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CCNA 3 Chapter 1 v5.03 Exam Answers 2015-2016 (100%)
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1.

Which two features of enterprise class

equipment assists an enterprise network in
maintaining 99.999 percent up-time? (Choose
two.)

failover capabilities
+

collapsed core

redundant power supplies

+

failure domains

services module

Refer to the exhibit. Which devices exist in

the failure domain when switch S3 loses power?

CCNA3 Chapter 1 v5.03 001

S4 and PC_2

PC_3 and AP_2

+

AP_2 and AP_1

PC_3 and PC_2

S1 and S4

How can an enterprise network be

designed to optimize bandwidth?
o

by installing devices with failover capabilities

by limiting the size of failure domains

by deploying a collapsed core model

by organizing the network to control traffic patterns

+

In the Cisco Enterprise Architecture, which

two functional parts of the network are combined
to form a collapsed core design? (Choose two.)

core layer
+

access layer

enterprise edge

provider edge

distribution layer
+

What network design would contain the

scope of disruptions on a network should a failure
occur?
the installation of only enterprise class equipment throughout the

o
network

the configuration of all access layer devices to share a single

o
gateway

the reduction in the number of redundant devices and connections in

the network core

the deployment of distribution layer switches in pairs and the division

of access layer switch connections between them
+

Which design feature will limit the size of a

failure domain in an enterprise network?
o

the use of a collapsed core design

the use of the building switch block approach

+

the installation of redundant power supplies

the purchase of enterprise equipment that is designed for large traffic

volume

A network administrator is planning

redundant devices and cabling in a switched
network to support high availability. Which benefit
will implementing the Spanning Tree Protocol
provide to this design?

Multiple physical interfaces can be combined into a single

EtherChannel interface.

Redundant paths can be available without causing logical Layer 2

loops.
+

Network access can be expanded to support both wired and wireless

devices.
Faster convergence is available for advanced routing protocols.

What are two benefits of extending access

layer connectivity to users through a wireless
medium? (Choose two.)
o

decreased number of critical points of failure

reduced costs
+

increased bandwidth availability

increased network management options

As the network administrator you have

been asked to implement EtherChannel on the
corporate network. What does this configuration
consist of?
o
o
o
o

increased flexibility

providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic

grouping multiple physical port to increase bandwidth between two
switches+
grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address
providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of
device failure

Which statement describes a characteristic

of Cisco Meraki switches?
o

They promote infrastructure scalability, operational continuity, and

transport flexibility.

They are cloud-managed access switches that enable virtual

stacking of switches.
+

They are campus LAN switches that perform the same functions as
Cisco 2960 switches.

They are service provider switches that aggregate traffic at the edge
of the network.

In which situation would a network

administrator install a Cisco Nexus Series or
Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series switch to promote
infrastructure scalability?
o
o
o

to enable virtual stacking of switches to provide cloud-managed

access
on a service provider network to promote integrated security, and
simplified management
on a data center network to provide expansion and transport flexibility
+
on a campus LAN network as access layer switches

Which statement describes a characteristic

of Cisco Catalyst 2960 switches?
o

They do not support an active switched virtual interface (SVI) with

IOS versions prior to 15.x.

They are best used as distribution layer switches.

They are modular switches.

New Cisco Catalyst 2960-C switches support PoE pass-through.

+

What is the function of ASICs in a

multilayer switch?
o

They provide power to devices such as IP phones and wireless

access points through Ethernet ports.

They streamline forwarding of IP packets in a multilayer switch by

bypassing the CPU.
+

They prevent Layer 2 loops by disabling redundant links between

switches.

They aggregate multiple physical switch ports into a single logical

port.

What is the function of PoE pass-through?

allows a switch to disable redundant Layer 2 paths in the topology to

prevent Layer 2 loops

allows switches, phones, and wireless access points to receive power

over existing Ethernet cables from an upstream switch
+

allows a multilayer switch to forward IP packets at a rate close to that

of Layer 2 switching by bypassing the CPU

allows multiple physical switch ports to be aggregated together and

act as a single logical link to increase bandwidth on trunk links

What term is used to express the thickness

or height of a switch?
o

rack unit
+

port density

domain size

module size

A network engineer is reviewing a network

design that uses a fixed configuration enterprise
router that supports both LAN and WAN
connections. However, the engineer realizes that
the router does not have enough interfaces to
support growth and network expansion. Which
type of device should be used as a replacement?

a Layer 3 switch

a modular router

a PoE device

another fixed configuration router

What are two functions of a router?

