Professional Documents
Culture Documents
EndodonticMcqs
EndodonticMcqs
CHAPTER 1:
1.
DIAGNOSTIC PROCEDURES
Specific tooth
b.
Mandible or maxilla
c.
d.
Posterior tooth
2.
Areas of rarefaction are evident on radiographic examination in which of the
following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
3.
b.
c.
d.
4.
The majority of patients with symptoms of severe odontogenic pain have a
diagnosis of which of the following?
a.
Periodontal abscess
b.
Irreversible pulpitis
c.
d.
5.
Medical history of coronary heart disease is significant for which of the following
reasons?
a.
b.
c.
d.
6.
The best approach for diagnosis of odontogenic pain is which of the following?
a.
Radiographic examination
b.
Percussion
c.
Visual examination
d.
7.
Irreversible pulpitis
b.
Reversible pulpitis
c.
d.
Phoenix abscess
8.
A sinus tract that drains out on the face (through skin) is mostly likely from which
of the following?
a.
Nonodontogenic pathosis
b.
A periodontal abscess
c.
d.
9.
b.
c.
d.
10.
a.
Pulpal inflammation
b.
Pulpal necrosis
c.
d.
11.
a.
b.
Pulpal inflammation
c.
Older patient
d.
Pulp that has been injured in the past but has recovered
e.
12.
Radiographically, which of the following statements regarding acute apical
abscess is most accurate?
a.
b.
c.
d.
13.
In which of the following may a false-negative response to the pulp tester occur?
a.
b.
c.
d.
14.
The lateral periodontal abscess is best differentiated from the acute apical abscess
by which of the following?
a.
Pulp testing
b.
Radiographic appearance
c.
Location of swelling
d.
Probing patterns
15.
The acute apical abscess is best differentiated from the acute apical periodontitis
by which of the following?
a.
Pulp testing
b.
Radiographic appearance
c.
Presence of swelling
d.
Degree of mobility
16.
Chronic apical periodontitis is best differentiated from acute apical periodontitis
by which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
17.
The abrupt change (arrow) in radiographic appearance in the following
illustration probably indicates which of the following?
a.
Calcific metamorphosis
b.
c.
d.
18.
The patient in the following illustration reports severe, throbbing pain in the
mandibular right molar region. The pain is exaggerated by cold. Which tooth and which
tissue is likely the source of pain?
a.
b.
c.
d.
19.
Of the following cold-testing agents, which is the least effective in producing a
response?
a.
b.
Dicholorodifluoromethane (DDM)
c.
d.
Ethyl chloride
20.
a.
b.
It is continuous.
c.
It is self-limiting.
d.
e.
CHAPTER 2:
OROFACIAL DENTAL PAIN EMERGENCIES:
ENDODONTIC DIAGNOSES AND MANAGEMENT
1.
Which of the following statements regarding the degree of pulp pathosis is
accurate?
a.
b.
c.
d.
It does not correlate well with the level of pain a patient perceives.
2.
A key measure as to the degree (i.e., intensity) of pain is to determine which of
the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Increasing pain
e.
3.
In describing the sensory innervation of the dental pulp, which of the following
statements is accurate?
a.
A-delta fibers are high-threshold, myelinated fibers that transmit sharp,
momentary pain.
b.
C fibers are low-threshold, unmyelinated fibers that produce pain in response to
inflammatory mediators.
c.
The domination of C-fiber stimulation produces pain that is not well localized.
d.
The sharp, well-localized pain to cold testing is conducted by both A-delta and Cfiber stimulation.
4.
b.
Lysosomal enzymes
c.
d.
Substance P
5.
Each of the following statements is correct regarding trigeminal neuralgia, except
for one. Which is the exception?
a.
b.
The pain occurs unilaterally but often involves more than one division of the
trigeminal nerve.
c.
The pain is characteristically sharp, lasts for several hours, and is induced by a
trigger point.
d.
The pain mimics pain of pulpal origin in that thermal sensitivity and tingling is
often encountered just before an attack.
6.
A patient complains of dull and constant pain that lasts 3 days on the left side of
the face. The patient notes the pain increases on positional changes, such as bending over
and when jogging. The most likely diagnosis is which of the following?
a.
Myocardial infarction
b.
Maxillary sinusitis
c.
d.
Irreversible pulpitis
7.
Which of the following most likely indicates pain that is not of pulpal origin?
a.
b.
c.
d.
8.
A complete medical history is essential when treating an emergency dental patient
for which of the following reasons?
a.
To identify patients with conditions that would contraindicate root canal treatment
b.
To determine conditions that might require modifications in the approach to
treatment
c.
To protect the health care team from potential blood-borne pathogens and other
infectious diseases the patient may have
d.
For medical and legal protection and to determine if the medical status will affect
the prognosis for root canal treatment
9.
d.
e.
The pulp of more than one tooth will be involved and the pathosis produce a
synergistic-hyperalgesia response within the central nervous system (CNS).
10.
A patient's chief complaint is severe pain from the mandibular, right first molar
(tooth no. 30) when eating ice cream and drinking iced tea. Clinical examination reveals
MOD amalgam restorations in all posterior teeth. The margins appear intact and no
cracks or caries is detected. Pulp testing indicates all teeth in the quadrant are responsive
to electrical-pulp testing. Application of cold fails to reproduce the symptoms. Which of
the following actions should be taken?
a.
The patient should be dismissed and asked to return when the symptoms increase
and the pain to cold becomes prolonged.
b.
Initiate root canal treatment by performing a pulpotomy or pulpectomy on tooth
no. 30.
c.
d.
Remove the restoration in tooth no. 30, place a sedative restoration, and prescribe
a nonsteroidal, anti-inflammatory agent.
11.
A patient complains of pain to biting pressure and sensitivity to cold in the
maxillary, left, posterior quadrant that subsides within seconds of removal of the
stimulus. Clinical examination reveals teeth nos. 2 and 3 exhibit occlusal amalgams.
Which of the following test or actions is most appropriate based on the chief complaint?
a.
b.
c.
d.
12.
A practitioner refers a patient for root canal treatment. The clinician should obtain
a new preoperative radiograph during which of the following situations?
a.
When the film from the referring dentist is more than 1 month old
b.
c.
When the film from the referring dentist reveals a radiolucent area that has a
"hanging drop" appearance
d.
13.
Which of the following is true regarding the periodontal ligament injection when
treating a tooth with a pulpal diagnosis of reversible pulpitis?
a.
There will be a decrease in pulpal blood flow when anesthetic agents with a
vasoconstrictor are used.
b.
c.
The periodontal-ligament injection is contraindicated when block or infiltration
injections are not effective.
d.
The periodontal ligament injection can be used as primary anesthesia in teeth that
exhibit single roots, regardless of the number of canals.
14.
A patient describes pain on chewing and sensitivity to cold that goes away
immediately with removal of the stimulus. The mandibular, left, second molar (tooth no.
18) exhibits a mesial, occlusal crack. The tooth is caries free, and no restorations are
present. Periodontal probing depths are 3 mm or less. Which of the following statements
is correct?
a.
The pulpal diagnosis is normal pulp, and the tooth should be prepared and
restored with a MO-bonded amalgam.
b.
The pulpal diagnosis is reversible pulpitis, and the tooth should be restored with a
crown.
c.
The pulpal diagnosis is irreversible pulpitis, and root canal treatment should be
performed, a bonded amalgam placed, and a crown fabricated.
d.
A radiograph will likely reveal a radiolucent area associated with the mesial root.
e.
15.
Treatment of severe, throbbing pain associated with the maxillary, left, first molar
(tooth no. 14) is best managed by which of the following?
a.
Pulpotomy
b.
Partial pulpectomy
c.
Pulpectomy
d.
Analgesic agents
e.
16.
Which of the following statements regarding leaving a tooth open for drainage in
cases of an acute, apical abscess is accurate?
a.
b.
c.
d.
17.
With acute, apical abscess, antibiotic administration is indicated in which of the
following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
18.
A 21-year-old model requires emergency treatment of a soft, fluctuant swelling
over the facial alveolar process of the maxillary, left, lateral incisor (tooth no. 10). The
swelling is visible because of a high-lip line. Which of the following statements is correct
regarding performing incision and drainage?
a.
b.
The incision should be horizontal in the attached gingiva at the base of the
swelling.
c.
If drainage occurs with the initial incision, blunt dissection is not necessary.
d.
19.
Which of the following statements regarding incision and drainage of an
indurated swelling is accurate?
a.
b.
c.
d.
They are not indicated, because antibiotic treatment will result in resolution of the
lesion.
20.
Flare-ups during root canal treatment are more commonly associated with which
of the following?
a.
Teeth with vital-pulp tissue when compared to teeth with pulp necrosis
b.
Teeth with apical radiolucent areas when compared to teeth with normal
periapical tissues
c.
d.
e.
Multirooted teeth
21.
Of the following reasons, when is apical trephination through the faciobuccal,
cortical plate advocated?
a.
To release exudate
b.
As a routine procedure for relief of pain when the offending tooth has been
obturated
c.
d.
Between multiple-visit endodontic procedures to prevent the occurrence of a
flare-up
22.
A 22-year-old, white man requires root canal treatment for pain and swelling in
the mandibular, anterior area (see illustration). He notes that his dentist has been treating
teeth nos. 25 and 26 for several months and that swelling has occurred after each visit for
cleaning and shaping. Clinical examination reveals swelling located on the alveolar
process in the area of the incisor teeth. Teeth nos. 25 and 26 are tender to palpation and
percussion. The clinician should perform which of the following?
a.
b.
Open teeth nos. 25 and 26, dbride these teeth, and place calcium hydroxide as an
antimicrobial intracanal medicament
c.
Open teeth nos. 25 and 26, dbride these teeth, and perform incision and drainage
d.
Open teeth nos. 25 and 26, dbride these teeth, and leave the teeth open for
drainage
e.
Perform incision and drainage and prescribe an antibiotic for supportive care
23.
A cusp fractures in a noncarious, nonrestored premolar so that dentin is exposed.
When this exposed dentin is contacted by cold fluids, the patient experiences brief, sharp
pain. Which of the following pulp status is likely?
a.
b.
Reversibly inflamed
c.
Irreversibly inflamed
d.
