Ugc Net Paper2015

Answer Key and Solved Questions Paper-3 UGC-NET Computer Science June 2015
1.
For the 8-bit word 00111001, the check bits stored with it would be 0111. Suppose
when the word is read from memory, the check bits are calculated to be 1101.What
is the data word that was read from memory?
A.
10011001
B.
00011001
C.
00111000
D.
11000110
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanatio
n
2.
Consider a 32 - bit microprocessor, with a 16 - bit external data bus, driven by an 8

MHz input clock. Assume that the microprocessor has a bus cycle whose minimum
duration equals four input clock cycles. What is maximum data transfer rate for this
microprocessor ?
A.
8 x 106 bytes / sec
B.
4 x 106 bytes / sec
C.
16 x 106 bytes / sec
D.
4 x 109 bytes / sec
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanatio
n
Since minimum bus cycle duration = 4 clock cycles and bus clock = 8 MHz
Then, maximum bus cycle rate = 8 M / 4 = 2 M/s
Data transferred per bus cycle = 16 bit = 2 bytes
Data transfer rate per second = bus cycle rate * data per bus cycle = 2 M *
2 = 4 Mbytes/sec. = 4 x 106 bytes / sec
3.
The RST 7 instruction in 8085 microprocessor is equivalent to
A.
CALL 0010 H
B.
CALL 0034 H
C.
CALL 0038 H
D.
CALL 003C H
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanatio
n
4.
The equivalent hexadecimal notation for octal number 2550276 is:
A.
FADED
B.
AEOBE
C.
ADOBE
D.
ACABE
View/Hide
Correct Answer is C
Ans
Explanatio
n
binary equivalent of 2550276 is 010101101000010111110.

now writing in pair of 4 bits and converting to hexadecimal it becomes
AD0BE
5.
The CPU of a system having 1 MIPS execution rate needs 4 machine cycles on an
average for executing an instruction. The fifty percent of the cycles use memory
bus. A memory read/write employs one machine cycle. For execution of the
programs, the system utilizes 90 percent of the CPU time. For block data transfer,
an IO device is attached to the system while CPU executes the background
programs continuously. What is the maximum IO data transfer rate if programmed
IO data transfer technique is used?
A.
500 Kbytes/sec
B.
2.2 Mbytes/sec
C.
125 Kbytes/sec
D.
250 Kbytes/sec
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanatio
n
6.
The number of Flip-Flops required to design a modulo - 272 counter is
A.
B.
C.
27
D.
11
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanatio
n
for construction a Modulo - N counter we need Log2 number of flipflops.the

value is rounded to next highest whole number.
so log2271 = 9
7.
Let E1 and E2 be two entities in E-R diagram with simple single valued attributes.
R1 and R2 are two relationships between E1 and E2 where R1 is one-many and R2
is many - many. R1 and R2 donot have any attributes of their own. How many
minimum number of tables are required to represent this situation in the relational
model ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanatio
n
8.
The student information in a university is stored in the relation STUDENT (name,

sex, marks, dept_Name) Consider the following SQL query select deptName from
STUDENT where sex = 'M' group by dept_Name having avg (marks) > (select avg
(marks) from STUDENT) It returns the names of the department in which
A.
the average marks of male students is more than the average marks of the
students in the same department
B.
The average marks of male students is more than the average marks of the
students in the university
C.
The average marks of male students is more than the average marks of male
students in the university
D.
The average marks of students is more than the average marks of male students in
the university
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanatio
n
Simple Sql Query Execution.
9.
Which one of the following statements about normal forms is FALSE?
A.
Lossless, preserving decomposition into 3NF is always possible
B.
Lossless, preserving decomposition into BCNF is always possible
C.
Any relation with two attributes is in BCNF
D.
BCNF is stronger than 3NF
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanatio
n
Achieving Lossless and dependency-preserving decomposition property

into BCNF is difficult. It is not always possible to decompose a table in
BCNF and preserve dependencies. For example, a set of functional
dependencies {AB > C, C > B} cannot be decomposed in BCNF.
10.
The relation vendor order (v_no, v_ord_no, v_name, qty_sup, unit_price) is in 2NF
because :
A.
Non key attribute V_name is dependent on V_no which is part of composite key
B.
Non key attribute V_name is dependent on qty_sup
C.
key attribute qty_sup is dependent on primary_key unit price
D.
key attribute v_ord_no is dependent on primary_key unit price
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanatio
n
In the above question option C and Option d rejected as unit price cannot
serve as primary key. option B is also irrelevant as qty_sup has no concern
with v_name. so option A seems to be the best answer
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11.
the relational schemas R1 and R2 form a loseless join decomposition of R if and

only if
A.
R1R2-->(R1-R2)
B.
R1-->R2
C.
R1R2-->(R2-R1)
D.
R2-->R1R2
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A decomposition of R into R1 and R2 is lossless join if and only if at least one of

the following dependencies is in F+:
R1R2-->R1
R1R2-->R2
12.
In the index allocation scheme of blocks to a file, the maximum possible size of the
file depends on
A.
The number of blocks used for the index, and the size of the index
B.
The size of the blocks, and the size of the address
C.
size of the index
D.
size of the blocks
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
When indexes are created, the maximum no. of blocks given to a file are totally
dependent upon size of the index which tells how many blocks can be there, &
size of each block.
13.
Give the number of principal vanishing point (s) along with their direction for the
standard perspective transformation :
A.
only one in the direction K
B.
Two in the directions I and J
C.
Three in the directions I, J and K
D.
Only two in the directions J and K
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
In this case the view plane normal N is vector K. since N.I =0 and N.J=0, so
there are no vanishing points in the direction I and J. on the other hand N.K =
K.K = 1. thus there is only one principal vanishing point and it is in K direction
14.
Consider a triangle represented by A(0, 0), B(1, 1), C(5, 2). The triangle is rotated
by 45 degrees about a point P( -1, -1). The co-ordinates of the new triangle obtained
after rotation shall be
A.
A'(-1, 2 -1), B'(-1, 22 - 1), C'((3/2)2 - 1, (9/2)2 - 1)
B.
A'(2 -1,- 1), B'( 22 - 1, -1), C'((3/2)2 - 1, (9/2)2 - 1)
C.
A'(-1, 2 -1), B'(22 - 1, -1), C'((3/2)2 - 1, (9/2)2 - 1)
D.
A'(-1, 2 -1), B'( 22 - 1, -1), C'((9/2)2 - 1, (3/2)2 - 1)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
because the rotation is not about origin, translate the point of rotation to origin
and apply similiar translation to all other points
A translates to (1,1), B translates to (2,2) and C translates to (6,3).
Apply rotation on A(45 degrees) about origin. resulting in option A as answer.
15.
The process of dividing an analog signal into a string of discrete outputs, each of
constant amplitude is called
A.
Strobing
B.
Amplification
C.
Conditioning
D.
Quantization
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Quantization is the process of converting a continuous range of values into a

finite range of discreet values. This is a function of analog-to-digital converters
16.
which of the following is not a basic primitive of the graphics kernel

system(GKS) ?
A.
POLYLINE
B.
POLYDRAW
C.
FILL AREA
D.
POLYMARKER
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
graphics kernel system(GKS) is based on four basic primitive :

POLYLINE,POLYMARKER, FILL AREA, TEXT
17.
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect ?
A.
Mapping the co-ordinates of the points and lines that form the picture into
appropriate co-ordinates on the device or workstation is known as viewing
transformation.
B.
The right handed cartesian co-ordinate system in whose coordinates we describe the
picture is known as world coordinate system.
C.
The co-ordinate system that corresponds to the device or workstation where the
image is to be displayed is known as physical device co-ordinate system.
D.
Left-handed co-ordinate system in which the display area of the virtual display
device corresponds to the unit(|x|) square whose lower left handed corner is at origin
of the co-ordinate system, is known as normalized device co-ordinate system.
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Normalized device coordinates (NDCs) make up a coordinate system that

describes positions on a virtual plotting device. The lower left corner
corresponds to (0,0), and the upper right corner corresponds to (1,1).
NDCs can be used when you want to position text, lines, markers, or polygons
anywhere on the plotting device (that may or may not already contain a plot).
Match the following
18.
List-I
List-II
Flood Gun
An electron gun designed to flood the entire screen with

electrons.
Collector
Partly energised by flooding gun, stores the charge

generated by the writing gun
Ground
used to discharge the collector
Phosphorus
Grains
used in memory -tube display and similar to those used

in standard CRT
Writing Gun
System
used in memory -tube display and basically the same as

the electron gun used in a conventional CRT.
Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

A.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
B.
(ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (v)
C.
(iii) (i) (ii) (v) (iv)
D.
(iv) (v) (i) (ii) (iii)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
All are definitions.
19.
Minimal Deterministic finite automaton for the language L = { 0 n | n > 0, n 4 }

will have
A.
1 final state among 5 states
B.
4 final states among 5 states
C.
1 final state among 6 states
D.
5 final states among 6 states
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
20.
The regular expression corresponding to the language L where L = { x {0,1}* | x

ends with 1 and does not contain substring 00 } is
A.
(1 + 01)*(10 + 01)
B.
(1 + 01)*01
C.
(1 + 01)*(1 + 01)
D.
(10 + 01)* 01
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The transition function for the language L = {w|na(w) and nb(w) are both odd} is given
by:
(q0, a) = q1
(q0, b) = q2
(q1, a) = q0
(q1, b) = q3
(q2, a) = q3
(q2, b) = q0
(q3, a) = q2
(q3, b) = q1
21.
the initial and final states of automata are

A.
q0 and q0 respectively
B.
C.
D.
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Draw the Transition diagram and you will find the result.
22.
The clausal form of the disjunctive normal form A B C D is
A.
ABCD
B.
A B C D true
C.
A B C D true
D.
A B C D false
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
23.
Which of the following is false for the programming language PROLOG ?
A.
A PROLOG variable can only be assigned to a value once
B.
PROLOG is a Strongly Typed Language.
C.
The scope of a variable in PROLOG is a single clause or rule.
D.
the scope of a variable in PROLOG is a Single Query
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Prolog is not a strongly typed language, and in fact variables in predicates are not typerestricted in any way. This means that there is a danger of procedures being called with
unsuitable parameter values. With a strongly typed language (Pascal, for example) if a
procedure is called with too many or the wrong type of argument values, the
implementation would automatically flag a type mismatch at or before run-time, and
the user would be aware of and could pin-point the error. In Prolog the run-time
behaviour in this case would be unpredictable, and the error would be difficult to detect
and fix.
24.
Which one of the following is true ?
A.
The resolvent of two horn clauses is not a horn clause.
B.
The resolvent of two horn clauses is a Horn Clause.
C.
if we resolve a negated goal G against a fact or rule A to get Clause C then C has
positive literal and non null goal.
D.
if we resolve a negated goal G against a fact or rule A to get clause C then C has
positive literal or null goal.
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A Horn clause is a clause (a disjunction of literals) with at most one positive, i.e.
unnegated, literal.
Conversely, a disjunction of literals with at most one negated literal is called a dualHorn clause.
A Horn clause with exactly one positive literal is a definite clause; a definite clause
with no negative literals is sometimes called a fact; and a Horn clause without a
positive literal is sometimes called a goal clause (note that the empty clause consisting
of no literals is a goal clause).
Now, if resolution is restricted to Horn clauses, some interesting properties appear.
Some of these are evident; others I will just state and you can take on faith.
I. If you resolve Horn clauses A and B to get clause C, then the positive literal of A will
resolve against a negative literal in B, so the only positive literal left in C is the one
from B (if any). Thus, the resolvent of two Horn clauses is a Horn clause.
II. If you resolve a negated goal G against a fact or rule A to get clause C, the positive
literal in A resolves against a negative literal in G. Thus C has no positive literal, and
thus is either a negated goal or the null clause.
III. Therefore: Suppose you are trying to prove Phi from Gamma, where ~Phi is a
negated goal, and Gamma is a knowledge base of facts and rules. Suppose you use the
set of support strategy, in which no resolution ever involves resolving two clauses from
Gamma together. Then, inductively, every resolution combines a negated goal with a
fact or rule from Gamma and generates a new negated goal.
25.
Which transmission technique guarantees that data packets will be received by the
receiver in the same order in which they were sent by the sender ?
A.
Broadcasting
B.
Unicasting
C.
Packet Switching
D.
Circuit Switching
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Circuit switching is a methodology of implementing a telecommunications network in

which two network nodes establish a dedicated communications channel (circuit)
through the network before the nodes may communicate. The circuit guarantees the full
bandwidth of the channel and remains connected for the duration of the communication
session.
26.
Which of the following control fields in TCP header is used to specify the sender has
no more data to transmit ?
A.
FIN
B.
RST
C.
SYN
D.
PSH
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
FIN: No more data from the sender. Receiving a TCP segment with the FIN flag does
not mean that transferring data in the opposite direction is not possible.
RST: Reset the connection. The RST bit is used to RESET the TCP connection due to
unrecoverable errors.
SYN: This flag means synchronize sequence numbers. Source is beginning a new
counting sequence.
PSH: This flag means Push function. Using this flag, TCP allows a sending application
to specify that the data must be pushed immediately.
27.
Which are the two modes of IP security ?
A.
Transport and Certificate
B.
Transport and Tunnel
C.
Certificate and Tunnel
D.
Preshared and Transport
View/Hide
Correct Answer is B
Ans
Explanation
IPsec can be implemented in a host-to-host transport mode, as well as in a network

tunneling mode.
In transport mode, only the payload of the IP packet is usually encrypted and/or
authenticated. The routing is intact, since the IP header is neither modified nor
encrypted.
In tunnel mode, the entire IP packet is encrypted and/or authenticated. It is then
encapsulated into a new IP packet with a new IP header. Tunnel mode is used to create
virtual private networks for network-to-network communications, host-to-network
communications and host-to-host communications.
28.
A message "COMPUTERNETWORK" encrypted(ignore quotes)using columnar

transposition cipher with a key "LAYER". the encrypted message is :
A.
CTTOEWMROPNRUEK
B.
MROUEKCTTPNROEW
C.
OEWPNRCTTUEKMRO
D.
UEKPNRMROOEWCTT
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Perform Transposition Cipher.
29.
Suppose a digitized voice channel is made by digitizing 8 kHz bandwidth analog voice
signal. It is required to sample the signal at twice the highest frequency(two samples
per hertz). what is the bit rate required, if it is assumed that each sample requires 8
bits ?
A.
32 kbps
B.
64 kbps
C.
128 kbps
D.
256 kbps
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The bit rate can be calculated as :
2 x 8000 x 8 = 128000 = 128 kbps.

30.
The Maximum payload of a TCP segment is
A.
65535
B.
65515
C.
65495
D.
65475
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Each segment, including the TCP header, must fit in the 65515 byte IP payload, and the
TCP header is 20 bytes at least, so the maximum payload of a TCP segment is 6551520=65495 bytes.
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31.
All pair Shortest paths problem is efficiently solved using :
A.
Dijkstra' algorithm
B.
Bellman-Ford algorithm
C.
Kruskal Algorithm
D.
Floyd-Warshall algorithm
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The Dijsktra algrithm solves the Single-Source Shortest Paths (SSSP) problem.
The BellmanFord algorithm is an algorithm that computes shortest paths
from a single source vertex to all of the other vertices in a weighted digraph. It is
slower than Dijkstra's algorithm for the same problem, but more versatile, as it
is capable of handling graphs in which some of the edge weights are negative
numbers.
Kruskal algorithm is a minimum-spanning-tree algorithm where the algorithm
finds an edge of the least possible weight that connects any two trees in the
forest.It is a greedy algorithm in graph theory as it finds a minimum spanning
tree for a connected weighted graph adding increasing cost arcs at each step.
The Floyd Warshal algorithm takes the dynamic programming approach. This
essentially means that independent sub-problems are solved and the results are
stored for later use. The algorithm allows negative edges, but no negative cycles,
as per usual with such shortest path problems.
32.
The travelling salesman problem can be solved in :
A.
Polynomial time using dynamic programming algortihm
B.
Polynomial time using branch and bound algortihm
C.
Exponential time using dynamic programming algorithm or branch and bound

algorithm.
D.
Polynomial time using backtracking algorithm.
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
33.
Which of the following is asymptotically smaller ?
A.
lg(lg*n)
B.
lg*(lg n)
C.
lg(n!)
D.
lg*(n!)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
34.
Consider a hash table of size m=100 and the hash function h(k) = floor(m(kA mod 1))
for A = (5 1)/2 = 0.618033. Compute the location to which the key k = 123456 is
placed in hash table.
A.
77
B.
82
C.
88
D.
89
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
h(k) = m(kA mod 1),

A=(5 1)/2=0.618033.
given K = 123456, m=100.
h(k) = 100(123456 x 0.618033 mod 1) = 100(76299.88204 mod 1)
= 100 x 0.882048)
= 88.2048 =88
35.
Let f(n) and g(n) be asymptotically non-negative functions. which of the following is
correct ?
A.
(f(n) * g(n)) = min(f(n), g(n))
B.
(f(n) * g(n)) = max(f(n), g(n))
C.
(f(n) + g(n)) = min(f(n), g(n))
D.
(f(n) + g(n)) = max(f(n), g(n))
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
36.
The number of nodes of height h in any n - element heap is _____
A.
B.
zh
C.
ceil(n/zh)
D.
ceil(n/zh + 1)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The number of nodes of height h in any n - element heap is ceil(n/zh + 1.
37.
In Java, when we implement an interface method, it must be declared as :
A.
Private
B.
Protected
C.
Public
D.
Friend
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Interfaces are meant to define the public API of a type - and only that, not its
implementation. So any method (or static member) you define in an interface is
by definition public.
38.
The Servlet Response interface enables a servlet to formulate a response for a client
using the method ______
A.
void log(Exception e, String s)
B.
Void destroy()
C.
int getServerPort()
D.
void setContextType(String Type)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
39.
Which one of the following is correct ?
A.
Java Applets cannot be written is many programming languages.
B.
An applet is not a small program.
C.
An applet can be run on its own.
D.
Applets are embedded in another applications.
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Java Applets can be written is many programming languages.
An applet is a small program.

