01 Iit-Jee 2010

SOLUTIONS TO IIT-JEE 2010
Paper-I (Code: 8)

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General:
1. This Question Paper contains 28 pages having 84 questions. The question paper CODE is
printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and also on the back page of this
booklet.
2. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
3. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed.
4. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided
separately.
5. Write your Registration No., Name and Name of centre and sign with pen in appropriate
boxes. Do not write these anywhere else.

B. Question paper format and Marking scheme:
6. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Chemistry, Mathematics and Physics). Each part
consists of four Sections.
7. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you have darkened only
the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are
darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded.
8. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the
bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened.
Partial marks will be awarded for partially correct answers. No negative marks will be
awarded in this Section.
9. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In
all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded.
10. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. No negative
marks will be awarded in this Section.

IITJEE 2010 SOLUTIONS

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2
CHEMISTRY: Paper-I (Code: 8)
PART I
Useful Data
Atomic numbers: Be = 4; C = 6; N = 7; O = 8; Al = 13; Si = 14; Cr = 24; Fe = 26; Zn = 30; Br = 35.
1 amu = 1.66 10
27
kg R = 0.082 L atm K
1
mol
1

h = 6.626 10
34
Js N
A
= 6.022 10
23

m
e
= 9.1 10
31
kg e = 1.6 10
19
C
c = 3.0 10
8
m s
1
F = 96500 C mol
1

R
H
= 2.18 10
18
J 4tc
o
= 1.11 10
10
J
1
C
2
m
1

SECTION I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.

Note: Questions with (*) mark are from syllabus of class XI.

1. Plots showing the variation of the rate constant (k) with temperature (T) are given below. The plot that follows Arrhenius
equation is
(A)

k
T
(B)

k
T
(C)

k
T
(D)

k
T

Sol.: As per Arrhenius equation ), Ae k (
RT / E
a
= the rate constant increases exponentially with temperature.

Correct choice: (A)

2. In the reaction

OCH
3

HBr
the products are
(A)

OCH
3
and H
2
Br (B)

Br and CH
3
Br
(C)

Br and CH
3
OH (D)

OH and CH
3
Br
Sol.:

OCH
3

H
+

OCH
3

H
+
Br

OH + CH
3
Br
Correct choice: (D)

3. The correct statement about the following disaccharide is

HO
H
OH
H
H
O
H
H
CH
2
OH
OH
OH
H
H
HO
HOH
2
C
OCH
2
CH
2
O
(a)
H
CH
2
OH
O
(b)

(A) Ring (a) is pyranose with o-glycosidic link. (B) Ring (a) is furanose with o-glycosidic link.
(C) Ring (b) is furanose with o-glycosidic link. (D) Ring (b) is pyranose with |-glycosidic link.
Sol.: Correct choice: (A)

*4. The synthesis of 3-octyne is achieved by adding a bromoalkane into a mixture of sodium amide and an alkyne. The
bromoalkane and alkyne respectively are
(A) BrCH
2
CH
2
CH
2
CH
2
CH
3
and CH
3
CH
2
CCH (B) BrCH
2
CH
2
CH
3
and CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
CCH
(C) BrCH
2
CH
2
CH
2
CH
2
CH
3
and CH
3
CCH (D) BrCH
2
CH
2
CH
2
CH
3
and CH
3
CH
2
CCH
Sol.: CH
3
CH
2
CCH
NaNH2
NH3
CH
3
CH
2
CC

Na
+

CH3CH2CH2CH2Br
(SN2)
CH
3
CH
2
CCCH
2
CH
2
CH
2
CH
3
+ NaBr
3-Octyne

Correct choice: (D)


3
5. The ionization isomer of [Cr(H
2
O)
4
Cl(NO
2
)]Cl is
(A) [Cr(H
2
O)
4
(O
2
N)]Cl
2
(B) [Cr(H
2
O)
4
Cl
2
](NO
2
)
(C) [Cr(H
2
O)
4
Cl(ONO)]Cl (D) [Cr(H
2
O)
4
Cl
2
(NO
2
)]
.
H
2
O
Sol.: Ionization isomer of [Cr(H
2
O)
4
Cl(NO
2
)]Cl is [Cr(H
2
O)
4
Cl
2
]NO
2
.
Correct choice: (B)

6. The correct structure of ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) is
(A)
HOOCH
2
C
NCH=CHN
HOOCH
2
C
CH
2
COOH
CH
2
COOH
(B)
HOOC
NCH
2
CH
2
N
COOH
COOH HOOC

(C)

NCH
2
CH
2
N
HOOCH
2
C
HOOCH
2
C
CH
2
COOH
CH
2
COOH
(D)

NCHCHN
HOOCH
2
C
H
CH
2
COOH
CH
2

COOH
CH
2

HOOC
H

Sol.: The correct structure of EDTA is

NCH
2
CH
2
N
HOOCH
2
C
HOOCH
2
C
CH
2
COOH
CH
2
COOH

Correct choice: (C)

*7. The bond energy (in kcal mol
1
) of a CC single bond is approximately
(A) 1 (B) 10 (C) 100 (D) 1000
Sol.: CC bond energy = 348 kJ/mol
2 . 4
348
kcal/mol = 82.85 kcal/mol ~ 100 kcal/mol.
Correct choice: (C)

*8. The species which by definition has ZERO standard molar enthalpy of formation at 298 K is
(A) Br
2
(g) (B) Cl
2
(g) (C) H
2
O

(g) (D) CH
4
(g)
Sol.: The species in its elemental form has zero standard molar enthalpy of formation at 298 K.
Br
2(l)
Br
2(g)
;
o
f
H A = 0
C
(s)
+ 2H
2(g)
CH
4(g)
;
o
f
H A = 0
H
2(g)
+ O
2(g)
H
2
O
(g)
;
o
f
H A = 0
Correct choice: (B)
SECTION II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

9. In the reaction

OH
NaOH(aq)/Br2
the intermediate(s) is(are)
(A)

Br
Br
O
(B)

Br
O
Br
(C)

Br
O
(D)

Br
O

Sol.:
OH
NaOH
O
Br
2

O
Br2
Br
O
Br
Br2
Br
O
Br
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
Br
Br
H2O Br

Br

Br

Product of reaction of phenol with NaOH/Br
2
is sodium salt of 2,4,6-tribromophenol. Hence, species (I), (II), (III) are formed
as intermediate.
Correct choice: (A), (C)

4
*10. Among the following, the intensive property is (properties are)
(A) molar conductivity (B) electromotive force (C) resistance (D) heat capacity
Sol.: Mass independent properties are intensive properties. Resistance and heat capacity are extensive properties.
Correct choice: (A), (B)

*11. The reagent(s) used for softening the temporary hardness of water is(are)
(A) Ca
3
(PO
4
)
2
(B) Ca(OH)
2
(C) Na
2
CO
3
(D) NaOCl
Sol.: Temporary hardness is due to bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium. Temporary hardness can be removed by Clarks
process, which involves the addition of slaked lime, Ca(OH)
2
. Washing soda (Na
2
CO
3
) removes both the temporary and
permanent hardness by converting soluble calcium and magnesium compounds into insoluble carbonates.
Ca(HCO
3
)
2
+ Ca(OH)
2
2CaCO
3
+ + 2H
2
O
Ca(HCO
3
)
2
+ Na
2
CO
3
CaCO
3
+

+ 2NaHCO
3

2OCl
+ 2H
2
O

2HOCl + 2OH

Ca(HCO
3
)
2
+ 2OH
CaCO
3
+ +
2
3
CO + 2H
2
O
Correct choice: (B), (C), (D)

*12. Aqueous solutions of HNO
3
, KOH, CH
3
COOH and CH
3
COONa of identical concentrations are provided. The pair(s) of
solutions which form a buffer upon mixing is(are)
(A) HNO
3
and CH
3
COOH (B) KOH and CH
3
COONa
(C) HNO
3
and CH
3
COONa (D) CH
3
COOH and CH
3
COONa
Sol.: Any solution of a weak acid and its salt with strong base acts as an acidic buffer solution.
If volume of HNO
3
solution added is less as compared to that of CH
3
COONa solution, it results in the formation of an acidic
buffer solution.
CH
3
COONa + HNO
3
CH
3
COOH + NaNO
3

Excess limiting
reagent
MV MV'
M(V V') 0 MV' MV' (V' < V)
Correct choice: (C), (D)

*13. In the Newman projection for 2,2-dimethylbutane

X
H H
Y
H
3
C CH
3

X and Y can respectively be
(A) H and H (B) H and C
2
H
5
(C) C
2
H
5
and H (D) CH
3
and CH
3

Sol.: Structural formula of 2, 2-dimethylbutane is

CH
3
CCH
2
CH
3
CH
3
CH
3
1 2 3 4

(I) Newman projection using C
1
C
2
bond

H
H H
C
2
H
5
H
3
C CH
3

1
2

(II) Newman projection using C
3
C
2
bond

H H
CH
3
CH
3
CH
3

3
2
CH
3

Correct choice: (B), (D)

5
SECTION III
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the first paragraph 3 multiple choice questions and based upon the second
paragraph 2 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these questions has four choices A), B), C) and D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question 14 to 16

Copper is the most noble of the first row transition metals and occurs in small deposits in several countries. Ores of copper
include chalcanthite (CuSO
4
.5H
2
O), atacamite (Cu
2
Cl(OH)
3
), cuprite (Cu
2
O), copper glance (Cu
2
S) and malachite
(Cu
2
(OH)
2
CO
3
). However, 80% of the world copper production comes from the ore chalcopyrite (CuFeS
2
). The extraction of
copper from chalcopyrite involves partial roasting, removal of iron and self-reduction.

14. Partial roasting of chalcopyrite produces
(A) Cu
2
S and FeO (B) Cu
2
O and FeO (C) CuS and Fe
2
O
3
(D) Cu
2
O and Fe
2
O
3

Sol.: 2CuFeS
2
+ 4O
2

C 1450 1400
Cu
2
S + 3SO
2
+ 2FeO
Partial roasting of FeS and Cu
2
S produces FeO and Cu
2
O respectively.
2FeS + 3O
2
2FeO + 2SO
2

2Cu
2
S + 3O
2
2Cu
2
O + 2SO
2

Correct choice: (B)

15. Iron is removed from chalcopyrite as
(A) FeO (B) FeS (C) Fe
2
O
3
(D) FeSiO
3

Sol.: FeO + SiO
2
FeSiO
3

Correct choice: (D)

16. In self-reduction, the reducing species is
(A) S (B) O
2
(C) S
2
(D) SO
2

Sol.: Cu
2
S + 2Cu
2
O 6Cu + SO
2
The reducing species is the one which gets oxidized. So, it is S
2
ion getting oxidized to S
4+
.
Correct choice: (C)

Paragraph for Question 17 to 18

The concentration of potassium ions inside a biological cell is atleast twenty times higher than the outside. The resulting
potential difference across the cell is important in several processes such as transmission of nerve impulses and maintaining
the ion balance. A simple model for such a concentration cell involving a metal M is
M(s) | M
+
(aq; 0.05 molar) || M
+
(aq; 1 molar) | M(s)
For the above electrolytic cell the magnitude of the cell potential |E
cell
| = 70 mV.

17. For the above cell
(A) E
cell
< 0; 0 G> A (B) 0 G ; 0 E
cell
< A > (C) 0 G ; 0 E
cell
> A < (D) 0 G ; 0 E
cell
< A >
Sol.: (A): M(s)
+
+e ) aq ( M
A

(C): ) s ( M e ) aq ( M
C
+
+

) aq ( M ) aq ( M
A C
+ +

] M [
] M [
ln
F
RT
] M [
] M [
ln
F
RT
E E
A
C
C
A o
cell cell
+
+
+
+
= = ) 0 E (
o
cell
=
E
cell
= 0.059 log
05 . 0
] M [
C
+

0.07V = 0.059
05 . 0
) M (
log
C
+
= 0.059 log 20 ] M [
C
+
= 0.059 (log 20 + log ] M [
C
+
)
Since ] M [
C
+
is greater than 0.05 M, so E
cell
is +ve.
E
cell
> 0 & . 0 G< A
Correct choice: (B)


6
18. If the 0.05 molar solution of M
+
is replaced by a 0.0025 molar M
+
solution, then the magnitude of the cell potential would be
(A) 35 mV (B) 70 mV (C) 140 mV (D) 700 mV
Sol.: E
cell
= 0.059
0025 . 0
] M [
log
C
+
= 0.059 log 400 ] M [
C
+
= 0.059 log (20)
2
] M [
C
+
= 0.059(2 log 20 + log ] M [
C
+
)
= 0.059 |
.
|
\
|

59 . 0
07 . 0
2 = 0.14 V = 140 mV.
Correct choice: (C)
SECTIONIV
Integer Answer Type
This section contains TEN questions. The answer to each questions is a single digit integer ranging from 0 to 9.
The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.

19. In the scheme given below, the total number of intramolecular aldol condensation products formed from Y is
1. O3
2. Zn, H2O
Y

1. NaOH(aq)
2. heat

Sol.:

1. O3
2. Zn, H2O
NaOH(aq)
O

O

(Y)

OH

O

heat
H2O
O

The number of intramolecular aldol condensation products (o, |-unsaturated carbonyl compound) formed from (Y) is 1.
The answer is 1.

20. Amongst the following, the total number of compounds soluble in aqueous NaOH is

N
CH
3
H
3
C
COOH OCH
2
CH
3
CH
2
OH
OH

NO
2
OH
CH
3
H
3
C
N
CH
2
CH
3
CH
2
CH
3
COOH

Sol.: All carboxylic acids and phenols are soluble in aqueous NaOH. Four compounds are soluble in aqueous NaOH.
The answer is 4.

