In This Issue

Regulars

September 2009
Year12 Issue139

Editorial
Science and Technology
Latest General Knowledge
Inspiring Young Talent
Selected in UP-CPMT-2009 (Rank 6)Ratish Kumar Mishra
Science Tips

799
801
805
809
811

Physics

Editor
MAHENDRA JAIN

Sound-I : Wave Motion

814

Nuclear Physics-I : Radioactivity

822

Typical Model Paper

828

Typical Model Paper

834

Chemistry
Transition Elements : Elements of d-Block

842

Aromatic Nitro Compounds : Nitrobenzene

849

Typical Model Paper

856

Typical Model Paper

861

Zoology
Editor/Publisher is not responsible for
views, data, figures etc. expressed in the
articles by the authors.
Editor

No part of this publication can be

reproduced or transmitted in any form
without the prior written permission from
the publishers.

Edited, printed and published by Mahendra

Jain for M/s. Pratiyogita Darpan, 2/11A,
Swadeshi Bima Nagar, AGRA2 and
printed by him at Pratiyogita Darpan
Printing Unit, 5 & 6, Bye pass Road, Agra.
Phone : 4053333, 2531101, 2530966
Fax
: (0562) 4031570, 4053330
E-mail : publisher@pdgroup.in
Website : www.pdgroup.in

Branch Office :
4845, Ansari Road,
Daryaganj, New Delhi110 002
Phone : 23251844/66

C.S.V. / September/ 2009 / 797

Human Skeletal System

866

Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STD)

872

Typical Model Paper

876

Typical Model Paper

879

Typical Model Paper

882

Botany
Vegetative Parts of Plant Body

885

Fat (Lipid) Metabolism

890

Biogeochemical Cycle

893

Typical Model Paper

896

Typical Model Paper

899

Other Features
Assertion and Reason Type Questions

902

True or False

905

Do You Know ?

909

General Awareness

913

CSV Quiz Contest No. 136

916

Correct Solution and Prize Winners of CSV Quiz No. 133

919

Mental Ability Test

920

To Our Readers
Dear Readers,
The September issue of your favourite magazine Competition Science Vision
is in your hands. To start a fresh session of PMTs, all efforts have been made to
make this issue totally examination-oriented and useful for various future tests.
It is worth repeating at this stage that the opinions of toppers, other
successful candidates and readers in general have uni-vocally decided that
CSV is a valuable guide which stands unmatched in its field. Even experts
have ranked it as second to none in its utility. The magazine will undoubtedly
improve your performance and give an extra-edge over other competitors which is
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We also remind you that success comes to those who earnestly work for it. It
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With best wishes for your success.
Sincerely yours,

Mahendra Jain
(Editor)

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much earlier. According to ISRO

Chairman, Madhavan Nair, the star
sensors failure was due to excessive
radiation from the Sun. As the sensor
could not be recovered at this stage,
the remainder of the two-year mission
will be completed using a gyroscope,
an electro-mechanical device that
was used in Indian Remote Sensing
satellites.
Gyroscope, however, needs
regular intervention to stabilise the
orientation, and the ISROs ground
station has begun weekly altitude
corrections. With the failure of the two
star sensors, the number of technical
glitches, Chandrayaan has encountered in its nine-month lunar orbit,
stand at threethird being the failure
of a Bus Management Unit, which
has been replaced by a back-up unit.
The Rs. 400 crore satellite had
also encountered problems of thermal
heating. On one instance, in January
2009, the temperature within the
spacecraft had risen to 80 degree
celsius. The optional temperature for
electronic packages and payloads is
zero to 40 celsius.
Chandrayaan was launched on
October 22, 2008 carrying 11
payloads (scientific equipments for
experiments), including the moon
impact probe that crash-landed on a
designated location near the moons
South Pole in November 2008.

Hackers tap into personal computers all the timebut what would
happen if they focussed their
nefarious energy on neural devices
such as the deep brain simulators
currrently used to treat parkinson and
depression or electrode systems for
controlling prosthetic limbs ?

Brain Storming : As neural devices go

wireless, hackers might try to manipulate deep-brain stimulators or electrode systems for controlling prosthetic
limbs.

The next generation of implantable devices to control prosthetic limbs

will likely include wireless controls
that allow physicians to adjust remotely
the settings on the machine. If neural
engineers do not build in security
features such as encryption and
access control, an attacker could
hijack the device and takeover robotic
limb.

Some might question why anyone

would want to hack into someone
elses brain, but the experts say that
there is a precedence for using PCs
to cause neurological harm.

Digging Deeper for

Geothermal Energy
A new project financed by the
Energy Department of U.S.A., aims to
capture geothermal energy from hot
bedrock. But the rock must be broken
upto extract the heat and that process
creates earthquakes.
For decades energy companies
have been drilling into a sandstonelike rock, called graywacke that is
heated by hot bedrock underneath.
The new project will drill miles deeper
into the felsite rock that intrudes into
the gaywacke, causing the rock to
shift and breakand generate earthquakes.
The start-up company running the
project Altarock Energy, says that the
small tremors are negligible, and that
large quakes can be avoided by controlling the fractures and staying away
from known faults.

From Computer Hacking

to Brain Hacking
Hackers, who can easily break
into personal computers, are giving
researchers sleepless nights as they
fear that someday the human brain
might get hacked as well.
In the past years, researchers
have developed technology that
makes it possible to use thoughts to
operate a computer, maneuver a
wheelchair or even use Twitterall
without lifting a finger. But as neural
devices become more complicated
and go wirelesssome scientists say
the risks of brain hacking should be
taken seriously.
Neural devices are innovating at
an extremely rapid rate and hold
tremendous promise for the future. If
we do not start paying attention to
security, we are worried that we might
find ourselves in 5 or 10 years saying
we have made a big mistake.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 803 / 2

Process of Capturing Geothermal Energy

AWARDS/HONOURS
Gandhi Peace Award
The pro-democracy Myanmar
leader and Nobel Laureate Aung San
Suu Kyi was felicitated with Mahatma
Gandhi International Award for Peace
and Reconciliation on July 21, 2009
in Durban. The Award was bestowed
by the South African-based Mahatma
Gandhi Foundation. Burmese Prime
Minister in exile received the Award
on her behalf.
The Award is in recognition of
her strong commitment to non-violence, justice and peace.

Sports Awards 2008

Khel Ratna AwardFour-time
womens boxing World champion,
M. C. Mary Kom was chosen for the
Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award for
the year 2008 on July 20, 2009 in New
Delhi.
The awardees :
Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna
Award : M. C. Mary Kom (boxing).
Arjuna Award : Mangal Singh
Champia (archery), Sinimole Paulose
(athletics), Saina Nehwal (badminton),
Sarita Devi (boxing), Tania Sachdev
(chess), Gautam Gambhir (cricket),
Ignace Tirkey and Surinder Kaur
(hockey), Pankaj Shirsat (kabaddi),
Satish Joshi (rowing), Ronjan Sodhi
(shooting), Poulomi Ghatak (table
tennis), Yogeshwar Dutt (wrestling),
Girdhari Lal Yadav (sailing) and V.
Prabhu (wheelchair tennis).
Dronacharya Award : P. Gopi
Chand (badminton), Satpal (wrestling),
J. Uday Kumar (kabaddi), Baldev
Singh (hockey) and Jaidev Bisht
(boxing).
Royal Medal (for C.N.R. Rao)
Noted scientist, Dr. C.N.R. Rao,
National Research Professor at the
Jawahar Lal Nehru Centre for
Advanced
Scientific
Research,
Bangalore has been awarded the
prestigious Royal Medal by the Royal
Society, London for his contributions

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 805

to solid state and material chemistry.

The medal is awarded by the Queen
on recommendations of the Council
of the Royal Society.

BOOKS
Readings in Indian Agriculture
and IndustryEdited by K. L.
Krishna and Uma Kapila (A collection
of essays written by noted economists
providing insights into two vital
sectors of Indian Economy).
Global BollywoodEdited by
Anandam P. Kavoori and Aswin
Punathambekar (The book is a
collection of scholarly essays which
examine the manner in which Hindi
cinema has reframed relationship
among geography, cultural production
and cultural identities).
Accelerating Growth and Job
Creation in South AsiaEjaz Ghani
and Sadiq Ahmed (A study of South
Asian political economy beyond the
conventional discourse of market and
state).
Archaeology in IndiaGautam
Sengupta and Kaushik Gangopadhyay
(The book deals with the glimpses of
the methods and means adopted by
the pioners in archaeology to unravel
Indias past).

DAYS
August 1World Breast Feeding
Day
August 3International Friendship Day.
August 6Hiroshima Day.
August 8World Senior Citizens
Day.
August 9Quit India Day,
Nagasaki Day.
August 15Independence Day
of India.
August 18International Day of
the Worlds Indigenous People.
August 19Photography Day.
August 20Sadbhavna Diwas.
August 29National Sports Day.

Gangubai HangalA doyenne

of Hindustani classical music and one
of the foremost exponents of the
Kirana Gharana, Gangubai Hangal
passed away on July 21, 2009 in
Hubli, Karnataka. She was 97.
A recipient of more than 50
awards, includig the Padma Vibhushan, the Padma Bhushan and the
Central Sangeet Natak Akademi
Award, four honorary doctoral degrees
and 24 titles, Ms. Hangal had the rare
honour of being felicitated by nine
Prime Ministers and five Presidents.
Abdullah
BukhariFormer
Shahi Imam of Delhis Jama Masjid,
Syed Abdullah Bukhari, died on July
7, 2009 following a heart attack. He
was 87. He is survived by four sons
and two daughters. He was the 12th
Shahi Imam of the grand old mosque
built by Mughal emperor, Shah Jahan.
Born in Rajasthan, Syed Abdullah
Bukhari completed senior cambridge
and became Naib-Shahi Imam in
1946. He became Shahi Imam in
1973. He was one of the strong
voices that opposed the Emergency
in 1975. His eldest son is the current
Shahi Imam.
Shiv Charan MathurAssom
Governor and former Rajasthan Chief
Minister, Shiv Charan Mathur passed
away in New Delhi. He was born on
February 14, 1926 in Guna district of
Madhya Pradesh. He shifted to his
maternal grandfather to Karauli
(Rajasthan). Twice he had been the
Chief Minister of Rajasthansince
July 14, 1981 till February 23, 1985
and since January 20, 1988 till
December 4, 1989.
R. S. McNamara (U.S. Defence
Chief during Vietnam War)Robert
S. McNamara, the cerebral Secretary
of Defence of U.S.A. who was vilified
for prosecuting the Vietnam war, died
on July 6, 2009 in Washington. He
was 93. He was fundamentally
associated with the Vietnam war,
Americas most disastrous venture.

Known as a policymaker, McNamara

was recruited to run the Pentagon by
President John F. Kennedy in 1961.
Later on, Mr. McNamara served as
the President of World Bank for 12
years.

Pradeep Kumar (New Defence

Secretary )Union
Government
appointed Pradeep Kumar as Defence
Secretary on July 13. Mr. Kumar, a
1972 batch Haryana cadre IAS officer,
had been working as Secretary
(Defence Production). He succeeded
Vijay Singh who retired. Mr. Kumar,
who will be 60 years of age this
September, will get a two-year tenure
as per the decision taken by the
governmet. He is a graduate in
Electrical Engineering from IIT, Delhi.
Nirupama Rao ( New Foreign
Secretary )Nirupama Rao took over
as the Secretary of
External Affairs. She
succeeded
Shiv
Shankar Menon who
retired. Before this,
she had been working as Ambassador
to China. A 1973batch officer of the Nirupama Rao
Indian Foreign Services, Ms. Rao has
extensive experience of full range of
diplomatic assignments that a prospective Foreign Secretary is expected
to have. She worked as Indian High
Commissioner to Sri Lanka, Ambassador to Peru and Deputy Head of
Indian Embassies in Moscow and
Washington. She will turn 60 in
December 2010.
Indira Jaisingh (New Add.
Solicitor-General )Eminent lawyer of
Supreme Court, Indira Jaisingh, is
appointed as the first woman
Additional Solicitor-General of India.
She has also been a human rights
activist.
Vikas SwaroopVikas Swaroop,
whose book was turned into the
Oscar-winning Slumdog Millionaire,
is appointed as the Indias ConsulGeneral in Osoka, Japan.
Hansraj Bhardwaj (New Gov.,
Karnataka )Former Union Minister
for Law and Justice, Hansraj Bhardwaj was sworn-in as the Governor of
Karnataka. Born in 1937 in Haryana,

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 806

Mr. Bhardwaj began his career as the

Public Prosecutor for the Delhi
Administration and Delhi High Court
and rose as a Senior lawyer in
Supreme Court. He has also authored
three books.

the Indira Gandhi Bridge (built in

1988) that runs parallel to the Pamban
Bridge. The 56 km Bandra-Worli sea
link with its cable-stayed bridge is an
impressive engineering feat and structural wonder in recent times.

Devanand Konwar (New Gov.,

Bihar )President Pratibha Patil
appointed Devanand Konwar as the
Governor of Bihar. Mr. Konwar had
been Finance Minister of Assom.

This Rs. 1600 crore link has

undoubtedly become the new icon of
the city. The link is meant to be
extended to connect Worli and Haji
Ali in the next phase, enhancing
mobility further within the heavily
congested city. The highlight of this
project is that it is designed for the
vehicles to travel 100 km per hour,
reducing the travel time from 40
minutes to seven and thus saving on
the vehicle operating costs. It is
promissing to note that the BandraWorli link, when it is fully operational,
will have two of its eight lanes
dedicated to buses.

Ramesh Pokhriyal (New CM,

Uttarakhand)Mr. Ramesh Pokhriyal
Nishank was sworn-in as the fifth
Chief Minister of Uttarakhand. Mr.
Pokhriyal (51) succeeded Mr. Bhuvan
Chandra Khanduri, who had tendered
his resignation.
G. K. Pillai ( New Home Secretary)The former Commerce Secretary, Mr. Gopal Krishna Pillai, took
over as the Union Home Secretary.
Earlier Mr. Pillai had also served as
the Joint Secretary in Union Home
Ministry.

Hillary ClintonThe U.S. Secretary of State Hillary Clintons five-day

visit to India was
meant to herald a
new era in bilateral
relations, the emphasis she laid on
the need to conclude
the end use monitoring
agreement
Hillary Clinton
(EUMA) for the sale
of American military hardware suggests that Washington is looking at its
strategic partner in purely transactional terms. For this dialogue to be
meaningful, Military and civil nuclear
cooperation were key pillars of the
bilateral talks.

Desert
National Park
(In
UNESCOs Heritage List )After
remaining merely on official records
for almost three decades, the Desert
National Park in Jodhpur division is
now on the Tentative list of UNESCOs
World Heritage. The unique habitat, a
3,162 sq. km, treeless, sandy, gravel
and rocky tract punctuated by desolate hills, houses many rare and
endangered species of flora and fauna
including the Great Indian Bustard.

Unique Habitat : The Desert National

Park is home to endangered species
like the Great Indian Bustard.

Bandra-Worli Sea LinkA

proud LandmarkWith the inauguration of the picturesque Bandra-Worli
sea link, more than four decades after
it was first mooted, Mumbais landscape has acquired an undeniable
facelift. This is Indias largest sea link,
the third of its kind after Pamban
Railway Bridge connecting Mandapam
and the island of Rameshwaram and

The Desert National Park

accounts for 60 species of mammals,
including chinkara desert fox, desert
hare, hairy-footed gerbil and longeared hedgehog. This park can take
pride in the fact that it is home to
Rajasthans state bird, the Great
Indian Bustard, State tree khejri, State
animal chinkara and the state flower
rohida.

15th Summit of Non-Aligned

Movement (NAM)Two-day summit
of Non-Aligned Movement was concluded at Sharm El-Sheikh in Egypt
on July 16, 2009. In a concluding
declaration, this 118-nation grouping
ended their summit with an agenda
that was both, focussed and compact,
emphasising the need for collective
action on the principal global issues
of the day.
From disarmament and terrorism
to climate change, the financial cricis
and Palestine, there was virtually no
global problem of relevance of the
developing world that was ignored.
Yet by spelling out a future agenda,
the Non-Aligned Movement leaders
have increased the likelihood of the
summit declaration being taken
seriously by its own members and
rest of the world.
G-8 and G-5 SummitsLeaders
of the G-8 industrial nations and the
G-5 developing countries started their
summit in LAquila, a mountain town
east of Rome on July 8, 2009. On the
beginning day, parallel summits of the
G-8 countries (chaired by Italy) and
the G-5 (chaired by Mexico) were
held. Then on July 9, there was a
combined meeting of the G-8 and G-5
alongwith the international organizations, Egypt and other major economies. Third day of the summit
brought the African countries into the
dialogue with the G-8 and the G-5,
with the focus on food security.
The declaration expressed the
joint commitment of the G-8 and G-5
to implementing rapidly the decisions
taken at Washington and London in
G-20 summits, including those on
providing additional resources to the
international financial institutions. The
declaration committed the G-8 and
the G-5 to facilitating the development, dissemination and mutually
agreed transfer of clean, low carbon
technologies, reducing carbon emissions and increasing energy efficiency. This is the first time in a G-8
and G-5 summit that a joint declaration has been issued.
Mini Pravasi Bhartiya Divas
In a view to involving Indians living in
Europe, the Government of India has
decided to hold the next mini Pravasi

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 807

Bhartiya Divas in Hague on September 19, 2009. The convention is

expected to bring together the Indians
to discuss their role in enhancing
India-Europe cooperation, understand
the opportunities and challenges
faced by them in culture, heritage and
tradition, as also trade and investment
opportunities in India.

India Launched First Nuclearpowered Indigenous Submarine

On July 26, 2009 India demonstrated
its capability to indigenously build and
operate a nuclear-powered submarine
when Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan
Singh launched INS Arihant (destroyer of enemies) for sea trial in
Visakhapatnam.
DESTROYER OF ENEMIES

Length : 110 metres

Width : 11 metres
Displacement : 6,000 tonnes
Crew : Around 100
Induction : 2011
Speed : 30 knots
It can remain under water for three
months at a stretch, unlike Indias
existing diesel-electric submarines
that have to surface frequently to
recharge their batteries and thus run
serious risk of detection.
Arihant still has to undergo rigorous
testing.
We've got to get its heart ticking
now, said Advanced Technology
Vehicle Director General Vice
Admiral (retd) DSP Verma.

India has now joined a select

group of five countries which possess
the capability to build a nuclearpowered submarine. Submarine is

undersea for a prolonged period of

time.
It took 11 years for the submarine
to be built under the code name
Advanced Technology Vessel (ATV),
with the strategic cooperation of the
Russian Federation. The ATV programme has spawned a new era in
cooperation among DRDO, Bhabha
Atomic Research Centre (BARC), the
Navy and public and private sectors,
synergised their efforts to achieve a
significants milestone. A nuclearpowered submarine is a much-more
complex platform than any other
vessel and India built one of its own is
a great achievement. This is the
unanimous assessment of experts of
the world. The nuclear-powered
submarine is a highly complex
platform and safety regulations have
to be adhered to. There are hundreds
of systems and subsystems on the
submarine. They have to work one
after another. This is called setting-towork.
Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
built the mini-nuclear reactor that
powers the submarine. DRDO
developed the K-15 missiles. What
enhances the scale of the achievement is that INS Arihant will be fitted
with Indias own K-15 ballistic missiles
that can be launched from under
water. The K-15 missiles, which are
already under production, can carry
both conventional and nuclear
warheads. They have a range of 700
kms. They are 104 metres tall and
weight 63 tonnes each.
On occasion of launching, the
Prime Minister, Dr. Singh, said, We
do not have any aggressive desire
nor do we seek to threaten anyone.
We seek an external environment in
our region and beyond that is conducive to our peaceful development
and the protection of our value
systems. Nevertheless, it is incumbent
upon us to take all measures necessary to safeguard our country and
keep
pace
with technological
advancements worldwide.

SPORTS
Cricket

INS ArihantIndias Nuclear-powered

Submarine

equipped with anti-ship missiles,

torpedoes and sensors to keep it

Champions
TrophyPrize
money hikedThe International
Cricket Council announced a new
format for the Champions Trophy
according to which only the top eight
one-day teams will battle it out for an
increased prize money of $ 4 million.

Pakistan1st Innings : 299.

Sri Lanka1st Innings : 233.
Pakistan2nd Innings : 425 for
nine decl.
Sri Lanka2nd Innings : 391.

Tennis
Wimbledon 2009On July 5,
2009 in London, Switzerlands Roger
Federer, came up as the most

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 808

Indian Team for World Boxing

ChampionshipThe Indian Boxing
Federation on July 18, 2009 announced a nine-member team for the
World Boxing Championships to be
held in Milan, Italy since September 1
till 12.
The team : Nanao Singh (48 kg),
Suranjoy Singh (51 kg), Jitender
Kumar (54 kg), Akhil Kumar (57 kg),
Jai Bhagwan (60 kg), Manoj Kumar
(64 kg), Vijender Singh (75 kg),
Dinesh Kumar (81 kg), Manpreet
Singh (91 kg).

Archery
Deepika is World Champion
Deepika Kumari of India won the
individual gold medal in the cadet
recurve women section of the 11th
Youth World Archery Championship
in Ogden (Utah), United States on
July 21, 2009. Deepika, a trainee at
the Jamshedpurbased Tata Archery
Academy, is the current senior
National and sub-junior National
Champion.
This is second time India has won
a world title in archery. Palton Hansda
became the first Indian to be the
World Champion in 2006 in Mexico.

Useful for Various Competitive Exams.

and Professional Courses
By : Dr. L. M. Prasad
Code No. 1673
Price : Rs. 75/UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA-2
E-mail : publisher@upkar.in Website : www.upkar.in

(Useful for Various Competitive Exams.)

By : Dr. Alok Kumar
Code No. 1630
Rs. 40/-

UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA-2

UPKARS

Rs. 125/-

Boxing

Just Released

Code 916

SCORE BOARD

successful Grand Slam Champion

after beating Andy Roddick of the
United States 57, 76, 76, 36,
1614 in the mens singles final. He
won his record 15th Grand Slam title
eclipsing USAs Pete Sampras
record of 14 major titles. With this title
he again became the worlds No. 1,
relegating Rafael Nadal of Spain to
the second spot. Womens Singles :
In the womens singles final played
on July 4, 2009, Serena Williams of
USA prevailed over her elder sister
Venus Williams 76, 62 to claim her
third Wimbledon womens singles
title. Mens Doubles : In the mens
doubles final, Canadas Daniel Nestor
and Nenad Zimonjic of Serbia
defeated Mike Bryan and Bob Bryan
of USA 76, 67, 76, 63. Womens
Doubles : In the womens doubles
final, Serena Williams and Venus
Williams of USA pipped Samantha
Stotsur and Rennae Stubbs of
Australia 74, 64. Mixed Dubles :
Mark Knowles of Bahamas and AnnaLena Groenefeld of Germany beat
Leander Paes of India and his partner
Cara Black of Zimbabwe 75, 63 to
win the mixed doubles title.

By
Major P. N. Joshi (Retd.)

Prize money for the title winner has

been increased to a four-fold. The
significant increase in prize money is
just the first of a series of innovations
which will mark out the ICC Champions Trophy as a high-value tournament.
Champions
Trophy-2009
Champions Trophy tournament will
begin on September 22, 2009 with
host South Africa locking horns with
Sri Lanka at Centurian Park and will
conclude at the Sams venue on
October 5, 2009.
Unlike previous editions, only top
eight ranked teams are eligible to
play in the tournament, spread over
15 matches. The teams, Australia,
England, India, New Zealand, Pakistan, host South Africa, Sri Lanka and
the West Indies, have been divided
into two groups of four, with the top
two from each group advancing to the
semi-final stage.
India-West Indies ODI Series
India won the ODI series 21 against
West Indies. Fourth and the final
match of the series was washed away
by rain, Mahendra Singh Dhoni was
adjusted as the Man of the Series for
his consistent performance throughout the series. As a result of this
victory, India achieved its second
series win in West Indies. In 2002
also, India had won the series in West
Indies. In this series win, left-hander
Yuvraj Singh Zoomed to a career best
second place in the ICC ODI rankings
which is currently topped by M. S.
Dhoni.
Sri Lanka-Pakistan Test Series
On July 24, 2009 in Colombo, Sri
Lanka clinched the series 20, its first
at home against Pakistan after five
unsuccessful attempts and it provided
Sangakkara with a winning start as a
Captain. He hit an unbeaten century
to steer Sri Lanka to a draw on the
final day of final test.

It Includes
Intelligence Tests Psychological Tests GTOs Tests
The Interviews Techniques
Pilots Aptitude Tests
UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA2

 Inspiring Young Talent

Clear focus on target, regular study, study with concentration and

regular revision are the elements of my success.
Ratish Kumar Mishra

Selected in U.P. CPMT-2009 (Rank-6)

[Competition Science Vision arranged an exclusive interview with Mr. Ratish Kumar Mishra who has
the credit of being successful with a high rank in U.P. CPMT and also in PMT of AMU. For his brilliant
success he deserves all praise and our hearty congratulations. This important interview is published here in
its original form.]
CSVCongratulations on your
brilliant success.
RatishThank you.
CSVBefore knowing your result
what did you think about those who
achieve top positions ?
RatishI used to think that they
were born intelligent persons.
CSVAchieving top position has
come as surprise to you or were you
confident of achieving it ?
RatishI was confident of
success but it was surprising when I
heard that I have got 6th rank in U.P.
CPMT.
CSVWhat do you think is the
secret of your success ?
RatishClear focus on target,
regular study, study with concentration
and regular revision are elements of
my success.
CSVIn how many attempts did
you get this success ?
RatishI took three attempts.
CSVWhat were the shortcomings in your preparation for earlier
attempts ? How did you make up for
them this time ?
RatishI did not revise the
whole course and also I left some
topics which I thought were less
important.
Failure in earlier attempts made
me realise that all the topics are
important and we should revise them
all before examination. So I revised
the whole course twice.
CSVFrom where did you get
the inspiration of choosing a medical
career ?
RatishMy brother is also a
Doctor and also it was my childhood
dream.
CSVFrom when did you start
the preparation for it ?
RatishAfter 12th class.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 809

CSVWhat planning did you

make for preparation ? Please tell
something in detail.

CSVHow did you give final

touches to your preparation ?
RatishIn Biology, I revised
those topics in which a lot of facts
have to be clearly understood and
remembered. In Physics, I went
through all the formulae and basic
concepts. In Chemistry, I revised
inorganic and organic portions.
CSVDid you prepare notes ?
RatishYes, I prepared notes.

Bio-Data
CSV gives latest and
important points regarding premedical tests of various medical
institutes. I have found it extremely useful in my examination.
Ratish Kumar Mishra
RatishMy studies were mainly
based on text-books. I went through
all the books. Questions in PMT
examinations are mainly based on
concepts. So I mainly cleared my
concepts in every topic.
CSVHow much time did you
devote daily and regularly for Physics,
Chemistry, Zoology and Botany ?
RatishI used to study 8-10
hours daily. I devoted only two or
three subjects daily. For each subject
I gave 3-4 hours daily.
CSVOut of the above four
subjects, to which subject did you give
more weightage and why ?
RatishI mainly gave weightage
to Biology because I find it hard to
learn so many of facts. I also gave
importance to Physics.
CSVDid you make complete
study of all topics or of some selective
topics ?
RatishYes, I made complete
study of all the topics.

NameRatish Kumar Mishra

Fathers NameMr. Ram Anuj
Mishra
Mothers NameMrs. Gayatri
Mishra
Educational Qualifications
H.S./Std. X86% (City Montessori
School Gomti Nagar, Lucknow), 2004.
Inter/Std XII86% (City Montessori
School Gomti Nagar, Lucknow), 2006.
Special Achievements
CPMT6th rank
Selected in AMU PMT.

CSVWhat was your attitude for

solving numerical questions ? What
weightage did you give them ?
RatishI did give them proper
weightage during my preparation,
while solving numericals I keenly
observed that what are the values
given and what is asked ? Then I
applied the formula or concept related
to it.
For that I had gone through the
derivation and concept used in
formula applied.
CSVHow much time is sufficient for preparing for this examination ?
RatishFor an average student
2 years.
CSVFrom what level of education should an aspirant begin preparing for it ?

RatishOne should begin it from

class 11th.
CSVWhat was your order of
preference for various branches for
which this test is held ?
RatishOnly MBBS.

Personal Qualities
HobbiesW a t c h i n g
playing football

cricket,

Ideal PersonMy brother, Dr.

Manoj Kumar Mishra
Strong PointMy determination
Weak PointI early loose my
concentration

CSVPlease mention various

books in each subject and magazines
on which you based your preparation.
RatishPhysics
:
Nootan
Physics by Kumar and Mittal
Chemistry : O. P. Tondon

Zoology : Ramesh Gupta and

NCERT books.
Botany : M. P. Kaushik and
NCERT books.
Bio : Modern ABC of biology.

UPKARS

Magazine : CSV magazine which

contains all the above subjects and is
highly useful.
CSVDid you take coaching in
your preparation ?

really helpful
CPMT.

RatishYes, I have joined New

Light Coaching Institute, Lucknow
Centre. I was very much impressed
with the Director of New Light Dr. S.
P. Singh because his style of teaching of Bio is very good.

RatishThey should give more

model paper based on All India
pattern.

CSVWhat help do the science

magazines render in the preparations
for this examination ?
RatishThey give better knowledge in G.K. and important points
regarding various topics.
CSVWhat will be your criterion
for selecting a magazine for these
examination ?
RatishWhich provides latest
information and model papers.
CSVWhat is your opinion about
our Competition Science Vision ? How
much helpful and useful do you find
it ?
RatishIt gives latest and important points regarding PMT. I find it

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DELHI

METRO RAIL CORPORATION

(Technical Cadre)
For
Station Controller Train Operator
Section Engineer Junior
Engineer Junior Station Controller

Including
Previous Years
Solved Papers

By : Dr. Lal & Jain

Code No. 971
Price : Rs. 299/UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA2
E-mail : publisher@upkar.in

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 810

Website : www.upkar.in

in

preparation

of

CSVPlease suggest in what

way CSV can be made more useful
for medical aspirants.

CSVPlease mention your

position in the merit list as well as the
marks obtained in different subjects.
What was your aggregate percentage
of marks ?
RatishI got 6th rank in U.P.
CPMT.

Physics49 marks
Chemistry47 marks
Zoology45 marks
Botany47 marks
Total188 marks
CSVWhat books/magazines/
newspapers did you read for G.K.
preparations ?
RatishCSV, Dainik Jagaran.

(Continued on Page 821 )

Physics
1. What is dimensions of conductance ?
1
[C] = [R] = [M 1 L 2 T3 A2]
2. When horizontal range of a projectile is n times the
maximum height, then
4
tan = n
3. What are field forces ?
These are the forces in which contact between two objects is not necessary. Example :
Gravitational force between two bodies and
electrostatic force between two charges.
4. When a particle moves with constant speed in a circle
its velocity and acceleration both have
Constant magnitude but continuously
changing directions
5. What is the principle of conservation of momentum ?
If no external force acts on a system of two or
more bodies, then the total momentum of the
system remains constant
6. Change in momentum of projectile at the highest point
of its trajectory is
mv sin
7. What is Daltons law of partial pressure ?
The pressure exerted by a mixture of several
gases equals the sum of the pressures
exerted by each gas occupying the same
volume as that of the mixture.
8. The maximum speed with which a car can turn round
a curve of radius r is given by
vmax = rg
where is the coefficient of friction
9. What is equation of stationary wave : when the wave
is reflected from a free boundary ?
x
t
2
2
y = 2a cos
. sin
T

10. The angle which a cyclist should make with the

vertical while taking a circular turn of radius r with
velocity v is given by
v2
tan = rg
11. The relations between P, V and T in an adiabatic
process are
(a) PV = constant (b) TV 1 = constant
(c) P1 T = constant
12. The relation between pressure (P) and the kinetic
energy (E) of its molecules per unit volume is
2
P =3 E

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 811 / 3

13. When object is placed at infinity longitudinal chromatic

aberration is given by
fR fV = wfY
14. Work done in an adiabatic process is given by
R
W=
(T1 T 2)
1
15. Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor filled partially
with some dielectric medium, is
0 A
Cpd =
1
dt 1
K

[ ( )]

16. For what purpose are heavy water and cadmium rods
used in a nuclear reactor ?
Heavy water as moderator to slow down
neutrons. Cadmium rods as controller to
control the rate of fission
17. Impedance of L-C-R circuit is given by

Z=

R2 + (XL XC)2

(where X L = L = inductive reactance;

1
= capacitive reactance)
XC =
C
18. For pair-production it is essential that the energy of photon must be at least
102 MeV (= 2 051 MeV)
19. What are the drawbacks of liquid drop model ?
(a) It cannot explain the existence of magic
numbers
(b) It cannot explain why only certain energies of radiations are emitted by a
nucleus
(c) It does not explain magnetic moment of
nucleus
20. The relation between half life T1/2 and mean life of a
radioactive substance is
06931
1
T1/2 = 06931 T1/2 =
and =

Chemistry
21. A substance which has some of the structure of
solids and some of the freedom of motion associated
with liquids, is called
Liquid Crystal
22. What is the IUPAC name and symbol of an element
having atomic number 111 ?
Un-un-unium (Uuu)
23. When mercury (Hg) was cooled below 41 K its
resistance to an electric current becomes zero. It was
first observed by
Heike Onne (1911)

24. What is the unit of measurement of nuclear distances ?

Femtometre (1 fm = 10 15 m)
25. The most direct and accurate means for determining
atomic and molecular weights is provided by
Mass-spectrometer
26. Why are mercury (I) compounds diamagnetic, despite
the presence of an unpaired electron in Hg+ ?
Due to formation of [HgHg]2+
27. The process of reheating a quenched steel to relieve
internal stresses, is called
Tempering
28. What is the rubeanic acid ?
Dithio oxamide, NH2CCNH2
|| ||
S S
29. Hydrolysis of an ester in the presence of a base is
termed as
Saponification
30. What is the temperature known as, above which a gas
cannot be liquefied ?
Critical temperature
31. The energy required to decompose an atomic
nucleus into its component protons and neutrons is
called
Nuclear binding energy
32. Which fatty acid is the major constituent of glyceryl
esters present in castor oil ?

Ricinoleic acid, C17H32 (OH) COOH

33. A reaction in which two substances react through an
exchange of their component ions, are called

Metathesis reaction
34. What is the trade name of heavy medicinal liquid
paraffin, extensively used as a mulling agent in spectroscopy ?
Nujol
35. The intermolecular forces resulting from attractions
between induced dipoles are known as
London dispersion forces
36. What is the use of bromochlorodifluoromethane
(B.C.F.) ?
Used in fire extinguishers
37. A solid whose molecular arrangement lack, a regular,
long-range pattern is called
Amorphous solid
38. What is the name of sodium aluminium silicate containing sulphur having a beautiful blue colour ?
Lapis lazuli
39. The net positive charge experienced by an electron in
a many-electron atom, is called
Effective nuclear charge
40. What is the IUPAC name of chloral hydrate ?
2, 2, 2-trichloro ethanediol

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 812

Zoology
41. What is called small calcareous granules found in the
inner ear of certain mammals ?
Otolith
42. What is called the creation of mutation ?
Mutagenesis
43. What is called the opening of the occipital bone of
skull through which the spinal cord passes ?
Foramen magnum
44. How many membranes comprise the nuclear membrane ?
Two
45. Which anticoagulant is present in the saliva of leech ?
Hirudin
46. What accepts the final electrons in electron transport
system ?
Oxygen
47. Which type of mutation involves a change in nucleotide and ultimately a change in a specific codon ?
Point mutation
48. What was virtually absent in primitive atmosphere ?
Oxygen
49. What is called the peculiar stage in Plasmodium
merozoites which appear like sepals and petals of a
flower ?
Rosette stage
50. Which vector should be eradicated for the prevention
of African sleeping sickness ?
Tse-tse fly
51. To which kind of disorder, the systemic lupus
erythematosus is associated ?
Autoimmune disease
52. What is the unit of natural selection ?
Individual
53. What is called a catalytically active complex formed
by an apoenzyme and a coenzyme ?
Holoenzyme
54. What is called a movement response to air or water ?
Rheotaxis
55. What is called an artery in mammals that arises from
an arch of the aorta and divides to form the right
carotid and right subclavian arteries ?
Innominate artery
56. What is usually lost from bones during aging ?
Calcium and phosphate
57. What is called a movement response to air or water
current in Amoeba ?
Rheotaxis
58. What type of nutrition is found in Monocystis ?
Saprozoic
59. Which enzyme is involved in light production in certain
insects ?
Luciferase
60. In nearsightedness effect the image does not focus
on which part of eye ?
Retina

Botany
61. How many ATP molecules are formed per glucose
molecule by substrate level phosphorylation ?
4 ATP molecules
62. Which family is commonly called gourd family ?
Cucurbitaceae
63. What term is used for a change in the permeability of
a cells plasma membrane that allows sodium ions to
diffuse rapidly into the cells interior ?
Depolarization
64. What is called the process by which a cell secretes
macromolecules by fusing a transport vesicle to the
plasma membrane ?
Exocytosis
65. What does taxonomy deal with ?
Naming of organisms
66. The resolving power of an electron microscope is how
much greater than the resolving power of a light
microscope ?
One thousand times
67. What does phloem transport usually from the leaves
to roots ?
Organic nutrients
68. What type of energy was used by Miller-Urey experiment ?
Electric spark
69. What is the correct name of slow viruses ?
Prion
70. In which group all unicellular plants and animals with
true nuclei are included ?
Protista
71. To which family Atropa belladona belongs ?
Solanaceae
72. What type of Saccharomyces, a fungus is ?
Nonmycelial unicellular
73. What is the shape of microspore of Cycas ?
Tetrahedral
74. What type of fruit dispersal is generally found in
Papaveraceae ?
Censar mechanism of fruit dispersal
75. What is called a group of conjugated proteins in
which one of the FAD or FMN is bound as prosthetic
group ?
Flavin
76. What causes early blight of potato ?
A fungus, Alternaria solani
77. Which process is inhibited by the drug streptomycin ?
Prokaryotic translation
78. What type of ovule is reported to have been found in
Pea ?
Campylotropous
79. Which is the earliest era in the geologic record ?
Precambrian
80. How many codons are present in valine, an amino
acid ?
Single codon

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 813

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1. Wave Motion
It is defined as a disturbance that travels through the
medium due to repeated periodic motion of its particles
about their mean position, each preceding particle
handing over the disturbance to next.

Points to Remember
(i)

Wave represents transfer of energy and not transfer of

mass.
(ii) A wave which moves forward and thus, transfers energy
along its direction of motion is called progressive wave
while a wave in which there is no transfer of energy and
which remains confined to a fixed space is called
stationary wave.
(iii) Mechanical waves require some material media for their
propagation as they require properties of inertia and
elasticity.
(iv) Electromagnetic waves like light waves can travel without medium. Thus, they can travel through vacuum.
(v) Sound waves are longitudinal mechanical waves and
they can propagate in solids, liquids and gases.
(vi) The audible frequency is from about 20 Hz to about
20,000 Hz. A longitudinal mechanical wave whose
frequency is above the audible range is called an ultrasonic wave and such wave whose frequency is below
the audible range is called infrasonic wave.
(vii) Some waves like ripples on water surface are neither
purely transverse nor purely longitudinal.

2. Two Types of Wave Motion

(a) Transverse wave(i) The particles of the
medium vibrate at right angles to the direction of propagation of the wave.
(ii) Crests and troughs are produced.
(iii) It is possible in media which possess elasticity of
shape or rigidity e.g. , solids or at best over the surface of
liquids.
(iv) It is because a liquid surface has property of
surface tension which resists any deformation of shape.
(v) Transverse wave is not produced or possible in
gases.
( b ) Longitudinal wave(i) The particles of the
medium vibrate along the direction of propagation of the
wave.
(ii) Compressions and rarefactions are produced.
(iii) The media must have elasticity of volume.
(iv) Longitudinal waves are possible in all media i.e.,
solid, liquid and gas.
(v) It is because all these resist any change in
volume.

3. Characteristics of Wave Motion

(a) Frequency (n )The number of waves which
pass a point per unit time is called the frequency of the
wave motion.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 814

)It is shortest distance between

(b) Wavelength (
two points in the same phase.
(c) Time period (T)Time taken to complete one
vibration is called time period.
(d) Amplitude (A)The maximum displacement of a
vibrating particle from mean position is called its
amplitude.
(e) Wave velocity (v )The distance travelled by the
wave in one second is defined as its velocity.
Note
(i) The velocity of the particles of the medium is
different from the velocity of the wave.
(ii) Wave velocity = frequency wavelength

v=n
(iii) The relation v = n holds good for any type of
wave motion-transverse or longitudinal
(iv) When a given wave passes from one medium to
the other, its frequency does not change.
v 1 1
=
v 2 2
(f) PhaseThe phase represents the state or condition of a vibrating particle. After a distance , the particles
are in same phase. Also a particle comes to the same
phase after completing one rotation or an angle of 2
radians. So path corresponds to 2 phase change.
2
Phase difference =
path difference

(g) Wave frontWhen a wave passes through a

medium the surface that gives the continuous locus of all
points in the same phase of vibration at a particular
instant, is called the wavefront. The wavefront advances
through the medium with the wave velocity. If the medium
is homogeneous and source is a point, the wavefront is
spherical. For a linear source in a homogeneous medium,
the wavefront is cylindrical. For the case of source being
at infinity, the wavefront is plane.