An applet need to be run in either appletviewer or some JVM.
Applets can be embedded in another applications.
40.
In XML we can specify the frequency of an element by using the symbols :
A.
+*!
B.
#*!
C.
+*?
D.
-*?
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The number of occurrences, or the frequency, of an element can be specified by

using the plus(+), asterisk(*) or question mark(?) characters.
41.
In XML, Doctype declaration specifies to include a reference to

____ file
A.
Document Type Definition
B.
Document Type Declaration
C.
Document Transfer Definition
D.
Document Type language
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The document type (DOCTYPE) declaration consists of an

internal, or references an external Document Type
Definition (DTD). It can also have a combination of both
internal and external DTDs. The DTD defines the
constraints on the structure of an XML document. It
declares all of the document's element types glossary,
children element types, and the order and number of each
element type. It also declares any attributes, entities,
notations, processing instructions, comments, and PE
references in the document.
42.
Module design is used to maximize cohesion and minimize

coupling. Which of the following is the key to implement this rule ?
A.
Inheritance
B.
Polymorphism
C.
Encapsulation
D.
Abstraction
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The Golden rule in Module design is used to maximize

cohesion and minimize coupling. Encapsulation is the key
to implement this golden rule
43.
Verification :
A.
refers to the set of activities that ensure that software correctly

implements a specific function.
B.
gives answer to the question - are we building the product right ?
C.
requires execution of software
D.
both 1 and 2
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Software verification is a discipline of software engineering

whose goal is to assure that software fully satisfies all the
expected requirements.
Software verification asks the question, "Are we building
the product right?"; that is, does the software conform to
its specification.
44.
Which design matric is used to measure the compactness of the

program in terms of lines of code ?
A.
Consistency
B.
Conciseness
C.
Efficiency
D.
Accuracy
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
45.
Requirements prioritization and negotiation belongs to :
A.
Requirements validation
B.
Requirements elicitation
C.
Feasibility Study
D.
Requirement reviews
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
46.
Adaptive maintenance is a maintenance which ______
A.
Correct errors that were not discovered till testing phase.
B.
is carried out to port the existing software to a new environment.
C.
improves the system performance.
D.
both (2) and (3)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
47.
A design concept refinement is a
A.
Top-down Approach
B.
Complementary of Abstraction concept
C.
Process of elaboration
D.
All of the above
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
48.
A software design is highly modular if :
A.
cohesion is functional and coupling is data type.
B.
cohesion is coincidental and coupling is data type.
C.
cohesion is sequential and coupling is content type.
D.
cohesion is functional and coupling is stamp type.
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
49.
Match the following for operating system techniques with the most
appropriate advantage :
List-I
List-II
(a) Spooling
(i) Allows several jobs in memory to improve CPU

utilization
(b) Mult
iprogramming
{ii) Access to shared resources among geographically

dispersed computers in a transparent way
(c) Time sharing
overlapping I/O and computations
Distributed
Computing
Allows many users to share a computer

simultaneously by switching processor frequently
codes : (a) (b) (c) (d)

A.
(iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
B.
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
C.
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
D.
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
50.
Which of the following statements is not true for Multi Level

Feedback Queue processor scheduling algorithm ?
A.
Queues have different priorities.
B.
Each queue may have different scheduling algorithm
C.
Processes are permanently assigned to a queue
D.
This algorithm can be configured to match a specific system under

design
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
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51.
What is the most appropriate function of Memory Management Unit (MMU) ?
A.
It is an associative memory to store TLB
B.
It is a technique of supporting multi programming by creating dynamic partitions
C.
It is a chip to map virtual address to physical address
D.
It is an algorithm to allocate and deallocate main memory to a process
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
52.
Dining Philosopher's problem is a
A.
Producer Consumer problem
B.
Classical IPC problem
C.
Starvation Problem
D.
Synchronization Primitive
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
53.
In ______ allocation method for disk block allocation in a file system, insertion and
deletion of blocks in a file is easy.
A.
Index
B.
Linked
C.
Contiguous
D.
Bit Map
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
54.
A unix file may be of type :
A.
Regular file
B.
Directory File
C.
Device File
D.
Any one of the above
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Match the following :
55.
List-I
List-II
(a) Intelligence
(i) Contextual, tacit, transfer needs learning
(b) Knowledge
(ii) Scattered facts, easily transferrable
(c) Information
(iii) Judgemental
(d) Data
(iv) Codifiable, endorsed with relevance and purpose
codes : (a) (b) (c) (d)

A.
(iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
B.
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
C.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
D.
(i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
74.
WOW32 is a
A.
Win 32 API library for creating processes and threads.
B.
Special kind of file system to the NT name space.
C.
Kernel - mode objects accessible through Win32 API
D.
Special execution environment used to run 16 bit windows applications on 32 - bit

machines.
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
75.
The Unix command :

$ vi file1 file2
A.
Edits file1 and stores the contents of file1 in file2
B.
Both files i.e File1 and file2 can be edited using "ex" command to travel between files
C.
Both files can be edited using the "mv" command to move between the files
D.
Edits file1 first, saves it and the edits file2
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
When you first invoke vi, you can name more than one file to edit, and then use
ex commands to travel between the files.
$ vi file1 file2
invokes file1 first. After you have finished editing the first file, the ex
command :w writes (saves) file1 and :n calls in the next file (file2).
1.Which of the following is the highest level of cognitive

abilityA.KnowingB.UnderstandingC.AnalysingD.EvaluatingView/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Evaluating is the highest level. understanding is the lowest level
2.Which of the following factors does not impact teachingA.Class room activities that encourage
learningB.Socio-economic background of teachers and studentsC.Learning through
experienceD.Teacher's knowledgeView/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Socio-economic background of teachers and students
3.Which of the following statements about teaching aids are correct
1) They help in retaining concepts for longer duration
2) They help students learn better
3) They make teaching learning process interesting
4) They enhance rote learning
A.(a), (b), (c) and (d)B.(a), (b) and (c)C.(b), (c) and (d)D.(a), (b) and (d)View/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
4.Techniques used by a teacher to teach include
A) Lecture
B) Interactive lecture
C) Group work
D) Self studyA.(A), (B) and (C)B.(A), (B), (C) and (D)C.(B), (C) and (D)D.(A), (B) and
(D)View/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation5.Achievement tests are commonly used for the purpose ofA.Making selections for a
specific jobB.Selecting candidates for a courseC.Identifying strengths and weaknesses of
learnersD.Assessing the amount of learning after teachingView/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
6.A good teacher is one whoA.gives useful informationB.explains concepts and
principlesC.gives printed notes to studentsD.inspires students to learnView/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation7.Which of the following statements regarding the meaning of research are correct
1) Research refers to a series of systematic activity or activities undertaken to find out the
solution of a problem
2) It is a systematic, logical and an unbiased process wherein verification of hypothesis data
analysis, interpretation and formation of principles can be done
3) It is an intellectual enquiry or quest towards truth
4) It leads to enhancement of knowledge
A.(a), (b) and (c)B.(b), (c) and (d)C.(a), (c) and (d)D.(a), (b), (c) and (d)View/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
8.A good thesis writing should involve
1) reduction of punctuation and grammatical errors to a minimum
2) careful checking of references
3) consistency in the way the thesis is written
4) a clear and well written abstract
A.(a), (b), (c) and (d)B.(a), (b) and (c)C.(a), (b) and (d)D.(b), (c) and (d)View/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation9.Jean Piaget gave a theory of cognitive development of humans on the basis of
hisA.Fundamental researchB.applied researchC.Action researchD.Evaluation
ResearchView/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
10."Male and female students perform equally well in a numerical aptitude test."
This statement indicates aA.research hypothesisB.null hypothesisC.directional
hypothesisD.statistical hypothesisView/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is B
11.
The conclusions/findings of which type of research cannot be

generalized to other situations
A.
Historical research
B.
Descriptive Research
C.
Experimental Research
D.
Causal Comparative Research
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
12.
Which of the following steps are required to design a

questionnaire 1) Writing primary and secondary aims of the study
2) Review of the current literature 3) Prepare a draft of
questionnaire 4) Revision of the draft
A.
(a), (b) and (c)
B.
(a), (c) and (d)
C.
(b), (c) and (d)
D.
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
13.
Read the following passage carefully and answer question 13 to

18.
Story telling is not in our genes. Neither it is an evolutionary
history. It is the essence of what makes us Human. Human beings
progress by telling stories. One event can result in a great variety
of stories being told about it. Sometimes those stories differ
greatly. Which stories are picked up and repeated and which ones
are dropped and forgotten often determines how we progress.
Our history, knowledge and understanding are all the collections
of the few stories that survive. This includes the stories that we
tell each other about the future. And how the future will turn out
depends partly, possibly largely, on which stories we collectively
choose to believe.
Some stories are designed to spread fear and concern. This is
because some story-tellers feel that there is a need to raise some
tensions. Some stories are frightening, they are like totemic
warnings : "Fail to act now and we are all doomed." Then there
are stories that indicate that all will be fine so long as we leave
everything upto a few especiallv able adults. Currently, this trend
is being led by those who call themselves "rational optimists".
They tend to claim that it is human nature to compete and to
succeed and also to profit at the expense of others. The rational
optimists however, do not realize how humanity has progressed
overtime through amiable social networks and how large groups
work in less selfishness and in the process accommodate rich and
poor, high and low alike. This aspect in story-telling is considered
by the 'Practical Possibles', who sit between those who say all is
fine and cheerful and be individualistic in your approach to a
successful future, and those who ordain pessimism and fear that
we are doomed.
What the future holds for us is which stories we hold on to and
how we act on them
Our knowledge is a collection of
A.
all stories that we have heard during our life-time
B.
some stories that we remember
C.
a few stories that survive
D.
some important stories
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
14.
Story telling is 1) 2) 3) the essence of what makes us human 4)
A.
an art
B.
a science
C.
in our genes
D.
the essence of what makes us human
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
15.
How the future will turn out to be, depends upon the stories
A.
We collectively choose to believe in
B.
Which are repeatedly narrated
C.
Designed to spread fear and tension
D.
Designed to make prophecy
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
16.
Rational optimists :
1) Look for opportunities
2) Are sensible and cheerful
3) Are selfishly driven
A.
(a), (b) and (c)
B.
(a) only
C.
(a) and (b) only
D.
(b) and (c) only
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
17.
Humans become less selfish when
A.
they work in large groups
B.
they listen to frightening stories
C.
they listen to cheerful stories
D.
they work in solitude
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
18.
Practical Possibles' are the ones who
A.
follow Midway Path
B.
are doom-mongers
C.
are self-centred
D.
are cheerful and carefree
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
19.
Effectiveness of communication can be traced from which of the

following
1) Attitude surveys
2) Performance records
3) Students attendance
4) Selection of communication channel
A.
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
B.
(a), (b) and (c)
C.
(b), (c) and (d)
D.
(a), (b) and (d)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
20.
ASSERTION : Formal communication tends to be fast and flexible

REASON : Formal communication is a systematic and orderly flow
of information
A.
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
B.
Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of
(A)
C.
(A) is correct but, (R) is false
D.
(A) is false but, (R) is correct
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
21.
Which of the following are the characteristic features of

communication
1) Communication involves exchange of ideas, facts and opinions
2) Communication involves both information and understanding
3) Communication is a continuous process
4) Communication is a circular process
A.
(a), (b) and (c)
B.
(a), (b) and (d)
C.
(b), (c) and (d)
D.
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
22.
The term 'grapevine' is also known as
A.
Downward communication
B.
Informal communication
C.
Upward communication
D.
Horizontal communication
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
23.
Which of the following is not a principle of effective

communication
A.
Persuasive and convincing dialogue
B.
Participation of the audience
C.
One-way transfer of information
D.
Strategic use of grapevine
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
24.
In communication, the language is
A.
The verbal code
B.
Intrapersonal
C.
The symbolic code
D.
The non-verbal code
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
25.
The next term in the series is : 2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ?
A.
83
B.
75
C.
78
D.
80
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
logic is 2*term +1 and 2*term -1 alternatively for deriving

next term.
2*2+1 = 5 *2-1 = 9*2 + 1 = 19 * 2 - 1 = 37 * 2 + 1 = 75
hence the answer
26.
In certain code MATHURA is coded as JXQEROX. The code of

HOTELS will be
A.
LEQIBP
B.
ELQBIP
C.
LEBIQP
D.
ELIPQB
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
the coding is 3rd letter backwords so HOTELS will become

ELQBIP
27.
One day Prakash left home and walked 10 km towards south,

turned right and walked 5 km, turned right and walked 10 km and
turned left and walked 10 km. How many km will he have to walk
to reach his home straight
A.
10
B.
20
C.
15
D.
30
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
After walking towards south when he turned right means
walking towards east again turning right means walking

towards north and then left means walking towards east.
the distance towards south and north is same so balanced.
so net distance is in east direction which is 5 + 10 = 15.
28.
A girl introduced a boy as the son of the daughter of the father of

her uncle. The boy is related to the girl as
A.
Brother
B.
Uncle
C.
Nephew
D.
Son
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
29.
In an examination 10,000 students appeared.

pass in all five subjects = 5583
pass in three subjects only = 1400
pass in two subjects only = 1200
pass in one subject only = 735
fail in English only = 75
fail in Physics only = 145
fail in Chemistry only = 140
fail in Maths only = 200
fail in Bio-science only = 157
The number of students passed in at least four subjects is :
A.
6300
B.
6900
C.
7300
D.
7900
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
number of students passed in at least four subjects is :

5583 + 75 +145 + 140 + 200 +157 = 6300
30.
At present a person is 4 times older than his son and is 3 years

older than his wife. After 3 years the age of the son will be 15
years. The age of the person's wife after 5 years will be
A.
42
B.
48
C.
45
D.
50
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
After 3 years his son age = 15

so present age of son = 12
so present age of person =12*4 = 48
so present age of wife = 48 -3 = 45
so age of wife after 5 years will be = 45 +5 = 50
31.
If we want to seek new knowledge of facts about the world, we

must rely on reason of the type
A.
Inductive
B.
Deductive
C.
Demonstrative
D.
Physiological
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
32.
A deductive argument is invalid if
A.
Its premises and conclusions are all false
B.
Its premises are true but its conclusion is false
C.
Its premises are false but its conclusion is true
D.
Its premises and conclusions are all true
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
33.
Inductive reasoning is grounded on
A.
Integrity of nature
B.
Unity of nature
C.
Uniformity of nature
D.
Harmony of nature
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
34.
Among the following statements two are contradictory to each

other. Select the correct code that represents them
1) All poets are philosophers
2) Some poets are philosophers
3) Some poets are not philosophers
4) No philosopher is a poet
A.
(a) and (b)
B.
(a) and (d)
C.
(a) and (c)
D.
(B) and (C)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
35.
Which of the codes given below contains only the correct

statements
1) Venn diagram represents the arguments graphically
2) Venn diagram can enhance our understanding
3) Venn diagram may be called valid or invalid
4) Venn diagram is clear method of notation
A.
(a), (b) and (c)
B.
(a), (b) and (d)
C.
(b), (c) and (d)
D.
(a), (c) and (d)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
36.
When the purpose of a definition is to explain the use or to

eliminate ambiguity the definition is called
A.
Stipulative
B.
Theoretical
C.
Lexical
D.
Persuasive
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
37.
Question numbers 37 to 42 are based on the tabulated data

given below :
A Company has 20 employees with their ages (in years)and
salary (in thousand rupees per month) mentioned against each of
them :
Classify the data of age of each employee in class interval of 5

years. Which class interval of 5 years has the maximum average
salary
A.
35 - 40 years
B.
40 - 45 years
C.
45 - 50 years
D.
50 - 55 years
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
38.
What is the frequency (PERC) in the class interval of 30 - 35

years
A.
20 PERC
B.
25 PERC
C.
30 PERC
D.
35 PERC
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
39.
What is the average age of the employees
A.
40.3 years
B.
38.6 years
C.
47.2 years
D.
45.3 years
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
40.
What is the fraction (PERC) of employees getting salary >=

