THE PRINCETON REVIEW CAT SAMPLE PAPER 3

INSTRUCTIONS Please read these carefully before attempting the test 1. 2. 3. This test is based on pattern of previous years CAT papers. There are two sections. The total time allotted is 2 hours exactly. Please note your start time and end time on the answer sheet. Do not take more than 2 hours, or you will get a wrong assessment. Please fill all the details, as asked on top of the answer sheet. Please try to maximize your attempt overall, but you need to do well in all sections. There is 1 mark for every right answer and 0.25 negative for every wrong one. There are two sections in this test, you can attempt the test in any order but show adequate competence in all sections. Since it is a time constrained test and you have 2 hour, and all question carry equal marks please do not get stuck on any question, but move fast to try and do easier ones. Please do all scratch work on paper only, no extra sheets to be used. Put all your answers on the answer sheet. Relax. You are competing against yourself.

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SECTION I
Questions: 1-86
DIRECTIONS for Questions 1 to 6: Each question below comprises groups of sentences followed by suggested sequence arrangements. Select the best sequential arrangement for each group of sentences. 1. A) And what are we here for? B) Where have we come from? C) What are we? D) In India, several different solutions have been put forward in the form of the theological and ethical systems. E) From the beginning of time, humanity has sought answers to these troubling questions and has attempted to unravel the mysteries of creation and the cosmos through religious and metaphysical systems. 1) B A C D E 2) A C B D E 3) A C B E D 4) C B A E D A) They vow eternal devotion. B) In time they will descend the hill together, silver-haired but not less devoted. C) Romantic love makes a good picture. D) A man and a woman stand clasped in each others arms watching the sun slowly sink into the iridescent sea. E) The picture inspires many people to wed, yet in search of romantic marriage they end up in not-so-romantic divorce. 1) C D A B E 2) E D C A B 3) C B A D E 4) D C B A E A) No matter what the cause of death may be for any individual, there is no immediate prospect of extending human life much beyond its present limits. B) Man who sometimes lives past 100, has the longest life-span of all the mammals, no mater what their size. C) He can make use of almost any substance for food. D) He also has the widest range of adaptive capacities. E) He can live in almost any climate. 1) A E D C B 2) B D C E A 3) A B D E C 4) A C B D E A) Crops, lawns, household pets, the healthiest looking human beings - all suffer from some disorders or from some infections. B) Nevertheless, disease is far from conquered, and there is little likelihood that it ever will be. C) For one thing, the distribution of medical care is erratic. D) Then too, all living things are diseased to some extent.

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E) It is true that advances in health in the last century have been little short of revolutionary. 1) E C D B A 2) A C B D E 3) C D A B E 4) E B C D E 5. A) Time which gives continuity and pattern to life, also brings disruption and death. B) There is nothing under the sun, or over it, of which we cannot say: "This too - in time - will pass away." C) The eternal hills were not there a hundred million years ago and will be gone a hundred million years hence. D) Even the stars shift with the centuries and, early or late, must eventually fade out. E) The morning glory, splendid in dawn, is wilted at noon; man, maple and mallard live their allotted span. 1) A E C D B 2) B C D A E 3) E D C B A 4) D C B E A A) Yet it plays an unusual role in the affairs of the world because the seeming insipidity of its properties is deceiving. B) As a chemical, it is unique. C) As substance, water is odourless, colourless and tasteless. D) It draws away from most organic substances, but is strongly attracted by most inorganic materials - including itself. E) It is a compound of great stability, a remarkable solvent and a powerful source of chemical energy. 1) C E A B D 2) C A B E D 3) B C A D E 4) C B A D E

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 7 to 9: In a certain system of notation: 1 is written as 01 2 is written as 02 3 is written as 10 4 is written as 11 5 is written as 12 6 is written as 20 7 is written as 21 8 is written as 22 In this system of notation: 7. 37 = ? 1) 2011 148 = ? 1) 12011 1327 = ? 1) 1211111

2) 1101

3) 1111

4) 2101

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2) 20011

3) 11211

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2) 1221111

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Directions for Questions 10 to 14: Each of the following sentences below suffers from one of the following four defects: (A) Use of improper or unidiomatic words. (B) Use of unnecessary words or repetition of an idea, i.e., wordiness. (C) Faulty sentence structure. (D) Use of inappropriate simile and mixed metaphor. 10. His exuberance was so contagious like chickenpox that all the other boys were soon smiling.

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11.

In your editorial, you have pondered upon several aspects of the present legal systems and your observations are absolutely correct. The message that the reader is supposed to get from this cartoon is that my country is not only promoting the spread of nuclear weapons, but doing so in area of the world where tension and the likelihood of war, are at their greatest. The tradition of family occupations having been broken and no longer being observed it would be interesting to find how many young men now take after their father's occupations. The aggrieved party has to run like a ping pong ball from pillar to post for a decade to secure a decree and wait for another decade to execute the same.

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Directions for Questions 15 -19: Each question contains six statements followed by four sets of combinations of three. Choose the set in which the statements are logically related. 15. I . Some cups are glasses. III. Some glasses are cups as well as jugs. V. All jugs are cups. 1) I, II, III 2) I, II, IV I. Some trees are rocks. III. No star is a tree. V. All stars are rocks. 1) I, II, IV 2) IV, V, VI I. All roses are fragrant. III. All roses are plants. V. All plants need air. 1) III, IV, V 2) III, V, IV I All snakes are reptiles. III. All reptiles are cold blooded. V. All reptiles lay eggs. 1) I, II, V 2) I, IV, V I. All boats are trains. III. Some trains are neither boats nor cars. V. All trains are cars. 1) I, II, III 2) I, V, VI II. All jugs are glasses. IV. Some cups are not glasses. VI. Every glass is a jug. 3) III, IV, V 4) IV, V, VI II. All rocks are stars. IV. Some trees are not stars. VI. All stars are trees. 3) I, II, VI 4) II, III, V II. All roses are majestic. IV. All roses need air. VI. All plants need water. 3) II, III, IV 4) I, II, III II. All reptiles are not snakes. IV. All snakes lay eggs. VI. Snakes are cold blooded. 3) I, III, VI 4) II, IV, V II. All cars are trains. IV. All trains are boats. VI. All boats are cars. 3) I, IV, VI 4) II, III, IV

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Directions for Questions 20 -28: Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow: "Man errs, till he has ceased to strive." So sighs the figure of God in the prologue to Goethe's great poetical drama, "Faust". Driven by his boundless desire for knowledge, the play's erring hero strives mightily throughout to discover "what holds the world together in its innermost self." Generations of directors and theatregoers have asked themselves much the same question when struggling to comprehend this theatrical Everest. For Peter Stein, one of Germany most celebrated directors, staging all 12,111 lines of the "world poem" Goethe spent nearly 60 years writing has been his life-long dream. Its reputation for being unperformable began with the writer himself. Goethe described "Faust" to his friend

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and fellow dramatist Friedrich Schiller as a "poetic monstrosity". Largely because of its unique, uncategorisable second part, no modern director has ever staged it at one go and in its entirety. But though he had to wait until his 60s, Mr Stein never abandoned his goal. His production at once became the talk of Germany. "Any fool can stage part one of "Faust", said Mr Stein modestly. And while even he would agree that not every fool can stage part one well, its themes and stories are familiar enough. Conceived in the 1770s, when Goethe was in the flush of Sturm and Drang romanticism, part one bursts with ideas and with youthful exuberance. It is also dramatically original and psychologically brilliant. Mephistopheles appears to a disillusioned Faust and offers to be his servant, revealing to him all "earthly" knowledge. The catch is that, in the next world, they will switch roles. Faust takes the offer. Yet he is hungry also for power and pleasure. "Two souls do dwell, alas, within my breast!", he says. He errs badly, and philosophical drama becomes human tragedy. Faust seduces Gretchen, an innocent girl, who is executed for killing their illegitimate child. Faust also causes the death of her mother and brother. Yet the cause of all this suffering himself survives for part two--Goethe needed no lesson from Hollywood--and it is here that the difficulties begin. Most directors simply give up before the challenge of the second part, and it is not hard to see why. Its range of subject matter, its mixture of genres and its varieties of tone make it a challenge to read, let alone to pull together into a coherent piece of theatre. It took Mr Stein decades to understand, though now, he says, he reads it "like a newspaper". Maybe so, but Bild Zeitung it is not. There is virtually no storyline, no unity of time or place and no limit to the spiritual and intellectual conundrums with which Goethe's luxuriant imagination confronts his wandering heir. The poet here sums up his personal religion, depicting a complex, imperfect deity that is humorous, cynical and kind. At the same time, part two is worldly and comic, bringing in Goethe's learned scientific interests as well as his wide-ranging historical and economic opinions. Topics include paper currency, artificial life, Norse and classical myth as well as the restless quest for technical progress. Quite apart from what it all means, there are several practical facts that until now have killed any attempt at professional staging. The full play lasts 21 hours, including breaks. Counting stage time alone, it runs for 15 hours. (A comparable tour-de-force is Richard Wagner's fouropera "Ring" cycle, which runs from 14 to 17 hours). At Hanover, audiences have a choice of a two-day "Faust" marathon at weekends or six sessions on consecutive nights. The play also needs a huge performance space and a committed group of actors. Mr Stein's 35 actors have signed on to his "Faust" project for the duration. As guide ropes in scaling this peak, Mr Stein chose to stick to the text and to follow Goethe's own stage directions. This refusal to impose an interpretation of his own provoked the critics, but made theatrical sense. When Mephistopheles first appears to Faust, he is disguised as a black poodle, and a real black dog trots on stage, wagging his tail in a deceptively undevilish way. In part two, as Faust speaks the lines, "I watch a mirror here of man's whole story", Goethe called for a rainbow, and Mr Stein's designer artfully obliges. The production is a feast for the eye, even if Ferdinand Wogerbauer's part one set, as some have complained, is too safely conventional. The book-lined study at the beginning in which Faust glumly ponders his life is lit by a single gothic window. When Faust and Mephistopheles enter the witch's kitchen, she is a truly ugly Halloween witch. Stefan Mayer's design for the second part is, suitably enough, more abstract and does not follow to the last detail Goethe's instructions for leafy groves and rocky caverns. For theatregoers, it is all an exhilarating experience and not as wearing as it sounds. Mr Stein has used two stages in a large hall in Hanover's Expo zoo compound. The audience moves from stage to stage after each interval. A nice air of theatrical communism prevails. In the masked

