THE FEDERAL BANK LTD.

RECRUITMENT OF PROBATIONARY OFFICERS

INFORMATION HANDOUT
INTRODUCTION
This booklet contains details pertaining to various aspects of the examination you are going to
undertake and important instructions about related matters. A computerised machine will do the
assessment of the answersheet; hence you should carefully read instructions regarding handling of
the answersheet and the method of marking answers. You are advised to study this booklet carefully
as it will help you in preparing yourself for the examination.

Please note that this is a competitive examination, mere passing is not adequate. You have to
obtain a high rank in the order of merit. You should therefore put in your best effort in the examination.

THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION

The written examination will comprise of the following objective type multiple-choice tests as stated
below:

TEST NAME OF TEST NO. OF TIME

QUESTIONS
I. Test of General & 50
Financial Awareness Composite
II. English Language 40 Time of 150
III. Quantitative Aptitude 40 minutes i.e.
IV. Reasoning 40 2 hours and
30 minutes for
V. Computer Knowledge
all the tests
and Aptitude 40
together
VI. Marketing Aptitude 40

All the Tests will be printed in English only. You may attempt the tests in any order you like. However
in your own interest you are advised not to spend too much time on any one test, as you have to
qualify in each of the Tests separately. Hence apportion your time accordingly. The
qualifying criteria will be decided by the bank as per its selection / recruitment policy.

Please note that the types of questions for all the tests are only illustrative and not
exhaustive. In the actual examination you will find questions of higher difficulty level on
some or all of these types and also questions on the types not mentioned here.

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Some sample questions are given below :

TEST I
GENERAL & FINANCIAL AWARENESS
This test is intended to give an index of your awareness of people, events and financial happenings past
and present.
Q.1. Tarapore atomic power plant is located in ---------
(1) Bihar (2) Gujarat (3) Madhya Pradesh (4) Rajasthan (5) None of these
Q.2. The total number of banks nationalised so far is ---------
(1) 7 (2) 14 (3) 20 (4) 24 (5) None of these
Q.3. Indian Institute of Science is located at ---------
(1) Ahmedabad (2) Jaipur (3) Jamshedpur (4) Mumbai (5) Bangalore
Q.4. Lending to agriculture should be at least -
(1) 15% of the adjusted net bank credit or off balance sheet exposure whichever is higher.
(2) 18% of the adjusted net bank credit or off balance sheet exposure whichever is higher.
(3) 20% of the adjusted net bank credit or off balance sheet exposure whichever is higher.
(4) 40% of the adjusted net bank credit or off balance sheet exposure whichever is higher.
(5) None of these
Q.5. The common data communication network for banks and other financial institutions on co-operative basis
launched by RBI is known as ---------
(1) SWIFT (2) SBI NET (3) BANK NET (4) COPRA (5) None of these

TEST II
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
This is a test to see how well you know English. Your English language ability would be tested through
questions on grammar & vocabulary, synonyms, antonyms, sentence completion, comprehension of a
passage etc.
Q.6-7 Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any,
will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer
is ‘5’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
Q.6. Most of the third world / country are experiencing / the ethnic or communal problem / in varying degrees. /
(1) (2) (3) (4)
No error.
The error is in (2) hence the answer is (2) (5)

Q.7. The regaining of freedom / as we well know has given rise for / many dormant issues /
(1) (2) (3)
and conflicts in our society. No error.
(4) (5)
The error in Q.7 is in (2) hence the answer is (2).
Q.8-9. Pick out from the words given below each sentence the word which would complete the sentence
correctly and meaningfully.
Q. 8. Continuous unemployment has induced in the people a kind of _____ which is most depressing.
(1) laziness (2) encouragement (3) satisfaction (4) anger (5) awakening
The correct answer here is ‘laziness’ which is answer no.2.
Q. 9. He wants me to look ____ his garden during his absence.
(1) at (2) over (3) after (4) into (5) from