4. Equations of a Plane Progressive Wave

In +x direction
(a) y = a sin 2

( )
t x

(b) y = a sin (t kx)

x
(c) y = a sin t
v

( )
( )

(d) y = a sin 2n

(e) y = a sin k (vt x)

2
(f) y = a sin
(vt x)

x
v

In x direction
t x
y = a sin 2
+
T

( )

y = a sin (t + kx)
x
y = a sin t +
v

y = a sin 2n

( )
t+

y = a sin k (vt + x )
2
y = a sin
(vt + x )

x
v

2
= 2n
T
k = 2/

where, T is absolute temperature of the gas, M is

its molecular weight and R is universal gas
constant.
R
k =
= Boltzmann constant
N

where,

v = n=

k
NoteThe above equations represent only a simple
plane progressive wave without attenuation (amplitude
gradually decreasing with distance). But in the case of
propagation of actual wave through a medium, its
amplitude gradually diminishes due to resisting effect of
viscous medium. Due to loss of energy, the amplitude
decreases exponentially with distance and the equation of
the attenuated plane progressive wave is given by

N = Avogadro number
M
m =
= Mass of one molecule
N

y = ae x sin

2
x

= Cp /Cv (ratio of specific heats)

(ii)

= 167 for monoatomic gas

= 140 for diatomic gas
= 133 for polyatomic gas
2
= 1+
n

(iii)

where, n is degree of freedom of gas molecules

n = 3 for monoatomic gas

where, is the attenuation constant.

n = 5 for diatomic gas

5. Velocity of Longitudinal Waves in Elastic

Medium

n = 6 for triatomic or polyatomic gas

(a) Newtons formulaNewton proved that when

longitudinal waves (sound) move in elastic medium, the
velocity is given by

v=

E
d

where E is the modulus of elasticity of the medium and d

is its density.
NoteWave velocity in a medium is fixed. Wave
velocity is a material constant. It does not depend on
wavelength, frequency and intensity.
(b) For solidsModulus of elasticity

(iv) Velocity of longitudinal wave in

solid medium > liquid medium > gaseous medium

6. Effect of Physical Conditions on Velocity of

Sound
(a) Effect of pressureWith the change of pressure, the velocity of sound in a gas remains unchanged,
that is, there is no effect of pressure on the velocity of
sound in a gas.
(b) Effect of temperatureVelocity of sound
T.
Thus, the velocity of sound is directly proportional to
the square root of the absolute temperature. i.e.,

vt
=
v0

E = Youngs modulus of elasticity = Y

Y
d
(c) For liquidsModulus of elasticity
E = Bulk modulus of elasticity = B

v =

v =

B
d

v =

P
d

vt v0

1+

t
273

1/2

1+

t
2 273

v t v 0 (1 + 000183t )
In air,

v 0 = 332 m/s
1100 ft/sec

v t (332 + 061 t) m/s

(1100 + 2t) ft/s

Note :
(i)

vt = v0

or

273 + t
273

Note For small value of t (t < < 273)

( d ) For gasesFor a gaseous medium, Newton

assumed that the propagation of longitudinal wave is an
isothermal process (temperature remains constant). In
this case, modulus of elasticity
E = Pressure of the gas
= P

Tt
T0

The experimental results did not confirm to

Newtons assumption. Laplace corrected the
formula by arguing that sound waves travel
adiabatically. Hence,

v=

P
=
d

RT
=
M

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 815

k T
m

That is, velocity of sound increases by 061 m/s or 61

cm/s or 2 ft/sec per degree celsius rise in temperature.
(c) Effect of humidityWith the decrease in density
of the medium the velocity of sound increases. The moist
air is lighter than the dry air. Therefore, the velocity of
sound in moist air is more than the velocity of sound in dry
air.

Note :

Some Interesting Facts About Sound

(i)

1. There is pressure variation in longitudinal waves. But there

is no such pressure variation in the case of transverse
waves.
2. Sound waves reflect and refract obeying the same laws as
followed by light but they do not suffer dispersion like light
waves, when passed through a prism of suitable medium.
This is due to fact that the velocity of sound in a medium is
same for all wavelengths.
3. Sound waves are reflected like light waves when they
strike an obstacle like the wall of a building, rows of trees,
hillside etc. They also follow exactly the same laws of
reflection as followed by light waves. The audible wavelength range varies from 00166 m to 166m, so for reflection of sound waves, a comparatively large surface is
required, whereas light waves can be reflected from a very
small surface area as their wavelength is very small.
4. Echo is produced by reflection of sound waves from an
extended reflector like a long wall or cliff and can be
differentiated from the original sound. The distance of the
reflecting surface should be at least 332 metre away from
the source.
5. Sound also exhibits the phenomenon of total internal
reflection as exhibited by light. This happens when sound
waves travelling in a medium in which they have less
velocity, meet the surface of another medium in which
sound waves have larger velocity, at an angle more than
critical angle.
6. Sound travels longer distance at night than during day.
7. The sound waves in the frequency range 20Hz20,000 Hz
are audible to human ear. Sound waves below 20 Hz are
called infrasonic waves while those above 20,000 Hz are
called ultrasonic waves. Ultrasonic waves are not audible
to human ear. These are produced naturally by bats and
help it in avoiding collisions with obstacles while flying.
8. Ultrasonic waves can be produced by Piezo electric
oscillator, magnetostriction oscillator and detected by
Kundts tube, sensitive flames, thermal detectors and
quartz crystal detectors.
9. The sound in a building or auditorium does not die
immediately after the source has ceased to produce it. It
continues for sometime because of multiple reflections.
This persistence of audible sound after the source has
ceased to emit waves is called reverberation.

(d) Effect of wind velocityThe velocity of wind

effects the velocity of sound. If the wind blows in the
direction of propagation of sound, the velocity of sound v
will be replaced by ( v + ) and if it blows in the opposite
direction, the velocity of sound v will be changed to (v ).
If the wind blows in any inclined direction, is to be
replaced by its appropriate component.

7. Intensity of Sound Waves

Intensity of wave propagating in a medium is defined
as the amount of energy transferred per unit area per unit
time in normal direction. It is given by
I =

1 W
watt/m2
A t

I = 22 a2 n2. v

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 816

When wave travels uniformly in all directions

from a small source (point source), the intensity
varies inversely as the square of the distance,
1
I 2
r
or
I 1 r1 2 = I 2 r2 2

(ii) Threshold of audibility for intensity is 10 12 W/m2

8. Unit of Sound Intensity

The absolute unit of intensity of sound is W/m2. But
for practical considerations, the relative intensity or
intensity level is of much importance.
Intensity level is the ratio of given value (I) to the
basic standard intensity (I0 = 1012 W/m2). Thus, practical
unit for intensity level measurement is decibel.
I
Intensity in decibel = 10 log 10
I0
where,
I 0 = 1012 W/m2
I
Intensity in Bel = log10
I0

Intensity Level of Various Sounds

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.

General level of noise

Soft music
Ordinary conversation
Busy traffic
Alarm clock
Jet air port
Landing area of air craft carrier

10 db
40 db
6070 db
785 db
80 db
115120 db
150155 db

9. Loudness
The intensity of sound refers to external or objective
measurement, whereas loudness refers to internal or subjective aspect. The loudness of a sound is the magnitude
of the auditory sensation produced by sound.
The loudness of sound increases with intensity of
sound given by the psychological law known as WeberFechner law which is as
I
L = K log 10
where K is a constant.
I0
Sensitivity of ear
L = K log I
(as I0 is constant)
K
dL
=
I
dI
dL
is known as sensitivity of ear which decreases
dI
with increase in the intensity of sound.
UnitThe unit of loudness is Phon.

10. Pitch
It is the characteristic, which differentiates the notes
of same loudness and quality. It is an audio sensation
which depends on frequency. Higher the frequency,
higher is the pitch and more shrill is the sound. Sound of
lower frequency, hence, of lower pitch corresponds to dull
or grave sound. The voice of children and women are
shrill due to high pitch, whereas voice of adult persons is
grave due to lower pitch.

11. Quality or Timbre

The characteristic of sound which differentiates the
sounds of different instruments with the same pitch and
loudness, is known as quality or timbre. It is also
subjective in character.

12. Musical Scale

A musical scale consists of a number of notes having
a definite relation between one another regarding the
frequency of vibration. The lowest note of such a series is
known as key note or tonic. Between a key note and its
octave, human ear distinguishes a number of notes
having definite frequency.
(a) ChordWhen two or more notes are sounded
together, their combination is known as chord. If the
combination produces a pleasing effect to the ear, it is
called concord, and the pleasing effect is known as
consonance. If the combination produces a displeasing
effect, it is called discord, and disagreeable effect is
known as dissonance.

(b) HarmonyWhen two or more notes which produce concord are sounded simultaneously, the pleasing
effect is called harmony.
(c) MelodyWhen two or more notes are sounded
one after the other, the combined note producing the
pleasing effect is called melody.
(d) Musical IntervalsThe ratio of the frequencies
between two notes, greater one taken as numerator and
smaller one taken as denominator is called as musical
interval. Its numerical value is always more than one. The
terms associated with musical interval are
n2
(i)
Unison :
= 1
n1
n2
= 2
(ii) Octave Tone :
n1
n2
9
=
(iii) Major Tone :
8
n1
n2
10
(iv) Minor Tone :
=
9
n1
n2
16
(v)
Semi Tone :
=
15
n1

SOME TYPICAL SOLVED EXAMPLES

Example 1. Hydrogen consists of diatomic
molecules. The molecular weight of hydrogen is M = 2
kg/k mol. Find the speed of sound in hydrogen at
J
27 C.
R = 8314
mol K

Solution :

Example 3. The sound of a ship is received by the

under water detector of a petrol vessel 18 second
before it is heard through the air. How far away is the
ship ? Speed of sound in sea water is 1400 m/s and
that in air 330 m/s.
Solution :

Example 2. A tuning fork produces a sound of

wavelength 1 metre in air at 0 C. What would be the
wavelength of sound produced by fork in air at 10C ?
Solution :

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 817

Example 6. A man is driving on a straight road

running parallel to a hill at a constant speed of 72
km/hr. He sounds the horn and hears its echo after
4 sec. What is the distance between the road and the
hill ?
(Speed of sound = 340 m/s)
Solution :

Example 4. A stone is dropped into a mine shaft

1225 m deep. How much later will the impact be
heard ?
(va = 330 m/s)
Solution :

Example 5. A man is driving at 72 km/hr on a

straight road heading towards a hill. He sounds the
horn and hears its echo 4 sec afterwards. At what
distance from the hill horn was sounded ? Assume
the speed of sound to be 340 m/s.
Solution :

Example 7. What is the maximum angle of incidence for a sound wave, on air-water interface so that
sound may be heard inside water ?
(Sound speed in air = 350 m/s, Sound speed in
water = 1400 m/s)
Solution :

Example 8. A loudspeaker produces intensity

level of 8 decibel above a certain reference level at a
particular point P, 40 metre from it. Find (a) intensity
level at point 30 metre from the loudspeaker. (b) the
intensity level at P, if the electrical power to the
loudspeaker is halved.
Solution : (a)

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 818

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. What happens when a sound
wave is reflected from the boundary of a denser medium ? The
compression of the incident wave
is returned as
(A) Crest
(B) Trough

(C) Equal to the amplitude

(D) None of the above
6. The distance between two consecutive antinode is 05 m. The
distance travelled by the wave in
half the time period is

(C) Compression

(A) 025 m

(B) 05 m

(D) Rarefaction

(C) 1 m

(D) 2 m

2. The frequency of a mans voice

is 300 Hz. If the velocity of sound
waves is 336 m/s, the wavelength of the sound is
(A) 330/336 m
(B) 300 336 m
(C) 112 m
(D) None of the above
3. When a stone is dropped on the
surface of the still water, the
waves produced are
(A) Transverse
(B) Longitudinal
(C) Stationary
(D) None of the above
4. Sound waves in air differ from
the electromagnetic waves in
that they cannot be
(A) Reflected (B) Refracted
(C) Diffracted (D) Polarised
5. A transverse wave is passing
through a medium. The maximum speed of the vibrating particle occurs when the displacement of the particle from the
mean position is
(A) Zero
(B) Half of the amplitude

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 819

7. Velocity of sound in the atmosphere of a planet is 500 m/s. The

minimum distance between the
source of sound and the obstacle
to hear echo should be
(A) 17 m

(B) 20 m

(C) 25 m

(D) 50 m

8. The equation of a progressive

wave is represented by

x = A sin (kx t )
The velocity of the wave is given
by
(A) kx

(B) k /

(C) t

(D) /k

9. The ratio of intensities of two

waves is 1 : 16. The ratio of their
amplitude is
(A) 1/4

(B) 1/2

(C) 1/16

(D) 16/17

10. A sound wave is travelling in a

medium in which its velocity is v.
It is incident on the second
medium in which the velocity of
the wave is 2v . What should be
the minimum angle of incidence
on the second medium, so that
the wave fails to cross the

surface of separation of the two

media ?
(A) 15

(B) 30

(C) 45

(D) 60

11. The pressure of air increases by

100 mm of Hg and the temperature decreases by 1C. What
will be the change in the speed
of sound in air ?
(A) 61 mm/s (B) 61 cm/s
(C) 61 m/s
(D) None of these
12. The intensity of a wave reduces
by 10% in passing through a
block. If it passes through two
such blocks, the intensity of the
wave will be reduced to
(A) 78%
(B) 80%
(C) 81%
(D) 89%
13. A wave is given by the equation
x
y = A sin 2 f t

Its maximum particle velocity is

four times the wave velocity,
when is equal to
A
(A) A
(B)
2
A
A
(C)
(D)
4
8

( )

14. A sound wave of wavelength

travels towards an obstacle with
a speed c. The obstacle itself is
moving in the opposite direction
with speed v . How many compressions will strike the obstacle
in one second ?
(c + v)
(c v)
(A)
(B)

(c 2 v 2 )
(c 2 v 2 )
(C)
(D)
c

15. A wave travelling along a stretched string is given by

y = 3 cos (100t x) cm
Then its wavelength is
(A) 3 cm
(B) 4 cm
(C) 2 cm
(D) 1 cm
16. Two harmonic motions are represented by the equations

y 1 = 10 sin 3t +
4

y 2 = 5 (sin 3 t + 3 cos 3t )
Their amplitudes are in the ratio
(A) 2 : 1
(B) 1 : 2
(C) 1 : 1
(D) 4 : 1
17. A longitudinal wave is travelling
in a coiled spring with a velocity
of 2 m/s. The time period of the
oscillations is 05 sec. What is
the wavelength ?
(A) 2 m
(B) 1 m
(C) 05 m
(D) 025 m
18. The Laplaces correction in the
expression for the velocity of
sound given by Newton is
needed because sound wave
(A) Are longitudinal
(B) Propagate isothermally
(C) Propagate adiabatically
(D) Are of long wavelength
19. The velocity of sound in oxygen
at 30 is 330 m/s. Therefore, the
velocity of sound in helium at the
same temperature is
(A) 330 m/s

(B) 660 m/s

(C) 950 m/s

(D) 1020 m/s

20. The loudness of sound depends

on
(A) Frequency (B) Amplitude
(C) Speed
(D) Wavelength
21. At NTP the velocity of sound in a
gas is 300 m/s. If the pressure of
the gas is made four times

without changing its temperature,

the velocity of sound would be
(A) 150 m/s
(B) 600 m/s
(C) 300 m/s
(D) 1200 m/s
22. In order to listen an echo of a
sound of very short duration, the
minimum distance of the obstacle from the listener should
be
(A) 17 m
(B) 17 m
(C) 170 m
(D) 11 m
23. The noise of thunder is heard
6 sec after the flash is seen. The
velocity of sound at 0C is 332
m/sec. At the time of thundering,
the temperature of air is 25C.
The distance of thundering cloud
is
(A) 2082 m (B) 1992 m
(C) 2500 m (D) None of these
24. The equation of motion of a
particle is given as
d 2x
dx
+ 02
+ 36 x = 0
dt 2
dt
The period of oscillation will be
approximately
(A) / 3 sec
(B) /2 sec
(C) / 6 sec
(D) / 4 sec
25. Calculate the r.m.s. velocity of a
gas molecule at NTP if the
velocity of sound in that gas at
NTP is 400 m/s
(Ratio of Cp and C v = 15)
(A) 400 2 m/ s (B) 40 2 m/ s
(C) 330 m/ s
(D) 300 m/ s
26. The equation of motion of a
particle is given by
y = a sin t + b cos t
The amplitude of motion is given
by
(A) (a + b)2
(B) (a + b)
(C)

(a + b)

(D)

a2 + b2

27. A wave of frequency 100 Hz is

sent along a string towards a

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 820

fixed end. When this wave travels

back after reflection, a node is
formed at a distance of 10 cm
from the fixed end of the string.
The speed of incident (and
reflected) wave is
(A) 40 m/s
(B) 20 m/s
(C) 10 m/s
(D) 5 m/s
28. A hospital uses an ultrasonic
scanner to locate tumour in a
tissue. The operating frequency
of the scanner is 42 MHz. The
speed of sound in a tissue is 17
km/sec. The wavelength of
sound in the tissue is close to
(A) 4 104 m (B) 8 103 m
(C) 4 103 m (D) 8 104 m
29. Bel is unit of
(A) Intensity
(B) Pitch
(C) Loudness
(D) None of these
30. Phon is the unit of
(A) Intensity of sound
(B) Loudness of sound
(C) Quality of sound
(D) Noise
31. Reverberation in a hall is due
to
(A) Interference of sound
(B) Production of beats
(C) Reflection of sound
(D) Diffraction of sound
32. The ratio between the frequency
of two sound notes is called
(A) Octave
(B) Pitch
(C) Intensity
(D) Interval
33. If the pleasant effect is produced
by the two sounds made together, the phenomenon is termed
as
(A) Consonance (B) Conchord
(C) Dissonance (D) Dischord

(Continued from Page 810 )

CSVWhom would you like to
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about your family.
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Housewife.
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MBBS, doing M.S. from Indore.
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MBA, doing job in Mumbai.
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has been the biggest mistake in your
preparation for this test ?
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topics.
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and CSV magazine for success in
these tests.

Just Released

(Multiple Choice Questions on

Computer Fundamental,
Application and Advance Topics)

Useful for Various Competitive Exams.

By : Dr. Alok Kumar
Code No. 1664
Price : Rs. 80/UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA-2
E-mail : publisher@upkar.in
Website : www.upkar.in

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 821

Many nuclides are unstable and these unstable nuclei

spontaneously change into other nuclides by radioactive
decay. The process of spontaneous disintegration of
heavy atomic nuclei like uranium, radium, etc. into other
nuclei by emission of corpuscular or electromagnetic
radiations is called radioactivity. The disintegration takes
place at constant rate and is unaffected by any physical or
chemical changes. Three features of radioactivity are
extraordinary in light of classical physics.
(a) When a nucleus undergoes alpha ( 2He 4++ ) or
Beta emission, its atomic number and mass number
change and it becomes nucleus of a different element.
(b) The energy liberated during a radioactive decay
comes from within the individual nuclei without external
excitation.
(c) Radioactive decay is a statistical process that
obeys the law of chance.
By studying the penetrating power of emitted radiation
Rutherford classified the radiation as -rays and -rays.
Paul Villard identified third rays as -rays, the highly
energetic electromagnetic rays. The transformation of one
nucleus in the other form is called nuclear transmutation. During -emission no transmutation takes place. It
has been found that there are only 272 stable nuclei of
naturally occurring elements (they are non-radioactive).
The rest are radioactive and unstable and called radioisotopes.

When t = 0, Nt = N0 = Initial no. of nuclei present

loge N0 = A

loge Nt = t + loge N0

Nt = N0et Decay equation.

According to this law the number of active nuclides

decreases exponentially with time and Nt 0 when t = .
The experimental decay law was deduced by E. Von
Schweidler on the basis of law of chance rather than on
the basis of mathematical methodology. The probability p
for a nucleus to disintegrate in a time interval t, depends
on duration of time interval,

p t

p = t,

where is the disintegration constant.

The probability that the given nucleus will not
disintegrate during the interval t is 1 p
= 1 t
The probability that this nucleus will not disintegrate
in a second time interval t is also 1 t. The
probability that the given nucleus will survive even after
both the intervals is (1 t)2. Therefore, for n such
intervals, the probability of survival is
(1 t)n =

Radioactive Decay Law

After experimental studies Rutherford and Soddy
gave following laws :
(a) and -emission are usually but not invariably
accompanied by -emission. The newly transformed nuclei
are generally again radioactive and are led to successive
disintegrations till final stable product (Pb) is formed.
(b) The rate of radioactive disintegration is directly
proportional to number N of the active nuclei present in
the sample at any time.
If Nt be the number of active nuclides present in the
sample at any instant t, then experimentally, we have
d Nt

Nt
dt
d Nt

= Nt ,
dt
where is a constant of proportionality called disintegration constant.
d Nt

= dt
Nt

loge Nt = t + A,

where, A is a constant of integration

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 822

[ ( )]
t
n

where t = n t
The probability that nucleus will survive after a time t
is
limn

t
n

= et

If N0 = Initial no. of nuclei present at t = 0

Nt
= Fraction of unchanged nuclei after a time
N0

t = n t
=

No. of nuclei surviving after time t

No. of nuclei initially present at t = 0

= e

Nt = N0 et
is called disintegration or decay or radioactive or
transformation constant. It is independent of the external condition and the age of the sample. It only depends
on the energy available for nuclear transformation and on
the characteristics of parent and daughter nuclei.

Half-lifeHalf-value period (t 1/2) of radioactive

nuclei is defined as the time after which half of the nuclei
remain in its original state.
N0
If
Nt =
then,
2
N0
= N0 et 1/2
2
1

et 1/2 =
2
loge 2 2303 log 2

t 1/2 =
=

0693
=

Average lifeThe decay of radioactive nuclei takes

place in accordance with probabilistic law and as per this
interpretation some nuclei may disintegrate immediately
while some may exist for infinitely large time. The average
or mean life T of a radioactive nucleus is the average life
time of all the nuclei in the given sample and is defined as
the ratio of total lifetime of all nuclei to the total number of
nuclei.
Let us consider a sample containing N0 radioactive
nuclei at time t = 0. The number of nuclei which decay
between time t and t + dt is Ndt. The life of these nuclei
is approximately t each. The sum of the lives of these d N
nuclei is t Ndt. The sum of all the lives of all N nuclei that
were active at t = 0 will be
S =

N0

te t dt

= N0
=

et

( )
( )
t

Alpha emission from a parent nucleus of atomic

number Z and mass number A transforms it into a
daughter nucleus of atomic number (Z 2) and mass
number (A 4). The daughter nuclei, a new element, gets
its position two places lower in periodic table.
ZX

A 4

Y
Z2

Similarly, a -emission changes parent nucleus (Z, A)

into a daughter of atomic number (Z + 1) and mass
number A. The new element advances along periodic
table by one place.
ZX

Y
Z +1

Daughter nucleus Y is an isobar of parent nucleus X.

These two laws are called displacement laws of Soddy
and Fajan. The daughter nuclide may also be radioactive
and this gives rise to a radioactive series. There are three
naturally occurring series showing successive transformations.
(a) Uranium seriesThe uranium series starts with
and finishes at 82Pb206 . The series is also called
(4n + 2) series because mass number of any nuclide of
series is given by A = 4n + 2, n being an integer.
(b) Thorium seriesIt begins with 90Th 232 and ends
at 82Pb208 . It is also called 4 n-series.
92 U

238

(d) Neptunium seriesThis series has been

observed after the discovery of nuclear fission and the
production of artificial transuranic element (Z > 92). It
starts with Plutonium ( 94Pu241 ) and ends with Bismuth
(83Bi209 ). This is also known as (4n + 1) series.

Radioactive Series : Displacement Law

(c) Actinium seriesIt starts with 92U235 and ends

at 82Pb207 . It is also called (4 n + 3) series.

t Ndt

= N0

Another unit used for activity is Rutherford (rd) with

1 rd = 106 disintegration per sec.

e t

e t
dt

Alpha Decay
The nuclear attractive force is a short-range force but
coulombian repulsive forces between nucleons are of
unlimited range. Nuclei with more than 210 nucleons are
so large that short-range nuclear force cannot counter
balance the mutual repulsion between the protons.

N0

Thus, average life of the nuclei is

S 1
t av =
=
N0
But half-life
0693
t 1/2 =

t 1/2

t av =
0693
It is evident that t av > t 1/2.
The activity of a nucleus is defined as A =

Alpha decay occurs in these nuclei as a means of

increasing their stability by reducing their size. Alpha
particle (2He 4) is emitted instead of individual proton due
to high binding energy of the alpha particle (~
27 MeV).
Therefore, on the emission of -particle, the B. E. per
nucleon increases and residual nucleus tends towards
greater stability.

dN
dt

= N and it is governed by statistical law.

At = A0 et
The activity per unit mass of a sample is called its
specific activity. The activity is expressed in terms of
curie (ci) with 1 ci = 37 101 0 disintegration per sec.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 823

ZX

where Q
decay.
Q
where, mx
my
m He

Z2YA4 + 2He 4 + Q

= The energy released in the process of =

=
=
=

(mx my m He)c 2
Mass of parent nucleus X
Mass of daughter nucleus Y and
Mass of alpha particle

R v3

K.E. of emitted alpha particle can be calculated on

the basis of conservation of energy and momentum and it
comes out to be
E=

( )

A4
Q
A

The value of K.E. of -particle is in the range of 4 9

MeV for various -emitters, whereas the nucleus behaves
as a potential barrier containing an -particle having
energy of the order of nearly 25 MeV. This fact cannot be
explained by classical theory. In 1928 Gamow, Condon
and Gurney explained it on the basis of quantum theory.
According to this theory -particles do not exist as such
inside the nucleus but just at the time of emission, two
protons and neutrons combine to form an alpha particle.
The alpha particle moves within the nucleus with an
average velocity of 10 7 m/s and in a neucleus of size
1014 m, -particle takes about 1021 sec to move across
a neucleus once. The frequency of alpha particles
occurrence at a point is 1021 times in a second. According
to quantum mechanics, even with insufficient K.E., the particle has very finite and definite probability of its
crossing the barrier of higher energy. Since frequency of
attempts ( n ) by the alpha particle is very large, the
probability of its escaping the potential barrier, P = p xn,
becomes significant and it penetrates the barrier. This is
called tunnel effect. The -particle has only one chance
out of 10 38 to come out of barrier in case of uranium. The
10 38
~ 1017 sec
~ 3 109
time required to come out is 21
10
years. But in case of RaC, -particle has one chance out
of 1017 to come out and this gives half life of 00001 sec.
The tunnel effect also gives explanation of great
difference in half-lives among the radioactive elements.

Properties of -rays
1. These rays have been identified as helium nuclei.
2. The velocity of these particles ranges from
14 107 m/s to 205 10 7 m/s depending upon the radioactive substances emitting them. Energy of -particles
emitted from radioactive substances varies from 419 to
678 MeV.
3. They have least penetrating power among the
three rays emitted by radioactive samples because of
their massive mass. They can be stopped by aluminium
sheet of 002 mm thickness or by even paper sheet.
4. They have great ionising power and this is the
most important property of -particles. The distance
through which an -particle travels in a specified material
before stopping to ionise it is called its range or
ionisation path length, which depends on (a) Initial
energy of the -particle (b) Ionisation potential of the gas
and (c) the chances of collision between the -particles
and the gas particles, that is, on the nature and the
temperature and pressure of the gas.
Geiger showed through his experimental studies that
for monoenergetic -particle of velocity v , the range R in
standard air is proportional to cube of velocity.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 824

R = av 3

where a is a constant.

This is Geigers law.

E =

1
mv 2
2

v =

2E
m

R = av 3
= a

( )
2E
m

3/2

R = b E3/2 where b is another constant.

An important relationship between R and (disintegration constant) was experimentally discovered by
Geiger and Nuttal.
loge = A + B loge R
where A and B are constants having different values for
different radioactive series.
5. At normal pressure in air the range of -particle, is
from 3 to 8 cm depending on the initial K.E. of the
particle.
6. These particles produce fluorescence in substances like zinc sulphide and barium platinocyanide.
7. These particles are deflected by electric and
magnetic fields.
8. They affect photographic plates.
9. They get scatterred while passing through a metal
foil.
10. They can produce artificial radioactivity in certain
elements and can also produce nuclear reactions.

Beta Decay
Beta decay is another process through which by
changing its composition nucleus becomes more stable.
Beta-decay has its puzzling aspect, the principles of
conservation of energy, linear momentum and angular
momentum are all apparently violated in beta decay. Both
positive and negative electrons are emitted spontaneously from radioactive nuclei. There is a third process of
electron capture, where the nucleus absorbs one of its
orbital electrons, also comes under -decay. These
particles ejected from a radioactive source possess a
range of velocities and hence, a range of energies varying
from 0 to a maximum value characterised by nuclide.
The direction of emitted particle and recoiling nuclei
are never exactly opposite to each other as required by
conservation of linear momentum. The fundamental
particles electron, proton and neutron are spin half
particles.
In -decay the mass number A of parent nuclei does
not change, only the atomic number Z changes by one
unit. In -decay Z changes to (Z + 1) and consequently N

decreases to (N 1) since neutron is transformed into

proton
A

ZX

Z+1YA + 1e 0, [n p + + e ]

7. They are deflected by electric and magnetic fields.

8. They can affect a photographic plate.
9. They can produce artificial radioactivity.

Energy released

Gamma Decay

Q = [Mn (A, Z) Mn (A, Z+1) me ] c 2

In + decay Z decreases to (Z 1) and N becomes
(N + 1) due to transformation of proton into a neutron.
A

ZX

Z1YA + +1e 0 [ p + n + + ]

The Q-value is given as

Q = [M(A, Z) M(A, Z 1) 2m e ] c 2
In orbital electron capture, like + decay Z reduces to
Z 1 as the process involves transformation of proton into
neutron.
A

ZX

1e

Z1YA [p ++ e n ]

The Q-value of the process is

When an atomic electron is captured, a vacancy is
created in the atomic shell and X-rays are produced
following into capture.
In 1927 Pauli proposed an hypothesis to make conservation principles valid in case of -emission. He proposed emission of a second new particle called neutrino
simultaneously during -emission. His idea was developed into a consistent theory by Enrico Fermi. Many
properties were assigned to this new particle like being
electrically neutral; having zero rest mass, half integral
spin and being a carrier of energy. This new particle was

of two typesthe neutrino () and the antineutrino ( ).

The real -emission process can be expressed as

n p+ + e +
1H

2He

+ 1e 0 +

p+ n + e+ +

and
For example

6C

11

11
5B

+ 1e 0 +

The existence of neutrino particles was experimentally established by F. Reines and C. L. Cowan in 1956. It
could not be easily observed because it almost does not
interact with matter.

Properties of -rays
1. They are found to be stream of electrons.
2. Their velocities vary from 33% to 998% of velocity of
light. Their average energy is only 2 to 3 MeV due to
their negligibly small masses.
3. They can easily pass through a few millimeter thick
aluminium sheet.
4. Their ionisation power is quite small as compared to
that of -particle.
5. Their range in air is several metres.
6. They can produce fluorescence in material like Zinc
Sulphide and Barium platinocyanide.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 825

ground state by emitting photons whose energies

correspond to the energy differences between the various
initial and final states in the transition involved. The
emitted photons have their energies in the range of
several MeV and are called as Gamma () rays.
The figure given below shows the beta decay of
27 to
27
13Al . The half-life of the decay is 95 min and
it may take place to either of the two excited states of
27
27
13 Al . The resulting 13 Al * nucleus then undergoes one
or two gamma decays to reach the ground state.
12 Mg

Qe = [M(A, Z) M(A, Z 1)] c 2

For example

A nucleus can exist in states whose energies are

higher than that of ground state. Just like an atomic
energy state of orbital electron the nucleus also has
different energy states. An excited nucleus is denoted by
star after its symbol like 87
Sr* . Excited nucleus returns to
38

27
12 Mg

1015 MeV
0834 MeV

27
13 Al

Sometimes it happens that the energy of emitted

photon is absorbed by orbital electron and electron is
emitted instead of photon. The phenomena is looked up
as internal photoelectric effect or internal conversion.

Properties of -rays
1. -rays are electromagnetic waves and have velocity
equal to that of light.
2. They are highly penetrating and can penetrate
through several centimetre thick lead or iron block.
3. They have got small ionising power.
4. They can produce fluorescence in substance like
willimite.
5. They can affect photographic plate.
6. They are not deflected by electric and magnetic
fields.
7. They knockout electrons from the surface on which
they fall.
8. They heat the substance on which they fall.
9. They produce simultaneous electron-positron pair.
e + e+
10. Hard -rays are used for medical purposes.

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. A radioactive nucleus 92X235
decays to 9 1Y231 . Which of the
following particles are emitted ?
(A) One alpha and one neutron
(B) Two deuterons and one positron
(C) One alpha and one proton
(D) One proton and four neutrons
2. N atoms of a radioactive element
emit n alpha particles per second.
The half-life of the element is
N
n
(A)
sec
(B)
sec
N
n
0693N
0693 n
(C)
sec (D)
sec
n
N
3. The radioactivity of a sample is
R1 at a time T1 and R 2 at a time
T2. If the half-life of the specimen is T, the number of atoms
that have disintegrated in time
(T2 T 1) is proportional to
(A) (R1T1 R 2T2
(B) (R1 R 2)
(R1 R 2)
(C)
T
(D) (R1 R 2)T
4. The probability of a radioactive
atom to survive 5 times longer
than its half value period is
2
(A)
(B) 2 5
5
5
(D) 25
(C) 2
5. As a result of radioactive decay,
238 is converted into
234 .
92 U
91 Pa
The particles emitted during this
decay are
(A) A proton and a neutron
(B) A proton and two -particles

(C) An -particle and a -particle

(D) Two -particles and a proton
6. A radioactive material decays by
simultaneous emission of two
particles with respective halflives 1620 and 810 years. The
time (in years) after which onefourth of the material remains
is
(A) 1080

(B) 2430

(C) 3240

(D) 4860

7. After two hours, one sixteenth of

the starting amount of a certain
radioactive isotope remained
undecayed. The half-life of the
isotope is
(A) 15 minute (B) 30 minute
(C) 45 minute (D) 1 hour
8. An element used for radioactive
carbon dating for more than 5600
years is
(A) C14
(B) U234
(C) U238
(D) Po94
9. A radioactive substance has a
half-life of 60 minutes. After 3
hours, the fraction of atoms that
has decayed would be
(A) 125%
(B) 875%
(C) 85%
(D) 251%
10. A

radioactive
reaction is
238
206 . How many
U
Pb
92
82
- and -particles are emitted ?

200
90 X

80Y168

(A) 6 and 8

(B) 8 and 8

(C) 6 and 6

(D) 8 and 6

12. The count rate of a Geiger-Muller

counter for the radiation of a
radioactive material of half-life of
30 minutes decreases to 5s 1
after 2 hours. The initial count
rate was
(A) 25 s1

(B) 80 s1

(C) 625 s1

(D) 20 s1

13. Unit of radioactivity is Rutherford.

Its value is
(A) 37 1010 disintegrations/sec
(B) 37 106 disintegrations/sec
(C) 10 1010 disintegrations/sec
(D) 10 106 disintegrations/sec
14. The half-life of the isotope 11Na 24
is 15 hours. How much time does
7
it take for th of a sample of this
8
isotope to decay ?
(A) 75 hrs

(B) 65 hrs

(C) 55 hrs

(D) 45 hrs

15. What is the mass of one curie of

U234 ?
(A) 37 1010 gm

(A) 10 , 6
(B) 4 protons, 8 neutrons
(C) 6 electrons, 8 protons

(C) 14370 1011 gm

(D) 6 , 8

(D) 625 1034 gm

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 826

11. What is the respective number of

and particles emitted in the
following radioactive decay ?

(B) 2348 1023 gm

(C) 2 sin 2 = 1 sin 1

(D) None of these

1. Plancks constant has same

dimension as
(A) Angular momentum
(B) Linear momentum
(C) Force
(D) Energy
2. The rotational inertia of a collapsing star changes to one third its
initial value. The ratio of the new
kinetic energy to the initial
rotational kinetic energy is
(A) 1 : 3
(B) 9 : 1
(C) 3 : 1
(D) 1 : 9
3. A bullet is fired from the gun with
a speed of 1000 m/s in order to
hit a target s = 100 m away. At
what height above the target
should the gun be aimed ?
(The resistance of air is negligible
and g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 23 cm
(B) 15 cm
(C) 9 cm
(D) 5 cm
4. The ionisation energy of an atom
is X, energy required to excite
the atom is Y and its total energy
is Z. The arrangement of X, Y, Z
in ascending order of magnitude
is
(A) XYZ
(B) YZX
(C) ZYX
(D) ZXY
5. A boy of 50 kg is standing in a lift
moving down with an acceleration 98 m/s 2 . The apparent
weight of the boy is
50
(A)
N
(B) 50 98 N
98
(C) 50 N

(D) Zero

6. What is the current flowing

across the switch S when it is
closed ?
P

3
17V

2
5V

(A) 1 A from Q to P
(B) 1 A from P to Q
(C) 2 A from P to Q
(D) 12 A from Q to P

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 828

7. An apple gives 21 kJ energy to a

boy. How much height he can
climb by using this energy if his
efficiency is 28% ?
(Mass of boy 40 kg)
(A) 225 m
(B) 15 m
(C) 10 m
(D) 5 m
8. The resistances of two bulbs of
200 W and 100 W of same voltage are R1 and R2. Then the
R1
value of
will be
R2
1
1
(B)
(A)
4
2
(C) 2
(D) 4
9. A 500 kg car takes around turn of
radius 50 m with a speed of 36
km/hr. The centripetal force
acting on the car will be
(A) 1200 N

(B) 1000 N

(C) 750 N

(D) 250 N

10. The volume of a given mass of

gas will be doubled at atmospheric pressure if the temperature of the gas is changed from
150C to
(A) 423C

(B) 510C

(C) 473C

(D) 573C

11. A car is moving at a speed of 72

km/hr. The diameter of its wheels
is 05 m. If the wheels are
stopped in 20 rotations applying
brakes, then angular retardation
produced by the brake is
(A) 455 rad/s 2
(B) 335 rad/s 2
(C) 295 rad/s 2
(D) 255 rad/s 2
12. A ray of light goes obliquely from
water into glass. The angle of
incidence in water is 1, the
angle of refraction in glass is 2,
the index of refraction of water is
1 and the index of refraction of
the glass is 2. Which of the
following is a correct relation for
this case ?
(A) 1 sin 2 = 2 sin 1
(B) 2 = sin 1/sin 2

13. Assuming earth to be sphere of

uniform density what is the value
of acceleration due to gravity at a
point 100 km below the earth
surface ?
(Given R = 6380 10 3 m)
(A) 310 m/s (B) 506 m/s 2
(C) 764 m/s 2 (D) 966 m/s 2
14. Which of the following cannot be
polarised ?
(A) Infra red light
(B) Light from a sodium lamp
(C) Sound waves
(D) RF signals
15. A particle executing SHM has
amplitude 001 m and frequency
60 Hz. The maximum acceleration of the particle is
(A) 60 2 m/s2
(B) 88 2 m/s2
(C) 140 2 m/s2
(D) 144 2 m/s2
16. In rising from the bottom of a
lake to the top the volume of a
bubble triples. The approximate
depth of the lake is
(A) 3 m

(B) 10 m

(C) 21 m

(D) 40 m

17. A boy cools from 60C to 50C in

10 minutes. If the room temperature is 25C and assuming
Newtons law of cooling to hold
good, the temperature of the
body at the end of the next 10
minutes will be
(A) 45C

(B) 4285C

(C) 40C

(D) 385C

18. If half-life of 90Th 234 is 24 days,

the amount of a 12 gram sample
remaining after 96 days is
(A) 1 gram
(B) 075 gram
(C) 16 gram (D) None of these
19. The efficiency of a Carnot engine
operating with reservoir temperature of 100C and 23C will
be
100 23
100 + 23
(A)
(B)
373
373
100 + 23
100 23
(C)
(D)
100
100

screen, the linear magnification

of the image is found to be 25.
The lens is now moved 30 cm
nearer the screen and a sharp
image is again formed on the
same screen placed at the same
place. The focal length of the
lens is
(A) 20 cm
(B) 143 cm
(C) Data insufficient
(D) None of these

(K.E.) max ( 1019 J )

24. The graph shows the maximum

kinetic energy of the photoelectrons ejected when photons

20. The figure represents the motion

of car A and B on straight
parallel tracks. Car B passes car
A at the instant car A starts from
rest at t = 0 second. Which of the
following inferences from the
graph is/are incorrect ?

5
4
3

2
1
0

Frequency ( 1014 Hz)

(A) The acceleration of car A

during the interval from t = 0
to t = 60s is 1 ms2
(B) The distance travelled by
car A in the interval between
t = 0 and t = 60 second is
1800 m
(C) After t = 0 the time taken by
car A to catch upto car B is
60 second
(D) None of these
21. A metal coin is at the bottom of a
beaker filled with a liquid of
refractive index 4/3 to height of 6
cm. To an observer looking from
above the surface of the liquid,
coin will appear at a depth of
(A) 75 cm

(B) 675 cm

(C) 45 cm

(D) 15 cm

22. What is shown on Y-axis in this

graph for water ?
Y

--------|
|
8 4

|
0

25. 700 pF capacitor is charged by

50V battery. Electrostatic energy
is stored by it will be
(A) 170 10 8 J
(B) 130

10 9

(C) 875 10 7 J

|
4

(B) Density
(D) Specific heat

23. An astronomical telescope has

two lenses of focal powers 05 D
and 20D. Then its magnifying
power will be
(A) 8
(B) 20
(C) 30
(D) 40

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 829

(B) 4

(C) 3

(D) 2

1H

+ 1H3 2He 4 + 0n1 + Q

(B) Fusion

(C) -decay (D) None of these

26. For sodium D-lines d = 6.

Taking the mean wavelength of
these lines 5893 , calculate the
wave number difference between
them
(A) 173 per cm
(B) 1000 per cm
(C) 103 per cm
(D) None of these
27. Four resistances of 100 ohm
each are connected in the form
of a square. The effective resistance along the diagonal points P
R is

R2 = 100

R
R3 = 100

30.