(Choose two.)
o

It connects multiple IP networks.

+

It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.

It determines the best path to send packets.

+

It manages the VLAN database.

It increases the size of the broadcast domain.

Which two requirements must always be

met to use in-band management to configure a
network device? (Choose two.)
o

a direct connection to the console port

a direct connection to the auxiliary port

a terminal emulation client

at least one network interface that is connected and operational

+
Telnet, SSH, or HTTP access to the device

o
+

Immediately after a router completes its

boot sequence, the network administrator wants
to check the routers configuration. From privileged
EXEC mode, which of the following commands
can the administrator use for this purpose?
(Choose two.)

show flash

show NVRAM

show startup-config
+
show running-config

o
+

show version

What are two ways to access a Cisco

switch for out-of-band management? (Choose
two.)
o

a connection that uses HTTP

a connection that uses Telnet

a connection that uses the console port

+

a connection that uses SSH

a connection that uses the AUX port

+

Match the purpose to the related configuration

item. (Not all options are used.)
o

Question

CCNA3 Chapter 1 v5.03 Question 001

o

Answer

CCNA3 Chapter 1 v5.03 Answer 001

Feb 6, 2016CCNA v5 Final Answers

CCNA 3 Scaling Networks Chapter 1 v5 Exam

Answers 2016

1. What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity to users through a
wireless medium? (Choose two.)
increased network management options
reduced costs

increased flexibility

increased bandwidth availability

decreased number of critical points of failure
2. A network engineer is reviewing a network design that uses a fixed configuration
enterprise router that supports both LAN and WAN connections. However, the
engineer realizes that the router does not have enough interfaces to support growth
and network expansion. Which type of device should be used as a replacement?
a PoE device

another fixed configuration router

a modular router

a Layer 3 switch
3. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)
It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
It increases the size of the broadcast domain.
It manages the VLAN database.
It determines the best path to send packets.
It connects multiple IP networks.

*
*

4. Which design feature will limit the size of a failure domain in an enterprise
network?
the purchase of enterprise equipment that is designed for large traffic volume
the installation of redundant power supplies
the use of the building switch block approach

the use of a collapsed core design

5. How can an enterprise network be designed to optimize bandwidth?
by installing devices with failover capabilities
by deploying a collapsed core model
by organizing the network to control traffic patterns

by limiting the size of failure domains

6. As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel
on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?
grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches+

providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic

grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address
providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure
7. Which technology is required when switched networks are designed to include
redundant links?
Spanning Tree Protocol

virtual LANs
link aggregation
virtual private networks
8. Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Catalyst 2960 switches?
New Cisco Catalyst 2960-C switches support PoE pass-through.

They are best used as distribution layer switches.

They do not support an active switched virtual interface (SVI) with IOS versions
prior to 15.x.
They are modular switches.
9.

Refer to the exhibit. Which devices exist in the failure domain when switch S3 loses
power?
PC_3 and PC_2
AP_2 and AP_1
S4 and PC_2
PC_3 and AP_2

S1 and S4
10. Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network
administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC
mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose?
(Choose two.)
show flash
show startup-config
show NVRAM
show version

show running-config

11. A network administrator is planning redundant devices and cabling in a

switched network to support high availability. Which benefit will implementing the
Spanning Tree Protocol provide to this design?
Redundant paths can be available without causing logical Layer 2 loops.

Multiple physical interfaces can be combined into a single EtherChannel interface.