The Princeton Review Cat Sample Paper

carnival and in the imperial banquet scenes, the audience becomes part of the play. After watching it over two days, this reviewer at least felt as if the actors had become old friends. Most of them performed at a high level throughout, an astonishing display of expressive talent and stamina. Mr Stein split the roles of Faust and Mephistopheles in two, Bruno Ganz and Christian Nickel were to share playing Faust. But Mr Ganz, one of the finest German-speaking actors, hurt himself in rehearsal. For now, the relatively unknown Mr Nickel must handle the entire role. Given that he is on stage for six of the play's 15 hours, he can perhaps be forgiven for a somewhat uneven performance. The two actors playing Mephistopheles have a different problem. One is brilliant, funny and cynical; the other is graver and more earnest. Dorothee Hartinger as Gretchen is a little too sparkly and charming for the plain girl she is supposed to play. 20. Which of the following statements is not true? 1) Goethe spent almost 60 years in writing "Faust" 2) Faust agrees to trade souls with Mephistopheles in the next birth 3) Faust is an epic poem 4) Faust is a true story of a German doctor What would be the best meaning for the line, "Two souls do dwell, alas, within my breast"? 1) Faust had two souls 2) Faust was confused and thus erred badly 3) Faust was caught up between two conflicting desires 4) Every man has two natures, one for earthly knowledge and the other for power and pleasure Why is it considered difficult to stage the second part of Faust? I. it has a wide range of subject matter II. it is a mixture of genres III. it is difficult is difficult to read and understand 1) Only I and II 2) Only II and III 3) Only I and III 4) I, II and III What would be the best meaning of 'tour de force' mentioned in the passage? 1) a long tour lasting 14-17 hours 2) a forceful display of ideas 3) a feat of strength or skill 4) a play having a forceful impact Which of the following statements are true? 1) Mephistopheles is a black poodle in the play 2) Mr Stein did not follow the instructions of Goethe 3) The sets for the two parts are designed by different designers 4) None of the above Why did it make theatrical sense to follow Goethe's our stage directions? 1) it would keep the play authentic 2) it would help in keeping with what Goethe originally meant 3) it would not have provoked the critics

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4) it was what Mr Stein wanted to do 26. Which of the following are NOT defects of the play, as mentioned in the passage? I. Gretchen in too sparkly and charming II. The audience becomes part of the play III. The role of Mephistopheles has been split in two. 1) only I 2) only II 3) I & III 4) I, II and III What does the author want to emphasise when he says that an air of "theatrical communism" prevails? 1) the audience and the actors become as one 2) there is much confusion in the play 3) the workers and the viewers are treated as one 4) there is no difference among the actors and the audience The passage could best be described as: 1) An excerpt from a literary magazine 2) A review of Faust 3) An attempt to explain Faust 4) Praise the director who has attempted the impossible

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Directions for Questions 29 to 37: Read the short passage and answer the questions that follow. 29. The government's scheme to widen the tax base by rationalising the tax structure was a failure in 1997. If the program had been successful, the tax collections of the government would have grown substantially. The argument in the passage depends on which of the following assumptions? 1) The national income grew substantially in 1997 without a corresponding growth in the tax payer base. 2) The tax payer base did not widen enough in 1997 to compensate for the loss of tax revenues for the government after the rationalisation of the tax structure. 3) A rationalised tax structure would attract a substantial number of tax evaders into the taxpaying bracket. 4) The tax collections in 1997 dropped suddenly. Tuber crops have been on the decline in south India after extensive and more profitable commercial plantations caught the fancy of many farmers. Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the conclusion above? 1) The government is encouraging the Central Tuber Research Institute to use tubers for making thermoplastics biodegradable. 2) Farmers in Kerala who have converted their tuber farms into rubber plantations have been growing by buying the farms of other tuber farmers. 3) Dieticians have observed a change in dietary patterns of the local residents in most of the south Indian states where tubers no longer form an essential ingredient of a meal like earlier times. 4) Research has shown that the average cropped area in the four south Indian states had declined due to large-scale emigration of local residents to the Middle East countries.

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Sales of home PCs have increased dramatically over the last year. In order to take advantage of this increase, HCL plans to expand production of its 'Pulsar' brand of home PCs, while continuing its already, very extensive advertising of this product. Which of the following, if true, provides most support for the view that HCL cannot increase its sales of PCs by adopting the plan outlined above 1) Although it sells all the PCs it assembles, HCL has been selling almost an equal number of PCs assembled by sub-contracted vendors. 2) The line of regular PCs by HCL have not seen any upgrade in features in the last two years. 3) Advertising has made the 'Pulsar' PC widely known, but few consumers know that they belong to HCL. 4) Despite heavy trade discounts, sales of HCL PCs have fallen in the last year. The latest secret official papers declassified yesterday give an account of the use of the secret services to weaken the public opposition to the European common market through a 'public' information campaign'. In a democracy, the government does not use brute military force to make the people change their minds but only material planted by secret services in newspapers. Which of these if true would weaken the author's contention the most? 1) Newspaper reporters love to sensationalise any small issue relating to the national economy, no matter how tenuous. 2) The newspapers in any democracy loathe the secret service because of the air of secrecy it maintains about all official information, whether classified or not. 3) In a true democracy, the newspapers are not party to any misinformation campaign even if it were sponsored by the government. They would instead lay bare any such attempts by duly reporting them to their readers. 4) All dictatorship regimes in the past have had rigid controls over media and used it extensively for propaganda. Housing finance companies (HFCs) with net owned funds of less than Rs. 25 lakhs have been prohibited from accepting or renewing public deposits with effect from January 1, 1999. The amendment was made with a view to protecting the interests of the public who place their deposits with HFCs. Which of these statements, if true, would have been the most likely cause for such an amendment? 1) The real estate and housing sector had seen a slowed in the last three years due to sluggish demand. 2) Most of the newly constructed houses and high-rise buildings were occupied but were not certified as fit by the housing department. 3) The directors of housing finance companies were expanding their businesses and shifting their focus to the booming software industry. 4) The past year had witnessed a number of HFCs folding defaulting on their repayments to depositors. Babies may not know a verb from a noun, but researchers have found that even sevenmonth-olds can learn how sentences are organised, a discovery that may lead to early diagnosis of infants with language disorders. This new research showed that tiny tots could also recognise sentence structures and identify simple rules form language-like sounds, an essential tool for learning to use language. According to the passage, which of these sentences is not true?

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1) Infants develop language disorders when they cannot learn to identify different sound patterns when they are very young. 2) Babies may not know a verb from a noun, but they learn to recognise symbolic sound patterns. 3) The cognitive capabilities in a child are seriously hampered when it receives the same inputs in more than one language in its childhood. 4) A child begins to learn language at a much earlier age than was commonly suspected. 35. In a series of experiments, researchers Lee Berk and Dr. Tan, drew blood from college students who were watching funny videos. They found that the levels of disease-fighting antibodies and immune cells went up. Levels of cortisol - a stress hormone - decreased. Which of the following statements could be a possible conclusion based on the passage 1) People under stress have somewhat weakened immune systems while humour on the other hand helps strengthen the immune system. 2) Watching comedy films can sometimes be a very painful experience. 3) The level of violence portrayed in comedy films lately tends to make aggressive and help them fight diseases better. 4) Research has shown that the best way to fight stress is to watch funny films. An extract from the 'pilsomin' fish is the only known effective drug in curing chronic asthma. It takes about 5000 fish to get the kilogram of the extract. This would mean, therefore, that continued extraction of this medicine must inevitably lead to the pilsomin's extinction. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above? 1) The extract is made available only through a group of licensed practitioners. 2) The pilsomin can be 'farmed' and grown like shrimp and other similar fish. 3) The bones of this fish are used in the manufacture of ethnic jewellery. 4) The pilsomin is a very difficult fish to net and therefore the prices are very high. When the full moon appears on Friday, it will begin an unusual series of full moons not seen in more than two decades. There will be two full moons in January, none in February and two again in March. This phenomenon last occurred in 1915. When a month has two full moons, the second is known as a 'blue' moon. Which of the following statements best summarises the passage? 1) The moon gets blue when it is not able to appear as a full moon in February. 2) The 'blue moon' phenomenon is likened to a rare mental affliction as both are related to the moon. 3) The blue moon gets its name from a rare phenomenon when two full moons are seen in a month. 4) The full moon appears blue when seen twice a month after about 85 to 90 years.

