COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING Part 1
SITUATION : Epidemiology and Vital statistics is a very
important tool that a nurse could use in controlling the spread
of disease in the community and at the same time, surveying
the impact of the disease on the population and prevent it’s
future occurrence.
1. It is concerned with the study of factors that influence the
occurrence and distribution of diseases, defects, disability or
death which occurs in groups or aggregation of individuals.
A. Epidemiology
B. Demographics
C. Vital Statistics
D. Health Statistics
2. Which of the following is the backbone in disease
prevention?
A. Epidemiology
B. Demographics
C. Vital Statistics
D. Health Statistics
3. Which of the following type of research could show how
community expectations can result in the actual provision of
services?
A. Basic Research
B. Operational Research
C. Action Research
D. Applied Research
4. An outbreak of measles has been reported in Community A.
As a nurse, which of the following is your first action for an
Epidemiological investigation?
A. Classify if the outbreak of measles is epidemic or just
sporadic
B. Report the incidence into the RHU
C. Determine the first day when the outbreak occurred
D. Identify if it is the disease which it is reported to be
5. After the epidemiological investigation produced final
conclusions, which of the following is your initial step in your
operational procedure during disease outbreak?
A. Coordinate personnel from Municipal to the National
level
B. Collect pertinent laboratory specimen to confirm disease
causation
C. Immunize nearby communities with Measles
D. Educate the community in future prevention of similar
outbreaks
6. The main concern of a public health nurse is the prevention
of disease, prolonging of life and promoting physical health
and efficiency through which of the following?
A. Use of epidemiological tools and vital health statistics
B. Determine the spread and occurrence of the disease
C. Political empowerment and Socio Economic Assistance
D. Organized Community Efforts
7. In order to control a disease effectively, which of the
following must first be known?
1. The conditions surrounding its occurrence
2. Factors that do not favor its development
3. The condition that do not surround its occurrence
4. Factors that favors its development
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4
8. All of the following are uses of epidemiology except:
A. To study the history of health population and the rise and
fall of disease
B. To diagnose the health of the community and the condition
of the people
C. To provide summary data on health service delivery
D. To identify groups needing special attention
9. Before reporting the fact of presence of an epidemic, which
of the following is of most importance to determine?
A. Are the facts complete?
B. Is the disease real?
C. Is the disease tangible?
D. Is it epidemic or endemic?
10. An unknown epidemic has just been reported in Barangay
Dekbudekbu. People said that affected person demonstrates
hemorrhagic type of fever. You are designated now to plan for
epidemiological investigation. Arrange the sequence of events
in accordance with the correct outline plan for epidemiological
investigation.
1. Report the presence of dengue
2. Summarize data and conclude the final picture of epidemic
3. Relate the occurrence to the population group, facilities,
food supply and carriers
4. Determine if the disease is factual or real
5. Determine any unusual prevalence of the disease and its
nature; is it epidemic, sporadic, endemic or pandemic?
6. Determine onset and the geographical limitation of the
disease.
A. 4,1,3,5,2,6
B. 4,1,5,6,3,2
C. 5,4,6,2,1,3
D. 5,4,6,1,2,3
E. 1,2,3,4,5,6
11. In the occurrence of SARS and other pandemics, which of
the following is the most vital role of a nurse in epidemiology?
A. Health promotion
B. Disease prevention
C. Surveillance
D. Casefinding
12. Measles outbreak has been reported in Barangay Bahay
Toro, After conducting an epidemiological investigation you
have confirmed that the outbreak is factual. You are tasked to
lead a team of medical workers for operational procedure in
disease outbreak. Arrange the correct sequence of events that
you must do to effectively contain the disease
1. Create a final report and recommendation
2. Perform nasopharyngeal swabbing to infected individuals
3. Perform mass measles immunization to vulnerable groups
4. Perform an environmental sanitation survey on the
immediate environment
5. Organize your team and Coordinate the personnels
6. Educate the community on disease transmission
A. 1,2,3,4,5,6
B. 6,5,4,3,2,1
C. 5,6,4,2,3,1
D. 5,2,3,4,6,1 Office

13. All of the following are function of Nurse Budek in
epidemiology except
A. Laboratory Diagnosis
B. Surveillance of disease occurrence
C. Follow up cases and contacts
D. Refer cases to hospitals if necessary
E. Isolate cases of communicable disease
14. All of the following are performed in team organization
except
22. Deejay, The birth attendant noticed that Lestat has low set
of ears, Micrognathia, Microcephaly and a typical cat like cry.
What should Deejay do?
A. Bring Lestat immediately to the nearest hospital
B. Ask his assistant to call the nearby pediatrician
C. Bring Lestat to the nearest pediatric clinic
D. Call a Taxi and together with Acasia, Bring Lestat to
the nearest hospital
23. Deejay would suspect which disorder?

A. Orientation and demonstration of methodology to be A. Trisomy 21

employed B. Turners Syndrome
B. Area assignments of team members C. Cri Du Chat
C. Check team’s equipments and paraphernalia D. Klinefelters Syndrome
D. Active case finding and Surveillance
24. Deejay could expect which of the following congenital
15. Which of the following is the final output of data reporting anomaly that would accompany this disorder?
in epidemiological operational procedure?
A. AVSD
A. Recommendation B. PDA
B. Evaluation C. TOF
C. Final Report D. TOGV
D. Preliminary report
26. Which presidential decree orders reporting of births within
16. The office in charge with registering vital facts in the 30 days after its occurrence?
Philippines is none other than the
A. 651
A. PCSO B. 541
B PAGCOR C. 996
C. DOH D. 825
D. NSO
25. These rates are referred to the total living population, It
17. The following are possible sources of Data except: must be presumed that the total population was exposed to the
risk of occurrence of the event.
A. Experience
B. Census A. Rate
C. Surveys B. Ratio
D. Research C. Crude/General Rates
D. Specific Rate
18. This refers to systematic study of vital events such as
births, illnesses, marriages, divorces and deaths 26. These are used to describe the relationship between two
numerical quantities or measures of events without taking
A. Epidemiology particular considerations to the time or place.
B. Demographics
C. Vital Statistics A. Rate
D. Health Statistics B. Ratios
C. Crude/General Rate
19. In case of clerical errors in your birth certificate, Where D. Specific Rate
should you go to have it corrected?
27. This is the most sensitive index in determining the general
A. NSO health condition of a community since it reflects the changes
B. Court of Appeals in the environment and medical conditions of a community
C. Municipal Trial Court
D. Local Civil Registrar A. Crude death rate
B. Infant mortality rate
20. Acasia just gave birth to Lestat, A healthy baby boy. Who C. Maternal mortality rate
are going to report the birth of Baby Lestat? D. Fetal death rate

A. Nurse 28. According to the WHO, which of the following is the most
B. Midwife frequent cause of death in children underfive worldwide in the
C. OB Gyne 2003 WHO Survey?
D. Birth Attendant
A. Neonatal
21. In reporting the birth of Baby Lestat, where will he be B. Pneumonia
registered? C. Diarrhea
D. HIV/AIDS
A. At the Local Civil Registrar
B. In the National Statistics Office 29. In the Philippines, what is the most common cause of
C. In the City Health Department death of infants according to the latest survey?
D. In the Field Health Services and Information System Main
A. Pneumonia
B. Diarrhea A. 90/100,000
C. Other perinatal condition B. 9/100
D. Respiratory condition of fetus and newborn C. 90/1000
D. 9/1000
30. The major cause of mortality from 1999 up to 2002 in the
Philippines are 36. What is the cause specific death rate from
cardiovascular diseases?
A. Diseases of the heart
B. Diseases of the vascular system A. 27/100
C. Pneumonias B. 1191/100,000
D. Tuberculosis C. 27/100,000
D. 1.1/1000
31. Alicia, a 9 year old child asked you “ What is the common
cause of death in my age group here in the Philippines? “ The 37. What is the Maternal Mortality rate of this
nurse is correct if he will answer barangay?

A. Pneumonia is the top leading cause of death in children age A. 6.55/1000

5 to 9 B. 5.89/1000
B. Malignant neoplasm if common in your age group C. 1.36/1000
C. Probability wise, You might die due to D. 3.67/1000
accidents
D. Diseases of the respiratory system is the most 38. What is the fetal death rate?
common cause of death in children
A. 3.49/1000
32. In children 1 to 4 years old, which is the most B. 10.04/1000
common cause of death? C. 3.14/1000
D. 3.14/100,000
A. Diarrhea
B. Accidents 39. What is the attack rate of pneumonia?
C. Pneumonia
D. Diseases of the heart A. 3.04/1000
B. 7.18/1000
33. Working in the community as a PHN for almost C. 32.82/100
10 years, Aida knew the fluctuation in vital statistics. D. 3.04/100
She knew that the most common cause of morbidity
among the Filipinos is 40. Determine the Case fatality ratio of rabies in this
Barangay
A. Diseases of the heart
B. Diarrhea A. 1/100
C. Pneumonia B. 100%
D. Vascular system diseases C. 1%
D. 100/1000
34. Nurse Aida also knew that most maternal deaths
are caused by 41. The following are all functions of the nurse in
vital statistics, which of the following is not?
A. Hemorrhage
B. Other Complications related to pregnancy A. Consolidate Data
occurring in the course of labor, delivery and B. Collects Data
puerperium C. Analyze Data
C. Hypertension complicating pregnancy, childbirth D. Tabulate Data
and puerperium
D. Abortion 42. The following are Notifiable diseases that needs
to have a tally sheet in data reporting, Which one is
SITUATION : Barangay PinoyBSN has the not?
following data in year 2006
A. Hypertension
1. July 1 population : 254,316 B. Bronchiolitis
2. Livebirths : 2,289 C. Chemical Poisoning
3. Deaths from maternal cause : 15 D. Accidents
4. Death from CVD : 3,029
5. Deaths under 1 year of age : 23 43. Which of the following requires reporting within
6. Fetal deaths : 8 24 hours?
7. Deaths under 28 days : 8
8. Death due to rabies : 45 A. Neonatal tetanus
9. Registered cases of rabies : 45 B. Measles
10. People with pneumonia : 79 C. Hypertension
11. People exposed with pneumonia : 2,593 D. Tetanus
12. Total number of deaths from all causes : 10,998
44. Which Act declared that all communicable
The following questions refer to these data disease be reported to the nearest health station?