Faster convergence is available for advanced routing protocols.
Network access can be expanded to support both wired and wireless devices.
12. Which two requirements must always be met to use in-band management to
configure a network device? (Choose two.)
at least one network interface that is connected and operational

a terminal emulation client

a direct connection to the console port
a direct connection to the auxiliary port
Telnet, SSH, or HTTP access to the device

13. Match the purpose to the related configuration item. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:

connectivity -> assignment of IP address to interface

not scored
identification -> hostname
access remote networks -> routing protocols
security -> passwords
14. In which situation would a network administrator install a Cisco Nexus Series
or Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series switch to promote infrastructure scalability?
on a service provider network to promote integrated security, and simplified
management
on a data center network to provide expansion and transport flexibility

to enable virtual stacking of switches to provide cloud-managed access

on a campus LAN network as access layer switches
15. Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Meraki switches?
They are service provider switches that aggregate traffic at the edge of the network.
They are cloud-managed access switches that enable virtual stacking of switches.
*
They are campus LAN switches that perform the same functions as Cisco 2960
switches.
They promote infrastructure scalability, operational continuity, and transport
flexibility.
16. Why would a network administrator issue the show cdp neigbors command on
a router?
to display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors
to display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
*
to display routing table and other information about directly connected Cisco
devices

to display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
17. What is a characteristic of in-band device management?
It is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device over a
network connection.
*
It uses a direct connection to a console or AUX port.
It is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is unavailable.
It uses a terminal emulation client.
18. Which two features of enterprise class equipment assists an enterprise network
in maintaining 99.999 percent up-time? (Choose two.)
failure domains
services module
collapsed core
redundant power supplies

failover capabilities

NEW QUESTIONS
19. What term is used to express the thickness or height of a switch?
domain size
rack unit
port density
module size
20. What is the function of ASICs in a multilayer switch?
They streamline forwarding of IP packets in a multilayer switch by bypassing the
CPU.
*
They aggregate multiple physical switch ports into a single logical port.
They prevent Layer 2 loops by disabling redundant links between switches.
They provide power to devices such as IP phones and wireless access points
through Ethernet ports.

21. What network design would contain the scope of disruptions on a network
should a failure occur?
the configuration of all access layer devices to share a single gateway
the installation of only enterprise class equipment throughout the network
the deployment of distribution layer switches in pairs and the division of access
layer switch connections between them
*
the reduction in the number of redundant devices and connections in the network
core
22. In the Cisco Enterprise Architecture, which two functional parts of the network
are combined to form a collapsed core design? (Choose two.)
distribution layer
enterprise edge
provider edge
core layer
access layer

23. What is the function of PoE pass-through?

allows switches, phones, and wireless access points to receive power over existing
Ethernet cables from an upstream switch
*
allows multiple physical switch ports to be aggregated together and act as a single
logical link to increase bandwidth on trunk links
allows a switch to disable redundant Layer 2 paths in the topology to prevent Layer
2 loops
allows a multilayer switch to forward IP packets at a rate close to that of Layer 2
switching by bypassing the CPU
24. What are two ways to access a Cisco switch for out-of-band management?
(Choose two.)
a connection that uses the AUX port

a connection that uses HTTP

a connection that uses the console port
a connection that uses Telnet

a connection that uses SSH

CAPITULO 2

1
Which protocol provides up to 16 instances of RSTP, combines many VLANs with
the same physical and logical topology into a common RSTP instance, and
provides support for PortFast, BPDU guard, BPDU filter, root guard, and loop
guard?
STP
Rapid PVST+
PVST+
MST*
2
Which two types of spanning tree protocols can cause suboptimal traffic flows
because they assume only one spanning-tree instance for the entire bridged
network? (Choose two.)
STP*
RSTP*
MSTP
Rapid PVST+
PVST+
3

Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol information is being displayed in the output?
HSRP
VRRP
GLBP*
FHRP
4
A network administrator is preparing the implementation of Rapid PVST+ on a
production network. How are the Rapid PVST+ link types determined on the switch
interfaces?
Link types can only be configured on access ports configured with a single VLAN.
Link types must be configured with specific port configuration commands.
Link types are determined automatically.*
Link types can only be determined if PortFast has been configured.
5
Which RSTP ports are connected to end devices?
root ports
designated ports
trunk ports
edge ports*

6
If no bridge priority is configured in PVST, which criteria is considered when
electing the root bridge?
highest IP address
lowest MAC address*
lowest IP address
highest MAC address
7
Which port state will switch ports immediately transition to when configured for
PortFast?
learning
blocking
forwarding*
listening
8
To obtain an overview of the spanning tree status of a switched network, a network
engineer issues the show spanning-tree command on a switch. Which two items of
information will this command display? (Choose two.)
The role of the ports in all VLANs.*
The IP address of the management VLAN interface.
The number of broadcasts received on each root port.
The status of native VLAN ports.
The root bridge BID.*
9

Launch PT Hide and Save PT

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer
the question.
Which switch is the root bridge?
Switch_1
Switch_2
Switch_4*
Switch_3
10
Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
The spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst global configuration command is used to
enable Rapid PVST+.