(A) 5

(A) Fission

(D) 67 10 7 J

R1 = 100
For water

29. The resistance of a galvanometer is G = 6. Maximum

current of 2 amp is measured by
it. Then required resistance to
convert it into an ammeter reading up to 6A, will be

where Q is energy released. This

reaction is primarily an example
of

|
|
|
8 12 16
Temperature ( C)

(A) Volume
(C) Depth

of different frequencies strike a

metal surface. The work function
of this metal is
(A) 825 eV
(B) 0825 eV
(C) Data insufficient
(D) None of these

R4 = 100
S

(A) 100

(B) 180

(C) 220

(D) 440

28. Aluminous object and a screen

are placed on an optical bench
and a converging lens is placed
between them to throw a sharp
image of the object on the

31. A hot electric iron has a resistance of 80 and is used on a

200 V source. The electrical
energy spent, if it is used for 2 hr,
will be
(A) 8000 Wh
(C) 1000 Wh

(B) 2000 Wh
(D) 800 Wh

32. How long a distance will a 200

kg ball starting from rest fall
freely in 100 sec ?
(A) 981m
(B) 490 m
(C) 200 m
(D) 32 m
33. An aeroplane having a wing
space of 35 m flies due north
with the speed of 90 m/s. Given
B = 4 10 5 tesla the potential
difference between the tips of the
wings will be
(A) 0013 V
(B) 126 V
(C) 126 V
(D) 0126 V
34. Monochromatic light falls on a
metal surface that has a work
function of 67 10 19 joule.
Each photon has an energy of
80 10 19 joule. (Plancks constant = 663 1034 joule-sec. One
electron volt = 16 1019 joule).
Examine which of the following

information regarding this problem is incorrect ?

(A) The maximum kinetic energy
of the photoelectrons emitted by the substance is
13 1019 joule.
(B) Energy of each photon is
50 eV
(C) Frequency of the photon is
12 1015 Hz.
(D) None of these
35. The peak value of AC voltage on
a 220 V mains is
(A) 240 2 V

(B) 230 2 V

(C) 220 2 V

(D) 200 2 V

36. A small bar magnet is allowed to

fall freely through a seamless
metal tube held vertical. During
its fall its acceleration may be
(A) Equal to g
(B) Greater than g, even infinite
(C) Less than g, even zero
(D) None of these
37. Two inductors each of inductance L are joined in parallel.
Their equivalent inductance will
be
L
(A) Zero
(B)
2
(C) L
(D) 2L
38. A box weighing 100 N is at rest
on a horizontal floor. The coefficient of static friction between the
box and the floor is 04. What is
the smallest force F exerted 30
north of east that can put the box
to motion ?
(A) 375 N
(B) 375 N
(C) 0375 N
(D) 375 N
39. The primary of a stepdown transformer used for ringing door bell
has 2000 turns of fine wire and
the secondary has 100 turns.
The transformer when connected
to 110 V AC source will deliver at
its secondary at a potential difference of
(A) 55 V
(B) 11 V
(C) 55 V
(D) 220 V

40. In the A.C. series circuit shown,

the rms voltage across C is 3V.
The rms voltage across the
resistor R in V is
5V(rms)

C
3V(rms)

(A) 1
(C) 3

(B) 2
(D) 4

41. The ionisation potential of

hydrogen atom is 136 volt. In the
lowest energy level, this atom is
ionised by absorbing a photon of
. The kinetic energy of the
800 A
released electron will be
(A) 1551 eV (B) 291 eV
(C) 136 eV
(D) 191 eV

(D) Ip I g

43. A nucleus X with mass number A

and charge number Z, disintegrates into one -particle and
one -particle. The resulting nuclide R has atomic mass and
atomic number, equal to
(A) (A Z) and (Z 1)
(B) (A Z) and (Z 2)
(C) (A 4) and (A 2)
(D) (A 4) and (Z 1)
44. The equivalent resistance between points A and D of the
circuit is
10

10

10

10

10
A

10

10

10

(A) 2 104 sec

(B) 1 104 sec
(C) 144 104 sec
47. The work function for aluminium
surface is 42 eV. The cutoff
wavelength for photoelectric
effect is

(A) 1000 A
(B) 2000 A

(C) 2946 A

(D) 4200 A

48. van der Waals critical coefficient

RTC
is
PCVC
3
8
(B)
(A)
8
3
2
8
(C)
(D) None of these
3

()

49. The wavelength associated with

an electron accelerated through
a potential difference of 100V is
of the order of

(A) 12 A
(B) 105 A

(C) 100 A

(D) 1000 A

50. An engine having an efficiency of

06 has an exhaust which is used
to derive another engine with an
efficiency of 04. The efficiency of
the system of two engines as a
whole is

(A) 80

(B) 60

(A) 10

(B) 05

(C) 30

(D) 40

(C) 024

(D) 075

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 830

46. The radioactive decay constant

of a radioactive substance is
06931 104 sec1. What is its
half-life ?

(D) 288 104 sec

42. The mutual conductance of a

triode is
Ip
(A)
(B) Ip Vg
Vg
(C) Ip / I g

45. The function of moderators in

nuclear reactor is to
(A) Decrease the speed of neutrons
(B) Increase the speed of neutrons
(C) Decrease the speed of electrons
(D) Increase the speed of electrons

immersed in water, find the

density of the body
(A) 232 102 kg/m3
(B) 176 102 kg/m3
(C) 67 102 kg/m3
(D) 76 103 kg/m3
1. The rate of change of velocity of a
body falling from rest in a resisting medium is described by equadv
= At Bv. The dimensions
tion
dt
for A and B are
(A) LT 3, T
(B) LT, T1
(C) LT, T
(D) LT 3, T1
2. The focal length of a convex lens
is 20 cm in air. Find the focal
length of the lens when immersed in water
(g = 15, w = 133)
(A) 70 cm
(C) 90 cm

(B) 80 cm
(D) 60 cm

3. If the displacement of the particle

varies with time as x 1/2 = t + 7,
then
(A) Velocity of the particle is
inversely proportional to t
(B) Velocity of the particle is
proportional to t
(C) Velocity of the particle is
inversely proportional to t 1/2
(D) The particle moves with a
constant acceleration
4. The two sources of luminous
intensities 100 and 400 Cd are
120 cm apart. Find the position
of a screen where the illuminance becomes equal
(A) 09 m, 12 m
(B) 1m, 2m

7. If retardation produced by air

resistance to the projectile is one
tenth of acceleration due to
gravity, the time to reach the
maximum height
(A) Increases by 9%
(B) Decreases by 9%
(C) Increases by 11%
(D) Decreases by 11%
8. A concave mirror of focal length
20 cm produces a three times
magnified image. Find the positions of the object
(A) 8 cm, 10 cm
(B) 10 cm, 12 cm
(C) 2667 cm, 1333 cm
(D) 15 cm, 17 cm
9. A satellite in force-free space
sweeps stationary interplanetary
dM
dust at a rate
= av, where M
dt
is the mass and v is the velocity
of the satellite and a is a
constant. The deceleration of
the satellite is
2av 2
av 2
(A)
(B)
M
M
av 2
(C)
(D) av 2
2M
10. The surface tension of water is
007 N/m. Find the weight of
water supported by surface
tension in a capillary tube with a
radius of 01 mm

(C) 01 m, 05 m

(A) 440 105 N

(D) 04 m, 08 m

(B) 440 105 N

5. An arrow is shot in air. Its range is

60 m and its time of flight is 3 s.
If g = 10 ms2 then the ux and
uy are given as
(A) 20 ms 1, 25 ms 1
(B) 20 ms 1, 15 ms 1
(C) 25 ms 1, 20 ms 1
(D) 15 ms 1, 20 ms 1
6. A ray of light is refracting from
glass to water. Find the critical
angle in the glass medium
(A) 50

(B) 62 45

(C) 45

(D) 30

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 834

(C) 440 105 N

(D) 75 102 N
11. A sphere of mass 2 kg is moving
on a frictionless horizontal table
with velocity v . It strikes with a
spring (force constant = 1Nm 1)
and compresses it by 4 metre.
The velocity v of the sphere is
(A) 4 ms1
(C) 2

ms1

13. A particle moves under the influence of a force F = cx from x = 0

to x = x 1 where c is a constant.
The workdone in this process is
1
(B) cx12
(A) cx12
2
(C) cx13
(D) Zero
14. Find the time period of a simple
pendulum at a place where g = 5
m/s2, if it is a seconds pendulum
at a place where g = 10 m/s2.
What is its effective length ?
2 T1, 1014 m
T1
(B)
, 0014 m
2
(C) 2T 1, 2m
T1
(D)
, 41 m
2
(A)

15. A stone tied to a string of length L

is whirled in a vertical circle, with
the other end of the string at the
centre. At a certain instant of
time, the stone is at its lowest
position and has a speed u. The
magnitude of the change in its
velocity as it reaches a position
where the string is horizontal, is
(A) u 2 2g L (B) 2g L
(C)

u2 gL

(D)

16. A small block of mass m slides

along the frictionless loop. What
is the resultant force it exerts at
position Q ? At what height above
the bottom of the loop should the
block be released so that the
force it exerts against the track at
the top of the loop is equal to its
weight ?

5R

(B) 2 2 ms1
(D)

ms1

12. A body of volume V is floating in

water remaining partially immer2
sed. If
of the total volume is
3

2(u 2 g L)

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

806 mg , 4 R
608 mg , 2R
806 mg , 3R
680 mg , R

18. A block of mass 2 kg is on a

horizontal plane. A force of 10N
is applied on the body at an
angle 30 with the horizontal in
upward direction. If the body just
tends to move, calculate the
coefficient of limiting friction
(A) 0577
(B) 577
(C) 757
(D) 0005

24. A torch bulb rated as 45 W, 15

V is connected as shown in the
figure. The e.m.f. of the cell
needed to make the bulb glow at
full intensity is
4.5 W, 1.5 V
1

(A) 32 1019 C
(B) 64 1019 C
(C) 48 1019 C
(D) 16 1019 C
31. In the given bridge the value of X
for which the potential difference
between the points B and D will
be zero is
B
1

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 835

minimum potential energy when

the dipole moment is inclined to
the field at an angle

(A)
(B)
2
3
(C) Zero
(D)
2

30. E.C.E. of silver is 1118 10 8

gm/coulomb. Its atomic weight is
108 and the Avogadros number
is 602 1023 per gm mole. The
charge on silver ion is

(A) They are anisotropic

(B) They have uniform chemical
composition
(C) They have a sharp melting
point
(D) They are not bounded by flat
surfaces

(B) 2V
(D) 4V

19. A system is taken from state A to

state B along two different paths
1 and 2. The work done on the
system along these two paths is
E 2.67
W1 and W2 respectively. The heat
absorbed by the system along
(A) 45 V
(B) 15 V
these two paths is Q1 and Q2
(C) 267 V
(D) 135 V
respectively. The internal energy
at A and B is U A and U B respec- 25. The speed of sound in air at 15C
and 76 cm of mercury is 340
tively
ms1. The speed of sound in air
(A) W1 = W2 = UB U A
at 30C and 75 cm of mercury will
(B) Q1 = Q2 = UA U B
be
(C) Q1 + W 1 = Q2 + W2 = U A + UB
303
(D) Q1 + W 2 = Q2 + W 1 = U B U A
(A) 340
288
1 e2
20. The dimensions of
are
288
(B) 340
0 hc
303
(A) A2L3T4M1 (B) A2T4L3M
(C) 340 2
(C) A0M0L0T0 (D) AT 2L3M1
2 75
(D) 340
76
21. The frequency of a vibrating body
situated in air
26. Which amongst the following is
(A) Is the same as natural frethe correct expression ?
quency
(A) Current density = Resistivity
(B) Is higher than its natural fre Electric field
quency
(B) Current density = Specific
(C) Is lower than its natural freresistance/electric field
quency
(C) Current density = Specific
(D) Can have any value
conductivity Electric field
(D) None of the above
22. Which of the following characteristics is not associated with a 27. An electric dipole placed in a
crystalline solid ?
uniform electric field will have

(A) 1V
(C) 3V

3/2

3
2G

29. In the network shown E1 = 3 volt,

E2 = 2 volt, E3 = 1 volt and R = r1
= r2 = r3 = 1 ohm. The potential
difference between A and B is

(D)

3/2

3
2G

3
G

(B)

28. If current in an electic bulb drops

by 1%, then the power drop is
(A) 3%
(B) 2%
(C) 1%
(D) 4%

(C)

2
2
( x t) = j sin
vt cos
x

represents
(A) Transverse
progressive
wave
(B) Longitudinal
progressive
wave
(C) Longitudinal stationary wave
(D) Transverse stationary wave

(A)

23. The equation

17. The satellite is moving very close

to a planet of density . The time
period of the satellite is

(A) 5
(C) 15

(B) 10
(D) 20

32. Quality factor for thermal neutrons is

(A) 3
(B) 10
(C) 20
(D) 1
33. The e.m.f. developed in a thermo1
couple is given by E = T + T 2
2
where T is temperature of hot
junction, cold junction being at
0C. The thermoelectric power of
the couple is
(A) +
(C)

T
2

T2 T3
+
2
6

(B) + T
(D)

34. Which of the following produces

suntan ?
(A) Infra-red rays
(B) X-rays
(C) Ultraviolet rays
(D) Gamma rays
35. A proton and an -particle,
accelerated through the same
potential difference, enter a
region of uniform magnetic field
normally. If the radius of the
proton orbit is 10 cm that of the
-orbit is
(A) 10 cm

(B) 10 2 cm

(C) 20 cm

(D) 5 2 cm

36. Musical scales are made up of

groups of
(A) 12 notes called semitones
(B) 12 notes called overtones
(C) 7 notes called bars
(D) 7 notes called treble
37. A thin magnet of magnetic
moment M is divided into two
equal parts by cutting it perpendicular to its length. The new magnetic moment of each part is M.
If the time period of each part is
T and the time period of original
magnet is T for oscillations in the
same magnetic field, then
M
T
(A) M = T =
2
2
M
(B) M = T = T
2
(C) M = M T = T
(D) M = M T = 2T
38. In a cyclotron, the intensity of the
magnetic field is 15 T. Find the
time period of revolution of the
protons in the cyclotron
(Mass of proton = 100782 u)
(A) 348 108 s
(B) 843 108 s
(C) 438 108 s
(D) 438 108 s
39. A conducting wire is moving
towards right in a magnetic field.
The direction of
induced current in
the wire is as
shown in the
figure. The direction of magnetic
field is
(A) In the plane of the paper
pointing towards right
(B) In the plane of the paper
pointing towards left

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 836

(C) Perpendicular to the plane of

the paper and downwards
(D) Perpendicular to the plane of
the paper and upwards
40. A disc of radius R lying on XY
plane rotates with a uniform
angular velocity about Z-axis.
The disc is in a uniform magnetic

field of flux density B parallel to

Z-axis. Find the total emf
between centre and rim, if A is
the area of the disc and R its
radius
A2B
(A) ABf
(B)
f
A
AB
(C)
(D)
Bf
f
41. The transmitting antenna of a
radiostation is mounted vertically.
At a point 10 km due north of the
transmitter the peak electric field
is 103 Vm1. The magnitude of
the radiated magnetic field is
(A) 333 1010 T
(B) 333 1012 T
(C) 103 T
(D) 3 105 T
42. A 50 Hz alternating current is
flowing in a coil of inductance 7
millihenry. What is the reactance
of the coil ? What should be the
capacity of a capacitor in order
that electrical resonance takes
place at the frequency 50 Hz ?
(A) 10 , 2 103 f
(B) 5 , 45 10 3 f
(C) 2198 , 145 103 f
(D) 7 , 541 10 3 f

the electron is 176 1011 C kg1,

the velocity acquired by the electron is
(A) 84 105 ms1
(B) 84 106 ms1
(C) 42 105 ms1
(D) 42 106 ms1
46. Echelon effect relates with
(A) Beats
(B) Echelon grating
(C) Acoustics of buildings
(D) Dopplers effect
47. Energy levels A, B, C of a certain
atom correspond to increasing
values of energy, i. e ., E A < E B
< E C . If 1, 2, 3 are the wavelengths of radiations corresponding to the transitions C to B, B to
A and C to A respectively, which
of the following statement is
correct ?
(A) 3 = 1 + 2
1 2
(B) 3 =
1 + 2
(C) 1 + 2 + 3 = 0
(D) 32 = 12 + 22
48. Half-life of radium is 1620 years.
If some amount of radium is
stored for 6480 years, what fraction of it remains undecayed ?
1
1
(A)
(B)
16
32
1
1
(C)
(D)
8
4
49. The resistance of a germanium
junction diode whose V-I graph is
shown in figure is (Vk = 03 V)

43. The angle of a prism is 30. The

rays incident at 60 at one refracting face suffer a deviation of 30.
The angle of emergence is
(A) 0
(B) 30
(C) 60
(D) 90
44. Satellite based instruments include
(A) HST (The Hubble Space
Telescope-optical)
(B) COBE (The Cosmic Background Explorer-microwave)
(C) IRAS (The Infrared Astronomical Satellite)
(D) All the above
45. An electron at rest is accelerated
through a potential difference of
200 V. If the specific charge of

(A) 5 k
(C) 23 k

(B) 02 k
10
(D)
k
23

( )

50. Two electrons leave a radioactive sample in opposite directions, each having a speed 08 c
with respect to the sample. Find
relative speed of one electron
with respect to other
(A) 89 c
(B) 0089 c
(C) 098 c

(D) 98 c

Introduction
Transition elements are the elements which occupy
their position between most electropositive s-block and
electronegative p-block elements in the long form of
periodic table.
The transition elements are called so because their
properties lie between those of s-block and p -block
elements and make a bridge, i.e., a transition or
change between s- and p-blocks.
The transition elements are also called d -block elements because the last or differentiating electron in
their atoms always enters in the d-orbitals of (n 1) or
penultimate (last but one) shell.
The transition element may thus be defined as an
element whose atom or ion in the ground state has
incomplete d-sub-shell, i.e., it contains 1 to 9 electrons.

Electronic Configuration and Position in Periodic

Table
These elements have two outermost incomplete shells
with general electronic configuration (n 1)d 110 n s 02
where n = outermost shell.
There are four series of transition elements corresponding to 3 d, 4d, 5d and 6d incomplete sub-shells.
Following table represents the position of transition
elements in extended or long form of periodic table with
their atomic numbers and electronic configurations.
Elements marked with asterisk (* ) have abnormal or
exceptional electronic configurations.

The irregularities or exceptions in electronic configurations of some elements like Cr, Cu, Ag, Au, Mo etc. are
explained on the basis of the concept that half-filled or
completely filled orbits are relatively more stable than
other d-orbit configurations.
The explanation of irregularities found in configuration
of some other elements is rather difficult. This can,
however be achieved by other factors like :
(I)

Nuclear-electronic attraction

(II)

Shielding or screening effect

(III) Inter electronic repulsion and

(IV) Exchange energy forces
The definition of transition elements excludes Zn, Cd
and Hg from transition elements as they do not contain
incomplete d-sub-shell. They do not show most of the
properties of transition elements to an appreciable limit
except a few. Hence they are treated as d-block elements and are called non-typical transition elements.
The elements with atoms having three outermost
shells incomplete are called inner-transition elements. They are the elements of lanthanide series (58
to 71) and actinide series (90 to 103). Their electronic
configuration can be represented by a general electronic configuration as :
(n 2) f 1 14 (n 1)d 0 2 ns 2
Thus they are also known as f -block elements.

d -Block Elements
or
(Transition Elements)
21

22

Sc

Ti

3d 1 4s 2

3d 2 4s 2

39

II

4d 1 5s 2
57

IV

6d 1 7s 2

3d 5 4s 1
*

27

Mn

Fe

3d 5 4s 2

3d 6 4s 2

43

42

26

44

Mo

Tc

Ru

4d 4 5s 1

4d 5 5s 1

4d 5 3s 2

4d 7 5s 1

Ta

5d 2 6s 2

5d 3 6s 2
105

Rf

5d 4 6s 2

5d 5 6s 2

Bh

5d 6 6s 2

4d 8 5s 1

4d 10 5s 0

4d 10 5s 1
79

Pt *

5d 7 6s 2

Cd
4d 10 5s 2
80

Au*

5d 9 6s 1
110

3d 10 4s 2
48

Rh

109

Hs

47

78

Zn

3d 10 4s 1

Ag*

Ir

108

Cu

Pd*

77

Os

107

Sg

76

Re

106

Db

75

3d 8 4s 2
46

4d 2 5s 2

74

3d 7 4s 2

30

29

Ni

45

Zr

73

28

Co

Nb

104

Ac

3d 3 4s 2

Hf

5d 1 6s 2
89

25

Cr*

41

72

La

24

40

III

23

Hg

5d 10 6s 1
111

5d 10 6s 2
112

Mt

Note : Rf= Rutherfordium, Db = Dubnium, Sg = Seaborgium, Bh = Bohrium, Hs = Hassium, Mt = Meitnerium.

Elements with atomic numbers 110, 111 and 112 have also been discovered, making all the four series of elements complete
(each containing 10 elements).

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 842

Important Characteristics
(1) Metallic Nature
All the transition elements are well characterised
metals having hcp , ccp or bcc lattices.
The metallic properties like high thermal and electrical
conductivity, lustre or brightness, malleability, ductility,
hardness etc. are ascribed to the metallic-bond
present in them.
Metallic bond is caused due to the presence of a
fewer number of electrons in the outermost energy
level and also by presence of unpaired electrons
present in d -sub-shell. It is commonly observed that
greater the number of unpaired electrons in d -sub-shell
stronger is the metallic bonding and the harder is the
metal e.g., Cr, Mo, W etc. Zn, Cd and Hg are soft as
they do not have unpaired electrons.
(2) Oxidation States
Transition elements show variable oxidation states
but +2 and +3 oxidation states are commonly observed
in d-block elements. This is because of very little
energy difference between (n 1) d and ns orbitals.
Hence, the electrons from both energy levels can be
used for bond formation.
The highest oxidation states of transition elements are
found in their oxides and fluorides because oxygen
and fluorine have high electronegativity. The highest
oxidation known is + 8 in OsO4.
In general, transition elements form ionic bonds in
lower oxidation states (+ 2 and + 3). But high oxidation
states give covalent bonds. For example in KMnO 4
and CrO42 where Mn and Cr are in + 7 and + 6 oxidation states, all bonds between metal atom and oxygen
are covalent.
The lower oxidation states (0 or +1) of transition elements are stabilised by ligands which can accept electrons from metal through pi () bonding. CO molecule
is one of such ligands. In nickel carbonyl [Ni (CO) 4],
the oxidation of Ni is zero.
The relative stability of different oxidation states of
transition metals can be determined with the help
of standard electrode potential data. For example E
values for the couples Cr 3+/Cr2+ = 041 and
Mn3+/Mn2+ = + 150 volts suggest that Cr2+ is unstable
and is oxidised to Cr3+ stable state whereas Mn3+ is
unstable and is reduced to stable Mn2+ state.
Similarly Fe2+ ion is unstable in aerated water and is
oxidised to Fe 3+ and Cu+ is unstable in water and is
oxidised to Cu2+.
It must be remembered that in gaseous state Cu+ ion
is more stable than Cu2+ ion due to stable, d 10 configuration of Cu + ion.
(3) Catalytic Properties
Many transition metals and their compounds are used
as catalyst in many chemical reactions.
On account of variable valency, they easily absorb or
emit a wide range of energy necessary for the reaction
under question.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 843 / 5

Because of variable oxidation state, metal can easily

combine with one of the reactants acquiring oxidation
state suitable to that reactant giving an intermediate
(unstable) which in turn reacts with second reagent to
form the products at a faster rate.
On account of free valencies present at the surface of
metal, reacting molecules are adsorbed thereby
increasing the concentration of reactants on the
surface. This facilitates the increase in the rate of reaction.
Following is the summary of transition metal catalysts
and their applications :
V2O5

In manufacture of H 2SO4
by contact process.

Co-Th alloy

In synthesis of petrol by
Fischer-Tropsch process.

Finely divided Ni

In hydrogenation of oils
into fats.

Spongy Pt

In manufacture of H 2SO4
by contact process and in
manufacture of HNO3 from
NH3 by Ostwald process.

Iron (Fe)

In the manufacture of NH 3
by Haber process

Used as promoter in Haber

process.

Fe 2O3

Cr2O3

In manufacture of hydrogen by Bosch process.

Used as a promoter in
Bosch process.
In Zeigler-Natta polymerisation of ethylene.
In hydrogenation of alkenes

Molybdenum (Mo)

TiCl4 with trialkyl Al :

Adams catalyst

(Pt/PtO)
Wilkinsons catalyst :
[Rh(Ph3P)3Cl]
Platinum (Pt)

In homogeneous hydrogenation.

Lindlars catalyst
:
Pd-CaCO3 partially
poisoned with lead

To oxidise CO in automobile exhaust.

Most effective catalyst for
hydrogenation of triple
bond to alkene stage.

acetate.
Crams catalyst
Pd-BaSO4 partially
poisoned with quinoline is by far better.
CuCl2
:
ZnO + Cr2O3

In manufacture of Cl2 by
Deacons process.
In manufacture of CH3OH
from synthesis gas
(CO + H2)

(4) Formation of Coloured Ions

The colour of any substance is due to the property of
substance to absorb light of certain wavelength in the

region of visible light having wavelength range 4000 . Actually the transmitted light gives colour to
7500 A
the substance as transmitted light has colour complementry to that absorbed.
CuSO 4.5 H 2O absorbs radiation corresponding to red
light, the Cu 2+ ion transmits radiation corresponding to
blue colour and hence Cu 2+ compounds are blue.
Most of the transition metal compounds are coloured
both in solid state and in aqueous solution. This is due
to incompletely filled d-orbitals.
When a transition metal forms a compound the
degenerate d-orbitals (all five d-orbitals having same
energy) of metal ion splits in to two sets one (having
d xy, d yz and dzx called T2g orbitals) with lower energy
and other (having dx 2 y 2 and d z2 called eg orbitals)
with higher energy in octahedral field. This is called
crystal-field splitting.
The colour of transition metal ion arises from excitation
of electrons from d -orbitals of lower energy (T2 g) to
those of higher energy e g . The light radiations corresponding to such small amount of energy which are
required for this d -d transition are available in visible
light.
The transition metals ions which have fully filled dorbitals (d 10) are colourless. There is no vacant orbital
to permit any electronic transition.
The transition metal ions which have completely
vacant d-orbitals ( d 0) are also colourless.
The colours of some important metal ions are summarised as
Metal ion
(Hydrated)

Configuration
in valency
shell of ion

No. of
unpaired
electrons

Colour of
the ion

Sc3+

3d 0

Colourless

Ti 4+

3d 0

Colourless

Ti 3+

3d 1

Purple

V3+

3d 2

Green

V2+

3d 3

Violet

Cr3+

3d 3

Violet

Mn2+

3d 5

Light pink

Mn3+

3d 4

Violet

Fe2+

3d 6

Green

Fe3+

3d 5

Yellow

Co2+

3d 7

Pink

Ni 2+

3d 8

Green

Cu2+

3d 9

Blue

Cu+

3d 10

Colourless

Zn2+

3d 10

Colourless

Ag+, Au+, Cd2+ and Hg2+ have completely filled

d-orbitals and hence they are also colourless.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 844

The colour of a transition metal ion is also affected by

the environment around it which in turn affects the
magnitude of splitting of d-orbitals.
For example :
Formula of Compound
[Co (NH3)6] Cl3
[Co (NH3)5 H2O] Cl3
[Co (NH3)5 Cl] Cl2
[Co (NH3)4 Cl2] Cl
[Co (NH3)3 Cl3]
CuSO 4.5H2O
CuSO 4
[Cu (NH3)4] SO4
K3 [Cu (CN)4]

Colour
Orange
Rose
Purple
Green
Blue Green
Blue
Colourless
Blue
Colourless

(5) Magnetic Properties

Solid substances are generally associated with magnetic properties. Majority of them are either paramagnetic or diamagnetic.

Key Points
In iron, cobalt and nickel, the magnetic moments
due to unpaired electron spins are aligned parallel
to the external magnetic field more efficiently
resulting in an exceptionally strong reinforcement of
paramagnetism. These substances are, therefore,
known as ferromagnetic.
Paramagnetic substances lose their magnetism in
absence of magnetic field. TiO, VO 2 and CuO are
paramagnetic substances.
Ferromagnetic substances show permanent magnetism even in the absence of magnetic field. Some
examples of ferromagnetic solids are : Iron, Cobalt,
Nickel and CrO2.
Ferromagnetism arises due to spontaneous alignment of magnetic moments of ions or atoms in the
same direction.

Ferromagnetism

Alignment of magnetic moments in opposite direction in a compensatory manner and resulting in a

zero magnetic moment gives rise to antiferromagnetism. Examples are : MnO, Mn2O3 and MnO2.

Antiferromagnetism

The alignment of magnetic moments in opposite

directions resulting in a net magnetic moment due to
unequal number of parallel and antiparallel alignments of the magnetic moments, gives rise to ferrimagnetism. For example Fe3O 4 is a ferrimagnetic
substance.

Ferrimagnetism

Paramagnetism arises due to the presence of unpaired electrons in the (n 1) d-orbitals. Paramagnetic
substances are attracted by the external magnetic
field. As the number of unpaired electrons increases
from 1 to 5 in d -orbitals of metal ions the magnetic
moment and hence paramagnetism also increases.

 Diamagnetism arises when all electrons in metal ions

are paired. The magnetic effect of individual electrons
is compensated in diamagnetic substances and as a
result, the magnetic moment of such substances
becomes zero.
Fe, Co and Ni possess very high paramagnetism and
they acquire permanent magnetic moment and are
known as ferromagnetic. Alnico, which is an alloy of
Al, Ni, Co and Fe, is used to make permanent magnets.
The magnetic moment of any species depends upon
the sum of orbital and spin motion contribution of each
unpaired electron present. In most of transition metal
ions, the orbital contribution to the magnetic moment is
largely suppressed or quenched by electrostatic field
of other atoms, molecules or ions surrounding the
metal ions. Thus, the effective magnetic moment (eff)
is expressed as :
eff =

BM =

n (n + 2)

BM (Bohr magnetons)
(n = No. of unpaired electrons)

eh
4mc

(6) Complex Formation

Transition metal ions form a large number of complexes in which central metal ion is linked to number of
molecules or ions called ligands (electron donors). For
example : [Co (NH3)6] Cl3, [Cu (NH3)4] SO4, K3 [Fe
(CN)6], K 4 [Fe (CN)6] etc.
The tendency of transition metal ions to form complexes is on account of two important factors.
(i) Transition metal cations have high nuclear charge
and small size, i.e., charge/size ratio or charge
density is high. This facilitates the polarization of
ligands towards metal ions.

Ferrous oxide (FeO) is well known non-stoichiometric

compound and its composition varies between Fe084 O
to Fe094 O indicating that Fe and O atoms are not
present in the ratio of 1 : 1. To indicate non-stoichiometry in a compound, its normal formula is written with
a bar over it like FeO .
(8) Interstitial Compounds
Transition metals form a number of interstitial compounds in which small atoms of non-metals such as H,
C, B, N, He etc. occupy empty spaces or interstitial
spaces in crystal lattices of metals. These new compounds are known as hydrides, carbides, borides,
nitrides and helides respectively.
Nature of bonding in these compounds is not fully
understood but they are hard and rigid. The malleability and ductility of metals decrease while tenacity
increases due to formation of these compounds.
Interstitial compounds are useful as hard materials
used in machine tool and drilling materials.
(9) Alloy Formation
Transition elements are quite similar in atomic size and
hence atoms of one transition metal can easily take
the position of atoms of other metal in the crystal
lattice. This gives rise to solid solution and smooth
alloy on cooling.
Alloys are generally harder, have low melting points
and are more resistant to corrosion than individual
metals.
Alloys containing mercury as one of the constituents
are called amalgams. Iron (Fe) and platinum (Pt) do
not form amalgams.
Some worth remembering alloys are :

Wood metal

Bi (50%),
Pb (25%), Sn
(125%) and Cd (125%),
used in fuse plugs and automatic sprinklers. It melts
even in boiling water.

Yellow Brass

Cu (67%) and Zn (33%),

used in hardwares

Sterling Silver

Ag (925%) and Cu (75%),

Tablewares

Dental amalgam :

Ag (70%), Sn (18%), Cu
(10%), Hg (20%) used in
dental filling.

German Silver

An alloy of Cu, Zn and Ni,

used for utensils.

Monel Metal

An alloy of Cu, Mn, Ni and

Fe, used for making electrolytic vessel employed in
manufacture of fluorine by
Moissan method.

(ii) They have appropriate number of vacant d-orbitals

in the outermost shell to accommodate the lone
pairs of electrons from the ligands.
In the complexes the metal ion behaves as Lewis acid
(electron pair acceptor) while ligands as Lewis bases
(electron pair donors).
(7) Non-Stoichiometric Compounds
Non-stoichiometric compounds are those in which
chemical composition is not in conformity with ideal
chemical formula.
The chemical compounds of transition metals with O,
S, Se, Te etc. are generally non-stoichiometric, i.e.,
they have indefinite composition.
The non-stoichiometry in these compounds is built up
due to two reasons mainly :
(i) Variable valency of transition metals.
(ii) Defects developed in the solid state.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 845

Points to Remember
Some transition metals form three kinds of oxides namely
mixed oxides , non-stoichiometric oxides and spinels.

Mixed oxides : ZnFe 2O 4, CoMoO4 etc. (having different metals in different oxidation states
Fe3O4 (FeO.Fe2O3), Mn3O4 (2MnO.
MnO 2) having same metal with different oxidation states.
Non-Stoichio- : Fe091O, Fe095O, in which metalmetric oxides
oxygen ratio is not whole number.
Spinel
: ZnFe 2 O 4 is a normal spinel in which
trivalent ion occupy octahedral holes
and divalent cation, tetrahedral holes
Fe (Fe2 ) O4 is an inverse spinel in
which dispositive ions are present in
the octahedral voids and tripositive
ions are distributed equally between
tetrahedral and octahedral voids.

Fe, Co, Ni are called ferrous metals. Ru, Rh, Pd, Os, Ir and
Pt are known as platinum metals and Cu, Ag and Au are
known as coinage metals.
Both Au and Pt are inert and are called noble metals, but
they are soluble in aqua-regia due to the formation of H
AuCl4 and H2PtCl6 respectively.
A transition element with atomic number 43 was named as
Technetium (Tc). It was the first man made or synthetic
element. It is a radioactive metal.
Cobalt (Co) is a crucial element in vitamin B-12 where its role
is to act as a catalyst.
Iron (Fe) is a key element in the biological oxidation-reduction
processes using haemoglobin or myoglobin.
Mo and Fe together with sulphur, form a reactive part of
nitrogenase, a biological catalyst to convert atmospheric
nitrogen into ammonia.

Rhodium (Rh) and platinum are used in automobile catalytic

convertors.
When transition metal ions are present in crystalline silicates
or alumina, the minerals become gems.
The absorption of hydrogen by transition elements like Pt, Pd,
Ni etc. is called occlusion and it is due to interstitial hydride
formation.
In aqueous solution Cu 2+ is more stable than Cu+ ion due to
extensive hydration of Cu2+ ion because it has higher charge
and smaller size, while in gaseous state Cu + is more stable
than Cu2+ because former has stable electronic configuration
( d10)
Scandium (Sc) is the lightest and iridium (Ir) is the heaviest
transition element. Iridium sp.gr. 2265, Osmium sp.gr.
2261.
Tungsten (W) has highest melting point (3407C) and mercury (Hg) has lowest melting point ( 3887C) among all the
transition elements.
The symbol, Hg for mercury is derived from Greek word
hydrargyrum = water silver.
Iron is the second most abundant metal in the earth crust
(47% by mass) after aluminium.
When the magnetic moment of a transition metal cation is
entirely due to the spins of unpaired electrons, then
eff =

4S (S + 1) BM

(S = Total spin quantum number)

This equation is related to the number of unpaired electrons
( n ) as
eff =

n (n + 2) BM

A mixture of CuSO 4 and Ca(OH)2 is called Bordeaux mixture

and is used as a fungicide.

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Transition metals
(A) Exhibit diamagnetism
(B) Undergo inert pair effect
(C) Do not form alloys
(D) Show
states

variable

oxidation

2. Which of the following elements

generally form coloured salts ?
(A) Metalloids
(B) s -block elements
(C) p-block elements
(D) Elements between s- and p blocks
3. Which of the following is the
element of d-block ?
(A) Calcium
(B) Francium
(C) Cadmium (D) Radon

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 846

4. Which is the incorrect statement

about d-block elements ?
(A) They have high melting and
boiling points
(B) They show catalytic potential
(C) They show variable valency
(D) They have atomic radii
larger than s-block elements
5. Which of the following is a transition element ?

(C) Two electrons in outermost

orbit
(D) Complete d-orbits
7. Which of the following transition
metal ions is diamagnetic ?
(A) Zn 2+
(C)

Co 2+

(B) Cu 2+
(D) Ni2+

8. Which of the following metals is

lightest ?