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Q.10-15. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed
below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately.
Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The true (10) of rights is duty. If we all (11) our duties, rights will not be (12) to seek. If leaving duties
unperformed we run (13) rights, they will (14) us like an elusive person. The more we pursue them, the
farther (15) they fly.
Q.10. (1) end (2) source (3) joy (4) purpose (5) power
Q.11. (1) deny (2) devote (3) discharge (4) imagine (5) fulfill
Q.12. (1) far (2) close (3) easy (4) against (5) common
Q.13. (1) as (2) after (3) at (4) from (5) for
Q.14. (1) hold (2) grab (3) fight (4) escape (5) chase
Q.15. (1) off (2) can (3) did (4) could (5) towards

TEST III
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
This is a test designed to see how fast and accurately you can deal with numbers viz. computation, quantitative
reasoning, interpretation of data etc.
Q.16. If 3 workers can collect 48 kgs cotton in 4 days, how many kgs of cotton can 9 workers collect in 2 days ?
(1) 216 (2) 32 (3) 108 (4) 72 (5) None of these
Q.17. Sohanlal purchased 120 reams of paper at Rs.100 per ream. The expenditure on transport was Rs.480.
He had to pay an octroi duty of 50 paise per ream and the coolie charges were Rs.60. What should be
the selling price of each ream if he wants a profit of 20% ?
(1) Rs.126 (2) Rs.115.50 (3) Rs.105 (4) Rs. 120 (5) None of these
Q.18. The interest on a certain deposit at 9% per annum is Rs.405 in one year. How much will be the additional
interest in one year on the same deposit at 10% per annum ?
(1) Rs. 40.50 (2) Rs. 450 (3) Rs. 855 (4) Rs.45 (5) None of these
Q.19. The breadth of a rectangular hall is three-fifth of its length. If the area of the hall is 135 sq.m. what is the
difference between the length and breadth of the hall in metres ?
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 15 (5) None of these
Also, there may be some questions based on graphs and tables.
Q.20-22. Directions : Given below is a table showing percentages out of a total of 700 employees ranking six
attributes that help promotion. Rank I is the highest. Study the table carefully and answer questions that
follow :

Percentage of Employees giving Different Ranks

Attribute I II III IV V VI
Seniority 32 17 22 19 5 5
Perseverance 14 19 17 9 27 14
Efficiency 15 19 21 14 14 17
Intelligence 10 14 10 14 17 35
Honesty 24 17 7 9 27 16
Sociability 5 14 23 35 10 13

Q.20. Which attribute for promotion has received the highest rank ?
(1) Perseverance (2) Seniority (3) Honesty (4) Sociability (5) Efficiency
Notice the percentage for rank I given in the table. You observe that seniority is the attribute with the
highest percentage. So your answer is “Seniority”, which is answer No.2.
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Q.21. How many employees gave rank III to intelligence?
(1) 119 (2) 98 (3) 77 (4) 70 (5) 10
Look at the intersection of the column giving percentage for rank III and the row giving percentage for
intelligence. You find that 10 percent of the 700 employees have given rank III to this attribute. 10% of 700
is 70. So your answer should be 4.
Q.22. Which attribute is considered the least important for Promotion ?
(1) Honesty (2) Intelligence (3) Perseverance (4) Efficiency (5) Sociability
Referring to the percentage for VI rank, you find that intelligence is the attribute which receives the highest
percentage. In other words, a majority of people consider it as the least important and gives it the last rank.
Therefore your answer is 2.