11
Which STP priority configuration would ensure that a switch would always be the
root switch?
spanning-tree vlan 10 root primary
spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 4096
spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0*
spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 61440
12
Which nonproprietary protocol provides router redundancy for a group of routers
which support IPv4 LANs?
VRRPv2*
SLB
GLBP
HSRP
13
Fill in the blank.
In FHRP operation, two or more routers are represented as a single virtual
router.
14
Which three components are combined to form a bridge ID?
extended system ID*
MAC address*
port ID
IP address
cost
bridge priority*
15
What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 loop?
A switch is continually forwarding the same unicast frame.
Broadcast frames are forwarded back to the sending switch.*
Routers continually forward packets to other routers.

The Time-to-Live attribute of a frame is set to infinity.

16
Which two network design features require Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to ensure
correct network operation? (Choose two.)
redundant links between Layer 2 switches*
removing single points of failure with multiple Layer 2 switches*
link-state dynamic routing that provides redundant routes
static default routes
implementing VLANs to contain broadcasts
17
What additional information is contained in the 12-bit extended system ID of a
BPDU?
MAC address
VLAN ID*
port ID
IP address
18
What is an advantage of PVST+?
PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through load sharing.*
PVST+ requires fewer CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
PVST+ reduces bandwidth consumption compared to traditional implementations of
STP that use CST.
PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through autoselection of the root
bridge.
19
What is the purpose of HSRP?
It prevents malicious hosts from connecting to trunk ports.
It enables an access port to immediately transition to the forwarding state.
It prevents a rogue switch from becoming the STP root.
It provides a continuous network connection when a router fails.*

20
In which two port states does a switch learn MAC addresses and process BPDUs
in a PVST network? (Choose two.)
listening
learning*
forwarding*
disabled
blocking
21

Place the options in the following order:

Step 4
not scored
Step 3
Step 1
Step 2
22

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is troubleshooting host connectivity on a

LAN that uses a first hop redundancy protocol. Which IPv4 gateway address should
be configured on the host?
192.168.2.0
192.168.2.1
192.168.2.2
192.168.2.100*
23
What is the outcome of a Layer 2 broadcast storm?
CSMA/CD will cause each host to continue transmitting frames.
ARP broadcast requests are returned to the transmitting host.
Routers will take over the forwarding of frames as switches become congested.
New traffic is discarded by the switch because it is unable to be processed.*

1
Which protocol provides up to 16 instances of RSTP, combines many VLANs with
the same physical and logical topology into a common RSTP instance, and
provides support for PortFast, BPDU guard, BPDU filter, root guard, and loop
guard?
STP
Rapid PVST+
PVST+
MST
*
2
Which two types of spanning tree protocols can cause suboptimal traffic flows
because they assume only one spanning-tree instance for the entire bridged
network? (Choose two.)
STP
*
RSTP
*
MSTP
Rapid PVST+
PVST+
3

Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol information is being displayed in the output?
HSRP
VRRP

GLBP
FHRP

4
A network administrator is preparing the implementation of Rapid PVST+ on a
production network. How are the Rapid PVST+ link types determined on the switch
interfaces?
Link types can only be configured on access ports configured with a single VLAN.
Link types must be configured with specific port configuration commands.
Link types are determined automatically.
Link types can only be determined if PortFast has been configured.

5
Which RSTP ports are connected to end devices?
root ports
designated ports
trunk ports
edge ports
6
If no bridge priority is configured in PVST, which criteria is considered when
electing the root bridge?
highest IP address
lowest MAC address
lowest IP address

highest MAC address

7
Which port state will switch ports immediately transition to when configured for
PortFast?
learning
blocking
forwarding
listening

8
To obtain an overview of the spanning tree status of a switched network, a network
engineer issues the show spanning-tree command on a switch. Which two items of
information will this command display? (Choose two.)
The role of the ports in all VLANs.
*

The IP address of the management VLAN interface.