(A) Ni

(B) Al

(A) Zinc

(B) Scandium

(C) Sn

(D) Po

(C) Copper

(D) Nickel

6. Zinc and cadmium do not show

variable valency like d block elements due to
(A) Low melting point
(B) Softness

9. Which of the following ions has

highest value of magnetic
moment ?
(A) Fe 3+
(C)

V3+

(B) Co 3+
(D) Cr3+

10. Which one of the following transition metal ions is coloured ?

(A) Sc 3+
(B) Zn 2+
+
(C) Cu
(D) V4+
11. Which one of the following is the
non-typical transition element ?
(A) Cu
(B) Ni
(C) Zn
(D) Pt
12. Transition elements show variable valency because they
release electrons from
(A) ns and np orbits
(B) (n 1) d orbit
(C) (n 1) d and ns orbitals
(D) ns orbital
13. Which of the following transition
metal cations has highest number of unpaired electrons ?
(A) Fe 2+
(B) Co 2+
2+
(C) Ni
(D) Mn2+
14. The metal which is not ferromagnetic is
(A) Iron
(B) Cobalt
(C) Nickel
(D) Manganese
15. Which of the following complex
ions is expected to be paramagnetic ?
(A) [Zn (NH3)4] 2+
(B) [Ni (H2O)6] 2+
(C) [Ni (CO)4]
(D) [Co (NH3)6] 3+
16. An alloy which does not contain
zinc (Zn) is
(A) German silver
(B) Gun metal
(C) Brass
(D) None of these
17. The general electronic configuration of transition elements is
(A) (n 1)d 15
(B) (n 1)d 110 ns 1
(C) (n 1) d 110 ns 02
(D) None of these
18. Which is the correct electronic
configuration of chromium atom
in ground energy state ?
(A) 3d 4 4 s 2
(B) 3d 5 4 s 1
(C) 3d 6 4 s 0
(D) None of these
19. The highest oxidation state
achieved by a transition metal
can be given by loss of
(A) (n 1) d electrons
(B) (n + 1) d electrons

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 847

(C) ns electrons
(D) ns + (n 1) d electrons
20. The number of d -electrons in
Fe 2+ ion is not equal to
(A) p-electrons in neon
(B) s -electrons in Mg
(C) d-electrons in Fe atom
(D) p-electrons in Cl ion
21. Among the following outer configurations of transition elements,
which one can show the highest
oxidation state ?
(A) 3d 3 4 s 2
(B) 3d 5 4 s 1
(C) 3d 5 4 s 2
(D) 3d 6 4 s 2
22. Which of the following transition
elements does not form amalgam ?
(A) Silver
(B) Gold
(C) Iron
(D) Zinc
23. Which is the ferrous alloy ?
(A) Solder
(B) Type metal
(C) Invar
(D) Magnalium
24. Which transition metal is used as
promoter in the manufacture of
ammonia by Habers process ?
(A) Fe
(B) Os
(C) Ni
(D) Mo
25. A transition element has a configuration [Ar] 3d 4 in its + 3 oxidation state. The atomic number of
the element is
(A) 22
(B) 25
(C) 26
(D) 19
26. Which one of the following pairs
of ions contains same number of
unpaired electrons ?
(A) Mn2+ and Fe 3+
(B) Ni2+ and Mn 2+
(C) Ni2+ and Co 2+
(D) Ti3+ and Co 2+
27. Which ion has the same number
of unpaired electrons as that of
V3+ ion ?
(A) Fe 3+
(B) Ni2+
2+
(C) Mn
(D) Cr3+
28. Which
compound
is
both
coloured and paramagnetic ?
(A) K3 [Cu (CN)4]
(B) K2Cr2O7
(C) (NH4)2 (TiCl6)
(D) VOSO4
29. Which of the following elements
shows the highest oxidation
number ?
(A) Cr
(B) Mn
(C) Os
(D) Pt

30. The colour of transition metal

ions is attributed to
(A) Exceptionally small size of
cations
(B) Absorption of ultraviolet rays
(C) Incompleted ( n 1) d -subshell
(D) Absorption of infrared radiations
31. Transition metals have high
standard oxidation potential and
even then they are poor reducing
agents. This is due to
(A) High heat of vaporization
(B) High ionization energy
(C) Low heat of hydration
(D) All of these
32. Transition elements have strong
tendency to form complex compounds. This is due to
(A) Small cationic size
(B) Large cationic charge
(C) Incomplete ( n 1) d subshell
(D) All of these
33. The standard reduction potential
of transition elements is generally
(A) Positive
(B) Negative
(C) Zero
(D) None of these
34. Pt, Pd and Ir etc. are called noble
metals because
(A) Alfred Nobel discovered
them
(B) They are inert towards most
of the common reagents
(C) They are very shining
(D) They are base metals
35. The alloy which is commonly
used for making heating elements is made of
(A) Duralumin (B) Brass
(C) Bronze
(D) Nichrome
36. Blue coloured solution is not
obtained when
(A) Copper sulphate is dissolved
in NH4OH
(B) Copper sulphate reacts with
K4 [Fe (CN)6]
(C) Ferric chloride reacts with
sodium ferrocyanide
(D) Anhydrous CuSO4 is dissolved in water

37. Nichrome is an alloy of

(A) Ni and Cr
(B) Ni and Fe
(C) Fe and Cr
(D) Ni, Fe and Cr
38. Automobile engine blocks are
made of
(A) Wrought iron
(B) Stainless steel
(C) Cast iron
(D) Ni and Cr alloy
39. Invar is an alloy of
(A) Steel and chromium
(B) V and Mn
(C) W and Cr
(D) Steel and Ni
40. Which one of the following is not
a transition metal complex by
definition ?
(A) [Ni (H2O)6] 2+
(B) [Fe F6] 3
(C) [Zn (H2O)6] 2+
(D) [Mn (H2O)6] 2+
41. Invar alloy is used in metre
scales. Its characteristic property
is
(A) Resistance to corrosion
(B) Hardness and elasticity
(C) Small coefficient of expansion
(D) Magnetic nature
42. The catalytic activity of transition
elements and their compounds is
ascribed to
(A) Magnetic behaviour
(B) Chemical reactivity
(C) Multiple oxidation states and
complexing ability
(D) None of these
43. Which one of the following pairs
of ions has the same electronic
configuration ?
(A) Fe 3+ and Cr 3+
(B) Fe 3+ and Mn 2+

45. Which of the following sets is a

set of non-typical transition elements ?
(A) Ba, Ca, Sr
(B) Zn, Cd, Hg
(C) Ge, Sn, Pb
(D) As, Sb, Bi
46. An atom has electronic configuration,
1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 6 3 d 3 4 s 2
In which group it will be placed ?
(A) Fourth
(B) Fifth
(C) Second
(D) Third
47. For the same transition metal
ion, the colour of its compounds
will depend upon
(A) Temperature of reaction
(B) Pressure of reaction
(C) Concentration of ligands
(D) Nature of ligands
48. The oxidation state in Fe 3O4 is
(A) + 3 only
(B) + 2 only
(C) + 2 and + 3 both
4
(D) +
3
49. Colourless solutions of following
four different salts are placed in
four different test tubes and a
wire of copper is dipped in each
one of these. Which solution will
turn blue ?
(A) KNO 3
(B) ZnSO 4
(C) AgNO 3
(D) Zn (NO3)2
50. The magnetic moment of a
transition metal ion is found to be
592 BM. The number of unpaired electrons present in it is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
51. The
complex
ion
trans[Co(NH3)4 Cl2] + absorbs the red
region of visible spectrum. The
colour of the ion will be

(C) Fe 3+ and Co 3+

(A) Red

(B) Blue

(D) Sc 3+ and Cr 3+

(C) Green

(D) Violet

44. Which one of the following species has an atom with oxidation
state of + 6 ?
(A) MnO4
(B) CrO2Cl2
(C) [Cr (CN)6] 3
(D) VOCl2

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 848

52. Which of the following gemstones contains iron ?

(A) Topaz

(B) Ruby

(C) Emerald

(D) Sapphire

53. An aqueous solution of CuSO 4

is
pale
blue because of
[Cu (H2O)4] 2+. When NH3(aq) is

added, the colour of solution

becomes
(A) Green
(B) Sky blue
(C) Deep blue (D) Orange
54. The tendency to form complexes
is maximum for
(A) Normal metals
(B) Metals containing fully filled
d-orbitals
(C) Metals having partially filled
d-orbitals
(D) Representative elements
55. Which of the following is an
interstitial compound ?
(A) Solder
(B) Brass
(C) Steel
(D) None of these
56. Which of the following transition
metal ions will have a definite
value of magnetic moment ?
(A) Sc 3+
(B) Ti3+
(C) Cu +
(D) Zn 2+
57. From the aqueous solution of
CuSO 4, the metal which can be
used to recover copper metal
is
(A) Na
(B) Ag
(C) Hg
(D) Fe
58. Which of the following elements
is responsible for oxidation of
H2O to O2 in biological processes ?
(A) Iron
(B) Manganese
(C) Copper
(D) Molybdenum
59. Nonstoichiometric
compounds
are formed by
(A) Nobel gases
(B) Transition elements
(C) Alkaline earth elements
(D) None of these
60. Which of the following is diamagnetic ?
(A) Cu
(B) Cu +
2+
(C) Cu
(D) All of these
61. Which of the following compounds is diamagnetic and tetrahedral ?
(A) [FeCl4]
(B) Ni (CO)4]
(C) [Ni (CN)4] 2
(D) None of these

(Continued on Page 855 )

Introduction
In nitrobenzene, nitro group (NO2) is directly attached to benzene ring and hence it is called a nitroarene.
Nitrobenzene was first isolated by Mitscherlich in
1834 and it is of great industrial importance and is put
in the market as an artificial oil of bitter almonds under
the name of oil of mirabane.
The nitro group is isoelectronic with carboxylate anion
and is the resonance hybrid of two equivalent resonance structures

O
O

O
O

(ii)

NO2+

Slow

>
Benzene

HSO
fast

H
NO2
+ H2SO4

NO2

Nitrobenzene

Note : Slowest step involves the formation of benzene carbocation (Phenonium or benzenonium ion) intermediate and this is the ratedetermining step. This reaction takes place
at temperature below 60C.
When temperature of the reaction is 100C following
will be the main products :

Both NO bonds in NO2 are identical (bond length

121 pm) and are intermediate between NO and
N
O bond lengths.
Since nitro group (NO2) is isomeric with nitrite group
(ON
O), nitro compounds are isomeric with

NO2

NO2
HNO + H SO
90C

3
2
4

Nitrobenzene

NO2

m -dinitrobenzene

NO2

nitrites.
Fuming HNO
Oleum 100 C

Preparation

Nitration : It is the most suitable direct method for

introducing nitro group (NO2) into an aromatic nucleus.
Following are some noteworthy points regarding the nitration :
Nitration is a two step electrophilic substitution reaction in which nitronium ion (NO 2+) is the attacking
electrophile on aromatic nucleus.
The nitrating agents commonly used are mixture of
HNO3 and H2 SO4, fuming nitric acid in acetic anhydride, nitric acid in glacial acetic acid, nitronium fluoride, nitronium perchlorate etc.
The relative reactivity of the aromatic compound being
nitrated, the position at which nitration is required etc.
determine the choice of nitrating agent.
The nitration of benzene to get nitrobenzene takes
place as follows :
(i) HONO2 + 2H2SO4

H3O+ + 2HSO4 + NO2+

: H2SO4 is stronger acid, gives proton to

HNO3, a weaker acid acting as base.

H
|
HOSO 2OH + HONO2 HONO2 + OSO2OH
Acid

Base

Acid

Base

H2O +

NO2+

(Nitronium ion)

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 849

NO2

Properties
Nitrobenzene is a lemon yellow oily liquid having smell
of bitter almonds.
Nitro compounds are highly polar. For example nitrobenzene has dipole moment of 40 D. Due to dipoledipole interaction nitrobenzene has high boiling point,
209C.
ReductionIt is one of the important properties of
nitrobenzene. The final product of reduction depends
upon nature of reducing agent as well as the pH of the
medium.
(a) Catalytic reductionAniline is formed.
Ni or Pt

C6H5NO2 + 3 H2 C6H5NH2 + 2 H2O

Aniline

(Nitronium ion)

Note

NO2

Sym-trinitrobenzene
(Poor yield)

(b) Reduction in acidic mediumWith Zn/HCl,

Fe/HCl, Sn/HCl etc., nitro group is reduced to
amino group.
Sn/HCl or
Fe/HCl

C6H5NO2 + 6H C6H5NH2 + 2H2O

Aniline

(c) Reduction in neutral mediumIn neutral

medium, i.e., with Zn and NH4Cl solution, phenyl
hydroxylamine is formed.

C6H5NO2 + 2 Zn + 4 NH4Cl
C6H5NHOH + 2 ZnCl2 + H2O + 4 NH3
Phenyl hydroxylamine

(e) Reduction with complex metal hydrides,

LiAlH4When nitrobenzene is reduced with
LiAlH4 in ether, azobenzene is the sole product.
LiAlH4
2 C6H5NO2
C6H5N
NC6H5

Key Points

Ether

During the reduction in neutral medium it is believed

that nitrosobenzene is first formed as an intermediate, which then changes to phenyl hydroxylamine.
C6H5NO2

+ 2H

+ 2H

C6H5NHOH

O
C6H5N

H 2O

Nitrosobenzene

In neutral medium when H2 is passed in alcoholic

solution of nitrobenzene in presence of colloidal
palladium, aniline is obtained.
Aryl hydroxylamine is a reducing agent and gives
silver mirror when treated with Tollens reagent.
This forms basis of Baker-Mullikens test for nitro
group.

(d) Reduction in alkaline mediumIn alkaline

medium nitrobenzene undergoes bimolecular
reduction. Different products are formed with
different reducing agents.
O

Na 3 A sO3 / NaOH

C6H5N
NC 6H5
or glucose / NaOH
Azoxybenzene

[ 6H]

+ 3 H2O

Zn/Na O H, CH O H

3
NC 6H5
C6H5N
C6H5NO2
[ 8H]

Azobenzene

(f) Electrolytic reductionFollowing products are

formed during electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in acidic medium.
NH2
Electrolytic
reduction

Weakly acidic
medium

NO2

Aniline

Nitro
benzene

NHOH

NH2

Electrolytic
reduction
Rearrange

Strongly acidic
medium
Phenyl
hydroxylamine

OH

p-amino phenol

When electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene is

carried out in alkaline medium, hydrazobenzene is
first formed which undergoes an isomeric change
giving benzidine as final product.
C6H5 NHNHC6H5
Hydrazobenzene

Azobenzene

Rearrangement

H2NC6H5 C6H5 NH2

+ 4 H2O

Benzidine
Zn/NaO H

C6H5NH NH C6H5
[10 H]

Hydrazobenzene

+ 4 H2O

Key Points
Mononuclear intermediate products such as nitrosobenzene and phenyl hydroxylamine interact together to
produce bimolecular products such as azoxybenzene,
azobenzene and hydrazobenzene.
(i)

O
C6H5NO2 C6H5N
Nitrosobenzene
[2H]

O
C 6H 5N
+
C6H5NHOH

C6H5N
||
C6H5N

[2H]

H 2O

Azobenzene

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 850

[2H]

+ 6 NH3 + 2 H2O + 3S
NO2

C6H5N O

||
C6H5 N
Azoxybenzene

Electrophilic substitution reactionsNitrobenzene

can be nitrated, sulphonated and halogenated.

(iii) Azoxybenzene on further reduction gives azobenzene and hydrazobenzene

C6H5N O
||
C6H5N

+ 3 (NH4)2 S
NH2

C6H5NHOH

Phenyl hydroxylamine

(ii)

NO2
NO2

[2H]

H 2O

(g) Selective reductionWhen more than one nitro

groups are attached to aromatic nucleus, then
selective reduction of one of the NO2 group can
be achieved without affecting another nitro group
by using very mild reducing agents like ammonium sulphide (NH4)2S or sodium polysulphide
Na 2Sx .

C6H5NH
|
C6H5NH

Hydrazobenzene

Nitro group (NO2) actually decreases electron

density at o- and p-position in benzene ring due to
attractive inductive effect, i.e., I effect. Consequently, electron density becomes comparatively
high at m -position. Hence electrophilic substitution takes place at m -position.

 Various electrophilic substitution reactions are as :

NO2

NO2

NO2

HNO3 +
H2SO 4

H SO

2
4

Nitration

SO2OH Sulpho-

m -dinitrobenzene
Halogenation Cl2

NO2

Due to the presence of nitro group, nitrobenzene

2-nitro compound

(Nitrolic acid)

+ KOH

H2 O

RC
NOK
|
NO2
(Red colour)

CNO
|
NO2

Pseudo nitrol (blue)

Pseudo acid form

Aciform

Aciform reacts with alkali to give salt like

ONa
RCH
N
O
Aromatic nitro compounds do not give such
reactions.

does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction, instead

it is used as a solvent for many Friedel-Crafts reactions.
Distinction between aliphatic and aromatic nitro
compounds
(a) Primary and secondary aliphatic nitro compounds
on reacting with HNO 2 give nitrolic acids and
pseudonitroles respectively
H
|
RCH + ONOH RC
NOH
H2O
|
|
NO2
NO2

H2O

Cl

3 aliphatic nitro compounds do not react with

HNO2, hence remain colourless.
Aromatic nitro compounds do not give such
reactions with nitrous acid.
(b) Primary and secondary aliphatic nitro compounds
are acidic and form salts with alkalies.
O
OH
RCH2N
(Tautomers)
RCH
N
O
O

m -nitrochlorobenzene

1 Nitrocompound

CH + ONOH
|
NO2

R
NO2

nation

m -nitrosulphonic acid

Uses of Nitrobenzene
It is used as a scenting material for many cheap
soaps.
On account of its inertness it is used as a solvent for
Friedel-Crafts reaction. It dissolves anhydrous AlCl3,
used as catalyst in this reaction.
Nitrobenzene penetrates leather well and hence used
in making shoe polish.
It is used as a starting material for many explosives
like trinitrobenzene.
Nitrobenzene is used in manufacture of many important organic compounds like aniline, acetanilide, hydrazobenzene, benzidine a large number of azodyes and
sulpha drugs.

Points to Remember
In presence of nitro groups, the reactivity of halogen increases as :
Cl
Cl
Cl
Cl

<

NO 2

<

<

In case of acids
COOH

<

NO 2

NO 2

COOH

COOH

NO 2

<
NO 2

NO 2

NO 2

NO 2

COOH

COOH

The presence of nitro group increases the acidic nature of

phenols and carboxylic acids. The increasing order of acidic
nature is as :

<

NO 2

NO 2

In phenolic compounds
OH

OH

<

OH

OH

NO 2

NO 2

<

<

NO 2
Due to the presence of nitro group on o- or p-position, H of
alkyl group gets activated and condensation of p -nitrotoluene with benzaldehyde takes place to give p- nitrostilbine.

NO 2
OH
NO 2

<

<
NO 2

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 851

CH3 + O
CH

NO 2

OH

NO 2

<

NO 2

NO 2

C H ONa

2 5

NO 2

NO 2

CH
CH
p-nitrostilbine

+ H 2O

Due to absence of NO 2 group in toluene, the toluene does

not give condensation reaction with benzaldehyde.
All the three dinitrobenzenes are known. Meta dinitrobenzene is obtained by direct nitration of benzene. Ortho and
para dinitrobenzenes are prepared by indirect methods.
NO2 Caros acid
NO2 HNO
3
C6H5
C6H5

+ H2O2
NH 2
NO
NO2
C6H5
NO2
o- or p-dinitrobenzene

NO 2

NO 2
NH2

o-nitroaniline

NO 2
NO 2

HNO

Dry

Cu2O

NO 2

( CH3) 3C

NO 2

C (CH3)3

OCH3
NO 2

NO 2

Toluene musk

Musk ambrette

COCH3
CH3

CH3

NO 2

NO 2

Cupferron is originally used for the quantitative estimation of

Cu and Fe (hence its name).
AmatolA mixture of TNT and NH 4NO3 is a blasting explosive and is known as amatol. It is used in coal mines.
AmanolIt contain 47% Al (NO3)3 , 22% Al, 30% TNT and
1% charcoal. It is an outdoor blasting explosive.

When two or more nitro groups are present on aromatic ring,

they render adjacent hydrogen acidic due to powerful I
effect. Hence 1, 3, 5-trinitrobenzene reacts with NaOH to form
an anion which is coloured.
NO 2
H
NO 2

NO 2
H

Unlike nitration of benzene, nitration of alkanes does not

occur easily, but occurs only with fuming HNO3 in vapour
phase at high temperature and pressure. Further, since HNO3
is a strong oxidising agent, therefore, it also brings about
rupture of CC bonds giving a mixture of nitroalkanes.
Since nitrobenzene and deutronitrobenzene undergo nitration
at the same rate, therefore, the second step involving
cleavage of CH bond is not a rate-determining step. In fact
the first step involving the attack of electrophile, NO 2+ ion on
benzene ring giving resonance stabilized carbocation is the
rate-determining step of the reaction.
Due to strong electron-withdrawing effect of two NO 2 groups,
m -dinitrobenzene cannot be further nitrated to give 1, 3, 5
trinitrobenzene even if the mixture of fuming HNO 3 and
fuming H2SO4 is used.

C (C H3)3

Musk ketone

Phenyl nitromethane may be obtained by heating toluene with

dil. HNO3 in a sealed tube at 100C.
C6H5CH3 + HNO3 C6H5 CH2NO2 + H2O
Phenyl nitromethane behaves as true primary aliphatic nitro
compound; both the nitro and acinitro forms have been
isolated.
Ph CH 2NO2
Ph CH = NO 2H
Nitroform (liquid)

C6H5N (NO) ONH4 + C4H4OH

Amm. salt of N-nitrosophenylhydroxylamine

[Cupferron]

o-dinitrobenzene

Similarly, starting with p-nitroaniline, p-dinitrobenzene can be

prepared by the action of NaNO2 + HCl in presence of Cu2O.
Nitrobenzene, when heated with solid KOH, produces a
mixture of o- and p -nitrophenols and this is a nucleophilic
substitution reaction.
Artificial musksPolynitro derivatives of benzene containing a tertiary butyl group, possess odour resembling musk
and are used in perfumery.
CH3
CH3
NO 2

n-butyl nitrite

The aryl nitro compounds like C 6H5NO 2 contain no -hydrogen hence they resemble tertiary aliphatic nitro compounds in
being not acidic in nature. Nitrobenzene does not tautomerise
like tertiary nitroalkanes.

N = NC l

NaNO + HCl

C6H5NHOH + NH3 + C4H 9ONO

A better method of preparing 1, 3, 5-trinitrobenzene is to

oxidise 2, 4, 6-trinitrotoluene and to decarboxylate the trinitro
benzoic acid with acetic acid solution.
CH3

COOH
NO 2

NO 2

K Cr O

2 2 7

NO 2

NO 2

NO 2

NO 2

Acinitroform (solid)

Acinitroform behaves as an acid and gives salt with alkali.

When nitrobenzene is reduced with Zn dust and aqueous
NH 4 Cl, phenyl hydroxylamine is formed. Phenylhydroxylamine is used to prepare cupferron.

CO

NO 2

NO 2

NO 2

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Nitrobenzene can be prepared
from benzene by using a mixture
of conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4.
In nitrating mixture HNO3 acts as
a/an
(A) Base

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 852

(B) Acid
(C) Reducing agent
(D) Catalyst
2. Which one is the false statement ?

(A) The rate of nitration of benzene is almost the same at

that of hexaduetro benzene
(B) The rate of nitration of
toluene is greater than that
of benzene

(C) The rate of nitration of nitrobenzene is greater than that

of pentadeutronitrobenzene
(D) Nitration is an electrophilic
substitution reaction
3. The treatment of nitrobenzene
with acetyl chloride in the
presence of anhydrous AlCl 3
gives
(A) 2-nitroacetophenone
(B) 3-nitroacetophenone
(C) 4-nitroacetophenone
(D) None of these
4. The compound A on treatment
with HNO3 in presence of H2SO4
gives a compound B which
is subsequently reduced with
Sn/HCl to give aniline. The compound A is
(A) Acetamide (B) Toluene
(C) Benzene (D) Ethane

8. The compound which is the most

reactive towards the electrophilic
nitration is
(A) Benzene
(B) Nitrobenzene
(C) Benzoic acid
(D) Aminobenzene

15. Nitration of benzene with a mixture of conc. HNO3 and conc.

H2SO4 at 363 K gives

9. In nitrating mixture, conc. H 2SO4

acts as
(A) A dehydrating agent
(B) A sulphonating agent
(C) A solvent
(D) A proton donor

16. For selective reduction of m-dinitrobenzene to m-nitroaniline, the

reducing agent used is
(A) Sn + HCl
(B) Alkaline solution of glucose
(C) (NH4)2 S
(D) NH4Cl(aq) + Zn

10. Which compound is not used as

an explosive ?
(A) Trinitrobenzene

NO2

(C) Trinitrophenol
(D) Nitrobenzene

(A) Ortho directing

(B) Para directing

+ KOH (solid)

(C) Meta directing

NO2

NO2
OH

OH
is an example of
(A) Electrophilic
substitution
reaction
(B) Nucleophilic
substitution
reaction
(C) Free
radical substitution
reaction
(D) Electrophilic addition reaction
6. Which of the following compounds can tautomerise ?
(A) Nitrobenzene
(B) Phenylnitromethane
(C) m-dinitrobenzene
(D) Tertiary nitroalkane
7. In the nitration of benzene with
conc. HNO3 + conc. H2 SO4, the
active species involved is known
as
(A) Nitrite ion
(B) Nitrate ion
(C) Nitrosonium ion
(D) None of these

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 853

(D) Activating
12. When nitrobenzene is reduced
with zinc dust and aqueous
NH4Cl, the final product will be

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Aniline
Benzene
Phenylhydroxylamine
Azoxybenzene

13. When nitrobenzene is treated

with aqueous NH4Cl solution in
presence of Zn, the product
obtained reduces Tollens reagent to form a silver mirror. This
makes a basis for Baker-Mulliken
test for
(A) Hydroxy group
(B) Amino group
(C) Nitro group
(D) None of these
14. In the reaction
NO2

X
Sn + HCl

X is
(A) Cl group
(B) NH2 group
(C) NH3+ Cl
(D) SnCl2 group

Nitrobenzene
m-dinitrobenzene
p-dinitrobenzene
Sym-trinitrobenzene

17. Aniline can be obtained by reduction of nitrobenzene with

(A) Fe/HCl
(B) SnCl 2/HCl

(B) Trinitrotoluene

11. The nitro ( NO 2) group attached

to a benzene ring is

5. The reaction

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

(C) Electrolytic reduction under

weakly acidic conditions
(D) All of these
18. The reduction of nitrobenzene
with LiAlH4 gives
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Aniline
Phenyl hydroxylamine
Nitrosobenzene
Azobenzene

19. The nitration of benzene with

conc. HNO 3 + conc. H 2SO4 at
333 K gives
(A) 1, 3-dinitrobenzene
(B) Nitrobenzene
(C) 1, 3, 5-trinitrobenzene
(D) Nitrosobenzene
20. Electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in strongly acidic solution
gives
(A) Aniline
(B) p-aminophenol
(C) Phenyl hydroxylamine
(D) p-hydroxyaniline
21. Which of the following is the
strongest acid ?
(A) m-nitrophenol
(B) m-nitrobenzoic acid
(C) p-nitrobenzoic acid
(D) Benzoic acid
22. Which reaction takes place when
a mixture of conc. HNO 3 and
H2SO4 reacts with benzene at
about 323 K ?
(A) Dehydration
(B) Sulphonation

(C) Nitration
(D) None of these
23. Which of the following will be the
most reactive towards the nitration ?
(A) Benzene
(B) Nitrobenzene
(C) Toluene
(D) Chlorobenzene
24. The strongest acid among the
following aromatic compounds
is
(A) Orthonitrophenol
(B) Paranitrophenol
(C) Metanitrophenol
(D) Parachlorophenol
25. When benzene is treated with
conc. HNO3 at room temperature, what will happen ?
(A) Benzene will be oxidised to
CO2 and H 2O
(B) Dinitrobenzene will be obtained
(C) Solution will become dark
red
(D) None of the above is correct
26. In the reaction sequence
Zn distillation

(B) Chlorobenzene
(C) Nitrobenzene
(D) None of these
30. The nucleophilic substitution
reaction is the most easier reaction in
(A) Benzene
(B) Toluene
(C) Nitrobenzene
(D) Chlorobenzene
31. Nitrobenzene generally finds
application in preparation of
(A) Aniline
(B) Floor polishes
(C) Shoe polishes
(D) All of these
32. Which of the following compounds is the most steam volatile ?
(A) Paranitrophenol
(B) Orthonitrophenol
(C) Metanitrophenol
(D) Phenol
33. The major product of reaction
between m -dinitrobenzene and
(NH4)2S is

Phenol X
conc. HNO3 + H2SO 4

Zn
Y Z
NaOH

The products X, Y and Z are;

respectively
(A) Benzene, nitrobenzene and
hydrazobenzene
(B) Toluene,
m-nitrobenzene
and toluidine
(C) Benzene,
dinitrobenzene
and m-nitroaniline
(D) Benzene, nitrobenzene and
aniline
27. Benzene on reacting with a mixture of conc. HNO 3 and H2 SO4
followed by addition of Cl2/FeCl3
in the reaction mixture, gives
(A) 3-chloro-1-nitrobenzene
(B) 2-chloro-1-nitrobenzene
(C) 4-chloro-1-nitrobenzene
(D) Both (B) and (C)
28. Which of the
most powerful
group ?
(A) COOH
(C) CHO

following is the
meta directing
(B) SO 3H
(D) NO2

29. The most suitable starting material for preparation of m -chloronitrobenzene is

(A) Benzene

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 854

36. The correct order of reactivity

towards an electrophile among
following compounds
NO2
OCH3

(1)

(2)

is as
(A) 2 > 3 > 1
(C) 1 > 2 > 3

38. Among the following compounds

CH3
(I)

OH
,
NO2
(IV)

(A) II and IV
(C) I and II

NO2

NO2

HS

(B) IV and II
(D) III and IV

39. Which reaction cannot be given

by aromatic nitro compounds ?
(A) Reduction
(B) Electrophilic substitution

NH2
(D)

(II)

OH

which are the most and the least

acidic respectively ?

NH2
(C)

(III)

NH2
(B)

OH

OH

NO2
NH2

(B) 3 > 1 > 2

(D) 1 = 2 > 3

37. The major product of nitration of

benzoic acid will be
(A) 2, 4-dinitrobenzoic acid
(B) 2-nitrobenzoic acid
(C) 4-nitrobenzoic acid
(D) 3-nitrobenzoic acid

NH2
(A)

(3)

(C) Nucleophilic substitution

(D) Friedel-Crafts reaction

HS

NH2

34. Which of the following reagents

converts nitrobenzene into Nphenyl hydroxylamine ?
(A) LiAlH4
(B) SnCl 2/HCl
(C) Zn/NH4Cl (D) Zn/NaOH
35. Nitrobenzene combines with
hydrogen in presence of platinum
to give
(A) Azobenzene
(B) Benzene
(C) Aminobenzene
(D) Phenyl hydroxylamine

40. In the reaction sequence

H /Pt

2
Nitrobenzene

CH 3COCl

HNO3

B C
+

H /H2O
HBF4
D

E
NaNO2
NaNO2

Cu

the product F is
(A) m-dinitrobenzene
(B) Para dinitrobenzene
(C) Ortho dinitrobenzene
(D) Both (B) and (C)

41. The oil of mirabane is common

name of
(A) Methyl salicylate
(B) Nitrobenzene
(C) Phenyl nitromethane
(D) m-dinitrobenzene

47. Which of the following compounds will have the highest

dipole moment ?
(A)

NO2
NO2

42. In the reaction sequence

conc. HNO
A
conc. H2SO 4 363 K
(NH4) 2 S

(B)

A and B are respectively

(C)

3
C6H6

OH
NO2

(A) 2
(C) 4

OH

(C) m-dinitrobenzene
m-nitroaniline
(D) p-dinitrobenzene
p-nitroaniline

and
and

43. Hydrazobenzene is formed when

nitrobenzene is reduced with
(A) Zn/HCl
(B) Zn/NaOHCH3OH
(C) Zn/NaOH
(D) Zn/NH4Cl
44. During the reduction of nitrobenzene, which one of the following
may be an intermediate product ?
(A) C6H5NHNHC6H5
(B) C6H5N
NC6H5
(C) C6H5 N
O
O

NC6H5
(D) C6H5 N
45. In the reaction sequence,
Zn/HCl

C6H5NO2

NaNO2/HCl

H2O/H3PO 2
B
C

product C is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

(D) NO2

62. Which of the following

pounds is not coloured ?
(A) Na 2 [Cd Cl4]
(B) Na 2 [CuCl4]
(C) K3 [Fe (CN)6]
(D) K4 [Fe(CN)6]

(B) 3
(D) Zero

64. The ionic radius of chromium will

be smallest in
(A) CrCl2
(B) CrCl3
(C) CrO2
(D) K2CrO4

OH

48. Which of the following reducing

agents produces nitrosobenzene
as a final product on reacting
with nitrobenzene ?
(A) Metal and acid
(B) Zn/NH4Cl(aq)

65. Which forms interstitial compounds ?

(A) Fe
(B) Co
(C) Ni
(D) All of these

ANSWERS

(C) Na 3AsO 3/NaOH

(D) None of these
49. Which of the following products
is formed when nitrobenzene is
reduced with Zn in the presence
of alcoholic caustic potash ?
(A) NH2NH2
(B) C6H5 NHNHC6H5
(C) NH2OH
NC6H5
(D) C6H5 N
50. Primary aliphatic nitro compounds on reacting with nitrous
acid give nitrolic acids and nitrobenzene under similar conditions
gives
(A) Phenol

Just
Released

(B) m-dinitrobenzene
(C) p-dinitrobenzene
(D) None of these

Benzoic acid
Benzene
Phenol
Chlorobenzene

com-

63. The number of unpaired d-electrons in [Cr (H2O)6] 3+ ion is

(A) Nitrobenzene and aniline

(B) m-dinitrobenzene and
m-phenylene diamine

(Continued from Page 848 )

ANSWERS

46. In the following sequence of

reactions
Sn/HCl

C6H5NO2

By : Dr. Vijay Agarwal

Translated by : Nidhi Sahni
Code No. 1647 Price : Rs. 90/-

C H COCl

6 5

B + HCl

the product B is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Azobenzene
Hydrazobenzene
Benzanilide
Acetanilide

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 855

HINDI EDITION
Code No. 215

Rs. 110/-

UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA-2

E-mail : publisher@upkar.in Website : www.upkar.in

15. 45 mole each of H2 and I 2 are

heated in a sealed ten litre
vessel. At equilibrium 3 mole of
HI were found. The equilibrium
constant for
H2 + I 2
2HI
1. The radius of the nucleus is
related to the mass number A
by
(A) R = R0A1/2 (B) R = R0A
(C) R = R0A2 (D) R = R0A1/3
where R0 = 1013 cm.
2. The correct ground state configuration of chromium atom
(At. No. = 24) is
(A) [Ar] 3 d 5 4 s 1

8. A mixture of camphor and benzoic acid can be easily separated

by
(A) Sublimation
(B) Extraction with solvent
(C) Fractional crystallisation
(D) Chemical method
9. Silver chloride dissolves in
excess of NH4OH. The cation
present in this solution is

(B) [Ar] 3 d 4 4 s 2

(A) Ag+

(C) [Ar] 3 d 6 4 s 0

(B) [Ag(NH3)2] +

(D) [Ar] 4 d 5 4 s 1

(C) [Ag(NH3)4] +
(D) [Ag(NH3)6] +

3. Which of the following species

has
the highest ionisation
energy ?
(B) Mg+
(A) Li+
+
(C) Al
(D) Ne
4. The

14
C
6

in upper atmosphere is

generated by true nuclear reaction

(A)

14
N
7

+ 11H 146C +

(B)

14
N
7

(C)

14
N
7

+ 10n 146C + 11H

(D)

14
N
7

+ 11H 116C + 42He

146C +

0
e
+1

+ 11H

0
e
+1

10. The IUPAC name for

OHCCH2COOH
(A) Prop-1-al-3-oic acid
(B) Prop-3-al-1-oic acid
(C) 2-formylethanoic acid
(D) 2-carboxy ethanal
11. Be2+ is isoelectronic with
(A) Mg2+
(C) Li+

(B) Na +
(D) H+

(A) Atomic volume

12. Resonance structure of molecule

does not have
(A) Identical arrangement of
atoms
(B) Nearly the same energy content
(C) Same number of paired
electrons
(D) Identical bonding

(B) Electronic configuration

13. The cell reaction of a cell is

5. As per the modern periodic law

the physical and chemical properties of elements are periodic
function of their

(C) Atomic weight

Mg(s) + Cu2+(aq)
Cu (s) + Mg2+(aq)

(D) Atomic size

(A) 23

(B) 7

If the standard reduction potentials of Mg and Cu are 237 and

+ 034 V respectively. The EMF
of the cell is

(C) 30

(D) 14

(A) + 203 V

(B) 203 V

(C) + 271 V

(D) 271 V

6. How many kinds of space lattices

are possible in a crystal ?

7. The pH of a solution is increased

from 3 to 6. Its H + ion concentration will be
(A) Reduced to half
(B) Doubled
(C) Reduced by 1000 times
(D) Increased by 1000 times

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 856

14. A mixture of ethyl iodide and npropyl iodide is subjected to

Wurtz reaction. The hydrocarbon
that will not be formed is
(A) n-butane
(B) n-propane
(C) n-pentane
(D) n-hexane

is
(A) 1
(C) 5

(B) 10
(D) 033

16. Ethyl bromide can be converted

into ethyl alcohol by
(A) Heating with dil. hydrochloric
acid and Zn
(B) Boiling with an alcoholic
solution of KOH
(C) The action of moist silver
oxide
(D) Refluxing methanol
17. Mortar is a mixture of
(A) Plaster of paris + Silica
(B) Slaked lime +
Plaster of paris + H2O
(C) CaCO3 + Silica + H 2O
(D) Slaked lime + Silica + H2O
18. Chlorination of toluene in presence of light and heat followed
by treatment with aqueous NaOH
gives
(A) o-cresol
(B) p-cresol
(C) 2, 4-dihydroxytoluene
(D) Benzoic acid
19. The number of moles of AgCl
precipitated when excess of
AgNO 3 is added to one mole of
[Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Cl is
(A) Zero
(B) 10
(C) 20
(D) 30
20. 23 g of Na will react with methyl
alcohol to give
(A) One mole of oxygen
(B) One mole of hydrogen
1
(C) mole of hydrogen
2
(D) None of these
21. A mixture contains four solid
organic compounds A, B, C and
D. On heating only C changes
from solid to vapour state. C can
be separated from rest in the
mixture by
(A) Distillation
(B) Sublimation
(C) Fractional distillation
(D) Crystallisation

22. The compound which gives silver

mirror with Tollens reagent is
(A) Glucose
(B) Acetaldehyde
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these

31. C2H5CHO and (CH3)2CO can be

distinguished by testing with
(A) Phenyl hydrazine
(B) Hydroxylamine
(C) Fehling solution
(D) Sodium bisulphite

23. The homologue of ethyne is

(A) C2H4
(B) C2H6
(C) C3H8
(D) C3H6

32. Which of the following reactions

depicts the oxidising behaviour of
H2O2 ?

24. Under Wolf-Kishner reduction

conditions, the conversion which
may be brought about is
(A) Benzaldehyde into benzyl
alcohol
(B) Cyclohexanol into cyclohexanone
(C) Cyclohexanone into cyclohexanol
(D) Benzophenone into diphenyl
methane
25. By which of the following reactions can one get N-methyl aniline
from aniline ?
(A) Alkylation
(B) Acetylation
(C) Benzoylation
(D) Bromination
26. Which of the following pairs has
both members from the same
period of the periodic table ?
(A) Na Ca
(B) Na Cl
(C) Ca Cl
(D) Cl Br
27. When an alkyl halide reacts with
an alkoxide the product is
(A) Hydrocarbon
(B) Unsaturated hydrocarbon
(C) Ether
(D) Alcohol
28. If the ionisation potential for
hydrogen atom is 136 eV then
the ionisation potential for He+
ion should be
(A) 272 eV
(B) 544 eV
(C) 68 eV
(D) 136 eV
29. Acetaldehyde when treated with
dilute NaOH gives
(A) CH3CH2OH
(B) CH3COOH
(C) CH3CH CH2CHO
|
OH
(D) H3CCH3
30. In aqueous solution H2 will not
reduce
(A) Fe 3 +
(B) Cu 2 +
(C) Ag+
(D) Zn 2 +

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 857

(A) 2 MnO4 + 6 H+ + 5 H2O2

2 Mn2 + + 8 H2O + 5 O2
(B) O3 + H2O2 2 O2 + H2O
(C) 2 Fe2 + + 2H+ + H2O2
2 Fe3 + + 2 H2O
(D) Ag2O + H2O2
2 Ag + H2O + O2
33. Silica is soluble in
(A) HCl
(B) HNO3
(C) H2SO4
(D) HF
34. Nitrogen is produced by heating
(A) HNO3
(B) NH4Cl
(C) NH4NO3
(D) NH4Cl + NaNO2
35. The IUPAC name of :

CH3C
C CHCH2C
CH
|
|
|
Cl CH3 C2H5
is
(A) 6-chloro-4-ethyl-5-methylhept-5en-1-yne
(B) 6-chloro-4-ethyl-5-methylhept-1-yn-5-ene
(C) 2-chloro-4-ethyl-3-methylhept-2-en-6-yne
(D) 2-chloro-4-ethyl-3-methylhept-6-yn-2-ene
36. The average K. E. of an ideal gas
per molecule in SI unit at 25C
will be
(A) 617 10 21 J
(B) 617

10 21

(C) 617

10 20

(D) 716

10 20

37. Gammexane is

38. What quantity of ammonium sulphate is necessary for the production of ammonia gas sufficient to
neutralise a solution containing
292 g of HCl
[(NH4)2SO4 = 1320, HCl = 365,
NH3 = 17]
(A) 272 g

(B) 408 g

(C) 528 g

(D) 1056 g

39. The ability of an ion to bring

about coagulation of a given
colloid depends upon
(A) Its size
(B) Sign of its charge alone
(C) Magnitude of its charge
(D) Both magnitude and sign of
its charge
40. Solubility of salt M2X3 is x g mole
litre 1. The solubility product of
the salt will be
(A) x 2

(B) 16 x 2

(C) 96 x 5

(D) 108 x 5

41. The compound obtained by heating a mixture of a primary amine

and chloroform with ethanoic
potassium hydroxide (KOH) is
(A) An alkyl isocyanide
(B) An alkyl halide
(C) An amide
(D) An amide and nitro compound
42. In a reaction A B, the rate of
reaction, increases two times, on
increasing the concentration of
reactants four times. The order of
the reaction is
(A) 0

(B) 1/2

(C) 2

(D) 4

43. The function of enzymes in the

living system is to
(A) Transport oxygen
(B) Provide immunity
(C) Catalyse biochemical reactions
(D) Provide energy
44. Heat of neutralisation of strong
acid and strong base is constant
and is equal to

(A) DDT

(A) 137 k cal

(B) Benzene hexachloride

(B) 57 kJ

(C) Chloral
(D) Hexachloro ethane

(C) 57 104 J
(D) All of the above

45.

+ 0n1 Fission products + Neutron + 320 1011 J.

The energy released, when 1
gram of 92U235 finally undergoes
fission is
(A) 1275 108 kJ
(B) 1860 109 kJ
(C) 821 105 kJ
(D) 655 106 kJ
92 U

235

46. The number of electrons required

to deposite 1 gram atom of Al (At.
wt. = 27) from a solution of AlCl 3
will be
(A) 1N
(B) 2N
(C) 3N
(D) 4N

47. Which one of the following is

used to make non stick cookware ?
(A) PVC
(B) Polystyrene
(C) Polyethylene lerephthalate
(D) Polytetrafluoroethene
48. If 001 M solution of an electrolyte has a resistance of 40 ohm
in a cell having a cell constant of
04 cm 1 then its molar conductance in ohm 1 cm2 mole 1 will
be
(A) 104
(B) 103
2
(C) 10
(D) 10

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 858

49. Number of water molecules in

Mohrs salt is
(A) 7

(B) 6

(C) 5

(D) 8

50. In the titration between oxalic

acid and acidified potassium permanganate, the manganous salt
formed catalyse the reaction.
This manganous salt is
(A) A promotor
(B) A positive catalyst
(C) An autocatalyst
(D) None of the above

1. In a radioactive decay
(A) then and then emitted
(B) or and then emitted
(C) and and emitted
simultaneously
(D) and emitted simultaneously
2. 106 grams of a substance of
molecular weight 106 was dissolved in 100 ml. 10 ml of this
solution was pipetted out into a
1000 ml flask and made upto the
mark with distilled water. The
molarity of resulting solution is
(A) 10 M
(B) 102 M
(C) 103 M
(D) 104 M
3. Equation for a real gas is
a
P + 2 (V b) = RT
V

P-pressure, V-volume, a, b and

R-constants dimensional formula
of a is
(A) L6
(B) M1L1T2
1
5
2
(C) M L T
(D) L3
4. One mole of argon gas will have
least density at
(A) S.T.P.
(B) 0C, 2 atm
(C) 273C, 2 atm
(D) 273C, 1 atm
5. Which quantity remains constant
in adiabatic process ?
(A) Work
(B) Heat
(C) Temperature
(D) All of these
6. How many litres of CO 2 at STP
will be formed when 100 ml
01 M H2SO4 reacts with excess
of Na 2CO3 ?
(A) 224 litre
(C) 0224 litre

(B) 224 litre

(D) 56 litre

7. If the number of molecules of

hydrogen is double to that of
oxygen, at the same temperature
the ratio of their average K.E.
per molecule is
(A) 1 : 1
(C) 1 : 2

(B) 2 : 3
(D) 1 : 4

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 861

8. Liquid benzene burns in oxygen

according to
2C 6H6 (l) + 15O2 (g)
12CO 2 (g) + 6H2O(g)
How many litres of oxygen are
required to complete combustion
of 39 g of liquid benzene ?
(A) 112

(B) 224

(C) 42

(D) 84

9. What is the value of

PV
for 1
T

mole of gas ?
(A) 42 107 cal/K
(B) 42 cal/K
(C) 831 cal/K
(D) 2 cal/K
10. Reaction of benzene with alkyl
halide in the presence of AlCl3 is
called
(A) Friedel-Crafts reaction
(B) Wurtz reaction
(C) Williamsons synthesis
(D) Bayers reaction
11. Experimental
verification
matter waves was done by

of

(A) de Broglie
(B) Rutherford
(C) Bohr
(D) Davisson and Germer
12. The effective atomic number of
Cr in [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 is
(A) 35

(B) 36

(C) 27

(D) 33

13. For the reaction :

2
1

H + 21 H 24 He + B + Energy

What is the required condition ?