TEST IV
REASONING
This test is designed to see how well you can think and reason
Q.23-27. Below is given a passage followed by several inferences drawn from the facts stated in the passage. Examine
each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Give
answer (1) if you think the inference is definitely true i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given;
give answer (2) if you think the inference is ‘probably true’ though not definitely true in the light of the facts
given; give answer (3) if you think the data are inadequate i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether
the inference is likely to be true or false; give answer (4) if you think the inference is ‘probably false’ though
not definitely false in the light of the facts given; give answer (5) if you think the inference is ‘definitely false’
i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
Now read the following passage and the inferences given below it and mark your answers on the answersheet.
The caffeine in one’s morning coffee or tea may improve the complex reasoning ability of extroverts but has
the opposite effect on introverts. More than 700 people were given caffeine equal to no more than three cups
of coffee and then tested on word analogies, sentence completion and identification of antonyms. The
researchers believe that the caffeine was beneficial to the extroverts in the morning because they take
longer to wake up. Introverts are more alert in the morning and become over stimulated by the drug that
interferes with their reasoning power.
Q.23. Extroverts do not find caffeine beneficial in the evening.
Q.24. Caffeine affects reasoning ability of people who drink tea or coffee.
Q.25. Caffeine has a greater effect early in the morning
Q.26. The adverse effect on the reasoning power of introverts is not due to caffeine.
Q.27. Complex reasoning ability is made up of word analogies, sentence completion and identification of
antonyms.
Q.28-29. In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to
take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts,
consider the two conclusions together and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from
the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows;
give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows; give answer (3) if either I or II follows, give answer (4) if neither I
nor II follows and give answer (5) if both I and II follows.
Q.28. Statements : All machines are windows. All windows are clouds
Conclusions : I All machines are clouds
II All clouds are machines
Q.29. Statements : All athletes are beds. No bed is an arrow
Conclusions : I No athlete is an arrow
II Some beds are athletes

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 TEST V
COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE AND APTITUDE
There test is designed to test your computer knowledge and ability.
Q.30. In Excel a cell in identified by a (n) _______
(1) label (2) number (3) formula (4) address (5) None of these
Q.31. Unsolicited commercial email is commonly known as _______
(1) junk (2) hoax (3) spam (4) virus (5) None of these
Q.32. ___________ is a part of the computer system that one can touch
(1) hardware (2) software (3) data (4) input (5) None of these

TEST VI
MARKETING APTITUDE
In addition there will be questions aimed at studying your marketing aptitude. The questions will test your marketing
ability. You need not make any special preparation for this test.

SOME OTHER TYPES OF QUESTIONS MAY ALSO BE ASKED

Now follow the correct method of showing your answer with HB Pencil and mark your answers to all the 32
questions given so far in this booklet on the portion of the answersheet given below. Answers to the first
two questions have been marked.
1 1 2 3 4 5 9 1 2 3 4 5 17 1 2 3 4 5 25 1 2 3 4 5
2 1 2 3 4 5 10 1 2 3 4 5 18 1 2 3 4 5 26 1 2 3 4 5
3 1 2 3 4 5 11 1 2 3 4 5 19 1 2 3 4 5 27 1 2 3 4 5
4 1 2 3 4 5 12 1 2 3 4 5 20 1 2 3 4 5 28 1 2 3 4 5
5 1 2 3 4 5 13 1 2 3 4 5 21 1 2 3 4 5 29 1 2 3 4 5
6 1 2 3 4 5 14 1 2 3 4 5 22 1 2 3 4 5 30 1 2 3 4 5
7 1 2 3 4 5 15 1 2 3 4 5 23 1 2 3 4 5 31 1 2 3 4 5
8 1 2 3 4 5 16 1 2 3 4 5 24 1 2 3 4 5 32 1 2 3 4 5

The Correct answer to the 32 questions in this booklet are given below. You may check your answers against them.

Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer

1 5 9 3 17 1 25 3
2 3 10 2 18 4 26 5
3 5 11 3 19 2 27 1
4 2 12 1 20 2 28 1
5 3 13 2 21 4 29 5
6 2 14 4 22 2 30 4
7 2 15 1 23 2 31 3
8 1 16 3 24 1 32 1

