Question 1

TCP is able to buffer the stream of data to prevent overloading. Which

features enable it to do this?
a. Flow Control
b. Connectionless
c. Battery
d. Hold Control
Answer: A
Flow control is a mechanism of TCP that helps provide error free and reliable transport of
communications between devices.

Question 2
What is the most prominent protocol suite used on the Internet?
a. TCP/IP
b. Netware
c. Linux
d. Windows
Answer: A
TCP/IP has become the most popular protocol suite used on the Internet, and is considered
the standard for data transmission.

Question 3
Which layer of the OSI model provides error free, reliable transport
of information?
a. Network Layer Layer 3
b. Application Layer Layer 7
c. Physical Layer Layer 1
d. Transport Layer Layer 4
Answer: D
The transport layer defines two protocols, TCP and UDP. In order to provide error free and
reliable delivery of information, TCP is used to ensure data is received, and if not, it will be
resent and error checked.

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Question 4
What layer of the OSI model is responsible for coding and conversion?
a. Presentation
b. Transport
c. Network
d. Data-Link
Answer: A
The presentation layer is responsible for presenting the material in a manner that is
able to be viewed by the user up to Layer 7, or preparing it in a manner to be sent
down to Layer 5.

Question 5
What type of data transmission allows for a single client to send traffic
to a specific group of clients?
a. Manycast
b. Unicast
c. Broadcast
d. Multicast
Answer: D
Multicast allows for communications between one device to a specific number of
recipients, defined by the sender. This allows for more efficient communications,
instead of using a broadcast when trying to send to more than one client.

Question 6
True or False - Thicknet and Thinnet are two types of specifications for
coax cable deployments.
Answer: True
While not as popular for network connectivity in a building to users and such, coax
is still used heavily for television and for an ISP to deliver Internet connectivity to a
modem in an establishment.

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Question 7
What is the division in which frames from one networked device could
collide with another device?
a. Collision Domain
b. Broadcast Domain
c. Temporary Domain
d. Apple Domain
Answer: A
The collision domain devices all share bandwidth, and any one device could transmit
information that could collide with a transmission from another device.

Question 8
True or False - A straight-through cable is used for a connection from a
host to a switch.
Answer: True
A straight-through cables pin configuration allows for data to be sent and received
properly through communications.

Question 9
Where is the physical port to MAC address mappings stored on
a router?
a. Physical table
b. Route table
c. PARP table
d. ARP table
Answer: D
The ARP table maintains a mapping of traffic of all MAC address to port locations
when it receives traffic in order to efficiently send out traffic out the next time for that
particular location.

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Question 10
Which device has the ability to separate broadcast domains?
a. Bridge
b. Router
c. Switch
d. Hub
Answer: B
The router has the ability to separate the broadcast domain and route traffic between
them if necessary.

Question 11
What aspect of a spanning-tree is used to optimize access ports to
immediately bring them into a forwarding state?
a. Fastport
b. FastP
c. Portfast
d. PortsFaster
Answer: C
Portfast enables the port to bypass the listening and learning states of a spanningtree instance, immediately putting it into a forwarding state. This is only recommended
on an access port.

Question 12
What is the normal range of VLANs?
a. 1-1000
b. 2-1005
c. 1-1005
d. 1-1006
Answer: C
VLANs in the normal range are used in any mode of VTP and kept in the VLAN
database. However, extended range VLANs, 1006-4094, are not kept in the VLAN
database, and the switch must be in VTP Transparent mode.

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Question 13
What trunking method is IEEE defined and supports a native VLAN?
a. ISL
b. 802.1q
c. 802.1x
d. 802.3
Answer: B
802.1q offers the native VLAN as a VLAN that is not tagged on a trunk end to end.

Question 14
If one side of a trunk was configured as switchport mode dynamic auto,
what must the other side not be?
a. Switchport
b. Switchport
c. Switchport
d. Switchport

dynamic auto
mode dynamic desirable
mode on
mode dynamic auto

Answer: D
In dynamic auto mode, the trunk will do trunking negotiation, but only if it hears
someone trying to negotiate. If the other side is set to auto, neither side will initiate
the trunk.

