Signature and Name of Invigilator

Answer Sheet No. : ................................................

(To be filled by the Candidate)

1. (Signature)

Roll No.

(Name)

(In figures as per admission card)

Roll No.

2. (Signature)
(Name)

Test Booklet No.

D5 8 0 6

PAPERII

LAW

Time : 1 hours]
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16

This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.

3.

At the commencement of examination, the question booklet

will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :

4.

U
1.

U DU U S U UU U
-
3. U U U, -S U U U
-S
U
(i) -S U U
U U SUU-U S
SU U
(ii) U DU U U U -S DU
U U U U U U S
DU / U UU
U U S SU U
UUU S U U -S
U U
-S U
UQ
(iii) -S R U- U
U UU U- R -S U U

4. U U (A), (B), (C) (D)

U UU U

U A
B
C
D
(C) U
5. U U I U U- U
U U U
S U U U , U
6. U U
7. (Rough Work) S DU U U
8. U-S U
, U U U
U
9. U # U U-S U UU
U U # U U
U
10. / U ZU S U
11. U (UU) U U

12. U U

Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this
page.

2.

(i)

To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper

seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a
booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open
booklet.

(ii)

Tally the number of pages and number of questions in

the booklet with the information printed on the cover
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of
5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the question booklet
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.

(iii)

After this verification is over, the Serial No. of the booklet

should be entered in the Answer-sheets and the Serial
No. of Answer Sheet should be entered on this Booklet.

2.

Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
and (D). You have to darken the oval as indicated below on the
correct response against each item.
Example :

where (C) is the correct response.

5.

Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the Answer

Sheet given inside the Paper I booklet only. If you mark at
any place other than in the ovals in the Answer Sheet, it will
not be evaluated.

6.

Read instructions given inside carefully.

7.

Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.

8.

If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the test
booklet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries,
which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself
liable to disqualification.

9.

You have to return the test question booklet to the invigilators

at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry
it with you outside the Examination Hall.

10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.

11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is NO negative marking.

D5806

[Maximum Marks : 100

Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50

Instructions for the Candidates

1.

(In words)

P.T.O.

LAW
PAPERII
Note :

1.

2.

This paper contains fifty (50) multiple-choice questions, each question carrying
two (2) marks. Attempt all of them.

Which one of the following statements is correct ?

(A)

Directive Principles of State Policy are part and parcel of Fundamental Rights

(B)

Directive Principles of State Policy override Fundamental Rights

(C)

Fundamental Rights override Directive Principles of State Policy

(D)

Neither override each other

Point out the correct answer :

Right to education by the 86th Amendment of the Constitution has provided :

3.

4.

5.

(A)

education upto any level

(B)

free and compulsory education upto 14 years

(C)

education subject to financial capacity of the state

(D)

education without considering the financial capacity of the state

A member of a House is disqualified if :

(A)

he resigns from his party

(B)

he becomes a Speaker of the House

(C)

he is expelled from his party

(D)

all the above grounds are correct

A constitutional amendment requires :

(A)

a majority of the total membership of the House

(B)

not less than two third majority of members present and voting

(C)

a simple majority of the total members present and voting

(D)

both (A) and (B)

The harmony between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles was laid down by
the Supreme Court in :
(A)

The A.K. Gopalans case

(B)

The Golaknath case

(C)

The Minerva Mills case

(D)

The Champakam Dorairajan case

D5806


II
U

(50)

SD

(2)

1.

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

2.

m
(A) S
(B) 14
(C)
(D)

3.

S
(A) S
(B)
(C) c
(D)

4.

(A) S
(B) S S
(C) S S
(D) (A) (B)

5.

(A) ..
(B)
(C)
(D)

D5806

P.T.O.

6.

In the Islamic Academy of Education case guidelines were laid down for :
(A) Fixing fees by private educational institutions
(B) State Government Committee to conduct admission test
(C) Admissions by minority professional institutions to admit students of their own
community
(D) All the above

7.

To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity is a part
of :
(A) GATT
(B) ICCPR
(C) Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) Fundamental Rights

8.

Which one of the following Article is not suspended during enforcement of Article 356
of the Constitution ?
(A) Article 20
(B) Article 21
(C) Article 20 and 21
(D) Article 32

9.

Who of the following jurists said that law is a Command of Sovereign ?

(A) Salmond
(B) Julius Stone
(C) Hans Kelson
(D)

Austin

10.

Who of the following has made distinction between distributive justice and corrective
justice ?
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) John Stuart
(D) John Austin

11.