24.
a.
Antimicrobial agent
b.
Analgesic
c.
Antiinflammatory agent
d.
e.
CHAPTER 3:
NONODONTOGENIC OROFACIAL PAIN AND
ENDODONTICS: PAIN DISORDERS INVOLVING THE JAWS
THAT SIMULATE ODONTALGIA
1.
Peripheral pain impulses in the dental pulp are transmitted centrally via which of
the following pathways?
a.
b.
c.
Peripheral nerve, trigeminal ganglion, trigeminal nucleus, mesencephalic nucleus,
cortex
d.
2.
Each of the following statements regarding trigeminal neuralgia is correct, except
for one. Which is the exception?
a.
The empiric evidence suggests vascular compression of the trigeminal ganglion as
a cause of trigeminal neuralgia.
b.
The pain involves all three divisions of the trigeminal nerve equally.
c.
d.
The pain is severe, often shooting into the bone and teeth.
e.
3.
d.
The pain, which is severe and lasts for 30 to 45 minutes, can occur at anytime.
4.
Each of the following has been shown to benefit patients with cluster headaches,
except for one. Which is the exception?
a.
Nifedipine
b.
c.
Hyperbaric oxygen
d.
Alcohol
e.
Sumatriptin
5.
A 57-year-old man complains of pain in the mandibular, left, posterior quadrant.
The patient relates sporadic, spontaneous pain during his waking hours for the past 1 to 2
weeks. Upon examination no dental cause can be identified. Which of the following
would be the most likely cause of the pain?
a.
Cluster headache
b.
Myalgia
c.
d.
Temporal arteritis
e.
Otitis media
6.
Each of the following statements regarding maxillary sinusitis is correct, except
for one. Which is the exception?
a.
Pain is often referred to all teeth in the maxillary, posterior quadrant with
percussion sensitivity being a common finding.
b.
The maxillary sinusitis may be initiated by a tooth with a necrotic pulp located in
the maxillary, posterior area.
c.
Treatment of the sinusitis requires referral to an otolaryngologist and antibiotic
therapy.
d.
e.
An allergen-induced inflammation of the sinus is an immediate-type
hypersensitivity reaction mediated by IgE.
7.
8.
c.
Initial treatment consists of finding occlusal discrepancies and performing an
equilibration.
d.
Meniscus displacement and intraarticular adhesions are the cause, and corrective
surgery provides long-term success.
9.
Each of the following statements regarding malignant lesions of the head and
neck is correct, except for one. Which is the exception?
a.
b.
Metastatic lesions may develop from the lung, breast, and colon.
c.
d.
10.
a.
The pain is often chronic, difficult to localize, and there is no identifiable cause.
b.
c.
Patient's with atypical orofacial pain may give a history of having endodontic
treatment that did not alleviate the pain.
d.
Patient's with atypical orofacial pain complain of pain in other areas of the body.
e.
Neuralgia-inducing cavitational osteonecrosis (NICO) is distinct from atypical
orofacial-pain disorders.
11.
a.
b.
c.
d.
It has been associated with tooth extraction but does not occur with extirpation of
the pulp.
CHAPTER 4:
PLANNING
1.
Which of the following statements regarding the use of electronic-apex locators is
accurate?
a.
b.
c.
d.
2.
Antibiotic prophylaxis is suggested for patients with a history of which of the
following?
a.
b.
Atrial fibrillation
c.
d.
Myocardial infarction
e.
Rheumatic fever
3.
b.
c.
d.
4.
b.
c.
d.
5.
a.
b.
The general dentist does not have the indicated training and experience.
c.
d.
6.
Which of the following statements regarding one-appointment root canal
treatment is accurate?
a.
b.
c.
d.
7.
Single visit is equivalent in outcome to multiple visits (to complete RCT) with
what situation?
a.
b.
c.
d.
8.
Root end surgery is indicated for endodontic failure in which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
9.
Prognosis for root canal treatment is worse when the patient is experiencing
which of the following?
a.
Pain as a symptom
b.
Interappointment flare-up
c.
Class III mobility and loss of bone support (i.e., probing defects)
d.
10.
a.
b.
c.
d.
11.
With pregnancy, the safest period to provide dental care is during which month?
a.
First
b.
c.
d.
e.
12.
A preoperative finding that predisposes to a decreased prognosis (i.e., lowersuccess rate) is which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
CHAPTER 5:
1.
Which of the following statements describes human immunodeficiency virus
(HIV)?
a.
b.
c.
2.
Which of the following statements regarding Occupational Safety and Health
Administration (OSHA) standards is accurate?
a.
b.
c.
d.
3.
Which of the following statements regarding informed consent information for
endodontic therapy is accurate?
a.
b.
It includes prognosis for the recommended treatment and also the alternatives.
c.
d.
4.
Which of the following statements regarding radiation exposure from a single,
full-mouth survey is accurate?
It is half that of a single chest film.
b.
c.
It would be sufficient to cause skin cancer if all exposures were at one site.
5.
a.
a.
Stand back at least 6 feet in an area that is 90 to 135 degrees from the beam
b.
c.
6.
The recommended antibiotics for a patient with a total joint replacement who is
allergic to penicillin or cephalosporin is which of the following?
a.
Amoxicillin
b.
Erythromycin
c.
Clindamycin
d.
Tetracycline
7.
The most effective method for controlling pain that often occurs after cleaning
and shaping is to administer which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
8.
Which of the following statements regarding the long-cone paralleling technique
is accurate?
a.
b.
c.
It requires the film be placed directly touching the tooth without bending the film.
9.
Milliamperage
b.
Exposure time
c.
Kilovoltage
d.
Angulation
10.
An advantage of digitized radiography in endodontic treatment is which of the
following?
a.
b.
c.
11.
a.
b.
c.
When the tooth is rotated, preventing placement of a clamp on the indicated tooth
d.
12.
To enhance crown preparation and retention when an infrabony defect exists,
crown lengthening is completed by which of the following?
a.
Electrosurgery
b.
Gingivectomy
c.
Laser surgery
d.
13.
a.
b.
c.
It should be collimated to reduce exposure level, not to exceed 7 cm at the skin
surface.
d.
14.
With the cone moved to the distal and directed toward the mesial, which of the
following accurately describes the mesiobuccal root of the first molar?
a.
b.
c.
d.
15.
a.
Mesial
b.
Distal
c.
Parallel
d.
Bisecting
16.
The radiopaque structure overlying the buccal roots in the following illustration is
which of the following?
a.
Zygoma
b.
c.
Coronoid process
d.
Eyeglass frame
17.
Which of the following is the best way to "move" the structure in the previous
illustration away from the buccal apexes of both molars? Reposition the cone
a.
b.
c.
d.
18.
a.
b.
c.
d.
19.
The radiopaque structure (arrow) in the following illustration is which of the
following?
a.
Condensing osteitis
b.
Trabeculation
c.
Lamina dura
d.
Root surface
20.
The view in the following radiograph is a mesially angled (beam is directed
distally) film. The unobturated root is which of the following?
a.
Buccal root
b.
Lingual root
21.
Of the following, the best way to identify the source of the radiolucency (arrow)
in the following illustration is which of the following?
a.
Pulp test
b.
Incisional biopsy
c.
Excisional biopsy
d.
CHAPTER 6:
1.
The patient is exposed to the least amount of radiation when which of the
following is used?
a.
Digital imaging
b.
Ektaspeed film
c.
Ultraspeed film
2.
b.
c.
3.
b.
c.
d.
4.
The best way to clean dental instruments before sterilization is by which of the
following?
a.
b.
c.
5.
Steam sterilization is achieved when the load has reached which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
6.
An advantage of rapid-steam autoclave over traditional autoclave is which of the
following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
7.
Of the following, which statement accurately describes a chemical vapor
sterilizer?
a.
b.
c.
d.
8.
An approved method for reducing microorganisms in water output from dental
units is which of the following?
a.
b.
Flushing the water line before attaching it to the hand piece or syringe
c.
d.
Careful sterilization of water lines within hand pieces and syringes between
patients
e.
9.
a.
b.
c.
Dry heat
d.
Bead sterilizer
10.
a.
b.
c.
11.
The most reliable agent for destroying microorganisms is which of the following?
a.
b.
Hot water
c.
Ultrasonics
d.
X-ray irradiation
e.
Heat
12.
A good, two-stage technique (i.e., two burs in sequence) for access through a
porcelain fixed-to-metal crown is which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
13.
An advantage that nickel titanium (NiTi) has over SS for intracanal instruments is
which of the following?
a.
Lower cost
b.
c.
Sharper
d.
e.
More flexibility
CHAPTER 7:
TOOTH MORPHOLOGY AND CAVITY
PREPARATION
1.
b.
It requires the use of a long-shank bur for access because the pulp chamber is
located in the middle portion of the root.
c.
d.
2.
The incidence of three roots and three canals in maxillary first premolars is which
of the following?
a.
Less than 1%
b.
3%
c.
6%
d.
10%
3.
The incidence of two canals at the apex was high, approaching 75%.
c.
d.
Histologically, calcification correlated with the radiographic narrowing of the
canal space.
4.
In their study of maxillary molars, Kulild and Peters noted which of the
following?
a.
Although two canals were often present in the mesiobuccal roots, the canals
merged apically.
b.
The use of magnification did not increase the number of canals found clinically in
this tooth group.
c.
The orifice to a second canal in the mesiobuccal root was distal to the main orifice
in a line connecting the mesiobuccal canal to the palatal canal.
d.
A high incidence of two canals with separate foramina in the mesiobuccal root
(71%).
5.
When treating a mandibular incisor with two canals evident on the preoperative
radiograph, which of the following statements are true?
a.
b.
c.
The canals often remain separate and distinct throughout the root.
d.
The access opening should be triangular with the apex at the cingulum.
6.
b.
c.
d.
7.
In their study of mandibular molars, Skidmore and Bjorndal noted which of the
following?
a.
b.
When there were two canals in the distal root, they remained distinct with
separate apical foramina.
c.
d.
The mesiobuccal canal was located under the mesiobuccal cusp tip and exhibited
the straightest morphology.
8.
The mandibular, second molar should be restored with a crown after endodontic
treatment for which of the following reasons?
a.