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Directions for Questions 38 - 45: Read the following passage and answer the questions based on it. Old age is a lot of crossed off names in an address book, said British author Ronald Blythe. Little wonder then that champagne bottles are being opened to celebrate the announcement raising the retirement age of government employees. The new Indian law which gives two additional years to those on the verge of bowing out of service is premised on the logic that the old are not old enough at 58; indeed, that with their invaluable experience there is much that they can contribute to society. There can be no quarrels with this line of reasoning. A quarter century ago, lifestyles were different; life expectancy itself was well below the current average of 61 years. At 58, one actually looked forward to retirement, having lived a full life, having sired generations of grandchildren and great-grandchildren whose duty it was to tend to the elderly. There is none of this comfort in today's

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nuclear family, which must at least in part explain the sense of loneliness and despair that overtake those now retiring. To retire is to be punished, to be put out to pasture, to come to terms with one's rejection by society at large. For most, this is too painful a transition. Meant to help the individual spend his twilight years in peace, retirement often does the reverse - it induces illnesses and itself becomes the cause of early death. The psychological effect of being able to work after superannuating cannot be overemphasised. Yet, there is another side to the picture which is equally grim. India is a young country; 72 per cent of our population was under 35 in the last census which must surely account for the ever-lengthening queues at employment exchanges. The question arises: do we please our elder citizens at the cost of our young? The answer lies not in overlooking the legitimate needs of the bulk of the citizenry, but in learning to look at employment differently, in jettisoning the old definition of employment, wherein every citizen considered it his birthright to be in government service. This sector is shrinking anyway, which makes the opening of other avenues all the more important. This means overcoming attitudinal blocks, it means making an effort to change the work culture. It also means additional state responsibility, but not in the way that is conventionally understood. The government must compensate its inability to provide jobs by enhancing social security benefits currently available to only 0.3 per cent of the population. Globalisation has already brought in certain welcome features. The large-scale expansion of the private sector has automatically made for greater productivity in a country where this quality has been conspicuous by its absence. Nevertheless, the rush of job seekers is growing by the hour. If only they were to recognise their intrinsic self-forth, they might find there are hidden areas of employment as well as under-employment. In the final analysis, there is no substitute for individual enterprise. For this we have only to look at the countless number of productive hours logged in by our women -- once derided as housewives but now more and more acknowledge as being among the greatest contributors to society. From cradle to grave, it is work all the way for women. And they do this seemingly effortlessly, taking in their stride changing social patterns, economic hardships and personal setbacks. For them there is no retirement age, at 60 or ever. 38. The passage views early retirement in today's age as everything but 1) an indication of having lived a full life 2) a punishment 3) a rejection by society 4) being put out to pasture Which of the following is not mentioned in the passage as being an adverse manifestation of retirement? 1) retirement 2) sense of loneliness and despair 3) early death 4) derision by the younger generation The passage advocates a view that can be considered as: 1) radical, since it encourages elder citizens to deprive younger citizens of employment 2) sexist, since it views women as lesser citizens 3) balanced, since it looks at the issue of retirement from various perspectives 4) none of the above The passage propagates which of the following courses to tackle the issue of employment i. Overlooking the employment of the bulk of the citizenry ii. Overcoming attitudinal blocks. iii. Changing the work culture

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iv. Globalisation v. Enhancing social security benefits 1) i, ii, iii only 2) ii, iii, v only 3) i, iii, iv only 4) i and ii only 42. The example given in the passage to support the idea of individual enterprise is that of: 1) every citizen's so-called 'birthright' to be in government service 2) productive working by women 3) social security benefits from the state 4) overcoming attitudinal blocks. The passage attributes the increased productivity in the nation to: 1) pegging the retirement age at 58 2) the large-scale expansion of the public sector 3) the large-scale expansion of the private sector 4) the growth of the job-seeking population The logic for raising the retirement age by two years is that 1) The old are not old enough at 58 2) Life expectancy has increased 3) The young people of this country are not able to step into their elders' shoes 4) none of the above There seems to be no retirement age for 1) Government servants 2) Elder citizens 3) the younger section 4) women

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Directions for Questions 46 -52: Read the passage below and answer the questions based on it. I believe that it is both a foolish and a wicked phantasy of timorous thought to deny the reality of evil and of pain and suffering. They are intensely and terribly real. It is a false optimism to say that evil can always be overcome; but it can often be overcome. The mystery of evil, however, is not only its existence; it lies also in the fact that out of evil may come good. Those are irreducible facts that we must simply accept. But they are also facts that are inevitable in a world that works like ours. If evolution is a devil-take-the-hindmost, in which mutual aid, kindness, and fore-thought are but late and sporadic late-comers upon the scene, its struggle for existence must give us the evil of tapeworms and plague and mosquitoes as well as the good of biological progress. If man is an imperfect organism on to whose animal nature new capacities are grafted, but are often given in strange combination by the hand of heredity, often thwarted and distorted by environment, then we shall expect cruelties and hurts, perversions and fears, hatred and selfishness, and all their evil effects. We shall expect them, but we shall try to overcome them. We shall expect them, and accept them as a challenger; but need not continue to torment our souls with the question of why an imaginary creator, to whom we have ascribed our own ideals of foresight and benevolence, should have inserted evil into the scheme of things. Pain, in spite of all that has been written about, the difficulty of comprehending the reason for its existence, is simpler. It is a biological necessity. Without physical pain there could be no adapted life, no progressive evolution. Without mental suffering there could be no mental progress. Pain, once in existence, may inflict itself in biologically useless ways as well as useful ones, just as

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intellectual or aesthetic pleasure. It may inflict itself in spiritually useless ones too; for though pain and suffering may be necessary ingredients of many of great character, they may be sterile. Sterile pain is a challenge like evil; it is for us to do our best to make it impossible. Indeed, our aim must be constantly the reduction of all pain; for though it can often be turned to good, without that effort and expense of soul the good might have been greater. At all events we shall certainly never abolish it, and need be deterred by no moral or theological scruples, such as made themselves heard when chloroform was first used in childbirth, in our attempts to be rid of it. What must be remembered, however, is the fact that pain is an instrument of adaptation, and that lesser pain in the present may ensure better adaptation and so forestall much greater pain in the future. 46. Which of the following agrees with the intent of the author in the first sentence of the passage? 1) Those who deny the existence of evil and pain could be doing it deliberately 2) Evil, pain and suffering can be overcome 3) Evil pain and suffering should be overcome 4) To deny the existence of evil, pain and suffering is plain ignorance The attitude towards evil that the author takes can be figuratively and logically, stated as: 1) diagnosis is essential before therapy begins 2) power lies in knowledge 3) the devil must be given his due without grudge 4) one mustn't be pennywise and pound foolish Which of the following is not true? 1) pain is essential but evil is a nuisance 2) suffering serves to overcome evil 3) evil exists but we should oppose it 4) the value of evil is evident in the incentive to overcome it Evil is abominable, but out of it good might emerge, similarly: 1) pain is an abettor in the cruel march of evolution 2) pain might inflict itself both in biologically and spiritually useless ways 3) pain might inflict itself in both useful and useless ways 4) all of the above Which of the following is true? 1) useful pain is like evil that does not lead to good 2) pain is an unnecessary evil 3) sterile pain is challenge 4) none of the above The line "without that effort and expense of soul" refers to: 1) the tendency to escape pain even where it is essential for our good 2) the deliberate effort to conquer pain 3) the existence among us of those who are superstitious about pain and suffering 4) love of pain The place of evil in the metaphysical scheme of things 1) should not be our concern 2) should at all times be remembered, lest we should unduly suffer 3) bothers the author very much

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4) cannot be understood Directions for Questions 53 -60: In each of the following sentences a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence four different ways of phrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative from among the four. 53. It was us who had left before he arrived. 1) we who had left before time he had arrived. 2) us who had went before he arrived. 3) us who had went before he had arrived. 4) we who had left before he arrived. The MP rose up to say that in her opinion, she though the Women's Reservation Bill should be passed on unanimously. 1) Rose to say that she thought the Women's Reservation Bill should be passed 2) Rose up to say that, the Women's Reservation Bill should be passed on 3) Rose up to say that, in her opinion, she thought that the Women's Reservation Bill should be passed. 4) Rose to say, in her opinion, the Women's Reservation Bill should be passed on Mr. Sharma, the president of the union and who is also a member of the community group, will be incharge of the negotiations. 1) since he is a member of the community group. 2) also being a member of the community group 3) a member of the community group 4) in addition, who is a member of the community group Since the advent of the cable television, at the beginning of this decade, the entertainment industry took a giant stride forward in our country. 1) this decade saw the entertainment industry taking 2) this decade, the entertainment industry has taken 3) this decade the entertainment industry had taken 4) this decade the entertainment industry took If you are on a three-month software design project and, in two weeks, you've put together a programme that solves part of the problem, show it to your boss without delay. 1) and, you've put together a programme that solves part of the problem in two weeks 2) and, in two weeks, you've put together a programme that solves part of the problem 3) and, you've put together a programme that has solved part of the problem in two weeks 4) and, in two weeks you put together a programme that solved only a part of the problem Many of these environmentalists proclaim to save nothing less than the planet itself. 1) to save nothing lesser than 2) that they are saving nothing lesser than 3) to save nothing less than 4) that they save nothing less than Bacon believes that the medical profession should be permitted to ease and quicken death where the end would otherwise only delay for a few days and at the cost of great pain. 1) be delayed for a few days 2) be delayed for a few days and

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

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3) be otherwise only delayed for a few days and 4) otherwise only delay for a few days and 60. His mother made great sacrifices to educate him, moving house on three occasions, and severing the thread on her loom's shuttle whenever Mencuis neglected his lessons to make him understand the need to persevere. 1) severing the threat on her loom's shuttle whenever Mencuis neglected his lessons to make him understand the need to persevere. 2) severed the thread on her loom's shuttle whenever Mencuis neglected his lessons to make him understand the need to persevere. 3) severed the thread on her loom's shuttle whenever Menscuis neglected his lessons to make him understand the need for persevering. 4) severing the thread of her loom's shuttle whenever Menicus neglects his lessons, to make them understand the need to perservering.