35. What is the crude birth rate of Barangay A. 1082

PinoyBSN? B. 1891
C. 3573 accurate and are disseminated in a timely and easy to
D. 6675 use fashion

45. In the RHU Team, Which professional is directly
responsible in caring a sick person who is
homebound?
A. Midwife
B. Nurse
C. BHW
D. Physician
46. During epidemics, which of the following
epidemiological function will you have to perform
first?
A. Teaching the community on disease prevention
B. Assessment on suspected cases
C. Monitor the condition of people affected
D. Determining the source and nature of the
epidemic
47. Which of the following is a POINT SOURCE
epidemic?
52. What is the fundamental block or foundation of
the field health service information system?
A. Family treatment record
B. Target Client list
C. Reporting forms
D. Output record
53. What is the primary advantage of having a target
client list?
A. Nurses need not to go back to FTR to monitor
treatment and services to beneficiaries thus saving
time and effort
B. Help monitor service rendered to clients in general
C. Facilitate monitoring and supervision of services
D. Facilitates easier reporting
54. Which of the following is used to monitor
particular groups that are qualified as eligible to a
certain program of the DOH?

A. Dengue H.F A. Family treatment record

B. Malaria B. Target Client list
C. Contaminated Water Source C. Reporting forms
D. Tuberculosis D. Output record

48. All but one is a characteristic of a point source 55. In using the tally sheet, what is the recommended
epidemic, which one is not? frequency in tallying activities and services?

A. The spread of the disease is caused by a common A. Daily

vehicle B. Weekly
B. The disease is usually caused by contaminated C. Monthly
food D. Quarterly
C. There is a gradual increase of cases
D. Epidemic is usually sudden 56. When is the counting of the tally sheet done?

49. The only Microorganism monitored in cases of A. At the end of the day
contaminated water is B. At the end of the week
C. At the end of the month
A. Vibrio Cholera D. At the end of the year
B. Escherichia Coli
C. Entamoeba Histolytica 57. Target client list will be transmitted to the next
D. Coliform Test facility in the form of

50. Dengue increase in number during June, July and A. Family treatment record
August. This pattern is called B. Target Client list
C. Reporting forms
A. Epidemic D. Output record
B. Endemic
C. Cyclical 58. All but one of the following are eligible target
D. Secular client list

SITUATION : Field health services and information A. Leprosy cases

system provides summary data on health service B. TB cases
delivery and selected program from the barangay C. Prenatal care
level up to the national level. As a nurse, you should D. Diarrhea cases
know the process on how these information became
processed and consolidated. 59. This is the only mechanism through which data
are routinely transmitted from once facility to another
51. All of the following are objectives of FHSIS
Except A. Family treatment record
B. Target Client list
A. To complete the clinical picture of chronic C. Reporting forms
disease and describe their natural history D. Output record
B. To provide standardized, facility level data base
which can be accessed for more in depth studies 60. FHSIS/Q-3 Or the report for environmental
C. To minimize recording and reporting burden health activities is prepared how frequently?
allowing more time for patient care and promotive
activities A. Daily
D. To ensure that data reported are useful and B. Weekly
C. Quarterly D. She records a Child who have frequent diarrhea in
D. Yearly TCL : Under Five

61. Nurse Budek is preparing the reporting form for 69. The BHS Is the lowest level of reporting unit in
weekly notifiable diseases. He knew that he will code FHSIS. A BHS can be considered a reporting unit if
the report form as all of the following are met except

A. FHSIS/E-1 A. It renders service to 3 barangays

B. FHSIS/E-2 B. There is a midwife the regularly renders service to
C. FHSIS/E-3 the area
D. FHSIS/M-1 C. The BHS Have no mother BHS
D. It should be a satellite BHS
62. In preparing the maternal death report, which of
the following correctly codes this occurrence? 70. Data submitted to the PHO is processed using
what type of technology?
A. FHSIS/E-1
B. FHSIS/E-2 A. Internet
C. FHSIS/E-3 B. Microcomputer
D. FHSIS/M-1 C. Supercomputer
D. Server Interlink Connections
63. Where should Nurse Budek bring the reporting
forms if he is in the BHU Facility? SITUATION : Community organizing is a process by
which people, health services and agencies of the
A. Rural health office community are brought together to act and solve their
B. FHSIS Main office own problems.
C. Provincial health office
D. Regional health office 71. Mang Ambo approaches you for counseling. You
are an effective counselor if you
64. After bringing the reporting forms in the right
facility for processing, Nurse Budek knew that the A. Give good advice to Mang Ambo
output reports are solely produced by what office? B. Identify Mang Ambo’s problems
C. Convince Mang Ambo to follow your advice
A. Rural health office D. Help Mang Ambo identify his problems
B. FHSIS Main office
C. Provincial health office 72. As a newly appointed PHN instructed to organize
D. Regional health office Barangay Baritan, Which of the following is your
initial step in organizing the community for initial
65. Mang Raul entered the health center complaining action?
of fatigue and frequent syncope. You assessed Mang
Raul and found out that he is severely malnourished A. Study the Barangay Health statistics and
and anemic. What record should you get first to records
document these findings? B. Make a courtesy call to the Barangay Captain
C. Meet with the Barangay Captain to make plans
A. Family treatment record D. Make a courtesy call to the Municipal Mayor
B. Target Client list
C. Reporting forms 73. Preparatory phase is the first phase in organizing
D. Output record the community. Which of the following is the initial
step in the preparatory phase?
66. The information about Mang Raul’s address, full
name, age, symptoms and diagnosis is recorded in A. Area selection
B. Community profiling
A. Family treatment record C. Entry in the community
B. Target Client list D. Integration with the people
C. Reporting forms
D. Output record 74. the most important factor in determining the
proper area for community organizing is that this area
67. Another entry is to be made for Mang Raul should
because he is in the target client’s list, In what TCL
should Mang Raul’s entry be documented? A. Be already adopted by another organization
B. Be able to finance the projects
A. TCL Eligible Population C. Have problems and needs assistance
B. TCL Family Planning D. Have people with expertise to be developed as
C. TCL Nutrition leaders
D. TCL Pre Natal
75. Which of the following dwelling place should the
68. The nurse uses the FHSIS Record system Nurse choose when integrating with the people?
incorrectly when she found out that
A. A simple house in the border of Barangay Baritan
A. She go to the individual or FTR for entry and San Pablo
confirmation in the Tally/Report Summary B. A simple house with fencing and gate located in
B. She refer to other sources for completing the center of Barangay Baritan
monthly and quarterly reports C. A modest dwelling place where people will not
C. She records diarrhea in the Tally sheet/Report hesitate to enter
form with a code FHSIS/M-1 D. A modest dwelling place where people will not
hesitate to enter located in the center of the 83. Major discussion in community organization are
community made by

76. In choosing a leader in the community during the A. The nurse

Organizational phase, Which among these people B. The leaders of each committee
will you choose? C. The entire group
D. Collaborating Agencies
A. Miguel Zobel, 50 years old, Rich and Famous
B. Rustom, 27 years old, Actor 84. The nurse should know that Organizational plan
C. Mang Ambo, 70, Willing to work for the desired best succeeds when
change
D. Ricky, 30 years old, Influential and Willing to 1. People sees its values
work for the desired change 2. People think its antagonistic professionally
3. It is incompatible with their personal beliefs
77. Which type of leadership style should the leaders 4. It is compatible with their personal beliefs
of the community practice?
A. 1 and 3
A. Autocratic B. 2 and 4
B. Democratic C. 1 and 2
C. Laissez Faire D. 1 and 4
D. Consultative
85. Nurse Budek made a proposal that people should
78. Setting up Committee on Education and Training turn their backyard into small farming lots to plant
is in what phase of COPAR? vegetables and fruits. He specified that the objective
is to save money in buying vegetables and fruits that
A. Preparatory tend to have a fluctuating and cyclical price. Which
B. Organizational step in Community organizing process did he
C. Education and Training utilized?
D. Intersectoral Collaboration
E. Phase out A. Fact finding
B. Determination of needs
79. Community diagnosis is done to come up with a C. Program formation
profile of local health situation that will serve as basis D. Education and Interpretation
of health programs and services. This is done in what
phase of COPAR? 86. One of the critical steps in COPAR is becoming
one with the people and understanding their culture
A. Preparatory and lifestyle. Which critical step in COPAR will the
B. Organizational Nurse try to immerse himself in the community?
C. Education and Training
D. Intersectoral Collaboration A. Integration
E. Phase out B. Social Mobilization
C. Ground Work
80. The people named the community health workers D. Mobilization
based on the collective decision in accordance with
the set criteria. Before they can be trained by the 87. The Actual exercise of people power occurs
Nurse, The Nurse must first during when?

A. Make a lesson plan A. Integration

B. Set learning goals and objective B. Social Mobilization
C. Assess their learning needs C. Ground Work
D. Review materials needed for training D. Mobilization

81. Nurse Budek wrote a letter to PCSO asking them
for assistance in their feeding programs for the
community’s nutrition and health projects. PCSO
then approved the request and gave Budek 50,000
Pesos and a truckload of rice, fruits and vegetables.
Which phase of COPAR did Budek utilized?
A. Preparatory
B. Organizational
C. Education and Training
D. Intersectoral Collaboration
E. Phase out
82. Ideally, How many years should the Nurse stay in
the community before he can phase out and be
assured of a Self Reliant community?
88. Which steps in COPAR trains indigenous and
informal leaders?
A. Ground Work
B. Mobilization
C. Core Group formation
D. Integration
89. As a PHN, One of your role is to organize the
community. Nurse Budek knows that the purposes of
community organizing are
1. Move the community to act on their own problems
2. Make people aware of their own problems
3. Enable the nurse to solve the community problems
4. Offer people means of solving their own problems