The pulp chamber is relatively large in comparison to the crown, making the tooth
susceptible to fracture.
b.
The tooth is in close to the insertion of the muscles of mastication, and the
percentage of preexisting fractures is high.
c.
There is a tendency for the buccal cusps to shear off under occlusal loading.
d.
Providing a post can be placed in the distal root to strengthen the root.
9.
Which of the following statements regarding the mandibular, second molar
exhibiting a C-shaped morphology is correct?
a.
The root morphology varies with two separate-and-distinct roots being a common
finding.
b.
Research indicates that the presence of a C-shaped canal is most common in
Caucasians.
c.
The C-shaped molar exhibits a ribbon-shaped orifice with a 180-degree arc
beginning in the mesiobuccal area and forming an arch extending lingually to the
distobuccal.
d.
The mesiolingual canal is often noted to be separate and distinct, exhibiting a
separate foramen.
10.
A 30-year-old male patient is being treated for a maxillary central incisor that he
traumatized as a teenager. Radiographically, the canal appears calcified and there is
evidence of apical pathosis. After attempting access the canal cannot be located despite
drilling into the middle third of the root. Which of the following statements regarding
further treatment is false?
a.
Radiographs may indicate the orientation of the access opening within the root.
b.
The risk of perforation will be greatest on the lingual surface, should the clinician
continue.
c.
The clinician should consider obturating the coronal segment and performing root
end surgery.
d.
Because canals become less calcified as they proceed apically, a pathfinder might
be used to negotiate the residual canal space.
CHAPTER 8:
CLEANING AND SHAPING THE ROOT
CANAL SYSTEM
1.
b.
Shaping facilitates placement of instruments to the working length by increasing
the coronal taper.
c.
Shaping permits the a more accurate assessment of the apical, cross-sectional
canal diameter.
d.
Shaping is a necessary procedure because calcification occurs from the coronal
portion of the canal to the apex.
2.
Which of the following statements best describes the Profile Series 29 files?
a.
The Profile Series 29 files conform to the International Standards Organization
(ISO) specifications for instrument design.
b.
The instruments exhibit a constant percentage change between successive
instruments.
c.
The Profile Series 29 files were designed to facilitate preparation of the coronal
portion of the radicular space.
d.
The instruments are most useful in the larger sizes because there is a smaller
change in diameter between the files.
3.
Each of the following are direct advantages of pre-enlarging the radicular space,
except for one. Which is the exception?
a.
It provides better tactile control of instruments when negotiating a small, curved
canal.
b.
c.
It facilitates obturation.
d.
4.
The result of root canal treatment in establishing patency is which of the
following?
a.
b.
It causes irritation of the periodontal attachment apparatus and increased
postoperative pain.
c.
It enlarges the apical terminus and increases the potential for extrusion of
obturating materials.
d.
5.
a.
Gauging is performed in the coronal portion of the canal to confirm the coronal
enlargement is complete.
b.
c.
Gauging and tuning verify the completed shaping of the apical portion of the
canal.
d.
Gauging and tuning produces a uniform, cylindric diameter to the canal in the
apical 2 to 3 mm that enhances obturation and sealing.
6.
b.
c.
d.
The instruments exhibit varied tapers with a constant D0 diameter of 0.25 mm.
7.
Which of the following statements regarding the use of chelating agents in canal
preparation is correct?
a.
b.
Viscous suspensions are more effective in preventing accumulation of tissue and
dentinal debris.
c.
Viscous suspensions contain the highest concentration of
ethylenediaminetetracitic acid (EDTA) and are most effective in removing the smear
layer.
d.
Aqueous solutions are most efficient as lubricants and, therefore, preferred to
viscous suspensions during canal preparation.
e.
EDTA, in concert with sodium hypochlorite, causes a nascent release of oxygen,
which kills anaerobic organisms.
8.
9.
a.
The initial scouter file that moves easily through the canal should be advanced to
the estimated working length.
b.
The initial scouter file may not advance to the estimated working length because
of the rate of instrument paper.
c.
The initial scouter file should be advanced with a reciprocating action using apical
pressure when resistance is encountered.
d.
The initial scouter file is used before the introduction of a viscous chelator in
cases exhibiting vital tissue.
10.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding coronal canal preparation
in endodontic treatment?
a.
Nickel-and-titanium (NiTi) rotary instruments are preferred to Gates-Glidden
(GG) drills because they remove dentin uniformly from the canal wall.
b.
c.
Both GG drills and NiTi rotary instruments should be used large to small, because
this develops a preparation that is centered in the root.
d.
GG drills used in a step-back technique can relocate the canal away from the
furcal wall.
11.
When using the balanced-force technique for canal preparation, which of the
following statements is accurate?
a.
b.
Clockwise rotation balances the tendency of the file to be drawn into the canal
during the cutting stroke.
c.
Dentin is engaged with a counterclockwise rotation and cut with a 45- to 90degree, clockwise rotation.
d.
12.
Extending a no. 10 file with a 0.02 taper 1.0 mm beyond the apical foramen will
result in which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
It reduces the percentage of change from a no. 10 file to a no. 15 file by 50%.
d.
It eliminates the natural constriction of the foramen and increases the chance for
an overfill.
CHAPTER 9:
OBTURATION OF THE CLEANED AND
SHAPED ROOT CANAL SYSTEM
1.
Of the following, the least important determinant of root canal treatment success
is which of the following?
a.
b.
Healthy periodontium
c.
2.
Paraformaldehyde-containing obturating materials result in which of the
following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
3.
It is preferable to not extrude sealer beyond the apex for which of the following
reasons?
a.
b.
c.
d.
4.
Relatively inert
b.
Immunogenic
c.
unstable
d.
Carcinogenic
5.
The primary reason to use a sealer and cement is which of the following?
a.
b.
Canal disinfection
c.
d.
Adhesion to dentin
e.
6.
Considering lateral versus vertical condensation, studies have shown which of the
following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
7.
Sealability with either largely depends on the shape of the prepared canal.
A problem with nickel-and-titanium (NiTi) spreaders is which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
They do not penetrate as deeply as stainless steel (SS) spreaders under equal force
8.
Moderate extrusion of obturating materials beyond the apex is undesirable
because of which of the following?
a.
b.
Sealer and gutta-percha cause a severe, inflammatory reaction in periradicular
tissue.
c.
d.
9.
b.
c.
d.
10.
a.
b.
c.
d.
11.
a.
b.
c.
12.
Which of the following statements accurately describe the continuous-wave
technique?
a.
It uses a heat carrier that can both compact and heat gutta-percha.
b.
c.
d.
13.
An advantage of the continuous-wave technique over warm, vertical compaction
is which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
14.
a.
b.
c.
d.
15.
The obturation of the incisor shown in the following illustration is inadequate
because of which of the following?
a.
b.
There is variable radiodensity (i.e., incomplete condensation) throughout its
length.
c.
d.
The diagnosis was pulp necrosis and chronic apical periodontitis; the canal should
be filled to the apical foramen.
16.
The dark tooth in the following illustration has a history of trauma and root canal
treatment. It is likely that the discoloration is primarily caused by which of the following?
a.
b.
A leaking restoration
c.
d.
17.
Of the following, what is the most likely cause of failure of root canal treatment
on the lateral incisor in the illustration?
a.
b.
c.
d.
CHAPTER 10:
1.
Concerning making changes in a patient record, which of the following statements
is accurate?
a.
b.
c.
2.
b.
Describes what any careful-and-prudent clinician would do under similar
circumstances
c.
d.
3.
The doctrine of informed consent does not require which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
Patients forfeit their right to do as they see fit with their body.
d.
4.
Which of the following statements accurately describe a periodontal examination
of a patient referred for endodontic treatment?
a.
b.
c.
d.
5.
b.
c.
d.
6.
If a patient with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) requests that the dentist
not inform the staff of the condition, the dentist should do which of the following?
a.
b.
Tell the staff in private, and then treat the patient with extra precautions
c.
Not tell the staff but treat the patient with great caution
d.
Not tell the staff and require the patient to assume liability should anyone contract
the virus
7.
Informs the patient that the general practitioner performed substandard care
b.
Fails to disclose to the patient or referring dentist evident pathosis on teeth other
than those the specialist is treating
c.
d.
Mistakenly initiates treatment on the wrong tooth in a difficult diagnostic
situation
8.
Of the following, which is the best way for clinicians to avoid legal actions by
patients?
a.
b.
c.
d.
9.
True
b.
False
10.
Suing to collect fees is a proven route to being counter sued for malpractice.
a.
True
b.
False
11.
a.
b.
Endodontists
c.
12.
A patient continues to have pain after a dentist uses the technique of
Paraformaldehyde paste pulpotomy on a tooth with a necrotic pulp and apical pathosis
and then places a crown. In this situation, which of the following statements is true?
a.
The dentist is liable for malpractice because unacceptable treatment procedures
were followed.
b.
The dentist is not liable if the patient is now referred to the appropriate specialist
who can treat the case.
c.
The dentist is not liable if the dentist performs additional treatment for no fee.
In the process of tooth development, which of the following statements are true?
a.
The basement membrane separating the inner dental epithelium from the dental
mesenchyme is composed of type I and III collagen.
b.
Blood vessels become established in the dental papilla during the cap stage.
c.
Mature ameloblasts appear before odontoblasts mature. However, the formation
of enamel takes place following the deposition of dentin.
The II collagen mRNA increase with odontoblastic differentiation.
e.
Ameloblasts form enamel spindles near the future dentinoenamel junction (DEJ).
2.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
3.
b.
The inner epithelium, the stellate reticulum, and outer enamel epithelium form
Hertwig's epithelial root sheath.
c.
The dental sac disintegrates upon induction of dentin formation and remnants
persist as the Epithelial Rests of Malassez.
d.
Accessory canals in the root are formed when there is discontinuity in the root
sheath.
4.
c.
Dentinal tubules make up 50% of the dentin volume and they exhibit extensive
terminal ramifications.
d.
Calcification of dentin results in an organic component composed of
noncollagenous matrix components.
5.
Which of the following statements regarding the tubular structure of dentin is
correct?
a.
Peritubular dentin and intertubular dentin are the same composition, except for the
fact peritubular dentin lines the tubule.
b.