Question 15
What are the two types of Etherchannel?
a. PAgP
b. PAP
c. CHAP
d. LACP
Answer: A and D
PAgP, which is port aggregation control protocol, is a Cisco Etherchannel standard.
LACP, which is link aggregation control protocol, is an Etherchannel standard created
by IEEE.

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Question 16
If one end of a trunked link is configured with switchport nonegotiate
command, the other end must be configured as what?
a. Switchport
b. Switchport
c. Switchport
d. Switchport

mode trunk
trunk
mode
trunk desirable

Answer: A
Since negotiation has been disabled on the trunk link, DTP packets will not be
sent. Therefore, switchport mode trunk must be configured to turn on trunking,
not needing negotiation.

Question 17
What uses MAC address as a reference to decide where to forward
traffic when incoming frames reach a device?
a. The
b. The
c. The
d. The

Route Table
CAM Table
MAC Table
IP Table

Answer: B and C
The CAM table, also known as the MAC table, holds for a specific period of time
a reference as to where MAC addresses are located in order to send traffic more
efficiently when it hits the device.

Question 18
What is the IEEE standard for Ethernet?
a. 802.11
b. 802.1
c. 802.3
d. 802.2
Answer: C
IEEE has defined the Ethernet standard to be 802.3.

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Question 19
What type of Ethernet is being used when the endpoint must wait for an
idle period before transmitting a frame?
a. Full-Duplex
b. Half-Duplex
c. Semi-Duplex
d. Auto-Duplex
Answer: B
In a half-duplex scenario, collisions occur because senders must wait to send data
before transmission. Sometimes, two or more senders will be waiting and sending at
the same time, which can cause a collision.

Question 20
True or False - A broadcast domain is the logical separation of
networked devices that can be reached via a unicast or broadcast
message on the data link layer.
Answer: True
The broadcast domain can be broken up by a router, and network devices can then
communicate across broadcast domains via the router routing this traffic.

Question 21
What provides a dedicated and continuously open line for transmission,
even if communication is not flowing through it?
a. Atom Switching
b. Null Switching
c. Packet Switching
d. Circuit Switching
Answer: D
During this time, the line will remain open for communications to
be made across from end to end, regardless of whether or not it is actively sending.

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Question 22
True or False The protocol data units at the layer 2 level are
called frames.
Answer: True
The protocol data units at the layer 2 level are called frames. Packets at layer 3 and
layer 4 are called segments.

Question 23
What is the appropriate way to properly set a switchport into
access mode?
a. Switchport
b. Switchport access mode
c. Switchport mode access
d. Switchport access
Answer: C
To make a switchport a specific access port, and to not negotiate its role, the
command switchport mode access is used.

Question 24
What does the VLAN Trunking Protocol enable a switch to do?
a. Allow spanning-tree port blocking over trunks.
b. Dynamically learn, distribute or ignore VLAN updates between
switches that are in the same VTP domain.
c. Ignore VLAN updates between devices.
d. Create new instances of OSPF.
Answer: B
In a switch environment, a switch can be configured in one of three modes to either
create VLANs, delete VLANs, learn VLANs, or ignore VLAN updates dynamically from
a main switch so that all switches would have the proper VLAN information.

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Question 25
True or False - The three modes of VTP are Server, User,
and Transparent.
Answer: False
The three modes are VTP Server, which can create, modify and delete VLANs; VTP
client, which can only receive VLAN updates from the server; and VTP Transparent
which can create, modify and delete VLANs, and ignore updates from the VTP Server.

Question 26
True or False - When a switch receives a configuration change
from another switch with a lower revision number, it believes that
configuration is superior to its own.
Answer: False
In this case, the switch would ignore the update because it would not see it as the
most recent information. If the configuration revision was higher, it would see the
information as up to date.

Question 27
To look up the domain name and operating mode of VTP, what show
command would be used?
a. Show
b. Show
c. Show
d. Show

status VTP
status
VTP status
VTP

Answer: C
Show VTP status will give all pertinent information of the VTP setup, including domain
name and mode, but not the password.

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Question 28
What are the three port states in a rapid spanning-tree topology?
a. Discarding
b. Listening
c. Learning
d. Forwarding
Answer: A, C and D
Discarding is where no user data is sent.
Learning is where the port is not forwarding, but is populating the MAC table.
Forwarding is fully operational.