40,000 per month
A.
45 PERC
B.
50 PERC
C.
35 PERC
D.
32 PERC
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
41.
What is the average salary (in thousand per month) in the age
group 40 - 50 years
A.
35
B.
42.5
C.
40.5
D.
36.5
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
42.
What is the fraction of employees getting salary less than the

average salary of all the employees
A.
45 PERC
B.
50 PERC
C.
55 PERC
D.
47 PERC
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
43.
Encoding or scrambling data for transmission across a network is

known as
A.
Protection
B.
Detection
C.
Encryption
D.
Decryption
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
44.
Which of the following is not an output device
A.
Printer
B.
Speaker
C.
Monitor
D.
Keyboard
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Keyboard is an Input Device
45.
Which of the following represents one billion characters
A.
Kilobyte
B.
Megabyte
C.
Gigabyte
D.
Terabyte
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
46.
Which of the following is not open source software
A.
Internet Explorer
B.
Fedora Linux
C.
Open office
D.
Apache HTTP server
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Internet explorer is a Product of Microsoft Corporation
47.
Which one of the following represents the binary equivalent of

the decimal number 25
A.
10101
B.
01101
C.
11001
D.
11011
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
48.
Which is an instant messenger that is used for chatting
A.
Altavista
B.
MAC
C.
Microsoft Office
D.
Google Talk
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
49.
In which of the countries per capita use of water is maximum
A.
USA
B.
European Union
C.
China
D.
India
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
50.
India's contribution to total global carbon dioxide emissions is

about
A.
~ 3 PERC
B.
~ 6 PERC
C.
~ 10 PERC
D.
~ 15 PERC
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
1.
two earthquakes A and B happen to be of magnitude 5 and 6

respectively on Richter Scale. The ratio of the energies released
EB/EA will be approximately
A.
~8
B.
~ 16
C.
~ 32
D.
~ 64
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
52.
Which of the following combinations represent renewable natural

resources
A.
Fertile soil, fresh water and natural gas
B.
Clean air, phosphates and biological diversity
C.
Fishes, fertile soil and fresh water
D.
Oil, forests and tides
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
53.
In the recently launched Air Quality Index in India, which of the

following pollutants is not included
A.
Carbon monoxide
B.
Fine particulate matter
C.
Ozone
D.
Chlorofluorocarbons
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
54.
The factors which are most important in determining the impact

of anthropogenic activities on environment are
A.
Population, affluence per person, land available per person
B.
Population, affluence per person and the technology used for

exploiting resources
C.
Atmospheric conditions, population and forest cover
D.
Population, forest cover and land available per person
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
55.
The session of the parliament is summoned by
A.
The President
B.
the prime minister
C.
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D.
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya
Sabha
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
56.
Civil Service Day is celebrated in India on
A.
21st April
B.
24th April
C.
21st June
D.
7th July
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
57.
The South Asia University is situated in the city of
A.
Colombo
B.
Dhaka
C.
New Delhi
D.
Kathmandu
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
58.
The University Grants Commission was established with which of

the following aims
1) Promotion of research and development in higher education
2) Identifying and sustaining institutions of potential learning
3) Capacity building of teachers
4) Providing autonomy to each and every higher educational
institution in India
A.
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
B.
(a), (b) and (c)
C.
(b), (c) and (d)
D.
(a), (b) and (d)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
59.
The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in institutions of higher

education in India at present (2015) is about
A.
8 percent
B.
12 percent
C.
19 percent
D.
23 percent
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
60.
The total number of central universities in India in April 2015 was
A.
08
B.
14
C.
27
D.
43
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
1.
How many strings of 5 digits have the property that the sum of
their digits is 7?
A.
66
B.
330
C.
495
D.
99
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
2.
Consider an experiment of tossing two fair dice, one black and one
red. What is the probability that the number on the black die
divides the number on red die ?
A.
22 / 36
B.
12 / 36
C.
14 / 36
D.
6 / 36
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
3.
In how many ways can 15 indistinguishable fishes be placed into 5

different ponds, so that each pond contains atleast one fish?
A.
1001
B.
3876
C.
775
D.
200
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
4.
Consider the following statements(a) Depth - first search is used to traverse a rooted tree.
(b) Pre - order, Post-order and Inorder are used to list the vertices
of an ordered rooted tree.
(c) Huffman's algorithm is used to find an optimal binary tree with
given weights.
(d) Topological sorting provides a labelling such that the parents
have larger labels than their children.
Which of the above statements are true ?
A.
(a) and (b)
B.
(c) and (d)
C.
(a) , (b) and (c)
D.
(a), (b) , (c) and (d)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
5.
Consider a Hamiltonian Graph (G) with no loops and parallel

edges. Which of the following is true with respect to this Graph
(G) ?
(a) deg (v) >= n / 2 for each vertex of G
(b) | E(G) | >= 1 / 2 (n-1) (n-2) + 2 edges
(c) deg (v) + deg (w) >= n for every v and w not connected by an
edge
A.
(a) and (b)
B.
(b) and (c)
C.
(a) and (c)
D.
(a), (b) and (c)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
6.
Consider the following statements :

(a) Boolean expressions and logic networks correspond to labelled
acyclic digraphs.
(b) Optimal boolean expressions may not correspond to simplest
networks.
(c) Choosing essential blocks first in a Karnaugh map and then
greedily choosing the largest remaining blocks to cover may not
give an optirnal expression
Which of these statement(s) is/ are correct
A.
(a) only
B.
(b) only
C.
(a) and (b)
D.
(a), (b) and (c)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
7.
Consider a full - adder with the following input values :

(a) x=1, y=0 and Ci(carry input) = 0
(b) x=0, y=1 and Ci = 1
Compute the values of S(sum) and C0 (carry output) for the
above input values.
A.
S=1 , C0= 0 and S=0 , C0= 1
B.
S=0 , C0= 0 and S=1 , C0= 1
C.
S=1 , C0= 1 and S=0 , C0= 0
D.
S=0 , C0= 1 and S=1 , C0= 0
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
8.
"lf my computations are correct and I pay the electric bill, then I
will run out of money. If I don't pay the electric biIl the power will
be turned off. Therefore, if I don't run out of money and the power
is still on then my computations are incorrect."
Convert this argument into logical notations using the vations,
electric bills, out of money and the power respectively. (Where
means NOT) ariables c, b, r, p for propositions of comput
A.
if (c b) r and b p, then (rp)c
B.
if (c b) r and b p, then (rp)c
C.
if (c b) r and p b, then (r p)c
D.
if (c b) r and b p, then (rp) c
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Match the following:
9.
List - I
List - II
(a) (p q) (q p)
(i) Contrapositive
(b) [(p ?q) r ] [p (q r)]
(ii) Exportation law
(c) (p q) [(p ? q) o]
(iii) Reductio ad absurdum
(d) (pq) [(p q) ?(qp)]
(iv) Equivalence
(a) (b) (c) (d)

A.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
B.
(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
C.
(iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
D.
(iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
10.
Consider a proposition given as :

" x 6, if x2 25 and its proof as:
If x 6, then x2 = x x= 6 6=36 25
Which of the following is correct w.r.to the given proposition and
its proof ?
(a) The proof shows the converse of what is to be proved.
(b) The proof starts by assuming what is to be shown.
(c) The proof is correct and there is nothing wrong.
A.
(a) only
B.
(c) only
C.
(a) and (b)
D.
(b) only
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
11.
What is the output of the following program ?

(Assume that the appropriate preprocessor directives are
included and there is no syntax error)
main ( )
{ char S[ ] = "ABCDEFGH";
printf ("%C",* (& S[3]));
printf ("%s", S + 4);
printf ("%u", S);
/* Base address of S is 1000 */
}
A.
ABCDEFGH1000
B.
CDEFGH1000
C.
DDEFGHH1000
D.
DEFGH1000
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
12.
Which of the following, in C++, is inherited in a derived class

from base class ?
A.
constructor
B.
destructor
C.
data members
D.
virtual methods
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
13.
Given that x = 7.5, j = -1.0, n = 1.0, m = 2.0

the value of - - x + j = = x > n >= m is :
A.
B.
C.
D.
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
14.
Which of the following is incorrect in C++ ?
A.
When we write overloaded function we must code the function for

each usage.
B.
When we write function template we code the function only once.
C.
It is difficult to debug macros
D.
Templates are more efficient than macros
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
15.
When the inheritance is private, the private methods in base class

are in the ----------- derived class (in C++).
A.
inaccessible
B.
accessible
C.
protected
D.
public
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
16.
An Assertion is a predicate expressing a condition we wish

database to always satisfy. The correct syntax for Assertion is :
A.
CREATE ASSERTION',ASSERTION Name', CHECK',Predicate',
B.
CREATE ASSERTION 'ASSERTION NAME'
C.
CREATE ASSERTION, CHECK Predicate
D.
SELECT ASSERTION
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
17.
Which of the following concurrency protocol ensures both conflict

serializability and freedom from deadlock ?
(a) z-phase Locking
(b) Time stamp - ordering
A.
Both (a) and (b)
B.
(a) only
C.
(b) only
D.
Neither (a) nor (b)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
18.
Drop Table cannot be used to drop a Table referenced by -----constraint.

(a) Primary key (b) Sub key (c) Super key (d) Foreign key
A.
(a)
B.
(a), (b) and (c)
C.
(d)
D.
(a) and (d)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
19.
Database applications were built directly on top of file system to

overcome the following drawbacks of using filesystems
(a) Data redundancy and inconsistency
(b) Difficulty in accessing Data
(c) Data isolation
(d) Integrity problems
A.
(a)
B.
(a) and (d)
C.
(a), (b) and (c)
D.
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
20.
For a weak entity set to be meaningful, lt must be associated with

another entity set in combination with some of their attribute
values, is called as :
A.
Neighbour Set
B.
Strong Entity Set
C.
Owner entity set
D.
Weak Set
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Consider the given graph:

21.
Its Minimurn Cost Spanning Tree is -------A.
B.
C.
D.
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
22.
22: The inorder and preorder Traversal of binary Tree are dbeafcg
and abdecfg respectively.The post order traversal is ------
A.
dbefacg
B.
debfagc
C.
dbefcga
D.
debfgca
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
23.
Level order Traversal of a rooted Tree can be done by starting

from root and performing -
A.
Breadth First Search
B.
Depth first search
C.
Root search
D.
Deep search
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
24.
The average case occurs in the Linear Search Algorithm when :
A.
The item to be searched is in some where middle of the Array
B.
The item to be searched is not in the array
C.
The item to be searched is in the last of the array
D.
The item to be searclred is either in the last or not in the array
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
25.
To determine the efficiency of an algorithm the time factor is

measured by
A.
Counting micro seconds
B.
Counting number of key operations
C.
Counting number of statement
D.
Counting kilobytes of algorithm
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
26.
Which of the following protocols is an application layer protocol

that establishes, manages and terminates multimedis sessions?
A.
Session Maintenance Protocol
B.
Real - time Streaming Protocol
C.
Real - time Transport Control Protocol
D.
Session Initiation Protocol
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Match the following port numbers with their uses :
27.
List-I
List-II
(a) 23
(i) World wide web
(b) 25
(ii) Remote Login
(c) 80
(iii) USENET news
(d) 119
(iv) Email
(a) (b) (c) (d)

A.
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
B.
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
C.
(ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
D.
(ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
28.
Which of the following is not associated with the session layer ?
A.
Dialog control
B.
Token management
C.
Semantics of the information transmitted
D.
Synchronization
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
29.
What is the size of the'total length' field in IPv 4 datagram ?
A.
4 bits
B.
8 bits
C.
16 bits
D.
32 bits
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
30.
Which of the following isf are restriction(s) in classless

addressing ?
A.
The number of addresses needs to be a power of 2.
B.
The mask needs to be included in the address to define the block.
C.
The starting address must be divisible by lhe number of addresses
in the block.
D.
All of the above
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Match the following:
31.
List-I
List-II
(a) Forward Reference Table
(i) Assembler directive
(b) Mnemonic Table
(ii) Uses array data structure
(c) Segment Register Table
(iii) Contains machine OP code
(d) EQU
(iv) Uses linked list data structure
(a) (b) (c) (d)

A.
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
B.
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
C.
(iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
D.
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
32.
The translator which performs macro calls expansion is called :
A.
Macro processor
B.
Micro pre-processor
C.
Macro pre-processor
D.
Dynamic linker
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
33.
If all the production rules have single non - terminal symbol on

the left side, the grammar defined is:
A.
context free grammar
B.
context sensitive grammar
C.
unrestricted grammar
D.
phrase grammar
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
34.
Which one from the following is false ?
A.
LALR parser is Bottom - Up parser
B.
A parsing algorithm which performs a left to right scanning and a

right most deviation is RL (1).
C.
LR parser is Bottom - Up parser.
D.
In LL(1), the 1 indicates that there is a one - symbol look - ahead.
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
35.
Which phase of compiler generates stream of atoms ?
A.
Syntax analysis
B.
Lexical Analysis
C.
Code generation
D.
Code optimization
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
36.
A disk drive has 100 cylinders, numbered 0 to 99. Disk requests

come to the disk driver for cylinders 12, 26, 24, 4, 42, 8 and 50 in
that order. The driver is currently serving a request at cylinder 24A seek takes 6 msec per cylinder moved. How much seek time is
needed for shortest seek time first (SSTF) algorithm?
A.
0.984 sec
B.
0.396 sec
C.
0.738 sec
D.
0.42 sec
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
37.
Let Pi and Pj be two processes, R be the set of variables read from

memory, ot and W be the set variables written to memory. For the
concurrent execution of two processes Pi and Pj, which of the
following conditions is not true?
A.
R(Pi) W (Pj) =
B.
W(Pi) R (Pj) =
C.
R(Pi) R (Pj) =
D.
W(Pi) W (Pj) =
View/Hide
Correct Answer is D
Ans
Explanation
38.
A LRU page replacement is used with four page frames and eight
pages. How many page faults will occur with the reference string
0172327103 if the four frames are initially empty?
A.
B.
C.
D.
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
39.
What does the following command do ? grep ? vn "abc" x
A.
It will print all of the lines in the file x that match the search string
"abc"
B.
It will print all of the lines in file x that do not match the search
string "abc"
C.
It will print total no of the lines in file x that match the search
string "abc".
D.
It will print the specific line numbers of file x in which there is a

match for the string "abc".
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
40.
The Unix Kernel maintains two key data strucfures related to

processes, the progress table and the user structure. Which of
following information is not the part of user
A.
File descriptor table
B.
System call state
C.
Scheduling parameters
D.
Kernel stack
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Match the following
List - I
List - II
(a) Size-oriented
metric
(i) uses number of external interfaces as one of

the measurement parameters
(b) Functionoriented metrics
(ii) originally designed to be applied to

business information system
(c) Extended
Function Point
Metrics
(iii) derived by normalizing quality and/ or

productivity measures by considering the size
of the software.
(d) Function Point
(iv) uses algorithm characteristics as of the

measurement parameter
(a) (b) (c) (d)

A.
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
B.
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
C.
(iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
D.
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
View/Hide Ans
Correct Answer
is B
Explanation
42.
In which testing
strategy
requirements
established during
requirements
analysis are
validated against
developed
software?
A.
Validation testing
B.
Integration testing
C.
Regression testing
D.
System testing
View/Hide Ans
Correct Answer
is A
Explanation
43.
Which process
model is also called
as classic life cycle
model?
A.
Waterfall model
B.
RAD model
C.
Prototyping model
D.
Incremental model
View/Hide Ans
Correct Answer
is A
Explanation
44.
Cohesion is an
extension of :
A.
Abstraction
concept
B.
Refinement
concept
C.
Information hiding
concept
D.
Modularity
View/Hide Ans
Correct Answer
is D
Explanation
45.
Which one from

the following is
highly associated
activity of project
planning?
A.
Keep track of the

project
B.
Compare actual
and planned
progress and costs
C.
Identify the
activities,
milestones and
deliverables
produced by a
project
D.
Both (2) and (3)
View/Hide Ans
Correct Answer
is C
Explanation
46.
In the case of
parallelization,
Amdahl's law
states that if P is
the proportion of
the program that
can be made
parallel and (1 - P)
is the proportion
that cannot be
parallelized , then
the maximum
speed that can be
achieved by using
N processors is A.
1 / (1 - P) + N.P
B.
1 / (N 1) P + P
C.
1 / (1 P) + P / N
D.
1 / P + (1 P) / N
View/Hide Ans
Correct Answer
is C
Explanation
47.
Which of the
following
statements is
incorrect for
Parallel Virtual
Machine (PVM)?
A.
The PVM
Communication
model provides
asynchronous
blocking send,
asynchronous
blocking receive
and non-blocking
receive function
B.
Message buffers
are allocated
dynamically
C.
The PVM
communication
model assumes
that any task that
can send a
message to any
other PVM task and
that there is no
limit to the size or
number of such
messages
D.
In PVM Model, the

message order is
not preserved
View/Hide Ans
Correct Answer
is D
Explanation
48.
Which of the
following
algorithms sort n
integers, having
the range 0 to (n2
- 1), in ascending
order in O(n)
time ?
A.
Selection sort
B.
Bubble sort
C.
Radix sort
D.
Insertion sort
View/Hide Ans
Correct Answer
is C
Explanation
49.
Which of the
following
statements is
FALSE about weak
entity set ?
A.
Weak entities can

be deleted.
automatically when
their strong entity
is deleted.
B.
Weak entity set

avoids the data
duplication and
consequent
possible
inconsistencies
caused by
duplicating the key
of the strong entity
C.
A weak entity set

has no primary
keys unless
attributes of the
strong entity set on
which it depends
are included
D.
Tuples in a weak
enfity set are not
partitioned
according to their
relationship with
tuples in a strong
entity set.
View/Hide Ans
Correct Answer
is D
Explanation
50.
Which of the
following is not
valid with
reference to
Message Passing
Interface (MPI) ?
A.
MPI can run on any

hardware platform
B.
The programming
model is a
distributed
memory model.
C.
All parallelism is
implicit
D.
MPI - Comm - Size

returns the total
number of MPI
processes in
specified
communication.
View/Hide Ans
Correct Answer
is C
PROPERTIES OF BINARY TREES

There are some basic properties of binary trees. It is better to know all of them and how
to apply.For easier understanding I am giving it in a tabular form.
1. Maximum number of nodes on any level i is
2i
2. Maximum number of nodes possible in a binary tree of height h is
3.
Minimum number of nodes possible in a binary tree of height h is

equal to
2h-1
h
4. If a binary tree contains n nodes, then its maximum height possible is n

5. If a binary tree contains n nodes, then its minimum height possible is
6.
In a non empty binary tree, if n is the total number of nodes and e is

the total number of edges, then
log2(n+1)
e=n-1
7. In a full binary tree of height k, there are
2k-1 internal
nodes
8. A strictly binary tree with n leaf nodes always has
2n - 1 nodes
JUNE 2007 - PAPER II Q.No 3

The maximum number of nodes in a binary tree of depth 10 is :
(A). 1024
(B). 210-1
(C). 1000
(D). None of the above
Ans:- B
Explanation:According to property 2, the maximum number of nodes in a binary tree of height or
depth h is 2h-1
DECEMBER 2007 - PAPER II Q.No 23
The height of a binary tree with 'n' nodes in the worst case is
(A). 0(log n)
(B). O(n)
(C). (n log n)
(D). (n2)
Ans:- B
Explanation:Big omega notation is used for representing the best case. Big oh notation is used for
representing the worst case. It is a measure of the longest amount of time it could
possibly take for any algorithm to complete. Since we are representing the height of a
binary tree, it would be the maximum height possible in a tree with 'n' nodes and it is
O(n). So, the correct answer is B.
JUNE 2009 - PAPER II Q.No. 27
In a full binary tree of height k, there are ____________internal nodes.