Peritubular dentin has a lower-collagen content when compared to intertubular
dentin and is more susceptible to removal by acids.
c.
Intertubular dentin is more highly mineralized when compared to peritubular
dentin.
d.
6.
Peritubular dentin defines the tubule size and is common to all mammals.
Which of the following statements regarding dentin permeability is true?
a.
Remains constant regardless of the depth of a cavity preparation because of a
pulpal tissue pressure of 10.3 mm Hg
b.
Increases as the pulp and dentin border is approached (primarily because the
tubular surface area increases)
c.
d.
Increases near the pulp and dentin border as the hydrostatic pressure in the tubules
decreases
7.
Which of the following statements regarding tight junctions in the odontoblastic
layer is true?
a.
They regulate permeability of extracellular substances between the odontoblastic
layer and the predentin.
b.
They permit low-resistance pathways for electrical excitation when the
odontoblastic process is distorted.
c.
d.
They are infrequent but when found are located in the basal portion of the cells.
8.
Which of the following statements regarding production of collagen by the
odontoblast is correct?
a.
Type I collagen is manufactured in the cellular cytoplasm, packaged by the Golgi
complex, and released by reverse pinocytosis.
b.
Tropocollagen is synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) and
packaged in the Golgi complex. Vesicles consisting of collagen fibrils migrate into the
odontoblastic process and are released.
c.
The Golgi complex packages collagen precursors (e.g., proline) into vesicles that
are released into the predentin. These then precipitate to form tropocollagen and,
eventually, collagen fibrils.
d.
Synthesis begins in the RER with procollagen being packaged in the Golgi
complex. Vesicles are formed and release tropocollagen in the predentin matrix.
9.
10.
Which of the following statements regarding the extracellular matrix of the pulp is
false?
a.
The extracellular matrix changes with eruption of the tooth as the chrondroitin
sulfate concentration decreases and the hyaluronic acid and dermatan sulfate fraction
increase.
b.
c.
d.
The water content of the extracellular matrix is relatively low, giving the tissue a
colloidal consistency and limiting movement of components within the tissue.
11.
Teeth with immature root development often are unresponsive to electrical pulp
testing because which of the following?
a.
Myelinated fibers are the last structures to appear in the developing pulp.
b.
Predentin and intratubular fibers are not present until root formation is complete.
c.
d.
Electrical stimulation of autonomic fibers decreases blood flow and depresses Adelta fiber activity.
12.
Each of the following statements support the hydrodynamic theory for pain,
except for one. Which is the exception?
a.
Odontoblasts have a low-membrane potential and do not respond to electrical
stimulation.
b.
Placement of local anesthetics on dentin does not alter the pain response.
c.
There is a positive correlation between fluid movement in the tubules and the
discharge of intradental nerves.
d.
Forty percent of the tubules in the area of pulp horns contain intratubular nerve
endings.
e.
13.
Which of the following statements regarding a patient that has a sharp, short
sensation to cold that resolves immediately with removal of the stimulus is correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
C-fibers are responding to the release of inflammatory mediators, such as
bradykinin and substance P.
14.
a.
Blood flow within the pulp is homogenous with arteriovenous anastomoses
maintaining an even flow.
b.
Unmyelinated, sympathetic fibers innervating the arterioles and venules produce
vasoconstriction.
c.
The pulpal blood flow is the highest of oral tissues because of the relatively high
metabolic activity of the pulp.
d.
15.
Which of the following statements outlines the most significant factor influencing
the pulp's response to injury and compromised healing?
a.
Inflammatory cells, such as polymorphonuclear leukocytes and B-lymphocytes,
are not found in the normal pulp.
b.
c.
d.
The fact that the pulp may not have a lymphatic system.
e.
16.
Which of the following statements regarding age changes in the pulp are false?
a.
There is a decrease in the cellularity and collagenous fibers, especially in the
radicular pulp.
b.
Odontoblasts decrease in size and may disappear completely in some areas,
particularly the pulpal floor of multirooted teeth.
c.
d.
e.
The pulp demonstrates an increased resistance to the action of proteolytic
enzymes.
CHAPTER 12:
1.
b.
Necrotic tissue
c.
Microorganisms
d.
2.
b.
c.
3.
A periapical, true cyst communicates with the root canal; however, a periapicalpocket cyst does not.
a.
True
b.
False
4.
The most important route of bacteria into the dental pulp is from which of the
following?
a.
b.
c.
5.
The least important factor influencing the pathogenicity of endodontic flora is
which of the following?
a.
Microbial interaction
b.
c.
d.
6.
b.
c.
d.
7.
b.
They concentrate in the cortical area of lymph nodes and also circulate in the
blood.
c.
They are responsible for the cell-mediated arm of the immune system.
d.
8.
a.
b.
c.
d.
9.
Phagocytosis of microorganisms
b.
c.
d.
10.
a.
b.
c.
d.
11.
Which of the following statements regarding acute apical periodontitis is
accurate?
a.
b.
It is detectable radiographically.
c.
d.
12.
Which of the following statements regarding chronic, apical periodontitis is
accurate?
a.
It is a neutrophil-dominated lesion encapsulated in a collagenous connective
tissue.
b.
c.
d.
13.
a.
b.
c.
They are difficult for macrophages and multinucleated giant cells to remove.
d.
14.
Which of the following statements regarding periapical actinomycosis is
accurate?
a.
It is caused by gram-negative organisms exhibiting branching filaments that end
in clubs or hyphae.
b.
It is a fungal disease characterized by filamentous colonies called sulphur
granules.
c.
d.
15.
a.
b.
c.
Periapical actinomycosis
d.
1.
Pulpal and periradicular pathosis results primarily from which of the following?
a.
b.
Bacterial invasion
c.
d.
Immunologic reactions
2.
Which of the following statements regarding the organism producing pulpal
pathosis is correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Organisms infecting the pulp tend to be aerobic, compared to organisms infecting
the periapex.
3.
4.
b.
c.
d.
5.
The most common black-pigmented bacteria cultivated from endodontic
infections is which of the following?
a.
Bacteroides melaninogaster
b.
Fusobacterium nucleatum
c.
Prevotella nigrescens
d.
Porphyromonas intermedia
6.
b.
c.
Antibiotics
d.
7.
b.
Pili break off and form extracellular vesicles filled with enzymes.
c.
d.
8.
b.
c.
d.
9.
b.
c.
d.
10.
a.
It involves the submental, sublingual, and submental space of the right or left side.
b.
c.
d.
11.
a.
Sinus tracts
b.
c.
d.
12.
a.
b.
c.
d.
13.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
14.
a.
b.
c.
d.
15.
a.
b.
c.
d.
16.
a.
b.
c.
It is rarely associated with pseudomembranous colitis in doses recommended for
endodontic infections.
d.
17.
Which of the following statements regarding the American Heart Association
(AHA) guidelines for prophylactic antibiotic coverage is accurate?
a.
b.
c.
18.
a.
Surgery
b.
c.
Periodontal-ligament injection
d.
19.
Which of the following statements regarding he theory of focal infection is
accurate?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
20.
Which of the following is correct in relation to the periradicular lesion formed in
response to dental caries and subsequent pulp necrosis?
a.
b.
c.
Formation of the granuloma is mediated through a specific immunologic
response.
d.
CHAPTER 14:
1.
Which of the following statements regarding pulp stimulation with cold is
accurate?
a.
b.
c.
d.
2.
b.
c.
d.
Gingival and periodontal tissues are more sensitive to testing than the pulp.
3.
They are produced by a charged coupled device and do not require x-rays.
b.
c.
d.
They are captured by a sensor that has a greater surface area than traditional film.
4.
Which of the following statements regarding nickel and titanium (NiTi)
instruments is accurate?
a.
b.
When stressed, they exhibit transformation from the austenitic crystalline phase to
a martensitic structure.
c.
They cannot be strained to the same level as stainless steel (SS) without
permanent deformation.
d.
5.
They are easier to prebend before placement in the canal than SS.
A barbed broach is most useful for which of the following?
a.
Removal of cotton, paper points, and other objects from the canal
b.
c.
d.
6.
In comparing K-type files with reamers, which of the following statements
regarding K-type files is accurate?
a.
b.
They differ, because the file is manufactured by twisting a tapered, square blank.
c.
d.
They are the least flexible when comparing instruments of the same size.
7.
Based on instrument design and method of manufacturing, which of the following
is most susceptible to fracture?
a.
b.
c.
d.
8.
b.
c.
They are safer than K-type files, because external signs of stress are more visible
as changes in flute design.
d.
They are aggressive because of a negative-rake angle that is parallel to the shaft.
9.
Which of the following statements regarding the Profile rotary instruments is
accurate?
a.
b.
c.
d.
10.
Which of the following statements regarding the best apex locators is accurate?
a.
b.
c.
They measure the impedance between the file and the mucosa.
d.
e.
11.
Piezoelectric, ultrasonic devices differ from magneto-strictive devices in which of
the following?
a.
b.
c.
The piezoelectric unit uses a RispiSonic, ShaperSonic, and TrioSonic file system.
d.
12.
Which of the following statements regarding ultrasonic root canal instrumentation
is accurate?
a.
b.
c.
d.
It is most useful in small canals where file contact with the wall is maximized.
13.
Which of the following statements regarding sodium hypochlorite used as a root
canal irrigating solution is accurate?
a.
b.
c.
It should be used in higher concentrations because of the increased free chlorine
available.
d.
It is a good wetting agent that permits the solution to flow into canal irregularities.
14.
When ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) is used as an endodontic irrigant,
which of the following statements is accurate?
a.
It must be completely removed after use to prevent continued action and
destruction of dentin.
b.
c.
d.
15.
Calcium hydroxide is advocated as an interappointment medication primarily
because of which of the following
a.
b.
c.
d.
16.
Which of the following statements is accurate regarding gutta-percha points is
accurate?
a.
b.
c.
d.
17.
a.
b.
Low toxicity
c.
Long working time, but quick setting (i.e., 1 to 2 hours) at body temperature
d.
18.
N2, Endomethasone, and Reibler's paste are sealers that do which of the
following?
a.
b.
Induce healing in the apical pulp wound after vital pulp extirpation
c.
d.
19.
a.
b.
c.
d.