Question 29
True or False - The root bridge default bridge ID is 33768.
Answer: False
The root bridge default bridge ID for a spanning-tree instance is 32768.

Question 30
True or False RSTP is not backward compatible with STP.
Answer: False
RSTP is backward compatible with STP and will revert to STP if an interface detects
STP BPDU. This makes RSTP easier to implement within a network using STP.

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Question 31
What is the convergence time for an STP instance?
a. 10
b. 50
c. 50
d. 30

seconds
minutes
seconds
seconds

Answer: C
To go from disabled, to listening, to learning and then to the forwarding state takes
50 seconds to converge. RSTP helps streamline this process more by improving
convergence time.

Question 32
True or False A BPDU is a bridge protocol data unit used in STP.
Answer: True
BPDUs are used between switches to determine the root bridges in an STP instance.
Devices still monitor BPDUs to see if there is a need to go back into a blocking state
or to transfer into a listening state for convergence.

Question 33
Which side of a serial connection handles clocking signals?
a. DTE
b. DCE
c. DEA
d. DCC
Answer: B
The DCE is in charge of providing clock signals to the other end of the serial
connection, the DTE.

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Question 34
A WAN interconnects one or more of what together?
a. DAN
b. IAN
c. LAN
d. YAN
Answer: C
The WAN interconnects multiple LANs together, in order for these networks to
communicate over long distances. This is mostly seen in companies that have offices
all over the country, and use a WAN to communicate with each of them.

Question 35
What WAN technology uses labels instead of network addresses
for communications?
a. VSAT
b. MPLS
c. E1
d. T1
Answer: B
MPLS works on both layer 2 and layer 3, and is heavily used across the country
to streamline communications for companies. It does so by using labels instead of
network addresses in order to make the communications more efficient.

Question 36
True or False An E1 is a North American standard that carries a data
rate of 1.544 megabits per second.
Answer: False
An E1 is the European standard that carries 32 digital channels and has a data rate of
2.048. T1 is the North American standard that carries a data rate of 1.544 megabits
per second.

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Question 37
True or False Cellular 3G and 4G is provided by your cellular carrier
that only provides voice communications.
Answer: False
Cellular 3G and 4G are becoming increasingly popular and used by many, not just
for voice, but for data as well. Data access on a cell phone is a mainstay now with
consumers and 3G and 4G provide a large role in that ability, along with wireless
antennae on phones.

Question 38
What are the two types of authentication tools available in a serial PPP
connection?
a. CHAP
b. PPP
c. PAP
d. CAP
Answer: A and C
CHAP, or Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol, is a three-way handshake
authentication protocol, in which one side of the CHAP process sends a challenge to
the other router.
PAP, or Password Authentication Protocol, is an authentication
protocol that is a two way process between the devices. It sends usernames and
passwords between the devices to establish a link between the two.

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Question 39
What authentication protocol uses a handshake, sending a challenge
to the other device in order to have the other device send its username
and password?
a. PAP
b. PPP
c. CHAP
d. SAP
Answer: C
CHAP is a three-way handshake authentication protocol, with one side sending a
challenge, the receiver sending a username and password, while the initial router
verifies the credentials to allow access.

Question 40
True or False The default encapsulation on a serial interface is
frame-relay.
Answer: False
The correct answer is HDLC. Frame-relay and PPP are two other encapsulation
methods available to be configured between serial devices. HDLC is configured by
default on the interface.

Question 41
What is the amount of bits used for the network and host field
respectively for a Class C network?
a. 24-bit
b. 24-bit
c. 16-bit
d. 16-bit

network,
network,
network,
network,

24-bit host
8-bit host
16-bit host
8-bit host

Answer: B
A class C address uses 24 bits for a network address, giving over 2 million
possible network options. The host portion is 8 bits, giving 256 address possibilities
for each network.

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Question 42
What are the Class D networks reserved for?
a. Experimental
b. Broadcast
c. Multicast
d. Unicast
Answer: C
Multicast communications use Class D addresses in order to communicate with hosts.