A. 5 years A. 1,2,3
B. 10 years B. 1,2,3,4
C. 1 year C. 1,2
D. 6 months D. 1,2,4
90. This is considered the first act of integrating with
the people. This gives an in depth participation in
community health problems and needs.
A. Residing in the area of assignment
B. Listing down the name of person to contact for
courtesy call
C. Gathering initial information about the community
D. Preparing Agenda for the first meeting
SITUATION : Health education is the process
whereby knowledge, attitude and practice of people
are changed to improve individual, family and
community health.
91. Which of the following is the correct sequence in
health education?
1. Information
2. Communication
3. Education
A. 1,2,3
B. 3,2,1
C. 1,3,2
D. 3,1,2
92. The health status of the people is greatly affected
and determined by which of the following?
A. Behavioral factors
B. Socioeconomic factors
C. Political factors
D. Psychological factors
93. Nurse Budek is conducting a health teaching to
Agnesia, 50 year old breast cancer survivor needing
rehabilitative measures. He knows that health
education is effective when
A. Agnesia recites the procedure and instructions
perfectly
B. Agnesia’s behavior and outlook in life was
changed positively
C. Agnesia gave feedback to Budek saying that she
understood the instruction
D. Agnesia requested a written instruction from
Budek
94. Which of the following is true about health
education?
A. It helps people attain their health through the
nurse’s sole efforts
B. It should not be flexible
C. It is a fast and mushroom like process
D. It is a slow and continuous process
95. Which of the following factors least influence the
learning readiness of an adult learner?
A. The individuals stage of development
B. Ability to concentrate on information to be learned
C. The individual’s psychosocial adaptation to his
illness
D. The internal impulses that drive the person to take
action
96. Which of the following is the most important
condition for diabetic patients to learn how to control
their diet?
A. Use of pamphlets and other materials during
instructions
B. Motivation to be symptom free
C. Ability of the patient to understand teaching
instruction
D. Language used by the nurse
97. An important skill that a primigravida has to
acquire is the ability to bathe her newborn baby and
clean her breast if she decides to breastfeed her baby,
Which of the following learning domain will you
classify the above goals?
A. Psychomotor
B. Cognitive
C. Affective
D. Attitudinal
98. When you prepare your teaching plan for a group
of hypertensive patients, you first formulate your
learning objectives. Which of the following steps in
the nursing process corresponds to the writing of the
learning objectives?
A. Planning
B. Implementing
C. Evaluation
C. Assessment
99. Rose, 50 years old and newly diagnosed diabetic
patient must learn how to inject insulin. Which of the
following physical attribute is not in anyway related
to her ability to administer insulin?
A. Strength
B. Coordination
C. Dexterity
D. Muscle Built
100. Appearance and disposition of clients are best
observed initially during which of the following
situation?
A. Taking V/S
B. Interview
C. Implementation of the initial care
D. Actual Physical examination
 COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING Part 2
1. Which is the primary goal of community health
nursing?
A. To support and supplement the efforts of the
medical profession in the promotion of health and
prevention of illness
B. To enhance the capacity of individuals, families
and communities to cope with their health needs
C. To increase the productivity of the people by
providing them with services that will increase their
level of health
D. To contribute to national development through
promotion of family welfare, focusing particularly on
mothers and children.
Answer: (B) To enhance the capacity of
individuals, families and communities to cope with
their health needs
To contribute to national development through
promotion of family welfare, focusing particularly on
mothers and children.
2. CHN is a community-based practice. Which best
explains this statement?
A. The service is provided in the natural environment
of people.
B. The nurse has to conduct community diagnosis to
determine nursing needs and problems.
C. The services are based on the available resources
within the community.
D. Priority setting is based on the magnitude of the
health problems identified.
Answer: A. The service is provided in the natural
environment of people.
Community-based practice means providing care to
people in their own natural environments: the home,
school and workplace, for example.
3. Population-focused nursing practice requires
which of the following processes?
A. Community organizing
B. Nursing process
C. Community diagnosis
D. Epidemiologic process
Answer: (C) Community diagnosis
Population-focused nursing care means providing
care based on the greater need of the majority of the
population. The greater need is identified through
community diagnosis.
4. R.A. 1054 is also known as the Occupational
Health Act. Aside from number of employees, what
other factor must be considered in determining the
occupational health privileges to which the workers
will be entitled?
A. Type of occupation: agricultural, commercial,
industrial
B. Location of the workplace in relation to health
facilities
C. Classification of the business enterprise based on
net profit
D. Sex and age composition of employees
Answer: (B) Location of the workplace in relation
to health facilities
Based on R.A. 1054, an occupational nurse must be
employed when there are 30 to 100 employees and
the workplace is more than 1 km. away from the
nearest health center.
5. A business firm must employ an occupational
health nurse when it has at least how many
employees?
A. 21
B. 101
C. 201
D. 301
Answer: (B) 101
Again, this is based on R.A. 1054.
6. When the occupational health nurse employs
ergonomic principles, she is performing which of her
roles?
A. Health care provider
B. Health educator
C. Health care coordinator
D. Environmental manager
Answer: (D) Environmental manager
Ergonomics is improving efficiency of workers by
improving the worker’s environment through
appropriately designed furniture, for example.
7. A garment factory does not have an occupational
nurse. Who shall provide the occupational health
needs of the factory workers?
A. Occupational health nurse at the Provincial Health
Office
B. Physician employed by the factory
C. Public health nurse of the RHU of their
municipality
D. Rural sanitary inspector of the RHU of their
municipality
Answer: (C) Public health nurse of the RHU of
their municipality
You’re right! This question is based on R.A.1054.
8. “Public health services are given free of charge.” Is
this statement true or false?
A. The statement is true; it is the responsibility of
government to provide basic services.
B. The statement is false; people pay indirectly for
public health services.
C. The statement may be true or false, depending on
the specific service required.
D. The statement may be true or false, depending on
policies of the government concerned.
Answer: (B) The statement is false; people pay
indirectly for public health services.
Community health services, including public health
services, are pre-paid services, though taxation, for
example.
9. According to C.E.Winslow, which of the following
is the goal of Public Health?
A. For people to attain their birthrights of health and
longevity
B. For promotion of health and prevention of disease
C. For people to have access to basic health services
D. For people to be organized in their health efforts
Answer: (A) For people to attain their birthrights
of health and longevity
According to Winslow, all public health efforts are
for people to realize their birthrights of health and
longevity.
10. We say that a Filipino has attained longevity
when he is able to reach the average lifespan of
Filipinos. What other statistic may be used to
determine attainment of longevity?
A. Age-specific mortality rate
B. Proportionate mortality rate
C. Swaroop’s index
D. Case fatality rate
Answer: (C) Swaroop’s index
Swaroop’s index is the percentage of the deaths aged
50 years or older. Its inverse represents the
percentage of untimely deaths (those who died
younger than 50 years).
11. Which of the following is the most prominent
feature of public health nursing?
A. It involves providing home care to sick people
who are not confined in the hospital.
B. Services are provided free of charge to people
within the catchment area.
C. The public health nurse functions as part of a team
providing a public health nursing services.
D. Public health nursing focuses on preventive, not
curative, services.
Answer: (D) Public health nursing focuses on
preventive, not curative, services.
The catchment area in PHN consists of a residential
community, many of whom are well individuals who
have greater need for preventive rather than curative
services.
12. According to Margaret Shetland, the philosophy
of public health nursing is based on which of the
following?
A. Health and longevity as birthrights
B. The mandate of the state to protect the birthrights
of its citizens
C. Public health nursing as a specialized field of
nursing
D. The worth and dignity of man
Answer: (D) The worth and dignity of man
This is a direct quote from Dr. Margaret Shetland’s
statements on Public Health Nursing.
13. Which of the following is the mission of the
Department of Health?
A. Health for all Filipinos
B. Ensure the accessibility and quality of health care
C. Improve the general health status of the population
D. Health in the hands of the Filipino people by the
year 2020
Answer: (B) Ensure the accessibility and quality
of health care
(none)
14. Region IV Hospital is classified as what level of
facility?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Intermediate
D. Tertiary
Answer: (D) Tertiary
Regional hospitals are tertiary facilities because they
serve as training hospitals for the region.
15. Which is true of primary facilities?
A. They are usually government-run.
B. Their services are provided on an out-patient
basis.
C. They are training facilities for health
professionals.
D. A community hospital is an example of this level
of health facilities.
Answer: (B) Their services are provided on an
out-patient basis.
Primary facilities government and non-government
facilities that provide basic out-patient services.
16. Which is an example of the school nurse’s health
care provider functions?
A. Requesting for BCG from the RHU for school
entrant immunization
B. Conducting random classroom inspection during a
measles epidemic
C. Taking remedial action on an accident hazard in
the school playground
D. Observing places in the school where pupils spend
their free time
Answer: (B) Conducting random classroom
inspection during a measles epidemic
Random classroom inspection is assessment of
pupils/students and teachers for signs of a health
problem prevalent in the community.
17. When the nurse determines whether resources
were maximized in implementing Ligtas Tigdas, she
is evaluating
A. Effectiveness
B. Efficiency
C. Adequacy
D. Appropriateness
Answer: (B) Efficiency
Efficiency is determining whether the goals were
attained at the least possible cost.
18. You are a new B.S.N. graduate. You want to
become a Public Health Nurse. Where will you
apply?
A. Department of Health
B. Provincial Health Office
C. Regional Health Office
D. Rural Health Unit
Answer: (D) Rural Health Unit
R.A. 7160 devolved basic health services to local
government units (LGU’s ). The public health nurse
is an employee of the LGU.
19. R.A. 7160 mandates devolution of basic services
from the national government to local government
units. Which of the following is the major goal of
devolution?
A. To strengthen local government units
B. To allow greater autonomy to local government
units
C. To empower the people and promote their self-
reliance
D. To make basic services more accessible to the
people
Answer: (C) To empower the people and promote
their self-reliance
People empowerment is the basic motivation behind
devolution of basic services to LGU’s.
20. Who is the Chairman of the Municipal Health
Board?
A. Mayor
B. Municipal Health Officer
C. Public Health Nurse
D. Any qualified physician
Answer: (A) Mayor
The local executive serves as the chairman of the
Municipal Health Board.
21. Which level of health facility is the usual point of
entry of a client into the health care delivery system?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Intermediate
D. Tertiary
Answer: (A) Primary
The entry of a person into the health care delivery
system is usually through a consultation in out-
patient services.
22. The public health nurse is the supervisor of rural
health midwives. Which of the following is a
supervisory function of the public health nurse?
A. Referring cases or patients to the midwife
B. Providing technical guidance to the midwife
C. Providing nursing care to cases referred by the
midwife
D. Formulating and implementing training programs
for midwives
Answer: (B) Providing technical guidance to the
midwife
The nurse provides technical guidance to the midwife
in the care of clients, particularly in the
implementation of management guidelines, as in
Integrated Management of Childhood Illness.
23. One of the participants in a hilot training class
asked you to whom she should refer a patient in labor
who develops a complication. You will answer, to the
A. Public Health Nurse
B. Rural Health Midwife
C. Municipal Health Officer
D. Any of these health professionals
Answer: (C) Municipal Health Officer
A public health nurse and rural health midwife can
provide care during normal childbirth. A physician
should attend to a woman with a complication during
labor.
24. You are the public health nurse in a municipality
with a total population of about 20,000. There are 3
rural health midwives among the RHU personnel.
How many more midwife items will the RHU need?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. The RHU does not need any more midwife item.
Answer: (A) 1
Each rural health midwife is given a population
