°
∴ r = 45°
At point M
...(i)
In ∆ PMB,
PM2 = 4h2 + h2 = 5h2
∴ ...(ii)
From (i) and (ii)
11. (a)
Given AQ = AR and ∠A = 60°

∴ ∠AQR = ∠ARQ = 60°
∴ r1 = r2 = 30°
Applying Snell’s law on face AB.
sin i1 = µ sin r1
⇒ sin i1 = √ 3 sin 30°
∴ i1 = 60°
Similarly, i2 = 60°
In a prism, deviation
δ = i1 + i2 – A = 60° + 60° – 60° = 60°
12. (a) The ray will come out from CD if it suffers total internal reflection
at surface AD, i.e., it strikes the surface AD at critical angle C ( the
limiting case).
Applying Snell’s law at P

n1 sin C = n2 or
Applying Snell’s law at Q

n2 sin α = n1 cos C
or,
13. (d) In the later case microscope will be focussed for O’. So, it is required to
be lifted by distance OO’.
OO’ = real depth of O – apparent depth of O.
14. (a) Here fo = 2 cm and fe = 3 cm.

Using lens formula for eye piece
ue = – 3 cm
But the distance between objective and eye piece is15 cm (given)
∴ Distance of image formed by the objective
= v = 15 – 3 = 12 cm.
Let u be the object distance from objective, then for objective lens
or
⇒ ,
15. (b) Since
⇒ Apparent depth = d/µ

So mark raised up = Real depth – Apparent depth
16. (a) Considering refraction at the curved surface,

u = – 20, µ2 = 1
µ1 = 3/2 , R = + 20
Applying
i.e., 10 cm below the curved surface or 10 cm above the actual position

of flower.
17. (b) Deviation = zero
So, δ = δ1 + δ2 = 0
⇒ (µ1 – 1)A1 + (µ2 – 1) A2 = 0
⇒ A2 (1.75 – 1) = – (1.5 – 1) 15°
⇒ A2 =
or A2 = – 10°.
Negative sign shows that the second prism is inverted with respect to the
first.
18. (a) Magnification
⇒ ⇒
⇒ β = 5°
19. (b) From lens formula
...(i)
When lens is immersed in liquid, then

⇒
...(ii)
Dividing eq. (i) by (ii), we get
or fl = – 4.25fa
Hence, focal length will increase and will change in sign.

20. (c) The image I ‘ for first refraction (i.e., when the ray comes out of
liquid) is at a depth of
Now, reflection will occur at concave mirror. For this I’ behaves as an

object.
u = – (15 + 25) = – 40 cm
and
Where is the real depth of the image.
Using mirror formula we get

, f = – 18.31 cm
21. (30) For 1st lens, u1 = – 30, f1 = + 10cm,
Formula of lens,
or, v1 = 15 cm at I1 behind the lens.

The images I1 serves as virtual object for concave lens. For second lens,
which is concave, u2 = (15 – 5) = 10 cm. I1 acts as object. f2 = – 10
cm.
The rays will emerge parallel to axis as the virtual object is at focus of
concave lens, as shown in the figure. Image of I1 will be at infinity.
These parallel rays are incident on the third lens viz the convex
lens, f3 = + 30 cm. These parallel rays will be brought to
convergence at the focus of the third lens.
∴ Image distance from third lens = f3 = 30 cm
22. (13.6)
sin C = .
Now r = h tan C
= = = 13.606 cm
23. (60)
24. (1.73) Given
i = 60°
A=δ=e
δ=i+e–A ⇒ δ=i ( e = A)
Here angle of deviation is min. ( i = e)
= 1.73
25. (1.67)
; =1.67
1. (d) Optical path difference
∆x = .
2. (b)
3. (a) For a circularly polarised light electric field remains constant with
time.
4. (b) Let nth fringe of 2500 Å coincide with (n – 2)th fringe of 3500Å.
∴ 3500 (n – 2) = 2500 × n
1000 n = 7000, n = 7
∴ 7th order fringe of 1st source will coincide with 5th order
fringe of 2nd source.
5. (d) Let P is a point infront of one slit at which intensity is to be
calculated. From figure,
Path difference = S2P – S1P
= =
∆x =
Place difference,
∆φ =
So, resultant intensity at the desired point ‘p’ is

I = I0cos2 = I0cos2
6. (b) =
and = .
As > , so shift will be along –ve y-axis.
7. (b) The width of the central maximum is given by
If then β decreases.
Also, intensity
where
I increases as d increases
The central maximum will become narrower and brighter.
8. (c) Here Angle of incidence, i = 57
tan 57° = 1.54
uglass = tan i
It means, Here Brewster’s law is followed and the reflected ray is
completely polarised.
Now, when reflected ray is analysed through a polaroid then intensity of
light is given by malus law.
i.e. I = I0 cos2θ
on rotating polaroid ‘θ’ changes. Due to which intensity first decreases
and then increases.
9. (c) Here
Q a1 = a2 = a
∴
Now, ∴
10. (c) For path difference λ, phase difference= 2π rad.