(A). 2k-1
(B). 2k-1
(C). 2k
(D). 2k+1
Ans:-A
Explanation:Refer to the following diagram to understand the explanation. A full binary tree is one
which has all the levels have maximum number of nodes in a tree.
DECEMBER 2009 - PAPER II Q.No 21

If the number of leaves in a strictly binary tree is an odd number, then what can you say
with full conviction about total number of nodes in the tree?.
(A). It is an odd number.
(B). It is an even number.
(C). It cannot be equal to the number of leaves
(D). It is always greater than twice the number of leaves
Ans:-A
Explanation:A binary tree is a strictly binary tree if each node in the tree is either a leaf node or has
exactly two children. There is no node with one child. According to its property, a strictly
binary tree with n leaf nodes always has 2n-1 nodes. Let us consider n to be an odd
number and give it a value of 3. So, the number of nodes in the tree would be 2n - 1
which is 2 X 3 -1 = 5. So that is also an odd number. So, the answer is A.
JUNE 2010 - PAPER II Q.No 23
In a complete binary tree of n nodes, how far are the two most distant nodes?.Assume
each edge in the path count as 1.
(A). About log2n
(B). About 2log2n
(C). About nlog2n
(D). About 2n
Ans:-A
Explanation:The height h of a complete binary tree with n nodes is at the most O(log 2n).
DECEMBER 2011 - PAPER II Q.No. 50
The number of nodes in a complete binary tree of height h (with roots at level 0) is
equal to
(A) 20+21+......+2h
(B) 20+21+......+2h-1
(C) 20+21+......+2h+1
(D) 21+......+2h+1
Ans:-A
Explanation:Count the number of nodes in each level, starting with the root, assuming that each
level has the maximum number of nodes.
n=1+2+4+....2h-1+2h
1. The channel capacity of a band-limited Gaussian channel is given by
(A). B log2 (2+S/N) (B) B log2 (1+S/N)
(C ).B log10(1+S/N) (D). B loge(1+S/N)

Ans : B. Explanation :- C=B log2 (1 + S/N) where C is the capacity in bits per second. B is the
bandwidth of the channel in Hertz and S/N is the signal to noise ratio.
2. The graph K 3,4 has _______ edges.

(A). 3 edges (B) 4 edges
(C ). 7 edges (D) 12 edges
Ans : D. A bipartite graph is a complete bipartite graph if every vertex in U is connected to every
vertex in V. If U has n elements and V has m, then the resulting complete bipartite graph can be
denoted by K n,m and the number of edges is given by n*m.
The number of edges = K 3,4 = 3 * 4 = 12
3. The total number of spanning trees that can be drawn using five labeled vertices is:
(A). 125 (B).64
(C ). 36 (D). 16
Ans : A. According to cayleys formula for counting spanning trees, for a complete graph Kn,
T(Kn)= n n-2 where n is the number of vertices.
T(k5)=5 5-2=5 3= 5 * 5 * 5=125
4. Extremely low power dissipation and low cost per gate can be achieved in
(A) MOS ICS (B) C MOS ICS
(C ) TTL ICS (D) ECL ICS
Ans : B. CMOS ICS
5. An example of a universal building block is :

(A). EX-OR Gate (B). AND Gate
(C ). OR gate (D). NOR Gate
Ans:- D. Universal gates are the ones which can be used for implementing any gate like AND,OR
and NOT or any combination of these basic gates. Apart from the NOR gate, NAND gate is also
considered as universal gate.
6. An example of a layer that is absent in broadcast networks is :

(A). Physical layer (B). Presentation layer
(C ). Network layer (D). application layer
Ans : C.
7. The ATM cell is :
(A). 48 bytes long (B). 53 bytes long

(C ). 64 bytes long (D). 69 bytes long
Ans: B. An ATM cell always consists of a 5-byte header followed by a 48-byte payload. So the size is
53 bytes long.
8. Four jobs J1,J2,J3, and J4 are waiting to be run. Their expected run times are 9,6,3 and 5
respectively. In order to minimize average response time, the jobs should be run in the order:
(A). J1 J2 J3 J4 (B). J4 J3 J2 J1
(C ) J3 J4 J1 J2 (D) J3 J4 J2 J1
Ans : D
9. Suppose it takes 100ns to access page table and 20 ns to access associative memory. If the
average access time is 28ns, the corresponding hit rate is:
(A). 100 percent (B). 90 percent
(C ). 80 percent (D). 70 percent
Ans : B
10. Transmission of N signals , each band limited to Fm Hz by TDM, requires a minimum band-width
of
(A).fm (B) 2 fm
(C ) N fm (D) 2N fm
Ans : C. Minimum transmission band-width of TDM channel is given by the following equation.
Bt=NW
Where N is the total number of channels, which are bandlimited to W Hz. In the above problem, the
number of signals are N, each band limited to Fm Hz and so the minimum band-width is N fm.
11. If a code is t error detecting, the minimum hamming distance should be equal to :
(A). t-1 (B). t
(C ). t+1 (D). 2t+1
Ans: C. To guarantee the detection of upto s errors in all cases, the minimum hamming distance in a
block code must be
dmin=s+1
So, the minimum hamming distance for a t error detecting must be t+1
12. A relation R in {1,2,3,4,5,6} is given by {(1,2),(2,3),(3,4),(4,4),(4,5)}. The relation is :

(A) Reflexive (B). symmetric
(C ). Transitive (D). not reflexive, not symmetric and not transitive
Ans:- D.
13. The dual of the switching function x+yz is:
(A). x+yz (B). x+yz

(C ). x(y+z) (D). x(y+z)
Ans:- D
14. The characteristic equation of D-flip flop is :
(A). Q=1 (B). Q=0
(C ). Q=D (D). Q=D
Ans: D.
15. If four 4 input mulitplexers drive a 4 input multiplexer we get a :

(A). 16 input MUX (B). 8 input MUX
(C ). 4 input MUX (D). 2 input MUX
Ans:- A
16. The throughput of slotted ALOHA is given by:

(A). S=G (B). S=GeG
(C ). S=Ge-G (D). S=eG
Ans: C
17. Congestion control is done by

(A). Network layer (B). Physical layer
(C ). Presentation layer (D). Application layer
Ans:- A. Addressing, internetworking, error handling, packet sequencing are its other jobs.
18. Assertion(A): Twisted pairs are widely used as transmission medium.

Reasoning(R ): Twisted pairs have adequate performance and low cost.
(A). Both (A) and (R ) are true and (R ) is the correct explanation for (A).
(B). Both (A) and (R ) are true but (R ) is not the correct explanation
(C ). (A) is true but (R ) is false
(D). (A) is false but (R ) is true
Ans:- A. Page No .91 of Tanenbaum book, you will find the following statement. Due to their
adequate performance and low cost, twister pairs are widely used and are likely to remain so for
years to come.
19. An example of a non-adaptive routing algorithm is:

(A). Shortest path routing (B). Centralised routing
(C ). Barans hot potato algorithm (D). Barans backward learning algorithm
Ans:- A. Shortest path routing.
20. IP address in B class is given by:

(A). 125.123.123.2 (B). 191.023.21.54
(C ). 192.128.32.56 (D). 10.14.12.34
Ans:- B
21. N processes are waiting for I/O. A process spends a fraction of its time in I/O wait state. The
CPU utilization is given by:
(A). 1-P N (B). 1 P N
(C ). P N (D). P -N
Ans:B. According to the probabilistic model, if a process spends a fraction p of its time in I/O wait
state, and if there are N processes in memory, then the CPU utilization is given by 1-PN
22. If holes are half as large as processes, the fraction of memory wasted in holes is:
(A) 2 / 3 (B). 1 / 2
(C ). 1 / 3 (D). 1 / 5
Ans : D
23. An example of a non-premptive scheduling algorithm is:

(A). Round robin (B). Priority scheduling
(C ). Shortest job first (D). 2 level scheduling
Ans: C
24. An example of a distributed OS is:
(A). Amoeba (B). UNIX
(C ). MS DOS (D). MULTICS
Ans: A
25. Which one of the following correctly describes a static variable:
(A). It cannot be initialized.
(B). It is initialized once at the commencement of execution and cannot be changed during run time.
(C ). It retains its value during the life of the program.
(D). None of the above
Ans: C
26. The output of the program code
main()
{
int x = 0;
while ( x < = 10)

for(;;)
if (++x%10==0)
break;
printf(x=%d,x);
}
is:
(A). x = 1 (B). compilation error
(C ). x = 20 (D) none of the above
Ans:- C. For the while statement there is a for loop inside. For the for loop, there is one if condition,
based on which there is a break statement. Since the value of x initially is 0, the while condition
would be true and the for loop would start executing. The if statement condition would be checked,
since ++x would become 1 and 1%10 is not equal to 0, break will not be executed. Since for is
infinite x value will go on increasing. Once the value of x reaches 9, ++x would become 10 and
10%10==0 and so break would be executed. So control will come out of the innermost loop and
would go to the outer loop. Sinc the value of x is 10, and since it is equal to 10, once again the for
loop would start its execution. Once the value of x reaches 20, 20%10 will be equal to 0 and again
break will be executed and control would go to the outer for loop. When the condition is checked for
x<=10,it is false as the value of x is 20 and so it comes out of the while loop and the printf statement
gets executed, printing the value of 20. Whew!!!!! 27. A copy constructor is invoked when : (A). a
function returns by value (B). an argument is passed by value (C ). A function returns by reference
(D). none of the above Ans:- B 28. When a language has the capability to produce new data types, it
is said to be : (A). extensible (B). encapsulated (C ). Overloaded (D). none of the above Ans:-A 29.
How many constructors can a class have? (A) Zero (B) 1 (C ) 2 (D) any number Ans:- D 30. An entity
has: (i) a set of properties (ii) a set of properties and values for all the properties (iii) a set of
properties and the values for some set of properties may non-uniquely identify an entity (iv) a set of
properties and the values for some set of properties may uniquely identify an entity Which of the
above are valid? (A) (i) only (B) (ii) only (C ) (iii) only (D) (iv) only Ans:- D 31. Aggregation is: (A) An
abstraction through which relationships are treated as lower level entities (B) An abstraction through
which relationships are treated as higher level entities (C) An abstraction through which relationships
are not treated at all as entities (D) None of the above Ans:- B 32. Suppose R is a relation schema
and F is a set of functional dependencies on R. Further, suppose R1 and R2 forma a decomposition
of R. Then the decomposition is a lossless join decomposition of R provided that : (A) R1 R2 ->R1
is in F+
(B) R1 R2->R2 is in F+
(C) Both R1 R2->R1 and R1 R2->R3 functional dependencies are in F+
(D)At least one from R1R2->R1 and R1 R2->R2 is in F+
Ans:- D.
33. In a heap, every element is ________________ of all the elements in the subtree.
(A) Maximum (B) minimum
(C ) sum (D) product
Ans:- A
34. If (rear == maxsize 1) rear=0; else rear=rear+1; is required in :

(A) circular queue (B) linear queue (C) stack (D) deque
Ans:- D
35. A high performance switching and multiplexing technology that utilizes fixed length packets to
carry different types of traffic is :
(A) ATM (B) ADSL (C) SONET (D) None of the above
Ans:- A
36. A conventional LAN bridge specifies only the functions of OSI:

(A) Layers 1 and 2 (B) layers 1 through 3 (C) all layers (D) none of the above
Ans:- A.
37. An assembly program contains:

(A) Imperative and declarative statements
(B) Imperative statements and assembler directives
(C) Imperative and declarative statements as well as assembler directives
(D) Declarative statements and assembler directives
Ans:- C. Assembly program consists of three types of statements.
1. Imperative
2. Declarative
3. Assembler directives
38. In which addressing mode, the effective address of the operand is generated by adding a
constant value to the contents of a register?
(A) Absolute mode (B) immediate mode (C) indirect mode (D) index mode
Ans:- D
39. Which of the following are Assembler directives?

(i) EQU (ii) ORIGIN (iii) START (iv) END
(A) (ii),(iii) and (iv) (B) (i),(iii) and (iv)
(B) (iii) and (iv) (D) (i),(ii),(iii) and (iv)
Ans:- D
40. Which of the following OS treats hardware as a file system?

(A) UNIX (B) DOS (C) Windows NT (D) none of the above
Ans:- A.
41. In which of the following, ready to execute processes must be present in RAM?
(A) Multiprocessing (B) multiprogramming (C) multitasking (D) all of the above
42. If the executing program size is greater than the existing RAM of a computer, it is still possible to
execute the program if the OS supports:
(A) Multitasking (B) virtual memory (C) paging system (D) none of the above
Ans: B
43. Software Quality Assurance (SQA) encompasses:

(A) Verification (B) validation (C) both verification and validation (D) none of the above
44. Which level is called as defined in capability maturity model?