The number of broadcasts received on each root port.
The status of native VLAN ports.
The root bridge BID.
9

Launch PT Hide and Save PT

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer
the question.
Which switch is the root bridge?
Switch_1
Switch_2
Switch_4
Switch_3

10
Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
The spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst global configuration command is used to
enable Rapid PVST+.

11
Which STP priority configuration would ensure that a switch would always be the
root switch?
spanning-tree vlan 10 root primary
spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 4096
spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0
spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 61440

12
Which nonproprietary protocol provides router redundancy for a group of routers
which support IPv4 LANs?
VRRPv2
*
SLB
GLBP
HSRP
13
Fill in the blank.
In FHRP operation, two or more routers are represented as a single virtual
router.
14
Which three components are combined to form a bridge ID?
extended system ID
*
MAC address
*
port ID
IP address
cost
bridge priority
15
What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 loop?
A switch is continually forwarding the same unicast frame.
Broadcast frames are forwarded back to the sending switch.
Routers continually forward packets to other routers.

The Time-to-Live attribute of a frame is set to infinity.

16
Which two network design features require Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to ensure
correct network operation? (Choose two.)

redundant links between Layer 2 switches

removing single points of failure with multiple Layer 2 switches
link-state dynamic routing that provides redundant routes

*
*

static default routes

implementing VLANs to contain broadcasts
17
What additional information is contained in the 12-bit extended system ID of a
BPDU?
MAC address
VLAN ID
port ID

IP address
18
What is an advantage of PVST+?
PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through load sharing.
PVST+ requires fewer CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.

PVST+ reduces bandwidth consumption compared to traditional implementations of

STP that use CST.
PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through autoselection of the root
bridge.
19
What is the purpose of HSRP?
It prevents malicious hosts from connecting to trunk ports.
It enables an access port to immediately transition to the forwarding state.
It prevents a rogue switch from becoming the STP root.
It provides a continuous network connection when a router fails
.*
20
In which two port states does a switch learn MAC addresses and process BPDUs
in a PVST network? (Choose two.)
listening
learning
forwarding
disabled
blocking

*
*

21

Place the options in the following order:

Step 4
not scored
Step 3
Step 1
Step 2
22

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is troubleshooting host connectivity on a

LAN that uses a first hop redundancy protocol. Which IPv4 gateway address should
be configured on the host?
192.168.2.0
192.168.2.1
192.168.2.2

192.168.2.100
23
What is the outcome of a Layer 2 broadcast storm?
CSMA/CD will cause each host to continue transmitting frames.

ARP broadcast requests are returned to the transmitting host.

Routers will take over the forwarding of frames as switches become congested.
New traffic is discarded by the switch because it is unable to be processed. *
24. Which Cisco switch feature ensures that configured switch edge ports do not
cause Layer 2 loops if a port is mistakenly connected to another switch?
PortFast
extended system ID
BPDU guard
PVST+

25. What value determines the root bridge when all switches connected by trunk
links have default STP configurations?
MAC address
*
VLAN ID
extended system ID
bridge priority
26. Which STP port role is adopted by a switch port if there is no other port with a
lower cost to the root bridge?
root port
*
disabled port
alternate
designated port
27. What could be the effect of duplicate unicast frames arriving at a destination
device due to multiple active alternative physical paths?
The number of collision domains increases.
Frame collisions increase.
The number of broadcast domains increases.
Application protocols malfunction.

28. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured routers R1 and R2 as

part of HSRP group 1. After the routers have been reloaded, a user on Host1
complained of lack of connectivity to the Internet The network administrator issued
the show standby brief command on both routers to verify the HSRP operations. In
addition, the administrator observed the ARP table on Host1. Which entry should
be seen in the ARP table on Host1 in order to gain connectivity to the Internet?
the virtual IP address of the HSRP group 1 and the MAC address of R1
the IP address and the MAC address of R1
the virtual IP address of the HSRP group 1 and the MAC address of R2
the virtual IP address and the virtual MAC address for the HSRP group 1