Question 43
True or False - The ability to subnet enables a networks address space
to be further divided down into a smaller network.
Answer: True
The ability to subnet enables to break down a network into further, more efficient uses
of networks to fight against waste.

Question 44
What is the broadcast address for the following subnet?
172.16.24.0/24
a. 172.16.24.1
b. 172.16.24.255
c. 172.16.25.255
d. 172.16.24.254
Answer: D
The broadcast address is the last possible address in that particular subnet. The last
usable address in this case, is 172.16.24.254.

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Question 45
What is the binary address of the following IP address?
193.168.201.179?
a. 11111000.10101000.11001010.10110011
b. 11000001.10101001.11001001.10110011
c. 11000000.10101001.11001001.10110011
d. 11000001.10101000.11001001.10110011
Answer: D
The other answers do not properly translate binary to decimal form. This is the only
answer that properly translates to the IP address.

Question 46
What is the length in bits of an IPv6 address?
a. 128 bit
b. 32 bit
c. 64 bit
d. 48 bit
Answer: A
An IPv6 address is a 128-bit address that will help alleviate the address space issue
of IPv4, which is a 32-bit address.

Question 47
True or False - Any string of two or more consecutive groups of all hex
0s can be replaced with a double colon more than once.
Answer: False
As an IPv6 rule, this replacement of 0s can only be done once per
IPv6 address.

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Question 48
What type of address is not registered, therefore not assignable to any
company, and can be used by any company privately?
a. Unique
b. Unique
c. Unique
d. Unique

local
local
local
local

anycast
multicast
broadcast
unicast

Answer: D
Unique local unicast addresses act like IPv4 private IP addresses. These can be
configured by anyone internally, but not to be used publically over the Internet. They
must be translated to a public address.

Question 49
Which answer correctly depicts what the first 10 bits of a link-local
address can be?
a. FE11::/60
b. AB11::/128
c. FE80::/10
d. BC14::/32
Answer: C
The link-local address of FE80::/10 is defined as the only format to be used for IPv6
addresses that are link-local configured.

Question 50
What is the IPv6 multicast address for EIGRPv6?
a. FF02::A
b. FA01::A
c. FF01::A
d. FE02::A
Answer: A
EIGRPv6 uses a particular address to communicate via multicast to particular users,
with the address of FF02::A.

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Question 51
What are the two sections of an IPv4 address called?
a. Network
b. Host
c. Enterprise
d. Global
Answer: A and B
The network portion of the address is the first part of the address.
The last part of the address is the host address, which is the specific entitys
IP address.

Question 52
True or False - An IPv4 address is a 64-bit number.
Answer: False
An IPv4 address is a 32-bit address, divided into four octets.

Question 53
What is the range of a class B network?
a. 1-127
b. 1-128
c. 128-192
d. 128-191
Answer: D
IPv4 addresses are broken up into multiple classes, A through E. Class B is within the
address range of 128.0.0.0 through 191.255.255.255.

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Question 54
What is the practice called when you have multiple subnets, but need
to bring them together as one route?
a. Subnetting
b. Link-Local
c. Null
d. Summarization
Answer: D
Summarization is sometimes required to summarize a group of smaller IP addresses
into one large IP address. This lessens what is currently in the routing table, and
provides the router with less to go through when trying to look up a particular route.

Question 55
What IPv4 address network is reserved for loopback functions?
a. 224.0.0.1
b. 127.0.0.1
c. 1.1.1.1
d. 192.1.1.1
Answer: B
127.0.0.1 is reserved for any loopback functions that would be required to be used,
and is therefore not assignable as an address to a particular entity.

Question 56
True or False - You cannot subnet a Class A address.
Answer: False
Any network in any class can be subnetted in order to both adequately and efficiently
use address space for a particular entity or group.

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Question 57
What is the purpose of a link-local address?
a. Used by IPv6 to communicate with other hosts and send
normal traffic data.
b. Used by protocols and routing to transmit information, not
used for normal traffic.
c. Used by IPv4 to talk about protocols between hosts.
d. There is no such thing.
Answer: B
Link-local addresses are used between interfaces on devices to deliver pertinent data
on protocols and routing, but do not participate in the delivery of normal traffic.