*21. Amongst the following, the total number of compounds whose aqueous solution turns red litmus paper blue is
KCN K
2
SO
4
(NH
4
)
2
C
2
O
4
NaCl Zn(NO
3
)
2

FeCl
3
K
2
CO
3
NH
4
NO
3
LiCN
Sol.: KCN, K
2
CO
3
and LiCN are the salts of weak acid and strong base. So, their aqueous solutions turns red litmus paper blue.
(NH
4
)
2
C
2
O
4
is a salt of weak base (NH
4
OH ; K
b
= 1.8 10
5
) and weak acid (HOOC.COOH ;
1
a
K = 5.4 10
2
and
2
a
K = 5.2 10
5
). As a result, the extent of hydrolysis of
+
4
NH will be more than that of
2
4 2
O C and hence the resulting
solution will be acidic.
The answer is 3.

*22. Based on VSEPR theory, the number of 90 degree FBrF angles in BrF
5
is
Sol.: According to VSEPR theory, number of electron pairs around central atom (Br) are 6.

2
N
=
2
5 7 +
= 6. (Five are bond pairs and one is lone pair )
Its geometry is octahedral but due to lone pairbond pair repulsion, the
four fluorine atoms at corner are forced towards the upper fluorine atom
thus reducing FBrF angle from 90 to 84.8.

F
..
F
F
F
Br
F

The answer is 0.


7
*23. The value of n in the molecular formula Be
n
Al
2
Si
6
O
18
is
Sol.: It is the formula of Beryl (which has BeO, Al
2
O
3
and SiO
2
).
The formula of Beryl should be
3BeO. Al
2
O
3
.6SiO
2

Or
Total cationic charge = Total anionic charge
2n + 6 + 24 = 36
n = 3
The answer is 3.

*24. A student performs a titration with different burettes and finds titre values of 25.2 mL, 25.25 mL, and 25.0 mL. The number
of significant figures in the average titre value is
Sol.: The least significant figure in titre values is 3.
Average titre value = 1 . 25
3
4 . 75
3
25 25 . 25 2 . 25
= =
+ +

The number of significant figures in average titre value will also be 3.
The answer is 3.

25. The concentration of R in the reaction P R was measured as a function of time and the following data is obtained:

[R] (molar) 1.0 0.75 0.40 0.10
t(min.) 0.0 0.05 0.12 0.18
The order of reaction is
Sol.: The integrated form of a zero-order reaction is
[A
0
] [A
t
] = k
0
t
1.0 0.75 = k
0
0.05, k
0
= 5
1.0 0.4 = k
0
0.12, k
0
= 5
The answer is 0.

26. The number of neutrons emitted when U
235
92
undergoes controlled nuclear fission to Xe
142
54
and Sr
90
38
is
Sol.:
1
0
90
38
142
54
1
0
235
92
n y Sr Xe n U + + +
235 + 1 = 142 + 90 + y
y = 4. The number of neutrons emitted are (4 1) = 3.
The answer is 3.

*27. The total number of basic groups in the following form of lysine is

CHC
H
3
NCH
2
CH
2
CH
2
CH
2
O
H
2
N
O

Sol.: The basic groups in the given form of lysine is NH
2
and
2
CO . The answer is 2.

*28. The total number of cyclic isomers possible for a hydrocarbon with the molecular formula C
4
H
6
is
Sol.: The number of cyclic isomers for a hydrocarbon with molecular formula C
4
H
6
is 5.
The structures are

, , and ,
CH
2
CH
3

CH
3

.


8
MATHEMATICS: Paper-I (Code: 8)
PART II
SECTION I
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

29. The value of
}
+
+
x
x
dt
t
t t
x
0
4 3
0
4
) 1 ln( 1
lim is
(A) 0 (B)
12
1
(C)
24
1
(D)
64
1

Sol.:
( )
dt
t
t t
x
x
x
}
+
+
0
4 3
0
4
1 ln 1
lim
( )
|
.
|
\
|
+
+
=
}
form
0
0
4
1 ln
lim
3
0
4
0
x
dt
t
t t
x
x
Applying L. Hospital Rule

( )
( )
( ) 4 3
1 ln
lim
3
4
1 ln
lim
4
0
2
4
0
+
+
=
+
+
=

x x
x
x
x
x x
x x

( )
12
1
4
1
lim
1 ln
lim
3
1
4
0 0
=
+
+
=

x
x
x
x x

Correct choice: (B)
30. The number of 3 3 matrices A whose entries are either 0 or 1 and for which the system A
(
(
(
=
(
(
(
0
0
1
z
y
x
has exactly two distinct
solutions, is
(A) 0 (B) 1 2
9
(C) 168 (D) 2
Sol.: For any matrices A it form three planes. But three planes can not intersect exactly at two distinct points.
Correct choice: (A)

31. Let P, Q, R and S be the points on the plane with position vectors ,

2 j i j i i
3 ,
4 + and j i
3 + respectively. The
quadrilateral PQRS must be a
(A) parallelogram, which is neither a rhombus nor a rectangle (B) square
(C) rectangle, but not a square (D) rhombus, but not a square
Sol.: If O is origin j i OS j i OR i OQ j i OP
3 ;
3 ;
4 ;

2 + = + = = =
j i OQ OS QS
7 + = =
j i PR
5 + =
53 4 49 = + = QS ; 41 16 25 = + = PR
37

6 = + = j i PQ ; 10
= + = j i QR
37

6 = = j i RS ; 10
= = j i SP
Opposite sides are parallel and equal but diagonals are not equal.
Correct choice: (A)

9
32. Let e be a complex cube root of unity with 1 = e . A fair die is thrown three times. If
2 1
, r r and
3
r are the numbers obtained
on the die, then the probability that
3 2 1
r r r
e + e + e = 0 is
(A)
18
1
(B)
9
1
(C)
9
2
(D)
36
1

Sol.: ( ) 216 6
3
= = S n
E is the event that 0
3 2 1
= e + e + e
r r r
, is possible if one among
3 2 1
, , r r r is of the form n 3 ; another one is of the form
1 3 + n and the remaining one is of the form 2 3 + n , where Z ne .
For n 3 , two possible cases are 3, 6
For 1 3 + n , two possible cases are 1, 4
For 2 3 + n , two possible cases are 2, 5
( ) 48 ! 3 2 2 2 = = E n
( )
( )
( ) 9
2
216
48
= = =
S n
E n
E P
Correct choice: (C)

33. Equation of the plane containing the straight line
4 3 2
z y x
= = and perpendicular to the plane containing the straight lines
2 4 3
z y x
= = and
3 2 4
z y x
= = is
(A) 0 2 2 = + z y x (B) 0 2 2 3 = + z y x (C) 0 2 = + z y x (D) 0 4 2 5 = + z y x
Sol.: Plane
2
P contains the line L
4 3 2
z y x
= =
Plane
1
P contains the lines
1
L and
2
L , where

2 4 3
1
z y x
L = = and
3 2 4
2
z y x
L = =
Let direction ratio of normal to the plane
1
P is ( ) | o , , , then
0 2 4 3 = + | + o and 0 3 2 4 = + | + o

10 1 8
|
=
o

Let direction ratio of normal of required plane is (a, b, c), then 0 10 8 = c b a ; 0 4 3 2 = + + c b a

26 52 26
c b a
=
=
1 2 1
c b a
=
=
Required plane is 0 2 = + z y x
Correct choice: (C)
Alternative:
( ) ( ) ( )c b a b c a c b a n

. . = =
( ) ( ) k j i k j i
4 26
3 26 + + + + = k j i
26
52
26 + =
direction ratio of normal of required plane is ( ) 1 , 2 , 1
Equation is 0 2 = + z y x

*34. If the angles B A, and C of a triangle are in an arithmetic progression and if a, b and c denote the lengths of the sides
opposite to B A, and C respectively, then the value of the expression A
a
c
C
c
a
2 sin 2 sin + is
(A)
2
1
(B)
2
3
(C) 1 (D) 3

10
Sol.: Since A, B, C are in A.P.
C A B + = 2
= + + 180 C B A
=180 3B = 60 B
A
a
c
C
c
a
2 sin 2 sin +
A A
A
C
C C
C
A
cos sin 2
sin
sin
cos sin 2 .
sin
sin
+ = ( ) ( ) = = + = + = 120 sin 2 2 sin 2 sin 2 cos sin sin cos 2 B C A A C A C
3
2
3
2 = =
Correct choice: (D)

35. Let f, g and h be real-valued functions defined on the interval [0, 1] by
2 2
) (
x x
e e x f

+ = ,
2 2
) (
x x
e xe x g

+ = and
2 2
2
) (
x x
e e x x h

+ = . If a, b and c denote, respectively, the absolute maximum of f, g and h on [0, 1], then
(A) b a = and b c = (B) c a = and b a = (C) b a = and b c = (D) c b a = =
Sol.: ( )
2 2
x x
e e x f

+ = ( ) |
.
|
\
|
= '

2 2
2
x x
e e x x f
( )
2 2
x x
e xe x g

+ = ( )
2 2 2
2
x x x
e e xe x x g + |
.
|
\
|
= '

( )
2 2
2 x x
e e x x h

+ = ( ) |
.
|
\
|
+ = '

2 2 2
2 2
3 x x x
e e x e x x h
for ] 1 , 0 [ e x
( ) ( ) x g x f ' ' , and ( ) 0 > ' x h
( ) ( ) x g x f , and ( ) x h will be increasing functions and their maximum values are
e
e c
e
e b
e
e a
1
,
1
,
1
+ = + = + =
at 1 = x
c b a = =
Correct choice: (D)
Alternative:
( ) ] , 1 [ ] 1 , 0 [ as
1
2
2
2
e e x
e
e x f
x
x
x
e e + =
( ) ] , 1 [ ,
1
e t
t
t t f e + = ; ( )
e
e t f
1
max + =
max ( )
e
e x f
1
+ =
( ) ( ) ( ) x f x g x h s s
( )
e
e x g
1
+ s but at 1 = x , ( )
e
e x g
1
+ = and similarly at 1 = x , ( ) x h
e
e
1
+ =
So, c b a = =

*36. Let p and q be real numbers such that q p p = =
3
, 0 and q p =
3
. If o and | are nonzero complex numbers satisfying
p = | + o and q = | + o
3 3
, then a quadratic equation having
|
o
and
o
|
as its roots is
(A) 0 ) ( ) 2 ( ) (
3 3 2 3
= + + + + q p x q p x q p (B) 0 ) ( ) 2 ( ) (
3 3 2 3
= + + + q p x q p x q p
(C) 0 ) ( ) 2 5 ( ) (
3 3 2 3
= + q p x q p x q p (D) 0 ) ( ) 2 5 ( ) (
3 3 2 3
= + + q p x q p x q p

11
Sol.: p = | + o (i)
q = | + o
3 3
(ii)
Sum of roots
( )
o|
o| | + o
=
o|
| + o
=
o
|
+
|
o
=
2
2 2 2
S (iii)
Product of roots P = 1
From (i) and (ii) ( ) o| | + o =
2 2
p q
( ) { } o| | + o = 3
2
p q
p
p q
3
3
+
= o|

( )
3
3
3
3 3
3
3
2
2 2 2 3
3
3
2
p q
q p
p q
p q p
p
p q
p
p q
p
S
+
=
+

=
+
+
=
Required quadratic equation is 0
2
= + P Sx x
( ) ( ) ( ) 0 2
3 3 2 3
= + + + p q x q p x p q
Correct choice: (B)

SECTION II
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

*37. Let ABC be a triangle such that
6
t
= ZACB and let a, b and c denote the lengths of the sides opposite to A, B and C
respectively. The value(s) of x for which 1 , 1
2 2
= + + = x b x x a and 1 2 + = x c is (are)
(A) ( ) 3 2 + (B) 3 1+ (C) 3 2 + (D) 3 4
Sol.:
( ) ( ) ( )
( )( ) 1 1 2
1 2 1 1
6
cos
2 2
2
2
2
2
2
+ +
+ + + +
=
t
x x x
x x x x

( )( ) ( )
( )( ) 1 1 2
1 2 3
2
3
2 2
2
2 2 2
+ +
+ + +
=
x x x
x x x x x

( ) ( ) ( ) 1 2 1 3
2 2
+ + = + + x x x x x ( ) ( ) 0 3 1 3 2 3 2
2
= + x x

( ) ( ) ( )( )
( ) 3 2 2
3 1 3 2 4 3 2 3 2
2
+ +
= x ( ) ( ) 3 1 , 3 2 + + =
But ( ) 3 2+ = x (as 0 , , > c b a 1 > x )
Correct choice: (B)
38. Let f be a real-valued function defined on the interval ) , 0 ( by dt t x x f
x
}
+ + =
0
sin 1 ln ) ( . Then which of the following
statement(s) is (are) true?
(A) ) ( ' ' x f exists for all ) , 0 ( e x
(B) ) ( ' x f exists for all ) , 0 ( e x and ( ) x f ' is continuous on ) , 0 ( , but not differentiable on ) , 0 (
(C) there exists o > 1 such that | ) ( | | ) ( ' | x f x f < for all ) , ( o e x
(D) there exists | > 0 such that | s + | ) ( ' | | ) ( | x f x f for all ) , 0 ( e x

12
Sol.: ( ) x
x
x f sin 1
1
+ + = '
Clearly ( ) x f ' exists and continuous for all ( ) e 0 x .
Also ( ) x f ' is not differentiable at point where 1 sin = x .
( ) ( ) ( ) x g
x
x x f x f + = '
1
ln , where ( ) x dt t x g
x
sin 1 sin 1
0
+ + =
}