assignment of about 5,000.
25. If the RHU needs additional midwife items, you
will submit the request for additional midwife items
for approval to the
A. Rural Health Unit
B. District Health Office
C. Provincial Health Office
D. Municipal Health Board
Answer: (D) Municipal Health Board
As mandated by R.A. 7160, basic health services
have been devolved from the national government to
local government units.
26. As an epidemiologist, the nurse is responsible for
reporting cases of notifiable diseases. What law
mandates reporting of cases of notifiable diseases?
A. Act 3573
B. R.A. 3753
C. R.A. 1054
D. R.A. 1082
Answer: (A) Act 3573
Act 3573, the Law on Reporting of Communicable
Diseases, enacted in 1929, mandated the reporting of
diseases listed in the law to the nearest health station.
27. According to Freeman and Heinrich, community
health nursing is a developmental service. Which of
the following best illustrates this statement?
A. The community health nurse continuously
develops himself personally and professionally.
B. Health education and community organizing are
necessary in providing community health services.
C. Community health nursing is intended primarily
for health promotion and prevention and treatment of
disease.
D. The goal of community health nursing is to
provide nursing services to people in their own places
of residence.
Answer: (B) Health education and community
organizing are necessary in providing community
health services.
The community health nurse develops the health
capability of people through health education and
community organizing activities.
28. Which disease was declared through Presidential
Proclamation No. 4 as a target for eradication in the
Philippines?
A. Poliomyelitis
B. Measles
C. Rabies
D. Neonatal tetanus
Answer: (B) Measles
Presidential Proclamation No. 4 is on the Ligtas
Tigdas Program.
29. The public health nurse is responsible for
presenting the municipal health statistics using
graphs and tables. To compare the frequency of the
leading causes of mortality in the municipality, which
graph will you prepare?
A. Line
B. Bar
C. Pie
D. Scatter diagram
Answer: (B) Bar
A bar graph is used to present comparison of values,
a line graph for trends over time or age, a pie graph
for population composition or distribution, and a
scatter diagram for correlation of two variables.
30. Which step in community organizing involves
training of potential leaders in the community?
A. Integration
B. Community organization
C. Community study
D. Core group formation
Answer: (D) Core group formation
In core group formation, the nurse is able to transfer
the technology of community organizing to the
potential or informal community leaders through a
training program.
31. In which step are plans formulated for solving
community problems?
A. Mobilization
B. Community organization
C. Follow-up/extension
D. Core group formation
Answer: (B) Community organization
Community organization is the step when community
assemblies take place. During the community
assembly, the people may opt to formalize the
community organization and make plans for
community action to resolve a community health
problem.
32. The public health nurse takes an active role in
community participation. What is the primary goal of
community organizing?
A. To educate the people regarding community
health problems
B. To mobilize the people to resolve community
health problems
C. To maximize the community’s resources in
dealing with health problems
D. To maximize the community’s resources in
dealing with health problems
Answer: (D) To maximize the community’s
resources in dealing with health problems
Community organizing is a developmental service,
with the goal of developing the people’s self-reliance
in dealing with community health problems. A, B and
C are objectives of contributory objectives to this
goal.
33. An indicator of success in community organizing
is when people are able to
A. Participate in community activities for the solution
of a community problem
B. Implement activities for the solution of the
community problem
C. Plan activities for the solution of the community
problem
D. Identify the health problem as a common concern
Answer: (A) Participate in community activities
for the solution of a community problem
Participation in community activities in resolving a
community problem may be in any of the processes
mentioned in the other choices.
34. Tertiary prevention is needed in which stage of
the natural history of disease?
A. Pre-pathogenesis
B. Pathogenesis
C. Prodromal
D. Terminal
Answer: (D) Terminal
Tertiary prevention involves rehabilitation,
prevention of permanent disability and disability
limitation appropriate for convalescents, the disabled,
complicated cases and the terminally ill (those in the
terminal stage of a disease)
35. Isolation of a child with measles belongs to what
level of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Intermediate
D. Tertiary
Answer: (A) Primary
The purpose of isolating a client with a
communicable disease is to protect those who are not
sick (specific disease prevention).
36. On the other hand, Operation Timbang is _____
prevention.
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Intermediate
D. Tertiary
Answer: (B) Secondary
Operation Timbang is done to identify members of
the susceptible population who are malnourished. Its
purpose is early diagnosis and, subsequently, prompt
treatment.
37. Which type of family-nurse contact will provide
you with the best opportunity to observe family
dynamics?
A. Clinic consultation
B. Group conference
C. Home visit
D. Written communication
Answer: (C) Home visit
Dynamics of family relationships can best be
observed in the family’s natural environment, which
is the home.
38. The typology of family nursing problems is used
in the statement of nursing diagnosis in the care of
families. The youngest child of the de los Reyes
family has been diagnosed as mentally retarded. This
is classified as a
A. Health threat
B. Health deficit
C. Foreseeable crisis
D. Stress point
Answer: (B) Health deficit
Failure of a family member to develop according to
what is expected, as in mental retardation, is a health
deficit.
39. The de los Reyes couple have a 6-year old child
entering school for the first time. The de los Reyes
family has a
A. Health threat
B. Health deficit
C. Foreseeable crisis
D. Stress point
Answer: (C) Foreseeable crisis
Entry of the 6-year old into school is an anticipated
period of unusual demand on the family.
40. Which of the following is an advantage of a home
visit?
A. It allows the nurse to provide nursing care to a
greater number of people.
B. It provides an opportunity to do first hand
appraisal of the home situation.
C. It allows sharing of experiences among people
with similar health problems.
D. It develops the family’s initiative in providing for
health needs of its members.
Answer: (B) It provides an opportunity to do first
hand appraisal of the home situation.
Choice A is not correct since a home visit requires
that the nurse spend so much time with the family.
Choice C is an advantage of a group conference,
while choice D is true of a clinic consultation.
41. Which is CONTRARY to the principles in
planning a home visit?
A. A home visit should have a purpose or objective.
B. The plan should revolve around family health
needs.
C. A home visit should be conducted in the manner
prescribed by the RHU.
D. Planning of continuing care should involve a
responsible family member.
Answer: (C) A home visit should be conducted in
the manner prescribed by the RHU.
The home visit plan should be flexible and practical,
depending on factors, such as the family’s needs and
the resources available to the nurse and the family.
42. The PHN bag is an important tool in providing
nursing care during a home visit. The most important
principle of bag technique states that it
A. Should save time and effort.
B. Should minimize if not totally prevent the spread
of infection.
C. Should not overshadow concern for the patient and
his family.
D. May be done in a variety of ways depending on
the home situation, etc.
Answer: (B) Should minimize if not totally
prevent the spread of infection.
Bag technique is performed before and after handling
a client in the home to prevent transmission of
infection to and from the client.
43. To maintain the cleanliness of the bag and its
contents, which of the following must the nurse do?
A. Wash his/her hands before and after providing
nursing care to the family members.
B. In the care of family members, as much as
possible, use only articles taken from the bag.
C. Put on an apron to protect her uniform and fold it
with the right side out before putting it back into the
bag.
D. At the end of the visit, fold the lining on which the
bag was placed, ensuring that the contaminated side
is on the outside.
Answer: (A) Wash his/her hands before and after
providing nursing care to the family members.
Choice B goes against the idea of utilizing the
family’s resources, which is encouraged in CHN.
Choices C and D goes against the principle of asepsis
of confining the contaminated surface of objects.
44. The public health nurse conducts a study on the
factors contributing to the high mortality rate due to
heart disease in the municipality where she works.
Which branch of epidemiology does the nurse
practice in this situation?
A. Descriptive
B. Analytical
C. Therapeutic
D. Evaluation
Answer: (B) Analytical
Analytical epidemiology is the study of factors or
determinants affecting the patterns of occurrence and
distribution of disease in a community.
45. Which of the following is a function of
epidemiology?
A. Identifying the disease condition based on
manifestations presented by a client
B. Determining factors that contributed to the
occurrence of pneumonia in a 3 year old
C. Determining the efficacy of the antibiotic used in
the treatment of the 3 year old client with pneumonia
D. Evaluating the effectiveness of the implementation
of the Integrated Management of Childhood Illness
Answer: (D) Evaluating the effectiveness of the
implementation of the Integrated Management of
Childhood Illness
Epidemiology is used in the assessment of a
community or evaluation of interventions in
community health practice.
46. Which of the following is an epidemiologic
function of the nurse during an epidemic?
A. Conducting assessment of suspected cases to
detect the communicable disease
B. Monitoring the condition of the cases affected by
the communicable disease
C. Participating in the investigation to determine the
source of the epidemic
D. Teaching the community on preventive measures
against the disease
Answer: (C) Participating in the investigation to
determine the source of the epidemic
Epidemiology is the study of patterns of occurrence
and distribution of disease in the community, as well
as the factors that affect disease patterns. The purpose
of an epidemiologic investigation is to identify the
source of an epidemic, i.e., what brought about the
epidemic.
47. The primary purpose of conducting an
epidemiologic investigation is to
A. Delineate the etiology of the epidemic
B. Encourage cooperation and support of the
community
C. Identify groups who are at risk of contracting the
disease
D. Identify geographical location of cases of the
disease in the community
Answer: (A) Delineate the etiology of the epidemic
Delineating the etiology of an epidemic is identifying
its source.
48. Which is a characteristic of person-to-person
propagated epidemics?
A. There are more cases of the disease than expected.
B. The disease must necessarily be transmitted
through a vector.
C. The spread of the disease can be attributed to a
common vehicle.
D. There is a gradual build up of cases before the
epidemic becomes easily noticeable.
Answer: (D) There is a gradual build up of cases
before the epidemic becomes easily noticeable.
A gradual or insidious onset of the epidemic is
usually observable in person-to-person propagated
epidemics.
49. In the investigation of an epidemic, you compare
the present frequency of the disease with the usual
frequency at this time of the year in this community.
This is done during which stage of the investigation?
A. Establishing the epidemic
B. Testing the hypothesis
C. Formulation of the hypothesis
D. Appraisal of facts
Answer: (A) Establishing the epidemic
Establishing the epidemic is determining whether
there is an epidemic or not. This is done by
comparing the present number of cases with the usual
number of cases of the disease at the same time of the
year, as well as establishing the relatedness of the
cases of the disease.
50. The number of cases of Dengue fever usually
increases towards the end of the rainy season. This
pattern of occurrence of Dengue fever is best
described as
A. Epidemic occurrence
B. Cyclical variation
C. Sporadic occurrence
D. Secular variation
Answer: (B) Cyclical variation
A cyclical variation is a periodic fluctuation in the
number of cases of a disease in the community.
51. In the year 1980, the World Health Organization
declared the Philippines, together with some other
countries in the Western Pacific Region, “free” of
which disease?
A. Pneumonic plague
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Small pox
D. Anthrax
Answer: (C) Small pox
The last documented case of Small pox was in 1977
at Somalia.
52. In the census of the Philippines in 1995, there
were about 35,299,000 males and about 34,968,000
females. What is the sex ratio?
A. 99.06:100
B. 100.94:100
C. 50.23%
D. 49.76%
Answer: (B) 100.94:100
Sex ratio is the number of males for every 100
females in the population.
53. Primary health care is a total approach to
community development. Which of the following is
an indicator of success in the use of the primary
health care approach?
A. Health services are provided free of charge to
individuals and families.
B. Local officials are empowered as the major
decision makers in matters of health.
C. Health workers are able to provide care based on
identified health needs of the people.
D. Health programs are sustained according to the
level of development of the community.
Answer: (D) Health programs are sustained