(A) High
temperature
pressure

and

(B) High temperature and low

pressure
(C) Low temperature and high
pressure
(D) High temperature only

14. The first emission line of hydrogen atomic spectrum in the

Balmer series appears is
(R = Rydberg constant)
3
5
R cm1 (B) R cm1
(A)
4
36
7
9
(C)
R cm1 (D)
R cm1
144
400
15. Which property cannot be
explained by wave theory of light/
radiation ?
(A) Diffraction
(B) Interference
(C) Polarisation
(D) Photoelectric effect
16. A gas decolourises bromine in
CCl4 and forms a precipitate with
ammoniacal silver nitrate. The
gas is
(A) C2H2
(B) C2H4
(C) C2H6
(D) CH4
17. The pH of a solution of concentration few less than 1N NaOH
(A) Between 13 and 14
(B) Between 12 and 13
(C) Between 0 and 1
(D) Between 1 and 2
18. The element which can displace
three other halogens from their
compounds is
(A) Cl
(B) F
(C) Br
(D) I
19. The geometry of the hybrid
orbital, which contains 20% s character is
(A) Octahedral
(B) Tetrahedral
(C) Trigonal bipyramidal
(D) Square planar
20. Cassiterite is concentrated by
(A) Levigation
(B) Electromagnetic separation
(C) Floatation
(D) Liquefaction
21. In the reaction of CH2 = CH 2 and
HBr initial addition occurs of
(A) Indefinite
(B) H+ + Br both at one time
(C) H+
(D) Br
22. Which one of the following reactions is an example for calcination process ?
(A) 2Ag + 2HCl + (O)
2AgCl + H2O
(B) 2Zn + O2 2ZnO

(C) 2ZnS + 3O2 2ZnO + 2SO2 31. How much volume of 04M NaOH
is required to neutralise comp(D) MgCO3 MgO + CO2
letely 200 ml 05 M H 2SO4
23. 01M CH 3COOH is 13% ionised.
solution ?
The dissociation constant of it
(A) 600 ml
(B) 300 ml
will be
(C) 500 ml
(D) 200 ml
(A) 169 105
32. Among the following compound
(B) 169 106
which have more than one type
(C) 169 104
of hybridisation for carbon
atom ?
(D) None of these
(i) CH3CH2CH2CH3
24. In Wurtz reaction the reagent
CHCH3
(ii) H3CCH
used is

CH
(iii) H2C CHC
(A) Na

CH
(B) Na/liq. NH3
(iv) HC

(C) Na/dry ether

(D) Na/dry alcohol
25. When ethanamide is heated with
NaOH and Br 2 the compound
formed is
(A) CH3CONH2 (B) C2H5NC
(C) CH3CH2NH2 (D) CH3NH2
26. Compound A reacts with PCl5 to
get B which on treatment with
KCN followed by hydrolysis gave
propionic acid. What are A and B
respectively ?
(A) C3H8 and C 3H7Cl
(B) C2H6 and C 2H5Cl
(C) C2H5Cl and C2H5Cl2
(D) C2H5OH and C2H5Cl
27. Brass in an alloy of
(A) Cu + Zn + Fe
(B) Cu + Zn + Ni
(C) Cu + Zn + Sn
(D) Cu + Zn
28. The reagent used for converting
ethanoic acid to ethanol is
(A) LiAlH4
(B) BH 3
(C) PCl3
(D) K2Cr2O7/H+
29. The rate constant of forward
reaction is 238 10 4 and the
rate constant of backward
reaction is 476 10 5. The
equilibrium constant for the reaction will be
(A) 5

(B) 5 102

(C) 2 104 (D) None of these

30. If the equilibrium constant for the
reaction 2AB
A2 + B2 is 49.
What is the value of equilibrium
1
1
A + B ?
constant for AB
2 2 2 2
(A) 49
(B) 2401
(C) 7
(D) 002

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 862

(A) (ii) and (iii) (B) (i)

(C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (iv)
33. One compound reacts with
chloroform in presence of KOH
and produces a bad smell
(nauseating odour) compound.
The compound formed is
(A) CH3CH2NH2 (B) C6H5CN
(C) CH3CH2NC (D) C2H5CN
34. The IUPAC name of K3[Fe(CN)6]
(A) Potassium ferrocyanide(II)
(B) Potassium hexaferrocyanate
(III)
(C) Potassium ferrohexacyanate
(II)
(D) Potassium hexacyanoferrate
(III)
35. A + NaOH CH3OH + HCOONa
in the reaction compound A is
(A) HCN
(B) HCHO
(C) CH3CN
(D) CH3Cl
36. The product D of the reaction
KCN

H 2O

CH3Cl (A) (B)

NH 3

(C) (D)

39. 5SO32 + 2MnO4 + 6H+

5SO42 + 2Mn2+ + 2H2O.
The oxidation number of Mn
changes from
(A) + 14 to + 4 (B) + 6 to + 2
(C) 7 to 2 (D) + 7 to + 2
40. In a reaction
Hypochlorous
2
M
CH2CH
acid

CH2OH

CH2OH
M = Molecule, R = Reagent
M and R are
(A) CH3CH2Cl and NaOH
(B) CH2ClCH2OH and aq.
NaHCO3
(C) CH3CH2OH and HCl
(D) CH2 CH2 and heat
O
41. Formic acid and acetic acid may
be distinguished by the reaction
with
(A) Sodium
(B) 2, 4-dinitrophenyl hydrazine
(C) Litmus paper
(D) Tollens reagent
42. Which of the following is redox
reaction ?
(A) H2SO4 with NaOH
(B) In atmosphere, O3 from O2
by lightning
(C) Nitrogen oxides from nitrogen and oxygen by lightning
(D) Evaporation of water
43. The number of coordinate bond
in a molecule of H2SO4
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1
44. Which of the following 01 m
aqueous solutions will have the
lowest f.p. ?
(A) Al2(SO4)3 (B) C5H10O5
(C) KI
(D) C12H22O11

is
(A) CH3CH2NH2 (B) CH3CN
45. Carnallite is
(C) HCONH2
(D) CH3CONH2
(A) KCl
(B) Li Al(SiO3)2
37. Metal which does not react with
(C) MgCl26H2O
aqueous solution of copper
(D) KClMgCl26H2O
sulphate is
(A) Pb
(C) Zn

(B) Ag
(D) Fe

38. Who developed long form of

periodic table ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Lothar Mayer
Niels Bohr
Mendeleef
Moseley

46. The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that

(A) Zr and Y have about the
same radius
(B) Zr and Nb have similar
oxidation state
(C) Zr and Hf have about the
same radius
(D) Zr and Zn have the same
oxidation state

47. Which of the following halides is

least stable and has doubtful
existence ?
(A) CI4
(B) SnI4
(C) GeI4
(D) PbI4

48. Philosophers wool when heated

with BaO at 1100C gives a compound. Identify the compound
(A) BaZnO 2
(B) Ba + ZnO2
(C) BaCdO 2
(D) BaO2 + Zn
49. Iodine is liberated from KI
solution when treated with

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 863

(A) ZnSO 4
(C) NiSO4

(B) CuSO 4
(D) FeSO 4

50. The poisonous gas that comes

out with petrol burning in a car
is
(A) CH4
(B) C2H6
(C) CO2
(D) CO

Introduction
The adult human skeleton consists of 206 bones linked
in a specific order. Many of these bones are joined in
ways that permit movement.
The growth of skeletons begins during early development and continue until about age of 20 years.
Like all other organ systems of body, bones undergo
alterations during the entire life span, from infancy to
old age.
The various parts of the skeleton are so articulated
that they can absorb the tremendous shocks generated in locomotion.

Skeletal System
Human skeleton can be divided into two parts : the
Axial skeleton and the Appendicular skeleton.

Axial Skeleton
Axial skeleton occupies the longitudinal central axis of
the body and includesskull, vertebral column, sternum and ribs.

On either side of the foramen magnum are two small

bony projections that rests on the first vertebra (atlas)
and support the entire skull while permiting a nodding
motion of head. These projections are called occipital
condyles.
The articulation of atlas vertebra with occipital condyles forms a hinge joint.

Facial Bones
The facial bones make up the front of the skull and lies
under the anterier part of the cranium. It is composed
of 14 bones. These include nasals (2), maxillae (2),
palatines (2), zygomatic or cheek bones (2), lacrymals
(2), inferior nasal conchae (2), vomer (1) and mandible
(1).
Cranial bones
Frontal
bone

Suture

Parietal
bone
Sphenoid
bone

Facial bones

Skull is present in the head. It consists of two main

regionsCranium and Face.

Temporal
bone

Nasal
bone
Zygomatic
bone
Maxilla

Cranium

Opening to
ear canal

Mandible

Skull

Cranium is large, hollow, rounded part of the skull. Its

cavity is termed cranial cavity. It encloses the brain,
hence called brain box.
The cranium is formed of 8flattened bones. These
include frontal (1), parietals (2), occipetal (1), temporals (2), sphenoid (1) and ethmoid (1).
The cranial bones fit together by wavy and immovable
boundaries called sutures. The sutures help dissipate
the shock of blow to the head.
The frontal bone forms the entire front portion of the
skull, including the forehead. Just posterior to this are
two parietal bones that constitute the upper left and
right sides of the skull.
Below the parietals are two temporal bones that form
the lower left and right sides of the skull. Each temporal bone has an external opening leading into the ear
canal through which sound waves pass on their way to
eardrum.
Attached to the frontal, parietal and temporal bones, is
the sphenoid bone. This sphenoid is centrally located
within the skull and helps connect many of the cranial
and facial bones.
The occipital bone forms the back and base of the
skull, and its lower portion has a large opening, the
foramen magnum. Through this opening, the spinal
cord enters the skull and connects with the brain.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 866

Occipital
bone

The two maxillae bone are situated on either side of

the nose and help to form the orbits of the eyes and
the upper part of the mouth. They also contain the
sockets that secure the upper teeth.
The hard palate is formed by the two palatine bones.
Between the maxillary bones, at the level of eyes, are
the two short narrow nasal bones. These bones form
only the upper bridge of the nose. The maxillae bones
and the nasal bones partially define a space called the
nasal cavity.
One of the defining features of face is provided by the
two zygomatic bones. These bones join with narrow
projections from the two temporal bones, and together
they provide the bony structure that makes up the
cheeks.
Another defining feature of the face is provided by the
lower jaw and mandible.
Mandible is a single U-shaped bone, hinged with the
temporal bone of the cranium and contains sockets for
the lower teeth.

Sinuses and Spaces

Several of the cranial and facial bones have air spaces
within them. These spaces are called sinuses. Each

sinus is lined with a mucus-secreting epithelium and is

connected to the nasal cavity by small tubes through
which mucus normally drains.
During a sinus infection, the inflammed epithelium
swells, thus preventing the tube from draining properly.
A sinus headache results from pressure caused by
fluid accumulation in the sinuses.

Axial Skeleton
Vertebral column is also called backbone. It is curved, vertical rod the mid-dorsal line of the neck and
trunk.
Vertebral column consists of 26 vertebrae in adults (33
in infants), while in sacral region 5 vertebrae fuse
together to form a sacrum and in caudal region 4
vertebral fuse together to form a coccyx.
A single spinal bone is called vertebra. This series of
interacting bones extend from the skull to the pelvis.
Together these bones have three major functions :
1. Provide flexible support for the head and trunk.
2. Protect the delicate spinal cord.
3. Permit the passage of spinal nerves to and from
the spinal cord.

1. Cervical vertebraeThere are 7 cervical vertebrae and are present in neck region. The first
cervical vertebra is called atlas. It is almost ringlike and provides up an down or nodding movement to the skull on it.
The second cervical vertebra is termed axis and its
centrum bears an odontoid process. The cervical
vertebrae allow widest range of motion to head to
turn in many directions. These have apertures,
called foramina transversaria in their transverse
processes.
These foramina form a channel for the vertebral
artery to pass through the brain.
2. Thoracic vertebraeThese are 12 in number and
are present in the upper back region. They are
modified to provide articulation to the ribs at special
facets on the centrum.
3. Lumbar vertebraeThese are 5 in number and
are located in the abdominal region. They have
large neural spine and transverse processes.
4. Sacral vertebraeThese are 5 in number and are
placed in pelvis. They fuse in childhood to form a
single bone, sacrum in adults.
Process can be seen and felt as one of a
series of bumps along the middle of the back.

Ribs attach to
thoracic vertebra here.
Cervical vertebrae (7)
Canal contains and
protects spinal cord.

Thoracic vertebrae (12)

Intervertebral disk made of
cartilage absorbs shocks and
permits limited movement.
Body of vertebra
Lumbar vertebrae (5)
Notch through which spinal
nerves pass to and from
the spinal cord.
Sacrum
(5 fused vertebrae)
Coccyx
(4 fused vertebrae)

Spinal cord in vertebral canal

Fig. : The vertebral column and features of an individual vertebra.

The vertebral column is not straight, but is instead

curved. The curvatures are due to the different structure of each vertebra and the support given by the
attached ligaments and muscles.
Together these structures give the entire column
strength and flexibility. This is an example of the integrated functioning of the skeletal and muscular
system.
Structurally the vertebral column can be divided into
the following five regions :

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 867

5. Coccygeal vertebraeThese are four in number

and occur in the vestigial tail. They are very small,
rudimentary and fused to form a curved triangular
bone, the coccyx or tail bone.

Curvature
A notable feature in the vertebral column of human
beings is the formation of four curves : cervical,
thoracic, lumbar and sacral.
The cervical and lumbar curves are directed forward;
thoracic and sacral curves backward. Because of

Spinal cord
Intervertebral
disk

Spinal nerve

Ruptured material
pressing against
spinal cord and
nerve
Vertebrae

Normal disk

Slipped disk

Fig. : A slipped disk pressing against the spinal cord and spinal nerve.

these curves, the centre of gravity of body is near the

heels. This helps to maintain balance and makes walking erect on two legs much easier.
Although the vertebrae from different regions of the
column differ from one another, they all share two
features :
1. A bony canal for the spinal cord.
2. A notch on each side that forms an opening which
permits nerves to pass through the vertebral
column to and from the spinal cord.
Adjacent vertebrae are separated from each other by a
pad of fibrocartilage known as intervertebral disks.
These disks act as cushions, protecting the vertebrae
from the shocks associated with activities such as
walking, running and jumping.
A common cause of severe back pain occurs when an
intervertebral disk ruptures and presses against the
spinal cord or against nerves that enter and leave the
spinal cord through the notch in the vertebra. This
condition is referred to as slipped disk.

Ribs
The ribs are curved bars, which movably articulate with
the thoracic vertebrae at the back and unite with the
sternum in front, forming a protective cage for some
internal organs. The interior of this cage is called
thoracic cavity, and houses heart and lungs.
There are 12 pairs of ribs. The upper 7 pairs of ribs are
attached in front directly to the sternum. These are
called true ribs.
The next three pairs of ribs are joined to the sternum
above each other, and termed false ribs.
The lower two pairs of ribs are free in front (not joined
with sternum) and are called floating ribs.

Sternum (Breast Bone)

The sternum is a long narrow, flat vertical bone in the
middle of the front wall of the chest. It is shaped like a
dagger with a handle called manubrium, a blade termed body, and a tip known as Xiphoid process. True
ribs are attached to its sides.
Clavicles articulate with its upper end.

Clavicle

Pectoral girdle
Head of humerus

Scapula

Humerus

Ulna
Radius

Carpals (8)
Metacarpals

Phalanges (14)

Fig. : Anterior view of the right pectoral girdle and arm

and hand bones.

called pectoral and pelvic girdles on each side and

their attached arms and legs. Each girdle is a supportive bony structure.

Pectoral (Shoulder) Girdle

Appendicular Skeleton

The pectoral girdle forms the bony portion of each

shoulder and consists of right and left scapulas and
clavicles.

The appendicular skeleton is the second division of the

human skeleton. It includes two supportive frames

The scapula is a large, flat, triangular bone placed at

the back of the shoulder. It has a shallow concavity

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 868

(glenoid cavity) at its lateral angle, for the articulation

of the head of humerus.
The clavicle is also known as the collar bone. It is
curved bone that joins with scapula and acts as a
brace helping to hold the scapula in position.
Pectoral girdle is actually stabilized and secured to the
rib cage by a group of muscles. This arrangement
allows a considerable range of movements in the
entire upper appendicular skeleton.

Arm Bones
The uppermost bone of the arm is called humerus. Its
upper end fits into the socket on the scapula. This
attachment (joint) is stabilized by muscles and tendons
provides a wide range of movement.
The lower part of the humerus joins with two bones of
the lower arm, ulna and radius, forming elbow.
The lower end of the ulna and radius is attached to a
group of bones called carpal bones that form the
wrist.
The palm of the hand contains the metacarpal bones.
The fingers or phalanges consist of bones that join
with the metacarpal bones.
In the hand, there are 8 carpels in the wrist, 5 metacarpals in the palm and 14 phalanges in the fingers.

Vertebra

Coxal bone
Sacrum
Coccyx
Pubic
symphysis :
a disk of
cartilage joining
the coxal bones

Femur

Patella

Pelvic Girdle
The pelvic girdle consists of two large bones called the
Coxal bones, commonly known as the hipbone.
Linked together by cartilage in the front (the pubic
symphysis), the two hipbones also join with the vertebral column in back, forming a ring-like structure called
the pelvis.
The pelvis of adult males and females differ somewhat
in shape and size. The female pelvis is wider and
provides a large opening for the passage of the infants
head during birth.
Pelvic girdle is located in the lower part of the trunk. It
consists of 3 bones : upper ilium, lower ischium and
inner pubis, fused to formed a stout hipbone, the
innominate.
The hipbone has at the middle of its lateral surface a
deep cup-shaped hollow, the acetabulum, where the
head of femur articulates. Below the acetabulum, the
hipbone has a large oval gap, the obturator foramen.

Leg Bones
The upper leg bone is called femur or thighbone. Its
upper end is formed into a ball-shaped unit that fits into
a well-defined socket of a coxal bone.
This ball-and-socket arrangement results in a stable
load-bearing joint, that is capable of a great range of
movement.
At the knee, the lower end of the femur meets two
bones of the lower leg : the larger tibia and the smaller
fibula. The knee joint forms where the femur joins
directly with the tibia.
Infront of each knee-joint is a small triangular bone, the
patella or kneecap, which protects the knee-joint and
acts as a pulley for the upper thigh muscles.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 869

Tibia

Fibula

Tarsals (8)
Metatarsals (5)
Phalanges (14)
Fig. : Anterior view of the pelvic girdle with left leg
and foot bones.

The tibia and fibula join with a number of small tarsal

bones to form the ankle. The tarsal and metatarsal
bones along with the phalanges of the toes, form the
foot. In each leg, there are 7 tarsals in the ankle, 5
metatarsals in the sole and 14 phalanges in the toes.
All the bones of the legs are more massive than the
bones of the arms.

Joints
Where two or more bones join together, a joint or
articulation is formed. All body movements occur at
joints.
Many joints are held together and stabilized by bands
of fibrous connective, called ligaments. Often the

opposed surfaces of the bones move upon each other

at the joint.
There are 3 main types of joints : fibrous or immovable, slightly movable and synovial or freely movable.
Fibrous or immovable jointsThe bones of the skull
join together in a tight-fitting interlocking joint called
suture. This immovable joint provides stability to the
skull.
In a newborn infant, the bones of the skull are still
developing and there are relatively wide spaces between them. These spaces contain tough sheets of
connective tissue that connect the bones and are
called fontanels.
Fontanels allow a certain amount of give in the skull
as it passes through the mothers pelvic opening during birth and they also permit brain growth.
After birth, as the infant grows, the connective tissue
sheet is replaced by bone, forming the sutures found
between adult cranial bones.

ween zygapophyses and of the vertebrae, between the carpals in the wrist, tarsals in the
ankle and between sternum and clavicles are of
this type.
5. Pivot jointThis joint allows only a rotary movement of one bone on the other which remains
stationary. The joint between the atlas and axis
vertebra in humans is of this type. It enables the
head to turn from side to side. The upper ends of
radius and ulna articulate with each other by a
pivot joint.
6. Saddle jointThis joint resembles the ball-andsocket joint but both ball and socket are poorly
developed. The joint between metacarpal of the
human thumb and the corresponding carpal is of
this type. It enables the thumb to move in many
directions.

Bone

Cartilaginous or slightly movable jointsThe

slightly movable joints are found between the centra of
vertebra, between the hipbones (pubic symphysis) and
between sternum and ribs. Such joints provide firm
support but allow a degree of flexibility.
Synovial or freely movable jointsMany joints that
permit movement between adjoining bones are called
synovial joints and are found at the shoulder, elbow,
wrist, hip, knee, phalanges and jaw.
Synovial joints have four common characteristics :

Joint
capsule
Synovial
membrane
(produces
synovial
fluid, which
reduces
friction)

Joint
cavity

1. They have a joint cavity between the articulating

bones.
2. Cartilage covers the articulating ends of bones.

Cartilage

3. A fibrous connective tissue forms a capsule that

encompasses the entire joint.
4. A delicate tissue membrane called the synovial
membrane lines the inside of this capsule and
secretes synovial fluid. Synovial fluid coals the
inner surfaces and reducing friction.
Synovial joints are of six types :
1. Ball-and-socket jointOne bone forms a ball-like
head that fits into a socket formed by the other
bone. The bone with a head can move nearly in all
directions. Shoulder joint and hip joint are of this
type.
2. Hinge jointThis joint allows movement in one
plane only. The knee joint, elbow joint, ankle
joint and joints between the phalanges are of
this type.
3. Angular, ellipsoid or condyloid jointThis
allows movement in two directions, that is side to
side and backforth. A oval condyle of one bone fits
into an elliptical concavity of the other. Wrist and
metacarpophalangial joints are of this type.
4. Gliding jointThis joint permits sliding movements of two bones over each other. The joints bet-

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 870

Bone
Fig. : Anatomic structures characteristic of
synovial joints.

Disorders
OsteoporosisThis disorder results from the loss of
calcium and phosphate from the bone matrix.
Throughout life, bone is continuously deposited and
removed by osteoblasts and osteoclasts respectively.
In osteoporosis, osteoblast activity is decreased and
the bone is deposited more slowly than it is removed
by osteoclasts.
Osteoporosis,
primarily
affects post-menopausal
women. After menopause, there is decline in womans
production of the female sex hormone-estrogen, one
function of which is the stimulation of osteoblast activity. As a result, the skeleton is weakened and bone
fractures can occur even with normal activity.
OsteoarthritisThis is an inflammation of the large
weight-bearing joints. It is believed that osteoarthritis
results from the gradual wearing of the surface cartilage of a joint. As the cartilage is worn, the underlying

bone is exposed and may thicken, reducing the space

within the joint capsule. This can restrict movement
and cause pain.
Although osteoarthritis often accompanies normal
ageing, its onset and severity can be accelerated by
injury, infection and misuse of a joint.

Rheumatoid arthritisRheumatoid arthritis is a

degenerative disease of the joints that occur with
equal frequency in men and women. It is more serious
and debilitating than osteoarthritis. The symptoms are
swollen, painful and stiff joints. These symptoms can
occur at any stage, even in young children, although
they usually develop later in life.

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
(C) Pectoral girdle
(D) Vertebral column

(B) Ilium
(C) Sternum
(D) Acetabulum

1. Human cranium is made up of

(A) 8 bones
(B) 10 bones
(C) 12 bones (D) 14 bones
2. Knee and elbow joint is
(A) Gliding
(B) Pivot
(C) Hinge
(D) Condyloid

9. Human
vertebral
column
shows
(A) Cervical curvature
(B) Thoracic curvature
(C) Lumbar and sacral curvature
(D) All the above

6. Synovial fluid is found in

(A) Intercellular spaces
(B) Around the brain
(C) Internal ear
(D) Freely movable joints

3. Acetabulum forms
(A) Shoulder joint
(B) Hip joint
(C) Elbow joint
(D) None of the above
4. Number of floating ribs in human
body is
(A) 3 pairs
(B) 1 pair
(C) 2 pairs
(D) 4 pairs

7. Which of the following is an unpaired bone ?

(A) Pre-maxilla
(B) Pro-otics
(C) Sphenethmoid
(D) Pterygoid

5. Which of the following component is a part of the pectoral

girdle ?
(A) Glenoid cavity

8. In humans, the coccygeal bone

is found in
(A) Skull
(B) Pelvic girdle

Just Released

10. Total number of bones in the

hind limb of human is
(A) 14

(B) 21

(C) 24

(D) 30

ANSWERS

UPKARS

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Introduction

Sexually transmitted diseases (STD) are infectious

diseases that are passed between humans during
unprotected vaginal, anal and oral sexual contact.
Generally STD diseases are acquired as a result of
sexual intercourse with an infected individual.
If STD diseases are not treated, they endanger
general health and fertility and may be lifethreatening. Some are even incurable.
The infectious agents responsible for STDs are
bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoa and arthropods.

Women, however may not show symptoms until the

infection has spread to the cervix, uterus and uterine
tubes. Without proper diagnosis and treatment,
women are particularly vulnerable to Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) which can cause sterility.

PID is an ascending infection from the vagina or

cervix to the uterus, fallopian tubes and broad ligaments. Infection may be caused by sexual intercourse with a man having urethritis.

Chlamydiosis also causes cervical ulceration which

increase the risk of acquiring AIDS.

Some Sexually Transmitted Diseases

Disease

Cause

Symptoms

Effects on Foetus

Treatment

Complications

Acquired Immune
Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS)

Human immuno- Fever, weakness, infections,

deficiency virus cancer
(HIV)

Exposure to AIDS
virus and other
infections

Drugs to treat or
delay symptoms;
no cure

Dementia
death

Chlamydia

Chlamydia
bacteria

Painful urination and intercourse, mucus discharge from

penis or vagina

Premature birth,
blindness,
pneumonia

Antibiotics

Pelvic inflammatory disease, infertility, arthritis, ecotopic pregnancy

Genital herpes

Herpes simplex
virus type I or II

Genital sores, fever

Brain damage,
stillbirth

Antiviral drug
(acyclovir)

Increased risk of
cervical cancer

Genital warts

Human
papilloma virus

Warts on genitals

None known

Chemical or surgical removal

Increased risk of
cervical cancer

Gonorrhea

Neisseria
gonorrheae
bacteria

In women, usually none; in

men, painful urination

Blindness, stillbirth

Antibiotics

Arthritis, rash, infertility, pelvic inflammatory

disease

Syphilis

Treponema
pallidum
bacteria

Initial chances sore usually on

genitals or mouth; rash 6
months later; several years
with no symptoms as infection
spreads; finally damage to
heart, liver nerves, brain

Miscarriage,
prematurity, birth
defects, stillbirth

Antibiotics

Death

Hepatitis B

Hepatitis B virus

Fatigue, persistent low-grade

fever, jaundice (yellowing
skin), rash, abdominal pain

Low birth weight

Rest, alpha interferon

Cirrhosis,
cancer

STDs Caused by Bacteria

Among the more common bacterial STDs are

Chlamydiosis, Gonorrhea and Syphilis.

Chlamydiosis

Chlamydiosis is caused by the bacteriumChlamydia

trachomatis . It is the most rapidly increasing STD and
the common cause is nongonococcal urethritis (NGU).
In men, there may be a thick pus-like discharge from
the penis and painful urination.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 872

and

liver

If a baby comes in contact with Chlamydia during

birth, inflammation of the eyes or pneumonia can
result.
Reiters syndrome is associated with urethritis,
arthritis and conjunctivitis. Urethritis occurs in young
men and the causative organism is Chlamydia.

Gonorrhea

Gonorrhea is caused by the bacterial pathogen,

Neisseria gonorrhoeae. The symptoms of gonorrhea
are often more obvious in males than females.

In women, infection of the vagina or uterus may go

unnoticed and eventually spread through the uterine
tubes to the lower part of the abdominal cavity
resulting in PID and possible sterility or infertility.
In infection, Neisseria gonorrhoeae colonizes the
epithelium of mucous membranes in the human
genital tract, pharynx or rectum.
Gonococcal infection during pregnancy is a risk factor
for premature delivery and the transmission of the
infection to the neonate in the form of Ophthalmia
neonatorum during passage of the birth canal or in
the post partum period and may cause blindness in
an infant.

Syphilis

Syphilis is a subacute and chronic infectious disease

of humans caused by Treponema pallidum, a
spirochete bacterium. It is transmitted principally by
sexual intercourse.
After infection, the untreated disease progresses
slowly through several distinct stages, thus, the
disease evolves in a stepwise manner. After several
weeks of incubation, a hard dry sore called a
chancre appears at the site of infection and marks
the beginning of the primary stage. The primary
lesion is most often located on the genitalia.
The bacteria are soon widely disseminated by the
lymphatics and blood, giving rise to generalized
lesions, characteristic of the secondary stage of the
disease.
Most prominent in this stage are treponemacontaining lesions of the skin and mucous
membranes of the lips, mouth and genitalia.
During tertiary stage of syphilis, the bacteria spread
to internal organs and systems, damaging the heart
and injuring the brain. This can lead to paralysis and
mental instability.
Large disfiguring sores called gummas may appear
on the skin in this stage. The organism can cross the
placenta of an infected mother and may transmitted
to a newborn during birth. A solution of silver nitrate is
washed into the eyes of newborns as a precaution
against both syphilis and gonorrhea infections.

STDs Caused by Viruses

There are four major STDs caused by viruses,

Genital Herpes, Genital warts, AIDS and Hepatitis-B.

Genital Warts

Genital warts are caused by the Human Papilloma

Virus (HPV). The warts vary in appearance from tiny
bumps to large, spreading masses which can appear
on the penis, the labia, around the anus, in the vagina
and on the cervix.

The disease spreads through sexual contact with

warts on the genitalia of an infected person.

HPVs are now associated with cancer of the cervix,

as well as tumours of the vulva, the vagina, the anus
and the penis.

AIDS

Genital Herpes

The are two types of herpes simplex virus, differing

both antigenically and biologicallyan oral type
(type 1) and a genital type (type 2).
Genital herpes infections are commonly spread by
sexual intercourse with someone who has open
sores.
The primary symptoms of genital herpes are
periodically recurring watery blisters on the genitals.
Nearly all body regions, including the mouth and
hands can become infected if contacted by broken
blisters.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 873

Between episodes of blisters, the virus lies dormant

in spinal nerve cells. Before an outbreak, the virus
descends through sensory neurons to reach the skin
surface.
Release of virus and repeated outbreaks of blisters
can be triggered by stress, menstruation, nutritional
changes and exposure to sunlight.
A present time, herpes infections cannot be
completely cured. The drug Acyclovir, however,
inhibits new sores, decreases healing time and
shortens the time during which a sore sheds live
viruses.

AIDS is a disorder of cell mediated immune system of

the body. AIDS stands for Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome. The organism that causes AIDS
is a virus called Human Immunodeficiency Virus
(HIV).
AIDS was first noticed in USA homosexuals in 1981.
Virus of AIDS was isolated and identified by Prof. Luc
Montagnier in France in 1983 and almost the same
time by Prof. Robert Gallo in USA.
AIDS infections were detected in India for the first
time is prostitutes of Chennai in 1986.
HIV is a fragile virus. It requires moist conditions for
transmission.
AIDS is considered a sexually transmitted disease
because HIV can be transmitted during sexual
intercourse.
HIV appears to be transmitted easily in blood, semen,
vaginal fluids and the breast milk of infected mothers.
HIV belongs to a group of viruses known as
retroviruses that use RNA as their hereditary
material.
The RNA is wrapped in a protein coat and surrounded
by an envelope derived from the plasma membrane
of the host cell. Accompanying the RNA is an enzyme
called reverse transcriptase that permits the viral
nucleic acid to integrate into the host cells DNA,
where it may hide for years.
Initially, HIV attacks helper T-cells (T 4 lymphocytes).
The virus attaches to CD4 receptors of helper T-cells
and sends in its RNA.
The viral enzyme reverse transcriptase, then catalyzes
construction of a DNA strand complementary to the

viral RNA. The initial constructed viral DNA strand

replicates to form DNA double helix which enters the
T-cell nucleus.
Protein coat of the virus
RNA
the hereditary
material

The envelope
is derived from
plasma membrane of human
host cell.

Initially HIV infects white blood cells : helper T-cells

and macrophages. The number of helper T-cells
declines initially but rebounds as antibodies are
produced against the virus.

The presence of antibodies in a blood sample is

currently the primary means of identifying HIV
infection. When these antibodies against HIV are
present in the blood sample, the person is said to be
HIV positive (HIV +).

Unfortunately, these antibodies are not effective

defences, because the virus can hide inside cell. The
individual even at this stage can pass on the infection
yet there are no symptoms.

The second phase in often called AIDS Related

Complex (ARC). Its symptoms are swollen
lymphnodes, fever, sweating at night and weight loss.

ARC is also known as prodromal AIDS. This phase

may last six to eight years. Infections like thrush
(white sores on the tongue and in mouth).

During this phase of HIV infection, there is a steady

decline in the number of T-cells and an increasing
vulnerability to opportunistic infections.

In a normal healthy adult, there are about 800 or

more helper T-cells per cubic millimeter of blood.
During this final phase, the number of helper T-cells
drop below 200 per cubic millimeter and the person is
officially diagnosed as full-blown AIDS patient.

As infections become more frequent and spread

throughout the body. AIDS patients require frequent
hospitalization. Complications from multiple infections
eventually overwhelm the body and death follows.

Reverse transcriptase
Protein that attaches
virus to cell.

Fig. : The Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

The infected T-cells no longer release cytokines or

stimulate B-cells to manufacture antibodies in the
body. The infected T-cells burst to unlease many new
HIV particles.
In some infected cells, instead of reproducing RNA
viruses and killing the host cells, the viral RNA is
copied as DNA which is integrated into the host cells
DNA. In this integrated form, the coded information of
the viral nucleic acid is reproduced every time the cell
reproduces and spreading potential sources of the
virus throughout the body.
In its integrated form, the virus may remain inactive
upto 15 years. However, during the second phase, it
appears that infected cells are steadily destroyed.
With the loss of cells, the bodys immune defences
are weakened and HIV infected people become more
susceptible to other opportunistic infections as well as
certain kinds of cancer (Kaposis Sarcoma). It is
these complications due to HIV that end up killing
most HIV infected people.

and a third phase in which T-cells counts are so low

that they cannot protect a person from opportunistic
infections. Strictly speaking AIDS refers only to the
third phase.
During the first phase, which may last about a year,
the individual is an asymptomatic carrier.

Opportunistic Infections Associated with HIV Infection (Phases 2 and 3)

Disease

Microbial Agent

Symptoms

P. carinii pneumonia

Pneumocystis carinii (protozoan)

Pneumonia, difficult breathing, suffocation

Toxoplasmosis

Toxoplasma gondii (protozoan)

Fatigue, brain lesions, seizures, cerebral swelling

Cryptosporidiosis

Cryptosporidium coccidi (protozoan)

Extreme diarrhea, dehydration, shock

Cryptococcosis

Cryptococcus neoformans (fungus)

Pneumonia, piercing headaches, paralysis (meningitis)

Candidiasis

Candida albicans (fungus)

White oral patches of fungus, erosion of esophagus

Histoplasmosis

Histoplasma capsulatum (fungus)

Pneumonia, lesions of visceral organs, paralysis

Cytomegalovirus disease

Cytomegalovirus (virus)

Pneumonia, liver and kidney disease, impaired vision

Herpes simplex

Herpes simplex virus (virus)

Body sores and blisters

Tuberculosis

Mycobacterium tuberculosis (bacterium)

Lesions of lung, difficult breathing, lesions of visceral organs

The Clinical Picture of AIDS

The course of HIV infection can be divided into three

phases.
An initial period after infection, a second period
during which the number of T-cells steadily declines

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 874

Conventional treatment for HIV/AIDS is difficult

because of three characteristics of the disease :
1. The dormancy exhibited by HIV.
2. The variety of cells it can infect.
3. The multiple opportunistic infections that are
possible.

At present there are very few drugs that can act

directly on the replication of the virus. One such drug
is AZT (Retrovir).
ProphylaxisPeople should be educated about
AIDS. Every year, December 1st is recalled as the
World AIDS Day.
AZT interferes with the making of viral DNA by the
HIV enzyme reverse transcriptase. However, it does
not interfere with the replication of Human DNA, since
human cells utilize a different enzyme, DNA
polymerase.
Unfortunately, AZT has serious side effects and may
not be as effective in prolonging patient life as once
believed.
Newer drugs, such as d d l and d d c also inhibit
reverse transcriptase. When used with AZT, ddl and
ddc may prolong life better than AZT alone.

STDs caused by Fungi, Protozoa and Arthropods

Hepatitis B is caused by the hepatitis B virus (HBV).

HBV is transmitted by blood, body fluids and sexual
contact in the same fashion as HIV. However, it is
less fragile and 100 times more contagious than HIV,
and can withstand environmental exposure.

Varieties of Hepatitis Viruses

Hepatitis A virus (HAV) is known as infectious hepatitis.

Hepatitis B virus (HBV) is known as serum hepatitis,

causing a parenterally transmitted disease that may
become chronic.

Hepatitis C virus (HCV), also called nonA, nonB

hepatitis virus involved in transfusion-related hepatitis.

Hepatitis D virus also called Hepatitis Delta Virus (HDV).

HDV is a defective virus for which HBV is the helper.

Hepatitis E virus (HEV) is an enterically transmitted, water

horne infection. A characteristic feature of the HEV
infection is the high mortality rate among pregnant
women.

HBV multiplies in the liver and bone marrow. The

symptoms of infection include fatigue, nausea,
abdominal pain, arthritis and yellowing of the skin
(jaundice) caused by liver damage. The infection can
be fatal by itself or can lead to cirrhosis of the liver.
Hepatitis associated antigenThe original term
applied to the Australian antigen. It is now called
hepatitis B surface antigen (HBS Ag). Its discovery
made possible the differentiation of hepatitis B from
other forms of viral hepatitis.

In addition to bacteria and viruses, STDs are also

caused by yeasts (a form of fungi), single-cell
eukaryotes (protozoa) and lice (arthropods).

Vaginal Yeast Infections

Hepatitis B

Unlike most STDs, there is a vaccine against HBV

and people can be immunized against hepatitis B.
Hepatitis B virus vaccine is prepared directly from
blood. This vaccine is made by a process, not
dependent upon use of human plasma, thus it would
be free of AIDS virus.
HBV vaccine (globulins) produces passive immunity
in humans.

Vaginal Candidiasis is caused by infection of yeast,

Candida albicans. This yeast is part of normal flora
and is found in mouth, colon and vagina, where its
growth is normally limited by competition from other
organisms of the normal flora and the bodys immune
defences.
If these factors are disrupted, the yeast population
may grow out of control.
Women with candidiasis, experience painful
inflammation of the vagina, often with a thick cheesy
discharge.
Men may develop a painful inflammation of the
urethra through sexual contact with an infected
woman.
Trichomoniasis is caused by a single-celled
protozoa, Trichomonas vaginalis. It inhibits vagina of
women and causes trichomoniasis (vaginitis).
This disease is characterized by inflammation,
burning sensation, itching and frothy vaginal
discharge.
Transmission is always through sexual intercourse by
male members who act as intermediaries.
In men, there are often no symptoms, but occasionally the disease spreads to the seminal vesicles and
prostate gland and causes painful swelling.
Pubic LicePubic lice infestations of the pubic hairs
is due to parasitic louse, Phthirus pubis. Adult lice
grip on the pubic hairs with their claws and pierce the
skin with their mouth parts to draw meal of blood.
The human host may experience painful itching and
reddened patches on skin. Female lice lay eggs near
the base of pubic hairs and the young hatch within a
few days to expand the infestation. The lice are
passed between humans by intimate sexual contacts.