Question 58
Which of the following are the two options in an IPv6 address?
a. Global broadcast
b. Unique multicast
c. Global unicast
d. Unique local
Answer: C and D
The Global unicast address is similar to a public IPv4 address and blocks of these
addresses are registered to particular entities.
Unique local addresses are private addresses, and are not assignable. Therefore, they
can be used by anyone internally.

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Question 59
What is a reserved block of IPv6 addresses called?
a. Global prefix
b. Global routing prefix
c. Routing prefix
d. IPv6 prefix
Answer: B
The Global routing prefix is the block of addresses reserved for a particular entity to
be able to communicate publically.

Question 60
True or False - There is no host portion of an IPv6 address.
Answer: False
Just like an IPv4 address, IPv6 addresses have host portions to be able to identify
particular hosts on an IPv6 network.

Question 61
What is the process called when a router and switch power on and
verifies that all components are properly working?
a. UDP
b. POST
c. TCP
d. RADIUS
Answer: B
The Power On Self Test, or POST, is done when the device first powers on to verify
that all parts of the device are working properly.

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Question 62
How can you view what particular Cisco IOS image is running on your
switch or router?
a. Show
b. Show
c. Show
d. Show

IOS
startup-config
running-config
version

Answer: D
The show version command will enable the user to view particular attributes about
the device, one of them being the hardware components and the IOS image that is
currently installed. IOS images require a particular size of RAM and memory to be
used, and can be verified before installing.

Question 63
What IOS version gives you the full feature set available on Cisco
IOS software?
a. Advanced Enterprise Services
b. Advanced IP Services
c. Advanced Base Services
d. IP Base
Answer: A
Advanced Enterprise Services enables all features on the device for the user to
configure. This is most advantageous, but requires more hardware ability on the
device, and costs more to have this image installed.

Question 64
True or False - In newer IOS images, the universal image includes all
sets of features for the router and switch, but needs to be unlocked
with a software activation in order to use them.
Answer: True
In newer devices, the universal image allows for one image to be installed and features
to be unlocked via activation with Cisco. This information can be retrieved after it is
purchased from the Cisco License Portal.

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Question 65
What configuration register provides a stable boot using your
saved configuration?
a. 0x2142
b. 0x3320
c. 0x2100
d. 0x2102
Answer: C
This config-register provides a normal boot by loading the startup configuration when
the device is turned on and booting. The config-register can be changed within the
configuration as well to provide an ability to bypass the startup configuration.

Question 66
What is the command that can be used to delete the startupconfiguration on the command line?
a. Write erase
b. Erase write
c. Erase config
d. Erase start
Answer: A
Write erase gives the ability to erase the configuration that starts up when the device
turns on. This can be dangerous and should be used with caution.

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Question 67
What is needed on a client machine that is attempting to use a console
cable to connect to the console port of a router or switch?
a. Serial port
b. Parallel port
c. Ethernet port
d. VGA port
Answer: A
The serial port is needed for a console cable to connect from the device to the users
machine. A USB to Serial adapter can also be used instead, because most laptops no
longer have serial ports on them.

Question 68
What is the main purpose of a Cisco IOS image?
a. It downloads images from Ciscos website.
b. It is the operating system of a Cisco router or switch.
c. It is the image for an iPhone.
d. Talks to Cisco.com about whats installed on the device.
Answer: B
The IOS image is the underlying operating system on a router or switch which
provides specific features. It can be upgraded or downgraded based on the users
needs for the environment.

Question 69
True or False - To upgrade an IOS image, you have to purchase an
entirely new device.
Answer: False
Cisco requires you to purchase the capability to install the license on your machine for
old IOS images. For new devices, IOS images can be installed with a specific universal
image, and they can be activated with specific software keys to unlock features.

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Question 70
True or False - Entering ROMMON mode assists in the password
recovery process.
Answer: True
By entering ROMMON mode, the device can be configured to bypass the startup
configuration, therefore providing a base configuration when getting to the command
line. This enables the user to configure the running configuration with new password
information, and save it to the startup-configuration for future use.