29. Refer to the exhibit. Which trunk link will not forward any traffic after the root
bridge election process is complete?
Trunk1
Trunk2
*
Trunk3
Trunk4
30. Fill in the blank. Use a number.
The default hello timer value for STP BPDU frames is ___2__ seconds.
31. Fill in the blank. Do not abbreviate.
To enable Rapid PVST+ on a Cisco switch, the spanning-tree mode __rapid-pvst__
global configuration mode command is required
32. Which is the default STP operation mode on Cisco Catalyst switches?
PVST+
*
MSTP
MST
RSTP
Rapid PVST+
33. Which two concepts relate to a switch port that is intended to have only end
devices attached and intended never to be used to connect to another switch?
(Choose two.)
PortFast
*
extended system ID
bridge ID
edge port
PVST+

34. Which two concepts relate to a switch port that is intended to have only end
devices and never to be used to connect to another switch? (choose two)
bridge ID
extended system ID
edge port
*
PortFast
*
PVST+
35. Place the options in the following order:
Cisco implementation of IEEE 802.1D ======> PVST+
Fast converging enhancement of IEEE 802.1D ======> RSTP
IEEE standard that reduces the number of STP instances ======+> MSTP
not scored =================> MST
Proprietary per VLAN implementation of IEEE 802.1w =====> Rapid PVST+

Capitulo 3

1
When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel, which mode will
configure LACP so that it initiates the EtherChannel negotiation?
desirable
auto
active
passive

Place the options in the following order:

This command shows information about the status of the port involved in the
Etherchannel.
not scored
This command shows information about the reliability of the port-channel.
This command is used to check what port channels are configured on a switch.
This command shows the list of ports involved in the port channel and the time
since the ports were bundled.
3
What is an advantage of using LACP?
decreases the chance of a spanning-tree loop
provides a simulated environment for testing link aggregation
allows automatic formation of EtherChannel links
*
decreases the amount of configuration that is needed on a switch for EtherChannel
increases redundancy to Layer 3 devices
4
Which command will initiate EtherChannel interface configuration mode?
interface port-channel interface-identifier
interface interface-identifier
interface range interface-identifier
channel-group group-identifier
5

Launch PT Hide and Save PT

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer
the question.
What are two reasons why the ping messages that are issued from Laptop0
towards Laptop1 are failing? (Choose two.)
The wrong cable types are connecting the two switches.
The channel group mode is not set correctly on the switches.
The interface VLAN 1 is shut down on both switches.
The channel group should be configured as a trunk on each switch.
*
The two interfaces on each of the switches belong to different VLANs.
*
6
Which three options must match in order to establish an EtherChannel between two
directly connected switches? (Choose three.)
speed of the interfaces that are used for EtherChannel
*
port numbers that are used for the EtherChannel
VLAN memberships of the interfaces that are used for EtherChannel
duplex settings of the interfaces that are used for EtherChannel

*
*

port security settings on the interfaces that used for EtherChannel

domain names on the switches
7

Refer to the exhibit. Which switching technology would allow each access layer
switch link to be aggregated to provide more bandwidth between each Layer 2
switch and the Layer 3 switch?
trunking
EtherChannel
HSRP

PortFast
8
Which statement is true regarding the use of PAgP to create EtherChannels?
It requires more physical links than LACP does.
It mandates that an even number of ports (2, 4, 6, etc.) be used for aggregation.
It is Cisco proprietary.
It increases the number of ports that are participating in spanning tree.

It requires full duplex.

9
Which PAgP mode combination will establish an EtherChannel?
switch 1 set to desirable; switch 2 set to desirable.
switch 1 set to on; switch 2 set to desirable.
switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to auto.
switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to on.

10
What is a best practice to use before beginning an EtherChannel implementation?
Shut down each of the affected interfaces.
Assign affected interfaces to VLAN 1.

Assign affected interfaces to the management VLAN.

Enable each of the affected interfaces.
Assign affected interfaces to an unused VLAN.
11
Which two protocols are link aggregation protocols? (Choose two.)
STP
802.3ad
EtherChannel

RSTP
PAgP
12

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided that an EtherChannel

between ports 0/1 and 0/2 on switches S1 and S2 would help performance. After
making the configuration, the administrator notices no performance gain. Based on
the output that is shown, what two possible assumptions could a network
administrator make? (Choose two.)
The EtherChannel bundle is working.

One of the ports on S2 was not configured correctly.