Now dt t
x
}
+
0
sin 1 is always continuous, increasing and has range ( ) , 0 .
So ( ) 0 > x g for some ( ) e , 0 k as 2 sin 1 s + x for ( ) e , 0 x
Also 0
1
ln >
x
x for ( ) ' e , k x
( ) ( ) 0 > ' x f x f for all ( ) ' + e , k k x
( ) ( ) x f x f < ' for all ( ) o e , x , where k k ' + = o
Correct choice: (B), (C)

k'
1
y = lnx
y = 1/x

*39. Let A and B be two distinct points on the parabola x y 4
2
= . If the axis of the parabola touches a circle of radius r having AB
as its diameter, then the slope of the line joining A and B can be
(A)
r
1
(B)
r
1
(C)
r
2
(D)
r
2

Sol.: Let mid-point of AB is ( ) r h ,
Equation of AB is =
u
=
u
sin cos
r y h x

So A and B can be ( ) r h u + u sin , cos
But these will satisfy x y 4
2
=

C(h, r)
y
2
= 4x
B
A
x
O

( ) ( ) h r + u = u cos 4 sin
2

( ) ( ) 0 4 cos 2 sin 2 sin
2 2 2
= + u u + u h r r
Sum of roots = 0 ( ) CB AC =
u = u cos 2 sin r
r
2
tan = u
Correct choice: (C), (D)

Alternative:
Slope of
2 1
2
t t
AB
+
=
y-coordinate of mid-point of r t t AB = + =
2 1

slope of AB can be
r
2
or
r
2

( )
2
2
2
2 , t t
B
A
x
y
( )
1
2
1
2 , t t
r

40. The value(s) of
}
+
1
0
2
4 4
1
) 1 (
dx
x
x x
is (are)
(A) t
7
22
(B)
105
2
(C) 0 (D)
2
3
15
71 t


13
Sol.:
( )
( ) dx
x
x
dx x dx x x dx
x
x x x
I
} } } }
+
+ + =
+
+
=
1
0
2
6
1
0
5
1
0
2 4
1
0
2
2
2 4
1
4
4 1
1
2 1

t = t + + + =
|
|
.
|
\
|
+
+ + + =
}
7
22
4
3
4
5
4
3
2
7
1
5
1
1
1
1 4
6
4
7
1
5
1
1
0
2
2 4
dx
x
x x
Correct choice: (A)

*41. Let
1
Z
and
2
z be two distinct complex numbers and let
2 1
) 1 ( tz z t z + = for some real number t with 1 0 < < t . If Arg(w)
denotes the principal argument of a nonzero complex number w, then
(A) | | | | | |
2 1 2 1
z z z z z z = + (B) ) ( Arg ) ( Arg
2 1
z z z z =
(C) 0
1 2 1 2
1 1
=

z z z z
z z z z
(D) ) ( Arg ) ( Arg
1 2 1
z z z z =
Sol.: ( ) ( ) ( )
2 1
, , z C z B z A are collinear
AC BC AB = +

2 1 2 1
z z z z z z = +
( ) ( )
2 1
z z Arg z z Arg =
( ) ( )
1 2 1
z z Arg z z Arg =
Equation of line C B A , , is 0
1 2 1 2
1 1
=

z z z z
z z z z

Correct choice: (A), (C), (D)

SECTION III
Comprehension Type
paragraph 2 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these questions has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out

Paragraph for Questions 42 to 44

Let p be an odd prime number and
p
T be the following set of 2 2 matrices :

e
(
= = } 1 ....., , 2 , 1 , 0 { , , : p c b a
a c
b a
A T
p

42. The number of A in
p
T such that A is either symmetric or skew-symmetric or both, and det (A) divisible by p is
(A)
2
) 1 ( p (B) ) 1 ( 2 p (C) 1 ) 1 (
2
+ p (D) 1 2 p

Sol.: For A to be symmetric c b =
= A
2 2
b a should be multiple of p
) ( ) ( b a b a + should be multiple of p
Either ) ( or ) ( b a b a + should be multiple of p
b a + can be multiple of p in ) 1 ( p ways (excluding 0 = = b a )
) ( b a can be multiple of p in p ways (including 0 = = b a )
Total number of ways = 2p 1
Correct choice: (D)


14
p
T such that the trace of A is not divisible by p but det (A) is divisible by p is
[Note: The trace of a matrix is the sum of its diagonal entries.]
(A) ) 1 )( 1 (
2
+ p p p (B)
2 3
) 1 ( p p (C)
2
) 1 ( p (D) ) 2 )( 1 (
2
p p

Sol.: As ( ) A tr is not a multiple of p
0 = a
= A bc a
2
will be a multiple of p
if remainder of
p
a
2
and
p
bc
is same.
Let when
2
a divided by p remainder is r
when bc is divided by p for different values of } 1 ... , 1 , 0 { e p c we get distinct remainder } 1 ... , 1 , 0 { e p
there exist only one value of b for which remainder of bc divided by p gives r
a and c can be taken in ) 1 ( p ways each and b can be choose in only one way.
Total ways 1 ) 1 (
2
= p
Correct choice: (C)

p
T such that det (A) is not divisible by p is
(A)
2
2p (B) p p 5
3
(C) p p 3
3
(D)
2 3
p p

Sol.: The total number of A in
3
p T
p
= (i)
Now the A for which det ( ) A is divisible by p
Case-I: 0 = a
bc should be divisible by p
either 0 = b or 0 = c or both
total ways 1 2 = p
Case-II: 0 = a
Total ways
2
) 1 ( = p [as in previous question]
Total number of ways = ( ) ( ) 1 2 1
2
+ p p
2
p = (ii)
Required ways =
2 3
p p
Correct choice: (D)

The circle 0 8
2 2
= + x y x and hyperbola 1
4 9
2 2
=
y x
intersect at the points A and B.
*45. Equation of a common tangent with positive slope to the circle as well as to the hyperbola is
(A) 0 20 5 2 = y x (B) 0 4 5 2 = + y x (C) 0 8 4 3 = + y x (D) 0 4 3 4 = + y x

Sol.: Let ( ) ( ) u u + sin 4 , cos 1 4 be a point on the circle.
Equation of tangent to the circle is ( ) u + u + u cos 1 4 sin cos y x = 0

( )
u
u +
+
u
u
=
sin
cos 1 4
sin
cos x
y (i)
Condition of tangency for hyperbola is
2 2 2 2
b m a c =

15

( )
4
sin
cos 9
sin
cos 1 16
2
2
2
2
u
u
=
u
u +
0 20 cos 32 cos 3
2
= + u + u

3
2
cos = u and 10 (rejected)

3
5
sin = u
Slope of tangent from (i) is m =
5
2
3 5
3 2
sin
cos
= =
u
u

5
4
5
2
;
3 5
3 2 1
4
5
2
+ =
|
|
.
|
\
|

+ = x y x y
4 2 5 + = x y 0 4 5 2 = + y x
Correct choice: (B)

*46. Equation of the circle with AB as its diameter is
(A) 0 24 12
2 2
= + + x y x (B) 0 24 12
2 2
= + + + x y x
(C) 0 12 24
2 2
= + + x y x (D) 0 12 24
2 2
= + x y x
Sol.:
2 2
8 x x y =
1
4
8
9
2 2
=
x x x

36 9 72 4
2 2
= + x x x 0 36 72 13
2
= x x 0 36 6 78 13
2
= + x x x
( ) 0 ) 6 ( 6 6 13 = + x x x 6 ,
13
6
= = x x
Clearly ( ) 0 , 6 is the centre.
if 6 = x , 36 48
2
= y 12
2
= y 3 2 = y
End points of diameter are ( ) ( ) 3 2 , 6 , 3 2 , 6
3 2 = r and ( ) 0 , 6 C
( ) 12 6
2 2
= + y x 12 36 12
2 2
= + + y x x 0 24 12
2 2
= + + x y x
Correct choice: (A)

SECTION IV
Integer Answer Type

This section contains TEN questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The
correct digit below the question numbers in the ORS is to be bubbled.

47. If a
and b
are vectors in space given by

5
j i
a

=
and
14
3

2 k j i
b
+ +
=
, then the value of ( ) ( ) ( ) | | b a b a b a
2 2 +
.
is
Sol.: 1 , 1 = = b a
and 0 . = b a

( ) ] 2 . . 2 [ . 2
2
2
a b b a b b a a b a

|
|
.
|
\
|

|
.
|
\
|
+ ( ) ( ) 5 4 1 . 2 2 0 . 2 0 1
2
2
= + =
|
.
|
\
|
+
|
|
.
|
\
|
+ = b a a b b a

Ans. 5

16
*48. The line 1 2 = + y x is tangent to the hyperbola 1
2
2
2
2
=
b
y
a
x
. If this line passes through the point of intersection of the
nearest directrix and the x-axis, then the eccentricity of the hyperbola is
Sol.: 1 2 + = x y (i)

2 2 2
b m a mx y + = (ii)
(i) and (ii) identical 2 = m and 1 4
2 2
= b a (iii)
Satisfying 1 2 = + y x by 1
2
=
e
a

2 2
4 e a = (iv)
Also ( ) 1
2 2 2
= e a b
2 2 2 2
a e a b = (v)
From (iii) and (iv) ( ) 1
2 2
= e b
( ) 1 1
2 2 2
= e a e 1 = a
a e 2 = 2 = e
Ans. 2

49. If the distance between the plane d z y Ax = + 2 and the plane containing the lines
4
3
3
2
2
1
=
=
z y x
and
5
4
4
3
3
2
=
=
z y x
is 6 , then | | d is
Sol.: Let d.c. of normal to the plane is n m l , , :
0 4 3 2 = + + n m l
0 5 4 3 = + + n m l

1 2 1
= =
n m l

D.R. of normal to the plane is ( ) 1 , 2 , 1
Equation of plane is d z y x ' = + 2
Satisfying by ( ) 3 , 2 , 1 0 = ' d
Required plane is 0 2 = + z y x (i)
Given plane is d z y Ax = + 2 (ii)
From (i) and (ii) we get 1 = A because planes are parallel.
Now, 6
1 2 1
0
2 2 2
=
+ +
d
6 = d
Ans. 6

50. For any real number x, let [x] denote the largest integer less than or equal to x. Let f be a real valued function defined on the
interval [10, 10] by
=
even is [x] if ] [ 1
odd, is [x] if ] [
) (
x x
x x
x f . Then the value of
}
t
t
10
10
2
cos ) (
10
dx x x f is

17
Sol.: Period of ( ) 2 = x f
Period of 2 cos = tx
So, period of ( ) 2 cos = tx x f
( ) ( ) dx x x f dx x x f
} }

t = t
2 . 5
2 . 5
10
10
cos cos
( ) dx x x f t =
}
cos 10
2
0

1 0 2 3 5 1 2 3 5
Graph of f(x)

( ) ( )
|
|
|
.
|
\
|
t + t =
} }
dx x x f dx x x f
2
1
1
0
cos cos 10 { } ( ) { }
|
|
|
.
|
\
|
t + t =
} }
dx x x dx x x
2
1
1
0
cos cos 1 10
( ) ( ) dx x x dx x x
} }
t + t =
1
0
2
1
cos 1 10 cos 1 10

|
|
.
|
\
|
+
t
+
t
+ =
|
|
|
.
|
\
|
t t + t t =
} } } }
0
2 2
0 10 cos cos cos cos 10
2 2
1
0
2
1
2
1
1
0
dx x dx x x dx x x xdx

2
40
t
=
So, ( ) 4 cos
10
10
10
2
= t
t
}
dx x x f
Ans. 4

51. Let e be the complex number
3
2
sin
3
2
cos
t
+
t
i . Then the number of distinct complex numbers z satisfying
e + e
e + e
e e +
z
z
z
1
1
1
2
2
2
= 0 is equal to
Sol.: Given determinant is 0
1
1
1
2
2
2
=
e + e
e + e
e e +
z
z
z
By ( )
3 2 1 1
C C C C + +
0
1
1
2
2
=
e +
e +
e e
z z
z z
z

0
1 0
1 0
2
2 2
2
=
e e + e
e e e +
e e
z
z
z
( ) 0 ] 3 [
2
2 2
= e e z z ( ) 0
2
= z z 0 = z
So number of solution is 1.
Ans. 1


18
*52. Let , 100 ..., , 2 , 1 , = k S
k
denote the sum of the infinite geometric series whose first term is
!
1
k
k
and the common ratio is
k
1
.
Then the value of ( )
=
+ +
100
1
2
2
1 3
! 100
100
k
k
S k k is
Sol.:
=
k
R
k
k
A
k
k
1
!
1

( ) ! 1
1
=
k
S
k
for 1 > k
The value of
( )
( )
=
+ +
100
1
2
2
1 3
! 100
100
k
k
S k k

( )
( ) ( )
k
k
S k k S S
=
+ + + + =
100
3
2
2 1
2
1 3 1
! 100
100 ( ) ( )
( ) ( )
=
|
|
.
|
\
|
+ + + =
100
3
2
! 1 ! 2
1
1 0
! 100
100
k
k
k
k
k

( )
|
|
.
|
\
|
+ +
|
|
.
|
\
|
+
|
|
.
|
\
|
+ + + =
! 99
100
! 98
99
........
! 3
4
! 2
3
! 2
3
! 1
2
1 0
! 100
100
2
( )
3
! 99
100
2 1 0
! 100
100
2
= + + + =
Ans. 3