For path difference , phase difference = rad.
As K = 4I0 so intensity at given point where path difference is
K′ =
11. (c)
12. (c)
13. (b) For first minima at P
AP – BP = λ
AP – MP =
So phase difference, φ = = π radian
14. (c) In Fraunhoffer diffraction, for minimum intensity, ∆x
For first minimum, m = 1
∴ ∆x
15. (a) As and ,
∴ fringe width β will decrease

16. (c) Distance of nth maxima,
As
17. (a)
The intensity of light transmitted through third polaroid,
∴ intensity of light transmitted through the last polaroid

=
18. (a) Given geometrical spread = a

Diffraction spread
The sum
For b to be minimum
b min =
19. (d) Let any its components are
with
&
there cosθx, cosθy and cosθz one called direction cosines.

Hence
So, magnitude of
and
20. (a)
21. (500) Wavelength for which maximum obtained at the hole has the
maximum intensity on passing. So,
=
n = 1, λ = 1000 nm → Not in the given range

n = 2, λ = 500nm
22. (3) Angular width = (given)
∴ No. of fringes within 0.12° will be
∴ The number of bright spots will be three.

23. (450) For reflection at the air-soap solution interface, the phase difference
is
For reflection at the interface of soap solution to glass also there

will be a phase difference of
∴ The condition for max. intensity = 2µt = nλ
for n, nλ1 = (n – 1)λ2
n 420 nm = (n – 1) 630 nm
∴ .
∴
This is the maximum order where they coincide
24. (6) The nearest white spot will be at P, the central maxima.
25. (5) Order of the fringe can be counted on either side of the central
maximum. For example, no. 3 is first order bright fringe.
1. (a) For one photocathode
....(i)
For another photo cathode

....(ii)
Subtracting (ii) from (i) we get

–
2. (b) As λ decreases, y increases and hence the speed of photoelectron

increases. The chances of photo electron to meet the anode
increases and hence photo electric current increases.
3. (c) Since, stopping potential is independent of distance hence new
stopping potential will remain unchanged i.e., new stopping
potential = V0.
4. (d) As P =
λp = ...(i)
λ2e = ...(ii)
From equations (i) and (ii)

λp ∝ λ2e
5. (a) The work function has no effect on photoelectric current so long as
hν > W0. The photoelectric current is proportional to the intensity of
incident light. Since there is no change in the intensity of light,
hence I1 = I2.
6. (c)
7. (d) hυ – hυ0 = EK, according to photoelectric equation, when υ = υ0, EK

= 0.
Graph (d) represents EK – υ relationship.
8. (a) According to relation, E =
Because m1 < m3 < m2

So for same λ,
9. (d) W0 = hν1 – eV1
= h ν2 – e V2
eV2 = h(ν2 – ν1) + eV1
10. (a) As we know,
...(1)
...(2)
...(3)
Multiplying eqn. (2) by (3) and subtracting it from eqn.(1)
So, threshold wavelength,
11. (c) As we know,
12. (b) According to Einsten’s photoelectric effect, the K.E. of the

radiated electrons
K.Emax = E – W
mv12 = (1 – 0.5) eV = 0.5 eV
mv22 = (2.5 – 0.5) eV = 2 eV
13. (b) By using hv – hv0 = Kmax

⇒ h (v1 – v0) = K1 ..... (i)
And h(v2 – v0) = K2 ..... (ii)
14. (d) V = 3000 volt.

= 32.6 × 106 = 3.26 × 107 m/s.
15. (d) Photoelectrons are emitted if the frequency of incident light is
greater than the threshold frequency.
16. (b) Work function φ of metal = 2.28 eV
Wavelength of light λ = 500 nm = 500 × 10–9m
KEmax = –φ
KEmax = – 2.82
KEmax = 2.48 – 2.28 = 0.2 ev
λmin = =
λmin = × 10–9
= 2.80 × 10–9 nm ∴ λ ≥ 2.8 × 10–9 m
17. (a) Here, u = 0 ; ;v=?;t=t
de-Broglie wavelength,
Rate of change of de-Broglie wavelength

18. (a) Retarding potential depends on the frequency of incident radiation
but is independent of intensity.
19. (a) From formula
λ=
[By placing value of h, m and k)

=
20. (b)
21. (1.5 × 1020) Give that, only 25% of 200W converter electrical energy
into light of yellow colour
Where N is the No. of photons emitted per second, h = plank’s constant,

c, speed of light.
= 1.5 × 1020
22. (1.6 × 1015Hz) n → 2 – 1

E = 10.2 eV
K.E. = E – φ
Q = 10.20 – 3.57
h υ0 = 6.63 eV
= 1.6 × 1015 Hz
23. (1) According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, hv = φ0 + Kmax

We have
hv = φ0 + 0.5 ...(i)
and 1.2hv = φ0 + 0.8 ...(ii)
Therefore, from above two equations φ0 = 1.0 eV.
24. (0.25) Number of emitted electrons NE
∝ Intensity
Therefore, as distance is doubled, NE decreases by 0.25 (1/4) times.