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 GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. Particulars to be noted: Please note carefully your Roll Number, Date, Time and Venue for the examination
given in the call letter. The call letter does not constitute an offer of employment.
2. Punctuality in Attendance: Candidates should be present at the examination hall 30 minutes before the time
given in the Call-letter. Candidates arriving late will not be permitted to enter the Examination Hall and
appear for the examination.
3. Call-letter and photocopy of challan used for remitting application fee to be surrendered: The call letter
and photocopy of challan used for remitting application fee should be brought when you arrive at the venue for the
examination alongwith your recent passport size photograph duly pasted on the call letter. You will be required to
sign on your call letter in the examination hall in the space provided for the candidate’s signature in the presence
of the invigilator. (Do not sign in this space on the call letter unless the invigilator instructs you to do so.) The call
letter and photocopy of challan should be surrendered to the invigilator at the examination venue.
4. Specimen answersheet and how to fill bio-data information on it: You will get an answersheet. The last
sheet of this booklet is a sample of the Answersheet.
5. Compliance with instructions: You should scrupulously follow the instructions given by test administrators and
the invigilators at the examination venue at all stages of the examination for which you have been called. If you
violate the instructions you will be disqualified and may also be asked to leave the examination hall.
6. Use of Books, Notes, Cell Phones & Calculators: No calculator (separate or with watch), cell phones, books,
slide rulers, note books or written notes will be allowed inside the examination hall.
7. Copying or receiving/giving assistance not allowed: Any candidate who is found either copying or receiving
or giving assistance during the examination will not be considered for assessment. The Organisation may take
further action against such candidates as deemed fit by it.
8. Use of HB Pencil and Ball Pen: You should bring with you two commonly available HB Pencils, a Pencil
Sharpener, an Eraser and a Ball Point Pen. Two pencils are advised to avoid mending a pencil during the examination
as you may lose time. Using HB Pencil only you should mark all the answers on Side 2.
9. Handling Answersheet: Please handle your answersheet carefully. Keep it dust free. If it is mutilated, torn,
folded, wrinkled, rolled or dusty, it may not be assessed. Similarly, if you do not write your Roll Number and
Test Form No. in Box Nos.14 and 17 respectively, your answersheet will NOT be assessed. Answersheets
and question papers will be supplied by the Organisation. After the test is over, you should hand over the same to
the invigilator before leaving the room. No candidate will be permitted to take the test material outside the
examination venue.
10. One Single Answersheet : For all the objective tests there will be a single answersheet.
11. Write Roll No. On the Test Booklet: You should write your Roll No. in the space provided on the cover page.
12. Rough work is to be done on the test booklet and not on the answersheet.
HOW TO SHOW YOUR ANSWERS:

Each question is followed by answers, which are numbered 1,2,3,4 and 5. Select the most appropriate
answer. Then by using HB Pencil, blacken the oval bearing the correct answer against the serial number of
the question. (Refer to Side 2 of the Specimen Answersheet). Please note that the oval should be dark enough
and should be filled in completely. For example, if the answer to Question Number 2, is answer number 5, it
is shown as follows:
Q.2. 1 2 3 4 5

HOW TO CHANGE YOUR ANSWER:

If you wish to change your answer, ERASE COMPLETELY the already darkened oval by using good quality
eraser and then blacken the new oval bearing your revised answer number. While changing the answer,
erasing the earlier answer completely is extremely essential. If it is not erased completely, smudges will be
left on the erased oval as shown below and the question will be read as having two answers and will be ignored
for giving any credit.
Q.2. 1 2 3 4 5

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 (Smudge left in Oval No.3 due to bad erasure, and the fresh answer in Oval No.4 will be read as two answers
3 and 4 and therefore no credit will be given even if the answer No.4 happens to be the correct answer).
How to fill up Bio-data Information Important:
1. The information is to be filled in by you in box 1-11, 13, 14, 15, 16 & 17 on Side 1, and in box 29 on Side 2 of
the answersheet.
2. You have to fill in information in boxes 1-11 by using ballpoint pen.
3. Information in boxes 13, 14, 15,16 and 17 on Side 1 and 29 on Side 2 is to be filled in by using HB pencil only.
4. Boxes, which have been crossed out in the specimen answersheet, are to be left blank. Do not write anything
there or darken the ovals in these boxes. Now please refer to Side 1 and 2 of the Specimen Answersheet while
reading the following description :