53. The number of all possible values of u, where t < u < 0 , for which the system of equations u = u + 3 sin ) ( 3 cos ) ( xyz z y ;
z y
x
u
+
u
= u
3 sin 2 3 cos 2
3 sin ; u + u + = u 3 sin 3 cos ) 2 ( 3 sin ) ( y z y xyz have a solution ) , , (
0 0 0
z y x with 0
0 0
= z y , is
Sol.: 0 3 cos
1
3 cos
1
3 sin = u u u
z y
x
0 3 sin 2
1
3 cos 2
1
3 sin = u u u
z y
x
( ) 0 3 sin 3 cos
1
3 cos 2
1
3 sin = u + u u u
z y
x
The system of equations has solution, so
( )
0
3 sin 3 cos 3 cos 2 3 sin
3 sin 2 3 cos 2 3 sin
3 cos 3 cos 3 sin
=
u + u u u
u u u
u u u

0
3 sin 3 cos 0 0
3 sin 2 3 cos 2 1
3 cos 3 cos 1
3 sin =
u + u
u u
u u
u
( )( ) 0 3 cos 3 cos 3 sin 3 sin = u u u u
0 3 cos , 0 3 sin = u = u , 1 3 tan = u
But
|
|
.
|
\
|
= = u = u possible not is which 0
1
, 0 3 sin for 0 3 sin
y

0 3 cos = u ( for 0
1
, 0 3 cos = = u
z
, not possible)
1 3 tan = u ( for 3 solutions
4
3
,
12
5
,
12
t t t
= u )
So number of solution = 3.
Ans. 3


19
54. Let f be a real-valued differentiable function on R (the set of all real numbers) such that 1 ) 1 ( = f . If the y-intercept of the
tangent at any point ) , ( y x P on the curve ) (x f y = is equal to the cube of the abscissa of P, then the value of ) 3 ( f is equal
to
Sol.: According to given condition:
3
x
dx
dy
x y = |
.
|
\
|

xdx
x
ydx xdy
=
|
|
.
|
\
|

2

} }
= |
.
|
\
|
dx x
x
y
d c
x
x
y
+ =
2
2

But ( ) 1 1 = f
2
3
= c The curve is
2
3
2
3
x x
y + = ( ) 9 3 = f
Ans. 9

*55. The number of values of u in the interval |
.
|
\
| t t
2
,
2
such that
5
t
= u
n
for , 0 = n 2 , 1 and u = u 5 cot tan as well as
u = u 4 cos 2 sin is
Sol.: u = u 5 cot tan 0 6 cos = u

2
6
t
+ t = u n (i)
( )
)
`
t t e u |
.
|
\
| t t
e u
t
+ t
t
+ t
t t
+ t
t
+ t
t
+ t = u 3 , 3 6
2
,
2
as
2
2 ,
2
,
2
,
2
,
2
2 ,
2
3 6
Also u = u 4 cos 2 sin
|
.
|
\
|
u
t
= u 2
2
cos 4 cos Z m m e |
.
|
\
|
u
t
t = u , 2
2
2 4

2
2 6
t
+ t = u m or
2
2 2
t
t = u m (ii)
From (i) and (ii) The number of common solution = 3
Ans. 3
Alternative:
u = u 4 cos 2 sin (i)
0 1 2 sin 2 sin 2
2
= u + u ( )( ) 0 1 2 sin 2 1 2 sin = u + u 1 2 sin = u or
2
1
2 sin = u
|
.
|
\
| t t
e u
2
,
2
( ) t t e u , 2

4
t
= u or
12
,
12
5 t t
= u
All the three values are satisfying the equation u = u 5 cot tan
Ans. 3
*56. The maximum value of the expression
u + u u + u
2 2
cos 5 cos sin 3 sin
1
is
Sol.: Maximum value of the expression
u + u u + u
2 2
cos 5 cos sin 3 sin
1

( )
2
2
5
3
1
2
2 cos 4 2 sin 3
3
1
1 2 cos 2 2 sin
2
3
1
1
min min
=
=
|
.
|
\
| u + u
+
=
|
.
|
\
|
+ u + u +
=
Ans. 2

20
PHYSICS: Paper-I (Code: 8)
PART III
SECTION I
This Section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.

57. A thin flexible wire of length L is connected to two adjacent
fixed points and carries a current I in the clockwise direction, as
shown in the figure. When the system is put in a uniform
magnetic field of strength B going into the plane of the paper, the
wire takes the shape of a circle. The tension in the wire is

(A) IBL (B)
t
IBL
(C)
t 2
IBL
(D)
t 4
IBL

Sol.: dR ILB dR T = t 2
t
=
2
ILB
T
Correct choice: (C)

58. An AC voltage source of variable angular frequency e and fixed amplitude
0
V is connected in series with a capacitance C
and an electric bulb of resistance R (inductance zero). When e is increased
(A) the bulb glows dimmer (B) the bulb glows brighter
(C) total impedance of the circuit is unchanged (D) total impedance of the circuit increases
Sol.:
2
2
2 2
1
| | R
C
R X Z
C
+ |
.
|
\
|
e
= + =
When angular frequency of the source increases the impedance of the circuit decreases, therefore the current in the circuit
increases, hence the power through the resistance increases.
Correct choice: (B)

59. To verify Ohms law, a student is provided with a test resistor
T
R , a high resistance
1
R , a small resistance
2
R , two identical
galvanometers
1
G and
2
G , and a variable voltage source V. The correct circuit to carry out the experiment is

G
1

G
2

V
R
T
R
1

R
2

(A)

G
1

G
2

V
R
T
R
2

R
1

(B)

G
1

V
R
T

(C)
R
1

G
2

R
2

G
1

V
R
T

(D)
R
2

G
2

R
1

Sol.: A galvanometer with a high resistance in series behaves as a voltmeter and a low resistance connected in parallel to the
galvanometer behaves as an ammeter.
Correct choice: (C)

21
60. Incandescent bulbs are designed by keeping in mind that the resistance of their filament increases with the increase in
temperature. If at room temperature, 100 W, 60 W and 40 W bulbs have filament resistances R
100
, R
60
, R
40
respectively, the
relation between these resistances is
(A)
60 40 100
1 1 1
R R R
+ = (B)
60 40 100
R R R + = (C)
40 60 100
R R R > > (D)
40 60 100
1 1 1
R R R
> >
Sol.:
P
V
R
2
= , where R is the resistance at working temperature and not at room temperature

40 60 100
1 1 1
R R R
> >
Correct choice: (D)

*61. A real gas behaves like an ideal gas if its
(A) pressure and temperature are both high (B) pressure and temperature are both low
(C) pressure is high and temperature is low (D) pressure is low and temperature is high
Sol.: Real gases behave like an ideal gas at very low densities.
As
|
|
.
|
\
|
=
0
M
TR
P
T
P

Correct choice: (D)

62. Consider a thin square sheet of side L and thickness t, made of a material
of resistivity . The resistance between two opposite faces, shown by the
shaded areas in the figure is
(A) directly proportional to L (B) directly proportional to t
(C) independent of L (D) independent of t

L
t

Sol.:
( ) t t L
L
R

=
=
Correct choice: (C)

*63. A thin uniform annular disc (see figure) of mass M has outer radius 4R
and inner radius 3R. The work required to take a unit mass from point P
on its axis to infinity is
(A) ( ) 5 2 4
7
2
R
GM
(B) ( ) 5 2 4
7
2

R
GM

(C)
R
GM
4
(D) ( ) 1 2
5
2
R
GM

3R
4R
4R
P

Sol.: Potential due to disc on its axis =
|
.
|
\
|
+ o t x x R G
2 2
2
(R is radius of disc, x is the distance from the centre of the disc on its axis)
By superposition principle potential due to annular disc at point P,
|
.
|
\
|
+ + o t =
2 2
2
2 2
1
2 x R x R G V
P

P
V V W =

As R R R R 3 , 4
2 1
= = , R x 4 = and
( ) ( )
2 2
3 4 R R
M
t t
= o
Work done ( ) 5 2 4
7
2
=
R
GM
( ) 0 =
V
Correct choice: (A)


22

*64. A block of mass m is on an inclined plane of angle u. The coefficient of friction between the block and
the plane is and > u tan . The block is held stationary by applying a force P parallel to the plane.
The direction of force pointing up the plane is taken to be positive. As P is varied from
) cos (sin
1
u u = mg P to ) cos (sin
2
u + u = mg P , the frictional force f versus P graph will look like

u
P

(A)
P
2

P
1
P
f

(B)
P
2

P
1
P
f

(C)
P
2

P
1

P
f

(D)
P
2

P
1

P
f

Sol.: (i) when u < sin mg P
u = + sin mg f P
P mg f u = sin

u
P
mgsinu
f
tanu >

(ii) when P = mg sin u, f = 0
(iii) when u > sin mg P
P mg f = u + sin

P
2

P
1
P
f

Correct choice: (A)

u
P
mgsinu
f
tanu >

SECTION II
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE
OR MORE may be correct.

*65. A student uses a simple pendulum of exactly 1 m length to determine g, the acceleration due to gravity. He uses a stop watch
with the least count of 1 sec for this and records 40 seconds for 20 oscillations. For this observation, which of the following
statement(s) is (are) true?
(A) Error A T in measuring T, the time period, is 0.05 seconds
(B) Error A T in measuring T, the time period, is 1 second
(C) Percentage error in the determination of g is 5%
(D) Percentage error in the determination of g is 2.5%

23
Sol.: t = nT;
n
t
T =

n
t
T
A
= A 05 . 0
20
1
= = AT sec.

g
l
n
t
t = 2
2
2 2
4
t
l n
g
t
= ; 100
2
100
A
=
A
t
t
g
g
= 5%
Correct choices: (A), (C)

66. A ray OP of monochromatic light is incident on the face AB of prism ABCD
near vertex B at an incident angle of 60 (see figure). If the refractive index of
the material of the prism is 3 , which of the following is (are) correct?
(A) The ray gets totally internally reflected at face CD
(B) The ray comes out through face AD
(C) The angle between the incident ray and the emergent ray is 90
(D) The angle between the incident ray and the emergent ray is 120

90
0

75
0

135
0

60
0

B
C
D
A
P
O

Sol.: 3
sin
60 sin
0
=
r
r = 30
0

Let i
c
be the critical angle, then,
3
1
sin =
c
i
30
0
< i
c
< 45
0

Also, the angle between incident and emergent ray is 90
0

Correct choices: (A), (B), (C)

75
0

135
0

60
0

B
C
D
A
30
0

60
0

45
0

45
0

30
0

60
0

67. A few electric field lines for a system of two charges Q
1
and Q
2
fixed at two
different points on the x-axis are shown in the figure. These lines suggest that
(A) | | | |
2 1
Q Q >
(B) | | | |
2 1
Q Q <
(C) at a finite distance to the left of Q
1
the electric field is zero
(D) at a finite distance to the right of Q
2
the electric field is zero

Q1
Q2

Sol.: Number of field lines magnitude of charge and
2
r
KQ
E =
Correct choices: (A), (D)

*68. One mole of an ideal gas in initial state A undergoes a cyclic process ABCA, as
shown in the figure. Its pressure at A is P
0
. Choose the correct option(s) from the
following
(A) Internal energies at A and B are the same
(B) Work done by the gas in process AB is 4
0 0
n V P
(C) Pressure at C is
4
0
P

(D) Temperature at C is
4
0
T

A
T
V
V
0

4V
0

B
C
T
0

Sol.: Process A B is isothermal, so W
AB
= P
0
V
0
ln 4 and AU
AB
= 0
Process B C is unknown (as its not given whether the line BC is directed towards origin or not)
Correct choices: (A), (B)


24
*69. A point mass of 1 kg collides elastically with a stationary point mass of 5 kg. After their collision, the 1 kg mass reverses its
direction and moves with a speed of 2 ms
1
. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct for the system of these two
masses?
(A) Total momentum of the system is 3 kg ms
1
(B) Momentum of 5 kg mass after collision is 4 kg ms
1
(C) Kinetic energy of the centre of mass is 0.75 J
(D) Total kinetic energy of the system is 4 J

Sol.: Applying conservation of linear momentum
2
5 2 1 0 5 1 V V + = + (i)
As collision is elastic,
V V = +2
2
(ii)

1 1
2
ms 3 , ms 1

= = V V
Total momentum of the system = 3 kg m/s
m/s
2
1
5 1
0 1
cm
=
+
+
=
V
V
( ) J 75 . 0 5 1
2
1
E . K
2
cm cm
= + = V
Correct choices: (A), (C)

1kg V
5kg
1kg V
2

5kg
2m/s
Before collision After collision

SECTION III
Paragraph Type
paragraph 2 multiple choice questions have be answered. Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out

Paragraph for Question Nos. 70 to 72

When a particle of mass m moves on the x-axis in a potential of the form , ) (
2
kx x V =
it performs simple harmonic motion. The corresponding time period is proportional to
,
k
m
as can be seen easily using dimensional analysis. However, the motion of the
particle can be periodic even when its potential energy increases on both sides of x = 0
in a way different from kx
2
and its total energy is such that the particle does not escape
to infinity. Consider a particle of mass m moving on the x-axis. Its potential energy is
) 0 ( ) (
4
> o o = x x V for | x | near the origin and becomes a constant equal to V
0
for
0
| | X x > (see figure).