(A) Level 0 (B) level 3 (C) level 4 (D) level 1
Ans:- B
45. COCOMO model is used for:

(A) Product quality estimation (B). product complexity estimation
(C) product cost estimation (D) all of the above
Ans: C
46. Font sizes are usually expressed in points. One point is:
(A) 0.0069 inch (B) 0.0138 inch
(C) 0.0207 inch (D0 0.0276 inch
Ans:- B. One point is 1/72 of an inch and so we will get the answer 0.0138 inch.
47. Assertion (A): Cellular telephone systems can handle a multitude of users.
Reasoning(R ): Cellular telephone systems permit extensive frequency reuse in a small local area.
(A) Both (A) and (R ) are true and (R ) is the correct explanation for (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R ) are true but (R ) is not the correct explanation
(C) (A) is true but (R ) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R ) is true
Ans:- A.
48. E-Commerce involves:
(A)Electronic Data Interchange (B) Electronic mail

(C) Electronic Bulletin boards (D) All of the above
Ans:- D. E-commerce involves paperless transactions and usage of EDI(Electronic Data
Interchange), electronic mail, bulletin boards, fax transmission and electronic fund transfers.
49. An example of a data mining algorithm which uses squared error score function is:
(A) CART algorithm (B) back propagation algorithm (C) a priori algorithm
(D) vector space algorithm
Ans:- B. Back propagation algorithm uses squared error score function. CART algorithm uses crossvalidated loss function.
50. (I) Each object in the active directory of windows 2000 has an access control list.
(II) The scheme is a blueprint of all objects in the domain of windows 2000. Which of the following is
true?
(A) Only (I) (B) only (II) (C) both (I) and (II) (d) none of the above
Ans:- C
DECEMBER 2009 PAPER II SOLVED

1. If she is my friend and you are her friend, then we are friends. Given this, the friend relationship in
this context is ________________.
(i) Commutative (ii) transitive (iii) implicative (iv) equivalence
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (iii) (C) (i),(ii),(iii) and (iv) (D) None of these
Ans:- D
2. Circle has ________
(A) No vertices (B) only 1 vertex (C) vertices (D) None of these
Ans :- A
8. The highest noise margin is offered by
(A) BICMOS (B) TTL (C) ECL (D) CMOS
Ans:- B
9. The answer of the operation (10111)2 * (1110)2 in hex equivalence is
(A) 150 (B) 241 (C) 142 (D) 101011110
Ans:- C
10. How many 1 are present in the binary representation of

3 X 512 + 7 X 64 + 5 X 8 + 3
(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 11
Ans:- B
11. Recursive functions are executed in a
(A) First in first out order (B) Last in first out order
(C ) Parallel fashion (D) Load Balancing
Ans: B
12. What would be the output of the following program, if run from the commandline as myprog 1 2
3?
main(int argc,char *argv[])
{
int i;
i=argv[1]+argv[2]+argv[3];
printf(%d,i);
}
(A) 123 (B) 6 (C) Error (D) 123
Ans:- C
13. A ________________ is a special method used to initialize the instance variable of a class.
(A) Member function (B) Destructor (C) Constructor (D) structure
Ans:- C
14. Encapsulation is
(A) Dynamic binding
(B) A mechanism to associate the code and data
(C ) Data abstraction
(D ) Creating new class
Ans:- B
15. Which of the statements are true?
I. Function overloading is done at compile time.
II. Protected members are accessible to the member of a derived class.
III. A derived class inherits constructors and destructors
IV. A friend function can be called like a normal function.
V. Nested class is a derived class.
(A) I,II,III (B) II,III,V (C) III,IV,V (D) I,II,IV
Ans:- D
16. The E-R model is expressed in terms of
I. Entities
II. The relationship among entitites

III. The attributes of the entities.
IV. Functional relationship.
(A) I,II (B) I,II, IV (C) II,II,IV (D) I,II,IV
Ans:- D
17. Specialization is ________________process.
(A) top-down (B) bottom up
(C ) both (A) and (B) (D) none of these
Ans:- A
18. Match the following:
(1) Determinants (a) No attributes
(2) Candidate key (b) Uniquely identified a row
(3) Non-redundancy (c ) A constraint between two attributes
(4) Functional dependency (d) Group of attributes on the left hand side of arrow
of function dependency
(A) 1 d, 2 b, 3 a, 4 c
(B) 2 d, 3 a, 1- b, 4 c
(C) 4 a, 3 b, 2 c, 1 d
(D) 3 a, 4 b, 1 c, 2 d
Ans:- A.
19. A function that has no partial functional dependencies is in _____________ form.
(A) 3 NF (B) 2 NF (C) 4 NF (D) BCNF
Ans:- B
20. Which of the following statement is wrong?
I. 2-phase locking protocol suffer from dead lock.
II. Time stamp protocol suffer from more aborts.
III. A block hole in a DFD is a data store with only inbound flows.
IV. Multivalued dependency among attribute is checked at 3 NF level.
V. An entity-relationship diagram is a tool to represent event model.
(A) I ,II,III (B) II,III,IV (C) III,IV,V (D) II,IV,V
Ans:- A
21. If the number of leaves in a strictly binary tree is an odd number, then what can you say with full
conviction about total number of nodes in a tree?
(A) It is an odd number.
(B) It is an even number.
(C ) It cannot be equal to the number of leaves.
(D ) It is always greater than twice the number of leaves.
Ans:- A. Strictly binary tree with N leaves contains 2N-1 nodes. So when the number of leaves is odd
number then the total number of nodes in the tree also will be odd if we apply the above formula.
22. The number of edges in a complete graph of n vertices is
(A) n (B) n(n-1)/2 (C ) n(n+1)/2 (D) n2/2
Ans:- B. The complete graph on n vertices has n(n-1)/2 edges.
23. At a hill station, the parking lot is one long drive way snaking up a hill side. Cars drive in and park
right behind the car in front of them, one behind another. A car cant leave until all the cars in front of
it have left. Is the parking lot more like
(A) An array (B) A stack (C) A queue (D) A linked list
Ans:- C.
24. With regard to linked list, which of the following statement is false ?
(A) An algorithm to search for an element in a singly linked list requires O(n) operations in the worst
case.
(B) An algorithm for deleting the first element in a singly linked list requires o(n) operations in the
worst case.
(C ). An algorithm for finding the maximum value in a circular linked list requires o(n) operations.
(D ). An algorithm for deleting the middle node of a circular linked list requires o(n) operations.
Ans:- B
25. A hash function f defined as f(key)=key mod 7, with linear probing used to resolve collisions.
Insert the keys 37,38,72,48,98 and 11 into the table indexed from 0 to 6. What will be the location of
11?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C ) 5 (D) 6
Ans:- C
26. Device on one network can communicate with devices on another network via a
(A) Hub/switch (B) Utility server
( C) File server (D) Gateway
Ans:- D
27. What is the maximum window size in sliding window protocol used in a computer network?
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C ) 15 (D) 16
Ans:- A
28. Which of the following are Data Link Layer standard?
1. Ethernet 2. HSSI 3. Frame Relay
4. 10-Base T 5. Token Ring
(A) 1,2,3 (B) 1,3,5 (C) 1,3,4,5 (D) 1,2,3,4,5
Ans:- C
29. In case of Bus/Tree topology signal balancing issue is overcome by
(A) Modulation (B) Polling

(C ) Segmentation (D) Strong transmitter
Ans:- C
30. Match the following:
(i) Ethernet (a) Deterministic
(ii) Token Ring (b) Utilize the full wire speed
(iii) Cut-through switch (c ) Prevent Looping
(iv) Spanning tree (d) Checking valid address
Codes:
(A) i-d,ii-a,iii-b,iv-c (B) i-a,ii-d,iii-b,iv-c
(C ) i-d,ii-d,iii-c,iv-b (D) i-d,ii-c,iii-b,iv-a
Ans:- A
31. In an absolute loading scheme which loader function is accomplished by assembler?
(A) re-allocation (B) allocation (C ) linking (D) loading
Ans:- A. Implementation of Absolute loader: The four loader functions are performed as following:
1.Allocation- By programmer 2.Linking- By programmer 3.Relocation- By assembler 4.Loading- By
loader
32. Which of the following grammar is LR(1)?
(A) A->aAb, A->bAb,A->a,A->b
(B) A->aAa,A->aAb,A->c
(C ) A->A+A,A->a
(D)Both (A) and (B)
33. A shift-reduce parser carries out the actions specified within braces immediately after reducing
with the corresponding rule of the grammar.
S->xxW[ print 1 ]
S->y [ print 2 ]
W->S2 [ print 3 }, what is the translation of x x x x y z z?
(A) 1 1 2 3 1 (B) 1 1 2 3 3 (C) 2 3 1 3 1 (D) 2 3 3 2 1
Ans:- C
34. Context-free Grammar(CFG) can be recognized by
(A) Finite state automata
(B) 2-way linear bounded automata
(C ) push down automata
(D ) Both (B) and (C)
Ans:- D
35. Synthesized attribute can be easily simulated by a
(A) LL grammar (B) Ambiguous grammar
(C ) LR grammar (D) None of the above

Ans:- C
36. In the process management Round-robin method is essentially the pre-emptive version of
_______________.
(A) FILO (B) FIFO
(C ) SSF (D) Longest time first
Ans:- B
37. A page fault
(A) is an error specific page
(B) is an access to the page not currently in memory
(C ) occur when a page program occur in a page memory.
(D ) page used in the previous page reference.
Ans:- B
38. A semaphore count of negative n means (s=-n) that the queue contains ___n__________
waiting processes.
(A) n + 1 (B) n (C) n 1 (D) 0
Ans:- B
39. A program is located in the smallest available hole in the memory is ______________
(A) best-fit (B) first-bit (C ) worst-fit (D ) buddy
Ans:- A
40. The unix command used to find out the number of characters in a file is
(A) nc (B) wc (C ) chcnt (D) lc
Ans:- B
41. Software Engineering is a discipline that integrates __________ for the development of computer
software.
(A) Process (B) Methods (C ) Tools (D) All
Ans:- D
42. Any error whose cause cannot be identified anywhere within the software system is called
_________________.
(A) Internal error (B) External error
(C ) Inherent error (D) Logic error
Ans:- B
43. Recorded software attributes can be used in the following endeavours:
(i) Cost and schedule estimates.
(ii) Software product reliability predictions
(iii )Managing development process

(iv). No where
Codes:
(A) (i) (ii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (i) (ii) (iii)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Ans :- C
44. Black box testing is done
(A) To show that s/w is operational at its interfaces i.e. input and output.
(B) To examine internal details of code
(C) At client side
(D) None of the above
Ans:- A
45. The name of the transaction file shall be provided by the operator and the file that contains the
edited transactions ready for execution shall be called
(A) Batch.exe (B) Trans.exe (C ) Opt.exe (D) Edit.exe
Ans:- C
46. The single stage network is also called
(A) One sided network (B) two sided network (C ) recirculating network
(E) pipeline network
Ans:- C. The single stage network is also called a recirculating network.
47. Analysis of large database to retrieve information is called
(A) OLTP (B) OLAP (C ) OLDP (D) OLPP
Ans:- B
48. Which technology is sometime referred to as wireless cable?
(A) MMDS (B) ATM (C ) LMDS (D) CDMA
Ans:- A. MMDS stands for multipoint multichannel distribution system. MMDS is a broadband
wireless technology.
49. Another name of IEEE 802.11 a is ______________
(A) Wi-Max (B) Fast Ethernet (C) Wi-fi (D) 802.11 g
Ans:- C. IEEE 802.11 standards provide the basis for Wi-fi networks.
50. The unlicensed National Information Infrastructure band operates at the
____________frequency
(A) 2.4 GHz (B) 5 GHz (C ) 33 MHz (D) 5 MHz
Ans:- B
26. An actor in an animation is a small program invoked _______ per frame to

determine the characteristics of some object in the animation.
(A) once
(B) twice
(C) 30 times
(D) 60 times
Ans:- A
Explanation:An actor in an animation is a small program invoked once per frame to determine
the characteristics of some object in the animation.
27. Bresenham line drawing algorithm is attractive because it uses
(A) Real arithmetic only
(B) Integer arithmetic only
(C) Floating point arithmetic
(D) Real and integer arithmetic
Ans:- B
Explanation:Bresenhems algorithm offers a significant advantage over the other methods, as it
avoids floating-point arithmetic and rounding. It is a classic example of an
incremental algorithm that computes the location of each pixel along the line based
on information about the previous pixel. It uses only integer values and avoids any
multiplications.
28. The refresh rate above which a picture stops flickering and fuses into a steady
image is called _________.
(A) Crucial fusion frequency
(B) Current frequency fusion
(C) Critical fusion frequency
(D) Critically diffused frequency
Ans:- C
Explanation:The refresh rate of a CRT is the number of times per second the image is redrawn. It
is typically 60 per second for raster displays. As the refresh rate decreases, flicker
develops because the eye can no longer integrate the individual light pulses coming
from a pixel. The refresh rate above which a picture stops flickering and fuses into a
steady image is called the critical fusion frequency (or) CFF.
29. In homogenous coordinate system (x, y, z) the points with z = 0 are called
(A) Cartesian points
(B) Parallel points
(C)Origin point
(D) Point at infinity
Ans:- D
Explanation:In homogenous coordinates, we add a third coordinate to a point. Instead of being

represented by a pair of numbers(x,y) each point is represented by a triple(x,y,w).
At the same time, we say that two sets of homogenous coordinates(x,y,w) and
(x,y,w) represent the same point if and only if one is a multiple of the other. Thus
(2,3,6) and (4,6,12) are the same points represented by the different coordinate
triples. Also, at least one of the homogenous coordinates must be nonzero : (0,0,0)
is not allowed. If the w coordinate is nonzero, we can divide through by it(x,y,w)
represents the same point as (x/w,y/w,1). When w is nonzero, we normally do this
division, and the numbers x/w and y/w are called the Cartesian coordinates of the
homogenous points. The points with w=0 are called points at infinity. So, the correct
answer is D.
30. If 40 black lines interleaved with 40 white lines can be distinguished across one
inch, the resolution is
(A) 40 line-pairs per inch
(B) 80 line-pairs per inch
(C) 1600 lines per inch
(D) 40 lines per inch
Ans:- A
Explanation:Resolution is the number of distinguishable lines per inch that a device can create.
Resolution is defined as the closest spacing at which adjacent black and white lines
can be distinguished by observers. If 40 black lines interleaved with 40 white lines
can be distinguished across one inch, the resolution is 80 lines per inch or 40 linepairs per inch. So, the correct answer is A.
31. Images tend to be very large collection of data. The size of memory required for
a 1024 by 1024 image in which the colour of each pixel is represented by a n-bit
number, (in an 8 bit machines) is
(A) n X 8 MB
(B) n / 8 MB
(C) (1024 X 1024 ) / 8 MB
(D) 1024 MB
Ans:- B
Explanation:Look at the options which are not going to be correct at all. Eliminate the wrong
answers to get the right answer. Every pixel is represented by a n-bit number, the
value of n is not mentioned. So, we rule out C and D options completely. So, it can
be either A or B. But it is not A because the n-bit number is not going to be
multiplied with 8 for a 8 bit machine. So, the correct answer is B.
32. Arrays in C language can have _________ with reference to memory
representation.
(A) n-subscripts
(B) two-subscripts
(C) only one subscript
(D) three subscripts only