according to the level of development of the
community.
Primary health care is essential health care that can
be sustained in all stages of development of the
community.
54. Sputum examination is the major screening tool
for pulmonary tuberculosis. Clients would sometimes
get false negative results in this exam. This means
that the test is not perfect in terms of which
characteristic of a diagnostic examination?
A. Effectiveness
B. Efficacy
C. Specificity
D. Sensitivity
Answer: (D) Sensitivity
Sensitivity is the capacity of a diagnostic examination
to detect cases of the disease. If a test is 100%
sensitive, all the cases tested will have a positive
result, i.e., there will be no false negative results.
55. Use of appropriate technology requires
knowledge of indigenous technology. Which
medicinal herb is given for fever, headache and
cough?
A. Sambong
B. Tsaang gubat
C. Akapulko
D. Lagundi
Answer: (D) Lagundi
Sambong is used as a diuretic. Tsaang gubat is used
to relieve diarrhea. Akapulko is used for its
antifungal property.
56. What law created the Philippine Institute of
Traditional and Alternative Health Care?
A. R.A. 8423
B. R.A. 4823
C. R.A. 2483
D. R.A. 3482
Answer: (A) R.A. 8423
(none)
57. In traditional Chinese medicine, the yielding,
negative and feminine force is termed
A. Yin
B. Yang
C. Qi
D. Chai
Answer: (A) Yin
Yang is the male dominating, positive and masculine
force.
58. What is the legal basis for Primary Health Care
approach in the Philippines?
A. Alma Ata Declaration on PHC
B. Letter of Instruction No. 949
C. Presidential Decree No. 147
D. Presidential Decree 996
Answer: (B) Letter of Instruction No. 949
Letter of Instruction 949 was issued by then President
Ferdinand Marcos, directing the formerly called
Ministry of Health, now the Department of Health, to
utilize Primary Health Care approach in planning and
implementing health programs.
59. Which of the following demonstrates intersectoral
linkages?
A. Two-way referral system
B. Team approach
C. Endorsement done by a midwife to another
midwife
D. Cooperation between the PHN and public school
teacher
Answer: (D) Cooperation between the PHN and
public school teacher
Intersectoral linkages refer to working relationships
between the health sector and other sectors involved
in community development.
60. The municipality assigned to you has a
population of about 20,000. Estimate the number of
1-4 year old children who will be given Retinol
capsule 200,000 I.U. every 6 months.
A. 1,500
B. 1,800
C. 2,000
D. 2,300
Answer: (D) 2,300
Based on the Philippine population composition, to
estimate the number of 1-4 year old children,
multiply total population by 11.5%.
61. Estimate the number of pregnant women who will
be given tetanus toxoid during an immunization
outreach activity in a barangay with a population of
about 1,500.
A. 265
B. 300
C. 375
D. 400
Answer: (A) 265
To estimate the number of pregnant women, multiply
the total population by 3.5%.
62. To describe the sex composition of the
population, which demographic tool may be used?
A. Sex ratio
B. Sex proportion
C. Population pyramid
D. Any of these may be used.
Answer: (D) Any of these may be used.
Sex ratio and sex proportion are used to determine
the sex composition of a population. A population
pyramid is used to present the composition of a
population by age and sex.
63. Which of the following is a natality rate?
A. Crude birth rate
B. Neonatal mortality rate
C. Infant mortality rate
D. General fertility rate
Answer: (A) Crude birth rate
Natality means birth. A natality rate is a birth rate.
64. You are computing the crude death rate of your
municipality, with a total population of about 18,000,
for last year. There were 94 deaths. Among those
who died, 20 died because of diseases of the heart
and 32 were aged 50 years or older. What is the crude
death rate?
A. 4.2/1,000
B. 5.2/1,000
C. 6.3/1,000
D. 7.3/1,000
Answer: (B) 5.2/1,000
To compute crude death rate divide total number of
deaths (94) by total population (18,000) and multiply
by 1,000.
65. Knowing that malnutrition is a frequent
community health problem, you decided to conduct
nutritional assessment. What population is
particularly susceptible to protein energy malnutrition
(PEM)?
A. Pregnant women and the elderly
B. Under-5 year old children
C. 1-4 year old children
D. School age children
Answer: (C) 1-4 year old children
Preschoolers are the most susceptible to PEM
because they have generally been weaned. Also, this
is the population who, unable to feed themselves, are
often the victims of poor intrafamilial food
distribution.
66. Which statistic can give the most accurate
reflection of the health status of a community?
A. 1-4 year old age-specific mortality rate
B. Infant mortality rate
C. Swaroop’s index
D. Crude death rate
Answer: (C) Swaroop’s index
Swaroop’s index is the proportion of deaths aged 50
years and above. The higher the Swaroop’s index of a
population, the greater the proportion of the deaths
who were able to reach the age of at least 50 years,
i.e., more people grew old before they died.
67. In the past year, Barangay A had an average
population of 1655. 46 babies were born in that year,
2 of whom died less than 4 weeks after they were
born. There were 4 recorded stillbirths. What is the
neonatal mortality rate?
A. 27.8/1,000
B. 43.5/1,000
C. 86.9/1,000
D. 130.4/1,000
Answer: (B) 43.5/1,000
To compute for neonatal mortality rate, divide the
number of babies who died before reaching the age of
28 days by the total number of live births, then
multiply by 1,000.
68. Which statistic best reflects the nutritional status
of a population?
A. 1-4 year old age-specific mortality rate
B. Proportionate mortality rate
C. Infant mortality rate
D. Swaroop’s index
Answer: (A) 1-4 year old age-specific mortality
rate
Since preschoolers are the most susceptible to the
effects of malnutrition, a population with poor
nutritional status will most likely have a high 1-4
year old age-specific mortality rate, also known as
child mortality rate.
69. What numerator is used in computing general
fertility rate?
A. Estimated midyear population
B. Number of registered live births
C. Number of pregnancies in the year
D. Number of females of reproductive age
Answer: (B) Number of registered live births
To compute for general or total fertility rate, divide
the number of registered live births by the number of
females of reproductive age (15-45 years), then
multiply by 1,000.
70. You will gather data for nutritional assessment of
a purok. You will gather information only from
families with members who belong to the target
population for PEM. What method of data gathering
is best for this purpose?
A. Census
B. Survey
C. Record review
D. Review of civil registry
Answer: (B) Survey
A survey, also called sample survey, is data gathering
about a sample of the population.
71. In the conduct of a census, the method of
population assignment based on the actual physical
location of the people is termed
A. De jure
B. De locus
C. De facto
D. De novo
Answer: (C) De facto
The other method of population assignment, de jure,
is based on the usual place of residence of the people.
72. The Field Health Services and Information
System (FHSIS) is the recording and reporting
system in public health care in the Philippines. The
Monthly Field Health Service Activity Report is a
form used in which of the components of the FHSIS?
A. Tally report
B. Output report
C. Target/client list
D. Individual health record
Answer: (A) Tally report
A tally report is prepared monthly or quarterly by the
RHU personnel and transmitted to the Provincial
Health Office.
73. To monitor clients registered in long-term
regimens, such as the Multi-Drug Therapy, which
component will be most useful?
A. Tally report
B. Output report
C. Target/client list
D. Individual health record
Answer: (C) Target/client list
The MDT Client List is a record of clients enrolled in
MDT and other relevant data, such as dates when
clients collected their monthly supply of drugs.
74. Civil registries are important sources of data.
Which law requires registration of births within 30
days from the occurrence of the birth?
A. P.D. 651
B. Act 3573
C. R.A. 3753
D. R.A. 3375
Answer: (A) P.D. 651
P.D. 651 amended R.A. 3753, requiring the registry
of births within 30 days from their occurrence.
75. Which of the following professionals can sign the
birth certificate?
A. Public health nurse
B. Rural health midwife
C. Municipal health officer
D. Any of these health professionals
Answer: (D) Any of these health professionals
D. R.A. 3753 states that any birth attendant may sign
the certificate of live birth.
76. Which criterion in priority setting of health
problems is used only in community health care?
A. Modifiability of the problem
B. Nature of the problem presented
C. Magnitude of the health problem
D. Preventive potential of the health problem
Answer: (C) Magnitude of the health problem
Magnitude of the problem refers to the percentage of
the population affected by a health problem. The
other choices are criteria considered in both family
and community health care.
77. The Sentrong Sigla Movement has been launched
to improve health service delivery. Which of the
following is/are true of this movement?
A. This is a project spearheaded by local government
units.
B. It is a basis for increasing funding from local
government units.
C. It encourages health centers to focus on disease
prevention and control.
D. Its main strategy is certification of health centers
able to comply with standards.
Answer: (D) Its main strategy is certification of
health centers able to comply with standards.
Sentrong Sigla Movement is a joint project of the
DOH and local government units. Its main strategy is
certification of health centers that are able to comply
with standards set by the DOH.
78. Which of the following women should be
considered as special targets for family planning?
A. Those who have two children or more
B. Those with medical conditions such as anemia
C. Those younger than 20 years and older than 35
years
D. Those who just had a delivery within the past 15
months
Answer: (D) Those who just had a delivery within
the past 15 months
The ideal birth spacing is at least two years. 15
months plus 9 months of pregnancy = 2 years.
79. Freedom of choice is one of the policies of the
Family Planning Program of the Philippines. Which
of the following illustrates this principle?
A. Information dissemination about the need for
family planning
B. Support of research and development in family
planning methods
C. Adequate information for couples regarding the
different methods
D. Encouragement of couples to take family planning
as a joint responsibility
Answer: (C) Adequate information for couples
regarding the different methods
To enable the couple to choose freely among
different methods of family planning, they must be
given full information regarding the different
methods that are available to them, considering the
availability of quality services that can support their
choice.
80. A woman, 6 months pregnant, came to the center
for consultation. Which of the following substances
is contraindicated?
A. Tetanus toxoid
B. Retinol 200,000 IU
C. Ferrous sulfate 200 mg
D. Potassium iodate 200 mg. capsule
Answer: (B) Retinol 200,000 IU
Retinol 200,000 IU is a form of megadose Vitamin
A. This may have a teratogenic effect.
81. During prenatal consultation, a client asked you if
she can have her delivery at home. After history
taking and physical examination, you advised her
against a home delivery. Which of the following
findings disqualifies her for a home delivery?
A. Her OB score is G5P3.
B. She has some palmar pallor.
C. Her blood pressure is 130/80.
D. Her baby is in cephalic presentation.
Answer: (A) Her OB score is G5P3.
Only women with less than 5 pregnancies are
qualified for a home delivery. It is also advisable for
a primigravida to have delivery at a childbirth
facility.
82. Inadequate intake by the pregnant woman of
which vitamin may cause neural tube defects?
A. Niacin
B. Riboflavin
C. Folic acid
D. Thiamine
Answer: (C) Folic acid
It is estimated that the incidence of neural tube
defects can be reduced drastically if pregnant women
have an adequate intake of folic acid.
83. You are in a client’s home to attend to a delivery.
Which of the following will you do first?
A. Set up the sterile area.
B. Put on a clean gown or apron.
C. Cleanse the client’s vulva with soap and water.
D. Note the interval, duration and intensity of labor
contractions.
Answer: (D) Note the interval, duration and
intensity of labor contractions.
Assessment of the woman should be done first to
determine whether she is having true labor and, if so,
what stage of labor she is in.
84. In preparing a primigravida for breastfeeding,
which of the following will you do?
A. Tell her that lactation begins within a day after
delivery.
B. Teach her nipple stretching exercises if her nipples
are everted.
C. Instruct her to wash her nipples before and after
each breastfeeding.
D. Explain to her that putting the baby to breast will
lessen blood loss after delivery.
Answer: (D) Explain to her that putting the baby
to breast will lessen blood loss after delivery.
Suckling of the nipple stimulates the release of
oxytocin by the posterior pituitary gland, which
causes uterine contraction. Lactation begins 1 to 3
days after delivery. Nipple stretching exercises are
done when the nipples are flat or inverted. Frequent
washing dries up the nipples, making them prone to
the formation of fissures.
85. A primigravida is instructed to offer her breast to
the baby for the first time within 30 minutes after
delivery. What is the purpose of offering the breast
this early?
A. To initiate the occurrence of milk letdown
B. To stimulate milk production by the mammary
acini
C. To make sure that the baby is able to get the
colostrum
D. To allow the woman to practice breastfeeding in
the presence of the health worker
Answer: (B) To stimulate milk production by the
mammary acini
Suckling of the nipple stimulates prolactin reflex (the
release of prolactin by the anterior pituitary gland),
which initiates lactation.
86. In a mothers’ class, you discuss proper