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Chlamydiosis is caused by
(A) Bacteria
(B) Virus
(C) Fungus
(D) Protozoa

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 875

2. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

(PID) is related with
(A) Chlamydiosis
(B) Gonorrhea
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these

3. Treponema pallidum causes

(A) Gonorrhea
(B) Syphilis
(C) Genital herpes
(D) Genital warts

(Continued on Page 889 )

(C) Oxidation-reduction reaction

(D) Phosphorylation of flavoproteins

1. Which of the following is retroperitoneal ?

(A) Lungs
(B) Kidneys
(C) Spleen
(D) Testes
2. A pair of bones of the upper jaw
that form the points of articulation
with the lower jaw, in amphibians,
reptiles and birds, is
(A) Squamosal (B) Quadrate
(C) Maxilla
(D) Sphenoid
3. Which of the following is the
autoimmune disorder ?
(A) Haemolytic anaemia
(B) Myasthenia gravis
(C) Glomerulonephritis
(D) All the above
4. Bilharziasis is a parasitic disease
caused by
(A) Schistosoma
(B) Taenia Solium
(C) Fasciola hapatica
(D) Enterobius vermicularis
5. Oligopeptide hormone secreted
by pars nervosa of pituitary gland
of birds and mammals is
(A) Pitocin
(B) Oxytocin
(C) Vasopressin (D) Melanin
6. The penetration of sperm into
ovum is helped by an enzyme
(A) Luciferase
(B) Zymase
(C) Lactase
(D) Hyaluronidase
7. Which of the following cell
organelle is semi-autonomous ?
(A) Lysosome
(B) Endoplasmic reticulum
(C) Chloroplast
(D) All the above
8. Gorilla like man with large head
and hands and protruding jaws is
produced due to
(A) Oversecretion of thyroxin
(B) Oversecretion of growth hormone
(C) Excess of vitamin C in diet
(D) Excessive secretion of TSH

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 876

9. Which of these deals with the

organisms and geological environments of the past ?
(A) Palaeozoology
(B) Palaeoecology
(C) Synecology
(D) All the above
10. A typical vertebra has a solid
central part known as
(A) Neural spine
(B) Centrum
(C) Neural arch
(D) None of the above
11. Some chromosomes are distinguished by
blob-like
ends
called
(A) Heterochromatin
(B) Euchromatin
(C) Satellites
(D) Centromeres
12. Inheritance of ABO blood groups
illustrates
(A) Polyploidy
(B) Incomplete dominance
(C) Multiple allelism
(D) None of the above
13. When genetic material is exchanged via cytoplasm, between
two prokaryotes, it is called
(A) Conjugation
(B) Transduction
(C) Transformation
(D) Restricted transduction
14. Which of the following monkey
has a prehansile tail ?
(A) Rhesus monkey (Macaca
mulatta)
(B) Spider
monkey
(Ateles
paniscus)
(C) Bormet macaquce (Macaca
radiata)
(D) All of the above
15. In mitochondria, the cristae act
as site of
(A) Breakdown of macromolecules
(B) Protein synthesis

16. In monotremes both sexes

secrete milk, this condition is
called
(A) Gynaecomastism
(B) Gomphosis
(C) Gynandromorphism
(D) Gynocious
17. Lysosomal storage disorder is
(A) Tay-Sachs disease
(B) Pompe disease
(C) Hurler disease
(D) All the above
18. What is the benefit of using
retrovirus as a vector in gene
therapy ?
(A) It is not able to enter cells
(B) It incorporates the foreign
gene into the host chromosome
(C) It eliminates a lot of necessary steps
(D) Both (B) and (C) are correct
19. Allopatric but not sympatric speciation requires
(A) Reproductive isolation
(B) Geographic isolation
(C) Prior hybridization
(D) Spontaneous differences in
males and females
20. Elephant tusks are
(A) Canine
(B) Molar
(C) Incisor
(D) Pre-molar
21. Fossil of Lucy was a member
of
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Homo erectus
Homo habilis
Australopithecus afarensis
Australopithecus robusta

22. Heart-beat originates from

(A) Pacemaker
(B) Cardiac muscles
(C) Aorta
(D) Right ventricle
23. The protein which maintains the
muscular storage of oxygen is
(A) Myosin
(B) Myoglobin
(C) Actomyosin
(D) All the above

24. Photochemical smog contains

two air pollutants
(A) Nitrogen oxides (NOx) and
hydrocarbons (HC)
(B) Carbon monoxide and acids
(C) Water, carbon monoxide and
hydrocarbons
(D) All of the above
25. Ganglioside is found in
(A) Nerve
(B) Smooth muscles
(C) Cardiac muscles
(D) Liver cells
26. Acid diposition causes
(A) Lakes and forests to die
(B) Acid indigestion in humans
(C) The green house effect to
lessen
(D) All of these are correct
27. Chemiosmotic phosphorylation is
dependent upon
(A) A diffusion of water across a
differentially
permeable
membrane
(B) An outside supply of phosphate and other chemicals
(C) The establishment of an
electrochemical hydrogen
(H+) gradient
(D) The ability of ADP to join
with P even in the absence
of a supply of energy
28. Axis vertebra can be identified
by
(A) Olecranon process
(B) Odontoid process
(C) Sigmoid notch
(D) Centrum
29. In children, the bones are more
flexible because their bones
have
(A) Large quantity of salts and
little organic substances
(B) Large quantity of organic
substances and little salts
(C) Well developed Haversian
system
(D) Large number of osteoblasts
30. Mushroom glands are found in
(A) Leech
(B) Mosquito
(C) Snail
(D) Cockroach
31. Enzyme which removes nucleotides one by one from the end of
a polynucleotide chain is
(A) Kinase
(B) Endonuclease

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 877

(C) Exonuclease
(D) Polymerase
32. To make a karyotype, chromosomes are photographed during
(A) Fertilization (B) Meiosis
(C) Mitosis
(D) Interphase
33. In which of the following
mammals do the ducts of the
excretory system and genital
tract have a common opening ?
(A) Porcupine (B) Pangolin
(C) Hedgehog (D) Echidna
34. An interaction between nonallelic
gene in which an allele at one
locus prevents expression of an
allele at another locus, but not
vice versa, is called
(A) Collaboration
(B) Complementation
(C) Epistasis
(D) Modification
35. Cerebral malaria is caused by
(A) Plasmodium falciparum
(B) Plasmodium malariae
(C) Plasmodium ovale
(D) Plasmodium vivax
36. A fruitfly is heterozygous for sexlinked genes, when mated with
normal female fruitfly, the males
specific chromosomes will enter
egg cell in the proportion
(A) 1 : 1

(B) 2 : 1

(C) 3 : 1

(D) 7 : 1

37. All eukaryotic genes contain two

kinds of base sequences, which
of these plays role in protein
synthesis ?
(A) Exons
(B) Introns
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
38. Epidermis found in Ascaris is
(A) Coenocytic
(B) Syncytial
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
39. Which type of cartilage is found
in humans external ear (Pinna) ?
(A) Hyaline cartilage
(B) Fibrocartilage
(C) Elastic cartilage
(D) None of these

40. Rhinoceros horns are composed

of
(A) Bone
(B) Cartilage
(C) Chitin
(D) Keratin
41. Which of these is tissue membrane ?
(A) Serous membrane
(B) Cutaneous membrane
(C) Mucous membrane
(D) All the above
42. A horizontal bony palate present
between buccal and nasal cavities of mammals is formed by
(A) Premaxillae, maxillae and
palatines
(B) Squamosal and dentary
(C) Maxillae and squamosal
(D) Quadrate and palatines
43. Which of the following pair is
correctly matched ?
(A) Excessive
perspiration
Xeric adaptation
(B) ParasitismIntraspecific
relationship
(C) UricotelismAquatic habitat
(D) Streamlined bodyAquatic
adaptation
44. Hamburger shift is also called
(A) Hydrogen shift
(B) HCO3 shift
(C) Chloride shift
(D) Sodium shift
45. Which of the following is the
largest protozoan parasite of
humans ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Balantidium coli
Escherichia coli
Plasmodium vivax
None of these

46. How many kinds of cytochrome

are involved in the electron
transport chain ?
(A) Two
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Six
47. In the brain, cerebrospinal fluid is
present
(A) Between dura mater and piamater
(B) Between dura mater and
arachnoid
(C) Between arachnoid and piamater
(D) None of these

48. Which type of cancer is developed in connective tissues and

spleen ?
(A) Leukaemia (B) Lymphoma
(C) Sarcoma (D) Carcinoma
49. Bjerrums sign is associated
with
(A) Glaucoma
(B) Astigmatism
(C) Metropia
(D) Hypermetropia
50. The type of immunoglobin present in the colostrum secreted
from mammary gland is
(A) Ig D
(B) Ig E
(C) Ig G
(D) Ig M

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 878

17. Which of the following is retroperitoneal ?

(A) Kidneys
(B) Spleen
(C) Testes
(D) Lungs

1. Which of the following acts as

thermostat in human body ?
(A) Pons
(B) Medulla oblongata
(C) Cerebellum
(D) Hypothalamus
2. Which of the following is the only
amino acid metabolized by the
brain ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Alanine
Glutamic acid
Histidine
Glutanine

3. Whcih of the following is related

with the disorder River blindness ?
(A) Elephantiasis
(B) Onchocerciasis
(C) Trypanosomiasis
(D) None of these
4. Melanin pigments give black
colour to which part of brain ?
(A) Substantia nigra
(B) Substantia grisea
(C) Substantia gelatinosa
(D) Substantia propria
5. Which only amino acid is metabolized by brain ?
(A) Alanine
(B) Glutamine
(C) Glutamic acid
(D) Histidine
6. Which tumour is capsulated ?
(A) Benign
(B) Malignant
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
7. Which human teeth are called
eyeteeth ?
(A) Incisors
(B) Canines
(C) Premolars
(D) Molars
8. New systematics based on genetic interrelationship is
(A) Cytotaxonomy
(B) Numerical taxonomy
(C) Experimental taxonomy
(D) Chemotaxonomy

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 879

9. Which of the following is breastbone ?

(A) Clavicle
(B) Sternum
(C) Scapula
(D) Patella
10. Bones enlarge by
(A) Auxentic growth
(B) Multiplicative growth
(C) Accretionary growth
(D) Appositional growth
11. The lytic enzyme present in
human semen is
(A) Androgenase
(B) Estrogenase
(C) Hyaluronidase
(D) Ligase
12. Muscles associated with hair
roots and responsible for gooseflesh (erection of body hairs)
are
(A) Smooth muscles
(B) Antagonistic muscles
(C) Striated muscles
(D) None of these
13. The effect of genetic drift is more
pronounced in
(A) Fast reproducing populations
(B) Small isolated populations
(C) Large mixed populations
(D) Migrating populations
14. In humans, corpora quadrigemina
is found in
(A) Prosencephalon
(B) Mesencephalon
(C) Rhombencephalon
(D) None of these

18. Which developmental structure in

mammalian embryo is regarded
as phyletic ?
(A) Gill pouches (B) Lungs
(C) Heart
(D) Kidneys
19. Hepatitis caused by Leptospira
sps. is known as
(A) Wilsons disease
(B) Black-water disease
(C) Weils disease
(D) None of these
20. Tree line is a biological indicator
of
environmental conditions.
Tree line is
(A) Line of similar trees in a
forest
(B) Last line of trees beyond
which no trees occur
(C) A line of trees of uniform
height and productivity
(D) Trees growing in shade that
survive acid rain
21. Striped muscles are
(A) Syncytial
(B) Uninucleate
(C) Binucleate
(D) None of these
22. Accumulation of free radicals in
body can cause
(A) Cancer
(B) Hardening of the arteries
(C) Cataracts
(D) All the above
23. In which chromosome number the
banding pattern of chimpanzee
and humans are almost similar ?
(A) 4 and 6
(B) 3 and 6
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 3 and 5

15. A notochord is found at the

embryonic stage in
(A) All chordates
(B) Some chordates
(C) Some vertebrates
(D) All land animals

24. Which of the following division of

Peripheral Nervous system is
often called Voluntary Nervous
System ?
(A) Somatic
(B) Autonomic
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these

16. Clisere is related with

(A) Serial community
(B) Xerosere community
(C) Climax community
(D) Pioneer community

25. Motor or sensory neurons

enclosed by a sheath of connective tissue, called
(A) Perineurium
(B) Neurilemma

(C) Endoneurium
(D) None of these
26. An exergonic reaction is
(A) A spontaneous reaction in
which energy is given off
(B) An uphill reaction requiring
input of energy
(C) An oxidation reaction
(D) An anaerobic reaction
27. Method of coelom formation
within pouches of mesoderm is
called

33. The fossil of hominid found in

Shivalik hills of India, is
(A) Ramapithecus
(B) Sinanthropus
(C) Australopithecus
(D) Pithecanthropus
34. Typhus is a
(A) Louse-borne disease
(B) Mosquito-borne disease
(C) Housefly-borne disease
(D) Water-borne disease
35. Parapatric speciation is called

(A) Pseudocoely

(A) Demes

(B) Cline

(B) Schizocoely

(C) Clisere

(D) None of these

(C) Enterocoely
(D) None of these
28. The internal mechanism by
which a biological rhythm is
maintained in the absence of
appropriate environmental stimuli
is termed as
(A) Circardian rhythm
(B) Sleep movement
(C) Biological clock
(D) None of these
29. A metastatic cancerous tumour is
termed sarcoma if the disorder is
in
(A) Immune system
(B) Epithelial cells
(C) Fibroblasts
(D) Circulatory system
30. The arrangement of numerous
setae in a ring in each segment
of Pheretima is known as
(A) Lumbricine
(B) Oligochaetine
(C) Otochaetine
(D) Perichaetine
31. The most striking example of
point mutation is found in the
disease, called
(A) Thalassemia
(B) Downs syndrome
(C) Sickle-cell anaemia
(D) Night-blindness
32. Poisonous fangs of cobra, krait
and coral snakes are
(A) Solenoglyphous
(B) Proteroglyphous
(C) Opisthoglypous
(D) None of these

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 880

36. Paneth cells are found in

(A) Spleen
(B) Pancreas
(C) Crypts of Lieberkuhn
(D) Brain
37. Helicotrema is the opening of
(A) Uriniferous tubule
(B) Cochlear canal
(C) Urethra
(D) Ureter
38. Brushfields spots are associated
with
(A) Downs syndrome
(B) Turners syndrome
(C) Klinefelters syndrome
(D) None of these
39. Olecranon process is associated
with
(A) Humerus
(B) Femur
(C) Ulna
(D) Ribs
40. Basket cells are found in
(A) Cerebrum
(B) Cerebellum
(C) Hypothalamus
(D) Medulla oblongata
41. The egg of frog is
(A) Telolecithal
(B) Microlecithal
(C) Alecithal
(D) Centrolecithal
42. The memories of the sights,
sounds, tastes and odours of the
past experiences, is stored in
(A) Cerebrum
(B) Cerebellum
(C) Pons
(D) Hypothalamus

43. The hardest substance in human

body is
(A) Keratin
(B) Dentine
(C) Enamel
(D) Chondrin
44. Ionic bonds are formed between
(A) Similar charged ions
(B) Opposite charged ions
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
45. The body cavity of Hirudo is filled
by
(A) Connective tissues
(B) Botyroidal tissues
(C) Parenchymal tissues
(D) Coelomic fluid
46. Which of the following technology is used to get crosssectional views of body parts ?
(A) Computerized tomography
(B) Position emission tomography
(C) Magnetic resonance imaging
(D) None of these
47. Atrial natriuretic factor is associated with
(A) Pancreas
(B) Heart
(C) Alimentary canal
(D) All the above
48. Athletes foot is caused by
(A) Aspergillus fumigatus
(B) Trichophyton
(C) Histoplasma capsulatum
(D) Candida albicans
49. Auerbachs plexus is found in
(A) Stomach
(B) Intestine
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
50. Milkmans syndrome is
(A) Failure of reabsorption of
phosphate by renal tubules
(B) Failure of absorption of lactose
(C) Failure of absorption of
amino acids
(D) None of these

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

1. X-disease is associated with

(A) Aflatoxicosis
(B) Amoebiosis
(C) Sleeping sickness
(D) Leishmaniasis
2. A product may bind to the
regulatory enzymes active site,
preventing it from binding substrate and temporarily shutting
down the metabolic pathway.
This is called
(A) Negative feedback
(B) Competitive inhibition
(C) Allosteric inhibition
(D) Non-competitive inhibition
3. Which of these, is essential for
normal excitability of cardiac
muscle ?
(A) Potassium ions
(B) Calcium ions
(C) Magnesium ions
(D) All of these
4. Which one of the following is
correctly matches a sexually
transmitted disease with its
pathogen ?
(A) UrethritisBacillus anthracis
(B) Soft soreBacillus brevis
(C) Syphlis Treponema pallidium
(D) GonorrhoeaEntamoeba
histolytica
5. Archipallium is associated with
(A) Cerebrum
(B) Cerebellum
(C) Medulla oblongata
(D) Spinal cord
6. Phylogenetic classification is one
which is based on
(A) Habits
(B) Common evolutionary descent
(C) Overall similarities
(D) Utilitarian system
7. Bilharziasis is a parasitic disease,
caused by
(A) Schistosoma
(B) Taenia solium
(C) Fasciola hepatica
(D) Enterobius vermicularis

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 882

8. Which of the following is an

inborn metabolic error ?
(A) Hartnup disease
(B) Galactosemia
(C) Tyrosinemia
(D) Cystinosis
9. Who introduced the term phylum
in taxonomy ?
(A) Cuvier

(B) Huxley

(C) John Ray

(D) Aristotle

10. Which of the following metabolic

disease occurs only in males ?
(A) Fabrys disease
(B) Gauchers disease
(C) Lesch-Nyhan disease
(D) Hunters disease
11. Recessive genes in both parents
are responsible for
(A) Congenital diseases
(B) Communicable diseases
(C) Non-communicable diseases
(D) Deficiency diseases
12. Nicotine acts as a stimulant and
mimics the effect of
(A) Thyroxine
(B) Acetylcholine
(C) Testosterone
(D) Dopamine
13. Notochord is usually regarded
as
(A) Mesodermal
(B) Ectodermal
(C) Endodermal
(D) Blastodermal
14. Interaction between non-allelic
genetic elements or their products, sometimes restricted to
cases in which one element suppresses expression of another, is
known
(A) Epistatis
(B) Episome
(C) Epipelon
(D) None of the above

15. Which of the following hormone

stimulates
metabolism
and
growth ?
(A) Somatotropin
(B) Thyrotropin
(C) Gonadotropin
(D) Prolactin
16. Which of the following endocrine
gland stores its hormonal secretions before discharging into the
blood ?
(A) Pancreas
(B) Adrenal
(C) Testis
(D) Thyroid
17. Which of the following is an
inactive enzyme precursor ?
(A) Polyglycoids
(B) Cholenzymes
(C) Activases
(D) Zymogens
18. A disease caused by eating fish
contaminated with mercury, is
called
(A) Brights disease
(B) Minimata disease
(C) Osteosclerosis
(D) Hashimotos disease
19. Convulsions in infants is caused
due to deficiency of
(A) Iodine
(B) Vitamin D
(C) Vitamin B 6 (D) Vitamin C
20. There are special proteins that
help to unwind DNA double helix
in front of the replication fork.
These proteins are
(A) DNA gyrase
(B) DNA polymerase
(C) DNA ligase
(D) DNA topoisomerase
21. The final hormonal stimulus leading to ovulation in humans is provided by
(A) Estrogen
(B) Progesterone
(C) Follicle stimulating hormone
(D) Luteinizing hormone
22. The tissue having least power of
regeneration is
(A) Epidermis of skin
(B) Endothelium of blood vessels
(C) Skeletal tissue of long bones
(D) Nervous tissue of brain
23. Stored energy from protein is
released during
(A) Catabolism
(B) Anabolism

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of these
24. Osteoclasts are associated with
(A) Bone formation
(B) Basal lamina secretion
(C) Break down of bone matrix
(D) Muscle regeneration
25. Which of these is called tissue
membrane ?
(A) Serous membranes
(B) Cutaneous membranes
(C) Mucous membranes
(D) All of these
26. Filum terminale is a part of
(A) Olfactory lobes
(B) Cerebellum
(C) Spinal cord
(D) Infundibulum
27. The pyramid of number in a
grassland ecosystem is
(A) Upright (B) Linear
(C) Inverted (D) None of these
28. Loss of relative biological equilibrium is due to
(A) Pollution
(B) Radiation
(C) High temperature
(D) Low temperature
29. What is the function of porphyrin
in earthworm ?
(A) To protect against harmful
germs
(B) To help in respiration
(C) To help in excretion
(D) To protect against harmful
ultraviolet rays
30. Who proposed the signal hypothesis meant for the biosynthesis
of secretory type of proteins ?
(A) Baltimore
(B) Camillo Golgi
(C) Blobel and Sabatini
(D) Sheeler and Bianchi

33. Heart murmur produced in

aneurysms is called
(A) Bruit
(B) Hemic murmur
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these

43. In DNA, which of the following is

double-ringed molecule ?
(A) Adenine
(B) Guanine
(C) Thymine
(D) Both (A) and (B)

34. The term Humulin is used for

(A) Human insulin
(B) Isoenzyme
(C) Hydrolytic enzyme
(D) Powerful antibiotic

44. Coelom in vertebrates is lined

by
(A) Ectoderm (B) Endoderm
(C) Mesoderm (D) All of these

35. Tysons glands are present on

(A) Neck of penis
(B) Inner surface of prepuce
(C) Opening of anus
(D) Both (A) and (B)
36. Rickettsiae form a group of
(A) Fungi
(B) Viruses
(C) Bacterium-like prokaryotes
(D) None of the above
37. Failure of an organ or part to
develop or grow is called
(A) Agenesia (agenesis)
(B) Agenitalism
(C) Ageism
(D) Agerasia
38. In a biotic community, the primary
consumers are
(A) Carnivores (B) Omnivores
(C) Detrivores
(D) Herbivores
39. Adies syndrome is related with
(A) Eye
(B) Brain
(C) Skin
(D) Liver
40. The ventilation movement of the
lungs for respiration in mammals,
are governed by
(A) Diaphragm
(B) Costal muscles
(C) Intercostal muscles
(D) All the above

31. Olfactory organ of a snake is

(A) Jacobsons organ
(B) Johnstons organ
(C) Organ of Bojanus
(D) None of the above

41. Fat, cholesterol and fat-soluble

vitamins in blood are transported
by
(A) Alpha globulins
(B) Beta globulins
(C) Gamma globulins
(D) Both (A) and (B)

32. Pancreozymin is secreted by

(A) Pancreas
(B) Intestine
(C) Adrenal cortex
(D) Pituitary

42. When one molecule of ATP is

disintegrated, the amount of
energy liberated is
(A) 7 k cal
(B) 45 k cal
(C) 8 k cal
(D) 38 k cal

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 883

45. Which type of brain wave pattern

is observed in people solving
mathematical problems ?
(A) Beta waves
(B) Alpha waves
(C) Theta waves
(D) Delta waves
46. The first hormone artificially produced by culturing bacteria, is
(A) Insulin
(B) Thyroxin
(C) Testosterone
(D) Adrenalin
47. Pathogenic Candida which infects
humans is a
(A) Protozoan (B) Bacteria
(C) Virus
(D) Yeast
48. What is common among silver
fish, crab, honey bee and prawn?
(A) Poison gland
(B) Compound eye
(C) Metamorphosis
(D) All the above
49. Which of the following prevents
the mothers immune response
to the developing embryo ?
(A) Trophoblast
(B) Blastocyst
(C) Umblical vein
(D) Umblical artery
50. In which of the following animal,
all the three important chordate
characters exist throughout life ?
(A) Amphioxus
(B) Mammals
(C) Amphibians
(D) All the above

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

Introduction
The leaves, stems and roots of a plant all consist of
the same meristematic, dermal, ground and vascular
tissues. Yet plants show a wide variety of formsfrom a
prickly cactus to a lush vine to the majestic sunflower
(Helianthus annuus). Natural selection sculpted different
arrangements of plant tissues for better adaptations to
particular environment. A stem is the central axis of
shoot, leaves are extremely diverse photosynthetic
organs and roots anchor plants and absorb, transport and
store nutrients.

Leaf

blade
petiole

while a desert plant called Welwitschia mirabilis produces

only two leaves during its entire lifetime.
Leaves are classified according to their basic forms
as well as their arrangements on stems. Most of the
leaves consist of flattened blade and supporting, stalklike
petiole. There are four basic kinds of leaves. Simple
leaves have flat, undivided blades, compound leaves
are divided into leaflets; pinnate leaflets are paired along
a central line; and palmate leaves are all attached to one
point at the top of the petiole.
Leaves may be arranged in different patterns on
stems. Plants with one leaf per node have alternate or
spiral arrangements. Plants with two leaves per node
have opposite arrangements and plants with three or
more leaves per node have whorled arrangements. No
wonder such a variety of leaves exist with so many
variable features.

Specialized Functions of Leaves

Stem

Internode

Nodes

In addition to performing photosynthesis, leaves provide support, protection and nutrient procurement and storage with the following specializations
(i) Storage leavesThese are fleshy and store food,
e.g., onion (Allium cepa).
(ii) SpinesSpines of plant such as cacti are leaves
modified to protect the plant from predators.
(iii) BractsBracts are floral leaves that protect
developing flowers. They may be colourful in certain
plants. e.g., Poinsettia .
(iv) TendrilsThese are modified leaves that wrap
around nearby objects to support climbing plants.
(v) Insect trapping leavesInsect-trapping leaves
are found in about 200 species of carnivorous plants and
are adapted for attracting, capturing and digesting prey.
Some leaves have sticky flypaper surfaces, whereas
others form water-filled chambers that insects drawn in.
The trigger hairs of a venus flytrap respond to a visiting
insects movement by stimulating the two leaves to snap
together. The insect is then trapped as the leaves secrete
digestive enzymes that destroy it.

Anatomical Features of Leaves

Fig. : Organization of plant body. Roots, stems and leaves

are vegetative organs.

Leaves
Leaves are the primary photosynthetic organs of
most of the plants. These are the most diverse plant
organs and may be classified on the basis of blade structure, attachment pattern, organization around nodes and
venation. American elm may have several million leaves,

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 885

Leaf epidermis consists of tightly packed transparent

cells. The epidermis is usually non-photosynthetic and
contains many stomata. Although plants have stomata for
gaseous exchange, they also lose large amounts of water
through them during transpiration.
Vascular tissues in leaves occur in strands called
veins. Leaf veins are often associated with thick-celled
sclerenchyma fibres for support. Also, a layer of parenchyma cells surrounds and supports leaf veins. Most of
the dicots have netted veins, while monocots have
usually parallel veins. Vein endings are the blind ends of

minor veins, where water and solutes move into and out
of veins. Xylem is present on the upper side of a vein and
phloem on the lower side.

Anatomically, surrounding the stem from outside is a

transparent, unicellular layer called epidermis. It possesses stomata but fewer than the epidermis of a leaf. The
Blade

Petiole

Cuticle
Upper
epidermis

Cross-section

Palisade
mesophyII
Xylem

Vascular
bundle
(vein)

Spongy
mesophyII

Phloem
Lower
epidermis
Air
space
Chloroplasts

Stomata

Fig. : A leaf in cross section. The mesophyll areas contain different kinds of parenchyma cells.

Mesophyll, which is made up of parenchymatous

cells, is the leafs ground tissue. Some cells are chlorenchymatous that produce sugars through photosynthesis.
Horizontally oriented leaves have two types of chlorenchyma. The long columnar cells along the upper side of a
leaf, the palisade mesophyll cells, are specialized for
light absorption. Irregularly shaped chlorenchyma cells
separated by large intercellular spaces are called spongy
mesophyll cells found below the palisade layer. These
cells are specialized for gaseous exchange.

Stem
The central axis of a shoot system is the stem. The
stem of flowering plants produces leaves and if upright as
most are, supports, leaves in such a way that each one is
exposed to as much sunlight as possible. A node occurs
where leaves are attached to the stem and an internode
is the region between the nodes. The presence of nodes
and internodes is used to identify a stem even if it
happens to be an underground one. Food and water is
carried through the stems of plants.
Stem elongation normally occurs in the internodal
regions. However, some plants have stems called
rosettes that do not elongate. Rosettes have short internodes and overlapping leaves. For example, a banana
tree is a rosette as its trunk is made up of large and tightly
packed leaves.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 886

epidermis of stem may also possess protective trichomes. Trichomes have been put into a number of
groups on the basis of their morphological characters.
Hairs constitute a very common type of trichome. The
wall of trichome is commonly of cellulose (a polymer of B
glucose) covered by cuticle.
The ground tissue that fills the area between epidermis and vascular tissue in a stem is called the cortex.
Some cortical cells are photosynthetic and store starch. In
plants that have concentric cylinders of xylem and
phloem, the ground storage tissue in the centre of the
stem is called pith. The pith stores the products of photosynthesis.
The vascular tissue system differentiates from the
procambial strands and is organised into vascular
bundles that branch into leaves at the nodes. Phloem
(the food-conducting vascular element) occurs towards
the outside of the bundle, whereas xylem (water-conducting vascular element) is found towards the inside of vascular bundle.
Vascular bundles are arranged differently in different
types of plants. Familiar flowering plants are divided into
two classesmonocotyledons and dicotyledons of
which the former possesses one cotyledon and the latter
two cotyledons. Monocots such as corn have vascular
bundles scattered throughout their ground tissue, whereas
dicots such as sunflowers have a single ring of vascular
bundles. In contrast to flowering plants, pines have an
outer cylinder of phloem surrounding an inner cylinder of

xylem. A thin layer of primary meristem, called vascular

cambium, is present in between xylem and phloem. In
dicots and pines, this layer becomes lateral meristem.
Stem support leaves, produce and store food and
transport food and water between roots and leaves.
Stems may provide food for other species.
Many plants modify their stems for special functions
such as climbing, storage, protection and reproduction,
including the following structures :
(i) TubersThese are swollen regions of stems that
store nutrients. Irish potatoes are tubers produced on
burrowing stolons. When potato is grown from eye buds,
after the plant is rooted to the soil, the lower part of its
stem is covered by earth. Axillary or adventitious
branches grow from this underground part of the stem.
(ii) TendrilsTendrils are shoots that support plants
by coiling around objects, sometimes attaching by their
adhesive tips. The stem tendrils of green bean plants
readily entwine around the posts a helpful gardener nuts
in the ground.
(iii) ThornsThese are often modified stems for
protection.
(iv) Succulent stemsSucculent stems of certain
plants (e.g., cacti) are fleshy and store large amount of
water.
(v) StolonsStolons or runners are stems that grow
along the soil surface. New plants are formed from their
nodes. Strawberry plants develop stolons after flowering
and several plants can arise from the original one.

Root
Roots have various adaptations and associations to
enhance their ability to anchor a plant, absorb water and
minerals, and store the products of photosynthesis.

Although plants are immobile, they engage in a great deal

of biological activity, especially undergound. Roots are so
indispensable to plant growth and photosynthesis that
annual root production often consumes more than that of
a plants energy and may account for a substantial portion
of its body. They absorb oxygen from between soil particles; roots pushing through firmly packed soil may die for
lack of oxygen.
The radicle is the first root emerging from a seed. In
a taproot system, the radicle emerges to form a major root
that persists throughout the life of the plant. Tap roots
grow fast and deep, maximizing support and enabling a
plant to use materials located deep in the soil. The radicle
is ephemeral (short-lived) in a fibrous root system.
Adventitious roots, which form on stems or leaves,
replace the radicle. The result is an extensive system of
similarly-sized-roots. Fibrous root systems are relatively
shallow. They rapidly absorb materials near the soil surface and prevent soil erosion. Most of the monocots form
fibrous root systems.
Rapidly growing roots lose as many as 10,000 cells
per day as they push through the soil. The root cap that
covers the tip of the root, protects and replaces cells. A
root caps meristem continually pushes cells forward. The
root cap also produces mucilage, a slimy substance that
protects root tip from desiccation. A cluster of seemingly
inactive cells called the quiescent centre is found just
behind the root cap. This region functions as a reservoir,
replacing damaged cells in the adjacent meristem. The
rest of the root, the portion above the tip, anchors the
plant in the ground. The region immediately behind the
root cap is called the subapical region. It is loosely
divided into three zones viz., zone of cellular division,
zone of cellular elongation and the zone of cellular
maturation.

Fig. : (i) Development of the Tap root System in dicots. (A) Germinating dicot seed with growing radicle. (B) Tap root
system developed out of a radicle. Fig. (ii) : Development of the Adventitious Fibrous Root System in monocots.
(A) Rice seedling showing radicle roots, seminal roots, adventitious fibrous roots and mesocotyl. (B) Rice plant
with extensive fibrous root system.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 887

The zone of cellular division is meristematic. The

cells in this region, which surrounds the quiescent centre,
divides as rapidly as 12 to 36 hours. The zone of cellular
elongation lies behind the zones of cellular division.
Maturation and differentiation of cells occur in the
zone of cellular maturation. This is also called the root
hair zone, because here many tiny root hairs develop
from epidermal cell. Root hairs are plentiful and they
greatly increase the surface area available for absorbing
water.
The epidermis surrounds the entire root except the
root cap. Root epidermal cells either lack or have a thin
cuticle and are thus well adapted for absorbing water and
minerals. The root epidermis surrounds the entire cortex,
which consists of three layershypodermis, storage
parenchyma and endodermis.
The hypodermis is the outermost protective layer.
These cells form a vast collecting system that absorbs
water and minerals moving through the epidermis and

stores the nutrient for further growth. The innermost ring

of cortex is called endodermis.
The endodermis consists of a single layer of closely
packed living cells. Endodermal cells are characterised by
the presence of casparian strips in their radial and transverse walls, which contain suberin, a waxy and waterproof material. The endodermis can regulate the movement of nutrients and water into and out of the central
vascular tissue of the root.
The pericycle which occurs beneath the endodermis,
constitutes the outer boundary of the primary vascular
cylinder of roots. In roots, the pericycle functions as the
site of origin of lateral roots. The roots vascular tissues
are interior to the pericycle, where bundles of xylem
alternate with the bundles of phloem. In order for water to
reach the xylem, it must pass through the root.

Special Functions of Roots

(i) Adventitious roots that develop and grow in the
air called aerial roots. They are important modifications

Endodermis
Pericycle
Phloem
Xylem
Cortex

Epidermis
Root hair
Zone of
maturation

Vascular
cylinder

Zone of
elongation

Zone of
cell division
Root cap

Fig. : Dicot root tip : The root tip is divided into four zones, best seen in a longitudinal section such as this. The vascular
cylinder of a dicot root contains the vascular tissue. Xylem is typically star shaped and phloem lies between the
points of the star.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 888

for mangroves, trees that typically grow in low oxygen

environments. Orchids and mistletoe are two familiar
plants that possess aerial roots.
(ii) Many roots form mutualistic associations called
mycorrhizae with beneficial fungi. The fungi absorb
nutrients from the soil, whereas the host plants provide
the fungi with vitamins or other needed substances.

(iii) Storage is a familiar root specialization. Carrot

and beet roots store starch, desert plant roots store large
amounts of water and sweet potato roots sugar.
(iv) Pneumatophores are specialized roots that
develop in plants growing in oxygen-poor environments
(salty marshes). Some branches of taproot grow vertically
towards the air (negative geotropism) allowing oxygen to
diffuse into the plant body.

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Between the bark and the wood
in a woody stem, there is a layer
of meristem called
(A) Apical meristem
(B) Cork cambium
(C) The zone of cell division
(D) Vascular cambium
2. The Casparian strip is found
(A) Within the secondary wall of
parenchyma cells
(B) Between all epidermal cells
(C) On four sides of endodermal
cells
(D) Between xylem and phloem
cells
3. A leaf usually consists of
(A) Blade
(B) Petiole
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
4. Mesophyll containing irregular
cells bounded by air spaces is
termed
(A) Spongy mesophyll
(B) Palisade mesophyll
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Petiole
5. Root hairs are found in the zone
of
(A) Elongation
(B) Maturation
(C) Cell division
(D) All of the above
6. A flowering plant has three
vegetative organs. Which of the
following
vegetation
organs
anchors a plant, absorbs water
and store the products of photosynthesis ?
(A) Leaves
(B) Roots
(C) Stems
(D) None of the above

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 889

7. Plants with one leaf per node

have
(A) Spiral arrangement
(B) Alternate arrangement
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
8. Flowering plants are divided into
dicots and monocots according
to the
(A) Number of floral parts
(B) Number of cotyledons in the
seed
(C) Arrangement of vascular
tissues
(D) All of the above
9. Which of the following parts of
plant body are fleshy and store
large amounts of water in cacti ?
(A) Tubers
(B) Stolons
(C) Thorns
(D) Succulent stems
10. Which part of a leaf carries on
most of the photosynthesis of a
plant ?
(A) Epidermal layer
(B) Guard cells
(C) Mesophyll
(D) None of the above

(C) Arbovirus
(D) None of the above
7. HIV has a protein coat and a
genetic material which is
(A) Single stranded DNA
(B) Single stranded RNA
(C) Double stranded DNA
(D) Double stranded RNA
8. AIDS was first reported in
(A) Russia
(B) Germany
(C) USA
(D) China
9. For which of the following
disease, there is preventive
vaccine ?
(A) AIDS
(B) Hepatitis B
(C) Syphilis
(D) Gonorrhea
10. Disease vaginitis is caused by
(A) Candida albicans
(B) Trichomonas vaginalis
(C) Phthirus pubis
(D) Chlamydia

ANSWERS

ANSWERS

(Continued from Page 884 )

(Continued from Page 875 )

4. Large sores called gummas are
associated with
(A) First stage of Syphilis
(B) Second stage of Syphilis
(C) Third stage of Syphilis
(D) All stages of Syphilis
5. Drug Acyclovir is used for the
treatment of
(A) Herpes
(B) Gonorrhea
(C) AIDS
(D) Genital warts
6. HIV belongs to a group of virus
known as
(A) Retrovirus
(B) Papilloma virus

Introduction
Fats or lipids are best described as a diverse groups of
organic compounds found in plants, animals and microorganisms.
Fats and certain other compounds, more or less
densely closely related, are often called lipids.
Lipids made by cells are important not only because
they serve as an energy source but also because they
form the structural components.
Fats are produced in all actively metabolising plant
cells and serve a number of indispensable roles in
plants, particularly as reserve food substances.
Fats, such as olive oil, contain a mixture of fatty substances called triglycerides.
The proportion of the lipids in food-stuffs varies from
02% in white potatoes to 70% in some nut kernels.
Characteristically, they are greasy to touch and insoluble in water but soluble in ether, alcohol, acetone
and other organic solvents.

(a) Phospholipids :
Phospholipids are lipids containing a phosphate group.
The commonest type is formed when one of the
OH groups of glycerol combines with phosphoric
acid instead of a fatty acid. The other two groups
combine with fatty acids as in the formation of a
triglyceride.
Lecithin, the best known among phospholipids in plant
cells, is an essential structural material for living cell
membrane, where it maintains continuity between the
water and lipid phases inside and outside the cell. The
function of certain enzymes depend upon their attachment to lipids such as lecithin.
(b) Galactolipids :
Galactolipids are major lipid constituent of green leaf
tissue of plants.
Monogalactosyl diglyceride and diglactosyl diglyceride
are commonly occurring galactolipids in chloroplasts.

Fatty Acids

Simple Classification of Lipids in Plants

1. Simple Lipids :
Simple lipids are esters of fatty acids with alcohol.
These are of following types :

The fatty acids of naturally occurring lipids have even

number of carbon (C) atoms because they are
synthesized from acetyl groups, each of which contains two carbon (2-C) atoms.

(a) Fats :
Fats are esters of fatty acids with glycerol, i.e., fatty
acids are esterified with glycerol to form triglycerides.
These are true fats and are indispensable as reserve
food material and as a source of energy in living cells.

Two typical fatty acids are palmitic and oleic fatty

acids.

(b) Waxes :
Waxes are esters of higher aliphatic acids with long
chain of alcohol other than glycerols.
These are important components of cuticle of epidermal cell walls.
Waxes have been isolated from the outer layer of
bacteria, leaves, roots, stems, fruits and flowers of
plants.
Waxes are solid at 20 C; crystalline; melt above 40 C

Fatty acids and lipids lacking double bonds (C

C)
are said to be saturated.

without decomposition; have consistency and solubility

properties that strongly depend upon temperature.
Candelilla wax is obtained from a coating on stem of
Euphorbia antisyphilitica, a leafless desert shrub.
Carnauba wax is extracted from an exudate on the
leaves of the carnauba palm. (Copernicia prunifera).

2. Compound Lipids :
Compound lipids are esters of fatty acids containing
groups in addition to alcohol and fatty acid radicals. It
may be of the following types

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 890

Fatty acids with 16 (palmitic acid) and 18 (stearic acid)

carbon atoms are most commonly found in nature.

Saturated Fatty Acids

Typical naturally occurring saturated fatty acids are

chainlike (Non-branched) compound with an even
number of carbon atoms.
Several important short chain fatty acids including
butyric acid (4C-atoms), caproic acid (6C-atoms),
octanoic acid (8C-atoms) and decanoic acid (10Catoms), are present in palm oil.

Major Saturated Plant Fatty Acids

Common Name

Number of C-atoms

Behenic acid

22

Arachidic acid

20

Stearic acid

18

Palmitic acid

16

Myristic acid

14

Lauric acid

12

Unsaturated Fatty Acids

Fatty acids sometimes containing one or more double
bonds (C
C), such as oleic acid, are said to be
unsaturated.
Fatty acids with one double bond are called monounsaturated fatty acids, those with two or more double
bonds are called polyunsaturated ones.
Monounsaturated fatty acid comprises the largest
group of unsaturated fatty acids.
Unsaturated fatty acids melt at much lower temperatures than saturated fatty acids. Oleic acid, for
example, is the chief constituent of olive oil and is
liquid at normal temperature (melting point 134 C).

Major Unsaturated Fatty Acids of Plant

Common Name

No. of C-atoms

Palmitic acid

16

Oleic acid

18

Linoleic acid

18

-Linoleic acid

18

Erucic acid

22

Distribution of Fats in Plants

Fats are widely distributed throughout the plant
kingdom.
Fats are especially found in abundance in reproductive
tissue (e.g., seeds and fruits) of certain higher plants
where they form important reserve food material, such
as in the cotyledons of sunflower, rape (Brassica
napus ) peanuts (Arachis hypogaea) almonds (Prunus
amygdalus ) and mesocarp of avocado pear (Persea
americana).
Carnauba wax is found in the leaves of carnauba
palm (Cropernicia prunifera).
Certain cereal seeds, such as wheat and barley
(Hordeum distichon) which store starch as chief
reserve food in their endosperm, have rich fat content
in their aleurone cell layers.

Breakdown of Fatty Acids

1. -oxidation :
The long chain of fatty acid with the help of oxidation is broken down until it is reduced to 12carbon atoms.
Fatty acids with less than 13C-atoms are not
affected by this process.
-oxidation occurs in the following sequential
reactions (steps)
(i)

The fatty acid, in presence of enzyme fatty acid

peroxidase and hydrogen peroxide (H2O2), is
oxidatively decarboxylated to form an aldehyde.
In this step, CO2 comes from carboxylic group
and oxidation occurs at -carbon atom which is
converted to an aldehyde group.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 891

(ii) The aldehyde, in presence of enzyme fatty

aldehyde dehydrogenase, is further oxidised to
form the new fatty acid containing one less
carbon atom than in the original fatty acid.
NAD+ is reduced in this reaction. The new fatty
acid is oxidised again and again till it reduced to
12C-atoms.
Aldehyde dehydrogenase

Aldehyde New fatty acid

NAD + H2O
+ NADH + H+

2. -oxidation :
-oxidation is the principal method of fatty acid
degradation in plants.
This process occurs in mitochondria (and also in
glyoxysomes) and involves successive removal of
2C in the form of acetyl CoA molecule from the
carboxyl end of fatty acid.
Because -carbon (i.e., carbon atom number 3) of
the fatty acid is oxidised, it is called -oxidation
which involves the following sequential reactions
(i) The first reaction involves the activation of fatty
acid in presence of an enzyme thiokinase and
ATP. CoASH is consumed and CoA-derivative
of fatty acid is produced.
Thiokinase

Fatty acid + CoASH Fatty acid CoA

ATP + Mg2+ + AMP + PPi
The AMP (Adenosine monophosphate), thus
produced, reacts with another ATP molecule to
form 2 molecules of ADP in presence of enzyme
adenylate kinase .
AMP + ATP

Adenylate kinase

2ADP

(ii) In this reaction, two H-atoms are removed

between - and -carbons, as a result, , unsaturated fatty acyl CoA is formed in
presence of FAD-containing enzyme acyl-CoA
dehydrogenase.
(iii) This stage of reaction involves the addition of a
water molecule across the double bond to form
corresponding -hydroxyacyl-CoA in presence
of enzyme enol hydrase .
(iv) -hydroxyacyl-CoA is dehydrogenated in
presence of enzyme NAD-specific -hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase. Two H-atoms are
removed from the -carbon atom (-oxidation)
which now bears a carbonyl function and -keto
fatty acyl-CoA is formed.
(v) The final stage involves the thioclastic cleavage
of -keto fatty acyl-CoA in presence of enzyme
-keto acyl thiolase to form active 2-C unit
acetyl-CoA and a fatty acyl-CoA molecule.
The fatty acyl-CoA, so produced, reenters the
-oxidation losing further 2C units. The
sequence continues until whole molecule is
degraded.

chain is increased by 2C-atoms. Each step involves

the following two reactions

Should be Known
Each turn of -oxidation generates 5 ATPs.
However, in the first turn there is a consumption of
2ATPs in the reaction of step (i) and hence, in this
turn there isa net gain of only 3 ATPs.
Each turn of -oxidation generates one FADH2
[reaction number (ii)].
A huge amount of energy is generated in the form of
ATP by mitochondrial oxidation of fatty acids
through -oxidation and TCA cycle (Tricarboxylic
acid cycle). For example, one molecule of palmitic
acid (16C-atoms) on complete oxidation produces
129 ATP molecules.