Ans:- C
Explanation:With reference to memory representation, even a two-dimensional array subscript is
going to be converted into a single subscript for accessing or referring the memory
location. So, it will be option C.
33. Refer the points as listed below :
(a) What are the operator precedence rules ?
(b) What are the operator associativity rules ?
(c) What is the order of operand evaluation ?
(d) Are there restrictions on operand evaluation side effects ?
Which of the above must be considered as primary design issues
for arithmetic expressions ?
(A) (a), (b) and (c)
(B) (a), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans:- C
Explanation:The options (a),(b) and (d) makes sense, but option (c) is not so clear. There is no
order on the operand evaluation. It is decided by the operator precedence and
associativity. So, the correct answer is C.
34. Horn clauses are special kinds of propositions which can be described as
(A) Single atomic proposition on left side.
(B) Single or multiple atomic proposition on left side.
(C) A single atomic proposition on left side and a single atomic proposition on right
side.
(D) A single atomic proposition on left side or an empty left side.
Ans:- D
Explanation:A Horn clause is a unique kind of proposition which has either one single proposition
on the left hand side or an empty proposition. When a Horn clause does contain a
proposition on the left side, it is sometimes refered to as a headed Horn clause. The
Horn clause is named after Alfred Horn who studied this type of propositional clause
(Horn, 1951).
35.Which of the following is/are the fundamental semantic model(s) of parameter
passing ?
(A) in mode
(B) out mode
(C)in-out mode
(D) all of the above
Ans:- D
Explanation:The semantic model(s) of parameter passing are in,out and inout. The actual
parameters are brought in, moved out, or brought in and moved out respectively.
47. The colour of an object is largely determined by its diffuse reflection coefficient. If Kd =
(0.8, 0.4, 0), then what shall be the colour of the object, if the light used is blue and magenta ?
(A) White and Red
(B) Red and Blue
(C) Black and White
(D) Black and Red
Ans:- D
Explanation:The color of an object is largely determined by its diffuse reflection coefficient(kd). Kd is
assigned a value between 0.0 and 1.0.
0.0 for dull surface that absorbs almost all light
1.0 for shiny surface that reflects almost all light.
You should understand the range of kd and its meaning very clearly. For colored surfaces, there
are three kd values, one for red, green and blue.
Let us consider a polygon with diffuse color(1,0,0). It reflects all of the red light it is hit with,
and absorbs all of the blue and green(because red has a value 1, and green and blue has a 0).
If this red polygon is hit with a white light it will appear red. If it is hit with a blue light, or a
green light, or an aqua light it will appear black(as those lights have no red component). If it is
hit with a yellow light or a purple light it will appear red(as the polygon will reflect the red
component of the light).
The kd value given in the equation is kd=(0.8,0.4,0)
What shall be the color of the object if the light used is blue and magenta?. That is the question.
Let us consider the first color. Blue light falls on the object. But the blue component of kd is 0. It
means that color is going to be completely absorbed by the object and it will appear black. So,
when blue light falls on the object, the object will appear black.
Let us consider the next color. Magenta light falls on the object. Magents is a violet-red or
purplish-red color. It is midway between red and blue. Since red has a high kd value, it will get
reflected more and so the color of the object will be Red.
So, the color of the object will be Black and Red. The correct option is D.
59. The perspective projection matrix, on the view plane z = d where the centre of projection is
the origin (0, 0, 0) shall be
(A) 0
0
0
d
0
0
d
0
0
d
0
0
d
0
0
1
(B) d 0
0
0
0
(C) 0
d
0
0
0
0
0
1
(D) d 0
0
0
0
0
d
1
0
0
d
0
0
d
0
0
0
0
0
d
d
0
0
0
0
d
0
0
0
0
0
0
1
Ans:- B
Explanation:A perspective transformation is determined by prescribing a center of projection and a view
plane. The view plane is determined by its view reference point R0 and view plane normal N.
The projection transformation as a matrix
PerN,R0 = d0
0
0
d0
0
0
n1 n2 n3
0
0
d0
0
0
0
0
The plance z = d is parallel, to the xy plane. Thus the view plane normal vector N is the same as
the normal vector K to the xy plance, that is N=K. Choosing the view reference point as
R0(0,0,d), we can identify the parameters
N(n1,n2,n3) = (0,0,1)
R0(x0,y0,z0)=(0,0,d)
So,
d0 = n1x0 + n2y0 + n3z0 = d
and so the projection matrix is
PerK,R0 = d
0
0
0
0
d
0
0
0
0
d
0
0
0
1
0
So, the correct answer is option B. The same problem is solved in the Schaums outlines,
Computer Graphics book(pg. no. 138).
7. The PROJECT operator of a relational algebra creates a new table that has always
(A) More columns than columns in original table
(B) More rows than original table
(C) Same number of rows as the original table
(D) Same number of columns as the original table
Ans:-C
Explanation:The Projection operator is also a unary operator. Whereas the selection operator chooses a subset
of the rows of the relation, the projection operator chooses a subset of the columns. The
Projection operation on a table, simply forms another table by copying specified columns, from
the original table. Symbol of projection is . Given a employee table having the columns(Empid, name, salary).
To select only the name of employee :- name(employee)
To know only the salary :- salary(employee)
Selection operation:
It yields a horizontal subset of a given relation that is the subset of row should be selected with in
the given relation for which a particular condition is satisfied. Sign of selection is . To see the
details of those employees whose salary is greater than 10000, the selection operation will be
used.
salary>10000(employee).
So, looking at the options given for the answer, the PROJECT operator cannot create a table
having more columns than the original table. Same number of columns also ruled out. More rows
than the original table is also not correct. So, it will be Same number of rows as the original
table, but less number of columns than the original table. SO, the correct answer is C.
8. The employee information of an Organization is stored in the relation : Employee (name, sex,
salary, deptname) Consider the following SQL query Select deptname from Employee Where sex
= M group by deptname having avg (salary) > {select avg (salary) from Employee} Output of
the given query corresponds to
(A) Average salary of employee more than average salary of the organization.
(B) Average salary less than average salary of the organization.
(C) Average salary of employee equal to average salary of the organization.
(D) Average salary of male employees in a department is more than average salary of the
organization
Ans:- D
Explanation:The question is very length and intimidating. But the answer is surprisingly simple. Rule out the
wrong options first and you will always get the correct answer. There is a greater than symbol
used in the query and we all know what it stands for. Options B and C says that Average salary
less and equal. So both B and C are ruled out. Option A says Average salary of employee more
than average salary of the organization. But in the query there is a where clause which is sex='M'
and so the query is average salary of male employees is more than average salary of the
organization. So the correct answer is option D.
9. For a database relation R(a, b, c, d) where the domains of a, b, c, d include only the atomic
values. The functional dependency a c, b d holds in the following relation
(A) In 1NF not in 2NF
(B) In 2NF not in 3NF
(C) In 3NF
(D) In 1NF
Ans:-A
Explanation:A relation is in the first normal form if the domain of each attribute contains only atomic values.
It means atomicity must be present in the relation. So, the question clearly mentions the same.
The domains of a,b,c,d include only the atomic values and so 1NF holds but the question is
whether 2NF holds or not. A relation will be in second normal form if it is in the first normal
form and all the non primary key attribute must be fully functionally dependent on the primary
key attribute. Although the functional dependency is given, no information is provided about the
primary key here. So the correct answer is A.
25. Which of the following can be the sequence of nodes examined in binary search tree while
searching for key 88 ?
(A) 90, 40, 65, 50, 88
(B) 90, 110, 80, 85, 88
(C) 190, 60, 90, 85, 88
(D) 65, 140, 80, 70, 88
Ans:- B
Explanation:I am taking the liberty of retaining an explanation given for a similar question from yahoo
answers.
Best Answer: For a binary search tree, the entire tree is sorted such that for any node, every node
to the left is less than the current node value and every node to the right is more than the current
node value.
When walking a BST tree, you "zero in" on the value by following the correct nodes down the
tree. Ideally you work closer and closer to your answer, kind of like the "guess the number"
game where you give "nope, more!" and "nope, less!" hints.
a) 2, 399, 387, 219, 266, 382, 381, 278, 363
This sequence is possible.
b) 935, 278, 347, 621, 299, 392, 358, 363
This sequence is not possible. Since 621 is to the right of 347, every other node under 621 must
ALSO be to the right of 347. 299 is not -- so this is an impossible walk. Basically, once you pass
347, 299 is swinging too far in the opposite direction.
c) 924, 220, 911, 244, 898, 258, 362, 363
This sequence is possible.
d) 925, 202, 911, 240, 912, 245, 363
Not possible -- 240 is to the left of 911, so every other node must also be less than 911 (but still
may be to the right of 240). 912 is not to the left of 911.
e) 2, 252, 401, 398, 330, 344, 397, 363 This sequence is possible. Just barely though -- 397 is to
the left of 398 but just barely!
I am taking the example b which explains why a particular sequence is not possible. Since 621 is
to the right of 347, every other node under 621 must ALSO be to the right of 347.
Let us apply the same rule to all the sequences given above for us in the question.
The first sequence is 90,40,65,50,88. Do not consider any particular element as the root. But start
analysing the numbers from first. 90 is the first number. 40 is the second one. So, 40 will be to
the left of 90, since it is less than 90. Since 40 is to the left of 90, all numbers following 40 also
should be to the left of 90, which is true in this sequence. 65,50, and 88 will be to the left of 90.
So this sequence is possible.
Let us consider the second sequence which is 90,110,80,85,88. Again 90 is the first number. 110
will be to its right since it is greater than 90. So all the numbers following 110 also should be to
the right of 90,but 80,85 and 88 fall to its left. So, this sequence is not possible.
Let us consider the third sequence which is 190,60,90,85,88. So, 190 is the first number. 60 is to
its left. So all the other numbers following 60 should be to the left of 190, which is holding good
here. 90,85 and 88 will be to the left of 190. So, this sequence is possible.
Let us consider the fourth sequence which is 65,140,80,70,88. 65 is the first number. 140 will be
to its right. All the numbers following 140 should be to the right of 65 which is true. 80,70 and
88 will be to the right of 65 as well.
So, the correct answer is option B and not C.
26. An actor in an animation is a small program invoked _______ per frame to
determine the characteristics of some object in the animation.
(A) once
(B) twice
(C) 30 times
(D) 60 times
Ans:- A
Explanation:An actor in an animation is a small program invoked once per frame to determine
the characteristics of some object in the animation.
27. Bresenham line drawing algorithm is attractive because it uses
(A) Real arithmetic only
(B) Integer arithmetic only
(C) Floating point arithmetic
(D) Real and integer arithmetic
Ans:- B
Explanation:Bresenhems algorithm offers a significant advantage over the other methods, as it
avoids floating-point arithmetic and rounding. It is a classic example of an
incremental algorithm that computes the location of each pixel along the line based
on information about the previous pixel. It uses only integer values and avoids any
multiplications.
28. The refresh rate above which a picture stops flickering and fuses into a steady
image is called _________.
(A) Crucial fusion frequency
(B) Current frequency fusion
(C) Critical fusion frequency
(D) Critically diffused frequency
Ans:- C
Explanation:-
The refresh rate of a CRT is the number of times per second the image is redrawn. It
is typically 60 per second for raster displays. As the refresh rate decreases, flicker
develops because the eye can no longer integrate the individual light pulses coming
from a pixel. The refresh rate above which a picture stops flickering and fuses into a
steady image is called the critical fusion frequency (or) CFF.
29. In homogenous coordinate system (x, y, z) the points with z = 0 are called
(A) Cartesian points
(B) Parallel points
(C)Origin point
(D) Point at infinity
Ans:- D
Explanation:In homogenous coordinates, we add a third coordinate to a point. Instead of being
represented by a pair of numbers(x,y) each point is represented by a triple(x,y,w).
At the same time, we say that two sets of homogenous coordinates(x,y,w) and
(x,y,w) represent the same point if and only if one is a multiple of the other. Thus
(2,3,6) and (4,6,12) are the same points represented by the different coordinate
triples. Also, at least one of the homogenous coordinates must be nonzero : (0,0,0)
is not allowed. If the w coordinate is nonzero, we can divide through by it(x,y,w)
represents the same point as (x/w,y/w,1). When w is nonzero, we normally do this
division, and the numbers x/w and y/w are called the Cartesian coordinates of the
homogenous points. The points with w=0 are called points at infinity. So, the correct
answer is D.
30. If 40 black lines interleaved with 40 white lines can be distinguished across one
inch, the resolution is
(A) 40 line-pairs per inch
(B) 80 line-pairs per inch
(C) 1600 lines per inch
(D) 40 lines per inch
Ans:- A
Explanation:Resolution is the number of distinguishable lines per inch that a device can create.
Resolution is defined as the closest spacing at which adjacent black and white lines
can be distinguished by observers. If 40 black lines interleaved with 40 white lines
can be distinguished across one inch, the resolution is 80 lines per inch or 40 linepairs per inch. So, the correct answer is A.
31. Images tend to be very large collection of data. The size of memory required for
a 1024 by 1024 image in which the colour of each pixel is represented by a n-bit
number, (in an 8 bit machines) is
(A) n X 8 MB
(B) n / 8 MB
(C) (1024 X 1024 ) / 8 MB
(D) 1024 MB
Ans:- B
Explanation:Look at the options which are not going to be correct at all. Eliminate the wrong
answers to get the right answer. Every pixel is represented by a n-bit number, the
value of n is not mentioned. So, we rule out C and D options completely. So, it can
be either A or B. But it is not A because the n-bit number is not going to be
multiplied with 8 for a 8 bit machine. So, the correct answer is B.
32. Arrays in C language can have _________ with reference to memory
representation.
(A) n-subscripts
(B) two-subscripts
(C) only one subscript
(D) three subscripts only
Ans:- C
Explanation:With reference to memory representation, even a two-dimensional array subscript is
going to be converted into a single subscript for accessing or referring the memory
location. So, it will be option C.
33. Refer the points as listed below :
(a) What are the operator precedence rules ?
(b) What are the operator associativity rules ?
(c) What is the order of operand evaluation ?
(d) Are there restrictions on operand evaluation side effects ?
Which of the above must be considered as primary design issues
for arithmetic expressions ?
(A) (a), (b) and (c)
(B) (a), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans:- C
Explanation:The options (a),(b) and (d) makes sense, but option (c) is not so clear. There is no
order on the operand evaluation. It is decided by the operator precedence and
associativity. So, the correct answer is C.
34. Horn clauses are special kinds of propositions which can be described as
(A) Single atomic proposition on left side.
(B) Single or multiple atomic proposition on left side.
(C) A single atomic proposition on left side and a single atomic proposition on right
side.
(D) A single atomic proposition on left side or an empty left side.
Ans:- D
Explanation:A Horn clause is a unique kind of proposition which has either one single proposition
on the left hand side or an empty proposition. When a Horn clause does contain a
proposition on the left side, it is sometimes refered to as a headed Horn clause. The
Horn clause is named after Alfred Horn who studied this type of propositional clause
(Horn, 1951).
35.Which of the following is/are the fundamental semantic model(s) of parameter
passing ?
(A) in mode
(B) out mode
(C)in-out mode
(D) all of the above
Ans:- D
Explanation:The semantic model(s) of parameter passing are in,out and inout. The actual
parameters are brought in, moved out, or brought in and moved out respectively.
14. A data file of 1,00,000 characters contains only the characters g-l, with the
frequencies as indicated in table :
g
Frequency in thousand
45
13
12
16
9
5
Using the variable-length code by Huffman codes, the file can be encoded with
(A) 2,52,000 bits
(B) 2,64,000 bits
(C) 2,46,000 bits
(D) 2,24,000 bits
Ans:- D
Explanation :The explanation is quite lengthy. so, download the following ppt and read through it
to understand the steps.
Huffman tree.ppt
15. A vertex cover of an undirected graph G(V,E) is a subset V1 such that
(A) Each pair of vertices in V1 is connected by an edge.
(B)If (u,v) E then u V1and v V1
(C) If (u,v) E then u V1 and v V1
(D) All pairs of vertices in V1 are not connected by an edge
Ans:- C
Explanation :A vertex cover in a graph G is a set of vertices C such that each edge of G contains
at least one vertex in C. An edge will be formed by two vertices. For each edge of G,
at least one vertex should be in C, where C stands for the vertex cover. So, in the
question above, vertex cover is represented by the subset V1. V1 is a subset of
vertices V. Let us consider the edge (u,v). According to the vertex cover definition,
any one vertex, either u or v should belong to V1. So, option C is the correct answer.
16. In a fully connected mesh network with n devices, there are ________ physical
channels to link all devices.
(A) n(n-1)/2
(B) n(n+1)/2
(C ) 2n
(D ) 2n+1
Ans:- B
17. The baud rate of a signal is 600 baud/second. If each signal unit carries 6 bits,
then the bit rate of a signal is
(A) 3600
(B)100
(C )6/600
(D) None of the above
Ans:- A
Explanation :Bit rate = baud rate X n
Baud rate = 600 baud/second.
n= number of bits = 6
bit rate = 600 X 6 = 3600
So, the correct answer is A.
18. Match the following :
a. Data link layer
i. Flow control
b. Network layer
ii. Node to node delivery
c. Transport layer
iii. Mail services
d. Application layer
iv. Routing
Codes :
a b c d
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) ii iv i iii
(C) ii i iii iv
(D) ii iv iii i
Ans:- B
Explanation:Refer to my post on Computer networks. I have solved many questions of the
same kind. The most obvious approach is to associate the easy ones first. So, it will
be Network layer to routing, Application layer to mail services. b-iv, d iii, There is
only one option which satisfies it and it is B. So, data link layer will be Node to node
delivery and transport layer will be flow control. So, the correct answer is B.
19. An image is 1024 800 pixels with 3 bytes/pixel. Assume the image is
uncompressed. How long does it take to transmit it over a 10-Mbps Ethernet ?
(A) 196.6 seconds
(B) 19.66 seconds
(C) 1.966 seconds
(D) 0.1966 seconds
Ans:- C
Explanation:The size of the image is 1024 * 800 pixels = 819200 pixels.
No of bytes / pixel = 3
So, total no of bytes = 819200 X 3 = 2457600 bytes

Therefore, Total no of bits = 2457600 X 8 = 19660800 bits
The data rate of a computer network connection is normally measured in units of
bits per second(bps).
One kilobit per second equals 1000 bits per second.
One megabit per second(Mbps) equals 1000 kbps = 1000 X 1000 bps .
10 Mbps = 1000 X 1000 X 10 = 10000000.
Therefore, time taken for transmission = 19660800 / 10000000 = 1.96608 seconds.
Hence, the correct answer is C.
20. The ________ measures the relative strengths of two signals or a signal at two
different points.
(A) frequency
(B)attenuation
(C)throughput
(D)decibel
Ans:- D
Explanation:Attenuation means loss of energy. When a signal, simple or complex, travels
through a medium, it loses some of its energy so that it can overcome the
resistance of the medium.
To show that a signal has lost or gained strength, engineers use the concept of
decibel. The decibel(db) measures the relative strengths of two signals or a signal at
two different points. dB is ve if a signal is attenuated and +ve if a signal is
amplified.
21. Which one of the following media is multidrop ?
(A) Shielded Twisted pair cable
(B) Unshielded Twisted pair cable
(C ) Thick Coaxial cable
(D )Fiber optic cable
Ans:- C
22. What is the baud rate of the standard 10 Mbps Ethernet ?
(A) 10 megabaud
(B) 20 megabaud
(C) 30 megabaud
(D) 40 megabaud
Ans:- B
The data rate of the standard 10 Mbps Ethernet is 10mbps. The baud rate is twice
as that. So it is 20 megabaud.
23. At any iteration of simplex method, if j (Zj Cj) corresponding to any non-basic
variable Xj is obtained as zero, the solution under the test is
(A) Degenerate solution
(B) Unbounded solution
(C) Alternative solution