breastfeeding technique. Which is of these is a sign
that the baby has “latched on” to the breast properly?
A. The baby takes shallow, rapid sucks.
B. The mother does not feel nipple pain.
C. The baby’s mouth is only partly open.
D. Only the mother’s nipple is inside the baby’s
mouth.
Answer: (B) The mother does not feel nipple pain.
When the baby has properly latched on to the breast,
he takes deep, slow sucks; his mouth is wide open;
and much of the areola is inside his mouth. And,
you’re right! The mother does not feel nipple pain.
87. You explain to a breastfeeding mother that breast
milk is sufficient for all of the baby’s nutrient needs
only up to ____.
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 2 years
Answer: (B) 6 months
After 6 months, the baby’s nutrient needs, especially
the baby’s iron requirement, can no longer be
provided by mother’s milk alone.
88. What is given to a woman within a month after
the delivery of a baby?
A. Malunggay capsule
B. Ferrous sulfate 100 mg. OD
C. Retinol 200,000 I.U., 1 capsule
D. Potassium iodate 200 mg, 1 capsule
Answer: (C) Retinol 200,000 I.U., 1 capsule
A capsule of Retinol 200,000 IU is given within 1
month after delivery. Potassium iodate is given
during pregnancy; malunggay capsule is not routinely
administered after delivery; and ferrous sulfate is
taken for two months after delivery.
89. Which biological used in Expanded Program on
Immunization (EPI) is stored in the freezer?
A. DPT
B. Tetanus toxoid
C. Measles vaccine
D. Hepatitis B vaccine
Answer: (C) Measles vaccine
Among the biologicals used in the Expanded
Program on Immunization, measles vaccine and OPV
are highly sensitive to heat, requiring storage in the
freezer.
90. Unused BCG should be discarded how many
hours after reconstitution?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. At the end of the day
Answer: (B) 4
While the unused portion of other biologicals in EPI
may be given until the end of the day, only BCG is
discarded 4 hours after reconstitution. This is why
BCG immunization is scheduled only in the morning.
91. In immunizing school entrants with BCG, you are
not obliged to secure parental consent. This is
because of which legal document?
A. P.D. 996
B. R.A. 7846
C. Presidential Proclamation No. 6
D. Presidential Proclamation No. 46
Answer: (A) P.D. 996
Presidential Decree 996, enacted in 1976, made
immunization in the EPI compulsory for children
under 8 years of age. Hepatitis B vaccination was
made compulsory for the same age group by R.A.
7846.
92. Which immunization produces a permanent scar?
A. DPT
B. BCG
C. Measles vaccination
D. Hepatitis B vaccination
Answer: (B) BCG
BCG causes the formation of a superficial abscess,
which begins 2 weeks after immunization. The
abscess heals without treatment, with the formation
of a permanent scar.
93. A 4-week old baby was brought to the health
center for his first immunization. Which can be given
to him?
A. DPT1
B. OPV1
C. Infant BCG
D. Hepatitis B vaccine 1
Answer: (C) Infant BCG
Infant BCG may be given at birth. All the other
immunizations mentioned can be given at 6 weeks of
age.
94. You will not give DPT 2 if the mother says that
the infant had
A. Seizures a day after DPT 1.
B. Fever for 3 days after DPT 1.
C. Abscess formation after DPT 1.
D. Local tenderness for 3 days after DPT 1.
Answer: (A) Seizures a day after DPT 1.
Seizures within 3 days after administration of DPT is
an indication of hypersensitivity to pertussis vaccine,
a component of DPT. This is considered a specific
contraindication to subsequent doses of DPT.
95. A 2-month old infant was brought to the health
center for immunization. During assessment, the
infant’s temperature registered at 38.1°C. Which is
the best course of action that you will take?
A. Go on with the infant’s immunizations.
B. Give Paracetamol and wait for his fever to
subside.
C. Refer the infant to the physician for further
assessment.
D. Advise the infant’s mother to bring him back for
immunization when he is well.
Answer: (A) Go on with the infant’s
immunizations.
In the EPI, fever up to 38.5°C is not a
contraindication to immunization. Mild acute
respiratory tract infection, simple diarrhea and
malnutrition are not contraindications either.
96. A pregnant woman had just received her 4th dose
of tetanus toxoid. Subsequently, her baby will have
protection against tetanus for how long?
A. 1 year
B. 3 years
C. 10 years
D. Lifetime
Answer: (A) 1 year
The baby will have passive natural immunity by
placental transfer of antibodies. The mother will have
active artificial immunity lasting for about 10 years. 5
doses will give the mother lifetime protection.
97. A 4-month old infant was brought to the health
center because of cough. Her respiratory rate is
42/minute. Using the Integrated Management of
Child Illness (IMCI) guidelines of assessment, her
breathing is considered
A. Fast
B. Slow
C. Normal
D. Insignificant
Answer: (C) Normal
In IMCI, a respiratory rate of 50/minute or more is
fast breathing for an infant aged 2 to 12 months.
98. Which of the following signs will indicate that a
young child is suffering from severe pneumonia?
A. Dyspnea
B. Wheezing
C. Fast breathing
D. Chest indrawing
Answer: (D) Chest indrawing
In IMCI, chest indrawing is used as the positive sign
of dyspnea, indicating severe pneumonia.
99. Using IMCI guidelines, you classify a child as
having severe pneumonia. What is the best
management for the child?
A. Prescribe an antibiotic.
B. Refer him urgently to the hospital.
C. Instruct the mother to increase fluid intake.
D. Instruct the mother to continue breastfeeding.
Answer: (B) Refer him urgently to the hospital.
Severe pneumonia requires urgent referral to a
hospital. Answers A, C and D are done for a client
classified as having pneumonia.
100. A 5-month old infant was brought by his mother
to the health center because of diarrhea occurring 4 to
5 times a day. His skin goes back slowly after a skin
pinch and his eyes are sunken. Using the IMCI
guidelines, you will classify this infant in which
category?
A. No signs of dehydration
B. Some dehydration
C. Severe dehydration
D. The data is insufficient.
Answer: (B) Some dehydration
Using the assessment guidelines of IMCI, a child (2
months to 5 years old) with diarrhea is classified as
having SOME DEHYDRATION if he shows 2 or
more of the following signs: restless or irritable,
sunken eyes, the skin goes back slow after a skin
pinch.
101. Based on assessment, you classified a 3-month
old infant with the chief complaint of diarrhea in the
category of SOME DEHYDRATION. Based on
IMCI management guidelines, which of the following
will you do?
A. Bring the infant to the nearest facility where IV
fluids can be given.
B. Supervise the mother in giving 200 to 400 ml. of
Oresol in 4 hours.
C. Give the infant’s mother instructions on home
management.
D. Keep the infant in your health center for close
observation.
Answer: (B) Supervise the mother in giving 200 to
400 ml. of Oresol in 4 hours.
In the IMCI management guidelines, SOME
DEHYDRATION is treated with the administration
of Oresol within a period of 4 hours. The amount of
Oresol is best computed on the basis of the child’s
weight (75 ml/kg body weight). If the weight is
unknown, the amount of Oresol is based on the
child’s age.
102. A mother is using Oresol in the management of
diarrhea of her 3-year old child. She asked you what
to do if her child vomits. You will tell her to
A. Bring the child to the nearest hospital for further
assessment.
B. Bring the child to the health center for intravenous
fluid therapy.
C. Bring the child to the health center for assessment
by the physician.
D. Let the child rest for 10 minutes then continue
giving Oresol more slowly.
Answer: (D) Let the child rest for 10 minutes then
continue giving Oresol more slowly.
If the child vomits persistently, that is, he vomits
everything that he takes in, he has to be referred
urgently to a hospital. Otherwise, vomiting is
managed by letting the child rest for 10 minutes and
then continuing with Oresol administration. Teach
the mother to give Oresol more slowly.
103. A 1 ½ year old child was classified as having
3rd degree protein energy malnutrition, kwashiorkor.
Which of the following signs will be most apparent in
this child?
A. Voracious appetite
B. Wasting
C. Apathy
D. Edema
Answer: (D) Edema
Edema, a major sign of kwashiorkor, is caused by
decreased colloidal osmotic pressure of the blood
brought about by hypoalbuminemia. Decreased blood
albumin level is due a protein-deficient diet.
104. Assessment of a 2-year old child revealed
“baggy pants”. Using the IMCI guidelines, how will
you manage this child?
A. Refer the child urgently to a hospital for
confinement.
B. Coordinate with the social worker to enroll the
child in a feeding program.
C. Make a teaching plan for the mother, focusing on
menu planning for her child.
D. Assess and treat the child for health problems like
infections and intestinal parasitism.
Answer: (A) Refer the child urgently to a hospital
for confinement.
“Baggy pants” is a sign of severe marasmus. The best
management is urgent referral to a hospital.
105. During the physical examination of a young
child, what is the earliest sign of xerophthalmia that
you may observe?
A. Keratomalacia
B. Corneal opacity
C. Night blindness
D. Conjunctival xerosis
Answer: (D) Conjunctival xerosis
The earliest sign of Vitamin A deficiency
(xerophthalmia) is night blindness. However, this is a
functional change, which is not observable during
physical examination.The earliest visible lesion is
conjunctival xerosis or dullness of the conjunctiva
due to inadequate tear production.
106. To prevent xerophthalmia, young children are
given Retinol capsule every 6 months. What is the
dose given to preschoolers?
A. 10,000 IU
B. 20,000 IU
C. 100,000 IU
D. 200,000 IU
Answer: (D) 200,000 IU
Preschoolers are given Retinol 200,000 IU every 6
months. 100,000 IU is given once to infants aged 6 to
12 months. The dose for pregnant women is 10,000
IU.
107. The major sign of iron deficiency anemia is
pallor. What part is best examined for pallor?
A. Palms
B. Nailbeds
C. Around the lips
D. Lower conjunctival sac
Answer: (A) Palms
The anatomic characteristics of the palms allow a
reliable and convenient basis for examination for
pallor.
108. Food fortification is one of the strategies to
prevent micronutrient deficiency conditions. R.A.
8976 mandates fortification of certain food items.
Which of the following is among these food items?
A. Sugar
B. Bread
C. Margarine
D. Filled milk
Answer: (A) Sugar
R.A. 8976 mandates fortification of rice, wheat flour,
sugar and cooking oil with Vitamin A, iron and/or
iodine.
109. What is the best course of action when there is a
measles epidemic in a nearby municipality?
A. Give measles vaccine to babies aged 6 to 8
months.
B. Give babies aged 6 to 11 months one dose of
100,000 I.U. of Retinol
C. Instruct mothers to keep their babies at home to
prevent disease transmission.
D. Instruct mothers to feed their babies adequately to
enhance their babies’ resistance.
Answer: (A) Give measles vaccine to babies aged 6
to 8 months.
Ordinarily, measles vaccine is given at 9 months of
age. During an impending epidemic, however, one
dose may be given to babies aged 6 to 8 months. The
mother is instructed that the baby needs another dose
when the baby is 9 months old.
110. A mother brought her daughter, 4 years old, to
the RHU because of cough and colds. Following the
IMCI assessment guide, which of the following is a
danger sign that indicates the need for urgent referral
to a hospital?
A. Inability to drink
B. High grade fever
C. Signs of severe dehydration
D. Cough for more than 30 days
Answer: (A) Inability to drink
A sick child aged 2 months to 5 years must be
referred urgently to a hospital if he/she has one or
more of the following signs: not able to feed or drink,
vomits everything, convulsions, abnormally sleepy or
difficult to awaken.
111. Management of a child with measles includes
the administration of which of the following?
A. Gentian violet on mouth lesions
B. Antibiotics to prevent pneumonia
C. Tetracycline eye ointment for corneal opacity
D. Retinol capsule regardless of when the last dose
was given
Answer: (D) Retinol capsule regardless of when
the last dose was given
An infant 6 to 12 months classified as a case of
measles is given Retinol 100,000 IU; a child is given
200,000 IU regardless of when the last dose was
given.
112. A mother brought her 10 month old infant for
consultation because of fever, which started 4 days
prior to consultation. To determine malaria risk, what
will you do?
A. Do a tourniquet test.
B. Ask where the family resides.
C. Get a specimen for blood smear.
D. Ask if the fever is present everyday.
Answer: (B) Ask where the family resides.
Because malaria is endemic, the first question to
determine malaria risk is where the client’s family
resides. If the area of residence is not a known
endemic area, ask if the child had traveled within the
past 6 months, where he/she was brought and
whether he/she stayed overnight in that area.
113. The following are strategies implemented by the
Department of Health to prevent mosquito-borne
diseases. Which of these is most effective in the
control of Dengue fever?
A. Stream seeding with larva-eating fish
B. Destroying breeding places of mosquitoes
C. Chemoprophylaxis of non-immune persons going
to endemic areas
D. Teaching people in endemic areas to use
chemically treated mosquito nets
Answer: (B) Destroying breeding places of
mosquitoes
Aedes aegypti, the vector of Dengue fever, breeds in
stagnant, clear water. Its feeding time is usually
during the daytime. It has a cyclical pattern of
occurrence, unlike malaria which is endemic in
certain parts of the country.
114. Secondary prevention for malaria includes
A. Planting of neem or eucalyptus trees
B. Residual spraying of insecticides at night
C. Determining whether a place is endemic or not
D. Growing larva-eating fish in mosquito breeding
places
Answer: (C) Determining whether a place is
endemic or not
This is diagnostic and therefore secondary level
prevention. The other choices are for primary
prevention.

