Revision Test 1. The mean molecular weight of an amino acid in a typical globular protein is a. 70 b. 110 c. 150 d. 90 2.

The closest estimate for the number of amino acid residues in a protein with a molecular weight of 85 kDa is a. 710 b. 7100 c. 8500 d. 85 3. Which of the following statement is not true? a. The pI is the pH value at which a protein has overall charge of +1 b. At a pH value equal to pI, a protein will not move in the electric field c. An acidic protein will have a pI less than 7 d. A basic protein will have a pI greater than 7 4. The following amino acid has a nonpolar and aliphatic R group a. Tyrosine b. Histidine c. Glutamate d. Leucine 5. Protein structures are confirmed by weak bonds, the example of which is a. Hydrophobic b. Disulphide c. Peptide d. All the above 6. What does a protein lose when it denatures? a. Its primary structure b. Its peptide bonds c. Its sequence of amino acids d. Its three dimensional shape 7. Glucose and mannose are epimers, this means that a. They are mirror images of each other b. One is an aldose, the other a ketose c. They rotate plane polarized light in opposite directions

d. They differ only in the configuration of one carbon atom 8. a. b. c. d. The sugar residues of amylase are In -1,4 linkages In -1,4 linkages Galactose unit only Fructose unit only

9. The function of Gluconeogenesis are described by all of the following statements except a. It maintains blood sugar levels during fasting b. It is useful during strenuous exercise c. It plays a role in countering metabolic acidosis d. It allows the use of acetyl coenzyme A for glucose production 10.The UV rays of sunlight are responsible for the formation of the vitamin D in the skin is from a. Cholesterol b. Ergasterol c. Cholecalciferol d. calciferol 11.What are bile salts? a. Charged phospholipids b. Amphipathic cholesterol analogs with detergent properties c. Esterified cholesterols d. Hydrolyzed forms of triacylglecerols 12.On hydrolysis a nucleoside would not yield a. Purine b. Pyrimidine c. Pentose sugar d. Phosphoric acid 13.The chemical name of thymine is a. 2 oxy 4 aminopyrimidine b. 2,4 dioxy 5 methylpyrimidine c. 2,4 dioxy pyrimidine d. None of the above 14.The most abundant intracellular free nucleotide is a. ATP b. FAD+ c. NAD+ d. NADP+

15.N-Glycosyl linkage joins 1st carbon of pentose sugar with a. N-9 of pyrimidine b. N-9 of purine c. N-3 of pyrimidine d. N-3 of purine 16.High energy bond present in ATP is a. Ester bond b. Ether bond c. Phosphoanhydride bond d. None 17.Which of the following statement is true? a. The ratio of G to A in double-stranded DNA is 1:1 b. The ratio of T in double-stranded DNA to U in single-stranded RNA is 1:2 c. The ratio of G to C in single-stranded RNA is 1:1 d. The ratio of G to C in double-stranded DNA is 1:1 18.For a double stranded DNA molecule, which of the following statement is wrong? a. A/T ratio is constant b. G is always equal to C c. A + T always equal to G + C d. (A + G)/ (C + T) ratio is constant 19.Chargaffs rule states that a. In RNA, A=U, and in DNA A=T b. G=C in both RNA and DNA c. (A+T)/(G+C) = always 1 d. A+G/T+C = 1 20.The melting temperature (Tm) of DNA is a. Directly proportional to the length of the DNA chain b. Directly proportional to the GC content c. Directly proportional to the AT content d. Not related to the base composition 21.Which of the following factors favour strand separation in double stranded DNA melting? a. Hydrogen bonding between bases b. Repulsion between phosphate groups c. Vander waals interaction between bases d. High content of G + C