(D) Optimal solution
Ans:- C
24. A basic feasible solution to a m-origin, n-destination transportation problem is
said to be _________ if the number of positive allocations are less than m + n 1.
(A) degenerate
(B) non-degenerate
(C) unbounded
(D) unbalanced
Ans:- A
Explanation:If a basic feasible solution contains less than m+n-1 non negative allocations, then
it is said to be degenerate. So, the correct answer is option A.
15. "Black refers in the Black-box testing means
(A) Characters of the movie Black
(B) IO is hidden
(C) Design is hidden
(D) Users are hidden
Explanation:For obvious reasons, option A is ruled out. Now let us look at the meaning of black box testing. The
term "Black box" refers to the actual software that is getting tested. In black box testing one knows
only the set of inputs and expected outputs and is unaware of how those inputs are transformed into
outputs by the software. So option C seems to be the right choice.
There are many types of black box testing techniques. It is better to know some of them by name.
Boundary Value Analysis(BVA)
Equivalence Class Testing
Decision Table based testing
Cause-Effect Graphing Technique
Depending on any more questions based on black box testing we can go through the techniques in
detail later. I think knowing some technique names could be useful for now.
Ans:-C
16. In generalisation, the differences between members of an entity is
(A) maximized
(B) minimized
(C) both (A) & (B)
(D) None of these
Ans:-B
Explanation:Generalisation and specialization are two terms that have a opposite meaning. In generalization the
differences between members of an entity is minimized. Generalisation is a bottom up process. It
goes from more specific to more general. For example, if the subclasses are taken as car and bike
they would fall under the category of superclass called vehicle. From the subclasses we would
identify features which can take us to the superclass vehicle.
Specialisation is the opposite of this. In Specialisation the differences between members of an entity
are maximized. Specialisation is a top down process. It goes from more general to more specific. If
vehicle is a super class and car and bike are its subclasses, identifying the characteristics or
uniqueness of its subclasses is what happens in specialization.
It is a sort of repeatedly asked question. In June 2010 the following question appeared.
Generalization is _______ process.
(A) top-down
(B) bottom up
(C) both (A) & (B)
(D) None of these
The answer of course is B, Generalisation is a bottom up process.
To summarise,
Generalisation - Bottom up - Differences between members of an entity is minimized.
Specialisation - Top down - Differences between members of an entity is maximized.
21. A* algorithm uses f' = g + h' to estimate the cost of getting from the initial state to the goal state,
where g is a measure of the cost of getting from initial state to the current node and the function h' is
an estimate of the cost of getting from the current node to the goal state. To find a path involving the
fewest number of steps, we should set
(A) g=1
(B) g=0
(C) h'=0
(D) h'=1
Ans:-A
22. The transform which possesses the highest energy compaction property is
(A) Slant transform
(B) Cosine transform
(C) Fourier transform
(D) Karhunen-Loeve transform
Ans:-D
23. Which one of the following prolog programs correctly implement if G succeeds then execute goal
P else execute goal ?
(A) if-else (G, P, ) :- !, call(G), call(P). if-else (G, P, ) :- call().
(B) if-else (G, P, ) :- call(G), !, call(P). if-else (G, P, ) :- call().
(C) if-else (G, P, ) :- call(G), call(P), !. if-else (G, P, ) :- call().
(D) All of the above
Ans:-B
Explanation:- The syntax of If--then---else in prolog goes the following way
(A->B;C) :call(A),
!,
call(B)
(A->B;C) :call(C )
So according to the above syntax option B is correct.
24. The _______ memory allocation function modifies the previous allocated space.
(A) calloc( )
(B) free()
(C) malloc( )
(D) realloc()
Ans:-D
25. Which is not the correct statement(s) ?
(i) Every context sensitive language is recursive.
(ii) There is a recursive language that is not context sensitive.
(A) (i) is true, (ii) is false.
(B) (i) is true and (ii) is true.
(C) (i) is false, (ii) is false.
(D) (i) is false and (ii) is true.
Ans:-B
26. The mechanism that binds code and data together and keeps them secure from outside world is
known as
(A) Abstraction
(B) Inheritance
(C) Encapsulation
(D) Polymorphism
Ans:-C
27. Identify the addressing modes of below instructions and match them :
(a) ADI (1) Immediate addressing
(b) STA (2) Direct addressing
(C )CMA (3) Implied addressing
(d) SUB (4) Register addressing
(A) a-1,b-2,c-3,d-4
(B) a-2,b-1,c-4,d-3
(C ) a-3,b-2,c-1,d-4
(D) a-4,b-3,c-2,d-1
Ans:- A
Explanation:- The instruction ADI adds some content to the accumulator. It is an immediate
addressing mode instruction.
The instruction STA stores the contents of the accumulator in the particular memory location
specified as operand.
CMA instruction takes complement of the contents of the accumulator.
SUB instruction subtracts the contents of the register to the contents of the accumulator.
. So the option is A.
28. Which one of the following is not a Greibach Normal form grammar ?
(i) S a | bA | aA | bB
Aa Bb
(ii) Sa|aA|AB
Aa
Bb
(iii) Sa|A|aA
Aa
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans:-C
Explanation:- Restriction for GNF:The first symbol on the right hand side of the production must be a terminal. It can be followed by
zero or more variables. In grammar (ii) of the question, S->AB is a production. AB are two nonterminals and it can be in GNF. In grammar (iii) S->A is given and it is a unit production and that is
not allowed in GNF. So the grammar which is not in GNF is (ii) and (iii). So the option is C.
29. Which of the following IP address class is a multicast address ?
(A) Class A
(B) Class B
(C) Class C
(D) Class D
Ans:-D
30. While unit testing a module, it is found that for a set of test data, maximum 90% of the code
alone were tested with a probability of success 0.9. The reliability of the module is
(A) atleast greater than 0.9
(B) equal to 0.9
(C) atmost 0.81
(D) atleast 1/0.81
Ans:-C
In DBMS, there could be a question on different steps in normalization and what is achieved at the
end of every step in it.You need to be knowing the following things very clearly and without any
ambiguity.The question would be based on these terms.
A table is in 1NF if there and no duplicate rows in the table. Each cell is single-valued.
A table is in 2NF if it is in 1NF and if all non-key attributes are dependent on all of the key. A table is
in 2NF if it is in 1NF and if it has no partial dependencies
A table is in 3NF if it is in 2NF and if it has no transitive dependencies
A table is in BCNF if it is in 3NF and if every determinant is a candiate key.
A table is in 4NF if it is in BCNF and it it has no multi-valued dependencies.
A table is in 5NF if it is in 4NF and it has no join dependency.
Superkey,Candidate key,Primary key

A superkey is any set of attributes such that the values of the attributes(taken together)uniquely
identify one entity in the entity set.
A candidate key is a minimal superkey.
A primary key is one of the candidate keys, designated by the Database designer.
1. The number of integers between 1 and 250 that are divisible by 2,5 and 7 is
A)
2 (B)
3
C)
5 (D)
8
Ans:- B. There are 3 integers between 1 and 250 that are divisible by 2,5 and 7. They are
70,140 and 210.
2. An undirected graph possess an Eulerian circuit if and only if it is connected and its vertices are
A) All
of
even
degree (B)All
of
odd
degree
C) Of
any
degree (D)even
in
number
Ans:- A. According to Euler's theorem 1, if a graph is undirected then it has an eulerian
circuit if and only if it is connected and each vertex has an even degree.
***It would be useful to know about the Hamiltonian circuit as well.
3. A partially ordered set is said to be a lattice if every two elements in the set have
A)a
unique
least
upper
bound (B)a
unique
greatest
lower
bound
C)both
(A)
and
(B) (D)none
of
the
above.
Ans:- C.
4. The minimum number of edges in a connected graph with 'n' vertices is equal to
A)n(n-1) (B)n(n-1)/2
C)n2 (D)n-1
Ans:- D. The formula for counting the minimum number of edges in a connected graph is (n1).
5. Would be done later.....
6.
The
A)
C)
Ans:- D.
decimal
number
equivalent
of
(4057.06) 8 is
:
2095.75 (B)2095.075
2095.937 (D)2095.09375
7. Would be done later...

8.
A)one
C)no
An
stable
stable
astable
state (B)two
states (D)none
multivibrator
stable
of
has
states
these
Ans:- C. An astable multivibrator has two states but neither of them are stable.
9.12-bit
A)
2's
complement
of
-73.75
is
01001001.1100 (B)11001001.1100
C)
Ans:- B
10110110.0100 (D)10110110.1100
10. Encoding of data bits 0011 into 7-bit even parity Hamming code is
A)0011110 (B)0101110
C)0010110 (D)0011100
Ans:A.
The explanation is quite lengthy. If you google the question, you would get a link to the book
"Fundamentals of digital circuit" by A.Anand Kumar. The explanation is great there.
11.
How
many
of
the
following
declarations
are
correct?
int z=7.0;
double void=0.000;
short array[2]={0,1,2};
char c="\n";
(A) None (B)One
is
correct
(C) Two
are
correct (D)All
four
are
correct
Ans:-The second declaration is for sure wrong because we cannot have a keyword as a
variable name. The last declaration is also wrong because we cannot assign anything within
double quotes to a character variable. So we are left with only the first and the array
declaration.I think those two would still not give errors in c. So 'C' could be the answer for
this question.
1.
Which of the following is the highest level of cognitive ability
A.
Knowing
B.
Understanding
C.
Analysing
D.
Evaluating
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Evaluating is the highest level. understanding is the lowest level
2.
Which of the following factors does not impact teaching
A.
Class room activities that encourage learning
B.
C.
Learning through experience
D.
Teacher's knowledge
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
3.
Which of the following statements about teaching aids are correct

1) They help in retaining concepts for longer duration
2) They help students learn better
3) They make teaching learning process interesting
4) They enhance rote learning
A.
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
B.
(a), (b) and (c)
C.
(b), (c) and (d)
D.
(a), (b) and (d)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
4.
Techniques used by a teacher to teach include
A) Lecture
B) Interactive lecture
C) Group work
D) Self study
A.
(A), (B) and (C)
B.
(A), (B), (C) and (D)
C.
(B), (C) and (D)
D.
(A), (B) and (D)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
5.
Achievement tests are commonly used for the purpose of
A.
Making selections for a specific job
B.
Selecting candidates for a course
C.
Identifying strengths and weaknesses of learners
D.
Assessing the amount of learning after teaching
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
6.
A good teacher is one who
A.
gives useful information
B.
explains concepts and principles
C.
gives printed notes to students
D.
inspires students to learn
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
7.
Which of the following statements regarding the meaning of research are

correct
1) Research refers to a series of systematic activity or activities
undertaken to find out the solution of a problem
2) It is a systematic, logical and an unbiased process wherein verification
of hypothesis data analysis, interpretation and formation of principles can
be done
3) It is an intellectual enquiry or quest towards truth
4) It leads to enhancement of knowledge
A.
(a), (b) and (c)
B.
(b), (c) and (d)
C.
(a), (c) and (d)
D.
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
8.
A good thesis writing should involve

1) reduction of punctuation and grammatical errors to a minimum
2) careful checking of references
3) consistency in the way the thesis is written
4) a clear and well written abstract
A.
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
B.
(a), (b) and (c)
C.
(a), (b) and (d)
D.
(b), (c) and (d)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
9.
Jean Piaget gave a theory of cognitive development of humans on the

basis of his
A.
Fundamental research
B.
applied research
C.
Action research
D.
Evaluation Research
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
10.
"Male and female students perform equally well in a numerical aptitude

test."
This statement indicates a
A.
research hypothesis
B.
null hypothesis
C.
directional hypothesis
D.
statistical hypothesis
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
11.
The conclusions/findings of which type of research cannot be

generalized to other situations
A.
Historical research
B.
Descriptive Research
C.
Experimental Research
D.
Causal Comparative Research
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
12.
Which of the following steps are required to design a

questionnaire 1) Writing primary and secondary aims of the study
2) Review of the current literature 3) Prepare a draft of
questionnaire 4) Revision of the draft
A.
(a), (b) and (c)
B.
(a), (c) and (d)
C.
(b), (c) and (d)
D.
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
13.
Read the following passage carefully and answer question 13 to

18.
Story telling is not in our genes. Neither it is an evolutionary
history. It is the essence of what makes us Human. Human beings
progress by telling stories. One event can result in a great variety
of stories being told about it. Sometimes those stories differ
greatly. Which stories are picked up and repeated and which ones
are dropped and forgotten often determines how we progress.
Our history, knowledge and understanding are all the collections
of the few stories that survive. This includes the stories that we
tell each other about the future. And how the future will turn out
depends partly, possibly largely, on which stories we collectively
choose to believe.
Some stories are designed to spread fear and concern. This is
because some story-tellers feel that there is a need to raise some
tensions. Some stories are frightening, they are like totemic
warnings : "Fail to act now and we are all doomed." Then there
are stories that indicate that all will be fine so long as we leave
everything upto a few especiallv able adults. Currently, this trend
is being led by those who call themselves "rational optimists".
They tend to claim that it is human nature to compete and to
succeed and also to profit at the expense of others. The rational
optimists however, do not realize how humanity has progressed
overtime through amiable social networks and how large groups
work in less selfishness and in the process accommodate rich and
poor, high and low alike. This aspect in story-telling is considered
by the 'Practical Possibles', who sit between those who say all is
fine and cheerful and be individualistic in your approach to a
successful future, and those who ordain pessimism and fear that
we are doomed.
What the future holds for us is which stories we hold on to and
how we act on them
Our knowledge is a collection of
A.
all stories that we have heard during our life-time
B.
some stories that we remember
C.
a few stories that survive
D.
some important stories
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
14.
Story telling is 1) 2) 3) the essence of what makes us human 4)
A.
an art
B.
a science
C.
in our genes
D.
the essence of what makes us human
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
15.
How the future will turn out to be, depends upon the stories
A.
We collectively choose to believe in
B.
Which are repeatedly narrated
C.
Designed to spread fear and tension
D.
Designed to make prophecy
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
16.
Rational optimists :
1) Look for opportunities
2) Are sensible and cheerful
3) Are selfishly driven
A.
(a), (b) and (c)
B.
(a) only
C.
(a) and (b) only
D.
(b) and (c) only
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
17.
Humans become less selfish when
A.
they work in large groups
B.
they listen to frightening stories
C.
they listen to cheerful stories
D.
they work in solitude
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
18.
Practical Possibles' are the ones who
A.
follow Midway Path
B.
are doom-mongers
C.
are self-centred
D.
are cheerful and carefree
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
19.
Effectiveness of communication can be traced from which of the

following
1) Attitude surveys
2) Performance records
3) Students attendance
4) Selection of communication channel
A.
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
B.
(a), (b) and (c)
C.
(b), (c) and (d)
D.
(a), (b) and (d)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
20.
ASSERTION : Formal communication tends to be fast and flexible

REASON : Formal communication is a systematic and orderly flow
of information
A.
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
B.
Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of
(A)
C.
(A) is correct but, (R) is false
D.
(A) is false but, (R) is correct
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
21.
Which of the following are the characteristic features of

communication
1) Communication involves exchange of ideas, facts and opinions
2) Communication involves both information and understanding
3) Communication is a continuous process
4) Communication is a circular process
A.
(a), (b) and (c)
B.
(a), (b) and (d)
C.
(b), (c) and (d)
D.
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
22.
The term 'grapevine' is also known as
A.
Downward communication
B.
Informal communication
C.
Upward communication
D.
Horizontal communication
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
23.
Which of the following is not a principle of effective

communication
A.
Persuasive and convincing dialogue
B.
Participation of the audience
C.
One-way transfer of information
D.
Strategic use of grapevine
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
24.
In communication, the language is
A.
The verbal code
B.
Intrapersonal
C.
The symbolic code
D.
The non-verbal code
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
25.
The next term in the series is : 2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ?
A.
83
B.
75
C.
78
D.
80
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
logic is 2*term +1 and 2*term -1 alternatively for deriving next

term.
2*2+1 = 5 *2-1 = 9*2 + 1 = 19 * 2 - 1 = 37 * 2 + 1 = 75
hence the answer
26.
In certain code MATHURA is coded as JXQEROX. The code of

HOTELS will be
A.
LEQIBP
B.
ELQBIP
C.
LEBIQP
D.
ELIPQB
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
the coding is 3rd letter backwords so HOTELS will become ELQBIP
27.
One day Prakash left home and walked 10 km towards south,

turned right and walked 5 km, turned right and walked 10 km and
turned left and walked 10 km. How many km will he have to walk
to reach his home straight
A.
10
B.
20
C.
15
D.
30
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
After walking towards south when he turned right means walking

towards east again turning right means walking towards north
and then left means walking towards east. the distance towards
south and north is same so balanced. so net distance is in east
direction which is 5 + 10 = 15.
28.
A girl introduced a boy as the son of the daughter of the father of

her uncle. The boy is related to the girl as
A.
Brother
B.
Uncle
C.
Nephew
D.
Son
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
29.
In an examination 10,000 students appeared.

pass in all five subjects = 5583
pass in three subjects only = 1400
pass in two subjects only = 1200
pass in one subject only = 735
fail in English only = 75
fail in Physics only = 145
fail in Chemistry only = 140
fail in Maths only = 200

fail in Bio-science only = 157
The number of students passed in at least four subjects is :
A.
6300
B.
6900
C.
7300
D.
7900
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
number of students passed in at least four subjects is : 5583 + 75

+145 + 140 + 200 +157 = 6300
30.
At present a person is 4 times older than his son and is 3 years

older than his wife. After 3 years the age of the son will be 15
years. The age of the person's wife after 5 years will be
A.
42
B.
48
C.
45
D.
50
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
After 3 years his son age = 15

so present age of son = 12
so present age of person =12*4 = 48
so present age of wife = 48 -3 = 45

so age of wife after 5 years will be = 45 +5 = 50
31.
If we want to seek new knowledge of facts about the world, we

must rely on reason of the type
A.
Inductive
B.
Deductive
C.
Demonstrative
D.
Physiological
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
32.
A deductive argument is invalid if
A.
Its premises and conclusions are all false
B.
Its premises are true but its conclusion is false
C.
Its premises are false but its conclusion is true
D.
Its premises and conclusions are all true
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
33.
Inductive reasoning is grounded on
A.
Integrity of nature
B.
Unity of nature
C.
Uniformity of nature
D.
Harmony of nature
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
34.
Among the following statements two are contradictory to each

other. Select the correct code that represents them
1) All poets are philosophers
2) Some poets are philosophers
3) Some poets are not philosophers
4) No philosopher is a poet
A.
(a) and (b)
B.
(a) and (d)
C.
(a) and (c)
D.
(B) and (C)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
35.
Which of the codes given below contains only the correct

statements
1) Venn diagram represents the arguments graphically
2) Venn diagram can enhance our understanding
3) Venn diagram may be called valid or invalid
4) Venn diagram is clear method of notation
A.
(a), (b) and (c)
B.
(a), (b) and (d)
C.
(b), (c) and (d)
D.
(a), (c) and (d)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
36.
When the purpose of a definition is to explain the use or to

eliminate ambiguity the definition is called
A.
Stipulative
B.
Theoretical
C.
Lexical
D.
Persuasive
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Question numbers 37 to 42 are based on the tabulated data given

below :
A Company has 20 employees with their ages (in years)and salary
(in thousand rupees per month) mentioned against each of
them :
37.
Classify the data of age of each employee in class interval of 5

years. Which class interval of 5 years has the maximum average
salary
A.
35 - 40 years
B.
40 - 45 years
C.
45 - 50 years
D.
50 - 55 years
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
38.
What is the frequency (PERC) in the class interval of 30 - 35 years
A.
20 PERC
B.
25 PERC
C.
30 PERC
D.
35 PERC
View/Hide
Correct Answer is B
Ans
Explanation
39.
What is the average age of the employees
A.
40.3 years
B.
38.6 years
C.
47.2 years
D.
45.3 years
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
40.
What is the fraction (PERC) of employees getting salary >=