20.
The root end is ultrasonically prepared during endodontic surgery for which of the
following reasons?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The most common response in the dentin deep to caries is which of the following?
a.
Increased permeability
b.
Alteration of collagen
c.
d.
Dentinal sclerosis
2.
Relatively few bacteria are found in a pulp abscess because of which of the
following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
3.
A periodontal ligament injection of 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine
causes which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
4.
The highest incidence of pulp necrosis is associated with which of the following?
a.
b.
Inlay preparations
c.
d.
Full-crown preparations
5.
A disadvantage of acid etching dentin (regarding effects on the pulp) is which of
the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Acid softens the dentin and increases microleakage at the restoration dentin
interface.
6.
The response of the pulp to a recently placed amalgam without a cavity lining is
usually which of the following?
a.
Slight-to-moderate inflammation
b.
Moderate-to-severe inflammation
c.
d.
None
7.
The smear layer on dentin walls acts to prevent pulpal injury for which of the
following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
8.
A reaction that tends to protect the pulp from injury from dentinal caries is which
of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
9.
b.
c.
d.
10.
Deeper cavity preparations have more potential for pulpal damage because of
which of the following?
1.
2.
3.
b. 3 only
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 3
e. 1 and 2
11.
Agents that clean, dry, or sterilize the cavity are which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
12.
Of the following, which is the best way to prevent pulp damage during cavity
preparation?
a.
b.
c.
d.
13.
Which is the major reason why Class II restorations with composite are damaging
to the pulp?
a.
b.
c.
Toxic chemicals are released from the composite and diffuse into the pulp.
d.
14.
A pulp has been damaged and is inflamed because of deep caries and cavity
preparation. What material placed on the floor of the cavity aids the pulp in resolving the
inflammation?
a.
Calcium hydroxide
b.
Zinc oxide-eugenol
c.
Steroid formulations
d.
15.
A cusp fractures and exposes dentin but not the pulp. What is the probable
response in the pulp?
a.
b.
Mild-to-moderate inflammation
c.
d.
No pulp response
16.
The following illustration shows a section of pulp and dentin underlying an area
of cavity preparation, which was done 1 day previous. The best description of the pulp
reaction is which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
17.
This is an area of pulp close to a carious exposure (see the following illustration).
The inflammatory response is primarily which of the following?
a.
Acute
b.
Chronic
c.
Giant cell
d.
Vascular
18.
The early inflammatory cell infiltrate response of the pulp to caries involves
primarily which of the following?
a.
Neutrophils
b.
Macrophages
c.
d.
e.
19.
Hypersensitivity of the pulp after restoration placement indicates which of the
following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
CHAPTER 16:
TRAUMATIC INJURIES
1.
If several teeth are out of alignment after trauma, the most reasonable explanation
is which of the following?
a.
Luxation
b.
Subluxation
c.
Alveolar fracture
d.
Root fracture
2.
Initial vitality testing of traumatized teeth is most useful to which of the
following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
3.
A normal periapical radiograph of a traumatized tooth is useful for which of the
following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
4.
b.
c.
d.
5.
Which of the following statements regarding uncomplicated crown fracture is
accurate?
a.
b.
c.
It involves root canal treatment if the exposed dentin is sensitive to cold stimulus.
d.
e.
6.
Which of the following statements regarding complicated crown fractures is
accurate?
a.
Exposure to the oral cavity permits rapid bacterial penetration through the pulp.
b.
Inflammation is limited to the coronal 2 mm of the exposed pulp for the first 24
hours.
c.
7.
a.
b.
c.
d.
8.
Midroot fracture
b.
Intrusive luxation
c.
Concussion
d.
9.
b.
c.
d.
10.
a.
b.
c.
It is characterized histologically by inflammatory tissue with multinucleated giant
cells.
d.
11.
a.
b.
c.
d.
12.
Which medium of storage for an avulsed tooth is best for prolonged extraoral
periods?
a.
b.
Milk
c.
Distilled water
d.
Saliva
13.
The most important factor for managing avulsion is which of the following?
a.
Extraoral time
b.
c.
d.
14.
a.
Displacement
b.
Alveolar fracture
c.
Root fracture
d.
Crown fracture
e.
15.
Which of the following is true about thermal and electrical tests after trauma?
a.
Sensitivity tests evaluate the nerve and circulatory condition of the tooth.
b.
c.
d.
16.
a.
b.
It is initiated by odontoblasts.
c.
d.
It is usually asymptomatic.
17.
a.
b.
They should be rigidly splinted for 3 to 4 weeks to allow periodontal support to
mature.
c.
d.
They should have apexification attempted when the apex is not closed.
b.
c.
d.
In the furcation
2.
The maxillary lateral incisor is affected more that the central incisor.
c.
The grooves extend apically in varying distances, with less than 1% reaching the
apex.
d.
Pulp necrosis frequently occurs in teeth with palatogingival grooves because of
the lack of cementum covering the dentin.
3.
The prognosis for a tooth with a perforation is affected by all of the following
factors, except for one. Which is the exception?
Location of the perforation
b.
c.
d.
e.
4.
a.
5.
Which of the following statements best describes the effect periodontal disease
has on the dental pulp?
a.
There is a direct correlation between the severity of the periodontal disease and
the percentage of pulps that become necrotic.
b.
When periodontal disease or the treatment of the disease exposes a lateral or
accessory canal, complete pulp necrosis will result.
c.
Although periodontitis can cause pulp inflammation and necrosis, treatment
procedures have little effect on the pulp.
d.
Periodontal disease that does not expose the apical foramen is unlikely to produce
significant damage to the pulp.
6.
Which of the following statements regarding the primary endodontic lesion with
secondary periodontic involvement is correct?
a.
Pulp necrosis occurs initially and an apical lesion forms. Apical migration of
periodontal disease results in communication between the two lesions.
b.
Treatment consists of performing endodontic treatment, which is followed by a 6month recall examination. If the periodontal component is still present, periodontal
therapy is initiated.
c.
The primary endodontic lesion with secondary periodontic involvement exhibits a
poorer prognosis when compared with the primary periodontal lesion with secondary
endodontic involvement.
d.
Pulp necrosis occurs and forms a sinus tract through the periodontal ligament that,
over time, permits the accumulation of plaque and calculus on the root.
7.
b.
c.
The long-term prognosis for the pulp in teeth with vital-root resection is poor.
d.
8.
Which of the following statements regarding guided tissue regeneration (GTR) is
false?
a.
GTR is an effective adjunct to treatment of periodontal disease but has limited
value in treating endodontic pathosis.
b.
The combined endodontic periodontic lesion has the least favorable prognosis for
GTR because of the relationship of the lesion to the gingival margin.
c.
d.
Evidence suggest that GTR enhances bone formation by preventing contact of
connective tissue with the bone.
9.
A 24-year-old female patient has drainage from the gingival sulcus of her
maxillary, right, central incisor (tooth no. 8). Three years ago she relates a porcelain
fused-to-metal bridge (nos. 6 to 8) was placed because of a congenitally missing, lateral
Vertical-root fracture
b.
Palatogingival groove
c.
Pulp necrosis
d.
Periodontitis
e.
Osteogenic sarcoma
10.
A 51-year-old woman seeks evaluation of swelling of the buccal tissue opposite
her mandibular, right, first molar (tooth no. 30). She relates a history of having a full-gold
crown placed 2 months ago. She states that she has had pain for the past week and that
the swelling began yesterday. Clinical examination reveals swelling in the buccal
furcation area of tooth no. 30. Probing depths are 3 to 4 mm, except for a 6-mm defect in
the furcal area of tooth no. 30. Pulp testing with CO2 snow reveals teeth nos. 28, 29, and
31 respond. Tooth no. 30 is not responsive. Radiographic examination reveals normal
apical structures, however, there is a radiolucent area in the furcation of tooth no. 30.
This area was not evident on the film taken before placement of the crown. Based on this
information what diagnostic classification is most appropriate?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
CHAPTER 18:
1.
ENDODONTIC PHARMACOLOGY
b.
c.
d.
2.
Which of the following best describes the neural innervation of the dental pulp?
a.
b.
c.
Sympathetic fibers are not blocked with application of local anesthetic agents.
d.
3.
Nucleus caudalis
b.
Limbic system
c.
Reticular system
d.
4.
Pain that refers from an inflamed maxillary sinus to maxillary molars is likely to
the phenomenon of which of the following?
a.
Convergence
b.
Sublimation
c.
Nociception
d.
Information transfer
e.
Projection
5.
b.
c.
d.
They are sympathetic fibers that modulate blood flow in the pulp after sensory
stimulation.
6.
Hyperalgesia is characterized by the following, except for one. Which is the
exception?
a.
b.
c.
d.
7.
b.
When compared with ibuprofen, etodolac has a more profound analgesic action.
c.
Studies indicate etodolac is unique, because the drug does not have a peripheral
analgesic mechanism of action.
d.
This drug can be prescribed for adult patients with aspirin hypersensitivity.
8.
Which of the following statements regarding activation of the opiate receptor is
accurate?
a.
It blocks nociceptive signals from the trigeminal nucleus to higher brain centers.
b.
c.
d.
9.
Opioids are frequently used in combination with other drugs because which of the
following?
a.
The nonsteroidal, antiinflammatory drugs in combination with the opioid act
synergistically on the opiate receptor.
b.
The combination permits a lower dose of the opioid, which can reduce side
effects.
c.
d.
10.
a.
Which of the following is true for the use of codeine as an analgesic agent?
Codeine prescribed in 60-mg doses is more effective than 650 mg of aspirin.
b.
Codeine prescribed in 30-mg doses is more effective than 600 mg of
acetaminophen.
c.
d.
11.
Management of pain of endodontic origin should focus on which of the
following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
12.
Which of the following best describes a "flexible plan" for prescribing analgesic
agents?
a.
A maximal dose of an opioid is administered. If pain persists, the opioid is
supplemented with a non-steroidal, antiinflammatory agent or acetaminophen. Doses
are then alternated.
b.
A maximal dose of a nonsteroidal, antiinflammatory agent or acetaminophen is
administered. If pain persists, the drug is supplemented with an opioid. Doses are then
alternated.
c.