V(x)
V
0

X
0

x

*70. If the total energy of the particle is E, it will perform periodic motion only if
(A) E < 0 (B) E > 0 (C) V
0
> E > 0 (D) E > V
0
Sol.: 0 ,
0
> < E V E
Correct choice: (C)

*71. For periodic motion of small amplitude A, the time period T of this particle is proportional to
(A)
o
m
A (B)
o
m
A
1
(C)
m
A
o
(D)
m A
o 1

Sol.: Using dimensional analysis
Correct choice: (B)

*72. The acceleration of this particle for
0
| | X x > is
(A) proportional to V
0
(B) proportional to
0
0
mX
V
(C) proportional to
0
0
mX
V
(D) zero
Sol.:
0
V U = and F = 0 =
dx
dU

Correct choice: (D)


25

Electrical resistance of certain materials, known as superconductors,
changes abruptly from a nonzero value to zero as their temperature is
lowered below a critical temperature T
C
(0). An interesting property of
superconductors is that their critical temperature becomes smaller than
T
C
(0) if they are placed in a magnetic field, i.e., the critical temperature
T
C
(B) is a function of the magnetic field strength B. The dependence of
T
C
(B) on B is shown in the figure.

B
T
C
(B)
O
T
C
(0)

73. In the graphs below, the resistance R of a superconductor is shown as a function of its temperature T for two different
magnetic field B
1
(solid line) and B
2
(dashed line). If B
2
is larger than B
1
, which of the following graphs shows the correct
variation of R with T in these fields?

T
R
O
(A)
B
2

B
1

T
R
O
(B)
B
2

B
1

T
R
O
(C)
B
1

B
2

T
R
O
(D)
B
1

B
2

Sol.: Higher the magnetic field, lower is the temperature at which resistance abruptly becomes zero.
Correct choice: (A)

74. A superconductor has T
C
(0) = 100 K. When a magnetic field of 7.5 Tesla is applied, its T
C
decreases to 75 K. For this
material one can definitely say that when
(A) B = 5 Tesla, T
C
(B) = 80 K (B) B = 5 Tesla, 75 K < T
C
(B) < 100 K
(C) B = 10 Tesla, 75 K < T
C
(B) < 100 K (D) B = 10 Tesla, T
C
(B) = 70 K

Sol.: As the magnetic field decreases, T
C
increases
Correct choice: (B)

SECTION IV
Integer Type

This section contains TEN questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The correct
digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.

75. When two identical batteries of internal resistance O 1 each are connected in series across a resistor R, the rate of heat
produced in R is J
1
. When the same batteries are connected in parallel across R, the rate is J
2
. If J
1
= 2.25 J
2
then the value of
R in O is


26
Sol.: In first case
I
( ) r R 2
2
+
c
=
Rate of heat produced in R, R
r R
R I J
2
2
1
2
2
|
.
|
\
|
+
c
= =

R
c
r r
c

I

In second case

2
'
r
R
I
+
c
=
Rate of heat produced in R, R
r
R
J
2
2
2
(
(
(
(
|
.
|
\
|
+
c
=
As
2 1
25 . 2 J J =
r R 4 = = 4O
Answer is 4

c
r
c
R
r
' I

*76. Two spherical bodies A (radius 6 cm) and B (radius 18 cm) are at temperatures T
1
and T
2
, respectively. The maximum
intensity in the emission spectrum of A is at 500 nm and in that of B is at 1500 nm. Considering them to be blackbodies, what
will be the ratio of the rate of total energy radiated by A to that of B?
Sol.: For a black body, energy radiated per unit time =
4
AT o (where R is radius of the body)

4 2
|
|
.
|
\
|
|
|
.
|
\
|
=
B
A
B
A
B
A
T
T
R
R
E
E
(i)
According to Weins displacement law, = T
m
constant

4 2
500
1500
18
6
|
.
|
\
|
|
.
|
\
|
=
B
A
E
E
= 9
Answer is 9
*77. When two progressive waves |
.
|
\
| t
= =
2
6 2 sin 3 and ) 6 2 sin( 4
2 1
t x y t x y are superimposed, the amplitude of the
resultant wave is
Sol.: | + + = cos 2
2 1
2
2
2
1
A A A A A = 5 25
2
cos 3 4 2 3 4
2 2
= = |
.
|
\
| t
+ +
Answer is 5

*78. A 0.1 kg mass is suspended from a wire of negligible mass. The length of the wire is 1 m and its cross-sectional areas is
4.9 10
7
m
2
. If the mass is pulled a little in the vertically downward direction and released, it performs simple harmonic
motion of angular frequency 140 rad s
1
. If the Youngs modulus of the material of the wire is n 10
9
Nm
2
, the value of n is
Sol.:
m
K
= e
Lm
YA
=
( )
1 . 0 1
10 9 . 4 10
140
7 9
2

= =

n
Lm
YA

n = 4
Answer is 4


27
*79. A binary star consists of two stars A (mass 2.2M
S
) and B (mass 11M
S
), where M
S
is the mass of the sun. They are separated
by distance d and are rotating about their centre of mass, which is stationary. The ratio of the total angular momentum of the
binary star to the angular momentum of star B about the centre of mass is
Sol.:

CM
2.2M
S

11M
S

5d/6
d/6

e =
1 1
I L and e =
2 2
I L

( ) ( )
( )
6
6 / 11
6 / 5 2 . 2 6 / 11
2
2 2
2
1
2
1
=
+
=
|
|
.
|
\
|
=
d M
d M d M
I
I
L
L
S
S S

Answers is 6
*80. Gravitational acceleration on the surface of a planet is ,
11
6
g where g is the gravitational acceleration on the surface of the
earth. The average mass density of the planet is
3
2
times that of the earth. If the escape speed on the surface of the earth is
taken to be 11 kms
-1
, the escape speed on the surface of the planet in kms
1
will be

Sol.:
2
2
E E
P P
P
E
E
P
eE
eP
R
R
R
R
M
M
V
V
= = (i)
As
2
3
2
3
4
R
R
G
R
GM
g
t
= =
g
R

P
E
E
P
E
P
g
g
R
R
= (ii)

2 2
|
|
.
|
\
|
|
|
.
|
\
|
=
E
P
P
E
E
P
eE
eP
g
g
V
V
2
11
6
2
3
|
|
.
|
\
|
=
V
eP
= 3 km/s
Answer is 3

*81. A piece of ice (heat capacity = 2100 J kg
1
C
1
and latent heat = 3.36 10
5
J kg
1
) of mass m grams is at 5C at
atmospheric pressure. It is given 420 J of heat so that the ice starts melting. Finally when the ice-water mixture is in
equilibrium, it is found that 1 gm of ice has melted. Assuming there is no other heat exchange in the process, the value of m is
Ans.: Heat required for melting ice = 336 10 36 . 3
100
1
5
= J
Heat used for raising temperature of ice from (5
0
C to 0
0
C) = 336 420 = AQ = 84 J
T ms Q A = A 5 2100 84 = m
m = 0.008 kg = 8 gm
Answer is 8

*82. A stationary source is emitting sound at a fixed frequency f
0
, which is reflected by two cars approaching the source. The
difference between the frequencies of sound reflected from the cars is 1.2% of f
0
. What is the difference in the speeds of the
cars (in km per hour) to the nearest integer? The cars are moving at constant speeds much smaller than the speed of sound
which is 330 ms
1
.

28
Sol.: Apparent frequency received by car is
|
|
.
|
\
| +
=
V
V V
f f
0
0 1
(i)
The frequency of the reflected wave is
|
|
.
|
\
|
=
0
1 1
'
V V
V
f f =
|
|
.
|
\
|
+
0
0
0
V V
V V
f (ii)
Differentiating '
1
f with respect to V
0

( ) ( )
( ) ( )
330
2
330
660
330
330 330 '
0
2
0
0
0
2
0
0 0
0
1
f
V
f
f
V
V V
dV
df
=
+ +
=
~ =
0
1
0
' 165
f
df
dV 7 km/h
Answer is 7

83. The focal length of a thin biconvex lens is 20 cm. When an object is moved from a distance of 25 cm in front of it to 50 cm,
the magnification of its image changes from m
25
to m
50
. The ratio
50
25
m
m
is
Sol.:
20
1
25
1 1
1
=
V

cm 100
1
= V
Similarly

100
3
100
2 5
50
1
20
1 1
2
=
= =
V

3
100
2
= V cm

50 3
100
25
100
50
25
=
m
m
= 6
Answer is 6

84. An o-particle and a proton are accelerated from rest by a potential difference of 100V. After this, their de Broglie
wavelengths are
o
and
p
respectively. The ratio
o
p
, to the nearest integer, is
Sol.: The momentum of a charged particle accelerated by potential difference V, qmV P 2 =
de-Broglie wavelength,
P
h
=
3 2 2
2
4 2 2
~ =

=
o
V m e
V m e p

Answer is 3


29

Paper-II (Code: 8)

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

A. General:
1. This Question Paper contains 24 pages having 57 questions. The question paper CODE is
printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and also on the back page of this
booklet..
2. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
3. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed.
4. Log and Antilog tables are given in the paper.
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided
separately.
6. Write your Registration No., Name, Name of the centre and sign with pen in the
appropriate boxes. Do not write these anywhere else.

B. Question paper format and Marking scheme:
7. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Chemistry, Mathematics and Physics), and each
Part consists of four Sections.
8. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 5 marks if you have darkened only
the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are
darkened. In all other cases, minus two (2) mark will be awarded.
9. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. No
negative marks will be awarded for incorrect answers in this Section.
10. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In
all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded.
11. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 2 marks for each row in which you
have darkened the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer. Thus, each question in
this section carries a maximum of 8 marks.


30
CHEMISTRY: Paper-II (Code: 8)
PART I
SECTION I
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of

Note: Questions with (*) mark are from syllabus of class XI.

1. In the reaction

H
3
C C
O
NH
2
(1) NaOH/Br2
(2) C
O
Cl
T

the structure of the Product T is
(A)

H
3
C C
O
OC

O
(B)
NH
C

O
CH
3

(C)
H
3
C NH
O
C

(D)

H
3
C C
O
NHC

O

Sol.:

H
3
C C
O
NH
2
(1) NaOH/Br2
Me NH
2

HCl
C
O
Cl
Me NHC
O

Correct choice: (C)

*2. Assuming that Hunds rule is violated, the bond order and magnetic nature of the diatomic molecule B
2
is
(A) 1 and diamagnetic (B) 0 and diamagnetic (C) 1 and paramagnetic (D) 0 and paramagnetic
Sol.: Molecular orbital configuration of B
2
as per the condition will be
o1s
2
, o*1s
2
, o2s
2
, o*2s
2
,
2
y
P 2 t
Bond order of B
2
=
2
4 6
= 1.
B
2
will be diamagnetic.

Correct choice: (A)

3. The compounds P, Q and S

HO
COOH
P
H
3
C
OCH
3
Q
C

O

O

S

were separately subjected to nitration using HNO
3
/H
2
SO
4
mixture. The major product formed in each case respectively, is
(A)

HO
COOH
H
3
C
OCH
3
C

O

O

NO
2
NO
2
O
2
N

(B)

HO
COOH
H
3
C
OCH
3
C

O

O

NO
2
NO
2
NO
2


31
(C)

HO
COOH
H
3
C
OCH
3
C

O

O

NO
2
NO
2
NO
2

(D)

HO
COOH
H
3
C
OCH
3
C

O

O

NO
2
NO
2
NO
2

Sol.:

OH
CO
2
H
(P)
HNO3/H2SO4
OH
CO
2
H
NO
2

CH
3

OCH
3

(Q)
HNO3/H2SO4
NO
2

CH
3

OCH
3

O
(S)
HNO3/H2SO4
O
O
O NO
2

Correct choice: (C)

*4. The species having pyramidal shape is
(A) SO
3
(B) BrF
3
(C)
2
3
SiO (D) OSF
2

Sol.: OSF
2
:
2
N
=
2
2 6 +
= 4.
It has 1 lone pair.

S (Shape is trigonal pyramidal)
F
O F
..

The shapes of SO
3
, BrF
3
and
2
3
SiO are triangular planar, T-shaped and triangular planar respectively.
Correct choice: (D)

5. The complex showing a spin-only magnetic moment of 2.82 B.M. is
(A) Ni(CO)
4
(B) [NiCl
4
]
2
(C) Ni(PPh
3
)
4
(D) [Ni(CN)
4
]
2

Sol.: Ni(CO)
4
and Ni(PPh
3
)
4
have Ni in zero oxidation state, while CO and Ph
3
P are strong field ligands. Thus, both these
molecules have sp
3
hybridization and are diamagnetic. [Ni(CN)
4
]
2
has electronic configuration of Ni
2+
as 3d
8
and
hybridization is dsp
2
. It is diamagnetic. [NiCl
4
]
2
has sp
3
hybridization with 2 unpaired electrons giving spin only magnetic
moment as 8 or 2.82 B.M.
Correct choice: (B)

6. The packing efficiency of the two-dimensional square unit cell shown below is

L

(A) 39.27% (B) 68.02% (C) 74.05% (D) 78.54%

32
Sol.: Packing efficiency =
square of Area
circles effective by occupied Area

= 100
L
r 2
2
2
t
= 100
) r 2 2 (
r 2
2
2
t

= 100
4

t
= 78.54%.
Correct choice: (D)

SECTIONII
Integer Type

This section contains a group of 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9.
The correct digit below the question no. in the ORS is to be bubbled.

*7. One mole of an ideal gas is taken from a to b along two paths denoted by the solid and the dashed lines as shown in the
graphs below. If the work done along the solid line path is w
s
and that along the dotted line path is w
d
, then the integer closest
to the ratio w
d
/w
s
is

0.5
1.0
1.5
2.0
25
3.0
3.5
4.0

4.5
0.0
0.0 0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0 4.5 5.0 5.5 6.0
P
(atm)
V (lit.)
b
a

Sol.: w
d
= ( ) |
.
|
\
|
+ + |
.
|
\
|

2
5
3
2
1 1
2
3
4 = |
.
|
\
|
+ +
3
5
1 6
w
d
=
3
26
L atm
w
s
= 2.303 RT log
2 / 1
5 . 5
= 2.303 PV log 11
w
s
= 4.606 1.04 = 4.8 L atm

s
d
w
w
=
8 . 4
3
26
= 1.80
~
2.0
The answer is 2.