Directions for Questions 61 - 65: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow: In an essay on the chronology of his first wife's poem The Art of Sylvia Plath, Ted Hughes says: "It's my suspicion that no poem can be a poem that is not a statement from the powers in control of our life, the ultimate suffering and decision is us. It seems to me that this is poetry's only real distinction from the literary forms that we call "not poetry". The emphasis on suffering is characteristic of a poet who seems convinced that the first creative artist, God, made a ghastly mess of things when he created a world in which the powers of darkness had an immediate and unfair advantage over the powers of light. Poetry, for Hughes, is not song but ringing statement, and his development as a writer has been a movement away from a poetry of observation to a poetry of potent statement and unanswerable narrative power. Perhaps, like his roosting hawk, Hughes always knew what he was looking for but, being all-too-human, could not go 'direct / through the bones of the living' ('Hawk Roosting'). 61. The first underlined word cannot be replaced by 1) misgiving 2) belief 3) conviction The passage suggests that Hughes was in the beginning 1) a narrative poet 2) an observant poet 3) a potent poet The second underlined word is best replaced by 1) unquestionable 2) mysterious 3) irresponsible

4) both 2) & 3)

62.

4) none of these

63.

4) irrespressive

64.

Hughes' roosting hawk is his own persona. This is, from the author's point of view 1) partly true 2) true 3) untrue 4) unverifiable Hughes' persona differs from that of the hawk in that the latter is 1) ruthless 2) an animal 3) incapable of speech 4) guileless

65.

Directions for questions 66 to 78: Arrange the sentences A, B, C and D from a logical sequence between sentences 1 and 6. 66. 1. What does the state do in a country where tax morality is very low? A. It tries to spy upon the taxpayers. B. It investigates income sources and spending patterns. C. Exactly what the tax authority tries to do now even if inconsistently.

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D. It could also encourage people to denounce to the tax authorities any conspicuously prosperous neighbours who may be suspected of not paying their taxes properly. 6. The ultimate solution would be an Orwellian System. 1) BACD 2) DBAC 3) ABCD 4) DCBA 67 1. The fragile Yugoslav State has uncertain future. A. Thus, there will surely be chaos and uncertainly if the people fail to settle their differences. B. Sharp ideological differences already exist in the country. C. Ethnic, regional, linguistic and material disparities are profound. D. The country will also lose the excellent reputation it enjoyed in the international arena. 6. At worst, it will once more become vulnerable to international conspiracy and intrigue. 1) BCAD 2) ADCB 3) ACBD 4) DBCA 1. Indias experience of industrialisation is characteristic of the difficulties faced by a newly-independent developing country. A. In 1947, India was undoubtedly an under-developed country with one of the lowest per capita incomes in the world. B. Indian industrialisation was the result of a conscious deliberate policy of growth by an indigenous political elite. C. Today India ranks fifth in the international comity of nations if measured in terms of purchasing power. D. Even today however, the benefits of Indian industrialisation since independence have not reached the masses. 6. In India has been a limited success; one more example of growth without development. 1) CDAB 2) DCBA 3) CABD 4) BACD 1. The New Economic Policy comprises the various policy measures and changes introduced since July 1991. A. There is a common thread running through all these measures. B. The objective is simple - to improve the efficiency of the system. C. The regulator mechanism involving multitude of controls has fragmented the capacity and reduced competition even in the private sector. D. The thrust of the new policy is towards creating a more competitive environment as a means to improving the productivity and efficiency of the economy. 6. This is to be achieved by removing the barriers and restriction on the entry and growth of firms. 1) DCAB 2) ABCD 3) BDAC 4) CDBA 1. It is significant that one of the most common objections to competition is that it is blind. A. This is important because in a system of free enterprise based on private property chances are not equal and there is indeed a strong case for reducing that inequality of opportunity. B. Rather it is a choice between a system where it is the will of a few persons that decides who is to get what and one where it depends at least partly, on the ability and the enterprise of the people concerned. C. Although competition and justice may have little else in common, it is as much a commendation of competition as of justice that it is no respecter of persons.

68.

69.

70.

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D. The choice today is not between a system in which everybody will get what he deserves according to some universal standard and one where individual shares are determined by chance or goodwill. 6. The fact that opportunities open to the poor in a competitive society are much more restricted than those open to the rich, does not make it less true that in such a society the poor are more free than a person commanding much greater material comfort in a different type of society. 1) CDBA 2) DCBA 3) ABCD 4) BADC 71. 1. The necessity for regional integration in South Asia is underlined by the very history of the last 45 years since the liquidation of the British Empire in this part of the world. A. After the partition of the Indian Subcontinent, Pakistan was formed in that very area which the imperial powers had always marked out as the potential base for operations against the Russian power in Central Asia. B. Because of the disunity and ill-will among the South Asian neighbours, particular India and Pakistan, the great powers from outside the area could meddle into their affairs and thereby keep neighbours apart. C. It needs to be added that it was the bountiful supply of sophisticated arms that emboldened Pakistan to go for warlike bellicosity towards India. D. As a part of the cold war strategy of the US, Pakistan was sucked into Washingtons military alliance spreading over the years. 6. Internally too, it was the massive induction of American arms into Pakistan which empowered the military junta of that country to stuff out the civilian government and destroy democracy in Pakistan. 1) ACBD 2) ABDC 3) CBAD 4) DCAB 1. Commercial energy consumption shows an increasing trend and poses a major challenge for the future. A. The demand, for petroleum, during 1996-97 and 2006-07 is anticipated to be 81 million tonnes and 125 million tonnes respectively. B. According to the projections of the 14th Power Survey Committee Report, the electricity generation requirements from utilities will be about 415 billion units by 199697 and 824 billion units by 2006-07. C. The production of coal should reach 303 million tonnes by 1996-97 to achieve Plan targets and 460 million tonnes by 2006-07. D. The demand for petroleum products has already outstripped indigenous production. 6. Electricity is going to play a major role in the development of infrastructural facilities. 1) DACB 2) CADB 3) BADC 4) ABCD 1. The success of any unit in a competitive environment depends on prudent management sources. A. In this context it would have been more appropriate if the concept of accelerated depreciation, together with additional incentives towards capital allowances for recouping a portion of the cost of replacements out of the current generations, had been accepted. B. Added to this are the negligible retention of profits because of inadequate capital allowances and artificial disallowances of genuine outflows. C. One significant cause for poor generation of surpluses is the high cost of capital and its servicing cost. D. The lack of a mechanism in Indian tax laws for quick recovery of capital costs has not received its due attention.

72.

73.

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6. While this may apparently look costly from the point of view of the exchequer, the ultimate cost to the government and the community in the form of losses suffered through poor viability will be prohibitive. 1) ADBC 2) BCDA 3) CBDA 4) DBAC 74. 1. Count Rumford is perhaps best known for his observations on the nature of heat. A. He undertook several experiments in order to test the theories of the origin of frictional heat. B. According to the calorists, the heat was produced by the caloric squeezed out of the chips in the process of separating them from the larger pieces of metal. C. Lavoisier had introduced the term caloric for the weightless substance heat, and had included it among the chemical elements, along with carbon, nitrogen and oxygen. D. In the munitions factory in Munich, Rumford noticed that a considerable degree of heat developed in a brass gun while it was being bored. 6. Rumford could not believe that the amount of heat generated could have come from the small amount of dust created. 1) ABCD 2) CBDA 3) ADCB 4) CDAB 1. The death of cinema has been predicted annually. A. It hasnt happened. B. It was said that the television would kill it off- and indeed audiences plummeted, reaching a low in 1984. C. Film has enjoyed a renaissance, and audiences are now roughly double of what they were a decade ago. D. Then the home computer became the projected nemesis, followed by satellite television. 6. Why? Probably because, even in the most atomised of societies, we human beings feel the need to share out fantasies and our excitement. 1) CADB 2) BDAC 3) ABDC 4) DABC

75.

76.