Patients are advised to take the maximal dose of a nonsteroidal, antiinflammatory
agent a day before the appointment and then as necessary for postoperative pain.
d.
Patients are advised to take an opioid agent a day before the appointment and then
as necessary for postoperative pain.
13.
Nonsteroidal, antiinflammatory agents administered in combination with
cyclosporine may result in which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
They result in increased concentrations of the nonsteroidal agent in the blood
plasma.
14.
Nonsteroidal, antiinflammatory agents administered in combination with
anticoagulants may result in which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
15.
Indomethacin administered in combination with sympathomimetic agents results
in which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
16.
Peripheral afferent nerve fibers in an inflamed pulp may respond to mediators by
which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
17.
Two nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) that have minimal adverse
gastrointestinal side effects are which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
18.
To minimize posttreatment pain, when are analgesics most effective when
administered?
a.
As a pretreatment
b.
c.
d.
e.
19.
Prophylactic administration of antibiotics to control adverse posttreatment
symptoms in prospective, controlled, clinical trials on asymptomatic patients has been
shown to be which of the following?
a.
Ineffective
b.
c.
d.
CHAPTER 19:
ENDODONTIC MICROSURGERY
1.
A 45-year-old man has a radiolucent area associated with his maxillary, right,
central incisor (tooth no. 8) and facial swelling. He relates traumatic injury as a child with
root canal treatment during his teenage years. Subsequent to this treatment he fractured
tooth no. 8 playing basketball in his early thirties. Root canal retreatment was necessary
and the tooth was restored with a cast post, core and crown. Which of the following is the
most appropriate treatment sequence?
a.
Incision and drainage followed by nonsurgical retreatment and fabrication of a
new restoration
b.
c.
Management of the infection and performance of root end surgery when the
swelling subsides
d.
Incise and drain the swelling, prescribe an antibiotic, and follow the patient on
recall examinations
e.
2.
Each of the following statements on the reasons two radiographs are
recommended for evaluation of a tooth to be treated surgically is correct, except for one.
Which is the exception?
a.
Two films permit the evaluation and location of normal anatomic structures.
b.
c.
d.
e.
3.
When a vessel is severed, initial hemostasis results from which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
4.
The anesthetic of choice when performing endodontic root end surgery on a
patient with mild cardiovascular disease is which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
4% prilocaine plain
5.
The primary beneficial action of epinephrine when performing root end surgery is
which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
6.
c.
The mucogingival flap with an anterior-releasing incision is preferred in posterior
areas.
d.
The type of vertical-releasing incisions distinguish the mucogingival flap from the
Luebke-Oschsenbein flap.
e.
The semilunar flap has the advantage of providing an esthetic result without scar
formation.
7.
Which of the following hemostatic agents activates the intrinsic coagulation
pathway?
a.
Ferric sulfate
b.
c.
Microfibrillar collagen
d.
Bone wax
e.
Epinephrine pellets
8.
Which of the following is the recommended hemostatic technique to control
bleeding during root end surgery?
a.
Local anesthesia with 2% lidocaine 1:50,000 epinephrine, epinephrine saturated
pellets, ferric sulfate, calcium sulfate paste
b.
Local anesthesia with 2% lidocaine 1:50,000 epinephrine, ferric sulfate,
microfibrillar collagen, bone wax
c.
Local anesthesia with 2% lidocaine 1:100,000 epinephrine, ferric sulfate,
microfibrillar collagen, Telfa pad
d.
Local anesthesia with 0.5% marcaine 1:200,000 epinephrine, ferric sulfate,
calcium sulfate paste
9.
Each of the following statements is correct regarding the use of the H 161
Lindemann bone cutter for root end surgery is correct, except for one. Which is the
exception?
a.
b.
It has more flutes that conventional burs, so cutting is faster and more efficient.
c.
When used with the Impact Air 45 hand piece splatter is decreased.
d.
10.
a.
The root should be resected at a 45-degree angle to ensure adequate access and
visibility.
b.
The apical 2 mm should be removed to ensure that apical ramifications are not
present.
c.
d.
Resection of the root should be as perpendicular to the long access of the root as
possible.
11.
Which of the following statements regarding the isthmus between canals is
correct?
a.
Although often noted between canals, failure to include this area in the
preparation does not affect the prognosis of a tooth.
b.
The incomplete isthmus should be prepared with a tracking groove before
ultrasonic preparation.
c.
Isthmus incidence is not affected by the amount of the root resection but increases
as the bevel approaches 45 degrees.
d.
When using a surgical operating microscope, the absence of an isthmus at 16 to
25 is evidence that no connection between canals exist.
12.
a.
Ferric sulfate acts by producing a tamponade effect and is absorbed by the body
over 2 to 3 weeks.
b.
c.
Applied to the osseous surface, ferric sulfate causes agglutination of blood
proteins.
d.
13.
a.
The ideal preparation should extend 3 mm into the root and follow the long axis
of the tooth.
b.
The lingual wall of the preparation is the most difficult area to evaluate.
c.
d.
KiS tips have enhanced cutting efficiency for root end preparations because of a
zirconium nitride coating.
e.
14.
Which of the following statements regarding root end filling materials is false?
a.
Super EBA is preferred as a root end filling material over IRM because it lacks
eugenol.
b.
c.
Mineral trioxide aggregate (MTA) is not adversely affected by contamination
with blood.
d.
Periapical healing with MTA results in cementum formation over the material.
e.
Composite resins appear to be acceptable, providing a dry-opening field can be
maintained.
15.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding treatment for a 73-year-old
woman who develops ecchymosis after root end surgery?
a.
Instruct the patient to place warm compresses over the area three to four times
daily.
b.
c.
d.
Explain the cause of the problem to the patient and provide reassurance.
CHAPTER 20:
1.
The majority of life-threatening systemic complications arise in which of the
following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
2.
Mandibular premolars
b.
Maxillary premolars
c.
Maxillary molars
d.
Mandibular molars
3.
Which of the following is not a factor affecting the onset of local anesthesia?
a.
b.
c.
d.
4.
b.
c.
d.
5.
Failure to obtain adequate anesthesia after an appropriately administered nerve
block is most likely the result in which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
6.
When comparing amide and ester local anesthetic agents, which of the following
is true?
a.
Esters are more likely to produce systemic toxicity when compared to amides.
b.
c.
d.
7.
A patient is anesthetized using a posterior superior alveolar (PSA) nerve block to
perform endodontic treatment on the maxillary, first molar. Adequate anesthesia is not
obtained. In this situation the clinician should consider which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
8.
An infiltration injection is given for a maxillary, second premolar. Adequate
anesthesia is not obtained. Which injection should be considered?
a.
b.
PSA block
c.
Palatal infiltration
d.
e.
9.
Infiltration in the mandible may be an effective technique in treating the which of
the following?
a.
Central incisor
b.
Canine
c.
First premolar
d.
Second molar
10.
a.
The needle is inserted at the height of the mucogingival junction of the most
posterior, maxillary tooth.
b.
The needle is passed lingual to the mandibular ramous until is bone is contacted.
c.
d.
11.
The Stabident local anesthesia system is used for which one of the following
reasons?
a.
b.
c.
To limit the adverse reactions to vasopressor components of local anesthetic
cartridges
d.
12.
a.
b.
c.
Administration instructions for patients in pain the day before initiating root canal
treatment to ensure adequate blood levels
d.
13.
For emergency treatment of patients with pulp pathosis, oral sedation should be
considered during which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
14.
Which of the following statements regarding the use of nitrous oxide inhalation
sedation is accurate?
a.
It produces significant analgesic effect when used in conjunction with local
anesthetics.
b.
It is difficult in managing endodontic patients because of the application of the
rubber dam.
c.
d.
It should be used only when an auxiliary of the same sex as the patient is present
to assist.
15.
Which of the following statements regarding supra-periosteal injection
(infiltration) is accurate?
a.
b.
c.
d.
16.
a.
b.
It may be more effective because it is deposited in normal, rather than inflamed,
tissue.
c.
d.
17.
Which of the following statements regarding the anterior middle superior alveolar
(AMSA) nerve block is accurate?
a.
b.
It can be delivered by a computer-controlled system or by traditional needle and
syringe.
c.
d.
18.
If the dentist thinks there may be considerable posttreatment pain, the clinician
may do which of the following?
a.
Prescribe antibiotics
b.
c.
d.
19.
a.
b.
c.
d.
c.
d.
2.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the incidence of cervical
resorption after internal bleaching?
a.
Cervical resorption can be as high 25% when Superoxyl and heat are used.
b.
c.
The incidence of cervical resorption increases in patients who are 25 years old
and older.
d.
Although cervical resorption is often attributed to bleaching, it is more likely
caused by a previous traumatic injury to the involved tooth.
3.
Each of the following is an intrinsic form of tooth discoloration, except for one.
Which is the exception?
a.
Endemic fluorosis
b.
c.
Tetracycline staining
d.
Peridex staining
4.
c.
d.
Requires a local anesthetic and frequently produces postoperative thermal
sensitivity.
5.
When performing a walking bleach procedure, which of the following statements
is accurate?
a.
The dentin should be etched before placement of the bleaching agent to increase
permeability of the tubules and enhance the bleaching action.
b.
The sodium perborate paste should be covered by a minimum of 2 mm of Cavit or
IRM.
c.
d.
The definitive bonded restoration should be placed at the visit in which the
sodium perborate paste is removed.
6.
b.
Vitamin E can be used to neutralize the oxidizing effects of hydrogen peroxide
that comes in contact with soft tissues.
c.
d.
After fabrication of custom trays with appropriate reservoirs, patients apply a
bleaching gel every 2 hours during their waking hours.
d.
The amount of occlusal reduction is a more significant factor in inducing pulpal
pathosis when compared to axial reduction.
e.
Pulpal pathosis becomes significant when the remaining thickness of dentin is less
than 1.5 mm.
3.
Which of the following would best fit the definition of the "stressed pulp
syndrome"?
a.
A tooth recently prepared for a porcelain fused-to-metal crown that (with
placement of a provisional crown) exhibits severe pain to thermal stimulation
b.
A tooth that is asymptomatic but has had numerous restorations placed over a
period of years because of recurrent caries
c.
d.
A tooth that is not responsive to pulp testing with CO2 and EPT
4.