115. Scotch tape swab is done to check for which
intestinal parasite?
A. Ascaris
B. Pinworm
C. Hookworm
D. Schistosoma
Answer: (B) Pinworm
Pinworm ova are deposited around the anal orifice.
116. Which of the following signs indicates the need
for sputum examination for AFB?
A. Hematemesis
B. Fever for 1 week
C. Cough for 3 weeks
D. Chest pain for 1 week
Answer: (C) Cough for 3 weeks
A client is considered a PTB suspect when he has
cough for 2 weeks or more, plus one or more of the
following signs: fever for 1 month or more; chest
pain lasting for 2 weeks or more not attributed to
other conditions; progressive, unexplained weight
loss; night sweats; and hemoptysis.
117. Which clients are considered targets for DOTS
Category I?
A. Sputum negative cavitary cases
B. Clients returning after a default
C. Relapses and failures of previous PTB treatment
regimens
D. Clients diagnosed for the first time through a
positive sputum exam
Answer: (D) Clients diagnosed for the first time
through a positive sputum exam
Category I is for new clients diagnosed by sputum
examination and clients diagnosed to have a serious
form of extrapulmonary tuberculosis, such as TB
osteomyelitis.
118. To improve compliance to treatment, what
innovation is being implemented in DOTS?
A. Having the health worker follow up the client at
home
B. Having the health worker or a responsible family
member monitor drug intake
C. Having the patient come to the health center every
month to get his medications
D. Having a target list to check on whether the
patient has collected his monthly supply of drugs
Answer: (B) Having the health worker or a
responsible family member monitor drug intake
Directly Observed Treatment Short Course is so-
called because a treatment partner, preferably a
health worker accessible to the client, monitors the
client’s compliance to the treatment.
119. Diagnosis of leprosy is highly dependent on
recognition of symptoms. Which of the following is
an early sign of leprosy?
A. Macular lesions
B. Inability to close eyelids
C. Thickened painful nerves
D. Sinking of the nosebridge
Answer: (C) Thickened painful nerves
The lesion of leprosy is not macular. It is
characterized by a change in skin color (either
reddish or whitish) and loss of sensation, sweating
and hair growth over the lesion. Inability to close the
eyelids (lagophthalmos) and sinking of the
nosebridge are late symptoms.
120. Which of the following clients should be
classified as a case of multibacillary leprosy?
A. 3 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
B. 3 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear
C. 5 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
D. 5 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear
Answer: (D) 5 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear
A multibacillary leprosy case is one who has a
positive slit skin smear and at least 5 skin lesions.
121. In the Philippines, which condition is the most
frequent cause of death associated with
schistosomiasis?
A. Liver cancer
B. Liver cirrhosis
C. Bladder cancer
D. Intestinal perforation
Answer: (B) Liver cirrhosis
The etiologic agent of schistosomiasis in the
Philippines is Schistosoma japonicum, which affects
the small intestine and the liver. Liver damage is a
consequence of fibrotic reactions to schistosoma eggs
in the liver.
122. What is the most effective way of controlling
schistosomiasis in an endemic area?
A. Use of molluscicides
B. Building of foot bridges
C. Proper use of sanitary toilets
D. Use of protective footwear, such as rubber boots
Answer: (C) Proper use of sanitary toilets
The ova of the parasite get out of the human body
together with feces. Cutting the cycle at this stage is
the most effective way of preventing the spread of the
disease to susceptible hosts.
123. When residents obtain water from an artesian
well in the neighborhood, the level of this approved
type of water facility is
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
Answer: (B) II
A communal faucet or water standpost is classified as
Level II.
124. For prevention of hepatitis A, you decided to
conduct health education activities. Which of the
following is IRRELEVANT?
A. Use of sterile syringes and needles
B. Safe food preparation and food handling by
vendors
C. Proper disposal of human excreta and personal
hygiene
D. Immediate reporting of water pipe leaks and
illegal water connections
Answer: (A) Use of sterile syringes and needles
Hepatitis A is transmitted through the fecal oral
route. Hepatitis B is transmitted through infected
body secretions like blood and semen.
126. Which biological used in Expanded Program on
Immunization (EPI) should NOT be stored in the
freezer?
A. DPT
B. Oral polio vaccine
C. Measles vaccine
D. MMR
Answer: (A) DPT
DPT is sensitive to freezing. The appropriate storage
temperature of DPT is 2 to 8° C only. OPV and
measles vaccine are highly sensitive to heat and
require freezing. MMR is not an immunization in the
Expanded Program on Immunization.
127. You will conduct outreach immunization in a
barangay with a population of about 1500. Estimate
the number of infants in the barangay.
A. 45
B. 50
C. 55
D. 60
Answer: (A) 45
To estimate the number of infants, multiply total
population by 3%.
128. In Integrated Management of Childhood Illness,
severe conditions generally require urgent referral to
a hospital. Which of the following severe conditions
DOES NOT always require urgent referral to a
hospital?
A. Mastoiditis
B. Severe dehydration
C. Severe pneumonia
D. Severe febrile disease
Answer: (B) Severe dehydration
The order of priority in the management of severe
dehydration is as follows: intravenous fluid therapy,
referral to a facility where IV fluids can be initiated
within 30 minutes, Oresol/nasogastric tube,
Oresol/orem. When the foregoing measures are not
possible or effective, tehn urgent referral to the
hospital is done.
129. A client was diagnosed as having Dengue fever.
You will say that there is slow capillary refill when
the color of the nailbed that you pressed does not
return within how many seconds?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 8
D. 10
Answer: (A) 3
Adequate blood supply to the area allows the return
of the color of the nailbed within 3 seconds.
130. A 3-year old child was brought by his mother to
the health center because of fever of 4-day duration.
The child had a positive tourniquet test result. In the
absence of other signs, which is the most appropriate
measure that the PHN may carry out to prevent
Dengue shock syndrome?
A. Insert an NGT and give fluids per NGT.
B. Instruct the mother to give the child Oresol.
C. Start the patient on intravenous fluids STAT.
D. Refer the client to the physician for appropriate
management.
Answer: (B) Instruct the mother to give the child
Oresol.
Since the child does not manifest any other danger
sign, maintenance of fluid balance and replacement
of fluid loss may be done by giving the client Oresol.
131. The pathognomonic sign of measles is Koplik’s
spot. You may see Koplik’s spot by inspecting the
_____.
A. Nasal mucosa
B. Buccal mucosa
C. Skin on the abdomen
D. Skin on the antecubital surface
Answer: (B) Buccal mucosa
Koplik’s spot may be seen on the mucosa of the
mouth or the throat.
132. Among the following diseases, which is
airborne?
A. Viral conjunctivitis
B. Acute poliomyelitis
C. Diphtheria
D. Measles
Answer: (D) Measles
Viral conjunctivitis is transmitted by direct or indirect
contact with discharges from infected eyes. Acute
poliomyelitis is spread through the fecal-oral route
and contact with throat secretions, whereas diphtheria
is through direct and indirect contact with respiratory
secretions.
133. Among children aged 2 months to 3 years, the
most prevalent form of meningitis is caused by which
microorganism?
A. Hemophilus influenzae
B. Morbillivirus
C. Steptococcus pneumoniae
D. Neisseria meningitidis
Answer: (A) Hemophilus influenzae
Hemophilus meningitis is unusual over the age of 5
years. In developing countries, the peak incidence is
in children less than 6 months of age. Morbillivirus is
the etiology of measles. Streptococcus pneumoniae
and Neisseria meningitidis may cause meningitis, but
age distribution is not specific in young children.
134. Human beings are the major reservoir of
malaria. Which of the following strategies in malaria
control is based on this fact?
A. Stream seeding
B. Stream clearing
C. Destruction of breeding places
D. Zooprophylaxis
Answer: (D) Zooprophylaxis
Zooprophylaxis is done by putting animals like cattle
or dogs close to windows or doorways just before
nightfall. The Anopheles mosquito takes his blood
meal from the animal and goes back to its breeding
place, thereby preventing infection of humans.
135. The use of larvivorous fish in malaria control is
the basis for which strategy of malaria control?
A. Stream seeding
B. Stream clearing
C. Destruction of breeding places
D. Zooprophylaxis
Answer: (A) Stream seeding
Stream seeding is done by putting tilapia fry in
streams or other bodies of water identified as
breeding places of the Anopheles mosquito
136. Mosquito-borne diseases are prevented mostly
with the use of mosquito control measures. Which of
the following is NOT appropriate for malaria control?
A. Use of chemically treated mosquito nets
B. Seeding of breeding places with larva-eating fish
C. Destruction of breeding places of the mosquito
vector
D. Use of mosquito-repelling soaps, such as those
with basil or citronella
Answer: (C) Destruction of breeding places of the
mosquito vector
Anopheles mosquitoes breed in slow-moving, clear
water, such as mountain streams.
137. A 4-year old client was brought to the health
center with the chief complaint of severe diarrhea and
the passage of “rice water” stools. The client is most
probably suffering from which condition?
A. Giardiasis
B. Cholera
C. Amebiasis
D. Dysentery
Answer: (B) Cholera
Passage of profuse watery stools is the major
symptom of cholera. Both amebic and bacillary
dysentery are characterized by the presence of blood
and/or mucus in the stools. Giardiasis is characterized
by fat malabsorption and, therefore, steatorrhea.
138. In the Philippines, which specie of schistosoma
is endemic in certain regions?
A. S. mansoni
B. S. japonicum
C. S. malayensis
D. S. haematobium
Answer: (B) S. japonicum
S. mansoni is found mostly in Africa and South
America; S. haematobium in Africa and the Middle
East; and S. malayensis only in peninsular Malaysia.
139. A 32-year old client came for consultation at the
health center with the chief complaint of fever for a
week. Accompanying symptoms were muscle pains
and body malaise. A week after the start of fever, the
client noted yellowish discoloration of his sclera.
History showed that he waded in flood waters about 2
weeks before the onset of symptoms. Based on his
history, which disease condition will you suspect?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Tetanus
D. Leptospirosis
Answer: (D) Leptospirosis
Leptospirosis is transmitted through contact with the
skin or mucous membrane with water or moist soil
contaminated with urine of infected animals, like rats.
140. MWSS provides water to Manila and other cities
in Metro Manila. This is an example of which level
of water facility?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
Answer: (C) III
Waterworks systems, such as MWSS, are classified
as level III.
141. You are the PHN in the city health center. A
client underwent screening for AIDS using ELISA.
His result was positive. What is the best course of
action that you may take?
A. Get a thorough history of the client, focusing on
the practice of high risk behaviors.
B. Ask the client to be accompanied by a significant
person before revealing the result.
C. Refer the client to the physician since he is the
best person to reveal the result to the client.
D. Refer the client for a supplementary test, such as
Western blot, since the ELISA result may be false.
Answer: (D) Refer the client for a supplementary
test, such as Western blot, since the ELISA result
may be false.
A client having a reactive ELISA result must undergo
a more specific test, such as Western blot. A negative
supplementary test result means that the ELISA result
was false and that, most probably, the client is not
infected.
142. Which is the BEST control measure for AIDS?
A. Being faithful to a single sexual partner
B. Using a condom during each sexual contact
C. Avoiding sexual contact with commercial sex
workers
D. Making sure that one’s sexual partner does not
have signs of AIDS
Answer: (A) Being faithful to a single sexual
partner
Sexual fidelity rules out the possibility of getting the
disease by sexual contact with another infected
person. Transmission occurs mostly through sexual
intercourse and exposure to blood or tissues.
143. The most frequent causes of death among clients
with AIDS are opportunistic diseases. Which of the
following opportunistic infections is characterized by
tonsillopharyngitis?
A. Respiratory candidiasis
B. Infectious mononucleosis
C. Cytomegalovirus disease
D. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Answer: (B) Infectious mononucleosis
Cytomegalovirus disease is an acute viral disease
characterized by fever, sore throat and
lymphadenopathy.
144. To determine possible sources of sexually
transmitted infections, which is the BEST method
that may be undertaken by the public health nurse?
A. Contact tracing
B. Community survey
C. Mass screening tests
D. Interview of suspects
Answer: (A) Contact tracing
Contact tracing is the most practical and reliable
method of finding possible sources of person-to-
person transmitted infections, such as sexually
transmitted diseases.
145. Antiretroviral agents, such as AZT, are used in
the management of AIDS. Which of the following is
NOT an action expected of these drugs.
A. They prolong the life of the client with AIDS.
B. They reduce the risk of opportunistic infections
C. They shorten the period of communicability of the
disease.
D. They are able to bring about a cure of the disease
condition.
Answer: (D) They are able to bring about a cure
of the disease condition.
There is no known treatment for AIDS. Antiretroviral
agents reduce the risk of opportunistic infections and inflammation of the testes and epididymis may cause
prolong life, but does not cure the underlying sterility.
immunodeficiency.