1. The idea of sea-floor spreading preceded the theory of plate tectonics. A. The hypothesis was soon substantiated by the discovery that periodic reversals of the earths magnetic field are recorded in the oceanic crust. B. In its original version, it described the creation and destruction of the ocean floor, but it did not specify rigid lithospheric plates. C. An explanation of this process devised by F.J. Vine and D.H. Matthews of Princeton is now generally accepted. D. The sea-floor spreading hypothesis was formulated chiefly by Harry H. Hess of Princeton University in the early 1960ss 6. As magma rises under the mid-ocean ridge, ferromagnetic minerals in the magma become magnetised in the direction of the geomagnetic field. 1) DCBA 2) ABDC 3) CBDA 4) DBAC 1. Visual recognition involves storing and retrieving of memories. A. Psychologists of the Gestalt school maintain that objects are recognised as a whole in a parallel procedure. B. Neural activity, triggered by the eye, forms an image in the brains memory system that constitutes an internal representation of the viewed object. C. Controversy surrounds the question of whether recognition is a single one-step procedure or a serial step-by-step one.

77.

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D. When an object is encountered again, it is matched with its internal recognition and thereby recognised. 6. The internal representation is matched with the retinal image in a single operation. 1) DBAC 2) DCAB 3) BDCA 4) CABD 78. 1. The history of mammals dates back at least to Triassic time. A. Miocene and Pliocene time was marked by culmination of several groups and continued approach towards modern characters. B. Development was retarded, however, until the sudden acceleration of evolutional change that occurred in the oldest Paleocene. C. In the Oligocene Epoch, there was further improvement, with appearance of some new lines and extinction of theories. D. This led in Eocene time to increase in average size, larger mental capacity, and special adaptations for different modes of life. 6. The peak of the career of mammals in variety and average large size was attained in this epoch. 1) BDCA 2) ACDB 3) BCDA 4) ACBD

Directions for questions 79 to 82: Read the text and the statements carefully and answer the questions. Four people of different nationalities live on the same side of a street in four houses each of different colour. Each person has a different favourite drink. The following additional information is also known: The Englishman lives in the red house. The Italian drinks tea. The Norwegian lives in the first house on the left. In the second house from the right they drink milk. The Norwegian lives adjacent to the blue house. The Spaniard drinks fruits juice. Tea is drunk in the blue house. The white house is to the right of the red house. 79. Milk is drunk by 1) Norwegian 2) Englishman The Norwegian drinks 1) milk 2) cocoa 3) Italian 4) None of the above.

80.

3) tea

4) fruit juice.

81.

The colour of the Norwegians house is 1) yellow 2) white 3) blue Which of the following is not true? 1) Milk is drunk in the red house. 3) The Spaniard lives in a corner house.

4) red

82.

2) Italian lives in the blue house. 4) The Italian lives next to the Spaniard

Directions for Questions 83 to 86: Refer to the following information and answer the questions that follow: Kya-Kya is an island in the South Pacific. The inhabitants of Kya-Kya always answer any question with two sentences, one of which is always true and the other always false.

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83.

You are walking on a road and come to a fork. You ask the inhabitants Ram, Laxman and Lila, Which road will take me to the village? Ram says, I never speak to strangers, I am new to these parts. Laxman says, I am married to Lila. Take the left road. Lila says, I am married to Ram. He is not new to this place. Which of the following is true? 1) Left road takes you to the village. 3) Lila is married to Laxman.

2) Right road takes you to the village. 4) None of these

84.

You find that your boat is stolen. You question three inhabitants of the island and they reply as follows: John says, I didnt do it. Mathew didnt do it. Mathew says, I didnt do it. Krishna didnt do it. Krishna says. I didnt do it. I Dont know who did it. Who stole your boat? 1) John 2) Matthew 3) Krishna 4) None of them You want to speak to the chief of the village. You question three inhabitants, Amar, Bobby and Charles. Only Bobby is wearing a red shirt. Amar says, I am not Bobbys son. The chief wears a red shirt. Bobby says, I am Amars father, Charles is the chief. Charles says, The chief is one among us. I am the chief. Who is the chief? 1) Amar 2) Bobby 3) Charles 4) None of these

85.

End of Section 1

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Section II Questions: 86-160

Directions: Choose the best alternative:

The number of integer solutions of the equation 3x + 6y = 13 is (a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 these

(d) none of

87.

A box contains 6 red balls, 7 green balls and 5 blue balls. Each ball is of a different size. The probability that the red ball selected is the smallest red ball, is a) 1/18 b) 1/3 c) 1/6 d) 2/3 The line AB is 6 meters in length and is tangent to the inner one of the two concentric circles at point C. It is known that the radii of the two circles are integers. The radius of the outer circle is: A C B

88.

a) 5 metres

b) 4 metres

c) 6 metres

d) 3 metres

Directions for Questions 89 to 90: use the following information: ABC forms an equilateral triangle is which B is 2 km from A. A person starts walking from B in a direction parallel to AC and stops when he reaches a point D directly east of C. He, then, reverses direction and walks till he reaches a point E directly south of C. 89. Then D is a) 3 km east and 1 km north of A c) 3 km east and 1 km south of A The total distance walked by the person is a) 3 km b) 4 km b) 3 km east and 3 km north of A d) 3 km west and 3 km north of A c) 23 km

90.

d) 6 km

Directions for Questions 91 to 93, choose the best alternative: 91. Two oranges, three bananas and four apples cost Rs. 15. Three oranges, two bananas and one apple cost Rs. 10. I brought 3 oranges, 3 bananas and 3 apples. How much did I pay? a) Rs 10 b) Rs. 8 c) Rs. 15 d) cannot be determined Four cities are connected by a road network as shown in the figure. In how many ways can you start from any city and come back to it without travelling on the same road more than once?

92.

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a) 8 93.

b) 12

c) 16

d) 20

Out of 100 families in the neighbourhood, 45 own radios, 75 have TVs, 25 have VCRs. Only 10 families have all three and each VCR owner also has a TV. If 25 families have radio only, how many have only TV? a) 30 b) 35 c) 40 d) 45

Directions for Questions 94 to 100: Each item has a question followed by two statements. As the answer, Mark a, if the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone, Mark b, if the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone, Mark c, if both, statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question, and Mark d, if the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements. 94. Given that X and Y are non-negative. What is the value of X? I. 2X + 2Y 40 II. X - 2Y 20 What are the values of 3 integers a, b, and c? I. ab = 8 II. bc = 9 Is the average of the largest and the smallest of four given numbers greater than the average of the four numbers? I. The difference between the largest and the second largest number is greater than the difference between the second smallest and the smallest numbers. II. The difference between the largest and the second largest numbers is less than the difference between the second largest and the second smallest number. What are the ages of the three brothers? I. The product of their ages is 21. II. The sum of their ages is not divisible by 3. Two types of widgets, namely type B, are produced on a machine. The number of machine hours available per week is 80. How many widgets of type A must be produced? I. One unit of type A widget requires 2 machine hours and one unit of type B widget requires 4 machine hours. II. The widget dealer wants supply of at least 10 units of type A widget per week and he would not accept less than 15 units of type B widget. What is the area of a regular hexagon? I. The length of the boundary line of the hexagon is 36 cm. II. The area of the hexagon is 6 times the area of an equilateral triangle formed on one of the sides. What is the price of mangoes per kg? I. Ten kg of mangoes and two dozens of oranges cost Rs. 252. II. Two kg of mangoes could be bought in exchange for one dozen oranges.

95.

96.

97.

98.

99.

100.

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Directions for Questions 101 and 102, use the following information: Eighty-five children went to an amusement park where they could ride on the merry-go-round, roller coaster and Ferris wheel. It was known that 20 of them took all three rides, and 55 of them took at least two of the three rides. Each ride cost Re 1, and the total receipts of the amusement park was Rs 145. 101. How many children did not try any of the rides? a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 20 How many children took exactly one ride? a) 5 b) 10 c) 15

102.

d) 20

Directions for Questions 103-105: Use the following information. C started to move from point B towards point A exactly an hour after P started from A in the opposite direction. Qs speed was twice that of P. When P had covered one-sixth of the distance between the points A and B, Q had also covered the same distance. 103. The point where P and Q would meet is a) Closer to A b) Exactly between A and B c) Closer to B d) P and Q will not meet at all How many hours would P take to reach B? a) 2 b) 5 c) 6

104.

d) 12

105.