22.An aqueous solution of a phosphorous containing biopolymer shows UV absorption spectra. Optical density at 260nm increases much when the solution is made alkaline and heated but not much if the solution is simply heated. The biopolymer can be a. Deoxyribo nucleic acid b. Ribonucleic acid c. Phospholipid d. Phosphoprotein 23.RNA is very much susceptible to hydrolysis in alkali because a. It contains uracil residues in its structure b. Its 2-oh group participate in intramolecular cleavage of phosphodiester backbone c. Cleavage occurs in the glycosylic bonds of purine bases d. Cleavage occurs in the glycosylic bonds of pyrimidine bases 24.Which one of the following choice best completes the following sentence? tRNA: a. Contains the information necessary for the synthesis of specific protein b. Must exist in 20 different forms, one for each amino acid c. Is the largest of the RNA species d. Has little or no secondary structure 25.Which one of the following is false statement? a. tRNA binds an amino acid covalently b. tRNA has many modified bases c. tRNA is present only in eukaryotic cells d. tRNA carries anticodon 26.Which of the following most correctly describes mammalian mRNAs? a. They are usually transcribed from both DNA strands b. They are normally double stranded c. They have an overall negative charge at neutral pH d. Their ratio of ribose to purine bases equals 1 27.In agarose gel electrophoresis a. DNA migrates towards the negative electrode

b. Supercoiled plasmids migrates slower than their nicked counterparts c. Larger molecules migrate faster than smaller molecules d. Ethidium bromide can be used to visualized the DNA 28.The enzymatic method of DNA sequencing a. Uses RNA as a template b. Uses dideoxyribonucleoside triphophates, in which the deoxyribose 3-OH is missing. c. Uses dideoxyribonucleoside triphophates, in which the deoxyribose 3-OH is present. d. Uses different chemical treatment to cleave DNA preferentially at A,T,C or G 29.DNA sequencing by Sangers method involves the use of a. Ribonucleotide b. 3-deoxyribonucleotide c. 2,3- dideoxyribonucleotide d. Fluorodinitrobenzene 30.Thymidylate synthetase is an enzyme involved in the synthesis of TMP form a. dUMP b. UMP c. Thymidine d. TDP 31.Which of the following is true? Enzyme catalysis of a chemical reaction a. Increases the forward and reverse reaction rates b. Decreased G so that the reaction can proceed spontaneously c. Increases the energy of transition state d. Decreases the entropy of reaction 32.Enzymes increase the rate of reaction by a. Increasing the free energy of activation b. Increasing the free energy change of the reaction c. Changing the equilibrium constant of the reaction d. Decreasing the energy of activation 33.The function of an enzyme is to a. Cause chemical reaction that would not otherwise take place

b. Change the rate of chemical reaction c. Control the equilibrium points of reactions d. Change the directions of reactions 34.Binding energy released in enzymesubstrate complex formation causes the a. Decrease in the free energy of the product b. Decrease in the free energy of the substrate c. Increase in the activation energy d. Decrease in the activation energy 35.Which of the following is false statement? a. Coenzymes may be derived from vitamins b. Coenzymes may be prosthetic groups c. Coenzymes increase the activation energy of the enzymatic reaction d. All statements are correct 36.Which of the following criteria can be used to distinguish between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? a. Whether or not they have a plasma membrane b. Whether or not they have a nucleus (membrane-enclosed nucleoplasm) c. Comparison of the sequence of homologous proteins d. Comparison of the signature sequence of 16S rRNA 37.Which of the following is correct statement? In animal a. Concentration of Na is high inside the cell than outside b. Concentration of calcium is high inside the cell than outside c. Concentration of K is high inside the cell than outside d. Concentration of Mg is high inside the cell than outside 38.Which of the following statement is true? a. Membranes consists of only cholesterol and proteins b. All membrane proteins are glycoproteins c. Phospholipids and proteins are the main components of biological membranes

d. All membranes have the same lipid protein ratio 39.Choose the statement that is not correct for golgi apparatus of the cell a. Degradation of xenobiotics compounds occur in golgi apparatus b. Golgi apparatus has cis & trans faces c. Golgi apparatus is predominant in cells that are specialized for secretion d. It is involved in oligosaccharide modification 40.Which statement is false? a. The golgi complex forms the vesicles that fuse to form the endoplasmic reticulum b. If a lysosome bursts, its contents can seriously damage the cytoplasm of the cell c. Secreted proteins are initially formed by ribosomes attached to the ER d. The nucleolus is where ribosomes are assembled