Math 215a Homework #3 solutions

1. Let v0 denote the central vertex and let v1 denote the outer vertex. Let
ev denote the vertical edge; let e1 , . . . , en denote the upper radial edges
in cyclic order; and let eh denote the outer edge. Let F1 , . . . , Fn denote
the vertical faces in cyclic order, and let F10 , . . . , Fn0 denote the upper
horizontal faces. Then with the orientation conventions indicated by
the picture, the differential is given by
∂Ti = Fi+1 − Fi + Fi0 − Fi+10
, (1)
∂Fi = ev − ei + ei+1 , (2)
∂Fi0 = eh − ei + ei+1 , (3)
∂ei = v0 − v1 , (4)
∂eh = ∂ev = 0, (5)
∂v0 = ∂v1 = 0. (6)
In the above equations, when i = n, it is understood that Fn+1 = F1 ,
etc.
To compute the homology, first note that H0 = Z because the space is
connected. Also recall that Zi denotes the kernel of ∂ on Ci , and Bi
denotes the image of ∂ on Ci+1 , so that Hi = Zi /Bi . The rest is linear
algebra, and maybe you can do this more cleverly than I can, but here
we go.
By equations (4) and (5), Z1 consists of elements of C1 for which the
total coefficient of e1 , . . . , en is zero. Thus Zi is freely generated by eh ,
ev , and ei − ei+1 for i = 1, . . . , n − 1. Define a map φ : Z1 → Z/n by
sending eh 7→ 1, ev 7→ 1, and ei − ei+1 7→ 1 for i = 1, . . . , n − 1. Observe
that n
X
(ei − ei+1 ) = 0. (7)
i=1

Therefore φ also sends en − e1 7→ 1 − n = 1 ∈ Z/n. Now φ sends B1

to zero and hence induces a well-defined map φ∗ : H1 → Z/n. I claim
that φ∗ is an isomorphism. Clearly φ∗ is surjective. To prove injectivity,
note that any element of Z1 is homologous to an integer multiple of ev ,
because we can use (3) to get rid of eh and then use (2) to get rid of
ei − ei+1 . So we just have to show that nev is nullhomologous. This
follows from (2) and (7).

1
 To show that H2 = 0, let α ∈ Z2 ; we must show that α is homologous
to zero. By considering the coefficient of eh in ∂α, we see that the total
coefficient of the Fi0 ’s is zero, P
so we can use (1) to kill all Fi0 ’s. Thus we
n
are reduced to the case α P= i=1 ai Fi . By considering the coefficient
of ev in ∂α, we see that ni=1 ai = 0. By considering the coefficient of
ei in ∂α, we see that ai = ai+1 . Hence ai = 0 for all i.
Similarly to P
the reasoning in the previous paragraph, we see that Z3 is
spanned by ni=1 Ti , so H3 = Z.
2. Let φ1 , φ2 , φ3 : (C∗ , ∂) → (C∗0 , ∂ 0 ) be chain maps. Then K = 0 is a
chain homotopy from φ1 to itself. If K is a chain homotopy from φ1 to
φ2 , i.e. ∂ 0 K + K∂ = φ1 − φ2 , then −K is a chain homotopy from φ2
to φ1 . If K1 is a chain homotopy from φ1 to φ2 , and if K2 is a chain
homotopy from φ2 to φ3 , then K1 + K2 is a chain homotopy from φ1 to
φ3 . The proofs of the above claims are trivial. Thus chain homotopy is
an equivalence relation on the set of chain maps from (C∗ , ∂) to (C∗0 , ∂ 0 ).
Now suppose K is a chain homotopy from φ1 to φ2 , and ψ : (C∗0 , ∂ 0 ) →
(C∗00 , ∂ 00 ) is a chain map. Then ψ ◦ K is a chain homotopy from ψ ◦ φ1
to ψ ◦ φ2 , because using the chain map equation for ψ, we have
∂ 00 (ψK) + (ψK)∂ = ψ(∂ 0 K + K∂) = ψ(φ1 − φ2 ).
Likewise, if ψ : (C∗00 , ∂ 00 ) → (C∗ , ∂) is a chain map, then Kψ is a chain
homotopy from φ1 ψ to φ2 ψ.
3. We use induction on k. This is trivial if k ≤ 2, so assume k ≥ 3. Then
we have an exact sequence
Zn2 f20 f3 fk−1
0 −→ n
−→ Zn3 −→ · · · −→ Znk −→ 0
f1 (Z )
1

where f20 is induced by f2 . Now f20 is injective, so Zn2 /f1 (Zn1 ) is iso-
morphic to a subgroup of Zn3 , which is isomorphic to Za for some a.
By inductive hypothesis,
k
X
a− (−1)i ni = 0.
i=3

To complete the proof we need to show that

n1 + a = n2 .