25. (7.26 × 107) The maximum kinetic energy of an electron accelerated
through a potential difference of V volt is mv2 =eV
∴ maximum velocity v =
v=
v = 7.26 × 107 m/s

1. (c) As
and
or,
or,
For nth orbit

∴ rn = a0n2 – β
2. (c) Magnetic moment of the hydrogen atom, when the electron is in
nth excited state, i.e., n′ = (n + 1)
As magnetic moment Mn = InA = in(πrn2)
Solving we get magnetic moment of the hydrogen atom for nth excited
state
3. (c) ;
or
or
or
4. (a) Number of emission spectral lines
in first case.
Or
Take positive root.
∴ n1 = 3
Again, in second case.
Or
Take positive root, or n2 = 4
Now velocity of electron
5. (b) E = – 3.4 eV and
angular momentum = mvr
m2v2
= 99.008 × 10–50
mv = 9.95028 × 10–25
L = (9.95028 × 10–25)
= 2.10 × 10–34 Js.

6. (b) Radius of circular path followed by electron is given by,
For transition between 3 to 2.
Work function = 1.88 eV – 0.8 eV = 1.08 eV ≈ 1.1eV

7. (d) Radius of nth orbit rn ∝ n2, graph between rn and n is a parabola.
Also,
Comparing this equation with y = mx + c,
Graph between and loge (n) will be a straight line, passing
from origin.
Similarly it can be proved that graph between and loge (n) is
a straight line. But with negative slops.
8. (a)
= 993 A°
(where Rydberg constant , R = 1.097 × 107)

or,
Solving we get n2 = 3
Spectral lines
Total number of spectral lines = 3
Two lines in Lyman series for n1 = 1, n2 = 2 and n1 = 1, n2 = 3 and one in
Balmer series for n1 = 2 , n2 = 3
9. (a) Given potential energy between electron and proton

= eV0 log
∴ |F|
But this force acts as centripetal force
∴ ...(i)
By Bohr’s postulate, mvr ....(ii)
From (i) and (ii),
⇒r∝n
For nth orbit rn ∝ n

10. (c)
The wave number of the radiation =
Now for case (I) n1 = 3, n2 = 2
, R∞ = Rydberg constant
11. (b) E =
E will be maximum for the transition for which is
maximum. Here n2 is the higher energy level.
Clearly, is maximum for the third transition, i.e. 2 → 1. I
transition represents the absorption of energy.

12. (a) Speed of electron in nth orbit
Vn =
V = (2.19 × 106 m/s)
V = (2.19 × 106) (Z = 2 & n = 3)
V = 1.46 × 106 m/s

13. (a) For emission, the wave number of the radiation is given as
R = Rydberg constant, Z = atomic number
= = ⇒
linear momentum
(de-Broglie hypothesis)
⇒ ⇒
14. (a) For Lyman series
υ = RC
where n = 2, 3, 4, .......
For the series limit of Lyman series, n = ∞
∴ υ1 = RC = RC ...(i)
For the first line of Lyman series, n = 2
∴ υ2 = RC ...(ii)
For Balmer series
υ = RC
where n = 3, 4, 5 .....
For the series limit of Balmer series, n = ∞
∴ υ3 = RC ...(iii)
From equation (i), (ii) and (iii), we get

υ1 = υ2 + υ3 or υ1 − υ2 = υ3
15. (c) Wave number ⇒
By question n = 1 and n1 = 2
Then,
16. (d) For an atom following Bohr’s model, the radius is given by
where r0 = Bohr’s radius and m = orbit number.
For Fm, m = 5 (Fifth orbit in which the outermost electron is present)
∴ rm (given) ⇒ n =
17. (c)
∴ Number of emission line
18. (a) Energy of electron in nth orbit is
For He+ is ground state
∴ For Li++ in first excited state (n = 2)
E’ = – 13.6 ×
19. (a) Velocity of electron in nth orbit of hydrogen atom is given by :

Vn =
Substituting the values we get,
Vn = or
As principal quantum number increases, velocity decreases.
20. (b) When
⇒ mv2 = constat ⇒ kinetic energy is constant ⇒ T is independent

of n.
21. (823.5) The smallest frequency and largest wavelength in ultraviolet
region will be for transition of electron from orbit 2 to orbit 1.
∴
⇒
The highest frequency and smallest wavelength for infrared region will
be for transition of electron from ∞ to 3rd orbit.
∴ ⇒
∴ = 823.5nm
22. (4) KEmax = 10eV

φ = 2.75 eV
Total incident energy
E = φ + KEmax = 12.75 eV
∴ Energy is released when electron jumps from the excited state n
to the ground state.
E4 – E1 = {– 0.85 – (–13.6) ev}
= 12.75eV
∴ value of n = 4
23. (3) Energy of ground state 13.6 eV
Energy of first excited state
Energy of second excited state
Difference between ground state and 2nd excited state = 13.6 – 1.5 =
12.1 eV
So, electron can be excited upto 3rd orbit
No. of possible transition
1 → 2, 1 → 3, 2 → 3
So, three lines are possible.
24. (6) For 2nd line of Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum
For Li2+
which is satisfied by n = 12 → n = 6.
25. (79) When one e– is removed from neutral helium atom, it becomes a
one e– species.
For one e– species we know
eV/atom
For helium ion, Z = 2 and for first orbit n = 1.
∴ = – 54.4 eV
∴ Energy required to remove this e– = + 54.4 eV

∴ Total energy required = 54.4 + 24.6 = 79 eV
1. (c) Energy is released in a process when total binding energy (BE) of products is more than the
reactants. By calculations we can see that this happens in option (c).
Given W = 2Y
BE of reactants = 120 × 7.5 = 900 MeV
BE of products = 2 × (60 × 8.5) = 1020 MeV.
2. (c)
If α and B are emitted simultaneously.