40,000 per month
A.
45 PERC
B.
50 PERC
C.
35 PERC
D.
32 PERC
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
41.What is the average salary (in thousand per month) in the age group 40 - 50
yearsA.35B.42.5C.40.5D.36.5View/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
42.What is the fraction of employees getting salary less than the average salary of
all the employeesA.45 PERCB.50 PERCC.55 PERCD.47 PERCView/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
43.Encoding or scrambling data for transmission across a network is known
asA.ProtectionB.DetectionC.EncryptionD.DecryptionView/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
44.Which of the following is not an output
deviceA.PrinterB.SpeakerC.MonitorD.KeyboardView/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Keyboard is an Input Device
45.Which of the following represents one billion
charactersA.KilobyteB.MegabyteC.GigabyteD.TerabyteView/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
46.Which of the following is not open source softwareA.Internet ExplorerB.Fedora
LinuxC.Open officeD.Apache HTTP serverView/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Internet explorer is a Product of Microsoft Corporation
47.Which one of the following represents the binary equivalent of the decimal
number 25A.10101B.01101C.11001D.11011View/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
48.Which is an instant messenger that is used for

chattingA.AltavistaB.MACC.Microsoft OfficeD.Google TalkView/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
49.In which of the countries per capita use of water is maximumA.USAB.European
UnionC.ChinaD.IndiaView/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
50.India's contribution to total global carbon dioxide emissions is aboutA.~ 3
PERCB.~ 6 PERCC.~ 10 PERCD.~ 15 PERCView/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
51.
two earthquakes A and B happen to be of magnitude 5 and 6 respectively

on Richter Scale. The ratio of the energies released EB/EA will be
approximately
A.
~8
B.
~ 16
C.
~ 32
D.
~ 64
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
52.
Which of the following combinations represent renewable natural

resources
A.
Fertile soil, fresh water and natural gas
B.
Clean air, phosphates and biological diversity
C.
Fishes, fertile soil and fresh water
D.
Oil, forests and tides
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
53.
In the recently launched Air Quality Index in India, which of the following
pollutants is not included
A.
Carbon monoxide
B.
Fine particulate matter
C.
Ozone
D.
Chlorofluorocarbons
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
54.
The factors which are most important in determining the impact of

anthropogenic activities on environment are
A.
Population, affluence per person, land available per person
B.
Population, affluence per person and the technology used for exploiting
resources
C.
Atmospheric conditions, population and forest cover
D.
Population, forest cover and land available per person
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
55.
The session of the parliament is summoned by
A.
The President
B.
the prime minister
C.
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D.
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
56.
Civil Service Day is celebrated in India on
A.
21st April
B.
24th April
C.
21st June
D.
7th July
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
57.
The South Asia University is situated in the city of
A.
Colombo
B.
Dhaka
C.
New Delhi
D.
Kathmandu
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
58.
The University Grants Commission was established with which of the

following aims
1) Promotion of research and development in higher education
2) Identifying and sustaining institutions of potential learning
3) Capacity building of teachers
4) Providing autonomy to each and every higher educational institution in
India
A.
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
B.
(a), (b) and (c)
C.
(b), (c) and (d)
D.
(a), (b) and (d)
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
59.
The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in institutions of higher education in

India at present (2015) is about
A.
8 percent
B.
12 percent
C.
19 percent
D.
23 percent
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
60.
The total number of central universities in India in April 2015 was
A.
08
B.
14
C.
27
D.
43
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
1.
Consider a set A {1, 2, 3, . . . ., 1000}. How many members of A

shall be divisible by 3 or by 5 or by both 3 and 5?
A.
533
B.
599
C.
467
D.
66
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The total numbers divisible by 3 are = 333

The total numbers divisible by 5 are = 200
The total numbers divisible by 3 and 5 are = 66
so The total numbers divisible by 3 or by 5 or by both 3 and 5 =
333 + 200 -66=467
2.
A certain tree has two vertices of degree 4, one vertex of degree 3

and one vertex of degree 2. If the other vertices have degree 1,
how many vertices are there in the graph ?
A.
B.
n-3
C.
20
D.
11
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
2*4+1*3+1*2+(n-4)=2(n-1) n+9=2n-2 n=11
Consider the graph given below

3.
The Graph is a ______
A.
Complete Graph
B.
Bipartite Graph
C.
Hamiltonian Graph
D.
All of the above
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
All other options are not correct.
4.
A computer program selects an integer in the set {k : 1 < k <

10,00,000} at random and prints out the result. This process is
repeated 1 million times. What is the probability that the value
k=1 appears in the printout at least once ?
A.
0.5
B.
0.704
C.
.632121
D.
.68
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
5.
If we define the functions f,g and h that map R into R by :

f(x) = x4, g(x) = sqrt(x2 +1), h(x) = x2 + 72, then the value of
the composite function ho(gof) and (hog)of are given as
A.
x8 -71 and x8 -71
B.
x8 -73 and x8 -73
C.
x8 +71 and x8 +71
D.
x8 + 73 and x8 +73
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
ho(gof) = h(g(f(x))) = h(g(x2)) = h(sqrt(x8 +1) = x8 +1+72 =

x8 + 73 and some for (hog)of.
6.
The BCD adder to add two decimal digits needs minimum of
A.
6 full adders and 2 half adders
B.
C.
D.
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
See Figure 3.12 of the book COMPUTER ORGANIZATION AND

DESIGN By P. PAL CHAUDHURI
7.
The Excess-3 decimal code is a self complimenting code because
A.
The binary sum of a code and its 9's compliment is equal to 9
B.
it is a weighted code
C.
Complement can be generated by inverting each bit pattern
D.
The binary sum of a code and its 10's compliment is equal to 9
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A,C
Explanation
in Excess 3 code 9's Complement can be generated by inverting

each bit pattern. due to this excess-3 code is called self
complimenting code.
8.
How many PUSH and POP operations will be needed to evaluate

the following expression by reverse polish notation in a stack
machine (A * B) + (C * D/E) ?
A.
4 PUSH and 3 POP instructions
B.
C.
D.
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Actually the answer is a bit confusing the number of push

operations are ( * + ( * / which is 6 but regarding pop operations
there is a confusion, it may be due to occurrence of two ), so 2
pop operations.
9.
The range of represent-able normalized numbers in the floating

point binary fractional representation in a 32-bit word with 1-bit
sign, 8-bit excess 128 biased exponent and 23-bit mantissa is
A.
2-128 to (1-2-23) x 2 127
B.
(1-2-23) x 2 -127 to 2128
C.
(1-2-23) x 2 -127 to 223
D.
2-129 to (1-2-23) x 2 127
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The range of represent-able normalized numbers in the floating

point binary fractional representation in a 32-bit word with 1-bit
sign, 8-bit excess 128 biased exponent and 23-bit mantissa is
2-129 to (1-2-23) x 2 127
read COMPUTER ORGANIZATION AND DESIGN By P. PAL
CHAUDHURI at P150
10.
The size of the ROM required to build an 8-bit adder/subtractor

with mode control, carry input, carry output and two's
complement overflow output is given as
A.
216 x 8
B.
218 x 10
C.
216 x 10
D.
218 x 8
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
for 8 bit data of two binary number total number of bits required
16 plus 2 bits for multiplexer to select between 4 operations so in
total 18 bits required and for 8 bit size the requirement will be
218x 8
11.
What will be the output of the following 'C' code.

main ()
{
int x = 128;
printf("\n%d", 1 + x++);
}
A.
128
B.
129
C.
130
D.
131
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
postfix operator
12.
What does the following expression means ?

char *(*(* a[N])())();
A.
a pointer to a function returning array of n pointers to function

returning character pointers.
B.
a function return array of N pointers to functions returning

pointers to characters
C.
an array of n pointers to function returning pointers to characters
D.
an array of n pointers to function returning pointers to functions

returning pointers to characters
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is All
Explanation
As per definition and follow clockwise rules.
13.
Which of the following is not a member of a class ?
A.
Static function
B.
Friend Function
C.
Const Function
D.
Virtual function
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Friend function is not a member of a class.
14.
When an array is passed as parameter to a function, which of the
following statement is correct
A.
The function can change values in the original array
B.
In C parameters are passed by value. The funciton cannot change

the original value in the array
C.
It results in compilation error when the function tries to access

the elements in the array
D.
Results in a run time error when the funtion tries to access the
elements in the array
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
When array name is passed as an argument, it pass only as a

reference i.e. address of only first element.
15.
Which of the following differentiates between overloaded

functions and overridden functions ?
A.
Overloading is a dynamic or runtime binding and overridden is a

static or compile time binding.
B.
Overloading is a static or compile time binding and overriding is

dynamic or runtime binding.
C.
Redefining a function in a friend class is called overloading while

redefining a function in a derived class is called as overridden
function.
D.
Redefining a function in a derived class is called overloading while

redefining a function in a friend class is called as overridden
function.
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
the difference between overloading and overriding function is

Overloading is a static or compile time binding and overriding is
dynamic or runtime binding
16.
Division operation is ideally suited to handle queries of the type
A.
Customers who have no account in any of the branches in Delhi
B.
Customers who have an account at all branches in Delhi
C.
Customers who have an account in atleast one branch in Delhi
D.
customers who have only joint account in any one branch in Delhi.
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Division Operator definition matches with option B only
17.
Which of the following is true?

I. Implementation of self-join is possible in SQL with table alias.
II. Outer-Join Operation is basic operation in relational algebra.
III. Natural-Join and Outer Join Operations are equivalent.
A.
I and II are Correct
B.
II and III are Correct
C.
Only III is Correct
D.
Only I is correct
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
as Per definition of Self Join, Implementation of self-join is

possible in SQL with table alias
But Outer-Join Operation is not among the basic operation in
relational algebra.
also Natural-Join and Outer Join Operations are equivalent
actually natural Join is Equi Join.
18.
What kind of mechanism is to be taken into account for

converting a weak entity set into strong entity set in entityrelationship diagram ?
A.
Generalization
B.
Aggregation
C.
Specialization
D.
Adding suitable attributes
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
19.
The best normal form of relation scheme R(A, B, C, D) along with

the set of functional dependencies F = {AB C, AB D, C A, D
B} is
A.
Boyce Codd Normal Form
B.
Third Normal Form
C.
Second Normal Form
D.
First Normal Form
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The transitive dependency exists Here so the best Normal Form is

Third Normal Form
20.
Identify the minimal key for relational scheme R(A, B, C, D, E)

with functional dependencies F = {A B, B C, AC D}
A.
B.
AE
C.
BE
D.
CE
View/Hide
Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
since A can be used to derive B as well as C and D,
21.Convert the Following Infix expression into its equivalent Post Fix expression
(A + B ^ D) / (E - F) +GA.ABD^+EF-/G+B.ABD+^EF-/G+C.ABD+^EF/G+D.ABD^+EF/-G+View/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Just draw the Expression tree of infix expression and perform preorder traversal of
the tree.
22.You have to sort a list L, consisting of a sorted list followed by a few 'random'
elements. Which of the following sorting method would be most suitable for such a
task ?A.Bubble SortB.Selection SortC.Quick SortD.Insertion SortView/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Only Insertion sort is the method that is most suitable for list consisting of a sorted
list followed by a few 'random' elements. like the used by card game player.
23.The Directory can be viewed as ____ that translates file names into their
directory entries.A.Symbol TableB.PartitionC.Swap spaceD.CacheView/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The Directory can be viewed as symbol table that translates file names into their
directory entries.
24.Consider an array A[20,10], assume 4 words per memory cell and the base
address of array A is 100. What is the address of A[11,5]? Assume row major
storage.A.560B.565C.570D.575View/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
base address + (rownum - start)*size of columns * size of memory cell + (colnum start) * size of memory cell
100+(11-0)*(10)*4 + (5-0)*4 = 560
25.A full binary tree with n leaves containsA.n nodesB.log 2n nodesC.2n-1
nodesD.2n nodesView/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The Property of Full Binary tree.
26.The period of a signal is 10 ms. what is the frequency in
Hertz.A.10B.100C.1000D.10000View/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
There is a reciprocal relationship between frequency and the time for a cycle (the
'period'):
frequency = 1 / clock period
clock period = 1 / frequency
if a CPU operates at 100 Hz, its "clock cycle" is 0.01 second = 10 ms
27.In a classful addressing, first four bits in Class A IP address

isA.1010B.1100C.1011D.1110View/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is All
Explanation
No Correct Answer
28.Which of the following algorithm is not a broadcast routing algorithm ?
A.FloodingB.Multidimensional RoutingC.Reverse Path ForwardingD.All of the
AboveView/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Broadcast routing algorithm is Distance vector routing.
29.An analog signal has a bit rate of 6000 bps and a baud rate of 2000 baud. How
many data elements are carried by each signal element ?A.0.336 bits baudB.3 bits
baudC.120,00,000 bits baudD.None of the aboveView/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
S = 2000, N = 6000, and r and L are unknown. We are to find the value of r.
S = N x 1/r = i.e. r= N/S = 6000/2000 = 3
30.How many Distinct stages are there in DES algorithm. which is parameterized by
a 56-bit key ?A.16B.17C.18D.19View/Hide Ans
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
In DES, plain text (here, password) is encrypted in block of 64 bits, yielding 64 bits
of cipher text. The algorithm which is parameterized by 56 bit key has 19 distinct
stages.

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Answer Key and Solved Questions Paper-3 UGC-NET Computer Science June 2015

Consider a 32 - bit microprocessor, with a 16 - bit external data bus, driven by an 8

8 x 106 bytes / sec

4 x 106 bytes / sec

16 x 106 bytes / sec

4 x 109 bytes / sec

The RST 7 instruction in 8085 microprocessor is equivalent to

The equivalent hexadecimal notation for octal number 2550276 is:

binary equivalent of 2550276 is 010101101000010111110.

The number of Flip-Flops required to design a modulo - 272 counter is

for construction a Modulo - N counter we need Log2 number of flipflops.the

The student information in a university is stored in the relation STUDENT (name,

Simple Sql Query Execution.

Which one of the following statements about normal forms is FALSE?

Lossless, preserving decomposition into 3NF is always possible

Lossless, preserving decomposition into BCNF is always possible

Any relation with two attributes is in BCNF

BCNF is stronger than 3NF

Achieving Lossless and dependency-preserving decomposition property

Non key attribute V_name is dependent on qty_sup

key attribute qty_sup is dependent on primary_key unit price

key attribute v_ord_no is dependent on primary_key unit price

the relational schemas R1 and R2 form a loseless join decomposition of R if and

A decomposition of R into R1 and R2 is lossless join if and only if at least one of

The size of the blocks, and the size of the address

size of the index

size of the blocks

only one in the direction K

Two in the directions I and J

Three in the directions I, J and K

Only two in the directions J and K

A'(-1, 2 -1), B'(-1, 22 - 1), C'((3/2)2 - 1, (9/2)2 - 1)

A'(2 -1,- 1), B'( 22 - 1, -1), C'((3/2)2 - 1, (9/2)2 - 1)

A'(-1, 2 -1), B'(22 - 1, -1), C'((3/2)2 - 1, (9/2)2 - 1)

A'(-1, 2 -1), B'( 22 - 1, -1), C'((9/2)2 - 1, (3/2)2 - 1)

Quantization is the process of converting a continuous range of values into a

which of the following is not a basic primitive of the graphics kernel

graphics kernel system(GKS) is based on four basic primitive :

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect ?

Normalized device coordinates (NDCs) make up a coordinate system that

An electron gun designed to flood the entire screen with

Partly energised by flooding gun, stores the charge

used to discharge the collector

used in memory -tube display and similar to those used

used in memory -tube display and basically the same as

Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

(ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (v)

(iii) (i) (ii) (v) (iv)

(iv) (v) (i) (ii) (iii)

All are definitions.

Minimal Deterministic finite automaton for the language L = { 0 n | n > 0, n 4 }

1 final state among 5 states

4 final states among 5 states

1 final state among 6 states

5 final states among 6 states

The regular expression corresponding to the language L where L = { x {0,1}* | x

the initial and final states of automata are

The clausal form of the disjunctive normal form A B C D is

Which of the following is false for the programming language PROLOG ?

A PROLOG variable can only be assigned to a value once

PROLOG is a Strongly Typed Language.

The scope of a variable in PROLOG is a single clause or rule.

the scope of a variable in PROLOG is a Single Query