How many more hours would P (compared to Q) take to complete his journey? a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7

Directions QUESTIONS 106 to 108: The following functions have been defined for three numbers A, B and C. @ (A, B) = average of A and B * (A, B) = product of A and B /(A, B) = A divided by B Answer these questions with the above data. 106. If A = 2 and B = 4, the value of @ (/ (* (A, B), B), A) would be: a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 The sum of A and B is given by a) * (@ (A, B), 2) b) /(@((A, B), 2)

d) 16

107. 2) 108.

c) @(* (A, B), 2)

d) @ (/ (A, B),

The sum of A, B and C is given by a) *(@(*(@ (B, A), 2), C), 3) c) /(*(@(*(B, A), C), 3)

b) /(@(*(@(B, A), 3), C), 2) d) None of these

Directions for Questions 109 to 115, select the best option: 109. Amar, Akbar, and Anthony came from the same public school in the Himalayas. Every boy in that school either fishes for trout or plays frisbee. All fishermen like snow while

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no frisbee player likes rain. Amar dislikes whatever Akbar likes and likes whatever Akbar dislikes. Akbar likes rain and snow. Anthony likes whatever the other two like. Who is a fisherman but not a frisbee player? a) Amar b) Akbar c) Anthony d) None 110. John bought five mangoes and ten oranges together for forty rupees. Subsequently, he returned one mango and got two oranges in exchange. The price of an orange would be: a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 A slab of ice 8 inches in length, 11 inches in breadth, and 2 inches thick was melted and resolidified in the form of a rod of 8 inches diameter. The length of such a rod, in inches, is nearest to: a) 3 b) 3.5 c) 4 d) 4.5 The rate of increase of the price of sugar is observed to be two percent more than the inflation rate expressed in percentage. The price of sugar, on January 1, 1994, is Rs. 20 per kg. The inflation rates of the years 1994 and 1995 are expected to be 8% each. The expected price of sugar on January 1, 1996 would be: a) 23.60 b) 24.00 c) 24.20 d) 24.60 A report consists of 20 sheets each of 55 lines and each such line consists of 65 characters. This report is retyped onto sheets each of 65 lines such that each line consists of 70 characters. The percentage reduction in number of sheets is closest to: a) 20 b) 5 c) 30 d) 35 Let x < 0, 0 < y < 1, z > 1. Which of the following may be false? a) (x2 - z2) has to be positive b) yz can be less than one c) xy can never be zero d) (y2 - z2) is always negative. Let x < 0.50, 0 < y < 1, z > 1. Given a set of numbers; the middle number, when they are arranged in ascending order, is called the median. So the median of the numbers x, y, and z would be: a) less than one b) between 0 and 1 c) greater than one d) cannot say The number of positive integers not greater than 100, which are not divisible by 2, 3 or 5 a) 26 117. b) 18 c) 31 d) None

111.

112.

113.

114.

115.

116. is:

The smallest number which, when divided by 4, 6 or 7 leaves a remainder of 2, is a) 44 b) 62 c) 80 d) 86 An intelligence agency decides on a code of 2 digits selected from 0, 1, 2, 9. But the slip on which the code is hand-written allows confusion between top and bottom, because these are indistinguishable. Thus, for example, the code 91 could be confused with 16. How many codes are there such that there is no possibility of any confusion? a) 25 b) 75 c) 80 d) None The maximum possible value of y = min (1/2 - 3x2/4, 5x/4) for the range 0 < x < 1 is: a) 1/3 b) c) 5/27 d) 5/16

118.

119.

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120.

Suppose one wishes to find distinct positive integers x, y such that (x + y)/xy is also a positive integer. Identify the correct alternative. a) This is never possible. b) This is possible and the pair (x, y) satisfying the stated condition is unique. c) This is possible and there exist more than one but a finite number of ways of choosing the pair (x, y). d) This is possible and the pair (x, y) can be chosen in infinite ways. Let un+1 = 2un+1 (n = 0, 1, 2, ) and u0 = 0. Then u10 would be nearest to: a) 1023 b) 2047 c) 4095 d) 8195 Let x; y and z be distinct positive integers satisfying x < y < z and x + y + z = k. What is the smallest value of k that does not determine x, y, z uniquely? a) 9 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8 Given odd positive integers x, y and z which of the following is not necessarily true? a) x y z is odd b) 3(x + y3)z is even 4 c) 5x + y + z is odd d) z (x4 + y4)/2 is even A young girl counted in the following way on the fingers of her left hand. She started calling the thumb 1, the index finger 2, middle finger 3, ring finger 4, little finger 5, then reversed direction, calling the ring finger 6, middle finger 7, index finger 8, thumb 9 and then back to the index finger for 10, middle finger for 11, and so on. She counted up to 1994. She ended on her: a) thumb b) index finger c) middle finger d) ring finger 139 persons have signed for an elimination tournament. All players are to be paired up for the first round, but because 139 is an odd number one player gets a bye, which promotes him to the second round, without actually playing in the first round. The pairing continues on the next round, with a bye to any player left over. If the schedule is planned so that a minimum number of matches is required to determine the champion, the number of matches which must be played is: a) 136 b) 137 c) 138 d) 139

121.

122.

123.

124.

125.

Directions for questions 126 to 127: A function f(x) is said to be even if f(-x) = f(x), and odd if f(-x) = - f(x). Thus, for example, the function given by f(x) = x is even, while the function given by f(x) = x3 is odd. Using this definition, answer the following questions. 126. The function given by f(x) = | x |3 is a) even b) odd The sum of two odd functions: a) is always an even function c) is sometimes odd and sometimes even

c) neither

d) both

127.

b) is always an odd function d) may be neither odd nor even

Directions for Questions 128 to 136 select the most appropriate alternative: 128. end: The product of all integers from 1 to 100 will have the following numbers of zeros at the a) 20 b) 24 c) 19 d) 22

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129.

There are ten 50 paise coins placed on a table. Six of these show tails and four show heads. A coin is chosen at random and flipped over (not tossed). This operation is performed seven times. One of the coins is then covered. Of the remaining nine coins, five show tails and four show heads. The covered coin shows: a) a head b) a tail c) more likely a head d) more likely a tail A group of workers was put on a job. From the second day onwards, one worker was withdrawn each day. The job was finished when the last worker was withdrawn. Had no worker been withdrawn at any stage, the group would have finished the job in two-thirds the time. How many workers were there in the group? a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 10 A five-digit number is formed using digits 1, 3, 5, 7 and 9 without repeating any one of them. What is the sum of all such possible numbers? a) 6666600 b) 6666660 c) 6666666 d) None of these The diameter of a hollow cone is equal to the diameter of a spherical ball. If the ball is placed at the base of the cone, what portion of the ball will be outside the cone? a) 50% b) less than 50% c) more than 50% d)

130.

131.

132.

100% 133. From each of two given numbers, half the smaller number is subtracted. Of the resulting numbers the larger one is three times as large as the smaller. What is the ratio of the two numbers? a) 2 : 1 b) 3 : 1 c) 3 : 2 d) None A ship leaves on a long voyage. When it is 18 miles from the shore, a seaplane, whose speed is ten times that of the ship, is sent to deliver mail. How far from the shore does the seaplane catch up with the ship? a) 24 miles b) 25 miles c) 22 miles d) 20 miles Consider the five points comprising the vertices of a square and the intersection point of its diagonals. How many triangles can be formed using these points? a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 10 Three identical cones with base radius r are placed on their bases so that each is touching the other two. The radius of the circle drawn through their vertices is: a) smaller than r b) equal to r c) larger than r d) depends on the height of the

134.

135.

136.

cones Directions for questions 137 to 139: Study the graph below and answer the questions that follow.
EQUITY 140 120 100 80 60 40 20 The Princeton Review Cat Sample Paper 0 1990 1991 1992 1993 EXPENDITURE SALES

25

Profit is defined as Sales - Expenditure. All figures in Rs crore 137. In which year is the profit per rupee of equity the highest? a) 1991 b) 1992 c) 1993 In which year is sales per rupee of equity the highest? a) 1990 b) 1991 c) 1992

d) 1990 and 91

138.

d) 1994

139.

The simple annual growth rate in sales was the highest between the years? a) 1990-91 b) 1991-92 c) 1992-93 d) 1990-92

Directions: Questions 140 to 143 are based on the following information: Ghosh Babu has recently acquired four companies namely Arc-Net Technologies (ANT), Babu Anta Transport (BAT), Charles Anter Tailors (CAT) and Daud Akba Transisitor (DAT). When the results of the companies for the year 1992-93 were placed before him, he found a few interesting things about them. While the profits of CAT and DAT were the same, the sales of CAT were the same as those of BAT. Profits of ANT were 10% of its sales, where as the profits of BAT were 20% of its sales. While the total expenses of CAT were 5 times its profits, sales of DAT were 3 times its profits. The total expenses of CAT were Rs 10 lakhs. Profits are defined as the difference between sales and total expenses. 140. Which company had the lowest sales? a) ANT b) BAT 141. Which company had the highest profits? a) ANT b) BAT 142. Which company had the highest total expenses? a) ANT b) BAT 143. Which company had the lowest profits? a) ANT b) BAT

c) CAT

d) DAT

c) CAT

d) DAT

c) CAT

d) DAT

c) CAT

d) DAT

Directions for questions 144 to 147: Study the graph below and answer the questions. Assets are defined as Net Fixed Assets + Net Current Assets + Investments

10

20

30

144. What is the approximate simple annual growth rate of Total Assets between 1990 and 1993?

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a) 36%

b) 12%

c) 9%

d) 27%

145. In any two consecutive years, the growth rate is lowest for a) Net Fixed Assets b) Net Current Assets c) Investments d) Total Assets 146. The only item which has shown positive growth in every year between 1990 and 1993 is a) Net Fixed Assets b) Net Current Assets c) Investments d) Total Assets 147. Between 1991 and 1992, the highest growth rate was seen for a) Net Fixed Assets b) Net Current Assets c) Investments d) Total Assets Directions: For questions 148 to 151, use the following information: Swetha, Swarna, Sneha and Soumya are four sisters who have an agreement that they share all snacks among themselves. One day, uncle Prem gave a box of cookies to Swetha. Since the other sisters were not around, Swetha divided the cookies into four parts, ate her share and put the rest into the box. As she was closing the box, Swarna came in. She took all the cookies from the box and divided them into four equal parts. Swetha and Swarna ate one part each and put the rest in the box. Just then, Sneha walked in. She took all the cookies from the box, divided them into four equal parts. The three of them ate their respective shares and put the rest into the box. Later, when Soumya came, she divided all the cookies into four equal parts and all the four sisters ate their respective shares. In total, Soumya ate 3 cookies. 148. How many cookies, in total, did Sneha eat? a) 30 b) 12 c) 15 149. How many cookies, in total, did Swarna eat? a) 9 b) 30 c) 39 150. How many cookies, in total, did Swetha eat? a) 32 b) 142 c) 72

d) 6

d) 78

d) 71

151. How many cookies did uncle Prem give to Swetha? a) 128 b) 156 c) 256 d) 192 Directions: QUESTIONS. 152 to 156 are based on the following information: A professor keeps data on students tabulated by performance and sex of the student. The data is kept on a computer disk, but unfortunately some of it is lost because of a virus. Only the following could be recovered: Performance Total Average Good Excellent 10 Male 32 Female 30 Total Panic buttons were pressed but to no avail. An expert committee was formed, which decided that the following facts were self-evident: Half the students were either excellent or good. 40% of the students were females. One third of the male students were average. 152. How many students are both female and excellent? a) 0 b) 8 c) 16 d) 32