3. (c) No. of nuclide at time t is given by N = Noe–λt
Where No = initial nuclide
This equation is equivalent to y = ae–kx
Thus correct graph is
4. (b) By conservation of energy,

,
where v is the speed of the daughter nuclei
5. (d) Radioactivity at T1 , R1 = λ N1
Radioactivity at T2, R2 = λ N2
∴ Number of atoms decayed in time
(T1 – T2) = (N1 –N2)
=
6. (d)
; ; R1 : R2 = 1 : 21/3
7. (c) The range of energy of β-particles is from zero to some maximum

value.
8. (a) Mass defect = ZMp + (A –Z)Mn–M(A,Z)
or, = ZMp + (A–Z) Mn–M(A,Z)
∴ M (A, Z) = ZMp + (A–Z)Mn–
9. (a) As we know, R = R0 (A)1/3

where A = mass number
RAI = R0 (27)1/3 = 3R0
RTe = R0 (125)1/3 = 5R0 = RAI

10. (c)
11. (d)
12. (c) We assume that mass number of nucleus when it was at rest = A
Mass number of -particle = 4
Mass number of remaining nucleus = A – 4
As there is no external force, so momentum of the system will remain
conserved.
negative sign represents that direction is opposite to the direction of

motion of -particle.
13. (d) Because radioactivity is a spontaneous phenomenon.
14. (a)
15. (d) Let at time t1 & t2, number of particles be N1 & N2. So,
16. (a) Iodine and Yttrium are medium sized nuclei and therefore, have
more binding energy per nucleon as compared to Uranium which
has a big nuclei and less B.E./nucleon.
17. (d) Nuclear force is not the same between any two nucleons.
18. (c) Binding energy per nucleon for fission products is higher relative to
Binding energy per nucleon for parent nucleus, i.e., more masses are
lost and are obtained as kinetic energy of fission products. So, the
given ratio < 1.
19. (d) For is positive. This is because Eb for C is
greater than the Eb for A and B.
Again for is positive. This is because Eb for D and E
is greater than Eb for F .
20. (a) =
As v2 is zero, m2 > m1, v ‘1 is in the opposite direction.

m1 = 1, m2 = A.
The fraction of total energy retained is

21. (69)
22. (0.511)
The mass defect during the process
= 1.6725 × 10–27 – (1.6725 × 10–27+ 9 × 10–
31
kg)
= – 9 × 10–31 kg
The energy released during the process
E = ∆mc2
E = 9 × 10–31× 9 × 1016 = 81 × 10–15 Joules
E=
23. (78) The number of α- particles released =8

Therefore the atomic number should decrease by 16
The number of β–-particles released = 4
Therefore the atomic number should increase by 4.
Also the number of β+ particles released is 2, which should decrease the
atomic number by 2.
Therefore the final atomic number
= Z –16 + 4 – 2 = Z –14
= 92 – 14 = 78
24. (3.125 × 1013)
25. (0.693) Average life of the nuclei is

tav = ....(i)
Half life of the nuclei
t1/2 = ....(ii)
from (i) and (ii)
tav =
1. (d) Here, ni = 1016 m–3, nh = 5 × 1022 m–3
As nenh = n2i
2. (d) ∆IE = 8.0 mA

∆IC = 7.9 mA
Also,
3. (b) Output of upper AND gate =

Output of lower AND gate =
∴ Output of OR gate,
This is boolean expression for XOR gate.
4. (a)
By expanding this Boolen expression
Thus the truth table for this expression should be (a).

5. (d) Here, R = 4 kΩ = 4 × 103 Ω
Vi = 60 V
Zener voltage Vz = 10 V
RL = 2 kΩ = 2 × 103 Ω
Load current, IL = = 5 mΑ
Current through R, Ι =
= = 12.5 mΑ
From circuit diagram,

I = IZ + IL
⇒ 12.5 = IZ + 5
⇒ IZ = 12.5 – 5 = 7.5 mA.
6. (c)
7. (a) Im = = = 24.75 mA
Idc = = = 7.87 mA
Irms = = = 12.37 mA
Pdc = Idc2 × RL = (7.87 × 10–3)2 × 103 = 61.9 mW

Pac = Irms 2(Rf + RL) = (12.37 × 10–3)2 × (10 + 1000)
= 154.54 mW
Rectifier efficiency
η= × 100 = × 100 = 40.05%
8. (b) D2 is forward biased whereas D1 is reversed biased.