*8. Among the following, the number of elements showing only one non-zero oxidation state is
O, Cl, F, N, P, Sn, Tl, Na, Ti
Sol.: Fluorine generally shows O and 1 oxidation states while sodium shows 0 and +1 oxidation state.
The answer is 2.

9. Silver (atomic weight = 108 g mol
1
) has a density of 10.5 g cm
3
. The number of silver atoms on a surface of area 10
12
m
2

can be expressed in scientific notation as y 10
x
. The value of x is
Sol.: Silver has cubic close packed structure. It has fcc unit cell of edge length a cm.
10.5 =
3 23
) a ( 10 023 . 6
108 4

a =
3 / 1
23
5 . 10 10 023 . 6
108 4
(
= 4.087 10
8
cm.
(i) Assuming that surface area given is the area of any extended face of a FCC unit cell.
Area of square face = (4.087 10
8
)
2
cm
2

Number of Ag atoms per unit area =
2
a
2

Surface area = 10
12
m
2
= 10
8
cm
2
.

33
Number of Ag atoms in the given surface area =
2 8
8
) 10 087 . 4 (
10 2
= 1.197 10
7
.
x = 7.
(ii) Assuming that surface area given is the area corresponding to closest packed layer.
2 a = 4r, r =
4
a 2
=
4
2 10 087 . 4
8

= 1.44 10
8

In a closest packed layer, the arrangement appears like

2
) r 2 (
4
3
6 =
4
3 6
(2 1.44 10
8
)
2
=
16
10 07 . 2 4
4
3 6

= 21.5 10
16
cm
2

Number of silver atoms on surface =
16
8
10 5 . 21
10 3
= 0.139 10
8
= 1.39 10
7
.
x = 7.
The answer is 7.

10. Total number of geometrical isomers for the complex [RhCl(CO)(PPh
3
)(NH
3
)] is
Sol.:

Rh
Cl PPh
3
CO NH
3
Rh
Cl PPh
3
NH
3
CO

Rh
Cl CO

NH
3
PPh
3

The number of geometrical isomers is 3.
The answer is 3.

*11. The total number of diprotic acids among the following is
H
3
PO
4
H
2
SO
4
H
3
PO
3
H
2
CO
3
H
2
S
2
O
7

H
3
BO
3
H
3
PO
2
H
2
CrO
4
H
2
SO
3

Sol.: Diprotic acids are H
2
SO
4
, H
3
PO
3
, H
2
CO
3
, H
2
S
2
O
7
, H
2
CrO
4
and H
2
SO
3
.
The answer is 6.

SECTION III
Paragraph Type
This Section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each of the paragraphs 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered.
Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for questions 12 to 14

Two aliphatic aldehydes P and Q react in the presence of aqueous K
2
CO
3
to give compound R, which upon treatment with
HCN provides compound S. On acidification and heating, S gives the product shown below.

O
O
H
3
C
H
3
C OH


34
12. The compounds P and Q respectively are
(A)

H
3
C
CH
CH
3
C
H
and
H
3
C
C
H
O O
(B)

H
3
C
CH
CH
3
C
H
and
H
C
H
O O

(C)

H
3
C
CH
2
CH
3
C
H
and
H
3
C
C
H
O O
CH
(D)

H
3
C
CH
2
CH
3
C
H
and
H
C
H
O O
CH

Sol.:

CH
3
CHCHO + OH
CH
3
C
CHO + H
2
O
CH
3
CH
3

CH
3
C
CHO + CH
2
= O CH
3
CCHO CH
3
CCHO
H2O
OH

CH
3
CH
3
CH
3

CH
2
O

CH
2
OH

CH
3
CCH=O + HCN CH
3
CCHCN CH
3
CCHCOOH
H
+
/H2O
CH
3
H
3
C OH OH
CH
2
OH CH
2
OH CH
2
OH
(S)
O
O
H
3
C
H
3
C
OH
A
Intramolecular esterification
H
3
C
(P)
(Q)
(R)

Correct choice: (B)

13. The compound R is
(A)

H
3
C
C
H
3
C
C
CH
2
OH

O
H
(B)

H
3
C
C
H
3
C
C
CH

OH

O
H
H
3
C

(C)

CH
CH
C
CH
2
OH

O
H H
3
C
CH
3
(D)

CH
CH
H
3
C
C
CH

OH

O
H H
3
C
CH
3

Sol.: Correct choice: (A)

14. The compound S is
(A)

CH
CH
C
CH
2
CN

O
H H
3
C
CH
3
(B)

H
3
C
C
H
3
C
C
CH
2
CN

O
H
(C)

CH
CH
CH
CH
2
OH

CN
OH H
3
C
CH
3
(D)

H
3
C
C
H
3
C
CH
CH
2
OH

CN
OH

Sol.: Correct choice: (D)


35
Paragraph for questions 15 to 17

The hydrogen-like species Li
2+
is in a spherically symmetric state S
1
with one radial node. Upon absorbing light the ion
undergoes transition to a state S
2
. The state S
2
has one radial node and its energy is equal to the ground state energy of the
hydrogen atom.

*15. The state S
1
is
(A) 1s (B) 2s (C) 2p (D) 3s
Sol.: The spherically symmetric state S
1
of Li
2+
with one radial node is 2s. Upon absorbing light, the ion gets excited to state S
2
,
which also has one radial node. The energy of electron in S
2
is same as that of H-atom in its ground state

1
2
2
n
E
n
Z
E = where E
1
is the energy of H-atom in the ground state

2
1
2
n
E ) 3 (
= for Li
2+

3 n E E
1 n
= =
State S
2
of Li
2+
having one radial node is 3p.
Orbital angular momentum quantum number of 3p is 1.
Energy of state
1 1
2
2
1
E 25 . 2 E
) 2 (
) 3 (
S = =
Correct choice: (B)

*16. Energy of the state S
1
in units of the hydrogen atom ground state energy is
(A) 0.75 (B) 1.50 (C) 2.25 (D) 4.50
Sol.: Correct choice: (C)

*17. The orbital angular momentum quantum number of the state S
2
is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
Sol.: Correct choice: (B)

SECTION IV
(Matrix Type)
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five
statements (p, q, r, s and t) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with one or more
statement(s) given in Column II. For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the statements given in q
and r, then for that particular question, against statement B, darken the bubbles corresponding to q and r in the ORS.

18. Match the reactions is Column I with appropriate options in Column II.

Column I Column II
(A)

N
2
Cl + OH
NaOH/H2O
0C
N=N OH
(p) Racemic mixture
(B)

H
3
C
C
CH
3
O
C
H
3
CCCCH
3
OH

OH

H
3
C CH
3
H2SO4
CH
3
CH
3

(q) Addition reaction
(C)

C CH
O
CH
3
1. LiAlH4
2. H3O
+
OH
CH
3

(r) Substitution reaction
(D)

HS Cl
Base
S

(s) Coupling reaction
(t) Carbocation intermediate

Sol.: (A) (r), (s) ; (B) (t) ; (C) (p), (q) ; (D) (r)


36
19. All the compounds listed in Column I react with water. Match the result of the respective reactions with the appropriate
options listed in Column II.

Column I Column II
(A) (CH
3
)
2
SiCl
2
(p) Hydrogen halide formation
(B) XeF
4
(q) Redox reaction
(C) Cl
2
(r) Reacts with glass
(D) VCl
5
(s) Polymerization
(t) O
2
formation

Sol.: (A) (p), (s)
(CH
3
)
2
SiCl
2
+ 2H
2
O
HCl 2
(CH
3
)
2
Si(OH)
2

. Polymn
[(CH
3
)
2
SiO]
n
.
(B) (p), (q), (r), (t)
XeF
4
+ H
2
O Xe + XeO
3
+ H
2
F
2
+ O
2

SiO
2
+ 4HF SiF
4
+ 2H
2
O
glass
SiF
4
+ 2HF H
2
[SiF
6
]
Soluble hexathorosilicic(IV) acid
(C) (p), (q)
Cl
2
+ H
2
O HCl + HOCl
(D) (p), (q)
VCl
5
+ 7H
2
O [V(H
2
O)
6
]
3+
+ 3Cl
+ HCl + HOCl

37
MATHEMATICS: Paper-II (Code: 8)
PART II
SECTION I
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

20. Let f be a real-valued function defined on the interval (1, 1) such that
}
+ + =
x
x
t x f e
0
4
1 2 ) ( dt, for all ), 1 , 1 ( e x and
let
1
f be the inverse function of f . Then ) 2 ( )' (
1
f is equal to
(A) 1 (B)
3
1
(C)
2
1
(D)
e
1

Sol.: dt t x f e
x
x
}
+ + =
0
4
1 2 ) ( (i)
Putting 0 = x
2 ) 0 ( = f 0 ) 2 (
1
=
f x x f f =
)) ( (
1
1 ) ( )' ( . )) ( ( '
1 1
=

x f x f f
) 0 ( '
1
) 2 ( )' (
1
f
f =

Differentiate equation (i) with respect to x
1 ) ( ) ( '
4
+ =

x x f e x f e
x x

Putting 0 = x
1 2 ) 0 ( ' = f 3 ) 0 ( ' = f
3
1
) 2 ( )' (
1
=
f
Correct choice: (B)
21. A signal which can be green or red with probability
5
4
and
5
1
respectively, is received by station A and then transmitted to
station B. The probability of each station receiving the signal correctly is
4
3
. If the signal received at station B is green, then
the probability that the original signal was green is
(A)
5
3
(B)
7
6
(C)
23
20
(D)
20
9

Sol.:
G
R Received signal is green

G
O Original signal was green
If the event XYZ denotes original single sent to A was X, received at A was Y and received at B is Z

) (
) (
G
G G
G
G
R P
R O P
R
O
P

=
|
|
.
|
\
|
) ( ) ( ) ( ) (
) ( ) (
RGG P RRG P GGG P GRG P
GGG P GRG P
+ + +
+
=

4
3
4
1
5
1
4
1
4
3
5
1
4
3
4
3
5
4
4
1
4
1
5
4
4
3
4
3
5
4
4
1
4
1
5
4
+ + +
+
=
23
20
80
46
80
40
= =
Correct choice: (C)


38
22. If the distance of the point ) 1 , 2 , 1 ( P from the plane o = + z y x 2 2 , where 0 > o , is 5, then the foot of the perpendicular
from P to the plane is
(A) |
.
|
\
|

3
7
,
3
4
,
3
8
(B) |
.
|
\
|

3
1
,
3
4
,
3
4
(C) |
.
|
\
|
3
10
,
3
2
,
3
1
(D) |
.
|
\
|

2
5
,
3
1
,
3
2

Sol.: 5
4 4 1
2 4 1
=
+ +
o

15 5 = + o ( ) 0 > o
10 = o
Plane is 0 10 2 2 = + z y x
Let the foot of perpendicular be F, equation of line PF is
2
1
2
2
1
1
=
+
=
z y x

So the point F can be taken as

F
P

) 2 1 , 2 2 , 1 ( +
It will satisfy equation of plane.
0 10 4 2 4 4 1 = + + +
3
5
=
Point F is |
.
|
\
|

3
7
,
3
4
,
3
8

Correct choice: (A)

*23. Let } 4 , 3 , 2 , 1 { = S . The total number of unordered pairs of disjoint subsets of S is equal to
(A) 25 (B) 34 (C) 42 (D) 41
Sol.: Given set { } 4 , 3 , 2 , 1 = S
For disjoint subsets A and B
S ae
B a
A a
e
e

B a
A a
e
e

B a
A a
e
e

Then total number of disjoint subsets will be 1
2
1 3
4
+
= 41
Correct choice: (D)
*24. For 10 ,.... 1 , 0 = r let
r r
B A , and
r
C denote, respectively, the coefficient of
r
x in the expansions of , ) 1 (
10
x +
20
) 1 ( x + and
30
) 1 ( x + . Then
=

10
1
10 10
) (
r
r r r
A C B B A is equal to
(A)
10 10
C B (B) ) (
10 10
2
10 10
A C B A (C) 0 (D)
10 10
B C
Sol.: ( )
=
|
|
.
|
\
|
10
1
2
10
10
30 20
10
20 10
r
r r r
C C C C C = ( )

= =
10
1
10
1
2
10
10
30 10 20
10
20
r r
r r r
C C C C C
= ( ) ( ) 1 1
10
20
10
30
10
30
10
20
C C C C =
10 10 10
20
10
30
B C C C =
Correct choice: (D)
25. Two adjacent sides of a parallelogram ABCD are given by k j i AB
11
10
2 + + = and k j i AD
+ + = . The side AD is
rotated by an acute angle o in the plane of the parallelogram so that AD becomes ' AD . If ' AD makes a right angle with the
side AB , then the cosine of the angle o is given by
(A)
9
8
(B)
9
17
(C)
9
1
(D)
9
5 4


39
Sol.: | | | | . AD AB AD AB = ) 90 cos( o
3 15 40 = o sin
= o sin
9
8
;
9
17
cos = o

90o
o
D
C
B
A
' D

Correct choice: (B)

SECTION II
(Integer Type)
This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is a singledigit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The correct
digit below the question no. in the ORS is to be bubbled.