Each of the following is a concern when restoring an endodontically treated molar
with minimal remaining tooth structure, except for one. Which is the exception?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
5.
A tooth requires a post, core, and crown for adequate restorative treatment. Which
of the following is the most important factor in the restorative equation?
a.
Dowel length
b.
Dowel width
c.
d.
e.
An adequate ferrule
6.
A patient requires a post and core for restoration of a narrow, mandibular, central
incisor tooth with 1 mm of structure above the gingival level. Which of the following
would be the most appropriate dowel for this situation?
a.
b.
c.
d.
7.
Which of the following statements regarding the carbon fiber dowels is false?
a.
b.
c.
d.
8.
b.
c.
d.
9.
The most appropriate time to determine the precise method for restoring the
endodontically treated tooth is which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
10.
a.
The post space for passive dowels must provide intimate contact between the
dowel and the dentin wall.
b.
Post space should extend into the root to a depth 3 to 5 mm from the apex.
c.
The post space required for fabrication of a dowel and core using a direct
technique requires removal of more tooth structure than the proprietary dowel systems
because of the need to remove undercuts.
d.
b.
c.
d.
2.
Radiographically, which of the following statements regarding primary teeth is
accurate?
a.
Pathologic changes in the periradicular tissues are most often apparent at the
apexes than the furcation of molars.
b.
The presence of calcified masses within the pulp is indicative of acute pulpal
disease.
c.
d.
3.
Which of the following diagnostic tests is usually reliable for determining pulpal
status of primary teeth?
a.
b.
c.
Percussion
d.
4.
c.
It includes placing calcium hydroxide or zinc oxide-eugenol (ZOE) over the
remaining caries and permanently restoring the tooth with amalgam.
d.
5.
Direct pulp capping is recommended for primary teeth with which of the
following?
a.
Carious exposures
b.
Mechanical exposures
c.
d.
6.
Pain to percussion
b.
c.
Variations in mobility
d.
7.
A calcium hydroxide pulpotomy performed on a young, permanent tooth is
judged to be successful during which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
8.
Formocresol pulpotomy on a primary tooth is indicated during which of the
following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
9.
The effect of formocresol on the pulp tissue is controlled by which of the
following?
a.
Concentration used
b.
Method of application
c.
d.
10.
An increasingly popular technique for pulpotomy in primary teeth is which of the
following?
a.
Formocresol
b.
Calcium hydroxide
c.
Electrosurgery
d.
Laser surgery
11.
Glutaraldehyde may be preferred to formocresol for primary pulpotomy because
of which of the following reasons?
a.
b.
c.
It is not antigenic.
d.
12.
a.
b.
Periapical lesion
c.
Dentigerous cyst
d.
13.
Which of the following statements regarding access opening on primary incisors
is accurate?
a.
b.
c.
d.
14.
a.
b.
c.
d.
CHAPTER 24:
GERIATRIC ENDODONTICS
1.
As related to dental visits by the older patient, which of the following statements
are accurate?
a.
Older patients have fewer visits per year than younger patients.
b.
c.
d.
Dental visits of older patients are for less-complicated procedures when compared
to younger patients.
2.
Which of the following statements regarding secondary dentin formation in the
radicular pulp in an older patient is accurate?
a.
b.
c.
d.
3.
In the older patient (as compared with a younger patient), regarding pulpal
inflammation from caries, which of the following statements is accurate?
a.
b.
c.
d.
4.
Pulps in older patients tend to be less responsive to thermal stimuli because of
which of the following reasons?
a.
b.
Sensory nerves in pulp lose their myelin sheath as a result of long-term, repeated
injuries.
c.
With age, patients become less alert and, therefore, less responsive to external
stimuli.
d.
e.
5.
An abrupt midroot radiographic disappearance of a canal usually indicates which
of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
6.
In the older patient (as compared with the younger patient) the exit of the canal
(i.e., apical foramen) is which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
7.
Which of the following statements regarding single-visit root canal treatment in
an older patient is accurate?
a.
It should be avoided because there is more likely to be an increase in
postappointment pain.
b.
c.
d.
8.
Success of root canal treatment in older patients (as compared with younger
patients) is which of the following?
a.
Better
b.
Poorer
c.
Equivalent
d.
9.
In the older patient root canal treatment (as compared to extraction) is which of
the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
10.
A postsurgical condition that tends to occur more frequently in older patients is
which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Loss of consciousness
11.
a.
b.
c.
d.
12.
a.
b.
Gingival recession exposes cementum and dentin, which is less resistant to caries.
c.
d.
13.
a.
There is a direct correlation between the nature of response to electrical-pulp
testing and the degree of inflammation.
b.
c.
d.
14.
In evaluating success and failure of endodontic treatment in aged patients, a
consideration is which of the following?
a.
The bone of the aged patient is more mineralized than that of a younger patient.
b.
Overlooked canals are seldom a problem because they are usually calcified.
c.
d.
15.
Which of the following statements regarding endodontic surgery in older patients
is accurate?
a.
b.
c.
It is risky because inadequate blood supply may result in postsurgical
osteomyelitis.
d.
16.
The radiolucent structure at the periapex of the premolar in the following
illustration is likely which of the following?
a.
A maxillary sinus
b.
c.
A fibroosseous lesion
d.
17.
The elevated structure facial to the crowned first molar in the following
illustration is likely which of the following?
a.
b.
Periodontal abscess
c.
Fibroma
d.
Exostoses
Calcification
b.
Anomalous location
c.
Inadequate access
d.
2.
Radiographically, which of the following statements regarding canals that appear
calcified are accurate?
a.
b.
c.
3.
a.
Persistent pain
b.
c.
Restorative indications
d.
Microleakage
4.
Presence of excess gutta-percha beyond the apex is usually caused by which of
the following?
a.
b.
c.
5.
Commonplace
b.
c.
d.
e.
6.
Retreatment has the most favorable prognosis during which of the following?
When the cause of failure is identified and is correctable
b.
c.
d.
7.
a.
For silver point removal, ultrasonics are used for which of the following reasons?
a.
b.
To reduce the level of dentin on the floor of the chamber to expose the point
c.
To break up the silver point into small pieces, which can then be flushed out
d.
To loosen the silver point by applying the vibrating instrument directly to the
silver cone
8.
b.
c.
d.
e.
9.
If a cervical root perforation occurs during the treatment and the canal preparation
is incomplete, the generally preferred time for repairing the defect is which of the
following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
10.
a.
Straight-line access
b.
c.
Magnification
d.
11.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Impossible
12.
a.
Extraction
b.
c.
d.
CHAPTER 26:
PRACTICE
1.
A disadvantage of digital cameras relative to film-based cameras is that the digital
cameras:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
2.
An advantage of conventional radiographic film relative to digital radiographic
imaging is that film:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
3.
a.
Inter-doctor consultations
b.
c.
d.
e.
4.
b.
c.
d.
5.
b.
c.
Automatically contact insurance companies to determine coverage limits of a
patient
d.
e.
The patient does not have symptoms. All teeth shown in the radiograph respond to pulp
testing, except the canine.
1.
The radiolucent structure (arrow) at the apex of the canine is likely which of the
following?
a.
Maxillary fracture
b.
Apical pathosis
c.
Nasopalatine duct
d.
Nutrient canal
2.
b.
Dentinogenesis imperfecta
c.
d.
Calcific metamorphosis
3.
The recommended treatment and reason for the treatment is which of the
following?
a.
b.
Root end resection and root end filling; there is pathosis, but the pulp space is too
small to attempt root canal treatment.
c.
d.
Extraction is prescribed.
Tooth no. 30 (first molar) causes the patient prolonged pain to cold and episodes of
spontaneous pain. The tooth responds to probing with an explorer into the carious lesion.
Reversible pulpitis
b.
Irreversible pulpitis
c.
Necrosis
d.
5.
Normal
b.
c.
d.
6.
b.
c.
d.
7.
b.
c.
d.
8.
a.
a.
b.
c.
d.
A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sharp sensitivity with chewing on
the lower left second molar. She reports a period of cold sensitivity 6 months prior but has
not had any cold tenderness for several months. The third and first molars respond to pulp
testing; the second molar does not respond. There is no pain to palpation, but the tooth is
tender to percussion on the cusps and tender to biting on a bite stick. There is an isolated 6mm probing defect on distal. (Photograph: The shallow occlusal alloy has been removed.)
9.
Normal
b.
Hypersensitive
c.
Irreversible pulpitis
d.
Necrosis
10.
a.
b.
Gram-negative anaerobes
c.
Mixed flora
d.
None
11.
a.
Inflamed pulp
b.
Apical abscess
c.
Cracked tooth
d.
Periodontal abscess
12.
a.
Cold test
b.
Heat test
c.
Test cavity
d.
Transillumination
13.
a.
Occlusal amalgam
b.
c.
Pin-retained amalgam
d.
Full-cast crown
The patient reports "a bad toothache for 2 days. I can't bite on these lower, right, front
teeth." There is pain on pressure and palpation in the region of the lateral incisor and
canine. The premolar (small amalgam) is asymptomatic. The lateral and premolar respond
to pulp testing; the canine does not respond. There is no swelling. There is an aphthous
ulcer on the facial attached gingiva of the lateral. All probings are normal. The lateral and
canine have moderate mobility.
14.
a.
b.
c.
d.
15.
What is the likely pulpal and periapical diagnosis for the lateral incisor?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Reversible; normal
16.
What is the likely pulpal and periapical diagnosis for the canine?
a.
b.
c.
d.
17.
a.
b.
Canine only
c.
d.
18.
Neither at present
Which bacteria have been related to this pathosis?
a.
b.
c.
d.
19.
Of the following inflammatory cells, which would likely predominate
periapically?
a.
Lymphocytes
b.
c.
Plasma cells
d.
Macrophages
20.
Looking at the radiograph and clinical photograph, what is the likely cause of the
pulpal and periapical pathosis?
a.
Incisal attrition
b.
Cervical erosion
c.
Caries
d.
Impact trauma
The patient reports severe, continuous pain in the mandibular, right quadrant. She states
that the pain began when she was drinking iced tea last evening and the pain has not
subsided. She slept poorly last night. Medical history is noncontributory.