So effective resistance of the circuit
R = 4 + 2 = 6Ω
.
9. (b) It is a p-n-p transistor with R as base.
10. (c) (W + X) ⋅ (W + Y) = W + (X ⋅ Y)
11. (d) In pure semiconductor electron-hole pair = 7 × 1015/m3
ninitial = nh + ne = 14 × 1015 after doping donor Impurity
ND = = 5 × 1021 and ne = = 2.5 × 1021
So, nfinal = nh + ne
⇒ nfinal ≈ ne ≈ 2.5 × 1021 (Q ne >> nh)
Factor =
= ≈ = 1.8 × 105
12. (d) Voltage gain G = β
⇒ G = 25 ...(i)
Transconductance gm =
⇒ Rin = =
Putting this value of Rin in eqn. (i)

G = 25 × 0.03 ...(ii)
∴ G’ = 20 × 0.02 ...(iii)
From eqs. (ii) and (iii)

Voltage gain of new transistor G’ = G
13. (a) Positive terminal is at higher potential (–5V) and negative terminal
is at lower potential –10 V.
14. (d) Energy band gap range is given by,
For visible region λ = (4 × 10–7 ~ 7 × 10–7)m
Eg = 1.75 eV
15. (d)
The output voltage, across the load RC

V0 = IC RC = 2
The collector current
Current gain (β)
=
Input voltage (Vi)
Vi = RB IB = 1 × 103 × 10–5 = 10–2 Volt
Vi = 10 mV
16. (d)
The truth table for the above logic gate is :
This truth table follows the boolean algebra C = A + B which is for OR

gate
17. (c) A crystal structure is composed of a unit cell, a set of atoms
arranged in a particular way; which is periodically repeated in
three dimensions on a lattice. The spacing between unit cells in
various directions is called its lattice parameters or constants.
Increasing these lattice constants will increase or widen the band-
gap (Eg), which means more energy would be required by electrons
to reach the conduction band from the valence band. Automatically
Ec and Ev decreases.
18. (b) I = nA evd or I ∝ nvd
∴ or
19. (b)
20. (a) Here, diodes D1 and D2 are forward biased and D3 is reverse
biased.
Therefore current through R3
21. (0.96) No. of electrons reaching the collector,
Emitter current,
Collector current,
∴ Current transfer ratio,
22. (6.2)
Vo = 620 × Vin= 620 × 0.01 = 6.2 V

∴ Vo = 6.2 volt.
23. (2.37 × 1019) Conductivity,
2.13 = 1.6 × 10–19(0.38 + 0.18) ni

(Since in intrinsic semi-conductor, ne = nh= ni)
∴ density of charge carriers, ni
24. (500) The power gain in case of CE amplifier,

Power gain = β2 × Resistance gain
= (10)2 × 5 = 500.
25. (0.29) Current gain (α) = 0.96
Ie = 7.2 mA
Ie = Ic + Ib
⇒ Ib = Ie – Ic = 7.2 – 6.91 = 0.29 mA
1. (d) The maximum line-of-sight distance between the transmitting and
receiving antennas is
dM =
where hT and hR are the heights of transmitting and receiving antennas
respectively.
∴ dM =
(Q hT = hR = h)
2. (b) The frequencies present in amplitude modulated wave are :
Carrier frequency = ωc
Upper side band frequency = ωc + ωm
Lower side band frequency = ωc – ωm.
3. (b) p ∝ (l/λ)2
4. (d)
5. (c)
6. (d)
7. (b) For given transmission band 88-108 MHz (∆f)max
= 75 kHz
given
% modulation
8. (a) Comparing (x AM)t = 100 [1 + 0.5 t] cosωct for 0<t<1

with standard AM signal x AM = Ec [1+ma cos ωmt] cos ωct
We have modulating signal t and ma = 0.5.
9. (d)
10. (d) For good demodulation,
or,
11. (b) Modulation index
B = 25, A = 60
M.I. m%
12. (d) Frequency of EM wave υ = 830 kHz

= 830 × 103Hz.

Magnetic field, B = 4.82 × 10–11 T
As we know, frequency, υ =
or λ =
λ 360 m
And, E = BC = 4.82 × 10–11 × 3 × 108
= 0.014 N/C
13. (a) Here, fc = 1.5 MHz = 1500 kHz, fm = 10 kHz
∴ Low side band frequency
= fc – fm = 1500 kHz – 10 kHz = 1490 kHz
Upper side band frequency
= fc + fm = 1500 kHz + 10 kHz = 1510 kHz
14. (b) The frequency of AM channel is 1020 kHz whereas for the FM it
is 89.5 MHz (given). For higher frequencies (MHz), space wave
communication is needed. Very tall towers are used as antennas.
15. (a) The critical frequency of a sky wave for reflection from a layer of
atmosphere is given by fc = 9(Nmax)1/2
⇒ 10 × 106 = 9(Nmax)1/2
16. (c) Above critical frequency (fc), an electromagnetic wave penetrates

the ionosphere and is not reflected by it.
17. (c) Modulation index
Equation of modulated signal [Cm(t)]

= E(C) + maE(C) sin ωmt
= A (1+ sin ωmt) sin ωCt
(As E(C) = A sin ωCt)
18. (b) Ec = 100 V, ma = 0.4, R = 100 Ω,
19. (c) Average side-band power
Here ma = 0.5
Pc = 10
20. (d)
Power gain
directive gain
21. (10) Band width