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153. What proportion of good students are male? a) 0 b) 0.73 c) 0.4 154. What proportion of female students are good? a) 0 b) 0.25 c) 0.5 155. How many students are both male and good? a) 10 b) 16 c) 22

d) 1.0

d) 1.0

d) 48

156. Among average students, what is the ratio of male to female? a) 1 : 2 b) 2: 1 c) 3 : 2 d) 2 : 3 Directions for questions 157 to 160: Given below are the forecasts of the World and Asian energy demand for the years 1990, 2000 and 2010 AD. The demand is given in million barrels per day, crude oil equivalent. 1990 2000 2010 World Asia World Asia World Asia Petroleum 50.0 4.0 70.0 10.0 80.0 15.0 Natural Gas 30.0 0.5 40.0 2.5 50.0 5.0 Solid Fuels 50.0 4.0 60.0 5.0 75.0 10.0 Nuclear 10.0 0.5 20.0 1.0 25.0 1.3 Hydropower 10.0 1.0 10.0 1.5 20.0 2.0 Total 150.0 10.0 200.0 20.0 250.0 33.3 157. Which is the fuel whose proportion in the total energy demand will decrease continuously over the period 1990-2010, in Asia? a) Natural Gas b) Solid Fuels c) Nuclear d) Hydropower 158. Which is the fuel whose proportion in the total energy demand of the world will remain constant over the period 1990-2010 but whose proportion will increase in the total energy demand in Asia? a) Solid Fuels b) Nuclear c) Hydropower d) Natural Gas 159. Over 1990-2010, which two fuels meet more than 60 percent of the total energy demand of both World and Asia? a) Petroleum & Natural Gas b) Petroleum & Solid Fuels c) Natural Gas & Solid Fuels d) None of the above 160. Which fuels proportion in the total energy demand increases over the decade 1990-2000 and decreases over the decade 2000-2010 for both the World and Asia? a) Petroleum b) Natural Gas c) Solid Fuels d) Nuclear

End of test

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Answers FLT 11
Section I
1. 4 11. 1 21. 3 31. 4 41. 2 51. 2 61. 1 71. 2 81. 1 Section II 86. 4 96. a 97. d 98. c 107. a 108. a 117. d 118. b 127. b 128. b 137. c 138. b 147. c 148. c 157. d 158. d 2. 1 12. 2 22. 4 32. 3 42. 2 52. 1 62. 2 72. 1 82. 4 3. 2 13. 3 23. 3 33. 4 43. 3 53. 4 63. 4 73. 3 83. 1 4. 4 14. 4 24. 3 34. 3 44. 1 54. 1 64. 3 74. 3 84. 2 5. 1 15. 2 25. 2 35. 1 45. 4 55. 3 65. 1 75. 3 85. 2 6. 2 16. 1 26. 2 36. 2 46. 4 56. 2 66. 1 76. 1 7. 2 17. 2 27. 4 37. 3 47. 1 57. 2 67. 1 77. 4 8. 4 18. 3 28. 2 38. 1 48. 2 58. 4 68. 4 78. 1 9. 3 19. 2 29. 3 39. 4 49. 3 59. 3 69. 2 79. 2 10. 4 20. 4 30. 2 40. 3 50. 3 60. 1 70. 1 80. 2

87. c 99. a 109. b 119. d 129. a 139. c 149. c 159. b

88. a 100. c 110. b 120. a 130. b 140. d 150. d 160. a

89. b 101. c 111. b 121. a 131. a 141. b 151. a

90. d 102. c 112. c 122. d 132. c 142. c 152. a

91. c 103. a 113. a 123. d 133. a 143. a 153. b

92. b 104. d 114. a 124. b 134. d 144. b 154. b

93. c 105. c 115. b 125. c 135. c 145. b 155. c

94. d 106. a 116. a 126. a 136. c 146. c 156. d

95. c

Solutions Maths 86. 23x + 6y must be a multiple of 3 but RHS is not a multiple of 3. Therefore no solution exists. 87. Given that the ball selected is red, since there are 6 red balls, the probability that the ball selected is a particular ball is 1/6. 88. AC = AB/2 = 3m. if the radii of the circles are r1 and r2, r12 + 32 = 422. r2 = 5m. 89. Side of the triangle = 2km. Altitude of triangle = 3 km. 90. Distance of travelled = BD + DB + BE = 6m. 91. 2O + 3b + 4a = 15 & 3O + 2b + a = 10. Adding, 5O + 5b + 5a = 25. 3O + 3b + 3a = 15. 92. Starting from A, the possible roots are, ABDA, ABDCA, ABCA, ABCDA, ACDA, ACBDA, ADBA, ACDBA, ACBA, ADCBA, ADCA, ADBCA. (Last 6 roots are the first 6 reversed) A

D
B C Since all VCR owners have a TV, the number of VCR owners having only TV=(75-35= 40). So the Venn Diagram is constructed as shown. R 25 10 75 10 TV

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15 VCR 94. 2X + 2Y 40. X - 2Y 20 x + 2Y - 20. Subtracting, 3X 60, or X 20. So the value of X cannot be definitely determined. 95. ab = 8 and bc = 9. Dividing a/c = 8/9. Since a and b are both integers, and the fraction has no common factors a = 8 and c = 9. b = 1. 96. If the numbers are a, b, c and d in descending order. The average of all = (a + b + c + d)/4 and the average of the largest and smallest = (a + d)/2. If a - b > c - d, then a + d > b + c. a + d + a + d > a + d + b + c, or dividing both sides by 4, (a + d)/2 > (a + b + c + d)/4. 97. The only three factors possible for 21 are 1, 3 and 7. 1 + 3 + 7 = 11, i.e. it is not divisible by 3. But there is a possibility that two of the brothers are twins aged 1 year each. In this case also, 1 + 1 + 21 = 23, i.e. it is not divisible by 3. So, a unique answer cannot be obtained. 98. 10 units of type A require 20 hours, and 15 units of type B require 60 hours. So all the 80 hours are consumed in the minimum production itself, and that is the only production that can be done. 99. If the perimeter of the hexagon is 36, its side is 6, and the area can be found. 100. 2 dozen oranges are equivalent to 4 kg mangoes, hence 14 kg mangoes cost Rs. 252. 101. c 102. c 103-105 Let the distance between A and B be x and let the speed of P be s. So Qs speed is 2s. To travel a distance x/6, P takes x/6s hours and Q takes x/6(2s) = x/12s hours. Since P has started an hour earlier than Q, x/12s + 1= x/12. When Q starts, the distance between them is x - (x/12) = 11x/12, and their speeds are in the ratio 2: 1. The point where they meet will be (2/3)(11x/12 = 11x/18 from B, i.e. it will be closer to A. (Q. 104) P takes 12 hours to travels distance x at a speed x/12 (Q. 105), and Q at twice the speed takes 6 hours. Q takes (12 - 6) = 6 hours more. 106. Solve by substitution. The values of the brackets from the innermost to the outmost are 8, 2, 2. 107. A + B = 2[(A + B)/2] = 2[@ (A, B)] = *[@(A, B), 2] 108. Sum of A, B, C =3{[2((A + B)/2} + C] /3} = *(@(*(@(B, A), 2), C), 3). Check the alternatives and go backwards. Since Akbar likes rain and snow, he is a fisherman and not a frisbee player (given that all fishermen like snow, while no frisbee player likes rain). 110. 5 mangoes are equivalent to 10 oranges. So 20 oranges cost Rs. 40 or 1 costs Rs. 2. 111. Volume = 8 11 2 =>L= (8 11 2)/ 82 L = 3.5 112. The rate of price increase of sugar is 10%. If the price is Rs. 20 in 1994, it will be Rs. 22 in 1995 and Rs. 24.20 in 1996. Since the volume of matter is constant, if the number of new pages is n, 20 55 65 = n 65 70, or n = 16. So % reduction = ((20 - 16)/20)* 100 = 20% 114. If - 1 < x < 0, then x2 < z2, x2 - z2 would be negative 115. Depending or whether y is > or < 0.5, either x or y would be the median. In either case, median lies between 0 and 1. 116. Draw a Venn diagram with circles named. II 16 III II: the number of integers from 0 to 100 divisible by 2, 50 3 33 III: the number of integers from 0 to 100 divisible by 3, and V: the number of integers from 0 to 100 divisible by 5, V 109.