Who of the following jurists propounded volksgiest theory ?

(A) Salmond
(B) Savigny
(C) Ihering

(D)

Ehrlich

Hypothesis of Grundnorm was propounded by :

(A) Austin
(B) Diguit
(C)

Hart

(D)

Kelson

Adverse possession may lead to loss of :

(A) Possession
(B) Ownership

Power

(D)

Liberty

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

(C)

The purpose of punishment is :

(A) recreative
(C) reformative

(B)
(D)

refreshing
none of the above

Monism and dualism theories are :

(A) Complementary to each other
(C) Similar to each other

(B)
(D)

Different from each other

None of above

Law making treaties perform the same function in the international field as the state
does by :
(A) Custom
(B) Public opinion
(C) Legislation
(D) Delegated legislation

D5806

6.

S
(A) S
(B)
(C) S
(D)

7.

D
(A) ....
(B) .....
(C)
(D)

8.

356 ?
(A) 20
(B) 21
(D) 32
(C) 20 21

9.

?
(A)
(B) S
(C)

(D)

10.

?
(A)
(B)
(C) S
(D) S

11.

h ?
(A)
(B)
(C)

(D)

(A) S
(B)

(C)

(D)

(A)
(B) S

(C)

(D)

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

g
(A)
(C)

(B)

m h
(A)
(C)

(B)

(D)

(D)

(A) m
(B) m
(C) m
(D) m

D5806

P.T.O.

17.

Through recognition, a political community acquires :

(A) international personality
(B) corporate personality
(C) political entity
(D) political personality

18.

United Nations was established in the year :

(A) 1941
(B) 1945
(C)

19.

The Nauiila Incident relates to :

(A) Obstruction of ships
(C) Retorsion

(B)
(D)

1944

(D)

1946

Reprisals
Embargo

20.

Article 22 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights corresponds to which one of

the following Articles of the Constitution of India :
(A) Article 21
(B) Article 22
(C) Article 25
(D) Article 29 (1)

21.

The European Social Charter came into being in the year :

(A) 1962
(B) 1961
(C) 1963

(D)

1964

22.

Main reason to include Human Rights in the UDHR was :

(A) French Revolution
(B) English occupation of North America
(C) Moral principles
(D) Bitter experience of mankind during the first and second world wars

23.

In which of the following case, the Court held that Dower is a sale price of women.
(A) Humara Begum Case
(B) Subrunnissan Case
(C) Shah Bano Case
(D) Abdul Kadir Case

24.

In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that The three talaq would be
treated as a single talaq and not a valid talaq :
(A) Shamim Ara v. State of U.P., AIR 2002 SCW 4162
(B) Mohammad Ahmad Khan v. Shah Bano, AIR 1985 SC 365
(C) Bai Tahira v. Ali Hussain, AIR 1979 SC 362
(D) None of the above

25.

If a Husband compare his wife with his real sister, this form of divorce is called :
(A) Zihar
(B) Khula
(C) Illa
(D) Mubarrah

26.

A marriage under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 between persons within Sapinda
relationship is :
(A) Valid
(B) Voidable
(C) Void
(D) Irregular

D5806

17.

(A) c
(B)
(C) S
(D)

18.

C S
(A) 1941
(B)

19.

(A)
(C)

1945

(C)

(B)
(D)

1944

(D)

1946

()

20.

22

(A) 21
(B) 22
(C) 25
(D) 29 (1)

21.

(A) 1962
(B) 1961

(C)

1963

(D)

1964

22.

g
(A) R
(B)
(C) h
(D) m h

23.

S
(A)
(B) S
(C)
(D)

24.

(A) , AIR 2002 SCW 4162
(B) , AIR 1985 SC 365
(C) AIR 1979 SC 362
(D)

25.

,
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

26.

1955 S
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

D5806

P.T.O.

27.

Muta marriage is recognised by :

(A) Hanafi School
(C) Ithna Ashari School

(B)
(D)

Maliki School
Hanbali School

28.

Match List-I with List-II and indicate the correct answer using the codes given below :
List-I
List-II
(a) Ashok Hura v. Rupa Hura case
(i)
Restitution of Conjugal-Rights
(b) Bipin Chandra v. Prabhavati
(ii) Uniform Civil Code
(c) Sarla Mudugal v. Union of India
(iii) Dessertion
(d) T. Sareetha v. State of A.P.
(iv) Divorce by Mutual Consent
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i)
(ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(C) (ii) (iii) (i)
(iv)
(D) (iv) (iii) (i)
(ii)

29.