= 2 × frequency
= 2 × 5000
= 10 kHz
22. (380) For x(t), BW = 2(∆ω + ω)
∆ω is deviation and ω is the band width of modulating signal.
∴ BW = 2(90 + 5) = 190
For x2 (t), BW = 2 × 190 = 380
23. (10) Comparing given expression with
(e)AM = E(1c + ma cos ωmt) cos ωct
peak value of carrier wave, Ec= 10V.
24. (50) Here and
Now,
25. (9.6)
1. (a)
From figure,
AC = AM + MC = 2AM = 2lcos30° =
Similarly, AE =
AD = AO + ON + ND = l sin30° + l + l sin30°
AB = AF = l
Force on mass m at A due to mass m at B is
along AB
Force on mass m at A due to mass m at C is
along AC
Force on mass m at A due to mass m at D is
along AD
Force on mass m at A due to mass m at E is
along AE
Force on mass m at A due to mass m at F is
along AF
Resultant force due to FAB and FAF is
along AD
Resultant force due to FAC and FAE is
along AD
Net force on mass m along AD is
2. (b) In this process potential energy of the metre stick will be converted
into rotational kinetic energy.
P.E. of meter stick =
Because its centre of gravity lies at the middle point of the rod.
Rotational kinetic energy
I = M.I. of metre stick about point
ω = Angular speed of the rod while striking the ground

vB= Velocity of end B of metre stick while striking the ground
By the law of conservation of energy,
By solving we get,
3. (b) = 20 cm
4. (b) The time period of a rectangular magnet oscillating in earth’s

magnetic field is given by
where I = Moment of inertia of the rectangular magnet
= Magnetic moment
BH = Horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic
field
Case 1 : where
Case 2 : Magnet is cut into two identical pieces such that each piece has
half the original length. Then
where and
5. (d) Figure shows that the magnetic field is present on the right hand
side of AB. The electron (e) and proton (p) moving on straight
parallel paths with the same velocity enter the region of uniform
magnetic field.
The entry and exit of electron & proton in the magnetic field makes the
same angle with AB as shown.
Therefore both will come out travelling in parallel paths.
The time taken by proton
The time taken by electron is
clearly te is not equal to tp as mp >> me

6. (a) R20 = 20 , R500 = 60
Rt = R0 (1 + t)
1 + 500 = 3 + 60
500 – 60 =2
t = 80°C.
7. (b)
8. (c) Quantity C has maximum power. So it brings maximum error in P.
9. (b)
10. (a) Voltage gain
Power gain
Base current = IB
IC = βIB = 60 × 6 × 10–6 = 3.6 × 10–4A

Output = ICRL = 3.6 × 10–4 × 5 × 103Ω = 1.8V
11. (b) Maximum Range of the radar is given by
Where Pt : peak value of transmitted power

A : caputre area of the receiving antenna
S : radar cross-sectional area
λ : wavelength of RADAR wave
Pmin : minimum receivable power of the receiver
12. (d)
; ; R1 : R2 = 1 : 21/3
13. (a) Temperature of interface
It is given that KCu = 9Ks. So if KS = K1 = K then

KCu = K2 = 9K
14. (a) ;
Net force
t = 2t0
15. (b) Coefficient of volume expansion at constant pressure is for all
gases. The average transnational K.E. is same for molecules of all

gases and for each molecules it is
Mean free path (as P decreases, λ increases)
16. (b) (a) Process is not isothermal

(b) Volume decreases and temperature decreases ∆U = negative,
So, ∆Q = negative
(c) Work done in process A → B → C is positve
(d) Cycle is clockwise, so work done by the gas is positive
17. (d) For destructive interference :
Path difference = S1 P – S2 P = (2n – 1) λ/2
For
n = 1, S1 P – S2 P = (2 × 1 – 1)λ/2 = λ/2
n = 2, S1 P – S2 P = (2 × 2 –1)λ/2 =
3λ/2
n = 3, S1 P – S2 P = (2 × 3 – 1)λ/2 =
5λ/2
n = 4, S1 P – S2 P = (2 × 4 – 1)λ/2 =
7λ/2
n = 5, S1 P – S2 P = (2 × 5 – 1)λ/2 =
9λ/2
n = 6, S1 P – S2 P = (2 × 6 – 1)λ/2 =
11λ/2
So, destructive pattern is possible only for path difference
= 11λ/2.
18. (b) Unit vector representing the normal to the plane
Component of the incident ray along the normal is
The unit vector that represents the plane of the incident ray and the
normal
Angle between the incident ray and the normal is given by
or cos θ = – 0.5
Therefore, the angle θ = 120°
The angle of incidence is i = 180° – 120° = 60°

The angle of the refracted beam is given by
or r = 45°
19. (c) We know that power consumed in a.c. circuit is given by,
Here, E = E0 sinωt
I = I0 sin
which implies that the phase difference,
=0
20. (b)
According to law of conservation of linear momentum,
mv + 4m × 0 = 4 mv′ + 0 ⇒ v′ =
Coefficient of restitution,
e= =
or, e = = 0.25
21. (2.21×10–12)
Average energy density is given by
= × 8.85 × 10–12 × 12
= 2.21 × 10–12 J/m3

22. (8.4 × 10–6)
If the charge on the capacitor = Q
The surface charge density σ =
and the electric field =
This electric field should not exceed the dielectric strength 1.9 × 107
V/m, if the maximum charge which can be given is Q,
then = 1.9 × 107 V/m
A = 100 cm2 = 10–2 m2