Question 71
True or False - Enable mode allows a user to view items but not
modify them.
Answer: False
Enable or privileged mode allows a user to modify the configuration, making changes
to how devices are run as soon as the commands are entered. User exec mode
allows a user to view items but not modify them.

Question 72
What is the most secure method of accessing the CLI of a device?
a. Telnet
b. TCP
c. Range
d. SSH
Answer: D
SSH is the most secure method because it sends the traffic to and from the device.
Telnet sends traffic in clear text and should not be used when a user is trying to
connect to a device remotely.

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Question 73
What connectivity testing tool allows the user to gain an understanding
of where on the network communications may be dropping from the
source to destination?
a. Ping
b. Route
c. Pingroute
d. Traceroute
Answer: D
Traceroute enables the user to see, hop by hop, the path in which a device takes to
reach the endpoint, testing connectivity as well.

Question 74
True or False - Once you type a command in the command line and
hit enter, the command is immediately being used in the running
configuration and saved in the startup configuration.
Answer: False
The configuration is immediately sent into the running-configuration, however, you
must save your configuration or a reload will remove the changes made since the last
saved configuration.

Question 75
When typing commands in the command line, what key can be pressed
to autocomplete the command?
a. Tab
b. Question Mark
c. Exclamation Point
d. Comma
Answer: A
Tab can be used to autocomplete a command once entered in order to save
typing time. But, this only works if the command can be finished and there are no
alternatives to the beginning characters entered.

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Question 76
What is the purpose of using a question mark when typing a command?
a. It lists all of the current commands available within the mode
and configuration you are in.
b. It finishes the command that is currently entered.
c. It enables the command.
d. It reloads the device.
Answer: A
The question mark is a useful tool to help the administrator reveal what configuration
options are available with some of the configuration already entered. If there are no
commands available, they will not be listed.

Question 77
True or False - Ping is a TCP protocol that uses TCP messages for
requests and replies.
Answer: False
ICMP is the protocol used by ping. ICMP messages are sent for requests and replies.

Question 78
What is the level and name of the highest security level of a
syslog message?
a. 0
b. 7
c. 1
d. 10
Answer: A
Level 0 is the Emergency level. It provides syslog information that is
extremely important.

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Question 79
What is the main difference between SNMPv2 and SNMPv3?
a. V2
b. V2
c. V3
d. V2

sends messages in clear text.

does not send messages.
sends messages in clear text.
does not use communities.

Answer: A
SNMPv2 sends syslog information in clear text, which can be a security breach
waiting to happen. SNMPv3 encrypts this traffic to and from the device.

Question 80
Which of the following are the two elements to the SNMP
communications?
a. Manager
b. Administrator
c. Agent
d. Member
Answer: A and C
The manager is a network management tool that monitors and manages groups of
hosts and devices. The agent reports information back to the manager with
different variables.

Question 81
True or False - Syslog messages can be viewed in real-time on the
console line.
Answer: True
When the logging console is configured, you can view messages on the command line
via the console and see the output as things happen. This can be very useful when
trying to troubleshoot or configure the device.

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Question 82
What command enables you to see messages saved to the
logging buffer?
a. Show
b. Show
c. Show
d. Show

buffer
log
buffer log
log buffer

Answer: B
Show log, in enabled mode, provides the user with all syslog messages sent to
the buffer.

Question 83
True or False - The purpose of NetFlow is to track data flows that would
help reduce bottlenecks from occurring.
Answer: True
NetFlow enables engineers to have a better grasp of what is traveling through
interfaces on the network. By sending this information back to software, engineers
can view possible causes of bottlenecks and slowness in network traffic.

Question 84
True or False - The interface in which the user wants to analyze traffic
for NetFlow must be configured.
Answer: True
When configuring NetFlow, the user must go into interface configuration mode to
configure ingress, egress, or both traffic flows in order to gain knowledge of whether
or not information is going through the interface.

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Question 85
What is the default port to send traffic to on NetFlow?
a. 9999
b. 996
c. 9996
d. 96
Answer: C
The default port sending traffic to for NetFlow is 9996, however, this port can be
changed from the default.