(i) In the first reaction, acetyl-CoA combines with CO 2

in presence of an enzyme acetyl-CoA carboxylase to form
malonyl-CoA. Mn 2+ and biotin are required as cofactors,
while ATP provides energy during this reaction.
Acetyl-CoA Carboxylase

Acetyl-CoA + CO2 Malonyl-CoA

ATP + Mn2+ + Biotin
+ ADP + Pi
(ii) Malonyl-CoA reacts with another molecule of
acetyl-CoA to form butyryl-CoA (Coenzyme-A derivative
of butyric acid). This reaction occurs in presence of
enzyme fatty acid synthetase and coenzyme NADPH2.

In the last turn of -oxidation, spiral, two acetyl-CoA

molecules are produced.
The oxidation of long chain fatty acids to acetyl-CoA
is a central energy yielding pathway in animals,
many protists and some bacteria.
Although most naturally occurring lipids contain fatty
acids with an even number of carbon atoms, fatty
acids with an odd number of carbons are found in
significant amounts in the lipids of many plants and
some marine organisms.

Fatty Acids Biosynthesis

When fatty acid oxidation was found to occur by
oxidative removal of successive two-carbon (acetylCoA) units, biochemists thought that the biosynthesis
of fatty acids might proceed by simple reversal of the
same enzymatic steps used in their oxidation.
However, fatty acid biosynthesis and breakdown occur
by different pathways, are catalysed by different sets
of enzymes, and take place in different parts of the
cell. Moreover, a three-carbon intermediate, malonylCoA, participates in the biosynthesis of fatty acids but
not in their breakdown.
Long chain fatty acids are synthesized in plants from
active two-carbon units, the acetyl-CoA.
Synthesis of fatty acids from acetyl-CoA occurs in
sequential steps and takes place in the cytosol at the
endoplasmic reticulum. In each step the fatty acid

Fatty acid synthetase

Malonyl-CoA + Acetyl-CoA
2NAPH 2

Butyryl-CoA + CO2 + H2O + 2NADP

Butyryl-CoA, in the next step, reacts with malonylCoA to form CoA-derivative of fatty acid containing six
carbon atoms. This process is repeated till coenzyme-A
derivative of long chain fatty acid (which may contain upto
18 carbon atoms) is formed.
The reaction (ii) described above summarises a
number of reactions, involved in the synthesis of fatty acid
from acetyl-CoA and malonyl-CoA, which can be grouped
in the following heads
(a) Initiation reactionIn this case acetyl-CoA
transfers acetyl group to one of the SH group of
multienzyme complex, i.e., fatty acid synthetase.
(b) Elongation and termination reactionWhen
fatty acid residue has attained the desired length, the
chain elongation stops and the cycle is not repeated. The
acyl group instead of being transferred to the SH of the
enzyme is transferred to SH group of Coenzyme-A
(CoASH). Thus, CoA derivative of fatty acid is produced.
Small amount of longer fatty acids, such as stearate
(18 : 0) are also formed. In certain plants (e.g., coconut
and palm) chain termination occurs earlier, upto 90% of
the fatty acids in the oils of these plants are between 8
and 14 carbons long.

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. In which of the following organic
or inorganic compounds, lipids
are soluble ?
(A) Alcohol
(B) Water
(C) Ether
(D) In alcohol and ether
2. Which of the following is/are
saturated fatty acid(s) ?
(A) Palmitic acid
(B) Myristic acid

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 892

(C) Lignoceric acid

(D) All of the above
3. In the photosynthetic cells of
plants, fatty acid synthesis
occurs
(A) In the cytosol
(B) In the chloroplast stroma
(C) On the inner membrane of
mitochondria
(D) In all of the above

4. Fatty acid molecules containing

one or more double bonds
(HC
CH) are called
(A) Stearic acid
(B) Saturated fatty acids
(C) Unsaturated fatty acids
(D) Both (B) and (C)
5. The energy in fatty acid molecule
is transferred into ATP by a
process known as
(A) Reduction of fatty acid

(Continued on Page 895 )

Introduction
The chemicals found in living organisms are derived
originally from the abiotic components of ecosystems,
such as soil, water and air, to which they eventually return
by way of decomposition of the waste products or dead
bodies of organisms. Bacteria and fungi bring about
decomposition, obtaining energy from the waste products
and dead organisms in the process. Thus a constant
cycling of the chemical materials needed by living organisms occurs within an ecosystem. Since both living and
non-living parts of ecosystem are involved in these chemical cycles they are called biogeochemical cycles.

Components of Biogeochemical Cycles

For each element the cycling process involves the
following components
A reservoirThat portion of the earth that acts as a
storehouse for the element.
An exchange poolThat portion of the environment
from which the producers take their nutrients.
Biotic communityThrough which chemicals move
along food chains to and from the exchange pool.

Water (Hydrologic) Cycle

Water cycle is important because water is an
essential constituent of all living beings. Water covers
much of the earths surface, primarily as ocean, but also
as rivers, streams, ponds, lakes, groundwater, etc. It is
waters unique ability to be present in all three states of
mattersolid (ice), liquid and gas (vapours)that allows
it to efficiently cycle from the earths surface to the
atmosphere and back again.

The suns energy heats the surface of a body of

water, causing evaporation. The water vapour then rises
with the warmed air and forms clouds in the atmosphere.
When air currents move these clouds over land or over
cold water the vapour condenses, forming water droplets.
Depending on the temperature and atmospheric pressure,
the droplets fall back to earth as rain, snow, fog, hail, or
sleet. Some precipitation falls back into the oceans, but
most of it falls on land, where it is soaked into the ground
and porous rock to become groundwater.
Plants absorb some groundwater, use it, and release
some of it from their leaves in the process of transpiration,
recycling it to the atmosphere. Water in the ground and
porous rocks creates an aquifer and water table, which
consists of water trapped between the surface and
impervious rocks. This underground water moves to wells
and springs and becomes available to many species use.
Spring water may evaporate or form streams which
eventually return to the ocean, perpetuating the cycle.

Carbon Cycle
The main carbon store is the estimated 75 million
billion tonnes in the earths rocks. A further 5000 billion
tonnes are found in fossil fuel reservoirs : coal, gas, oil
and peat and about 150 billion tonnes are held in the
uppermost ocean bed sediments. They represent the
main carbon reservoirs, however, these carbon sources
are not normally available to living organisms.
The main carbon source for living organisms is CO 2
present in the atmosphere or dissolved in surface waters.
In photosynthesis green plants, algae and blue-green
bacteria convert CO 2 to simple carbohydrates, the building blocks for all other organic molecules. This conversion
of CO 2 in photosynthesis and the counterbalancing
7
16

(Evapotranspiration)
23 Precipitation
over land
Evaporation
ice
from
land,
Evaporation
lakes and
from ocean Transpiration
rivers

84

77

Precipitation
into ocean

Ocean
7

faccee rruunn--ooffff ttoo oocceeaann

SSuurrfa
Soil

Ground water

Figures in diagram based on

mean annual global
precipitation of 100 units

Total water
Oceans 97%
Fresh water 3%

Bedrock
Fresh water
Ice sheets and glaciers 75%
Ground water 25%
Lakes 0.3%
Soil moisture 0.06%
Atmosphere 0.035%
Rivers 0.03%

Fig. : The hydrological cycle and water storage.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 893

to nearest whole %

release of CO2 in respiration, is an important mechanism

helping to maintain the balance of the natural carbon
cycle. However, not all CO2 fixed is returned to the atmosphere by respiration.
In oceans, the main removal mechanisms taking CO 2
from the atmosphere are photosynthesis and dissolving in
surface waters. Much of this CO2 is quickly released back
into the atmosphere, either directly from the water or by
respiration. However, as in terrestrial ecosystems, some
CO2 is locked away for a longer time, such as when cool
surface waters sink below warmer currents, or when
marine organisms form carbonate shells.
60

Atmosphere
750
.66
11.
5.5

90
90

Fossil fuels and

cement production

92
Surface ocean
1020
10
0
50
40

Marine biota
3

Phosphorus Cycle
The weathering of rocks on land makes phosphate
ions available to plants which take it up from the soil.
Some of this phosphate (PO 4= and HPO4= ) run off into
aquatic ecosystems where algae take phosphate up from
the water before it becomes trapped in sediments. Phosphate in sediments become available only when a geological upheaval exposes sedimentary rocks to weathering
once more. Phosphorus does not enter the atmosphere,
therefore, the phosphorus cycle is called a sedimentary
cycle.

Humans Influence the Phosphorus Cycle

0.
5

n
io
ct 1.4
du 6
o
pr
e
y
ar on
us
ir m rati
nd
i
p
a
l
et sp
g
in
l n re
ng
ba nd
a
lo a
h
G
C
Vegetation 610
soils and detritus 1580
2190

on climate. The balance is also affected by human activities, notably by changing land-use as in deforestation or
reforestation, using of fossil fuels and in cement manufacturing.

91

.6

DOC
< 700

Intermediate and
deep ocean
38100
0.2

Surface sediment
150

Fig. : Global carbon reservoirs and flows at the present

day. Units are 109 tonnes of carbon for reservoir
sizes and 109 tonnes of carbon per year for flows.

In practice rates of carbon exchange between the

active cycling pools can vary from year to year depending

Phosphorus is a vital component of genetic material, ATP

and the phospholipids of membranes.
Human beings boost the supply of phosphate by mining
phosphate ores for fertilizer production, animal feed supplements and detergents.
Phosphate ore is slightly radioactive and, therefore, mining
phosphate poses a health threat to all organisms even
those that do the mining. Also, only a portion of this land
has been properly reclaimed and the rest is subject to
severe soil erosion.
Run-off of animals wastes from livestock feedlots and
commercial fertilizers from cropland as well as discharge
of untreated and treated municipal sewage can all add
excess phosphate to nearby waters. Then an excess
growth of algae, called an algal bloom, may result.

Nitrogen Cycle
Nitrogen makes about 78% of the atmosphere by
volume, yet nitrogen deficiency commonly limits plant
growth. Plants cannot incorporate nitrogen into organic
compounds and, therefore, depend upon various types of
bacteria to make nitrogen available to them.

Fig. : Nitrogen cycle. 78% by volume of the atmosphere is nitrogen. This is the main nitrogen reservoir.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 894

Nitrifying bacteria convert ammonia from dead

organisms to nitrites (NO2). Then other nitrifying bacteria
convert nitrite to nitrates (NO3), compounds that plant can
use and then pass on to animals. Finally, nitrogen returns
to the atmosphere when denitrifying bacteria convert
ammonia, nitrites and nitrates to nitrogen gas.
The enzyme nitrogenase enables nitrogen-fixing
bacteria to convert nitrogen to nitrogen-containing
compounds. Because oxygen inactivates this enzyme,
nitrogen-fixing microbes are typically anaerobic. For
example Rhizobium bacteria live in nodules on the roots
of legumes such as beans, peas and clover. Humans
contribute to the cycle by using nitrogen to produce nitrate
for fertilizers.
Biogeochemical cycles involve elements essential to
life. The nonessential elements pass back and forth
between organisms and environment and many of them
are involved in the general sedimentary cycle.

Worth-Remembering
Biogeochemical cycles show the more or less circular
paths of chemical elements passing back and forth between organisms and environment.
The rate at which vital elements become available to biological components of the ecosystem is more important in
determining primary and secondary productivity than
flow of solar energy.
If an essential element or compound is in short supply in
terms of potential growth, the substance may be said to be
a limiting factor.
The productivity of an entire ecosystem is sometimes limited by one material available in least amount in terms of
need. Thus water limits the desert ecosystem and nitrogen or phosphorus often limits ocean ecosystems.
From the standpoint of the biosphere as a whole, biogeochemical cycles fall into two groupsthe gaseous type
cycles, as illustrated by nitrogen cycle; and the sedimentary type cycle involving movement of the more earthbound
elements.

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following contributes to the carbon cycle ?
(A) Photosynthesis
(B) Fossil fuel combustion
(C) Respiration
(D) All of the above
2. Since the pathway by which
chemicals circulate through ecosystems involve both living and
nonliving areas, they are known
as
(A) Biogeochemical cycle
(B) Nutrient cycle
(C) Ecosystem
(D) Autecology
3. For each element or chemical,
the biogeochemical cycling process involves
(A) A reservoir
(B) An exchange pool
(C) Biotic community
(D) All of the above
4. How do plants contribute to the
carbon cycle ?
(A) When they photosynthesize,
they consume CO 2 from the
atmosphere
(B) When they respire, they
release CO2 into the atmosphere
(C) Both (A) and (B) are correct
(D) They do not contribute to the
carbon cycle
5. During water cycle, water falls on
land enters the
(A) Ground water
(B) Surface water

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 895

(C) Aquifers
(D) All of the above
6. Which of the following processes
maintain(s) the stable water
balance on the earth ?
(A) Evaporation
(B) Precipitation
(C) Surface run off
(D) All of the above
7. Nitrification is the production of
(A) Nitrates
(B) Nitrites
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Ammonium
8. In the phosphorus cycle, weathering makes phosphate available
to
(A) Consumers directly
(B) Producers
(C) Reservoirs
(D) None of the above
9. The main nitrogen reservoir in
the biosphere is the
(A) Organisms (B) Atmosphere
(C) Rocks
(D) Ocean
10. Phosphorus cycles in the form
of
(A) PO43
(B) HPO 3
(C) P2 (a gas) (D) All of these

ANSWERS

(Continued from Page 892 )

(B) -oxidation
(C) -oxidation
(D) Both (A) and (B)

6. Lipids or fats are a diverse group

of organic compounds found in
(A) Micro-organisms
(B) Plants
(C) Animals
(D) All of the above
7. Triglycerides are
sometimes
called
(A) Enzymes
(B) Cofactors
(C) Natures
storehouse of
energy
(D) All of the above
8. Palmitoleic fatty acid is obtained
from
(A) Pine oil
(B) Olive oil
(C) Marine algae
(D) Marine algae and pine oil
9. Which one of the following is a
polyunsaturated fatty acid ?
(A) Erucic acid
(B) Linoleic acid
(C) Oleic acid
(D) All of the above
10. How many fatty acids are found
in each molecule of triglyceride ?
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) One
(D) Six

ANSWERS

(C) Mechanical support

(D) All of the above
13. Treeless terrestrial biome of cold
climates is
(A) Taiga
(B) Savana
(C) Tundra
(D) Plankton
1. Two quite distinct designs of
cells are recognised. One, the
prokaryotic plan, is found in
(A) True algae
(B) All bacteria
(C) Blue-green algae
(D) Both (B) and (C)
2. Electron transport systems
(A) Are involved in the production of ATP
(B) Are found in both mitochondria and chloroplasts
(C) Release energy as electrons
are transferred
(D) All of the above are correct
3. Marine algae flourished well
during the period
(A) Ordovician (B) Devonian
(C) Permian
(D) Triassic
4. Massive trees in cold climates
survive the physical drought of
winter by having
(A) No leaves at all
(B) Xeromorphic leaves
(C) Hydromorphic leaves
(D) None of the above
5. The kigndomsMonera, Protista,
Fungi, Plantae and Animalia are
distinguished on the basis of
(A) Type of reproduction
(B) Type of cell
(C) Type of nutrition
(D) All of the above
6. In a section through a leaf of
maize both upper and lower
epidermal layers are
(A) Biseriate
(B) Uniseriate
(C) Multiseriate
(D) All of the above
7. Match Column A (Common
name) with Column B (Botanical
name) and select the correct
answer from the choice given
below
Column A (Common Name)
(a) Black gram (Urd)
(b) Green gram (Moong)

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 896

(c) Lentil (Masur)

(d) Broad bean (Bakla)
Column B (Botanical Name)
1. Phaseolus mungo
2. Lens culinaris
3. Vicia faba
4. Phaseolus aureus
(a)
(b)
(c) (d)
(A) 1
4
2
3
(B) 1
3
2
4
(C) 4
3
2
1
(D) 4
2
3
1
8. In many cells the regulation of
microtubule assembly is under
the control of the microtubule
organizing centre, called the
(A) Plasma membrane
(B) Nucleus
(C) Plasmodesmata
(D) Centrosome
9. Field capacity is
(A) Higher for sandy soils than
clay soils

14. Just behind the root cap is a

cluster of seemingly inactive cells
called the
(A) Quiescent centre
(B) Central core
(C) Dehiscent zone
(D) Indehiscent zone
15. A phenotypic effect dependent
on a change in position on the
chromosome of a gene or group
of genes is termed as
(A) Segregation
(B) Recombination
(C) Position effect
(D) Variation
16. In the conversion of pyruvic acid
to acetyl-coenzyme A, pyruvic
acid is
(A) Broken into carbon fragments
(B) Isomerized
(C) Oxidized
(D) Reduced

(D) The amount of water left in

the soil after drainage

17. Which of the following enzymes

recognizes particularly common
DNA lesions ?
(A) DNA polymerase
(B) DNA glycolysase
(C) RNA polymerase
(D) Nitrate reductase

10. Who among the following introduced the term pure line for the
first time ?
(A) Swamminathan
(B) Johannsen
(C) Borlaug
(D) Blakeslee

18. The maintenance and growth of

plant cells, tissues and organs on
a suitable culture medium in vitro
is termed
(A) Tissue culture
(B) Explant
(C) Centrifugation
(D) Regeneration

(B) The amount of water in soil

available to plants
(C) The same as permanent
wilting point

11. The conversion of nitrate to

nitrous oxide and nitrogen gas is
termed as
(A) Nitrogen fixation
(B) Denitrification
(C) Nitrification
(D) None of the above
12. Xylem in higher plants is instrumental for
(A) Conduction of water
(B) Conduction of solutes

19. The factors that govern the

hydrology of arid regions are
(A) Climatic
(B) Topographic
(C) Geologic
(D) All of the above
20. How many ascospores are contained in a single ascus in ascusfungi ?
(A) 1 or 2
(B) 2 or 3
(C) 3 or 4
(D) 4 or 8

21. Raphides are needle-like crystals

of calcium oxalate which are
specially found in
(A) Pistia
(B) Rose
(C) Asparagus (D) Dahlia
22. Which of the following would you
not expect to be a biotechnology
product ?
(A) DNA probe
(B) Steroid hormone
(C) Modified enzyme
(D) Protein hormone
23. Who proposed the signal hypothesis meant for the biosynthesis of secretory type
of proteins ?
(A) Baltimore
(B) Blobel and Sabatini
(C) Camillo Golgi
(D) Sheeler and Bianchi
24. In thallophyta, the thallus generally consists of
(A) Single cell
(B) Filament of cells
(C) Interwining filaments
(D) All of the above
25. The method most frequently
used to determine the molecular
weight of proteins is
(A) Classical chemistry
(B) X-ray diffraction
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Ultracentrifugation
26. The edible part of peach fruit is
(A) Endocarp
(B) Fleshy thalamus
(C) Epicarp and mesocarp
(D) Fleshy aril
27. Which of the following is grouped
under phanerogams ?
(A) Pteridophytes
(B) Gymnosperms
(C) Angiosperms
(D) Both (B) and (C)
28. Hymenopterous flowers are pollinated by
(A) Bees
(B) Wasps
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Air and water
29. Pinguicula is commonly known
as
(A) Sundew
(B) Butterwort

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 897

(C) Venus fly-trap

(D) Birds nest orchid
30. A molecule that binds to a
repressor, allowing the repressor
to bind to an operator in a
repressible operon is termed
(A) Promoter
(B) Operator
(C) Corepressor
(D) None of the above
31. During photosynthesis energy
capturing reactions and synthesis reactions occur respectively
in
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Thylakoids and stroma

Stroma and thylakoids
Both occur in stroma
Both occur in thylakoids

32. The study of how plants obtain

mineral elements, either through
water, air or soil, and utilize them
for their growth and development,
is called the
(A) Mineral nutrition
(B) Autotrophism
(C) Heterotrophism
(D) Assimilation
33. According to their mode of nutrition, the fungi are classified
into
(A) One category
(B) Two categories
(C) Four categories
(D) Six categories
34. Who among the following scientists pointed out that the plants
obtain a part of their nutrition
from the air and also suggested
that sunlight may play a role in
it ?
(A) Ingenhousz (B) Mayer
(C) Sachs
(D) Hales
35. The energy derived from enzyme
substrate interaction is called
(A) Constant energy
(B) Variable energy
(C) Binding energy
(D) Activation energy
36. Oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes from
(A) Photolysis of water (H 2O)
(B) Soil atmosphere
(C) CO2
(D) All of the above

37. T. Schwann and M. Schleiden

were
(A) Two English biologists
(B) Two German biologists
(C) Two Austrian biologists
(D) Two Dutch biologists
38. Autumn wood can be distinguished from spring wood by
(A) Red colour of xylem
(B) Presence of cambium
(C) Narrow
vessels
and
tracheids
(D) Broad vessels and tracheids
39. In protein synthesis, translation
requires
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Initiation of translation
Chain elongation
Chain termination
All of the above

40. Forest destruction leads to

(A) Loss of medicinal plant
(B) Loss of carbon dioxide sink
(C) Loss of biodiversity
(D) All of the above
41. A terminal bud contains
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Nodes only
Internodes only
Leaf primordia
All of the above

42. Britten and Davidson are associated with

(A) Phototropism invention
(B) Eukaryotic cell structure
(C) Eukaryotic gene regulation
(D) Genetic engineering in transgenic plants
43. Deoxytosine monophosphate is
a nucleotide of
(A) RNA
(B) DNA
(C) Both RNA and DNA
(D) None of the above
44. Caryophyllaceous corolla is found
in
(A) Dianthus
(B) Campestris
(C) Rose
(D) All of the above
45. Which of the following is a living
mechanical tissue ?
(A) Chlorenchyma
(B) Collenchyma

(C) Sclerenchyma
(D) Parenchyma
46. In coconut, the dispersal is due to
fibrous
(A) Epicarp
(B) Mesocarp
(C) Curved hooks
(D) Endocarp
47. When a fungus is able to pass its
complete life cycle on one host it
is called
(A) Autoecious
(B) Heterosporous
(C) Heterothallism
(D) Heteroecious
48. The leucoplasts are
(A) Green plastids
(B) Red plastids
(C) Colourless plastids
(D) Any type of colours (pigments)
49. During which stage of lytic cycle,
viral DNA and capsids are
assembled to produce several
hundred viral particles ?
(A) Biosynthesis (B) Maturation
(C) Penetration (D) Attachment
50. The sulphur-containing amino
acids are
(A) Methionine and tyrosine
(B) Cysteine and glycine
(C) Glycine and tyrosine
(D) Methionine and cysteine

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

(Continued on Page 908 )

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 898

14. The multilayered dermatogen in

root apex forming the root cap is
called
(A) Histogen (B) Periblem
(C) Protoderm (D) Calyptrogen
1. Match Column A (Botanical
name of certain insectivorous
plants) with Column B (Common
names) then select the correct
answer from the options given
below
Column A
(a) Drosera
(b) Dionoea
(c) Utricularia
(d) Nepenthes
Column B
1.
2.
3.
4.

Pitcher plant
Sundew
Bladerwort
Venus fly-trap

6. The worlds fastest-growing tree

is
(A) Sequoiadendron giganteum
(B) Eucalyptus deglupta
(C) Corypha umbraculifera
(D) Albizzia falcata
7. In which of the following plants
the whole leaf is modified into
tendril ?
(A) Lathyrus
(B) Pisum
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Gloriosa
8. Restorer gene for fertility is present in
(A) Nucleus (B) Ribosomes
(C) ER
(D) Polyribosomes

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(A) Ecosystem

(D)

(B) Eutrophication

2. Genes not located within the

nucleus are almost always found
in the
(A) Cytosol
(B) Cell membranes
(C) Cytoskeleton
(D) Both (B) and (C)
3. Which of the following elements
are essential for photolysis of
water ?
(A) Ca and Cl
(B) Mg and P
(C) Mn and Cl
(D) Zn and Iodine
4. In an upright pyramid of biomass,
the herbivores generally occupy
the position
(A) First

(B) Second

(C) Third

(D) Fourth

5. Fleshy adventitious roots are

found in
(A) Onion and potato
(B) Turnip and wheat
(C) Sweet potato and Dahlia
(D) Carrot and radish

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 899

9. Unity of life is explained easily

by

(C) Mutation
(D) Descent from a common
ancestor
10. Bacteria do not possess
(A) Mitochondria
(B) Plasma membrane
(C) Cell wall
(D) All of the above
11. Carnauba wax is found in
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Prunus amygladus
Brassica napus
Both (A) and (B)
None of the above

12. Small dry one-seeded fruit developing from superior monocarpellary ovary with the pericarp
fused with seed coat is called
(A) Caryopsis (B) Nut
(C) Cypsela
(D) Achene
13. Floridian starch is the reserve
food material of
(A) Claviceps
(B) Cyanobacteria
(C) Volvox
(D) None of the above

15. Plants, such as clover and

beans, that have nitrogen fixing
bacteria in their roots are in
which of the following families ?
(A) Asteraceae
(B) Leguminosae
(C) Solanaceae
(D) None of the above
16. A cell-coded protein, that is formed in response to viral infection, is
(A) Antibody
(B) Antigen
(C) Histogen (D) Interferon
17. Some chromosomes are distinguished by blob-like ends
called
(A) Euchromatin
(B) Heterochromatin
(C) Centromeres
(D) Satellites
18. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding
restriction fragment length polymorphisms ?
(A) They can be subjected to
get electrophoresis
(B) They
identify individuals
genetically
(C) They are the basis for DNA
fingerprints
(D) All of the above
19. Microsomes are generally produced from
(A) Golgi apparatus
(B) Endoplasmic reticulum
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
20. Special proteins that help to unwind DNA double helix in front of
the replication fork, are called
(A) DNA ligase
(B) DNA topoisomerase
(C) DNA polymerase
(D) None of the above
21. In plants, bacteria and fungi, the
proton pump in cells creates a
negative membrane potential by
transporting which ion from the
cytoplasm to extracellular fluid ?
(A) Na +
(B) Ca 2+
+
(C) K
(D) H+

22. Enzymes which catalyse reactions involving electron transfer

are called
(A) Ligases
(B) Transferases
(C) Hydrolases
(D) Oxidoreductases
23. The determination of climatic
conditions of the geological past
by study of the fossils is called
(A) Sedimentology
(B) Palaeontology
(C) Palaeoecology
(D) None of the above
24. Enzymes with two sites are
called
(A) Conjugate
(B) Allosteric
(C) Holoenzyme
(D) Apoenzyme
25. Honey, that has a high concentration of sugar, does not decay
because
(A) Bacteria in honey are totally
deprived of oxygen

29. Greenhouse effect is chiefly due

to
(A) NO2
(B) CO2
(C) CO
(D) FeS 2
30. The bending of the stem tip
towards the unilateral light is
because
(A) Higher
concentration of
auxin on the shaded side
(B) Gibberellins get destroyed
(C) Translocation of gibberellin
cannot occur
(D) Plant
cannot synthesize
gibberellin
31. The term oenology is applied for
the study of
(A) Drugs
(B) Olefins
(C) Fermentation (D) Wines
32. Which one of the following alternatives represents the gametophytic phase in Pinus ?
(A) Zygote
(B) Male and female cones
(C) Pinus plant
(D) Microspores and megaspores

(B) It contains natural antioxidant that prevents bacterial

attack
(C) Bacteria do not survive in
an active state in a solution
of high osmotic strength, as
water is drawn out from
bacteria
(D) Honey is viscous

33. Crossing-over is an exchange of

genetic material between
(A) Non-sister chromatids of bivalent during meiosis-II
(B) Sister chromatids of a bivalent during meiosis-I
(C) Non-sister chromatids of bivalent during meiosis-I
(D) Sister chromatids of bivalents during both meiosis-I
and-II

26. Which of the following is/are

grouped under archaebacteria ?
(A) Methanogenic bacteria
(B) Extreme halophiles
(C) Thermoacidophiles
(D) All of the above

34. According to the Unit membrane

model, the thickness of the cell
membrane is about
(A) 1 nm
(B) 75 nm
(C) 150 nm
(D) 200 nm

27. During ATP synthesis electrons

pass through
(A) Cytochrome
(B) CO2
(C) O2
(D) Phytochrome
28. Which of the following RNAs has
the highest molecular weight ?
(A) m-RNA
(B) r-RNA
(C) t -RNA
(D) All have the same molecular
weight

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 900

35. In which of the following plants

the amphivasal vascular bundles
are reported ?
(A) Salvia
(B) Dracaena
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Mangifera
36. Which of these give a possible
sequence of organic chemicals
prior to the protocell ?
(A) Water, salts, protein, oxygen
(B) Inorganic
gases, amino
acids, polypeptide, microsphere

(C) Inorganic gases, nucleotides, nucleic acids, genes

(D) Both (B) and (C)
37. The unit to measure the distance
in chromosome is
(A) Nanometer
(B) Cm
(C) Mm
(D) Centimorgan
38. Which of the following structures
of bacteria is associated with
DNA transfer during sexual
reproduction ?
(A) Sex pili
(B) Capsule
(C) Mesosome
(D) None of the above
39. The chemical fertilizer required
for better rhizobial nitrogen fixation is
(A) Ca
(B) Na
(C) K
(D) P
40. Which of the following is a free
living nitrogen-fixing organism ?
(A) Rhizobium
(B) Thiobacillus
(C) Nitrosomonas
(D) Azotobacter
41. For each molecule of glucose
respired, tricarboxylic acid cycle
must rotate
(A) Five times
(B) Three times
(C) Two times
(D) Six times as glucose is a 6carbon compound
42. Nitrogen base that pairs with
adenine (A) in RNA is
(A) Cytosine (C)
(B) Uracil (U)
(C) Thymine (T)
(D) Guanine (G)
43. Against which foreign organism
(antigen), antibiotic is effective ?
(A) Fungal infection
(B) Virus
(C) Protozoan infection
(D) Bacterial infection
44. Aerenchyma is the characteristic
of
(A) All xerophytes
(B) Lithophyte
(C) Sciophyte
(D) Hydrophytes

45. The points at which crossingover have taken place between

homologous chromosomes are
called
(A) Synaptonemal complex
(B) Centromere
(C) Chiasmata
(D) Protein axes
46. Who proposed the copy choice
theory of crossing over ?
(A) Morgan
(B) Bateson and Punnett
(C) Belling
(D) Schwanson
47. Directional selection favours
(A) One extreme form over the
other extreme form and over
intermediate forms of a trait
(B) Both extreme forms of a trait
(C) Environmental differences
(D) Intermediate forms of a trait
48. Convulsive and hallucinogenic
ergotism are caused by
(A) Fungus
(B) Virus
(C) Bacterium (D) PPLO
49. The electron transport system is
sometimes called a cytochrome
system in
(A) Mitochondria
(B) Chloroplasts
(C) Ribosomes
(D) Nucleus
50. Corn smut disease is caused
by
(A) Mycoplasma (B) Bacteria
(C) Virus
(D) Fungi

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 901

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A)

is given and a corresponding statement of Reason (R) is given just
below it. Of the statements, mark
the correct answer as
(A) If both A and R are true
and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) If both A and R are true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) If A is true but R is false
(D) If both A and R are false
(E) If A is false but R is true

PHYSICS
1. Assertion (A) : The ratio Cp /Cv
for a diatomic gas is more than
that for a monoatomic gas.
Reason (R) : The molecules of a
monoatomic gas have more
degrees of freedom than those of
a diatomic gas.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
2. Assertion (A) : When

then P must be perpendicular to

Q.
Reason (R) : The relation will

hold even when Q is a null

vector.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
3. Assertion (A) : When two electrons are brought close to each
other, the electrical potential
energy increases.
Reason (R) : Work must be done
against electrical force of repulsion between them.
(B)

(C)

(D)

Reason (R) : Voltmeter is connected in series with the resistance across which voltage drop
is to be measured.
(A)

(B)

(E)

4. Assertion (A) : The value of

Acceleration due to gravity at a
1
height h = R will be th of the
4
value of g on the surface of earth.
Reason (R) : It follows from
2h
g = g 1
R
(B)

(C)

(D)

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 902

(D)

(E)

6. Assertion (A) : An electron

moves from rest from a point at
which potential is 10V to another
point at which potential is 30V.
Its K.E. at the second point will
be 32 10 18 J.
Reason (R) :
K. E. = W = e (V2 V1)
= 16 10 19 (30 10)
= 32 10 18 J
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

7. Assertion (A) : If a conducting

medium is placed between two
charges, then the electrical force
between them becomes zero.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Reason (R) : =
(A)

(B)

1
= tan ip
sin C

(C)

(D)

(E)

9. Assertion (A) : Pascals law is

the working principle of a hydraulic
lift.
Reason (R) : Thrust generated is
equal to pressure area.
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

10. Assertion (A) : A reversible engine working between 127C and

227C cannot have efficiency
more than 20%.
Reason (R) : Under ideal conditions

n = 1
(E)

(E)

8. Assertion (A) : Polarising angle

(ip) and critical angle ( c ) are
related as tan ip = cosec C.

( )

(A)

(C)

Reason (R) : The dielectric constant for conductors is infinite.

| P + Q | = | P Q |,

(A)

5. Assertion (A) : Ammeter is

always connected in parallel with
a branch in which the current is to
be measured.

(A)

(B)

(C)

T2
T1
(D)

(E)

CHEMISTRY
11. Assertion (A) : The energy of an
electron is mainly determined by
the value of its principal quantum
number.
Reason (R) : The principal quantum number, n is a measure of
the most probable distance of
finding the electron around the
nucleus.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
12. Assertion (A) :
[ CH2CH
(C6H5
] n is an important copolymer and it is also known as
condensation polymer.
Reason (R) : If a mixture of more
than one monomeric species is
allowed to polymerise, a copolymer is formed.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
13. Assertion (A) : Fluorine atom has
capacity to oxidise other elements
to their highest oxidation state.
Reason (R) : Fluoride ion has a
small size and on account of the
same, it is rather difficult to oxidise
fluoride ion to fluorine atom.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
14. Assertion (A) : There is only one
atom per unit cell in a primitive
cubic unit cell of a crystal lattice.
Reason (R) : In a simple cubic
structure of a lattice, there are
eight corner atoms which are
shared between eight units.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
15. Assertion (A) : Phenoxide ion is
a stronger base as compared to
ethoxide ion.
Reason (R) : Phenol is a stronger
acid in comparison of ethanol.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
16. Assertion (A) : At a freezing
point of a solvent, the solid and
liquid are in equilibrium and it is
possible only if they have same
vapour pressure.
Reason (R) : A solution will
freeze when its vapour pressure
equals the vapour pressure of
pure solid solvent and for this it is
necessary to lower the temperature of the solution.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

17. Assertion (A) : A triester of

glycerol with a higher fatty acid
gives a solid mass having a
greasy touch on boiling with
aqueous NaOH.
Reason (R) : Glycerol, a trihydric
alcohol, is formed when its triester
is hydrolysed with aqueous
NaOH.
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

18. Assertion (A) : The detergent

molecules associated with highly
branched hydrocarbon chain as
tail are a source of water pollution.
Reason (R) : The hydrocarbon
side chain stops bacteria from
attacking and breaking the
chains.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
19. Assertion (A) : The equivalent
mass of nitrogen (N2) in the reaction, N2 NH3 will be 28/3.
Reason (R) : The oxidation number of nitrogen atom changes from
0 to 3.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
20. Assertion (A) : 2-acetoxy benzoic acid is a most commonly
used tranquilizer.
Reason (R) : Tranquilizers form
an important category of the
psychotherapeutic drugs.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

ZOOLOGY
21. Assertion (A) : The nature of the
skeleton is an important characteristic in sponge taxonomy.
Reason (R) : Sponges are supported by a skeleton that may
consist of microscopic needle-like
spikes called spicules, which take
on a variety of shapes.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
22. Assertion (A) : Cartilage (protein
matrix) and bone (calcium matrix)
are rigid connective tissue.
Reason (R) : Blood is connective
tissue in which plasma is the
matrix.
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

23. Assertion (A) : A threshold

stimulus is the minimum stimulus
needed to stimulate a muscle cell
to contract.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 903

Reason (R) : The all-or-none law

states that a muscle cell contracts
maximally or not at all.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
24. Assertion (A) : Two pairs of
factors are located in two pairs of
homologous chromosomes in
dihybrid cross.
Reason (R) : Two pairs of factors
are present in each homologous
pair of chromosome.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
25. Assertion (A) : In the dairy
industry, thermoduric bacteria are
regarded as those which do not
survive pasteurization.
Reason (R) : Microorganisms of
this category are not extremely
troublesome from the stand point
of producing raw milk.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
26. Assertion (A) : Arousal is general
causal factor invoked to account
for the fact that animals a variably
alert and responsive to potential
stimuli.
Reason (R) : Physiological processes which facilitate certain
behaviours, include hormone
release
and
endogenous
rhythms. Both may then be said
to be arousal mechanism or to
affect motivation.
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

30. Assertion (A) : The hormone

aldosterone is secreted by adrenal
cortex after the low sodium ion of
the blood and this causes the
kidneys to release renin.
Reason (R) : The presence of
renin leads to the formation of
angiotensin II, which causes the
adrenal cortex to release aldosterone.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

BOTANY
31. Assertion (A) : There are two
principal translocatory systems in
the vascular bundles of plants.
Reason (R) : The xylem vessels
are lignified, thick-walled dead
cells, whereas the tube cells are
thin-walled and living cells.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
32. Assertion (A) : Intercellular
spaces usually are found among
meristematic cells.
Reason (R) : In meristematic
cells, the cells may be rounded
or polygonal in shape.
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

33. Assertion (A) : Horsetails resemble horses tails.

Reason (R) : A rhizome produces
aerial stems that stand about 1 to
15 metres.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

27. Assertion (A) : Plasmids are

extra-chromosomal
singlestranded DNA.

34. Assertion (A) : The innermost

distinct layer of cortex is termed
as endodermis.

Reason (R) : Only eukaryotic

multicellular cells possess plasmids.

Reason (R) : The cells of endodermis are non-living and characterised by the presence of
casparian strips.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

28. Assertion (A) : Infection of AIDS

destroys bodys capacity to fight
foreign agents of infections.
Reason (R) : The HIV virus
infects and eventually kills helper
T-cells of the bodys immune
system.
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

29. Assertion (A) : Evolution by

natural selection does not require
variation.
Reason (R) : Because many of
the differences are heritable
genetic differences.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

35. Assertion (A) : Germination in

jack-fruit is hypogynous type.
Reason (R) : When the epicotyl
grows first only the plumule is
pushed out of the soil while the
cotyledonary node and all other
parts remain under the soil. This
is hypogeal germination.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
36. Assertion (A) : Stomata usually
open in the light and close in
darkness.
Reason (R) : Light affects transpiration because it is directly

involved in opening and closing

of stomata.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

38. Assertion (A) : The sieve tube

elements of phloem are not
arranged end to end.

37. Assertion (A) : In mycorrhizae,

the fungal tissue which surround
the plant root is known as fungal
sheath.
Reason (R) : Fungi usually have
chitin-containing cell walls.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

Reason (R) : Each element is

joined to the next by a sieve
plate.
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

39. Assertion (A) : Energy for ATP

synthesis is not derived from a
hydrogen ion gradient.

Reason (R) : Hydrogen ion gradient are not established across

the membrane.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
40. Assertion (A) : All the various
genes of a population make up its
gene pool.
Reason (R) : The HardyWeinberg equilibrium is a constancy of gene pool.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

(Continued on Page 908 )

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 904

temperatures T1 and T2 is shown in the figure. The

temperature T 2 is greater than T1.

Physics
1. When a silicon semiconductor is doped with a boron
atom, it behaves as P-type semiconductor.
T/F
2. The difference between the length of a certain brass
rod and that of a steel rod is claimed to be constant at
all temperatures.
T/F
3. By applying magnetic field -rays can be deviated.
T/F

) ( )

Va
T/F
15. Green glass when heated to high temperature emits
red light.