Amalgams were place a few months earlier after removal of deep caries on both molars.
She has increased pain on lying down. The pain is not relieved with analgesics. She cannot
localize the pain to an individual tooth. Pulp testing shows response on the premolar and
second molar. The first molar does not respond. Cold-water application causes intense,
diffuse pain in the region. Percussion and palpation are not painful. Probings are normal.
21.
Which tooth (teeth) is (are) the most likely cause of her pain?
a.
Premolar
b.
First molar
c.
Second molar
d.
22.
What is the pulpal and periapical diagnosis for the first molar?
a.
b.
c.
d.
23.
What is the pulpal and periapical diagnosis for the second molar?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Normal; normal
24.
What would be the minimal emergency treatment on the offending tooth (teeth)?
a.
Remove the amalgam and place a sedative dressing. Prescribe analgesics and
antibiotics.
b.
c.
d.
25.
Inferior alveolar injection is indicated. If the offending tooth (teeth) is (are) not
anesthetized, what is the likely reason?
a.
b.
c.
There may be morphologic changes in the nerves that originate in the inflamed
areas; these nerves becomes more excitable.
d.
Because of inflammation, there is increased circulation in the area; this carries
away the anesthetic very rapidly.
Questions 26 to 28 relate to the following radiograph.
The patient has no adverse signs or symptoms. Surgery was several years ago. There are no
probing defects. The canine responds to pulp testing.
26.
a.
b.
Foreign-body reaction
c.
d.
Scar tissue
27.
a.
b.
c.
Coronal leakage
d.
28.
a.
b.
c.
d.
No treatment is needed.
A 58-year-old woman has swelling in the maxillary anterior area that has steadily increased
for 2 days. She denies thermal sensitivity and tenderness to biting pressure. The swelling is
between teeth nos. 9 (central incisor) and 10 (lateral incisor). There is normal mobility, and
probing depths are 4 to 5 mm with the distofacial surface of tooth no. 9 probing 8 mm.
There is no tenderness to percussion, but there is tenderness to palpation. Pulp tests reveal
that teeth nos. 8, 9, 10, and 11 are responsive to electrical-pulp testing and to thermal
stimulation with carbon dioxide snow (i.e., dry ice).
29.
Based on this information, the clinical photograph, and the radiograph, what is the
pulpal diagnosis for tooth no. 9?
a.
Normal
b.
Reversible pulpitis
c.
Irreversible pulpitis
d.
Necrotic
30.
Based on this information, the clinical photograph, and the radiograph, what is the
pulpal diagnosis for tooth no. 10?
a.
Normal
b.
Reversible pulpitis
c.
Irreversible pulpitis
d.
Necrotic
31.
a.
Normal
b.
c.
d.
e.
32.
Which of the following is the most likely the cause of swelling associated with
teeth nos. 9 and 10?
a.
Pulp necrosis
b.
Periodontal disease
c.
d.
Vertical-root fracture
e.
33.
Which of the following is most important in determining if this lesion is of
periodontal origin or of pulpal origin?
a.
Percussion
b.
A periapical radiograph
c.
d.
Pulp testing
e.
Periodontal probing
34.
a.
b.
c.
Analgesic treatment and antibiotic treatment until the involved tooth can be
localized
d.
Flap reflection to inspect the root for a vertical root fracture or lateral canal
e.
35.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the effects of periodontal
treatment procedures on the dental pulp?
a.
Scaling and root-planing procedures remove cementum, expose dentinal tubules,
which are invaded and result in pulp inflammation.
b.
Citric acid application appears to produce pulpal inflammation when used in
conjunction with reattachment procedures.
c.
Hypersensitivity may result from scaling but is a sign of pulpal pathosis or
inflammation or both.
d.
ANSWER KEY
Chapter 1
1.
b;
2.
d;
3.
b;
4.
b;
5.
b;
6.
d;
7.
a;
8.
c;
9.
c;
10.
c;
11.
e;
12.
d;
13.
b;
14.
a;
15.
c;
16.
d;
17.
d;
18.
c;
19.
d;
20.
b.
Chapter 2
1.
d;
2.
e;
3.
c;
4.
a;
5.
b;
6.
b;
7.
b;
8.
b;
9.
b;
10.
c;
11.
b;
12.
b;
13.
a;
14.
b;
15.
c;
16.
b;
17.
a;
18.
a;
19.
b;
20.
d;
21.
c;
22.
a;
23.
b;
24.
c.
Chapter 3
1.
d;
2.
b;
3.
b;
4.
d;
5.
c;
6.
c;
7.
c;
8.
a;
9.
a;
10.
e;
11.
b.
Chapter 4
1.
d;
2.
c;
3.
b;
4.
c;
5.
d;
6.
c;
7.
d;
8.
c;
9.
c;
10.
a;
11.
c;
12.
d.
Chapter 5
1.
b;
2.
c;
3.
d;
4.
b;
5.
a;
6.
c;
7.
d;
8.
a;
9.
c;
10.
c;
11.
c;
12.
d;
13.
c;
14.
a;
15.
c;
16.
a;
17.
a;
18.
d;
19.
c;
20.
b;
21.
a.
Chapter 6
1.
a;
2.
c;
3.
b;
4.
a;
5.
b;
6.
d;
7.
b;
8.
c;
9.
a;
10.
b;
11.
e;
12.
b;
13.
e.
Chapter 7
1.
a;
2.
c;
3.
a;
4.
d;
5.
b;
6.
c;
7.
a;
8.
b;
9.
d;
10.
b.
Chapter 8
1.
a;
2.
b;
3.
c;
4.
a;
5.
c;
6.
d;
7.
b;
8.
d;
9.
b;
10.
d;
11.
a;
12.
a.
Chapter 9
1.
c;
2.
d;
3.
a;
4.
c;
5.
e;
6.
d;
7.
a;
8.
d;
9.
c;
10.
b;
11.
b;
12.
a;
13.
a;
14.
a;
15.
a;
16.
d;
17.
d.
Chapter 10
1.
c;
2.
b;
3.
c;
4.
b;
5.
a;
6.
a;
7.
b;
8.
d;
9.
b;
10.
a;
11.
b;
12.
a.
Chapter 11
1.
c;
2.
a;
3.
b;
4.
a;
5.
b;
6.
b;
7.
a;
8.
d;
9.
b;
10.
d;
11.
a;
12.
d;
13.
c;
14.
b;
15.
b;
16.
a.
Chapter 12
1.
c;
2.
a;
3.
b;
4.
b;
5.
c;
6.
a;
7.
c;
8.
a;
9.
d;
10.
a;
11.
c;
12.
b;
13.
b;
14.
c;
15.
a.
Chapter 13
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
b;
8.
9.
b;
10.
11.
12.
b;
13.
14.
b;
15.
c;
16.
c;
17.
c;
18.
d;
19.
e;
20.
b.
Chapter 14
1.
a;
2.
c;
3.
a;
4.
b;
5.
a;
6.
a;
7.
c;
8.
a;
9.
c;
10.
e;
11.
a;
12.
c;
13.
a;
14.
b;
15.
b;
16.
d;
17.
b;
18.
c;
19.
a;
20.
d.
Chapter 15
1.
d;
2.
d;
3.
a;
4.
d;
5.
a;
6.
a;
7.
a;
8.
b;
9.
d;
10.
c;
11.
d;
12.
d;
13.
b;
14.
d;
15.
b;
16.
b;
17.
a;
18.
e;
19.
d.
Chapter 16
1.
c;
2.
a;
3.
c;
4.
a;
5.
b;
6.
b;
7.
a;
8.
b;
9.
d;
10.
c;
11.
a;
12.
a;
13.
a;
14.
e;
15.
c;
16.
d;
17.
b.
Chapter 17
1.
b;
2.
a;
3.
e;
4.
b;
5.
d;
6.
d;
7.
b;
8.
a;
9.
b;
10.
a.
Chapter 18
1.
a;
2.
a;
3.
a;
4.
a;
5.
a;
6.
a;
7.
a;
8.
a;
9.
b;
10.
d;
11.
a;
12.
b;
13.
a;
14.
a;
15.
b;
16.
e;
17.
b;
18.
a;
19.
a.
Chapter 19
1.
c;
2.
e;
3.
a;
4.
d;
5.
a;
6.
d;
7.
c;
8.
a;
9.
b;
10.
d;
11.
b;
12.
c;
13.
b;
14.
a;
15.
d.
Chapter 20
1.
a;
2.
d;
3.
d;
4.
b;
5.
c;
6.
c;
7.
b;
8.
a;
9.
d;
10.
a;
11.
a;
12.
a;
13.
c;
14.
d;
15.
a;
16.
b;
17.
c;
18.
b;
19.
d.
Chapter 21
1.
a;
2.
a;
3.
d;
4.
b;
5.
b;
6.
d.
Chapter 22
1.
d;
2.
a;
3.
b;
4.
d;
5.
e;
6.
a;
7.
d;
8.
b;
9.
d;
10.
d.
Chapter 23
1.
d;
2.
c;
3.
d;
4.
d;
5.
b;
6.
d;
7.
c;
8.
b;
9.
a;
10.
c;
11.
a;
12.
b;
13.
b;
14.
d.
Chapter 24
1.
c;
2.
d;
3.
a;
4.
e;
5.
a;
6.
d;
7.
c;
8.
c;
9.
c;
10.
a;
11.
d;
12.
b;
13.
c;
14.
c;
15.
b;
16.
a;
17.
d.
Chapter 25
1.
d;
2.
b;
3.
d;
4.
c;
5.
e;
6.
a;
7.
a;
8.
d;
9.
a;
10.
d;
11.
c;
12.
d.
Chapter 26
1.
c;
2.
a;
3.
c;
4.
a;
5.
d;
2.
d;
3.
c;
4.
b;
5.
a;
6.
b;
7.
a;
8.
d;
9.
d;
10.
c;
11.
c;
12.
d;
13.
d;
14.
c;
15.
d;
16.
c;
17.
b;
18.
a;
19.
b;
20.
a;
21.
c;
22.
a;
23.
a;
24.
d;
25.
c.
26.
d;
27.
d;
28.
d;
29.
a;
30.
a;
31.
e;
32.
b;
33.
d;
34.
a;
35.
d.