26. Let k be a positive real number and let
(
(
(
(

=
(
(
(
(
=
0 2
2 0 2 1
1 2 0
and
1 2 2
2 1 2
2 2 1 2
k k
k k
k k
B
k k
k k
k k k
A .
If det
6
10 ) adj ( det ) adj ( = + B A , then [k] is equal to
[Note: adj M denotes the adjoint of a square matrix M and [k] denotes the largest integer less than or equal to k]
Sol.: ( ) ( )
1 2 2
1 2 1 2 0
2 2 1 2
det

+ +
=
k k
k k
k k k
A
( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) k k k
k k
k k k
k 8 1 2 1 2
1 1 2 2
1 0 0
2 4 1 2
1 2
2
+ + =

+ = ( )
3
1 2 + = k
( ) 0 det = B [ B is skew symmetric matrix of order 3]
( )
6 6
10 1 2 = + k 10 1 2 = + k
2
9
= k [k] = 4
Ans. 4

27. Let f be a function defined on R (the set on all real numbers) such that
, ) 2012 ( ) 2011 ( ) 2010 )( 2009 ( 2010 ) ( '
4 3 2
= x x x x x f for all R x e . If g is a function defined on R with values in the
interval ) , 0 ( such that )) ( ln( ) ( x g x f = , for all R x e , then the number of points in R at which g has a local maximum is
Sol.: ( )
( )
( ) x g
x g
x f ' = ' .
1

( ) ( ) ( ) x g x f x g ' = '
As ( ) 0 > x g , So ( ) x g' will change sign as

2009
2011
+ +

one point of maxima is 2009 = x
Ans. 1

*28. Let
11 3 2 1
,.... , , a a a a be real numbers satisfying 15
1
= a , 0 2 27
2
> a and
2 1
2

=
k k k
a a a for 11 ..., , 4 , 3 = k .
If 90
11
...
2
11
2
2
2
1
=
+ + + a a a
, then the value of
11
...
11 2 1
a a a + + +
is equal to


40
Sol.: 15
1
= a
As
2 1 1
=
k k k k
a a a a
So ...... , , ,
3 2 1
a a a are in A.P.
Also 0 2 27
2
> a

2
3
1 2
< a a
2
3
< d
90
11
......
2
11
2
2
2
1
=
+ + a a a
( ) ( ) 90 1 15
11
1
11
1
2
= +
= r
d r
90 35 150 225
2
= + + d d 0 27 30 7
2
= + + d d ( )( ) 0 9 7 3 = + + d d
7
9
, 3

= d
But
7
9
= d |
.
|
\
|
<
2
3
d
Now ( ) ( ) 0 30 30
2
1
10 30
2
1
11
......
11 2 1
= = + =
+ + +
d
a a a

Ans. 0

29. Consider a triangle ABCand let b a, and c denote the lengths of the sides opposite to vertices A, B and C respectively.
Suppose 6 = a , 10 = b and the area of the triangle is 3 15 . If ACB Z is obtuse and if r denotes the radius of the incircle of
the triangle, then
2
r is equal to
Sol.: 3 15 = A
( ) ( ) 3 15 sin 10 6
2
1
= C

2
3
sin = C ( ) obtuse is
3
2
C C
t
=

120
100 36
cos
2
c
C
+
= 14 = c
Hence semi perimeter 15 = s
3 = r 3
2
= r
Ans. 3
30. Two parallel chords of a circle of radius 2 are at a distance 1 3 + apart. If the chords subtend at the center, angles of
k
t
and
k
t 2
, where 0 > k , then the value of [k] is [Note : [k] denotes the largest integer less than or equal to k]
Sol.: 1 3
2 1
+ = + p p
1 3
2
cos 2 cos 2 + =
t
+
t
k k

2
1 3
2
cos cos
+
=
t
+
t
k k

3 = k
Ans. 3

t/2k
t/k
p1
p2
2
2
A
B
D
C
O


41
SECTION III
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each of the paragraphs 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered.
Each of these question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Consider the polynomial
3 2
4 3 2 1 ) ( x x x x f + + + = . Let s be the sum of all distinct real roots of ) (x f and let | | s t = .
31. The real number s lies in the interval
(A) |
.
|
\
|
0 ,
4
1
(B) |
.
|
\
|

4
3
, 11 (C) |
.
|
\
|

2
1
,
4
3
(D) |
.
|
\
|
4
1
, 0

Sol.: Given function
3 2
4 3 2 1 ) ( x x x x f + + + = is monotonically increasing
as R x x x x f e > + + = 0 ] 1 3 6 [ 2 ) ( '
2
] 48 / 5 ) 4 / 1 [( 12
2
+ + = x
) (x f will have only one real root
Since 0
2
1
.
4
3
< |
.
|
\
|
|
.
|
\
|
f f s lies in |
.
|
\
|

2
1
,
4
3

Correct choice: (C)

32. The area bounded by the curve ) (x f y = and the lines 0 = x , 0 = y and t x = , lies in the interval
(A) |
.
|
\
|
3 ,
4
3
(B) |
.
|
\
|
16
11
,
64
21
(C) (9, 10) (D) |
.
|
\
|
64
21
, 0

Sol.: As | | s t = |
.
|
\
|
e
4
3
,
2
1
t
Hence required area will be the shaded region shown in
the figure.

t
1/2 3/4
O

Area
}
+ + + =
t
dx x x x t A
0
3 2
) 4 3 2 1 ( ) (
4 3 2
t t t t + + + = which is increasing
Area
|
|
.
|
\
|
|
.
|
\
|
|
.
|
\
|
e
4
3
,
2
1
A A
|
.
|
\
|
e
256
525
,
16
15

Correct choice: (A)

33. The function ) ( ' x f is
(A) increasing in |
.
|
\
|

4
1
, t and deceasing in |
.
|
\
|
t ,
4
1
(B) decreasing in |
.
|
\
|

4
1
, t and increasing in |
.
|
\
|
t ,
4
1

(C) increasing in ) , ( t t (D) decreasing in ) , ( t t

Sol.: ( ) |
.
|
\
|
+ = ' '
4
1
24 x x f ( ) x f ' increases |
.
|
\
|
e ,
4
1
x
( ) x f ' decreases |
.
|
\
|
e
4
1
, x
Correct choice: (B)

42
Tangents are drawn from the point ) 4 , 3 ( P to the ellipse 1
4 9
2 2
= +
y x
touching the ellipse at points A and B.
*34. The coordinates of A and B are
(A) (3, 0) and (0, 2) (B)
|
|
.
|
\
|
15
161 2
,
5
8
and |
.
|
\
|
5
8
,
5
9

(C)
|
|
.
|
\
|
15
161 2
,
5
8
and (0, 2) (D) (3, 0) and |
.
|
\
|
5
8
,
5
9

Sol.: Let ( ) 4 9
2
+ = m mx y be the tangent passing through point ( ) 4 , 3 to the given ellipse.
( ) 4 9 3 4
2 2
+ = m m
2
1
= m and indeterminate.
one tangent is
2
5
2
1
+ = x y at |
.
|
\
|
5
8
,
5
9
and the other is 3 = x at ( ) 0 , 3
Correct choice: (D)

*35. The orthocenter of the triangle PABis
(A) |
.
|
\
|
7
8
, 5 (B) |
.
|
\
|
8
25
,
5
7
(C) |
.
|
\
|
5
8
,
5
11
(D) |
.
|
\
|
5
7
,
25
8

Sol.: For othercentre of PAB A .
Altitude through B that is
5
8
= y
Correct choice: (C)

*36. The equation of the locus of the point whose distances from the point P and the line AB are equal, is
(A) 0 241 62 54 6 9
2 2
= + + y x xy y x (B) 0 241 62 54 6 9
2 2
= + + + y x xy y x
(C) 0 241 62 54 6 9 9
2 2
= + y x xy y x (D) 0 120 31 27 2
2 2
= + + + y x xy y x

Sol.: Equation of AB is 3 3 = + y x
Required locus is ( ) ( ) { } ( )
2 2 2
3 3 4 3 10 + = + y x y x
0 241 6 62 54 9
2 2
= + + xy y x y x
Correct choice: (A)
SECTION IV
(Matrix Type)

This section contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements
(p, q, r, s and t) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with one or more statement(s)
given in Column II. For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the statements given in q and r, then for
that particular question, against statement B, darken the bubbles corresponding to q and r in the ORS


43
*37. Match the statements in Column I with those in Column-II.
[Note : Here z takes values in the complex plane and Im z and Re z denote, respectively, the imaginary part and the real part
of z].
Column I Column II
(A) The set of points z satisfying | | | | z i z z i z + = is
contained in or equal to
(p) an ellipse with eccentricity
5
4

(B) The set of points z satisfying 10 4 4 = + + z z is
(q) the set of points z satisfying Im z = 0
(C) If 2 | | = w , then the set of points
w
w z
1
= is
(r) the set of points z satisfying | Im z| s 1
(D) If 1 | | = w , then the set of points
w
w z
1
+ = is
(s) the set of points z satisfying | Re z| s 2
(t) the set of points z satisfying | z | s 3

Sol.: (A) (q), (r); (B) (p); (C) (p), (s), (t); (D) (q), (r), (s), (t)
(A) z is purely real
Im z = 0
(B) z is on ellipse 1
9 25
2 2
= +
y x

(C) u + u = sin
2
5
cos
2
3
i z
2
5
| |
2
3
s s z
Also represents ellipse 1
25
4
9
4
2 2
= +
y x
, whose eccentricity =
5
4

(D) u = cos 2 z

38. Match the statements in Column I with the values in Column-II.
Column I Column II
(A) A line from the origin meets the lines
1
1
2
1
1
2 +
=
=
z y x
and
1
1
1
3
2
3
8
+
=
z y
x
at P and Q respectively. If length d PQ= , then
2
d is
(p) 4
(B) The values of x satisfying |
.
|
\
|
= +

5
3
sin ) 3 ( tan ) 3 ( tan
1 1 1
x x are (q) 0
(C) Non-zero vectors b a
, and c
satisfy 0 . = b a
, 0 ) ( . ) ( = + c b a b

and
| | | | 2 a b c b

= + . If , 4c b a

+ = then the possible values of are

(r) 4
(D) Let f be the function on [t, t] given by 9 ) 0 ( = f and
|
.
|
\
|
|
.
|
\
|
=
2
sin /
2
9
sin ) (
x x
x f for 0 = x . The value of
}
t
t
t
dx x f ) (
2
is
(s) 5
(t) 6


44
Sol.: (A) Let ( ) 1 , 1 2 , 2 + + P and |
.
|
\
|
+ + 1 , 3 ,
3
8
2 Q
Now
1
1
3
1 2
3
8
2
2
+

=

+
=
+
+

3
26
3
7
4 3 + = (i)

O
P
Q

2 = (ii)

3
14
4
3
5
+ + = (iii)
From (i) and (ii)
3
44
4
3
16
+ = (iv)
From (ii) and (iii)
3
20
4
3
8
= (v)
On solving (iv) and (v)
3
1
, 3 = =
Hence ( ) 2 , 5 , 5 P and |
.
|
\
|
3
4
,
3
10
,
3
10
Q

9
4
9
25
9
25
2
+ + = d = 6
(t) is correct.
(B) ( ) ( )
5
3
sin 3 tan 3 tan
1 1 1
= + x x

4
3
tan
9 1
6
tan
1
2
1
=
|
|
.
|
\
|
+ x

4
3
tan
8
6
tan
1
2
1
=
|
|
.
|
\
|
x
8 8
2
= x 4 = x
(p) and (r) are correct.

(C) ( ) ( ) 0 . = + c b a b

0 . .
2
= + c a c b b

0
4 4
.
2
=
|
|
.
|
\
|

|
|
.
|
\
|

+
b a
a
b a
b b

0
4 4
2
2 2
=
a
b b

( )
2 2
4 a b

= (i)
Also a b c b

= + 2
a b
b a
b

=

+
4
2 ( ) a b a b

= + 2 4
( ) ( )
2 2 2 2 2
4 4 a b a b

+ = + ( ) ( )
2 2 2
3 4 4 a b = (ii)
Diving (i) and (ii)
( )
3
1
4 4
4
2
=

4 8 16 3 12
2
+ =
2
5 = 0 =
( ) ( ) ii and (i) equation satisfy not does it as 5 =
(q) is correct.

45
(D) dx
x
x
I
}
t
=
0
2
sin
2 9 sin
2
dx
x
x
dx
x
x
I
} }
t t
=
|
.
|
\
|

t
|
.
|
\
|

t
=
0 0
2 cos
2 9 cos
2
2 2
sin
2
9
2
9
sin
2
dx
x x
x x
x
x
x
x
dx
x x
x x
I
} } } }
t t t t
= = |
.
|
\
|
=
|
.
|
\
|
+
=
2
0 0
2
0 0
cos sin 2
5 sin cos 2
2 4
sin
5 sin
8
sin
5 sin
4
2
cos
2
sin 2
2 2
9
sin
2 2 2
( )
( )
} } } }
t t t t
|
.
|
\
|
= =
|
|
|
.
|
\
|
+ =
2
0
2
0
2
2
0
2
0
2
4 cos 1
4 3 4 2 sin 4 3 4
2 sin
4 sin
2 sin
6 sin
4 dx
x
dx x dx
x
x
dx
x
x
I
dx x dx x dx I
} } }
t t t
+
t
= + =
4
0
2
0
2
0
4 cos 2 8
2
4 4 cos 8 1 4

2
4t
= I
4
2
4 2
1
=
t
t
= I
(r) are correct.