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Where the overlap portions are the numbers divisible by both 20 2 & 3, 3 & 5, etc. (i.e. by 6, 10, 15 and 30). The total number of integers not divisible by 2,3 or 5 is then 100-[{(50+33+20)-16-10-6}+3]=26. 117. Required number = LCM (4, 6, 7) + 2 = 86. The total number of numbers that can be formed is 10 10 = 100. Of the 10 digits, those which may cause confusion (as mentioned in the problem) are 1, 6, 8,9 and 0. From these 5 digits, two digit numbers may be formed in 5P2 = 25 ways (i.e. with repetition). So (100 - 25) = 75 numbers cannot be confused. 119. As x changes from 0 to 1, as long as x is less than , (1/2 - 3x2/4) is greater than 5x2/4 and is the value of y. As x becomes greater than , 5x2/4 and (1/2 - 3x2/4) are equal to 5/16 and that is the maximum value of y. 120. 1 + 2/(1 2) = 3/2. For all other such pairs, where 1 is not one of the numbers, x + y is always less than xy. So (x + y)/xy is always less than 1 and cannot be an integer. Start finding the values from U1. It will be seen that in general, the term Un is equal to (2n - 1). 122. If x + y + z = 8, (x, y, z) could be (1, 2, 5) or (1, 3, 4) 123. If x, y, z are odd, x4 + y4 will be even, with only one factor of 2. So (x4 + y4)/2 is odd, and 2 z is odd. So their product is odd. 124. The girl counts till 8 before starting with the thumb again at 9. So she will reach the thumb again at 17, 25 and so on after every 8 counts. Remainder when 1994 is divided by 8 is 2. So she will be at the index finger at 1994. 125. All the 139 people except the champion lose one match. So 138 matches are played. 126. f(x) = |x|3 f(- x) = |-x|3 = |x|3 = f(x) So the function is even. 127. Let h(x) + g(x) where f and g are odd h(- x) = g(- x) = - f(x) - g(x) = - h(x). So h is odd. 128. In the product of all numbers from 1 to 100, there are 50 numbers divisible by 2 and 20 numbers divisible by 5. Every combination of a multiple of 5 and a multiple of 2 will give one zero. Besides this, there are 4 numbers divisible by (5 = ) 25. There 3 numbers when combined with any 3 multiples of (2 =) 4, will give use 4 additional zeroes. So there will be 20 + 4 = 24 zeroes in the product. 129. Assume that one coin, say the one showing a tail, is flipped 7 times instead of 7 different coins. Then it would show a head, and there should be 5 heads and 5 tails. If by covering a coin, there are 5 tails and 4 heads to be seen, then the covered coin is a head. (Verify that this argument holds even if 7 different coins are flipped.) 130. Let there be n workers to start with. Since 1 worker is withdrawn each day, the job is completed in n days (not n + 1 days as the job is over when the nth worker is withdrawn). Without withdrawing workers, they complete the job in 2n/3 days. So in a day, a worker completes (3/2n of the job on the second day, and so on. 3/2n(n + (n - 2) + + 2 + 1) = (3/2n)(n)(n + 1) /2 = 3(n + 1)/4n = 1. n = 3. (It is easier to work backwards from the alternatives). 131. Keep any 1 digit is a fixed position. For this position, the other four can now be arranged in 4! = 24 ways. Thus, each of the 5 digits will occur in each of the five places 4! = 24 times. So the sum of digits in each position is 24(1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9) = 600. So the sum of all numbers = 600(1 + 10 + 100 + 100 + 10,000) = 66666600. 132. The diameters of the cone and the ball may be equal, but the cone will not go down upto the diameter of the ball due to its slant sides. (only in a cylinder will the ball be able to go upto its diameter). So, more than 50% of the sphere will be outside the cone. 133. If a < b, b - a/2 = 3(a - a/2). b/a = 2/1.

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134. If the speed of the ship is s mph, that of the plane is 10s mph. So the relative speed is 9s. Since the ship is 18 miles, from the shore, the plane takes 18/9s = 2/s hours. To catch up with the ship. In this time, the ship travels (2/2)(2) = 2 miles, and is 2/s hours. To catch up with the ship. In this time, the ship travels (2/s)(s) = 2 miles, and is 20 miles from the shore. 135. To form a triangle, 3 points out of 5 can be chosen in 5C3 = 10 ways. But of these, the three points lying on the 2 diagonals will be collinear. So 10 - 2 = 8 triangles can be formed. 136. The centres of the bases of the cones form a triangle of side 2r. The circumcircle of the circle will be identical to a circle drawn through the vertices of the cones, and thus it will have a radius of (2/3) times r, which is greater than r. Section - 4 137-139. Year Sales Expenditure Profit Equity 1990 80 76 04 10 1991 92 86 06 10 1992 106 97 09 25 1993 128 114 14 25

137. From the graph it can be seen that profit per rupee of equity will be highest either in 1991 or 1993. In 1991 profit per rupee of equity = 6/10 = Rs. 0.60 and in 1993 profit per rupee of equity = 14/25 = Rs. 0.56. Hence (a) is the correct answer. 138. From the tables sales per rupee of equity will be highest for 1991 i.e. 1991 i.e. 92/10 = Rs. 9.20. Simple annual growth rate is sales for corresponding years as shown in 1990-91 it is (92- 80) /80 = 3/20, in 1991 - 92it is (106 - 92)/92 = 7/46, in 1992-93 it is (128 - 106)/106 = 11/53. Comparing the fractional values 3/20, 7/46 & 11/53 we get 11/53 is correct answer. 140-143: Plot the values of Sales, Expenditure & Profit of the four companies in a table as per the conditions given. In the table S1, E1 & P1 represent sales, expenditure & profit for ANT and so on. COMPANY SALES EXPENDITURE PROFIT ANT S1 = 10 E1 = 9(E3)/10 = 9 P1 = (S1)/10 =1 BAT S2 = S3 = 12 E2 = (12 - 2.4 = P2 = 12/5 = 2.4 9.6 CAT S3 = 10 + 2 = E3 = 10 P3 = 10/5 = 2 12 DAT S4 = 3(P4) = 6 E4 = 2(P4) = 4 P4 = P3 = P3 = 2 (All values are in Rs. Lakhs) 140. DAT had lowest sales i.e. only s. 6 lakhs, hence (d) is the correct answer. 141. BAT had highest profits i.e. Rs. 2.4 lakhs, hence (b) is the correct answer. 142. BAT had highest total expenses i.e. Rs. 10 lakh, hence (c) is the correct answer. 143. ANT lowest profit i.e. Rs. 1 lakhs, hence (a) is the correct answer. 144-147: 144. Simple annual growth rate of total assets between 1990-93 = (30 - 22) 100/(22 3) = 12% 145. In any two consecutive years growth rate is lowest for Net Current Assets as it can be seen form the graph as between 1991-92 its value is decreasing i.e. growth rate is negative.

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146. Investments have shown positive growth every year from 1990 to 1993, hence the correct answer is (c). 147. Again from the graph investment in 1992 are more than double of that in 1991 i.e. growth rate is more than 100% & hence (c) is the correct answer. 148-151:This caselet can be solved forming equations as per the given conditions & then solving those equations, but in order to save time we should more from the actual value given upwards. Soumya ate three cookies, so total cookies left when Soumya came = 4 3 = 123. Similarly, when Sneha came total cookies present = 12 4 = 48. Total cookies present when Swarna came = 48 2 = 96. Total number cookies received by Swetha i.e. total number of cookies given by Uncle Prem = (4/3) 96 = 128. 148. Total cookies obtained by Sneha = (48/4) + (12/4) = (12 + 3) = 15. 149. Total cookies obtained by Swarna = (96/4) + (48/4) + (12/4) = (24 + 12 + 3) = 39. 150. Total cookies obtained by Swetha = (128 + 96 + 48 + 12)/4 = 71 151. Total number of cookies given by Uncle Prem = 128. 152-156: Fill the given table completely as per the given conditions. Total number of students = (5 32)/2 = 80 & total number of male students = 80 - 32 = 48 Similarly other values can be obtained with the help of information given. PERFORMANCE TOTAL AVERAGE GOOD EXCELLENT MALE 16 33 10 48 FEMALE 24 8 0 3282 TOTAL 19 30 10 152. 153. 154. 155. 156. None of the female students was excellent, hence (a) is the correct answer. Proportion of good students who are male = (22/30) = 0.73. Proportion of female students who are good (8/32) = 0.25. Number of good students who are male = (48 - 16 - 10) = 22 Ratio of male of female among average students = 16 : 24 = 2 : 3

157-160: 157. In Asia, over the given period, the proportion of hydropower decreases continuously. The corresponding values are (1/10) = 10%, (1.5/20) = 1.5/20) = 7.5% &(2/33.3) = 6%. 158. Over the given period, the ratio of demand for natural gas to total energy demand in the world remains constant and the corresponding values are (30/150) = (40/200) = (50/520) = (1/5) = 20%. But it proportion increases in total energy demand in Asia and the corresponding values are (0.5/10) = 5%, (2.5/20) = 7.5% & (5/33.33) = 15%. 159. This question can be answered in minimum time by option elimination method. (b) satisfies the given condition in all the cases & it is the correct answer. 160. Again this question should be answered by option elimination method. (a) satisfies all the conditions & so it is the correct answer.

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