Q = (5.0) (10–2) (8.85 × 10–12) × (1.9 × 107) = 8.4 × 10–6 C.
23. (9)
Suppose the amplitude of the light wave coming from the narrow slit is A
and that coming from the wider slit is 2A. The maximum intensity
occurs at a place where constructive interference takes place. Then
the resultant amplitude is the sum of the individual amplitudes.
Thus,
Amax = 2A + A = 3A
The minimum intensity occurs at a place where destructive interference
takes place. The resultant amplitude is then difference of the
individual amplitudes.
Thus, Amin = 2A – A = A.
∴ :1
24. (98.01)
According to Doppler’s effect
s = 98.01 m
25. (6.69 × 10–21)

de-Broglie wavelength
∴ K.E. of neutron is
= = 6.69 × 10–21 J
1. (c) Volume of air bubble V =
We get,
If r is 2 times, V becomes 8 times at the surface of lake.
Pressure at the surface of lake is given
P1 = 1 atmosphere, V1 = 8V
P1 = Hdg
where, d = density of water
Pressure at the bottom of lake,
P2= Pressure of atmosphere + Pressure of water
P2 = Hdg + hdg = (H + h) dg where, h = depth of lake
Let final volume, V2 = V.
Because temperature is constant, hence from Boyle’s law
P1V1 = P2V2 Hdg × 8V = (H + h)dg × V h = 7H.
2. (d) Elongation in the wire
∴ Elongation in the wire Tension in the wire
In first case and in second case
As tension in the wire in both the cases are equal therefore elongation in
the wire will be equal.
3. (d)
As areal velocity of a planet around the sun is constant. Therefore, the

desired time is
If a = semi-major axis and b = semi-minor axis of ellipse, then, area of

ellipse = πab
Area ABS = (area of ellipse) – Area of triangle ASO
∴ tAB =
4. (d)
5. (d) In series, Ceff
∴ Energy stored,
In parallel, Ceff = n2 C2
Energy stored, Ep = n2C2V2
6. (d)
Power of bulb = 60 W (given)

Resistance of bulb
Power of heater = 240W (given)

Resistance of heater
Voltage across bulb before heater is switched on,

volt
Voltage across bulb after heater is switched on,
volt
Hence decrease in voltage

V1 – V2 = 117.073 – 106.66 = 10.04 Volt (approximately)
7. (d) Ist part: u = 0, t = 5s, v = 108 km/hr = 30 m/s
v = u + at 30 = 0 + a × 5 a = 6 m/s2
= = 75 m
IIIrd part: s = 45m, u = 30m/s, v = 0
v = u + at 0 = 30 – 10 × t t = 3s
IInd part :
∴ Total time = t1 + t2 + t3 = 5 + 9.2 + 3 = 17.2s

8. (c) The position of the particle is given by
where, is the position vector at t = 0 and is the velocity at t
=0
Here, = 0, = m s–1, m s–2
∴ ...(i)
Compare it with , we get

x = 5t + 1.5t2, y = 1t2
∴ x = 84 m
Q 84 = 5 t + 1.5 t2
On solving, we get t = 6 s
At t = 6 s, y = (1) (6)2 = 36 m
9. (a) Rod AB is set in angular motion about A, hence the radius of
circular path of the bead is L. Its tangential acceleration is a = Lα
and therefore tangential force acting on the bead of mass m is =
mLα
where α is the angular acceleration of the bead.
Normal (or radial) force on the bead
where ω is the angular velocity of the bead.

Frictional force on the bead = µ × tangential force
= µmLα
The bead just starts slipping over the rod when
Frictional force = Normal force
= µmLα = mLω2 = mL(αt)2 Q ω = 0 + αt = αt
10. (c) According to question,

Half life of X, T1/2 = , average life of Y
Now, the rate of decay is given by
Y will decay faster than X.

11. (c) When A and B are closed, bulb is short circuited.
When B = 1, Y = 0
Also, when A = 0, Y = 0 (No supply the bulb)
12. (b)
13. (d) Let L0 be the initial length of each strip before heating.
Length after heating will be
LB = L0(1 + αB∆T) = (R + d)θ
LC = L0(1 + αC∆T) = Rθ
and
14. (a) According to given Vander Waal’s equation
Work done,
15. (a) Velocity in SHM is given by
At
....(1)
At y = 3 cm = 0.03 m, v = 4 m/s
....(2)
Dividing (2) by (1), we get
or
or
or
= 5 cm
16. (c) When the train is approaching the stationary observer frequency
heard by the abserner
When the train is moving away from the observer then frequency heard
by the abserner
It is clear that n’ and n’’ are constant and independent of time. Also and
f’ > f”.
17. (b) The charge through the coil = area of current-time(i – t) graph
= 0.2 C
Change in flux (∆φ) = q × R
∆φ = 2 Weber
18. (b)
At t = 0, no current flows through R1 and R3
Current through battery just after the switch closed is
= 2A
19. (a) and would generate a plane EM wave travelling in z-

direction, , and from a right handed system is along z-
axis. As
i.e., E is along x-axis and B is along y-axis.
20. (c) According to lens maker’s formula
The focal length of plane convex lens is
or ...(i)
The focal length of liquid lens is
[Using (i)]
Effective focal length of the combination is
21. (1.35) In case of a capacitor as E = (V/d), the potential difference