Arrange the sequence of the following concepts in which they appear in a contract,
using the code :
(i)
Communication of acceptance
(ii) Deceit
(iii) Invitation to offer
(iv) Damages
Codes :
(A) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
(B) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
(C) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
(D) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)

30.

Point out the correct explanation from the following Assertion and Reason :
Assertion (A) : Consideration must be market price of offer.
Reason (R) :
Offerer must get equitable price for his offer.
Codes :
(A) Assertion and Reason are wrong
(B) Assertion and Reason are right
(C) Assertion is right, but Reason is wrong
(D) Assertion is wrong, but Reason is right

31.

In the Nash v. Inman case, the issue was :

(A) minors liability
(B)
(C) fraud
(D)

32.

frustration
misrepresentation

Contractual remedies are provided by the Indian Contract Act, Section :

(A) 56
(B) 65
(C) 73
(D) 37

D5806

27.

28.

m ?
(A) S
(C) S

(D)

S
S

- I
(a) M
(i)
(b)
(ii)
(c)
(iii)
(d) .
(iv)

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

29.

(B)

(a)
(i)
(iv)
(ii)
(iv)

(b)
(ii)
(iii)
(iii)
(iii)

(c)
(iii)
(ii)
(i)
(i)

S
- II
S

(d)
(iv)
(i)
(iv)
(ii)

S R
?
(i)
S
(ii)
(iii) S
(iv)

(A)
(C)

(iii), (ii), (i), (iv)

(iii), (i), (ii), (iv)

(B)
(D)

(iii), (iv), (ii), (i)

(iii), (ii), (i), (iv)

30.

SC
A :
S
R :
S S

(A)
(B)
(C) ,
(D) ,

31.

(A) S
(B)

32.

(C)

(D)

(A)

D5806

56

(B)

65

(C)
9

73

(D)

37
P.T.O.

33.

Some, all or none of the following statements are right. Answer using the code :
(i)

A minors liability for necessaries depends on his consent to supply the necessaries
to him.

(ii)

An infant is capable of making a contract of purchase of necessaries.

(iii)

A minor has to pay agreed price for necessaries.

(iv)

In Peter v. Fleming, (1840) 6 M and W 92, the court took judicial notice that it
was Prima Facie unreasonable that an undergraduate at a college should have a
watch and a watch chain.

Code :

34.

(A)

All are right

(B)

All are wrong

(C)

Only (i), (ii), (iii) are right

(D)

Only (ii) is right

Some, all or none of the following statements are right. Answer using the code.
(i)

A help given or promised to a dancing girl is not tainted with immorality.

(ii)

Public policy is an unruly ass.

(iii)

A wife who is entitled to maintenance can give up her right in consideration of a

lump sum payment, but the surrender of the right to claim revision of the amount
in the context of rising prices would not be opposed to public policy.

(iv)

A contract for sale of goods whose tenor shows that the price was intended to be
paid out of black money is opposed to public policy.

Code :

35.

(A)

All are right

(B)

All are wrong

(C)

Only (i), (ii), (iv) are right

(D)

Only (iv) is right

Which of the following is the correct statement ?

Vicarious liability means :

36.

37.

(A)

Liability without fault

(B)

Servants liability for the wrong of the master

(C)

Masters liability for the wrong of the servant

(D)

Damage which could not be prevented

The tort involved in Hurst v. Picture Theatre Ltd. case is :

(A)

Defamation

(B)

Nuisance

(C)

Negligence

(D)

Trespass

Res Ipsa loquitur means :

(A)

as you sow, you reap

(B)

guilty shall be punished

(C)

the thing speaks for itself

(D)

the guilty speaks lies

D5806

10

33.

, ,
(i)
S

(ii)
(iii) S
(iv) (1840) 6 M & W 92, S
S c

(A)
(B)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii)
(D) (ii)

34.

, ,
(i)

(ii)
(iii)
, h
Lh
(iv) R , ,
Lh

(A)
(B)
(C) (i), (ii), (iv)
(D) (iv)

35.

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

36.

S
(A)
(B)
(C)

37.

(A)
(C) S

D5806

(B)
(D)

(D)

11

P.T.O.

38.

39.