*
Switch S2 must be configured so that the maximum number of port channels is
increased.
LACP and PAgP were both used to form the EtherChannel.
Switch S2 did not use a compatible EtherChannel mode.
The EtherChannel bundle is not working.
13
Which statement describes an EtherChannel implementation?
EtherChannel can connect up to a maximum of eight separate links.

EtherChannel operates only at Layer 2.

PAgP cannot be used in conjunction with EtherChannel.
A trunked port can be part of an EtherChannel bundle.
*
14
When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel by the use of PAgP,
which mode will form the bundled channel only if the port receives PAgP packets
from another device?
active
desirable
auto
passive
15
As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on
the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?
grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches
*
grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address
providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure
providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic
16

Refer to the exhibit. The administrator tried to create an EtherChannel between S1

and the other two switches via the commands that are shown, but was
unsuccessful. What is the problem?
Traffic cannot be sent to two different switches through the same EtherChannel
link.
*
Traffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is implemented on
Gigabit Ethernet interfaces.
Traffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is implemented on
Layer 3 switches.
Traffic cannot be sent to two different switches, but only to two different devices like
an EtherChannel-enabled server and a switch.
17
An EtherChannel link using LACP was formed between two switches, S1 and S2.
While verifying the configuration, which mode combination could be utilized on both
switches?
S1-on and S2-active
S1-passive and S2-active
S1-passive and S2-passive

S1-on and S2-passive

18
What is the most cost-effective method of solving interface congestion that is
caused by a high level of traffic between two switches?
aggregate ports by using EtherChannel
insert a router between the switches
increase uplink speed
add more VLANs to reduce broadcast domains

19

Refer to the exhibit. An EtherChannel was configured between switches S1 and S2,
but the interfaces do not form an EtherChannel. What is the problem?
The interface port-channel number has to be different on each switch.
The switch ports were not configured with speed and duplex mode.
The EtherChannel was not configured with the same allowed range of VLANs on
each interface.
*
The switch ports have to be configured as access ports with each port having a
VLAN assigned.
20
Which two load balancing methods can be implemented with EtherChannel
technology? (Choose two.)
destination IP to source IP
destination MAC to destination IP
source IP to destination IP
source MAC to destination MAC
destination IP to destination MAC

*
*

destination MAC to source MAC

21. The trunk link between two 2960 switches has reached its capacity. How can
this be addressed in the most economical way?
Decrease the size of the inter-switch collision domain by configuring additional
VLANs.
Combine physical ports into a high-speed logical link by configuring EtherChannel+
Create additional broadcast domains by inserting a router between the switches.
Increase the speed of the ports.

22. A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel link between switches

SW1 and SW2 by using the command SW1(config-if-range)# channel-group 1
mode passive. Which command must be used on SW2 to enable this
EtherChannel?
SW2(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode passive
SW2(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
SW2(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode active
SW2(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode auto

23. Which statement describes a characteristic of EtherChannel?

It consists of multiple parallel links between a switch and a router.
It can combine up to a maximum of 4 physical links.
It is made by combining multiple physical links that are seen as one link between
two switches.
*
It can bundle mixed types of 100 Mb/s and 1Gb/s Ethernet links.
24.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issued the show etherchannel

summary command on the switch S1. What conclusion can be drawn?
The etherchannel is not funtional.
The etherchannel is suspended.
The port aggregation protocol PAgP is misconfigured.
FastEthernet ports FA0/1, FA0/2, and FA0/3 do not join the EtherChannel.

25. What are two advantages of using LACP? (Choose two.)

provides a simulated environment for testing link aggregation
allows use of multivendor devices
*
decreases the amount of configuration that is needed on a switch for EtherChannel
increases redundancy to Layer 3 devices

eliminates the need for the spanning-tree protocol

allows automatic formation of EtherChannel links

26. Which three settings must match in order for switch ports to form an
EtherChannel? (Choose three.)
Port security settings on the connected physical interfaces must be configured to
the same violation mode.
The SNMP community strings must be configured the same.
Non-trunk ports must belong to the same VLAN
*
The duplex settings of the switch ports on both sides of the physical link must
match.
+
The interfaces must be configured to the same speed.
*
The switch port numbers that will be combined to form the EtherChannel must
match.