Side 1
Full Name of the Candidate (Box No.l): You have to write in capitals your full name in English as given in the call-
letter in the space provided using ball point pen.
Other information (Box Nos.2 to 7): You will find that the information asked for in the boxes from 2 to 7 can be filled
in easily. Fill in the information by using ballpoint pen.
Test Booklet Serial Number, Test Battery Number and Test Form Number (Information required in boxes
8-10): Test Booklet Serial Number, Test Battery Number and Test Form Number (Information required in Boxes 8-10) are
printed on the test booklet. You have to copy this number using ball point pen from the test booklet you will receive at
the time of examination.
Signature of Candidate & Invigilator (Box No.ll & 12): Here both have to put his/her signatures in the approprate
box.
Candidate’s Name (Box No.13): There is a row of 10 boxes for writing your name. Just below each box you will find
a column of 26 ovals each containing a letter of the alphabet. The top oval in each contains a letter ‘A’ whereas the last
oval bears ‘Z’. See how the candidate has written her name in capitals by entering one letter in each box using HB
pencil, and has blackened the appropriate oval under each box. Please note that the candidate has left one box and
respective column of ovals blank between two parts of her name. If your name contains more letters write only the first
letters, which you can accommodate in the Boxes provided.
Candidate’s Roll Number (Box No.14): You will be assigned an 8-digit roll number by the organization. There is a row
of 8 boxes provided to write the roll number. Just below each box there are 10 ovals numbered from 1 to 9 and 0. See
how the candidate has written her roll number in the boxes, entering one digit in each box by using HB pencil and has
blackened the appropriate oval under each box. You have to write your roll number on the test booklet also in the space
provided for it.
Post Applied (Box No. 15) : Please enter post code 2 in this box and darken the corresponding oval.
Category Code (Box No. 16): Please find out the code number of the category you belong to and enter the code in
the box. Also darken the appropriate oval with HB pencil. The following Category Codes may be followed :
1 - SC
3 - ST
7 - GENERAL / OTHERS
Test Form No. (Box No.17): You will have to write the test form number (3 digits) in Box No. 17. Write each of the
digits in the boxes provided and blacken the appropriate ovals using HB pencil.

Side 2
Roll Number (Box No.29): Write your Roll Number by HB pencil in this box at the left-hand bottom corner of Side 2
of the answersheet.

IMPORTANT POINTS TO REMEMBER

1. You are advised to bring with you the following things:

(i) Call-letter with your recent photograph pasted on it.

(ii) Photocopy of Challan used for remitting application fee.

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(iii) A valid proof of identity ( such as passport / PAN Card / driving license / voter ID card / permanent identity card
issued by the present employer or any other valid proof of identification with a photograph.)

(iv) Completely filled in bio-data information on the sample answersheet provided at the end of this booklet.

(v) Two HB pencils, a pencil sharpener and a good quality eraser,

(vi) One ballpoint pen.

2. Do not resort to guessing. It is not likely to improve your score. There may be a penalty for the wrong answers.

3. In the examination hall when the invigilator asks you to tear open the wrapper of the objective tests in the
objective test booklet, open the same booklet only along right hand edge. DO NOT remove the staples
of the booklet which are at the left hand side. Immediately after opening the booklet along right hand edge,
verify that all the pages containing questions from 1 to 250 are properly printed in your booklet and then begin
answering the test. In case the booklet is defective get it replaced by another test booklet bearing the same Test
Form No. Till the invigilator replaces your booklet continue answering other questions which are not defectively
printed so that you do not lose time while answering the test.

4. Your answersheet may NOT be assessed ––––

(i) if you do the rough work on the answersheet

(ii) if you use any method of marking your answers other than darkening the ovals

(iii) if you do not write your Roll No. on the test booklet

(iv) if you do not write all the information required on the answersheet such as Roll No., Name, Test Form
No., etc.

(v) if you do not handle your answersheet carefully

(vi) if you do not use HB Pencil wherever it is required.

5. Before coming for the written examination, please ensure that you are eligible according to the eligibility criteria
stipulated in the Advertisement/Notification. If you are not eligible, your candidature will be cancelled at any stage
of the recruitment. Please note that even if you qualify in the written examination and subsequently it is found that
you do not fulfill the eligibility criteria, your candidature will be cancelled.

WISH YOU GOOD LUCK

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28.06.2009

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