Damnum Sine injuria means :

(A)

an objective right

(B)

suffering of loss without violation of legal right

(C)

violation of legal right and suffering of loss

(D)

violation of legal right

This item consists of two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as
Reason (R). Examine these statements and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason
(R) are true or false. Select your answer using the code :
Assertion (A) : Law cannot take account of everything that follows a wrongful act.
Reason (R) :

40.

41.

42.

43.

Causes of causes or consequences of consequences are outside the

scope of liability.

(A)

Both (A) and (R) are true

(B)

Both (A) and (R) are false

(C)

(A) is true, but (R) is false

(D)

(A) is false, but (R) is true

Mark the correct answer in the following statements :

(A)

Dangerous goods arise on proof of negligence

(B)

Strict liability arises only when the thing causing harm escapes

(C)

Liability for dangerous goods in India is absolute

(D)

Liability for dangerous goods in India is strict

Defence of insanity under Section 84 of the Indian Penal Code requires :

(A)

unsoundness of mind of any kind

(B)

legal insanity

(C)

medical insanity

(D)

moral insanity

In which set of sections of the Indian Penal Code even death can be caused in exercise
of right to private defence of person and property.
(A)

Sections 100 and 101

(B)

Sections 100 and 102

(C)

Sections 100 and 103

(D)

Sections 102 and 105

Point out the correct answer :

A instigates B to instigate C to kill D. Inpursuance of that instigation B writes a
letter to C to kill D. C does not read the letter. Therefore :
(A)

A and B are liable for abetment of murder.

(B)

A is liable for abetment of murder but B is not liable for abetment of murder.

(C)

A is liable for abetment of murder but B is liable for attempt to abetment of

murder.

(D)

None of the above is correct

D5806

12

38.

(A) SD
(B)
(C)
(D)

39.

A R
A R
A :

R :
(A) A R
(B) A R
(C) A , R
(D) A , R

40.

(A) S h
(B) S
(C)
(D)

41.

84
(A) Sc
(B)
(C)
(D)

42.

(A) 100 101
(B) 100 102
(C) 100 103
(D) 102 105

43.

A, B C D B, C D
C ,
(A) A B
(B) A B
(C) A B
(D)

D5806

13

P.T.O.

44.

Point out the correct statement.

Crime is :
(A) an illegal act
(C) an illegal or immoral act

(B)
(D)

an immoral act
an illegal and immoral act

45.

Point out the correct statement :

A and B went to cause murder of C. A was with a spear and B was with a stick. B
caught C and beat C with stick. A did nothing while B was beating. When C fell down
and became unconscious A took him to a nearby hospital for care where he died.
(A) A and B both are liable under Sections 302 and 34 of Indian Penal Code.
(B) A is liable under Section 302 of the Indian Penal Code but B is liable for nothing.
(C) B is liable for murder and A is liable for abetment of murder.
(D) None of the above

46.

In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that the members of nonrecognised union cannot be represented in collective bargaining proceedings or individual
grievances of its members.
(A) Chairman, Bank of India v. All Orissa State Bank Officers Association (2003)
3 ILJ 751 (S.C.)
(B) W. Willard Wirtz v. Hotel and Club Employees Union, AIR 1969 SC 25
(C) Indian Oxygen Ltd. v. Their Workmen, AIR 1969 SC 306
(D) None of the above

47.

The Supreme Court has awarded twenty lacs rupees as a compensation in the case of
Bandh calls given by political party/parties. Select the correct one from among the
following :
(A) Communist Party of India
(B) BJP
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Congress Party

48.

The Indian Trade Union laws is a replica of the Model prevailing in :

(A) England
(B) France
(C) America
(D)

49.

Lay-off means :
(A) removing a workman
(B) retirement of a workman
(C) dismissing a workman
(D) inability of employer to provide work to a workman

50.

Retrenchment means :
(A) Voluntary retirement
(C) Discharge of surplus labour

(B)
(D)
-oOo-

D5806

14

Dismissal
None of the above

Australia

44.

(A)
(C)

(B)
(D)

45.

A B, C A B B C
B A C
A S
(A) A B 302 34
(B) A 302 B
(C) B A
(D)

46.

S S S

(A) , S , (2003) 3 ...
751 (..)
(B) , ... 1969 .. 25.
(C) , ... 1969 .. 306.
(D)

47.

/ L


(A) S
(B) ...
(C) (A) (B)
(D)

48.

, M
(A)
(B)
(C)

49.

50.

(A)
(C) S

(B)

(A) S
(C)

(B)

(D)

(D)

(D)

-oOoD5806

15

P.T.O.

Space For Rough Work

D5806

16