between the plates before the introduction of metal plate
V = E × d = 3 × 104 × 0.05 = 1.5 kV
Now as after charging battery is removed , capacitor is isolated so q =
constant. If C’ and V′ are the capacity and potential after the
introduction of plate.
q = CV = C’V’ i.e. V’ = V
And as C = and
So in case of metal plate as K = ∞
And if instead of metal plate, dielectric with K = 2 is introduced
22. (3.17) For collision of neutron with deuterium:
Applying conservation of momentum :

mv + 0 = mv1 + 2mv2 .....(i)
v2 – v1 = v .....(ii)
Collision is elastic, e = 1
From eqn (i) and eqn (ii)
Now, For collision of neutron with carbon nucleus
Applying Conservation of momentum

mv + 0 = mv1+ 12mv2 ....(iii)
v = v2 – v1 ....(iv)
From eqn (iii) and eqn (iv)
23. (1.581) For the image of point P to be seen by the observer, it should be
formed at point Q.
In ∆QNS,
NS = QS = 2h
∴ ∠NQS = 45°
∴ r = 45°
At point M
...(i)
In ∆ PMB,
PM2 = 4h2 + h2 = 5h2
∴ ...(ii)
From (i) and (ii)
= 1.581
24. (957) For an adiabatic change PVγ = constant

i.e., P1V1γ = P2V2γ …(1)
As molar specific heat of gas at constant volume
CP = CV + R= ;
∴ From eqn. (1)
= = 6.19 × 105 N/m2
Work done,
= – 957 joule
[–ve sign shows external work done on the gas]
25. (3.43) V0 =
....(1)
....(2)
Eq. (1) – Eq.(2)
2.4 – V0 =
2.4 – V0 =
V0 = 2.4 +
V0 = 2.4 + 1.03 = 3.43 V

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Solutions To Chapter-wise DPP Sheets (1-29) S-1 – S-84

1. A and B have different dimensions. Then which of the following

3. Young’s modulus of a material has the same unit as

5. In the eqn. the unit of a is

(a) dyne cm5

10. If E, m, J and G represent energy, mass, angular momentum and

gravitation and e is charge]

PART-II (Numeric/Integer Type Questions)

21. ln a simple pendulum experiment, the maximum percentage error in the

1. The co-ordinates of a moving particle at any time ‘t’are given by x =

3. A particle starts moving rectilinearly at time t = 0 such that its velocity

4. A ball is dropped on a floor and bounces back to a height somewhat less

5. The displacement x of a particle varies with time according to the

(a) At , the displacement of the particle is nearly

8. A stone falls freely under gravity. It covers distances h1, h2 and h3 in

(b) h2 = 3h1 and h3 = 3h2

17. An automobile travelling with a speed of 60 km/h, can brake to stop

PART-II (Numeric/Integer Type Questions)

21. A thief is running away on a straight road on a jeep moving with a

1. If then the value of is

4. Six vectors, and have the magnitudes and directions

6. Initial velocity with which a body is projected is 10 m/sec and angle of

7. A particle moves in a circle of radius 4 cm clockwise at constant speed

9. A bus is moving on a straight road towards north with a uniform speed

12. The vector sum of two forces is perpendicular to their vector

14. A stone projected with a velocity u at an angle θ with the horizontal

angle with the horizontal, it reaches maximum height H2. The

relation between the horizontal range R of the projectile, heights H1 and

(a) Magnitude of acceleration vector is , where v is the velocity of

PART-II (Numeric/Integer Type Questions)

25. A projectile is thrown in the upward direction making an angle of 60°

1. A player stops a football weighing 0.5 kg which comes flying towards

(a) 0.98 m/s2

the plank in 4.0s. The coefficients of static and kinetic

13. A block of mass m is connected to another block of mass M by a spring

PART-II (Numeric/Integer Type Questions)

21. A block of 7 kg is placed on a rough horizontal surface and is pulled

1. A spring of spring constant 5 × 103 N/m is stretched initially by 5cm

6. A particle is acted by a force F = kx, where k is a +ve constant. Its

7. A particle of mass m is driven by a machine that delivers a constant

8. A moving body with a mass m1 and velocity u strikes a stationary body

13. A block C of mass m is moving with velocity v0 and collides elastically

15. A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of a time

19. A vertical spring with force constant k is fixed on a table. A ball of

20. A stone is tied to a string of length l and is whirled in a vertical circle

PART-II (Numeric/Integer Type Questions)

1. The moment of inertia of a body about a given axis is 1.2 kg m2.

9. A solid sphere is rolling on a surface as shown in figure, with a

10. A loop of radius r and mass m rotating with an

and x = L. Its linear density (mass/length) varies with x as ,

12. A mass m moves in a circle on a smooth horizontal plane with velocity

final value of the kinetic energy is

20. A wooden cube is placed on a rough horizontal table, a force is applied

PART-II (Numeric/Integer Type Questions)

21. Acertain bicycle can go up a gentle incline with

find the value of k.

mass and perpendicular to its plane is . Find the value of

1. A Planet is revolving around the sun.

Which of the following is correct option?

5. A satellite revolves around the earth of radius R in a circular orbit of

What is their speed when their separation is ‘d’?