146. A barangay had an outbreak of German measles.

To prevent congenital rubella, what is the BEST
advice that you can give to women in the first
trimester of pregnancy in the barangay?
A. Advice them on the signs of German measles.
B. Avoid crowded places, such as markets and
moviehouses.
C. Consult at the health center where rubella vaccine
may be given.
D. Consult a physician who may give them rubella
immunoglobulin.

Answer: (D) Consult a physician who may give

them rubella immunoglobulin.
Rubella vaccine is made up of attenuated German
measles viruses. This is contraindicated in pregnancy.
Immune globulin, a specific prophylactic against
German measles, may be given to pregnant women.

147. You were invited to be the resource person in a

training class for food handlers. Which of the
following would you emphasize regarding prevention
of staphylococcal food poisoning?
A. All cooking and eating utensils must be
thoroughly washed.
B. Food must be cooked properly to destroy
staphylococcal microorganisms.
C. Food handlers and food servers must have a
negative stool examination result.
D. Proper handwashing during food preparation is the
best way of preventing the condition.

Answer: (D) Proper handwashing during food

preparation is the best way of preventing the
condition.
Symptoms of this food poisoning are due to
staphylococcal enterotoxin, not the microorganisms
themselves. Contamination is by food handling by
persons with staphylococcal skin or eye infections.

148. In a mothers’ class, you discussed childhood

diseases such as chicken pox. Which of the following
statements about chicken pox is correct?
A. The older one gets, the more susceptible he
becomes to the complications of chicken pox.
B. A single attack of chicken pox will prevent future
episodes, including conditions such as shingles.
C. To prevent an outbreak in the community,
quarantine may be imposed by health authorities.
D. Chicken pox vaccine is best given when there is
an impending outbreak in the community.

Answer: (A) The older one gets, the more

susceptible he becomes to the complications of
chicken pox.
Chicken pox is usually more severe in adults than in
children. Complications, such as pneumonia, are
higher in incidence in adults.

149. Complications to infectious parotitis (mumps)

may be serious in which type of clients?
A. Pregnant women
B. Elderly clients
C. Young adult males
D. Young infants

Answer: (C) Young adult males

Epididymitis and orchitis are possible complications
of mumps. In post-adolescent males, bilateral