Question 86
A routing protocol can learn routes from another routing protocol, to do
this, what must occur between the two routing protocols?
a. Routing
b. Administrative Distance
c. Redistribution
d. RADIUS
Answer: C
Redistribution enables one routing protocol to learn about other routing protocols
routes. This helps connect two or more different networks together to allow for
communications to occur.

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Question 87
What is the routing loop mechanism that prevents a route from being
advertised back out on the same interface it was received?
a. Split Horizon
b. Redistribution Horizon
c. Split Redistribution
d. Split Routing
Answer: A
Split Horizon prevents the routing protocol from sending an update about the route
through the interface in which it was learned. Doing so could cause a loop in routing,
which could result in network outages.

Question 88
True or False - EIGRP chooses a Designated Router (DR) and Backup
Designated Router (BDR).
Answer: False
OSPF chooses a DR and BDR in order to communicate with all other devices in its
area. Therefore, it is imperative that one exists as the devices receive the information
through the DR.

Question 89
True or False - In all OSPF instances, areas other than area 0 must
touch area 0.
Answer: True
All areas must go through the backbone, which is area 0. In some cases, a virtual link
may be needed in order to reach area 0.

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Question 90
Which of the following was developed by Cisco in order to
optimize the way the internal processes of a router determine how to
forward packets?
a. CEF
b. STP
c. RAM
d. BAM
Answer: A
CEF optimizes the internal processes of how a router forwards data. The information
is organized in the routing table and searched through using advanced algorithms. It
is turned on by default on newer devices.

Question 91
True or False - When a packet is received by a router, it will compare
the source IP address to the routing table in order to find a match to
send traffic to.
Answer: False
When a packet is received, it uses the destination IP in order to determine where to
send the traffic based upon the match in the routing table.

Question 92
True or False - The larger the routing table, the more CPU processing it
requires to look up routes.
Answer: True
Where there is a larger routing table, routing look ups take a great amount of time,
and increase the load on the router. Summarization is one of the tools used to
decrease this load.

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Question 93
Which of the following are two ways in which a router makes a decision
to route a packet?
a. Static route
b. Dynamic route
c. Manual route
d. Dependent route
Answer: A and B
Static and dynamic routes are both used when determining a routing decision.
However, a static route has a better administrative distance, and therefore is
believed more.

Question 94
True or False - A default route can be created that matches all traffic,
and will be used if there are no other routes in the routing table that
match the traffic currently being sent.
Answer: True
This situation is used a great deal in dealing how to route Internet traffic out of a
companys network. If traffic does not match a destination internally, then send all
traffic out to the external network. The default can be used to do this, defaulting all
traffic to this route if there is no match.

Question 95
Which of the following two devices are needed in order to route packets
between VLANs?
a. Router
b. Layer 3 switch
c. Layer 2 switch
d. Hub
Answer: A and B
A router and a layer 3 switch offer layer 3 services that will route packets between
broadcast domains that were segmented by installing VLANs.

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Question 96
True or False - Routing metrics can be manipulated manually by an
administrator on a router.
Answer: True
The ability to manipulate the routing protocols decision on which route to take to
a distant network is advantageous for many engineers. This can be done for many
different protocols.

Question 97
What command provides the user with the configuration currently being
used by the device?
a. Startup-config
b. Running-config
c. Device-config
d. Console-config
Answer: B
The configuration currently being used by a device is the running-config. The
configuration that is loaded when the device is turned on is the startup-config.

Question 98
What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
a. To statically choose the best route for traffic.
b. To dynamically choose the best route for traffic to get to a
remote network.
c. To choose the backup method of how to get to a route.
d. Routing protocols should not be used as they are unreliable.
Answer: B
Routing protocols provide the best routes to destinations by dynamically learning and
updating routes based on conditions in a network environment.

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Question 99
True or False - When a route fails, a routing protocol will need
to be manually configured to choose the next available route by
an administrator.
Answer: False
The purpose of the routing protocol is to dynamically update if a route updates, to find
the best next route to a particular network. No manual configuration is needed unless
static routes are used.

Question 100
True or False - An exterior gateway protocol is a routing protocol used
internally within one autonomous system.
Answer: False
Exterior gateway protocols, like BGP, connect one autonomous system to other
autonomous systems. Interior gateway protocols are used to route within an
autonomous system itself.

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