2
 This follows from elementary linear algebra applied to f1 .
4. Let X be the union of three copies of Dn with their boundaries iden-
tified. We compute H∗ (X) using Mayer-Vietoris. Take A to be a
neighborhood of two of the Dn ’s, and B to be a neighborhood of the
third Dn . Then A ≈ S n , B ≈ {pt}, and A ∩ B ≈ S n−1 . The interesting
part of the Mayer-Vietoris sequence is
0 → Hn (S n ) → Hn (X) → Hn−1 (S n−1 ) → 0.
This gives1 Hn (X) ' Z ⊕ Z. The rest of the Mayer-Vietoris sequence
gives H0 (X) = Z and Hi (X) = 0 for i 6= 0, n.
5. If n = 0, then calculations from class show that H0 = Z, H1 ' Z2g ,
H2 ' Z, and Hi = 0 for i > 2. I claim that if n > 0, then H0 = Z,
H1 ' Z2g−1+n , and Hi = 0 for i > 1. We know this when n = 1 because
then the surface with a disc removed deformation retracts onto a wedge
of 2g circles. Now suppose n > 1. One can actually “cheat” and show
that the surface with n discs removed is homotopy equivalent to a wedge
of 2g + n − 1 circles. But let’s use Mayer-Vietoris like we’re supposed
to.
We have H0 = Z since the surface is connected. To compute the rest of
the homology, let X be the surface with one disc removed, let A ⊂ X
be the surface with n discs removed, and let B ⊂ X be a neighborhood
of the additional n − 1 discs to be removed. The interesting part of the
M-V sequence is then
0 → H1 (A ∩ B) → H1 (A) → H1 (X) → 0.
We can put a 0 on the right because the map H0 (A ∩ B) → H0 (B) is
injective. Thus we have
0 → Zn−1 → H1 (A) → Z2g → 0.
As in the previous exercise this gives H1 (A) ' Z2g−1+n . If i > 1
then Hi (A) = 0 because it is sandwiched between two 0’s in the M-V
sequence.
1
Beware that it is not always true that if 0 → A → B → C → 0 is exact then
B ' A ⊕ C. However this is true when C = Z. Proof: choose b ∈ B mapping to 1 ∈ C.
Since Z has no torsion, we can then define a map C → B sending n to nb. Combining this
with the inclusion A → B gives a map A ⊕ C → B, and you should check that this is an
isomorphism.

3
 1 2
6. Let Y be the 3-manifold obtained by taking  two copies of S × D
a b
and identifying the boundary tori via . Specifically, we identify
c d
(x, y) ∈ S 1 × S 1 in the boundary of the first copy of S 1 × D2 with
(ax + by, cx + dy) in the boundary of the second copy of S 1 × D2 .
Decompose Y = A ∪ B where A is a neighborhood2 of the first S 1 × D2
and B is a neighborhood of the second S 1 ×D2 . So A and B deformation
retract to S 1 , while A ∩ B deformation retracts to the 2-torus along
which we glue. To be specific, we identify this 2-torus with S 1 × S 1 by
regarding it as the boundary of the first copy of S 1 × D2 . Then the
inclusion-induced map Z2 ' H1 (A∩B) → H1 (A) ' Z sends (x, y) 7→ x,
while the map Z2 ' H1 (A ∩ B) → H1 (B) ' Z sends (x, y) 7→ ax + by.
Now part of the M-V sequence is

0 → H3 (Y ) → H2 (S 1 × S 1 ) → 0,

so H3 (Y ) ' Z, and likewise Hi (Y ) = 0 for i > 3. Also,

0 → H2 (Y ) → H1 (A ∩ B) → H1 (A) ⊕ H1 (B) → H1 (Y ) → 0,

where we can put a 0 at the end as in the previous problem. We have

computed that the map in the middle sends (x, y) 7→ (x, ax + by). This
map is injective if b 6= 0, and otherwise its kernel is Z. Thus

0, b 6= 0,
H2 (Y ) '
Z, b = 0.

By more linear algebra,


Z/b, b 6= 0,
H1 (Y ) '
Z, b = 0.

Finally H0 (Y ) = Z since Y is connected.

Note that this generalizes problem 1, i.e. the space considered in prob-
lem 1 can be obtained by gluing two solid tori together. Can you see
how?
 
2 a b
This A is not to be confused with the matrix .
c d