46
PHYSICS: Paper-II (Code: 8)
PART III
SECTION I
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of

39. A biconvex lens of focal length 15 cm is in front of a plane mirror. The distance between the lens and the mirror is 10 cm. A
small object is kept at a distance 30 cm from the lens. The final image is
(A) virtual and at a distance of 16 cm from the mirror
(B) real and at a distance of 16 cm from the mirror
(C) virtual and at a distance of 20 cm from the mirror
(D) real and at a distance of 20 cm from the mirror

Sol.: First image will be formed by lens, Using lens formula
cm 30
15
1
30
1 1 1 1 1
= = + = v
v f u v

This image will act as virtual object for mirror and second image will be
formed at 20 cm in front of mirror. This image will act as virtual object for
lens and final image will be formed at
cm 6
15
1
10
1 1 1 1 1
= = = v
v f u v
from lens.
This image is real and at a distance of 16 cm in front of mirror.
Correct choice: (B)

30cm
10cm
O
f =15cm

40. A uniformly charged thin spherical shell of radius R carries uniform surface
charge density o per unit area. It is made of two hemispherical shells, held
together by pressing them with force F (see figure). F is proportional to

F
F

(A)
2 2
0
1
R o
c
(B) R
2
0
1
o
c
(C)
R
2
0
1 o
c
(D)
2
2
0
1
R
o
c

Sol.:
2
0
2
2
R F t
c
o
=

0
2 2
c
o
R
F
Correct choice: (A)

F
F
e

*41. A block of mass 2 kg is free to move along the x-axis. It is at rest and from
t = 0 onwards it is subjected to a time-dependent force F(t) in the x direction.
The force F(t) varies with t as shown in the figure. The kinetic energy of the
block after 4.5 seconds is
(A) 4.50 J (B) 7.50 J
(C) 5.06 J (D) 14.06 J

F(t)
t
4N
O
3s
4.5s

Sol.: Area under F-t graph = Change in momentum of body
5 . 1
3
4
5 . 1
2
1
3 4
2
1
= Ap = 4.5 kg m s
1

J 06 . 5
2
2
~ =
m
p
k
Correct choice: (C)

47

*42. A hollow pipe of length 0.8 m is closed at one end. At its open end a 0.5 m long uniform string is vibrating in its second
harmonic and it resonates with the fundamental frequency of the pipe. If the tension in the wire is 50 N and the speed of
sound is 320 ms
1
, the mass of the string is
(A) 5 grams (B) 10 grams (C) 20 grams (D) 40 grams

Sol.:
l
V
L
V
p
S
2
2
4
= (V
S
= velocity of sound)

T
5 . 0
1
8 . 0 4
320

= 0.02 kg m
1

m = l = 10 grams
Correct choice: (B)

0.8m
l

*43. A Vernier calipers has 1 mm marks on the main scale. It has 20 equal divisions on the Vernier scale which match with 16
main scale divisions. For this Vernier calipers, the least count is
(A) 0.02 mm (B) 0.05 mm (C) 0.1 mm (D) 0.2 mm
Sol.: MSD
20
16
VSD 1 =
Least count = 1 MSD 1 VSD = 1 mm 0.8 mm = 0.2 mm
Correct choice: (D)

*44. A tiny spherical oil drop carrying a net charge q is balanced in still air with a vertical uniform electric field of strength
1 5
Vm 10
7
81

t
. When the field is switched off, the drop is observed to fall with terminal velocity 2 10
3
m s
1
. Given g =
9.8 m s
2
, viscosity of the air = 1.8 10
5
Ns m
2
and the density of oil = 900 kg m
3
, the magnitude of q is
(A) 1.6 10
19
C (B) 3.2 10
19
C (C) 4.8 10
19
C (D) 8.0 10
19
C

Sol.: For equilibrium, qE = mg

E
g r
q
3
4
3
t
= (i)
Also, mg = 6tqrv (after field is switched off)
v r g r tq = t 6
3
4
3
(ii)
From equation (i) and (ii) q = 8.0 10
19
C
Correct choice: (D)
SECTION II
Integer Type
This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The correct
digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.

45. To determine the half life of a radioactive element, a student plots a
graph of
dt
t dN
n
) (
versus t. Here
dt
t dN ) (
is the rate of radioactive
decay at time t. If the number of radioactive nuclei of this element
decreases by a factor of p after 4.16 years, the value of p is

1
2
3
4
5
2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Years
( )
dt
t dN
ln

6


48
Sol.: ( )
t
e N t N

=
0
,
( ) { }
t
e N
dt
t N d

=
0
,
( ) { }
( ) t N
dt
t N d
=
0
ln ln
Comparing with C mx y + = , we get
2
1
= (from the graph, = =
1
year
2
1
|slope of graph|)

2 / 1
2
1
0
T
t
N
N
|
.
|
\
|
=
|
|
.
|
\
|

2 ln
2
1 1
t
p
|
.
|
\
|
=

693 . 0 2
16 . 4
2
1 1
|
.
|
\
|
=
p
p = 8
Answer is 8

46. Image of an object approaching a convex mirror of radius of curvature 20 m along its optical axis is observed to move from
m
3
25
to m
7
50
in 30 seconds. What is the speed of the object in km per hour?
Sol.: By mirror formula
u v R
1 1 2
+ =
Initially at t = 0

1
1
3 / 25
1
20
2
u
+ = m 50
1
= u

25/3m
50/7m I I'
R=20m
t =30s
t = 0
V

Finally at t = 30s

2
1
7 / 50
1
20
2
u
+ = m u 25
2
=
velocity of object
1 1 2
kmh 3
| |

=
=
t
u u

Answer is 3

47. A large glass slab ( = 5/3) of thickness 8 cm is placed over a point source of light on a plane surface. It is seen that light
emerges out of the top surface of the slab from a circular area of radius R cm. What is the value of R?
Sol.: 1 sin =
c
i

5
3 1
sin =
=
c
i i
c
= 37

4
3
tan
cm 8
= =
c
i
R
R = 6 cm

R
=5/3
i
c

i
c
i
c

Source
8cm

Answer is 6

48. At time t = 0, a battery of 10 V is connected across points A and B
in the given circuit. If the capacitors have no charge initially, at
what time (in seconds) does the voltage across them become 4 V?
(Take: ln 5 = 1.6, ln 3 = 1.1)

2MO
2MO
A
2F
2F
B

Sol.: In the given figure, R
eq
= 1 MO, C
eq
= 4 F
Time constant t = R
eq
C
eq
= 4 sec
Potential across the equivalent capacitor at any time t is
|
|
.
|
\
|
=
t
t
e V V 1
0

( )
4 /
1 10 4
t
e
=
( ) ( ) 3 ln 5 ln
4
=
t
t = 2 s
Answer is 2

49
*49. A diatomic ideal gas is compressed adiabatically to
32
1
of its initial volume. If the initial temperature of the gas is T
i

(in Kelvin) and the final temperature is aT
i
, the value of a is
Sol.: For adiabatic process
TV
1
= constant
T
i
V
i
1
= T
f
V
f
1

i
f
i
i f
T
V
V
T T 4
1
=
|
|
.
|
\
|
=

[ = 7/5 for a diatomic gas]
a = 4
Answer is 4
SECTION III
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the paragraph 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of
these questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

When liquid medicine of density is to be put in the eye, it is done with the help of a dropper. As the bulb on the top of the
dropper is pressed, a drop forms at the opening of the dropper. We wish to estimate the size of the drop. We first assume that
the drop formed at the opening is spherical because that requires a minimum increase in its surface energy. To determine the
size, we calculate the net vertical force due to the surface tension T when the radius of the drop is R. When this force
becomes smaller than the weight of the drop, the drop gets detached from the dropper.

*50. If the radius of the opening of the dropper is r, the vertical force due to the surface tension on the drop of radius R (assuming
r << R) is
(A) rT t 2 (B) RT t 2 (C)
R
T r
2
2t
(D)
r
T R
2
2t

Sol.: Force due to surface tension = T 2tr cos u
=
R
T r
R
r
r T
2
2
2
t
= t
Correct choice: (C)

u
R
r
u

*51. If r = 5 10
4
m, = 10
3
kgm
3
, g = 10 ms
2
, T = 0.11 Nm
1
, the radius of the drop when it detaches from the dropper is
approximately
(A) 1.4 10
3
m (B) 3.3 10
3
m (C) 2.0 10
3
m (D) 4.1 10
3
m
Sol.: g R mg
3
3
4
t =
g R T
R
r
3
2
3
4
2 t = t
4 2
2
3
R
g
T
r =

Substituting the values,
12 2 4
10 125 . 4
2
3

=
|
|
.
|
\
|
=
g
T
r R
( ) 125 . 4 log 12 log 4
10 10
+ = R
6154 . 0 12 log 4
10
+ = R
8462 . 2 log = R
1538 . 0 3 log
10
+ = R
R = 1.425 10
3
m
Correct choice: (A)

50

*52. After the drop detaches, its surface energy is
(A) 1.4 10
6
J (B) 2.7 10
6
J (C) 5.4 10
6
J (D) 8.1 10
6
J

Sol.: U
S
= T 4tR
2
= 0.11 4t R
2
= 2.7 10
6
J
Correct choice: (B)


The key feature of Bohrs theory of spectrum of hydrogen atom is the quantization of angular momentum when an electron is
revolving around a proton. We will extend this to a general rotational motion to find quantized rotational energy of a
diatomic molecule assuming it to be rigid. The rule to be applied is Bohrs quantization condition.
53. A diatomic molecule has moment of inertial I. By Bohrs quantization condition its rotational energy in the n
th
level (n = 0 is
not allowed) is
(A)
|
|
.
|
\
|
t I
h
n
2
2
2
8
1
(B)
|
|
.
|
\
|
t I
h
n
2
2
8
1
(C)
|
|
.
|
\
|
t I
h
n
2
2
8
(D)
|
|
.
|
\
|
t I
h
n
2
2
2
8

Sol.:
t
= e =
2
nh
I L
|
|
.
|
\
|
t
=
t
= =
I
h
n
I
h n
I
L
K
2
2
2
2
2 2 2
8 2 4 2

Correct choice: (D)

54. It is found that the excitation frequency from ground to the first excited state of rotation for the CO molecule is close to
Hz 10
4
11
t
. Then the moment of inertia of CO molecule about its center of mass is close to (Take h = 2t 10
34
J s)
(A) 2.76 10
46
kg m
2
(B) 1.87 10
46
kg m
2
(C) 4.67 10
47
kg m
2
(D) 1.17 10
47
kg m
2

Sol.: hv E = A
( )
2 2
2
1 2
1 2
8

t
= = A
2
I
h
K K K
K E A = A

I
h
hv
2
2
8
3
t
=

2 46
2
kgm 10 87 . 1
8
3

=
t
=
v
h
I
Correct choice: (B)

55. In a CO molecule, the distance between C (mass = 12 a.m.u.) and O (mass = 16 a. m. u), where 1 a. m. u. kg 10
3
5
27
= , is
close to
(A) 2.4 10
10
m (B) 1.9 10
10
m (C) 1.3 10
10
m (D) 4.4 10
11
m

Sol.:
2
d I = , where is reduced mass

2
d
m m
m m
I
o c
o c
|
|
.
|
\
|
+
=
m 10 3 . 1
10
= d
Correct choice: (C)


51
SECTION IV
(Matrix Type)

This section contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five
statements (p, q, r, s and t) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with one or more
statement(s) given in Column II. For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the statements given in q
and r, then for that particular question, against statement B, darken the bubbles corresponding to q and r in the ORS.

56. Two transparent media of refractive indices
1
and
3
have a solid lens shaped transparent material of refractive index
2

between them as shown in figure in Column II. A ray traversing these media is also shown in the figures. In Column I
different relationships between
1
,
2
and
3
are given. Match them to the ray diagrams shown in Column II.

Column I Column II
(A)
2 1
<
(p)

2

1

3

(B)
2 1
>
(q)

2

3

(C)
3 2
=
(r)

2

(D)
3 2
>
(s)

1

(t)

2

3

1

Ans.: (A) (p), (r) ; (B) (q), (s), (t) ; (C) (p), (r), (t) ; (D) (q), (s)

52
57. You are given many resistances, capacitors and inductors. These are connected to a variable DC voltage source (the first two
circuits) or an AC voltage source of 50 Hz frequency (the next three circuits) in different ways as shown in Column II.
When a current I (steady state for DC or rms for AC) flows through the circuit, the corresponding voltage V
1
and V
2
.
(indicated in circuits) are related as shown in Column I. Match the two

Column I Column II

(A)
1
, 0 V I = is proportional to I
(p)

V
1

V
2

6mH
3F
V

(B)
1 2
, 0 V V I > =
(q)

V
1

V
2

6mH
2O
V

(C) V V V = =
2 1
, 0 (r)

V
1

V
2

6mH
2O
V
~

(D)
2
, 0 V I = is proportional to I (s)

V
1

V
2

6mH
V
~
3F

(t)

V
1

V
2

1kO
V
~
3F

Sol.: (A) (r), (s), (t) ; (B) (q), (r), (s), (t) ; (C) (p), (q) ; (D) (q), (r), (s), (t)


53
BREAK UP 1 (LEVEL OF DIFFICULTY)


54


55


56
BREAK UP 2 (XI-XII)

BREAK UP 2 ( XI-XII)

57


58
BREAK UP 2 (XI-XII)


59
BREAK UP 3 (TOPICWISE/PARTWISE)


60


61

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SOLUTIONS TO IIT-JEE 2010

= the rate constant increases exponentially with temperature.

are vectors in space given by

, then the value of ( ) ( ) ( ) | | b a b a b a

+ = then the possible values of are

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