Chemistry
T/F

5. If an ideal gas expands adiabatically, it does positive

work and its internal energy decreases.
T/F
6. The root mean square speeds of the molecules of
different ideal gases, maintained at the same
temperature are the same.
T/F
7. Sun radiation is warm because it contains ultraviolet
rays.
T/F
8. Two rods A and B are of equal length. Each rod has
its ends at temperature T1 and T2. Then rate of flow
of heat through the rods A and B is equal.
T/F
9. Kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted from any
surface varies linearly with the frequency of the light
incident on the surface.
T/F
10. The focal length of a lens is the same for lights of all
colours.
T/F
11. When electric current flows through a metallic wire,
electric charge flows through the wire at a speed of
the order of a few millimeters per second.
T/F
12. A converging lens in one medium can be diverging in
another medium.
T/F
13. Emission of -particle from a radioactive atom
changes its atomic number.
T/F
14. For a diode the variation of its anode current (Ia) with
the anode voltage (Va) at two different cathode

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 905

T1

T/F

4. The efficiency of a Carnot engine is given by

Q2
T2
= 1
= 1
Q1
T1

T2

Ia

16. The decreasing order of electron affinity of F, Cl, Br is

F > Cl > Br
T/F
17. Squashes are stored in bottles after adding sodium
metabisulphite.
T/F
18. Photobromination of 2-methyl propane gives a
mixture of 1-bromo-2-methyl propane and 2-bromo-2methyl propane in the ratio 9 : 1.
T/F
19. Ferrous sulphate (FeSO4.7 H2O) is known as blue
vitriol or Mohrs salt.
T/F
20. The tendency of catenation is much higher in case of
carbon than silicon.
T/F
21. The green colour of chromic hydroxide becomes
yellow on reacting with NaOH in presence of H2O2.
T/F
22. The enol form of CH 3COCH2COCH3 is stabilized
through intramolecular hydrogen bonding.
T/F
23. Homologues can never be isomeric.
T/F
24. The formula of deep red gas formed on warming
potassium dichromate with KCl in conc. H2SO4 is
H2Cr2O7.HCl.
T/F
25. Formic acid is weaker acid as compared to acetic
acid.
T/F
26. The major role of fluorspar (CaF2) which is added in
small quantities in electrolytic reduction of alumina

27.
28.

29.
30.

dissolved in fused cryolite is to lower the temperature

of the melt.
T/F
FF bond is less stronger than ClCl bond.
T/F
Caesium (Cs) is an important material used in solar
cells.
T/F
Carbon atom in CHO group is sp3 hybridised.
T/F
3+
The aqueous solution ferric ion (Fe(aq)
) is fairly basic
because it acts as a source of hydroxide ions (OH ).
T/F

Zoology
31. The hippocampus of human brain consolidates shortterm memories into long-term memories.
T/F
32. The parathyroid glands release parathyroid hormone
which decreases calcium levels in blood.
T/F
33. Encephalins and endorphins are natural painkillers.
T/F
34. Genetic drift is random change in the gene pool of
small populations resulting from death, migration, or
isolation.
T/F
35. Genes coding for proteins are regulatory genes, and
genes controlling regulatory genes are structural
genes.
T/F
36. Individuals affected by Klinefelter's syndrome are
males only.
T/F
37. Polygenic inheritance occurs when several separate
genes control a single phenotypic trait.
T/F
38. Human karyotype can be best prepared at metaphase
stage of cell division.
T/F
39. The phenotype includes traits which can be observed, measured, or analyzed. The genotype includes
the genes for the traits of the phenotype.
T/F
40. Prosmian is a group of primates that includes apes
and humans.
T/F
41. Connective tissues bind organs together, support and
insulate the body, and store energy.
T/F
42. A conserved DNA sequence of 180 base pairs
encodes a protein domain in many proteins.
T/F

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 906

43. Tissue membranes include serous (closed cavities),

mucous (open passage ways), cutaneous (body surface) and synovial (joint cavities) membranes.
T/F
44. Epitope is an antibody determinant.
T/F
45. First-degree burns are limited to the epidermis and
second-degree burns injure the epidermis, dermis
and penetrate to the hypodermis and below.
T/F

Botany
46. In the year 1928-29 the Dutch plant physiologist Went
finally proved the existence of a chemical transmitter.
T/F
47. Lock and Key hypothesis can be misleading when
applied to the question of enzymatic catalysis.
T/F
48. A mycorrhiza is a mutualistic association between
green algae and fungi.
T/F
49. Eolian landforms are topographic features generated
by the wind.
T/F
50. The fruit of cereals is mostly referred to as caryopsis.
T/F
51. The family of Leguminosae is divided into three subfamilies on the basis of calyx and gynoecium
arrangements.
T/F
52. The point of contact where crossing over occurs is
called a chiasma.
T/F
53. Ca and Mg are microelements because they are
required only in extreme small quantities by plants.
T/F
54. A cover providing protection to root cap is called
tunica.
T/F
55. Chemiosmotic theory does not provide the intellectual
framework for understanding many biological energy
transductions.
T/F
56. In eukaryotes nucleus stores genetic information.
T/F
57. Germplasm protection at a very low temperature is
known as cryopreservation.
T/F
58. A normal human karyotype shows 22 pairs of
autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes.
T/F
59. The plasma membrane is followed by the colloidal
fluid of called endoplasm.
T/F
60. The lytic cycle is not divided into any stages.
T/F

Physics

charge is called Mechanical force or

Electrostatic pressure.

Q. Why does the glow of lamps

becomes weaker when a heavycurrent appliance is switched on in
the house ?
The connection of heavy
current appliance decreases the total
resistance of the system in the room
as it is connected is parallel. Hence
current increases, thereby increasing
the voltage drop across the lines and
hence p.d. of line decreases.

2
1
dF
=
= . E2
d S 20 2 0

Q. What is Thomson effect ?

The absorption or evolution of
heat along the length of a conductor
when current is passed through it
whose one end is hot and the other is
cold is known as Thomson effect.
Thomson effect for lead is zero and it
is positive for the metals below lead
and negative for metals above lead in
Seebeck series. The amount of heat
energy absorbed or evolved per
second between two points of a conductor having a unit temperature
difference when a unit current is
passed is known as Thomson coefficient for the material of the conductor.
This is denoted by .
Heat energy evolved or absorbed
= (Charge flowing) (Temp. difference)

Q. Why dont we consider the

drift velocity of positive ions ?
The positive ions in a conductor also experience a force in the presence of an electric field. Since the
positive ions are heavy and tightly
bound in the metal they are hardly
able to move making the drift velocity
of the positive ions negligibly small.
Q. What are polycrystals ?
A polycrystals is an aggregate
of monocrystals joined together. A
monocrystal is very small and its
features cannot be seen with the
naked eye.
Q. What is the nature of force
between two parallel current-carrying conductors ?
When the currents in the wires
are in the same direction, the forces
between them are attractive.
If the current are in opposite
directions, the two wires repel each
other. Force per unit length of the
wires is given by
0I 1I 2
F
=
l
2a

Q. Why God has gifted us two

eyes instead of one ?
Our right eye sees more of the
right side of the object and the left eye
sees more of the left side of the
object. The impressions gathered by
the two eyes fuse into one impression
in the brain. So, we have a proper
idea of the solidity of the object being
viewed. Moreover, the two eyes help
us to properly estimate the distance of
the object.
Q. Why the light of a motor car
becomes slightly dim when the car
is started ?
Initially, the starter draws a
high current from the battery. This
causes a large voltage drop across
the internal resistance of the battery.
Consequently, the potential difference
across the terminals of the battery is
reduced, thereby making lights dim.
Q. A plane glass plate is constructed by combining a planoconvex lens and a plano-concave
lens of different materials as shown
in figure. Will it act as a lens ? If so
what will be its focal length and
nature ?

As C and D are refractive

indices of convergent and divergent
lens respectively and R the radius of
curvature of common interface, by
lens makers formula

Q. What is the principle of

spin-dry cycle in an automatic
washing machine ?
In spin-dry cycle, the wet cloth
is made to revolve rapidly about an
axis and the water particles fly-off the
cloth tangentially. This causes quick
drying.
Q. What is Photon flux ?

The number of photons crossing unit area normally per sec is

called photon-flux and is given by
Energy-flux
Photon flux =
Photon-energy
I
=
E
Q. What is Electrostatic pressure ?
Force per unit area on the
surface of a conductor due to its own

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 909

Q. A metal sphere is held fixed

on a smooth horizontal insulated
plate and another metal sphere is
placed some distance away. If the
fixed sphere is given a charge, how
will the other sphere react ?
When the fixed sphere is given
a charge, it induces opposite charge
on the nearer end of the other sphere
and similar charge on its further end.
The net force is attractive in nature.
So, the free sphere will be accelerated
towards the fixed sphere.

1
= (C 1)
fC
=
and

(C 1)
R

1
= (D 1)
fD

1
1

(1)

1
1

( D 1)
(2)
R
Now as the lenses are in contact
1
1
1
=
+
F
fC
fD
(C D)
=
R
=

i.e.,

F =

R
(C D)

As C D, the system will act as

a lens. The system will behave as
convergent lens if C > D (as its focal
length will be positive) and as divergent lens if C < D (as F will be negative).
Q. Why is the element of a
heater very hot while the wires
carrying the same current are not ?
Explain.
As element of heater is in
series with the current carrying wires,
current is same for both. Now as :
P = I 2R
i.e.,
P R
[as I is same]
and as R H >> R W , PH >> PW i.e.,
heater will dissipate more power than
wires and so will be much hotter.
Q. Two identical co-axial circular loops carry equal currents circulating in the same direction. What
will happen to the current in each
loop if the loops approach each
other.
As the field at an axial point
due to a current carrying coil is given
by
0
2NIR2
B =
2
2 3/2
4 (R + x )
So the coil approach each other the
flux linked with each coil increases.
So in accordance with Lenzs law a
current will be induced in each coil
which will try to decrease the flux, i.e.,
the induced current in each coils will
be opposite to initial current. So, the
current in each coil will decrease as
the coil approach each other.
X
I

C1

C2

(A)
Y
I'

The
stoichiometric compounds, where the number of different types of atoms or ions are present exactly in the ratio indicated by
their chemical formula are called
Daltonide compounds. The nonstoichiometric compounds where the
chemical composition of a compound
is variable or not constant, are known
as Bertholide compound.
Q. What is isoelectronic principle ?
Isoelectronic species are
those which have same number of
electrons. Such species have similar
structure. This may be extended
to species with the same number
of valence electrons. Thus BF4,
CH4, NH4+ are all tetrahedral, CO32,
NO3 and SO3 are all planar triangular and CO2, N 3 and NO2+ are
all linear.
Q. Why a catalyst is generally
needed when an organic compound is reduced with hydrogen ?
The lack of reactivity of hydrogen is related to the strength of HH
bond. An essential step in H2 reacting
with another compound is breaking of
HH bond to produce atoms of
hydrogen. This requires 4359 kJ
mol 1, and there is high activation
energy to such reactions. Hence most
of reactions of hydrogen involve
heterogeneous catalysis where catalyst first react with H2 and either
breaks or weakens the HH bond
and thus lowers the activation energy.
Q. What is inorganic benzene ?
Borazine, B3N3H6 is called
inorganic benzene because its
structure shows some formal similarities with benzene, with delocalized
electrons and aromatic nature. The
physical properties are also almost
similar. Borazine is comparatively
more reactive than benzene and
addition reactions occur quite readily
B3N3H6 + 3 HCl B3N3H9Cl3
H
|
B

I'

C1

C2

(B)

Chemistry
Q. What is the difference between Daltonide and Bertholide
compounds ?

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 910

H N
|
H B

N H
H N
|

|
BH
H B

H
|

N H
||
BH

N
N
|
|
H
H
1444444424444443
Borazine

Q. Why carbon disulphide

(CS2) is stored in dark coloured
bottles ?
CS2 is a colourless liquid, b.p.
46C. It has a very low flash point
(30C). Sunlight changes CS2 to CS
and that is why it is stored in dark
coloured bottles. CS is, unlike CO
very reactive even at the liquid air
temperature.
Q. What are the uses of soluble
glass ?

Sodium or potassium silicates

[Na4SiO4, (Na2SiO3)n etc.] are called
soluble silicates as these are soluble
in water. They are used in liquid
detergents to keep the pH high, so
that grease and fat can be dissolved
by forming a soap. Sodium silicate is
also used as an adhesive, in
asbestos roof tiles, in fireproof paint
and putty and in making silica gel.
Q. Which salts are responsible
for blue baby syndrome ?

There is a grave and growing

concern that nitrates are harmful in
drinking water. They cause a disease
in babies called methaemoglobinaemia, which reduces the amount of
oxygen in the babys blood. In
extreme forms this causes the blue
baby syndrome. There is also concern that nitrates could be linked with
stomach cancer.
Q. trans-2-butene is more stable than cis-2-butene which in turn
is more stable than 1-butene,
why ?

This order of stability can be

explained in terms of steric effect
and hyperconjugation . In 1-butene
(CH3CH2CH == CH2) the steric
repulsion is practically absent. In
2-butenes, the two methyl groups
CH3
CH3
in cis-isomer
C
C
H
H
being closer together than in transCH3
H
isomer
C
C
expeCH3
H
rience greater repulsion and consequently the cis-form is under greater
strain than trans form. The steric
effect destabilises a molecule. This
trans -2-butene is more stable than
cis-2-butene.
On the other hand hyperconjugation stabilises the molecule and is

smallest in 1-butene but much larger

in 2-butenes. Since hyperconjugation
has greater stabilising effect than
steric destabilising effect, 1-butene is
the least stable. The order of stability
is as :
trans-2-butene > cis-2-butene
> 1-butene
Q. How is the partial pressure
of a gas in a mixture of two gases
is related with mole-fraction ?
If P(N2) is the partial pressure
of N 2 in a mixture of N2 and SO2, then
RT
P(N2) = n(N2) .
V
(n(N2) = No. of moles of N 2)
Pmixture = (n(N2) + n(SO2)) .

RT
V

Dividing we get
PN2
n(N2)
=
=
Pmixture
n(N2) + n(SO2) (N2)
((N2) = mole fraction of N 2)
or

P(N2) = (N2) Pmixture

Thus partial pressure of N2 in the

given mixture is the product of its mole
fraction and total pressure of mixture.
Q. What is the difference
between isolated and closed
systems ?
A system is said to be isolated
if it cannot exchange matter and
energy with surroundings. However,
there is no perfectly isolated system,
but a system which is thermally well
insulated is said to be isolated. For
example coffee in a stoppered
thermos flask is isolated system.
A system is said to be closed if it
can exchange energy (heat or work)
but not the matter. Coffee in a closed
steel vessel is an example of closed
system because energy can be
gained or lost through steel walls but
not the matter.
Q. Why do detergent molecules
having branched chain hydrocarbon tail cause pollution ?
The detergent molecules associated with branched hydrocarbon tail
are a source of pollution. The hydrocarbon side chain stops bacteria from
attacking and breaking the chains.
This results in low degradation of
detergent molecules leading to their
accummulation. These days the
amount of branching is kept to a minimum. Unbranched chains are more
prone to attack by bacteria so the

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 911

detergents are more easily biodegraded and pollution is prevented.

Q. Which
inorganic compounds of sulphur are used as
antioxidants in food preservation ?
The compounds which retards
the action of oxygen on food are generally known as antioxidants. They also
reduce the formation of free radicals.
Sulphur dioxide and sulphite are useful antioxidants for wines, bears, sugar
syrups and cut peeled or dried fruits
and vegetables.
Q. Who did open the door to a
wonderful natural healer ?
Alexander
Fleming did
pioneering work in bacteriology. He
discovered natural bodily secretions,
which could combat harmful microbes.
He discovered a chemical substance,
called penicillin which could destroy
certain microbes in the body. Thus
Fleming opened the door to a wonderful natural healer. In 1945, he
received Nobel prize for discovery of
penicillin.
Q. What is the adrenaline ?

It is a hormone having following structure :

HO
HO

OH
|
C H
|
CH2NHCH 3

This hormone is released into the

blood stream when an animal senses
danger. It causes an increase in blood
pressure and a widening of passages
of the lungs. All these effects prepare
the animal to fight or to flee.

Zoology
Q. How bone grows ?

Bones elongate by appositional growth at the epiphyseal plates

under hormonal control (e.g., growth
hormone). New cartilage cells are
generated on the epiphyseal side of
the plate and the older cartilage cells
are destroyed and replaced by bone
on the shaft side of the plate (thus
plate has a constant thickness but the
length of the shaft increases). Growth
in diameter occurs when osteoblasts
from the periosteum add new bone to
the outer surface of the bone while
osteoclasts erode bone material
inside the shaft and so enlarge the
marrow cavity.

Q. What is Mosaic Evolution ?

A species might be thought of
a mosaic of different molecules and
structures that have evolved at different rates. Some molecules or structures are conserved in evolution,
while others change more rapidly.
The basic design of a bird provides a
simple example. All birds are easily
recognizable as because of highly
conserved structures, such as feathers, bills and a certain body form.
Particular parts of birds, however, are
less conservative and have a higher
rate of change. Wings have been
modified for hovering, soaring and
swimming. Similarly, legs have been
modified for wading, swimming and
perching. These are examples of
mosaic evolution.
Q. What is muscle sliding filament model ?
When a striped muscle contracts, the filament (which do not
change length) slide past each other.
In each sarcomere, the many globular
myosin heads which project laterally
along each end of the heavy myosin
filament attach to the actin filament
and change conformation. The myosin pulls at the actin filaments adjacent to it. The myosin heads have
been energetically charged, adopting
a conformation in which they can bind
to actin. This binding elicits the conformational change that provides the
force for filament sliding and exposes
an ATP-binding site. ATP binding
causes an allosteric (shape) change
that promotes detachment of the
head from actin. Dephosphorylation
of ATP provides the energy to reestablish the actin binding; thus the
process is repeated many times
(each using on ATP molecule) and
the myosin pulls along the actin filament in a ratchet fashion. Since the
ends of each myosin filament pull in
opposite directions, towards the
sarcomere centre, the myosin pulls
the two actin regions closer and with
them the Z lines, thus whole muscle
contracts.
Q. What is Food Chain and
Food Web ?
All trophic levels in an ecosystem are connected by transfer of
food or energy. The transfer of energy
from one trophic level (e.g., producers)
to the next trophic level (e.g., consumers) is called food chain. Two

types of food chains can be distinguished in all ecosystems, grazing

food chain and detritus food chain.
Grazing food chain extends from producers through herbivores to carnivores. Cattle grazing in grasslands,
deer browsing in forest, and insects
feeding on crops and trees, are most
common biotic constituents of the
grazing food chain detritus food chain
begins with dead organic matter and
passes through detritus-feeding organisms in soil to organisms feeder on
detritus-feeders. A much larger fraction of energy flows through the
detritus food chain. Different food
chains are often interconnected, e.g.,
a specific herbivore of one food chain
may serve as food of carnivores of
several other food chains. Such interconnected matrix of food chains is
called food web.
Q. What is Mimicry ?
Two species resemble each
other closely, one species is called the
mimic, is palatable to its predators,
but resembles another species, called
the model, which is distasteful to the
predator. In Batesian mimicry, the
mimic is defenseless, but has antipredatory marks like the model which has
a defense against predators; hence,
the mimic is able to protect itself from
the attack of the predator. Similarly,
the monarch butterfly (containing
poison, toxic to predator) is mimicked
by the viceroy butterfly (containing no
poison). Mullerian mimicry is the
process when the mimic shares the
same defensive mechanism as the
model.
Q. What is called the throne of
Immunity ?

Thymus gland plays a key role

in immunity and is also called the
throne of immunity or training school
of T-lymphocytes. Hormones produced by the thymus gland is called
thymosin. Thymosin released in the
blood stream has a stimulating effect
on the entire immune system. It promotes proliferation and maturation of
T-lymphocytes. If one gets severe
dose of radiation, enough to knock out
immune system, thymosin might be
life-saver, stimulating the spleen and
other organs that had shut down to
get back into production. Thymosin
production decreases with advancing
age and entirely ceases by about 50
years.
C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 912

Botany
Q. What do you mean by protogyny ?

Protogyny is a condition in
hermaphrodite or dioecious animals
and plants in which the female reproductive structures mature before the
male structures. It is of rare occurrence. Botanically, protogyny occurs
in some plant species in which the
female part stigma develops, withers
and dies before male part anthers
mature.
Q. What do you mean by primary vascular system of plant ?

The arrangement of conducting elements which serve for two-way

transportation of substances between
different parts of a plant is known as
primary vascular system. The conducting elements are of two principal
types : xylem and phloem.
Xylem is mainly responsible for
the conduction of water together with
dissolved inorganic substances upward from the roots to the other
organs. Phloem is mainly responsible
for the conduction of food materials
(assimilates), a flow which may take
place in either direction. In the shoot
region of the plant, xylem and phloem
are usually associated into vascular
bundles. In the root, however, they
usually alternate with one another on
different radii.
Q. What do you mean by meristems based on plane of division ?
Meristematic tissue, commonly called meristem, is composed
of cells which are immature, not fully
differentiated ones, and which possess the power of cell division.
Meristems on the basis of planes
of divisions are of three types : mass
meristem, rib meristem and plate
meristem.
Mass meristem grows by dividing in all planes, so that the bodies
formed are either isodiametric or
have no definite shape. The rib meristem divides anticlinally to the long
axis and gives rise to the longitudinal
files or rows of cells. The plate meristem divides chiefly anticlinally into
two planes, so that new cells are
formed out number of layers does not
increase.

Q. What do you mean by

coralline algae ? What are their
important characteristics ?
Coralline algae, comprising
about 40 genera and 500 species, are
exclusively marine, although some
species can tolerate a reduction in
salinity to 13 parts per thousand.
Some species thrive only where light
is intense, as at the crest of a coral
reef, while others grow only in shaded
habitats or in deep water.
Coralline algae are ecologically
important. They are divisible into two
groups on the basis of the presence or
absence of uncalcified, moderately
flexible joints (genicula) between calcified segments (intergenicula). The
ecosystem in which coralline algae
are most important is the coral reef,
where they are primary producers,
adding carbon to the ecosystem,
adding new material to the reefs, and
cementing together other calcareous
organisms. They have been arranged
in similar activities through the millennia with modern genera recognizable
in limestones at least as old as 150
million years. The most simple nonarticulated coralline algae are individual crusts of varying extent and thickness (20 cm thick). Most species
require constant emersion.
Q. What is sewage disposal ?
Sewage is the waste water
reaching the sewer after use; hence it
is related in quantity and in flow fluctuation to water use. The discharge of
waste waters into surface-water or
ground water courses, which constitute the natural drainage of an area
is known as sewage disposal.
Most waste waters contain offensive and potentially dangerous substances, which can use pollution and
contamination of the receiving water
bodies. Contamination is defined as
the impairment of water quality to a
degree that create a hazard to public
health. Pollution refers to the adverse
effects on water quality that interfere
with its proper and beneficial use. The
principal sources of pollution are
domestic sewage and industrial
wastes.
The water-quality criteria deal
with the physio-chemical and biological parameters of pollution. The most
common standards are concerned
with physical appearance, odour production, dissolved-oxygen concentration, pathogenic contamination, and
potentially toxic or harmful chemicals.

1. Which of the following Article of

Indian Constitution propounds
Equality before Law ?
(A) Article 15 (B) Article 13
(C) Article 14 (D) Article 12
2. Which of the Articles of the
Constitution of India enshrines
protection against arrest and
detention in certain cases ?
(A) Article 22 (B) Article 23
(C) Article 25 (D) Article 26
3. Ozone layer lies in
(A) Mesosphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Exosphere
(D) None of the above
4. Which Article of Indian Constitution says that no tax shall be
levied or collected except by
authority of law ?
(A) Article 265 (B) Article 266
(C) Article 268 (D) Article 270
5. Chemically Vitamin C is
(A) Riboflavin
(B) Thiamin
(C) Ascorbic acid (D) Niacin
6. Which of the following vitamins is
not fat-soluble ?
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin C
(C) Vitamin D (D) Vitamin E
7. The poem Pagri Sambhal O
Jatta which infused patriotic
fervour in Punjab during freedom
struggle was written by
(A) Banke Dayal
(B) Lala Lajpat Roy
(C) Sardar Ajit Singh
(D) Ghulam Kader
8. Indias First War of Independence is the book written by
(A) Bhupendranath Dutt
(B) Ganesh Savarkar
(C) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
(D) Lala Hardayal
9. The Gadar Party was set up in
(A) 1913
(B) 1915
(C) 1914
(D) 1912
10. Kaiga Atomic Power Plant is
situated in
(A) Karnataka
(B) Maharashtra

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 913

(C) Uttar Pradesh

(D) Tamil Nadu
11. The maximum number of members that the Legislative Assembly of a State in India can have,
is
(A) 400
(B) 450
(C) 500
(D) 550
12. Bank rate is the rate at which the
Reserve Bank of India provides
loans to
(A) Public Sector Undertakings
(B) Scheduled
Commercial
Banks
(C) Private Corporate Sector
(D) Non-Banking Financial Institutions
13. Who of the following founded the
East India Association ?
(A) C. R. Das
(B) Dadabhai Noroji
(C) Devendra Nath Tagore
(D) V. D. Savarkar
14. Tipu Sultan died fighting the
English forces under
(A) Lord Cornwallis
(B) Lord Wellesley
(C) Lord Dalhousie
(D) Lord Hastings
15. The battle of Wandiwash was
fought between
(A) Marathas and Portuguese
(B) The English and the French
(C) The English and the Portuguese
(D) The Marathas and the
English
16. Golden Quadrilateral Project is
(A) Conversion of meter gauge
into broad gauge
(B) Construction of four lane
highways joining four metropolis of India
(C) Joining of four important
rivers of North India and
South-India
(D) Joining of four important
cities of India with air transport

17. The first weekly Bengali newspaper Samachar Darpan was

published by
(A) Harish Chandra Mukherjee
(B) Dinabandhu Mitra
(C) Marshman
(D) Vidyasagar
18. Where is the headquarters of
Asian Development Bank situated at ?
(A) Jakarta
(B) Manila
(C) Singapore (D) Bangkok
19. Who was responsible for the
introduction of the Vernacular
Press Act of 1878 ?
(A) Lord Mayo
(B) Lord Lytton
(C) Lord Rippon
(D) Lord Curzon
20. Gandhiji started Civil Disobedience Movement in
(A) 1930
(B) 1931
(C) 1933
(D) 1942
21. As per 2001 census of India, the
total number of million cities in
the country is
(A) 25
(B) 30
(C) 35
(D) 40
22. The country with the largest of
petroleum reserves in the world
is
(A) Iran
(B) Iraq
(C) Saudi Arabia (D) Russia
23. The three leading petroleum producing countries in correct
descending order are
(A) Saudi Arabia, U.S.A. and
Russia
(B) U.S.A., Saudi Arabia and
Iran
(C) Saudi Arabia, U.S.A. and
Iran
(D) U.S.A., Saudi Arabia and
Mexico
24. The largest producer of silver in
the world is
(A) Canada (B) Mexico
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Australia
25. The largest exporter of fish in the
world is
(A) Norway
(B) U.K.
(C) Canada (D) Japan

26. Which one of the following States

has the highest percentage of
Scheduled Caste population ?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Punjab
(C) Rajasthan
(D) West Bengal
27. The Indian National Congress
was founded by
(A) Lala Lajpat Roy
(B) Lord Dufferin
(C) Lord Ripon
(D) Allen Octavian Hume

36. How many departments are there

in the Ministry of Home Affairs ?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 5
(D) 4
37. In India the smallest million city
is
(A) Allahabad (B) Amritsar
(C) Faridabad (D) Rajkot
38. National Authority Chemical
Weapons Convention (CWC) has
been set up under the administrative control of

28. Annie Besant arrived in India in

(A) 1893
(B) 1895
(C) 1890
(D) 1904

(A) Prime Ministers Office

29. In which state are the Mahadeo

hills located ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Chhattisgarh

(D) Home Ministry

30. From economic point of view the

most important rocks of India
are
(A) Dharwar (B) Gondwana
(C) Vindhyan (D) Cuddappah
31. To which of the following did
Aurangzeb
give title Deen
Panah ?
(A) Mohammad Azam
(B) Azam
(C) Kam Bakhash
(D) None of the above

(B) Cabinet Secretariat

(C) Central Secretariat

39. According to 2001 census, the

least urbanised State of India is
(A) Assam
(B) Bihar
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Sikkim
40. In which one of the following
crops does Madhya Pradesh
stand first in India in area and
production ?
(A) Cotton
(B) Millet
(C) Sugarcane (D) Soyabean

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

32. Nadir Shah invaded India in

(A) 1740
(B) 1739
(C) 1745
(D) 1746
33. During which of the following
Mughal Emperors rule was the
third battle of Panipat fought ?
(A) Alamgir II
(B) Bahadur Shah II
(C) Akbar Shah II
(D) Shah Alam II
34. During 1707 to 1759, in a span of
just five decades how many
Mughal Emperors had ascended
the throne ?
(A) Eight
(B) Nine
(C) Seven
(D) Six
35. The Atmiya Sabha was founded
by
(A) Swami Vivekanand
(B) Raja Rammohan Roy
(C) Swami Dayanand
(D) Ramakrishna Paramhansa

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 914

1. What is the order of energy of

the X-ray photon ?
(A) 1 keV
(B) 10 keV
(C) 100 keV (D) 1 MeV
2. Three uncharged capacitors of
capacitances C 1, C 2 and C3 are
connected as shown in figure to
one-another and to points A, B
and D at potentials VA , VB and
V D . Then the potential at O will
be
A

O
C2

C3

VA + VB + VC
C1 + C 2 + C 3

(B)

VA C1 + VBC2 + VDC3
C1 + C 2 + C 3

(C)

VA VB + VBVD + VDVA
C1 + C 2 + C 3

(D)

VA VB VD
C1C2 + C2C3 + C3C1

3. Two bodies are projected upwards with same initial velocity of

98 ms1 after an interval of 4 sec.
At what time after the launch of
first body will they meet ?
(A) 12 sec
(C) 15 sec

5. A wave is represented by
y = 04 cos

(B) 14 sec
(D) 10 sec

4. Assertion (A) : If

A + B + C = 0,

then A B = B C = C A
Reason (R) : The vector sum of
three vectors can never be zero.
Choose the correct answer from
the following
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct
and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct
but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 916

( )
8t

x
2

where x and y are in metres and

t in seconds. The frequency of
the wave is
4
8
(A)
sec 1 (B)
sec 1

(C)

C1

(A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is wrong

(D) (A) is wrong but (R) is right

sec 1
4

(D)

sec 1
8

6. The rate expression for a

gaseous reaction
2A + B C, is the rate = k [A]2
[B]1/2
when the volume of container is
1
suddenly reduced to th, rate of
4
reaction will increase
(A) 32 times (B) 8 times
(C) 4 times

(D) 16 times

7. Which of the following is

commonly known as oil of
vitriol ?
(A) H2S2O7 (B) H2SO4
(C) H2S2O6

(D) H2S2O3Mg

8. Allylcyanide contains and

bonds

11. The effect of temperature among

various bacteria is best understood by considering its effect
on
(A) Cell wall

(B) Enzymes

(C) Ribosome

(D) Lysosome

12. Which of the following is/are

mounting medium (media) for
slide preparation in botany
anatomy ?
(A) Glycerine 10%
(B) Glycerine jelly
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
13. The chlorophycean characteristics include
(A) Presence of chlorophyll
within chloroplasts
(B) Pyrenoids present within
chloroplasts
(C) Photosynthetic food product
is starch
(D) All of the above
14. The characteristic by which a
gene is made able to yield a
phenotypic character is called
(A) Gene library

(A) 3 and 4 bonds

(B) Gene expression

(B) 5 and 7 bonds

(C) Gene manipulation

(C) 9 and 3 bonds

(D) Gene pool

(D) 9 and 9 bonds

9. The fact about digitoxose is/are
(A) Its formula is C6H12O4
(B) The 2-deoxy sugar present
in several of the cardiac
glycosides of digitalis
(C) Its formula is C3H8O3
(D) Both (A) and (B)
10. Isomers differing in their configuration at a chiral atom are
termed as

15. Investigators perform a dihybrid

cross between two heterozygotes and get about a 3 : 1
ratio among the offspring. The
reason must be due to
(A) Linked genes
(B) Epistatic genes
(C) Pleiotrophic genes
(D) Polygenes
16. Fishes have

(A) Enantiomers

(A) Vertebrae

(B) Potentiomers

(B) Spinal cord

(C) Chargers

(C) Skull and bone

(D) Decomers

(D) All of the above

17. Change in vision of elderly persons, by which they go

back to the sight of their youth, is termed as
(A) Giardiasis

(B) Gerontopia

(C) Ghost corpuscle

(D) Night blindness

18. Which type of endoplasmic reticulum lacks ribosomes

and is involved in the synthesis of steroid hormone ?
(A) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(B) Tough endoplasmic reticulum
(C) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Solution to Quiz No. 136

Competition Science Vision
Last date for sending 28th September, 2009

(D) All of the above

19. Development on land requires that the
(A) Skin should be wet
(B) All integuments should be dried
(C) Both (A) and (B) are correct
(D) Embryo be protected from desiccation
20. Chicken development can be used to model the
development of
(A) Birds
(B) Reptiles
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

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of Competition Science Vision
1.
2.

3.
4.

5.
6.
7.

8.

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Candidates taking part in quiz contest will necessarily
have to send their entries by a fixed date. Entries are
to be sent by ordinary post. Please mark your
envelope 'QuizCompetition Science Vision' on
the top left hand side.
Answers given only on the form of the magazine will
be admissible.
In the form there are four squares against each
question number. Contestants should put a cross ()
in the square for the answer they think is correct.
Giving more than one answer to a question will
disqualify it.
Contestants should essentially write the number of
questions they have solved.
Marks will be deducted for wrong answers.
The candidate sending the maximum number of
correct answers will be given Rs. 600 as first prize.
Next two candidates after that will get Rs. 400 and
Rs. 300 as second and third prize respectively. If
there are more than one candidate eligible for a
prize, the amount will be equally distributed among
them.
The decision of the editor will be final and binding in
all cases, and will not be a matter for consideration
of any court.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 917

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Full Address .............................................................
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1.

11.

2.

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According to the rules of the CSV

Quiz, all entry forms were examined.
As a result, the following participants
have qualified for various prizes. CSV
sends them greetings and good
wishes for their bright future. It also
places on record its appreciation for
their inquisitive nature and expresses
obligation for their co-operation.

PRIZE WINNERS
First Prize
Krishan Kumar Rajbhar
B-57, N.C.L. Khadia,
Shaktinagar, Sonebhadra
U.P.231 222
Second Prize
Vishal Tiwari
III-B-231
Vidyut Vihar Colony
Shaktinagar, Sonebhadra
U.P.231 222
Third Prize
Vivek Shukla
C/o Sanjay Mishra
782, Mutthiganj (Rani Betiya Ka
Ahata), Allahabad
U.P.211 003

Useful for Various Competitive Exams.

By : Dr. Lal, Mishra & Kumar

Code No. 1624
Rs. 250/UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA-2
E-mail : publisher@upkar.in Website : www.upkar.in

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 919

Directions(Q. 15) These

questions are based on the following
letter/number/symbol arrangement.
Study it carefully and answer the
questions.
H8B4#9%E1D 6@A$
F3J7LI2KTU5
1. Which of the following is the third
to the right of fifteenth from the
right end of the arrangement ?
(A)
(B) A
(C) @
(D) F
(E) None of these
2. How many such numbers are
there in the given arrangement,
each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and also
immediately followed by a
letter ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
3. How many such symbols are
there in the given arrangement
each of which is immediately
preceded by a number and also
immediately followed by a
vowel ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
4. If all the numbers are deleted
from the given arrangement,
which of the following will be
fifteenth from the left end ?
(A) L
(B) %
(C) #
(D) F
(E) None of these
5. Four of the following five are
alike based upon their position in
the given arrangement. Which is
the one that does not belong to
that group ?
(A) KIT
(B) $@F
(C) 94%
(D) J7
(E) E%D
Directions(Q. 610) In each of
these questions a group of letters is
given followed by four combinations
of number/symbol lettered (A), (B),
(C) and (D). Letters are to be coded

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 920

as per the scheme and conditions

given below. You have to find out the
serial letter of the combination, which
represents the letter group. Serial
letter of that combination is your
answer. If none of the combinations is
correct, your answer is (E) i.e., None
of these.
Letters :
IBDHLPA RF KEC M UT
Number/Symbol Code :
4$3@ 1 7 % 6 2 9 # 8 5
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a vowel
and the last a consonant,
the codes for the first and
the last letters are to be
interchanged.
(ii) If both first and the last
letters are vowels, both are
to be coded as
(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel,
both are to be coded as the
code for the consonant.
6. KTHCLI
(A) 4@#12 (B) 2@#14
(C) 2@#12 (D) 4@#14
(E) None of these
7. CMKRAH
(A) #862%@ (B) #82%6@
(C) #8%26@ (D) #2%6@8
(E) None of these
8. ATPRDE
(A) %7639 (B) 9763%
(C) %763% (D) 763
(E) None of these
9. URBMDL
(A) 16$835
(B) 56$831
(C) 56$835
(D) 16$831
(E) None of these
10. FHBCIU
(A) 5@$#4 (B) @$#4
(C) 5@$#45 (D) 5@#$45
(E) None of these
11. Two friends start from a common point P. One drives 6 km
towards North and the other
drives 6 km towards East, after
which both take a left turn, drive

another 6 km and stop. How far

are the two friends from each
other when the two finally stop ?
(A) 6 km
(B) 12 km
(C) 4 km
(D) 10 km
(E) None of these
12. How many meaningful English
words can be formed with the
letters WLFO using each letter
only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
13. What should come next in the
following letter series ?
cabacababcababccab
abcdcab
(A) b
(B) c
(C) d
(D) e
(E) None of these
14. How many such digits are there
in the number 924715368 each of
which is as far away from the
beginning of the number as when
the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
15. Nandan correctly remembers
that Ritus birthday is before
Saturday while after Tuesday.
Geeta correctly remembers that
Ritus birthday is after Monday
but before Friday. On which of
the following days does Ritus
birthday definitely falls ?
(A) Wednesday
(B) Thursday
(C) Friday
(D) Wednesday or Thursday
(E) Cannot be determined
16. Four of the following five are alike
in a certain way and so form a
group. Which is the one that does
not belong to that group ?
(A) Defend

(B) Ambush

(C) Attack

(D) Invade

(E) Raid

17. How many such pairs of letters

are there in the word CREATIVE
each of which has as many letters
between them in the word as
there are in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
18. Each of the vowels in the word
POLYTECHNIC is substituted by
the letter preceding it in the
English alphabetical series, and
each consonant is substituted by
the letter following it. Which of
the following will be sixth letter
from the right end if all the
vowels are deleted in the new
arrangement so formed ?
(A) Z
(B) D
(C) P
(D) H
(E) None of these
19. In a certain code if NAME is
coded as 4692 and MINT is
coded as 9745. How is MITE in
that language ?
(A) 9726
(B) 9762
(C) 9752
(D) 9572
(E) None of these
20. In a certain code HIGHWAY is
written as HJIHZBX. How is
SYMBOLS written in that code ?
(A) NZTBTMP
(B) SZTBMPT
(C) NZTCTMP
(D) NZTCMTP
(E) None of these
Directions(Q. 2125) In each
of the questions, two row; of numbers
are given. The resultant number in
each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules
and the question below the rows of
numbers are to be answered. The
operation of numbers progresses
from left to right.
Rules :
(i) If an odd number is followed
by another composite odd
number, they are to be
multiplied.
(ii) If an even number is
followed by an odd number,
they are to be added.
(iii) If an even number is followed by a number which is a
perfect square, the even
number is to be subtracted
from the perfect square.

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 921

(iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the first number is to be
divided by the second
number.
(v) If an odd number is followed
by an even number, the
second one is to be subtracted from the first one.
21. 32
13
5
15
12
15
Which of the following will be the
answer if the resultants of the
two rows are added ?
(A) 45
(B) 54
(C) 36
(D) 18
(E) None of these
22. 67
12
11
20
x
14
If x is the resultant of the first
row, what will be resultant of the
second row ?
(A) 16
(B) 5
(C) 11
(D) 6
(E) None of these
23. 12
36
31
x
11
15
If x is the resultant of the first
row, what will be the resultant of
the second row ?
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 45
(D) 75
(E) None of these
24. 27
18
3
21
x
9
If x is the resultant of the first row,
what will be the resultant of the
second row ?
(A) 63
(B) 36
(C) 3
(D) 16
(E) None of these
25. 35
12

7
16

2
x

If x is the resultant of the first

row, what will be the answer if
the resultant of the two rows are
multiplied ?
(A) 7
(B) 10
(C) 24
(D) 21
(E) None of these
Directions(Q. 2630) Study
the following information carefully and
answer the given questions.
Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F
and G work in four different departments i.e., Marketing. Finance HR

and IT. Not more than two work in the

same department. Each of them
works in different organization which
are P, Q, R, S, T, W and Z not
necessarily in this order. A who does
not work for organization P works in
Marketing Department like C. E
works for organization W and does
not work in Finance Department B
works for organization T and works
in the same Department as D. Only F
works in HR Department. None in
Marketing or IT department works for
organization R. C works for organization S. The one who works for organization Z works for the Finance
Department.
26. Which of the following combinations is correct ?
(A) C S Finance
(B) E T IT
(C) A RMarketing
(D) F Q HR
(E) None of these
27. Which of the following works in
IT Department ?
(A) G
(B) D
(C) B
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
28. Who works for organization R ?
(A) A
(B) F
(C) G
(D) Z
(E) None of these
29. Which of the following pairs
works in Finance Department ?
(A) A, B
(B) E, G
(C) F, D
(D) D, B
(E) None of these
30. For which of the following
organizations does D work ?
(A) P
(B) Q
(C) Z
(D) R
(E) None of these
Directions(Q. 3135) Read
the following information carefully and
answer the questions, which follow
(i) P Q means P is father of
Q.
(ii)

P + Q means P is sister of
Q.

P Q means P is brother
of Q.
(iv) P Q means P is mother
of Q.

(iii)

31. In the expression A B C + D

how is C related to A ?
(A) Granddaughter
(B) Grandfather
(C) Grandson
(D) Either (A) or (C)
(E) None of these
32. In the expression A + B C D
how is D related to A ?
(A) Son
(B) Grandson
(C) Aunt
(D) Nephew
(E) None of these
33. In the expression A B C D.
How is C related to A ?
(A) Uncle
(B) Nephew
(C) Niece
(D) Aunt
(E) None of these
34. Which of the following means A
is grandmother of D ?
(A) A B + C D
(B) A B + C D
(C) A + B C D
(D) A + B C D
(E) None of these
35. In the expression A + B C D
how is C related to A ?
(A) Aunt
(B) Niece
(C) Father
(D) Nephew
(E) None of these

C.S.V. / September / 2009 / 922